1. What is one purpose of wing flaps?

- To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing

without increasing the airspeed
2. One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to
- increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed
3. What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane?
- To control yaw.
4. The four forces acting on an airplane in flight are
- lift, weight, thrust, and drag.
5. When are the four forces that act on an airplane in equilibrium?
- During unaccelerated flight.
6. The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will
- remain the same regardless of gross weight.
7. During a spin to the left, which wing(s) is/are stalled?
- Both wings are stalled.
8. How will frost on the wings of an airplane affect takeoff performance?
- Frost will disrupt the smooth flow of air over the wing, adversely
affecting its lifting capability.
9. Why is frost considered hazardous to flight?
- Frost spoils the smooth flow of air over the wings, thereby
decreasing lifting capability.
10.What is ground effect?
- The result of the interference of the surface of the Earth with the
airflow patterns about an airplane.
11.Floating caused by the phenomenon of ground effect will be most realized
during an approach to land when at
- less than the length of the wingspan above the surface.
12.What must a pilot be aware of as a result of ground effect?
- Induced drag decreases; therefore, any excess speed at the point
of flare may cause considerable floating.
13.Ground effect is most likely to result in which problem?
- Becoming airborne before reaching recommended takeoff speed.
14.An airplane said to be inherently stable will
 - require less effort to control.
15.What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane?
- The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift.
16.An airplane has been loaded in such a manner that the CG is located aft of
the aft CG limit. One undesirable flight characteristic a pilot might
experience with this airplane would be
- difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition.
17.What causes an airplane (except a T-tail) to pitch nosedown when power is
reduced and controls are not adjusted?
- The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is
reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced.
18.Loading an airplane to the most aft CG will cause the airplane to be
- less stable at all speeds.
19.In what flight condition is torque effect the greatest in a single-engine
airplane?
- Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack
20.The left turning tendency of an airplane caused by P-factor is the result of
the
- propeller blade descending on the right, producing more thrust
than the ascending blade on the left.
21.Which basic flight maneuver increases the load factor on an airplane as
compared to straight-and-level flight?
- Turns.
22. If an airplane weighs 2,300 pounds, what approximate weight would the
airplane structure be required to support during a 60° banked turn while
maintaining altitude?
- 4,600 pounds.
23.In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a
turn toward the north if
- an aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading.
24.During flight, when are the indications of a magnetic compass accurate?
- Only in straight-and-level un-accelerated flight.
25.Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the
 - magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic
force.
26.In the Northern Hemisphere, if an aircraft is accelerated or decelerated, the
magnetic compass will normally indicate
- correctly when on a north or south heading.
27.In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate
initially a turn toward the west if
- a right turn is entered from a north heading.
28.In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate
initially a turn toward the east if
- a left turn is entered from a north heading.
29.The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument?
- Airspeed indicator.
30.If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which
instruments would be affected?
- The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.
31.Which instrument(s) will become inoperative if the static vents become
clogged?
- Airspeed, altimeter, and vertical speed.
32.What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on
airspeed indicators?
- Maneuvering speed.
33.Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same
value?
- At standard temperature.
34.Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude?
- When at sea level under standard conditions.
35.Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?
- When standard atmospheric conditions exist.
36.What is pressure altitude?
- The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set
to 29.92.
37.Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the
altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates
- true altitude at field elevation.
38.If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure
without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
- lower than the actual altitude above sea level.
39.If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of lower
pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will
indicate
- higher than the actual altitude above sea level.
40.Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than
true altitude?
- Air temperature warmer than standard.
41.Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude?
- In colder than standard air temperature.
42.An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by
- the oil level being too low.
43.Excessively high engine temperatures will
- cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible
permanent internal engine damage.
44.For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent
on
- the circulation of lubricating oil.
45.If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have
exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating
with
- too much power and with the mixture set too lean.
46.What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating
during a climb?
- Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.
47.What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating?
- Enrich the fuel mixture.
48.How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant-
speed propeller?
- The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold
pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM.
49.A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant-
speed propeller is to
- avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM.
50.What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller?
- Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient
performance.
51.One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide
for
- improved engine performance.
52.With regard to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems in comparison
to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be
- more susceptible to icing.
53.The operating principle of float-type carburetors is based on the
- difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet.
54.If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type
carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be
- loss of RPM.
55.The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch
propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting
- a decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.
56.Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing?
- Temperature between 20 and 70°F and high humidity.
57.The possibility of carburetor icing exists even when the ambient air
temperature is as
- high as 70°F and the relative humidity is high.
58.Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to
- decrease engine performance.
59.Applying carburetor heat will
- enrich the fuel/air mixture.
60.What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when carburetor heat is
applied?
- The fuel/air mixture becomes richer.
61.The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to
- decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air
density.
62.Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when
- the unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning
normally.
63.If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed-pitch propeller) is
detonating during climb-out after takeoff, the initial corrective action to
take would be to
- lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed.
64.If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the
engine, it will most likely cause
- detonation.
65. The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark
ignition is known as
- pre-ignition.
66.What type fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended
octane is not available?
- The next higher octane aviation gas.
67.Which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and engine
oil temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges?
- Using fuel that has a lower-than-specified fuel rating.
68.What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?
- Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the
engine gauges.
69.An airport's rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates
- that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below
basic VFR weather minimums.
70.A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits
- two quick, white flashes between green flashes.
71.How can a military airport be identified at night?
- Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes.
72. Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a
noncontrolled airport?
- Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport.
73.An on glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is
- a green light signal
74.An above glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is
- an amber light signal.
75.A below glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is a
- red light signal.
76.A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a
- pulsating red light.
77.When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope
indicator (VASI), the pilot shall
- maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.
78.A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path
indicator is
- three white lights and one red light.
79.Each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual
approach slope indicator (VASI) shall
- maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.
80.Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is
- developing lift
81.Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to
- sink below the aircraft generating turbulence.
82.When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating,
one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because
this turbulence tends to
- sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft
generating the turbulence.
83.The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is
- heavy, clean, and slow.
84.The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake
turbulence on landing is a
- light, quartering tailwind.
85.When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake
turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft
- above and upwind from the heavy aircraft.
86.When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake
turbulence by staying
- above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing beyond
the large aircraft's touchdown point.
87.During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light
ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement
of the other aircraft?
- The other aircraft is crossing to the left.
88.During a night flight, you observe a steady white light and a flashing red
light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of
movement of the other aircraft?
- The other aircraft is flying away from you.
89.During a night flight, you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at
the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other
aircraft?
- The other aircraft is approaching head-on.
90.The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision
avoidance during daylight hours is to use
- a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each
10° sector.
91.The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision
avoidance during nighttime hours is to use
- peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing offcenter
viewing.
92.How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your
aircraft?
 - There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft
and the other aircraft.
93.Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should
- visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance.
94.What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an
airway?
- Execute gentle banks, left and right for continuous visual scanning
of the airspace.
95.Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with
- all pilots.
96.After landing at a tower-controlled airport, when should the pilot contact
ground control?
- When advised by the tower to do so.
97.Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast
of recorded information concerning
- noncontrol information in selected high-activity terminal areas.
98.Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air
Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs.
- at all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions.
99.Prior to entering an Airport Advisory Area, a pilot should
- contact the local FSS for airport and traffic advisories.
100. All operations within Class C airspace must be in
- an aircraft equipped with a 4096-code transponder with Mode C
encoding capability
101. Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport
within Class C airspace?
- The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.
102. Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C
airspace?
- Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency.
103. TRSA Service in the terminal radar program provides
- sequencing and separation for participating VFR aircraft.
104. From whom should a departing VFR aircraft request radar traffic
information during ground operations?
- Ground control, on initial contact.
105. Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as
- safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR
aircraft.
106. If Air Traffic Control advises that radar service is terminated when the
pilot is departing Class C airspace, the transponder should be set to code
- 1200
107. When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid
inadvertent selection of which codes?
- 7500, 7600, 7700
108. When operating under VFR below 18,000 feet MSL, unless otherwise
authorized, what transponder code should be selected?
