1.

Injury to the bladder as a result of pressure from the foetal head may lead to:

a. Incontinence of faeces

b. Recto vaginal fistula

c. Uterine prolapsed
d. Vesico-vaginal fistula

2. The following are done to prevent injury to the bladder EXCEPT:

a. Emptying the bladder frequently

b. Give enema to empty the rectum

c. Passing self-retaining catheter

d. Prevention of prolonged labour

3. The following signs depict wound infection EXCEPT:

a. Blood from wound

b. Local redness

c. Purulence discharge from the wound

d. A rise in body temperature

4. The most common cause of maternal mortality in Ghana is:

a. Embolism
b. Malaria

c. Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH)

d. Sickle cell disease (SCD)

5. After doing a postpartum examination the table should be wiped off with:

a. 0.5% chlorine after each use

b. 0.5% chlorine only if there is blood on it

c. Alcohol hand rub after each use

d. Soap and water after each use

6. By the tenth day postpartum the uterus is:

a. At the level of the umbilicus

b. Halfway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus

c. Just above the symphysis pubis, or not palpable

d. Just below the umbilicus

7. A puerperal mother calls you that she can't pass urine. Your first line of action will be 10:

a. Open nearby tap

b. Pass catheter to empty the bladder

c. Provide privacy and encourage her to urinate

d. Stimulate the perineum by pouring warm water
8. The newly delivered mother is kept in the labour ward for hours before being

transferred to the lying-in ward for the following reasons:

a. Enable the mother to verbalised her complaints

b. Enhance bonding between mother and baby

c. Observe condition of baby and mother

d. Promote rest and healing in the mother

9. In the absence of an autoclave, used instruments could be high level disinfected by

boiling for.......... minutes.

a. 10

b. 15

c.20

d. 30

10. A primary PPH can be described as bleeding occurring in

a. 45 hours after delivery

b. Any time within the puerperium

c. First 24 days of delivery

d. First 24 hours of delivery
11. Secondary Post-Partum Haemorrhage (TPH) is most likely to occur between........ after
delivery.

a. 10- and 14-hours days

b. 10-14 days

c. 21 days
d. First 24 hours

12. Auntie Serwas delivered per-vaginum seven days ago. She reported to you

complaining of heavy red lochia, which is offensive with pyrexia. What diagnosis will you give
to her?

a. Antepartum haemorrhage (APH)

b. Primary PPH

c. Secondary PPH

d. Uterine fibroid

13. In Auntie Serwaa's case what will be the first action to take?

a. Administer oxytocin

b. Give IV fluids

c. Prepare her for theatre

d. Rub up the uterus for contraction if palpable

14. The member of the health team responsible for the care of a newly delivered mother

at the community after the 7 day is the:

a. District midwife

b. Head of the CHPS compound

c. Hospital midwife

d. Public health Nurse

15. Which of the following is the best way to prevent engorgement of the breast?

I. Complete emptying of the breast

Il. Breastfeeding on demand

III. Putting on firm braziers

IV. Expressing excess breast milk and throwing away

a. I, II and III

b. II, III and IV

c. I, II and IV
d. L, III, and IV
16. A mother informed you she is having after pain. Your management for this mother will be
the following EXCEPT

a. Ask her to suspend breastfeeding.

b. Encourage the client to empty her bladder frequently
c. Explain the cause to the client.
d. Use appropriate analgesic

17. Which of the following factors is NOT a cause of muscle cramps?

a. Dehydration

b. A high blood level of calcium

c. Increase level of phosphate

d. A low blood level of calcium

18. A junior colleague asked you to educate her on the care of a puerperal woman. Your
education will be based on these principles EXCEPT:

a. Promoting good maternal-child relationship

b. Promoting sound methods of infant feeding

c. Promoting the bonding between mother and husband

d. Promoting the physical well-being of mother and baby

19. What APGAR score will you give to a baby who cries and sneezes at birth, with an

apex beat of 110, flexion of limbs, pink body with blue extremities?
a6

b. 7

c. 8

d. 9

20. Which of the underlisted management approaches would you adopt for a woman

who bled profusely after delivery?

