Cet Physics Material
Cet Physics Material
This book of Physics, as the title indicates, comprehensive study material for CET and
COMEDK Examinations. The aim of this book is to cover the First and Second year PUC
syllabus and illustrative examples with their solutions compiled to provide reliable guidance
to candidate appearing CET and COMEDK Examinations conducted in Karnataka. Some extra
information is provided the students for competitive exams like AIEEE and JEE.
The book contains extensive set of questions on various topics of the syllabus; these
questions are intended to assist the students to learn the topics and answering questions of
different types. Each chapter presented as a synopsis and end of the each chapters answers
are provided for one mark questions. In addition to the various types of examples, the
Practice questions which have appeared in the previous years’ exam papers and additional
expected questions for the coming exam with key answers provided.
We are sure that a diligent study of the book will enable the candidates to take the Entrance
examinations successfully.
Dr. Rajashekara K M
Prof. Manjunatha B C
Prof. Sanjay V
Dr. Pushpa N
Department of Physics
S J C Institute of Technology
Chickballapur
CONTENTS
Chapters Page number
MECHANICS 1………………………………………..……………….…………………………………………… 01
MECHANICS 2…………………………………………………………………….…………....................... 17
ELECTROSTATICS …………….…………………………………………………………………………………. 84
CAPACITOR………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 104
OPTICS……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. 161
MECHANICS-1
1. Scalars and Vectors
Scalars: A physical quantity having only magnitude and no specific direction is called a scalar.
Vectors: A physical quantity having both magnitude, specific direction and obeying vector law of
addition is called a vector. A vector quantity can be represented by a straight line with an arrow
head at one of its ends.
Types of vectors:
1. Zero vector: Any vector whose magnitude is zero is called a zero vector.
2. Unit vector: Any vector whose magnitude is unity is called a unit vector.
3. Equal vectors: Two vectors are said to be equal vectors if both of them have same
magnitude and direction.
4. Negative vector: The negative vector of any vector is a vector having the same magnitude but
opposite direction.
Addition of Vectors:
The sum of given two vectors a & b is a new vector r called resultant
C
vector. r a b
b
r
1. Triangle law: It states that if 2 vectors of the same kind are
A B
represented in magnitude and direction by the two sides of a triangle a
taken in order then- their resultant is represented in magnitude and direction by the third side
of the triangle taken in reverse order. a b r or AB BC AC .
2. Parallelogram law: It states that if 2 vectors of the same kind
D C
are represented in magnitude and direction by the 2 adjacent
sides of a parallelogram drawn from a point then their resultant b r
is represented in magnitude and direction by the diagonal of the A
B
a
parallelogram passing through that point. r a b or
AC AB BC
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b sin
r a 2 b 2 2ab cos , tan
a b cos
A x Ax A cos , A y Ay A sin
A2 Ax 2 Ay 2
tan θ Ay /Ax
Subtraction of two vectors: a b a b r .
Scalar product or dot product: Product of two vectors yields a scalar quantity.
A . B A B cosθ AB cosθ . Where A and B are the magnitudes of A and B and is the angle
between them. A B B A , ˆi ˆi ˆj ˆj kˆ kˆ 1, ˆi ˆj ˆj kˆ kˆ ˆi 0
Vector Product or Cross product: Product of two vectors yields a vector quantity.
A B A B sin θ AB sin θ nˆ C
n̂ is a unit vector such that A, B and n̂ form a right handed system, C is a vector whose magnitude
is C ABsin and is in the direction perpendicular to the plane containing the vectors A and B
A B A B
such that A, B and C form a right handed system. nˆ , A B B A,
AB sin
A B
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(b) Derived quantities: Physical quantities which can be expressed in terms of fundamental
quantities are called derived quantities. Example: Velocity, forces etc.,
Dimensions of a physical quantity are the powers or exponents to which the fundamental Units
must be raised to obtain the unit of that quantity. Example: velocity distance L M 0
LT 1
time T
Dimensional analysis can be used to:
(a) Check the correctness of an equation
(b) Convert unit of a given derived physical quantity from one system to another and
(b) If a body covers first half of the distance with speed a and second half with speed b ,
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2ab
Average speed
ab
(b) If a body covers first half of the distance with velocity v1 and second half with velocity v2 ,
(c) If a body moves with a uniform velocity v1 for time t1 and v2 for time t2 .
ds
(e) v where s - displacement.
dt
dv d2 s
Acceleration: Rate of change of velocity with respect to time. a .
dt dt2
Uniform acceleration
(a) For a body starting from rest and moving with uniform acceleration, distance travelled
square of time i.e., S t 2 .
(b) For a body starting from rest and moving with uniform acceleration, if S1, S2 , S3 are distances
Equations of motion:
1 2
S ut at S distance travelled
2
a2n 1
1
Sn u Sn distance travelled in nth second
2
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S2 S1
a S1 and S2 are distances travelled in t seconds and next t seconds.
t2
v u gt
v 2 u 2 2 gS
1 2
S ut gt
2
g 2n 1
1
Sn u
2
v u gt
v 2 u 2 2 gS
1 2
S ut gt
2
g 2n 1
1
Sn u
2
(a)In absence of air resistance, a body projected vertically upwards, time of ascent= time of
descent
(b) If air resistance is considered, time of ascent is less than time of descent.
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Velocity - Time Curve: Area under the vt curve gives the distance travelled by the body.
Relative Velocity
Relative velocity means velocity of one object with respect to the other object.
If two bodies A and B move with velocities u and v in the same direction.
(a) relative velocity of A with respect to B u v
(b) relative velocity of B with respect to A v u
If two bodies A and B move in opposite directions, with velocities u and v respectively the
relative velocity of one body with respect to the other u v .
If the two bodies move perpendicular to each other with velocities u and v respectively their
relative velocity u 2 v 2
If they move at an angle with respect to each other then, relative velocity u 2 v 2 2uv cos .
I Law: Every body continues to be in its state of rest or of uniform motion until and unless it is
acted upon by some external force.
Inertia is that property of a body by virtue of which a body preserves its state of rest or of uniform
motion.
Force is that external agency which changes or tends to change the state of rest or of uniform
motion of a body along a straight line.
II Law: Rate of change of momentum of a body is directly proportional to the force and is in the
direction of the force.
Momentum of a body is the quantity of motion possessed by a body and is given by the product of
its mass and velocity i.e, p mv . It is a vector.
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dp
F and F m a , If F 0 , Velocity = constant, acceleration = 0
dt
III Law: Action and reaction are equal and opposite. F12 F21
Total final momentum P2 of an isolated system is equal to the total initial momentum P1
i.e, P2 P1
1. Gravitational force
2. Electrostatic force
3. Magnetic force
4. Nuclear force
Spring force: Spring force is the restoring force arising because of compression or extension of
spring.
Where x is the displacement, k is called the force constant. The energy stored in the spring is
1 2
E kx .
2
Inertial and Non-inertial frames: An inertial frame is one in which Newton’s first law is valid.
A frame of reference moving with acceleration with respect to an inertial frame is called a non-
inertial frame. Newton’s laws of motion are not valid in a non inertial frame.
Problems
1. The scalar and vector products of 2 vectors are 24 3 and 72 respectively. The angle between
them is
(a) 60 (b) 30 (c) 90 (d) 120
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2. A vector of magnitude 100 units is inclined at 60 to another vector of magnitude 80 units.
Their dot product is
(a) 400 units (b) 40 units (c) 4000 units (d) zero
3. A bird flies at an angle of 60 to the horizontal. Its horizontal component of velocity is 10 ms 1 .
Its vertical component is ---------- ms1 .
5. If A 2iˆ 3 ˆj k and B 3iˆ 5 ˆj nkˆ and A and B are perpendicular then value of n is
6. If A and B are nonzero vectors and obey the relation A B A B , then the angle between
them is
^ ^
7. Consider a vector A 3 i 4 j . Another vector perpendicular to A is
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^
(a) 3i 4 j (b) 4i 3 j (c) 3 i (d) 4 k
9. At what angle must be the forces P Q and P Q act so that the resultant is 3P 2 Q 2 ?
11. The resultant of two forces has magnitude of 10 N . One of the forces has a magnitude of 5 3 N
and makes an angle of 30 with the resultant . The magnitude of the other force is
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12. The magnitude of the resultant of two vectors of magnitudes 3 units and 4 units in 5 units. What
is the angle between two vectors?
3
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 2 4
13. The resultant of two vectors A and B subtends an angle of 45 with either of them. The
magnitude of the resultant is
(a) zero (b) 2 A (c) A (d) 2A
14. If iˆ and ĵ are unit vectors along x axis and y axis respectively, the magnitude of vector iˆ ˆj
will be
(c) cannot have their resultant zero (d) none of the above
17. Consider two vectors F1 2iˆ 5kˆ and F2 3 ˆj 4kˆ . The magnitude of the scalar product of these
vectors is
18. The position vector of a particle is r a cost iˆ a sint ˆj . The velocity vector of the particle is
(a) parallel to the position vector (b) perpendicular to the position vector
(c) directed towards the origin (d) directed away from the origin.
19. Find the torque of a force F 3iˆ ˆj 5kˆ acting at the point r 7iˆ 3 ˆj kˆ .
14iˆ 34 ˆj 16 kˆ
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21. The resultant of two forces 3P and 2P is R . If the first force is doubled then the resultant is also
doubled. The angle between the two forces is
(a) 180 (b) 90 (c) 120 (d) 60
22. Three vectors satisfy the relation A B 0 and A C 0 then A is parallel to
(a) C (b) B (c) BC (d) BC
a
23. In the gas equation P V b RT , where T is absolute temperature, P s pressure V is
V2
(c) light year and year (d) force and Young’s modulus
25. The equation of state for n moles of an ideal gas is PV nRT , where R is the universal gas
constant and P,V and T have the usual meanings. What are the dimensions of R ?
1
26. The dimensional of are the same as those of
0 0
28. The de Broglie wavelength associated with a particle of mass m and energy E is h 2mE . The
29. The density of wood is 0.5 gm cc in CGS system of unit. The corresponding value in MKS unit is
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30. The gravitational force F between two masses m1 and m2 separated by a distance r is given by
Gm1m2
F , where G is the universal gravitational constant. What are the dimensions of G ?
r2
1 2 3
34. The dimensional formula M L T represents
(a) power (b) momentum (c) kinetic energy (d) pressure
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41. The physical quantity having the same dimensions as Planck’s constant h is
(a) force (b) Boltzmann constant (c) angular momentum (d) linear momentum
43. The distance travelled by a body starting from rest and moving with uniform acceleration varies
as
44. The area under the velocity time curve gives the
(a) distance travelled (b) velocity (c) time taken .(d) all these
46. A body is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity u . The maximum height reached varies as
47. A motor cyclist covers 1/4th of the journey at a speed of 30 kmph, next ½ of journey at 40 kmph
and the rest at 60 kmph. The average speed of the entire journey is
(a) 40 kmph (b) 50 kmph (c) 80 kmph (d) 130/3 kmph
48. A body starting from rest moves with a constant acceleration for 20s. If it travels a distance S1
49. An iron ball and a wooden ball are released from a height in vacuum simultaneously. If t1 and t 2
50. A body released from a great height falls freely towards earth. Another body is released from the
same height exactly one seconds later. The separation between the two bodies two seconds
after the release of the second body is
(a) 19.6 m (b) 24.5 m (c) 4.9 m (d) 9.8 m
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51. A balloon starts rising from the ground with an acceleration of 1.25 m/s 2 . After 8s, a stone is
52. From the top of a tower a stone is thrown up which reaches the ground in a time t .A second
stone thrown down with the same speed reaches the ground in a time t2 . A third stone released
from rest from the same location reaches the ground in a time t3 . Then
t1 t2
(a) t3 (b) t3 t1t2 (c) 1 1 1 (d) t32 t12 t22
2 t3 t2 t1
53. A student is standing at a distance of 50 metre from the bus. As soon as the bus begins its
motion with an acceleration of 1 ms-1 the student starts running towards the bus with a uniform
velocity u . Assuming the motion to be along a straight road, the minimum value of u , so that
the student is able to catch the bus is :
(a) 9 ms 1 (b) 5 ms 1 (c) 12 ms1 (d) 10 ms1
54. From the top of a tower two stones, whose masses are in the ratio 1 : 2 are thrown – one
straight up with an initial speed u and the second straight down with the same speed u . Then,
neglecting air resistance
(a) the heavier stone hits the ground with a higher speed
(b) the lighter stone hits the ground with a higher speed
(c) both the stones will have the same speed when they hit the ground
(d) the speed can’t be determined with the given data
55. Look at the graph (a) to (d) carefully and indicate which of these possibly represents one
dimensional motion of a particle
57. A ball is thrown vertically up with initial velocity u . The velocity-time curve of the ball during its
time of flight, neglecting the air resistance, is
v v v v
58. T
t
t t t v ms 1
(1 (2 (3 12
(4
he graph
) shown in the vt ) of a car moving along
curve ) a straight line. )
Choose the correct statement out of the following t s
2 5 9
(a) the car accelerates, stops and reverses
59. A body dropped from the top of a tower hits the ground bounces to half the height. The
corresponding position time graph is
s s s s
60.
Equ
t t t t
al
(1 (2 (3 (4
forc
) ) ) )
es act on two bodies at rest having masses m1 and m2 m1 m2 for equal intervals of time. Then,
(c) both have same final kinetic energy (d) both (a) and (c)
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61. A player catches a cricket ball of mass 0.1 kg moving with a speed of 20 m/s. If the ball is in
contact with the hand for 0.1 s, the force exerted by the ball on the hands of the player is
(a) 2 N (b) 20 N (c) 200 N (d) 0.05 N
62. A machine gun weighing 10kg fires per second 6 bullets each weighing 30 g . The speed of the
bullets is 400 ms1 . The force required to hold the gun in position is
(a) 12 N (b) 72 N (c) 720 N (d) 7200 N
63. A ball moving at 9ms1 strikes an identical stationary ball. After collision each ball moves along a
direction making an angle of 30 with the original direction of motion. The speed of each ball is
64. A force F 5iˆ 6 ˆj 4kˆ acting on a body, produces a displacement S 6iˆ 5kˆ work done by the
force is
(a) 10 units (b) 18 units (c) 11 units (d) 15 units
65. For ordinary terrestrial experiments, the observer in an inertial frame in the following cases is
i. the pilot of an aeroplane which is taking off
ii. a cyclist negotiating a sharp curve
iii. a child revolving in a giant wheel
iv. a driver in a sports car moving with a constant high speed of 200 kmh -1 on a straight road
66. A student unable to answer a question on Newton’s laws of motion attempts to pull himself up
by tugging on his hair. He will not succeed
(a) as the force exerted is small (b) the frictional force while gripping, is small
67. A block of mass 15 kg is suspended through two light spring balances as shown
in figure. Now
(a) both the balances read 7.5 kg
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69. The force exerted by the floor of the lift on the foot of the person is more than the actual weight
of the person, when the lift
(a) is moving up and speeding down (b) is moving up and speeding up
(c) is moving down and speeding up (d) is moving down with constant speed
70. A person weighing 60 kg is standing in a lift which is moving upwards with acceleration 4.9ms 2 .
The apparent weight of the person is
(a) 90 kg (b) 60 kg (c) 45 kg (d) 30 kg
71. A rocket, set for vertical launching has a mass of 50 kg and contains 450 kg of fuel. It can have a
maximum exhaust speed of 2kms1 . If g 10 ms 2 what should be the minimum rate of fuel
consumption to just lift if off the launching pad.
(a) 2.5 kgs 1 (b) 5 kgms 1 (c) 7.5 kgs 1 (d) 10 kgs 1
Answers of mechanics 1
1a 2c 3a 4a 5c 6c 7d 8d 9c 10 b
11 d 12 b 13 b 14 b 15 b 16 c 17 a 18 b 19 a 20 b
21 c 22 c 23 b 24 a 25 c 26 a 27 d 28 d 29 a 30 c
31 c 32 d 33 b 34 a 35 c 36 d 37 c 38 b 39 d 40 b
41 c 42 d 43 d 44 a 45 b 46 a 47 a 48 c 49 a 50 b
51 a 52 b 53 d 54 c 55 d 56 d 57 d 58 c 59 c 60 b
61 b 62 b 63 a 64 a 65 d 66 d 67 b 68 a 69 b 70 a
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MECHANICS-2
Friction
The property by virtue of which an opposing force is brought into play between two rough surfaces in
contact with each other and which opposes the relative motion between them is known as friction.
The force is called the frictional force.
Frictional force
(i) is a contact force. It acts tangential to the surfaces in contact.
(ii) is a self adjusting force.
(iii) Operates between (a) two solids in contact (b) a solid and a fluid and (c) two fluids.
(iv) is produced due to intermolecular interactions between the two bodies.
Co-efficient of friction
It is defined as the ratio of the force of friction F f to the normal (R) i.e.,
Ff
R
Co-efficient of Kinetic friction: It is the ratio of the magnitude of kinetic friction to the normal
fk
reaction for any two surfaces in contact. k .
R
R
The values of s and k depend on the nature of the two
R1
surfaces in contact. max A
fs
•
Generally k is less than s .
B
Angle of friction: It is the angle which the resultant of the force of limiting friction f s (max) and the
normal reaction R makes with the normal reaction R . It is given by, tan s .
Angle of repose: It is the angle that an inclined plane makes with the horizontal when a body
placed on it just starts sliding down. It is equal to the angle of friction.
Acceleration of a body sliding down a rough inclined plane making an angle with the horizontal
is given by a g sin k cos .
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Work done is sliding a body up an inclined plane making an angle with the horizontal is given
by, W mg k cos sin S .
Where m is the mass of the body and S , the displacement. If the body is moved down the
inclined plane with constant speed then W mg k cos sin S .
If u is the velocity of projection and is the angle of projection, the horizontal component of
velocity u cos . It remains constant. The vertical component of velocity u sin . Its value changes as
the body rises or falls.
Equation of path or trajectory is
y tan x
1 g
x2
2 u 2 cos 2
u 2 sin2
Maximum height H
2g
u 2 sin 2
Horizontal range R
g
Uniform circular motion: Speed remains constant through the uniform circular motion e.g. hands
of a watch. The acceleration experienced by the particle in uniform circular motion is called
centripetal acceleration and is directed towards the centre of the circle.
v2 mv 2
Centripetal acceleration ac . The centripetal force acting on the particle F .
r r
The centripetal force acting on a body does not increase its kinetic energy. Work done by the force
0.
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Motion in a Vertical Circle: When a body of mass m tied to one end of a string is rotated in a
vertical circle of radius r with a uniform speed v it is found that.
mv 2
1. Tension in the string is least when the body is at the highest point i.e., TH mg
r
mv 2
2. Tension in the string is maximum when the body is at the lowest point i.e., TL mg
r
Banking of roads: The outer edge of a curved road is raised over the inner edge to avoid the
overturning of a vehicle. This is called banking of roads. The angle made by the tilted track with
the horizontal is called angle of banking.
v2
tan
rg
Work done in raising a body of mass m through a height h vertically upwards against gravity
W mgh .
Work done in moving a body of mass m through a distance of L along an inclined plane
(L=length of plane) mgl sin , where is the angle made by the plane with the horizontal.
Work done in pulling the bob of a simple pendulum of length l so that it makes an angle with
the vertical W mgl 1 cos , m mass of the bob.
W
Power is a defined as the rate of doing work. If W is the work done in time t , then power P .
t
S.I. unit of power is watt (W).
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Instantaneous power P
dW
dt
F
dr
dt
F v
Energy is the capacity to do work. It is a scalar quantity. Its S.I. unit is joule.
Mechanical energy can be classified into (a) potential energy and (b) kinetic energy.
Potential Energy = mgh
1 2
Potential energy of a spring = k x , where k spring constant.
2
1 2
Kinetic energy of a body of mass m moving with a velocity v is mv .
2
1 p2
K.E. mv 2 , where p mv linear momentum of the body .
2 2m
Work energy principle: W K .E. f K .E.i , where K.E.i is initial Kinetic energy, K.E. f is final Kinetic
energy and W is the work done.
xf
Law of conservation of energy: Energy can neither be created nor destroyed but it can be
changed from one form to another.
Elastic and Inelastic Collisions: Collision is an interaction between two or more bodies in which
sudden changes of momenta take place.
In an elastic collision the initial kinetic energy is equal to the final kinetic energy.
In an inelastic collision the final kinetic energy is not equal to the initial kinetic energy.
Coefficient of Restitution: During a head on collision between two bodies the ratio of relative
velocity after collision to relative velocity before collision is a constant and is called the coefficient
of restitution.
v2 v1
e where u1 and u2 are the velocities of the two bodies before collision and v1 and v2 their
u2 u1
velocities after collision.
h2
If a ball dropped from a height h1 rebounds to a height h2 , then e .
h1
e 1 for elastic collision, 0 e 1 for inelastic collision, e 0 for perfectly inelastic collision.
2n
If the body completes n revolutions in time t , .
t
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o t
1
ot t 2
2
2 o2 2
Angular Momentum For a particle of mass m rotating in a circle of radius r and centre O , the
instantaneous angular momentum L of the particle with respect to O is L r p .
Magnitude of L mvr sin , where is the angle between r and p .
Moment of inertia of a rigid body about a given axis is the sum of the products of the masses of the
n
various particles and squares of their perpendicular distances from the axis I m r
i 1
i i
2
.
Radius of gyration: (K) of a rigid body is the distance of the point from the axis of rotation at
which the entire mass M of the body appears to be concentrated so that is moment of inertia
about the axis I MK 2 .
Radius of gyration about an axis is the root mean square distance of the particle of the body.
Torque or Moment of a force about a point is the rotating effect of the force about that point.
Torque =(moment of inertia) (angular acceleration)
I
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Law of conservation of angular momentum states that if there is no external torque acting on
the system , the total angular momentum of the system remains constant.
1
Rotational kinetic energy of a body is E I 2 , where I is the moment of inertia of the body
2
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Newton’s Law of Gravitation: It states that “Every particle of matter in the universe attracts
every other particle with a force that is directly proportional to the product of their masses and
inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them” i.e.
m m
F G 1 2 2
d
11 2 1
G is the gravitational constant. G 6.673 10 Nm kg .
Dimensions of G are G M 1L3T 2 .
The force exerted by the earth on a body of mass m at a distance r from the centre of the earth is
mM
F G 2 , where r R, radius of earth. At points inside the earth r R , F decreases as r
r
decreases and becomes zero at the centre of the earth i.e., F 0 when r 0 .
Acceleration due to gravity: The acceleration of a body when it falls under the influence of
gravity alone is called acceleration due to gravity. It is denoted by g .
GM
g , where M is the mass of the earth and R its radius.
R2
4
g RDG where D is the mean density of the earth.
3
2h
acceleration due to gravity decrease with altitude. If h R, g ' g 1
R
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2. Variation of g with depth: If g be the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the
earth and g ' that at a depth h below the earth’s surface, then g ' g 1 h / R . Acceleration
due to gravity decreases with depth. When h R, g ' 0 .
3. Variation of g with latitude: Variation of g with latitude is due to rotation of earth about
its polar axis. If g is the acceleration due to gravity at latitude if the earth were at rest and
g ' acceleration due to gravity at the same latitude. When the earth rotates with angular
I Law: All planets move round the sun in elliptical orbits with the sun at one of the focii.
II Law: The radius vector drawn from the sun to the planet sweeps equal areas in equal intervals
of time.
III Law: The square of the period of revolution of the planet is directly proportional to the cube
of the semi- major axis of the elliptical orbit i.e., T 2 a3 .
Artificial Satellites:
GM
1. Orbital velocity vo M=mass of earth and R its radius
Rh
gR 2
vo Where g acceleration due to gravity near the earth’s surface.
Rh
R g
T 2 Orbital angular velocity .
g R
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Energy of a Satellite: A satellite of mass m orbiting due to the surface of the earth has both kinetic
energy and potential energy.
GMm GMm
KE , PE
2R R
GMm
Total energy
2R
2GM
ve ,M = mass of earth
R
Minimum kinetic energy with which a body must be projected to escape from earth’s gravity
GMm
.
R
Geostationary satellite is an artificial satellite revolving around the earth such that is appears
stationary with respect to earth i.e. it has time period and sense of rotation equal to that earth.
13
T 2R2 g
The height of a geostationary satellite is h 36000 km
4 2
Elasticity
Elasticity is that property of a material due to which it regains its original state
Elastic stress and strain
F
Stress is defined as force per unit area. stress . It is expressed in Nm2
A
Strain is defined as the fractional change in the dimension of a body produced by the applied force.
Strain has no units and dimensions.
Modulus of elasticity or elastic constant is defined as the ratio of stress to strain. It is denoted by E .
Stress
Thus, E for small values of strain.
Strain
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
Stress F/A Fl
1. Young’s, modulus (Y) : Y
Longitudinal strain Δl/l AΔl
stress F/A FV
2. Bulk modulus (K) : K
Volume strain ΔV/V A ΔV
Poisson’s ratio
Within elastic limits (where Hooke’s law is valid) the ratio of lateral strain to longitudinal or linear
strain is a constant called the Poisson’s ratio.
Relations between elastic co-efficient:
1. Y 2n1
2. Y 3K 1 2
3K 2n
3.
23K n
3Kn
4. Y
3K n
1 1 F Δl
Work done in stretching a wire: W stress Strain
2 2 A l
Forces acting in the same plane and whose lines of action meet at a common point are called
coplanar concurrent forces.
Resultant of a system of forces is that single force which produces the same effect as that
produced by the given system of forces.
Equilibriant of a system of forces is that single force which is equal in magnitude but opposite in direction to
the resultant of the given system of forces.
Resultant and equilibrant acting together on a body keep the body in equilibrium.
Resultant of two forces acting at a point can be obtained from the law of parallelogram of forces. According to the
law,” if two forces acting at a point are represented in magnitude and direction by the two adjacent sides of a
parallelogram drawn from a point, then their resultant is represented both in magnitude and direction by the
diagonal of the completed parallelogram drawn from the same point”.
B C
C B
obtuse angle as in figure (2) is given by R P2 Q2 2PQ cos in magnitude. The resultant is at an
Q sin
angle with respect to P such that tan . This gives the direction of the resultant.
P Q cos
The least resultant of the forces P and Q is Rmax P Q, for P Q when 180
When P and Q are at right angles to each other i.e., when 90 , R P 2 Q 2 and
tan 1 Q / P
Fy F
X' X
O Fx A
Y1
The vector sum of the components of a force is equal to the given force.
Resolution provides a convenient method to determine the resultant of a number of coplanar
concurrent forces.
Law of triangle of forces
If there forces acting at a point can be represented in magnitude and direction by the three sides of
a triangle taken in order then the forces are in equilibrium.
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
Moment of a force:
The rotary effect produced by a force in the case of a body which is free to rotate about an axis is
called the moment of the force, or the torque acting on the body. It is
denoted by It is given by Fl where F is the magnitude of O the
force and l is the perpendicular distance of the line of action of the
force from the axis of rotation ( also called the moment arm). l
Law of moments:
The algebraic sum of the moments of two or more coplanar forces about any point in their plane is
equal to the moment of their resultant about the same point.
The theorem is true for both, coplanar, concurrent and parallel forces.
Parallel forces:
Forces whose lines of action are parallel are called parallel forces. If two parallel forces are in the
same direction, then they are called like parallel forces. If two parallel forces are in the opposite
direction, then they are called unlike parallel forces.
Resultant of two like parallel forces P and Q
P and Q are two like parallel forces acting at A and B. Their
A C B
resultant is R. It is such that • • •
1. R PQ Q
R
P
2. R is parallel to P or Q in the plane of P and Q .
3. R acts at a point C (between P and Q ) such that P AC QBC .
1. R P Q R P
Couple:
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
Two equal and unlike parallel forces acting at different points on a rigid body with their lines of action
not coinciding, constitute a couple.
If the body is free to rotate about an axis then the couple produces the
rotatory effect. The moment of the couple or torque acting on the l F body
is given by the product of the magnitude of one of the forces F
constituting the couple and the perpendicular distance between their
lines of action (also called the arm of the couple).
F and F constitute a couple. Moment of the couple is F l . It is a constant about any point in the
plane of the forces.
2. A block weighting 45 N is at rest on a horizontal surface. The co- efficient of static friction
between the block and the surface is 0.5 . The magnitude of a pulling force that just moves the
block when applied at an angle of 45 to the horizontal is
30
(a) (b) 30 2 N (c) 15 (d) 15 2 N
2N 2N
3. A block of metal is lying on the floor of a truck. The maximum acceleration that can be given to
the trunk so that the block may remain at rest w.r.t. the truck is
(a) g (b) 2 g (c) g (d)
g
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
4. A block takes twice as much time to slide down a rough 45 inclined plane as it takes to slide
down an identical smooth 45 inclined plane. The co-efficient of friction between the block and
the rough inclined plane is
(a) 0.5 (b) 0.75 (c) 0.6 (d) 0.25
5. A block of mass 5 kg is placed on a rough inclined plane. The inclination of the plane is gradually
increased till the block just begins to slide down. The inclination of the plane is then 3 in 5 . The
6. A uniform chain of length L lies on a table. If the coefficient of friction is , then the maximum
length of the chain which can hang from the edge of the table without the chain sliding down is
(a) L
(b) L
(c) L (d) L
1 l 1
9. A 2 kg stone tied to the end of a 1 m long string is whirled in a vertical circle at a constant
speed of 4 ms-1. The tension in the string is 52 N when the stone is
(a) at the bottom of the circle (b) at the to of the circle
10. The banking angle for a curved road with a radius of 490 m for a vehicle moving at 70 ms -1 is
(assuming ( g = 9.8 ms-2 )
(a) 30o (b) 60o (c) 45o (d) 900
11. A body projected vertically upwards with a velocity u returns to the starting point in 4 seconds.
If g 10ms 2 the value of u is ms 1
(a) 20 (b) 10 (c) 5 (d) 4
12. A projectile is fired with an initial velocity u at angle with respect to the horizontal from the
ground. The potential energy at the maximum height is
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
1 1 1 1
(a) mu 2 (b) mu 2 sin 2 (c) mu 2 cos2 (d) mu 2 sin 2 2
2 2 2 2
13. The range R of a projectile is same at maximum height h1 and h2 . The relation between R , h1 and
h2 is
h1
(a) R (b) R 4 h1h2 (c) R 2h1h2 (d) R 2 h1h2
h2
14. Two projectiles are projected with the same initial velocity but with different angles of
projection. If the two projectiles have the same range, then the angles of projection could be
(a) 15 and 50 (b) 25 and 50 (c) 25 and 65 (d) 35 and 70
15. A man fires a bullet at the target x along the horizontal. But the bullet strikes
x
the point y below the target x , after 0.1s . If the initial speed of the y bullet
16. When a body moves through a distance S at right angles to applied force F , work done by the
force is
zero
17. Two bodies of masses of m1 and m2 have equal KE. Their momenta are in the ratio
18. A body dropped from a height h1 rebounds to a height h2 . If e is the coefficient of restitution
then
h1 h1 h2 h2
(a) e (b) e (c) e (d) e
h2 h2 h1 h1
19. The bob of a simple pendulum of mass 0.1kg is moved so that it is raised through a vertical
20. The kinetic energy of a body becomes four times its initial value. The new linear momentum will
be
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
(a) Same as the initial value (b) twice the initial value
(c) Thrice the initial value (d) four times the initial value
21. When a body moves in a circular path, no work is done by the force since,
(a) there is a no net force
(b) there is no displacement
(c) the force is always away from the centre
(d) force and displacement are perpendicular to each other
22. A bullet moving with a speed of 100 ms 1 can just penetrate through two planks of equal
thickness. Then, the number of such planks penetrated by the same bullet when the speed is
doubled will be
(a) 8 (b) 4 (c) 10 (d) 6
23. A bullet is fired at a block kept on a table. The bullet gets embedded in the block. If the table is
frictionless, then
(a) only kinetic energy is conserved
(b) only momentum is conserved
(c) both kinetic energy and momentum are conserved
(d) neither the kinetic energy nor the momentum is conserved
24. Two bodies, one having a mass twice that of the other, are raised to the same height from the
ground and let fall. When the heavy body strikes the ground,
(a) its kinetic energy is half of the kinetic energy of the other
(b) its kinetic energy is same as that of the other
(c) its kinetic energy is twice as much as the other
(d) its kinetic energy is four times as much as the other
25. A motor pump pumps 3000 kg of water per minute from a well of depth 20 m and delivers it to a
height of 20 m . Then the power of the motor pump is
(a) 1.96kW (b) 19.6kW (c) 0.98kW (d) 3.92kW
26. A shell initially at rest explodes into two pieces of equal mass. The two pieces will
(a) continue to be at rest
(b) move with the same speed in the same direction
(c) move with the same speed in the opposite direction
(d) move with a different speed in the opposite direction
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
27. A motor is rotating at a constant angular velocity of 500 rpm. The angular displacement per
second is
50 3 25 3
(a) 3 rad (b) 50 rad (c) 3 rad (d) 25 rad
28. A ballet dancer suddenly folds her outstretched arms. Her angular velocity
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) remains the same (d) may increase or decrease
29. A merry –go-round has a radius of 5m and completes one revolution in 4s . Its acceleration is
(a) 5 2 (b) 2.5 2 (c) 1.25 2 (d) 1.5 2
30. Uniform circular motion is the direct consequence of
(a) centrifugal force
(b) an acceleration tangent to the path
(c) an acceleration directed towards a fixed point
(d) Newton’s third law of motion
31. Two rotating bodies have the same angular momentum but different moment of inertia I1 and
34. Acceleration due to gravity on a planet whose radius and density are both twice that of the earth
is g ' . g is the acceleration due to gravity on the earth. Then
g
(a) g ' g (b) g ' 4 g (c) g ' (d) g ' 2 g
4
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
36. Minimum kinetic energy with which a body must be projected to escape from earth’s gravity is
GMm GMm
(a) (b) GMm
2
(c) (d) GMm
3
R R 2R R
37. Acceleration due to gravity is 'g' on the surface of the Earth. Then the value of the acceleration
due to gravity at a height of 32 km above Earth's surface is (Radius of the Earth=6400 km)
(a) 1.01g (b) 0.9g (c) 0.99g (d)
0.8g
40. Weight of a body of mass m decreases by 1% when it is raised to height h above the earth’s
surface. If the body is taken to a depth h in a mine, change in its weight is,
(a) 0.5% decrease (b) 2% decrease (c) 0.5% increase (d) 1% increase
41. The amount of work that must be done on a body of mass m so that it escapes from the
gravitational field of the planet of mass M and radius R is
GMm 2GMm 3 GMm 3 GMm
(a) (b) (c) (d)
R R 2 R 4 R
42. An object is dropped from an altitude equal to the radius of the earth. If M is the mass of the
earth and R is the radius of the earth, the velocity with which it strikes the earth’s surface is
GM GM GM GM
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2R R 3R 2R 2
43. If v0 be the orbital velocity of a satellite in a circular orbit close to the earth’s surface and ve is
the escape velocity for the earth, relation between the two is
(a) ve 2v0 (b) ve 2v0 (c) ve 3v0 (d) v0 v e
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
44. A wire increases by 10 3 of its length when a stress of 1 108 Nm2 is applied to it. The Young’s
modulus of the material of the wire is
(a) 1011 Nm2 (b) 105 Nm2 (c) 10 11 Nm2 (d) 108 Nm2
45. A metal rod of Young’s modulus 1.2 1011 Nm2 has a breaking strain of 0.5% . The minimum cross
sectional area of the rod in order to support a load of 3106 N is
(d) 50 mm2
46. In the diagram, length of steel wire 0.5m , length of brass wire 1m .
47. The work done in stretching a wire of length 2m and area of cross-section 2mm2 though 0.2mm is
Y 2 1011
Nm 2
(a) 4mJ (b) 3mJ (c) 2mJ (d) 1mJ
48. The load versus elongation graph for four wires of the same material is shown in the figure. The
thinnest wire is represented by the line Load
(a) OA DC
BA
(b) OB
o elongation
(c) OC
(d) OD
50. The resultant of F1, F2 and F3 acting in the X-Y plane and as shown in the diagram is
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
(b) W T12 T2 2 W
(a) W T1 T2
(b) F1 3N F2 5N F3 9N
(c) F1 3N F2 5N F3 6N
(d) F1 3N F2 5N F3 15N
54. In the diagram, the body is free to rotate about an axis passing through O . Moment of F
about O is
(a) Fl (b) Fl
(c) Fl cos (d) Fl sin
55. Two unlike parallel forces 6N and 10 N act on a rigid body at points A and B . If their resultant
acts at a distance of 0.5m from the greater force, the separation between A and B is
1 2 1
(a) 1m (b) m (c) m (d) m
4 3 3
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
(a) W (b) W
2
(c) 3W (d) 2W
1 d 2d 3 a 4 b 5 b 6 c 7c 8b 9a 10 c
11 a 12 b 13 b 14 c 15 b 16 d 17 c 18 d 19 a 20 b
21 d 22 a 23 b 24 c 25 b 26 c 27 a 28 a 29 c 30 c
31 b 32 a 33 b 34 b 35 c 36 a 37 c 38 a 39 d 40 a
41 a 42 b 43 b 44 d 45 d 46 b 47 a 48 a 49 a 50
51 52 53 54 55 56
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
The state of a given mass of gas is completely determined by its pressure (P), volume (V ) and
temperature (T ) . When a gas is heated both its pressure and volume undergo a change. Hence, there
are two coefficients of expansion of a gas.
