MCQs on Indian Constitution and Policies

Fundamental Rights: All Details About Fundamental Rights By Indian Constitution

1. The National commission for women was set up in which year?
a) 2012
b) 2015
c) 1990
d) 1992
Solution 1: d) 1992. The National Commission for women was set up in 1992 as a statutory body by
the government of India in January.
2. What is the type of GST tax?
a) Indirect tax
b) direct tax
c) both a) and b)
d) None of the above
Solution 2: a) Indirect tax. GST or Goods and services tax is a type of indirect tax.
3. The state election commission is elected by whom?
a) Supreme court
b) Prime Minister
c) Chief minister
d) Governor
Solution 3: d) Governor. The state election commissioner is appointed by the Governor who serves
the state election commission. The governor has the power to select the tenure and conditions of
service.
4. The GSTIN (identification number) consists of how many digits?
a) 10
b)06
c)15
d)5
Solution 4: c) 15. The GSTIN consists of 15 digits.
5. The directive principles of state policy (DPSP) are adopted from the Constitution of which
country?
a) South America
b) Ukraine
c) Ireland
d) South Africa
Solution 5: c) Ireland. The Directive Principles of state policy are adopted from the Irish Constitution.
The DPSP Re covers articles 36 to 51 in the Indian constitution.
6. Which article says, “Untouchability is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden.”
a) Article 21
b) Article 17
c) Article 22
d) Article 16
Solution 6: b) Article 17. Article 17 of the Indian constitution says the above-mentioned lines.
7. The Indian constitution was hand-written by whom?
a) Prem Behari Narain Raizada
b) B.R. Ambedkar
c) Balasaheb Gangadhar Kher
d) None of the above
Solution 7: a) Prem Behari Narain Raizada. The original Indian constitution was hand-written by
Prem Behari Narain Raizada in English and he did not charge any fees for writing the Indian
constitution by hand.
8. When was the Constitution of India implemented?
a) 26th January 1948
b) 15th August 1948
c) 25th December 1950
 d) 26th January 1950
Solution 8: d) 26th January 1950. The constitution of India took 2 years, 11 months and 18 days to be
completed. Some of the provisions were declared on 26th November 1949, but the major part of the
Indian constitution came into force on 26th January 1950.
9. Which is the highest law of Land?
a) Indian Constitution
b) Penal code
c) Preamble
d) All of the Above
Solution 9: a) Indian constitution. The constitution is the supreme law of the land. In 2007, the
supreme court ruled that the Constitution is the supreme law of the land and even the highest court of
the country cannot violate it.
10. Freedom of religion is guaranteed by which official document of India?
a) Preamble
b) Indian constitution
c) DPSP
d) Fundamental rights
Solution 10: d) Fundamental rights. Article 25-28 of the fundamental rights guarantees the freedom
of religion.
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1.The Mandal Commission was constituted during the tenure of which among the following prime
ministers?
[A] Indira Gandhi
[B] Morarji Desai
[C] Rajiv Gandhi
[D] V P Singh
Show AnswerCorrect Answer: B [Morarji Desai]
Notes:
On 20 December 1978 India’s prime minister, Morarji Desai of the Janata Party, announced the
formation of a second Backward Classes Commission whose chairman was B. P. Mandal, a former
member of Parliament
On 31 December 1980 the Mandal Commission submitted its report to President N. S. Reddy,
recommending ways to advance India’s “socially and educationally backward classes.”
On 7 August 1990 Prime Minister V. P. Singh announced in the Parliament that his government
would implement the Mandal Commission’s recommendations. This was followed by the violent
objections in northern part of India.

2.How many members can be nominated by the president to the Rajya Sabha & Lok Sabha
Respectively?
[A] 12 & 0
[B] 10 & 2
[C] 10 & 0
[D] 12 & 6
Show AnswerCorrect AnswerCorrect Answer: A [12 & 0]
Notes:
President nominates 12 members in Rajya Sabha for six-years term for their contributions towards
arts, literature, sciences, and social services. This right has been bestowed upon the President
according to the Fourth Schedule (Articles 4(1) and 80(2)) of the Constitution of India. Prior to 2020,
President used to nominate two members of Anglo-Indian Community to Lok Sabha under article
331. This provision has now been abolished.
3.The ultimate sovereignty in the Indian Polity rests with which among the following?
[A] Parliament
[B] Council of Ministers
[C] Higher Judiciary
[D] People of India
Show Answerorrect Answer: D [People of India]
Notes:
While British system is based on doctrine of the sovereignty of Parliament, Indian Parliament is not
supreme and enjoys limited and restricted powers due to a written Constitution, federal system,
judicial review and fundamental rights. However, the phrase “We The People of India” in the
preamble signifies that the ultimate sovereignty resides with the people in India.

4.The Parliament of India is consisted of _______:

[A] Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha
[B] Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha & President
[C] Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, President & Prime Minister
[D] Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & Council of Ministers
Show AnswerCorrect Answer: B [Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha & President]
Notes:
India has a bicameral parliament made of President, Rajya Sabha (Upper House / Council of States)
and Lok Sabha (Lower House / House of People). While Rajya Sabha represents states and union
territories, Lok Sabha represents people of India.
5.Which among the following was the first attempt to regulate the affairs of English East India
Company in India?
[A] Pitts India Act 1784
[B] Charter Act 1833
[C] The Regulating Act 1773
[D] Charter Act of 1813
Show AnswerCorrect Answer: C [The Regulating Act 1773]
Notes:
Regulating Act of 1773 was the first landmark in the constitutional development of India. Via this act,
the British Parliament for the first time interfered into affairs of India. The Prime Minister of England
at the time of Regulating Act of 1773 was Lord North.

6.Which of the following states of India were Union Territories before becoming states ?
[A] Himachal Pradesh, & Tripura
[B] Himachal Pradesh, Manipur and Tripura
[C] Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, Sikkim & Tripura
[D] None of the above
Show AnswerCorrect Answer: B [Himachal Pradesh, Manipur and Tripura]
Notes:
Five current states viz. Goa, Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, Tripura and Mizoram were union territories
before becoming full-fledged states. Goa became state in 1987, Himachal Pradesh in 1971, Manipur
and Tripura in 1972 and Mizoram became state in 1987.
Sikkim had become a Protectorate in 1974 and it was given full statehood in 1974 under 35th
amendment. Jammu & Kashmir is the only state in India which has been converted to two two Union
Territories.

7.The “Bill of Rights” and “Judicial Review” are features of which of the following countries
constitution?
[A] USA
[B] UK
[C] Germany
[D] Australia
Show Answer Correct Answer: A [USA]
Notes:
The “Bill of rights” and “Judicial Review” are features of constitution of United States.

8.Who among the following past presidents of India never served as a Chief Minister of a state in
India?
[A] Giani Jail Singh
[B] Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
[C] Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
[D] Dr, Zakir Hussain
Show AnswerCorrect Answer: D [Dr, Zakir Hussain]
Notes:
D. Jatti had worked as Chief Minister of State of Mysore. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy had worked as Chief
Minister of Andhra Pradesh. Zail Singh worked as Chief Minister of Punjab. Dr. Shankar Dayal
Sharma had served as Chief Minister of Bhopal State.

