Class 11 NEET Consolidated Test 1

Test Instructions

Duration: 180 mins

Q1

If a unit vector is represented by 0.5î + 0.8ĵ + ck̂,then the value of C is

(A) 1

√
(B) 0.11

√
(C) 0.01

(D) 0.39

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1
Q2

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2
Q3

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Q4

If the magnitude of sum of two vectors is equal to the magnitude of difference of the
two vectors, the angle between these two vectors is

(A) 0o

(B) 30o

(C) 40o

(D) 90o

3
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Q5

Two vectors A and B have magnitudes 4 units and 3 units respectively. Find |A − B|, if
the angle between two vectors is 0o .

(A) 1 unit

(B) 2 units

(C) 3 units

(D) 5 units

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Q6

−→ −→ −−→ −→ −→
In the figure. BA , AC and BC are shown . Find the resultant of BA and AC

4
(A) 4î + 2ĵ

(B) 6î + 4ĵ

(C) −2î + 4ĵ

(D) −4î − 2ĵ

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Q7

An athlete increases his running speed from 9 km/h to 18 km/h in 1.5 s, the
acceleration (in m/s2 ) of the athlete in that interval is

(A) 1m/s2

(B) 1.25m/s2

5
(C) 3.5m/s2

(D) 9m/s2

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Q8

Three forces acting on a body are shown in the figure. To have the resultant force only
along the y-direction, the magnitude of minimum additional force needed is

(A) 0.5N

(B) 1.5N

√
(C) 3
4 N

6
 √
(D) 3 3
2 N

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Q9

What is the resolved form for a vector in XY plane which is 5 units in length and is
inclined at an angle of 45 degrees to the X axis?

(A) √5 î
2
+ √5
2
ĵ

(B) √1 î
2
+ √1
2
ĵ

(C) 10
√
2
î + 10
√
2
ĵ

√ √
(D) 10
√ 2 î
5
+ 10
√ 2
5
ĵ

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Q10

A velocity vector of 20 m/s is making an angle of 60 degrees with X axis. Find the
magnitude of the horizontal component of the velocity.

(A) 10 m/s

(B) 6.67 m/s

(C) 5 m/s

7
(D) 3.33 m/s

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Q11

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Q12

If ~a − ~b + ~c = 9î + 8ĵ , ~a = 2î + 7ĵ and ~b = 3~i − 2ĵ, find ~c

(A) 10î − 10ĵ

(B) î − 10ĵ

(C) 10î + ĵ

(D) 10î − ĵ

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8
Q13

Find the unit vector in the direction of ~a = 6î + 8ĵ

(A) 7
25 î + 24
25 ĵ

(B) 45
53 î + 28
53 ĵ

(C) 53 î + 83 ĵ

(D) 53 î + 45 ĵ

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Q14

Find the direction(angle made with the positive x-axis)of a vector,A

~ = 3î + 4ĵ.

(A) 15o

(B) 37o

(C) 53o

(D) 87o

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9
Q15

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Q16

The position vector of the particle moving in a plane is given by, ~r = 2t2 î + 5t ĵ Find
the displacement between t =1 and t = 3 seconds.

(A) −16î − 10ĵ

(B) 16î + 10ĵ

(C) 20î + 20ĵ

10
(D) −20î + 20ĵ

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Q17

The velocity of the water waves depends on their wavelength λ, the density of the water
ρ and the acceleration due to gravity g. Which of the following represent the correct
relationship between them?

(A) v 2 = kλρg

(B) v 2 = kλ2 ρg 1/2

(C) v 2 = kλg

(D) v 2 = kλ3 ρ1/2 g −1/2

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Q18

The van der Wall's equation for a real gas is(P + Va2 )(V − b) = RT Where P is pressure,
V is the volume, T is the temperature and 0 a, b and R0 are the constants. The dimension
of 0 a0 is

(A) [M 1 L−1 T −2 ]

(B) [M 0 L3 T 0 ]

11
(C) [M 1 L5 T −2 ]

(D) [M 1 L1 T −2 ]

