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Esas Obj 2

The document contains a test with 64 multiple choice questions covering various concepts in chemistry. Some of the key concepts covered include: - The definitions of terms like atom, isotope, and ion - Types of chemical bonds and reactions - Laws of conservation of mass and definite proportions - Components of the periodic table like groups and periods - Electronic configuration and chemical bonding models - Oxidation-reduction reactions - Formula writing for ionic and covalent compounds

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kan lim
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
16 views

Esas Obj 2

The document contains a test with 64 multiple choice questions covering various concepts in chemistry. Some of the key concepts covered include: - The definitions of terms like atom, isotope, and ion - Types of chemical bonds and reactions - Laws of conservation of mass and definite proportions - Components of the periodic table like groups and periods - Electronic configuration and chemical bonding models - Oxidation-reduction reactions - Formula writing for ionic and covalent compounds

Uploaded by

kan lim
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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______________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________
CERTC Review Center : MANILA-CEBU-DAVAO (0932-175-1218) / 0917-3028824 Page 1
Room 501, G.K. Chua Bldg. M.J. Cuenco Avenue, Cebu City.

ESS FINAL COACHING


ESAS OBJ 2

TEST 1

1. The word “atom” comes from the Greek word “atomos” which
means

A. Superparticle
B. Invisible
C. Extremely small particle
D. Indivisble *

2. An instrument that separates particles of different isotopic


composition and measure their individual relative masses.

A. mass spectrometer *
B. barometer
C. hygrometer
D. mass spectometer

3. These are compounds containing water molecules loosely


bound to the other components.

A. isotope
B. hydrates *
C. ion
D. mixture

4. If a more active element replaces a less active one in a


compound, the reaction is:

A. combustion reactions
B. replacement reactions *
C. metathesis
D. neutralization
5. If a single reactant is transformed by heat or electricity into two
or more products, the type of reaction is

A. decomposition *
B. combination
C. displacement
D. double displacement

6. The statement “mass is neither created nor destroyed in a


chemical reaction” is known as:

A. The law of conservation of mass *


B. The law of constant composition
C. The law of multiple proportions
D. The law of chemical reaction

7. What kind of chemical bond will form in binary compounds


where the electronegativity difference between atoms is greater
than 2.0

A. Ionic Bond *
B. Covalent bond
C. Metallic bond
D. Chemical bond

8. What kind of chemical bond will form in binary compounds


where the electronegativity difference between atoms is less
than 1.5?

A. Covalent bond *
B. Ionic bond
C. Metallic bond
D. Chemical bond

9. The element which has a mass of about 9 amu is beryllium (Be),


atomic number 4. What is the charge on the Be atom?

A. +4
B. +8
C. -4
D. neutral *
10. The horizontal arrangement of elements of increasing atomic
number in a periodic table is called:

A. period *
B. group
C. family
D. row

11. Refers to atoms or ions, which have the same electronic


configuration.

A. isoelectronic *
B. isotope
C. isotomic
D. isometric

12. Which group of the periodic table is known as the alkali metals?

A. Group I *
B. Group IV
C. Group III
D. Group VII

13. Which group is known as the halogens?


A. Group V
B. Group II
C. Group VII *
D. Group III

14. The mass that enters into a chemical reaction remains the
unchanged as a result of the reaction. In precise form: mass is
neither created nor destroyed. This is known as:

A. the law of conservation of mass *


B. the law of definite proportion
C. the law of multiple proportion
D. law of conservation of energy
15. When the same elements can form two different compounds,
the ratio of masses of one of the elements in the two
compounds is a small whole number relative to a given mass of
the other element. This is known as:

A. the law of constant composition.


B. the law of conservation of mass
C. the law of multiple proportion *
D. law of conservation of energy

16. The ratio of the density of the test liquid to the density of a
reference liquid is called:

A. specific gravity *
B. relative gravity
C. specific weight
D. relative weight

17. How many electrons are there in a covalent bond?

A. 3
B. 2 *
C. 4
D. 8

18. The elements that a compound is composed of are present in


fixed and precise proportion by mass. This is known as:

A. the law of constant composition *


B. the law of conservation of mass
C. the law of multiple proportion
D. law of conservation of energy

19. The mass to the nearest atomic-mass unit of an atom which


contains 9 protons and 10 neutrons.