1. Empty uterus and catheterize bladder

II. Give a warm drink and raise foot end of bed

III. Reassure her and rub her uterus for contraction

IV. Set up intravenous infusion and give oxytocic drug

a. I and II b. III and IV

c. I, III and IV

d. I, II, III and IV

21. The fall in progesterone level following delivery results in:

a. Production of prolactin and production of breast milk

b. Regain of muscle tone and ligament

c. Suppression of ovulation

d. Suppression of prolactin and production of breast milk

22. The following are contributory factors to thromboembolic disorders in puerperium

EXCEPT:

a. Dehydration

b. Increased viscosity of blood

c. Injury to the limbs

d. Mobility
23. Oxytocin is produced from:

a. Anterior pituitary glands

b. Corpus luteum

c. Granulosa and theca cells

d. Posterior pituitary gland

24. Following birth, the excess uterine muscle fibres are destroyed in a process of:

I. Autolysis

11. Necrosis

III. Ischemia

IV. Apoptosis

a. I and II
b. III and IV

c. I and III
d. II and III

25. Which of the following makes the woman prone to infection during the puerperium?

L Anaemia

II. Exhaustion .
III. Lochia
IV. Raw placenta site

a. I, II and III
b. II, III and IV

c. I, II and IV
d. I, II, III and IV

26. During breastfeeding the amount of Lochia passed is:

a. Decreased

b. Increased

c. Profuse

d. Scanty

27. You were called on the phone that a client had her first delivery at home and is bleeding.
What will be the first instruction you will give to the woman?

a. Tell her to leave the front door open

b. Tell her to lie down flat until you arrive

c. Tell her to save soiled pad and linen

d. Tell relatives to arrange for hospital

28. Sub involution may result from all these conditions EXCEPT:

a. Genital tract trauma

b. Infection

c. Retain product of conception

d. Uterine fibroid

29. The underlisted are causes of puerperal fever EXCEPT:

a. Genital Tract infection

b. Malaria

c. Thrombophlebitis

d. Upper Respiratory Tract infection

30. A condition whereby a woman presents with a temperature of 38°C or higher occurring
within the first 14 days post-partum persisting for 24 hrs is known as:

a. Puerperal fever

b. Puerperal psychosis

c. Puerperal pyrexia
d. Puerperal sepsis

31. Infection to the genital tract by pathogenic organisms at any time between the onset of labour
to 6 weeks after labour or abortion is termed:

a. Puerperal fever
b. Puerperal psychosis

e. Puerperal pyrexia
d. Puerperal sepsis

32. The severe form of mental illness in which the client after delivery shows signs of

mania and schizophrenia is termed as:

a. Post-partum depression

b. Post-partum psychosis
c. Postpartum blues

d. Postpartum minor illness

33. Infection originating from the person's own body is known as:

a. Autogenous infection

b. Endogenous infection
c. Exogenous infection

d. Nosocomial infection

34. A 20-year-old puerperal woman reported to the hospital with a urinary tract infection. Which
of these organisms is the most likely cause?

a. Clostridium welchil
b. Escherichia coli
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Streptococcus pyogenes

35. Inflammation of the urinary bladder is called:

a. Cystitis

b. Nephritis

c. Pyelonephritis

d. Urethritis

36. An infection of the genital tract during the first 6 weeks after childbirth or miscarriage is
puerperal:

a. Blues

b. Infection

c. Offensive discharge

d. Sepsis

37. Infection resulting from an unhygienic environment such as rusty instruments or unsterilized
equipment is mostly caused by:

a. Clostridium tetani

b. Escherichia coli
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Streptococcus pyogenes

38. Infection caused by this organism turns to be localized. Which of the following could

be the cause?

a. Clostridium welchii

b. Escherichia coli

c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Streptococcus pyogenes

39. Which of the following organisms confines to the uterus, gives rise to offensive lochia

and causes septicaemia?

a. Clostridium welchil

b. Escherichia coli

c. Staphylococcus aureus

d. Streptococcus pyogenes

40. The organism responsible for causing Pemphigus neonatorum is:

a. Clostridia tetard
b. Escherichia coli

c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Streptococcus pyogenes

41. Madam Akosua, a 3-day postpartum woman, reported to your facility with lower

abdominal pain, a body temperature of 38.4°C, lochia-profuse with foul-smelling and purulent.
What condition is she likely to be suffering from?

a. Acute pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

b. Endometriosis

c. Endometritis

d. Peritonitis

42. The following factors predispose a woman to infection during the puerperium

EXCEPT:

a. A non-attendant

b. Inadequate treatment of a patient with antepartum haemorrhage

e. Malnutrition and anaemia

d. Repeated vaginal examinations

43. The following examinations/investigations may be necessary to diagnose puerperal

infection EXCEPT:
a Abdominal examination

b. Breast examination
C. HIV status

d. Mid-stream urine

44. A puerperal women reported to your clinic. On examination, she looks very ill restless,
temperature: 39.5 °C, pulse; 160 bpm, abdomen looks distended and tender,