9.Who among the following was the first chairman of the National Commission for Women?
[A] Mohini Giri
[B] Dr. Poornima Advani
[C] Dr. Girija Vyas
[D] Jayanti Patnaik
Show AnswerCorrect Answer: D [Jayanti Patnaik]
10.Which among the following is a correct function of Public Accounts Committee?
[A] It works under President of India and creates accounts for various ministries
[B] It works under Comptroller and Auditor General of India and prepares accounts
[C] It is a parliamentary committee which gives report on nonplan expenditures of the government
[D] It is a parliamentary committee which scrutinizes the report of the Comptroller & Auditor General
of India
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [It is a parliamentary committee which scrutinizes the report of the Comptroller
& Auditor General of India]
Notes:
Public Accounts Committee examines the annual audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor
General of India (CAG), which are laid before the Parliament by the President.
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2020-2021. A chapterwise course of total 2850 MCQs divided into 60 chapters and 16 Mock Tests is
available in Android app of GKToday under UPSC Prelims Category.
11.Who elects the Speaker of Lok Sabha?
[A] Public
[B] Members of Rajya Sabha
[C] Members of Lok Sabha
[D] Members of Parliament
Correct Answer: C [Members of Lok Sabha]
Notes:
The Speaker of Lok Sabha is chosen by all the members of Lok Sabha. Traditionally the Speaker’s
post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s post goes to the Opposition party.

12.What is the tenure of members of Rajya Sabha?

[A] 2 years
[B] 3 years
[C] 5 years
[D] 6 years
Show AnswerCorrect Answer: D [6 years]
 Notes:
The tenure of member of council of States, that is, Rajya Sabha is 6 years. It is the Upper House of the
Parliament and is not subject to dissolution. One-third of the members retire every second year.

13.How many members of the Rajya Sabha are nominated by the President?
[A] 25
[B] 16
[C] 12
[D] 18
Show AnswerCorrect Answer: C [12]
Notes:
12 members are nominated to the Rajya Sabha by the President from people having special
knowledge or practical experience in art, literature, science and social service. The reason for
nomination is to provide eminent persons a place in
the Rajya Sabha without having to go through the process of election.

14.What is the basis for the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha?
1. Area of the state
2. Population
Select the correct option from the codes below:
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both of them
[D] None of them
Show Answer
15.Which constitutional amendment substituted “Odia” for “Oriya”?
[A] 91st
[B] 93rd
[C] 96th
[D] 99th
Show Answer
16.Who is the ex-officio President of all the Parliamentary Forums?
[A] President
[B] Prime Minister
[C] Speaker
[D] Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Show Answer
17.What is the maximum number of members that a Parliamentary Forum can have?
[A] 21
[B] 25
[C] 30
[D] 31
Show Answer
18.Which of the following has the right to seek the opinion of the Supreme Court on the question of
law?
[A] Any member of Rajya Sabha
[B] President
[C] Prime Minister
[D] High Court
Show Answer
19.How many subjects are present in the State List of the Indian Constitution?
[A] 58
[B] 59
[C] 60
[D] 61
 Show Answer
20.A proclamation declaring financial emergency must be approved in how much time?
[A] Fourteen days
[B] One month
[C] Two Months
[D] Three Months
Show Answer

12.What is the tenure of members of Rajya Sabha?

[A] 2 years
[B] 3 years
[C] 5 years
[D] 6 years
Show Answer
13.How many members of the Rajya Sabha are nominated by the President?
[A] 25
[B] 16
[C] 12
[D] 18
Show Answer
14.What is the basis for the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha?
1. Area of the state
2. Population
Select the correct option from the codes below:
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both of them
[D] None of them
Show AnswerCorrect Answer: B [Only 2]
Notes:
The seats in the Rajya Sabha are allotted on the basis of population of the respective states, which is
why, the number of representatives vary from state to state. For example, Uttar Pradesh has 31
members and Tripura has only 1 member.

15.Which constitutional amendment substituted “Odia” for “Oriya”?

[A] 91st
[B] 93rd
[C] 96th
[D] 99th
Show AnswerCorrect Answer: C [96th]
Notes:
96th Amendment Act of 2011 substituted “Odia” for “Oriya”. As a result of that, the “Oriya”
language in the Eighth Schedule shall be pronounced as “Odia”

16.Who is the ex-officio President of all the Parliamentary Forums?

[A] President
[B] Prime Minister
[C] Speaker
[D] Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Show AnswerCorrect Answer: C [Speaker]
Notes:
The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the ex-officio President of all the Parliamentary Forums except the
Parliamentary Forum on Population and Public Health. The Chairman of Rajya Sabha is the ex-officio
President and the Speaker is the ex-officio Co-President Parliamentary Forum on Population and
Public Health.
17.What is the maximum number of members that a Parliamentary Forum can have?
[A] 21
[B] 25
[C] 30
[D] 31
Show AnswerCorrect Answer: D [31]
Notes:
A Parliamentary Forum consists of not more than 31 members (excluding the President, Co-President
and Vice-Presidents). Out of the 31 not more than 21 are from the Lok Sabha and not more than 10
are
from the Rajya Sabha.

18.Which of the following has the right to seek the opinion of the Supreme Court on the question of
law?
[A] Any member of Rajya Sabha
[B] President
[C] Prime Minister
[D] High Court
Show AnswerCorrect Answer: B [President]
Notes:
Under the Article 143(1) of the Constitution of India the Supreme Court has to act as an advisory
body to the President of India who can ask for advice on any matter of law or fact of public
importance that arises.

19.How many subjects are present in the State List of the Indian Constitution?
[A] 58
[B] 59
[C] 60
[D] 61
Show AnswerCorrect Answer: D [61]
Notes:
The State List at present contains 61 subjects (originally 66 subjects) like public order, police, public
health and sanitation, agriculture, prisons, local government, fisheries, markets, theaters, gambling
and so on.

20.A proclamation declaring financial emergency must be approved in how much time?
[A] Fourteen days
[B] One month
[C] Two Months
[D] Three Months
Show AnswerCorrect Answer: C [Two Months]
Notes:
According to the Constitution of India a proclamation declaring financial emergency in India must be
approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue.

21.The governor consults which of the following in matters of appointment, posting and promotion of
district judges?
[A] Supreme Court
[B] President
[C] High Court
[D] Tribunals
Show AnswerCorrect Answer: C [High Court]
Notes:
The governor consults the High Court of the state in the matters of appointment, posting and
promotion of district judges and in the appointments of persons to the judicial service of the state
(other than district judges).

22.Which of the following can organize Lok Adalats?

1. State Legal Services Authority
2. District Legal Services Authority
3. Supreme Court Legal Services Committee
4. Taluk Legal Services
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 1, 2 & 3
[C] Only 1, 3 & 4
[D] 1, 2 ,3 & 4
Show Answer CommitteeCorrect Answer: D [1, 2 ,3 & 4]
Notes:
The following can organize Lok Adalats: The State Legal Services Authority or the District Legal
Services Authority or the Supreme Court Legal Services Committee or the High Court Legal Services
Committee or the Taluk Legal Services Committee may organise Lok Adalats.

23.Which of the following are the merits of Lok Adalats?

1. There is no court fee and if court fee is already paid the amount will be refunded if the dispute is
settled at Lok Adalat.
2. The parties to the dispute cannot directly interact with the judge through their counsel.
3. The award by the Lok Adalat is binding on the parties.
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 1 & 2
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Show Answer Correct Answer: C [Only 1 & 3]
Notes:
The following are the merits of Lok Adalats: (1) there is no court fee and if court fee is already paid
the amount will be refunded if the dispute is settled at Lok Adalat, (2) the parties to the dispute can
directly interact with the judge through their counsel, (3) the award by the Lok Adalat is binding on
the parties involved in the dispute.

24.Under which article the President is empowered to provide for the creation of a committee of the
Assam Legislative Assembly?
[A] 271
[B] 371
[C] 371 A
[D] 371 B
Show Answer Correct Answer: D [371 B]
Notes:
Under Article 371-B of the Constitution of India , the President is authorized to provide for the
creation of a committee of the Assam Legislative Assembly consisting of the members elected from
the Tribal Areas of the state and such other members as he may specify.

