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Paper – II Booklet Code
Life Sciences
A

Test Booklet No.

Subject Code : 0 3
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A
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Time : 2 Hours Maximum Marks : 200
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 100
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2. This paper consists of hundred (100) multiple-choice type of questions.
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03 – A 1 P.T.O.
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 Total Number of Pages : 24

life sciences
Paper – II
1. Identify the correct sequence of events 3. For raising an antibody the student was
in cytokinin signaling pathway. provided with three substances A, B
(His = Histidine; AHP = Arabidopsis and C. Figure given below represent
thaliana histidine phosphotransfer the pattern of immunological response
protein) in mice when (i) A was administered
(A) Receptor binding → phosphorylation along with C, (ii) B was administered
of AHP → phosphorylation of an
along with C and (iii) A was conjugated
aspartate residue → activation of
His kinase with B and administered along with C.
(B) Receptor binding → phosphorylation i.
of AHP → activation of His kinase
→ phosphorylation of an aspartate
residue Serum
(C) Receptor binding → phosphorylation Ab
of an aspartate residue → activation response -anti A
of His kinase → phosphorylation
of AHP Time
(D) Receptor binding → activation of
ii.
His kinase → phosphorylation of an
aspartate residue → phosphorylation
of AHP Serum -anti B
Ab
2. There are two common mutations that response
lead to uncontrolled cell proliferation
and invasiveness that characterize
cancer cells. The first is to make a Time
proto-oncogene hyperactive and the iii.
second is to make a tumor suppressor
gene inactive. Mutations of the APC
(Adenomatous polyposis coli) gene Serum -anti B
occur in 80% of humans colon cancers. Ab
Normal APC increases the affinity of response
the degradation complex for β-Catenin, -anti A
which in excess can enter the nucleus
Time
and promote transcription of target
genes for cell proliferation. Based on this Select the option representing correct
information, the APC gene belongs to identifications of A, B and C.
(A) Tumor-suppressor gene (A) A-Protein, B-Hapten, C-Adjuvant
(B) Proto-oncogenes
(B) A-Hapten, B-Protein, C-Adjuvant
(C) Either proto-neo gene or
tumor-suppressor gene (C) A-Protein, B-Adjuvant, C-Hapten
(D) Constitutively expressed gene (D) A-Hapten, B-Adjuvant, C-Protein
03 – A 2 Paper II
 Total Number of Pages : 24

4. Which one of the following shows 8. To prove connection between India and
holoblastic cleavage ? Seychelles in geological time, DNA from
which taxon would be best ?
(A) Mammal
(A) Bats
(B) Fish
(B) Frogs
(C) Bird
(C) Birds
(D) Insect
(D) Sharks

5. During sea urchin gastrulation the sheet

of epithelial cells (future endoderm) 9. White eyes flies are caused by recessive
infolds into the blastocoel. This type of allele at one locus, if in a Drosophila
cell movement during gastrulation is population in Hardy Weinberg equilibrium
called as 9% of flies have white eyes. Find the
expected frequency of wild type alleles.
(A) Invagination
(A) 70%
(B) Involution
(B) 21%
(C) Ingression
(C) 49%
(D) Epiboly
(D) 30%
6. Which of the following is a diversity
index ? 10. Closely related endemic species are
(A) Upright index in higher proportion in isolated island
(B) Inverted index such as Hawaiian and Galapagos, than
in Mainland. Which one of the following
(C) Bell shaped index
statements is false ?
(D) Simpson’s index
(A) Isolated island often have numerous
unoccupied niches
7. In the terrestrial ecosystem the density
of birds is greater in the ecotone zone (B) From mainland very few species
between the forest and grassland. This coloize these islands
is due to the (C) Species that colonize these
(A) Climax community islands eventually radiate into
(B) Edge effect multiple species

(C) Ecad (D) These islands have higher rates

of species extinction
(D) Ecocline
Paper II 3 03 – A
 Total Number of Pages : 24

11. The following figures represent organizations 12. A child has ‘O’ blood group. There are
of chromosomes at Metaphase stages of
meiosis. Which one of the following will four pairs of individuals who could be the
ensure independent assortment of the likely parent of the child. The blood groups
genes marked ?
of the parents are listed below :
I When there is
crossing over
A B
between genes Blood group of
A b A and B Parent
(A) a B Mother Father
a b
1. A B
2. AB O
3. O A
I 50% of the cells
A B in meiosis have

B
orientation I and Which of the above individuals can likely
A 50% have
a b orientation II be parents of the child ?
a b
(A) Parent 1 only
(B)
II (B) Parent 3 only
A b
b
(C) Both parents 2 and 3
A
a B
a B (D) Both parents 1 and 3

