General Instructions

1. The test is of 3 hours duration.

2. The test consists of 80 questions.

3. This paper consists of two sections, Section - A (NCERT) and Section – B (FOUNDATION). There are four
subjects in each section, Subject I, II, III and IV consisting of Physics, Chemistry, Biology and
Mathematics respectively.

4. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct response.

5. Candidate will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No. 4 for correct response of each
question. 1/4 (one-fourth) marks of the total marks allotted to the questions (i.e. 1 mark) will be
deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be
made if no response is indicated.

6. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any question
will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per
instruction 5 above.

7. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
any electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.

8. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.

9. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet (OMR) to the Invigilator on duty
in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

10. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
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SECTION - A (NCERT)

SUBJECT I : PHYSICS 32 MARKS

This Subject contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which
Only One is Correct:

1. A car covers half a distance at a velocity of 80 kmh 1 and other half at 40 kmh 1 . Average speed of the
car over the entire trip is:
80 160
(1) 60 km / hr (2) km / hr (3) km / hr (4) 75 km / hr
3 3
2. If time taken by a particle to cover a distance S is proportional to S , then particle is moving with
(particle starts from rest)
(1) Uniform velocity (2) Uniform acceleration
(3) Increasing acceleration (4) Decreasing acceleration
3. When a car travelling at 60 km/hr applies brakes it comes to rest in 15s then retardation of the car is:
(1) 4m/s2 (2) 1440km/hr 2 (3) 240 km/hr 2 (4) 14400 km/hr 2
4. Ratio of average speed to average velocity of a particle in motion can be:
(1) Greater than 1 (2) Equal to 1
(3) Less than 1 (4) Both (1) & (2) are correct
5. A man standing at rest on a horizontal frictionless floor might get himself moving by:
(1) Rolling (2) Walking
(3) Crawling (4) Throw a shoe horizontally
6. A force acting on an object:
(1) Can’t change direction of its velocity (2) Can change magnitude of its velocity
(3) Must change magnitude of its velocity (4) Must change direction of its velocity
7. Statement-1: A book is kept at rest on a table, its weight being balanced by the normal contact force
between the book & table i.e. weight and normal contact force between book & table are equal and
opposite.
Statement-2: In above statement, weight and normal contact force form action reaction pair.
(1) Both statements are true
(2) Both statements are false
(3) Statement (1) is true ; Statement (2) is false
(4) Statement (1) is false ; Statement (2) is true
8. A stone of mass 0.05 kg is thrown in vertically upward direction (g  10 m / s2 ) Neglect air resistance.
Net force acting on the stone while it is going up and coming down is:
(1) 0.5N up, 0.5N down (2) 0.5N down, 0.5N down
(3) 0.5N down, 0.5N up (4) 0.5N up, 0.5N up

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SUBJECT II: CHEMISTRY 32 MARKS

This Subject contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which
Only One is Correct:

9. Rate of evaporation does not increase on increasing.

(1) Surface area (2) Wind speed (3) Temperature (4) Humidity
10. Kinetic energy of gas molecules is directly proportional to:
(1) Temperature of the gas (2) Pressure exerted by the gas
(3) Potential energy of the gas (4) Volume occupied by the gas
11. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(1) Particles of matter have space between them
(2) Particles of matter are continuously moving
(3) The melting point of a solid is an indication of the strength of force of attraction between its
particles
(4) None of these
12. A solution contains 100 g of salt in 400 g of water. What is the concentration of solution in terms of mass
by mass percentage?
(1) 20% (2) 30% (3) 40% (4) 50%
13. What is the state of dispersed phase and dispersion medium of emulsions respectively?
(1) Solid, liquid (2) Liquid, liquid
(3) Gas, liquid (4) Gas, gas
14. Which of the following is not a physical change?
(1) Melting of butter in a pan (2) Dissolving common salt in water
(3) Rusting of almirah (4) None of these
15. Which of the following statements is true about suspension?
(1) It is homogenous mixture
(2) It does not exhibit tyndall effect
(3) When the suspension particles settle down, they do not scatter light anymore.
(4) Centrifugation method is used to separate the particles of suspension
16. Which of the following is not true?
(1) Mixture has a variable composition
(2) Compound has totally different properties from the elements from which they are formed
(3) Compounds can be separated into its constituents by physical methods
(4) A mixture shows properties of constituent substances
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SUBJECT III: BIOLOGY 32 MARKS