A. 10 amu
B. 19 amu *
C. 15 amu
D. 21 amu
20. The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom is called

A. atomic number *
B. percent abundance
C. atomic weight
D. oxidation number

21. The measure of the resistance of an object to a changed in its


state of motion is called

A. momentum
B. mass *
C. inertia
D. velocity

22. Refers to the agreement of a particular value with the true value.

A. precision
B. error
C. tolerance
D. accuracy *

23. Refers to the degree of agreement among several


measurements of the same quantity.

A. accuracy
B. precision *
C. error
D. margin
FINAL COACHING
24. A property of matter that is often used by chemist as an
“identification tag” for a substance.

A. mass
B. molarity
C. density *
D. volume

25. Protons and neutrons can be broken down further into


elementary particles called

A. quarks *
B. ions
C. isotope
D. warks

26. The principle of the constant composition of compounds,


originally called “Proust’s Law” is now known as

A. The law of multiple proportion


B. The law of definite proportion *
C. The law of conservation of mass
D. The law of compounds

27. The mass of an alpha α particle is how many times more than
that of the electron?

A. 1837 times
B. 7300 times *
C. 1829 times
D. 1567 times

28. Atoms with the same number of protons but different number of
neutrons are called

A. ions
B. quarks
C. isotopes *
D. compounds

29. The forces that hold atoms together are called

A. mechanical bond
B. formula bond
C. atomic bond
D. chemical bond *

30. An atom or group of atoms that has a net positive or negative


charge is called

A. ion *
B. isotope
C. positron
D. polymer
31. A positive ion is called

A. positron
B. anion
C. cation *
D. quark

32. A negative ion is called

A. positron
B. anion *
C. cation
D. quark

33. The force of attraction between oppositely charged ions is called

A. ionic bonding *
B. covalent bonding
C. polar bonding
D. metallic bonding

34. The horizontal arrangement of elements of increasing atomic


number in a periodic table is called

A. group
B. period *
C. series
D. row

35. The vertical arrangement of elements in the periodic table is


called

A. period
B. group *
C. series
D. column

36. If the number of gas molecule is doubled in a certain volume of


gas the pressure

A. is decreased to half
B. is doubled *
C. is increased to four times
D. remains unchanged
37. A symbolic representation to emphasize the valence shell of an
atom is called

A. argand diagram
B. canstellation diagram
C. electron dot diagram *
D. structural formula

38. For which elements do the number of electrons in their outer or


valence shell correspond to their group number?

A. transition group
B. noble gas
C. representative or main group *
D. metals

39. What is the maximum number of electrons that can fit into a “p”
orbital?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6 *
D. 8

40. Atoms or ions which have the same electronic configuration.

A. isoelectronic *
B. isometric
C. iso-ionic
D. isotope

41. Which group of the periodic table is known as the alkali metals?

A. Group 1 *
B. Group 2
C. Group 3
D. Group 4

42. Which group of the periodic table is known as the halogens?

A. Group 4
B. Group 5
C. Group 6
D. Group 7 *
43. Which group of the periodic table is known as the alkaline
earths ?

A. Group 1
B. Group 2 *
C. Group 3
D. Group 4

44. Which group of the periodic table is known as the noble gases?

A. Group 5
B. Group 6
C. Group 7
D. Group 8 *

45. The components resulting from the reactions are called

A. products *
B. reductants
C. reactants
D. oxidants

46. What kind of chemical bond will form in binary compounds


where the electronegativity difference between atoms is less
than 1.5?

