SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS

A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH

NEET GRAND TEST-

TEST - 6
Name :........................................... Hall Ticket No:

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. The Model NEET- 2020 is of 3 Hrs duration. Time: 02.00 PM –
05.00 PM.
2. The question paper for NEET-2020 consists of 180 questions
comprising 45 questions in Botany, 45 in Zoology, 45 in Physics
and 45 in Chemistry for NEET.
3. All questions are of objective type (Multiple choices only)
4. Each question carries four marks.
5. Negative marking: one mark will be deducted for every wrongly
answered question.
6. Total Marks 720.
7. The candidates are prohibited from carrying any paper to the
examination hall except HALL TICKET.
8. No Calculators, Mini-Cards, Watches with Calculators, Pager, Cell
Phone, Slide rules or outer aids to calculation will be allowed in
the examination hall.
9. Candidates once admitted will not be allowed to leave the hall till
half an hour before the closing of the test.
10. A separate sheet is attached in the middle of this booklet for rough
work, you can detach and use it.
11. A detachable answer sheet with 180 question blocks, with 4 circles
corresponding to 4 multiple choice for each question will be
provided. Use HB Pencil to darken the appropriate circle against
the question number provided in the sheet. Answer should be
marked only on the answer sheet, but not on the question
paper booklet.
 SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA
A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
Sec: SR MEDICAL ALL & LTC-IC Date : 27.04.20
TIME : 3 Hrs. NEET GRAND TEST – 06 Max.Marks : 720

1. Identify the incorrect match (3) CADB

Organism Feature (4) ACBD
(1) Spirogyra – Non flagellated 5. Identify the correct one related to
isogametes Pheretima
(2) Ectocarpus – Filamentous form Mid ventral fold of
(3) Porphyra – Unicellular algae intestinal wall to
(1) Typhlosole
used to grow increase area of
absorption
microbes
Pair of conical
(4)Chlamydomonas – Microscopic
Intestinal projections at the
unicellular form (2)
caecae junction of stomach
2. Type of life cycle in mosses is and intestine
(1) Haplodiplontic Found in 4, 5, 6
(2) Haptontic segments and
(3) Blood glands
(3) Diplontic produce RBC and
(4) Haplo diplobiontic phagocytic cells
14-16 segments in
3. What is common between China rose
which forests of
and Tomato? (4) Clitellum
integumentary
(1) Presence of twisted aestivation in
nephridia are found
corolla 6. During breathing, diaphragm is arched
(2) Presence of axile placentation upwards due to
(3) Presence of epigynous flowers (1) contraction of phrenic muscles
(4) Presence of monoadelphous (2) contraction of external intercostals
stamens (3) relaxation of diaphragm
4. Arrange the following structures of a (4) upward movement of ribs and
typical chordate in correct sequence sternum
from dorsal to ventral side 7. Mark the correctly matched pair.
(A) Notochord (1) C1+2+(2) – Mulathi
(B) Heart A(9) +1
(2) – Gloriosa
(C) Nerve cord
(3) P3+3 – Belladonna
(D) Gut
(4) G(2) – Indigofera
(1) ACDB
(2) CABD
8. Protonephridia are the excretory 12. Which of the following disorders can
structures in not be inherited by a man from his
(1) Lancelets, Rotifers father?
(2) Fasciola, Gorgonia (1) Myotonic dystrophy
(3) Planaria, Doliolum (2) Hypertrichosis
(4) Amphioxus, Antedon (3) Huntington’s chorea
9. The prokaryotic cell structure
(4) Haemophilia
exemplified by both of the statements
13. In the Z-scheme of photosynthesis
A and B is
(1) The two photosystems work in
A. Not bounded by any membrane
series, first PS-I and then PS-II
and lie free in the cytoplasm.
(2) The electrons move from H2O to
B. Stores reserve material in the
NADP+
cytoplasm.
(3) Protons accumulate in stroma is
(1) Ribosomes
(2) Mesosome called proton reservoir

