sad Final Exam June 2022
sad Final Exam June 2022
Regular Program
Final Exam for Systems Analysis and Design
Date of Exam June 13, 2022
Time Allowed 1:10 minutes
Instructions:
ANSWER SHEET
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Part I: Write T if the statement is True and Write F otherwise, in the Answer Sheet
1. _T____ A deliverable is an end product in a phase of the SDLC.
2. _T____A systems development project may be undertaken to take advantage of business opportunities or to solve
business problems.
3. _T____In order to determine the resources required for project completion, an organization should analyze the
project’s scope and determine the project’s probability of successful completion.
4. _T____When a project manager works closely with customers to assure project deliverables meet expectations, she is
performing a customer relations activity.
5. _F____.Project planning is the first phase of the project management process in which activities are performed to
assess the size, scope, and complexity of the project and to establish procedures to support later project activities.
6. _T____Establishing a relationship with the customer is a project initiation activity.
7. _F____Project initiation is the second phase of the project management process, which focuses on defining clear,
discrete activities and the work needed to complete each activity within a single project.
8. T____Critical path scheduling is a scheduling technique whose order and duration of a sequence of task activities
directly affect the completion date of a project.
9. _T____If an activity’s optimistic time is 4 weeks, its realistic time is 6 weeks, and its pessimistic time is 8 weeks, then
its estimated time would be 6 weeks.
10. _F____An activity on the critical path will have a slack time of 1.
Part II: Choose the best answer and put the Letter in the Answer Sheet
11. _____Identifying, assessing, and managing the risks and day-to-day changes that occur during a project best defines
which of the following project manager activities:
a. conflict management c. team management
b. risk and change management d. problem solving
12. _____Skills that include interpreting system requests and specifications, site preparation and user training, and contact
point for customers best represent:
a. customer relations c. leadership
b. conflict management d. team management
13. _____The phase of the project management process in which activities are performed to assess the size, scope, and
complexity of the project and to establish procedures to support later project activities best defines:
a. project initiation c. project planning
b. scope development d. project assessment
14. _____The process of dividing the project into manageable tasks and logically ordering them to ensure a smooth
evolution between tasks defines:
a. task division c. work structuring
b. work breakdown structure d. project division
15. _____Which of the following is not a guideline for defining a task?
a. A task should have well accepted predecessor and successor steps.
b. A task should have a single and identifiable deliverable.
c. A task should have a known method or technique.
d. A task should always be completed by one person.
16. _____Risks can arise from:
a. the use of new technology c. availability of critical resources
b. resistance to change d. all of the above
17. _____The third phase of the project management process in which the plans created in the prior phases are put into
action is:
a. project planning c. project planning
b. project execution d. project close down
18. _____Which of the following occurs during project execution?
a. monitoring project progress against the baseline plan
b. conducting post-project reviews
c. establishing the project initiation plan
d. establishing the project workbook
19. _____When comparing a Gantt chart to a PERT chart, which of the following is a true statement?
a. Gantt shows the sequence dependencies between activities, whereas PERT shows the duration of activities.
b. PERT shows the time overlap of activities, whereas Gantt does not show time overlap.
c. Some forms of Gantt charts can show slack time available within an earliest start and latest finish duration,
whereas PERT shows this by data within activity rectangles.