What diagnosis is likely to be given to her?

a. Endometritis

b. Malaria
c. Peritonitis

d. Pelvic inflammatory disease

45. Inflammation of the breast is commonly known as?

a. Breast engorgement

b. Mastitis

c. Metastasis

d. Phlebitis
46. The following are predisposing factors to breast infection EXCEPT:

a. Feeding on demand
b. Improper fixing to the breast

c. Infrequent feeding
d. Mixed feeding

47. Which day within the puerperium is breast engorgement likely to occur?

a. Fourteenth day

b. Seventh day
c. Tenth day

d. Third day

48. A teenage mother came to you with mild breast infection with sore nipples. The

education you would give include the following EXCEPT asking the mother to:

a. Stop breastfeeding

b. Avoid ill-fitting brassieres

c. Avoid mixed feeding

d. Empty one breast before the other

49. Madam Ama Asabea G6P5AA who delivered at home in the early hours of the day has been
rushed to your maternity home with a history of severe bleeding. Which of
the following vital signs may be out of place?

a. A BP of 130/80 mmHg

b. Air hunger
c. Cold sweaty skin

d. Slow pulse

50. Which of the following hormones are significant in lactation?

1. Progesterone

II. Prolactin

III. Oxytocin

IV. Oestrogen
a. I and II

b. III and IV

c. II and III

d. I and IV

51. Which of these is NOT a mechanism for preventing breast engorgement?

a. Allow baby to feed from both breasts at a feed

b. Breastfeed on demand

c. Complete emptying of breasts

d. Correct positioning

52. Outline the sequence of after pain:

a. Baby suckles - oxytocin released-uterus

contracts after pain

b. Baby suckles-uterus contracts-oxytocin released - after pain

c. Oxytocin is released - baby suckles-uterus contract after pain

d. Uterus contract-oxytocin released - after pain-baby suckles

53. At what rate does the uterus reduce daily during the first week following delivery?

a. 0.5 cm

b. 1 cm

c. 2 cm. d. 3 cm

54. The type of lochia that drains between the 5th and 9th day of puerperium is referred

to as:

a. Alba
b. Blood
c. Rubra

d. Serosa

55. Akua Mansah, 25 years old, delivered 3 days ago. She reported to your clinic and complained
of scanty lochia. What might be the cause of her complaint?

a. Infection

b. Poor vulval hygiene

c. Retained products of conception

d. Sub-involution

56. A 19-year-old mother was rushed to your facility with a history of 9 days postpartum,
complaining of tiredness despite adequate rest, and looked dull with

mood swings. This mother is likely suffering from:

a. Organic psychosis

b. Postnatal Depression

c. Puerperal blues
d. Puerperal psychosis

57. The anterior pituitary necrosis which is as a result of severe postpartum

haemorrhage may also be referred to as:

a. Bleeding after delivery

b. Pituitary shock

c. Postpartum sepsis

d. Sheehan's syndrome

58. Mrs Owas delivered 3 weeks ago. She was brought to your facility with a history of strange
behaviour, refuses to recognize and feed her baby and complains of Insomnia. Mrs Owasa's
diagnosis will be.

a. Organic psychosis
b. Postnatal depression

c. Puerperal blues

d. Puerperal psychosis

59. Which of the underlisted parts of the female reproductive tract does fertilization

take place?

a. Ampulla of the fallopian tube

b. Distal portion of the fallopian tube

e. Medial portion of the uterus

d. Upper portion of the uterus

60. In the production of milk, the myoepithelial cells contract under the influence of:

a. Oestrogen
b. Oxytocin

c. Progesterone
d. Prolactin

61. The following are sutures of the foetal skull EXCEPT:

a. Frontal
b. Lambda

c. Occipital

d. Parietal

62. Cephalhematoma is described as a swelling on the vault of the newborn due to:

a. Collection of blood over the periosteum of the cranial bone

b. Collection of blood widen the periosteum of the cranial bone

c. Formation of fluid or blood between the periosteum and the scalp

d. Oedema of the area of the scalp which was in contact with the internal os

63. Which of the following statements about nutrition during illness is true?

a. Children with anorexia occasionally need to be force-fed to maintain adequate

nutritional intake
b. During illness, children may be offered toffees and sweets if they will eat these
c. During illness, children need more nutrients and their bodies maximize nutrient

extraction from food

d. During illness, children need more nutrients but they can absorb less from the food