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Q19

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Q20

A car initially at rest accelerates uniformly up to a speed of 36 km/h in 10 s, it covers a

distance of

(A) 50 m

(B) 100 m

(C) 140 m

12
(D) 200 m

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Q21

149 g of potassium chloride (KCl) is dissolved in 10 L of an aqueous solution. Calculate

the molarity of the solution. (The atomic weight of K is 39 u and Cl is 35.5 u)

(A) 0.1 M
(B) 0.05 M
(C) 0.2 M
(D) 0.4 M

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Q22

The mass of BaCO3 produced when the excess of CO2 is bubbled through a solution of
0.205 moles of Ba(OH)2 is ______. (Atomic number of Ba = 137 u, C = 12 u, O =
16 u and H = 1 u)

(A) 81.28 g
(B) 40.38 g
(C) 20.25 g
(D) 162 g

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13
Q23

(A) C10 H8

(B) C14 H10

(C) C18 H14

(D) C12 H10

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Q24

Calculate the total number of electrons in 2 moles of nitrate ion NO−

3 .
 

(A) 26 NΛ
(B) 64 NΛ
(C) 52 NΛ
(D) 32 NΛ

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Q25

One atom of an element weighs 3.98 × 10-23 g. Its atomic mass is:

(A) 18 amu
(B) 35 amu

14
(C) 24 amu
(D) 108 amu

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Q26

N
Calculate the weight of H2 SO4 present in 150 ml of H2 SO4 .
7

(A) 1.05 g
(B) 112 g
(C) 115 g
(D) 0.105 g

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Q27

A 100 cm3 solution is prepared by dissolving 2 g of NaOH in water. The normality of

the solution is ______.

N
(A)
2
N
(B)
20
N
(C)
200
N
(D)
2000

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15
Q28

(A) 170
(B) 337
(C) 261
(D) 143

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Q29

A bivalent metal has an equivalent weight of 12. The molecular weight of its oxide will
be ______ g/mol.

(A) 24
(B) 34
(C) 36
(D) 40

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Q30

Molarity of 1 g H2 SO4 solution in 1 L water is nearly ______.

(Mass number of H, S and O are 1, 32 and 16 respectively)

(A) 0.1
(B) 0.20

16
(C) 0.05
(D) 0.01

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Q31

2 mol of H2 S and 11.2 L SO2 at NTP react to form X mol of sulphur according to the
equation SO2 + 2H2 S → 3S + 2H2 O. Then, the X is ______.

(A) 1.5
(B) 3
(C) 11.2
(D) 6

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Q32

Calculate the number of atoms present in 52 amu of He.

(A) 13 × 1023

(B) 1.3 × 1023

(C) 13

(D) 103

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17
Q33

(A) 43.52 g
(B) 39.62 g
(C) 46.00 g
(D) 35.73 g

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Q34

Under similar conditions, oxygen and nitrogen are taken in the same mass.
The ratio of their volume will be ______.

(A) 7:8
(B) 3:5
(C) 6:5
(D) 9:2

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Q35

The splitting of spectral lines when atoms are subjected to strong electric field is called
______.

18
(A) Zeeman effect
(B) Stark effect
(C) decay
(D) disintegration

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Q36

Transition of an electron from n = 2 to n = 1 level results (for a H atom) in:

(A) IR spectrum
(B) UV spectrum
(C) Visible spectrum
(D) X-ray spectrum

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Q37

The potential energy of an electron in the hydrogen atom is -6.8 eV. Indicate in which
excited state the electron is present?

(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) Fourth

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19
Q38

During Millikan's oil drop experiment, out of the following, which is not a possible
charge on oil droplet?

(A) 1.6 × 10-19 C

(B) 2.4 × 10-19 C
(C) 3.2 × 10-19 C
(D) 4.8 × 10-19 C

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Q39

The wave number of radiation of wavelength 500 nm is:

(A) 5 × 10-7 m-1

(B) 0.2 × 107 m-1
(C) 2 × 106 m-1
(D) 500 × 10-9 m-1

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Q40

Which of the following statements is false regarding the photoelectric effect?

(A) Photoelectric effect is not observed below threshold frequency.

(B) Electrons can be ejected only if the light is of sufficiently short wavelength.
(C) The wavelength limit sufficient for the ejection of electrons is the samefor all metals.
(D) The current increases with increasing intensity of the light, provide υ>υ0 .

