Patrol Questionaires
Patrol Questionaires
Patrol Questionaires
1. It refers to the utilization of units or elements of the PNP for purposes of protection of
lives and properties, enforcement of laws, maintenance of peace and order, prevention
of crimes, arrest of criminal offenders and bringing the offenders to justice and ensuring
public safety particularly in the suppression of disorders, riots, lawless violence,
rebellious/seditions conspiracy, insurgency, subversion or other related activities.
a. Deploy
b. Employ
c. Detail
d. Assign
2. It refers to the orderly organized physical movement of elements or units of the PNP
within the Province, city or municipality for purposes of employment.
a. Deploy
b. Employ
c. Detail
d. Assign
a. Investigation
b. Traffic
c. Patrol
d. Intelligence
4. He is the chairman of the local peace and order council in the municipality of city
pursuant to EO No. 309.
a. No. 1 council
b. Vice Mayor
c. Mayor
d. Sangguniang Bayan
7. When wearing the police uniform a police officer shall at all times appear;
a. Pistol
b. Rifle
c. Probation
d. Knowledge of the Law
10. It is the systematic collection and analysis of information about the social and economic
condition of a particular area that affects the safety and security of its constituents.
a. Area Survey
b. Area Inspection
c. Area Profiling
d. Area Analysis
a. Sector
b. Orbit
c. Beat
d. Patrol Route
a. Checkpoint
b. Spot Check
c. Interrogation
d. Apprehension
13. It is a police operation sealing-off the probable exits points of fleeing suspects from the
crime scene to prevent their escape and effect arrest.
a. Checkpoint Operation
b. Spot Check
c. Hot Pursuit
d. Dragnet Operation
14. It is a patrol concept where different patrol units of the station, barangays, tanods,
bantay bayan, NGO’s and civilian volunteers from the community supports and
complement the efforts of each other aimed to prevent the occurrence of crime in their
area of responsibility.
16. It is a subdivision of a locality which composes of two or more beat patrol areas where a
composite or PIPS is conducted.
a. Sector
b. Orbit
c. Beat
d. Patrol Route
18. This type of patrol used horses primarily for patrolling areas with rough terrain that are
inaccessible by mobile patrol.
a. Horse Patrol
b. Jungle Patrol
c. Off-road Patrol
d. Mounted Patrol
19. It is the anticipation, recognition and assessment of a crime risk and the initiation of
action to eliminate or reduce it.
a. Crime Solution
b. Crime analysis
c. Crime Prevention
d. Crime Reduction
20. It is the nerve center that links the components of the integrated patrol system through
different communication systems.
a. Disregard
b. Riot
c. Civil Disturbance
d. Back to Base
a. Bank Alarm
b. Fire Alarm
c. Accident
d. Need Assistance
a. Bank Alarm
b. Fire Alarm
c. Accident
d. Need Assistance
a. Bank Alarm
b. Fire Alarm
c. Accident
d. Need Assistance
a. Crime in progress
b. Emergency
c. Riot
d. Civil Disturbance
a. Disregard
b. Civil Disturbance
c. Crime in progress
d. Report in person
27. “10-31” means;
a. Disregard
b. Civil Disturbance
c. Crime in progress
d. Report in persons
a. Fight in progress
b. Crime in progress
c. Domestic Trouble
d. Need Assistance
a. Riot
b. Estimated Time of Arrival
c. Call by Phone
d. Enroute/Proceeding
a. Acknowledge
b. Repeat/Say Again
c. Stand By
d. Call by Phone
31. In Phonetic Alphabet letter “p” is pronounced as Papa while letter “m” is pronounced as;
a. Mike
b. Mama
c. Madrid
d. Money
a. Zebra
b. Zeus
c. Zulu
d. None of the above
a. Maximum tolerance
b. Equal and fair struggle
c. Necessary and reasonable
d. Maximum force
34. It is the act of moving about in the area specially by authorized and trained persons
usually police officers for the purpose of observation, inspection, collaboration,
prevention of crime and provision of security.
