Data Communications Mod 1-3 (CCNA) 6.

Which statement describes the use of

powerline networking technology?
1. During a routine inspection, a technician a. New “smart” electrical cabling is used to
discovered that software that was installed extend an existing home LAN.
on a computer was secretly collecting data b. A home LAN is installed without the use
about websites that were visited by users of of physical cabling.
the computer. Which type of threat is
c. A device connects to an existing home
affecting this computer?
LAN using an adapter and an existing
a. DoS attack
electrical outlet.
b. identity theft
d. Wireless access points use powerline
c. spyware
adapters to distribute data through the
d. zero-day attack
home LAN.
2. Which term refers to a network that provides
7. A networking technician is working on the
secure access to the corporate offices by
wireless network at a medical clinic. The
suppliers, customers and collaborators?
a. Internet technician accidentally sets up the wireless
b. intranet network so that patients can see the
c. extranet medical records data of other patients.
d. extended net Which of the four network characteristics
has been violated in this situation?
3. A large corporation has modified its network a. fault tolerance
to allow users to access network resources b. scalability
from their personal laptops and smart c. security
phones. Which networking trend does this d. Quality of Service (QoS)
describe? e. reliability
a. cloud computing
b. online collaboration 8. What two criteria are used to help select a
c. bring your own device network medium from various network
d. video conferencing media? (Choose two.)
a. the types of data that need to be
4. What is an ISP? prioritized
a. It is a standards body that develops b. the cost of the end devices utilized in
cabling and wiring standards for networking. the network
b. It is a protocol that establishes how c. the distance the selected medium
computers within a local network can successfully carry a signal
communicate. d. the number of intermediate devices
c. It is an organization that enables installed in the network
individuals and businesses to connect to e. the environment where the selected
the Internet. medium is to be installed
d. It is a networking device that combines
the functionality of several different 9. What type of network traffic requires QoS?
networking devices in one. a. email
b. on-line purchasing
5. An employee at a branch office is creating a c. video conferencing
quote for a customer. In order to do this, the d. wiki
employee needs to access confidential
pricing information from internal servers at
the Head Office. What type of network
would the employee access?
a. an intranet
b. the Internet
c. an extranet
d. local area network
10. A user is implementing security on a small a. Issue the reload command without
office network. Which two actions would saving the running configuration.
provide the minimum security requirements b. Delete the vlan.dat file and reboot the
for this network? (Choose two.) device.
c. Close and reopen the terminal emulation
a. implementing a firewall software.
b. installing a wireless network d. Issue the copy startup-config running-
c. installing antivirus software config command.
d. implementing an intrusion detection
system 15. An administrator uses the Ctrl-Shift-6 key
e. adding a dedicated intrusion prevention combination on a switch after issuing the
device ping command. What is the purpose of
using these keystrokes?
11. Passwords can be used to restrict access to
all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the a. to restart the ping process
modes and interfaces that can be protected b. to interrupt the ping process
with passwords. (Choose three.) c. to exit to a different configuration mode
d. to allow the user to complete the
a. VTY interface command
b. console interface
c. Ethernet interface 16. Which command or key combination allows
d. boot IOS mode a user to return to the previous level in the
e. privileged EXEC mode command hierarchy?
f. router configuration mode a. end
b. exit
12. Which interface allows remote management c. Ctrl-Z
of a Layer 2 switch? d. Ctrl-C

a. the AUX interface 17. What are two characteristics of RAM on a

b. the console port interface Cisco device? (Choose two.)
c. the switch virtual interface
d. the first Ethernet port interface a. RAM provides nonvolatile storage.
b. The configuration that is actively
13. What function does pressing the Tab key running on the device is stored in
have when entering a command in IOS? RAM.
c. The contents of RAM are lost during
a. It aborts the current command and a power cycle.
d. RAM is a component in Cisco switches
returns to configuration mode.
but not in Cisco routers.
b. It exits configuration mode and returns
e. RAM is able to store multiple versions of
to user EXEC mode. IOS and configuration files.
c. It moves the cursor to the beginning of
the next line. 18. Which two host names follow the guidelines
d. It completes the remainder of a for naming conventions on Cisco IOS
partially typed word in a command. devices? (Choose two.)
a. Branch2!
14. While trying to solve a network issue, a b. RM-3-Switch-2A4
technician made multiple changes to the c. Floor(15)
current router configuration file. The d. HO Floor 17
changes did not solve the problem and were e. SwBranch799
not saved. What action can the technician
take to discard the changes and work with 19. How is SSH different from Telnet?
the file in NVRAM? a. SSH makes connections over the
network, whereas Telnet is for out-of-
band access.
 b. SSH provides security to remote a. The new configuration will be stored in
sessions by encrypting messages flash memory.
and using user authentication. Telnet b. The new configuration will be loaded if
is considered insecure and sends the switch is restarted.
messages in plaintext. c. The current IOS file will be replaced with
c. SSH requires the use of the PuTTY the newly configured file.
terminal emulation program. Tera Term d. The configuration changes will be
must be used to connect to devices removed and the original configuration will
through the use of Telnet. be restored.
d. SSH must be configured over an active
network connection, whereas Telnet is 24. What command will prevent all unencrypted
used to connect to a device from a passwords from displaying in plain text in a
console connection. configuration file?