(3) Chromatophores (4) Oxygen is released on the stroma

(4) Inclusion bodies side of thylakoid membrane

10. Identify the steroid hormones that 14. How many ATP are produced in
stimulate the RBC production mitochondria by substrate level
(a) Erythropoietin phosphorylation only if two molecules
(b) Cortisol of pyruvate get oxidised completely?
(c) Thyroxine (1) Two
(d) Androgens (2) Four
(1) a b c (3) One
(2) b c d
(4) Six
(3) b d
15. Appearance of dry, scaly lesions on the
(4) a b c d
skin with intense itching is the main
11. Deficiency of which group of elements
symptom of the disease caused by
cause inhibition of cell division?
(1) Babesia
(1) N, K, S, Mo
(2) Microsporum
(2) N, S, Mo, Cu
(3) Streptococcus
(3) Ca, Mg, Cu, K
(4) Mycoplasma
(4) Fe, Mn, Mo, B

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16. Very small animals are rarely found in 21. Which of the following proteins will be
polar regions, because produced in a lac operon, when lactose
(1) small animals have large volume
is available in the medium of the
relative to their surface area
bacteria?
(2) In small animals heat generation
far exceeds the heat loss (i) β -galactosidase
(3) small animals have larger surface (ii) Transacetylase
area relative to their volume
(iii) Permease
(4) all the small animals are thermo
(1) Only (i)
conformers
17. Which of the following is not an (2) Only (ii) & (iii)
outbreeding device? (3) Only (i) & (iii)
(1) Presence of dichogamy
(4) All of these
(2) Synchronisation in pollen release
22. In cockroach, ootheca is formed by the
and stigma receptivity
(3) Presence of self incompatibility secretion of
(4) Presence of unisexual flowers (1) Utricular gland
18. Biomass available for the consumption (2) Conglobate gland
to herbivores and decomposers is (3) Cowper’s gland
(1) Gross primary productivity (4) Collaterial gland
(2) Net primary productivity 23. In wheat, resistance to cereal leaf
(3) Gross secondary productivity beetle is due to
(4) Net secondary productivity (1) Biochemical adaptation
19. Which of the following genotype is a (2) Physiological adaption
dihybrid? (3) Behavioural adaptation
(1) AAbb (4) Morphological adaptation
(2) PPQqrr 24. In humans, pCO2 of systemic arteries is
(3) TtRrYY (1) more than that of pulmonary
(4) EeFfGgHH arteries
20. Radula functions as the rasping organ (2) more than that of pulmonary
in veins
(1) Sea mouse (3) same as that of pulmonary
(2) Sea horse arteries
(3) Sea cow (4) same as that of alveoli
(4) Sea hare
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25. Isolated protoplasts from two different 28. Sympathetic neural system stimulates
plant cells can be fused to obtain (1) Secretion of digestive enzymes
(2) Contraction of radial muscles of
(1) Monoclonal cultures
iris
(2) Somatic hybrids
(3) Constriction of bronchi
(3) Purelines (4) Contraction of circular muscles of
(4) Hybrid vigour iris
26. Given below is a diagrammatic 29. Which one of the following explains
representation of E. coli cloning vector the effect of temperature on enzyme
pBR-322. action?

(1)

Which of the following labelled (2)

structure is responsible for controlling
the copy number of linked DNA?
(1) A
(2) B
(3)
(3) C
(4) D
27. Choose the incorrect match related to
human kidney.
(4)
(1) Conditional Distal
30. In human male reproductive system,
reabsorption of convoluted
sodium and water tubule ejaculatory duct is formed by
(2) Reabsorption of Ascending limb (1) Vas deferens and ureter
urea into the of loop of Henle
(2) Vas deferens and duct of prostate
medullary
interstitium gland
(3) Selective secretion Collecting duct (3) Vas deferens and duct of urinary
of K+ and H+ ions
bladder
(4) Reabsorption of Proximal
glucose and amino convoluted (4) Vas deferens and duct of seminal
acids tubule vesicle
31. Find set of fungi belonging to 35. The earliest organisms that appeared
ascomycetes on the earth were
(1) Morels, Albugo, Agaricus (1) anaerobic chemoheterotrophs
(2) Neurospora, Agaricus, Morels (2) aerobic chemoautotrophs
(3) Aspergillus, Colletotrichum, (3) anaerobic chemoautotrophs
Penicillium (4) anaerobic photoautotrophs
(4) Claviceps, Neurospora, Aspergillus 36. The practice of mating between
32. Identify the protozoan that causes a Leghorn and Australorp is
sexually transmitted disease (1) Inbreeding
(1) Chlamydia (2) Out crossing
(2) Trichophyton (3) Interspecific hybridisation