a. Traffic
b. Patrol
c. Operation
d. Intelligence
e. Investigation
35. In Quad policing approach the Quad Staff are the following except;
a. Admin
b. Intelligence
c. Investigation
d. PCR
e. Operations
36. It refers to a police officer who is the first to arrive at the crime scene to provide initial
police actions;
a. Investigator
b. Patrol Officer
c. First Responder
d. Desk Officer
37. Avoidance and prevention of malversation of human resources, government time,
property and funds by PNP members is an example of;
a. Loyalty
b. Discipline
c. Obedience to Superiors
d. Devotion of Duty
39. PNP members shall at all times uphold the constitution and be loyal to our country
people and organization, above their loyalty to any person, is an example of;
a. Non-partisanship
b. Non-solicitation of Political Patronage
c. Commitment to Democracy
d. Patriotism
40. It refers to bodies of beliefs, stories, customs and usage handed down from generation
to generation with the effect of unwritten law.
a. Customs
b. Traditions
c. Ceremony
d. Social Decorum
41. What type of patrol that makes the police officers closer to the community?
42. The Chief of Police, as he organizes the patrol, is able to do the following:
a. Keep patrollers busy, Make patrollers responsible and accountable, and Put the right
person in the right job.
b. Keep patrollers happy, Make patrollers respectful and lovable, and Put the person in
any kind of job.
c. Keep patrollers brilliant, Make patrollers approachable and skillful, and Put the person
in one designation only.
d. Keep patrollers quiet, Make patrollers joyful and resourceful, and Put the person in all
types of job.
43. It provides mechanism that incorporates three (3) components in a police station to
prevent crime, enforce the law, deliver other public safety services, and enhance
collaborate with the community.
44. It includes the police station, the Police Community Precincts, traffic posts, tourist
protection units, field offices of NSUs, RPSB/PPSC Headquarters, forward bases,
Headquarters and detachments of friendly forces and allied units involved in the security
and in the maintenance of peace.
a. Fixed Component
b. Patrol Component
c. Auxiliary Component
d. Investigation Component
e. PCR Component
45. It includes foot, mobile, waterborne, airborne, mounted, and other kinds of patrol being
done by the police and other security forces.
a. Fixed Component
b. Patrol Component
c. Auxiliary Component
d. Investigation Component
e. PCR Component
46. It includes BPATs, Brgy. Tanods, public safety offices of LGUs, private security agencies,
NGOs, and other force multipliers.
e. PCR Component
47. It is a MUST for all Police Stations. It shall serve as the blueprint of crime prevention
strategy of Police Stations, wherein most of the stations activities must be aligned with.
e. Operational Plan
48. How many percent of the police station personnel must be patrolling their beats on a full
time basis.
a. 70 % c. 90 %
b. 80 % d. 50 %
e. 60 %
49. The following QUAD Staff must be present during the Preparatory Conference, except:
50. During the Preparatory Conference, its function is to prepare the pertinent information on
different criminal elements, their activities and modus operandi, emerging crime problems and
other peace and order concerns.
a. Intelligence c. Operation
b. Investigation d. PCR
e. Traffic
51. During the Preparatory Conference, its function is to discuss the crime pattern analysis in
details to guide other Quad Staff in the determination of suitable policing action and personnel
deployment.
a. Intelligence c. Operation
b. Investigation d. PCR
e. Traffic
52. It adjust the deployment plan based on the inputs from Intel and invest Staff; i.e. when and
where to deploy patrollers, the type of patrol and the duration of patrol.
a. Intelligence c. Operation
b. Investigation d. PCR
e. Traffic
53. Address the breeding ground of crime in the AOR as discussed by the Intel staff.
a. Intelligence c. Operation
b. Investigation d. PCR
e. Traffic
54. The patrol officer shall report at the police station or at the designated venue at least in how
many minutes before the start of the shift?
a. 10 mins. c. 30 mins.
b. 20 mins. d. 40 mins.
e. 50 mins.