d. both a and b
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20. _____Optimistic time is:
a. the maximum period of time for an activity to be completed
b. the minimum period of time for an activity to be completed
c. the planner’s “best guess” of the amount of time the activity actually will require for completion
d. the maximum period of time for an entire project to be completed
21. _____Pessimistic time is:
a. the maximum period of time for an activity to be completed
b. the minimum period of time for an activity to be completed
c. the planner’s “best guess” of the amount of time the activity actually will require for completion
d. the maximum period of time for an entire project to be completed
22. _____Realistic time is:
a. the maximum period of time for an activity to be completed
b. the minimum period of time for an activity to be completed
c. the planner’s “best guess” of the amount of time the activity actually will require for completion
d. the maximum period of time for an entire project to be completed
23. _____A critical path is:
a. a sequence of activities whose order and durations indirectly affect the completion date of a project
b. a sequence of activities whose order and durations directly affect the completion date of a project
c. a sequence of activities whose order must be performed in parallel
d. a sequence of activities whose duration cannot last more than 40 percent of the time allotted to the project
24. To identify the financial benefits and costs associated with the development project is the purpose of:
a. economic feasibility c. operational feasibility
b. technical feasibility d. schedule feasibility
25. Tangible benefits would include:
a. improved organizational planning d. lower transaction costs
b. ability to investigate more alternatives d. legal and contractual benefits
c. improved asset control
26. A savings of $3,000 resulting from a data entry error correction would most likely be classified as a(n):
a. intangible benefit c. tangible benefit
b. qualitative benefit d. operational benefit
27. A benefit derived from the creation of an information system that can be measured in dollars and with certainty is a(n):
a. intangible benefit c. tangible benefit
b. qualitative benefit d. operational benefit
28. A cost associated with project startup and development or system startup refers to a(n):
a. recurring cost c. incremental cost
b. one-time cost d. infrequent cost
29. A cost resulting from the ongoing evolution and use of a system refers to a(n):
a. recurring cost c. incremental cost
b. one-time cost d. frequent cost
30. An assessment of the development group’s understanding of the possible target hardware, software, and operating
environments, system size, complexity, and the group’s experience with similar systems should be included as part of:
a. technical feasibility c. operational feasibility
b. political feasibility d. schedule feasibility
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Part III: Match each of the following terms with its corresponding definition and Put
the Letter in the Answer Sheet
a. business process reengineering f. JAD session leader
b. closed-ended questions g. key business processes
c. disruptive technologies h. open-ended questions
d. formal system i. scribe
e. informal system j. JAD
31. Technologies that enable the breaking of long-held business rules that inhibit organizations from making radical
business changes. C
32. The person who makes detailed notes of the happenings at a Joint Application Design session. I
33. The structured, measured set of activities designed to produce a specific output for a particular customer or market. G
34. Questions in interviews and on questionnaires that ask those responding to choose from among a set of specified
responses. B
35. The search for, and implementation of, radical change in business processes to achieve breakthrough improvements in
products and services. A
36. The trained individual who plans and leads Joint Application Design sessions. F
37. The way a system actually works. E
38. The official way a system works as described in organizational documentation. D
39. Questions in interviews and on questionnaires that have no prespecified answers. H
40. Techniques developed to keep the analysis effort minimal, yet still effective include J
41. Which of the following cannot be considered as a system requirement that you have to collect during the
requirement determination phase?
a.Outputs d. Performance
b. Inputs e.Controls
c. Processes f. None of the above *
42. Which one is true about the advantages of the traditional data collection methods?
a. Interviewing is especially important because it is an interactive process. The systems analyst can
listen carefully, evaluate the response, and react with follow-up questions if necessary.
b. Document review can help you understand how the current system is supposed to work.
c. Observation evaluates the operation of the current system and verifies statements made or
documentation references.
d. Surveys and questionnaires obtain input from a large number of people by asking standard
questions, so that the results can be tabulated and analyzed.
e. All of the above *
f. All except b
43. Suppose the system development budget for a college registration system is tight. How might that affect
your fact-finding process as a system analyst?
a. You may not want to use JAD techniques, because it is quite expensive.
b. You might not also use Interviews because they also are expensive, since you must spend
considerable time preparing, conducting, and documenting the interview.
c. You may choose a questionnaire or survey of students, instructors, and registration staff because it
might be an efficient, low-budget way of obtaining valuable input.
d. You might also obtain a lot of information simply by reviewing registration documentation and
observing the registration process because it is also less costly method
e. All of the above *
44. Rating a response or idea on some scale, say from strongly agree to strongly disagree, would be classified
as a(n):
a. Open-ended question. d. Contemporary question.
b. Stratified question. e. Structured question.
c. Closed-ended question. *
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45. Prototyping is most useful for requirements determination when:
a. User requirements are well understood.
b. Communication problems have existed in the past between users and analysts. *
c. Possible designs are simple and require an abstract form to fully evaluate.
d. Multiple stakeholders are involved with the system.
e. Data are not readily available.