- 1200
109. The correct method of stating 4,500 feet MSL to ATC is
- "FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED."
110. The correct method of stating 10,500 feet MSL to ATC is
- "ONE ZERO THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED."
111. An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on
a heading of 090°: "TRAFFIC 3 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, WESTBOUND...".
Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
- South
112. An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on
a heading of 360°: "TRAFFIC 10 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND...".Where
should the pilot look for this traffic?
- Northwest
113. An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot during a
local flight: "TRAFFIC 2 O'CLOCK, 5 MILES, NORTHBOUND...". Where
should the pilot look for this traffic?
- Between directly ahead and 90° to the right
114. An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying
north in a calm wind: "TRAFFIC 9 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND...".
Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
- West
115. While on final approach for landing, an alternating green and red
light followed by a flashing red light is received from the control tower.
Under these circumstances, the pilot should
- exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing the
airport is unsafe for landing.
116. A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an
aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot
- is cleared to land.
117. A flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxiing
aircraft is an indication to
- return to the starting point on the airport.
118. If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to
other aircraft and continue circling, the light will be
- steady red
119. Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi?
- Flashing green
120. An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control
tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to
- exercise extreme caution.
121. If the aircraft's radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when
landing at a controlled airport?
- Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light
signal from the tower.
122. When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on
- 121.5 and 243.0 MHz.
123. Which procedure is recommended to ensure that the emergency
locator transmitter (ELT) has not been activated?
- Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown.
124. Who should not participate in the Land and Hold Short Operations
(LAHSO) program?
- Student pilots
125. Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short
(LAHSO) clearance?
- Pilot-in-command
126. With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a category of
aircraft?
- Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.
127. With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class of
aircraft?
- Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.
128. With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of
aircraft?
- Normal, utility, acrobatic
129. With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of
aircraft?
- Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon
130. The definition of nighttime is
- the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the
beginning of morning civil twilight.
131. An ATC clearance provides
- authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in
controlled airspace.
132. Which V-speed represents maximum flap extended speed?
- VFE
133. Which V-speed represents maximum landing gear extended speed?
- VLE
134. VNO is defined as the
- maximum structural cruising speed
135. Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed?
- VA
136. VS0 is defined as the
 - stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing
configuration
137. Which would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest
distance during climb after takeoff?
- VX
138. After takeoff, which airspeed would the pilot use to gain the most
altitude in a given period of time?
- VY
139. May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an
Airworthiness Directive (AD)?
- Yes, if allowed by the AD
140. Who may perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft and
approve it for return to service?
- Private or Commercial pilot
141. Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance?
- Servicing landing gear wheel bearings
142. Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance?
- Replenishing hydraulic fluid
143. When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot's personal
possession or readily accessible in the aircraft?
- Anytime when acting as pilot in command or as a required
crewmember.
144. The three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as pilot in
command at night must be done during the time period from
- 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
145. The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the
- pilot in command
146. Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for
safe flight?
- The pilot in command.
147. Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found?
- In the current, CAAP-approved flight manual, approved manual
material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.
148. Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft?
- Only in an emergency.
149. No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft
with
- 04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
150. A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic
beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding
- 8 hours
151. Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is
obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft?
- In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper
care.
152. Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an
airport, shall include
- an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as
planned.
153. In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the
vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in
command to
- determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the
aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data
154. Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to
each flight?
- Become familiar with all available information concerning the
flight.
155. Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety belts and
shoulder harnesses fastened during
- takeoffs and landings
156. No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight
- except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each
aircraft.
157. An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the
airplane's position, which aircraft has the right-of-way?
 - The airship
158. When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the
purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft
- at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to
cut in front of or to overtake another.
159. Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed –
Glider, Airship, Aircraft refueling other aircraft?
- Glider
160. What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a
head-on collision course?
- Both pilots should give way to the right.
161. What action is required when two aircraft of the same category
converge, but not head-on?
- The aircraft on the left shall give way.
162. Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic – aircraft
in distress, aircraft on final approach, balloon?