20. What are three characteristics of an SVI? a. (config)# enable password secret
(Choose three.) b. (config)# enable secret Secret_Password
c. (config-line)# password secret
a. It is designed as a security protocol to d. (config)# service password-encryption
protect switch ports. e. (config)# enable secret
b. It is not associated with any physical Encrypted_Password
interface on a switch.
c. It is a special interface that allows 25. A network administrator enters the service
connectivity by different types of media. password-encryption command into the
d. It is required to allow connectivity by any configuration mode of a router. What does
device at any location. this command accomplish?
e. It provides a means to remotely
manage a switch. a. This command encrypts passwords as
f. It is associated with VLAN1 by they are transmitted across serial WAN
default. links.
b. This command prevents someone
21. What command is used to verify the from viewing the running configuration
condition of the switch interfaces, including passwords.
the status of the interfaces and a configured c. This command enables a strong
IP address? encryption algorithm for the enable secret
password command.
a. ipconfig
b. ping d. This command automatically encrypts
c. traceroute passwords in configuration files that are
d. show ip interface brief currently stored in NVRAM.
e. This command provides an exclusive
22. In the show running-config command, which encrypted password for external service
part of the syntax is represented by running- personnel who are required to do router
config ? maintenance.

a. the command 26. What method can be used by two

b. a keyword computers to ensure that packets are not
c. a variable dropped because too much data is being
d. a prompt sent too quickly?
23. After making configuration changes on a a. encapsulation
Cisco switch, a network administrator issues
b. flow control
a copy running-config startup-config
command. What is the result of issuing this c. access method
command? d. response timeout

27. Which statement accurately describes a

TCP/IP encapsulation process when a PC is
 sending data to the network? c. network access
d. session
a. Data is sent from the internet layer to the
network access layer.
33. Which PDU format is used when bits are
b. Packets are sent from the network
received from the network medium by the
access layer to the transport layer.
NIC of a host?
c. Segments are sent from the transport
layer to the internet layer.
a. file
d. Frames are sent from the network access
b. frame
layer to the internet layer.
c. packet
d. segment
28. What three application layer protocols are
part of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose
34. Which method allows a computer to react
three.)
accordingly when it requests data from a
server and the server takes too long to
a. ARP
respond?
b. DHCP
c. DNS
a. encapsulation
d. FTP
b. flow control
e. NAT
c. access method
f. PPP
d. response timeout
29. Which name is assigned to the transport
35. A web client is receiving a response for a
layer PDU?
web page from a web server. From the
perspective of the client, what is the correct
a. bits
order of the protocol stack that is used to
b. data
decode the received transmission?
c. frame
d. packet
a. Ethernet, IP, TCP, HTTP
e. segment
b. HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet
c. Ethernet, TCP, IP, HTTP
30. When IPv4 addressing is manually
d. HTTP, Ethernet, IP, TCP
configured on a web server, which property
of the IPv4 configuration identifies the
36. Which two OSI model layers have the same
network and host portion for an IPv4
functionality as a single layer of the TCP/IP
address?
model? (Choose two.)
a. DNS server address
a. data link
b. subnet mask
b. network
c. default gateway
c. physical
d. DHCP server address
d. session
e. transport
31. What process involves placing one PDU
inside of another PDU?
37. At which layer of the OSI model would a
logical address be added during
a. encapsulation
encapsulation?
b. encoding
c. segmentation a. physical layer
d. flow control b. data link layer
c. network layer
32. What layer is responsible for routing d. transport layer
messages through an internetwork in the
TCP/IP model?

a. internet
b. transport
38. What is a characteristic of multicast d. to enable the switch to receive frames
messages? from attached PCs

a. They are sent to a select group of 43. What term describes a network owned by
hosts. one organization that provides safe and
b. They are sent to all hosts on a network. secure access to individuals who work for a
c. They must be acknowledged. different organization?
d. They are sent to a single destination.
a. extranet
39. Which statement is correct about network b. cloud
protocols? c. BYOD
d. quality of service
a. Network protocols define the type of
hardware that is used and how it is 44. What term describes storing personal files
mounted in racks. on servers over the internet to provide
b. They define how messages are access anywhere, anytime, and on any
exchanged between the source and device?
the destination.
c. They all function in the network access a. cloud
layer of TCP/IP. b. BYOD
d. They are only required for exchange of c. quality of service
messages between devices on remote d. converged network
networks.
45. What term describes a network where one
40. What is an advantage of network devices computer can be both client and server?
using open standard protocols?
a. peer-to-peer
a. Network communications is confined to b. cloud
data transfers between devices from the c. BYOD
same vendor. d. quality of service
b. A client host and a server running
different operating systems can 46. What term describes a type of network
successfully exchange data. used by people who work from home or
c. Internet access can be controlled by a from a small remote office?
single ISP in each market.
d. Competition and innovation are limited a. SOHO network
to specific types of products. b. BYOD
c. quality of service
41. Which device performs the function of d. converged network
determining the path that messages should
take through internetworks? 47. What term describes a computing model
where server software runs on dedicated
a. a router computers?
b. a firewall
c. a web server a. client/server
d. a DSL modem b. internet
c. intranet
42. Why would a Layer 2 switch need an IP d. extranet
address?
48. What term describes a technology that
a. to enable the switch to send broadcast allows devices to connect to the LAN using
frames to attached PCs an electrical outlet?
b. to enable the switch to function as a a. powerline networking
default gateway b. internet
c. to enable the switch to be managed c. intranet
remotely d. extranet
 d. presentation layer
49. What term describes a policy that allows
network devices to manage the flow of data 56. Which of the following is the name for all
to give priority to voice and video? computers connected to a network that
a. quality of service participate directly in network
b. internet communication?
c. intranet a. Servers
d. extranet b. Intermediary device
c. Host
50. What term describes a private collection of d. media
LANs and WANs that belongs to an
organization? 70. At which OSI layer is a destination IP address
a. intranet added to a PDU during the encapsulation process?
b. internet a. network layer
c. extranet b. application layer
d. peer-to-peer c. transport layer
d. presentation layer
51. What term describes the ability to use
personal devices across a business or 71. At which OSI layer is a source MAC address
campus network? added to a PDU during the encapsulation process?
a. BYOD a. data link layer
b. internet b. application layer
c. intranet c. transport layer
d. extranet d. presentation layer

52. At which OSI layer is a source IP address 72. At which OSI layer is a source port number
added to a PDU during the encapsulation added to a PDU during the encapsulation process?
process? a. transport layer
a. network layer b. application layer
b. data link layer c. network layer
c. transport layer d. presentation layer
d. application layer e. data link layer