13. The following pedigree shows the

I 50% of the cells
A B in meiosis have inheritance pattern of a rare genetic
orientation I and
50% have disorder :
a b
orientation II

(C)
II
A b

a B

If the individuals marked 1 and 2 had a

child, what is the probability that it is a
I When there is girl showing the disorder ?
no crossing over
A B
between genes (A) 1
a b A and B
(D) A B
(B) 2/3
a b
(C) 1/2
(D) 1/4
03 – A 4 Paper II
 Total Number of Pages : 24

14. Which one of the following events can 16. Which one of the following pairs of plant
shift a group of genes from one linkage growth regulators and their function is
group to another ? mismatched ?
(A) Auxin – promote cell elongation
(A) Recombination (B) Gibberellins – promote bud and
(B) Mutation seed dormancy
(C) Cytokinins – delay senescence
(C) Inversion
(D) Abscisic acid – stimulate closing
(D) Translocation of stomata

17. Which one is not true for the species

15. The following pathway depicts the
possessing C4 Pathway ?
formation of red pigments in a flower :
(A) They are able to minimize the
Gene A Gene B photorespiration by using more
↓ ↓ efficient enzymes to fix CO2
(B) Oxidative decarboxylation occurs
Substrate
(white pigment) → Intermediate
(pink pigment) → Final product
(red pigment) in the chloroplasts of bundle
sheath cells
The step-wise conversion, is carried (C) They have high compensation point
out by enzymes encoded by genes for CO2
A and B. The genes A and B are located (D) They have lower photosynthesis
on chromosomes 2 and 3 respectively. yield in comparison to C3 and CAM
Null alleles for the genes (a and b) are Plants
recessive to their respective wild type
18. Monophyletic group
alleles. If a plant with the genotype AaBb
is self-pollinated, what is the expected (A) Include all representatives of
a clade but not most recent
phenotypes of the progeny and the ratio
common ancestors
in which they would occur ?
(B) Contain unrelated organisms
(A) Red : Pink : White; 1 : 2 : 1
(C) Contain all representatives of
(B) Red : Pink : White; 9 : 3 : 4 clade and most recent common
ancestors
(C) Red : White; 3 : 1
(D) Include most recent ancestors
(D) Red : White; 15 : 1 (common) but not its decendents
Paper II 5 03 – A
 Total Number of Pages : 24

19. Match the following : 21. A cell passes through stages in its
Group – I Group – II developmental history. The following
are three stages of developmental
1. Rhizobium a. Free-living, history.
anaerobic,
chemotroph 1. Determination
2. Desulfovibrio b. Free-living, 2. Differentiation
aerobic,
3. Specification
chemotroph
3. Azotobacter c. Free-living, Which one of the following correctly
anaerobic, reflects the progression in a cell’s
phototroph developmental history ?
4. Chromatium d. Symbiotic, (A) 3 → 1 → 2
aerobic,
(B) 1 → 2 → 3
chemotroph
Identify the correct one. (C) 1 → 3 → 2
(D) 2 → 1 → 3
(A) 1 – d; 2 – c; 3 – b; 4 – a
(B) 1 – d; 2 – a; 3 – b; 4 – c
22. Diapedesis is
(C) 1 – c; 2 – b; 3 – d; 4 – a
(A) An increase in diameter of blood
(D) 1 – b; 2 – c; 3 – d; 4 – a vessels
(B) An increase in capillary
20. What is Diphtheria toxin ? permeability

(A) Is cleaved on the surface of susceptible (C) Adherence of cells to the endothelial
eukaryotic cells into two fragments, wall
one of which enters the cytosol (D) Emigration of phagocytes through
the gap between endothelial cells
(B) Binds to peptidyl transferase and
inhibits protein synthesis to inflammation site

(C) Reacts with ATP to phosphorylate

23. Which type of anemia is responsible for
eIF2 and prevent the insertion of
the disease thalassemia ?
the Met RNAi into the P site
(A) Aplastic anemia
(D) Reacts with NAD+ to add ADP-ribose
(B) Hemolytic anemia
to eEF2 and prevents movement of
the peptidyl-tRNA from A to P site (C) Hemorrhagic anemia
in the ribosome (D) Iron deficiency anemia