- Aircraft in distress
163. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum
safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?
- An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing
without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
164. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum
safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested
areas?
- An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a
horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft
165. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum
safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a
congested area?
- An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely
populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel,
vehicle, or structure.
166. Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or
altimeter setting?
- The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure
airport elevation.
167. If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude
should the pilot adjust the altimeter?
- The elevation of the departure area
168. At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92, when climbing to
cruising flight level?
- 18,000 feet MSL
169. When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an
emergency send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator?
- Upon request
170. When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an
emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance?
- When requested by ATC
171. When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may
deviate from that clearance, unless that pilot obtains an amended
clearance. The one exception to this regulation is
- an emergency
172. Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air
Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering
which class airspace?
- Class C
173. In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?
- Class A
174. What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in
an airplane?
- Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after
that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
175. No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace at night
under special VFR unless the
- airplane is equipped for instrument flight
176. Which VFR cruising altitude is acceptable for a flight on a Victor
Airway with a magnetic course of 175°? The terrain is less than 1,000 feet.
- 5,500 feet
177. Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight on a magnetic
course of 135°?
- Odd thousand plus 500 feet
178. Which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate when flying above 3,000
feet AGL on a magnetic course of 185°?
- 4,500 feet
179. When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be
replaced or recharged, if rechargeable?
- When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour.
180. When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested?
- During the first 5 minutes after the hour.
181. When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator
transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced?
- When 50 percent of their useful life expires.
182. When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be
replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable)?
- After one-half the battery's useful life
183. The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an
airworthy condition is primarily that of the
- owner or operator
184. The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the
appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the
aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the
- owner or operator
185. What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea
level?
- 15°C and 29.92" Hg.
186. What effect, if any, does high humidity have on aircraft
performance?
- It decreases performance.
187. Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given
airport?
- An increase in ambient temperature.
188. What effect does high density altitude, as compared to low density
altitude, have on propeller efficiency and why?
- Efficiency is reduced because the propeller exerts less force at
high density altitudes than at low density altitudes.
189. What effect does high density altitude have on aircraft performance?
- It reduces climb performance
190. Which combination of atmospheric conditions will reduce aircraft
takeoff and climb performance?
- High temperature, high relative humidity, and high density
altitude
191. If the outside air temperature (OAT) at a given altitude is warmer
than standard, the density altitude is
- higher than pressure altitude.
192. Which items are included in the empty weight of an aircraft?
- Unusable fuel and undrainable oil.
193. An aircraft is loaded 110 pounds over maximum certificated gross
weight. If fuel (gasoline) is drained to bring the aircraft weight within limits,
how much fuel should be drained?
- 18.4 gallons
194. If an aircraft is loaded 90 pounds over maximum certificated gross
weight and fuel (gasoline) is drained to bring the aircraft weight within
limits, how much fuel should be drained?
- 15 gallons
195. Which statement best defines hypoxia?
- A state of oxygen deficiency in the body.
196. Rapid or extra deep breathing while using oxygen can cause a
condition known as
- Hyperventilation
197. Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?
- Emotional tension, anxiety, or fear
198. A pilot should be able to overcome the symptoms or avoid future
occurrences of hyperventilation by
- slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a bag, or talking aloud.
199. Pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if
- body signals are used to interpret flight attitude
200. If a pilot experiences spatial disorientation during flight in a restricted
visibility condition, the best way to overcome the effect is to
- rely upon the aircraft instrument indications.
201. The danger of spatial disorientation during flight in poor visual
conditions may be reduced by
- having faith in the instruments rather than taking a chance on the
sensory organs.
202. A state of temporary confusion resulting from misleading information
being sent to the brain by various sensory organs is defined as
- spatial disorientation
203. Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and
left during straight-and-level flight?
- Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short
intervals
204. What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain
features during flight?
- All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their
actual distance.
205. What preparation should a pilot make to adapt the eyes for night
flying?
- Avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before the flight.
206. What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight?
- Scan slowly to permit offcenter viewing.
