Pearl Yadana Vocational Training Center (Mandalay Branch)

Monthly test for B1S3 (Aug, 5, 2023)

1. For cost management, which system is use in project cost management?

a) WBS b) PART c) EVMS d) PMO

2. In the figure, the work unit price per one hour is 51dollars up to Task B, and 26dollars after that.

The cost different on Task C level in term of monetary amount is

a) 3,380dollars b) 6,980dollars c) 9,500dollars d) 16,480dollars

3. In order to achieve the objectives of a project, the deliverables that must be created in the project
and the activities that are necessary to create the deliverables are decomposed. In which of the
following knowledge areas of project management is this activity?

a) Project cost management b) Project scope management

c) Project time management d) Project risk management

4. Which of the following is a method that organizes all of the activities that need to be performed in
the project in a hierarchical structure, and clarifies the work units to be managed in the project?

a) CRM b) ERP c) PPM d) WBS

5. Which of the following items must be clarified in order to determine the appropriate assignment of
the project members?

a) Cost estimation method

b) Reporting method of activity progress

c) Acceptance standards of deliverables

d) Roles and responsibilities to be allocated

6. EVMS is a method to quantitatively evaluate project progress by comparing a budget and task
progress. It is also called a

a) Work breakdown structure

b) Production management system
c) Quality management plan
d) PERT
7. After the system is accepted by the client, the project manager creates

a) Gantt chart b) Project completion report

c) Quality management plan d) Project charter

8. Which of the following is not an appropriate explanation of PMBOK?

a) It is a guideline for a project manager to perform comprehensively.

b) It is a systematized knowledge required for project management,
c) It is an index to evaluate an improve system development and system maintenance
processes.
d) It subdivides management targets such as scope, time and cost as knowledge areas.

9. In project management, which of the following is an appropriate diagram or chart that can be used
for representing the time sequence and dependencies of activities and creating the schedule of a
project?

a) Arrow diagram b) Cause and effect diagram

c) Composite bar chart d) Control chart

10. In the arrow diagram below, what is the maximum number of days that can be allowed as a delay
of the activity “C→F” on condition that the total number of days required for activities from A
through G is not affected?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

11. The processes of project management include project cost management, project communications
management, project resources management, project schedule management, and the like. In a system
development project, which of the following is the most appropriate activity in project cost
management when members are added for implementing a test?

a) Updating the mailing list, etc. so that information can be efficiently transmitted to the
newly participating members
b) Requesting a vendor to provide training on the testing tool to the newly participating
members
c) Adding tasks to be handled by the newly participating members, and changing the schedule
d) Estimating the personnel expenses of the newly participating members, and changing the
planning

12. After the start of a project, the scope is defined by collecting the requirements for the project.
Which of the following is the most appropriate purpose of defining the scope?
a) To clarify the activities to be implemented in the project
b) To create the action plan against the risk that has been realized in the project
c) To create an action plan for the delay of the project
d) To create the objectives of the project

13. Which of the following is an appropriate characteristic of a project?

a) It achieves a specific goal for a limited period of time.
b) It consists of a team of fixed members, and the team is in charge of all the processes. c) It
starts without defining the end of the project, and the end of the project is determined
according to the progress status.
d) It is repeatedly performed as a routine task.

14. Which of the following is the most appropriate case where project management methods are
applied?

a) Applied to routine operations of a computer system

b) Applied as price setting standards when system development work is outsourced
c) Applied as a framework when the roles in a systems development department are defined
d) Applied when a team is created to construct a system

15. Which of the following is an appropriate explanation of decomposition that is performed to

create the WBS of a system development project?

a) The cost and time required to create project deliverables can be estimated, and it is
desirable that decomposition be performed up to the manageable level.
b) When system development is outsourced, all decomposition of deliverables should be left
to the discretion of the outsource that creates the deliverables.
 c) Since a meeting that is held to report the progress of a project is a means of
communication, the meeting is not subject to decomposition.
d) If there are some experiences in developing similar systems, it is not necessary to perform
decomposition again.