A. Covalent Bond *
B. Ionic Bond
C. Super bond
D. Electrovalent bond

47. Compounds which contain only carbon and hydrogen are called

A. polymorphs
B. hydrocarbons *
C. polycarbon
D. plastics

48. Which of the following designation means that the amount of


solute is expressed in physical mass units, i.e., grams, and the
amount of solution (not solvent) is expressed in volume units,
i.e., milliliters.

A. v/v
B. w/v *
C. w/w
D. v/w

49. The earth’s crust consists of ___ % of oxygen.

A. 20.8
B. 49.2*
C. 47.5
D. 78.2

50. The human body consists of ___ % of carbon.

A. 12
B. 16
C. 18 *
D. 22

51. What kind of chemical bond will form in binary compounds


where the electronegativity difference between atoms is greater
than 2.0

A. Covalent Bond
B. Ionic Bond *
C. Super bond
D. Electrovalent bond

52. The property of liquid which describes their resistance to flow is


called

A. viscosity *
B. elasticity
C. glueyness
D. stickiness

53. The anions and cations which are unaffected by the reaction in
solution are called

A. neutral ions
B. spectator ions *
C. noble ions
D. observer ions
54. A reaction in which heat is produced is called

A. exothermic *
B. isothermic
C. endothermic
D. pyrothermic

55. A reaction in which heat is absorbed is called

A. exothermic
B. isothermic
C. endothermic *
D. pyrothermic

56. In oxidation-reduction or redox reactions, the component


supplying the electrons is called the

A. reductant *
B. reducing agent
C. oxidant
D. acceptor

57. In oxidation-reduction or redox reactions, the component


receiving the electrons is called

A. reductant
B. reducing agent
C. oxidant *
D. acceptor

58. A covalent bond formed by the combination of collinear p


orbitals is also called a

A. alpha bond
B. sigma bond *
C. delta bond
D. gamma bond

59. The tendency of atoms to attract electrons into their valence


shells to form anions is described by the concept of

A. electronegativity
B. electron mobility
C. electron affinity *
D. electron ability

60. The tendency of an atom to attract electrons shared in a


covalent bond is called

A. electronegativity *
B. electron mobility
C. electron affinity
D. electron ability

61. A covalent bond between atoms of identical electronegativity is


called

A. polar
B. bipolar
C. nonpolar *
D. monopolar

62. A formula which describes only the numbers of each element in


the molecule is called

A. structural formula
B. molecular formula *
C. empirical formula
D. ionic formula

63. The formula that describes how atoms are joined together is
called the

A. structural formula *
B. molecular formula
C. empirical formula
D. ionic formula

64. The pairs of electrons not shared in the covalent bond are called

A. bonded electrons
B. free electrons
C. valence electrons
D. nonbonded electrons or lone pairs *

65. The word atom comes from the Greek word, atomos meaning

A. unique
B. cannot be cut *
C. single
D. cannot be destroyed

66. The central part of an atom is called the

A. nucleus *
B. core
C. hub
D. heart

67. The mass of a proton is about how many times the mass of an
electron?

A. 1639
B. 1837 *
C. 1387
D. 1587

68. The particles in the nucleus, namely the neutrons and the
protons, are collectively referred to as

A. positrons
B. electrods
C. nucleons *
D. isotope

69. The number of orbiting electrons is normally ________the


number of protons in the nucleus of an atom.