03 – A 6 Paper II
 Total Number of Pages : 24

24. Name the hormone, which is released 27. A researcher was asked to clone a 2 Kb
by the posterior pituitary. fragment isolated following digestion
(A) Oxytocin with the restriction enzyme ‘W’. He was
(B) Thyroid stimulating hormone given the choice of using a plasmid
(C) Interstitial-cell stimulating with a multiple cloning site with sites for
hormone enzymes ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’. The recognition
(D) Prolactin sequence and the site of cleavage
(marked with ∗) of the four enzymes are
25. Diabetes insipidus is caused due to as follows :
insufficient level of Restriction site for W : 5′ G∗TCGAC 3′
(A) Insulin Restriction site for X : 5′ C∗TCGAG 3′
(B) Anti-diuretic hormone Restriction site for Y : 5′ CTGCA∗G 3′
(C) Thyroxine Restriction site for Z : 5′ GTCGA∗C 3′
(D) Thyroid stimulating hormone
The research scholar can clone the
fragment in the RE site for
26. A researcher ligates a EcoRI digested
DNA fragment to a plasmid DNA (A) X only
digested with EcoRI. On transformation
(B) Z only
the researcher observed that the
percentage of clones with recombinant (C) both X and Z
plasmids was low. Which one of the
following strategies would improve the (D) both Y and Z
observed results ?
(A) Fill the staggered end of both the 28. If the A260 of 1ml of DNA sample is 0.800,
insert and the plasmid to create what will be the expected absorbance
blunt ends of 200µl of the same sample ?
(B) Treat the digested plasmid with
an enzyme, which removes the (A) 0.160
phosphate groups at the 5′ ends
(B) 0.320
(C) Reduce the amount of insert used
in the ligation reaction
(C) 0.400
(D) Use of higher amount of ligation
mixture for transformation (D) 0.800

Paper II 7 03 – A
 Total Number of Pages : 24

29. A cDNA fragment flanked by Hind III sites 31. Which of the following are protozoans ?
was cloned into a vector at the Hind III (A) Diatoms, flagellates, amoebas and
site, for its expression under T7 promoter ciliates
as shown in the figure below. (B) Apicomplexans, flagellates, amoeba
Sal I and ciliates
(C) Amoeba, actinomycetes, ciliates
T7 promoter and flagellates
Hind III (D) Flagellates, ciliates, cyanobacteria
and apicomplexans
Bgl II
cDNA

Sal I
32. The table given below lists of organisms
Hind III
(Column A) and characteristic features
SP6 promoter
(Column B).
Column A Column B
Which one of the following digestions will
a. Caulobacter i. Multicellular
help determine the correct orientation of
fruiting body
the cDNA ?
b. Myxobacteria ii. Endospore
(A) Digestion with Hind III c. Methylotroph iii. Non-free living,
Penicillin
(B) Digestions with Bgl II
resistant
(C) Digestion with Sal I d. Bacillus subtilis iv. Immortal stalk
cells
(D) Double digestion with Hind III
e. Mycoplasma v. Can use formate,
and Sal I cyanide and
carbon monoxide
as source of
30. The size of DNA that can be cloned in
carbon
Yeast Artificial Chromosome (YAC)
Choose the option that correctly matches
(A) Ranges on an average between organisms with their characteristic
200 to 2000 kb features.
(B) Less than 200 kb (A) a – i; b – v; c – iv; d – ii; e – iii
(C) Has no size restriction (B) a – iv; b – i; c – v; d – ii; e – iii

(D) Ranges on an average between (C) a – iv; b – v; c – i; d – iii; e – ii

100 to 270 kb (D) a – ii; b – i; c – v; d – iv; e – iii

03 – A 8 Paper II
 Total Number of Pages : 24

33. Techoic acid a component of gram +ve 36. Column X lists different DNA polymerase
and column Y some functions.
bacteria’s cell wall binds with which of
Column X Column Y
the following to protect bacteria from
i. DNA polymerase I a. Mitochondrial
thermal injury ? DNA replication
ii. DNA polymerase α b. Main
+2
(A) Mg Replicative
enzyme
(B) Fe
+2 iii. DNA polymerase γ c. Priming during
replication
(C) Phosphorus iv. DNA polymerase δ d. DNA repair
and gap filling
Select the option with all correct
(D) Sulphur
matches.
(A) i – c; ii – a; iii – d; iv – b
34. Pentaglycine chain bridges the lysine (B) i – b; ii – c; iii – d; iv – a
(C) i – b; ii – c; iii – a; iv – d
E-amino group and the D-alanine
(D) i – d; ii – c; iii – a; iv – b
carboxylic group in the cell wall of
37. The table below lists inhibitors of protein
(A) Gram positive bacteria synthesis (Column X) and their mode of
action (Column Y).
Column X Column Y
(B) Gram negative bacteria
1. Puromycin a. Blocking ‘A’ site
on ribosome
(C) Fungi
2. Tetracycline b. ADP ribosylation
of eEF2
(D) Higher plants
3. Diphtheria toxin c. Premature
termination of
peptide
35. Penicillin inhibits bacterial growth by
4. Ricin d. Inactivates 60S
irreversibly inactivating the enzyme submit of
eukaryotic
(A) Fatty acid synthase ribosomal 23S
rRNA
Which one of the following represents a
(B) Cytochrome oxidase
correct match between the two column ?
(A) 1 – c, 2 – d, 3 – b, 4 – a
(C) Glycopeptide transpeptidase
(B) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – d, 4 – c
(C) 1 – d, 2 – c, 3 – b, 4 – a
(D) Hexokinase
(D) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – d, 4 – a
Paper II 9 03 – A
 Total Number of Pages : 24