16. In an arrow diagram that shows system development, if activities A and D are delayed for three
(3) days in total, what is the delay in the entire project?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

17. After the system is accepted by the client, the project manager creates a

a) Quality management plan

b) Project completion report
c) Project Plan
d) PMBOK

18. When the project starts, a meeting is held with the project members is called

a) kick – off
b) PMO
c) PDCA
d) EVMS

19. The detail contents about the project’s important issue, organization, how to carry out tasks, and
progress management method are put together into a

a) Quality management plan

b) Project completion report
c) Project Plan
d) Project Charter
20. The central person of the project is

a) Project member
b) Project manager
c) Client
d) User

21. Which of the following is a technique that represents, hierarchically as shown in the figure below,
activities of the development project of the new sales office system?

a) PERT (Program Evaluation and Review Technique)

b) WBS (Work Breakdown Structure)
c) Structured programming
d) FP (Function Point) method

22. When a company starts up a project, a document is created in order to acquire approval for the
project. This is called

a) Quality management plan

b) Project completion report
c) Project Plan
d) Project Charter

23. The project manager constantly communicates with the project members and
a) Director
b) PMO
c) Client
d) User

24. Which of the following is the most appropriate description of PMO?

a) a project planning tool that’s used to mark a point in a project schedule

 b) is evaluation method of a project’s quality by using the actual results of similar other
projects as standard and comparing within them
c) is a group, agency or department that defines and maintains the standards of project
management for a company
d) is the individual responsible for the overall control and success of a single project from
start to finish

25. Which of the following is the most appropriate explanation of Benchmark?

a) a project planning tool that’s used to mark a point in a project schedule

b) is evaluation method of a project’s quality by using the actual results of similar other
projects as standard and comparing within them
c) is a group, agency or department that defines and maintains the standards of project
management for a company
d) is the individual responsible for the overall control and success of a single project
from start to finish

26. A character string is replaced according to the string replacement rule shown below. When the
replacement result is “00101110110”, which of the following is the string before the replacement?

a) CABBAB b) CCABABC c) CCBCBAA d) CAABABC

27. Search for both aquariums in City A and art museums in City B at the same time. Which of the
following is an appropriate logical expression that represents the search condition?
a) (“City A” OR “City B”) OR (“aquarium” OR “art museum”)
b) (“City A” OR “City B”) AND (“aquarium” OR “art museum”)
c) (“City A” AND “aquarium”) AND (“City B” AND “art museum”)
d) (“City A” AND “aquarium”) OR (“City B” AND “art museum”)

28. Which of the following is the decimal number to represent 10.011 in the binary system?
a) 2.125 b) 2.25 c) 2.375 d) 2.625

29. Which of the following is the decimal number that is equivalent to the hexadecimal number
“D3”?
a) 103 b) 153 c) 163 d) 211
30. Which of the following is the logical operation that is equivalent to the truth table below?
Input A Input B Input C
0 0 0
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 1
a) AND b) NOT c) OR d) XOR

31. (a) Find the two’s complement for -15 and -218.
(b) Convert 2.47 decimal number to binary number system.

32. Which of the following represents the decimal number 129 in binary?
a) 10011011 b) 10110011 c) 11001101 d) 10000001

33. As shown in the figure below, decimal numbers 2, 5, 10, and 21 are represented using five
squares, each of which is either black or white.

A white square indicates 0, and a black square indicates a different positive value that is determined
by the position of the square. When the sum of the values of the five squares shows a decimal
number, which of the following is the numeric value represented by ■■□□□?
a) 12 b) 20 c) 24 d) 30

34. Which of the following is obtained by multiplying the binary value 10110 by 101?
a) 111010 b) 1101110 c) 1000010 d) 10110000

35. Which of the following is a search condition for the black area of the Venn diagram shown
below?

a) (not A) and B and C b) (not A) and (B or C)

 c) (not A) or (B and C) d) (not A) or (B or C)

36. Which of the following describes the relationship that is always true for two (2) sets A and B? Here,
(X ∩ Y) represents the part that belongs to both X and Y (intersection set), and (X ∪ Y) represents the part
that belongs to at least one of X or Y (union set).
a) (A ∪ B) is a subset of the complement of (A ∩ B).
b) (A ∪ B) is a subset of A.
c) (A ∩ B) is a subset of (A ∪ B).
d) (A ∩ B) is a subset of the complement of A.