25.Which article empowers the Parliament to provide for the establishment of a Central University in
the state of Andhra Pradesh?
[A] Article 371 A
[B] Article 371 C
[C] Article 371 E
[D] Article 371 F
Show Answer Correct Answer: C [Article 371 E]
Notes:
The Article 371-E of the Constitution of India empowers the Parliament of India to provide for the
establishment of a Central University in the state of Andhra Pradesh.

26.Which of the following are the compulsory provisions of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act
(1992)?
1. Organisation of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages.
2. Direct elections to all seats in panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels.
3. Endowing the Gram Sabha with powers and functions at the village level.
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 1 & 2
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Show Answer Correct Answer: B [Only 1 & 2]
Notes:
Organisation of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages and direct elections to all seats in
panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels are the compulsory provisions of the 73rd
Amendment Act whereas endowing the Gram Sabha with powers and functions at the village level is
a voluntary provision.

27.Which of the following is associated with the development of urban local bodies in India?
[A] Government of India Act of 1919
[B] Government of India Act of 1935
[C] Both of them
[D] None of them
Show Answer Correct Answer: C [Both of them ]
Notes:
Government of India Act of 1919, which introduced dyarchy in the Provinces, made local self-
government a transferred subject to be handled by a responsible Indian minister. Later, under the
Government of India Act of 1935, local self-government was declared a provincial subject.

28.In which year was the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India established?
[A] 1996
[B] 1997
[C] 1998
[D] 1999
Show Answer Correct Answer: B [1997]
Notes:
The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India established in the year 1997. It’s purpose is to regulate
telecom services, including fixation/revision of tariffs for telecom services which were earlier vested
in the Central Government.

29.Who appoints the members of the Central Information Commission?

[A] Prime Minister
[B] President
[C] Lok Sabha
[D] Rajya Sabha
Show Answer Sabha Correct Answer: B [President]
Notes:
The members of the Central Information Commission are appointed by the President on the
recommendation of a committee consisting of the
Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet
Minister who is nominated by the Prime Minister.
30.How many Insurance Ombudsman are there at present?
[A] 15
[B] 16
[C] 17
[D] 20
Show Answer Correct Answer: C [17]
Notes:
The Insurance Ombudsman scheme was created by the Government for individual policyholders to
have their compla
31.What is the meaning of ‘judicial restraint’?
[A] Judges should expand their role in social policy making
[B] Judges should overstep to protect the rights of the individual
[C] Judges should not indulge in lawmaking
[D] Progressive political values should influence judicial opinion
Show Answer Correct Answer: C [Judges should not indulge in lawmaking]
Notes:
Judicial restraint means that the judges should play a limited role of saying what the law is, leaving
the job of lawmaking for legislators and the executives. Moreover, judges must not allow their
personal political values to influence their judicial opinions.

32.Who advises the governor with regard to the summoning and proroguing of the sessions of the
state legislature?
[A] Governor
[B] Chief Minister
[C] Speaker of Legislative Assembly
[D] Chairman of Legislative Council

Show AnswerCorrect Answer: B [Chief Minister]

Notes:
Chief Minister of the state as the leader of the house advises the governor with regard to the
summoning and proroguing of the sessions of the state
legislature. He can also recommend the dissolution of the legislative assembly to the governor at any
point of time.

33.How many High Courts are there in India at present?

[A] 25
[B] 24
[C] 23
[D] 22
Show AnswerCorrect Answer: A [25]
Notes:
At present there are 25 high courts in India. India has a single integrated judicial system with High
Courts operating below the Supreme Court of India. Below the High Courts are Subordinate Courts.

34.Andaman & Nicobar Islands come under the jurisdiction of which High Court?
[A] Calcutta
[B] Orisaa
[C] Madras
[D] Andhra Pradesh
Show Answer

Correct Answer: A [Calcutta]

Notes:
Andaman & Nicobar Islands of India come under the territorial jurisdiction of Calcutta High Court.
Chandigarh Comes under the jurisdiction of Punjab & Haryana High Court. Delhi has its own High
Court.

35.Which of the following are form of Panchayat Courts which try petty civil and criminal cases?
1. Nyaya Panchayat
2. Gram Kutchery
3. Adalati Panchayat
4. Panchayat Adalat
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2 & 4
[C] Only 3
[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
Show Answer correct Answer: D [1, 2, 3 & 4]
Notes:
In some states of India the Panchayat Courts try petty civil and criminal cases. They have different
names in different states such as Nyaya Panchayat, Gram Kutchery, Adalati Panchayat, Panchayat
Adalat and so on.

36.Who conducts of all elections to the panchayats?

1. Election Commission of India
2. State Election Commission
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 & 2
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Both 1 & 2]
Notes:
The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all
elections to the panchayats shall be vested in the state election commission according to the
constitution of India.

37.Which article deals with the power of the President to make regulations for certain Union
territories?
[A] Article 239
[B] Article 240
[C] Article 241
[D] Article 239A
Show AnswerCorrect Answer: B [Article 240]
Notes:
Article 240 deal with the power of the President to make regulations for certain union territories.
Article 239 refers to the administration of union territories. Article 239A mentions the creation of
local Legislatures or Council of Ministers or both for certain union territories. Article 241 deal with
the High Courts for union territories.

38.Who headed the commission to report on the administration of the scheduled areas and the welfare
of the scheduled tribes in the states, constituted in 1960?
[A] Ajit Kumar
[B] Bimal Julka
[C] Dilip Singh Bhuria
[D] U.N.Dhebar
Show Answer yCorrect Answer: D [U.N.Dhebar]
Notes:
U.N. Dhebar headed the commission to report on the administration of the scheduled areas and the
welfare of the scheduled tribes in the states. It was constituted in the year 1960.

39.In which year was the National Human Rights Commission established?
[A] 1992
[B] 1993
[C] 1994
[D] 1995
Show Answer Correct Answer: B [1993]
Notes:
The National Human Rights Commission in India is a statutory body. It was established in the year
1993 under a legislation enacted by the Parliament (Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993).

40.Who appoints the state election commissioner?

[A] President
[B] Parliament
[C] Governor
[D] State Legislature
Show Answer Correct Answer: C [Governor]
Notes:
The State Election Commission consists of a state election commissioner to be appointed by the
governor of the state. The conditions of service and tenure of office of the state election commissioner
shall also be determined by the governor.

41.Who all are in the Selection Committee meant for the selection of the Chairperson and the
members of Lokpal?
[A] Prime Minister
[B] Speaker of the Lok Sabha
[C] Chief Justice of India
[D] All of the above
Show Answer Correct Answer: D [All of the above]
Notes:
The Selection Committee meant for the selection of the Chairperson and the members of Lokpal
consists of the following-
1. Prime Minister
2. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
3. Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha
4. Chief Justice of India or a sitting Supreme Court Judge nominated by the Chief Justice of India
5. An eminent jurist to be nominated by the President of India on the basis of recommendations of the
first four members of the selection committee.

42.Which of the following statements are true about Ombudsman system?

[A] In New Zealand, judiciary is outside the purview of ombudsman.
[B] In Sweden, judiciary is outside the purview of ombudsman.
[C] Both of them
[D] None of them
Show Answer Correct Answer: A [In New Zealand, judiciary is outside the purview of ombudsman.]
Notes:
In New Zealand, judiciary is outside the purview of ombudsman, whereas in Sweden, judiciary falls
under the purview of the ombudsman. Administrative Reforms Commission in India recommended to
keep judiciary outside the purview of Lokpal and lokayukta.
43.Which article of the Constitution of India mentions about the language to be used in the Supreme
Court and in the High Courts and for Acts, Bills?
[A] Article 347
[B] Article 348
[C] Article 349
[D] Article 350
Show Answer Correct Answer: B [Article 348]
Notes:
The article 348 of the Constitution of India mentions about the language to be used in the Supreme
Court of India and in the High Courts and for Acts, Bills etc.