53. At which OSI layer is a destination port 73. At which OSI layer is a destination MAC
number added to a PDU during the address added to a PDU during the encapsulation
encapsulation process? process?
a. transport layer a. data link layer
b. data link layer b. transport layer
c. network layer c. application layer
d. application layer d. network layer

54. At which OSI layer is data added to a PDU 74. When data is encoded as pulses of light, which
during the encapsulation process? media is being used to transmit the data?
a. application layer a. Wireless
b. data link layer b. Fire optic cable
c. network layer c. Copper cable
d. transport layer
75. Which two devices are intermediary devices?
55. At which OSI layer is a source IP address (Choose two)
added to a PDU during the encapsulation a. Host
process? b. Router
c. Switch
a. network layer d. Servers
b. data link layer
c. application layer
76. A college is building a new dormitory on its d. designing a cable infrastructure to avoid
campus. Workers are digging in the ground to crosstalk interference
install a new water pipe for the dormitory. A worker e. avoiding sharp bends during installation
accidentally damages a fiber optic cable that
connects two of the existing dormitories to the 6. A network administrator is measuring the transfer
campus data center. Although the cable has been of bits across the company backbone for a mission
cut, students in the dormitories only experience a critical financial application. The administrator
very short interruption of network services. What notices that the network throughput appears lower
characteristic of the network is shown here? than the bandwidth expected. Which three factors
a. quality of service (QoS) could influence the differences in throughput?
b. scalability (Choose three.)
c. security a. the amount of traffic that is currently
d. fault tolerance crossing the network
e. integrity b. the sophistication of the encapsulation
method applied to the data
Data Communications Mod 4-7 (CCNA) c. the type of traffic that is crossing the
network
1. What is the purpose of the OSI physical layer? d. the latency that is created by the
a. controlling access to media number of network devices that the
b. transmitting bits across the local data is crossing
media e. the bandwidth of the WAN connection to
c. performing error detection on received the Internet
frames f. the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet
d. exchanging frames between nodes over infrastructure of the backbone
physical network media
7. What are two characteristics of fiber-optic cable?
2. Why are two strands of fiber used for a single (Choose two.)
fiber optic connection? a. It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
a. The two strands allow the data to travel b. Each pair of cables is wrapped in
for longer distances without degrading. metallic foil.
b. They prevent crosstalk from causing c. It combines the technique of
interference on the connection. cancellation, shielding, and twisting to
c. They increase the speed at which the protect data.
data can travel. d. It typically contains 4 pairs of fiber-optic
d. They allow for full-duplex wires.
connectivity. e. It is more expensive than UTP
cabling is.
3. Which characteristic describes crosstalk?
a. the distortion of the network signal from 8. What is a primary role of the Physical layer in
fluorescent lighting transmitting data on the network?
b. the distortion of the transmitted a. create the signals that represent the
messages from signals carried in bits in each frame on to the media
adjacent wires b. provide physical addressing to the
c. the weakening of the network signal devices
over long cable lengths c. determine the path packets take through
d. the loss of wireless signal over the network
excessive distance from the access d. control data access to the media
point
9. With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper
4. Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the
crosstalk in copper cables? cable pairs?
a. requiring proper grounding connections a. the magnetic field around the
b. twisting opposing circuit wire pairs adjacent pairs of wire
together b. the use of braided wire to shield the
c. wrapping the bundle of wires with adjacent wire pairs
metallic shielding
 c. the reflection of the electrical wave back b. physical address
from the far end of the cable c. data
d. the collision caused by two nodes trying d. error detection
to use the media simultaneously
17. Which statement describes a characteristic of
11. In addition to the cable length, what two factors the frame header fields of the data link layer?
could interfere with the communication carried over a. They all include the flow control and
UTP cables? (Choose two.) logical connection fields.
a. crosstalk b. Ethernet frame header fields contain
b. bandwidth Layer 3 source and destination
c. size of the network addresses.
d. signal modulation technique c. They vary depending on protocols.
e. electromagnetic interference d. They include information on user
applications.
13. Which two devices commonly affect wireless
networks? (Choose two.) 18. A network team is comparing physical WAN
a. Blu-ray players topologies for connecting remote sites to a
b. home theaters headquarters building. Which topology provides
c. cordless phones high availability and connects some, but not all,
d. microwaves remote sites?
e. incandescent light bulbs a. mesh
f. external hard drives b. partial mesh
c. hub and spoke
d. point-to-point
14. Which two statements describe the services
provided by the data link layer? (Choose two.) 19. Which two fields or features does Ethernet
a. It defines the end-to-end delivery examine to determine if a received frame is passed
addressing scheme. to the data link layer or discarded by the NIC?
b. It maintains the path between the (Choose two.)
source and destination devices during a. auto-MDIX
the data transmission. b. CEF
c. It manages the access of frames to c. Frame Check Sequence
the network media. d. minimum frame size
d. It provides reliable delivery through link e. source MAC address
establishment and flow control.
e. It ensures that application data will be 20. Which media communication type does not
transmitted according to the require media arbitration in the data link layer?
prioritization. a. deterministic
f. It packages various Layer 3 PDUs b. half-duplex
into a frame format that is compatible c. full-duplex
with the network interface. d. controlled access

