SDLC Module 3

QUESTIONS ON SDLC

1) Which of the following groups/individuals assume ownership of Systems Development

Life Cycle projects and resulting system?
a) User Management.
b) Senior management.
c) Project Steering Committee.
d) Systems Development Management.

2) The use of fourth generation languages (4GLs) should be weighed carefully against
using traditional languages because 4GLs:
a) Can lack lower-level detail commands necessary to perform data intensive
operations.
b) Cannot be implemented on both the mainframe processors and microcomputers.
c) Generally contain complex language subsets which must be used by skilled
users.
d) Cannot access database records and produce complex on-line outputs.

3) Which of the following represents a typical prototype of an interactive application?

a) Screens and process programs.
b) Screens, interactive edits, and sample reports.
c) Interactive edits, process programs, and sample reports.
d) Screens, interactive edits, process programs, and sample reports.

4) Utility programs that assemble software modules needed to execute a machine

instruction application program version are:
a) Text editors.
b) Program library managers.
c) Linkage editors and loaders
d) Debuggers and development aids.

5) Which of the following is an advantage of prototyping?

a) The finished system normally has strong internal controls.
b) Prototype systems can provide significant time and cost savings.
c) Change control is often less complicated with prototype systems.
d) It ensures that functions or extras are not added to the intended system.

6) A large organization with numerous applications running on its mainframe system is

experiencing a growing backlog of undeveloped applications. As part of a master plan to
eliminate this backlog, end-user computing with prototyping is being introduced,
supported by the acquisition of an interactive application generator system. Which of the
following areas is MOST critical to the ultimate success of this venture?
a) Data control.
b) Systems analysis.
c) Systems programming
d) Application programming.

7) Change management procedures are establish by IS management to:

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a) Control the movement of applications from the test environment to the production
environment.
b) Control the interruption of business operations from lack of attention to
unresolved problems.
c) Ensure the uninterrupted operation of the business in the event of a disaster.
d) Verify that system changes are properly documented.

8) The Quality Assurance Group is typically responsible for:

a) Ensuring that the output received from system processing is complete.
b) Monitoring the execution of computer processing tasks.
c) Ensuring the programs and program changes and documentation adhere
established standards.
d) Designing standards and procedures to protect data against accidental
disclosure, modification or destruction.

9) Which of the following is a primary purpose for conducting parallel testing?

a) To determine if the system is more cost-effective.
b) To enable comprehensive unit and system testing.
c) To high light errors in the program interfaces with files.
d) To ensure the new system meets all user requirements.

10)Utilizing audit software to provide code comparisons of production programs is an audit

technique used to test program:
a) Logic.
b) Changes.
c) Efficiency.
d) Computations.

11)Which of the following program change control is NOT the responsibility of the user
department?
a) Updating documentation to reflect all changes.
b) Initiating requests within its scope of authority.
c) Approving changes before implementation, based on the results of testing.
d) Approving changes before implementation, based on review of changes to
manual procedures.

12)If the decision has been made to acquire software rather than to develop it internally,
this decision is normally made during the
a) Requirements Definition phase of the project.
b) Feasibility Study phase of the project.
c) Detailed Design phase of the project.
d) Programming phase of the project.

13)Which of the following is a management technique that enables organizations to

develop strategically important systems faster while reducing development costs and
maintaining quality?
a) Function Point Analysis.
b) Critical Path Methodology.
c) Rapid Application Development.
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d) Program Evaluation Review Techniques.

14)Which of the following are objectives of using a system development life cycle
methodology?
a) Ensuring that appropriate staffing is complete and providing a method of
controlling costs and schedule.
b) Providing a method of controlling costs and schedules and ensuring
communication among users. IS Auditors, management and IS personnel.
c) Providing a method of controlling costs and schedules and an effective means of
auditing project development.
d) Ensuring communication among users, IS Auditors, management and personnel
and ensuring that appropriate staffing is complete.

15)In which of the following phases of the system development life cycle of a new
application system is it he MOST important for the IS Auditor to participate?
a) Design.
b) Testing.
c) Programming.
d) Implementation.

16)A computerized information system frequently fails to meet the needs of users because:
a) User needs are constantly changing.
b) The growth of user requirements was inaccurately forecast.
c) The hardware system limits the number of concurrent users.
d) User participation in defining the system’s requirements is inadequate.

