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CMAT 4th May 2023 Slot-2
Quantitative Techniques and Data Interpretation
1. Given below are two statements :
Statement I: A savings account at Bank A pays 6.2% interest, compounded annually. Bank B's
savings account pays 6% compounded semi-annually. Bank B is paying less total interest each year.
Statement II: A sum of money at a certain rate of compound interest doubles in 3 years. In 9 years, it
will be P times original principal. Then P = 9.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

A Both Statement I and Statement II are true

B Both Statement I and Statement II are false

C Statement I is true but Statement II is false

D Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Answer: C

Explanation:
Statement I:
Bank A: r = 6.2% and compounded anually
6.2 6.2P
Compound interest at the end of an year = P (1 + 100 ) −P = 100

Bank B: r = 6% and compounded semi-anually

3 2 P (6.09)
C.I = P (1 + 100 ) −P = 100

Interest is less in bank B.

Therefore, statement I is correct.
Statement II:
Let the sum of money be 'S'
It is given,
r 3
S (1 + 100 ) = 2S
r 3
(1 + 100 ) =2
r 9
(1 + 100 ) =4
r 9
S (1 + 100 ) = 4S
Therefore, P = 4
Statement II is incorrect.
The answer is option C.

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 2. Consider the following figure that shows the graph of the function F defined by
F(x) = | 2x | + 4 for all numbers x:

For which of the following functions G defined for all numbers x does the graph of G intersect the
graph of F?

A G(x) = x + 3

B G(X)= 2x - 2

C G(X)= 2x + 3

D G(x)= 3x -2
Answer: D

Explanation:
F(x) = |2x| + 4
Option A: G(x) = x + 3
If x > 0 or x = 0
2x + 4 = x + 3
x = -1 < 0
Therefore, this case is not possible.
If x < 0
-2x + 4 = x + 3
3x = 1
x = 1/3 > 0
Therefore, this case is not possible.
Option B: G(x) = 2x - 2
If x > 0 or x = 0
2x + 4 = 2x - 2
This case is not possible.

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If x < 0
-2x + 4 = 2x - 2
x = 1.5 > 0
This case is not possible.
Option C: G(x) = 2x + 3
If x > 0 or x = 0
2x + 4 = 2x + 3
This case is not possible.
If x < 0
-2x + 4 = 2x + 3
x = 0.25 > 0
This case is not possible.
Option D: G(x) = 3x - 2
If x > 0 or x = 0
2x + 4 = 3x - 2
x=6
This case is possible.
Therefore, the answer is option D.
3. If the selling price of 320 Web Cameras is equal to the cost price of 400 Web Cameras, then the
percentage profit is :

A 12%

B 20%

C 40%

D 25%
Answer: D

Explanation:
It is given,
320SP = 400CP
4SP = 5CP
5CP
SP −CP 4 −CP
Profit percentage = CP × 100 = CP × 100 = 25%
The answer is option D.

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 4. The cost of the three components A, B and C of an electronic machine worth ₹12,000 in 2020 is
given as a Pie-chart as shown below :

In the following year, the cost of these three components A, B, and C increased by 10%, 20%, and 10%
respectively. The cost of the three components A, B, and C respectively in 2021, was

A ₹3,300, ₹4,950, ₹5,350

B ₹3,300, ₹4,800, ₹5,500

C ₹3,200, ₹4,700, ₹5,600

D ₹3,600, ₹4,800, ₹5,600

Answer: B

Explanation:
In 2020:
90
Cost of component A = 360 × 12000 = 3000
120
Cost of component B = 360 × 12000 = 4000
150
Cost of component C = 360 × 12000 = 5000
In 2021:
Cost of component A = 1.1*3000 = Rs 3300
Cost of component B = 1.2*4000 = Rs 4800
Cost of component C = 1.1*5000 = Rs 5500
The answer is option B.

5. What is the 95th term of the following letter series?

A, A, B, B, B, B,C, C,C, C,C, C, D, D, D, D, D, D, D, D, E, ...

A H

B I

C J

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D K
Answer: C

Explanation:
A - 2 terms
B - 4 terms
C - 6 terms
..
2 + 4 + 6 + ..... 2n terms => this sum should be greater than or equal to 95.

2 (1 + 2 + 3 + ... + n) ≥ 95
n (n + 1) ≥ 95
If n = 9, we get only 90 terms.
95th term occurs when n = 10, i.e. J.
The answer is option C.
6. A certain sum of money earns a simple interest of ₹ 800 over 2-year period. The same sum of money
invested at the same rate of interest and same period on a compound interest basis earns an interest
of ₹ 900. What is the sum?

A ₹1,200

B ₹1,600

C ₹2,000

D ₹2,400
Answer: B

Explanation:
Let the amount invested be 'P' and the rate of interest be 'r'.
Simple interest = $$\ \frac{\ P\times r\times2}{100}$
Pr
100 = 400
r 2
Compound interest = P (1 + 100 ) − P = 900
r 2 2 Pr
P ( 100 ) + 100 = 900
r 2
P ( 100 ) = 100
r
400 ( 100 ) = 100
r = 25%
400(100)
P= 25 = Rs 1600
The answer is option B.

5x
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 5x
7. If x > 0, then which of the following expressions are equal to 3.6% of 12 ?
A. 3 percent of 20x
3
B. x percent of 2
C. 3x percent of 0.2
D. 0.05 percent of 3x
3x
E. 200
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A A and B only

B A and E only

C C and D only

D B and E only
Answer: D

Explanation:
It is given, x > 0
5x 3.6 5x 36 5x 3x
3.6% of 12 = 100 × 12 = 1000 × 12 = 200
3(20x) 3x 3x
A) 3 percent of 20x = 100 = 5 
= 200
3 x 3 3x
B) x percent of 2 = 100 ( 2 ) = 200
3x 6x 3x 3x
C) 3x percent of 0.2 = 100 (0.2 ) = 1000 = 500 
= 200
0.05 3x(5) 3x 3x
D) 0.05 percent of 3x = 100 (3x) = 10000 = 2000 
= 200
3x
E) 200
Only B and E are equal to the calculated value.
Therefore, the answer is option D.

8. Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Ravi walks from his house at a speed of 5 km per hour and reaches the college 10
minutes late. If he increases the speed by 1 km per hour next day, he reaches the college 4 minutes
earlier than the scheduled time. If the college is P km far from his house, then P = 7.5 km.
1
Statement II: Amit runs 2 3 times as fast as Babita. If Amit gives Babita a start of 80 meters, then the
winning post must be 140 meters far so that Amit and Babita might reach it at the same time.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

A Both Statement I and Statement II are true

B Both Statement I and Statement II are false

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C Statement I is true but Statement II is false

D Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Answer: D

Explanation:
Statement I:
Let the actual time taken by Ravi to reach the college be 't'.
10
If Ravi travels at a speed of 5 km/hr, time taken is t + 60
4
If Ravi travels at a speed of 6 km/hr, time taken is t - 60
10 4
Distance = speed*time = P = 5 (t + 60 ) = 6 (t − 60 )
10 4
5 (t + 60 ) = 6 (t − 60 )
50 24
5t + 60 = 6t − 60
74
t= 60
74 10 84
Distance(P) = 5 ( 60 + 60 ) = 5 ( 60 ) = 7 km
Therefore, statement I is incorrect.
Statement II:
Let the speed of Babita be 3x.
The speed of Amit is 7x.

B covers distance y.
In the same time, A should cover 80+y.
y 80+y
3x = 7x

7y = 240 + 3y
4y = 240
y = 60
Total distance = 80 + 60 = 140m
Therefore, statement II is correct.
The answer is option D.