(3) Trichomonas (4) Cross breeding

37. Find odd one out w.r.t. ethylene
(4) Treponema
functions
33. Some structures are given below
(1) Rapid internode elongation in
Protonema cell, Prothallus cell of fern,
deep water rice plants
PEN of angiosperm, Gemma of (2) Initiates flowering and
Marchantia. Select correct sequence of synchronising fruit
their respective ploidy level (3) Thinning of fruits like cherry,
(1) n, n, 3n, n walnut and cotton
(2) 2n, 2n, 3n, 2n (4) Apical growth and adventitious
shoot formation
(3) n, n, n, n
38. Ecological pyramid is inverted in the
(4) 2n, 2n, n, 2n
case of
34. The figure shown below depicts which
(1) Pyramid of numbers in grassland
stage of cell division (2) Pyramid of biomass in sea
(3) Pyramid of energy in forest
(4) Pyramid of numbers in a pond
39. Majority of insect pollinated flowers
are
(1) Nectarless, odourless and
coloured
(1) Metaphase (2) Colourful, fragrant and nectar
(2) Prophase rich
(3) Coloured, fragrant and nectarless
(3) Transition to metaphase
(4) Coated by a waxy layer
(4) Anaphase

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40. Identify the correct representation of 45. Growth and differentiation in plants is
number of species of different taxa _____ and ____ respectively.
(1) Fungi > Algae > Lichens > Mosses (1) Closed, open
(2) Fungi > Fishes > Birds > Reptiles
(2) Closed, closed
(3) Fishes > Mammals > Birds
>Amphibians (3) Open, closed
(4) Angiosperms > Ferns > Algae > (4) Open, open
Lichens 46. In a cardiac cycle, closure of semilunar
41. Which of the following structures valves takes place during
present in both DNA and RNA (1) Atrial systole
a) Ribose
(2) Ventricular systole
b) Thiamine
(3) Joint systole
c) Sugar phosphate chain
d) Double helix structure (4) Ventricular diastole
e) Adenine 47. How many of the organisms show
(1) a & c external fertilization?
(2) c & b (1) Bryophytes & Pteridophytes
(3) c & e
(2) Fungi & Gymnosperms
(4) b & c
(3) Higher animals
42. Living mechanical tissue is mostly
restricted to the _____ parts of _____ (4) Aquatic alga, fishes & amphibians
plant organs in dicots 48. Read the following statements related
(1) Epidermal, sub-aerial to the skeletal muscle and choose the
(2) Sub-epidermal, aerial correct option.
(3) Epidermal, aerial
(I) Binding of calcium with a sub
(4) Sub-epidermal, sub-aerial
unit of troponin, removes the
43. Body is covered by dry and cornified
skin with epidermal scales in masking of actin binding sites on
(1) Hemidactylus, Hippocampus myosin
(2) Calotes, Chameleon (II) After muscle contraction, Ca++
(3) Corvus, Clarias ions are pumped back to the
(4) Psittacula, Pterophyllum
sarcoplasmic cisternae which
44. In the absence of one of the enzymes
results in masking of active sites
of succus entericus, protein digestion
would be severely impaired. Identify of actin filaments
that enzyme (1) Both I, II are correct
(1) trypsin (2) Only I is correct
(2) chymotrypsin (3) Both I, II are incorrect
(3) enterokinase
(4) Only II is correct
(4) all the above