17)Which of the following Computer Aided Software engineering (CASE) products is used
for developing detailed designs, such as screens and report layouts?
a) Super CASE.
b) Upper CASE
c) Middle CASE
d) Lower CASE

18)An IS Auditor is thinking about conducting a post-test review of an application system

after the system development team members have completed software acceptance
testing. What would be the auditor’s MAJOR concern?
a) Determining whether test objectives were documented.
b) Assessing whether users documented expected test results.
c) Reviewing whether test problem logs were completed.
d) Determining the impact of unresolved test issues and problems.

19)Which of the following is MOST likely to be the motivation for the auditor using program
source code review?
a) Generalized audit software is unavailable.
b) The auditor believes the program to be reviewed contains inefficient code.
c) The program processes only small quantities of data; so there is little code
available for review.
d) The auditor is unwilling to treat the program as a black box.

20)A criticism of the data flow approach to program design is

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a) It is not a top-down design method.
b) There is no assurance that different programmers with generate the same design
for a problem.
c) It leads to inefficient programs.
d) It works best for on-line programs rather than batch programs.

21)Which of the following is NOT an allowable control structure in structured programming?

a) Conditional repetition.
b) Unconditional branch.
c) Simple sequence.
d) Selection based on test

22)Which of the following is MOST likely to be used to describe sequence logic?

a) Decision table.
b) Data flow diagrams.
c) Structured English.
d) Decision tree.

23)Which of the following tools and are the best for controlling and ensuring quality in the
system development and maintenance project?
a) Record layout on disk
b) Block size and buffer size.
c) External model of the database.
d) Input/Output characteristics.

24)What is not the major function of the applications system development project approval
board?
a) Performing strategic systems planning.
b) Reviewing project work products.
c) Addressing major problems and issues.
d) Monitoring projects progress.

25)Copyrights are available for computer programs in the following forms:

a) Source code only.
b) Source code and object code.
c) Source code and microcode.
d) Source code, microcode and object code.

26)Which of the following system development approaches has the most implications for
system testing?
a) Waterfall model.
b) Incremental development model
c) Evolutionary development model.
d) Rapid prototyping model

27)Which of the following system development approaches is best when system

requirements are fully understood by either the end user or the software developer?
a) Waterfall model.
b) Incremental development model
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c) Evolutionary development model.
d) Rapid prototyping model

28)Which of the following testing application approaches represent white box testing?
a) Basis path testing
b) Boundary value testing
c) Equivalence class testing
d) Decision table based testing.

29)The greatest productivity improvements in software development and maintenance work

can come from:
a) Using advanced software tools.
b) Using software reverse engineering techniques.
c) Using best contract programmers and system consultants.
d) Eliminating error causes.

30)During the system design phase an auditor participating in system development

attempts to:
a) Evaluate whether the system is auditable.
b) Determine whether necessary controls have been designed into the system.
c) Ensure the refreezing methodology has been designed.
d) Both A and B above.

31)The component in an expert system that provides information to the user about the line
of reasoning used to reach a conclusion is the:
a) Interference engine.
b) Knowledge acquirer.
c) Knowledge base
d) Tutor

32)The primary difference between program testing and system testing is:
a) Program testing is more comprehensive then system testing.
b) System testing focuses on testing the interfaces between the programs, where
as program testing focuses on individual programs.
c) System testing is concerned with testing all aspects of system including job
designs and reward system.
d) Programmers have no involvement in system testing, whereas designers are
involved in program testing.

33)Which of the following software cost estimation technique depends most heavily on the
fact that a similar project has been undertaken already and resource requirements can
be estimated based on the previous project.
a) Bottom-up estimation.
b) Analogy.
c) Algorithmic models.
d) Expert judgment.

34)Which of the following is MOST likely to be the motivation for the auditor using program
source code review:
a) Generalized audit software is unavailable
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b) The auditor believes the program to be reviewed contains inefficient code
c) The program processors only small quantities of data so there is little code
available for review.
d) The auditor is unwilling to treat the program as a black box.

35)In a chief programmer team the backup programmer.

a) Ensures the resources needed for recovery are working
b) Must be capable of assuming the chief programmers’ duties at any time.
c) Ensures all program documentation is up to date
d) Codes and tests only the lower-level modules

36)A strategy for reducing coding errors is to

a) Have only numeric codes.
b) Have no more than four characters in a chunk of information.
c) Group alphabetic together if a mixed alphabetic numeric code is used
d) Reduce the Mnemonic contents of the code is avoid confusing errors

37)Control problems area with a system programming group because

a) It is impossible to enforce separation of duties.
b) Creativity is destroyed when controls are executed
c) They must always use the machine when production systems are operating
d) It is difficult to evaluate their work

38)Executable specifications are an extension of which of the following system

development approaches?
a) Waterfall model.
b) Incremental development model
c) Evolutionary development model
d) Rapid prototyping model

39)A common misconception about the major benefits of the applications software
prototyping is
a) Reduction in development costs.
b) Fast delivery of the system.
c) Meeting user requirements.
d) Reduced software maintenance efforts.