15. What is the function of the CRC value that is 21. Which statement describes an extended star
found in the FCS field of a frame? topology?
a. to verify the integrity of the received a. End devices connect to a central
frame intermediate device, which in turn
b. to verify the physical address in the connects to other central
frame intermediate devices.
c. to verify the logical address in the frame b. End devices are connected together by
d. to compute the checksum header for the a bus and each bus connects to a
data field in the frame central intermediate device.
c. Each end system is connected to its
respective neighbor via an intermediate
16. What is contained in the trailer of a data-link device.
frame? d. All end and intermediate devices are
a. logical address connected in a chain to each other.
 b. type field
22. What is a characteristic of the LLC sublayer? c. MTU size
a. It provides the logical addressing d. data
required that identifies the device. e. trailer
b. It provides delimitation of data according f. CRC value
to the physical signaling requirements of
the medium. 28. Which statement is true about the CSMA/CD
c. It places information in the frame access method that is used in Ethernet?
allowing multiple Layer 3 protocols to a. When a device hears a carrier signal
use the same network interface and and transmits, a collision cannot occur.
media. b. A jamming signal causes only devices
d. It defines software processes that that caused the collision to execute a
provide services to the physical layer. backoff algorithm.
c. All network devices must listen
23. What are three ways that media access control before transmitting.
is used in networking? (Choose three.) d. Devices involved in a collision get
a. Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD. priority to transmit after the backoff
b. Media access control provides period.
placement of data frames onto the
media. 29. What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?
c. Contention-based access is also known a. the automatic configuration of an
as deterministic. interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s
d. 802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD. operation
e. Data link layer protocols define the b. the automatic configuration of an
rules for access to different media. interface for a straight-through or a
f. Networks with controlled access have crossover Ethernet cable connection
reduced performance due to data c. the automatic configuration of full-duplex
collisions. operation over a single Ethernet copper
or optical cable
24. During the encapsulation process, what occurs d. the ability to turn a switch interface on or
at the data link layer for a PC connected to an off accordingly if an active connection is
Ethernet network? detected
a. An IP address is added.
b. The logical address is added. 31. A Layer 2 switch is used to switch incoming
c. The physical address is added. frames from a 1000BASE-T port to a port
d. The process port number is added. connected to a 100Base-T network. Which method
of memory buffering would work best for this task?
25. What three items are contained in an Ethernet a. port-based buffering
header and trailer? (Choose three.) b. level 1 cache buffering
a. source IP address c. shared memory buffering
b. source MAC address d. fixed configuration buffering
c. destination IP address
d. destination MAC address 32. What are two examples of the cut-through
e. error-checking information switching method? (Choose two.)
a. store-and-forward switching
26. What type of communication rule would best b. fast-forward switching
describe CSMA/CD? c. CRC switching
a. access method d. fragment-free switching
b. flow control e. QOS switching
c. message encapsulation
d. message encoding 33. Which frame forwarding method receives the
entire frame and performs a CRC check to detect
27. Which three basic parts are common to all errors before forwarding the frame?
frame types supported by the data link layer? a. cut-through switching
(Choose three.) b. store-and-forward switching
a. header c. fragment-free switching
 d. fast-forward switching 38. When the store-and-forward method of
switching is in use, what part of the Ethernet frame
is used to perform an error check?
34. What is the purpose of the FCS field in a a. CRC in the trailer
frame? b. source MAC address in the header
a. to obtain the MAC address of the c. destination MAC address in the header
sending node d. protocol type in the header
b. to verify the logical address of the
sending node 39. Which switching method uses the CRC value in
c. to compute the CRC header for the data a frame?
field a. cut-through
d. to determine if errors occurred in the b. fast-forward
transmission and reception c. fragment-free
d. store-and-forward
35. Which switching method has the lowest level of
latency? 40. What are two actions performed by a Cisco
a. cut-through switch? (Choose two.)
b. store-and-forward a. building a routing table that is based on
c. fragment-free the first IP address in the frame header
d. fast-forward b. using the source MAC addresses of
frames to build and maintain a MAC
36. A network administrator is connecting two address table
modern switches using a straight-through cable. c. forwarding frames with unknown
The switches are new and have never been destination IP addresses to the default
configured. Which three statements are correct gateway
about the final result of the connection? (Choose d. utilizing the MAC address table to
three.) forward frames via the destination
a. The link between the switches will MAC address
work at the fastest speed that is e. examining the destination MAC address
supported by both switches. to add new entries to the MAC address
b. The link between switches will work table
as full-duplex.
c. If both switches support different 41. Which two statements describe features or
speeds, they will each work at their own functions of the logical link control sublayer in
fastest speed. Ethernet standards? (Choose two.)
d. The auto-MDIX feature will configure a. Logical link control is implemented in
the interfaces eliminating the need software.
for a crossover cable. b. Logical link control is specified in the
e. The connection will not be possible IEEE 802.3 standard.
unless the administrator changes the c. The LLC sublayer adds a header and a
cable to a crossover cable. trailer to the data.
f. The duplex capability has to be d. The data link layer uses LLC to
manually configured because it cannot communicate with the upper layers of
be negotiated. the protocol suite.
e. The LLC sublayer is responsible for the
37. Which advantage does the store-and-forward placement and retrieval of frames on
switching method have compared with the cut- and off the media.
through switching method?
a. collision detecting 42. What is the auto-MDIX feature?
b. frame error checking a. It enables a device to automatically
c. faster frame forwarding configure an interface to use a
d. frame forwarding using IPv4 Layer 3 straight-through or a crossover
and 4 information cable.
b. It enables a device to automatically
configure the duplex settings of a
segment.
 c. It enables a device to automatically 51. What OSI physical layer term describes the
configure the speed of its interface. capacity at which a medium can carry data?
d. It enables a switch to dynamically select
a. bandwidth
the forwarding method.
b. IEEE
c. EIA/TIA