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49. Genes for which of the following 55. Viroids are
characters in Drosophila were found to (1) Larger than viruses
be very tightly linked by Morgan? (2) Causal agent of witches broom
(1) Eye colour and wing size disease
(2) Body colour and wing size (3) Having only RNA of low
(3) Wing size and eye colour molecular weight
(4) Body and eye colour (4) The entity lacking the genetic
50. In the umbilical cord of human material
embryo, blood vessels 56. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t.
(1) are absent wood
(2) contain foetal blood (1) Spring wood has large number of
(3) contain maternal blood xylary elements
(4) both 2 and 3 (2) Late wood has broad vessels
51. Microbes are useful to man in diverse (3) Autumn wood is darker and has
ways. Which of the following products higher density
are formed by fermentive activity of (4) Early wood is formed due to high
yeast? activity of cambium.
(1) Bread, curd, cheese 57. Which of the following is an example
(2) Toddy, cheese, curd for allergy?
(3) Biogas, biofertilizer, cheese (1) Scarlet fever
(4) Bread, ethanol, wine (2) Typhus fever
52. Which of the following syndromes is (3) Hay fever
an example for allosomal trisomy? (4) Trench fever
(1) Down’s syndrome 58. The best evidence in support of
(2) Turner’s syndrome Gause’s competitive exclusion
(3) Edward’s syndrome principle is the interaction between
(4) Klinefelter’s syndrome (1) Chathamalus and Balanus
53. The pioneers and stable climax (2) Abingdon tortoise and goats
community formed in hydrosere are (3) Flamingoes and fishes
respectively (4) Warbler birds living on the same
(1) Lichens, trees tree
(2) Mosses, grasses 59. If a meiocyte contains 20
(3) Sedges, grasses chromosomes, then what will be the
(4) Phytoplanktons, trees chromosome number at each pole
54. Theory proposed by Lamarck was during anaphase-I?
(1) continuity of germplasm (1) 40
(2) pangenesis (2) 20
(3) survival of the fittest (3) 10
(4) inheritance of acquired characters (4) 5

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60. What was the cause for the extinction 65. Which of the following enzymes is not
of Steller’s sea cow? used for extraction of desired gene
(1) Habitat fragmentaion (pure) from a plant?
(1) Ribonuclease
(2) Co-extinction
(2) Protease
(3) Alien species invasion
(3) Lysozyme
(4) Over-exploitation
(4) Cellulase
61. Short distance movement of substances 66. Which of the following digestive juices
does not involve do not contain amylase enzyme?
(1) Cytoplasmic streaming (a) Pancreatic juice
(2) Energy (b) Bile juice
(3) Diffusion (c) Gastric juice
(d) Saliva
(4) Vascular system
(e) Intestinal juice
62. Emission of poisonous gases from
(1) b c d
automobiles can be effectively reduced
(2) b c e
by using (3) a c e
(1) Scrubbers (4) a b c
(2) Electrostatic precipitators 67. Which of the following is not a direct
(3) Incinerators method of gene transfer?
(4) Catalytic converters (1) Microinjection
(2) Biolistic
63. Which of the following activity is not
(3) Electroporation
related directly with stress hormone?
(4) Cosmid
(1) Bud dormancy
68. Where does exchange of substances
(2) Seed dormancy between blood and tissues take place?
(3) Cell division (1) arteries
(4) Inhibition of cambial activity (2) veins
64. Which of the following is incorrect (3) capillaries
about areolar tissue? (4) all the above
69. RNA Interference technology takes
(1) serves as a support frame work
place
for epithelium
(1) In all prokaryotic organisms as a
(2) contains macrophages, mast cells
method of cellular defense
and fibre secreting cells
(2) During tissue culture
(3) it is found beneath the skin (3) In all eukaryotic organisms as a
(4) fibres and fibroblasts are method of cellular defense
compactly packed in the ground (4) In all eukaryotes as a method of
substance cellular proliferation