44.The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added which of the following part to the Constitution of India?
[A] Part XI
[B] Part XIII
[C] Part XIV-A
[D] Part XIV-B
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Part XIV-A]
Notes:
Indian Constitution did not originally contain provisions with respect to the tribunals. The 42nd
Amendment Act of 1976 added a new Part XIV-A to the Constitution of India.

45.What does Hadd mean under the Islamic criminal law?

[A] Blood money
[B] Censuring
[C] limit or barrier
[D] None of the above
Show Answer Correct Answer: B [Censuring]
Notes:
In Islamic jurisprudence, Hadd means boundary of limit or barrier. It is the punishment as has been
exactly prescribed by the Quran or the Hadis.

46.Which section of IPC is related to offences related to Marriage?

[A] Sections 490 to 492
[B] Sections 493 to 498
[C] Sections 498A
[D] Section 499
Show Answer Correct Answer: B [Sections 493 to 498]
Notes:
The section 493 to 498 of Indian Penal Code is related to offences related to Marriage. Section
493 states “A man by deceit causing a woman not lawfully married to him to believe that she is
lawfully married to him and to cohabit with him in that belief” is an offence.

47.The Cigarettes and Other Tobacco Products Act, 2003 prohibits smoking of tobacco in which of
the following places?
1. Auditoriums
2. Movie theaters
3. Hospitals
4. Public transport
Select the correct the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 4
[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4
Show Answer Correct Answer: D [1, 2, 3 & 4]
Notes:
The Cigarettes and Other Tobacco Products Act, 2003 prohibits smoking of tobacco in the following
places: (1) Auditoriums, (2) Movie theaters, (3) Hospitals, (4) Public transport etc.

48.The Model Tenancy Act was passed in which year?

[A] 2017
[B] 2018
[C] 2019
[D] 2020
Show Answer Correct Answer: C [2019]
Notes:
The Model Tenancy Act was passed in the year 2019 by the Parliament of India. It is designed to
overhaul the tenancy market in India. The Model Tenancy Act seeks to solve the problem of housing
deficit and contribute to Housing to All by 2022.

49.Which of the following is the highest tax slab of GST?

[A] 12%
[B] 18%
[C] 20%
[D] 28%
Show Answer Correct Answer: D [28%]
Notes:
Goods and Service Tax (GST) are divided into four different tax slabs for collection of tax i.e, 5%,
12%, 18% and 28%.

50.Which among the following statements are true?

1. CGST is levied by Centre
2. IGST is levied by Centre
3. SGST is levied by respective States or UT
Choose the correct option from the codes given below :
[A] 1 only
[B] 1 & 2
[C] 1 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Correct Answer: D [1, 2 & 3]
Notes:
Central Goods and Services Tax (CGST) and Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST) are levied by
the Centre. State Goods and Services Tax (SGST) is levied by respective States or UT.

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1 2345...50
00 Questions on Indian Constitution for UPSC 2020 Pre Exam
- September 28, 2020
100 MCQ's on Constitution of India:-

1. The Governor of a State is appointed by the President on the advice of the

(a) Prime Minister
(b) Vice- President
(c) Chief Minister
(d) Chief Justice
Answer: Prime Minister

 List of 100+ Landmark Cases of Supreme Court India

2. The President gives his resignation to the

(a) Chief Justice
(b) Parliament
(c) Vice President
(d) Prime Minister
Answer: Vice President

3. For what period does the Vice President of India hold office ?
(a) 5 years
(b) Till the age of 65 years
(c) 6 years
(d) 2 years
Answer: 5 years

4. Who among the following holds office during the pleasure of the President ?
(a) Governor
(b) Election Commissioner
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Prime Minister
Answer: Governor

5. Which of the following is not true regarding the payment of the emoluments of the President ?
(a) They can be reduced during a Financial Emergency.
(b) They are shown separately in the budget.
(c) They are charged on the Contigency Fund of India.
(d) They do not require any parliament sanction.
Answer: They are charged on the Contigency Fund of India.

6. The total number of members nominated by the President to the Lok Sabha and the Rajya
Sabha is
(a) 16
(b) 18
(c) 14
(d) 12
Answer: 14

7. Which one of the following does not constitute the electoral college for electing the President
of India ?
(a) Elected members of Lok Sabha
(b) Elected members of the Legislative Assembly of each state.
(c) Elected members of the Legislative Council
(d) Elected members of Rajya Sabha
Answer: Elected members of the Legislative Council

8. The council of Ministers in a Parliamentary type of Government can remain in office till it
enjoys the support of the
(a) Minority of members of the Upper House of Parliament
(b) Majority of the members of the Upper House of Parliament
(c) Minority of members of the Lower House
(d) Majority of the members of the Lower House of Parliament
Answer: Majority of the members of the Lower House of Parliament

9. Which of the following appointments is not made by the President of India ?

(a) Chief of the Army
(b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Chief of the Air Force
Answer: Speaker of the Lok Sabha

10. Who appoints the Prime Minister of India ?

(a) Lok Sabha
(b) President
(c) Parliament
(d) Citizens of India
Answer: President

11. The first woman Governor of a state in free India was

(a) Mrs. Indira Gandhi
(b) Mrs. Vijaya Laxmi Pandit
(c) Mrs. Sarojini Naidu
(d) Mrs. Sucheta Kripalani
Answer: Mrs. Sarojini Naidu

12. Minimum age required to contest for Presidentship is

(a) 23 years
(b) 21 years
(c) 35 years
(d) 30 years
Answer: 35 years

13. The charge of impeachment against the President of India for his removal can be preferred by
(a) Both Houses of Parliament
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(c) Rajya Sabha
(d) Lok Sabha
Answer: Both Houses of Parliament

14. The Chief Minister of a Union Territory where such a set up exists, is appointed by the
(a) Lt. Governor
(b) Majority party in Legislature
(c) President
(d) Prime Minister
Answer: Lt. Governor
15. Who was the first Prime Minister of India ?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Mrs. Indira Gandhi
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer: Jawaharlal Nehru

16. In case a President dies while in office, the vice President can act as President for a
maximum period of
(a) 1 years
(b) 3 months
(c) 6 months
(d) 2 years
Answer; 6 months

17. The Union Council of Ministers consists of

(a) Cabinet Ministers, Minister of State and Deputy Ministers
(b) Cabinet Ministers and Chief Ministers of the States
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Cabinet Ministers
Answer: Cabinet Ministers, Minister of State and Deputy Ministers

18. Who administers the oath of office to the President of India before he enters upon the office ?
(a) Chief Justice
(b) Speaker
(c) Vice President
(d) Prime Minister
Answer: Chief Justice

19. Who among the following enjoys the rank of a Cabinet Minister of the Indian Union?
(a) None of the Above
(b) Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission
(c) Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha
(d) Secretary to the Government of India
Answer: Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission

20. A person who is not a member of Parliament can be appointed as a Minister by the President
for a maximum period of
(a) 9 months
(b) 3 months
(c) 12 months
(d) 6 months
Answer: 6 months

21. When can a President use his discretion in appointing the Prime Minister ?
(a) When no political oarty enjoys a clear majority in the Lok Sabha.
(b) Only when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved.
(c) In all circumstances
(d) In no circumstances
Answer: When no political oarty enjoys a clear majority in the Lok Sabha.