55. It is known as “An Act Establishing the Philippine National Police under the reorganized
Department of Interior and Local Government and for other purposes".
a) RA 8551
b) RA 6975
c) RA 6713
d) RA 4864
a) RA 8551
b) RA 6975
c) RA 6713
d) RA 4864
a) RA 8551
b) RA 6975
c) RA 6713
d) RA4864
a) TDCA
b) TDCO
c) TCDS
d) DO
59. Who assist the C, PNP in ensuring the operational readiness of the command and
investigate infraction committed by the member of the PNP
a) TDCA
b) TDCO
c) DIDM
d) IAS
60. According to Rule 1.2. "A police officer shall respect the human rights and dignity of the
suspect/during ______.
a) PCR activities
b) Police Investigation
c) Police Operations
e) b and c
62. Upon arrival at the crime scene, as FR a police officer should prioritize _____.
b) Gathering evidence
d) Media briefing
e) Take photographs
64. How many National Administrative Support Units does the PNP have?
a) 11
b) 10
c) 14
d) 16
65. How many National Operational Support Units does the PNP have?
a) 11
b) 10
c) 14
d) 16
66. How many Police Regional Office does the PNP have?
a) 11
b) 10
c) 14
d) 16
67. What is the validity period of search warrant from the date of issuance?
a) 15 days
b) 30 days
c) 10 days
d) No expiration period
68. Which of the following are not what a police should do when performing a spot check?
69. If a suspect is carrying a back pack, the officer should first check the contents of the bag for
weapons or contraband.
a) True
b) False
c) Sometimes
d) Maybe
70. Before performing a spot check, a police officer should read out the person's right under
Miranda Doctrine
a) True
b) False
c) Never
d) Maybe
71. Which of the following does not belong in a patrol plan?
a) Route plan
b) Stand-by points
c) Area coverage
d) Detail of Personnel
72. Which of the following individuals can serve as a good source of information on a patrol?
a) Tambays
c) Random bystanders
73. Checking of uniforms and equipment are the responsibilities of patrol team buddies.
a) True
b) False
c) Always
d) Sometimes
74. Hourly situation reports are not necessary when a patrol team does not encounter anything
significant in their patrol.
a) True
b) False
c) Maybe
d) Sometimes
75. Where does reasonableness of the force employed depends on?
a) Number of aggressors
76. The police officer's use of firearms is justified in the following conditions, except one which is
___.
a) if the offender poses imminent danger of causing death or injury to the police officer or other
person's
b) Self defense
c) Defense of a relative
d) Defense of a stranger
78. Which executive order created the National Task Force to End Local Communist Armed
Conflict?
a) EO 292
b) EO 40
c) EO 70
d) EO 45
79. Which executive orders created the Inter-Agency Task Force for the management of
Emerging Infectious Disease?
a) EO 292
b) EO 168
c) EO 72
d) EO 40
80. It is known as the "Mandatory Reporting of Notifiable Diseases and Health Events of Public
Concern Act".
a) RA 11443
b) RA 14344
c) RA 11332
d) RA 12121
82. An application for permit for a public assembly should be filed at least __ days.
a) 3
b) 5
c) 7
d) 2
83. An application for permit for a public assembly should be filed at the office of _.
a) COP
b) PD
c) RD
d) Mayor
84. Who is responsible in determining whether there is a permit for the holding of public
assembly?
a) Mayor
c) Ground Commander
d) COP
a) NBI
b) Congress
c) PNP
d) PDEA
Test B - True or False (Write T if the statement is correct and F if the statement is false)
1) The city or municipal mayor has the authority to recommend the transfer, reassignment or
detail of PNP members outside of their respective city or town residences.
2) It is not the duty of a patrol officer to report to the concerned office any safety hazard
4) A police officer is not required to carry in his prescribed rig a non-lethal weapon if he already
has an issued firearms.
5) During FTX/OJT a police trainee is allowed to carry a firearm when conducting foot patrol in
crime prone areas.
8) According to Sir Robert Peel, the test of police efficiency is not on the absence of crime but
on the number of crimes solved and suspects arrested.
10) A police station shall maintain another blotter book called as "pink blotter" for cases falling
under RA 9262 and RA 7610.
Test C