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70. Which bone articulates with sternum 74. Lens in the eye is held in place by
and acromion process? ligaments attached to
(1) rib (1) Cornea
(2) scapula (2) Iris
(3) clavicle (3) Sclera
(4) coracoids (4) Ciliary body
71. A taxon is 75. The cork cambium, cork and secondary
(1) A group of related families cortex are collectively called
(2) A group of related species (1) Phellderm
(3) A type of living organisms (2) Phellogen
(4) A taxonomic group of any (3) Periderm
ranking (4) Phellem
72. Peat moss is another name of 76. Ribozyme is a
(1) Sphagnum (1) Simple protein
(2) Marchantia (2) RNA
(3) Riccia (3) Ribonucleoprotein
(4) Dryopteris (4) Repetitive DNA
73. Match the following 77. Choose the correct
. match.
Column-I Column-II Decreases
Steroid blood
A) Air (1) Thyrocalcitonin
hormone calcium
(prevention and control of 1) 1986
levels
pollution) Act Plays a role
B) Water in regulation
Pineal
(prevention and control of 2) 1981 (2) Melanotropin of 24hr
hormone
pollution) Act rhythm of
the body
C) Environment (protection)
3) 2002 Plays
Act
important
D) The earth summit on role in
4) 1974 Peptide
biological diversity (3) Thymosin differentiatio
hormone
5) 1992 n of antibody
producing
A B C D
lymphocytes
(1) 1 2 3 4 Stimulates
(2) 2 4 1 5 Peptide the secretion
(4) Cholecystokinin
(3) 1 5 4 3 hormone of pancreatic
(4) 3 2 5 1 enzymes

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78. Sodium-potassium pumps maintain 83. Photorespiration is favoured by
the ionic gradients across the resting (1) High O2 and low CO2
axonal membrane by (2) Low light and high O2
(1) passive transport of 3 Na+
(3) Low temperature and high O2
outwards and 2K+ inwards
(2) active transport of 3 Na+ (4) Low O2 and high CO2

outwards and 2K+ inwards 84. Type of immunity provided by

(3) active transport of 3 Na+ inwards administering tetanus toxoid is
and 2K+ outwards (1) Natural active immunity
(4) passive transport of 3 Na+ (2) Natural passive immunity
inwards and 2K+ outwards (3) Artificial active immunity
79. The Triticale is an intergeneric hybrid (4) Artificial passive immunity
between
85. Terminal cytochrome of respiratory
(1) Wheat and maize
chain which donates electrons to
(2) Maize and rye
oxygen is
(3) Wheat and rye
(1) Cyt b
(4) Bajra and wheat
80. In humans, part of the fallopian duct (2) Cyt c

that is closest to the uterus is (3) Cyt a1

(1) ampulla (4) Cyt a3
(2) cervix 86. Which of the following is correct for
(3) infundibulum r –selected species?
(4) isthmus
(1) large number of progeny with
81. The mode of catching insects in Drosera
small size
plants is by means of
(2) large number of progeny with
(1) Sensitive glandular hairs
large size
(2) Sensitive trigger hairs
(3) small number of progeny with
(3) Leaves which are modified into
pitcher large size
(4) Leaf segments modified into (4) small number of progeny with
bladder small size
82. The extinct human who lived 1,00,000 87. The catalytic efficiency of two different
to 40,000 years ago in Europe and Asia enzymes can be compared by the
was (1) Fromation of the product
(1) Homo erectus (2) pH optimum value
(2) Neanderthal man (3) Km value
(3) Modern Homo sapiens
(4) Molecular size of the enzyme
(4) Australopithecus
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88. Which of the following is not circular scale coincides with the
characteristic of a stable community reference level. If screw gauge has a
(1) more resilient to occasional zero error of
disturbances -0.004 cm, the correct diameter of the
(2) shows more species diversity ball is
(3) shows too much variation in (1) 0.521 cm
productivity year to year (2) 0.525 cm
(4) more resistant to invasion by alien (3) 0.053 cm
species (4) 0.529 cm
R R 92. The position x of a particle with
+ + respect to time t along x-axis is given
H 3 N − CH − COOH
H 3 N − CH − COOH −
( A) ( B) by x = 9t − t where x is in metres and
2 3
89.
R
t in seconds. What will be the position
of this particle when it achieves
⇌ H 2 N - CH - COO -