43. What is one advantage of using the cut-through
d. Air
switching method instead of the store-and-forward
switching method?
53. What OSI physical layer term describes the
a. has a positive impact on bandwidth by
measure of the transfer of bits across a medium
dropping most of the invalid frames
over a given period of time?
b. makes a fast forwarding decision based
on the source MAC address of the a. throughput
frame b. bandwidth
c. has a lower latency appropriate for c. latency
high-performance computing d. goodput
applications 54. What OSI physical layer term describes the
d. provides the flexibility to support any mix amount of time, including delays, for data to travel
of Ethernet speeds from one point to another?
a. latency
44. Which is a multicast MAC address? b. bandwidth
a. FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF c. throughput
b. 5C-26-0A-4B-19-3E d. goodput
c. 01-00-5E-00-00-03
d. 00-26-0F-4B-00-3E 55. What OSI physical layer term describes the
amount of time, including delays, for data to travel
48. What does the term “attenuation” mean in data from one point to another?
communication? a. latency
a. loss of signal strength as distance b. fiber-optic cable
increases c. air
b. time for a signal to reach its destination d. copper cable
c. leakage of signals from one cable pair to
another 56. What OSI physical layer term describes the
d. strengthening of a signal by a measure of usable data transferred over a given
networking device period of time?
a. goodput
49. What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling
b. fiber-optic cable
for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.) c. air
a. greater distances per cable run d. copper cable
b. lower installation cost
c. limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI 57. What OSI physical layer term describes the
d. durable connections physical medium which uses electrical pulses?
e. greater bandwidth potential a. copper cable
f. easily terminated b. fiber-optic cable
c. air
50. What OSI physical layer term describes the d. goodput
process by which one wave modifies another
wave? 58. What OSI physical layer term describes the
physical medium that uses the propagation of light?
a. modulation
b. IEEE a. fiber-optic cable
c. EIA/TIA b. goodput
d. Air c. latency
d. throughput
59. What OSI physical layer term describes the 66. Which two functions are performed at the LLC
physical medium for microwave transmissions? sublayer of the OSI data link layer? (Choose two.)
a. air a. Adds Layer 2 control information to
b. goodput network protocol data.
c. latency b. Enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the
d. throughput same network interface and media.
c. Provides data link layer addressing.
60. Which two functions are performed at the MAC d. Implements a trailer to detect
sublayer of the OSI data link layer? (Choose two.) transmission errors.
e. Provides synchronization between
a. Adds Layer 2 control information to
source and target nodes.
network protocol data.
b. Places information in the frame that
68. Which two functions are performed at the LLC
identifies which network layer protocol is
sublayer of the OSI data link layer? (Choose two.)
being used for the frame.
c. Controls the NIC responsible for a. Enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the
sending and receiving data on the same network interface and media.
physical medium. b. Adds Layer 2 control information to
d. Implements a trailer to detect network protocol data.
transmission errors. c. Integrates various physical
e. Enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the technologies.
same network interface and media. d. Implements a trailer to detect
transmission errors.
e. Provides synchronization between
61. Which two functions are performed at the LLC
source and target nodes.
sublayer of the OSI data link layer? (Choose two.)
a. Enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the 71. What action will occur if a switch receives a
same network interface and media. frame with the destination MAC address
b. Places information in the frame that FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF?
identifies which network layer
a. The switch forwards it out all ports
protocol is being used for the frame.
except the ingress port.
c. Integrates various physical
b. The switch refreshes the timer on that
technologies.
entry.
d. Implements a process to delimit fields
c. The switch does not forward the frame.
within a Layer 2 frame.
d. The switch sends the frame to a
e. Controls the NIC responsible for
connected router because the
sending and receiving data on the
destination MAC address is not local.
physical medium.
73. What action will occur if a switch receives a
64. Which two functions are performed at the LLC
frame with the destination MAC address
sublayer of the OSI data link layer? (Choose two.)
01:00:5E:00:00:D9?
a. Adds Layer 2 control information to
a. The switch forwards it out all ports
network protocol data.
except the ingress port.
b. The switch does not forward the frame.
b. Places information in the frame that
c. The switch sends the frame to a
identifies which network layer
protocol is being used for the frame. connected router because the
c. Performs data encapsulation.
destination MAC address is not local.
d. The switch shares the MAC address
d. Controls the NIC responsible for
sending and receiving data on the table entry with any connected switches.
physical medium.
e. Integrates various physical
technologies.
74. What action will occur if a host receives a frame Data Communications Mod 8-11 (CCNA)
with a destination MAC address of
FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF? 1. Which information is used by routers to
forward a data packet toward its
a. The host will process the frame.
destination?
b. The host forwards the frame to the
a. source IP address
router.
b. destination IP address
c. The host sends the frame to the switch
c. source data-link address
to update the MAC address table.
d. destination data-link address
d. The host forwards the frame to all other
2. A computer has to send a packet to a
hosts.
destination host in the same LAN. How will
the packet be sent?
75. What action will occur if a switch receives a
a. The packet will be sent to the default
frame and does have the source MAC address in
gateway first, and then, depending
the MAC table?
on the response from the gateway, it
a. The switch refreshes the timer on may be sent to the destination host.
that entry. b. The packet will be sent directly to
b. The switch adds it to its MAC address the destination host.
table associated with the port number. c. The packet will first be sent to the
c. The switch forwards the frame to the default gateway, and then from the
associated port. default gateway it will be sent
d. The switch sends the frame to a directly to the destination host.
connected router because the d. The packet will be sent only to the
destination MAC address is not local. default gateway.
3. A router receives a packet from the Gigabit
76. What action will occur if a host receives a frame 0/0 interface and determines that the packet
with a destination MAC address of needs to be forwarded out the Gigabit 0/1
FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF? interface. What will the router do next?
a. The host will process the frame.
a. route the packet out the Gigabit 0/1
b. The host returns the frame to the switch.
interface