38. Based on current knowledge, the concept 40. Which of the following apply uniquely to
of ‘one gene – one peptide’ does not hold secondary lymphoid organs ?
true. Following is a list of processes in
eukaryotic cell, involved in the encoding (A) presence of precursor B and T cells
of a peptide from a gene.

1. Alternative splicing. (B) circulation of lymphocytes

2. RNA editing.
(C) terminal differentiation
3. Transport of mRNA from nucleus to
the cytoplasm. (D) cellular proliferation

4. Post translational modification of

peptides. 41. In photosynthesis, the light-dependent
Which one of the following options reaction take place on the thylakoid
represent processes that has falsified
membranes. The inside of the thylakoid
the ‘one gene–one peptide’ concept ?
membrane is called the lumen and
(A) 1 only
outside the thylakoid membrane is the
(B) Both 1 and 2
stroma, where the light-independent
(C) Both 2 and 3 reaction takes place. Which of the
(D) Both 1 and 4 following are the products of the light

reaction of photosynthesis that are

39. Among the following list of sequences
utilized in the Calvin cycle ?
which one is characteristic of promoter
region of genes transcribed at a low +
(A) Electrons and H
rate ?

(A) The TATA Box (B) ATP and NADPH

(B) The Matrix Associated regions
(C) CO2 and glucose
(C) CpG island

(D) Insulators (D) RUBP and PGA

03 – A 10 Paper II
 Total Number of Pages : 24

42. Which one of the following statements 44. Which statement about the function of
is not correct ? the casparian strip is correct ?

(A) Cytoskeleton is present in eukaryotic (A) Prevents excess transpiration from

cell and absent in prokaryotic cell leaves

(B) In biological membranes, integral (B) Regulates ion movements into the
proteins and lipids interact mainly root vascular cylinder
by hydrophobic interactions
(C) Prevents horizontal water movement
(C) All membrane processes, such as
from vascular cylinder to cortex
pumping and channeling of molecules
are carried out by proteins (D) It is a pathway for nutrient transfer
from xylem to phloem
(D) Channel proteins can facilitate both
active and passive transport
45. The pigment molecules responsible for
photosynthesis are located in the
43. Which one of the following statements
describes the functioning of (A) Cytoplasm
Photosystem II ?
(B) Stroma of chloroplast

(A) The splitting of water yields molecular (C) Thylakoid membrane of the
carbon dioxide as a byproduct chloroplast

(B) The P680 chlorophyll donates a (D) Mitochondria

pair of protons to NADPH, which is
+ thus converted to NADP+ 46. An ORF (open reading frame) of 1200bp
in E. coli encodes for a peptide. What
(C) The electron vacancies in P680 are
filled by electron derived from water will be the expected mass (kDa) of the
peptide encoded by this ORF ?
(D) Light energy excites electrons in
(A) 11 (B) 22
the electron transport chain in a
photosynthetic unit (C) 44 (D) 132

Paper II 11 03 – A
 Total Number of Pages : 24

47. Given the percentages of different bases, 51. In a monohybrid cross involving a
which one of the following nucleic acid dominant and recessive character, the F2
is likely to be double stranded DNA progeny showed the presence of 2500
molecule ? individuals with dominant phenotype
(A) A(35), T(15), G(35), C(15) and 1500 with recessive phenotype.
(B) A(35), T(35), G(15), C(15) Which one of the following tests can be

(C) A(35), U(35), G(15), C(15) performed to test whether the F2 fits the
expected 3 : 1 ratio ?
(D) A(35), T(15), G(15), C(35)
(A) ANOVA

48. Triple stranded collagen helix is (B) Chi-square test

stabilized by (C) Student’s t-test
(A) Leucine and isoleucine (D) Z-test
(B) Proline and hydroxyproline
(C) Phenylalanine and valine 52. A cross was made between two parents
with genotypes aaBB and AAbb. The
(D) Methionine and cysteine
F1 progeny was test-crossed. If the
genetic distance between the two genes
49. In presence of competitive inhibitor in is 10 cM, what percentage of the progeny
enzyme catalysed reactions
from the test-cross will have the genotype
(A) Vmax increases AABB ?
(B) Vmax decreases (A) 90% (B) 45%
(C) Km increases (C) 10% (D) 5%