37. Which of the following is the binary number that is obtained by adding the binary numbers
01011010 and 01101011? Here, the binary numbers are expressed as positive 8-bit values.
a) 00110001 b) 01111011 c) 10000100 d) 11000101

38. As shown in Figure 1, there is a box that generates a single output for two inputs. The input in
this box is either “Agree” or “Disagree,” and the output of “Agree” is generated only when both
inputs are “Agree,” while in other cases the output of “Disagree” is generated. When three inputs are
entered into two boxes as shown in Figure 2, which of the following is the correct description
concerning the output?

a) The output of “Agree” is generated at all times when one or more inputs are “Agree.”
b) The output of “Agree” is generated at all times when two or more inputs are “Agree.”
c) The output of “Disagree” is generated only when two or more inputs are “Disagree.”
d) The output of “Agree” is generated only when all three inputs are “Agree.”

39. Which of the following is the result from the bit-wise logical product of an 8-bit binary data X
and 00001111? Here, the left side of the data is the high-order, and the right side is the low-order.
a) All of the low-order four (4) bits are 0, and the high-order four (4) bits are the same as those of X.
b) All of the low-order four (4) bits are 1, and the high-order four (4) bits are the same as those of X.
c) All of the high-order four (4) bits are 0, and the low-order four (4) bits are the same as those of X.
d) All of the high-order four (4) bits are 1, and the low-order four (4) bits are the same as those of X.
40. There are five (5) lamps arranged in line. Each of them can be turned on and off independently.
How many patterns are there where two (2) or more lamps are turned on? Here, the pattern where all
lamps are turned on is counted as one (1) and the pattern where any one of them is turned on is
counted as five (5).
a) 4 b) 10 c) 26 d) 32

41. Which of the following is appropriate in terms of showing the relation of

Teaching_material_codes in Course_list_table and Teaching_material_list_table in Figure 1 using
primary key and foreign key?

42. Which of the following is appropriate in terms of table of the result obtained by projecting
“Customer_management_table” of the database?

d) This is a table that cannot be projected.

43. When the order records shown below are entered in the system where each order number must be
uniquely defined, which of the following is the appropriate method for searching the order master
file containing all of the past order records, and for checking the uniqueness of the order number?
Order record
Order number Order date Item code Quantity Customer
(Character) (year/month/day) (Character) (Numeric value) code
(Character)
a) Duplication check b) Format check
c) Limit check d) Logical check

44. In a company which has its offices dispersed in several buildings, it is decided to construct a
relational database to manage the locations where PCs are installed. “Asset” table, “Room” table,
and “Building” table are created, and these tables are linked. When new data is entered, data in the
table to be referenced should exist beforehand. Which of the following is the appropriate sequence of
entering data into each table? Note that the underlined items in each table indicate the primary keys
or the foreign keys.

a) “Asset” table → “Building” table → “Room” table

b) “Building” table → “Room” table → “Asset” table
c) “Room” table → “Asset” table → “Building” table
d) “Room” table → “Building” table → “Asset” table

45. There are three tables “Supplier” table, “Purchase_details” table, and “Product” table that are
managed by using a relational database. When a new product is purchased from a new supplier,
which of the following is the appropriate sequence of inserting data into the tables? Here, an
underline indicates a primary key, and a dotted underline indicates a foreign key. An arrow (→) in
the answer group represents the sequence of the tables into which data is inserted.
 a) “Product” table →“Supplier” table →“Purchase_details” table
b) “Purchase_details” table →“Product” table →“Supplier” table
c) “Supplier” table →“Product” table →“Purchase_details” table
d) “Supplier” table →“Purchase_details” table →“Product” table

46. In the description below concerning a relational database, which of the following is an appropriate
combination of technical terms to be inserted into blanks A and B?

47 Which of the following is an appropriate purpose of normalizing the data of a relational database?
a) To improve the compression ratio of data
b) To retain the consistency of data
c) To prevent the leakage of data
d) To enable the simultaneous access of data

48. In a relational database, when (A∪ B) and (A∩ B) are performed on table A and table B shown
below, which of the following is an appropriate combination of the resulting two tables among the
three tables P, Q, and R? Here, (A∪ B) shows the union of A and B, and (A∩ B) shows the
intersection of A and B.
49. Which of the following is an appropriate description concerning the primary key of a relational
database?
a) NULL can be set only in one (1) record to a value of a field selected as a primary key.
b) Any values in a field selected as a primary key cannot be updated.
c) A field selected as a primary key cannot be referenced as the foreign key of another table.
d) A combination of multiple fields can be selected as a primary key.