c. The host replies to the switch with its
b. create a new Layer 2 Ethernet
own IP address. frame to be sent to the destination
c. look into the ARP cache to
d. The host forwards the frame to all other
hosts. determine the destination IP address
d. look into the routing table to
determine if the destination network
78. What action will occur if a host receives a frame
with a destination MAC address it does not is in the routing table
recognize? 4. Which IPv4 address can a host use to ping
the loopback interface?
a. The host will discard the frame. a. 126.0.0.1
b. The host replies to the switch with its b. 127.0.0.0
own IP address. c. 126.0.0.0
c. The host forwards the frame to all other d. 127.0.0.1
hosts. 5. A computer can access devices on the
d. The host returns the frame to the switch. same network but cannot access devices on
other networks. What is the probable cause
79. Which type of UTP cable is used to connect a of this problem?
PC to a switch port? a. The cable is not connected properly
a. console to the NIC.
b. rollover b. The computer has an invalid IP
c. crossover address.
d. straight-through c. The computer has an incorrect
subnet mask.
d. The computer has an invalid
default gateway address.
6. Which statement describes a feature of the 10. Within a production network, what is the
IP protocol? purpose of configuring a switch with a
a. IP encapsulation is modified based default gateway address?
on network media. a. Hosts that are connected to the
b. IP relies on Layer 2 protocols for switch can use the switch default
transmission error control. gateway address to forward packets
c. MAC addresses are used during the to a remote destination.
IP packet encapsulation. b. A switch must have a default
d. IP relies on upper layer services gateway to be accessible by Telnet
to handle situations of missing or and SSH.
out-of-order packets. c. The default gateway address is
7. Why is NAT not needed in IPv6? used to forward packets
a. Because IPv6 has integrated originating from the switch to
security, there is no need to hide the remote networks.
IPv6 addresses of internal networks. d. It provides a next-hop address for all
b. Any host or user can get a public traffic that flows through the switch.
IPv6 network address because the 11. What is a basic characteristic of the IP
number of available IPv6 protocol?
addresses is extremely large. a. connectionless
c. The problems that are induced by b. media dependent
NAT applications are solved c. user data segmentation
because the IPv6 header improves d. reliable end-to-end delivery
packet handling by intermediate 12. Which field in the IPv4 header is used to
routers. prevent a packet from traversing a network
d. The end-to-end connectivity endlessly?
problems that are caused by NAT a. Time-to-Live
are solved because the number of b. Sequence Number
routes increases with the number of c. Acknowledgment Number
nodes that are connected to the d. Differentiated Services
Internet. 13. What is one advantage that the IPv6
8. Which parameter does the router use to simplified header offers over IPv4?
choose the path to the destination when a. smaller-sized header
there are multiple routes available? b. little requirement for processing
a. the lower metric value that is checksums
associated with the destination c. smaller-sized source and destination
network IP addresses
b. the lower gateway IP address to get d. efficient packet handling
to the destination network 14. What IPv4 header field identifies the upper
c. the higher metric value that is layer protocol carried in the packet?
associated with the destination a. Protocol
network b. Identification
d. the higher gateway IP address to get c. Version
to the destination network d. Differentiated Services
9. What are two services provided by the OSI 15. What information does the loopback test
network layer? (Choose two.) provide?
a. performing error detection a. The TCP/IP stack on the device is
b. routing packets toward the working correctly.
destination b. The device has end-to-end
c. encapsulating PDUs from the connectivity.
transport layer c. DHCP is working correctly.
d. placement of frames on the media d. The Ethernet cable is working
e. collision detection correctly.
e. The device has the correct IP
address on the network.
16. What routing table entry has a next hop b. The destination address is
address associated with a destination unknown to the switch.
network? c. The source address in the frame
a. directly-connected routes header is the broadcast address.
b. local routes d. The source address in the frame is a
c. remote routes multicast address.
d. C and L source rout e. The destination address in the frame
17. How do hosts ensure that their packets are is a known unicast address.
directed to the correct network destination? 21. Which statement describes the treatment of
a. They have to keep their own local ARP requests on the local link?
routing table that contains a route a. They must be forwarded by all
to the loopback interface, a local routers on the local network.
network route, and a remote b. They are received and processed
default route. by every device on the local
b. They always direct their packets to network.
the default gateway, which will be c. They are dropped by all switches on
responsible for the packet delivery. the local network.
c. They search in their own local d. They are received and processed
routing table for a route to the only by the target device
network destination address and 22. Which destination address is used in an
pass this information to the default ARP request frame?
gateway. a. 0.0.0.0
d. They send a query packet to the b. 255.255.255.255
default gateway asking for the best c. FFFF.FFFF.FFFF
route. d. AAAA.AAAA.AAAA
18. When transporting data from real-time e. the physical address of the
applications, such as streaming audio and destination host
video, which field in the IPv6 header can be 23. A network technician issues the arp -d *
used to inform the routers and switches to command on a PC after the router that is
maintain the same path for the packets in connected to the LAN is reconfigured. What
the same conversation? is the result after this command is issued?
a. Next Header a. The ARP cache is cleared.
b. Flow Label b. The current content of the ARP
c. Traffic Class cache is displayed.
d. Differentiated Services c. The detailed information of the ARP
19. What statement describes the function of cache is displayed.
the Address Resolution Protocol? d. The ARP cache is synchronized with
a. ARP is used to discover the IP the router interface.
address of any host on a different 24. Which two types of IPv6 messages are
network. used in place of ARP for address
b. ARP is used to discover the IP resolution?
address of any host on the local a. anycast
network. b. broadcast
c. ARP is used to discover the MAC c. echo reply
address of any host on a different d. echo request
network. e. neighbor solicitation
d. ARP is used to discover the MAC f. neighbor advertisement
address of any host on the local 25. What is the aim of an ARP spoofing attack?
network.
20. Under which two circumstances will a switch a. to flood the network with ARP reply
flood a frame out of every port except the broadcasts
port that the frame was received on? b. to fill switch MAC address tables
(Choose two.) with bogus addresses
a. The frame has the broadcast c. to associate IP addresses to the
address as the destination wrong MAC address