40)The graphic portrayal of the flow of data and the information processing of a system
including computer hardware, is best displayed in a
a) Data-flow diagram.
b) System flowchart
c) Gent chart
d) Program flowchart
41)Mutation analysis is performed in which of the phases of a system development life
cycle?
a) Requirements.
b) Design.
c) Implementation.
d) Maintenance.

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42)Structured analysis and design are examples of
a) Function-oriented techniques
b) Data-oriented techniques
c) Control-oriented techniques
d) Information-oriented techniques

43)An auditor should review the procedures with a program change control group to
determine whether are does which of the following?
a) Makes programs available to programmers for change only on receiving written
authorization.
b) Review user documentation for any necessary changes resulting from a program
change
c) Codes the necessary program changes
d) Estimates the time and the cost involved a program change.

44)The proper sequence of activities in the systems development life cycle is

a) Design, analysis, implementation and operation
b) Design, implementation, analysis and operation
c) Analysis, design, implementation and operation
d) Programming, analysis, implementation and operation

45)In reviewing a feasibility study for a major office automation project, an internal auditor
should determine if the study
a) Provided a preliminary plan for converting existing manual operations and clerical
functions.
b) Considered the costs and benefits of the conversion
c) Provided management with assurances from independent consultants that the
automation was justified.
d) Included an evaluation of internal controls for each planned application.

46)A systems analyst should have access to each of the following except
a) Source code
b) Password identification tables.
c) User procedures
d) Edit criteria.

47)Design prototyping is more likely to be needed when

a) The application system to be designed is a traditional accounting system.
b) The designer believes users will react negatively to the system to be
implemented.
c) The life cycle approach to system development is chosen.
d) There is substantial uncertainty surrounding the system to be designed.

48)With respect to the various phases in the system development life cycle, which of the
following is least likely to vary
a) Conduct of each phase
b) Sequence in which the phases are performed
c) Presence of each phase
d) Resources needed to perform each phase

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49)Which of the following is the most likely sequence of phases in system development
process:
a) Analysis of the existing system, software acquisition and development,
organizational and job design.
b) Acceptance testing, procedures development, management of the change
process.
c) Entry and feasibility assessment, organizational and job design, information
processing system design.
d) Entry and feasibility assessment, problem definition, analysis of the existing
system.

50)During the problem definition phase, the terms of reference describe:

a) Boundaries of the system to be examined.
b) Organizational and resource constraints
c) Proposed objectives of the new system
d) All of the above.

51)During the entry phase the system designer

a) Explains to users various alternative designs that can be implemented
b) Attempts to determine what problem is the real motivation for the system
development effort
c) Assists users to formulate the strategic design
d) Attempts to unfreeze the organizations.

52)The primary difference between program testing and system testing is:
a) Program testing is more comprehensive than system testing
b) System testing focuses on testing the interfaces between programs, whereas
program testing focuses on individual programs.
c) System testing is concerned with testing all aspects of a system including job
designs and reward system designs.
d) Programmers have no involvement in system testing, whereas designers are
involved program testing.

53)During conversion the primary purpose of parallel running is to:

a) Provide the basis for validating the design and implementation of the new system
b) Determine which of the system being run in parallel is more effective and
efficient.
c) Provide the basic for carrying out comprehensive system and user tests
d) Determine whether there are any bugs in the new hardware/system software
configuration that has been chosen.

54)Which of the following characteristics of user-developed systems has been identified in

empirical research:
a) Usually have only a single user.
b) Typically obtain data from a centralized database.
c) Often perform important, day-to-day operational functions.
d) All of the above.