46. The search for, and implementation of, radical change in business processes to achieve breakthrough
improvements in products and services best defines:
a. Joint Application Design.
b. Rapid Application Development.
c. Structured programming.
d. Business process reengineering. *
e. Disruptive design.
47. A customer with YTD purchase of $200, ordered 3 items, requires delivery by next day will be
charged_______
a. 25 b. Free c. 10 d. N X 1.50 e. None of the above *
48. A customer with YTD purchase of $400, ordered 10 tons of items, requires delivery within 2 days will be
charged __________
a. 25 b. Free c. 10 d. 35 e. None of the above *
49. A customer with YTD purchase of $250, ordered 4 tons of items, requires delivery within 7 days will be
charged __________
a. 25 b. Free c. N X 2.50 * d. 35 e. None of the above
50. When you first prepare an event table and draw DFD fragments for each use case, then draw level zero
diagram from the fragments and finally draw context diagram from the level zero DFDs, this is -----
a. Top-down approach to system development
b. Bottom-up approach to system development *
c. Mixed approach to system development
d. Inside-out approach to system development
e. None of the above
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51. What is the purpose of the requirements definition/determination?
a. To provide the information needed by the other phases of the analysis, which include functional,
structural, and other models,
b. To support activities in the design phase.
c. To define the scope of the system.
d. To describe to the analysts exactly what the system needs to end up doing.
e. All of the above *
52. Why is business process modeling important?
a. Because it is a very powerful tool for communicating the analyst’s current understanding of the
requirements with the user and other team members *
b. Because it is a tool for selecting the data gathering methodologies needed to determine
requirements
c. Because without it, managers cannot approve the budget
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
53. Which one is false about models and modelling?
a. Requirements are described by a collection of models
b. Complex systems require more than one type of model
c. Process of creating models helps analyst clarify and refine design
d. Models assist communication with system users
e. None of the above *
54. Narrative memos, reports, or lists that describe aspects of the system are
a. Descriptive models * c. Graphical models
b. Mathematical models d. None of the above
55. Models Created during Analysis include…
a. Event table b. Data flow diagram c. Entity relationship diagram
d. Logical models like structured English, decision tree and decision table
e. All of the above * f. All except d
56. Which ones are not members of the stake holders i.e, people with interest in successful implementation of a
system
a. Users who use the system d. All of the above
b. Clients who pay for and own system e. None of the above *
c. Technical staff who ensure system
operation
57. Which ones are not considered as user stake holders?
a. Horizontal users such as users across departments and Vertical users such as clerical staff, middle
management, and senior executives
b. Business users who perform day-to-day operations and Information users who need current
information or management users who need summary information
c. Executive users who need strategic information or external users may have access to system (e.g.,
via Internet)
d. None of the above *
58. Users who establish and maintain the computing environment of the organization and provide guidance in
such areas as programming language, computer platform, equipment are…
a. Business users c. Clients
b. Technical stakeholders* d. Horizontal users
59. Which one is not the methods of information gathering?
a. Questionnaire, document rreview, interview and observation
b. Building prototypes
c. Conducting joint application design (JAD) sessions
d. Researching vendor solutions
e. b and d f. None of the above *
60. Quick walkthrough of the office or plant, scheduling several hours to watch a user doing a real task and
doing the task yourself to see what is involved are examples of ..
a. Document analysis d. Direct observation *
b. JAD e. Interview
c. Prototype