University of Mumbai

Online Examination 2020

Program: BE Engineering
Curriculum Scheme: R-2016
Examination: Final Year Semester VIII
Course Code: ILO8029 Course Name: Environmental Management
Time: 1-hour Max. Marks: 50

1 Environmental education is important at

a Primary school stage only

b Secondary school stage only

c College stage only

d throughout life

2 Which of the following salts is the main cause of permanent hardness of water?

a Magnesium sulphate

b Magnesium bicarbonate

c Magnesium carbonate

d None of the above

3 Oceans exerts a great influence of the planets

a Weather

b Climate

c Precipitation

d Weather & Climate

4 Energy is released from fossil fuels when they are___________________

a Pumped
 b Cooled

c Burned

d Pressurized

Which of the following is incorrect, if we only achieve two out of three pillars of Sustainable
5
Development?

a Social + Economic Sustainability = Equitable

b Social + Environmental Sustainability = Bearable

c Economic + Environmental Sustainability = Viable

d Political + Environmental Sustainability = Bearable

6 The technology which meets the sustainable development needs is often referred to as

a advanced technology

b appropriate technology

c sustainable technology

d adaptive technology

7 Depletion of the ozone layer is damaging to human health. Negative effects include

a Skin cancers

b Osteoporosis

c Dyspepsia

d None of the above

8 Which of the following is an example of impact of development activities on the Hydrosphere?

a Air pollution

b Soil pollution

c Soil erosion
 d Water pollution

9 In a food chain animals constitute the:

a First trophic level

b Second trophic level

c Intermediate trophic level

d Ultimate trophic level

10 In a food chain, humans are

a Secondary consumers

b Primary consumer

c Producers

d Primary and secondary consumers both

11 Cattle, sheep and termites are responsible for the release of the following greenhouse gas

a Methane

b Carbon dioxide

c Nitrous oxide

d Carbon mono oxide

12 Green house gases are present in the

a Troposphere

b Stratosphere

c Mesosphere

d Thermosphere

13 This process removes Carbon dioxide from the atmosphere

 a Deforestation

b Burning of Fossile Fuel

c Respiration

d Photosynthesis

14 In acid rain PH of water is

a Less than 5.6

b Around 7

c More than 7

d around 14

15 When following reacted with water in the air it produces carbonic acid

a Carbon

b Carbo Mono oxide

c Carbon dioxide

d Hydrogen

16 Ozone layer acts as a natural sunscreen which protects life on this earth against which rays

a Radio waves

b TV waves

c Microwaves

d Ultraviolet waves

17 How many oxygen particles are there in each ozone atom

a One

b Two
 c Three

d Four

18 An endangered species is a species

a that is out of danger

b living in group

c that is in danger of becoming extinct

d living in dense forest

19 How many biogeographical zones are there in India

a 2

b 4

c 7

d 10

20 Which of the following is an example of ex situ conservation

a Biosphere reserve

b Gene bank

c Sanctuary

d National Park

21 Chernobyl disater is associated with

a Nuclear Accident

b Landslide

c Earthquake

d Acid rain
22 Which colour is used for Radiation Hazards

a Red

b Orange

c Green

d Purple

23 Bhopal gas tragedy occurred due to leakage of

a MIC

b DDT

c SO2

d Dioxins

24 How many percentage of fissionable U-235 occurring in uranium?

a 0.20%

b 0.70%

c 1.00%

d 1.50%

Name the gas that causes irritation of skin, eye, nose and throat and may cause respiratory
25
problems