22. If in a country there happens to be the office of monarchy as well as a Parliamentary form of
government this monarch will be called
(a) Head of the State
(b) Head of the Cabinet
(c) Head of the government
(d) Both Head of the government and State
Answer: Head of the State

23. One feature distinguishing the Rajya Sabha from the Vidhan Parishad is
(a) Power of impeachment
(b) Indirect election
(c) Nomination of members
(d) Tenure of membership
Answer: Power of impeachment

24. Chief Ministers of all the states are ex-officio members of the
(a) Planning Commission
(b) National Development Council
(c) Inter State Council
(d) Finance Commission
Answer: Inter State Council

25. Who, among the following, has the final right to sanction the expenditure of public money in
India ?
(a) Speaker
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Parliament
Answer: President

26. Which of the following is not an essential qualification for appointment as a Governor ?
(a) He must not be a member of either House of Parliament.
(b) He should be a domicile of the state to which he is being appointed.
(c) He should be a citizen of India.
(d) He must have completed the age of 35 years
Answer: He should be a domicile of the state to which he is being appointed.

27. The President nominates 12 members of the Rajya Sabha according to

(a) Their performance as office bearers of cultural societies.
(b) The recommendations made by the Vice President.
(c) Their role played in political set up of the country.
(d) Their distinction in the field of science, art, literature and social service.
Answer: Their distinction in the field of science, art, literature and social service.

28. Which Article of the Constitution empowers the President to appoint a Commission to
investigate the condition of backward classes in general and suggest ameliorative measures?
(a) Art 342
(b) Art 344
(c) Art 340
(d) Art 339
Answer: Art 340

29. Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the President of India ?
(a) Either House of Parliament
(b) Any Vidhan Sabha
(c) Only Lok Sabha
(d) Rajya Sabha
Answer: Either House of Parliament
30. Who was the member of the Rajya Sabha when first appointed as the Prime Minister of
India?
(a) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(b) Charan Singh
(c) Morarji Desai
(d) Indira Gandhi
Answer: Indira Gandhi

31. What is the minimum age for appointment as a Governor ?

(a) 35 years
(b) 40 years
(c) 25 years
(d) 30 years
Answer: 35 years

32. Chief Minister of a State is responsible to

(a) Prime Minister
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Legislative Assembly
(d) Governor
Answer; Legislative Assembly

33. The administrative and operational control of the Armed Forces is exercised by the
(a) Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs with Prime Minister as the Chairman
(b) Ministry of Defence
(c) Three Chiefs of the Army, Navy and Air Force Staff
(d) President
Answer: Ministry of Defence

34. What is the position of a Minister of State in the Central Government ?

(a) He is a Minister of Central Government but not a member of the Cabinet.
(b) He looks after the interests of the State Cabinet.
(c) He is the nominee of the State Governor.
(d) He is the nominee of the State Cabinet.
Answer: He is a Minister of Central Government but not a member of the Cabinet.

35. Who among the following is directly responsible to Parliament for all matters concerning the
Defence Services of India ?
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Defence Minister
(d) Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs
Answer: Defence Minister

36. How many times the President of India can seek re-election to his post ?
(a) Once
(b) 3 times
(c) 2 times
(d) Any number of times
Answer; Any number of times

37. Who among the following has the power to form a new state within the Union of India ?
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) President
 (c) Prime Minister
(d) Supreme Court
Answer: President

38. Is the Prime Minister bound to advise the President on matters on which his advice is sought
?
(a) If the Council of Ministers so desires.
(b) Yes
(c) No
(d) It is discretionary
Answer: Yes

39. When the Vice President officiates as President he draws the salary of
(a) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(b) Both (A) and ( C )
(c) President
(d) Member of Parliament
Answer: President

40. Who among the following can attend meetings of the Union Cabinet ?
(a) President
(b) Cabinet Ministers
(c) Ministers of State
(d) Deputy Ministers
Answer: Cabinet Ministers

41. Who among the following has the Constitutional authority to make rules and regulations
fixing the number of members of the UPSC
(a) Vice- President
(b) President
(c) Home Ministry
(d) Cabinet Secretary
Answer: President

 List of 100+ Landmark Cases of Supreme Court India

42. Under whose advice the President of India declares Emergency under Article 352 ?
(a) Chief Ministers of all states
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Cabinet
(d) Council of Ministers
Answer: Cabinet

43. Who acts as the President of India when neither the President nor the Vice President is
available ?
(a) Seniormost Governor of a State
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Auditor General of India
Answer: Chief Justice of India

44. A proclamation of emergency issued under Article 36 must be approved by the Parliament
within
(a) 3 months
(b) 2 months
(c) 1 Month
(d) 6 weeks
Answer: 2 months

45. The Union Council of Ministers is appointed by the

(a) President of India according to his discretion
(b) President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister
(c) Prime Minister of India
(d) Parliament

Answer: President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister

46. The President can proclaim emergency on the written advice of the
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Union Cabinet
Answer: Prime Minister

47. The Union Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to

(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) President
(c) House of the People
(d) Prime Minister
Answer: House of the People

48. Article 78 of the Constitution deals with

(a) President's power to get information from the Council of Ministers.
(b) Prime Minister's duty regarding keeping the President informed about the government's
decisions and policies.
(c) Emergency powers of the President
(d) President's power to send advisory messages to the Parliament.
Answer: President's power to send advisory messages to the Parliament.

49. The maximum duration for which the Vice President may officiate as the President, is
(a) 1 year
(b) 6 months
(c) 4 months
(d) 9 months
Answer: 6 months

50. The President's Rule in a State can be continued for a maximum period of
(a) 2 years
(b) 1 year
(c) 6 months
(d) 2 1/2 years
Answer: 6 months

51. The Chairman and members of State Public Service Commission are appointed by the
(a) President
(b) Chairman, UPSC
(c) Governor
(d) Prime Minister
Answer: Prime Minister

52. When a State Governor dies or resigns, who normally exercises his functions till a new
Governor is appointed ?
(a) Chief Justice of the High Court
(b) Advocate General of the State
(c) Secretary General of the Governor
(d) A person designated by State Cabinet
Answer; Chief Justice of the High Court

53. When a financial emergency is proclaimed

(a) Union budget will not be presented
(b) Salaries and allowances of any class of employees may be reduced
(c) Repayment of government debts will stop
(d) Payment of salaries to public servants will be postponed
Answer: Salaries and allowances of any class of employees may be reduced

54. Who appoints the Chairman of the UPSC ?

(a) President
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Prime Minister
Answer: President

55. Which of the following is correct regarding the Governor of a State ?

(a) All of the above
(b) He can recommend to the President to impose President's Rule in the State.
(c) No money bill can be introduced in the State Legislature without his prior permission.
(d) He has the power of issuing ordinances when the legislature is not in session.
Answer: All of the above

56. If the President wants to resign from office, he may do so by writing to the
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Vice- President
Answer: Vice- President

57. Is the Prime Minister bound to advise is sought ?

(a) Yes, if the Council of Ministers so desires
(b) Yes
(c) No
(d) It is discretionary
Answer: Yes

58. The five year term of the President is calculated from the
(a) First day of the month following the month he assumes charge
(b) Date of his election result
(c) Day he assumes charge
(d) First day of the month he assumes charge
Answer: Day he assumes charge

59. Who is the ex- officio Chairman of the Council of States ?

(a) Vice- President
(b) Leader of the opposition
(c) President
(d) Speaker
Answer: Vice- President
60. Under which Article of the Constitution is the President's rule promulgated on any state in
India?
(a) 326
(b) 370
(c) 380
(d) 356
Answer: 356

61. At a time, President's rule can be imposed on a state for a maximum period of
(a) 1 year
(b) 5 years
(c) 2 years
(d) 4 years
Answer: 1 year