A. more than
B. less than
C. equal *
D. half

70. The net electric charge on any atom is

A. zero *
B. +1
C. -1
D. dependent on the number of protons in the nucleus
71. Under normal state, an atom is said to be

A. positively charged
B. negatively charged
C. electrically neural *
D. positively or negatively charged

72. The word electron comes from the Greek word “elektron” which
means

A. cannot be cut
B. amber *
C. unique
D. negative
COACHING
73. The word proton comes from the Greek word “proteios”
meaning

A. of first importance *
B. with positive charge
C. unique
D. cannot be cut

74. A solid which has no crystalline structure is called

A. Non-crystalline
B. Amorphous *
C. Fused
D. Immiscible

75. The dry air is composed of ___ percent of nitrogen.

A. 20.9%
B. 22.8%
C. 76.2%
D. 78.1% *

76. The dry air is composed of ___ percent of oxygen.

A. 20.9% *
B. 22.8%
C. 76.2%
D. 78.1%
77. ___ percent of carbon dioxide is present in dry air.

A. 0.3%
B. 0.03% *
C. 0.003%
D. 0.0003%

78. A chemical substance which readily evaporates and readily


diffuses at ordinary room temperature and pressure conditions
is called

A. Inflammable
B. Inert
C. Volatile *
D. Corrosive

79. Which of the following falls under fluids?

A. Solid
B. Gas
C. Liquid
D. Both liquid and gas *

80. The gases that rarely take part in a chemical reaction are called

A. Miscible gases
B. Volatile gases
C. Noble gases *
D. Permanent gases

81. Which type of ions, metals form when enter into a chemical
reaction?

A. Negative ions
B. Positive ions *
C. Either positive or negative ions
D. They do not form any ions

82. Which of the following is the most abundant element in terms of


the number of atoms?

A. Helium
B. Hydrogen
C. Nitrogen
D. Oxygen *

83. Which is the most abundant element in the human body?

A. Carbon
B. Hydrogen
C. Nitrogen
D. Oxygen *

84. The chemical name for baking soda is

A. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Sodium sulphate *
C. Sodium chloride
D. Sodium carbonate

85. The subatomic particle with a negative charge and mass of 9.1
X 10-31 kg is

A. Proton
B. Neutron
C. Electron *
D. Positron

86. The subatomic particle with a positive charge and mass of 9.1 X
10-27 kg is

A. Proton *
B. Neutron
C. Electron
D. Positron

87. Who discovered the neutron?

A. Eugene Goldstein
B. Joseph John Thomson
C. Ernest Rutherford
D. James Chadwick *

88. Electron was discovered by

A. J.J. Thompson *
B. Chadwick
C. Bohr
D. Einstein

89. The isotopes of an element differ in the number of

A. Electrons
B. Neutrons *
C. Protons and neutrons
D. Both

90. The isotope of hydrogen is

A. Protium
C. Deuterium
B. Tritium
D. All of the above *

91. The isotope of hydrogen with only one neutron is called

A. Protium
B. Deuterium *
C. Tritium
D. monotium

92. The isotope of hydrogen with two neutrons is called

A. Protium
B. Deuterium
C. Tritium *
D. Politium

93. The atoms having different atomic numbers but the same mass
number are called

A. Isotones
B. Isotopes
C. Homologues
D. Isobars *

94. The atoms which have the same number of neutrons but
different mass numbers are called

A. Isotones *
B. Isotopes
C. Homologues
D. Isobars

95. Rutherford model of an atom had failed to explain

A. the location of electrons in an atom


B. the position of protons and neutrons *
C. the distribution of electrons around the nucleus
D. both (A) and (B)

96. The concept that electrons revolve around the nucleus in


specific paths called orbits or energy levels was proposed by

A. Rutherford
B. Niels Bohr *
C. J.J. Thompson
D. Chadwick
COACHING
97. The number of atoms (6.023x1023) present in 12 grams of
carbon-12 is called

A. Avogadro’s constant *
B. Planck’s constant
C. Reinhold’s constant
D. Bohr’s constant

98. The chemical formula which shows the relative number of atoms
of all the elements present in a compound is called

A. Molecular formula
B. Empirical formula *
C. Structural formula
D. Compound formula

99. The chemical formula which shows the exact numbers of atoms
of all the elements present in a compound is called

A. Molecular formula *
B. Empirical formula
C. Structural formula
D. Compound formula
100. The X-rays were discovered by

A. Madam Curie
B. Pierre Curie
C. Henry Becquerel
D. W.C. Roentgen*

TEST 2

1. The work done by all forces except the gravitational force is


always equal to the _______ of the system.