(C ) maximum speed along the +x

direction?
Which of the above is Zwitter ionic
(1) 54 m
form
(2) 81 m
(1) A
(3) 24 m
(2) C
(4) 32 m
(3) B 
93. If vectors A = cos ωtiɵ + sin ωt ɵj and
(4) All of these
 ωt ωt
90. Choose the correct option about CFCs B = cos ɵi + sin ɵj are functions of
2 2
(1) contribute to global warming
time, then the value of t at which they
(2) cause depletion of ozone in the
are orthogonal to each other is
trophosphere
π
(3) catalyse conversion of O2 to O3 (1) t=
ω
(4) both 1 and 2 (2) t=0
91. A student measured the diameter of a π
(3) t=
small steel ball using a screw gauge of 4ω
least count 0.001 cm. The main scale π
(4) t=
reading is 5 mm and 25th division of 2ω
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94. A car is negotiating a cured road of 97. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a
radius R. The road is banked at an thin circular disk) and C : ( a circular
angle θ . The coefficient of friction ring), each have the same mass M and
between the tyres of the car and the radius R. They all spin with the same
road is µ s . The maximum safe velocity angular speed ω about their own
symmetry axes. The amounts of work
on this road is
(W) required to bring them to rest,
g  µ s + tan θ  would satisfy the relation
(1)  
R  1 − µ s tan θ  (1) WC > WB > W A
g  µ s + tan θ  (2) WA > WB > WC
(2)   (3) WB > W A > WC
R 2  1 − µ s tan θ 
(4) WA > WC > WB
 µ + tan θ  98. A circular platform is mounted on a
(3) gR 2  s 
 1 − µ s tan θ  frictionless vertical axle. Its radius
 µ + tan θ  R = 2 m and its moment of inertia
(4) gR  s 
 1 − µ s tan θ  about the axle is 200kgm2 . It is initially
95. In a rocket, fuel burns at the rate of 1 at rest. A 50 kg man stands on the edge
kg/s. This fuel is ejected from the of the platform and begins to walk
−1
rocket with a velocity of 60 km/s. This along the edge at the speed of 1ms
exerts a force on the rocket equal to relative to the ground. Time taken by
(1) 6000 N the man to complete one revolution is
(2) 60000 N (1) πs
(3) 60 N  3π 
(2)   s
(4) 600 N 2
96. The potential energy of a particle in a (3) ( 2π ) s
A B π
force field is U = − where A and (4)   s
r2 r 2
B are positive constants and r is the 99. If the mass of the sun were ten times
smaller and the universal gravitational
distance of particle from the centre of
constant were ten times larger in
the field. For stable equilibrium, the magnitude, which of the following is
distance of the particle is not correct ?
(1) Raindrops will fall faster
B
(1) (2) Walking on the ground would
2A
2A become more difficult
(2) (3) Time period of a simple
B
A pendulum on the Earth would
(3)
B decrease
B (4) g on the Earth will not change
(4)
A
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100. The power radiated by a black body is system is 10 J, the amount of energy
P and it radiates maximum energy at absorbed from the reservoir at lower
wavelength, λ 0 . If the temperature of temperature is
the black body is now changed so that (1) 90 J
it radiates maximum energy at (2) 1J
3 (3) 100 J
wavelength λ , the power radiated
4 0 (4) 99 J
by it becomes nP . The value of n is 104. When 1 kg of ice at 0ºC melts to water
3 at 0ºC, the resulting change in its
(1)
4 entropy, taking latent heat of ice to be
4 80 cal /g, is
(2)
3 (1) 273 cal/K
256
(3) (2) 8 × 104 cal / K
81
(3) 80 cal/K
81
(4) (4) 293 cal/K
256
101. The following four wires are made of 105. Out of the following functions
the same material. Which of these will representing motion of a particle,
have the largest extension when the which represents SHM?
same tension is applied? a) y = sin ωt − cos ωt
(1) length = 200 cm, diameter = 2 mm b) y = 1 + ωt + ω t
2 2