62. The Chairman of the Planning Commission in India is the

(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Minister of Planning
(d) Finance Minister
Answer: Prime Minister

63. When Parliament is not in session, the President can promulgate an ordinance which is to be
ratified by the Parliament within
(a) 6 weeks from the reassembly of Parliament
(b) 6 months from the reassembly of the Parliament
(c) 6 weeks from the date of issue of ordinance.
(d) 3 months from the date of issue of the ordinance.
Answer: 6 weeks from the reassembly of Parliament

64. The President of India is elected by an electoral college comprising of

(a) Elected members of Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
(b) Elected member of both Houses of Parliament and State Legislative Assembly
(c) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament.
(d) Elected member of State Legislative Assemblies
Answer; Elected member of both Houses of Parliament and State Legislative Assembly

65. If the office of the President of India falls vacant, within what time should the next President
be elected ?
(a) Within 2 months
(b) Within 1 year
(c) Within 6 months
(d) Immediately
Answer: Within 6 months

66. The President can proclaim a state of emergency in case of

(a) All of the above
(b) Threat to financial stability of the country.
(c) External aggression or internal disturbances threatening the security of the country.
(d) Failure of Constitutional machinery in a particular state.
Answer: All of the above

67. In the election of the President, the value of the vote of the Lok Sabha members
(a) Differs according to the geographical size of the respective state.
(b) None of these
(c) Differs according to the number of votes a member represents.
(d) is same
Answer: Differs according to the number of votes a member represents.

68. The Indian President is

(a) None of these
(b) Titular executive
(c) Real executive
(d) Real/Titular executive
Answer; Titular executive

69. The minimum age required for becoming the Prime Minister of India is
(a) 30 years
(b) 35 years
(c) 40 years
(d) 25 years
Answer: 25 years

70. The President may for violation of the Constitution be removed from the office by
(a) The Prime Minister
(b) The Electoral College consisting of members of Parliament and the State Legislatures.
(c) Impeachment
(d) A no- confidence vote
Answer: Impeachment

71. In which of the following situations does the President act in his own discretion ?
(a) In returning a proposal to the Council of Ministers for reconsideration
(b) None of the Above
(c) In appointing the Prime Minister
(d) Both of these
Answer: In returning a proposal to the Council of Ministers for reconsideration

72. The Prime Minister, Union Cabinet Minister, Chief Minister and Council of Ministers are all
members of
(a) National Development Council
(b) Regional Council
(c) Planning Commission
(d) Zonal Council
Answer: National Development Council

73. The President's Rule in a state means that the state is ruled by
(a) A caretaker government
(b) The Chief Minister nominated by the President
(c) The Governor of the State
(d) The President directly
Answer: The Governor of the State

74. The Chief - Minister of a Union Territory whenever such a set up exists, is appointed by
(a) The Lt. Governor
(b) The majority party in the legislature
(c) The President
(d) The Prime Minister
Answer: The Lt. Governor
75. Under what article of the Constitution of India can the President take over the administration
of a state in case its constitutional machinery breaks down ?
(a) Art 352
(b) Art 343
(c) Art 356
(d) Art 83
Answer: Art 356

76. The President can make laws through ordinances

(a) Only on subjects contained in the concurrent list
(b) Under no circumstances
(c) On certain subjects even when Parliament is in session.
(d) During the recess of the Parliament
Answer; During the recess of the Parliament

77. Which of the following qualification is not essential for a person to become the VicePresident ?
(a) He must be an Indian.
(b) He must be qualified to be a member of the Rajya Sabha.
(c) He must not be less than 35 years.
(d) He must be a graduate.
Answer: He must be a graduate.

78. How many types of Emergency have been visualised in the Constitution of India ?
(a) Four
(b) Three
(c) One
(d) Two
Answer: Three

79. The impeachment proceedings against the Vice- President can be initiated
(a) Only in Lok Sabha
(b) In neither Hosue of Parliament
(c) In either House of Parliament
(d) Only in Rajya Sabha
Answer: Only in Rajya Sabha

80. Who appoints the Lt. Governor of Jammu and Kashmir?

(a) Chief Minister of the State
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Justice of the High Court
(d) President
Answer: President

81. The President of India can be removed from his office by the
(a) Parliament
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Lok Sabha
Answer: Parliament

82. If the President returns a Bill sent to him for his assent and the Parliament once again passes
the Bill in its original form, then the President
(a) Can seek the opinion of the Supreme Court on the bill
(b) Gives assent to the bill
(c) Can once again return the bill for further reconsideration
(d) Can ask for a referendum on the bill
Answer: Gives assent to the bill

83. If a Minister loses a no- confidence motion, then

(a) Lok Sabha is dissolved
(b) Only Prime Minister and that Minister resigns.
(c) The whole Council of Ministers resigns
(d) The Minister resigns

Answer: The whole Council of Ministers resigns

84. The only instance when the President of India exercised his power of veto related to the
(a) Indian Post Office (Amendment Bill)
(b) Dowry Prohibition Bill
(c) Hindu Code Bill
(d) PEPSU Appropriation Bill
Answer: Indian Post Office (Amendment Bill)

85. The control of the preparation of electoral rolls for parliament and legislature vests with the
(a) President
(b) Election Commission
(c) Cabinet
(d) Prime Minister
Answer: Election Commission

86. What is contained in the tenth schedule of the constitution ?

(a) Languages recognised by constitution
(b) Forms of oath or affirmation
(c) Laws that cannot be challenged in any court of law
(d) Provision regarding disqualification on grounds of defection
Answer: Provision regarding disqualification on grounds of defection

87. The Election commision holds election for

(a) The Parliament, State Legislature and the posts of the president and the Vice-President
(b) The parliament, State legislative Assemblies and the State Council
(c) The Parliament
(d) The parliament and the State Legislative Assemblies
Answer: The Parliament, State Legislature and the posts of the president and the Vice-President

88. For Election to the lok sabha, a nomination paper can be field by
(a) Any citizen of India
(b) Any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a Constituency
(c) Anyone residing in India
(d) A resident of the Constituency from which the election to be contested
Answer: Any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a Constituency

89. In India, political parties are given recognition by

(a) Election Commission
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) President
(d) Law Commission
Answer: Election Commission

90. The Vice President is elected by an Electoral College consisting of members of

(a) Both Houses of Parliament and state legislative
(b) Both Houses of Parliament
(c) Lok Sabha
(d) Rajya Sabha
Answer: Both Houses of Parliament

91. The election Commision dose not conduct the elections to the
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) President's election
(c) Rajya Sabha
(d) Local Bodies
Answer: Local Bodies

92. The maximum age prescribed for election as president is

(a) No such Limit
(b) 62 years
(c) 58 years
(d) 60 years
Answer: No such Limit

93. The power to decide an election petition is vested in the

(a) High Court
(b) Election Commission
(c) Parliament
(d) Supreme Court
Answer: Election Commission

94. To elect the President of India, which one of the following election procedures is used ?
(a) System of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote
(b) Secondary voting system
(c) Proportional representation through list system
(d) Collective Voting system
Answer: System of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote

95. In which year were the first general election held in India ?
(a) 1950-51
(b) 1948-49
(c) 1951-52
(d) 1947-48
Answer: 1951-52

96. Election to the house of the people and the Legislative Assemblies of States in India are
conducted on the basis of
(a) Single Transferable vote
(b) Propotional Representation
(c) Limited sufferage
(d) Adult Franchise
Answer: Adult Franchise

97. Who appoint the Chief Election Commissioner of India ?

(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Parliament
Answer: President

98. Which among the following is not a part of the electoral reforms ?
 (a) Installation of electronic voting machines
(b) Appoinment of election Commissioner
(c) Registration of Political parties
(d) Disquallifying the offenders
Answer: Installation of electronic voting machines