207. The best method to use when looking for other traffic at night is to
- look to the side of the object and scan slowly
208. Large accumulations of carbon monoxide in the human body result in
- loss of muscular power
209. Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increases as
 - altitude increases
210. What is it often called when a pilot pushes his or her capabilities and
the aircraft's limits by trying to maintain visual contact with the terrain in
low visibility and ceiling?
- Scud running
211. What often leads to spatial disorientation or collision with
ground/obstacles when flying under Visual Flight Rules (VFR)?
- Continual flight into instrument conditions
212. What is one of the neglected items when a pilot relies on short and
long term memory for repetitive tasks?
- Checklists
213. What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as
"Antiauthority"?
- Follow the rules
214. What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as
"Impulsivity"?
- Not so fast, think first.
215. What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as
"Invulnerability"?
- It could happen to me
216. What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as
"Macho"?
- Taking chances is foolish.
217. What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as
"Resignation"?
- I am not helpless
218. Who is responsible for determining whether a pilot is fit to fly for a
particular flight, even though he or she holds a current medical certificate?
- The pilot
219. What is the one common factor which affects most preventable
accidents?
- Human error.
220. Every physical process of weather is accompanied by, or is the result
of, a
- heat exchange.
221. What causes variations in altimeter settings between weather
reporting points?
- Unequal heating of the Earth's surface
222. The wind at 5,000 feet AGL is southwesterly while the surface wind is
southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to
- friction between the wind and the surface.
223. Convective circulation patterns associated with sea breezes are
caused by
- cool, dense air moving inland from over the water.
224. The development of thermals depends upon
- solar heating
225. The boundary between two different air masses is referred to as a
- front
226. One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying
across a front is a change in the
- wind direction
227. One of the most easily recognized discontinuities across a front is
- a change in temperature
228. If there is thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of an airport at which
you plan to land, which hazardous atmospheric phenomenon might be
expected on the landing approach?
- Wind-shear turbulence
229. A nonfrontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms that often
develop ahead of a cold front is known as a
- squall line.
230. What conditions are necessary for the formation of thunderstorms?
- High humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions.
231. During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized
predominately by downdrafts?
- Dissipating
232. Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the
- mature stage
233. What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a
thunderstorm?
- Continuous updraft.
234. Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature
stage of a thunderstorm?
- Precipitation beginning to fall.
235. Thunderstorms which generally produce the most intense hazard to
aircraft are
- squall line thunderstorms.
236. Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a
thunderstorm?
- Lightning
237. One in-flight condition necessary for structural icing to form is
- visible moisture
238. In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the
highest accumulation rate?
- Freezing rain
239. The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that there
- is a temperature inversion with freezing rain at a higher altitude
240. An almond or lens-shaped cloud which appears stationary, but which
may contain winds of 50 knots or more, is referred to as
- a lenticular cloud.
241. Crests of standing mountain waves may be marked by stationary,
lens-shaped clouds known as
- standing lenticular clouds.
242. Possible mountain wave turbulence could be anticipated when winds
of 40 knots or greater blow
- across a mountain ridge, and the air is stable.
243. Where does wind shear occur?
- At all altitudes, in all directions.
244. A pilot can expect a wind-shear zone in a temperature inversion
whenever the windspeed at 2,000 to 4,000 feet above the surface is at least
- 25 knots.
245. When may hazardous wind shear be expected?
- In areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones, and
clear air turbulence.
246. If the temperature/dewpoint spread is small and decreasing, and the
temperature is 62°F, what type weather is most likely to develop?
- Fog or low clouds.
247. What is meant by the term "dewpoint"?
- The temperature to which air must be cooled to become
saturated.
248. The amount of water vapor which air can hold depends on the
- air temperature.
249. What are the processes by which moisture is added to unsaturated
air?
- Evaporation and sublimation.
250. Which conditions result in the formation of frost?
- The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below the
dewpoint of the adjacent air and the dewpoint is below freezing.
251. Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when
- water vapor condenses.
252. Low-level turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous in
which type of fog?
- Steam fog
253. In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?
- An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter.
254. What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog?
- Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights.
255. What types of fog depend upon wind in order to exist?
- Advection fog and upslope fog.