Gas Laws: These are the laws that gives the relation between the pressure, volume and temperature
of a given mass of gas.
1. Boyle’s law
At constant temperature, the volume of given mass of gas varies inversely as its pressure.
2. Charle’s law
At constant pressure, the volume of a given mass of gas varies directly as its absolute temperature.
V T or V / T constant V1 / T1 V2 / T2 .
PT or P / T constant P1 / T1 P2 / T2 .
PV PV PV
According to perfect gas equation R 1 1 2 2
T T1 T2
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
change
Equation of State
R is the gas constant per mole. It is also called Vander waals equation of state.
A body absorbs heat when it is at a lower temperature than its surroundings. The absorption of heat by
a body results in an increase in its temperature.
Heat capacity
The heat capacity or thermal capacity of a body is defined as the quantity of heat energy required to
raise the temperature of a certain quantity of a substance through 1 degree Kelvin. It is denoted by C .
The S.I . unit of heat capacity is JK 1.
If Q amount of heat absorbed by a body raises the temperature of body by , then Q C ( ).
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
Specific heat
Specific heat is the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a body by 1
degree Kelvin. It is denoted by c. The S.I unit of specific heat is Jkg 1K 1.
Q mc( ) and c C / m.
Latent heat : The heat energy supplied during the change of state
is called latent heat. i.e., Q mL .
The latent heat of fusion of ice is 3.36 105 Jkg 1 or 80 cal g -1 , latent heat of vaporization of steam is
2.26 106 J kg -1 or 540 cal g -1 .
Principle of Calorimetry
It is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of unit mass of the gas through one
Kelvin at constant volume.
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
The quantity of heat conducted through any element of rod under steady state is given by Q KA 1 2 t
l
…. (1)
Where K is called the thermal conductivity of the material of the rod, A is the area of cross-section of rod, (1 2 ) / l
is the temperature gradient and t is the time for which heat flows.
When A 1, (1 2 ) / l 1 and t 1 then from equation (1), Q K .
Thus, the thermal conductivity of material is defined as the rate of flow of heat during the steady state per unit area
of its surface normal to the direction of flow of heat under unit temperature gradient.
The S.I. unit of thermal conductivity, K is Wm 1K 1 (watt per metre- Kelvin).
Thermal Resistance
Q θ1 θ2 1 2
Heat current i
t (l/KA) R
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
1. Thermopile
2. Bolometer
3. Radiometer
Black Body: A body which absorbs all the radiation incident on it, is called a perfect black body.
Emissive Power
The emissive power of a body is defined as the ratio of the quantity of thermal radiation emitted per second by unit
area of the surface to the radiation emitted per second by unit area of a perfect black body under identical conditions.
It is represented by e .
Absorptive power
The absorptive power of a body is defined as the ratio of the quantity of thermal radiation absorbed by it in a given
time to the quantity of radiation incident on it in the same time. It is represented by f .
1) The absorptive power of a black body is taken as unity (i.e., equal to one).
2) The absorptive power of any other body is less than one.
3) No body in the universe is perfectly black.
Stefan’s law
According to the law, the total radiation (E) emitted per second per unit area of the surface of black body is directly
proportional to the fourth power of the absolute temperature (T) of the body.
i.e,. E T 4 or E T 4
where is a universal constant known as Stefan constant.
1) S.I. unit of is Wm 2 K 4
Planck’s law
The energy radiated from a black body at a temperature (T) for a wavelength range and d is
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
8hc5 34
E
e hc kT
d
1
where h is planck’s constant 6.625 10 Js . k Boltzmann constant, c velocity of light.
Solar constant
The solar constant S is defined as the amount of heat energy which is absorbed per second by one square meter of a
perfectly black surface held at right angles to the sun’s rays and placed at the mean distance of the earth from the sun
in the absence of eth atmosphere.
E
Solar constant where d is distance of Earth from sun.
4d 2
Pyrometer
Pyrometers are the devices used to measure high temperatures. They are of two types
1. Total radiation pyrometer based on Stefan’s law
2. Optical or spectral pyrometer based on distribution law.
Thermodynamics
Thermodynamics is a branch of physics which deals with all the processes involving heat, mechanical
work and internal energy associated with a system.
Thermodynamic system: A definite quantity of matter is called a thermodynamic system.
Surroundings: The region or matter outside the system which has a direct effect on the system is called
its surroundings
Thermodynamic process: It is a process in which there is a change from one thermodynamic state
of a system to another. Thermodynamic variables of the system change with time during a
thermodynamic process.
i) Isothermal process
ii) Adiabatic process
iii) Isobaric process
iv) Isochoric process
v) Reversible process
vi) Irreversible process
vii) Cyclic process
viii) Non –cyclic process etc
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
Internal energy: Every system possesses a certain amount of energy called internal energy. It is
denoted by U . U K.E P.E
dQ dU dW
Sign convention
1. dQ is taken positive when heat is absorbed by the system. It is taken negative when the system
loses heat
2. dW is taken positive when work is done by the system. It is taken negative when work is done on
the system.
3. dU is taken positive when there is an increase in internal energy. It is taken negative where there is
a decrease in internal energy.
(b) W 2.303RT log(V2 / V1) or W 2.303RT log(P1 / P2 ) per mole of an ideal gas
2. Adiabatic process
(a) dQ 0 dU dW
R
(c) Work done W Cv (T1 T2 ) or W (T1 T2 ) per mole of an ideal gas
1
3. Isochoric Process : dQ dU dW 0
4. Isobaric process : W PV2 V1
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
Heat engines
A heat engine is device, which continuously converts thermal energy into other useful forms of energy
like mechanical energy, electrical energy, etc. In a heat engine, a certain material called the working
substance is taken through a cycle process. During the process, the working substance (i) absorbs heat
from a source at a high temperature (ii) performs some work and (iii) rejects some heat to a reservoir at
a lower temperature.
Work done
Thus, efficiently η
Heat absorbed
W (Q Q2 ) Q
η 1 1 2
Q1 Q1 Q1
Carnot engine
It is an ideal heat engine. It is free from all losses. The working substance is a perfect gas. It is the most
efficient engine possible.
Carnot’s Theorem
The theorem states that “no real heat engine operating between two heat reservoirs can be more
efficient than a Carnot engine operating between the same two reservoirs”.
Carnot’s cycle
The working substance in a Carnot’s engine is taken through a reversible cycle of operations constituting
of two adiabatic process. The cycle is called Carnot’s of four stages.
Q2 T
η 1 1 2
Q1 T1
Where T1 is the temperature of the source and T2 is the temperature of the sink.
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
Clausius statement: It is impossible to construct a device that operates in a cyclic process to produce
no effect other than the continues transfer of heat from one body to another body at a higher
temperature.
Refrigerators
A refrigerators is a Carnot’s ideal heat engine working in the reverse order. It is also known as a “heat
pump“. It absorbs heat from a cold body with an amount of work done on it rejects heat to the body
during each cycle of operation.
Q2 Q2 1 1
W Q1 Q2 Q1 / Q2 1 T1 / T2 1
i.e. T2
T1 T2
Entropy
Entropy is an important thermodynamic variable of a system. It is a measure of disorder in the system.
If a small amount of heat dQ is given to a system at temperature T then the change in entropy of the
system is defined as, ds dQ / T
dP L
dT T (V2 V1)
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
Problems
5. In an isothermal process
(a) pressure remains constant (b) volume remains constant
6. Co- efficient of superficial expansion of solid is 2 105 / o C. Its co- efficient of linear expansion is
(a) 3 105 / o C (b) 1105 / o C
7. Which one of the following graphs represents the behaviour of an ideal gas ?
PV PV PV PV
V V V V
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
o
10. An ideal gas occupies a volume of 100 c.c at 27 C and pressure of 747 Pa . The number of moles of gas
in the vessels is
(a) 1 105 (b) 3 105 (c) 2 10 4 (d) 3 103
P1 and P2 are as shown in the diagram. From the graphs it follows that
P1
(a) P1 P2 (b) P1 P2
T
(c) P1 P2 (d) P1 may be equal to or different from
P2
12. Two glass vessels A and B of equal volume connected by a glass tube with a stop valve contain the
same gas. The gas in A is at a pressure P1 and temperature T 1 . The gas in B is at pressure P2 and
temperature T 2 . On opening the valve, the gas attains an equilibrium pressure P and temperature
T . The ratio of PT is
1 P1 P2
(a) P1 P2 (b) (c) P1T1 P2T2 (d) P1P2
T1 T2 2 T1 T2 P1T1 P2T2 T1T2
a
14. The equation state of a real gas is given by Vander waal’s equation as p V b nRT where a
V2
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
15. An ideal gas initially at temperature T1 is allowed to expand adiabatically inside an insulated cylinder
fitted with a frictionless piston. The final temperature after expansion is T2 . If L1 and L2 are the
lengths of the gas column before and after expansion respectively then T1 is given by
T2
1 1
L
L
L L
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 2 (d) 1
L2 L1 L1 L2
16. A vessel contains 1 mole of oxygen at a temperature T and pressure p . Another identical vessel
containing one mole of helium gas at temperature 2T has a pressure of
p
(a) p (b) (c) 2 p (d) 8 p
8
17. One mole of a gas at NTP is suddenly expanded to 4 times its initial volume. If Cv 2R , the final
o o
21. When 50 g of water at 10 C is mixed with 50 g of water at 100 C , the resultant temperature is
o
22. 5 kg of water at 20 C is added to 10 kg of water at 60o C . Neglecting heat capacity of vessel and other
o
23. 80 g of water at 30 o C is poured on a large block of ice at 0 C . The mass of ice that melts is
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
(a) If a gas is heated at a constant volume, work done by the gas against external pressure is
zero
(b) If a gas is heated at constant pressure, more heat is required to rise temperature of the gas
by 1 kelvin.
(c) When a gas is heated at constant volume, entire heat energy supplied is spent in raising the
temperature of the gas
(d) When a gas is heated at constant pressure, its volume decreases.
25. When one mole of a monatomic gas is mixed with one mole of a diatomic gas, the molar specific
heat of the mixture at constant volume will be
(a) R / 2 (b) 3R / 2 (c) 2R (d) 2R / 3
26. According to the law of equipartition of energy, the total energy of a gas molecule is equally
distributed among all its degrees of freedom and the energy associated with each degree of
freedom at absolute temperature T is
(a) k T (b) (3 / 2)kT (c) (1/ 2)kT (d) 2 / kT
27. If N be the number of particles (atoms) constituting a system (molecule) and A be the number of
independent relations between them, then the number of degrees of freedom n is given by
(a) n N A (b) n 3N A
(c) n N A (d) n 3N A
28. If the number of degrees of freedom of a gas be n then the value of for the gas will be
(a) 1 2 / n (b) n 1/ 2 (c) (n 1) / 2 (d) n / 2 1
(c) C p Cv (d) C p Cv R
30. A polyatomic gas with degrees of freedom equal to f has a mean energy per molecule (given N A is
Avogadro’s number)
kT fk T fk T fk T
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 2N A NA 2
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32. The heat capacity of gas A is greater than the heat capacity of gas B . When same quantity of heat
is supplied to equal masses of both the gases at constant volume
(a) the rise in temperature of A is greater than that of B
33. The factor not needed to calculate heat lost or heat gained (provided, there is no change of state) is
(a) mass (b) specific heat
(c) temperature change (d) mass, specific heat and temperature change
34. The boiling of water changes it into steam. At the time of change of state, the specific heat of water
is
(a) zero (b) infinite (c) one (d) less than one
35. Certain quantity of water at 100 C is mixed with thrice the quantity of water at 70 C . The final
temperature of the mixture is
(a) 80 C (b) 66.7 C (c) 85 C (d) 77.5 C
K1 K2
A K3 B
K1K2
(a) K3 2(K1 K2 ) (b) K3
K1 K2
1
(c) K3 K1 K2 (d) K3 ( K1 K 2 )
2
38. One kilogram of ice at 0o C is mixed with one kilogram of water at 80 o C . The final temperature of
the mixture is(Take: Specific heat of water 4200 Jkg1K 1, Latent heat of ice 336 kJ kg1 )
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temperature of the blackbody is now changed such that the energy is maximum around a wavelength 3o / 4 . The
43. The reflection coefficient and absorption coefficient of a body are 0.3 and 0.2 respectively. The
percentage of radiation transmitted is
(a) 30 % (b) 20 % (c) 50 % (d) 10 %
46. The temperature of a body is doubled. Then its thermal conductivity will
(a) be doubled (b) be halved
(c) remain the same (d) increase or decrease
47. It is hotter for the same distance over the top of a fire than it is in the sides. This is because
(a) heat is radiated upwards
(b) convection carries the heat upwards
(c) air conducts heat upwards
(d) conduction, convection and radiation all transfer heat upwards
48. Equal temperature difference is maintained between the ends of two metallic rods A and B of
equal lengths. Their thermal conductivities are K1 and K2 and cross sectional areas are A1 and A2
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(c) to radiate thermal radiations from the flask (d) to make it more attractive
53. Cold milk is poured into a hot cup of coffee and is stirred with a spoon. This process is an
example of
(a) reversible process (b) irreversible process
54. A monatomic gas is suddenly compressed to 1/ 8th of its initial volume adiabatically. The ratio of
its final pressure to initial pressure is (r 5 / 3)
(a) 32 (b) 40 / 3 (c) 24 / 8 (d) 8
55. For which combination for working temperature the efficiency of Carnot’s engine is highest?
(a) 40 K , 20 K (b) 60 K , 40 K
56. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its
absolute temperature. The ratio Cp / Cv for the gas is
(a) 5 / 3 (b) 2 (c) 4 / 3 (d) 3 / 2
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its final pressure to the initial pressure is (given the ratio of the specific heats of the given gas to be
5/3 )
24 40
(a) (b) 8 (c) 32 (d)
5 3
59. When work is transformed into heat or heat into work, the quantity of work is mechanical
equivalent of heat. This statement is
(a) zeroth law of thermodynamics (b) first law of thermodynamics
(c) dU = dQ + P dV (d) dU = dQ - P d
63. A certain mass of an ideal gas undergoes an isothermal change. If dQ, dU and dW represent the
amount of heat, the change in internal energy and the work done respectively then
(a) dQ = 0, dU = + ve and dW = + ve (b) dQ = + ve, dU = - ve and dW = + ve
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65. A carnot's engine operates between temperatures T1 K and T2 K respectively. For greater
efficiency
(a) T1 should be low and T2 should be high
66. A carnot'e engine absorbs a quantity of heat 1000 J from a source and does useful work of 250 J.
The heat rejected and efficiency are
(a) 1000 J, 50% (b) 250 J, 25% (c) 750 J, 25% (d) 4 J, 25%
68. A heat engine operates between 300 K and 600 K. If the efficiency has to be raised to 60%, how
much should the temperature of sink be lowered?
(a) 240 K (b) 60 K (c) 30 k (d) 360 K
69. A heat engine A operates between 300 K and 500 K. Another heat engine B operates between
400 K and 700 K. The efficiency of the heat engines A and B are related as
(a) A B (b) A B (c) A B (d) A B
Answers:
1. a 2. a 3. d 4. a 5. c 6. b 7. a 8. d 9. b 10. b
11. b 12. b 13. a 14. b 15. c 16. c 17. a 18. d 19. b 20. c
21. b 22. c 23. b 24. d 25. c 26. c 27. b 28. a 29. c 30. d
31. b 32. b 33. d 34. b 35. d 36. c 37. b 38. d 39. a 40. c
41. c 42. c 43. c 44. a 45. a 46. c 47. b 48. a 49. c 50. a
51. b 52. b 53. b 54. a 55. a 56. d 57. c 58. c 59. d 60. b
61. d 62. b 63. c 64. c 65. b 66. c 67. c 68. b 69. b
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FLUID MECHANICS
Fluid Thrust
The total normal force exerted by a fluid at rest on any surface is called the thrust due to the fluid
on that surface. Thrust is a force. Its unit is Newton.
Pressure is defined as the force exerted normally on a unit area of the surface of a fluid.
Thrust F
Pressure
Area A
Pressure at a depth h below the free surface of a fluid at rest P gh where density of
mass M
liquid .
volume V
Normal atmospheric pressure 0.76m of mercury 1.013 105 Nm2 1.013 105 Pa
Specific gravity of a substance is the ratio of its density to density of water at 4 C (density of
water is maximum at 4 C ).
a) When equal volumes of two liquids of specific gravities d1 and d2 are mixed together, specific
d1 d 2
gravity of mixture .
2
b) It two liquids of equal masses and of specific gravities d1 and d 2 are mixed together, specific
When two substances A and B of masses mA and mB and densities dA and dB are mixed
together, then
total mass m mB m mB m m
the density of mixture d A A VA A ,VB B
total volume VA VB m m d B
A
B d A
d A dB
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
Pascal’s law: It states that pressure in a fluid in equilibrium is the same everywhere. This
principle is used in hydraulic machines such as hydraulic press, hydraulic brakes, hydraulic jacks,
etc.,
Archimedes’ Principle state: “When a solid body is partially or fully immersed in a liquid at
rest the liquid exerts an upward force or buoyant force whose magnitude is always equal to the
weight of the liquid displaced by the body”.
If Wa weight of a body in air and Wl its weight when it is immersed in a liquid at rest, then the
buoyant force exerted by the liquid weight of liquid displaced by body i.e. FB Wa Wl =
When a body is completely submerged in a liquid of density l , upward buoyant force is given by
FB Vl g , where V volume of the body. The net force on the body is FB W l Vg where
Law of floatation states that for a body to float on a liquid the weight of the floating body
must be equal to weight of displaced liquid. When a body is placed in a fluid, two forces act upon
it: (a) the weight W of the body and (b) the buoyant force FB .
Fluid Dynamics
Streamline flow: If a fluid flows such that its velocity at a point is always the same in magnitude and
direction, the fluid is said to have streamline flow. Example the flow of a liquid in a tube. Two
streamlines never intersect.
Irregular flow of fluid in which the velocity varies with time is called Turbulent flow.
Equation of continuity
When a liquid flows steadily through a pipe of varying cross-section, the product of the area of cross-
section ( A ) and speed of the liquid v is the same at all points along the pipe.
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(i) Potential energy = mgh where m is the mass of a liquid situated at a height h .
1 2
(ii) Kinetic energy = mv where v is the velocity of liquid.
2
(iii) Pressure energy = Pm where P is the pressure and is the density of the liquid.
Bernoulli’s theorem states that for a streamline flow of an incompressible, non-viscous fluid (ideal
fluid) the sum of potential energy, kinetic energy and pressure energy per unit mass at any part
1
remains constant. i.e. P v2 gh constant
2
Where P pressure of the fluid, density of the fluid , v speed and h elevation.
The Bernoulli’s principles are used in (i) Atomizer or sprayer (ii) Bunsen Burner (iii) Venturimeter
(iv) carburetor (v) aeroplane wing
Surface Tension
The forces of attraction or repulsion acting between the molecules of a substance are called
intermolecular forces. They are of two types:
Force of Cohesion: The force of attraction acting between the molecules of the same material is
called cohesive force. Ex. The force acting between the water molecules
Force of Adhesion: The force of attraction acting between the molecules of two different
materials is called adhesive force Ex. Force acting between the molecules of paper and ink
Surface Tension is defined as the force acting per unit length on either side of an imaginary line
drawn on the surface of the liquid at rest. It is the stretching force that exits on the surface of a
liquid. It is expressed in Nm1 .
Surface energy : The extra potential energy per unit area of the surface film is called the surface
energy. It is numerically equal to the surface tension and expressed in Jm2 . If T is the surface
tension of a liquid and A is the area of its surface then surface energy is S TA .
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Angle of contact
The angle between the tangent to the liquid surface drawn at the point of contact and the solid
surface inside the liquid is called the angle of contact for a given pair of solid and liquid . It is denoted
by . for water remains the same.
is acute (less than 90 ) for a liquid which wets glass. is obtuse (more than 90 ) for a liquid that
Capillarity
The phenomenon of rise or fall of a liquid in a capillary tube immersed partially in the liquid is known
as capillarity.
When a glass capillary tube is dipped in water (or any liquid which wet glass) the water rises up in the
tube. When a glass capillary tube is dipped in mercury (or any liquid which does not wet glass) the
mercury is depressed below the free surface of the liquid in the vessel.
2T cos
The height 'h' to which a liquid rises in a capillary tube of radius 'r ' is given by h
rg
Where, T is the surface tension , is the angle of contact and is the density of the liquid.
If the length of the capillary tube is less than h, the liquid will not overflow.
Excess Pressure
2
The excess pressure inside a liquid drop of radius r is p .
r
4
The excess pressure inside a liquid bubble of radius r is p .
r
2T
The excess pressure inside an air bubble of radius r is p .
r
Viscosity
The property of a fluid by virtue of which it tends to resist the relative motion between different
layers of it is known as Viscosity.
The internal tangential force which tends to destroy relative motion between the various layers of
dv
liquid is called viscous force. It is given by F A
dx
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
dv
is the velocity gradient between the layers.
dx
dv
F if A 1 and 1.
dx
Thus, the co-efficient of viscosity of a liquid is defined as the tangential force per unit area required
to maintain unit velocity gradient.
The S.I. unit of co-efficient of viscosity is decapoise. It is also known as pascal second.
1 decapoise 10 poise.
Poiseuille’s formula
It gives the volume V of the liquid that flows out of a capillary tube per second under a constant
Pr 4
pressure difference between the ends of the tube i.e., V
8l
Where, is the co-efficient of viscosity of the liquid, P is the pressure difference, r is the radius of
the capillary bore and l is the length of the capillary tube.
Stoke’s formula:
The viscous force F acting on a small sphere of radius r moving with a terminal velocity v in a liquid
of co-efficient of viscosity is F 6 π rv .
When a body is allowed to fall in a viscous fluid, its apparent weight in the liquid becomes equal to
2 r 2 g
where is the density of sphere and is the density of liquid.
9 v
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
Earth’s Atmosphere: The earth is surrounded by an envelope of gas known as the atmosphere.
Atmosphere extends to a height of about 560 km from the surface of the earth.
Atmospheric pressure decreases with elevation. The earth’s atmosphere is divided into four distinct
layers namely troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere and thermosphere.
Van allen radiation belts consist of charged particles namely protons and electrons which surround
the earth in doughnut shaped regions. The particles are trapped by the magnetic field of the earth
and move in a spiral path around the field lines from pole to pole.
Aurora is a spectacular display of colours visible in the northern and southern latitudes. They are
usually produced during magnetic storms.
Astrophysics
Visible stars are divided into six magnitude groups. Brightest stars are called first magnitude stars.
Faintest stars are called sixth magnitude stars. Brightness of first magnitude star is 10 times that of
sixth magnitude star.
I2
m2 m1 2 5 log
I1
Intensity of a star varies with wavelength and is a maximum for a particular wavelength m .
Stars are classified into 7 main groups O, B, A, F, G, K and M in order of decreasing temperature. Sun
is G star.
The luminosity of a star of radius R and temperature TK is given by L 4 R2 T 4 .
If M1 and M2 are the masses of 2 stars forming a binary, a A.U. is the distance between them and T
a3
the period of revolution in years, then M 1 M 2 .
T2
Luminosity L of a star increases with its mass L M where M is the mass of the star and is
a constant.
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Density of a star is maximum at its centre and decreases towards its edge. Age of the sun is about
4.5 billion years.
HR diagram is obtained by plotting luminosity of a star against its surface temperature. Giants and
super giants lie in the upper right of the diagram, white dwarfs lie at the lower left side of the HR
diagram. The radiations emitted by the sun are due to fusion reactions that take place in its core.
r
Temperature T r at a distance r from the core of the sun is given by T r Tc 1 R being the
R
Pressure of a star is directly proportional to its mass and inversely proportional to 4th power of its
radius.
Photo diffusion time is the ratio of the total radiant energy E contained in the volume of the star
E
to its luminosity T .
L
Problems
1. When a block of ice floating on water contained in a vessel melts. The level of water
(a) increases (b) decreases
2. The pressure in the water pipe at the basement of a building is 2 106 Nm2 . The height of the
tank above the pipe from which water is supplied is g 10 ms 2
(a) 20m (b) 100m (c) 200 m (d) 400 m
3. A U tube contains water and methylated spirit separated by mercury. The mercury levels in the
two arms are in level with 0.2m of water in one arm and 0.25m of spirit in the other. If the
density of water 103 kgm3 that of spirit is ___________ 103 kgm3 .
(a) 1.25 (b) 0.8 (c) 0.5 (d) 0.125
4. A cube of wood of side 0.25m weighing 12.5kg floats on water. Density of water 10 3 kgm 3 . The
depth to which the cube is immersed is
(a) 5m (b) 0.5m (c) 2m (d) 0.2m
5. An air bubble doubles its volume as it rises from the bottom of a tank to its surface, atmospheric
pressure 76cm of mercury. The depth of the tank is
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6. A body weighs 320 g in air and 260g in water and 272 g in oil. Specific gravity of oil is
(a) 0.8 (b) 1.25 (c) 8 (d) 12.5
7. A block of solid weighs 24 g in air and 21g when completely immersed in water. When
completely immersed in a liquid of specific gravity 1.2 , it will weigh
(a) 2.04 g (b) 20.4 g (c) 27.6 g
(d) 2.76 g
3
8. A body whose volume is 72 c.c floats with th of its volume under water. Its density is
4
9. The following figure shows two vessels A and B having the same base area but of different
shapes. Both are filled with water upto the same level. Then thrust on the base will be
(a) more in A
(b) more in B
A B
(c) same in A and B
(d) zero
10. A block of ice with a piece of iron frozen in it is floating on the water inside a vessel. When the ice
melts, the level of water inside the vessel
(a) will rise (b) will fall (c) will remain same as before
(d) will fall at first and then will rise when the iron piece sinks inside
11. An air tight box having a lid of area 12 cm2 is evacuated. If a force of 72 N is required to pull the
lid from the box, the pressure inside the box is [Atmospheric pressure is 1 atm]
(a) 0.5 atm (b) 2 atm (c) 0.41 atm (d) 0.64 atm
12. A vessel containing water when suspended from a spring balance, the spring balance reads 15 kg .
When a piece of iron of mass 1.8 kg is suspended by a string is immersed with half of its volume
inside the water, the reading of the spring balance is [relative density of iron 7.2 ]
(Assume g 10 ms 2 )
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13. A boat having a length of 5 m and breadth 1 m is floating on a lake. If a man gets on to the boat,
the boat sinks by 1 cm . The weight of the man is (Take g 10 ms 2 )
(a) 50 kg (b) 9 kg (c) 35 kg (d)
75 kg
14. A cylindrical vessel open at the top contains 20 litres of water. A small opening is provided at the
bottom of the vessel so that water drains out. 10 litres of water drains out of the opening in an
interval of time t1 and the next 10 litres at time t 2 . Then
15. A liquid flows through a pipe of non-uniform area of cross-section. If a1 and a 2 be the areas of
cross-sections a1 a2 then velocities at these two regions are in the ratio
16. A boat floating in a tank carries a large number of stones. If the stones are unloaded in the water
then
(a) the water level will increase (b) the water level will decrease
(c) the water level will remain constant (d) the water level first increases then decreases
(c) wider tubes and high viscosity (d) narrow tubes and high viscosity
18. A gale blows over a house. The force due to the gale on the roof is
(a) in the upward direction (b) in the downward direction
19. Water is flowing through a horizontal pipe with a narrow constriction at one end as
shown in figure. As the water enters the constriction A
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20. A large tank filled with water has two holes at the bottom. One of the holes has the radius twice
that of the other. In a steady flow, the speed of the water leaving the larger hole is
(a) twice the speed of the water leaving the smaller hole
(b) four times the speed of the water leaving the smaller hole
(c) one fourth of the speed of the water leaving the smaller hole
(c) cohesive force between molecules (d) gravitational force between molecules
64 identical water droplets combine to form a large drop. The ratio of the total surface energy of 64
(c) have minimum surface energy (d) attain high speed while falling under
gravity
A metal plate 100 cm2 in area is lying on a liquid layer of thickness 2 mm and coefficient of viscosity
2.0 Nsm2 . The minimum horizontal force required to move the plate with a speed of 1 cm/ s is
The volume of water flowing per second through a capillary of length l under a constant pressure
difference P varies with the radius r of the tube as
(a) r 2 (b) 1/ r 2 (c) 1/ r 4 (d) r 4
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The terminal velocity of a tiny steel sphere of mass m is vo in a liquid of co- efficient of viscosity .