(D) Km decreases
53. If the recessive disease phenylketonuria
50. Net charge on an amino acid at a pH (PKU) occurs in a genetically constant
less than pI will be population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
with a frequency of 1 in 10000, the
(A) Positive
percentage of the population expected to
(B) Negative be carriers is approximately
(C) Neutral (A) 1% (B) 2%
(D) Charge is not affected by pH (C) 10% (D) 20%

03 – A 12 Paper II
 Total Number of Pages : 24

54. A biosensor can be most appropriately 56. Triskelion structure is associated with
defined as
(A) Glycophorin A
(A) A device that have silicon chips
(B) Clathrin
replaced by biomolecules
(C) Elastases
(B) Any device that can be used to
take physiological measurements (D) Nucleosomes
in medical diagnostics

57. The expression of gene ‘A’ in the presence

(C) Any device that produces a
measurable signal proportional (+) and absence (–) of thyroid hormone (TH)
to the concentration of the target was analyzed in a cell line. The following is
biological or chemical analyte a representation of the observation made

(D) A device used for detection following northern hybridization (panel A)

of chemical substances that and western hybridization (panel B) of
connects biological components gene ‘A’ products.
to a physiochemical device
TH – +
A. Northern
hybridization
55. Human immune-deficiency virus
(HIV)-infected individuals are said to B. Western
hybridization
be diagnosed for AIDS when

(A) an individual found to be positive Based on the above observations, it

for HIV infection irrespective of any can be concluded that thyroid hormone
other parameters regulates gene ‘A’

(A) only at the transcriptional level

(B) an HIV-infected individual has CD4
3
count lower than 200 cells/mm (B) only at the translational level

(C) an HIV-infected individual has CD4 (C) both at transcriptional and

3
count between 500-1500 cells/mm translational level

(D) an HIV-infected individual has CD4 (D) neither at transcriptional nor

3
count more than 1500 cells/mm translational level

Paper II 13 03 – A
 Total Number of Pages : 24

58. DNA polyerase III lacks following 62. In order to localise a known protein
activities : present at low concentrations in tissues
(A) 5′ – 3′ polymerase one would use

(B) 3′ – 5′ exonuclease (A) Electron microscopy

(C) 5′ – 3′ exonuclease (B) Autoradiography
(D) Both 5′ – 3′ and 3′ – 5′
(C) Immuno-fluorescence microscopy
exonuclease activity
(D) Phase contrast microscopy
59. Splicing of GU-AG intron

(A) Involves transesterification 63. The long and elaborate horns of males
reaction as compared to females in deer are an

(B) Form Y-shaped branch structure example of

(C) Occurs in prokaryotic messenger (A) Sexual selection

RNA
(B) Trait matching
(D) Requires maturase activity
(C) Stress physiology

60. Which one of the following is recognized (D) Adaptive radiation

by the small subunit of E. coli ribosome ?

(A) Rho utilization site 64. Which of the following conditions is true ?

(B) Leader sequence (A) In semelparous species, individuals

(C) Kozak sequence reproduce repeatedly in their lifetime

(D) Shine Dalgarno sequence (B) In semelparous species, individuals

reproduce only once in their lifetime
61. Poisson distribution is applied for
(C) In iteroparous species, individuals
(A) Continuous random variable reproduce only once in their lifetime
(B) Discrete random variable
(D) In iteroparous species, individuals
(C) Irregular random variable reproduce only exactly twice in their
(D) Uncertain random variable lifetime
03 – A 14 Paper II
 Total Number of Pages : 24

65. Match the following classes of terpenes 67. The level of bicoid protein was measured
and their ecological significance.
in early cleavage embryo of Drosophila.
Group – I
Which one of the following graphs is a
1. Monoterpenes
2. Diterpenes correct representation of bicoid gradient
3. Triterpenes along the anterior-posterior axis ?
4. Tetraterpenes
Group – II

Concentration
a. b-Carotene
b. Pyrethroids (A)
c. Dihydroleucodine
d. Sito sterol
Anterior Posterior
Group – III
p. Membrane Component
q. Plant Pigment
r. Insecticidal activity Concentration
s. Antioxidant (B)

Identify the correct one :

Anterior Posterior
(A) 1-b-r; 2-c-s; 3-d-p; 4-a-q
(B) 1-d-p, 2-b-r; 3-c-s; 4-a-q
(C) 1-d-q; 2-c-p; 3-b-s; 4-a-r
Concentration

(D) 1-a-q; 2-c-r; 3-b-s; 4-d-p

(C)