99. Recognition to a political party is accorded by

(a) The Election Commision
(b) A Committee of Whips
(c) The ministry of parliament Affours
(d) The speaker of the Lok Sabha in the case of national Parties and the Speaker of Legislative
assemblies in the case of regional parties
Answer: The Election Commision

100. The Chief Minister of a state in India is not eligible to vote in the Presidential election if
(a) He is a member of the Upper House of the State Legislature
(b) He is a caretaker Chief Minister
(c) He himself is a candidate
(d) He is yet to prove his majority on the floor of the Lower House of the state Legislature
Answer: He is a member of the Upper House of the State Legislature

Indian Constitution MCQs (java T point)

1) In Indian Constitution, the idea of "A Union of States in the Indian Constitution" has been derived
from
a. Constitution of Belgium
b. The Australian Constitution
c. Constitution of Colombia
d. Constitution of Bhutan
Show Answer Workspace

2) Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with Official Language?

a. XVII
b. XVI
c. X
d. XV
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3) Which Article of the Indian Constitution directs the State to take steps to separate the judiciary
from the executive in the public services of the State?
a. Article 58
b. Article 44
c. Article 52
d. Article 50
Show Answer Workspace

4) The right to move freely throughout the territory of India comes under which Article of the Indian
Constitution?

a. Article 11
b. Article 13
c. Article 19
d. Article 22
Show Answer Workspace

5) What is the quorum to constitute a meeting of Lok Sabha?

 a. Half of the total members of the House
b. A quarter of the total members of the House
c. One- fifth of the total members of the House
d. One-tenth of the total members of the House.
Show Answer Workspace

6) How many Fundamental Rights have been provided by the Constitution of India?
a. Eight
b. Nine
c. Five
d. Six
Show Answer Workspace

7) Who is the Constitutional head of the state governments?

a. Chief Minister of the State
b. High court judge
c. Governor
d. Health Minister of the State
Show Answer Workspace

8) How many fundamental duties are noticed in the Constitution of India?

a. Nine
b. Eleven
c. Eight
d. Eleven
Show Answer Workspace

9) Which of the given schedules of the Indian Constitution includes the Provision regarding Anti-
Defection Law?
a. Sixth schedule
b. Seventh schedule
c. Tenth schedule
d. Eleventh schedule
Show Answer Workspace

10) The foundation of the Finance commission is laid down under which of the given articles?
a. Article 202
b. Article 280
c. Article 263
d. Article 231
Show Answer Workspace

11) Which of the Indian Constitution's given Article has the right to privacy been incorporated as
fundamental rights?
a. Article 15
b. Article 17
c. Article 21
d. Article 23
Show Answer Workspace

12) Which of the given Article of the Indian Constitution prescribes for the submission of an annual
report of the work done by the State Public Service Commission?
a. Article 320
b. Article 323
c. Article 326
d. Article 330
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13) In which part of the Indian Constitution, we find the provisions relating to citizenship?
a. Part II
b. Part V
c. Part VI
d. Part IV
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14) Who among the given has the right to summon the Parliament?
a. Prime minister
b. President
c. Speaker of Rajya Sabha
d. Vice President
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15) Habeas Corpus is associated with which of the given part of the Indian Constitution?
a. Preamble
b. Fundamental Rights
c. Directive Principles of State Policy
d. Fundamental Duties
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16) Federalism is taken in the Indian Constitution form which of the following countries?
a. Germany
b. Canada
c. Australia
d. Italy
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17) The first session of the Constituent Assembly was held on

a. 25 December 1949
b. 26 January 1949
c. 09 December 1946
d. 11 November 1946
Show Answer Workspace

18) What does the 10th Schedule of the Indian Constitution contain?
a. Provisions relating to disqualification on the ground of defection
b. Administration and control of Tribal Areas of Northeastern states
c. Powers, authority, and responsibilities of municipalities
d. Administration and control Schedule areas and Schedule Tribes
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19) Which Article of the Indian Constitution states the directive principles of state policy on
'Promotion of international peace and security?
a. Article 57
b. Article 51
c. Article 59
d. Article 49
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20) India is called a secular country because citizens have the fundamental right to
a. freedom of speech and expression
b. freedom to profess the religion of one's choice.
c. assemble peaceably and without arms
d. form associations or unions or co-operative societies
Show Answer Workspace

21) What is the meaning of the term 'Liberty'?

a. Right to express anything
b. Right to go anywhere
c. Absence of restrictions
d. Presence of restrictions
Show Answer Workspace

22) The doctrine of "Basic Structure" was evolved in which of the given case?
a. Madhav Jiwaji Rao Scindia case
b. Kesavananda Bharti case
c. Champakam Dorairajan case
d. Golaknath case
Show Answer Workspace

23) Which Article of the Indian Constitution describes the Taxes are levied and collected by the
center but distributed between the Centre and the states?
a. Article 322
b. Article 270
c. Article 318
d. Article 251
Show Answer Workspace

24) The code of Criminal Procedure was coming into existence on

a. 26 January 1946
b. 01 March 1973
c. 24 April 1955
d. 01 April 1974
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25) Which of the given Articles of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to grant pardons to
any person?
a. Article 41
b. Article 72
c. Article 27
d. Article 91
Show Answer Workspace

26) Which of the given Articles of the Indian Constitution is regarding the duties of the Chief Minister
with respect to the furnishing of information to the Governor?
a. Article 167
b. Article 195
c. Article 187
d. Article 165
Show Answer Workspace

27) The law-making procedure in the Indian Constitution has been inconsiderably influenced by the
Constitution of -----?
a. Australia
b. Japan
c. North Korea
d. UK
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28) An inter-state council may be established by

a. The Prime Minister
b. The Chief Justice of India
c. The President
d. The National Development Council
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29) Who among the following appoints the Lokayukta and Uplokayukta?
a. President
b. Prime Minister
c. Vice President
d. Governor or Lieutenant Governor the concerned state/UT
Show Answer Workspace

30) EVM (Electronic Voting Machine) was first used in which year?
a. 1992
b. 1973
c. 1982
d. 1980
Show Answer Workspace

31) How much time did it take for the creation of the Indian Constitution?
a. 2 years 3 months 26 days
b. 2 years 11 months 18 days
c. 2 years 6 months 23 days
d. 2 years 5 months 11 days
Show Answer Workspace

32) Which schedule of the Indian Constitution is about scheduled languages?

a. X
b. VIII
c. IX
d. VI
Show Answer Workspace

33) Which of the following Constitutional Amendment reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18
years for the Lok Sabha and state legislative assembly elections?
a. 57th
th
b. 48
c. 61st
d. 49th
Show Answer Workspace

34) Which of the given amendment in the Indian Constitution led to the beginning of Panchayat Raj in
India?
a. 73rd
th
b. 64
c. 62nd
d. 69th
Show Answer Workspace

35) Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the imposition of the President's rule?
 a. Article 344
b. Article 356
c. Article 375
d. Article 344
Show Answer Workspace

36) The provision of office of Vice President in the Indian Constitution is taken from which country?
a. Russia
b. Bangladesh
c. America
d. Italy
Show Answer Workspace

37) Which of the given article of the Indian Constitution mentions the provision of Council of
Minister for aid and advice of the President of India?
a. Article 63
b. Article 74
c. Article 77
d. Article 66
Show Answer Workspace

38) Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights?
a. Article 351
b. Article 71
c. Article 12 - 35
d. Article 46 - 59
Show Answer Workspace

39) The Rajya Sabha can delay the Money Bill sent for its consideration by the Lok Sabha for a
maximum period of
a. 16 days
b. 14 days
c. 10 days
d. 7 days
Show Answer Workspace

