CLINICAL BACTERIOLOGY

Compilation of Finals Lectures (Transes)

PRELIM EXAMINATION
NAME: _____________________________________________________ SCORE: _____________

General Instruction: Use black ball pen only. STRICTLY NO ERASURE except for essay.
TEST I. TRUE OR FALSE: Write T if the statement is true and write F If the statement is wrong. Write your answer on the space provided before
each number.

1. Eukaryotes differs from Prokaryotes because they have no membrane bound nucleus
2. Bacilli with tapered, pointed ends are termed as palisades.
3. Capsules are non-staining against a stain background using a nigrosin dye.
4. Gram positive bacteria are pink or red using gram stain.
5. Bacteria will move in tumble, abrupt, random like manner due to clockwise flagellar rotation as they sense a positive stimulus.
6. Pili are no are non-motile long hollow protein tube used by bacteria having it for adhesion and DNA exchange
7. Gram negative bacteria have thick murein layer compared to gram positive bacteria.
8. Only Gram-positive bacteria have Porins on their cell wall which allows passage of water-soluble compounds.
9. Bacteria that have Lipids on their cell wall has the ability survive in desiccated environment.
10. Bacteria containing Small Plasmids on their internal components are resistant to 8- Lactam antibiotics.
11. Heterotrophs is the term denoted to bacteria that requires inorganic compounds as a source of carbon for making cellular constituents’
self.
12. Auxothrophic bacteria requires the addition of growth factors to culture media for them to thrive.
13. Microarophiles grows under reduced oxygen concentration.
14. X factor also known as Hemin are heat stable factors for the growth of H. influenzae.
15. Virulence is the disease producing power of an organism.

TEST II. IDENTIFICATION: Identify to whom or to what each of the following brief descriptions. Write your answer on the space provided before
each number.

1. Region in LPS of the gram negative bacteria that causes fever, vasodilation, shock and clotting after being released from the killed
bacteria.
2. A component in the cell wall of staphylococci that blocks the Fc portion of antibody preventing opsonization process.
3. Category of an organism that pose minimal threat to lab workers and causes no known potential infections on health individuals.
4. Its function is to sterilizes air to be exhausted and air that flows over the infectious material.
5. Refers to the process that illuminate a define scope of microorganism including some spores.
6. Known today as the most resistant to actions of Heat, chemicals and Radiation causing different neurocognitive disorders.
7. Form of sterilization in the form of Ultraviolet Rays that damages DNA of organism by forming thymine and cytosine dimers.
8. Manner of aseptic technique on skin used for obtaining blood cultures.
9. Most common cause adult Meningitis.
10. Specimen of choice for bacterial culture and sensitivity for urine.
11. Most common stain utilize for endospore demonstration.
12. Color of gram negative bacteria after decolorization with acetone alcohol.
13. Color of Non Acid Fast organism after staining with Kinyoun's method.
14. Percentage of solidifying agent present in liquefiable type of Solid media.
15. Tissue culture commonly used for the isolation of C. trachomatis.

TEST III. MATCHING: Select from the table "B" the items that match the items in table "A" then write the letter of your chosen answer in the space
provided before the number.

A B
1. Alkaline peptone water a. Bordetella pertussis
2. Lim broth b. Complete
3. Beta hemolysis c. Group B streptococcus
4. CAP w/ antibiotic d. Mac Conkey Agar
5. 7.5% NaCl e. Neisseria spp.
6. Bromothymol Blue f. Retal swats
7. Crystal Violet and Bile Salt g. Salmonellas
8. Colorless w/ black center on SSA h. Staphylococcus
9. Bordet-Gengou Agar i. TCBS
10. Cary blair j. Vibrio cholerae
k. Vibrio vulnificus

TEST IV. MULTIPLE CHOICE: Read each question carefully then select the best answer from the choices given. Write the letter of your chosen
answer on the space provided before the number.