66. In chick, development of wing feathers,

thigh feathers and claws depends on Anterior Posterior
epithelial specificity conferred by induction
from mesenchymal components from
different sources of the dermis. This may
Concentration

be attributed to
(A) Autocrine interaction (D)
(B) Regional specificity of induction
(C) Genetic specificity of interaction Anterior Posterior
(D) Autonomous development

Paper II 15 03 – A
 Total Number of Pages : 24

68. Izumo, present in the acrosomal membrane 69. When a sperm fuses with sea urchin
egg, a wave of calcium release is seen
and Juno, an oocyte membrane protein is starting from the point of sperm entry
that propagates across the egg. The
involved in sperm-egg fusion in mammals.
calcium wave can be viewed if the egg
Which one of the following experiments and is stained with a dye that fluoresces
on binding to calcium. Compounds like
their outcomes unequivocally demonstrate A23187 and EDTA are used to analyze
the origin and outcome of these waves.
that Izumo’s interaction with Juno will lead
A23187 is a calcium ionophore that
2+
to sperm-egg fusion ? allows the diffusion of Ca across lipid
membranes, permitting them to travel
across otherwise impermeable barriers.
2+
(A) Immunostaining of sperms and eggs EDTA chelates Ca , by binding to and
holding onto it. In order to find out if the
with antibodies against Juno and observed wave is due to release of Ca
2+
2+
Izumo demonstrating their specificity from within the cell or influx of Ca from
outside, different experiments were
of expression proposed. Which one of the following
treatments will help in answering the
question ?
(B) Overexpression of Juno in the oocyte

to demonstrate sperm binding

(C) Developing independent kidney

cell lines expressing either Juno

or Izumo and demonstrating that (A) Placing sea urchin eggs in seawater
containing A231872
these cells adhere to each other
(B) Inducing fertilization of sea urchin
eggs in calcium free water
(D) Demonstrating interaction of Izumo
(C) Treating sea urchin eggs with EDTA
and Juno by FRET (Fluorescence before fertilization
Resonance Energy Transfer) (D) Treating sea urchin eggs with
A231872 before fertilization

03 – A 16 Paper II
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70. CLAVATA-WUSCHAL genes are 73. In humans, sulfur of cysteine does not
expresses in participate in the
(A) donation of sulfur for methionine
(A) Sieve elements formation
(B) conversion of cyanide to less toxic
(B) Tracheasy elements thiocyanate
(C) Wood parenchyma (C) formation of thiosulfate
(D) formation of taurine
(D) Shoot apical meristem

74. The DNA content of cells in G1 phase is

71. Which one of the following metabolic 2C. If these cells divide to form gametes,
what will be the amount of DNA present
pathways is common to both fermentation in them ?
and cellular respiration of a glucose (A) 4C
molecule ? (B) 2C

(A) Reduction of pyruvate to lactate (C) C

(D) 1/2C
(B) The electron transport chain

(C) Synthesis of acetyl CoA from 75. The following merodiploids were
developed to study the induction of
pyruvate
lac operon in E. coli :
+ C + + – + – –
(D) Glycolysis Strain A. I O Z Y /F’I O Z Y
– + + + – + – –
Strain B. I O Z Y /F’I O Z Y
– + + + + + – –
72. Name the two amino acids that are Strain C. I O Z Y /F’I O Z Y
+ C – – + + + +
components of artificial sweetener, Strain D. I O Z Y /F’I O Z Y

‘aspartame’. Which one of the following options

represents strains that will show
(A) Aspartic acid and phenylalanine constitutive expression of the lac
operon ?
(B) Arginine and tyrosine (A) Strains A and B

(C) Aspartic acid and tryptophan (B) Strains B and C

(C) Strains A and C
(D) Aspartic acid and glutamic acid
(D) Strains C and D
Paper II 17 03 – A
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76. You have been given three tubes 1, 2 78. Independent plant transgenic lines
and 3, each having different combinations developed with the same T-DNA construct
can show wide variation in the expression
of the same antigen and its complementary of the transgene. The following reasons
antibody. In tube ‘1’ antibody is in excess were put forth to explain this observation

amount, in the tube ‘2’ antigen is in excess 1. The number of transgenes

incorporated in different lines could
amount while in tube ‘3’, both are in vary

equivalent amounts. In which tube will you 2. The position of integration of the
transgene cassette may differ from
observe maximum precipitation ? plant to plant
3. The activity of the promoter may
(A) Tube 1 vary from plant to plant
Which of the above are the correct
(B) Tube 2 reasons for the observed variation in
expression ?