A. total mechanical energy


B. total potential energy
C. total kinetic energy *
D. total momentum

2. When the two waves of the same frequency speed and


amplitude traveling in opposite directions are superimposed,

A. the phase difference is always zero


B. distractive waves are produced
C. standing waves are produced *
D. constructive interference always results

3. According to this law, “The force between two charges varies


directly as the magnitude of each charge and inversely as the
square of the distance between them.”

A. Law Universal Gravitation


B. Newton’s Law
C. Inverse Square Law
D. Coulomb’s Law *

4. It describes the luminous flux incidence per unit area and is


expressed in lumens per square meter.

A. Illuminance *
B. Luminance
C. Luminous intensity
D. Radiance
5. The amount of heat needed to change solid to liquid is

A. condensation
B. cold fusion
C. latent heat of fusion *
D. solid fusion

6. At the boiling point of a liquid, the vapor pressure

A. is equal to external pressure on the surface of the liquid *


B. is greater than the atmospheric pressure
C. is less than the atmospheric pressure
D. can have any value

7. Which of the following thermometers is best suited for


measuring a temperature of nearly 1500oC?

A. Gas thermometer
B. Platinum resistance thermometer
C. Thermo couple thermometer *
D. Mercury thermometer

8. The energy stored in a stretched elastic material such as spring


is

A. mechanical energy
B. elastic potential energy *
C. internal energy
D. kinetic energy

9. In Physics, if LF and LV are the latent heat of fusion and


vaporization, respectively, which of the following equations
apply in determining the amount of energy needed to freeze a
liquid.

A. Q = -mlf *
B. Q = -mlv
C. Q = mlf
D. Q = mlv

10. Which of the following is true? the density of water

A. is maximum at 4oC *
B. decreases as the temperature is increased
C. is minimum at 4oC
D. increases with temperature

11. When the pitch of a note is raised then, its

A. frequency decreases
B. wavelength is increased
C. frequency increases *
D. None of the above is true

12. Cohesion is the attraction between like _______.

A. atom
B. element
C. compound *
D. molecule

13. The quantity known as specific heat is based on:

A. the increase in temperature due to induction


B. the heat needed for one pound of water to boil
C. the heat needed to increase the temperature to one gram of
a substance one degree Celsius *
D. the amount of heat required to melt one kg of lead

14. When sugar is added to water, its boiling point

A. increases
B. remains unaffected
C. decreases *
D. Any of the above is possible

15. Which one of the following processes of heat transfer requires


the presence of a fluid?

A. conduction
B. convection *
C. radiation
D. none of the above

16. When salt is added to water, its boiling point

A. increases *
B. decreases
C. remains unaffected
D. may increase /decrease depending on the pressure

17. Which one of the following propagates with the same speed as
speed of light?

A. the sound waves


B. the heat waves *
C. the shock waves
D. the Beta rays

18. Which of the following is not true about sound waves?

A. they transmit the energy


B. they are propagated as a series of compressions and rare
fractions
C. they travel faster in air than in solids *
D. they produce interference

19. Sound waves in air are

A. Longitudinal *
C. Neither longitudinal or transverse
B. Transverse
D. Stationary

20. Normal range of the frequency of sound, which the human


beings can hear, is

A. less than 20 Hz
B. more than 25,000 Hz
C. 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz *
D. all of these

21. Sound above the frequency of 20,000 Hz is called

A. Supersonic sound
B. Infrasonic sound
C. Hypersonic sound
D. Ultrasonic sound *
22. The surface of the thermos flask is silvered for minimizing heat
transfer by what process?