256. Clouds are divided into four families according to their
- height range.
257. The suffix "nimbus," used in naming clouds, means
- a rain cloud.
258. The conditions necessary for the formation of cumulonimbus clouds
are a lifting action and
- unstable, moist air.
259. What clouds have the greatest turbulence?
- Cumulonimbus
260. What cloud types would indicate convective turbulence?
- Towering cumulus clouds.
261. At approximately what altitude above the surface would the pilot
expect the base of cumuliform clouds if the surface air temperature is 82°F
and the dewpoint is 38°F?
- 10,000 feet AGL.
262. What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the surface air
temperature at 1,000 feet MSL is 70°F and the dewpoint is 48°F?
- 6,000 feet MSL
263. What is a characteristic of stable air?
- Stratiform clouds.
264. Moist, stable air flowing upslope can be expected to
- produce stratus type clouds.
265. If an unstable air mass is forced upward, what type clouds can be
expected?
- Clouds with considerable vertical development and associated
turbulence.
266. What are characteristics of unstable air?
- Turbulence and good surface visibility.
267. A stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristic?
- Smooth air
268. Steady precipitation preceding a front is an indication of
- stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence.
269. What are characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass?
- Cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation.
270. What measurement can be used to determine the stability of the
atmosphere?
- Actual lapse rate.
271. What would decrease the stability of an air mass?
- Warming from below.
272. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?
- A stable layer of air
273. The most frequent type of ground or surface-based temperature
inversion is that which is produced by
- terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night.
274. A temperature inversion would most likely result in which weather
condition?
- An increase in temperature as altitude is increased.
275. Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level
temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high?
- Smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze, or low clouds.
276. To get a complete weather briefing for the planned flight, the pilot
should request
- a standard briefing.
277. Which type weather briefing should a pilot request, when departing
within the hour, if no preliminary weather information has been received?
- Standard briefing.
278. Which type of weather briefing should a pilot request to supplement
mass disseminated data?
- An abbreviated briefing.
279. A weather briefing that is provided when the information requested
is 6 or more hours in advance of the proposed departure time is
- an outlook briefing.
280. What should pilots state initially when telephoning a weather
briefing facility for preflight weather information?
- Identify themselves as pilots.
281. What should pilots state initially when telephoning a weather
briefing facility for preflight weather information? What should pilots state
 initially when telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather
information?
- The intended route of flight and destination.
282. To update a previous weather briefing, a pilot should request
- an abbreviated briefing.
283. For aviation purposes, ceiling is defined as the height above the
Earth's surface of the
- lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility into an
obscuration.
284. AIRMETs are advisories of significant weather phenomena but of
lower intensities than SIGMETs and are intended for dissemination to
- all pilots
285. Which in-flight advisory would contain information on severe icing
not associated with thunderstorms?
- SIGMET
286. What information is contained in a CONVECTIVE SIGMET?
- Tornadoes, embedded thunderstorms, and hail 3/4 inch or
greater in diameter.
287. Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck
County Airport.
- 36°24'N - 76°01'W
288. Which airport is located at approximately 47°39'30"N latitude and
100°53'00"W longitude?
- Crooked Lake
289. Which airport is located at approximately 47°21'N latitude and
101°01'W longitude?
- Washburn
290. What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas such as Devils Lake East
MOA?
- Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt
flight maneuvers.
291. What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a
Military Operations Area (MOA)?
 - Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being
conducted.
292. When flying over Arrowwood National Wildlife Refuge, a pilot should
fly no lower than
- 2,000 feet AGL
293. Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no
lower than
- 2,000 feet AGL
294. What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off at
Norfolk International?
- Mode C transponder and two-way radio.
295. The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport is
-20 feet
296. What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within
Class C airspace?
- Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code
transponder, and an encoding altimeter.
297. What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within
Class B airspace?
- Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code
transponder, and an encoding altimeter.
298. The CAUTION box denotes what hazard to aircraft?
- Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,000 feet MSL.
299. FAA advisory circulars (some free, others at cost) are available to all
pilots and are obtained by
- ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office
300. FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related
to Air Traffic Control and General Operations are issued under which
subject number?