50. When designing a database, which of the following is used for the purpose of organizing and
representing the relation of data?
a) E-R diagram b) Arrow diagram
c) Gantt chart d) Flowchart

51. When a relational database is constructed according to the processes (A through C) below, which
of the following is the appropriate execution sequence?
A: Identifying the data items to be managed
B: Analyzing the target business operations
C: Creating the relational database tables

a) A → B → C b) B → A → C
c) B→ C → A d) C→ A → B
52. Which of the following is an appropriate effect obtained through the normalization of data in a
relational database?
a) Securing of data compatibility between different types of computers
b) Improvement of storage efficiency through data compression
c) Elimination of redundancy and inconsistency of data
d) Omission of backups that are necessary in preparation for the failure of devices storing data

53. Which of the following is an appropriate description concerning foreign keys in a relational
database?
a) A property held by the foreign key is called a unique constraint.
b) Duplicate values cannot be set in the fields that are set as foreign keys.
c) Multiple foreign keys can be defined in a single table.
d) Multiple fields cannot be collectively set as a single foreign key.

54. In a relational database, which of the following is the reason for a primary key being specified?
a) To clearly indicate that something is not subject to an arithmetic operation
b) To enable the search of the column that is specified as the primary key
c) To prevent reference from another table
d) To enable any record in the table to be uniquely identified

55. The “Sales Details” table and the “Products” table are managed in a relational database. What is
the total number of notebooks sold?

a) 40 b) 80 c) 120 d) 200

56. Which of the following is an appropriate description concerning CPU performance?

a) Compared with a 64-bit CPU, a 32-bit CPU is able to process a longer data at one time.
b) The less the capacity of cache memory in the CPU, the faster the processing speed.
c) For a CPU of a given architecture, raising the clock frequency increases processing speed.
d) A dual core CPU can perform a greater number of processes simultaneously than a quad
core CPU can.
57. Which of the following is an appropriate description concerning the cache memory of a CPU?
a) The size of cache memory is greater than or equal to the size of main memory.
b) Cache memory is used to reduce the effective access time of main memory.
c) On computers with a large main memory, there is no effect of cache memory.
d) In order to increase the hit rate, the user specifies the frequently used programs to be
resident in cache memory.
58. Which of the following storage units has the shortest access time?
a) HDD b) SSD
c) Cache memory d) Main memory

59. Which of the following is an appropriate explanation of the hot standby system?
a) It is a system configuration where a collection of various types of hardware, software, and
data on the Internet is provided to the user.
b) It is a system configuration where a high level of reliability can be obtained by
simultaneously operating the two (2) sets of equipment and by always performing the same
processing while cross-checking the results.
c) It is a system configuration where a backup machine is always kept ready in an operable
state and is immediately switched into operation at the occurrence of a failure.
d) It is a system configuration where a backup machine is arranged, and at the occurrence of a
failure, the operator in charge starts up the backup machine and switches it into operation.

60. When the processing speed of the system overall is constrained because of slow processing speed
in one of the components, which of the following is a term for the component that is causing the
problem?
a) Throughput b) Defragmentation
c) Flowchart d) Bottleneck

61. The life cycle of a device is divided in terms of failures into three (3) periods, namely, the initial
failure period, the random failure period, and the wear-out failure period, as time goes by. In the first
initial failure period, the failure rate decreases as time goes by. Then, the device reaches a stable
state, and the failure rate is effectively constant in the subsequent random failure period while time
goes by. In the final wear-out failure period, the failure rate increases as time goes by, and the life of
the device eventually ends. Which of the following is a representation of the relation between the
failure rate and time?
a) Gantt chart b) Reliability growth curve
c) Bathtub curve d) Radar chart
62. Which of the following is an appropriate explanation of multitasking?
a) Several computers connected via a network work together to achieve a high performance
system.
b) Several processor cores composed of arithmetic circuits and other control circuits are
implemented in a single CPU.
c) The CPU processing time is allocated to several processes in turn so that the processes can
be executed simultaneously.
d) The same processing is performed for multiple data items by executing a single
instruction.