The terminal velocity of another steel sphere of mass 8m in the same liquid will be
(a) 8vo (b) 4vo (c) vo / 2 (d) 2vo
Atmospheric pressure
(a) Decreases with elevation (b) Increases with elevation
(c) First increases and then decreases with elevation (d) Does not depend on elevation
Ozone which absorbs and scatters ultraviolet radiation received from the sun is contained in
(a) Troposphere (b) Stratosphere (c) Mesosphere (d)
Thermosphere
(c) Same at equator and poles (d) Minimum at S pole, maximum at N pole.
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An aurora is
(a) A large solar flame (b) A spectacular display of colours
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
I2 I2
(a) m2 m1 2 5 log
(b) m2 m1 2 5 log
I1 I1
m2 I m1 I
(c) 2 5 log 2 (d) 2 5 log 2
m1 I1 m2 I1
If the intensity of a star is maximum for a particular wave length m and T its temperature,
m m m
(a) constant (b) mT constant (c) constant (d) constant
T T2 T
If M1 and M2 are the masses of a star forming a binary "a" the distance between them in A.U and T1
Luminosity of a star
(a) Increases with its mass (b) Decreases with its mass
(c) Is independent of its mass (d) May increase or decrease with its mass
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
Answers:
1. c 2. c 3. b 4. d 5. b 6. a 7. b 8. b 9. c 10. b
11. c 12. c 13. a 14. b 15. d 16. c 17. b 18. a 19. b 20. d
21. c 22. b 23. b 24. c 25. d 26. a 27. d 28. b 29. b 30. a
31. a 32. b 33. b 34. b 35. b 36. b 37. c 38. a 39. a 40. b
41. a 42. a 43. b 44. a 45. c 46. a 47. a 48. b 49. b 50. b
51. c 52. a 53. d 54. a 55. c 56. c
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Oscillations
Oscillatory motion is a periodic motion where the motion of a body repeats itself again and again at regular
intervals of time. It is not the same as rotatory motion.
1
Relation between frequency f and time period T : f
T
Definition of SHM
A particle is said to execute simple harmonic motion if its acceleration is directly proportional to its displacement
from its equilibrium position and is always directed towards the equilibrium position.
Force equation for SHM
F ma kx
a (k / m) x
d2y
2. Acceleration, a 2 y
2
dt
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y Displaceme nt
Time period of SHM is T 2 2
a Accelerati on
Energy of a particle executing SHM
A particle executing SHM Possesses both potential energy and kinetic energy. The sum of the two energies is
always a constant.
1
If y be the displacement of the particle from the equilibrium position then potential energy E p m 2 y 2 ,
2
1 1
kinetic energy E k m 2 ( A 2 Y 2 ) so that total energy E E p E k m 2 A 2 2 2 A 2 f 2 m .
2 2
Problems
1. A particle executing SHM has an amplitude 0.6 m . The time taken by particle in covering a distance 0.3 m
from mean position, if time period is 3.14 s is
(a) 2.6 s (b) 0.26 s (c) 6.2 s (d) 0.62s
2. A spring balance has a scale that reads from 0 to 50 kg. The length of the scale is 20 cm. A body suspended
from this balance, when displaced and released, oscillates with a period of 0.6s. The weight of the body is
(a) 192 N (b) 129 N (c) 912 N (d) 219 N
1 k1k2
(c) (d)
2
k1 k2 m
4. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of a satellite is 1.5 ms -2 , the time period of a simple pendulum
on it, if its time period on earth is t , will be
(a) (b) 3.5t (c) 4.8t (d) 2.56t
6. The kinetic energy of a particle executing SHM is maximum, when its displacement is equal to
(a) zero (b) amplitude/4 (c) amplitude/2 (d) amplitude
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7. Two simple harmonic oscillations of same amplitude and angular frequencies and 2 are impressed on
a particle in mutually perpendicular directions. What is the nature of the path followed? Given that the
initial phase difference between them is 2
9. Two pendulum oscillate with a constant phase difference of 90 . If the time period of one is T , that of other
will be
(a) T 2 (b) T (c) 2T (d) 4T
10. Two springs of force constant k1 and k2 are connected in series. The spring constant of the combination is
k k k1 k2 k1k2
(a) k1 k2 (b) 1 2 (c) (d)
2 k1k2 k1 k2
Waves
A wave is a sort of disturbance in which energy is transmitted from one place to another without the actual
transfer of medium.
Based on vibration of particles in the medium – Mechanical waves may be longitudinal or transverse waves.
The wave motion in which the particles of the medium vibrate about their mean positions in the direction of
propagation (traveling) of the wave is known as Longitudinal wave motion. Such waves propagate in a medium
in the form of rarefactions and compressions.
If the particles of a medium vibrate in a direction normal to the direction of travel of wave, the motion is called
transverse wave motion. Electromagnetic waves are also transverse in nature.
Crests and troughs are formed when a transverse wave propagates.
Progressive wave is that wave which travels in the same direction such that its amplitude remains same.
Equation of a progressive simple harmonic wave
The most general form of equation of a simple harmonic wave traveling along ve x axis is
x
Y A sin t
v
angular frequency
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v wave velocity
initial phase
x t x
(i) y A sin 2f t (ii) y A sin 2
v T
2
(iii) y A sin vt x (iv) y A sin t kx
k propagation constant.
given by
2
x
Alternatively, path difference between two particles having a phase difference is
2
given by v f .
The time rate of change of displacement of a particle is called the particle velocity. It is given by u dy / dt . The
u max A A(2f )
du d 2 y
a , a max A 2 .
dt dt 2
Intensity of a wave : I 2 2 A2 f 2 v , where is the volume density of the medium. The S.I unit of intensity is
Wm 2 .
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
I
2 2 A2 f 2 E , is the energy density of the wave. It gives the total energy of all the particles per unit
v
volume of the medium.
Principle of Superposition
According to the principle of superposition, the net effect produced at the point is the vector sum of the effects
due to the individual waves.
When two progressive waves y1 a sint Kx and y2 b sint Kx superpose on each other , the
resultant displacement of the particle due to their superposition is given by y y1 y2 R sint Kx , where
b sin
R a2 b2 2abcos is the resultant amplitude and tan 1 is the phase difference between the
a b cos
resultant wave and the first wave.
When 0 , R a b
When , R a b
1 b
When rad , R a 2 b 2 and tan
2 a
d2y 1 d 2 y
Differential Equation of wave motion:
dx2 v 2 dt 2
Problems
A transverse wave of period T is propagating through a medium. The particles at the crest reaches the mean
position in ………. seconds
3T T T
(a) T (b) (c) (d)
4 2 4
A wave of frequency 500 Hz crosses a distance of 1000 meters in 5 seconds. Then the number of waves contained
in a distance of 500 m is…
(a) 500 (b) 1000 (c) 1250 (d) 2500
A wave of frequency 500 Hz has a velocity of 300 m/s. The distance between two nearest points which are 60 0
out of phase is
(a) 100 cm (c) 60 cm (c) 0.6 cm (d) 10 cm
Two waves represented by y a sin wt kx and y a cos wt kx are superposed. The amplitude of the resultant
wave is
Two waves of equal amplitude A and equal frequency are superposed. If the amplitude of the resultant wave is
also A then the phase difference between the wave is….
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(c) not in a gas but in a metal (d) neither in a gas nor in a metal
When the frequency of a wave motion is doubled without changing the amplitude, the intensity of the new wave
motion compared to the old wave will be in the ratio
(a) 1: 4 (b) 1: 3 (c) 1: 2 (c) 1: 1
When a stone is dropped into a quite pool of water in a pond, the wave motion is
(a) transverse (b) longitudinal
(c) both transverse and longitudinal (d) neither transverse nor longitudinal
A boat at anchor is rocked by waves whose crests are 100 m apart and whose velocity is 25 m/s. These waves
reach the boat once every
(a) 0.25s (b) 4s (c) 250s (d) 2500s
When a wave travels in a medium the displacement of a particle at any instant of time t is given by
y 0.03 sin( 2t 0.01x) where y and x are in metres and t in seconds. The velocity of the wave is
(a) 100 m/s (b) 200 m/s (c) 300 m/s (d) 30 m/s
When a wave propagates through a medium, the phase difference between two particles 0.1 m apart is / 8
radians. The wavelength of the wave is
(a) 0.6 m (b) 1.0 m (c) 1.2 m (d) 1.6 m
A hospital uses an ultrasonic scanner to locate tumours in a tissue. What is the wavelength of the wave in a
tissue in which the speed of the wave is 1.7 km/s? (The operating frequency of the scanner is 4.2 MHz).
(a) 0.04 cm (b) 0.04m (c) 0.4 cm (d) 0.4 m
When a wave passes from one medium to another, there is , in general a change in
(a) the velocity, the wavelength, the amplitude and frequency of the wave
(b) the wavelength, the amplitude, the direction of propagation and the frequency of the wave
(c) the velocity, the wavelength, the direction of propagation and the frequency of the wave
(d) the velocity, the wave length, the amplitude and the direction of the wave
Three waves of equal frequency having amplitudes 10 m,4m, and 7 m arrive at a given point with successive
15. Which one of the following does not represent a travelling wave
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C
16. The diagram shows the propagation of a wave.
O
Which points are in phase A B D E
(a) A, B (b) B, C
(c) B, D (d) E, B
17. A wave is represented by the equation y A sin 10x 15t / 3 , where x is in metre and t is in second.
18. The distance between two points differing in phase by 60 on a wave, velocity 360 m/s and frequency 500
Hz is
(a) 24 cm (b) 12 cm (c) 6 cm (d) 1 cm
19. The frequency of a sinusoidal wave y 0.40 cos 2000 t 0.080 would be
1000
(a) 100 Hz (b) 2000 Hz (c) 20 Hz (d) Hz
20. A transverse wave of frequency 100 Hz propagates with a velocity 100 m/s. The phase difference between
two points 2.25 m apart is…radians
(a) 0 (b) (c) (d)
2 8 4
Sound
Sound is a form of energy which travels from one point to the other as waves to produce sensation
of hearing. Sound of frequency range 20 Hz to 20 kHz is audible by the human ear. Sound obeys the
law of reflection, interference, diffraction. It can not be polarized.
Newton’s Relation
E
Velocity of sound in a medium is v where E is modulus of elasticity and is density of
medium.
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Y
If the medium is a solid then v , where Y is Young’s modulus of elasticity.
B
If the medium is a liquid then v , where B is the Bulk modulus of elasticity.
P C
If the medium is a gaseous medium then v , where p and p is the pressure of the gas.
Cv
This equation is called Newton-Laplace Equation.
Intensity of sound: I 2 2 A2 f 2 v
The unit of intensity of sound is Wm-2. Intensity level of sound expressed in decibel is given by
I
I L 10 log .
I0
Loudness of sound
The sensation of hearing produced in ear enabling distinction between a faint and a loud sound is
called loudness. It is denoted as L. It is expressed in sone.
Relation between Intensity and Loudness : L K loge I , where K is a constant which depends on the
sensation of ear and I is the intensity.
Sounds which are unpleasant and produce jarring effect on the ear are called noise.
Pleasing sound produced by regular pulses is called musical sound.
Musical Scale
It is a sequence of selected frequencies. There are two types of musical scales (i) Diatonic scale (ii)
Tempered scale.
Pitch is a sensation to the brain produced by sound wave reaching the ear which enables it to
distinguish a sharp sound from a dull sound. Greater the frequency of a musical note, higher is its
pitch and vice versa. Pitch and frequency are not same.
Beat – The alternate rise and fall of sound is called beats.
The number of times the resultant intensity of sound attains maximum value or minimum value in
one second is called the beat frequency ( fb ) and fb f1 ~ f2 .
Doppler Effect : The apparent change in the observed frequency due to the relative motion
between the source and the listener is known as Doppler’s effect.
v vw v L
The most general formula for the apparent frequency is f ' f
v vw v S
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Problems
1. If two sound waves each of angular frequency and amplitude A differing in phase by / 2 are
superimposed on each other, the maximum amplitude and angular frequency of the resultant wave is
A A
(a) , (b) , (c) 2 A, (d) 2 A,
2 2 2 2
2. If two sound waves having phase difference and amplitudes a and b superpose, the resultant amplitude
will be
(a) (a + b) only (b) (a-b) only (c) a 2 b 2 only (d) a 2 b 2 2ab cos
3. The frequency of a stationary source is 480 Hz. An observer is moving 20 m/sec away and a steamer moving
10 m/sec towards the source and away from the observer. The apparent frequency of the reflected sound for
the observer will be : (if the velocity of sound is 340 m/sec)
(a) 510 Hz (b) 480 Hz (c) 540 Hz (d) 600 Hz
4. A tuning fork whose frequency as given by manufacturer is 512 Hz is being tested with an accurate
oscillator. It is found that the fork produces a heat of 2 Hz when oscillator reads 514 Hz but produces heat of
6 Hz when oscillator reads 510 Hz. The actual frequency of fork is:
(a) 508 Hz (b) 512 Hz (c) 516 Hz (d) 518 Hz
5. Waxing and waning of sound is noticeable, if a waxing and waning repeats, itself at an interval
(a) more than 1/10th second (b) between 1/3rd second and 1/10th second
(c) less than 1/10th second (d) between 1 second and 1/3rd second
6. Doppler’s effect will not be applicable when the velocity of sound source is:
(a) equal to that of the sound velocity (b) less than the velocity of sound
7. Two tuning forks A and B vibrating simultaneously produce 5 beats. Frequency of B is 512. It is seen that if
one arm of A is filled, then the number of beats increases. Frequency of A will be:
(a) 502 (b) 507 (c) 517 (d) 522
8. The intensity of sound gets reduced by 20% on passing through a slab. The reduction in intensity on passage
through two consecutive slabs, is:
(a) 40% (b) 36% (c) 60% (d) 50%
9. A person feels 2.5% difference of frequency of a motor –car horn. If the motor car is moving to the person
and the velocity of sound is 320 m/sec, then the velocity of car will be:
(a) 8 m/s (approx.) (b) 800 m/s (c) 7 m/s (d) 6 m/s (approx.)
10. Beats are produced by two waves given by y1 a sin2000 t and y2 a sin2008 t . The number of beats
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11. The wavelength of light coming from a star shifts towards violet end of the spectrum. This indicates that the
star is
(a) approaching the earth (b) receding from the earth
12. The velocity of sound in water is 1600 ms 1 , then bulk modulus of water is
13. The frequency of vibration of a string can be increased by a factor 2 by changing the tension to
(a) half the initial value (b) twice the initial value
(c) one fourth of the initial value (d) four times the initial value
14. In a stretched string fixed at both the ends, the area of cross section of the string is halved and length is
doubled. Then the frequency becomes…the initial value.
1 1 1
(a) 2 times (b) times (c) times (d) times
4 2 3
Stationary Waves
Superposition of two identical wave propagating with same speed but in opposite directions forms
stationary waves. They are also known as standing waves,
2t 2x
Equation of stationary wave : y A sin , where A 2 A' cos where A' is the amplitude of
T
reflected wave.
2 2x
Intensity of wave: I A2 4 A' cos2 .
Nodes
3 5 7
For minimum intensity, x , , , ,...... . For these values of x the intensity of resultant wave is
4 4 4 4
zero so these points gives the position nodes.
Antinodes
3
For maximum intensity, x 0, , , ,2 ,..... . For these values of x , the intensity of resultant wave is
2 2
maximum so these points gives the position antinodes.
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3v
The frequency of the First overtone f 2 3 f1
4L
5v
The frequency of the Second overtone f3 5 f1
4L
2v
Frequency of Second Harmonic - f2 2 f1
2L
In open organ pipe both the even and odd harmonics are present.
Laws of vibrations of stretched strings
1 T
The fundamental frequency of vibration of a stretched string is f
2L m
1
1st law - Law of Length : f when T and m are constants.
L
Resonance: It is a phenomenon when frequency of external periodic force is equal to the natural
frequency of the body to give larger amplitude of the forced oscillations of the body.
Sonometer
A sonometer is a device used to determine the frequency of a tuning fork. It is also used to verify
the laws of stretched strings. It works on the principle of resonance.
Acoustics of Buildings
It is a branch of physics which deals with the design and construction of buildings like cinema halls,
auditoriums etc., so that the speech and music is audible to listeners at all position without any
disturbance.
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2. The frequency of the fundamental note produced by closed organ pipe is n . If the diameter of the pipe is
doubled, the frequency of, the fundamental note produced by it will be
(a) 4n (b) 2n (c) n (d) n/2
3. In an open organ pipe if the fundamental frequency is f , then the frequencies of the overtones will be in the
4. A organ pipe P1 closed at one end vibrating in its first harmonic and another pipe P2 open at both ends
vibrating in its third harmonic are in resonance with a given tuning fork. The ratio of the length of P 1 to that
of P2 is
8 3 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 8 2 3
5. If v is the velocity of sound in air, the frequency of the third overtone in the vibration of air column in a
closed pipe of length L is
(a) 3 v /2L (b) 3 v /4L (c) 5 v /4L (d) 7 v /4L
6. Stationary waves of frequency 350 Hz are formed in air. If the velocity of sound in air is 350 m/s, the
distance between a node and its next antinode is
(a) 1.0 m (b) 0.50m (c) 0.25 m (d) 0.1 m
7. A stretched string of length one metre and mass 5x 10 -4 kg fixed at both ends is under a tension of 20 N. It is
plucked at a point situated at 25 cm from one end. It would vibrate with a frequency
(a) 400 Hz (b) 100 Hz (c) 200 Hz (d) 256 Hz
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8. In Melde's experiment, the string vibrates in two segments with a tension of 0.32 N. The tension required to
make it vibrate in four segments is
(a) 0.08 N (b) 0.15 N (c) 0.64 N (d) 1.28 N
(c) transverse, stationary and polarised (d) transverse, progressive and polarised
10. A uniform string of length L , mass M is fixed at both ends under tension T . Then it can vibrate with
frequencies given by n in the formula
1 T 1 T L T 1 M
(a) n (b) n (c) n (d) n
2 ML 2 M 2 M 2 LT
11. z1 Acoswt kx , z2 Acoswt ky and z3 Acoswt kz represent the equations of progressive waves.
Then,
(a) z1 and z2 can produce stationary waves
13. Air column in a tube dipped in water vibrates in its fundamental mode. If water is replaced by an oil of
higher density, then its frequency will
(a) increase (b) decrease
(c) remains the same (d) either increase or decrease depending on the density of the oil
14. Of the following, the graph that better represents the variation of frequency f of a vibrating string with the
f f f f
T T T T
Answers
(1) (2) (3) (4)
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Oscillations
1. b 2. d 3. d 4. d 5. d 6. a 7. c 8. b 9. b 10. d
Waves
1. d 2. c 3. d 4. b 5. d 6. c 7. a 8. a 9. b 10. b
11. d 12. a 13. d 14. c 15. c 16. d 17. b 18. b 19. d 20. b
Sound
1. d 2. d 3. c 4. c 5. a 6. c 7. c 8. b 9. a 10. c
11. a 12. d 13. d 14. c
Stationary waves
1. a 2. c 3. b 4. c 5. d 6. c 7. c 8. a 9. c 10. a
11. d 12. a 13. c 14. b
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ELECTROSTATICS
1. The body becomes positively charged, when the electrons are removed from the body.
2. The body becomes negatively charged when the electrons are added to the body.
3. The mass and weight of the body decreases, when the body is positively charged.
4. The mass and weight of the body increases when the body is negatively charged.
5. Properties of electric charges:
(a) There are two kinds of electric charges namely positive and negative.
(b) Like charges repel and unlike charges attract each other.
(c) Electric charges are conserved (during the process of charging law of conservation of charges holds
good)
(d) Electric charges are quantized q ne
(e) Millikan showed experimentally that the charge of an electrons e 1.6 1019 C .
(f) Electric charges reside over the outer surface of a charged isolated conductor.
(g) Charges concentrate more at the pointed end of charged conductor.
(h) Charges are unaffected by their motion.
(i) Charge is a scalar quantity.
6. Classification of substance:
(a) Substances which allow charges to pass through them are called conductors. Ex: metals, earth, human
body etc.
(b) Substance which do not allow charges to pass through them are known as insulators (dielectrics). Ex:
Glass, mica, paper, wood etc.,
(c) Substance which lie in between conductors and insulators in their ability to conduct electricity are
known as semi conductors. Eg: Germanium & Silicon etc.,
charge Q
7. Surface density of charges σ
surface area A
(a) Surface density of charge is directly proportional to the curvature of the surface.
(b) Surface density of charge is maximum at the pointed end of a charged conductor.
(c) Surface density of charge is inversely proportional to the square of the radius of curvature.
(d) is a vector quantity. Dimensional formula σ AT L2
(e) Coulomb/ m2 is the SI unit of surface density of charge.
8. Methods of charging a body: (a) by friction (b) by conduction (c) by induction
(a) Charge acquired by the conductor is same as that on the charging body in case of conduction till
both the conductors acquire same potential.
(b) Charge acquired by the conductor is opposite to that on the charging body but equal in magnitude
in case of induction.
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(c) Charge acquired by both the conductors are equal in magnitude but opposite in nature in case of
friction.
9. The presence and kind of electric charges can be detected using a device Gold leaf electroscope.
10. The positive and negative charges first identified by Benjamin Franklin.
11. The word electric charge was first introduced by G.W. Gilbert.
(a) The fundamental quantity possessed by the particles of matter because of which they exhibit
electrical interaction with other particles is called charge.
12. Coulomb’s law:
q 1q 2
(a) Fa for charges in free space
4 0 d 2
q 1q 2
(b) Fm for charges in dielectric medium
4 0r d 2
1
where 0 8.85 1012 Farad/m is called permitivity of free space 9 109 Nm2 c2
4 0
Fa
(d) Relative permitivity (dielectric constant) r
Fm 0
(e) r has no unit. Dimensional formula for 0 M1L3T 4A2
(f) Fm1 or C2N1m2 is the SI unit of absolute permitivity 0
(g) Dielectric constant of the metal is infinity . (i) Dielectric constant of air/Vacuum is r 1 . (ii) For any
substance r 1 .
(h) The SI unit of charge is coulomb and dimensional formula for charge is M oLoA 1T 1 Q
(i) Coulomb’s inverse square law applies only for point charges at rest.
(j) The force exerted by each charge is same but acts in opposite direction [obey’s Newton’s III law]
(k) Coulomb’s law holds good for distance from 1015 m to few kilometers.
(l) When a dielectric medium is introduced between the two charges, the force between them decreases
Fa Fm
(m) Coulomb’s Law in vector form.
q q
(i) The electro static force on Q2 due to Q1 F21 1 2 2 d12
4 0 d
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Where d 12 is the unit vector in the direction of F 21
Q1 d̂12 Q1
(i)
d F̂21
F̂12 Q1 d̂12
(ii)
(iii) F 21 F 12 (iv) d 21 d 12 (v) d12 d 21 1
Qr Q
(i) E (ii) E
4 0 r 3
4 0r 2
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(g) Intensity of the electric field inside a charged spherical conductor is zero. (Since charge residues only on
the outer surface of the conductor)
Q Q
E for r R1 further Emax (where R is the radius of the spherical conductor)
4 0 r 2 4 0 R 2
(h) The electric intensity at the center of the charged ring is zero.
(i) Intensity of electric field near a non conducting infinite sheet of charge is given by
E for conductorE
2 0 0
(j) Intensity of electric field in between the plates of parallel plate condenser is E
0
(k) If three charges q coulomb each are placed at the three corners of an equilateral triangle. Then the
(l) If four charges of q coulomb each are placed at the four vertices of a square of side ‘a’ the intensity of the
electric field at the intersection of the diagonal is zero.
O E2
(ii) The angle made by the resultant field E
E2 sin
w.r.t E 1 } tan1
E1 E2 cos
15. Electric dipole: (a) Two equal unlike charges separated by a small distance constitutes an electric dipole
(b) Charge on electric dipole is zero.
2l
(c) Electric field of dipole is not zero.
-q p +q
(d) Dipole moment P q 2
(e) Dipole moment is a vector. It’s direction is along the axis of the dipole. [that means directed from – q to
+ q]
(f) S.I. Unit of dipole moment is coulomb metere [Cm]
(g) Dimensional formula of P = [A T L]
P 1 3 cos 2
16. (a) Magnitude of Electric field at a point M due to a dipole E
4 0 d 3
(b) Direction of the electric field E at M makes an angle with OM such that tan tan 2
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P 1 3 cos2
(c) In the vector form E P where P is the unit vector along the dipole axis.
4 0d 3
2P
(d) Electric intensity at a point on the axial line (End – on Position) E A P
4 0d
3
(e) Electric intensity at a point on the equilatorial line (Broad side on Position)
P
EB P
4 0d
3
(i) General case (ii) End – on Position (iii) Broad side-on position
(a) Magnitude of the torque on an electric dipole placed in uniform electric field.
M
T PEsin .
O=0
E EA M P
(b) -q p O =0 M
90
•+q O E
d O 90o
d
+q T=PxE
-Q P
-q l O l +q O
Direction of the torque is perpendicular to the plane containing both P and E
(c) In the vector form T P E
(d) When the dipole moment P is perpendicular to the electric field E , maximum torque acts on the
dipole, i.e. Tmax PE 900 1
(e) Torque is minimum when dipole moment P is parallel to the electric +q
F = Eq
field E E
[ 0 , 180 , sin 0 ] F = - Eq
-q
(a) Electric flux through the small area (ds) } d E . ds
(b) Electric flux through the entire surface of area EdS cos
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(e)
Dimensional formula for electric flux ML3TA 1
Q
19. Gauss theorem: (a) TNEF dsE cos
(a) Electric intensity near the surface of a charged conductor E
0
Ee1 Ee1 e e F Ee
charges a1 : a2 : 1 : 2 a
M1 M2 M1 M2 m m
(e) If a charged particle remains stationary in a uniform electric field then the net force acting on the
mg
particle is zero. Ee = mg E
e
(f) If the above case if the direction of the fixed is suddenly reversed
Ee
then the acceleration acquired by the particle is given by e • mg
2mg +++++++++++++++
2g
m
21. Electric potential at a point:
work done W W
(a) Electric potential V V
ch arg eq q
(d) The dimensional formula of electric potential is V M 1L2 T 3A 1
(e) The electric potential of the earth is taken as a reference of potential and assigned the value zero. Also
may body connected to the earth is also at zero potential.
dw
(f) Electric potential difference dV V1 V2 .
q
(g) If a charged particle is accelerated through a potential difference of V volt then the KE acquired by the
1 2
particle is given by mv eV KE .
2
(h) The ratio of the K.E. acquired by the two particles accelerated from rest through the same potential are
in the ratio of their charges KE1 : KE2 e1 : e2 .
(i) The ratio of the velocities acquired by two particles accelerated from rest through the same P.D. are in
i v e
v1 e1 m1 e1m2
the ratio 1
v2 e2 m2 e2m1 iiv m
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is negative.
(c) Potential due to a charged hollow spherical conductor of radius R:
r>R
q
(i) V Vmaxfor r R Vmax thus potential is O
4 0 R
1
(ii) Outside the conductor potential is inversely proportional to the distance from the center V
r
dv
23. Relation between electric field E and potential gradient E
dx
24. Equipotential surface:
(a) The locus of all points which are at the same potential is known as equipotential surface.
(b) The electric lines of forces are normal to the equipotential surface.
(c) No work is required to move a charge from one point to another point on the equipotential surface.
(d) No two equipotential surface intersect with each other.
(e) Near an isolated point charge the equipotential surface is a sphere.
(f) P.D. between any two points on the equipotential surface is zero.
1 q1q2 q2 q3 q3q1
(b) P.E. of a system of three point charges U
4 0 d1 d2 d3
q q V
(a) q ne (b) (c) E
ds 4 R 2 d
2
1 q1 R2
(d) (for two spheres of different potentials)
2 q2 R1
1 R2 q
(e) (for two spheres of same potentials [for this become common)
2 R1 R
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2. The electric potential at a point distance r from a charge q is V. When the charge is replaced by a charge 4q
the potential at the point will be.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
0 2 2 0
3. The electric potential at a point distance r from a charge q is V. when the charge is replaced by a charge 4q
the potential at the point will be
1
(a) same (b) (c) 2V (d) 4 V
2V
4. When a glass plate is introduced in between two charged bodies the force between them.
(a) increases (b) decreases (c) remains the same (d) become zero
5. A force of repulsion is felt by a charge in front of a charged plate. Keeping distance between the plates and
charge constant, the interface is filled with wax then the force of repulsion.
(a) changes to force of attraction (b) increases
6. The total normal induction over any charged closed surface is equal to
(a) total charge on the surface (b) the total charge enclosed by the surface
(c) half time the total charge on the surface (d) half time the total charge enclosed by the surface
7. Four charges of magnitude inC, - 4nC, 3nC and – 5nC are placed at corners ABC and D of a square ABCD of
side 6 cm the potential at the center is
(c) proportional to the distance from the center (d) a function of charge density of the surface
9. Consider the electric potential due to a charge at a distance. Potential due to 8 times this charge at 4 times the
above distance is
(a) half the original potential (b) twice the original potential
(c) same as the original potential (d) 4 times the original potential
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13. According to Gauss theorem the total outward normal induction over a closed surface is equal to
(a) The positive charge enclosed with in the surface
(b) 4 times the net charge outside the surface
(c) 4 times the total charge enclosed with in the surface
(d) the charge density on the surface
14. The slab of dielectric is introduced between two equal negative charges with a fixed separation as a result.
(a) force between the charge decreases (b) the slab gets heated up
(c) the two charges attract each other (d) an electric current passes through the slab
15. A hallow spherical conductor carries negative charge. A positive charge is placed at the center of the sphere
then this positive charge will
(a) Oscilalte between the opposite points of the conductor (b) Stick to the conductor
(c) Move in circle (d) Saty at the center
16. Electric intensity E and electric potential V at a point distance x from a point charge are connected by the
relation
V
(a) E = VX (b) E VX2 (c) E (d) V EX2
X
17. Two equal small metal balls charged to + 5 and – 15 units are brought together and allowed to touch each
other than they are separated as before, the ratio between the forces in the two case is
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 1 : 9 (c) - 3 : 1 (d) - 9 : 1
18. A sphere of radius 5 cm is charged to 50 V, another uncharged sphere of radius 10 cm is allowed to touch it
the charge densities on the spheres are in the ratio
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 2 : 3 (d) 1 : 4
+q -q
A B
19. The electric field at ‘0’ the center of a square ABCD is
(a) along (QA) (b) along (OB)
0
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20. Point charges 50 nc, 100 nc and – 75 nc are placed on the circumference of a circle of radius 0.5 m to form an
equilateral triangle ABC. The potential a the center of the circle is
(a) 1350 V (b) 13.50 C (c) 675 V (d) 6.75 V
21. The mass of proton is about 2000 times the mass of an electron. An electron and a proton are injected into a
uniform electric field at right angle to the direction of the filed with same initial K.E. then
(a) the electron trajectory is less curved than that
of proton
(b) the proton trajectory is less curved than that of E
electron y
+ + + + + + + + + + + + ++
(c) both the trajectories will be equally curved
(d) both the trajectories will be straight
22. Two fixed point charges + 4q and – q units are separated by a distance a. the point where the resultant field
intensity is zero.
2 a 3a
(a) a (b) (c) (d ) none of these
3 2 2
23. To move a unit positive charge from the point to another point on an equipotential surface
(a) work is done by the charge (b) work is done on the charge
25. Two point charges + 2C and + 6C repel each other with a force of 12 newton. If a charge of – 2C is given to
each of these charges what will be the force now?
(a) zero (b) 8 newtons (attractive)
26. A polythene piece rubbed with wool is found to have a negative charge of 1.6 106 C . Then the number of
electrons transferred is
(a) 1013 from wool to polythene (b) 1013 from polythene towool
(c) 2.56 1015 from wool to polythene (d) 1013 from wool to polythene
27. Which of the following figures cannot possible to represent electrostatic field lines.
A B C D
(a)
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ABCD (b) ABC only (c) ACD only (d) BCD only
28. 10 coulombs of charge are situated at each of the vertices of a 1cm cube then the electric field at the center of
the cube is
(a) 5 N/C (b) 10 N/C (c) 40 N/C (d) zero
30. A certain charge Q is to be divided into two parts q and (Q-q) what is the relation between Q and q, if two
parts placed at a given distance apart are to have a maximum force of repulsion?
(a) Q = 3q (b) Q = 1.5 q (c) Q = 2q (d) Q = 4q
31. Three point charges of 0.67 nC 0.97 nC and – 0.35 nC are placed at the corners A, B and C of a square ABCD.
Find what charge must be placed at the corner D of the square so that the net potential at the center of the
square is zero.