64. The nurse finds a 4-year-old hospitalized child crying and shouting at his teddy.

"You boy! Don't be mean to your brother! Go to the hospital!" An understanding of pre-schooler
development leads the nurse to believe that this child:
a. Is mad at the brother and wishes he were sick

b. Misses the brother and wishes that they could be together

c. Thinks that being sick is related to bad thoughts about the brother

d. Thinks the parents love the brother more

65. Three days after birth, a newborn is slightly jaundiced. The nurse knows that this is

due primarily to:

a. High haemoglobin and low haematocrit levels

b. Immature liver function

c. The mother's high haemoglobin level

d. The mother's inability to nurse the baby adequately

66. During phototherapy, the nurse should apply eye patches to the newborn's to;
a. Ensure that the eyes are closed

b. Limit excessive rapid eye movements and

c. Prevent injury to conjunctiva and retina

d. Reduce overstimulation from bright lights

67. When assessing an infant with hydrocephalus, the nurse should be alert for the signs

of increasing intracranial pressure, such as:

a Bulging fontanel, "sunset" eyes, projectile vomiting not associated with feeding
b. Depressed fontanel, bulging eyes, irritability

c. Dilated scalp veins, depressed and sunken eyeballs, decreased BP

d. High shrill cry, decreased skin turgor, elevated fontanel

68. A baby is Rh-positive and the mother is Rh-negative. The baby is to receive an

exchange transfusion. The nurse knows that the baby will receive Rh-negative blood because:

a.It eliminates the possibility of a transfusion reaction occurring

b. It is the same as the mother's blood

c. It is neutral and will not react with the baby's blood

d. Its RBCs will not be destroyed by maternal anti-Rh antibodies

69. A 3 ½ year-old child is admitted to the hospital for an appendicectomy. To best

prepare the child for the hospital experience, the nurse should use:

a. A diagram
b. A storybook

c. Distraction

d. Medical play

70. The nurse observes that an infant has head control, can roll over, but cannot sit up without
support or transfer an object from one hand to another. Based on these facts, the nurse would
conclude that the infant is developmentally at age.

a. 2 to 3 months
b. 3 to 4 months

c. 4 to 6 months

d. 6 to 8 months

71. A 5-week-old infant is admitted to the hospital with a tentative diagnosis of congenital heart
defect. The infant tires easily and has difficulty breathing and feeding. The best position in which
to place this infant would be:

a. Orthopneic with pillows for support

b. Prone with the head supported by pillows

c. Side-lying with the head and chest elevated

d. Supine with the knees flexed

72. Which of these in the earliest complication of meningitis?

a Cerebral oedema

b.Deafness
c. Hydrocephalus
I
d. Paralysis

73. In caring for a child with sickle cell crisis, the nurse should be prepared to use nursing

measures appropriate for the relief of:

a Bradycardia
b Diarrhoes

c. Haemorrhage

d. Pain

74. A child suffering from xerophthalmia may be lacking the following vitamin in the diet:

a. A
b. B

c. C

d. D
75. The commonest complication of mumps is:

a. Encephalitis

b. Glossitis
c. Orchitis

d. Tonsillitis

76. A deficiency of which of these substances in the diet will cause pellagra?

a. Niacin

b. Thiamine

e. Vitamin B2

d. Vitamin B12

77. Seven (7) year-old Yaw has an inguinal herniorrhaphy done. He should be allowed out

of bed by the…. day postoperatively.

a. First

b. Fourth
c. Second
d. Third

78. In pyloric stenosis, food cannot move normally in the gastrointestinal tract from the:
 a. Duodenum into the jejunum
b. Jejunum into the ileum

c. Oesophagus into the stomach

d. Stomach into the duodenum.

79. A newborn baby develops a cephalhematoma. The nurse should plan to explain to the mother
that:

a. It will resolve spontaneously in 3 to 6 weeks

b. The soft sac will bulge when the infant cries

c. The swelling may cross a suture-line

d. This condition is unusual with vagina delivery

80. A 2 year-old unconscious child requires nasogastric feeding. When should the nurse check
for the placement of the tube.
a. At every shift change
b. After administering a feeding
c. Before administering each feeding
d. During the night shift for the morning report