9. Let a, b and c be the ages of three persons P, Q and R respectively where a ≤ b ≤ c are natural
numbers. If the average age of P, Q, R is 32 years and if the age of Q is exactly 6 years more than
that of P, then what is the minimum possible value of c?

A 34 years

B 36 years

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C 38 years

D 32 years
Answer: A

Explanation:
It is given,

a + b + c = 96 and a≤ b≤ c
It is also given that age of Q is 6 years more than the age of P, i.e. b = a + 6
Minimum value c can take is equal to b, i.e. a + 6
a + a + 6 + a + 6 = 96
3a = 84
a = 28
Minimum possible value of c = 28 + 6 = 34 years
The answer is option A.
10. Given below are two statements :
A number of distinct 8-letter words are possible using the letters of the word SYLLABUS. If a word in
chosen at random, then
1
Statement I: The probability that the word contains the two S's together is 4
1
Statement II : The probability that the word begins and ends with L is 28 .
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

A Both Statement I and Statement II are true

B Both Statement I and Statement II are false

C Statement I is true but Statement II is false

D Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Answer: A

Explanation:
8!
Total number of 8-letter words possible using letters S, Y, L, L, A, B, U, S is 2!2!

Statement I:
We can find total number of 8-letter words by considering 2 S's as a single unit and arranging 7 units, i.e.
(SS), Y, L, L, A, B, U
7!
Total number of ways = 2!

7!
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 7!
2!
8!
2 1
2!2!
Required probability = =8=4

Therefore, statement I is correct.

Statement II:
We can find total number of 8-letter words such that L's are at ends by arranging remaining 6 letters in the
middle.
6!
Total number of ways = 2!
6!
2!
8!
2 1
2!2!
Required probability = = 56 = 28

Therefore, statement II is correct.

The answer is option A.

11. What is the probability of getting a sum of 22 or more when four dice are thrown?

5
A 432

4
B 648

1
C 144

7
D 36

Answer: A

Explanation:
Sum is 24: The only possibility is (6,6,6,6) -> 1 way
4!
Sum is 23: The only possibility is (6,6,6,5) -> 3! = 4 ways
Sum is 22: There are two possibilities, i.e. (6,6,6,4) and (6,6,5,5)
4!
(6,6,6,4) -> 3! = 4 ways
4!
(6,6,5,5) -> 2!2! = 6 ways
Total number of ways satisfying the given condition = 1 + 4 + 4 + 6 = 15
Total number of possibilities = (6)(6)(6)(6)
15 5
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 15 5
Required probability = 1296 = 432
The answer is option A.
12. A train running at 18 km per hour crosses a mark on the platform in 9 seconds and takes 25 seconds
to cross the platform. If P is the length of the train and Q is the length of the platform in meters, then
(P, Q) = ___________ .

A (45, 80)

B (45, 75)

C (50, 90)

D (50, 80)
Answer: A

Explanation:
Speed of train = 18 km/hr = 5 m/s
Let the length of train be 'P'
It is given,
P
5 =9
P = 45m
Let the length of platform be 'Q
It is given,
P +Q
5 = 25
P+Q = 125
Q = 125 - 45 = 80m
(P, Q) = (45, 80)
The answer is option A.
13. Three pipes P, Q and R can fill a tank in 6 hours. After working at it together for 2 hours, R is closed
and both P and Q can fill the remaining part in 7 hours. The number of hours that will be taken by R
alone to fill the tank is

A 10

B 12

C 14

D 16
Answer: C

Explanation:

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It is given that P, Q and R together can complete the work in 6 hrs.
P, Q and R together worked for 2 hours, this implies they completed 1/3rd of the work.
R left and remaining work is finished by P and Q in 7 hours.
Therefore, P and Q completed 2/3rd of the work in 7 hours.
This implies P and Q together can complete the work in 21/2 hours.
Let the total work be LCM(6, 21/2), i.e. 42 units.
P, Q and R together can complete 7 units in one hour.
P and Q together can complete 4 units in one hour.
This implies, R can complete 3 units in one hour.
42
Time taken by R alone to complete the work = 3 = 14 hours
The answer is option C.

14. What is the area of an equilateral triangle whose inscribed circle has radius R?

A 4R2

B 4 3R2

C (3 + 2 2)R2

D 3 3R2
Answer: D

Explanation:
3a
If a is the length of equilateral triangle, height is 2
3a 1 a
Inradius = 2 (3) = 2 3
a
It is given, R = 2 3
3a 3R
Area of triangle = Inradius * semiperimeter = R ( 2 )= 2 (2 3R) = 3 3R2
The answer is option D.
15. The number of all integers n for which n2 + 96 is a perfect square, is

A 4

B 6

C 8

D 10
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Let n2 + 96 = k2
k2 − n2 = 96
(k + n) (k − n) = 96
(k + n) (k − n) = 2 × 48, 4 × 24, 6 × 16, 8 × 12, 12 × 8, 16 × 6, 24 × 4, 48 × 2
n can take 8 values, i.e. -23, -10, -5, -2, 2, 5, 10 and 23.
The answer is option C.
16. Given below are two statements :
Statement I: The number of ways to pack six copies of the same book into four identical boxes where
a box can contain as many as six books, is 9.
Statement II: The minimum number of students needed in a class to guarantee that there are at least
six students whose birthday fall in the same month, is 61 .
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

A Both Statement I and Statement II are true

B Both Statement I and Statement II are false

C Statement I is true but Statement II is false

D Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Answer: A

Explanation:
Statement 1
We need to pack 6 indistinguishable books into 4 indistinguishable boxes

The ways we can pack the books are

6 ,0,0,0 (only one way as 0,6,0,0 or 0,0,6,0 won’t be different as boxes are identical)
5, 1,0,0
4, 2,0,0
4, 1, 1,0
3, 3,0,0
3, 2, 1,0
3, 1, 1, 1
2, 2, 2,0
2, 2, 1, 1.

so total 9 ways
Hence statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2
To calculate the minimum number of students required, we need to consider the worst case scenario i.e.
the birthdays of students are evenly spread across all the 12 months. We'll have to assume that there are

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atleast 5 birthday is each month, so the total number of students required = 5* 12 = 60. To assure that there
is 1 month in which we have 6 birthdays, we'll have to add 1 to this number, hence the minimum number of
students required = 60 + 1 = 61

17. Given below are two statements :

Statement I: The ratio of the son's age to the father's age is 1 : 5. The product of their ages is 245.
The ratio of the son's age to the father's age after 9 years will be 3 : 5.
Statement II: A milkman adds 30 litres of water to 70 litres of milk. After selling 1/5th of the total
quantity, he adds water equal to the quantity he sold. The proportion of water to milk he sells now
would be 28 : 72.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

A Both Statement I and Statement II are true

B Both Statement I and Statement II are false

C Statement I is true but Statement II is false

D Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Answer: B

Explanation:
Statement I:
It is given that the ratio of son's age to father's age is 1:5
Let the son's age be x and father's age be 5x.
(x)(5x) = 245
x=7
Therefore, son's age is 7 years and father's age is 35 years.
After 9 years, son's age is 16 years and father's age is 44 years.
Ratio = 16 : 44 = 4 : 11
Statement II:
Initially - 70L milk and 30L water
After selling 1/5th of the solution - 56L milk and 24L water
Adding water - 56L milk and 44L water
water:milk = 44:56 = 11:14
The answer is option B.
1 1 1
18. If x − x = y, y − y = z, z − z = x, there which of the following equations are true?
1 1 1
A. x + + y z =0
1 1 1
B. x2 + y2 + z2 = 8
1 1 1
C. xy + yz + zx = −3

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

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A A and B only

B A and C only

C B and C only

D A, B and C only
Answer: B

Explanation:
It is given,
1 1 1
x− x = y, y − y = z and z − z =x
Adding all the given equations, we get
1 1 1
x + y + z − x −y− z =y+z +x
1 1 1
x +y+ z =0
Therefore, equation A is correct.
1 1 1
x− x = y, y − y = z and z − z =x
Squaring on both the sides and adding three resultant equations, we get
1 1 1
x2 + x2 − 2 + y2 + y2 − 2 + z2 + z2 − 2 = y2 + z 2 + x2
1 1 1
x2 + y2 + z2 =6
Therefore, equation B is incorrect.
The answer is option B.
ab
19. If 5 a = 9b = 2025, then the value of a+b = _____.