address.
 d. to overwhelm network hosts with b. The switch can be remotely
ARP requests managed from a host on another
26. Where are IPv4 address to Layer 2 Ethernet network.
address mappings maintained on a host c. The switch can communicate with
computer? other hosts on the 172.16.100.0
a. neighbor table network.
b. ARP cache d. The switch is limited to sending and
c. routing table receiving frames to and from the
d. MAC address table gateway 172.16.100.1.
27. What important information is examined in 32. What happens when the transport input ssh
the Ethernet frame header by a Layer 2 command is entered on the switch vty lines?
device in order to forward the data onward? a. The SSH client on the switch is
a. source MAC address enabled.
b. source IP address b. Communication between the
c. destination MAC address switch and remote users is
d. Ethernet type encrypted.
e. destination IP address c. The switch requires a
28. A new network administrator has been username/password combination for
asked to enter a banner message on a remote access.
Cisco device. What is the fastest way a d. The switch requires remote
network administrator could test whether the connections via a proprietary client
banner is properly configured? software.
a. Reboot the device. 33. Which three commands are used to set up
b. Enter CTRL-Z at the privileged mode secure access to a router through a
prompt. connection to the console interface?
c. Exit global configuration mode. (Choose three.)
d. Power cycle the device. a. interface fastethernet 0/0
e. Exit privileged EXEC mode and b. line vty 0 4
press Enter. c. line console 0
29. What are two functions of NVRAM? d. enable secret cisco
(Choose two.) e. login
a. to store the routing table f. password cisco
b. to retain contents when power is 34. Which two functions are primary functions of
removed a router? (Choose two.)
c. to store the startup configuration a. packet forwarding
file b. microsegmentation
d. to contain the running configuration c. domain name resolution
file d. path selection
e. to store the ARP table e. flow control
30. A router boots and enters setup mode. 35. What is the effect of using the Router# copy
What is the reason for this? running-config startup-config command on a
a. The IOS image is corrupt. router?
b. Cisco IOS is missing from flash a. The contents of ROM will change.
memory. b. The contents of RAM will change.
c. The configuration file is missing c. The contents of NVRAM will
from NVRAM. change.
d. The POST process has detected d. The contents of flash will change.
hardware failure. 36. What will happen if the default gateway
31. The global configuration command ip address is incorrectly configured on a host?
default-gateway 172.16.100.1 is applied to a a. The host cannot communicate with
switch. What is the effect of this command? other hosts in the local network.
a. The switch will have a management b. The switch will not forward packets
interface with the address initiated by the host.
172.16.100.1. c. The host will have to use ARP to
determine the correct address of the
default gateway.
 d. The host cannot communicate a. header checksum
with hosts in other networks. b. source IPv4 address
e. A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 c. protocol
would not be successful d. TTL
37. What are two potential network problems 42. Which term describes a field in the IPv4
that can result from ARP operation? packet header that contains a unicast,
(Choose two.) multicast, or broadcast address?
a. Manually configuring static ARP a. destination IPv4 address
associations could facilitate ARP b. protocol
poisoning or MAC address spoofing. c. TTL
b. On large networks with low d. header checksum
bandwidth, multiple ARP 43. Which term describes a field in the IPv4
broadcasts could cause data packet header used to limit the lifetime of a
communication delays. packet?
c. Network attackers could a. TTL
manipulate MAC address and IP b. source IPv4 address
address mappings in ARP c. protocol
messages with the intent of d. header checksum
intercepting network traffic. 44. Which term describes a field in the IPv4
d. Large numbers of ARP request packet header that contains a 4-bit binary
broadcasts could cause the host value set to 0100?
MAC address table to overflow and a. version
prevent the host from b. source IPv4 address
communicating on the network. c. protocol
e. Multiple ARP replies result in the d. TTL
switch MAC address table 45. Which term describes a field in the IPv4
containing entries that match the packet header used to identify the next level
MAC addresses of hosts that are protocol?
connected to the relevant switch a. protocol
port. b. version
38. Which term describes a field in the IPv4 c. differentiated services
packet header used to identify the next level d. header checksum
protocol? 46. Which term describes a field in the IPv4
a. protocol packet header that contains a 4-bit binary
b. destination IPv4 address value set to 0100?
c. source IPv4 address a. version
d. TTL b. differentiated services
39. Which term describes a field in the IPv4 c. header checksum
packet header that contains an 8-bit binary d. TTL
value used to determine the priority of each 47. What property of ARP causes cached IP-to-
packet? MAC mappings to remain in memory
a. differentiated services longer?
b. destination IPv4 address a. Entries in an ARP table are time-
c. source IPv4 address stamped and are purged after the
d. protocol timeout expires.
40. Which term describes a field in the IPv4 b. A static IP-to-MAC address entry
packet header that contains a 32-bit binary can be entered manually into an
value associated with an interface on the ARP table.
sending device? c. The type field 0x806 appears in the
a. source IPv4 address header of the Ethernet frame.
b. destination IPv4 address d. The port-to-MAC address table on a
c. protocol switch has the same entries as the
d. TTL ARP table on the switch.
41. Which term describes a field in the IPv4 48. What property of ARP allows MAC
packet header used to detect corruption in addresses of frequently used servers to be
the IPv4 header? fixed in the ARP table?
 a. A static IP-to-MAC address entry b. The type field 0x806 appears in the
can be entered manually into an header of the Ethernet frame.
ARP table. c. Entries in an ARP table are time-
b. Entries in an ARP table are time- stamped and are purged after the
stamped and are purged after the timeout expires.
timeout expires. d. ARP replies are broadcast on the
c. The type field 0x806 appears in the network when a host receives an
header of the Ethernet frame. ARP request.
d. The port-to-MAC address table on a
switch has the same entries as the 53. What property of ARP causes the NICs
ARP table on the switch. receiving an ARP request to pass the data
49. What property of ARP allows hosts on a portion of the Ethernet frame to the ARP
LAN to send traffic to remote networks? process?
a. The type field 0x806 appears in
a. Local hosts learn the MAC the header of the Ethernet frame.
address of the default gateway. b. The destination MAC address FF-
b. The destination MAC address FF- FF-FF-FF-FF-FF appears in the
FF-FF-FF-FF-FF appears in the header of the Ethernet frame.
header of the Ethernet frame. c. Entries in an ARP table are time-
c. The source MAC address appears in stamped and are purged after the
the header of the Ethernet frame. timeout expires.