81. The viral infection characterized by a lacy red rash that starts behind the ears or on

the head and then spreads to the face and then the body is:

a. Chicken pocks
b. Measles

c. Mumps

d. Strep throat

82. When caring for premature infants, the nurse must always remember that
premature infants:

a. Are vulnerable to infection due to the lack of maternal antibodies

b. Require nasogastric feedings due to inability to nurse

c. Should not be exposed to phototherapy if jaundiced

d. Will develop cerebral palsy

83. When assessing a child with Tetralogy of Fallot the nurse should monitor for

a. Clubbing of fingers

b. Decrease red blood cell count

c. Slow, irregular respirations

d. Subcutaneous haemorrhage

84. Weighing of children at the O.P.D. should be done to:

I. Assess growth of the child

II. Assess the hydration status of a sick child

III. Determine the dosage of drugs to be prescribed for the infant

 IV. Help determine whether the current condition has been chronic

a. I and III
b. II and IV
c. I, II and IV
d. I, II, III and IV

85. A 2-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with meningitis. To identify possible increasing
intracranial pressure, the nurse should monitor the child for:

a. Anorexia, irritability, subnormal temperature

b. Bulging fontanels, decreased blood pressure, elevated temperature

c. Vomiting, seizures, irritability

d. Restlessness, anorexia, rapid respiration

86. A newborn male child was just circumcised. The nurse's discharge instructions on post
circumcision care should include telling the mother to:

a. Apply diapers loosely

b. Clear the site with methylated spirit daily

c. Expect some bleeding for 48 hours

d. Withhold breast milk for 24 hours

87. When caring for a child with spasmodic croup, an assessment finding that requires an
immediate nursing intervention is:
a. Barking cough

b. Hoarseness
c. Irritability

d. Rapid respirations

88. The clinical manifestations of a child with marasmus include:

L Brittle sparse hair

11. Good appetite

III. Oedema

IV. Wasting

a. I and IV

b. I and III

c. I, II and IV
d. I, II, III and IV

89. The practice of using local herbs on the umbilicus of newborns places them at risk for:

a. Asphyxia

b. Rotavirus

c. Sepsis
d. Tetanus

90. Which of the following is a complication of leukaemia?

a. Decrease in the size of the liver

b. Diuresis
c. Epistaxis

d. Weight gain

91. Which of the following fits Piaget's preoperational stage (ages 2-7)?
a. Ability to problem-solve and sort facts about the world

b. The child is increasingly capable of understanding complex language

c. Developing an understanding of cause and effect

d. Inability to see anything from any other perspective than their own; child assumes

everyone thinks as they do

92. A child with acute leukaemia is started on chemotherapy, including prednisone. A potential
side effect of prednisone is:

a. Alopecia
b. Anorexia

c. Mood changes

d. Weight loss
93. Children born with the absence of two complete copies of the X chromosome have:

a. Cretinism

b. Down syndrome

c. Phenylketonuria
d. Turner's syndrome

94. Down syndrome is also known as trisomy:

a.11
b.21

c. 22

d. 31

95. When teaching a mother how to prevent accidents while caring for her 6-month-old baby, the
nurse should emphasize that at this age, the child can usually:

a. Crawl lengthy distances

b. Rollover
c. Sit up

d. Stand while holding onto furniture

96. Play during infancy is:

a. A way of soothing an agitated child

 b. b. A way of teaching how to share

c. Important for brain development

d. Not necessary until the child is mobile

97. The primary physical task to be accomplished between 12 and 15 months of age is to

learn to:
a. Climb

b. Crawl stairs

c. Use a spoon

d. Walk

98. To teach the correct way to administer eardrops to a small child, the nurse should instruct the
parent to position the child on the side and instill the drops while pulling

the auricle.

a. Down and back

b. Forward

c. Straight back
d. Up and back

99. An infant is in the Paediatric Intensive Care Unit after an open-heart surgery for the repair of
a ventricular septal defect. The top nursing priority should be to:

a. Assess the infant's respiratory status

b. Assess the status of the operative site
c. Check the patency of the intravenous catheter

d. Monitor the infant's urinary output

100. During your assessment of a newborn, you notice that she keeps her left arms mostly at her
side while her right arm is flexed at the elbow. You tell the mother:

a. The arm was poorly positioned during delivery and this resulted in an injury
b. The baby will need further assessment and may need therapy to improve movement

c. The baby will recover completely as long as the mother does range of motion

exercises
d. You do not mention anything to the mother, no problem is identified

101.In the paediatric unit, the sick child is weighed on admission, the reason for this is:
I. Assess hydration status
II. Complete IMCI (integrated management of childhood illness) assessment