This Subject contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which
Only One is Correct:
17. Suicide bags:
(1) Mitochondria (2) Lysosomes (3) Cytoplasm (4) Nucleus
18. A cell placed in hypotonic solution will :
(1) Swell up (2) Shrink
(3) Not undergo any change (4) Show plasmolysis

19. Who proposed the cell theory ?

(1) Watson and crick (2) R. Hooke
(3) A.V. Leeuwenhoek (4) Schleiden and Schwann

20. Protein is synthesized by :

(1) Ribosomes (2) Golgi apparatus
(3) Plastids (4) None of these

21. Which among the following is the most widely distributed connective tissue in body with irregularly
shaped cells?
(1) Areolar connective tissue (2) Adipose connective tissue
(3) Ligaments (4) Cartilage
22. Phloem in the plants perform the function of :
(1) Conduction of water (2) Conduction of food
(3) Providing support (4) Photosynthesis

23. Functional unit of nervous tissue is called:

(1) Neuron (2) Axon
(3) Nerve cell (4) More than one option is correct

24. Which one is a meristematic tissue ?

(1) Xylem (2) Parenchyma (3) Apical tissue (4) Cork

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SUBJECT IV : MATHEMATICS 64 MARKS

This Subject contains 16 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which
Only One is Correct:
25. In figure, if AB || CD , then x is equal to: A B
132º
(1) 100º (2) 105º P 148º

(3) 110º (4) 115º C xº D

26. From the adjoining figure, the value of x is:

A

(1) 180 (2) 120 2 5° x°

E
y°
(3) 106 (4) 60 35° 60°
B C D
27. In the following figure AB || CD, the value of x is:

B D

105°
C x°
A
25°
E
(1) 130 (2) 105 (3) 75 (4) 65

28. In figure, if AC is bisector BAD such that AB = 3cm and AC = 5 cm, then CD is equal to:
(ABC  ADC  90)

(1) 2 cm (2) 3 cm (3) 4 cm (4) 5 cm

29. In the given figure, if  ACB  30º , then the value of  ACD is:

(1) 60º (2) 120º (3) 20º (4) 30º

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30. The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 5 : 3 : 7. The triangle is:
(1) An isosceles triangle (2) A right triangle
(3) An acute angled triangle (4) An obtuse angled triangle

31. In the adjoining figure. AB||CD, 1:  2  3 : 2 The  6 is:

(1) 36º (2) 100º (3) 72º (4) 144º

32. In the figure, the bisector of B and C meet at O. Then  BOC is:
A A
(1) 90º  (2) 90º 
2 2
B B
(3) 90º  (4) 90º 
2 2

33. If  NVY   AJU and both the triangles are scalene, which of the following is true?
(1) NV = JU (2) VY = AJ (3)  VNY   AUJ (4)  VYN   JUA

34. Which of the following statements are true?

(1) If two angles form a linear pair, then each of these angles is of measure 90º
(2) Angles forming a linear pair can both be acute angles
(3) One of the angles forming a linear pair can be obtuse angle
(4) The sum of the angles of a linear pair is 360º

35. Two parallel lines have :

(1) A common point (2) Two common points
(3) No common point (4) Infinite common points
36. In figure, if AB || CD || EF and y : z  3: 7 , find x.

(1) 120º (2) 130º (3) 136º (4) 126º

37. A man walks from a point P, 5 meter towards east then 4 meter towards north and again 3 meter towards
east. If co-ordinates of point P are (3, 4) then co-ordinates of final position of man are:
(1) (8, 11) (2) (8, 8) (3) (3, 11) (4) (11, 8)

38. In the figure PQ  2  QR, QT  4  QS and ST  1  QS  8 , if PQ  8 , what is the length of RS?

P Q R S T
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

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39. Which one of the following is not correct?

(1) Two lines which are both parallel to the same line are parallel to each other.
(2) Two distinct lines cannot have more than one point in common.
(3) Two lines intersecting at one point can be both parallel to the same line.
(4) A line contains infinite number of points.