20
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Q41

The sum total of all the chemical reactions occurring in our body is?

(A) anabolism
(B) catabolism
(C) metabolism
(D) none of these

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Q42

ICBN stands for

(A) International Code for Biological Naming

(B) International Centre for Botanical Nomenclature
(C) Indian Code for Biological Nomenclature
(D) International Code for Botanical Nomenclature

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Q43

Assertion: The process of classification of organisms is taxonomy.

21
Reason: It is merely based on the external features of organisms.

(A) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

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Q44

The basic requirement for placing an organism in various categories is the knowledge of

(A) Characters of an individual

(B) Characters of group of organisms
(C) Binomial nomenclature
(D) Both A and B

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Q45

In a taxonomic hierarchy, on moving from species to kingdom, the number of common

characteristics

(A) will increase

(B) remain same
(C) will decrease
(D) may increase or decrease

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Q46

A store house of collected plant specimens that are dried, pressed and preserved on
sheets is a?

(A) Herbarium
(B) Botanical garden
(C) Zoological park
(D) Catalogue

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Q47

Biological museums have collection of?

(A) Preserved plant specimens

(B) Preserved animal specimens
(C) Live plants and animals
(D) Both A and B

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Q48

Match items given in Column-I with those in Column-II and select the correct option
given below.

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Q49

Among the following which one contains information on any one taxon?
(A) Flora (B) Monograph
(C) Manual
(D) Catalogue

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Q50

Assertion: The taxonomical keys are based on the contrasting characters.

Reason: Each statement in the key is called a couplet.

(A) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true

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Q51

Earlier classification system included bacteria, BGA (blue green algae) fungi, mosses,
ferns under 'Plants'on basis of

(A) Mode of nutrition

(B) Body organisation amp; nuclear structure
(C) Presence of cell wall
(D) Nature of cell wall.

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Q52

Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in having?

(A) Definite nuclear structure

(B) Cell wall structure
(C) Adaptability cytoplasmic concentration
(D) Some membranous cell organelles

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Q53

The diatoms do not easily decay like most of the other algae because?

(A) They have highly siliceous wall

(B) They have water proof cells
(C) Their cell wall are mucilaginous
(D) Cell wall is virus-resistant

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Q54

Which of the following statements about Euglena is true?

(A) Euglenoids are flagellates

(B) Euglena placed in continuous darkness loses their photosynthetic activity and die
(C) The pigments of Euglena are quite different from those of green plants
(D) Euglena is a marine protest

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Q55

Protozoans are not included in kingdom Animalia because

(A) Mostly asymmetrical

(B) Unicellular eukaryotes
(C) Heterotrophic nature
(D) Multicellular prokaryotes

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Q56

Many fungi are in

a ssociationwithphotosyntheticorganismstof ormmycorrhizaeorlichens
. (A)P arasitic(B)Symbiotic(C)P hotosynthetic(D)Saprobic

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26
Q57

In Phycomycetes sexual reproduction occurs by

(A) Isogamy and anisogamy

(B) lsogamy, oogamy
(C) Isogamy, anisogamy and oogamy
(D) Oogamy and anisogamy

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Q58

Sexual reproduction is found in all except

(A) Deuteromycetes
(B) Ascomycetes
(C) Phycomycetes
(D) Basidiomycetes

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Q59

How many of following term is correct about Animalia - Heterotroph,

eukaryotic,prokaryotic, unicellular, multicellular, store food as glycogen, presence
ofelaborated neuromotor mechanism without any exception, embryological
development?

(A) 6
(B) More than 6
(C) 5

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(D) Less than 3

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Q60

The infection material of viruses is/are?

(A) Protein coat

(B) Genetic material
(C) Nucleoprotein
(D) All of these

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Q61

Fusion between one large static femalegametes and smaller motile male gamete is
termed as a sseenis (A)Isogamous,Spirogyra(B)Oogamous,V olvox(C)Anisogamous,F ucus(D)Oogamous,U lothrix
.

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Q62

Choose incorrect statement about green alga.