II. Help determine the dosages of drugs to be prescribed for the infant

IV. Obtain a baseline weight for comparison throughout hospitalization

a. I and II

b. I, III and IV

c. II, III and IV

d. I, II, III and IV

102. The part of the body that is most likely to break down in a patient with skin

traction is the:
a. Calf muscle

b. Heels
c. Knee

d. Sacrum

103. The immediate nursing care plan for a newborn with hypospadias should include:

a. Ensuring the baby remains NPO

b. Explaining to parents why a circumcision will not be done

c. Insertion of a urinary catheter

d. Wrapping the penis with petroleum gauze

104. Which specimen will you collect to isolate acid-fast bacilli in a child of 5 years?

a. Arterial blood
b. Blood

c. Sputum

d. Stool
105. The management of mild/small umbilical hernia in the newborn is by:

a. Doing nothing

b. Lying child on the abdomen

c. Painting with savlon

d. Surgical repair

106. The approximate weight of a child at 60 months is............

a. 15

b. 20
c. 25

d. 30

107. All of the following are simple interventions that are proven to reduce child

mortality, EXCEPT:

a. Exclusive breastfeeding to 6 months

b. Free primary school education

c. Sleeping under bed nets

d. Vaccinations

108. At two years the child would have grown to...of the mother's height:
a. 20%

b. 30%

c. 40%

d. 50%

109. The rooting reflex is elicited by:

a. Clapping loudly near the baby

b. Gentle downward pressure on the baby's chin

c. Stroking the baby's cheek.

d. Stroking the sole of the baby's foot

110. Which of the following practices is instituted for a patient with measles?

a. Gloves are required for all patient contacts

b. Nurses should wear a gown over their uniform and gloves for all patient contacts
c. The patient should wear a face mask if nursed in a room with other patients

d. The patient should be nursed in a sideward but only normal aseptic measures are necessary

111. Failure to pass meconium within the first 24 hrs may be a sign of:

I. Bowel injury secondary to asphyxia

II. Hirschsprung's disease

III. Imperforate anus

IV. Inadequate maternal milk production

a. I and II

b. I, II and III

c. I and IV

d. I, II, III and IV

112. Excessive administration of a high concentration of oxygen (O2) to a premature

baby leads to the risk of damage to the infant's:

a. Eyes
b. Heart

c. Liver

d. Kidneys

113. A client delivers a healthy baby girl. An indication that the placenta is beginning to separate
from the uterus and is about ready to be delivered would be the:

a. Appearance of a sudden gush of blood

b. Relaxation and softening of the uterus

c. Retraction of the umbilical cord into the vagina

d. Rising of the fundus

114. When educating a mother about first introducing complementary foods, you will include all
of the following points EXCEPT:

a. Introduce one food at a time

b. Make sure foods are soft, digested easily; cooked and mashed
c. She may add sugar to foods to make them tastier for the baby

d. She should expect to feed her baby two to three small portions daily
115. When instructing a mother on how to prepare grains for her baby you tell her all of the
following EXCEPT:

a. Add breast milk to cooked grains just before serving

b. Begin with white rice

c. Offer porridge from fermented grains

d. Soak grains overnight

116. Which of the following are the purposes of teaching women Kegel exercises?
I. To decrease lordosis in late pregnancy
II. To decrease urinary incontinence during and after pregnancy

III. To improve pelvic tone after childbirth

IV. To strengthen pelvic muscles used in the second stage of labour

a. I and II

b. I, II and III

c. LIII and IV

d. II, III and IV

117. Meconium in the amniotic fluid may indicate:

a. Congenital anomalies
b. Head compression
c. Hypoxia

d. Maternal temperature

118. Swelling of the soft tissue of the baby's scalp that develops as the baby travels through the
birth canal is called:

a. Caput

b. Distension

c. Moulding

d. Retention

119. Which of the following does the nurse needs to include in the plan of care to

evaluate that the fluid needs of a 9-year-old boy transferred back to the floor after cardiac
surgery are being appropriately met?
a. Call if the heart rate falls below 60 per minute

b. Calculate the daily maintenance fluid requirements and ensure correct delivery

c. Place a Foley catheter

d. Prepare to assist with an arterial line to monitor blood pressure

120. To limit the development of hyperbilirubinaemia in the breastfed neonate, the plan of care
should include:
a. Encourage more frequent breastfeeding during the first 2 days after birth
b. initiating phototherapy for 30 minutes every 6 hours
c. Substituting breastfeeding for formula during the second day after birth
d. Supplementing breastfeeding with glucose-water during the first 24 hours paediatric unit,