A. conduction
B. radiation *
C. convection
D. vaporization

23. Heat will flow from one body to another in thermal contact with
it, when they differ in

A. mass
B. specific heat
C. density
D. temperature *

24. The amount of heat which is absorbed during the change of


state of a substance without rise in its temperature is called its

A. Specific heat
B. Latent heat *
C. Thermal conductivity
D. Water equivalent

25. The scientist who systematically demonstrated the equivalence


of mechanical energy and heat was

A. Joule *
B. Boltzmann
C. Faraday
D. Kelvin

26. On a sunny day at the beach, the sand gets so hot and the
water stays relatively cool is due to the difference in_______ of
water and sand.

A. density
B. specific heat *
C. depth
D. thermal conductivity
27. The instrument, which measures temperature by radiation, is
called

A. thermopile
B. thermometer
C. pyrometer *
D. hydrometer

28. When the temperature of an ideal gas is increased at constant


pressure,

A. the potential energy of molecules increases


B. the potential energy of molecules decreases
C. the kinetic energy of molecules increases *
D. the kinetic energy of molecules decreases

29. The root mean square speed of the molecules of a gas is

A. independent of its pressure P


B. directly proportional to square root of P
C. directly proportional to the square of its temperature T *
D. proportional to T

30. At what temperature do both the centigrade and Fahrenheit


thermometers show the same reading?

A. -38o
B. -40o *
C. -42o
D. -500

31. A mercury thermometer is constructed at

A. room temperature
B. a temperature higher than the maximum range of the
thermometer *
C. a temperature lower than the minimum range of the
temperature
D. atmospheric pressure

32. The boiling point of water on plains is 100o C. At hills it will be

A. 100oC
B. less than 100oC *
C. more than 100oC
D. may be any of the above

33. It is hotter over the top of a fire than at the same distance on the
sides because of:

A. convection of heat *
B. conduction of heat
C. radiation of heat
D. conduction, convection and radiation of heat

34. The density of water is

A. same at all temperature


B. maximum at 4oC *
C. minimum at 4OC
D. maximum at 0OC

35. When a substance is heated, its

A. molecules move more slowly


B. molecules move more rapidly *
C. there is no change in the speed of its molecules
D. its temperature always increases

36. When common salt is sprinkled on ice the temperature of ice

A. increases
B. decreases *
C. remains unchanged
D. none of these

37. The minimum temperature which can be measured with a


mercury thermometer is

A. 0oC
B. -273oC
C. -39oC *
D. -143oC
38. A wave in which the particles of the material move up and down
as the wave goes from left to right is called a

A. Longitudinal wave
B. Transverse wave *
C. Standing wave
D. None of these

39. When waves go from one place to another they transport

A. Energy and matter


B. Wavelength and matter
C. Frequency only
D. Energy only *

40. The phenomenon of damping results in decrease in

A. frequency
B. velocity
C. wavelength
D. amplitude *

41. Echo is formed as a result of

A. refraction of sound
B. diffraction of sound
C. interference of sound
D. reflection of sound *

42. The characteristic of sound which enables us to distinguish two


musical notes having the same frequency and loudness is
called

A. pitch *
B. intensity
C. timber
D. decibel

43. Which of the following could be a longitudinal wave?

A. electromagnetic waves
B. a sound wave in air *
C. a water wave
D. waves on a vibrating string

44. A decibel is a

A. musical instrument
B. highest frequency emitted by a tuning fork
C. a measure of intensity level *
D. a measure of clarity of sound

45. The rate of energy is radiated from a black body is proportional


to the _____power of its absolute value temperature.