a CO2

b NO2

c SO2

d Oxygen

26 The reason of Arc blast is

a Poor contact within electrical wire splices

 b Radio frequency emissions from high-power transmitters

c Discharge of high electrical current through open air

d Failure to lock-out and tag-out electrical breakers

27 Following has the maximum genetic diversity in India

a Tea

b Mango

c Onion

d Teak

28 Which of the following is an extinct species

a Dugong

b Great Indian bustard

c Dodo

d Red Panda

29 These belongs to the category of primary consumer

a snakes and frogs

b Insects and cattle

c Eagles and snakes

d Water insects

30 EIA stands for what?

a Ecological Impact assessment

b Environmental Impact Audit

c Environmental Impact Assessment

 d Environmental Impact Area

31 The most important organisms for an echosystem are

a Herbivores

b Producers

c Carnivores

d Protozon

32 Every ecosystem has____major components

a One

b Two

c Three

d Four

33 Human is ____factor of an ecosystem

a Physical

b Chemical

c Biological

d Logical

34 Autotropic components are

a producers

b consumers

c Decomposers

d Composers

35 The following are dependant on others for food

 a Autotrops

b Hetrotrops

c Crytotop

d Protozon

36 Name the group of species which exploit the abiotic and biotic resourses in asimilar way?

a Guild

b Ecads

c Biomes

d Community

37 Who proposwd the term Ecosystem?

a Grinnel

b Turesson

c A.G.Tansley

d Lindeman

38 Which of the following organism eats feces

a Fungus

b Bacteria

c Earthworm

d Dung beetle

39 What is the first place energy starts in a food chain

a Sun

b Plants
 Th i Th o

Ch

ΔT2 Q ΔT1

Cc

Tc o Tc i

c
Animals

d Water

40 Anything that organism needs to live

a Carrying capacity

b Resources

c Denitrification

d Succession

41 Water is an example of

a Abiotic factor

b Autotroph

c Biotic factor

d Hetrotroph

42 Which animal is not the apex predator but a predator to a mouse

a Rabbit

b Hawk

c snakes

d Grass

43 Diagram that shows transfer of energy in one line is a

a Food line

b Food Web

c Food court

d Food Chain
44 What is the Food chain?

a Long chain made of food

b Process of preparing food

c Food where locked by chain

d Pathway that energy and nutrients flow through the ecosystem

45 In an ecosystem, the energy flow is always

a Always unidirectional

b Always bidirectional

c In any direction

d Down direction

46 An orchid living on atree exhibit

a predator

b Mutualism

c Commensalismm

d Parasitic

47 Plants growing under direct shade are known as

a Sciophytes

b Monocots

c Psamophytes

d Heliophytes

Plant species with a wide range of genetic distribution evolve into a local population known
48
as

a Ecotype
 b population

c Ecosystem

d Biome

Which is the most recent pronouncement of the government’s commitment to improving

49
environmental conditions?

a National Environmental Policy

b National Water Policy

c Environment Act

d Air Policy

50 To which government the Ministry of Environment and Forests is the nodal agency?

a To the State Government

b To the Central Government

c To United Nations

d To Union Territories

What is called for the practice of regulating forest resources to meet the needs of society and
51
industry while preserving the forest’s health?

a Environmental protection

b Sustainable Forest Management

c Forest policy framework

d Unsustainable Forest Management

52 __________ is an organism used to gauge the quality of an ecosystem.

a Decomposers

b Predator

c Bio-remediator
 d Bioindicator

53 What is an industrial symbiosis ?

When industries co-operative sector produced a product by one of them is part of a larger
a
product produced by the other.
When industries co-operate by integrating environmental work so that a common
b
environmental management system is established.
When industries co-operate so that the waste of one serve as input in the production of the
c
others as for example heat.

d When industries operate without any chemical pollution.

54 Which of the following is not amongst the responsibilities of Carroll Model ?

a Ethical responsibility

b Water responsibility

c Economic responsibility

d Legal responsibility

55 What is the best way to educate school kids about the environment?

a Teaching theory about environment in classes

b Showing pictures and videos of environment in projector screen

c Taking kids to national parks or sanctuaries

d Taking kids to amusement parks

56 What is defined by Jamison et al.

a CER

b CHR

c SHE

d CSR

57 Opportunities for social innovation are greatest when:

 a CSR is aligned with a firm's core skills and capabilities.

b CSR spending of a firm is larger than that of its competitors.

c CSR is pursued by a firm to improve its reputation.

d CSR is pursued by a firm to enhance human capital.