(C) Tube 3 (A) 1 only

(B) 2 only
(D) Tubes 1, 2 and 3 will have same (C) Both 1 and 2
amount of precipitate (D) 1, 2 and 3

77. Aminopterin is used during hybridoma 79. The following are some transgenic
plants that have been developed
cell selection because
1. Bt. brinjal
(A) It blocks the denovo pathway of 2. Bt. cotton
DNA synthesis 3. Golden Rice
4. Flavr savr tomato
(B) It prevents the growth of B cells Which one of the following options
represents transgenic plant(s) that has
(C) It blocks the syntheses of IgG by been commercialized in India ?
hybridoma cells (A) Only 2
(B) Both 1 and 2
(D) It blocks the salvage pathway of
(C) Both 2 and 3
DNA synthesis
(D) Both 1 and 4

03 – A 18 Paper II
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80. The reporter gene β-glucuronidase 82. Greatest loss of biodiversity in the last
(gus) from E. Coli is often used in plant two centuries has resulted from the
transformation experiments to assess
the efficiency of Agrobacterium-based (A) The physical alteration of habitats
transformation. Analyzing GUS activity (B) Introduction of alien species to new
at different stages of plant transformation ecosystems
and regeneration does this. However,
as Agrobacterium may be also present (C) Use of fossil fuels to support
during the process of regeneration transportation and electrical
there is a need to distinguish between production
activity of gus in transformed plant
cells and agrobacterial cells. This has (D) The use of rivers, lakes and oceans
been achieved by for transportation

(A) driving the expression of gus under

CaMV35S promoter 83. Three of the following criteria have
(B) cloning an intron into the coding contributed to the recognition of Western
region of the gus gene Ghats-Sri Lanka and Indo-Burma
regions as hotspots of biodiversity
(C) washing the explants with
bacteriocidal agents 1. High species diversity
(D) using appropriate quantities of 2. High vegetation density
selection markers like kanamycin
3. High rate of endemism
and hygromycin
4. Ethno-botanical importance
81. The amount of mineral nutrients in
the soils of tropical rain forests are 5. Threat perception
comparatively low because 6. Adaptation of flora and fauna to
(A) The population of microbes and warm and humid conditions
fungi, which are responsible for
decomposition are insufficient Which three of the above are correct
criteria in this context ?
(B) Decomposition of organic matter
and re-assimilation of chemicals (A) 1, 2 and 6
by the plant occur rapidly
(B) 1, 3 and 5
(C) Nutrient cycling occurs at
relatively slow rate (C) 2, 4 and 6

(D) Low diversity of herbs (D) 3, 4 and 6

Paper II 19 03 – A
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84. In the biodiversity analysis, the importance 86. If you had 50 V, 20 D and 6 J regions able
of a species is its relative contribution to to code for a heavy chain and 40 V and
the whole community. The Importance 5 J regions of genes able to code for a
Value Index (IVI) can be calculated by light chain, you could have a maximum
which of the following ?
immunoglobulin repertoire of
(A) Density of all species � average
(A) 3420 specificities
basal area per individual
(B) 6200 specificities
(B) Relative frequency � relative
basal area (C) 1,200,000 specificities
(C) Relative density + relative (D) more than 1,200,000 specificities
frequency + relative basal area
(D) Total number of species � relative 87. A panel of cell lines was created from
density/100
human-mouse somatic-cell fusions.
Each line was examined for the presence
85. What is the difference between a of human chromosomes and for the
threatened species and an endangered production of three enzymes. On the
species ?
basis of the results shown in the table
(A) A threatened species means that given below, give the chromosome
the population is likely to become location of enzyme 1, enzyme 2 and
endangered and an endangered enzyme 3.
species has population numbers so
low that it is likely to become extinct Cell Enzyme Human chromosomes
line 1 2 3 4 8 9 12 15 16 17 22 X
(B) A threatened species is already A + – + – – + – + + – – +
extinct and an endangered species B + – – – – + – – + + – –
means that the population’s numbers C – + + + – – – – – + – +
have increased greatly over the last D – + + + + – – – + – – +
5 years
Select the option with correct combination
(C) A threatened species means that
of enzyme (E) and chromosome (Ch).
the population is likely to become
endangered and an endangered (A) E1 – Ch9; E2 – Ch4; E3 – ChX
species is already extinct
(B) E1 – Ch16; E2 – Ch17; E3 – ChX
(D) A threatened species and
(C) E1 – Ch9; E2 – Ch17; E3 – Ch1
an endangered species are
considered same (D) E1 – Ch16; E2 – Ch4; E3 – Ch1

03 – A 20 Paper II
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88. Which of the following events will not 91. What important thermal balance objective
usually lead to transformation of a is facilitated by counter-current circulation
normal cell into a cancer cell ? in mammals ?
(A) Gain of function of oncogenes
(A) Hyperthermia
(B) Loss of function of tumor
suppressors (B) Sweating