A. 4*
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1

46. Conduction best takes place in a

A. Solid*
B. Fluid
C. Gas
D. Vacuum

47. Convection best takes place in a

A. Solid
B. Fluid*
C. Alloy
D. Vacuum

48. Radiation is the only method of heat transfer that can take place
in a

A. Solid
B. Liquid
C. Gas
D. Vacuum*

49. The power of a lens is measured in

A. Millimeters
B. Centimeters
C. Meters
D. Dioptre*

50. Sound waves with frequencies greater than 20,000 Hz are

A. Infrasonic waves
B. Supersonic waves
C. Ultrasonic waves*
D. Impossible

51. Sound waves with frequencies less than 2 Hz are

A. Infrasonic waves*
B. Supersonic waves
C. Ultrasonic waves
D. Impossible

52. Sound travel faster in which of the following medium?

A. Solids*
B. Liquids
C. Gases
D. Vacuums

53. Sounds travel faster in which of the following medium?

A. Warmer air*
B. Cooler air
C. Temperature does not influence the speed of sound
D. A vacuum

54. The focal length of a plane mirror is

A. Zero
B. Infinite*
C. Negative
D. Finite

55. Which of the following is not the fundamental force of nature?

A. weak nuclear force


B. strong nuclear interaction
C. cohesive force *
D. electromagnetic force
56. A virtual image formed by a mirror (any type) is

A. Always larger than the object


B. Always smaller than the object
C. Always erect*
D. None of the above

57. In burning a candle, the flame is

A. Hotter at the top*


B. Hotter on the sides
C. Equally hot on all sides as at the top
D. None of the above

58. In a burning candle, the coldest part of the flame is

A. At the top
B. At the side
C. In the middle*
D. At the bottom

59. The portion above a candle flame is hotter than at the sides.
This is due to

A. Conduction
B. Convection*
C. Radiation
D. Conduction and convection

60. The S.I. unit of dose equivalent is:

A. Becquerel
B. curie
C. gray
D. sievert *

61. When bullet is fired from a rifle, the force that accelerates the
bullet is equal in magnitude to the force that makes the rifle
recoil. But, compared with the rifle, the bullet has a greater

A. inertia
B. potential energy
C. kinetic energy*
D. Momentum

62. When increase in speed doubles the momentum of a moving


body, its kinetic energy

A. increases, but less than doubles


B. doubles*
C. more than doubles
D. depends on factors not stated

63. When an increase in speed doubles the kinetic energy of a


moving body, its momentum

A. increases, but less than doubles*


B. doubles
C. more than doubles
D. depends on factors not stated

64. Imagine you’re standing on the surface of a shrinking planet. If it


shrinks to one-tenth its original radius with no change in mass,
on the shrunken surface you’d weigh

A. 1/100 as much
B. 10 times as much
C. 100 times as much*
D. 1000 times as much

65. A spacecraft on its way from Earth to the Moon is pulled equally
by Earth and the Moon when it is

A. closer to the Earth’s surface


B. closer to the Moon’s surface*
C. halfway from the Earth to the Moon
D. at no point, since Earth always pulls more strongly

66. When a source of sound approaches you, you detect an


increase in its

A. speed
B. wavelength
C. frequency*
D. all of these
COACHING
67. A singer holds a high note and shatters a distant crystal glass.
This phenomenon best demonstrates