Which one of the following is the apex organization in the country in the field of pollution
58
control?

a Water Pollution Control Board

b Central Pollution Control Board

c Air pollution Control Board

d State Pollution Control Board

Which of the ISO 14000 series of standards focuses on evaluation of environmental

59
performance?

a 14010

b
14020

c 14030

d 14031

60 EMS stands for

a Environmental management system

b Employees management system

c Engineering management system

d Equipment management system

61 Rectangle represents ________ While plotting flow chart

a Step in activity

b Decision making
 c Direction of flow

d Project management

62 The role of management is not to

a Provide Resources

b Define EMS

c Monitor the effectiveness of the system

d Change the quality of product

63 ISO – 14001 gives stress on

a Plan – Do -check -Act

b Environmental protection

c Prevention rather than detection

d Prevent Pollution

64 P-D-C-A stands for

a Plan-Do-check-Act

b Plan-Do-correct-Act

c Proceed-Do-check-Act

d Proceed-Do-correct-Act

65 Which EMS model is most well known

a ACC

b EMAS

c ISO14001

d NEIC
66 14001:2004 vs. 14001:2015 are not different as

a Expansion in EMS coverage and scope

b Required interactions with external parties

c New requirements for leadership engagement

d New Equipment and prevent pollution

67 What is not the benefit of ISO 14001:2015?

a Improve resource efficiency

b Reduce waste

c Drive down costs

d Product Design

69 Which of the certification systems EMAS or ISO 14001 is the most challenging for

a EMAS

b ISO 14001

c Environment Audit

d Environment Standards

70 What is an intangible benefit of ISO 14000?

a Cost savings

b Reduced penalties

c Lower insurance premiums

d Improved community goodwill

71 EEA means

a European Energy Association

 b Environmental Efficiency Audit

c European Environmental Agency

d Environment Engineering Agency

72 ISO was founded in the year of ______

a 1945

b 1946

c 1948

d 1947

73 What is the legal principle for handling waste

a Waste Hierarchy

b Precautionary Principle

c Duty of Care

d Reasonably Practicable

74 What is integrated management systems

a When for example environmental certification is done together with quality certification.

Environmental management systems that include both Life-cycle analysis and MIPS for a
b
special product.
Management systems that are applicable for all functions and services regardless of the size of
c
production units.

d Ems for every project

75 ISO 9001 changed from 2008 to 2015. the 2015 update does not have:

a More clauses

b A different structure (High Level Structure)

c Different terminology
 d Reduce inovolvement of corporates

76 Quality management standards

a Reduce product failures.

b Reduce pollution

c Reduce Innovation

d Reduce water pollution

77 Energy management standards

a Use more energy

b Cut energy consumption

c Generate energy

d Focus on renewable energy

78 EMAS

a Reduce environmental impact

b Strengthen legal compliance

c Employee involvement

d Reduce economy

79 Environment Impact assessment(EIA) is done

a Before the project

b After the project

c During the project

d Any time in life cycle of project

To curb the destructive practices of unscrupulous people, forest mafia groups, poachers, polluters
80 and over exploitation of environmental resource ............... is necessary.
1. Treaties 2. Conventions 3 Effective Legislation 4 Acts
 a 1,2

b 3,4

c 1,3 & 4

d 1,2 ,3 & 4

Article 48-A which provides for protection and improvement of the environment and to safeguard
81
the forests and wildlife of the country was added to Part IV of the Indian Constitution, by way of

a 40th amendment to the Constitution

b 42nd amendment to the Constitution

c 44th amendment to the Constitution

d 44th amendment to the Constitution

After which international conference, constitutional sanction was given to environmental concerns
82
through the 42nd Amendment

a United Nations Conference on Human Environment, Stockholm 1972

b The Earth Summit-The Rio Declaration On Environment And Development, 1992

c Montreal Protocol on the Ozone Layer 1997

d IPCC 1990

83 The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act was enacted in the year

a 1948

b 1972

c 1974

d 1977

84 When was Biodiversity Act passed?

a 2010

b 2002
 c 2004

d 2003

Match the following:

Column “A” Column “B”
(i) wildlife Protection act (a) 1974
85
(ii) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act (b) 1986
(iii) The Environment Protection Act (c)1972
(iv)The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act (d) 1981

a i-a, ii-d, iii-b, iv-c

b i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a

c i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a

d i-c, ii-d, iii-a iv-b

86 Factories Act, was enacted in the year

a 1948

b 1972

c 1974

d 1977

87 Forest (Conservation) Act was enacted in the year

a 1948

b 1972

c 1974

d 1980

88 How many chapter does the water actc has

a 8

b 10
 c 4

d 7

Which of the following is true about the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974:
1 .Water Act prohibits any person from knowingly causing or permitting the entry of any poisonous,
noxious or polluting matter, directly or indirectly, into any stream or well or sewer or on land.
2. The Water Act establishes the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) (at the national level) and
89
the State Pollution Control Board (SPCB) or the Pollution Control Committee (at the State/Union
Territory level) to carry out its objectives.
3. The function of the CPCB is plan and cause to be executed a nation-wide programme for the
prevention, control or abatement of water pollution