A 4

B 3

C 2

D 1
Answer: C

Explanation:
It is given,

5a = 9b = 2025
5a = 2025
Applying log on both the sides, we get

a
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log5 5a = log5 2045
a = log5 2045
Similarly, we get b = log9 2045
1
1 1
ab
a+b
a+b =

1
a = log2045 5
1
b = log2045 9
1 1
a + b = log2045 45
ab
a + b = log45 2045 = 2

The answer is option C.

20. Arrange the following numbers in increasing order :

A. 59 − 51
B. 37 − 29
C. 87 − 79
D. 79 − 71
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A B<A<D<C

B C<D<B<A

C B<A<C<D

D C<D<A<B
Answer: D

Explanation:
8=( 59 − 51) ( 59 + 51)
8=( 37 − 29) ( 37 + 29)
We know that, 59 + 51 is greater than 37 + 29
This implies, 37 − 29 is greater than 59 − 51 as the product is constant.

59 51 79 71 from cracku.in
Downloaded 79 71 87 79
Similarly, 59 − 51 is greater than 79 − 71 and 79 − 71 is greater than 87 − 79.
The correct order is B > A > D > C
The answer is option D.

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Logical Reasoning
21. Identify odd group of letters:
CE, IK, SV, FH, UW

A sv

B IK

C uw

D FH
Answer: A

Explanation:
In the following group of letters, CE has one latter gap between them ( C_E). IK has one letter gap (I_K), SV
has (S_ _ V) two letter gap, FH has one letter gap between them (F_H), and UW has one letter gap (U_W).
Hence, all the groups of letters have one letter gap between the first letter and the second letter, except SV.
Hence, SV is the odd one out.
The correct option is A.

22. Select the pair which has same type of relationship like Barometer : Pressure

A Force:KG

B Richter Scale : Heat

C Weighing Scale : Meter

D Thermometer : Temperature
Answer: D

Explanation:
From the information given in the question, we can infer that we need to check for such a relationship
where the instrument is being used to measure the physical quantity. ( since Barometer is being used to
measure atmospheric pressure.)
In option A, the unit of force is given as kg, which is not a correct relationship. Richter scale is used to
measure the strength of earthquakes, but in the option, it is linked to heat. Therefore, option B is not

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correct.
The weighing scale measures the weight of an object, whose unit is Kg. Hence, this is wrong. The
thermometer measures temperature, which is the correct relationship.
The correct option is D.
23. The question consists of a statement, followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to
decide which of the argument is a 'strong' argument and which is a 'weak' argument.
Statement
Arguments I : Women should be allowed to go out alone.
Arguments II : Yes. It would make them independent and safe.
Arguments III : No. They are under the protection of their male affines and they should be with them
always
A. Only argument I is strong
B. Only argument II is strong
C. Both arguments I and II are strong
D. Both arguments I and II are weak
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

A A

B B

C C

D D
Answer: D

Explanation:
In this question, the argument I is weak since it fails to provide probable support for its conclusion.
Similarly, argument II is also weak since it is an argument with no proper support ( they are just assuming it
without any strong premises).
Therefore, option D is the correct answer.
24. One statement and two assumptions for the statement are given. Read the statement, think about the
assumptions and mark the correct option which is implicit in the statement.
Statement I : Some people believe in the existence of god.
Arguments II : Not everything in this world is created by humans.
Arguments III : Human beings are imperfect.
A. Only argument I is implicit
B. Only argument II is implicit
C. Both arguments I and II are implicit
D. Neither I nor II are implicit
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

A A

B B
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 C
C

D D
Answer: B

25. A statement below is followed by two conclusions I and II. Assuming that everything in the statement
is correct, consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them follows beyond
reasonable doubt, from the information given in the statement.
Statement I : In a one day match, total runs made by a team were 200. Out of which 160 runs were
made by the spinners.
Conclusions I : 80% of the team consists of spinners
Conclusions II : The opening batsmen were spinners

A Only I follows

B Only II follows

C Both I and II follow

D Neither I nor II follows

Answer: D

Explanation:
From the given statement, we can conclude that 80% of the runs are scored by spinners, which doesn't
imply that 80% of the team consists of spinners. Therefore, the conclusion 1 is not correct.
Similarly, we cannot conclude anything about the openers, whether they are spinners or not. Hence,
conclusion 2 is not correct.
Therefore, the correct answer is D.
26. Abhishek, Bineeta, Manisha, Hari, Vaishali, and Gaurav are sitting around a circular table not
necessarily in the same order. Some of them are facing the centre and the remaining are facing away
from the centre.
(i) Gaurav sits immediate left of Bineeta
(ii) Only Abhishek and Bineeta face away from the centre
(iii) Vishali and Hari are sitting next to each other
(iv) There are two people between Hari and Gaurav
(v) Abhishek is the neighbour of both Manisha and Guarav
If Hari and Abhishek interchange their places (having same facing direction) then who among the
following sits to the immediate left of Abhishek?

A Vaishali

B Hari

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 Manisha
C

D Gaurav
Answer: A

Explanation:
It is given that only Abhishek(A) and Bineeta(B) face away from the centre, which implies Manisha(M),
Hari(H), Vaishali(V), and Gaurav(G) face the centre. (point 2)
Gourav is on the immediate left of Bineeta (Bineeta faces away from the centre). (point 1)

There are two people between Gourav and Hari ( both are facing inwards) (point 4)

It is given that Abhishek is the neighbour of both Manisha and Gourav, which implies Abhishek sits between
Manisha and Gourav. Vaishali and Hari seats adjacent to each other.
The final diagram:

After Hari interchanges his position with Abhishek (having the same direction), the diagram will look like:
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From the diagram, we can see that Vaishali sits to the left of Abhishek. The correct answer is A.

27. A 3 ×3 matrix is filled with the numbers from 31 to 39 according to the following rules :
(a) 38 is above 39 and to the right of 32
(b) 33 is to the right of 37 and above 39 which is to the left of 34
(c) 32 is to the left of 35
(d) 37 is above 36 and 32
(e) 31 is above 35
'Above' and 'below' mean that they are in the same column while 'left' and 'right' mean that the
numbers are in the same row.
What is the sum of the numbers in the middle row?

A 101

B 105

C 107

D 109
Answer: B

Explanation:
From points a, b, and d, we can say that:

From point C, we can say that 32 is to the left of 35, and 31 is above 35.
Therefore,
The final table looks like this:

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Hence, the sum of the middle row is (32+38+35) = 105. The correct option is B.

28. Find the odd one among the following :

A 143

B 168

C 225

D 195
Answer: C

Explanation:
The four numbers are 143, 168, 195, and 225
The difference, (168-143) = 25, (195-168) = 27, hence the next difference should be 29. Hence the next
number should be (195+29) = 224.
Therefore, 225 is the odd number here. The correct option is C.
29. Two statements are given below, there may be cause and effect relationship between the two
statements. These may be the result of same cause or independent cause. Read both the statements
and mark the answer :
Statement I : There is an increase in the water level of all the water tanks supplying drinking water to
the city in the last fortnight.
Statement II : Most of the trains were cancelled due to waterlogging on the tracks.