63. The types of programs that are running when a PC is started are broadly classified into three (3)
categories, namely BIOS (Basic Input Output System), OS, and resident application programs.
Which of the following is the order of execution of the programs?
a) BIOS, OS, resident application programs
b) OS, BIOS, resident application programs
c) OS, resident application programs, BIOS
d) Resident application programs, BIOS, OS

64. A single unit of Product A is composed of three (3) pieces of Part B and two (2) pieces of Part C.
In the production plan for a particular period, when the demand for Product A is 10, which of the
following is the net requirement of Part B? Here, the quantity in stock is five (5) for Part B, and there
are no other pieces in stock, in process, on back order, or already allocated. The net requirement is
calculated by subtracting the stock available for allocation from the gross requirement.

a) 20 b) 25 c) 30 d) 45

65. In order to manufacture one (1) unit of a product, 10 kg of the raw material A and 5 kg of the raw
material B are needed. If the amount of raw material that can be used in one (1) month is 60 kg of
raw material A and 40 kg of raw material B, what is the maximum number of units of the product
that can be manufactured in one (1) month?

a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 10

66. Which of the following concepts forms the basis of corporate activities according to which, rather
than simply pursuing profit, social issues such as contribution to society and protection of the global
environment are perceived and tackled.

a) BCP b) CSR c) M&A d) MBO

67. Which of the following is an explanation of a functional organization?

 a) It is an organization that is formed only for a fixed period of time by collecting only the
functions necessary for resolving a problem, and is dissolved when the problem is resolved.
b) It is an organization in which business operations are divided into expert functions, and
each function is configured as a unit.
c) It is an organization that is configured to bear the profit responsibility of the business with
a product or region as a unit.
d) It is an organization that is formed to have a vertical and a horizontal structure by
combining together units such as the product and functions

68. Which of the following is the person who audits the financial documents that are created by a
company?

a) Accounting auditor b) System auditor c) Legal profession d) Certified tax accountant

69. Which of the following is a method of education and training by which the techniques and
knowledge required for working are mastered through daily work experience? \

a) CDP b) e-learning c) Off-JT d) OJT

70. Which of the following is an explanation of OJT?

a) It is a methodology that actually uses an OA device for technical training and theory
acquisition for a company’s internal activities.
b) It is personnel training that is performed in order to reform organizational climate and
organizational culture internally through activities in small groups.
c) It is training where practical knowledge and skills are acquired on-site directly from a
supervisor or a senior through daily activities.
d) It is comprehensive training that raises an employee’s qualification to a certain level and is
provided in consideration of positional changes, such as promotion and reassignment, based
on the wishes and suitability of the employee.

71. Which of the following is an organization structure where each employee is under supervision of
two or more managers but tries to achieve coordination between goal-based project management and
the functional responsibilities of departments?

a) Divisional system organization b) Intra-venture organization

c) Functional organization d) Matrix organization

72. Which of the following is the form of business organization in which an independent virtual
company organization is established for each business segment within a corporation, in order to
make quick decisions and clarify management responsibilities?
 a) In-house company system b) Divisional organization

c) Project organization d) Holding company

73. Which of the following is an explanation of free software?

a) It can be installed on any number of computers without limitation in a predetermined

location of use.
b) It requires the users to pay predetermined charges to the developer if they continue to use
it after a certain period of free trial.
c) It is commercially available and permitted to be installed on more than one computer.
d) It is provided without charge and can be modified, copied, and distributed without
restriction under the license agreement.

74. Which of the following is the most appropriate activity based on CSR (Corporate Social
Responsibility)?

a) Providing products that require less material and less electricity

b) Providing products differentiated from competitors’ by adding new functions
c) Providing products that meet various market needs by adopting a cell production system
d) Providing products that the company did not offer, by acquiring other companies

75. Which of the following has a negative correlation between temperature and total sales?

76. Which of the following is an appropriate rule for a method of resolving problems called
“brainstorming”?

a) Participants should select and present only high-quality ideas among their own ideas.

b) Participants should criticize another participant’s ideas without hesitation.

c) Participants should avoid presenting better ideas based on another participant’s.

d) Participants should listen to freewheeling opinions, including unique ideas.