(a) - 1.99 nC (b) – 1.29 nC (c) 1.29 nC (d) 1.99 nC
32. Charges of 10 nC and – 10 nC are placed at A and B. P and Q are two points lying on the perpendicular
bisector of the line AB. Work done in taking a a charge of 5nC from P to Q.
(a) depends only on the charge shifted (b) is zero
33. Check only the true statement below, A deuteron and triton are placed in the same electric field.
(a) force on deuteron is thrice the force on triton
(b) acceleration of triton is 1.5 times that of deuteron
(c) force on triton is twice the force on deuteron
(d) acceleration of deuteron is 1.5 times that of triton
34. A particle of charge Q and mass m travels through a potential difference V from rest. The final momentum
of the particles is
mV 2QV
(a) (b) 2Q mV (c) 2 mQV (d)
Q m
35. The electric field intensity due to a hollow spherical conductor is maximum
(a) out side the sphere (b) on the surface of the sphere
(c) at any point inside the sphere (d) only at the center of the sphere
36. A spherical conductor of radius R placed in air is given a charge Q. Then the potential at a point inside the
conductor and at a distance R/2 from its center is
Q Q
(a) V (b) V (c) V 4 0 R (d) V 4 R
4 0 R 8 0 R
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37. Two spherical conductors of radii 4m and 5m are charge to the same potential. If 1 and 2 be respectively
1
the values of the surface density of charge on the two conductors then the ratio is
2
26 16 5 4
(a) (b) (c) (d)
16 25 4 5
38. A point charge A of charge + 4 micro coulomb and another point charge B of – 1 micro coulomb are placed
in air at a distance of 1 meter apart. Then the distance of the point on the line joining the charges and from
the charge B, where the resultant electric field is zero (in meter)
(a) 1.5 (b) 0.5 (c) 1 (d) 2
40. Electric charges 10 C , 5C and d 8C are placed at the corners of a square of side 2m the potential at
(a) 18 105 (b) 1.8 106 (c) 1.8 (d) 1.8 105
41. When 1019 electrons are removed fro the neutral metal plate, the electric charge on it is (coulomb)
42. Two metal spheres of radii R1 and R2 are charged to the same potential, the ratio of the charge on the two
spheres is
R1
(a) (b) 2.5 (c) 2 (d) R1 R2
R2
43. Two spheres of radii 2cm and 3cm have equal surface charge density. Calculate the ratio of their charges
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 3 : 2 (c) 8 : 27 (d) 4 : 9
44. The force between two charges situated in air is F. The force between the same charges if the distance
between them is reduced to half and they are situated in a medium having dielectric constant 4 is
(a) F/4 (b) 4F (c) 16 F (d) F
45. A pith ball of mass 0.05 103 Kg carries a charge of 5 108 C . The charge on a second pith ball placed
1 101 m above the first pith ball which will keep the first ball in equilibrium in coulomb is (assume
g 9.9ms2 ).
(a) 3.3 108 (b) 3.3 108 (c) 1.1 108 (d) 9.9 108
46. Two identical metallic sphere A and B of exactly equal masses are charged to + QC and – QC respectively
their masses after charging
(a) mass of A greater than mass of B (b) mass of B greater than mass of A
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47. Two identical spheres A & B carry charges + Q & - 2Q respectively the force between them is F Newton
when they are separated by a distance d in air. The spheres are allowed to touch each other and move back
to their initial position the force between them now is
(a) 2F (b) F/8 (c) F/4 (d) 8 F
48. Consider a point charge q 1.5 108C . The radius of an equipotential surface having a potential of 30 volt
is
(a) 9 m (b) 3m (c) 4.5 m (d) 9.5 m
49. n identical mercury droplets charged to the same potential V coalesce to form a single bigger drop. The
potential of the new drop will be
n
(a) nV 2 (b) n2 3V (c) (d) nV
V
50. If a positive charge Q is located at a point then the work done to move a unit positive charge once
completely around this charge in a circle of radius r is
51. A uniform electric field of 20NC 1 exist in the vertically downward direction. What will be the increase in
the electric potential of this field if one goes up through a distance of 50 cm.
(a) 30 volts (b) 40 volts (c) zero (d) 10 volts
52. A tin nucleus has charge + 50 e. If proton is at a distance of 1012 m from the nucleus then the potential V at
this position is (in volt)
(a) 14.4 104 (b) 7.2 104 (c) 7.2 108 (d) 14.4 108
53. Three charges 2q, - q, - q are located at the vertices of an equilateral triangle. At the circum center of the
triangle.
(a) the field is zero, but the potential is not zero
(b) the field is not zero, but potential is zero
(c) both field and potential are zero
(d) both field and potential are not zero
54. The proton and an alpha particle are accelerated from rest through the same P.D of V. If the K.E. acquired by
the proton is E, the K.E. acquired by the alpha particle is
(a) 2E (b) E (c) 4E (d) E/2
55. Two metallic charged spheres whose radii are 20 cm and 10 cm respectively have each 150 micro coulomb
positive charge. The common potential after they connected by a conduction wire is (in volts).
(a) 9 106 (b) 4.5 106 (c) 1.8 106 (d) 13.5 106
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56. Two identical charges Q each are at a distance r apart. If the distance between them is to be halved the work
to be done is
Q2 2Q 2 Q2 2Q 2
(a) (b) (c) 2
(d)
4 0 r 4 0 r 4 0 r 4 0 r 2
57. When two spherical conductors charged to different potentials are connected by a wire
(a) charges flows from the one at higher potential to the one at lower potential
(b) electrons flows from the one at higher potential to the one at lower potential
(c) electrons flows from the one at lower potential to the one at higher potential
(d) either a or c correct
58. A hollow metallic sphere of radius 10 cm is given a charge of 3.2 109 coulomb the electric potential at a
point 4 cm from the center is (in volt)
59. The variation of electric potential with distance X from the fixed
point is as shown in figure. The intensity of the electric field in
volt/meter.
5
(i) at x = 1m (ii) at x = 3m (iii) at x = 5m are
V
(a) 0, 0, 0 (b) - 2, 5, 0, - 2, 5 0
2 4 6x
60. A charge of 3C experience a force of 3000 N when placed in a uniform electric field. The P.D. between two
points separated by a distance of 1 cm along the field lines is
(a) 10 V (b) 90 V (c) 1000 V (d) 9000 V
61. 64 small drops of mercury each of radius r and charge q coalesce to for ma big drop. The ratio of surface
density of charge of each small drop with that of the big drop is
(a) 4 :1 (b) 1 : 4 (c) 1 : 64 (d) 64 : 1
62. Three point charges are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle. Assuming only electrostatic forces
are acting
(a) the system will be in equilibrium if the charges have different magnitudes and different signs
(b) the system will be in equilibrium if the charges have the same magnitude but different sign
(c) the system can never be in equilibrium
(d) the system will be in equilibrium if the charges rotate about the center of the triangle
63. Two copper balls each weighing 10g are kept in air 10 cm apart. If one electron from every 106 atoms is
transferred from one ball to the other the coulomb force between them is (atomic weight of copper is 63.5 g
m)
64. A charge q is placed at the center of the line joining two equal charges Q. The system of three charges will be
in equilibrium if q is equal to
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
Q Q Q Q
(a) (b) (c) + (d)
4 2 2 4
65. The two equal negative charges – q are fixed at the points (0, a) and (0, - a) on the y – axis. A positive charge
Q is released from rest at the point (2a, 0) on the x – axis the charge Q will
(a) move to infinity (b) move to the origin and remains at rest
66. A ball of mass 1 gm and charge 108 C moves from a point A whose potential is 600 volt to the point whose
potential is zero. Velocity of the ball at the point B is 20 cms 1 . Velocity of the ball at the point A is
67. An infinite number of charges q coulombs each are placed along the x-axis at x = 1, x = 2, x = 8 m and so on.
If charges are alternately positive and negative. The intensity of the electric field at the point x = 0 is
q q q q
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 0 5 0 4 0 16 0
68. A metallic sphere is placed in a uniform electric field. The lines of forces follow the path(s) shown in the
figure as
(a) 1 (b) 2 1 1
2 2
(c) 3 (d) 4 3 3
4 4
69. If an infinite number of charges each equal to 1 109 C are placed along the x-axis at x = 1m, x = 2, x= 4, x
= 8m and so on the electric potential at the point x = 0 is (in volt)
(a) zero (b) 9 (c) 18 (d) 27
70. If an infinite number of charges each equal to 5 109 C are placed along the x – axis at x 1m , x 2 ,
x 4 , x 8m and so on. If charges are alternately positive and negative, the intensity of the electric field at
the point x 0 is (in volt)
(a) 30 (b) 6 (c) 18 (d) zero
71. The inward and outward electric flux from a closed surface are respectively 8 103 and 4 103 units then the
net charge inside the closed surface is
4 10 3
(a) coulomb (b) 4 103 0 coulomb
0
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72. A charged particle of mass m and charge q is released from rest in an uniform electric field E . Neglecting
the effect of gravity, the KE of the charged particle after t second is
Eqm E2 q 2t 2 2E2t 2 Eq 2 m
(a) (b) (c) (d)
t 2m mq 2t 2
73. An electron is accelerated through at a P.D of 45.5 volt. The velocity acquired by it is (in m/s)…………….
76. An uncharged sphere of metal is placed inside a charged parallel plate capacitor. The lines of force will looks
like ………………………
+ + + + + + + + + +
- - - - - - - - - -
(a) (b)
+ + + + + + + + + + + + + +
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - Gaussian Surface
A that encloses the
(c) (d)
charged particles
in free space is [given q1 14nc , q2 78.85nc , q3 56nc ]
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q2 Gaussian
Surface
79. The potential to which a conductor is raised depends on
(a) the amount of charge (b) Geometry and size of the conductor
80. The work done in carrying a charge q once round a circle of radius r with a charge Q at the center is
qQ qQ qQ
(a) (b) (c) (d) zero
4 0r 4 0r 2
4 0 2 r
81. If two charges + q and – q are placed at a distance 2 apart the points at which the resultant electric field is
parallel to the line joining the two charges is
(a) at all points on the line joining the above charges
(b) at all points on the perpendicular bisector
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
82. An electric dipole is kept in non uniform electric field. It experiences.
(a) a force and a torque (b) a force but not torque
(c) a torque but not a force (d) neither force nor a torque
83. The work done in rotating an electric dipole moment P in an electric field E through an angle form the
direction of the field is
84. Electric flux in an electric field E through area ds is given by
E . ds
(a) E . ds (b) 0 E . ds (c) (d) E ds
0
85. An electric dipole moment P is located in a region of constant electric field E at an angle to the field. The
dipole is to be rotated by 180 o about an axis perpendicular to P . The work required to achieve this is
(a) PE cos (b) 2PE sin (c) 2PE cos (d) PE sin
86. An electric dipole in a uniform electric field has potential energy U. The magnitude of the torque acting on
the dipole due to the field is T then,
(a) U is minimum and T is zero when dipole is perpendicular to the field
(b) U is zero and T is maximum when dipole is perpendicular to the right
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89. A coumb runs through once dry hair attracts small bits of paper this is due to
(a) paper is a good conductor (b) comb is a good conductor
(d) the atoms in the paper get polarized by the charged comb
90. The top of the atmosphere is at about 400 KV with respect to the surface of the earth corresponding to an
electric field that decreases with altitude. Near the surface of the earth the field is about 100 vm1 . Still we do
not get an electric shock as we step out of our house in to the open (assumed that there is no field inside)
(a) 100 vm1 is not high electric field so that we do not feel the shock
91. Electric intensity due to an electric dipole varies with distance (r) as Er n where n is
(a) 3 (b) -3 (c) 2 (d) - 2
92. A conducting sphere of radius R has surface chare density the electric potential on its surface is
R R
(a) (b) 0 R (c) (d)
0 0 0 R
93. A conducting sphere of radius R carrying charge + Q is connected to an uncharged conducting sphere of
radius 2R. The charge that flows between them is
Q Q Q 2Q
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 3 4 3
94. Two identical charges repel each other with a force equal to 10 gwt when they are 0.6 m apart in air
95. The potential of the electric field produced by a point charge at any point x, y , z is given by V 3x 2 5 ,
where x, y , z are in metres and V is in volts. The intensity of the electric field at (- 2, 1, 0) is
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96. The potential of a large liquid drop when 8 liquid drops are combined is 20 V. Then potential of each single
drop was
(a) 10 V (b) 7.5 V (c) 5 volt (d) 2.5 V
97. If gE and gM are the accelerations due to gravity on the surfaces of the earth and the moon respectively and
if Millikan’s oil drop experiment could be performed on the two surfaces, one will find the ratio
electronic chargeon the moon
to be
electronic chargeon the earth
98. An electric charge 10 3 C is placed at the origin (0, 0) of X – Y co-ordinate system. Two pints A and B are
situated at 2 , 2 and (2, 0) respectively. The potential difference between the points A and B will be
(a) 2 volt (b) 4.5 volt (c) 9 volt (d) zero
99. Charge are placed on the vertices of a square as shown. Let E be the electric field and V and potential at the
center. If the charges on A and B are interchanged with those on D and C respectively, then
(a) E and V remain unchanged q A B q
(b) E changes, V remains unchanged
D C
(c) E remains unchanged, V changes -q -q
(d) both E and V change
100. The potential at a point x (measured in m ) due to some charges situated on the x – axis is given by
V x
20
x 4 volts. The electric field E at x 4m is given by
2
101. Two electrons are approaching each other with a relative velocity of 106 ms1 . The closest distance of their
approach is
(a) 0.51 nm (b) 0.51 nm (c) 0.51 A (d) 0.51 m
102. The ratio of forces between two point charges in two cases when their separation is halved and when it is
doubled is
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 4 : 1 (c) 8 : 1 (d) 16 : 1
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Answer
1. a 2. b 3. d 4. b 5. c 6. b 7. c 8. a 9. b 10. d
11. b 12. c 13. a 14. a 15. d 16. c 17. c 18. a 19. b 20. a
21. b 22. d 23. c 24. b 25. a 26. a 27. c 28. d 29. d 30. d
31. b 32. b 33. d 34. c 35. b 36. a 37. c 38. c 39. a 40. d
41. b 42. a 43. d 44. d 45. c 46. b 47. b 48. c 49. b 50. c
51. d 52. b 53. b 54. a 55. a 56. a 57. c 58. b 59. d 60. a
61. b 62. c 63. a 64. a 65. c 66. b 67. b 68. d 69. c 70. a
71. b 72. b 73. c 74. a 75. d 76. a 77. a 78. c 79. c 80. d
81. d 82. a 83. a 84. a 85. a 86. b 87. b 88. a 89. d 90. d
91. b 92. a 93. d 94. d 95. c 96. c 97. c 98. d 99. b 100. b
101. a
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
CAPACITOR
Q
1. (a) The capacity of a conductor C
V
1 coulomb
(b) The SI unit of capacity is farad IF
1 volt
(c) Dimensional formula for electrical capacity C M 1L2 T 4A 2
(d) Capacity of a spherical conductor C 4 0 R CR
A0r A
(b) Capacity of a parallel plate capacitor C
d d
(c) Capacity of the capacitor does not depend on the material of the plates, P.D. between the plates, and
charges given to the plates.
(d) If the upper plate of the parallel plate is connected to the lower plate then its electrical capacity becomes
infinity (d = 0)
(e) If n parallel plates are used to form a capacitor then its effective capacitance
n 1A 0
C
d
Cmedium Cm
(f) Dielectric constant r
C air Ca
(g) Dielectric constant of the metal conductor is infinity . [Water is not used as dielectric since the
impurities dissolved in water gets ionized and conducts electricity through it.]
(h) If a metal slab of thickness d/2 is inserted in between the plates then capacity becomes
0 A 2 0 A
C1 2C A
d d
d
2
d2 d
0 A 0 A
C In general C 1
d t t d t
r
4 0 ab
(i) Capacitance of a spherical capacitor C
b a
C1 C2 C3
Q Q Q
V1 V2 V3
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C3
Q3
C2
Q2
2 0 L
(j) Capacitance of a cylindrical capacitor C
2.303logb a Q1
C1
V
3. Grouping of capacitors:
(a) Series grouping of capacitors
(i) Q1 Q2 Q3 Q1 : Q2 : Q3 1 : 1 : 1
(ii) V V1 V2 V3
1 1 1 1
(iii) (and Cs Cmin )
Cs C1 C 2 C 3
1 1 1 1
(iv) V1 : V2 : V3 : : V
C1 C 2 C 3 C
C
(v) If n capacitors each of capacity C are connected in a series then the effective capacity is Cs .
n
(iv) Q1 : Q2 : Q3 C1 : C2 : C3 QC
(v) If n capacitors each of capacity C are connected in parallel then the equivalent capacity
Cp
(vi) C p nC (vii) n2 C1 C2
CS
Q •Q
(viii) for two capacitors
V1 V2
C1C 2
(a) Cs (b) C p C1 C 2
C1 C 2
(c) C sC p C 1C 2
C1
Q1
4. Energy stored in a capacitor:
Q2 C2
2
1 Q QV
(a) U CV 2 V
2 2C 2
5. Regrouping of capacitors.
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(a) Two capacitors of capacities C1 and C 2 are charged separately to potentials V1 and V2 , if capacitors
are connected with plates of like polarity together then, according to the law of conservation of energy,
C1V1 C2V2 C1 C2 V Q1 Q2 QT
C1V1 C 2V2
(i) Common potential V
C1 C 2
1 1
(ii) Initial energy stored C1V12 C 2V22
2 2
1
(iii) Final energy stored C1 C2 V 2
2
1 C1C 2 1
(iv) Loss of energy dU V1 V2 2 dU Cs V 2
2 C1 C 2
2
(b) Three capacitors of capacitance C1C2 and C3 are connected in series with a battery. If the capacitors are
disconnected and reconnected in parallel with positively charged plates together then, common potential
3Q C V C2V2 C3V3
V 1 1
C1 C 2 C 3 C1 C 2 C 3
(c) Two capacitors of capacities C1 and C 2 are charged separately to potential V1 and V2 . If they are
connected in parallel with negatively charged plate of one which positively charged plate of the other then
C1V1 C 2V2
the common potential V
C1 C 2
(d) Effect of inserting dielectric slab between the plates of a capacitor on capacity. When capacitor is connected
in a circuit with,
(1) Battery connected (2) Battery disconnected
C1 KC Q 1 KQ C1 KC Q1 Q
V1 V E1 E V1 V K E1 E K
U1 KU U1 U K
If n drops each of radius r and charge q combined to form a bigger drop then,
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
A t t
(a) (b) (c) (d)
At t A A
2. If the distance between the plates of a parallel plate condenser is increased then the capacity
(a) increases (b) decreases (c) remains same (d) either a or b or c
3. When the dielectric medium is introduced between charged plates of a condenser the capacity
(a) decreases (b) increases (c) remains same (d) either a or b or c
4
4. Two capacitors of capacitances 2 F and 3 F are connected in series and another capacitor of capacity F
5
is connected in parallel with the combination the effective capacity is in F
29 20
(a) (b) (c) 2 (d) 1
20 29
5. Two capacitors of capacities 5F and 10F are connected in series two more capacitors of capacities 2F and 4F
are separately connected in series if the two combinations are connected in parallel the effective capacity is
13 14 3 3
(a) F (b) F (c) F (d) F
3 3 14 13
6. A set of capacitors consisting of three capacitors each having a capacity of 7.2 micro farad connected in series
another identical set is connected to first in parallel. The effective capacity of the group as a whole is in (micro
farad)
(a) 4.8 (b) 3.0 (c) 10.8 (d) 43.2
7. An air filled parallel plate condenser has a capacity of 2 102 Farad. The separation of the plate is doubled
and the interspace filled with wax. If the capacity is increased to 6 102 F . The dielectric coefficient of wax is
(a) 2.0 (b) 3.0 (c) 4.0 (d) 6.0
8. Two conductors of capacitance 3 F and 5 F are charged until their potentials are 5V and 7V respectively. If
the conductors are now connected by a wire their common potential will be
(a) 6.26 V (b) 6.25 V (c) 7.34 V (d) 9.52 V
9. The capacity of a parallel plate condenser of area A with the distance between the plates equal to t and
having a medium of dielectric constant K separating the two plates is given by
0 Kt At 0 K 0 KA
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A 0 K At t
10. Three condensers of capacities C1C2 and C3 are connected in series the equivalent capacity is
C1C2C3
(a) C1 C2 C3 (b)
C1C2 C2C3 C3C1
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11. Three condensers each of capacity C micro farads are connected in series. An exactly similar set is connected
in parallel to the first one. The effective capacity of the combination is 4 microfarad. Then the value of C in
microfarads is
(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 2
12. Consider two conductors one of them has capacity of 2 units and the capacity of the other is unknown they
are charged until their potentials are 4 and 5 units respectively. The two conductors are now connected by a
wire when their common potential is found to be 4.6 units, then the unknown capacity has the value
(a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 3 (d) 4
13. A parallel plate condenser is charged if the plates are pulled a part
(a) the potential difference increases (b) the capacitance increases
14. When the three condensers of capacity 3, 4 and 5 are connected in series the equivalent capacity is
(a) 12 (b) 60 (c) 1.28 (d) 0.3
16. When two capacitors are connected in series the equivalent capacitance
(a) is lesser than the each of the two capacitances
(b) equal to the same of the two capacitances
(c) lies between the two capacitances (d) none of these
17. Two capacitors of capacities 3 F and 2 F are connected in series then in parallel, the effective capacities in
18. Combined capacity of a parallel combination of two capacitors in parallel is 64/15 times the combined
capacity in series. The individual capacities are
8 8 8 8
(a) 20, 1.5 (b) , (c) , (d) 3, 5
3 5 3 6
19. In a parallel plate capacitor of capacitance ‘C’, a metal sheet is inserted between the plates parallel to them.
The thickness of the sheet is half of the separation between the plates, the capacitance now becomes
(a) 2 C (b) 4C (c) C/4 (d) C/2
(c) to increase the effective area of the capacitor (d) to avoid the variation of the intensity at the
edges
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22. A parallel plate air capacitor consists of two circular plates of 1cm2 area each and separated by a distance of
1mm. If the gap between the plates is doubled the capacitance changes to
(a) double the original value (b) half the original value
23. A 10 mF capacitor has been charged to potential of 100 Volt. Suddenly it explodes the energy given out in this
explosion is
(c) produce high A.C. potential (d) compare high D.C. potential
25. Two identical capacitors are joined in parallel, charge to a potential V, separated and they are connected in
series i.e. the positive plate of one is connected to the negative of the other then,
(a) the charge on the free plates connected together are destroyed
(b) the charge on the free plates are enhanced
(c) the energy stored in the system increases
(d) the P.D. between the free plates becomes 2V
26. A condenser having capacity 2.0 micro farad is charged to 200 volt and then the capacitor is connected to a
resistance wire the heat produced in joules will be
27. Two identical charged spherical drops each of capacitance C merge to form a single drop the resultant
capacitance is
(a) equal to 2C (b) greater than 2C
28. A solid sphere and a hollow sphere of equal diameters are raised to the same potentials then
(a) only hollow sphere has charge (b) solid sphere has more charge
(c) hollow sphere has more charge (d) both have equal charge
29. When air is replaced by a dielectric medium of constant K the maximum capacity of the condenser
(a) increases K times (b) remains unchanged
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30. Two capacitors of capacitance C1 2 microfard and C 3 micro farad are connected in series across 10V.
31. When two charged conductors share their charges due to contact there will be ………….of energy.
(a) no chare (b) no conversion (c) again (d) a loss
32. In the circuit below, capacitors A and B have identical geometry but a material of
dielectric constant 3 is present between the plates of B. The P.D across A and B
10v K=3
are respectively
CA CB
(a) 2.5 V, 7.5V (b) 2Vand 8V
33. 1000 drops of water of radius 1 cm, each carrying a charge of 10 combine to form a single drop the
capacitance of the combined drop increases
(a) 1 time (b) 10 times (c) 100 times (d) 1000 times
34. A parallel plate air capacitor is charged by connecting its plates to a battery, without disconnecting the
battery a dielectric is introduced between its plates as a result
(a) P.D. between the plates increases (b) charge on the plate decreases
35. The effective capacitance between the point A and B in the circuit
A
shown is (capacitance of each capacitor is 1 micro farad)
(a) 0.4 (b) 3
B
(c) 4 (d) 2
36. While a capacitor remains connected to a battery, a dielectric slab is slipped between the plates
(a) charges flow from the battery to the capacitor
(b) the P.D between the plates is changed
(c) the energy stored in the capacitor decreases
(d) the electric field between the plates increase
37. In the electric circuit given below. Capacitance of each capacitor is 1 micro farad
D
the effective capacitance between the points A and B is (in F ) A
(a) 2/ 3 (b) 3/2 (c) 1/6
(d) 6
B
3
When a PD of 10 V is applied between A and B a charge of 0.75 mc is stored in the
2F 2F
system of capacitors the value of C in micro farad A D
38. The equivalent capacitances of three capacitors of capacitance C1 ,C2 and C3 connected in parallel is 12 units
and the product C1C2C3 48 when the capacitors C1 and C 2 are connected in parallel the equivalent
39. A parallel plate air capacitor is charged to a P.D of V volt. After disconnecting the battery, the distance
between the plates of the capacitor is increased using an insulating handle. As a result the P.D. between the
plates
(a) decrease (b) does not change (c) becomes zero (d) increases
41. Two capacitors with capacitance C1 and C 2 are charged to the potentials V1 and V2 respectively. When they
V12 C 12 C1 V1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
V22 C 22 C2 V2
42. Two charged bodies are connected by a copper wire with the electric charge on them is shared
(a) inversely as their capacities (b) is proportional to their capacities
43. A capacitor
(a) blocks dc but allows ac (b) blocks ac but allows dc
44. Twenty seven drops of mercury of equal radii and capacity C possessing equal charge q and potential V
combine to form a bigger drop then the charge on the bigger drop as a compared to individual drop is
(a) q (b) 9q (c) 27 q (d) 3q
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sphere of radius 1 m is
(a) 3mc (b) 1/3 mc (c) 1/9 mc (d) 9 mc
A C 2C B
47. The effective capacity between A and B is
(a) 5C (b) C
C
2F
48. The effective capacitance between A and B is (in F )
3 4 1F
(a) (b) 2F 2F
4 3
A B
2 5F
(c) 6 F (d) F
3
49. A 2mm thick glass plate of dielectric constant 8 is introduced between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor.
It is then charged to a potential of 40V the electric field between the plates of the capacitor is
50. A parallel plate air capacitor is filled with two dielectrics materials as shown in the figure are of each plate is
A and separation between the plates is d. If dielectric constants are K 1 and K 2 respectively then capacity of
the capacitor is
A
0 A
K1 K2 A K K2
(a) (b) 0 1
d d 2
K1 K2 d
2 0 A A
(c) K1 K2 (d) 0 K1 K 2
d 2d
51. A parallel plate capacitor with plate area A and separation d is filled with dielectric media of dielectric
constants K 1 and K 2 as shown in figure then effective capacity is
A
d/2 K1
d
A 1 0 AK1 K2 d/2 K2
(a) 0 (b)
d K2 K2 dK1K2
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2 0 A K1K 2 2 0 A K1 K 2
(c) (d)
d K1 K 2 d K1K 2
55. What fraction of the energy drawn from the charging battery is stored in a capacitor
(a) 50% (b) 25% (c) 100% (d) 75%
56. Four metallic plates each with surface area of one side ‘A’ are placed at a distance ‘d’ apart from each other
the plates are connected as shown in figures, then the capacitance of the system in figure (a) and (b) are
respectively
(a) 2 A 0 d , 3A 0 d Fig (a)
B
(b) 30 A d, A0 d
A
B
(d) 20 d,0 A d A
57. Two spherical conductors of radii R1 and R2 carry charges q1 and q 2 respectively they are connected by a
q2 R1
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(a) 4 0 R1 (b) 4 0 R2
4 0 R1R2 4 0 R1R2
(c) (d)
R1 R2 R1 R2
2F 2F
(c) 2 F (d) 3 F 4F
4F B
4
59. Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor become times its original value if a a dielectric slab of thickness
3
d
t is inserted between the plates [d is the separation between the plates]. The dielectric constant of the slab
2
is
(a) 2 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 8
60. Effective capacitance between A and B in the figure shown is (all capacitance in F ) in microfarad.
(c) 21 (d) 23
A B
2
4 8
61. A spherical drop of capacitance 1 F is broken into eight drops of equal radius. Then the capacitance of each
62. A number of charged liquid drops coalesces, the quantity which does not change is
(a) charge (b) capacitance (c) potential (d) electrostatic charge
63. A gang capacitor is formed by interlocking a number of plates as shown in figure. The distance between the
consecutive plates is 0.885 cm and overlapping area of the plates is 5 cm2 the capacity of the unit is
(a) 4 PF (b) 1.06 PF
(a) 10 F ,100V (b) 2.4 F ,100V (c) 2.4 F ,200V (d) 10 F ,200V
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65. Two air capacitors 5 F and 10 F charged to 10 v each are connected in parallel. The space between the first
capacitor is filled with a material of dielectric constant 3. Potential difference across the capacitors become.
(a) 10 V (b) 5 V (c) 3V (d) 6V
66. ‘n’ identical capacitors are grouped in series n such capacitors are grouped in parallel. These two groups are
connected in series. The effective capacitance of combination is
n 2C nC n2 1C
(a) nc (b)
n 2
1 (c)
n 2
1 (d)
n
67. A parallel plate capacitor has a capacitance C. When it is half filled with a dielectric of dielectric constant 5.
The percentage increase in the capacitance will be
(a) 66.6% (b) 400% (c) 200% (d) 33.3%
68. Two identical capacitor each of capacitance 5 F are charged to potentials 2 kV and 1 kV respectively. The –
ve ends are connected together. When the + ve ends are connected together, the loss of energy of the system
is
(a) 160 J (b) 0 J (c) 5 J (d) 1.25 J
69. A parallel plate capacitor with air as the dielectric has capacitance C. A slab of dielectric constant K and
having the same thickness as the separation between the plates is introduced so as to fill one – forth of the
capacitor as shown in the figure. The new capacitance will be
C C
(a) K 3 (b) K 2
4 4
K air t
C KC
(c) K 1
t
(d)
4 4
70. The capacitance of the Earth considered as a conducting sphere of radius 6408 km is
71. Three capacitors 4 F ,6 F and 12 F are connected in series to a 20 volt source. The charge on the middle
capacitor is
72. A 2 F capacitor is charged to 200 V and then the plates of the capacitor are connected to a distance wire of
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73. A parallel plate condenser with a dielectric of dielectric constant K between the plates has a capacity C and is
charged to a potential V volts. The dielectric slab is slowly removed from between the plates and then
reinserted. The net work done by the system in this process is
1
(a) K 1CV 2 (b) zero (c) K 1CV 2 (d) CV 2 K 1 K
2
74. A battery used to charge a parallel plate capacitor till the potential difference between the plates becomes
equal to the electromotive force of the battery. The ratio of the energy stored in the capacitor and the work
done by the battery will be
(a) 1/ 4 (b) 1/ 2 (c) 1 (d) 2
Answer keys:
1. b 2. b 3. b 4. c 5. b 6. a 7. d 8. b 9. d 10. b
11. b 12. c 13. a 14. c 15. b 16. a 17. c 18. d 19. a 20. d
21. b 22. b 23. a 24. b 25. d 26. c 27. c 28. d 29. a 30. c
31. d 32. c 33. b 34. d 35. a 36. a 37. a 38. c 39. d 40. d
41. b 42. c 43. b 44. a 45. c 46. d 47. b 48. c 49. c 50. b
51. b 52. c 53. a 54. a 55. d 56. a 57. c 58. b 59. b 60. a
61. b 62. a 63. a 64. a 65. c 66. d 67. c 68. a 69. d 70. a
71. c 72. a 73. c 74. b 75. b
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MAGNETIC MATERIALS
Mag Moment M
1. Intensity of magnetization I [ AB cos ] Bcos
Volume V A
Pole strength(m) m B
Also, I
Cross sectionarea (A) A
A
2. SI unit of Intensity of magnetization (I) in Am-1.
MagneticFlux
3. Magnetic Induction (Mag. Flux density) B
Cross Sectional A
4. SI unit of B is weber/m2 OR Tesla (T)
Be oH
Be
5. Magnetic field intensity H Am-1
e
Where 0 4 107 Hm-1 = permeability of free space
I
7. Magnetic susceptibility [It has no unit]
H
8. B 0 H I
9. r 1 X
10. Mag. Flux = the number of magnetic lines of forces passing normally [ unit of is weber (wb)] through a
surface.
11. Diamagnetic materials : (a) They tend to move from stronger to weaker region of the non uniform mag.
Field.
(b) They are repelled by the magnets
(c) Ex. Water., alcohol, table salt, antimony, gold, copper, silver, zinc, diamond, nitrogen, hydrogen and all
organic compounds.