40) The number of Lok Sabha seats were raised from 525 to 545 by which of the given amendment?
a. 56th
th
b. 48
c. 31st
d. 35th
Show Answer Workspace

41) Which of the given article of the Indian Constitution deals with National Commission for
Scheduled Castes?
a. Article 343
b. Article 355
c. Article 338
d. Article 333
Show Answer Workspace

42) The DPSP (Directive Principle of State Policy) in the Indian Constitution has been borrowed from
which country?
a. Australia
b. USA
c. Russia
d. Ireland.
Show Answer Workspace

43) Which of the given Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the High court to issue writs?
a. Article 223
b. Article 229
c. Article 232
d. Article 226
Show Answer Workspace

44) The electoral college for the election of the Vice-President comprises of?
a. All the members of the Lok Sabha
b. Members of state Legislative assemblies
c. All the members of the Rajya Sabha
d. Both option a and c
Show Answer Workspace

45) Which of the given article of the Indian Constitution, the provision of Election Commission is
mentioned?
a. Article 320
b. Article 324
c. Article 330
d. Article 336
Show Answer Workspace

46) Who is the chairman of the Economic Intelligence Council (EIC)?

a. President
b. Prime Minister
c. Chief Justice of India
d. Finance Minister
Show Answer Workspace

47) Which of the given schedule of the Indian Constitution is included the "Gram-Panchayats"?
a. Schedule 10
b. Schedule 11
c. Schedule 12
d. Schedule 13
Show Answer Workspace

48) In ____________, the President of India can keep a bill for an indefinite period.
a. Pocket Veto
b. Regular Veto
c. Absolute Veto
d. All of these
Show Answer Workspace

49) As per the Indian Constitution, the retirement age of the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of
India is?
a. 52 years
b. 55 years
c. 60 Years
d. 65 years
Show Answer Workspace
 50) Which Part of the Indian Constitution deals with the Government in the states?
a. Part IV
b. Part VI
c. Part V
d. Part IX
Show Answer Workspace
GK Quiz on Fundamental Duties & Fundamental Rights: Jagran Josh is presenting the aspirants of UPSC, IAS, SSC, IES, and other
competitive exams with a set of 11 MCQs based on Fundamental Duties & Fundamental Rights. Take the quiz below to test your
knowledge of the aforementioned topics.
1. Which fundamental rights cannot be suspended even during an emergency?
(a) Right to Speech
(b) Right to Religion
(c) Right to Equality
(d) Right to Life and Personal Liberty
Ans: d
Explanation: Right to Life and Personal Liberty cannot be suspended even during an emergency.

2. The Fundamental Duties are mentioned in:

(a) Part-IV A
(b) Part-IV
(c) Part-III
(d) In schedule IV-A
Ans: a
Explanation: The Fundamental Duties of citizens are mentioned in Part-IV A of the Indian Constitution.

3. Which of the following Article of the Indian Constitution contains Fundamental Duties?

(a) 45 A
(b) 51 A
(c) 42
(d) 30B
Ans: b
Explanation: The Fundamental Duties of citizens are mentioned in Article 51 A of the Indian Constitution.

4. Which of the following are Fundamental Duties?

(a) Safeguarding public property

(b) Protecting the sovereignty, integrity and unity of India
(c) Developing scientific temper and humanism
(d) All the above
Ans: d
Explanation: It shall be the duty of every citizen of India-- (a) to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the
National Flag and the National Anthem; (b) to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom; (c) to
uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India; (d) to defend the country and render national service when called upon
to do so; (e) to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic
and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women; (f) to value and preserve the rich
heritage of our composite culture; (g) to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife, and to
have compassion for living creatures; (h) to develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform; (i) to safeguard
public property and to abjure violence; (j) to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation
constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement; (k) who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to
his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years.

5. Which of the following committee suggested incorporating Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution?
(a) Malhotra Committee
(b) Raghavan Committee
(c) Swaran Singh Committee
(d) Narasimhan Committee
Ans: c
Explanation: Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Indian Constitution by the Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act,
1976 upon the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
6. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution contain the Right to Religious Freedom?

(a) Articles 25-28

(b) Articles 29-30
(c) Articles 32-35
(d) Articles 23-24
Ans: a
Explanation: Articles 25-28 of the Indian Constitution contains the Right to Religious Freedom.
Article 25: (1) Subject to public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of this Part, all persons are equally entitled to
freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practise and propagate religion. (2) Nothing in this article shall affect the operation
of any existing law or prevent the State from making any law— (a) regulating or restricting any economic, financial, political or other
secular activity which may be associated with religious practice; (b) providing for social welfare and reform or the throwing open of
Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus.
Explanation I- The wearing and carrying of kirpans shall be deemed to be included in the profession of the Sikh religion.
Explanation II- In sub-clause (b) of clause (2), the reference to Hindus shall be construed as including a reference to persons professing
the Sikh, Jaina or Buddhist religion, and the reference to Hindu religious institutions shall be construed accordingly.

Article 26: Subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have
the right- (a) to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes; (b) to manage its own affairs in matters of
religion (c) to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and (d) to administer such property in accordance with the law.
Article 27: No person shall be compelled to pay any taxes, the proceeds of which are specifically appropriated in
payment of expenses for the promotion or maintenance of any particular religion or religious denomination.
Article 28: (1) No religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained out of State
funds. (2) Nothing in clause (1) shall apply to an educational institution that is administered by the State but has been established under
any endowment or trust which requires that religious instruction shall be imparted in such institution. (3) No person attending any
educational institution recognised by the State or receiving aid out of State funds shall be required to take part in any religious
instruction that may be imparted in such institution or to attend any
religious worship that may be conducted in such institution or in any premises attached thereto unless such person or, if such person is
a minor, his guardian has given his consent thereto.

7. Which of the following Article of the Indian Constitution guarantees 'Equality Before the Law and Equal Protection of Law
within the Territory of India'?

(a) 15
(b) 14
(c) 17
(d) 18
Ans: b
Explanation: Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the
territory of India.

8. Which Article of the Indian Constitution abolishes Untouchability?

(a) Article 18
(b) Article 15
(c) Article 14
(d) Article 17
Ans: d
Explanation: Article 17 of the Indian Constitution abolishes Untouchability. It states: “Untouchability” is abolished and its practice in any
form is forbidden. The enforcement of any disability arising out of “Untouchability” shall be an offence punishable in accordance with the
law.

9. Which of the following is correct with respect to “Right Against Exploitation”?

(a) Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour

(b) Freedom as to payment of taxes for the promotion of any particular religion
(c) Protection of interests of minorities
(d) Equality before the law
Ans: a
Explanation: Articles 23-24 of the Indian Constitution contains the Right Against Exploitation.
Article 23: (1) Traffic in human beings and the beggar and other similar forms of forced labour are prohibited and any contravention of
this provision shall be an offence punishable in accordance with the law. (2) Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from imposing
compulsory service for public purposes, and in imposing such service the State shall not make any discrimination on grounds only of
religion, race, caste or class or any of them.
Article 24: No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other
hazardous employment.

10. In which part of the Indian Constitution, the Fundamental Rights are provided?

(a) Part II
(b) Part III
(c) Part V
(d) Part IV
Ans: b
Explanation: Part III of the Indian Constitution mentions the Fundamental Rights of the citizens.
11. The Fundamental Duties were included in the Constitution of India by which of the following Amendment Act?

(a) 40th Amendment Act

(b) 44th Amendment Act
(c) 43rd Amendment Act
(d) 42nd Amendment Act
Ans: d
Explanation: Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Indian Constitution by the Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act,
1976.