A Statement I is the cause and Statement II is the effect

B The Statement II is the cause and Statement I is the effect

C Both the Statement I and Statement II are effects of independent causes

D Both the Statement I and Statement II are effects of the same common cause
Answer: D

Explanation:
Both statements are the effect of the same cause, which is related to the heavy increase of the water layer
due to some reason.
Hence, option D is the correct answer.
30. Find the missing term :
?
ZA5 , Y4 B, XC6 , W3 D, .

A U D2

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B
V E1

C V4 C

D DD3
Answer: B

Explanation:
There is no number with the first alphabet in the first and the third terms, which implies the fifth term will be
V(alphabetically, the order decreases starting with z). The second letter in each term increases starting with
A. Hence the second letter in the fifth term is E. (VE)
Hence option B is the correct answer.

31. If 23rd April, 1995 is a Tuesday, then what will be the day on 23rd April, 1988?

A Monday

B Friday

C Saturday

D Sunday
Answer: A

Explanation:
The odd days from 23rd April 1988 to 23rd April 1995 is (1+!+1+2+1+1+1) = 8. Hence 23rd April 1998 will be
one day lesser than 23rd April 1995. If 23rd April 1995 is Tuesday, then 23rd April 1988 is Monday.
Hence, the correct answer is option A.
32. In a certain code language, if the word BEAUTIFUL is coded as BFLTAEIUU, then how is the word
TECHNICAL coded in that language?

A CTNLHAEI

B CCAEIHLNT

C CAEICHLNT

D CCHLNTAEI
Answer: D

Explanation:
In this question, we are first separating the consonants and rearranging them in alphabetical order, then
rearranging the vowel alphabetically.
Hence, for the word BEAUTIFUL, we separate the consonants (B, T, F, L) and vowels (E, A, U, I, U)

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Now we will arrange the consonants in alphabetical order and then the vowels.
Hence, the word will be BFLTAEIUU.
Similarly, TECHNICAL can be written as the first separate consonants (T, C, H, N, C, L), and (E, I, A). Then
after rearranging, we will get:
CCHLNTAEI,
The correct option is D.
33. Given below is the diagram which represents various sports played by the students. Based on the
diagram find the number of girls who neither play hockey nor football

A 6

B 9

C 8

D 7
Answer: A

Explanation:

From the given diagram, we can see that '6' is neither included in the triangle nor the rectangle, implying 6
girls don't participate in hockey or football.

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Therefore, the correct option is A.

34. Given below are two statements :

Statement I: If 'some students are intelligent' is true, then 'some students are not intelligent' is also
true.
Statement II: If 'all logicians are mathematician' is true, then 'some non-mathematicians are not
logicians' will be true.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

A Both Statement I and Statement II are true

B Both Statement I and Statement II are false

C Statement I is true but Statement II is false

D Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Answer: D

Explanation:
Statement I is false because some students are intelligent implies two cases: 1. all the students are
intelligent. 2. some students are not intelligent.
Any of these can be correct. Hence, statement 1 is also false.
Statement II is true since all the logicians are mathematicians, which implies that all the non-
mathematicians can't be logicians, which implies some non-mathematicians are not logicians.
The correct option is D.
35. In a certain code, 'CAB' is written as 75, How will 'RULE' be written as?

A 85
B 64

C 45

D 52
Answer: D

Explanation:
The value of CAB is 75. C appears as a 24th letter when we take it in reverse alphabetical order. A is the
26th letter, and B is the 25th letter. The sum of these letters is (24+26+25) = 75.
R is the 9th word in reverse alphabetical order, U is the 6th word, L is the 15th word in reverse, and E is the
22nd letter in reverse alphabetical order.
Hence, the sum is (9+6+15+22) = 52.
The correct option is D

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36. If MOUSE is written as FTVPN, then RACKET is written as

A UELBCS

B GSWRM

C UFLDBS

D HFMDBS
Answer: C

Explanation:
If MOUSE is written as FTVPN, we have first reversed the word MOUSE to ESUOM, and then we have written
the next letter of each letter ( E as F, S as T, and so on).
Therefore, firstly RACKET can be written in the reverse order TEKCAR, and then we will write the next letter
corresponding to each letter.
Hence, RACKET can be written as UFLDBS.
The correct answer is C

37. Match List - I with List-II :

Choose the most appropriate option from those given below:

A (A)-(II); (B)-(IV); (C)-(III); (D)-(I)

B (A)-(I); (B)-(II); (C)-(III); (D)-(IV)

C (A)-(IV); (B)-(I); (C)-(II); (D)-(III)

D (A)-(IV); (B)-(III); (C)-(II); (D)-(I)

Answer: A

Explanation:
Every word has six letters in it, in which the first 2 letters are changed by (-2), the next 2 letters are changed
by (+2), and the last 2 letters are changed by (-2).
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Hence, EMBARK can be written as E(-2) => C, M(-2)=> K, B(+2)=> D, A(+2)=> C, and R(-2)=> P, and K(-2) => I,
Hence, EMBARK can be written as CKDCPI. (A-ii)
Hence, the correct option is A.
38. If% means 'is less than', $ means' is greater than and# means 'is equal to' and given that a%b, c#d
and c$b then which is true?

A a>b

B a<c

C c>d>a

D d<b
Answer: B

Explanation:
a%b means a is less than b. c#d means c is equal to d, and c$b means c is greater than b.
Therefore, a<b<c=d
Option B is correct.
?
39. Complete the series 564, 152, 48, 21, from the following options :

A 132

B 24.2

C 15.25

D 13.25
Answer: D

Explanation:
Firstly, (564/4) = 141+11 => 152.
(152/4) = 38+10 => 48
(48/4) = 12+9 => 21, and (21/4)+8 = 13.25
Hence the next term is 13.25. The correct option is D

40. Out of 400 students who attended a seminar, 240 opted for written exam, 200 opted for
presentations, 160 opted for assignments and 20 did not opt for giving any of the three methods of
test. 200 students had exactly one of the three methods of test.
How many students opted for exactly two of the three testing methods?

A 140

B 160

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 220
C

D 170
Answer: A

Explanation:
20 did not appear for any of the three methods. Hence, the total number of students who appeared in the
tests (400-20) = 380.
(240+160+200)=600 students = exactly I + 2 (exactly II) + 3(exactly III) => 2(exactly II) + 3 (exactly III) = 400
Exactly I +exactly II + exactly III = 380 => exactly II + exactly III = 180 => 2(exactly II) + 2(exactly III) = 360 =>
exactly III = 40
Therefore, exactly II = 180-40 = 140. Hence, the correct option is A.

Language Comprehension
41. Pick the appropriate meaning of the term 'proscribe' used in the following sentence :-
'Arms culture should be proscribed by the government.'

A allowed

B prescribed

C prohibited

D defended
Answer: C

Explanation:
The word 'proscribe' means to prohibit or forbid something.
Options A, B, and D are antonyms of proscribe, while option C is the correct meaning of the word.
The correct option is C.