d. The port-to-MAC address table on a d. ARP replies are broadcast on the
switch has the same entries as the network when a host receives an
ARP table on the switch. ARP request.
50. What property of ARP forces all Ethernet
NICs to process an ARP request? 54. What property of ARP causes the NICs
a. The destination MAC address FF- receiving an ARP request to pass the data
FF-FF-FF-FF-FF appears in the portion of the Ethernet frame to the ARP
header of the Ethernet frame. process?
b. The source MAC address appears in a. The type field 0x806 appears in
the header of the Ethernet frame. the header of the Ethernet frame.
c. The type field 0x806 appears in the b. The destination MAC address FF-
header of the Ethernet frame. FF-FF-FF-FF-FF appears in the
d. ARP replies are broadcast on the header of the Ethernet frame.
network when a host receives an c. Entries in an ARP table are time-
ARP request. stamped and are purged after the
51. What property of ARP causes a reply only timeout expires.
to the source sending an ARP request? d. The port-to-MAC address table on a
a. The source MAC address appears switch has the same entries as the
in the header of the Ethernet ARP table on the switch.
frame. 55. A user issues a ping 2001:db8:FACE:39::10
b. The destination MAC address FF- command and receives a response that
FF-FF-FF-FF-FF appears in the includes a code of 3. What does
header of the Ethernet frame. a. address unreachable
c. The type field 0x806 appears in the b. network unreachable
header of the Ethernet frame. c. host unreachable
d. ARP replies are broadcast on the d. protocol unreachable
network when a host receives an 56. A host is transmitting a multicast. Which
ARP request. host or hosts will receive it?
a. a specially defined group of hosts
52. What property of ARP causes the request to b. the closest neighbor on the same
be flooded out all ports of a switch except network
for the port receiving the ARP request? c. one specific host
a. The destination MAC address FF- d. directly connected network devices
FF-FF-FF-FF-FF appears in the
header of the Ethernet frame.
57. A user issues a ping 2001:db8:FACE:39::10 b. host unreachable
command and receives a response that c. protocol unreachable
includes a code of 2. What does this code d. network unreachable
represent? 64. A user issues a ping 2001:db8:FACE:39::10
a. beyond scope of the source command and receives a response that
address includes a code of 2. What does this code
b. communication with the destination represent?
administratively prohibited a. beyond scope of the source
c. address unreachable address
d. no route to destination b. host unreachable
58. A user issues a ping 192.135.250.103 c. protocol unreachable
command and receives a response that d. network unreachable
includes a code of 1. What does this code 65. Which service provides dynamic global IPv6
represent? addressing to end devices without using a
a. host unreachable server that keeps a record of available IPv6
b. beyond scope of the source address addresses?
c. address unreachable a. stateful DHCPv6
d. communication with the destination b. SLAAC
administratively prohibited c. static IPv6 addressing
59. A user issues a ping fe80:65ab:dcc1::100 d. stateless DHCPv6
command and receives a response that 66. Which protocol supports Stateless Address
includes a code of 3. What does this code Autoconfiguration (SLAAC) for dynamic
represent? assignment of IPv6 addresses to a host?
a. address unreachable a. ARPv6
b. communication with the destination b. DHCPv6
administratively prohibited c. ICMPv6
c. beyond scope of the source address d. UDP
d. no route to destination 67. What are two types of IPv6 unicast
60. A user issues a ping 10.10.14.67 command addresses? (Choose two.)
and receives a response that includes a a. multicast
code of 0. What does this code represent? b. loopback
a. network unreachable c. link-local
b. protocol unreachable d. anycast
c. port unreachable e. broadcast
d. host unreachable 68. Which type of IPv6 address refers to any
61. A user issues a ping fe80:65ab:dcc1::100 unicast address that is assigned to multiple
command and receives a response that hosts?
includes a code of 4. What does this code a. unique local
represent? b. global unicast
a. port unreachable c. link-local
b. host unreachable d. anycast
c. protocol unreachable 69. A technician uses the ping 127.0.0.1
d. network unreachable command. What is the technician testing?
62. A user issues a ping 198.133.219.8 a. The TCP/IP stack on a network
command and receives a response that host
includes a code of 0. What does this code b. connectivity between two adjacent
represent? Cisco devices
a. network unreachable c. connectivity between a PC and the
b. protocol unreachable default gateway
c. port unreachable d. connectivity between two PCs on the
d. host unreachable same network
63. A user issues a ping 2001:db8:3040:114::88 e. physical connectivity of a particular
command and receives a response that PC and the network
includes a code of 4. What does this code
represent?
a. port unreachable
70. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is 75. What source IP address does a router use
trying to troubleshoot connectivity between by default when the traceroute command is
PC1 and PC2 and uses the tracert issued?
command from PC1 to do it. Based on the a. the highest configured IP address on
displayed output, where should the the router
administrator begin troubleshooting? b. a loopback IP address
c. the IP address of the outbound
interface
d. the lowest configured IP address on
the router
76. A user issues a ping 192.135.250.103
command and receives a response that
includes a code of 1. What does this code
represent?
a. host unreachable
b. protocol unreachable
a. PC2 c. port unreachable
b. R1 d. network unreachable
c. SW2 77. A host is transmitting a broadcast. Which
d. R2 host or hosts will receive it?
e. SW1 a. all hosts in the same subnet
71. Which protocol is used by the traceroute b. a specially defined group of hosts
command to send and receive echo- c. the closest neighbor on the same
requests and echo-replies? network
a. SNMP d. all hosts on the Internet
b. ICMP 78. A host is transmitting a unicast. Which host
c. Telnet or hosts will receive it?
d. TCP a. one specific host
72. Which ICMPv6 message is sent when the b. a specially defined group of hosts
IPv6 hop limit field of a packet is c. all hosts on the Internet
decremented to zero and the packet cannot d. the closest neighbor on the same
be forwarded? network
a. network unreachable 79. A message is sent to all hosts on a remote
b. time exceeded network. Which type of message is it?
c. protocol unreachable a. limited broadcast
d. port unreachable b. multicast
73. A user executes a traceroute over IPv6. At c. directed broadcast
what point would a router in the path to the d. unicast
destination device drop the packet? 80. What type of IPv6 address is FE80::1?
a. when the value of the Hop Limit field a. loopback
reaches 255 b. link-local
b. when the value of the Hop Limit c. multicast
field reaches zero d. global unicast
c. when the router receives an ICMP
time exceeded message
d. when the target host responds with
an ICMP echo reply message
74. What is the purpose of ICMP messages?
a. to inform routers about network
topology changes
b. to ensure the delivery of an IP
packet
c. to provide feedback of IP packet
transmissions
d. to monitor the process of a domain
name to IP address resolution