a 1 and 3

b 1 and 2

c 1, 2 and 3

d 2 and 3

90 The Water Act is applicable to which of the following categories?

a
only Industries

b Residential

c only Municipal authorities

d Industries and Muncipal Authorities

91 The functions of Central Board are given under which act

a Water Act (1974)

b Air Act (1981)

c Environment Protection Act (1986)

d Biodiversity Act (2002)

Many countries impose taxes on green house gas emission from fossil fuel which is known as
92
:

a Industrial Tax

b Wealth Tax
 c Carbon Tax

d Environmental Cess

The first of the major environmental protection act to

93
be promulgated in India was

a Hazardous act

b Air Act

c Water Act

d Biodiversity Act

The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in _________and amended in
94
_________

a 1986 and 1991

b 1976 and 1988

c 1981and 1987

d 1972 and 1991

95 How many chapter does the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Acthas

a 8

b 10

c 4

d 7

The Environment Protection Act of 1986 (EPA) came into force

96
soon after____________Tragedy

a Odisha Super Cyclone

b Gujarat Earthquake

c Bhopal Gas

d Tsunami
97 How many chapter does The Environmental (Protection) act has

a 8

b 10

c 4

d 7

98 Objective of The Environment (Protection) Act is __________

a Providing protection and improvement of the environment

b Improvement of the environment.

c Providing protection to the environment

d Punish the guilty

99 Under which legilsation , EIA is made mandatory

a Water Act (1974)

b Air Act (1981)

c Environment Protection Act (1986)

d Biodiversity Act (2002)

100 Environment Protection Act, was enacted in the year:

a 1974

b 1981

c 1986

d 1987

According to the Biodiversty act whch of the following institute are set up
101 1. National Biodiversity Authority (NBA), 2. State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs)
3. Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs)
 a 1 only

b 2 and 3 only

c 1 and 3 only

d 1, 2 and 3

102 When was Factories Act introduced and amended ?

a 1986 and 1991

b 1976 and 1988

c 1948 and 1987

d 1972 and 1991

Arrange following rules in ascending order as per their first notification date
1. The Biomedical waste (Management and Handling) Rules
103 2. Municipal Solid Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules,
3. Construction and Demolition Waste Management Rules,
4. Hazardous waste (Management , Handling and Transboundary movement )rules

a 1, 4, 2, 3

b 1, 2, 4, 3

c 2, 1, 3, 4

d 4, 3, 2, 1

Public liability insurance act -1991, provide for damages to victims of an accident which occurs as a
104
result of

a handling hazardous substances

b Natural disaster

c Road accidents

d Loss to the properties due to communal rides

105 This is not the key environmental regulatory authority in India

a Ministry of Environment , Forests and Climate change (MoEFCC)

 b Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)

c State Pollution Control Boad (SPCB)

d Department of Environment (DOE),

This not the key international conferences on environment to thedevelopment of international

106
environmental law.

a Stockholm Conference,1972

b Rio Conference 1992

c World summit on sustainble Development (WSSD) 2002

d World Environment Conference (WEC)(1988)

107 The 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development” was adopted at-

a Rio Conference

b Stockholm Conference

c Johannesburg declaration

d United Nations Sustainable Development Summit

108 Which of the following was not adopted at the Rio Conference, 1992

a United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change

b Convention on Biological Diversity

c Agenda 21

d United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification

In which of the following conference following principle highlighted " polluter pays
109
principle"

a Stockholm Conference,1972

b Rio Conference 1992

c World summit on sustainble Development (WSSD) 2002

 d World Environment Conference (WEC)(1988)

110 This is oldest key conference on environment

a United Nations Conference on the Human Environment, ' Stockholm

b United Nations conference on Environment and Developmentm,Rio de Janerio

c United Nations Sustainable Development Summit

d United Nations conference on sustainble development, Newyork

According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by
any person except under some provisions provided by law?
111
1. Gharial 2. Indian wild ass 3. Wild buffalo
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a 1 only

b 2 and 3 only

c 1 and 3 only

d 1, 2 and 3