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55)Which of the following software cost estimation techniques depends most heavily on the
fact that a similar project has been undertaken already and resources requirements can
be estimated based on this previous project.
a) Bottom-up estimation
b) Analogy
c) Algorithmic models
d) Expert judgment

56)Which program design technique focuses on transformation processes that change

either the structure of data or the information content of data.
a) Data structure design
b) Functional decomposition
c) Inside-out design
d) Data flow design

57)The transaction analysis data flow program design strategy is most likely to be used
when:
a) The system processes many different transaction types
b) A common validation and update method applies to most transactions
c) A central “transform” can be identified
d) The number of efferent streams of input data exceeds the number of afferent
streams

58)During the analysis and design phase, the number of modules on which a programmer
should focus at any one time is:
a) 3-6 modules
b) No less than 10 modules
c) Only one module
d) Dependent on the overall size of the program

59)A criticism of the data flow approach to program design is:

a) It is not a top-down design method
b) There is no assurance that different programmers will derive the same design for
a problem
c) It leads to inefficient programs
d) It works best for on-line programs rather than batch programs.

60)Which of the following is not an allowable control structure in structured programming:

a) Conditional repetition
b) Unconditional branch
c) Simple sequence
d) Selection based on a test

61)Pseudocode is needed because:

a) High-level design cannot be expressed in code that is compilable
b) It ensures the “GO TO” statement is not used
c) It is easy to use by unskilled programmers
d) It provides an informal way of expressing a design

62)Top-down testing proceeds:

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a) After the program stubs have been designed
b) Concurrently with top-down design
c) As soon as the first lower-level module is compiled
d) After proofs of program correctness have first been attempted

63)Design and code inspections differ from structured walk-throughs in that they are:
a) Less formal to carry out
b) Use a per group review process
c) Do not use a trained moderator
d) Have more extensive follow-up procedures

64)A chief programmer team primarily is

a) A project-based organization structure
b) An adaptive team with a flat structure
c) A function-based organization structure
d) An organization structure oriented toward low uncertainty tasks

65)Control problem arise with a system programming group because

a) It is impossible to enforce separation of duties
b) Creativity is destroyed when controls are exercised
c) They must always use the machine when production systems are operating
d) It is difficult to evaluate their work

66)PERT is a tool for

a) Monitoring project
b) Getting a realistic time for project completion
c) Performance measurement
d) Users

67)An example of a software testing aid is:

a) A macro facility
b) A shorthand preprocessor
c) A text editor
d) A trace

68)Output analyzers:
a) Generate test data
b) Detect differences between test results and expected results
c) Check all logic paths have been tested
d) Both (b) and (c) above

69)A feasibility study should be conducted when

a) A decision must be made on the best way of sequencing tasks during system
development
b) An assessment must be made of whether or not the disaster recovery plan works
c) The consequences of decentralizing data processing functions must be assessed
d) A decision must be made on whether or not a new operations schedule will
increase throughout

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70)The information systems requirements plan is derived directly from the:
a) Information systems applications and facilities plan
b) Information systems strategic plan
c) Master plan
d) Organizational strategic plan

71)An information systems requirements plan specifies:

a) The hardware/software configuration needed to support application systems
b) The applications systems needed to support the strategic plan
c) An information systems architecture for the information systems department
d) The resource needs of the information systems department over the next three-
five years.

72)Which of the following might be output as a result of using a CASE tool?

a) Programming code
b) Flowcharts and data flow diagrams
c) Prototypes and cost/benefit analysis
d) All of the above

73)Which of the following is used when a company goes outside its organization to develop
a new system?
a) Request for proposal
b) Data flow diagram
c) Systems flowchart
d) Project directory

74)In Prototyping
a) BASIC is used
b) COBOL is used
c) 4GLs are used
d) System is documented

75)In Prototyping, the following are used

a) Screen generators
b) Input generators
c) Application generators
d) All of the above

76)Which are the tools not used for System Analysis

a) System test data
b) Decision table
c) Data Flow Diagram
d) Flowcharts

77)Which of the following is (are) not a tool for Application Prototyping?

a) Application generators
b) Third generation language
c) Screen generators
d) Report generators

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Answers:

1a 8c 15 a 22 c 29 d 36 c 43 a 50 d 57 a 64 a 71 c
2a 9d 16 d 23 c 30 d 37 d 44 c 51 d 58 a 65 d 72 d
3b 10 b 17 c 24 b 31 d 38 d 45 b 52 b 59 b 66 b 73 a
4c 11 a 18 d 25 d 32 b 39 a 46 b 53 a 60 b 67 d 74 c
5b 12 b 19 d 26 d 33 b 40 b 47 d 54 c 61 a 68 b 75 d
6b 13 c 20 b 27 a 34 d 41 c 48 c 55 b 62 b 69 c 76 a
7a 14 b 21 b 28 a 35 b 42 a 49 c 56 d 63 c 70 b 77 b

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