(A) The chlorophyll localised in definite chloroplast

(B) Spirogyra have spiral chloroplast
(C) Most member have one or more storage bodies i.e. pyrenoid localised in chloroplast
(D) The cell wall is made of outer layer that is of cellulose and inner layer of pectose

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Q63

The main plant body of bryophyte is

A t hatproduce
B . (A)A=diploidB=gametes(B)A=haploidB=gametes(C)A=haploidB=spores(D)A=diploidB=spores

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Q64

In Marchantia

(A) Male and Female sex organs are produced on same thalli
(B) Male and female sex organs are produced on different thalli
(C) Gametophytes is differentiated into foot seta and capsule
(D) Spores geminates to form free ndash; living sporophyte

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Q65

Choose the correct statement from following:

(A) The plant body is differentiated into true root, only true prostrate stem as in
Selaginella and true leaf
(B) The leaves of pteridophytes are small as in Selaginella or macrophyll in ferns.
(C) Pteridophytes possess xylem, phloem
(D) All of these

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29
Q66

Label A, B, C, D, E in following diagram:

(A) A = strobilus, B = rhizome,

(B) A = cone, C = Node, D = internode
(C) A = strobilus, B = rhizome, C = node, D = internode, E = branch
(D) None of these

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Q67

PEN provide

(A) Protection of embryo

(B) Nourishment to embryo
(C) Anchorage to embryo
(D) None of these

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Q68

Bryophytes and Pteridophyte exhibit

(A) Multicellualr sporophyte

(B) Multicellular gametophyte
(C) Unicellular sporophyte
(D) A amp; B both

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Q69

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Q70

Double fertilization does not occur in

(A) Pteridophyte, some gymnosperm,

(B) Monocot, dicot
(C) Dicot, some gymnosperm
(D) Bryophytes, pteridophyte, some gymnosperm amp; monocot

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31
Q71

Which of the following is incorrect?

(A) Some division of labour (activities) occur among the cells in the members of
phylum porifera.
(B) Division of labour (activities) is completely absent among the cells in poriferans.
(C) Open circulatory system is found in Tunicates, hemichordates, and non-cephalopod
molluscs.
(D) All of these

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Q72

Nerve cells and tissue level of organization first appeared in?

(A) coelenterates
(B) ctenophora
(C) chordate
(D) porifera

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Q73

Examine the figures A, B, and C.

In which one of the four options all the animals (Poriferans) are correct?

32
(A) A - Sycon, B - Euspongia, C -Spongilla
(B) A - Euspongia, B - Spongilla, C -Sycon
(C) A - Spongilla, B - Sycon, C -Euspongia
(D) A - Euspongia, B - Sycon, C ndash;Spongilla

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Q74

In tapeworms

A) flame cells are absent

B) both exoskeleton and endoskeleton present
C) hooks and suckers present

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D) body is radially symmetrical

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Q75

Which one of the following endoparasites of humans does show viviparity?

(A) Ancylostoma duodenale

(B) Enterobius spiralis
(C) Trichinella spiralis
(D) Ascaris lumbricoides

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Q76

Moulting

(A) is also called ecdysis

(B) occurs to shed chitin at regular intervals by many arthropods
(C) is the shedding of cuticle in many invertebrates
(D) all of these

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Q77

Choose the correct statement for the following animals.

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(A) All the animals are aquatic, free living
(B) All are true coelomates
(C) lsquo;A'has radial symmetry but remaining have bilateral symmetry
(D) lsquo;A'is monoecious but remaining are dioecious

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Q78

Following are few examples of bony fishes. Choose the odd one out as marine bony fish.

(A) Flying fish

(B) Hippocampus (sea horse)
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Labeo (rohu), catla, clarias

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Q79

Which one of the following characteristic is not shared by birds and mammals?

35
(A) Breathing using lungs
(B) Viviparity
(C) Warm-blooded nature
(D) Ossified endoskeleton

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Q80

Which of the following sets of animals belongs to a single Taxonomic group?

(A) Man, monkey, chimpanzee

(B) Cuttlefish, jellyfish, silver fish, dog fish, starfish
(C) Bat, pigeon, butterfly
(D) Silkworm, tapeworm, earthworm

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