- 90
301. FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related
to Airmen are issued under which subject number?
- 60
302. FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related
to Airspace are issued under which subject number?
- 70
303. Traffic patterns in effect at Lincoln Municipal are
- to the left on Runway 17L and Runway 35L; to the right on
Runway 17R and Runway 35R
304. When the course deviation indicator (CDI) needle is centered during
an omnireceiver check using a VOR test signal (VOT), the omnibearing
selector (OBS) and the TO/FROM indicator should read
- 0° FROM or 180° TO, regardless of the pilot's position from the
VOT
305. How many satellites make up the Global Positioning System (GPS)?
- 24
306. What is the minimum number of Global Positioning System (GPS)
satellites that are observable by a user anywhere on earth?
- 5
307. How many Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites are required to
yield a three dimensional position (latitude, longitude, and altitude) and
time solution?
- 4
308. If more than one cruising altitude is intended, which should be
entered in block 7 of the flight plan?
- Initial cruising altitude
309. What information should be entered in block 9 for a VFR day flight?
- The name of destination airport if no stopover for more than 1
hour is anticipated
310. What information should be entered in block 12 for a VFR day flight?
- The amount of usable fuel on board expressed in time
311. How should a VFR flight plan be closed at the completion of the flight
at a controlled airport?
- The pilot must close the flight plan with the nearest FSS or other
FAA facility upon landing
312. During the preflight inspection who is responsible for determining
the aircraft as safe for flight?
- The pilot in command
313. Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in airworthy
condition?
- Owner or operator
314. How should an aircraft preflight inspection be accomplished for the
first flight of the day?
- Thorough and systematic means recommended by the
manufacturer
315. When taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron
positions should be used?
- Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing
316. Which aileron positions should a pilot generally use when taxiing in
strong quartering headwinds?
- Aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing
317. Which wind condition would be most critical when taxiing a
nosewheel equipped high-wing airplane?
- Quartering tailwind
318. How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear
equipped airplane into a left quartering headwind?
- Left aileron up, elevator neutral
319. How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear
equipped airplane with a left quartering tailwind?
- Left aileron down, elevator down
320. How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel
airplane into a right quartering headwind?
- Right aileron up, elevator up
321. How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel
airplane with a left quartering tailwind?
- Left aileron down, elevator down
322. Upon encountering severe turbulence, which flight condition should
the pilot attempt to maintain?
 - Level flight attitude
323. VFR approaches to land at night should be accomplished
- the same as during daytime
324. The most important rule to remember in the event of a power failure
after becoming airborne is to
- immediately establish the proper gliding attitude and airspeed
325. Determine the magnetic course from Breckheimer (Pvt) Airport (area
1) to Jamestown Airport (area 4).
- 180°
326. Determine the magnetic course from First Flight Airport (area 5) to
Hampton Roads Airport (area 2).
- 331°
327. What course should be selected on the omnibearing selector (OBS)
to make a direct flight from Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) to the
Minot VORTAC (area 1) with a TO indication?
- 359°
328. On what course should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set to navigate
direct from Hampton Varnville Airport (area 1) to Savannah VORTAC (area
3)?
- 183°
329. Determine the magnetic course from Airpark East Airport (area 1) to
Winnsboro Airport (area 2). Magnetic variation is 6°30'E or 7°E
- 075°
330. On what course should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set in order to
navigate direct from Majors Airport (area 1) to Quitman VORTAC (area 2)?
- 101°
331. Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Mercer County
Regional Airport (area 3) to Minot International (area 1). The wind is from
330° at 25 knots, the true airspeed is 100 knots, and the magnetic variation
is 10°E.
- 352°
332. What is the magnetic heading for a flight from Priest River Airport
(area 1) to Shoshone County Airport (area 3)? The wind is from 030° at 12
knots and the true airspeed is 95 knots.
- 118°
333. Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from St. Maries Airport
(area 4) to Priest River Airport (area 1). The wind is from 340° at 10 knots
and the true airspeed is 90 knots.