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42. Pick the correct option to complete the following sentences :-
I. Gold and silver ______ precious metals.
II. The ship with its crew ______ lost.
III. No nook or corner ______ left unexplored.
IV. Neither my friend nor I ______ to blame.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

A (I-is); (II-were); (III-was); (IV-are)

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 (I- is); (II-was); (III-were); (IV- am)
B

C (I-are); (II-were); (III-was); (IV-are)

D (I-are); (II-was); (III-was); (IV-am)

Answer: D

Explanation:
I. Gold and silver ______ precious metals : In this sentence, the verb "are" is the correct form to use with the
subject "Gold and silver." The subject is plural, so the verb should also be in the plural form. Therefore, "are"
is the appropriate option to complete the sentence.
II.The ship with its crew ______ lost: In this sentence, the verb "was" is the correct form to use with the
subject "The ship with its crew." The subject is singular, so the verb should also be in the singular form.
Therefore, "was" is the appropriate option to complete the sentence.
III. No nook or corner ______ left unexplored: In this sentence, the verb "was" is the correct form to use with
the subject "No nook or corner." Although the subject contains multiple elements connected by "or," it is
considered singular. Therefore, the verb should be in the singular form. Therefore, "was" is the appropriate
option to complete the sentence.
IV. Neither my friend nor I _____ to blame: In this sentence, the verb "am" is the correct form to use with the
compound subject "Neither my friend nor I." The pronoun "I" functions as the subject of the sentence and
requires the singular form of the verb "am." Therefore, "am" is the appropriate option to complete the
sentence.
The correct option is D.
43. Choose the word that is closest in meaning to the following statement :-
A medicine to counteract poison

A Antidote

B Aquatic

C Agnostic

D Anthropology
Answer: A

Explanation:
A medicine to counteract poison is called an 'Antidote'.
Thus, the correct option is A.
44. Pick the correct sentence :-

A I have passed the examination last year.

I pass the examination last

B
year.

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 I am passing the examination last year.
C

D I passed the examination last year.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The statement in option A is incorrect because it combines the present perfect tense ("have passed") with a
specific past time reference ("last year"). The present perfect tense is used to indicate actions that
occurred at an indefinite time in the past, not with a specific time reference like "last year." Therefore, the
use of "have passed" in this sentence is incorrect.
The sentence in option B is incorrect because it uses the present tense ("pass") to describe an action that
occurred in the past ("last year"). When referring to a specific past time, the correct verb form to use is the
past tense, which is "passed" in this case.
The sentence in option C is incorrect because it combines the present continuous tense ("am passing")
with a specific past time reference ("last year"). The present continuous tense is used to describe ongoing
actions happening in the present, not in the past. Therefore, using "am passing" in this sentence to refer to
an action in the past is incorrect.
The sentence in option D is the correct sentence. It uses the past tense ("passed") to indicate that the
action of passing the examination occurred in the past. The time frame "last year" further specifies when
the action took place, making this sentence grammatically correct.
The correct option is D.

45. Choose the correct meaning of the following idiom :-

Catch Twenty Two

A situation in which it's impossible to succeed because of conflicting rules or

A
conditions.

B When you have a large and difficult task to do in the future.

C When one problem causes another problem, which then causes the first problem again.

When you are at the limit of your mental resources, desperate and without additional
D
options.
Answer: C

Explanation:
Catch twenty two refers to a dilemma or difficult circumstance from which there is no escape because of
mutually conflicting or dependent conditions.
Since only option C captures its essence, the correct option is C.
Instructions [46 - 49 ]
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow :

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What is religion? A very complex question! We know religion and we live religion. But, how do we explain or
define religion? Religion is one of the most sensitive and vulnerable aspects of human life from the very
beginning. Thought it looks simple, it is not a simple reality to be easily defined or explained. There are
many theories proposed regarding the origin of religion as a result of the development of speculative,
intellectual and scientific mind. However, in spite of the differences in the under-standing of this important
element, it is confirmed that it is purely a human activity and it has become an inevitable aspect of human
life. In the West, under the influence of the inherited tradition of Judeo-Christian tradition, religion was
understood more theistically while in the East, it was mostly a response to the experience of the natural
powers that are beyond human control and also to the inner urge for an ethical and moral reference.
Etymologically, the word 'religion' is derived from the Latin root 'religare' and it means 'to bind fast'. Then
'religion' has certainly a strong emphasis on community aspects. It is something that binds fast the
members of it together. When we start thinking seriously on religion , naturally we fall upon thoughts of the
definition of religion. There are numberless definitions of religion, The meaning and definition of religion
differs according to the socio-cultural and psychological background of the person who reflects upon it.
Even the political setting inserts its influence on the understanding of the meaning of religion. Some of the
definitions are phenomenological and try to expose the common elements that we see in the
acknowledged world religions. For example, the human recognition of a superhuman power entitled to
obedience and worship. Some others are interpretative definitions.
46. The meaning and definition of religion depends upon following factors :-
A. Socio-cultural
B. Political
C. Psychological
D. Phenomenological
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

A A and C

B B, C and D

C B and D

D A, B, C and D
Answer: D

Explanation:
"There are numberless definitions of religion, The meaning and definition of religion differs according to the
socio-cultural and psychological background of the person who reflects upon it. Even the political setting
inserts its influence on the understanding of the meaning of religion. Some of the definitions are
phenomenological and try to expose the common elements that we see in the acknowledged world
religions."
From the above excerpt, we can see that all four options have their influence on the meaning of the religion.
The correct option is D.
47. In which tradition, religion is seen as a response to the experience of the natural powers?

A Western Tradition

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 Eastern Tradition
B

C lndo-western Tradition

D Christian Tradition
Answer: B

Explanation:
"In the West, under the influence of the inherited tradition of Judeo-Christian tradition, religion was
understood more theistically while in the East, it was mostly a response to the experience of the natural
powers that are beyond human control and also to the inner urge for an ethical and moral reference. "
Thus, the correct option is B.

48. Which of the phrases is closest in meaning to etymology?

A Origin of ideas and thoughts

B Origin of religion

C Origin of human life

D Origin of words and their meanings

Answer: D

Explanation:
The word 'etymology' refers to the history of a word or phrase shown by tracing its development and
relationships.
Thus, out of the four options, the closest option is D.
49. Which of these statements are correct with reference to the above passage?
A. Religion is one of the most sensitive aspects of human life form.
B. Religion is purely a human activity.
C. Religion doesn't bind the members of a community together.
Choose from the options given below:

A A and B

B Only B

C A, B and C

D Only A
Answer: A

Explanation:
Statenents A and B are supported by the information provided in the passage. The passage highlights that

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religion is a sensitive and vulnerable aspect of human life, indicating its significance and impact. It also
mentions that religion is purely a human activity, emphasizing its association with human beliefs, practices,
and experiences. However, the passage does not support the statement that religion doesn't bind the
members of a community together. In fact, it emphasizes that religion strongly emphasises community
aspects and serves as something that binds the members of a community together.
The correct option is A.
50. Match List-I with List-II :

Choose the correct option from those given below :

A (A)-(I); (B)-(II); (C)-(III); (D)-(IV)

B (A)-(III); (B)-(II); (C)-(IV); (D)-(I)

C (A)-(IV); (B)-(II); (C)-(III); (D)-(I)

D (A)-(II); (B)-(IV); (C)-(I); (D)-(III)

Answer: C

Explanation:
The meaning of the words given in the left column is as follows:
Crap Diem: to urge someone to make the most of the present time or seize the day.
Faux Pas: an embarrassing or tactless act or remark in a social situation.
Magnum Opus: a great work and especially the greatest achievement of an artist or writer.
Prima Facie: sufficient to raise a presumption unless disproved or rebutted.
Thus, the correct order will be (A)-(IV); (B)-(II); (C)-(III); (D)-(I)
The correct option is C.

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51. Replace the phrase in italics in the given sentence from the options given below to make a
grammatically correct sentence :-
I don't think you need to explain the situation, your conduct is speaking itself.