A. a forced vibrations
B. the Doppler effect
C. interference
D. resonance*

68. Which of the following does not belong to the same family?

A. light wave
B. radio wave
C. sound wave*
D. microwave

69. If water naturally absorbed blue and violet light rather than
infrared, water would appear

A. greenish blue, as it presently appears


B. a more intense greenish blue
C. orangish yellow*
D. to have no color at all

70. Light has both a wave nature and a particle nature. Light
behaves primarily as a particle when it

A. travels from one place to another


B. interacts with matter*
C. does neither
D. stays in one place

71. A thermometer for measuring very low temperature is called:

A. pyrometer
B. bolometer
C. cryometer *
D. platinum resistant thermometer

72. An instrument for measuring focal length of a lens is called:

A. focometer *
B. goniometer
C. heliometer
D. spherometer

73. Name the device for detecting and measuring small amount of
thermal energy:

A. barretter
B. pyrometer
C. pyranometer
D. bolometer *

74. The underwater analogue of microphone is:

A. sonobuoy
B. megaphone
C. hydrophone *
D. acoustic torpedo

75. Which of the following is most suitable for measuring vey high
temperatures?

A. thermocouple
B. pyrometer *
C. thermoelectric thermometer
D. platinum resistance thermometer

76. Which, among the following, is not a unit of force?

A. dyne
B. sthene
C. stilb *
D. Newton

77. Lux is the unit of which physical quantity?

A. luminance
B. luminous intensity
C. luminous flux
D. illumination *

78. One light-year is equal to:

A. 5.8785 x 1012 miles


B. 9.4607 x 1015 meters
C. 0.307 parsec
D. all of the above *

79. Unit of pressure in vacuum technology is:

A. mmHg
B. millibar
C. torr *
D. atm

80. Which, among the following, is the smallest unit of length?


A. Angstrom
B. Fermi *
C. Micron
D. Nanometer

81. What is the S.I. unit of electric field strength?


A. Volt per meter *
B. Newton per meter
C. Joule per meter
D. Ampere per meter

82. What is measured in the Richter Scale?


A. volcanoes
B. typhoons
C. storms
D. earthquakes *

83. What drives a nail into wood when struck by a hammer?

A force
B. impulse *
C. momentum
D. acceleration

84. The change in apparent frequency of a source due to relative


motion of source and observer is called:

A. Mossbauer effect
B. Red shift
C. Hubble’s Law
D. Doppler’s effect *
85. The liberation of heat by the passage of a current through an
electric conductor due to its resistance is known as:

A. Joule’s Law
B. Joule’s effect *
C. Joule-Kelvin effect
D. Joule-Thomson effect

86. The emission of electrons from matter by electromagnetic


radiation of certain energy is known as:

A. photoconductivity
B. photovoltaic effect
C. photoelectric effect *
D. photoionization

87. The recession velocity of a distant galaxy is in direct proportion


to the distance from the observer. This is called:

A. Bode’s Law
B. Doppler’s Law
C. Red shift
D. Hubble’s Law *

88. Bending of light beams around the corner of an obstacle is


called:

A. 22diffusion
B. diffraction *
C. dispersion
D. deviation

89. The scattering of a beam of light on reflection from a rough


surface is called:

A. diffusion *
B. dilation
C. dispersion
D. dissipation
COACHING
90. When a beam of light strikes the surface of an optically less
dense medium at an angle of incidence larger than the critical
angle, it is reflected back into the optically denser medium. This
phenomenon is called:

A. reflection
B. internal reflection
C. total internal reflection *
D. total internal refraction

91. The decomposition of a beam of white light into its constituent


colors is known as:

A. dispersion *
B. dissemination
C. scattering
D. angular dispersion

92. Name the phenomenon in which a ray of light suffers change of


direction when it enter another medium:

A. deviation
B. total internal reflection
C. dispersion
D. refraction *

93. The emission of light by a material because of its high


temperature is known as:

A. incandescence *
B. luminescence
C. scintillation
D. phosphorescence

94. Which of the following is not the basic unit of measurement?

A. radian *
B. Kelvin
C. mole
D. candela
95. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the
passage of white light into a glass prism?

A. The violet color travels faster than the red color.


B. The violet color travels slower than the red color. *
C. All the colors of white light travel with the same speed.
D. Greater the wavelength, slower the speed of color.

96. Which of the following systems of units was replace by the S.I.
units in 1954?

A. C.G.S. units
B. F.P.S. units
C. M.K.S. units
D. GIORGI units *

97. What is the unit of surface tension?


A. Newton
B. Newton-meter
C. Newton per meter *
D. Newton per square meter

98. What is impulse?

A. A large force acting for a long period


B. A large force acting for a short period *
C. A small force acting for a long period
D. A small force acting for a short period.

99. Which among the following physical quantities has the same
unit and dimension as that of energy?

A. power
B. work *
C. pressure
D. force

100. Which of these is not a unit of energy

A. Kilowatt hour
B. Foot-poundal force
C. Watt per second *
D. Erg

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