(d) r I
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(e)
is small and positive 10 1 to 10 -5
1
(f) (curie law)
T
(g) decreases with increases of magnetizing field
(h) Ingeneral atoms with fimite magnetic moment are paramagnetic. Such materials have
unpaired electrons in their valance orbits
13. Feromagnetic Materials
(a) They are strongly attracted towards t he magnets
(b) Ex. Iron, cabalt, Nickel
(c) They have large positive value of relative permeability
(d)
is positive and very high 10 2 10 6
(e) is fairly high and constant up to a temperature TC called curie temperature above which it
1
varies with temperature according to the equation (Curie – Weiss law)
T Tc
17. Horizontal component of earth’s field BH is zero at the magnetic poles and maximum at the magnetic
equator.
18. Terrestrial Magnetism
(a) The magnitude and direction of the magnetic field of the earth at a place completely given by three
quantities known as magnetic elements.
They are (i) Dip (Magnetic inclination ) (ii) Magnetic Diclination (iii) Horizontal component of Earth’s
magnetic field.
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(i) Dip : It is the angle made by the direction of total intensity of the earth’s magnetic field BE w.r.t. the
(ii) Declination : at the place : It is the angle between the magnetic meridian and geographic meridian.
(iii) Horizontal Component of earth’s magnetic field BH at a place is the component of the Earth’s magnetic
(b) A magnetic needle capable of rotating in a vertical plane in the magnetic meridian comes to rest along the
earths magnetic field BE .
(c) The magnetic needle capable of rotating in a horizontal plane comes to rest along BH
B
(iii) Bv BE sin (iv) tan V
BH
(i) Magnetic Maps : (i) Lines passing through places of equal declination are called isogonals.
(ii) The lines through places of zero dip is called aclinic linr or magnetic equator.
(iii) Lines passing through places of equal dip are called isoclinals
(iv) The lines passing through places of the same value of horizontal component are called isodynamic
lines.
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(j) Magnetic elements at a place are found to vary continuously with time. These changes are called
magnetic variation and are classified as
(k) The probable factors that give rise to earth’s magnetic field are
IdL sin
dB 0 Tesla
4 r 2
(i) If a current I ampere pass through a long and straight conductor, the magnetic conductor, the magnetic
induction B produced by the current at a perpendicular distance r from conductor is
0 I
B
2r
4. Circular coil carrying current : (a) The coil acts as a magnetic shell (b) Field at the centre of the coil is
0nI
perpendicular to the plane of the coil B
2r
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2Ir 2
(c) Magnetic field at any point on the axis of a circular coil B 0
4 r 2 x 2 3 2
(d) If an electron of charge e revolving in a circular path of radius r with a frequency n , then the
0ne
magnetic field at the centre of circular path. B
2r
B1 r2
(e) For two identical coils of radii r1 and r2 are connected in series, then
B2 r1
1
(f) For two identical coils connected in parallel B 2
r
0 I dL 0 I r 0 I r 0 I
loop B
4r 2 4r 2 4r 2 4r
(h) If a current of I ampere flows in a circular path of radius r subtending an angle (in rad) at the
0 I 0 I1L1 B1 IL 1 dL
(a) B (b) (c) l 1 1 I (d)
4r 4r 2 B2 I 2 L2 L r
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5. (a) Current in a circular loop behaves as a magnetic dipole. [This is equivalent to a short magnet of length 2l
and pole strength m ] P mX 2e
(i) Magnitude of magnetic moment of a current loop P IxA
(ii) the direction of the magnetic moment is in the direction of area vector or in the direction of B
(1) Electric dipole moment P q 2l (1) Magnetic dipole moment P m 2i
F F
(2) E (2) B PIA
q qv
(3) T P E (3) T P B
2P 0 2 P
(4) E (4) B
4 0 d 3
4d 3
A
2l
2l
I
-m +m
+
S N
P q 2l
P m 2l
PIA
6. Solenoid
(a) Magnetic field along the axis of a solenoid carrying current
µ𝑜 𝑛𝐼
𝐵= [𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃1 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃2 ]
2𝐿
(b) Magnetic field at the central point of the solenoid
µ𝑜 𝑛𝐼
𝐵𝐶0 =
𝐿
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0nI
(c) Magnetic field at the ends of the solenoid Be
2L
(d) It should be noted that BC 2BE
I n
(c) Sensitivity of TG = 0
K 2rBH
(d) Acentric error (ii) alignment error (to minimize these errors 4 readings are taken)
9.
Force experienced by a moving charge in a magnetic field F q V B
F aVBsin
(a) The direction of F is perpendicular to both V and B . It is given by Fleming’s left hand rule.
(c) Fleming’s left hand rule applied only for positive charges. If it is a negative charge. It’s direction of
motion should be reversed.
(e) If the chargeis moving parallel to B, then θ=0 or 1800. =>F=0. It continues to move with constant
speed parallel to the magnetic field
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(f) If the charge moves perpendicular to the magnetic field the force is maximum (when 90 )
Fmax qVB
mv 2
(i) It describes circular path-condition qVB
r
(viii) If the angle between V and B is different from 0, 180 o or 90o the path is helical (spiral)
10. Lorentz force relation : If the charged particle is moving through a region where both the electric and
magnetic fields are present. Then the resultant force acting on the charged particle.
F qE q V B
(a) Direction of the force F is given by Flemings left hand rule (Direction of F is
perpendicular to the plane containing both (IL) and dB.
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0 I1I 2
(a) Force acting per unit length of the conductor F
2r
(b) When the current is in the same direction they attract
(c) When the current is in the opposite direction they repel
(d) When the current flows in the same direction the net Magnetic induction is zero, at P from the
conductor carrying current I1 I 2 I1 . They the distance of the Point P from conductor
rI1
carrying current I1 is X
I 2 I1
(e) When the current are flowing in opposite direction the net
rI1
magnetic induction is zero, at , such that X with
P
I 2 I1
I 2 I1
0 I1I 2 L
required to support the wire F mg
2r
(g) The net force in long straight wire due to the current
I I L 1 1
in the loop is F 0 1 2
2 a a b
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(iii) Torque tends to rotate the current loop about an axis in the magnetic field
(iv) When plane of the loop is perpendicular to B . Then 0, T 0 (Since A is parallel to B )
(v) Torque acting on the current loop is maximum when the loop is parallel to field vector Tmax BIA
90
sin 90 1
(vi) The Torque acting on a coil consisting of n
turns T nI A B
4. Suspended Coil Galvanometer
1 nBA
(d) Current sensitivity
K I C
5. Conversion of galvanometer in to ammeter
(a) Shunt : A low resistance connected parallel to
galvanometer
I gG GS
(a) S (b) Re (c)
I Ig G S
Ig
I I g
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I. Magnetic Materials
(c) hysteresis
2. Susceptibility of a magnetic substance is found to depend on temperature and the strength of the
magnetizing field, the material is a
(a) super conductor (b) parameter
3. 1 and 2 are the susceptibilities of the diamagnetic substance at temperatures T1K and T2 K
respectively then
7. The ratio of magnetic Induction to the intensity of the magnetizing field is called
(a) Susceptiability (b) retentivity
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8. A compass needle will show the following direction at the earth’s magnetic pole
(a) Vertical (b) No perticalar direction
10. If a piece of metal was through to be a magnetic which one of the following observations would offer
conclusive evidence?
(a) It attracts a known magnet (b) It repels a known magnet
(c) the retentivity of the material (d) the energy dissipated per cycle
(c) low retentivity, low coercivity. (d) High retentivity, high coercivity
(c) Dropping it into ice cold water (d) A reverse field of appropriate strength
16. For protecting a sensitive equipment from external magnetic field it should be
(a) Placed inside an iron can
(b) Wrapped with insulated wire through which a current is passed
(c) Surrounded with fine copper gauze
(d) Placed inside an aluminimum can
17. A uniform magnetic field is obtained in
(a) a bar magnet (b) a horse shoe magnet
(c) a circular coil carrying a current (d) a cylindrical coil carrying current
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21. The hysteresis curve of a magnetic material is generally studied for materials
(a) diamagnetic (b) Ferromagnetic (c) para magnetic (d) dielectric
26. Among the following properties describing diamagnetism identify the property that is wrongly stated
(a) Diamagnetic material have a small positive susceptibility
(b) The magnetic moment of individual electrons neutralize each other
(c) Magnetic material do not have permanent magnetic moment
(d) Diamagnetism is explained in terms of electromagnetic induction
28. Vertical component of earth’s magnetic field is always non zero except at
(a) the longitude of 23o (b) the magnetic poles
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(c) first decreases and then increases with temperature (d) increases with temperature
36. A magnetic field of intensity 1600 Am-1 produces a flux of 2.5 105 weber in a bar of metal of area of cross
38. When a diamagnetic substances is brought near north or south pole of a bar magnet is
(a) attracted by the poles (b)repelled by poles
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paramagnetic substance
45. The variation of intensity of magnetization (I) w.r.t. the magnetizing field
(H) in a diamagnetic substance is described by the graph
(a) OB (b) OA
(c) OD (d) OC
2. A short magnetic needle is pivoted in a uniform magnetic field of strength 1T, when another magnetic field
of strength 3T is applied to the needle in a perpendicular direction the needle defects through an angle ,
where is
(a) 30o (b) 45o (c) 90o (d) 60o
(a) 1 5 (b) 6
(c) 1 (d) 5
4. A T.G. of reduction factor 1 A is placed with the plane of its coil perpendicular to the magnetic meridian
when a current of one ampere is passed through it then the deflection of the needle is
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5. A current passing through a circular coil of two turns produced a magnetic field B at its centre. The coil is
then rewound so as to have 4 turns and the same current is passed through it. The magnetic field at its
centre now is
(a) 4B (b) 3 4B (c) B 2 (d) 2B
6. Magnetic field due to a long straight conductor of length L , carrying current I , at a point distance d from it,
is given by
2 I 2I 2 IL
(a) B 0 2 (b) B 0 (c) B 0 (d) B 0
4 d 4 d 4 d 4 d
(c) Both electric and magnetic field (d) Either electric or magnetic field
8. At the midpoint along the length of a long solenoid the magnetic field is equal to x . If the length of the
solenoid is doubled and the current is reduced to half the field at the new mid point will be nearest to
9. Figures below show four ways of making a regular hexagon out of two different kinds P, Q with current
beads at the middle of opposite wires the magnetic field at the centre of the hexagon is not zero in
(a) Case (a) only (b) Case (a) and (b) only
(c) Case (c) only (d) Case (c) and (d) only
10. Two concentric coplanar circular loops of radii 7 cm and 10 cm carry currents such that the net magnetic
induction at their common centre is zero. If the current in the outer loop is 7 A clockwise the current in the
inner loop must be
(a) 1 A clockwise (b) 4.9 A clockwise
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11. A man is sitting in a room with his back against a wall. An electron beam moving horizontally from the
back wall to the front wall is deflected to wards his right. What is the direction of the uniform magnetic field
in the room?
(a) Vertically downwards (b) To his right
13. A current flows in a conductor from East to West, the direction of the magnetic field at a point above the
conductor is
(a) Towards north (b) Towards south
14. A solenoid 1.5m long and 0.4 cm in diameter posses 10 turns per cm length. A current of 5 A flows through
it. The magnetic field at the axis inside the solenoid is
15. The magnetic field at the centre of one loop of a circular wire of
radius r carrying current I may be taken as B0 if a particle of
along the axis of the wire the force on it due to the current (with V
as the particle speed ) is
1
(a) zero (b) qB0v 2
2
1
(c) qB0V (d) qB0V
2
16. Electron of mass m and charge q is travelling with a speed V along a circular path of radius r at right angles
to a uniform magnetic field of intensity B . If the speed of electron is doubled and the magnetic field is
halved the resulting path would have a radius
(a) 4r (b) 2r (c) r 4 (d) r 2
17. A compass needle is free to turn in a horizontal plane. It is placed at the centre of a circular coil of 20 turns
and radius 12 cm the coil is in vertical plane making an angle of 45 with the magnetic meridian. When the
current in the coil is 0.55 A the needle points west to east what is the horizontal camponent of earth’s
magnetic field at this location
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18. You are sitting in a room in which uniform magnetic field is present in vertically down ward direction ,
when the electron is projected in horizontal direction, it will be moving in a circular path with constant
speed
(a) Clockwise in vertical plane (b) Clockwise in horizontal plane
19. A length wire carries a steady current it is bent first to form one turn. The same length is afterwards bent
more sharply to form a double loop of smaller radius. Then the magnetic flux density at the cenre cuased by
the same current is
(a) A quarter of the first value (b) Unaltered
(c) Four times the first value (d) A half of the first value
20. A steady current is flowing through a solenoid if a bundle of soft iron is inserted in the coil then the
magnetic field inside the solenoid
(a) increases (b) decreases
23. The field at the centre of a circular coil carrying current is along
(a) The perpendicular to the axis of the coil
(b) The perpendicular to the coil
(c) Maxwell’s cork screw rule (d) Right hand clasp rule
25. The relation Br BH tan can be used in the case of two magnetic field BF and BH when the fields are
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26. In a place where BH 3,2 105 tesla a T.G with a coil of 10 turns carrying a current of 6.40 A produces a
22
deflection of 45o provided the radius of coil in metre is
7
27. Circular coil of radius 11 cm and 5 turns. In order to produce a magnetic field of 4 105T at the centre of the
22
coil, the current through it has to be (in amperes) (Take )
7
(a) 2.4 (b) 1.4 (c) 0.14 (d) 0.28
28. A conductor of length 2 cm is bent into an arc of a circular of radius 1 cm to generate a magnetic field of
2 105T at the centre the current to be passed through the conductor (in A) is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
29. A long a power line , a current flows from west to east neglecting the earths field the direction of the
magnetic field below it is towards
(a) North (b) East (c) West (d) South
30. A long straight conductor carries an electric current the direction of the magnetic field near it is
(a) Parallel to the plane containing the conductor and the point
(b) Anti parallel to the current
(c) Parallel to the current
(d) Perpendicular to the plane containing the conductor and the point
31. The magnetic fields at two points on the axis of a circular coil at distance of 0.05 m and 0.2 m from the centre
32. The coil of TG has 10 turns of 11 cm radius assume BH 3 105T , then the value of current (in amp) that
34. A circular coil of the 14 turns carries a current of 1.6 amperes there by generating a magnetic field of
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35. The direction of the magnetic field above the power line with current flowing north is (neglecting the earth’s
field)
(a) South (b) North (c) East (d) West
36. Two coils are placed such that their planes are at right angles to each and have common centre. If each coil
carries the same current and produces the same magnetic field B , then the resultant field will be
38. A long wire is bent into the shape as shown in figure without cross contact at P , then the magnetic induction
B at the centre of the coil is
0 I o I
(a) (b)
2R 2R
I 1
(c) zero (d) 0 1
2 R
39. Field at the centre of a circular coil of radius r through which a current I flows is
(a) Directly proportional to r (b) Inversely proportional to I
40. A charge moving with velocity V in X direction is subjected to a field of magnetic induction in the negative
X direction. As a result the charge will
(a) Remains unaffected (b) Start moving in a circular path in Y-Z plane
(c) Retard along X- axis (d) Moving along helical path around X - axis
41. An electron m 9 10 31 kg, e 1.6 10 19 c moving with a velocity of 106 ms -1 enters a region where a
magnetic field exists. If it describes a circle of radius 0.1m the intensity of the magnetic field must be
(a) 1.8 10 4 T (b) 5.62 10 5T (c) 14.5 105T (d) 1.4 10 5 T
42. The magnetic field at a point at a large distance X from the axis of a circular coil of current of small radius is
proportional to
43. If a long hallow copper pipe carries a current the magnetic field produced will be
(a) inside the pipe only (b) outside the pipe only
(c) Neither inside nor outside the pipe (d) Both outside and inside the pipe
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45. Which of the graphs as shown in figure represents the variation of magnetic induction B with distance of the
point from a long wire carrying a current is
(a) (iii) (b) (ii) (c) (iv) (d) (i)
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0 I 11 0 I 11
(c) (d)
2 R1 R2 2 R1 R2
50. An electron of mass m charge e is travelling with a speed V along a circular path of radius r at right angle
to a uniform magnetic field B . If speed of the electron is doubled and the magnetic field is halved the
resulting path would have the radius
(a) 2r (b) 4r (c) r 2 (d) r 4
(a) 1 4 (b) 1 6
(c) 1 3 (d) 1 2
52. An electron moves with uniform velocity V and enters a region of uniform magnetic field B. If V and B are
parallel to each other then electron
(a) will not move (b) Moves in a circular path
(c) Moves in a direction perpendicular to B (d) Continues to move in the same direction
53. A vertical circular coil of radius 0.1 m and having 10 turns carries a steady current. When the plane of the
coil is normal to the magnetic meridian, a neutral point is observed at the centre of the coil. If
4
BH 0.314 10 T , the current in the coil is
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(c) D (d) C
56. Positively charged particles are passed through a magnetic field the direction of the magnetic field is along
the direction of motion of the particles as a result charged particle will
(a) Not be deflected (b) be deflected but their speed will not change
58. The electrons in the beam of a television tube move horizontally from south to north. The vertical
component of the earth’s magnetic field points down. The electron is deflected towards
(a) west (b) no deflection (c) East (d) north to south
59. A T.G. has a reduction factor of 1 A and it is placed with the plane of its coil perpendicular to the magnetic
meridian. The deflection produced when a current of 1A is passed through it is
(a) 60o (b) 45o (c) 35o (d) none of these
60. An electric field of 1500 V/m and a magnetic field of 0.4 weber/metre 2 act on a moving electron. The
minimum uniform speed along a straight line the electron could have is
(a) 1.6 1015 m s (b) 6 1016 m s (c) 3.75 103 m s (d) 3.75 102 m s
1. A galvanometer has a resistance G and a current Ia flowing in it produces full scale deflection. S1 is the value
of the shunt, which converts it into an ammeter of range O-I and S 2 is the value of the shunt for the range
S1 1 I I a S1 2I I a
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) (d)
S2 2 2 I I a S2 I I a
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5. A motor converts
(a) Electrical energy into mechanical energy
(b) Mechanical energy into electric energy
(c) Electrical energy into magnetic energy
(d) Magnetic energy into mechanical energy
6. The direction of the force acting on a current carrying conductor at right angle to a mag. Field is given by
(a) Fleming’s left hand rule (b) Fleming’s right hand rule
(c) Maxwell’s right hand cork screw rule (d) Amperes swimming rule
7. Two parallel wires carry electric current in the same direction the wire
(a) attract each other (b) Repel each other
8. A zero to 20 mA ammeter has a resistance of 20 to convert this into a voltmeter of range zero to 10v the
resistance to be connected in series with it is (in ohm)
(a) 480 (b) 580 (c) 280 (d) 380
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(c) decreasing the area of the coil (d) none of the above
12. A wire PQR is bent as shown in figure and is placed in a region of uniform
15. With a resistance R connected in series with a galvanometer of resistance 100 it acts as a voltmeter of range
O – V. To double the range a resistance of 1000 is to be connected in series with R . Then the value of R is
(in )
16. An ammeter is obtained by shunting a 30 resistor what additional shunt should be connected across it to
double the range
17. A voltmeter reading upto 10 V has a resistance of 1000 ohm. It can be converted into an ammeter reading
upto 10 A by connecting a
(a) 0.5 ohm resistance inseries (b) shunt of 10 ohm
18. The mechanical force acting on a current element placed in a magnetic field is
(a) parallel to the field (b) perpendicular to the field but not the element
19. When the two conductors carrying current in the same direction are placed parallel then,
(a) conductors move away (b) conductors come closer
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20. A galvanometer can measure a current upto 20 mA when it is connected in series with a resistance of 2970
ohms it can read upto 60 volt, the galvanometer has a resistance (in ohm)
(a) 130 (b) 30 (c) 230 (d) 60
21. A voltmeter has a range O – V volt with a series resistance R , with a series resistance 2R the range is O V '
22. The reason a moving coil galvanometer cannot be used with an alternating current is that
(a) the coil bonds easily (b) The coil heats up too much
(c) sparks can be produced (d) The net magnetic field produced is zero
23. A milliameter of range 10 mA has a coil of resistance 1 . To use it as a voltmeter of range 10V the
resistance that must be connected in series with it is
24. Three long, straight and parallel wires, carrying current are
arranged as shown in figure. The force experienced by a 25 cm length
of wire C is
(a) zero (b) 103 N
26. A straight wire of mass 200 gram and length 1.5m carries a current of 2A . It is suspended in mid air by a
uniform horizontal magnetic field B . The magnitude of B in tesls is
27. Two long straight wires carrying the same current I and separated by a distance r exert force F on each
other. If the current is increased to 2I and separation is reduced to r 2 then force will become
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(a) A static charge experience a force (b) A moving charge experience a force
(c) A current carrying conductor experience a force (d) Both (a) and (c)
30. A rectangular coil of 2500 turns and area 3 cm 2 cm is suspended perpendicular to uniform magnetic field of
5 104 T . The moment of the couple in Nm on the coil for current of 1 mA is
(a) 3.75 10 8 (b) 7.5 107 (c) 1.5 10 7 (d) 2.25 107
31. The use of cylindrical pole pieces and soft iron cylinder inside the coil in a moving coil galvanometer makes
the field
(a) Powerful and parallel (b) Powerful and radial
32. If two straight parallel conductors carry steady currents of 1 A each and if they are separated by a distance of
1 m in air, then the force experienced by each conductor per unit length is
(a) 1 Nm-1 (b) 9 109 Nm-1 (c) 2 107 Nm-1 (d) 8.85 1012 Nm-1
33. Two wires carrying equal currents in opposite direction repel by a force 15 10 7 Nm-1 placed 30 cm apart.
The current in each conductor is
36. Two long parallel straight conductors carrying currents 10 A and 30 A in the same direction are separated
by a distance of 0.30 meter calculate the point where the resultant magnetic induction due to the currents is
zero from the conductor carrying current 10 amp
(a) 0.071 m (b) 0.075 cm (c) 0.075 m (d) none of these
37. A current of 10 5 amp. Produces a deflection of 100 in a moving coil galvanometer. A current of 10 6 amp
in the same galvanometer produces a deflection of
1 o
(a) 1o (b) 0.1o (c) 10o (d)
100
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38. Phosphor bronze is used in making the suspension wire of a moving coil galvanometer because it has
(a) the property to withstand large weight (b) A low couple/unit twist
39. Long straight parallel conductors carrying current in the opposite directions
(a) do not exert any force on one another (b) Rotate about each other
(c) Attract each other (d) Repel each other
40. An ammeter and a voltmeter are joined in series to a cell. Their readings are A and V respectively. If a
resistance is now joined in parallel with the voltmeter
(a) Both A and V will decrease (b) Both A and V will increase
(c) A will increase, V will decrease (d) A will decrease, V will increase
41. A and B are two conductors carrying a current I in the same direction. X and Y are two electrons beams
moving in the same direction
(a) There will be repulsion between A and B and also X and Y
(b) There will be attraction between A and B and also X and Y
(c) There will be repulsion between A and B and attraction between X and Y
(d) There will be attraction between A and B repulsion between X and Y
I
X
I
Y
43. In an ammeter only 2% of the main current flows through the galvanometer. If the resistance of the
galvanometer is G. The value shunt is
(a) 50 G (b) 49 G (c) 49 G/ 50 (d) G/49
44. The coil of a sensitive galvanometer swings too far on either side. The swinging motion an be quickly
stopped by
(a) Earthing the case of the galvanometer (b) Holding a strong magnet near the coil
(c) Connecting a small piece of copper wire across the ends of the coil
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(e) Connecting a large resistance wire across the ends of the coil
45. To send 10% of main current through moving coil galvanometer of resistance 450 the shunt needed is in
ohm
(a) 50 (b) 5 (c) 45 (d) 9
46. Force per unit length between parallel wires in the circuit is
1.2 m
3.6 103 N m . Resistance of the circuit is
18 V
(a) 3 (b) 1.5 8m R
r 0
Answers
Magnetic materials
1. c 2. c 3. c 4. d 5. d 6. d 7. d 8. b 9. a 10. b
11. d 12. d 13. d 14. c 15. c 16. a 17. d 18. d 19. c 20. c
21. b 22. c 23. d 24. a 25. b 26. a 27. b 28. d 29. c 30. c
31. d 32. a 33. b 34. a 35. b 36. b 37. b 38. b 39. c 40. a
41. c 42. c 43. d 44. a 45. d
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ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
Synopsis
1. Faraday’s law’s of electromagnetic induction
(a) Law (I) : An emf is induced in a coil only when the magnetic flux linked with coil changes w.r.t. the
time t .
d
(b) Law (II) : Induced emf e
dt
d
2. Lenz’s law : The direction of the induced emf is always to oppose the cause of emf e .
dt
3. In this phenomenon mechanical energy is converted into electrical energy
4. The direction of the induced emf and hence the current is given by the Fleming’s right hand rule (motor
Rule)
5. Fleming’s right hand Rule : (Generator rule)
(a) Fore finger – Mag. Field (B)
(b) Thumb – motion of the conductor (M)
(c) Middle finger – direction of induced
current (I)
(c) Change in mag. Flux linked with conductor in time dt .d BA d BLdx
7. Self Induction : When varying current pass through a coil an emf is developed by the coil in the opposite
direction.
dI 0 r N 2 A
(a) Emf induced e L (b) Self inductance of the coil L
dt L
(c) The self induced emf is called back emf since oppose the applied emf.
(d) The induced emf during break of the circuit is larger than during make tm tb
(g) An ideal inductor has negligible resistance but large self inductance (Solenoid)
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dI p
es M
dt
0 r N1N0 A
M
L
(c) SI unit of Mutual inductance is henry (H)
(d) Application (i) transformer (ii) induction coil
(c) It is used as a high voltage source (in discharge tubes, X-rays, spark plugs in automobilies)
(d) It is a device used to derive high DC voltage from a low DC input voltage
(f) The capacitor in the induction coil helps in quenching of spark at the break of the primary circuit and
increases the efficiency.
1 2
10. (a) Energy stored in a coil U LI , where L is the self induction, I is current in the coil.
2
(b) Energy stored in the coil in the form of magnetic field
11. Eddy currents : The currents induced in the thick conductor when it is placed in the changing magnetic field
are called eddy currents
(a) Eddy currents were discovered by Foucault
(b) Eddy currents are used in
(i) Electro magnetic damping (ii) Electromagnetic breaks
(i) Flux passing through the coil BAn cos BAn cos t
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13. Alternating current : (a.c) Alternating current or voltage is one which varies periodically with time reversing
direction per every half a cycle
2I0 2V0
(a) Mean value of a.c. I m 0.637 I 0 Vm 0.637V0
I V
(b) rms value of ac : I rms 0 0.707 I 0 and Vrms 0 0.707V0
2 2
2 2
(d) I mean I rms
V
(d) Impedence R 0
I0
(a) V V0 sint (b) I I 0 sin t
2
(c) Current lags behind the voltage by
2 2
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(b) I I 0 sin t
2
(c) Current leads the applied voltage by
2 2
1 1
(d) Capactitive reactance = impedance = XL
C 2fc
(Measured in )
1
(d) Xc (e) Power factor cos 0 (for pure capacitor R 0)
f
V and I , tan
X L X C VL VC
(f) Phase difference between
R VR
R
(g) Power factor cos (h) Power Prms I rmsVrms cos
Z
1
19. Expression for resonance frequency f 0
2 LC
20. (a) Band width of a resonant circuit B.W. f 2 f1 where f! and f 2 are frequencies corresponding to half
power points.
(b) Sharpness of resonance,
f0 f0
SR
BW f1 f 2
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Energy stored I 2W Lt
Q 20
Energy dissipatred I Rt
W0 L X L
(i) Q (in case of indicator)
R R
XC 1
(ii) Also Q (in case of capacitor)
R W0CR
21. Watt less current : The current through the pure inductor or capacitor is called watt less current [current
leads or lags the voltage by 2 ]
22. Choke : Single coil made of thick copper wire. Hence power loss is minimum cos 0 therefore they
n V
(b) Turns ratio T
s S
(i) Vs n p V p nS
n p VP
(i) For an ideal transformer, power input = power out put V p I p Vs I s
P V I
(f) Efficiency of transformer n 0 S S
P1 VP I P
2
Z R
2
25. AC meters : As average value of AC over a complete cycle is zero. Therefore DC ammeters and DC
voltmeters shows zero reading when used in AC circuits
AC meters are of two types
(i) Hot wire meter : It is based on heating effect of electric current (deflection produced is proportional to the
square of the current)
(ii) Moving iron meter : It is based on the principle of magnetic effect of electric current
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Questions
1. In a series LCR circuit R 10 and an impedance Z 20 then the phase difference between current and
voltage is
5. In an ideal transformer the voltage and current in the primary are 200 V, 2 A and that in the secondary are
2000 V, 1 A the value of I is (A)
(a) 1 (b) 0.2 (c) 2 (d) 20
1
(a) 5 (b) 50 (c) 10-6 (d)
5
400
7. Reactance of a capacitor of capacitance C F for AC of frequency Hz is 25 ohm the value of C is
(a) 100 (b) 400 (c) 50 (d) 25
8. Relation between the mean I m and the rms value I rms of the sinusoidal AC is
2 2 I rms I 2 2Im
(a) I m (b) I rms 2 I m (c) I rms m (d) I m
2
9. An electric bulb marked 40W, 200 V is used in a circuit of supply voltage 100 V. Its power now is
(a) 20 W (b) 10 W (c) 40 W (d) 100 W
(c) leads the voltages by 90o (d) lags behind the voltage by 90o
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5
11. An aeroplane having a wing span of 35 m. Flies due north at the speed of 90 ms -1 . Given By 4 10 T .
12. A copper ring is moving quickly towards the south pole of powerful stationary bar magnetic as a result
(a) current flows through the copper ring (b) current flows in the magnet
(c) copper ring will get magnetised (d) copper ring will get attracted.
13. A magnet dropped in to a coil of conducting wire along its axis will fall with an acceleration
(a) equal to g in the beginning and more than g later (b) less than g
14. The bob of the simple pendulum is replaced by a magnet the oscillations are set along the length of the
magnet. A copper coil is added so that one pole of the magnet passes in and out of the coil is short circuited
then the following happens
(a) period decreases (b) period does not change
15. A hot wire ammeter reads 10 A in an AC circuit. The peak value of the current is
10 2
(a) 5A (b) 10 2 A (c) A (d) A
2
17. The device that does not work on the principle of mutual induction is
(a) induction coil (b) Motor
18. In a series resonant circuit, the a.c. voltage resistance R , Inductance L and capacitance C are 5V, 10V, and 10
V respectively. The a.c. voltage applied to the circuit will be
(a) 20 V (b) 10 V (c) 5 V (d) 25 V
19. Refer to the figure, the maximum deflection in the galvanometer (G) occurs when
(a) The magnet is pushed into the coil
(b) the magnet is rotated into the coil
(c) the magnet is stationary at the centre of
the coil
(d) the number of turns in the coil is
reduced
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21. An a c supply may be used for all these except for one. Identity the one for which it cannot be used
(a) Heating (b) lighting
22. A normal domestic electric supply is an alternating current whose average value is
(a) zero (b) Half the peak value
(c) the peak value multiplied by (d) the peak value divided by
2 2
24. A 220V, 50 Hz, AC source is connected to an inductance of 0.2 hentry and a resistance of 20 ohm in series.
What is the current in the circuit?
(a) 10 amp (b) 5 amp (c) 33.3 amp (d) 3.33 amp
27. A current in a coil changes from 4 amperes to zero in 0.1 second. If the average emf induced is 100 volt what
is the self inductance of the coil?