A will speak to itself

B speak for itself

C has been speaking

D speaks about itself
Answer: B

Explanation:
In the given sentence, the phrase "speaking itself" is grammatically incorrect. The correct phrase should be
"speak for itself."
The phrase"speak for itself" means something that is evident or self-explanatory without the need for
further explanation. In this context, it implies that the person's conduct is clear and communicates the
situation effectively, eliminating the need for additional clarification.
The correct option is B.
52. Read the sentences given below :-
I. I do not know whether he will come or not.
II. I do not know that he will come or not.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

A I is correct but II is incorrect

B I is incorrect but II is correct

C Both I and II are correct

D Both I and II are incorrect

Answer: A

Explanation:
The sentence I is grammatically correct. It uses the correct subordinating conjunction "whether" to
introduce a subordinate clause indicating uncertainty about whether he will come or not. The structure
"whether he will come or not" is commonly used to express doubt or uncertainty about a future event.
Sentence II is not grammatically correct. It uses the conjunction "that" instead of "whether," which is
incorrect in this context. The correct construction, in this case, is to use "whether" to introduce the
subordinate clause expressing uncertainty.
The correct option is A.

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53. Choose the correct order of the sentences to create a meaningful paragraph :-
P : At other times, it's a spontaneous communication within a small group of people.
Q : Oral storytelling is an old, widespread , and much-loved tradition in many cultures.
R : This spontaneity is enjoyed by both children and adults.
S : It's sometimes a performing art that involves interaction between the storyteller and the audience.
codes:

A PQSR

B QSPR

C RPSQ

D SRPQ
Answer: B

Explanation:
The sentence Q introduces the topic of oral storytelling and highlights its significance as a traditional
practice in various cultures. It sets the context for the subsequent sentences. Sentence S expands on the
nature of oral storytelling by emphasizing its role as a performing art. It highlights the interactive aspect of
storytelling, where the storyteller engages with the audience during the performance. Sentence P presents
an alternative aspect of oral storytelling, suggesting that it can also occur in an informal and spontaneous
manner within small groups. Sentence R concludes the paragraph by stating that the spontaneity of oral
storytelling is appreciated by people of all ages, including both children and adults. It emphasizes the
universal appeal and enjoyment derived from this form of communication.
Thus, the correct order will be QSPR.
The correct option is B.

54. Find out which part of the sentence has an error, if there is no error, mark option 4

A the primary objective of the essay is to draw

B analogies between the two work

C addressing the common memories and trauma of dislocation

D no error
Answer: B

Explanation:
In option B "analogies between the two work" , the word "work" should be pluralized to "works" to match the
plural noun "analogies."
Thus, the correct option is B.

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55. Find out which part of the following sentence has an error :-
The earth moves round the sun, Isn't it?"

A The earth moves

B Round the sun

C Isn't it?

D No error
Answer: C

Explanation:
The error in the sentence is in the tag question at the end: "Isn't it?". The correct tag question to use in this
case is "doesn't it?" instead of "isn't it?" since the main verb in the sentence is "moves," which is a present
simple tense verb.
The correct option is C.
56. Choose the correct option of Active Voice sentence for the given sentence of Passive Voice :-
The child was looked after by the maid.

A The maid looked after the child.

B The maid was looked after by the child.

C The maid was looking after the child.

The maid will look after the

D
child.
Answer: A

Explanation:
To convert a sentence into an active voice, we need to make the subject of the passive sentence (the child)
the doer of the action. The verb should be in the active form, and the object (the child) should become the
subject.
Therefore, the correct option is "The maid looked after the child."
The correct option is A.

57. Choose the correct one word substitute for the following phrase :-
Lasting for a very short time

A Vulnerable

B Ambivalent

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 Ephemeral
C

D Flamboyant
Answer: C

Explanation:
The word ephemeral is used as an adjective to denote something that lasts for a very short time.
Thus, the correct option is C.
58. Identify which of the sentence are correct :
A. She was pouring water in the jug.
B. My father was angry with my brother.
C. Rama has been living in Delhi for 1975.
D. The children laughed at the beggar.
E. The patient was crying on pain.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

A B and D only

B A, B and D only

C A, B and E only

D B, D and E only
Answer: B

Explanation:
Sentence C: The correct sentence should be: "Rama has been living in Delhi since 1975." The preposition
"since" is used to indicate the starting point of an action or state.

Sentence E: The correct sentence should be: "The patient was crying in pain." The preposition "in" is used
to indicate the state or condition the patient is experiencing

Sentences A, B, and D are correct, and hence, the correct option is B.

59. Identify the correct passive voice form of the following sentence :-
My mother cooks Italian food every Sunday.

A Every Sunday Italian food cooked by my mother.

B Italian food is cooked by my mother every Sunday.

C Italian food is being cooked by her every Sunday.

D Italian food was cooked by my mother every Sunday.

Answer: B

Explanation:
In the original sentence, "My mother cooks Italian food every Sunday," the subject "my mother" is performing

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the action of cooking Italian food. In the passive voice, the subject of the sentence becomes the receiver of
the action, and the focus is on the action itself rather than the doer.
The correct passive voice form of the sentence is "Italian food is cooked by my mother every Sunday."
The correct option is B.

60. Find out which part of the following sentence has an error :-
"Neither he nor I are wrong"

A Neither he
B nor I

C are wrong

D no error
Answer: C

Explanation:
The error in the sentence is in the verb agreement. The correct form should be:
"Neither he nor I am wrong."
Since "I" is the first person singular pronoun, the verb should be in the singular form "am" instead of the
plural form "are."
The correct option is C.

General Awareness
61. Who was associated with the philosophy, 'Divinity in Humanity'?

A Swami Ramkrishna Paramhansa

B Mother Teresa

C Swami Vivekananda

D Swami Sivananda
Answer: A

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62. Match List-I with List-II :

Choose the most appropriate option from those given below :

A (A)-(III); (B)-(I); (C)-(II); (D}-(IV)

B (A)- (III); (B)-(II); (C)-(I); (D)-(IV)

C (A)-(I); (B)-(III); (C)-(IV); (D)-(II)

D (A)-(III); (B)- (I); (C)-(IV); (D)-(II)

Answer: D

63. Match List-I with List-II :

Choose the most appropriate option from the those given below:

A (A)-(I); (B)-(II); (IV); (D)-(III)

B (A)-(II); (B)-(I); (C)-(IV); (D)-(III)

C (A)-(III); (B)-(IV); (C)-(I); (D)-(II)

D (A)-(III); (B)-(IV); (C)-{II); (D)-(I)

Answer: D

64. The author of the book, The Struggle in My Life is

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A Jomo Keryatta

B Nelson Mandela

C Frederick Chiluba

D Bishop Desmond Tutu

Answer: B

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65. Match List -I with List -II

Choose the most appropriate option from those given below :

A (A)-(I); (B)-(IV); (C)-{II); (D)-(III)

B (A)-(IV); (B)-(I); (II); (D)-(III)

C (A)-(II); (B)-(I); (IV); (D)-(III)

D (A)-(III); (B)-(II); (C)-(I); (D)-(IV)

Answer: B

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66. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The performance and potential of insurance sector is assessed using insurance density
as an indicator.
Statement II : The performance and potential of insurance sector is assessed using insurance
penetration as an indicator.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below.

A Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

B Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

C Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

D Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: A

67. Given below are two statements :

Statement I : According to IT rules 2021 social media platforms with minimum 50 lakh registered
users are classified as significant social media intermediaries.
Statement II : OTT platforms cannot upload content which is adult and explicit in nature.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below.

A Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

B Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

C Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

D Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: C

68. Who among the following thinkers is attributed with the following statement? "So long as the millions
live in hunger and ignorance, I hold every man a traitor, who having been educated at their expense,
pays not the least heed to them?