1. The aseptic collection of blood cultures requires that the skin be cleansed with:
a. 2% iodine and then 70% alcohol solution c. 70% alcohol and then 95% alcohol
b. 70% alcohol and then 2% iodine or an iodophor a. 95% alcohol only
2. What is the purpose of adding 0.025%-0.050% sodium polyanetholsulfonate (SPS) to nutrient broth media for the collection of blood
cultures?
a. It inhibits phagocytosis and complement c. It enhances growth of anaerobes
b. It promotes formation of a blood clot d. It functions as a preservative
3. Select the method of choice for recovery of anaerobic bacteria from a deep abscess.
a. Cotton fiber swab of the abscess area c. Skin snip of the surface tissue
b. Needle aspirate after surface decontamination d. Swab of the scalpel used for debridement
4. Select the media of choice for recovery of Vibrio cholerae from a stool specimen.
a. Blood agar and selenite-F (SEL) broth-nitrate
b. CNA agar
c. Mac Conkey agar and thioglycolate media
d. Thiosulfate-citrate-bile-sucrose (TCBS) agar and alkaline peptone water (APW) broth
5. Colistin-nalidixic acid agar (CNA) is used primarily for the isolation of:
a. Enterobacteriaceae c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b. Neisseria species d. Staphylococcus aureus
6. In the Philippines, most blood agar plates are prepared with 5% or 10% red blood cells (RBCs) obtained from:
a. Dogs c. Horses
b. Humans d. Sheep
7. All of the following are appropriate when attempting to isolate N. gonorrhoeae from a genital specimen except:
a. Culture at ambient Oxygen at 37C.
b. Plate the specimen in New York City
c. Plate the specimen on modified Thayer-Martin (MTM) medium
d. Transport the genital swab in charcoal transport medium
8. Which procedure is appropriate for culture of genital specimens in order to recover Chlamydia
a. Inoculate cycloheximide-treated McCoy cells
b. Inoculate into thioglycolate (THIO) broth
c. Plate onto blood and chocolate agar
d. Plate onto modified Thayer-Martin agar within 24 hours
9. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) should be cultured immediately, but if delayed the specimen should
a. Frozen at -20°C
b. Incubated at 37°C and cultured as soon as possible
c. Refrigerated at 4°C to 6°C
d. Stored at room temperature for no longer than 24 hours
10. According to the Kirby-Bauer standard antimicrobial susceptibility testing method, what should be done when interpreting the zone size of
a motile. swarming organism such as a
a. The swarming area should be ignored
b. The results of the disk diffusion method are invalid
c. The swarming area should be measured as the growth boundary
d. The isolate should be retested after diluting to a 0.05 McFarland standard
11. The Quellung test depends on the antigenic specificity of the
a. Nucleus c. Flagella
b. Cell wall d. Capsule
12. Organisms that vary in size and shape are referred to as
a. Psychrophilic c. Palisades
b. Thermophilic d. Pleomorphic
13. In the bacterial growth cycle, growth ceases because nutrients are exhausted or toxic metabolic products have accumulated in the:
a. Stationary phase c. Lag phase
b. Logarithmic phase d. A and B
14. Which genera of bacteria form spores?
a. Corynebacterium c. Clostridium
b. Bacillus d. B and C
15. Bacteria that grow in the presence of atmospheric (free) oxygen and obtain oxygen from oxygen-containing compounds are called:
a. Anaerobes c. Capnophiles
b. Aerobes d. Aerotolerant
16. What is the most effective method of sterilization?
a. Autoclave c. Bolling
b. heat oven d. Disinfection
17. Which of the following is used for quality control for the dry Heat oven?
a. Bacillus subtilis c. Salmonella typhi
b. Bacillus stearothermophilus
18. Which of the following filters can give 100% sterility?
a. Seitz c. Millipore (0.5um)
b. Millipore (0.22 um) d. Filtration
19. Which of the following is not a disinfectant?
a. Phenol c. Detergent
b. 70% alcohol d. QUATS
20. Iodophors are composed of iodine and:
a. Phenolic compound
b. iodine + detergents
c. 70% alcohol
d. 90-15% alcohol