(a) 2.5 H (b) 26 H (c) 400 H (d) 40 H
R 1
(a) 2 LC (b) 2RC (c) (d)
2 RC 2 LC
29. The switch (S) is closed and opened in the circuit periodically then galvanometer (G) shows
(a) No deflection (b) A steady deflection
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(c) Both electric field and magnetic field (d) either an electric or magnetic field
31. A transformer steps up the voltage from 220 V to 11000 volts. If the primary has 100 turn the secondary
should have turns
32. A magnet NS is suspended from a spring and while it oscillates the magnet
33. In an AC circuit the ratio between effective voltage and effective current is called
(a) Resistance (b) Reactance (c) Inductance (d) Impedance
220
(a) 220 V (b) 220 2V (c) V (d) 110 V
2
38. An inductance L, a capacitance C and a resistance R are connected in series and an AC current of frequency
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12 12
1
2 1
2
2 2
(c) R 2fL (d) L 2fL
2fc 2fc
39. The phenomenon of changing current in any one turn of the coil giving rise to emf in every turn of the coil is
known as
(a) Maxwell effect (b) Self induction
(c) Mutual induction (d) Magnetostriction
40. Lenz’s law states that the direction of the induced emf in a conductor is such as to
(a) Move the conductor parallel to itself
(b) Generate a magnetic field parallel to the conductor
(c) Align the conductor parallel to the earth’s magnetic field
(d) Develop force opposing the cause of induced emf
41. A choke is preferred to a resistance for limiting current in AC circuit because
(a) choke is compact in size (b) choke is cheap
(a) R 2 X L X C 2 (b) R 2 X C X L 2
(c) R 2 X C X L 2 (d) R2 X C X L
(a) Current lags the voltage by 90 (b) current leads the voltage by 90
45. A train is moving towards north with a speed of 180 kmph. If the vertical component of the earths magnetic
field is 0.2 104 T . The emf induced in the axle of 1.5 m long is
(a) 1.5 mV (b) 15 mV (c) 54 mV (d) 5.4 mV
46. When 100 V dc is applied across the coil a current of 1A flows through it. When 100 V AC of 50 Hz is
applied to the same coil only 0.5 A flows. The inductance of the coil is
(a) 0.55 H (b) 55 mH (c) 0.55 mH (d) 5.5 mH
47. The equation of an ac voltage is V 200 sin 50t then rms value of voltage is (volt)
48. An alternating voltage is applied to the pure inductance such that inductive reactance is 10 ohm. If the
frequency of AC is doubled the reactance will become (in ohm)
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1
49. The capacitive reactance of a capacitor of F at 103 Hz is in ohm
2
1 1
(a) 10 3 (b) 10 3 (c) 2 103 (d) 10 3
2 2
52. A 1 mH inductance and 10 F capacitance when connected in series to an ac source posses equal reactance
58. The current passing through a choke coil of 15 Henry is decreasing at the rate of 0.5 amp/second the emf
developed across the coil is
(a) 30 volt (b) -30 volt (c) 7.5 volt (d) –7.5 volt
59. The flux in (weber) a closed circuit of resnstance 10 ohm varies with time t in second according to the
60. A straight line conductor of length 0.4 m is moved with a speed of 7 ms -1 perpendicular to a magnetic field
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61. In a step down transformer the turns ratio is 2 : 1 . A lechlanche cell of emf 1.5 volt is connected across the
primary coil the voltage across the secondary coil is
62. If L represents the self inductance of a coil which is in series with a capacitance C then which of the
following has unit of time
C 1
(a) LC (b) (c) (d) LC
L LC
63. Resonant frequency of a LCR circuit is 100 Hz if the LC product is increased 16 times, the new resonant
frequency is
(a) 1600 Hz (b) 116 Hz (c) 400 Hz (d) 25 Hz
66. The maximum induced emf in a coil of 1000 turns of area 0.1m 0.1m when rotated uniformly in a magnetic
field of 103T at the rate of 30 rpm is
67. For a coil reactance in AC is equal to resistance at certain frequency then the phase difference between
voltage and current is radian
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 2 (d) 4
68. The magnetic flux linked with the coil varies with time as 3t 2 4t 9 the magnitude of induced emf at
t 2s is
(a) 16 V (b) 9V (c) 4 V (d) 3 V
69. In an AC circuit the reactance of a coil is 3 times its resistance the phase difference between the voltage
70. A small magnet M is allowed to fall through a fixed horizontal conducting ring. Let g be the acceleration
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73. In the circuit shown in the figure, the a.c. source gives a voltage
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76. The ratio of secondary to the primary turns in a transformer is 3 : 2 and the output power is p, neglecting
all power losses the input power must be
2p 3p p
(a) (b) (c) (d) p
3 2 2
77. The time taken by AC of 50 Hz in reaching from zero to the maximum value is
(a) 1 10 2 sec (b) 5 103 sec (c) 50 103 sec (d) 2 10 2 sec
78. The magnetic flux linked with a coil at any instant t is given by 5t 3 100t 300 the emf induced in the
coil at t 2 seconds is
(a) 300 V (b) 140 V (c) 40 V (d) 40V
79. A charged particle moves along a line AB which lies in the same plane of a
circular loop of conducting wire as shown in the figure, then
(a) Current induced will be anticlockwise
(d) The current induced in the loop will change its direction as the charged particle passes by
80. In the circuit shown the potential difference across the resistor at
the instant the switch is closed is
(a) zero (b) 50 V
(c) 10 V (d) 5 V
81. A rectangular coil of 300 turns has an average area of 25 cm speed of 50 cps in a uniform magnetic field of
strength 4 102 T about an axis perpendicular to the field. The peak value of the induced emf is in volt
82. In a LCR circuit the PD between the terminals of the inductance is 60 V between the terminals of the
capacitor is 30 V and that between the terminals of resistance is 40 volt. The supply voltage will be equal to
(a) 130 V (b) 10 V (c) 50 V (d) 70 V
83. The square root of the product of inductance and capacitance has the dimension of
(a) length (b) mass (c) time (d) no dimension
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Answers
46. d 47. c 48. a 49. d 50. b 51. a 52. c 53. a 54. b 55. a
56. c 57. a 58. b 59. c 60. b 61. b 62. b 63. c 64. a 65. b
66. d 67. d 68. a 69. d 70. a 71. d 72. a 73. d 74. d 75. c
76. a 77. d 78. d 79. b 80. b 81. c 82. b 83. c 84. b 85. d
86. c 87. d 88. b 89. a 90. a 91. a 92. a 93. d 94. d 95. a
96. a 97. a 98. c 99. b 100. d 101. a 102. a 103. c 104. d 105. c
106. c 107. d 108. d 109. a 110. b 111. b 112. d 113. a 114. d 115. b
116. a 117. b 118. b 119. b 120. b 121. d 122. b 123. c 124. b 125. a
126. d 127. c 128. c
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OPTICS
Reflection of Light
1. Light travels in free space with velocity C 3 108 m s
N
2. Wavelength range of light waves is 4000 A 7500 A and frequency
3. Laws of reflection M O d M
iˆ rˆ .
(b) Angle of deviation d 180 2iˆ 180 2rˆ
(d) When the mirror rotates through an angle . The reflected ray rotates through an angle 2 .
(e) When the incident ray rotates through an angle about the point of incidence the reflected ray
(h) The number of images formed by two plane mirrors inclined at certain angle is given by
360
n 1 (Objective is placed symmetrically)
360
(i) If the object is placed asymmetrically between mirrors, number of images n
=0
= 90 n=1
n= n=3 = 1800
(j) Net deviation produced by two plane mirrors inclined at an angle is d 360 2
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(k) If an object shift through a distance y towards plane mirror, its image shifts through the same
O O2 I1 I
Y Y
M
(l) If the mirror is shifted through a distance x towards a stationary object its image shifts
x1 = 2d – (2d – 2x)
d
= 2x
O I
I1
x (2 x)
(d – x)
(d – x)
(m) A When a person move towards a mirror with a velocity (V) (1) His image approaches the
mirror with the same velocity V , but (2) He observes his image as if it is approaching him with
a velocity 2V (relative velocity)
B When the mirror moves towards the person at rest with a velocity V (a) His image
approaches the mirror with a velocity V (b) He observes his image to be approaching him with
a velocity 2V .
(n) The property of rectilinear propagation of light is responsible for formation of shadows.
Concave Convex
I
Mirror mirror
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
(iii) Convex mirrors are used as driver mirrors, praboloid are used in search lights
(iv) The maximum distance between the image and the mirror is equal to its focal length
6. Formulae
(a) For any spherical mirror R 2 f y
x
1 1 1 2 f xy
(b)
u v f R
I
hi v v f f F 0
(c) Linear magnification m
h0 u f u f
Area of image
(d) Area magnification=
Area of object
(e) If x and y are the distance of real object and real image from the focus then f xy (It is
9. Laws of refraction
sin i n v
(a) 1 n2 2 1 N
sin r n1 v2 A
iˆ
n1 V1 d=i–r
(b) Angle of deviation d iˆ ~ rˆ
d
(c) For normal incidence, iˆ rˆ d 0 n2 V2 r̂
c
C M D
(d) Absolute refractive index n n2 < n1
V
(e) n1 sin i n2 sin r
t sin i r 1 N
(a) Ls (b) n Ls P
cos r i
Q
(c) Maximum lateral shift Ls t (when iˆ 90 )
ir
(d) The length of the path of ray inside the glass slab is r̂
t Ls
t
QR t secr n
cosr T
M R
11. Normal shift B
S
(a) An object in a denser medium appears nearer as seen from a
A D
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I n
t
O OI = Ns
Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
real deapth t
(i) Refractive index n
apparent depth AD
1
(ii) Normal shift N s t 1
n
(b) An object in a rarer medium appears for away as seen from a denser medium (fish in a pond seeing a
bird in air)
R3 R1 RD
(iii) Problem based on travelling microscope : refractive index n
R3 R2 AD
(iv) Refraction through multiple media T.M
t t t
(a) Total apparent depth 1 2 3 ......
n1 n2 n3
R3
t t AD
(b) Total normal shift = t1 t2 t3 1 2 3
t R2
RD
1
n n 2 n3
R1
1
(v) N s n
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(d) The critical angle (C) depends upon pair of media colour of light and temperature T C
(e) For a fish or a diver under water the outside world appears to be with in a cone of vertex angle
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6. Plane mirrors A and B are kept at an angle with respect to each other. Light falls on A is reflected then
falls on B and is reflected. The emergent ray is opposite to the incident directions. Then the angle is equal
to
(a) 45o (b) 30o (c) 60o (d) 90o
7. A mirror produced a magnified erect image of an object the nature of the mirror is
(a) plane (b) Neither convex nor concave
(c) convex (d) concave
8. A mirror forms a real image of unit magnification its nature is
(a) Concave (b) Plane (c) Parabolic (d) Convex
9. On looking at a mirror you find that your face appears larger than normal. This mirror is
(a) Plane (b) concave (c) convex (d) all are true
10. A plane mirror is approaching the object with a velocity 2 m/s. Then the velocity of the image is (in m/s)
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) zero (d) 1
11. If the object is placed 10 cm in front of a convex mirror of radius of curvature 20 cm, the magnification is
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) –0.5 (d) zero
12. An object is placed 20 cm in front of a convex mirror of radius of curvature of 40 cm. The image is
(a) Real and 10 cm behind the mirror (b) Real and 10 cm in front of the mirror
(c) Virtual and 10 cm in front of the mirror (d) virtual and 10 cm behind the mirror
13. A small object is placed 10 cm in front of a plane mirror. If you stand behind the object 30 cm from the
mirror and look at its image for what distance must you focus your eyes
(a) 60 cm (b) 20 cm (c) 40 cm (d) 80 cm
14. A concave mirror of focal length f is immersed in water of RI (4/3). The focal length of the mirror in water
will be
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
15. An object is placed 5m from the plane mirror, then the object is moved towards the mirror with a velocity
of 0.1 m/s after 10 seconds the distance between the object and the image is
17. A thin rod of length f 3 is placed along the optic axis of a concave mirror of focal length f such that its
image, which is real and elongated just touches the rod. The magnification is
(a) 1.5 (b) 3 (c) 2 3 (d) none of these
18. The velocity of light in a medium is 2 108 m s the refractive index of the medium is
(a) Cw Cg Cv (b) C g Cv , C w C g
(c) Cv Cg , Cg Cw (d) Cg Cw , Cw Cv
20. If C1 and C2 are velocities of light in two media and respective angle of incidence and refraction are 1 and
2 then
(a) C1 cos1 C2 cosec2 (b) C1 cot1 C2 cot2
22. Total internal reflection take place when light passes from
(a) Water to glass (b) Glass to diamond
(c) Air to water (d) Glass to air
23. The brilliance of diamond is
(a) entirely due to refractive index (b) Entirely due to total internal reflection
(c) Partly due to refractive reflection (d) none of these
24. Travelling microscope is focused on a ink dot marked on a piece of paper. When the glass slab n 1.5 of
thickness 9 cm is placed on the ink dot the T.M has to be moved (in order to restore the focus)
(a) 3 cm upward (b) 5 cm upward
(c) 3 cm downward (d) 5 cm downward
25. A swimmer is inside a tank, supposing that the surface is calm. The swimmer when looking up sees the
outside in an angular separation of (assume critical angle for what air interface is 49 o)
(a) 40o (b) 90o (c) 980 (d) 101o
26. Mirages are observed on sunny day when
(a) Density of air decreases with height (b) Density of air increases with height
(c) Earth acts like a mirror (d) Air is dense uniformly
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12 3 12 3
(a) 12 3 7 (b) (c) (d) 12 3 5
5 7
31. The cause of mirage is one of the following
(a) the RI of the atmosphere deceases with height
(b) The hot ground reflects the light
(c) The hot air oscillates continuously
(d) The RI of the atmosphere increases with height
32. A man is swimming under water with undisturbed surface looking up at the bright sky through the water.
He will see
(a) A bright patch directly above whose angular size is independent of the depth
(b) A shining surface of water
(c) Just darkness
(d) A bright patch directly above whose angular size depends upon the depth of the swimmer
33. A mark is made on the bottom of a beaker and a liquid of RI n is poured to a height h when viewed
vertically from the top the marks seems to be raised by the amount given by
n 1 n 1 n 1
(a) h h (b) h h (c) h h
' ' '
(d)
n n nh
n 1
h'
nh
34. A bulb is kept at a depth-h inside water of refractive index – n. Area of bright patch on water surface is
(a)
h 2
n 1
2
(b) n 2 1 h 2 (c) h 2 (d)
h 2
n2
n2 1
35. A spot is placed on the bottom of the slab made of transparent material of RI 1.5 the spot is viewed
vertically from the top, it seems to be raised by 2 cm, then the height of the slab is
(a) 10 cm (b) 8 cm (c) 6 cm (d) 4 cm
36. The RI of a transparent material is 1.54 this means that the speed of light in this material is
(a) 4.6 1010 (b) 1.54 108 (c) 3 108 (d) 1.95 108
37. Va ,Vg and Vw are the values of the velocity of light in air glass and water respectively which of the
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Vw V Vg Va
(a) 1 and g 1 (b) 1 and 1
Vg Va Vw Vw
Vw V Va V
(c) 1 and w 1 (d) 1 and w 1
Vg Va Vw Vg
38. RI of glass is 1.5 and that of diamond is 2.4 the RI for refraction from diamond to glass is
(a) 1.6 (b) 3.6 (c) 0.625 (d) none of these
39. Total internal reflection occurs when
(a) Light passes from air to glass with an angle of incidence greater than the critical
(b) Light passes from air to glass with an angle of incidence less than the critical angle
(c) Light passes from glass to air with an angle of incidence greater than the critical angle
(d) Light passes from glass to air with an angle of incidence less than the critical angle
40. Light from air to glass is refracted, as is light passing glass to air. However when you look out of a window
at the view outside, the light does not seen to have been distorted. This is because
(a) The angle of refraction is too small to observe
(b) Light incident upon the glass is partially reflected and this tends to make the effect of
refraction
(c) The emergent ray is parallel to the incident ray and only displacement occurs
(d) The window pan is too thin for refraction to occurs
41. The velocity of light in vacuum is 3 108 m s the RI of water is 1.33 the velocity of light in water is (in m/s)
(a) 3 108 (b) 2.2 108 (c) 4 108 (d) none of these
42. A transparent cube of 0.21m edge contains a small air bubble. Its apparent distance when viewed through
one face of the cube is 0.10 m and when viewed from the opposite face 0.04 m. The actual distance of the
bubble from the second face of the cube is
(a) 0.06 m (b) 0.17 m (c) 0.04 m (d) 0.05 m
43. A glass slab of thickness 4 cm contains the same number of waves as 5 cm of water when both are traversed
by the same monochromatic light. If RI of water is 4/3 what is the RI of glass?
(a) 5/3 (b) 5/4 (c) 16/15 (d) 1.5
44. The index of refraction a certain glass is 1.50 for light whose wavelength in vacuum is 6000 A , what is the
wavelength of this light as it pass through glass?
(a) 6000 A (b) 9000 A (c) 4000 A (d) none of
these
45. If a glass rod is put in a beaker containing a colourless liquid, the glass rod immediately seems to disappear
it is so because
(a) The liquid and glass have some colour (b) The glass and liquid have the same density
(c) The glass and liquid have same refractive index (d) The glass reflected the light transmitted by the
liquid
46. Which one of the following object will appear invisible?
(a) A blue object on a white background seen through a blue filter
(b) As in (a) but seen through a red filter
(c) A green object on a red background illuminated by red light
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tc tn nc t
(a) (b) (c) (d)
n c t c
49. In optical fibres the following principle is used
(a) Refraction (b) Scattering (c) Successive reflection (d) total internal
reflection
50. A man standing in a swimming pool look at a stone lying at the bottom. The depth of the swimming pool is
h . At what distance from the surface of the water is the image of the stone formed? (Line of vision is
normal) the RI of water is n
53. A ray of light is incident in glass 31 42' on a glass water boundary. If the angle of deviation of the ray is 4.5
degree the angle of refraction in water will be
55. A ray of light travels from an optically denser to rarer medium. The critical angle for the two media is C the
maximum possible deviation of the ray will be
(a) 2c (b) c (c) C (d) 2c
2
56. A ray of light in glass of RI 1.5 is incident at angle of 50 o on glass air boundary. Calculate the angle of
deviation of the ray
(a) 80o (b) cannot found out (c) 96o (d) 48o36’
57. When light passes from one medium to another there is a change in
(a) Frequency and velocity (b) Frequency and wavelength
(c) Wavelength and velocity (d) Frequency, wavelength and velocity
58. A ray of light is travelling from glass to air (RI of glass is 1.5) . The angle of incidence is 50o. The deviation
of the ray is
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1
sin 50
(a) sin 50 (b) 0o (c) 80 (d)
1.5
sin 50
50 sin 1
1.5
59. A ray of light enters a rectangular glass slab of refractive index 3 at an angle of incidence 60 . It travels a
distance of 5 cm inside the slab and emerges out of the slab. The perpendicular distance between the
incident ray and emergent ray is
5 3 5 4
(a) 4 3 cm (b) cm (c) cm (d) cm
2 2 3
60. A red flower seen through a green glass looks
(a) Yellow (b) Red (c) Green (d) Black
61. A, B and C are three optical media of respective critical angles C1,C2 and C3 T.I.R of light can occur from
A to B and also from B to C but not from C to A then the correct relation between the critical angles is
(a) C1 C2 C3 (b) C3 C1 C2 (c) C1 C2 C3 (d) C1 C2 C3
62. Two optical media of RI n1 and n2 contain X and Y waves of same colour in the same thickness. Then their
relative RI 1 n2 is equal to
x y yx
(a) (b) x y (c) (d)
yx x x
63. A small object is placed 20 cm in front of a block of glass 10 cm thick and its farther side silvered. The image
is formed 22 cm behind the silvered face then the refractive index of the glass is
(a) 1.15 (b) 1.25 (c) 1.67 (d) 1.1
64. The bottom of beaker containing a liquid appears to rise 4 cm. On increasing the depth of the liquid by 12
cm the bottom appears to raise by 7 cm. The refractive index of the liquid is
(a) 3 4 (b) 4 3 (c) 3 2 (d) 5 3
65. A vessel of height 2d is half filled with a liquid of R.I. 2 and the other half with a liquid of R.I n . (the
given liquids are immiscible). Then the apparent depth of the inner surface of the bottom of the vessel
(neglecting the thickness of the bottom of the vessel) will be
nd
d n 2 n
2n
(a) (b) (c) (d)
d 2n
d n 2 n 2 d n 2
66. A ray of light travelling in air incidents on air water interface at an angle of 30 then it passes through water
glass interface and finally enters into air. The angle of emergences is
(a) Less than 30o (b) Greater than 30o (c) Equal to 30o (d) none of these
67. A ray of light passes from vacuum into a medium of R.I. n. The angle of incidence is found to be twice the
angle of refraction. The angle of incidence is
1 n 1 n 1 n
(a) cos (b) 2 cos (c) 2 sin1 n (d) 2 sin
2 2 2
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68. While a moving picture is being screened, a boy introduced a glass slab of thickness 3 cm and R.I. 1.5
between the projector and the screen. In order to have a clear picture on the screen, the screen should be
moved through a distance of
(a) 1 cm away (b) 2 cm away (c) 1 cm nearer (d) 3 cm away
69. A beaker contains water and alcohol with a pin at its bottom. The depth of water and alcohol are 8 cm and
4 6
12 cm respectively. The apparent depth of the pin is nw and na
3 5
(a) 12 cm (b) 10 cm (c) 4 cm (d) 16 cm
70. Snell’s law of refraction holds good in
(a) Light (b) Sound (c) Electro magnetic wave (d) All of these
71. A ray of light travelling inside a rectangular glass block of R.I. 2 is incident on the glass air surface at an
75. If the refractive indices for water and diamond relative to air are 1.33 and 2.4 respectively. Then R.I. of
diamond relative to water is
(a) 0.55 (b) 1.80 (c) 3.19 (d) none of these
76. When viewed vertically a fist appears to be 4 metre below the surface of the lake. If R.I. of water is 1.33 then
true depth of fish is metres
(a) 5.32 (b) 3.32 (c) 4.32 (d) 6.32
77. A mirage occurs because
(a) The R.I. of atmospheric increases with height (b) The R.I. of atmospheric decreases with height
(c) The hot ground acts like a mirror (d) R.I. remains constant with height
78. If the velocity of light in water is 2.25 108 m s and that in glass is 2 108 m s . A slab of this glass is
immersed in water, what will be the critical angle of incidence of a ray of light tending to go from glass to
water?
1 3 1 8 1 4 1 3
(a) sin (b) sin (c) sin (d) sin
5 9 5 4
79. Lateral shift produced by a glass slab is X. When the slab is immersed in a liquid, for the same incident ray
lateral shift produced will be
(a) X (b) greater than X (c) less than X (d) zero
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80. A rectangular block of glass is placed on a printed page lying on a horizontal plane. Find the minimum
value of R.I. of glass for which the letters on the page are not visible from any of the vertical faces of the
block
(a) 0.72 (b) 2.32 (c) 1.414 (d) 2.02
1 1 t 1 t n
(a) t 1 (b) n t (c) 1 (d) t
n 2 1 n 2 1 n
n 2 1 n
n 2 1
83. A fish rising vertically with speed 3 m s to the surface of water sees a bird diving vertically towards it with
Answers
129. c 130. c 131. c 132. d 133. a 134. d 135. c 136. a 137. b 138. a
139. c 140. d 141. c 142. a 143. b 144. d 145. a 146. d 147. c 148. a
149. b 150. d 151. b 152. a 153. c 154. b 155. b 156. d 157. d 158. c
159. d 160. d 161. a 162. a 163. c 164. d 165. b 166. c 167. c 168. c
169. b 170. a 171. a 172. c 173. c 174. a 175. d 176. b 177. d 178. a
179. c 180. c 181. b 182. c 183. a 184. a 185. c 186. c 187. c 188. a
189. a 190. c 191. c 192. b 193. c 194. c 195. b 196. a 197. d 198. d
199. d 200. b 201. a 202. d 203. b 204. a 205. a 206. b 207. c 208. c
209. b 210. c 211. d
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A D
sin
(i) iˆ1 iˆ2 iˆ (ii) rˆ1 rˆ2 rˆ (iii) R.I. prism n 2
A
sin
2
(b) At minimum deviation position the refracted ray inside the prism is parallel to the base (the
light ray is symmetric about the base of the prism)
(c) If light ray incident normally on one face of the prism and emergent
A
ray just grazes form the second face then
(i) i1 r1 0 and (ii) i2 90 and r2 C
i2 = 90
I1 = r1 = 0 r2 = c
1 1
(iii) A r1 r2 C (iv) n
sin C sin A
(d) If the light ray incident grazing the first face and after refraction grazes out from the second face
then
(i) i1 i2 90 (ii) rˆ1 rˆ2 c
(iii) A r1 r2 2C (iv) n 1
1
sin C A
sin
2
(v) d 180 2C
(iii) The angle of deviation is maximum for violet and minimum for red
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B 1
(g) Total reflecting prisms [Cauchy’s formula n A 2 ..... n 2 ]
(i) They are right angled isosceles prisms
(ii) They are made of crown glass (glass) of critical angle 42o
(iii) The image produced by total reflecting prisms is more brighter than the image
produced by a plane mirror
(iv) Deviation through 90o this arrangement is used in periscope
(v) Deviation through 180o this arrangement is used in Binoculars
16. Deviation in a small angled prisms
(a) i1 nr1 (b) i2 nr2
(c) d n 1A
d1 A1
(d) For given monochromatic light
d 2 A2
ng
(i) d 1 A
nL
(iii) When prism is immersed in a liquid the deviation decreases and the emergent ray moves away
from the base
Angulardispersion dv dr n
(vi) Depressive power W
mean deviation d A1
w
dv d r nv nr
where n
nv nr
n 1A n 1 2
A' n 1
(vii) Dispersion without deviation . The condition is
A
'
n 1
(a) The negative sign indicates that the refracting angles of the two prisms are in the opposite
direction
(b) Prisms should be made of different materials
(viii) Depressive Power of the flint glass Prism is greater than that of crown glass Prism
(ix) For net dispersion without deviation dv d R ' n 1A
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1. The angle of incidence and emergence of an equilateral prism are 50 and 40 the angle of deviation is
2. When the deviation of yellow line of a spectrum is minimum then the refracted ray is
(a) parallel to base (b) Perpendicular to base
3. The largest angle of minimum deviation occurs when light of one of the following colours passes through a
prism
(a)Indigo (b) Green (c) Red (d) Yellow
4. The angle of minimum deviation of a ray in a glass prism is least for the light of colour
(a) Red (b) Violet (c) Green (d) Yellow
5. A ray of light goes through an equilateral prism in the position of minimum deviation is 30 the refractive
index of the prism is
(a) 1.52 (b) 1.41 (c) 1.33 (d) 1.64
6. A transparent material has three RI 1.665, 1.650 and 1.68 for yellow red and blue light respectively. The
dispersive power of the substance is
(a) 0.03 (b) 0.018 (c) 2.0 (d) 0.045
7. The dispersive power of the material of a prism is maximum for the colours
(a) Violet and green (b) Violet and red (c) Rea and green (d) Blue and red
10. A glass prism placed in a homogeneous transparent medium will deviate an incident ray
(a) always towards its base (b) always away from its base
(c) Towards its base only if the medium has refractive index greater than that of glass
(d) Towards the base only if the medium has a refractive index less than that of glass
11. The R.I. of an equilateral prism is 3 . what is the angle of minimum deviation?
12. On a right angled prism the rays, A, B and C are incident as shown in the figure. Before emerging from the
prism which ray or rays will experience total internal reflection
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13. When viewed in a green light a flag that is red and green will appear to be
(a) Black (b) Black and Green (c) Green (d) Green and Yellow
(b) The prism with angle 60 and the white light only
16. White light is incident on one of the refracting surfaces of a prism of refracting angle 5 . If R.I for red and
blue colours are 1.641 and 1.659 respectively. The angular dispersion between these two colours when they
emerge out of prism is
17. When light is refracted through a prism, maximum deviation occurs when
(a) the ray is incident grazing the first face
(b) The ray emerges out grazing its second face
(c) Either of the above happens
(d) Neither of the above happens
18. A ray of monochromatic light is incident at an angle 49 on the first face of an equilateral prism placed in the
minimum deviation position. Find the angle between the emergent and incident rays
19. Which of the following diagrams shows correctly the dispersion of white light by the prism
v v
R v
R v
R R
20. A thin prism P1 with angle 4 and made from a glass of R.I. 1.54 is combined with another thin prism P2
from glass of R.I. 1.72 to produce dispersion without deviation. The angle of prism P2 is
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21. For a prism of RI 3 the angle of the prism is equal to the angle of minimum deviation the value of angle of
minimum deviation is
22. If the angle of incidence is 42 in the minimum deviation position of an equilateral prism, the angle of
minimum deviation is
23. A ray of light incident normally on one of the faces of prism of angle 30 and RI 2 .The angle of deviation
of the ray is
27. For refraction through a prism angle of minimum deviation is minimum when
(a) i1 i2 A (b) i2 i2 r1 r2 (c) i1 r1 i2 r2 (d) none of these
Additional prism Q and R of identical shape and material are now added to P
Q
as shown in figure. The ray will suffer
(a) Total internal reflection (b) No deviation P R
30. A ray of light is incident normally on one face of a right angled isosceles prism. It then grazes the
hypotenuse. The refractive index of the material of the prism is
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31. A prism of certain angle deviates the red and blue rays by 8 and 12 respectively. Another prism of same
angle deviates the red and blue rays by 10 and 14 respectively. The prisms are small angled and made of
different materials. The dispersive powers of the materials of the prisms are in the ratio
32. Angle of minimum deviation of an equilateral prism is equal to the angle of the prism. The R.I. of the prism
material is
(c) less towards violet line (d) same near all spectral lines observed
34. If one face of a prism is silvered having prism angle of 30 and n 2 . What will be angle of incidence so
that the incident ray retraces the path?
36. The angle of minimum deviation for a 75 prism of dense glass is found to be 45 when in air . It is 15 when
immersed in certain liquid. The RI of liquid is
3 3 3
(a) (b) (c) (d) 3
2 2 2
37. A glass prism is immersed in a certain liquid. The angle of deviation is found to be zero. Which of the
following is correct?
(a) RI of glass is greater than liquid (b) RI of glass is less than liquid
38. A crown glass prism of angle 6.2 is to be combined with a flint glass prism in such way that the mean ray
passes undeviated. What is the angle of the flint glass prism needed if the RI of crown and flint glass yellow
39. A graph is drawn between the angles of incidence and deviation using an equilateral prism. The deviation is
45 for an angle of incidence 52 . The other angle of incidence for the same deviation is
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
40. If a light ray incident normally on one of the faces of the prism of R.I. 2 and the emergent ray just grazes
the second face of the prism, the angle of the prism is
(c) dispersed but not deviated (d) neither deviated nor dispersed
42. The light incident on an equilateral prism of R.I. 2 suffers minimum deviation. The minimum angle of
deviated and angle of incidence are (in degree)
(a) 45, 30 (b) 30, 45 (c) 45, 45 (d) 30, 30
43. Prism spectrum and first order grating spectrum of a given light are under study then
(a) Prism spectrum will be more bright (b) grating spectrum will be more study then
(c) both are equally bright (d) intensities of two spectra are unpredictable
44. A thin prism P1 of angle 4 and made from glass of R.I. 1.54 is combined with another prism P2 made from
glass of R.I. 1.72 to produce dispersion without deviation the angle of prism P2 is
45. Light ray is incident perpendicularly to one face of a 90 prism and is totally internally reflected at the glass
air interface. If the angle of reflection is 45 . We conclude that the refractive index n of the prism is
1 1
(a) n 2 (b) n (c) n 2 (d) n
2 2
47. In a thin prism n 1.5 , r is the angle of refraction and Dm is the angle of minimum deviation. Then which
48. A light ray is incident on a prism in minimum deviation position and suffers deviation of 34 . If shaded half
of the section is removed off, then same ray will suffer a deviation of
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49. A certain prism is that to produce minimum deviation of 38 . It produces a deviation of 44 . When the
angle of incidence is either 42 OR 62 what is R.I. of the material of the prism
(a) 1.33 (b) 1.41 (c) 1.51 (d) 1.72
50. There is prism with RI equal to 2 and refracting angle equal to 30 . One of the refracting surfaces of the
prism is polished. A beam of monochromatic light will retrace its path. Find the angle of incidence over the
refracting surface of the prism.
51. White light is passed through a prism of angle 5 of refractive indices for red and blue colors are 1.641 and
1.659 respectively. The angle of dispersion between them is
(c) no deviation for the mean ray (d) All the rays of composite light are equally deviated
53. If a glass prism is placed in a liquid of refractive index grater than that of glass with which the prism is
made. The ray deviates towards
(a) the base of the prism (b) refracting edge of the prism
(c) the normal to the base (d) the second face of the prism
Answers
1. d 2. a 3. a 4. a 5. b 6. d 7. b 8. b 9. c 10. d
11. b 12. b 13. b 14. a 15. c 16. a 17. a 18. c 19. b 20. a
21. d 22. c 23. d 24. a 25. c 26. c 27. c 28. d 29. c 30. a
31. d 32. b 33. a 34. c 35. c 36. c 37. c 38. b 39. b 40. c
41. b 42. b 43. a 44. b 45. a 46. b 47. a 48. b 49. b 50. c
51. a 52. a 53. b
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1.
n n n n
Formula for refraction through cured surface 0 1 1 0
u v R
n1 n0
2. Power of refraction surface P
R
SI unit of power of a refracting surface is Dioptre (D)
(c) The minimum distance between the object and its real images 4 f
(d) The maximum distance between the images and the concave lens is f
1 1 1 uv
(a) or f
f u v uv
Area of image
(ii) Area magnification
Area of object
v f
(c) m
f
f
(d) m
u f
(e) If X and Y are the distance of real object and real image measured from the focus of convex lens than
f xy
x
(f) For conjugate positions of the lens
y object
D2 S 2
(i) f F O F
4D Image
Lens
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S
(ii) f
m1 m2
(iii) 0 I2I2
(iv) D u v and s v u
1
(g) (i) Power of lens P
focal length f
1 1
(h) Lens makers formula
1
ng 1
f 1
R R2
(ii)
1
l ng 1 R1
1
ng nL 1 1
'
f 1 R2 nL R1 R2
(iii)
f'
nL n g 1 R1R2
(iv) n 1
f
n g nL
f R1 R2
(v) If ng nL the nature of lens does not change. Focal length of lens increases and power decreases
(vi) If ng nL . A convex lens behaves as a concave lens and concave lens behaves as convex lens.