A Ram Manohar Lohia

B Swami Vivekananda

C M. N. Roy

D Raja Ram Mohan Roy

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 Answer: B

69. Who was chosen as the first Satyagrahi to launch the individual Satyagrah in 1940?

A Jawaharlal Nehru

B Bal Gangadhar Tilak

C Brahma Datt

D Acharya Vinoba Bhave

Answer: D

70. Who among the following is a Structural Biologist who shared the 2009 Nobel Prize in Chemistry for
studies on the structure and function of Ribosome and is a Padma Vibhushan Awardee?

A Vijayan O V
B Venkatraman Ramakrishanan
C Har Gobind Khorana

D Venkayya Pingali
Answer: B

71. In November, 2020 Union Cabinet gave its nod to merge which two banks?

A Lakshmi Vilas Bank with Allahabad Bank

B DBS Bank of India with Allahabad Bank

C Lakshmi Vilas Bank with DBS Bank of India

D DBS Bank of India with Karur Vysya Bank

Answer: C

72. Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Nilgiri hills connect Eastern and Western Ghats
Statement II : Satpura hills connect Eastern and Northern Ghats
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below.

A Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

B Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

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 Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
C

D Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: C

73. Which of the following Indian rivers are part of the Peninsular River System?
A. Betwa
B. Beas
C. Narmada
D. Gandhak
E. Tapi
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

A A and C only

B C and D only

C C and E only
D A, B and C only
Answer: C

74. Which of the following are the names of the actual Corona Virus Variants?
A. Alpha Variant
B. Beta Variant
C. Gamma Variant
D. Delta Variant
E. The Kappa Variant
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

A A, Band D only

B D only

C A, B, C, D and E

D A, B, C and D only
Answer: C

75. Who can dissolve the Lok Sabha before the expiry of its normal term of 5 years?

A The Prime Minister

B The President of India

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 The President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister
C

D The President on the recommendation of the speaker

Answer: C

76. Which of the following Bengali works of fiction is often considered as the first political novel in
India?

A Anandmath

B Gora

C Onti Dani (Lone Voice)

D Ghasiram Kotwal
Answer: A

77. Which of the following is true regarding History of Buddhism in India?

A. The Turkish killed large number of Buddhist monks in Bihar
B. The Brahmana Pashyamitra Shunga persecuted the Buddhists
C. The Huna king Mihirakula killed hundreds of Buddhists
D. The Shaivite Shashanka of Gauda felled the Bodhi tree at Bodh Gaya
E. Hsuan Tsang stated that 1600 stupas and monasteries were destroyed and thousands of monks
killed
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

A A, D and E only

B A and E only

C A only

D A, B, C, D and E
Answer: D

78. Which of the following is/are true regarding the Judicial system of India?
A. There can be maximum of 20 judges in the Supreme Court of India.
B. Judges of Supreme Court retire at the age of 65 years.
C. Among the High Courts of India, the highest number of cases are pending at Allahabad High Court,
as on March, 2022.
D. Among the High Courts the least number of cases are at Karnataka High Court.
E. There are 29 High Courts in India.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

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A A, B, C and D only

B B, C and E only

C A, C and D only

D B and C only
Answer: D

79. Who among the following sportsperson was appointed as the Vice-Chancellor of Delhi Sports
University in June 2021?

P. T.
A
Usha

B Abhinav Bindra

C Kamam Malleswari

D Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore

Answer: C

80. Given below are two statements :

Statement I : The branch of science which shows inter-relationship of living organism
and their environment is called genetics.
Statement II : The techniques of recording and reproducing three dimensional images
of object is known as lexicography.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

A Both Statement I and Statement II are true

B Both Statement I and Statement II are false

C Statement I is true but Statement II is false

D Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Answer: B

Innovation and Entrepreneurship

81. What is the full form of EPCG?

A Export Promotion Capital Goods

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 Export Promotion Council of Goods
B

C Export Potential of Capital Goods

D Export Promotion Council of Government

Answer: A

Explanation:
The full form of EPCG is "Export Promotion Capital Goods." EPCG is a scheme introduced by the
Government of India to promote the import of capital goods to enhance the export competitiveness of
Indian industries. Under the EPCG scheme, eligible exporters can import capital goods at concessional
customs duty rates or even duty-free, subject to certain export obligations. The scheme aims to facilitate
acquiring advanced technology and machinery by Indian exporters to improve their manufacturing
capabilities and enhance export performance.

82. The primary focus of SMILE loan of SIDBI is to

A Upgrade their machinery with state-of-the-art equipment

B To meet the debt-equity ratio of a unit or to help in its growth and expansion

C For technology upgradation and expansion

D One-time non-recurring loan for start ups

Answer: B

Explanation:
The primary focus of the SMILE (SIDBI Make in India Soft Loan Fund for MSMEs) loan of SIDBI is option B)
To meet the debt-equity ratio of a unit or to help in its growth and expansion. The SMILE loan scheme aims
to provide financial assistance to Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) in India to help them
meet their debt-equity ratio requirements and support their growth and expansion plans. It helps MSMEs in
accessing affordable and flexible financing options to meet their working capital needs, purchase
machinery and equipment, and expand their business operations.
83. 'Entrepreneur' means

A to struggle

B to undertake

C to invent

D to motivate
Answer: B

Explanation:
The term "entrepreneur" refers to option B) to undertake. An entrepreneur is an individual who takes the
initiative and assumes the risk of starting and managing a business venture. They identify opportunities,
organize resources, and create and implement innovative ideas to establish and grow a successful

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business. Entrepreneurship involves the process of recognizing a business opportunity, developing a
business plan, acquiring the necessary resources, and taking the necessary actions to establish and run a
business. While an entrepreneur may struggle, invent, or motivate as part of their entrepreneurial journey,
the fundamental meaning of "entrepreneur" is someone who undertakes entrepreneurial activities.
84. An entrepreneur who is the owner of more than one business is called

A Portfolio entrepreneur

B lntrapreneur

C Corporate entrepreneur

D Owner entrepreneur
Answer: A

Explanation:
An entrepreneur who is the owner of more than one business is called option A) Portfolio entrepreneur. A
portfolio entrepreneur is an individual who manages multiple businesses or ventures simultaneously. They
may have ownership stakes in different companies or may have started and established multiple
businesses themselves. Portfolio entrepreneurs are skilled at diversifying their business interests and
managing multiple enterprises concurrently. They often leverage their knowledge, experience, and network
across their various businesses to maximize their entrepreneurial endeavors.

85. The start-up loans offered by MUDRA banks to small enterprises, business which are non-corporate,
and non-farm small/micro enterprises is up to the limit of Rs ________ lacs.

A 20

B 10

C 40

D 30
Answer: B

Explanation:
The start-up loans offered by MUDRA (Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency) banks to small
enterprises, non-corporate businesses, and non-farm small/micro enterprises have a limit of Rs 10 lacs
(10,00,000) as per the MUDRA loan categories
Option B is correct
86. Which are the BRIC countries?

A Britain, Russia, India and Canada

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 Brazil, Russia, India and China
B

C Bangladesh, Rwanda, India and China

D Bhutan, Rwanda, India and Cuba

Answer: B

Explanation:
The BRIC countries are a grouping acronym that represents four major emerging economies: Brazil, Russia,
India, and China.
Option B is correct.
87. Entrepreneurship can be best described as

A Process that requires setting up a business

B Taking a significant risk in a business context

C Having a strong vision
D A process involving innovation and value creation
Answer: D

Explanation:
Entrepreneurship can best be described as:
D) A process involving innovation and value creation.
Entrepreneurship is not limited to simply setting up a business or taking significant risks, although those
elements can be part of the entrepreneurial process. At its core, entrepreneurship involves identifying
opportunities, developing innovative ideas, and creating value by introducing new products, services, or
business models. Entrepreneurs often take risks, but their primary focus is on creating something new,
bringing about change, and capturing opportunities in the marketplace.
Having a strong vision can be a characteristic of entrepreneurship, but it is not a comprehensive description
of the concept. Entrepreneurship encompasses a broader process of identifying, evaluating, and pursuing
opportunities through innovation and value creation.
Therefore, option D) A process involving innovation and value creation, is the most accurate description of
entrepreneurship.