- 327°
334. Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Sandpoint Airport
(area 1) to St. Maries Airport (area 4). The wind is from 215° at 25 knots
and the true airspeed is 125 knots.
- 169°
335. Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Fort Worth
Meacham (area 4) to Denton Muni (area 1). The wind is from 330° at 25
knots, the true airspeed is 110 knots, and the magnetic variation is 7°E.
- 003°
336. Determine the heading for a flight from Allendale County Airport
(area 1) to Claxton-Evans County Airport (area 2). The wind is from 090° at
16 knots and the true airspeed is 90 knots.
- 208°
337. Determine the compass heading for a flight from Claxton-Evans
County Airport (area 2) to Hampton Varnville Airport (area 1). The wind is
from 280° at 8 knots, and the true airspeed is 85 knots.
- 042°
338. En route to First Flight Airport (area 5), your flight passes over
Hampton Roads Airport (area 2) at 1456 and then over Chesapeake
Municipal at 1501. At what time should your flight arrive at First Flight?
- 1526
339. What is the estimated time en route from Mercer County Regional
Airport (area 3) to Minot International (area 1)? The wind is from 330° at 25
knots and the true airspeed is 100 knots. Add 3-1/2 minutes for departure
and climb-out.
- 48 minutes
340. Determine the estimated time en route for a flight from Priest River
Airport (area 1) to Shoshone County Airport (area 3). The wind is from 030
at 12 knots and the true airspeed is 95 knots. Add 2 minutes for climb-out.
- 31 minutes
341. What is the estimated time en route from Sandpoint Airport (area 1)
to St. Maries Airport (area 4)? The wind is from 215° at 25 knots, and the
true airspeed is 125 knots.
- 34 minutes
342. What is the estimated time en route for a flight from St. Maries
Airport (area 4) to Priest River Airport (area 1)? The wind is from 300° at 14
knots and the true airspeed is 90 knots. Add 3 minutes for climb-out.
- 43 minutes
343. While en route on Victor 185, a flight crosses the 248° radial of
Allendale VOR at 0953 and then crosses the 216° radial of Allendale VOR at
1000. What is the estimated time of arrival at Savannah VORTAC?
- 1028
344. What is the estimated time en route for a flight from Claxton-Evans
County Airport (area 2) to Hampton Varnville Airport (area 1)? The wind is
from 290° at 18 knots and the true airspeed is 85 knots. Add 2 minutes for
climb-out.
- 39 minutes
345. What is the estimated time en route for a flight from Allendale
County Airport (area 1) to Claxton-Evans County Airport (area 2)? The wind
is from 100° at 18 knots and the true airspeed is 115 knots. Add 2 minutes
for climb-out.
- 30 minutes
346. What is the estimated time en route for a flight from Denton Muni
(area 1) to Addison (area 2)? The wind is from 200° at 20 knots, the true
airspeed is 110 knots, and the magnetic variation is 7° east.
- 13 minutes
347. Estimate the time en route from Addison (area 2) to Redbird (area 3).
The wind is from 300° at 15 knots, the true airspeed is 120 knots, and the
magnetic variation is 7° east.
 - 8 minutes
348. An aircraft departs an airport in the eastern daylight time zone at
0945 EDT for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the central daylight
time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?
- 1545Z
349. An aircraft departs an airport in the central standard time zone at
0930 CST for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the mountain standard
time zone. The landing should be at what time?
- 1030 MST
350. An aircraft departs an airport in the central standard time zone at
0845 CST for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the mountain standard
time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?
- 1645Z
351. An aircraft departs an airport in the mountain standard time zone at
1615 MST for a 2-hour 15-minute flight to an airport located in the Pacific
standard time zone. The estimated time of arrival at the destination airport
should be
- 1730 PST
352. An aircraft departs an airport in the Pacific standard time zone at
1030 PST for a 4-hour flight to an airport located in the central standard
time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?
- 2230Z
353. An aircraft departs an airport in the mountain standard time zone at
1515 MST for a 2-hour 30-minute flight to an airport located in the Pacific
standard time zone. What is the estimated time of arrival at the destination
airport?
- 1645 PST