(C) Gain of function of genes involved (C) Homeostasis for core of body or vital
in nucleotide excision repair organs
(D) Loss of function of pro-apoptosis
related genes (D) Homeostasis in extremities

89. Which one of the following is not a 92. Which one of the following statements
second messenger ? is correct regarding melatonin in
vertebrates ?
(A) Cyclic GMP
(B) Diacylglycerol (A) Pineal organ and lateral eyes
secrete melatonin
(C) Inositol triphosphate
(D) Phosphatidyl inositol (B) Melatonin concentrates pigments in
melanosomes

90. Following are stages of tumor (C) Melatonin is secreted at night in

development. all species
1. Metastasis
(D) Melatonin is not known to be
2. Progression produced by any peripheral cells
3. Promotion
4. Initiation 93. The force development by a skeletal
muscle depends on
Select the option representing the correct
sequence of tumor development. (A) its length
(A) 2, 3, 4, 1
(B) its cross-sectional area
(B) 4, 3, 2, 1
(C) number of sarcomeres
(C) 1, 2, 3, 4
(D) 1, 3, 4, 2 (D) length and number of sarcomeres

Paper II 21 03 – A
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94. Following statements describe motor 96. An E. coli strain was developed where the
neuron pathways in the somatic nervous operator of the lac operon was changed
system and autonomic nervous system to that of the operator binding to the trp
(ANS).
repressor. The following statements are
1. Somatic motor neurons release only
made regarding the expected outcomes
acetylcholine (ACh.)
of this modification :
2. Autonomic motor neurons release
either ACh or norepinephrine (NE) 1. Expression of β-galactosidase will
3. Somatic nervous system stimulation be observed when tryptophan is low
either excites or inhibits visceral in the medium.
effectors
4. Stimulation by the autonomic 2. While expression of β-galactosidase
nervous system always excites its will be controlled by tryptophan levels,
effectors (skeletal muscle fibers) lactose permease expression will still
Which of the following options represents be controlled by lactose levels.
all incorrect statements ? 3. The lac operon will be under
(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only attenuation control.
(C) 3 and 4 only (D) 4 only
Which one of the following options
represents all correct sentences ?
95. Given following are the statements
regarding amine hormones. (A) 1 only
1. Amine hormones are synthesized (B) 2 only
by decarboxylating (removing a
molecule of CO2 ) and otherwise (C) Both 1 and 2
modifying certain amino acids. (D) Both 1 and 3
2. They are called amines because they
lack an amino group (– NH3+).
97. Nucleosome is a structural unit of
3. The dopamine is synthesized by chromosome consisting of
modifying the amino acid tyrosine.
4. Histamine is synthesized from the (A) 4 histone molecules and a specific
amino acid histidine by mast cells length of DNA
and platelets.
(B) 8 histone molecules and a specific
5. Serotonin and melatonin are derived sequence of DNA
from methionine.
Select the option with all correct (C) 8 histone molecules and a specific
statements. length of DNA
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 only (B) 1, 2, 5 only (D) 4 histone molecules and specific
(C) 1, 3, 4 only (D) 2, 4, 5 only sequence of DNA
03 – A 22 Paper II
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98. Name the protein that holds two sister 100. Given below is names of scientists
chromatids together. (Column X) and associated areas of
(A) Securin recognition (Column Y).
(B) Separase
(C) Cohesin Column X Column Y
(D) APC
a. Z. Janseen 1. Proposed cell
99. The table below lists compound in theory
Group I and targets in Group II.
Group I Group II b. R. Hooke 2. Discovered cell
(Compounds) (Target)
+ c. R. Brown 3. Compound
P. Cyanide 1. K ionophore
microscope
Q. Antimycin A 2. Electron transfer
from cyt-b to cyt-c
d. M. J. Schleiden 4. Discovery of

R. Valinomycin 3. Prevents and T. Sehwann nucleus

electron transfer
from Fe-S centre to
Which one of the following is a correct
ubiquinone
match between X and Y ?
S. Rotenone 4. Cytochrome
oxidase
(A) a – 1, b – 3, c – 2, d – 4
Match the compounds in Group I with
their correct targets in Group II.
(B) a – 2, b – 1, c – 4, d – 3
(A) P – 3, Q – 2, R – 4, S – 1

(B) P – 4, Q – 3, R – 1, S – 2 (C) a – 3, b – 4, c – 2, d – 1
(C) P – 4, Q – 2, R – 1, S – 3

(D) P – 3, Q – 4, R – 2, S – 1 (D) a – 3, b – 2, c – 4, d – 1

Paper II 23 03 – A
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Space for Rough Work

03 – A 24 Paper II