77. The design quality of software is associated with the skills of the designers, the design methods,
the design tools, and other factors. Which of the following is an appropriate name for a diagram or a
chart that resembles a fishbone and is used for identifying the items that affect the quality?

a) Arrow diagram

b) Cause and effect diagram

c) Pareto chart

d) Matrix diagram

78. Which of the following is an international book code?

a) EAN b) ISBN c) ITF d) UPC

79. Which of the following is the characteristic of QR code?

a) Reading direction is identified using position detection patterns (cut-out symbols).

b) It requires more space than a one-dimensional bar code to represent the same amount of data.
c) It can only encode numbers and alphabetical characters.
d) It is a stacked bar code, which is composed of a set of bar codes stacked vertically one above
another.

80. Which of the following is an appropriate description of certification to ISO 9001:2008?

a) Once a party is certified, the certification is permanent.

b) Certification is applied to manufacturing industries, not to service industries.
c) There is only one certification body in each country.
d) Organizations which fulfill the international standard “Quality Management System -
Requirements” are assessed and certified.

81. The same type of product is manufactured by allocating sets of assembly parts to three different
factories A, B, and C. The profit of each factory that is based on the allocated sets of parts is as
shown in the table below. How much (in thousand dollars) is the maximum profit that is obtained by
allocating a total of four sets of parts to these three factories?

a) 8 b) 9 c) 10 d) 11
82. Among the senior management positions in a company or such other organization, which of the
following is the highest-ranking person who exercises control over the information system?

a) CEO b) CFO c) CIO d) COO

83. Which of the following is the most appropriate explanation of “digital divide” in relation to
information technologies and services?

a) It refers to the economic or social gap between those who take full advantage of
information equipment and those who do not.

b) It refers to an environment where all people including handicapped people and senior
citizens have access to the Internet by using information devices.

c) It refers to the level of availability of information equipment and services for all people
including handicapped people and senior citizens.

d) It refers to the people who cannot obtain information because of their lack of knowledge or
skills about information equipment such as PC.

84. Which of the following is an encryption method of wireless LAN?

a) ESSID b) HTTPS c) POP3 d) WPA2
85. Which of the following is a mechanism by which, if an e-mail is sent to a specific e-mail address,
in correspondence to the address, the e-mail with the same content is distributed to multiple e-mail
addresses that are already registered?
a) Web mail b) Chain mail c) Mailing list d) Reply mail
86. Which of the following is the technology that enables terminals connected to a shared network
such as the Internet to be used as if they are connected to a leased line by ensuring security with
encryption and authentication?
a) ADSL b) ISDN c) VPN d) Wi-Fi
87. Which of the following is the mechanism that determines the correspondence between domain
names and IP addresses on the Internet?
a) DNS b) FTP c) SMTP d) Web
88. When an e-mail is sent to multiple destinations, there are cases that the receiver of the email
should not know the e-mail addresses of other destinations. In such cases, which of the following is
an appropriate place where the e-mail addresses of the multiple destinations to be sent are entered?
a) Bcc b) Cc c) To d) Both To and Bcc
89. Among the threats and vulnerabilities in information security, which of the following is a
vulnerability?
a) Computer virus b) Social engineering
c) Tapping of communications data d) Inappropriate password management
90. One of the methods of cracking a password is a brute force attack that involves attempting all
character combinations. When the number of characters of a password that is composed of 26 types
of characters from A through Z is increased from four (4) to six (6) characters, by what factor is the
maximum number of attempts to decode the password with the brute force attack increased?
a) 2 b) 24 c) 52 d) 696
91. In ISMS risk assessment, which of the following is performed first?
a) Risk treatment b) Risk identification
c) Risk evaluation d)Risk analysis
92. Among descriptions A through D concerning how to conduct information security education to
employees, which of the following contains all and only the appropriate descriptions?
A. The re-education of one who has committed an information security breach includes preventive
actions to avoid the same fault being repeated again.
B. It is incorporated in a training program for new employees.
C. It is restricted to employees in the information systems department.
D. It is conducted after an incident or an accident concerning information security as well as on a
regular basis.
a) A, B, D b) A, C, D c) A, D d) B, C
93. Which of the following is the threat that can be prevented by encrypting data?
a) Deletion of data because of an operational error
b) Social engineering
c) Tapping of communication content
d) DoS attack on the server in which data is stored
94. The authentication technology is classified into three (3) types, namely authentication based on
one’s possession, authentication based on physical characteristics, and authentication based on
knowledge. Which of the following is the appropriate classifications of the implementation examples
(1) through (3)?
(1) Authentication using an IC card
(2) Authentication based on an ID and password
(3) Authentication based on fingerprint
95. Which of the following is an appropriate description concerning information security education
in a company?
a) Re-education is conducted only when the information system is replaced.
b) Education is provided to new employees after they have become familiar with their
business operations.
c) Education is provided only to employees who access the information assets.
d) The content is changed according to the business operations, the roles and the
responsibilities of employees.
96. A certain company holds briefing sessions six times a month to attract customers. To manage the
attendees in January by using spreadsheet software, a table is created as shown in cells A1 through
D8. Then, to manage the attendees in February, cells A2 through D8 are copied to cells F2 through
I8, and cell I3 is corrected. Which of the following is the appropriate expression to be entered into
cell I3? Here, when the table for February is copied to the table for March, cells should be filled so
that the expressions in cells do not have to be changed.