1 1 1
(a) ...... (b) Power p p1 p2 p3 .....
f f1 f 2
1 1 1 d
(a) (b) Power, P P1 P2 dP1P2
f f1 f 2 f1 f 2
R f
(i) F 1 (i) f1 fm
2n 1 2
R
(ii) F (ii) f1 fm R 2
2n
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R
(iii) F (iii) f1 fm R 2
22n 1
8. Defects of eye
(a) Short sightedness (Myopia) : A person with this defect can see the near objects clearly but not the
distance objects. (It is rectified by using a suitable concave lens)
(b) Long sightedness (hyper metropia) : A person with this defect can see distance object clearly. But
can not see clearly the object situated at a distance of 25 cm. It is rectified by using a suitable convex
lens
9. The defects in the optical images is known as aberration
(a) Chromatic aberration
(b) Monochromatic aberration
(c) If the image of white object is mutli coloured and blurred this defect is called chromatic aberration
(d) This is due to the fact that the focal length of the lens varies with wave length (colour)
nv nr f R fv
(e) Chromatic aberration can be eliminated by an achromatic doublet. The condition to be satisfied is
w1 f
1
w2 f2
(f) Chromatic aberration can also be minimized by using two convex lenses separated by distance
f1 f 2
d [Both lenses are made of same material]
2
(g) Monochromatic aberration : [Spherical aberration, Astigmatism, coma, distortion, curvature]
(h) Spherical aberration : The inability of the lenses to form a point image of an axial point object is called
spherical aberration
(i) This is caused due to the spherical shape of the lens
(ii) By using a convex and concave lens spherical aberration can be minimized
(iii) Spherical aberration can be minimized by using two plano convex lenses separated by distance
d f1 f 2 facing the incident (parallel) rays
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2. A lens of power 2 D and 1D are kept in contract. The focal length of the combination behaves as a lens
of power
3. Two lens of power 2 D and 5D are kept in contact. The focal length of the combination is
1 1
(a) m (b) m (c) 3m (d) 3m
3 3
4. An object is placed at a distance of 18 cm from a convex lens. The image is formed at a distance of 9 cm. The
focal length of the lens is
5. The focal length of a convex lens of radii of curvature 20 cm and 30 cm is 24 cm. Then refractive index is
(a) 1.0 (b) 1.3 (c) 1.5 (d) 2/4
6. For a given lens the magnification was found to be twice as large as when the object was 0.15 m distant from
it. The focal length of the lens is
(a) 0.2 m (b) 0.1 m (c) 0.005 m (d) 0.15 m
7. The radii of curvature of the two faces of the lens are 10 cm and 15 cm. If RI of the lens is 1.54 then the focal
length of the lens is (in cm)
(a) 9.0 (b) 16.2 (c) 38.5 (d) 11.1
8. In the case of convex lens made of flint glass the focal length
(a) is shorter for green colour than for yellow
(b) Is longer for blue than fed
(c) Is the same for all colours
(d) Depends on the colour only when it is used with another lens
9. A beam of parallel rays is brought to focus by a Plano convex lens. A thin concave lens of same focal length
is joined to the first lens the effect of this is
(a) the focal point shift away from the lens by a small distance
(b) the focus shift to infinity
(c) the focus remains undisturbed
(d) the focus moves side wards
10. An image of 2 cm is formed by a convex lens when an object of height 8 cm is placed at a distance of 80 cm
from it the focal length of the lens is
(a) 10 cm (b) 16 cm (c) 4 cm (d) 5 cm
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11. The radii of curvature of the two faces of the lens have a value r1 and r2 . If the RI of the lens is n then its
r1r2 1 1
(a) f (b) f n 1
n 1r1 r2 r1 r2
r r r
(c) f n 1r2r1 1 (d) f n 2 1 2
r2 2
12. Consider a convex lens made of glass. Let its focal length corresponding to the colour red, yellow and blue
respectively f r , f y and fb which of the following relation is true?
13. Inside a quantity of transparent oil kept in a rectangular glass vessel there is an air bubble. The bubble
behave as
(a) Concave lens (b) Concave mirror (c) convex lens (d) convex mirror
14. A lens of power 4 D is kept in contact with another lens. The combination has the focal length of the 40 cm
the power of the second lens is
15. Two converging lenses of equal focal lengths f are placed in contact the focal length of the combination is
16. A camera is focused to take the picture of a girl standing 2m away from the camera lens. If the film is 10 cm,
from the lens, the focal length of the lens expressed in cm is
(a) 20 (b) 9.5 (c) 200 (d) 10.0
17. It is desired to produce a real image on a screen, using a convex lens of focal length 10 cm the minimum
distance between the object and screen should be
(a) 20 cm (b) 60 cm (c) 100 cm (d) 40 cm
18. Two Plano convex lenses each having focal length of 0.4m are pressed against each other at their plane faces.
This forms a double convex lens. At what distance from this lens must an object be placed to obtain a real,
inverted image with magnification one?
(a) 0.8 m (b) 0.4 m (c) 0.2 m (d) 1.6 m
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20. A double convex lens made of material of RI 1.5 and having a focal length 10 cm is immersed in a liquid of
RI 3.0 the lens will behave as
(a) Converging lens of focal length 10 cm
(b) Diverging lens of focal length 10 cm
(c) Converging lens focal length 10/3 cm
(d) Converging lens of focal length 30 cm
21. How will an image produce by a lens change. If half the lens is wrapped in black paper
(a) There will be no effect (b) The size of the image will reduce to one half
(c) The image will disappear (d) The brightness of the image will be reduced
23. The convex lens of glass is immersed in water. Compared to its power in air it’s power in water will
(a) Diminish for red light and increase for blue light
(b) Remain same
(c) Increase
(d) Diminish
24. A virtual image larger than object is produced by
(a) Concave lens (b) Convex mirror (c) Plane mirror (d) Convex lens
25. The graph drawn with object distance along abscissa and image distance as ordinate for a convex lens is
(a) A straight line (b) A circle
(c) A parabola (d) A rectangular hyperbola
26. A parallel beam of light in air is incident on a glass sphere of RI 1.5 and diameter 20 cm parallel to its
horizontal diameter. The rays converge to a point at a distance of from the centre of the sphere is
(A) 10 cm (b) 15 cm (c) 20 cm (d) 5 cm
27. The projection lens of a projector has a focal length of 5 cm. It is desired to get an image with a
magnification 30. The distance of the screen from the lens must be
(a) 1.55 m (b) 20 m (c) 0.3 m (d) 3 m
28. A convex lens placed at a distance of 0.1 m from an object produces a magnified image on the screen, with
out disturbing the object or the screen the lens is moved by 0.2 m towards the screen and a diminished
image is formed on the screen. The focal length of the lens must be
(a) 15 cm (b) 20 cm (c) 7.5 cm (d) 3 m
29. A convex lens and a concave lens of unknown powers given to you the lens of higher power is
(a) Determined by the nature of the image formed by the lens combination
(b) Determined by the colour of light used
(c) Always convex
(d) Always concave
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30. Whenever composite light is not refracted by the surface of an optical medium light will
(a) Get deviated as well as dispersed (b) neither get deviated not get dispersed
(c) Get dispersed but not deviated (d) Get deviated but not dispersed
31. Shown in the figure is convergent lens placed inside a cell filled with liquid. The lens has
Liquid
a focal length 20 cm, when in air and material has RI 1.5 if the liquid has RI 1.6 the focal
length of the system is Lens
(a) 80 cm (b) – 80 cm
32. The focal length of a plano convex lens is equal to its radius of curvature. The value of the RI of the material
is
(a) 1.33 (b) 1.6 (c) 1.5 (d) 2
33. A convex lens of RI n behaves as convex lens of smaller power in a liquid of RI n1 and as a concave lens in
34. The relation between n1 and n2 if the behaviour of light ray is as shown in figure
(a) n1 n2 (b) n2 n1 2
(c) n1 n2 (d) n1 n2 n1
35. Two thin lenses of focal length 20 cm and 25 cm are placed in contact. The effective power of the
combination is (dioptre)
(a) 0.5 (b) 2 (c) 45 (d) 9
36. A luminous object is separated from a screen by a distance D . What is the greatest focal length a lens could
have to focus the object on the screen ?
(a) D 2 (b) D 4 (c) 4D (d) D
37. A plano convex lens has a thickness of 3 cm and radius of curvature of its curved surface is 5 cm. When seen
normally through the flat surface the thickness found to be 2 cm. The RI of the material is
(a) 0.45 (b) 1.5 (c) 2.3 (d) 3.5
38. A thin lens of RI 1.5 has a focal length of 15 cm in air. When the lens is placed in a medium of RI 4/3 its focal
length will be
(a) 15 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 45 cm (d) 60 cm
39. A projector lens has focal length of 10 cm. It throws an image of 2cm x 2 cm slide on a screen 5 metre from
the lens find the size of the picture on the screen
(a) 98 cm x 98 cm (b) 196 cm2 (c) 98 cm2 (d) 9.8 x 9.8 cm2
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40. An object is placed 12 cm to the left of a converging lens of focal length 8 cm. Another converging lens 6 cm
focal length is placed at a distance of 30 cm to the right of the first lens. The second lens will produce
(a) A real enlarged image (b) A real inverted image
41. How will the image formed by a convex lens be affected. If the central position of the lens is wrapped in
black paper as shown in figure
(a) Full image will be formed but it is less bright
(b) No image will be formed
(c) Two images will be formed one due to each exposed half
(d) Full image will be formed but without the central position
42. The convex lens is made up of three different materials as shown in figure, for a point object
placed on a its axis, the number of images formed are
(a) 4 (b) 3
(c) 1 (d) 5
43. A beam of parallel rays brought to focus by a plano convex lens, A thin concave lens of same focal length is
joined to the first lens. The effect of this is
(a) The focus shift to infinity (b) The focus remains undisturbed
(c) The focal point shifts away from the lens by a small distance
44. A thin Plano convex lens acts like a concave mirror of focal length 0.2 m when silvered from its plane
surface. The R.I of the material of the lens is 1.5. The radius of curvature of the convex surface of the lens
will be
(a) 0.1 m (b) 0.75 m (c) 0.4m (d) 0.2 m
1
(a) D where f is the focal length and D is called the Refracting power of a lens
f
(c) Power is called a dioptre and does not depend on the system of unit used to measure f
(d) D is positive for convergent lens and negative for divergent lens
46.
F F F
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47. Figure shows the behaviour of light rays w.r.t. a Plano convex lens. The plane
24 cm
surface being silvered the radius of curvature of the curved surface of the lens
n 1.5 is
X
(a) 48 cm (b) 24 cm
O X
(c) 12 cm (d) 6 cm
48. Two thin convex lenses each of focal length 0.2m are placed coaxially with their optic centres 0.5 m apart.
Then the focal length of the combination is
(a) 0.4 m (b) –0.4 m (c) 0 (d) –0.1 m
49. A convex lens made of material of refractive index n1 is placed inside two liquids of refractive indices n2
and n3 as shown n2 n1 n3 parallel beam of light ht is incident on it. The lens will give rise to
50. Two convex lenses separated by a distance are brought in contact. The focal length of the combination
(a) decreases (b) increases
51. In a medium of R.I 1.6 and have a convex surface has a point object in
it at a distance of 12 cm from the pole. The radius of curvature is 6 cm. Rarer –
n2I
Locate the image as seen from air
O
(a) A real image at 30 cm (b) A virtual image a t 30 cm
Rarer – n1
52. A square hole of area 16 cm2 is placed at a distance of 24 cm from a lens of focal length 18 cm. The area of
the image is
(a) 48 cm2 (b) 144 cm2 (c) 10 cm2 (d) none of these
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53. A convex lens made of glass n 3 2 has a focal length F . When immersed in water of R.I. 4/3, its focal
length becomes
54. A converging meniscus of radii of curvature 12 cm and 36 cm has R.I. 3/2. Find its focal length
(a) 18 cm (b) 36 cm
R2 R1 R2 > R1
(c) 6 cm (d) none of these
55. An equi convex lens of focal length 5 cm is cut as shown in the figure, the focal length of part 1 is
(a) 5 cm (b) 10 cm
1
2
(c) 2.5 cm (d) 20 cm 3
56. There is an equi convex lens of focal length 20 cm. If the lens is cut in to two equal parts perpendicular to
the principal axis. The focal length of each part will be
(a) 20 cm (b) 40 cm (c) 10 cm (d) 15 cm
57. A beam of parallel rays is brought to a focus by a convex lens. If a thin concave lens of equal focal length is
joined to the convex lens the focus will be
(a) shifted to infinity (b) shifted to a small distance
58. A convex lens forms a virtual image of an object placed at 15 cm from the lens. The focal length of lens can
be
(a) 2 cm (b) 8 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 18 cm
59. The nature of the u-v graph for a converging lens is part of a
(a) Circle (b) Parabola (c) Hyper bola (d) Straight line
60. Light rays A and B fall on an optical component and comes out as
C and D. The optical component is C
A
(a) Prism (b) concave lens
B
D
(c) Convex lens (d) Convex mirror
61. Two chain convex lenses each of focal length 0.5 m are kept co-axially separated by a distance 0.5 m. The
focal length of the combination is
(a) 0.5 m (b) 1 m (c) 0.25 m (d) 1.5 m
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62. A plano convex lens is made of glass of R.I n and R is radius of curvature of curved surface. Its curved
surface is silvered. It behaves as
(a) Convex mirror of focal length R 2n
63. In compound microscope, length of microscope is 21.5 cm focal length of objective is 1.6 cm the focal length
of eye piece is 2.1 cm and if final image is formed at infinity then distance of the object from objective lens is
(a) 3 cm (b) 1.74 cm (c) 6 cm (d) 4.8 cm
64. An object is placed at a distance of 75 cm from a screen where should a convex lens of length 12 cm be
placed so as to obtain a real image of the object?
(a) 6 cm (b) 60 cm (c) 600 cm (d) 75 cm
65. The rays of light are incident on a concave lens of R.I n from a medium
n -1
of R.I n1 after refraction. If converges in a medium of R.I n2 the n -2 relation
(a) n1 n n2 (b) n1 n n2
n-
(c) n1 n n2 (d) n1 n n2
66. A Plano convex lens of R.I 1.5 and radius of curvature 30 cm is silvered at the curved surface. Now this lens
h as been used to form the image of an object. At what distance from this lens an object be placed in order to
have a real image of the size of the object ?
(a) 20 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 60 cm (d) 80 cm
67. The distance between the two sources of light is 24 cm. Where should a convergent lens of focal length 9 cm
be placed between them to obtain images of both and sources at the same point
(a) u=6, 18 cm (b) u=4, 12 cm (c) u=3, 6 cm (d) u=2 , 4 cm
68. Find the power of a thin glass lens n 1.5 in a liquid with R.I n 1.7 . If its power in air is 5D
(a) 4 D (b) 1.2D (c) 4 D (d) 2 D
69. Find the power of a biconvex lens n 1.5 with air on the left side and water n 1.33 on the right side.
70. The medium on both sides of the lens is air. The distance of object O . Image 1 from first and second foci F1
and F2 are shown in figure. The focal length of the lens is
F1 F2
(a) 20 cm (b) 16 cm • • • •
O
16 cm 25 cm
(c) 25 cm (d) 40 cm
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Aberration
1. The rays of light traveling from distant object are incapable of converging at a common point after refraction
through a thick lens this is due to
(a) Spherical aberration (b) Chromatic aberration
2. The inability of rays of different colours of light starting from a distant source of white light to converge to a
common point after passing through a convex lens is referred to as
(a) Spherical aberration (b) Optical illusion
6. The inability of a lens due to which all the rays passing through the lens are not focused at a single point is
called
(a) Chromatic aberration (b) spherical aberration
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Answers
54. c 55. c 56. a 57. a 58. c 59. b 60. d 61. a 62. b 63. b
64. a 65. b 66. a 67. b 68. c 69. b 70. d 71. b 72. d 73. b
1. d 2. d 3. d 4. d 5. d 6. a 7. a 8. c 9. a 10. d
11. d 12. d 13. b 14. b 15. d 16. b 17. b 18. b 19. a 20. c
21. a 22. b 23. a 24. d 25. c 26. a 27. b 28. b 29. d 30. a
31. b 32. b 33. b 34. b 35. b 36. b 37. a 38. d 39. c 40. b
41. a 42. b 43. b 44. b 45. a 46. a 47. a 48. b 49. c 50. a
Aberration
1. a 2. c 3. d 4. b 5. b 6. c 7. a
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WAVE OPTICS
INTERFERENCE OF LIGHT
THEORIES OF LIGHT
1. Corpuscular theory of Light: It was put forth by Sir Isaac Newton in 1675.
(a) According to this theory light consists of very small, light material particles called carpuscles.
(b) It successfully explained reflection, rectilinear propagation and dispersion (corpuscles of different
colours are of different size)
(c) But it failed to explain interference, diffraction and polarization.
(d) According to this theory light travels faster in denser medium.
2. Wave theory of light: It was proposed by Christian Huygen in 1679.
(a) According to this theory a source of light sends out disturbance in all directions in a hypothetical
medium called ether.
(b) Light waves according to this theory are mechanical in nature and longitudinal in character.
(c) It could explain the reflection, refraction, interference and diffraction, but not polarisation.
(d) Wave front : The locus of all the particles vibrating in the same phase is called wave front.
(i) Point source – spherical wave front
(ii) Linear source – cylindrical wave front
(iii) When the sources is at infinity – plane wave front
3. Electromagnetic wave theory of light: It was proposed by James clerk Maxwell in 1870.
(a) This theory showed that light waves are transverse in nature.
(b) This theory accounted for all known properties of light, except those involving the interaction of
radiation with matter.
1
(c) In 1887 Heinrich Rudolf Hertz generated Electro magnetic waves. f
2π LC
1
(d) Velocity of an electromagnetic wave in a medium C
1
(e) Velocity of electromagnetic wave in vacuum C
0 0
(f) Electro magnetic waves are produced by (Oscillating) accelerating electric charges.
(g) Electro magnetic waves consists of the time varying electric field and magnetic field which are mutually
perpendicular to each other and also perpendicular to the direction of propagation of wave.
(b) Energy of each photon E h where frequency of radiation and h is the Planck’s constant.
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5. Modern theory of light: Light exhibit dual nature. During propagation light behaves like a wave and during
interaction with matter it behaves like particles – quanta (photons)
(a) de Broglies hypothesis on matter waves confirmed the dual nature of light
h
(b) wavelength of de Broglie wave
mv
(c) Wavicle Wave particle object.
INTERFERENCE
1. (i) The modification in the distribution of light energy due to superposition of two or more waves called
interference of light.
(ii) Thomas young demonstrated the interference of light.
2. If a1 ,a2 are the amplitudes of interfering waves and is the phase difference between them, then
2 2
(i) Resultant amplitude R a1 a1 2 a1a2 cos
x
Xn
(iii)Resultant phase angle tan 1
a2 sin d
S
1 a2 cos
a B
n
(iv) Resultant maximum amplitude a1 a2
S2
D
(v) Maximum intensity I max a1 a2 2 y
(viii)
2
I max amax a a 2
2 1 2 2
I1 I 2 2 contrast ratio.
I min amin a1 a2 I1 I2
2
(ix) Intensity is directly proportional to the width of the slit IW , a 2W ,
where I = Intensity of the wave, a – amplitude of the wave, w – width of the slit
5. (a) Coherent sources: The two source of light send the waves of same wavelength, same amplitude and of
constant phase difference.
Ex: Fresnell’s Biprism, Billet Split lens, laser etc..
6. There are two ways of Producing coherent sources.
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(c) The distance of the screen from the slits must be large D
2n 1D
(h) Position of n 1th dark fringe XD
2d
(i) Angular position of nth maximum B Xn D n D
Xn 1
(j) Angular position of n 1th minimum D 2n 1 | 2 d
D
(k) In young’s double slit experiment if a thin glass plate is placed in the path of one of the interfering
waves then fringe patter is shifted.
D
The Fringe pattern shifted through a distance S n 1 t where n is the R.I. of medium (glass) and
d
t is the thickness of the medium.
(l) If the interfering waves are polarized. Then both the waves should have the same plane of vibration.
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(c) When the film is illuminated by white light only certain colours can be seen in reflected system for
which condition for constructive interference is satisfied. But these colours will be absent in the
transmitted system. [Reflected and transmitted system are complements to each other]
(d) When a ray of light reflected at surface backed by adenser medium suffers an abrupt phase of .
(OR a path difference of 2 )
L
13. Air wedge : Expression for fringe width
2d
Where is wave length of light, L is length of the wedge, d is diameter of the specimen.
14. Newton’s rings: (a) Reflected system (i) Center of Newton’s rings is dark.
2m 1R
(ii) Radius of mth Bright ring rm
2
(iii) Radius of mth Dark ring rm m R where m 0 ,1,2 ……… where R is radius of curvature of the
2m 1 R
(iii) Radius of mth dark ring rm
2
(c) In the reflected System if the Newton’s rings produced by liquid film of refractive index n ,,
2m 1 R
(i) Radius of mth Bright ring rm
2n2
m R
(ii) Radius of mth Dark ring rm
n2
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SPEED OF LIGHT
1. The first attempt to find the speed of light was made by Galielo.
2. The first successful attempt to find the speed of light was made by Danish Astronomer Romer [Foucault
determined the speed of light more accurately]
3. The rotating mirror experiment performed by Michelson is considered as one of the accurate methods of
determination of speed of light.
4. In Michelson rotating mirror experiment (i) Speed of light is calculated using the relation C = 8 fd.
Where f is number of rotation made by the octagonal mirror per second,
d is the distance covered by the light in reaching the telescope from the source.
(ii) Velocity of light in vacuum determined by this method is C 2.9979 108 400 m s
5. According to Einstein’s special theory of relativity.
m0
Mass of the particle moving with velocity V , m
1 v2 /
C2
n1 1 n1 2 n1
(a) n1 1
2
(b) (c) (d) 1
n 2 22 n2 2 n2 2 n2
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9. Oscillating electric field associated with an electro magnetic wave is inclined to the direction of propagation
of the oscillating magnetic field at the following angles respectively.
10. Which of the following not the property of light according to the corpuscular theory
(a) light travels in a straight line (b) the velocity of light does not change on reflection
(c) the velocity of light changes on refraction (d) the velocity of light is more in air than in water
11. The velocity of electromagnetic radiation in free space is
/4
16. In an electromagnetic wave the energy is associated with
(a) varying electric and magnetic field (b) vibrating other particles
(c) vibrating air molecules (d) none of these
17. Newton postulated his corpuscular theory on the basis of
(a) rectilinear propagation of light (b) dispersion of light (c) Newton’s rings (d) colours of thin
film
18. Light appears to travel in straight line because
(a) the wavelength of light is very small (b) the velocity of light is different for different colours
(c) the frequency of light is very small (d) light consists of very small particles
19. The wave theory of light in its original form was first postulated by
(a) Newton (b) Huygen (c) Thomas Young (d) A.J. Fresnel
20. Select the right Option in the following
(a) Christian Huygens, a contemporary of Newton established the wave theory of light by assuming
that light waves were transverse
(b) Maxwell provided the compelling theoretical evidence that light is transverse wave
(c) Thomas Young experimentally Proved the wave behaviour of light and Huygen’s assumption
(d) all the three statements given above correctly answers the question what is light
21. To demonstrate the phenomenon of interference we require
(a) two sources which emits radiations of same frequency
(b) two sources which emits radiations of nearly the same frequency
(c) two sources which emits radiations of same frequency and have the definite phase relationship
(d) two sources which emits radiation of different wavelength
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22. Light from sodium lamp passes through a single narrow slit and then through two close parallel narrow
slits. If you look through the double slit towards the sodium lamp, you will see
(a) a continuous yellow band (b) a continuous blackband
(c) alternate black bands and yellow bands (d) the colours of the rain bow
23. Monochromatic green light of wavelength 5 107 m illuminates a pair of narrow slits 1.0 mm apart the
separation of bright lines on the interference pattern formed on the screen two meter away is
(a) 0.001 mm (b) 0.25 mm (c) 0.4 mm (d) 1.0 mm
24. Two sources of sound are said to be coherent if
(a) they produce sound of equal intensity (b) they produce sound of equal wavelength
(c) they produce sound waves of vibrating with same phase
(d) they produce sound waves with zero or constant phase difference at all instant of time
25. Fringe width observed in young’s double slit experiment is . If the frequency of the source is doubled. The
27. Two waves of equal amplitude (a) have a phase difference of at a point. Resultant amplitude at that point
will be
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32. A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths 6500 A o and 5200 A o is used to obtain interference fringes in
young’s double slit experiment. Suppose the mth bright fringe due to 6500 A o coincides with the n th bright
fringe due to 5200 A o at a minimum distance from the initial maximum then.
(a) m = 5, n = 4 (b) m = 4, n = 5 (c) m = 10, n = 8 (d) m = 8, n = 10
33. Monochromatic light from a narrow slit illuminates two narrow parallel slits producing an interference
pattern on a screen. The separation between the two slits is now doubled and the distance between the
screen and slits is reduced to half. The fringe width is
(a) doubled (b) four times (c) one fourth (d) the same
34. If white light is used in Newton’s rings experiment, the colour observed in the reflected light is
complimentary to that observed in the transmitted light through the same point, this is due to change of
phase in one of the reflected waves
d D
36. In young’s double slit experiment of interference the ratio of intensities of bright band and a dark band is 16
: 1 the ratio of the amplitude of the interfering waves is
(a) 4 (b) 1/ 4 (c) 16 (d) 5/3
37. When a thin metal plate is placed in the path of one of the interfering beams of light
(a) the fringes become brighter (b) the fringes disappear
(c) fringe width increases (d) the fringes becomes blurred
38. In young’s double slit experiment the central bright fringe can be identified
(a) as it is wider than other bright fringes (b) as it is narrower than other bright fringes
(c) as it has a greater intensity than other bright fringes
(d) by using white light instead of monoahromatic light
39. Two coherent light beams of intensity I and 4I are superposed. The maximum and minimum possible
intensity in the resulting beam are
(a) 9 I and 3 I (b) 5 I and I (c) 9 I and I (d) 5 I and 3 I
40. In young’s double slit experiment using light of wavelength 630 nm, 60 fringes are obtained. If light of
wavelength 540 nm is used number of fringes obtained will be
(a) 60 (b) 70 (c) 50 (d) 65
41. In young’s interference experiment light of wavelength 5400 A o and 6000 A o are used in turn the ratio of
fringe width is
(a) 10 : 9 (b) 9 : 10 (c) 3 : 10 (d) 10 : 3
42. In two separate settings of young’s double slit experiment, fringes of equal width are obtained when light
waves of wavelengths in the ratio 2 : 3 are used. If the ratio of slit separation in two cases is 2 : 1. The ratio of
distance between the plane of the slits and screen is
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 3 : 4 (d) 4 : 3
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43. In young’s double slit experiment fringes of width 1.35 mm are obtained, if the entire setup is immersed in
water of RI 1.35. The new fringe width will be
(a) 1.35 mm (b) 1.0 mm (c) 2.70 mm (d) 10 mm
44. In young’s experiment the angular width of central bright fringe is given by
45. When one of the slits of young’s experiment is covered with a transparent sheet of thickness 4.8 mm, the
central fringe shifts to a position originally occupied by the 30 th bright fringe. What should be the thickness
of the sheet if the central fringe has to shift to the position occupied by 20th bright fringe?
(a) 7.6 mm (b) 3.2 mm (c) 3.8 mm (d) 1.6 mm
46. When a stainless steel vessel is heated its surface exhibits colours this is due to
(a) reflection (b) refraction
(c) dispersion (d) interference in thin air film on its surface.
47. In an interference experiment third bright fringe is obtained at a point on the screen with a light of
wavelength 700 nm. What should be the wavelength of the light source in order to obtain 5 th bright fringe at
the same point.
(a) 420 nm (b) 750 nm (c) 630 nm (d) 500 nm
48. In double slit experiment and 1 indicate distance between any two consecutive bright and dark fringes
respectively then
49. In a young’s double slit experiment two coherent sources are 0.6 mm apart and fringes are obtained on a
screen placed one meter away. If it produces a second dark fringe at a distance of 1 mm from central fringe
wavelength of light used is
(a) 400 nm (b) 600 nm (c) 500 nm (d) 450 nm
50. In young’s double slit experiment red light of wavelength 7800 A and blue light of wavelength 5200 A are
used. The value of n for which n 1th blue bright band coincides with nth red band is
52. In young’s double slit experiment if the third dark fringe is formed, opposite to one of the slits the
wavelength of the light is
(a) 9 D d 2 (b) d 2 4D (c) 5D d 2 (d) d 2 5D
54. In young’s double slit experiment the fringe width is . If the entire arrangement is placed in a liquid of
55. Which physcist first of all worked out the speed of light with accuracy?
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
58. Indicate the colour of light which travels through glass with maximum speed.
(a) Yellow (b) red (c) green (d) violet
1. d 2. b 3. b 4. c 5. b 6. a 7. d 8. a 9. c 10. d
11. c 12. d 13. d 14. b 15. b 16. a 17. a 18. a 19. b 20. b
21. c 22. c 23. d 24. d 25. d 26. d 27. d 28. c 29. d 30. d
31. d 32. b 33. c 34. b 35. a 36. d 37. b 38. c 39. c 40. b
41. b 42. a 43. b 44. d 45. b 46. d 47. a 48. c 49. a 50. c
51. a 52. d 53. d 54. b 55. a 56. a 57. b 58. b
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ATOMIC MODELS
Atom Models
1. The first atomic model proposed by J.J Thomson
2. J.J. Thomson discovered the electron
3. Ruther ford discovered the proton
4. Chadwick discovered the neutron
5. The nuclear atom model was proposed by Rutherfod
6. Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom
(a) The first successful atom model was proposed by Bohr
nh
(b) mvr is the quantum condition for the stationary orbits. (where is the orbit number)
2
n
(c) E2 E1 h gives the energy of the photon emitted, in an electron transition from orbit n2 to
n1 n2 n1
n 2 h 2 0
(a) r for n 1, r 0.53 10 10 m
me 2
e2
(a) V for n 1,V 2.19 10 6 ms -1
2 0 nh
c 1
(b) V n 2.19 10 6 / n ms -1 V
137 n
(c) V 1 r (since r n2
e4m
E
8 02 n 2 h 2
13 .6
(for n 1, E 13 .6eV & for any other orbit, E eV )
n2
(b) Energy of the electron in the orbit increases with increases of orbit number n
e2 e4m
(c) KE = and Eo KE
8 0 r 8 o2 n 2 h 2
PE 2KE
e2 2e 4 m
(d) PE
4 0 r 8 02 n 2 h 2
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
1 1 1
10. Expression for wave number R 2 2
n1 n2
(f) The total number of possible transitions from the n th excited state of a normal hydrozen atom
nn 1
is N
2
n1 2
12 In any series : Series limit [Minimum wavelength min
R
n 2 h 2 0
(i) r
mze 2
ze2
(ii) V
2 0 nh
mz 2e 4
(iii) E
8 02 n 2 h 2
1
(iv) T n 2 and f 2
n
(v) 1 Rz 2 1 1 where R 1.097 107 m1
2
n2
2
n1
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
(i) Inorder to quantize the elliptical orbit, sommerfeld introduced the two quantum numbers nr and n
Where n1 radial quantum number n is azimathal quantum number b is semi major axis. n 1,2....... a
is semi minor axis
(a) Concept of spatial quantization : “Along with magnitude the direction (or orientation) of the electron
sh
Ps 2 where s 1 2 spin quantum number]
ml ( 2l 1)
m s 1
2
m m m
j l s
Dual nature
(1) Concept of matter waves : Waves associated with material particles in motion are called matter waves.
h
(2) (a) Wavelength of the wave associated with a particle in motion where m is mass of the particle.
mv
V is velocity of the particle.
(d) De Broglie wavelength depends on mass and speed of the moving particle
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(f) The De Broglie effects are unobhservable in case of macroscopic objects since their wavelength is too
small 10 30 m
(3) G.P. Thomson experiment
(a) This provides the experimental proof for the wave nature of matter
(b) Principle (i) The high energy electrons behaves like a wave
n
2meV
(ii) A thin metallic film (gold foil) consists of a large number of micro crystals acts like a crystal
grating
Rd
(c) Wavelength of the wave associated with electron . Where R is radius of the nth ring, d
nL
is distance between the atomic planes in the gold foil, L id distance of screen from the gold foil.