40. The co-ordinates of point and their respective quadrant is given below. The correct option is:
(1) (2,  2)  2nd Quadrant (2) (4, 10)  3rd Quadrant
(3) (11,  6)  4th Quadrant (4) (7, 3)  3rd Quadrant

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SECTION - B (FOUNDATION)

SUBJECT I: PHYSICS 32 MARKS

This Subject contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which
Only One is Correct:

41. Which of the following displacement time graphs represent the motion of an object moving along a
straight line with a constant non-zero speed?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

42. A ball is thrown up from ground with a speed of 40 m/s. Distance travelled by the particle and its velocity
at the end of 5s is:
(1) 75 m, 10 m/s up (2) 75 m, 10 m/s down
(3) 85 m, 10 m/s down (4) 85 m, 10 m/s up
43. Two particles A and B initially at positions shown start moving on the circle of radius R with constant
angular velocities  and 2 respectively as shown. Average velocity of particle A during the time they
collide.

2R 2 R 2R 2 2R

(1) (2) (3) (4)
 3  
44. A ball of mass 10 kg moving with a velocity of 15 m/s collides head on with another ball of mass 10 kg
moving with a speed of 10 m/s in the same direction. After collision velocity of first ball is 12 m/s in the
same direction as of its initial motion. What is velocity of second ball after collision and impulse on it
during collision.
(1) 13 m/s, 20 N-s (2) 15 m/s, 50 N-s
(3) 13 m/s, 30 N-s (4) 11 m/s, 30 N-s
45. 50 Blocks with each having mass = 2 kg one connected by
light strings as shown. If topmost block is pulled with a
force F = 2000 N, then tension in the rope connecting 48th
and 49th block. [Assume all block to be in air]
(1) 20N

(2) 40N

(3) 60N

(4) 80N

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46. A light spring balance is connected to two blocks as shown what will be reading in spring balance:

(1) 20 kg (2) 10 kg (3) 5 kg (4) Zero

47. An object rests on a horizontal frictionless surface. A horizontal force of magnitude F is applied. This
force produces an acceleration:
(1) Only if F is greater than weight of the object
(2) Only if F is increasing
(3) Always
(4) None of these
48. A monkey of mass 40 kg climbs up and down on a rope, which can withstand a maximum tension of
600N. In which of the following cases will the rope break? The monkey
(1) Climbs up with an acceleration 6 m/s2
(2) Climbs down with an acceleration 4m/s2
(3) Climbs up with a uniform speed of 5 m/s
(4) Climbs down with an acceleration of 10 m/s 2

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SUBJECT II: CHEMISTRY 32 MARKS

This Subject contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which
Only One is Correct:

49. Which of the following has highest kinetic energy?

(1) Particles of ice at 0°C
(2) Particle of water at 0°C
(3) Particle of water at 373K
(4) Particle of steam at 100°C
50. In which of the following conditions, the distance between the molecules of hydrogen gas would increase?
I. Increasing pressure of hydrogen gas contained in a closed container
II. Some hydrogen gas leaking out of the container
III. Increasing the volume of the container of hydrogen gas
IV. Adding more hydrogen gas to the container without increasing the volume of the container
(1) I and III (2) I and IV (3) II and III (4) II and IV
51. A student heats a beaker containing ice and water. He measures the temperature of the content of the
beaker as a function of time. Which of the following in the figure would correctly represent the result?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

52. Which one of the following sets of phenomena would increase on raising the temperature?
(1) Diffusion, evaporation, compression of gases
(2) Evaporation, compression of gases, solubility
(3) Evaporation, diffusion, expansion of gases
(4) Evaporation, solubility, diffusion, compression of gases
53. Diamond is lustrous because:
(1) It is colorless (2) It is a metal
(3) It is good conductor of electricity (4) Its refractive index is high
54. A homogeneous mixture of water, sugar and common salt is a:
(1) Binary solution (2) True solution
(3) Ternary solution (4) Both (2) and (3)

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55. A 40% alcohol solution means:
(1) 40 ml alcohol and 100 ml water (2) 20 ml alcohol and 30 ml water
(3) 40 ml water and 100 ml alcohol (4) None of the above
56. A saturated solution can be made unsaturated:
(1) Increasing temperature by heating (2) By adding more of the solvent
(3) By adding more of the solute (4) Both (1) and (2)
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SUBJECT III: BIOLOGY 32 MARKS