a) D8 + G3 b) C8 + H3 c) C8 + D8 d) D8 + G8 + H3
97. As shown in the spreadsheet below, three types of examinations were conducted. Each type of
examination has a different perfect score. Each resulting score is converted to a value assuming 100
points as the perfect score, and displayed in cells F3 through H10. Which of the following is the
expression to be entered in cell F3? Here, the expression in cell F3 is copied to cells F3 through H10.

a) 100 *B3 / $B2 b)100 * $B3 / $B2 c) 100 *B3 /B$2 d) 100 *B$3 /B$2

98. Mr. A is instructed by the president to consider removing Item V and adding Item Y and Item Z to
the item list. In order to investigate the combination of the sales quantity of Item Y and Item Z that
can exceed the gross profit of Item V, Mr. A creates the worksheet shown below. The unit price of
Item Y is entered in cell B8, and the cost price is entered in cell C8. The unit price of Item Z is
entered in cell B9, and the cost price is entered in cell C9. The sales quantity of Item Y is entered in
cells C12 through H12, and the sales quantity of Item Z is entered in cells B13 through B18. Each of
rows and columns of Item Y and Item Z is separated in 1,000-unit increments. The total gross profit
of Item Y and Item Z is displayed as “O” when it is equal to or more than the gross profit of Item V,
and as “X” when it is less than the gross profit of Item V, in cells C13 through H18. Which of the
following is the arithmetic expression that is entered in cell C13? Here, the expression of cell C13 is
copied to cells C13 through H18. The cells used to calculate the gross profit ratio are displayed in
percentage.
 a) IF(((B$8 − C$8) * $C12 + (B$9 − C$9) * B$13) ≥ $F$3, ‘O’, ‘X’)
b) IF((($B8 − $C8) * B$13 + (B$9 − C$9) * $C12) ≥ $F$3, ‘X’, ‘O’)
c) IF((($B$8 − $C$8) * C$12 + ($B$9 − $C$9) * $B13) ≥ $F$3, ‘O’, ‘X’)
d) IF((($B$8 − $C$8) * $C12 + ($B$9 − $C$9) * $B13) ≥ $F$3, ‘X’, ‘O’)
99. Company Y has decided to proportionally allocate incentive payments for the term to its
departments, on the basis of the sales of each. Given the table shown below, which of the following
is the expression that should be entered in cell C3? The expression in cell C3 will be copied and used
for Department B through Department D.

a) B3/SUM(B$3:B$6)*B$1 b) B3/AVG(B$3:B$6)*$B$1
c) B3/SUM($B3:$B6)*$B1 d) B$3/SUM(B$3:B$6)*B$1
100. Responses to a questionnaire are entered in cells B2:F50. The number of responses for each
question, for cells B52:F53 will be calculated. Which of the following is the expression that should
be entered in cell B52, when it is copied into cells B52:F53?

a) COUNTIF($B2:$B50, =A$52) b) COUNTIF(B$2:B$50, =$A52)

c) COUNTIF($B2:$B50, =$A52) d) SUMIF(B$2:B$50, =A$52)