(4) Electron microscopy
(a) The three important quantities considered in the design of a microscope are
(b) The magnification of about 500 – 1000x with a resolution of about 0.2mm can be achieved by using an
optical/ U.V microcope.
wavelength 10 12 m
(b) Magnetic lenses are used to control the paths of the electrons
(c) There are two types of electron microscopes
(i) Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM) [Ernst Rsska 1931]
(d) Magnification as high as 105 106 x and resolution of about 0.5 nm can be achieved by using
electron microscope
(6) Atomic Force Microscope (AFM) (Binning Quate and Gerber]
(a) It is capable of producing magnification of the order of 10 6 x and resolution of about 10 nm
(b) The main advantage of AFM over SEM is it provides true three dimensional pictures of the
sample surface with a nano meter resolution.
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
Scattering of Light
1 The scattering of light : It is an optical phenomenon in which light spreads in the directions other than the
incident direction by the small particles of the medium
(a) Tyndall effect : The scattering of light in a turbid medium containing foreign particles whose
dimensions are very small compare to the wavelength of light is called tyndall effect
(b) Rayleigh’s law of scattering : The intensity of light scattered by the unit volume of the medium
is
(i) directly proportional to the square of the volume of the particle I v 2
1
(ii) Inversely proportional to the 4th power of the wavelength of light I 2
N V2
I 0 I 0a 02 4 1 cos2 where a is a factor which measure in inhomogenity of the medium,
R
R is distance of t he observer from the scatterer, N 0 is number of particle per unit volume of
the medium.
(a) Coherent Scattering : (i) In this type the wavelength (or frequency) of the scattered photon is same as
that of the incident photon on the scattering particle.
(ii) It occurs when size of the scattering particle is comparable or smaller than the wavelength of the
light
1
(iv) Intensity of the scattered photon may change with wavelength I 2
(v) Example : (A) Rayleigh scattering (B) scattering of light by air molecules
(b) In choherent Scattering : (i) In this type the wavelength of the scattered photo is different from that
of incident photon on the scattering particle.
(ii) It occurs when size of the scattering particle is greater than the wavelength of t he incident light
(iv) Example : (A) Raman Scattering (B) Scattering of light in organic liquids like Benzene, toluene (C)
Compton effect (Scattering of X-rays by matter)
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
(ii) At sun rise or Sun set the Sun and the neighbouring portion both appears Organge red
(c) Due to molecular scattering of sun light by water molecules the sea appears blue
(d) Red light is least scattered by the particles, therefore it is used in danger signals.
4 Raman Effect : (a) In addition to the incident wavelength the light scattered by certainorganic liquids
consists of higher and lower wavelength.
(b) The spectrum of scattered light is called Raman Spectrum
(c) The lines in the Raman spectrum of frequencies longer (shorter wavelength) that of incident are called
antistokes lines.
(d) The lines in the Raman Spectrum of frequencies shorter (longer wave length) that of incident are called
Stokes lines
Laser
1 Laser is an opto-electronic device. It is used to produce highly monochromatic coherent and well collimated
beam of light.
2 The word LASER stands for Light Ampification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation.
3 The first working laser (Ruby laser) was built by Maiman in 1960. [Theory was proposed by Arthgur and
Basor in 1958]
4 The following three conditions must be satisfied in order to achieve lasser action in a system .
(a) Population inversion (b) Existence of metastable state (c) confinement of emitted photons.
(a) Population inversion : “The process by which the number of atoms in the higher energy state is made
more than the number of atoms in the lower energy state is called population inversion.
(i) The number of atoms in the excited state is always very much less than the number of atoms in the
E x E0
ground state N s N a e
KT
(b) Meta stable state : It is the excited state of an atom having life time of about 10 5 s [The normal excited
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
(c) The confinement of emitted photons is done using reflecting mirrors at the ends of the system.
5 Optical Pumping : The process of transferring the atoms from the ground state to the metal stable state of
the system is called optical pumping.
6 Properties of Laser
(a) The laser light is highly monochromatic
(b) The laser light is highly coherent
(c) The laser light is highly directional
(d) The intensity of laser beam is extremely high
7 Photonics : It is the techonology that deals with generation, manipulation, transmission and detection of
photons.
(i) Photonics used photons
(ii) Photonics devices can do most of the things that electronic devices can do
1 When the velocity of an electron increases the de Broglie wavelength of the electron
(a) Increases (b) decreases
(c) remains the same (d) Increases in some cases and decreases in some cases
2 An electron is placed in a uniform electric field as the electron moves its deBroglie wavelength
(a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Remains the same
4 Excitation energy of a hydrogen like ion in its first excitation state is 40.8 eV energy needed to remove the
electron from the ion in ground state is
(a) 40.8 eV (b) 27.2 eV (c) 54.4 eV (d) 13.6 eV
5 Suppose we convert the mass of a proton and a neutron completely into energies E p and E0 respectively,
then E p E0 is
(d) positive or negative depending on from which nucleus the proton and the neutron come form
7 In the Bohr atom model, the electron does not fall into the positive charged nucleus because
(a) Quantum rules do not allow it
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9 Hydrogen atoms are excited to the stationary state designated by the principal quantum number n=3. The
spectral lines emitted by the hydrogen atom as explained from Bohr’s theory will be
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
13 Which state of triply ionized Baryllium (B++++) has the same orbital radius as that of the ground state of
hydrogen
(c) moving with constant velocity (d) moving with continuously changing acceleration
15 Hydrogen atom emits blue light when it changes from n=4 energy level to the n=2 level and which colour of
light would the atom emit when it changes from the n=5 to n=2 level?
(a) Red (b) yellow (c) Green (d) Violet
16 In a Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom let PE represents potential energy and TE represents total energy. In
going to higher level
(a) PE decreases, TE increases (b) PE increases, TE increases
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17 Hydrogen (H) deuterium (D) singly ionized He and doubly ionized. Lithium Li all have one electron
round the nucleus. Consider n=2 to n=1 transition the wavelengths of emitted radiations are 12 3 and
18 The radiation emitted during a transition from the i th energy level to the f th energy level will have
frequency of
(a)
E f Ei (b)
Er
(c)
2 E f Ei (d)
E f Ei
h h h h
(c) integral and half integral values (d) only half integral values
22 Given the wavelength of first member of Lyman series is 1215 A . Find the wavelength of the H B line
(a) 3645 A (b) 6075 A (c) 4860 A (d) 2430 A
23 As the electron in the Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom passes from state n 2 to n 1 , the kinetic energy K and
potential energy U charge as
(a) K two fold U also two fold (b) K four fold, U also four fold
(c) K four – fold, U two fold (d) K two fold, U four fold
24 In terms of Rydberg constant R, the shortest wavelength in Balmer series of hydrogen atom spectrum will
have the wavelength
(a) 1/R (b) 4/R (c) 3/2R (d) 9/4R
25 Frequency of the series limit of Balmer series of hydrogen atom interms of Ryberg constant R and velocity of
light C is
(a) 4 RC (b) 4/RC (c) RC (d) RC/4
26 Ionisation energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV then the energy required to ionize a hydrogen atom in which
the electron is in the second orbit from the nucleus is (in eV)
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27 If E p and Ek are potential and Kinetic energy of the electron in a stationary orbit in the hydrogen atom the
value of E p Ek is
28 The electron and proton the same de Broglie wavelength then the K.E of the electron is
(a) Greater then KE of the proton (b) zero
29 The energy that should be added to an electron to reduce its de Broglie wavelength from 1010 m to
0.5 10 10 m is
(a) equal to the initial energy (b) four times the initial energy
(c) thrice the initial energy (d) twice the initial energy
30 If R is the Rydberg constant for hydrogen, the wave number of the first line in the Lyman series is
(a) 2R (b) R/2 (c) 3R/4 (d) R/4
31 The electron in a hydrogen atoms makes a transition from n n1 to n n2 state the time period of the
electron in the initial state is eight times that in the final state. The possible value of n1 and n2 are
32 If radiations of all wavelengths from ultraviolet to infrared is passed through hydrogen gas at room
temperature, absorption lines will be observed in
(a) Lyman series (b) Balmer series
(c) Lyman series, Balmer series and Paschen series (d) None of these
33 Let the potential energy of hydrogen atom in the ground state be zero. Then its total energy in the first
excited state will be
(a) 13.6 eV (b) 10.2 eV (c) 27.2 eV (d) 23.8 eV
34 The ratio of the maximum to the minimum wave lengths in Balmer series of H spectrum is
(a) 9 : 5 (b) 36 : 5 (c) 27 : 15 (d) 144 : 7
35 If de Broglie wavelength is 0 for protons accelerated through 100 V that for particles accelerated through
36 An particle of energy 5 MeV is scattered through 180 by a fixed uranium nucleus the distance of
closest approach is of the order of
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39 With increasing quantum number the energy different between adjacent levels in atoms
(a) decreases (b) increases (c) Remains constant
40 The energy of the electrons in the first Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV the energy of the electron in
the 4th orbit is
(a) -3.4 eV (b) 1.5 eV (c) =0.85 eV (d) -13.6 eV
41 The ionization potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 V. Hydrogen atoms in the ground state are excited by
monoatomic light of energy 12.1 eV. The spectral lines emitted by hydrogen atoms according to Bohr’s
theory will be
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four
45 In a hydrogen atom the angular momentum of the electron in stationary orbit is found to be 3h then
46 The difference in angular momentum of the electron in hydrogen atom in two successive orbit is
n 1h
(a) h 2 (b) h (c) h 2 (d)
2
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(a) Lyman series (b) Balmer series (c) Brackett series (d) Paschen series
48 The ratio of frequencies of the shortest wavelengths of Balmer series and Lyman series of hydrogen atom is
(a) 5: 27 (b) 27 : 5 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1
49 In a hypothetical Bohr hydrogen atom the mass of the electron is double the energy E0 and radius r of the
a0
(a) E0 27.2 eV, r (b) E0 27.2 eV , r0 a0
2
a0
(c) E0 13.6 eV, r (d) E0 13.6 eV, r0 a0
2
51 An electron , a proton and an alpha particle move with same velocity which one has the longest wavelength?
(a) Electron (b) Proton
53 Suppose electrons and protons have same de Broglie wavelength then they will have same.
(a) Energy (b) Momentum (c) angular momentum (d) velocity
54 The minimum energy required to excite a hydrogen atom from its ground state is
(a) 10.2 eV (b) 1.9 eV (c) 0.65 eV (d) 13.6 eV
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57 In the Bohr model of the hydrogen atom. Let R,V and E represent the radius of the orbit, the speed of the
electron and total energy of the electron respectively. Which of the following quantity is proportional to the
quantum number n ?
(a) RE (b) VR (c) R/E (d) E/V
58 A particle of mass M at rest decays in to two masses m1 and m2 with non zero velocities. The particles
1 2 is
m1 m2 m1
(a) (b) 1 : 1 (c) (d)
m2 m1 m2
59 For an electron in the second orbit of Bohr Hydrogen atom, the moment of linear momenth is
h 2h
(a) (b) (c) h (d) 2h
60 If elements with principal quantum number n 4 were not allowed in nature, the number of possible
elements would have been
(a) 64 (b) 4 (c) 32 (d) 60
61 The experiment which proves the positive charges of the atom is concentrated with in a nucleus of size
64 The hydrogen atom is in d- state for this state value of m1 are [magnetic orbital quantum number]
(a) 2, 1, 0 (b) -1, 0 1 (c) -2, -1, 0, +1, +2 (d) -3, -1, 0, 1, 3
65 A hydrogen atom is in P state for this state value of j (total angular quantum number) are
(a) 5/3, 3/2, ½ (b) 3/2, ½ (c) -1/2, +1/2, 3/2 (d) -1/2 , -3/2
67 A cathode ray tube has a P.D of V volts between the cathode and anode then the speed v of the cathode rays
is given by
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(d) produce diffraction when made to pass through thin crystal grating
69 We know that cathode ray gain KE whey they are accelerated by an electric field if the cathode rays are
subjected to the action of magnetic field. They their
(a) energy increases (b) momentum increases
(c) the fluctuating apparent position of the star being slightly different from the actual position of state
71 When a low lying air craft passes over head, we some time notice a slight shakening of picture on our TV
screen this is due to
(a) Interference of direct signal received by the antenna with the weak signal reflected by the
passing air craft
(b) Vibrations created by the passage of aircraft
(c) Change of magnetic flux occurring due to the passage of air craft
(d) Diffraction of the signal received from the antenna
72 If 1 and 2 are the wavelengths of the first members of the Lyman and Paschen series respectively then 1
74 Which of the following figure represents the variation of particle momentum and associated de Broglie
wavelength ?
(a) 3 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 4
75 In Thomson experiment to confirm the existence of electron waves accelerating voltage is increased from
1000 volt to 16000 volt radius R of the particular ring diffraction pattern becomes
(a) 16 R (b) R/16 (c) R/4 (d) 4R
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76 Out put from ruby laser is due to transition from meta stable state to ground state of
(a) Aluminium atom (b) Cr atom
82 In Sommer field’s atomic model, corresponding to principal quantum number n 3 . There will be
(a) 3 elliptical orbits (b) 3 – circular orbit
(c) 1 circular and 2 elliptical orbits (d) 1 elliptical and 2 circular orbits
83 In Ramen spectrum spectral line having frequencies greater than incident frequencies are called
(a) Rayleigh lines (b) Strokes line (c) anti stokes lines
84 At sun rise or at sun set sun appears to be reddish while at mid day it looks white, this is because
(a) Scattering due to dust particle and air molecules causes this phenomenon
(b) The sun is cooler at sun rise or at sun set
(c) Refraction causes this phenomenon
(d) Diffraction sends red rays to the Earth at these times
85 A piece of cloth looks red in sun slight, if it is held in the blue portion of a solar spectrum it will appear
(a) red (b) black (c) blue (d) white
86 Suppose an electron in attracted towards the origin by a force k/r where is a constant and r is the distance of
the electron from the origin. By appearing Bohr model to this system, the radius of the n th orbital of the
electron is found to be rn and the kinetic energy of the electron to be Tn . Then which of the following is
true?
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
1
(a) Tn , ro n2 (b) Tn n, ro n2
n
1
(c) T0 independent n, rn n (d) Tn , ro n
n
87 If an electron in any hydrogen atom jumps from an orbit n1 3 to an orbit with level n f 2 , the frequency
36C CR 5RC 6C
(a) (b) v (c) v (d) v
5R 6 36 R
Answers
1. b 2. b 3. c 4. c 5. c 6. d 7. a 8. b 9. b 10. b
11. b 12. c 13. b 14. d 15. d 16. b 17. a 18. a 19. a 20. d
21. c 22. c 23. b 24. b 25. d 26. b 27. a 28. a 29. c 30. c
31. b 32. c 33. d 34. a 35. c 36. c 37. d 38. d 39. a 40. c
41. c 42. c 43. a 44. b 45. c 46. a 47. b 48. c 49. a 50. d
51. a 52. c 53. b 54. a 55. b 56. a 57. b 58. b 59. a 60. d
61. a 62. a 63. d 64. c 65. b 66. c 67. c 68. d 69. d 70. c
71. a 72. c 73. d 74. a 75. c 76. b 77. d 78. a 79. a 80. d
81. a 82. c 83. c 84. a 85. c 86. c 87. c
220
Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
Rutherford’s experiments on ray scattering proved conclusively that an atom consists of a positively charged
nucleus in which most of the atomic mass is concentrated. After Chadwick’s discovery of the neutron, it was
postulated that the nucleus contains protons and neutrons.
Atomic nucleus
The nucleus contains protons and neutrons (collectively called nucleons). Protons are positively charged while
neutrons are electrically neutral. Mass of a neutron is slightly greater than that a proton
m p
1.6726 10 27 kg and mn 1.6749 10 27 kg . The number of protons in the nucleus is called the atomic
number Z of the atom. The number of protons and neutrons present in the nucleus is called the mass number A of
the atom. A Z gives the number of neutrons in the nucleus. The atomic nucleus of an atom of atomic number
Z and mass number A is represented as Z X A. X being the chemical symbol of the given element. Thus 92U
236
Nuclei with same atomic number but different mass numbers are called isotopes eg: 6C
11 and 6C
12 . Nuclei
having same mass number but different atomic number are called isobars. Eg: 8O
16 and 7N
16 . Nuclei with same
2. Charge on the nucleus of an atom of atomic number Z is given by q Ze , where e 1.6 10 19 C .
3. Mass of a nucleus is called its nuclear mass. The nuclear mass of an atom of atomic number Z and mass
number A is M Z m p A Z mn , where m p mass of proton and mn mass of neutron.
4. Nuclear density is the density of the nucleus. It is independent of its mass number. Nuclear density is of the
order of 1017 kg m 3 .
5. The resultant angular momentum of a nucleus is called its nuclear spin. It is the resultant of the spin and
orbital momenta of all the protons and neutrons present in it.
Nuclear magnetic moment is the resultant of the magnetic moments of the nucleons. It is related to the spin of the
nucleons.
eh
Nuclear magneton, n 5.05 10 27 JT 1
4m p
221
Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
Einstein showed that mass and energy are interconvertible. He gave the relation E mc 2 . E is the energy
equivalent of the mass m. 1 electron volt is the unit of energy used in Nuclear Physics. 1 eV is the energy gained
by an electron when it is accelerated through a potential difference of 1 V.
Nuclear forces
Nuclear forces are forces that hold the nucleons in a nucleus together. They are the strongest forces in nature.
Mass defect
The rest mass of a stable nucleus is always less than the total mass of the constituent nucleons. The difference
between the sum of the masses of the constituents and the rest mass of the nucleus is known as mass defect.
If M is the experimentally determined mass of a nucleus whose mass number is A and atomic number is Z , then
the mass defect, m Zm p A Z mn M
MA
Packing fraction
A
222
Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
Binding Energy of a nucleus is the energy required to break the nucleus into its constituent particles. Binding
energy of nucleus m c 2 , where m mass defect. Binding energy per nucleon is called specific binding
energy.
1. Nuclei containing even equal number of protons and neutrons are stable while nuclei containing odd and
equal number of protons and neutrons are less stable than their neighbours.
2. Nuclei with mass numbers in the range 50 –120 are found to be very stable.
Nuclear fission
Hahn and Strassman discovered nuclear fission. Nuclear fission is a process in which a heavy nucleus splits into
two lighter nuclei of comparable masses releasing two or three neutrons and energy. A typical fission reaction is
represented by the equation:
92 U
235
0n1
92 U
236
54Xe
140
38Sr 94 20 n1 Energy
A chain reaction is a process in which the number of neutrons produced in fission goes on multiplying until all
the material disintegrates.
Critical size
A fissionable material of particular size for which chain reaction occurs at a constant rate is called critical size.
Nuclear reactor is a device in which a self-sustained yet controlled nuclear reaction can take place. Main parts of
a nuclear reactor are:
(4) neutron reflector (5) cooling system and (6) safety system
A moderator is a material used to slow down neutrons. It should have low atomic mass and not absorb neutrons.
Graphite, heavy water and Berylium are good moderators.
Control rods: Materials that absorb neutrons are used to control the chain reaction cadmium or boron are good
absorbers of neutrons.
223
Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
Nuclear Fusion is a process in which two light nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus with the release of
energy. A typical fusion reaction is represented by the equation
1H
2
1H2 2He3 0n1 Energy
Nuclear fusion reactions take place only at very high temperatures. Hence they are also called thermonuclear
reactions.
Stellar energy
Bethe and Weizsacker provided a satisfactory explanation of the origin of solar energy on the basis of fusion of
hydrogen nuclei. Four hydrogen nuclei combine together to form a helium nucleus releasing energy. The set of
reactions is referred to as carbon cycle or proton – proton cycle.
The total energy released in a typical fission reaction is much more than that released in a typical fusion reaction.
But the energy released per unit mass in fusion is much more than that released in fission.
Radioactivity
The phenomenon in which heavy nuclei disintegrate spontaneously with the emission of certain radiations is
called radioactivity. Radioactivity was discovered by Becquerel. Marie and Pjerre Curie discovered two
radioactive elements namely polonium and radium. Radioactivity nuclei emit 3 types of radiations known as
rays, rays and rays. These three types of radiations are collectively known as Becquerel rays.
Properties of rays
1. They are positively charged. An particle is a helium nucleus and consists of 2 protons and 2 neutrons. It
carries a charge + 2e and has a mass nearly four times that of a proton.
2. They are deflected by electric and magnetic fields.
3. They are emitted with a velocity c 20 where c is the speed of light in free space.
4. They ionise gases through which they pass. Their ionizing power is about 100 times that of rays and 10,000
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Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
Properties of rays
3. All particles emitted by a radioactive nucleus do not have the same velocity.
4. Their ionizing power is about 1/100th that of rays and about 100 times that of rays.
5. Their penetrating power is larger than that of rays. They penetrate thin metal foils.
6. particle is emitted by the nucleus of a radioactive substance. An electron does not exist in the nucleus. It is
formed at the instant of emission due to the conversion of a neutron into a proton, an electron and an
antineutrino.
Properties of rays
1. They are electromagnetic waves of wavelengths 0.1 A to 0.01 A . Hence they travel with the velocity of light.
2. They are not charged. They are not deflected by electric and magnetic fields.
3. They ionise gases through which they pass. The ionization produced is 1/100 th that of rays and 1/10,000 th
that of rays.
4. They are more penetrating than and rays. They can pass through an iron plate 30 cm thick.
When a radioactive nucleus emits an particle, the new element formed has an atomic number less by two and
mass number less by four than that of the parent nucleus. Thus the daughter element falls in a group two
columns to the left of the parent element in the periodic table.
For ex: 92 U
238
90Th 234 2He4
When a radioactive nucleus emits a particle, the new element formed has the same mass number and atomic
number one greater than that of the parent nucleus. The daughter element falls in a group one column to the
right of the parent element in the periodic table.
For eg: 90 Th
234
91Pa 234 1e
0
225
Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
Neutrino hypothesis
All rays emitted from a given radioactive nucleus do not have the same energy. To explain this, Pauli proposed
that together with the electron another particle called the neutrino was emitted during decay. Neutrino has no
n p e ( - antineutrino)
p n e u ( - neutrino)
dNt dNt
Nt or Nt
dt dt
No number of nucleii at t 0
1 1
Radioactive decay is exponential. When t . Nt No 0.37 No
e
Decay constant of a radioactive substance is the reciprocal of the time during which the number of nucleii in the
sample reduces to 1/e or 37% of its initial value.
dNt
Activity of a radioactivity sample is its rate of disintegration. That is A Nt
dt
Units of activity
1. S.I. unit of activity is becquerel (Bq). 1 Bq = 1 disintegration/s
226
Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
Half life T1 2 of a radioactive sample is the time taken for half the number of nucleii to disintegrate.
T1 2 0.693 .
1
1. After n half lives, number of nuclei remaining unchanged in the sample is n N o .
2
Mean life of a radioactive sample is the ratio of the total life times of all the individual nuclei to the total
number of nuclei present in the sample.
1
and T1 2 0.693
Artificial radioactivity
Jolit and Curie discovered artificial radioactivity. When boron is bombarded with particles, an unstable nucleus
5B
10
2He4 7 N13 0n1
7N
13
6C13 1e0 (half life = 10.1 minutes)
7N
13 is the radio isotope of nitrogen. Radio isotopes are used in agriculture, industry biology, medicine and
geology.
227
Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
5. A deuterium nucleus and helium nucleus are placed in the same electric field. The acceleration of the helium
is
(a) greater than that of deuterium (b) zero
6. Suppose if we convert the mass of the proton and a neutron completely into energies Ep and En
respectively, the E p En is
(d) positive or negative depending on from which nucleus the proton and the neutron come from
7. The difference between the total mass of two neutrons and two protons and the mass of a helium nucleus is
0.031 amu. If this mass is completely converted into energy it will be equivalent to (take 1 amu
1.6 1027 kg )
(a) 4.46 1012 J (b) 15.3 1011 J (c) 9 1013 J (d) 2.7 1012 J
8. If a carbon nucleus 6C
12 and an oxygen nucleus 8O
16 are both placed in the same electric field the
(c) thrice that of carbon (d) twenty seven times that of carbon
9. An atom of mass number 15 and atomic number 7 captures an particle and then emits a proton. The mass
number and atomic number of the resulting atom will be
228
Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
10. Binding energy per nucleon for O 6 is 7.99 MeV and for O12 it is 7.95 MeV. Energy required to remove one
neutron form O 17 is
(a) 7.31 MeV (b) 0.06 MeV (c) 15.94 MeV (d) 0.04 MeV
12. A radioactive nucleus of mass number A splits into two nuclei whose mass numbers are in the ratio 8 : 5.
The ratio of radii of the nuclei is
13. Two protons can attract each other when they are
(a) 1010 m apart (b) 1015 m apart (c) 1015 m part (d) 1015 m apart
14. If two nuclei of masses m1 and m2 fuse to form a nucleus of mass m with the liberation of some energy.
Then
(a) m1 m2 m (b) m1 m2 m (c) m1 m2 m (d)
m1 m2 m
15. As the mass number increases, the quantity which remains same is
(a) volume (b) mass (c) binding energy (d) density
16. The radius of a nucleus with mass number 16 is 3 fm. The radius of another nucleus with mass number 128
is
(a) 6 fm (b) 12 fm (c) 18 fm (d) 24 fm
229
Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
(a) 1.02 KeV (b) 1.02 MeV (c) 1.02 BeV (d) 1.02 eV
23. The specific binding energy of C 12 is 7.86 MeV and that for C 13 is 7.47 MeV. The energy required to remove
24. Nuclear energy is released in fusion since binding energy per nucleon is
(a) smaller for fusion products than for fusing nuclei
(b) larger for fusion products than for fusing nuclei
(c) same for both fusion products and fusing nuclei
(d) can’t say
25. A nuclear reactor has a power of 16 KW. If the energy released per fission is 200 MeV. Then the number of
fissions occurring per second
26. A nuclear reactor in which U 235 is used as fuel uses 2 Kg of U 235 in 30 days. Then power output of the
reactor will be (given : energy released per fission = 185 MeV)
(a) 43.5 MW (b) 58.5 MW (c) 69.6 MW (d) 73.1 MW
27. Particles which can be added to the nucleus without changing its chemical properties are
(a) electron (b) proton (c) neutron (d) - particles
28. Binding energy of deuteron is 2.23 MeV. Its mass defect in amu is
(a) - 0.0012 (b) 0.0012 (c) 0.0024 (d) – 0.0024
(a) 9 107 ergs (b) 9 107 J (c) 9 1010 J (d) 3 107 ergs
230
Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
36. The nucleons are at a separation of one fm the net nuclear forces between them is F1 if both are neutrons F2 if
both are protons and F3 if one is proton and other is neutron. Then
38. The ratio of the diameters of atom to nucleus is bout 105 . Considering the density of ordinary matter to be 1
gm/cc the density of nuclear matter should be of the order of (in gm/cc)
39. The mass defect of an atom of mass M , atomic number Z and mass number A, is given by
(a) M A (b) M ZA
(c) A Z M p
(d) ZM p A Z mn Zme M
40. Sharavathy hydroelectric project is expected to produce about 1000 MW of power this is equivalent to the
conversion of a certain mass of matter into energy completely say in a reactor. This amount is
(a) 4 Kg per second (b) 4 tons per hour
(c) 0.01 mg per second (d) 10.2 mg per second
41. The size of the nucleus is approximately given by the formula R R0 A1 3 where R0 1.3 fermi. What is
231
Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
43. Avagadro number is 6.023 1023 per gm molecule. The atomic weight of silver is 107. The number of atoms
per gram silver is approximately?
(d) water at 4 o C
45. Gamma rays are
(a) single ionized gas atoms (b) helium nuclei
(c) mean life and half life are equal (d) none of those
50. The average number of the atoms disintegrated in a short interval of time due to radioactivity is
(a) directly proportional to the number of atoms present
232
Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
54. The radioactive substances have their activity in the ratio 1:3:5. The substances are heated to double the
temperature and double the pressure. Then activities will be in the ratio
(a) 5 : 3 : 1 (b) 3 : 1 : 5 (c) 3 : 5 : 1 (d) 1 : 3 : 5
57. When a proton in a radio active nucleus becomes a neutron, the emitted particle is
(a) meson (b) positron (c) electron (d) neutrino
(a) a helium ion (b) a -particle (c) a helium atom (d) a hydrogen atom
59. Mean life of radio active element is one year. Then its half life in years is
(a) 0.5 (b) 0.8 (c) 1 (d) 0.693
60. An atom of mass number A and atomic number Z emits successively an - particle, a - particle and a -
ray. The mass number and atomic number of the end product are
(a) A – 1, Z – 4 (b) A, Z + 1 (c) A – 4, Z – 2 (d) A – 4, Z - 1
61. When an atom emits a -particle, the new atom formed is …………..of the parent atom
233
Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
64. Fraction of the sample decayed in a time equal to the average life
e 1 1 e 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
e e 1 e e
65. The decay constant of radioactive substance is . Its half life is given by
(a) log10 2 (b) loge 2 (c) log 2 10 (d) 1
69. A given sample contains 16g of radioactive material whose half life is 2 days. The quantity of radioactive
material that remains after 32 days will be
1 1 1
(a) g (b) g (c) g (d) less than 1 mg
2 8 4
70. What is the percentage of original radioactive atoms is left after 3 half lives
(a) 3 % (b) 12.5 % (c) 8 % (d) 15%
71. Half life of a radioactive material is 30 min. If the radiation emitted by if have intensity 32 times the
permissible safe level, minimum time after which one can work with the material safely is
(a) 2 hr (b) 2.5 hr (c) 3 hr (d) 3.5 hr
(a) 91 Pa
234
92U 234 (b) 82 Pb
214
83Bi214
(c) 92U
238
90Th234 (d) 90 Th
234
83Pa234
73. Two radioactive substances A and B initially contain equal number of atoms. A has half life 1 day and B has
half life 2 days. After 4 day the ratio of activity of A to that of B is
(a) 1 :2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 :1 (d) 1 : 4
234
Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
74. Decay constant of radium is 1.07 104 per year. Its half life is approximately
(a) 2520 years (b) 6472 years (c) 7010 years (d) 8900 years
77. A radio active sample with a half life 1 year has activity 2 Ci . Its activity 2 years earlier was
78. A radio active material consists of two types of radioactive species of populations N1 and N2 each decaying
79. Count rate for the radiations of a radioactive material of half life 30 min decreases to 5s 1 after one hour.
The initial count rate was
80. In the reaction Z X A Z 1Y A Z 1P A4 nuclear radiations are emitted in the sequence
81. Amount of original radioactive atom left after 5 half lives will be
(a) 20 % (b) 10% (c) 5% (d) 3%
82. Decay constant of radioactive isotope of Co57 is 3 108 s1 . Number of disintegrations taking place in one
83. Half life of a radioactive element X is same as the mean life of another radioactive element Y. If initially both
have same number of atoms then
(a) X – decay faster than Y (b) X and Y decay at same rate
(c) Y – decay faster than X (d) initial decay rare of X and Y are same
84. Two radioactive materials X1 and X2 have decay constants 10 and respectively. Initially they have the
1
same number of nuclei. Then the ratio of the number of nuclei of X1 to that of X 2 will be , after at time 1 e
e
1 1 1 11
(a) (b) (c) (d)
9 10 11 10
235
Department of Physics, S J C Institute of Technology, Chickballapur
85. Half life of a substances is 20 minutes what is the time between 33% decay and 67% decay?
(a) 20 min (b) 25 min (c) 30 min (d) 40 min
86. Distance of closest approach when 5 MeV proton approaches a gold nucleus is
(a) 16 fm (b) 23 fm (c) 39 fm (d) 47 fm
87. Fraction of the element decayed during its mean life will be
1 log e
(a) e (b) 1/e (c) 1 (d)
e N
88. Radioactive decay occurs as follows. If a certain mass of radon – 220 is allowed to decay in a certain
container after 5 minutes the element with greatest mass will be
220
86 Rn 82 Pb216 2 He4 [Half life = 55s]
84 P0
216
82 Pb212 2 He4 [Half life = 0.168]
82 Pb
212
83B212 1e
0 [Half life = 10.6 hours]
Answers
1. a 2. b 3. c 4. b 5. c 6. c 7. a 8. a 9. a 10. a
11. b 12. d 13. d 14. c 15. d 16. a 17. a 18. a 19. b 20. d
21. b 22. a 23. b 24. b 25. a 26. b 27. c 28. c 29. b 30. d
31. a 32. d 33. a 34. d 35. a 36. d 37. b 38. c 39. d 40. c
41. a 42. c 43. b 44. c 45. d 46. c 47. d 48. d 49. a 50. a
51. b 52. a 53. a 54. d 55. d 56. d 57. b 58. a 59. c 60. d
61. c 62. d 63. a 64. b 65. b 66. d 67. c 68. d 69. b 70. b
71. b 72. c 73. d 74. b 75. d 76. d 77. d 78. b 79. a 80. d
81. c 82. 83. c 84. a 85. a 86. b 87. c 88. c
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