This Subject contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which
Only One is Correct:
57. ________ plays a crucial role in detoxifying drugs & poisons.
(1) Rough endoplasmic reticulum (2) Lysosomes
(3) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (4) Golgi bodies
58. Semi-autonomous organelle.
(1) Chloroplast (2) Ribosome (3) Mitochondria (4) Both (1) and (3)
59. Fluid Mosaic model of cell membrane was proposed by :
(1) Singer & Nicolson (2) R. Hooke & Robert brown
(3) Schleiden and Schwann (4) None of the above
60. Cell membrane of vacuole is called as :
(1) Outer membrane (2) Tonoplast
(3) Matrix (4) Stroma
61. _______are strong, elastic tissue which connects bones to bones.
(1) Tendons (2) Ligaments (3) Cartilage (4) Lymph

62. Tendons is a structure which connects ?

(1) Bone to another bone (2) Muscle with a bone
(3) Nerve with a muscle (4) Muscle with muscle
63. Lignified elongated dead cells are :
(1) Parenchyma (2) Collenchyma (3) Sclerenchyma (4) None of these
64. Intercalated disc are found in :
(1) Cardiac muscle (2) Smooth muscle
(3) Striated muscle (4) All of these

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SUBJECT IV: MATHEMATICS 64 MARKS

This Subject contains 16 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which
Only One is Correct:
65. If (0, 0), (3, 0) and (x, y) are the vertices of an equilateral triangle, then the value of x and y is:
3 3 3 3 3 3 1  1 
(1)  ,  or  ,   (2)  2 , 2  or  2 ,  2 
2 2  2 2     
1  1 
(3)  3 ,1 or  3 ,  1 (4) None of these
   

66. Any interior angle of a regular polygon exceeds the exterior angle by 100º. Then number of sides of the
polygon is:
(1) 7 (2) 8 (3) 9 (4) 6

67. In the figure, Q  R, PA is the bisector of QPR and PM  QR then APM is equal to:

1 1 P
(1)  R  Q  (2)  Q   R 
2 2
1
(3)  Q  R  (4) None of these
Q M A R
2

68. In the adjoining figure BO, CO are angle bisectors of external angles of ABC . Then BOC is:
1 A
(1) 90  A
2
1
(2) 90  A
2 B C
1 4
2 3
1
(3) 180  A
2
(4) 90  A P O Q

69. In figure, AB and CD are parallel lines and transversal EF

intersects them at P and Q respectively.
If APR  25, RQC  30 and CQF  65 , then:
(1) x  55 , y  40
(2) x  50, y  45
(3) x  60, y  35
(4) x  35, y  60

70. In figure, AB  BE and FE  BE . If BC = DE

and AB = EF, then ABD is congruent to:

(1) EFC (2) ECF

(3) CEF (4) FEC

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71. In figure, X is a point in the interior of square ABCD and AXYZ is also a square. If DY  3cm and
AZ = 2 cm, then BY is equal to:

(1) 5 cm (2) 6 cm (3) 7 cm (4) 8 cm

72. If the area of an isosceles right triangle is 8cm 2 , what is the perimeter of the triangle?
(1) (8  2) cm (2) (8  4 2) cm (3) (4  8 2) cm (4) (12 2) cm

73. In the figure below,  ABC   BED,  CBD  40º,  CAB  25º and BC||ED. Find  DEB .

(1) 50º (2) 115º (3) 90º (4) 110º

74. In a  ABC,  ABC  30º and  ACB  45º . Which is the longest side in this triangle?

(1) AB (2) BC (3) CA (4) All are of same length

75. Two regular polygons are such that the ratio of the measures of their interior angles is 4:3 and the ratio
between their number of sides is 2:1. Find the number of sides of larger polygon.
(1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 12 (4) 10

76. If bisectors of A and B of a quadrilateral ABCD intersect each other at P, of B and C at Q, of

 C and  D at R, of  D and A at S, then PQRS is a:
(1) rectangle
(2) rhombus
(3) parallelogram
(4) quadrilateral whose opposite angles are supplementary

77. All the three sides of a ABC have lengths in integral units, with AB  2001 units and BC  1002 units .
The possible number of triangles with this condition is:
(1) 2001 (2) 2002 (3) 2003 (4) 2004

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78. In the figure given below:
(1) BC  AC  CD
(2) BC  AC  CD
(3) BC  AC  CD
(4) BC  AC  CD

79. x2  y 2  2 x  2 y  2  0 then ( x, y ) lies in quadrant:

(1) IV (2) I (3) II (4) III

80. A(4, 0), B(0, 3), C(–4, 0) and D(0, –3) are four points then ABCD forms a:
(1) Rectangle (2) Square (3) Trapezium (4) Rhombus

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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