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88. A person who improves an existing business is called

A
A
changeling

B A leader

C A professional

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 An lntrapreneur
D
Answer: D

Explanation:
A person who improves an existing business is often referred to as an "intrapreneur." (Option D)
89. The legal term for brand is

A Patent

B Licence

C Trademark

D TOM
Answer: C

Explanation:
The legal term for brand is C) Trademark.
A) Patent: Legal protection for new inventions or innovations.
B) License: Permission to use someone else's intellectual property.
D) TOM: This option is not a recognized legal term in the context of brand or intellectual property.
90. Which of these theories involve taking a moderate amount of risk as a function of skill and not
chance?

A Need for achievement

B Need for affiliation

Need for
C
authority

D Need for independence

Answer: A

Explanation:
The theory that involves taking a moderate amount of risk as a function of skill and not chance is the "Need
for Achievement" theory, option A. The Need for Achievement theory, proposed by psychologist David
McClelland, suggests that individuals with a high need for achievement are motivated by the desire to
excel, accomplish challenging goals, and take moderate risks to achieve success. These individuals are
driven by a sense of personal accomplishment and actively seek tasks that offer them opportunities to
demonstrate their skills and abilities.

91. For a project to be viable, the first necessary condition is

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A That it should have a market

B That it should have government support

C That its expected return should be greater than bank rate

D That it should be based on tried and tested technology

Answer: A

Explanation:
The first necessary condition for a project to be viable is that it should have a market, option A. A project
needs to have a potential customer base or target market that is willing to pay for the product or service
being offered. Without a market, there would be no demand for the project's output, making it unlikely to
succeed. Identifying and assessing the market potential is crucial in determining the viability of a project.
While government support, expected return, and reliance on tried and tested technology can be important
factors, the presence of a market is typically considered the primary condition for a project's viability.
92. As business grows, time management continues to be an issue, but the entrepreneur's major
concern usually becomes :

A Setting goals

Finding, retaining, and motivating qualified

B
employees

C Measuring performance

D All of these
Answer: B

Explanation:
As business grows, time management continues to be an issue, but the entrepreneur's major concern
usually becomes finding, retaining, and motivating qualified employees.
The answer is option B.
93. _________ entrepreneurs suffer losses, as they refuse to make any modifications in the existing
production methods.

A Drone

B Passionate

C Imitative

D Possessive
Answer: A

Explanation:
"Drone" entrepreneurs suffer losses as they refuse to make any modifications in the existing production

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methods. Drone entrepreneurs are characterized by their rigid adherence to established practices and
resistance to change. They may be unwilling to adapt or innovate, which can result in losses as the
business environment evolves and new approaches or technologies emerge. Their reluctance to modify
production methods can lead to inefficiencies or the inability to keep up with market demands, ultimately
affecting the business's profitability.

94. Which of the following is not a legitimate way of bringing a new business idea to market?

A A start up

B Business plan

C A buy-out

D Franchise
Answer: B

Explanation:
Start-ups, Franchises, and buy-ins are legitimate ways on how someone can bring a new business idea to
market.
Therefore, the answer is option B.
95. The business plan of a venture must show consistent, but manageable projected growth because :

A Many entrepreneurs fail after expanding too rapidly

B Investors want to see quick growth

C Banks are interested in profits, not expenses

D Bankers and investors prefer small companies

Answer: A

Explanation:
The business plan of a venture should show consistent but manageable projected growth because many
entrepreneurs fail after expanding too rapidly. Sustainable growth allows for a strong foundation,
operational efficiency, and risk management. While some investors may prefer quick growth, it depends on
their specific objectives. Banks consider profitability along with other factors. Bankers and investors
evaluate opportunities based on multiple factors, not just the size of thecompany.
96. Entrepreneurs have to deal with

A internal uncertainties only

B external uncertainties only

C Both external and internal uncertainties

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 Neither external nor internal uncertainties
D
Answer: C

Explanation:
Entrepreneurs have to deal with: C) Both external and internal uncertainties.
Entrepreneurship involves operating in an environment that is characterized by various uncertainties and
risks. These uncertainties can arise from external factors such as changes in market conditions, customer
preferences, technological advancements, regulatory changes, and economic fluctuations. Additionally,
entrepreneurs also face internal uncertainties related to their business operations, such as resource
allocation, talent management, product development, and financial stability.
Successful entrepreneurs must navigate and address both external and internal uncertainties to make
informed decisions, adapt to changing circumstances, and mitigate risks. They need to stay proactive,
gather information, analyze market trends, assess their internal capabilities, and make strategic
adjustments to ensure their ventures remain competitive and sustainable.

97. In context of market feasibility analysis the analyst should consider the following factor as a priority

A Target market attractiveness

B Financing of market expenditure

C Availability of marketing personnel

D Market leadership
Answer: A

Explanation:
In the context of market feasibility analysis, the analyst should consider option A) Target market
attractiveness as a priority factor. Market feasibility analysis involves assessing the viability and potential
success of entering a specific market. Target market attractiveness refers to the desirability and potential
profitability of the market segment being considered. By prioritizing target market attractiveness, the
analyst evaluates factors such as market size, growth rate, customer demand, competition, and profitability
potential. This assessment helps in understanding whether the target market presents a favorable
opportunity for the product or service being offered and whether it aligns with the company's objectives
and capabilities. Analyzing target market attractiveness provides insights into the market's potential for
generating sales, revenue, and long-term success, thus guiding the decision-making process.
98. According to Gary Hamel, which one of the following propositions is one of the four pillars to create
value for the company and the customer?

A The well-being innovation

B The management innovation

C The digital innovation

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 The financial innovation
D
Answer: B

Explanation:
According to Gary Hamel, one of the four pillars to create value for the company and the customer is option
B) The management innovation. Gary Hamel, a management expert and author, emphasizes the
importance of management innovation as a crucial element for creating value. Management innovation
involves developing new and effective ways of organizing, leading, and managing within a company. It
focuses on improving the efficiency, effectiveness, and agility of the organization's management practices
and processes. By innovating in management, companies can drive productivity, foster creativity and
collaboration, empower employees, and adapt to changing market conditions, ultimately creating value for
both the company and its customers.
99. Which type of innovation seeks to make a better product to target the high-end of the market?

A Sustaining innovation
B Low-end disruptive innovation

C New market disruptive innovation

D Quantity based innovation

Answer: A

Explanation:
The type of innovation that seeks to make a better product to target the high-end of the market is option A)
Sustaining innovation. Sustaining innovation involves incremental improvements and advancements in
existing products or services to enhance their features, performance, or quality. This type of innovation
aims to cater to the needs and preferences of existing customers in the higher-end or premium market
segments by providing them with improved or superior offerings. Sustaining innovation helps companies
maintain their competitive advantage, retain their customer base, and capture higher profit margins by
offering enhanced value propositions to discerning customers.

100. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?

A. Technical feasibility is not required in case of hospital projects.
B. Pattern of financing is ignored while computing cost of capital
C. CPM is superior to PERT in some situations
D. Infrastructure projects are ideally financed through long term sources.
E. Cost of internally generated funds is zero.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A B, E only

B D and E only

C A and B only

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 C and D only
D
Answer: D

Explanation:
PERT is best for research and development projects, but CPM is for non-research projects like construction
projects. Therefore, CPM is superior to PERT in some situations. Statement C is true.
Therefore, the answer is option D.