(2) length = 300 cm, diameter = 3 mm

(1) Both (a) and (b)
(3) length= 50 cm, diameter = 0.5 mm
(2) Only (b)
(4) length = 100 cm, diameter = 1 mm
(3) Only (a)
102. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of O2
(4) Neither (a) nor (b)
and 4 moles of Ar at temperature T. 106. A body is executing simple harmonic
Neglecting all vibrational modes, the
motion. When the displacements from
total internal energy of the system is
the mean position is 4 cm and 5 cm, the
(1) 15 RT
corresponding velocities of the body
(2) RT
are 10 cm/sec and 8 cm/sec. Then the
(3) 11 RT
time period of the body is
(4) 4 RT
(1) 2π sec
103. A Carnot engine, having an efficiency
(2) π / 2sec
1
of as heat engine, is used as a (3) π sec
10
(4) 3π / 2sec
refrigerator. If the work done on the

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107. Two cars moving in opposite 110. A series combination of n1 capacitors,
directions approach each other with each of value C1 , is charged by a
speed of 22ms −1 and 16.5ms −1 source of potential difference 4V.
respectively. The driver of the first car When another parallel combination of
blows a horn having a frequency 400 n2 capacitors, each of value C2 , is
Hz. The frequency heard by the driver charged by a source of potential
of the second car is (velocity of sound difference V, it has the same (total )
−1
is 340ms ) energy stored in it, as the first
(1) 361 Hz combination has. The value of C2 , in
(2) 411 Hz terms of C1 , is then
(3) 448 Hz
2C1
(4) 350 Hz (1)
n1n2
108. The wave described by n
(2) 16 2 C1
y = 0.25sin (10π x − 2π t ) , where x and y n1
are in meters and t in seconds, is a n
(3) 2 2 C1
wave travelling along the n1
(1) +ve x direction with frequency 1
16C1
(4)
n1n2
Hz and wavelength λ = 0.2m
111. A galvanometer with a coil of
(2) -ve x direction with frequency
resistance 12Ω shows a full scale
0.25 m and wavelength λ = 0.2m
deflection for a current of 2.5 mA. It
(3) -ve x direction with frequency 1
can be converted into an ammeter of
Hz
range 7.5A by connecting a resistance
(4) +ve x direction with frequency π
of
Hz and wavelength λ = 0.2m
(1) 4 × 10−3 Ω in series
109. The electrostatic force between the
(2) 2988Ω in series
metal plates of an isolated parallel
plate capacitor C having a charge Q (3) 4 × 10−3 Ω in parallel
and area A, is (4) 2988Ω in parallel
(1) Independent of the distance 112. A carbon resistor of ( 47 ± 4.7) k Ω is to
between the plates be marked with rings of different
(2) Linearly proportional to the colours for its identification. The
distance between the plates colour code sequence will be
(3) Proportional to the square root of (1) Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver
the distance between the plates (2) Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver
(4) Inversely proportional to the (3) Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold
distance between the plates (4) Green – Orange – Violet – Gold
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 −2
113. Two rods are joined end to end, as uniform magnetic field 5 × 10 tesla
shown. Both have a cross – sectional making an angle of 30º with the axis of
2
area of 0.01cm . Each is 1 meter long. the solenoid. The torque on the
One rod is of copper with a resistivity solenoid will be
−6
of 1.7 × 10 ohm-centimeter, the other (1) 3 × 10−3 Nm
−5
is of iron with a resistivity of 10 ohm- (2) 1.5 × 10−3 Nm
centimeter.
(3) 1.5 × 10−2 Nm
(4) 3 × 10−2 Nm
116. The magnetic susceptibility is negative
for
How much voltage is required to (1) Ferromagnetic material only
produce a current of 1 ampere in the (2) Paramagnetic and ferromagnetic
rods ? materials
(1) 0.00145V (3) Diamagnetic material only
(2) 0.0145V (4) Paramagnetic material only
−6
(3) 1.7 × 10 V 117. Which of the following combinations
(4) 0.117V should be selected for better tuning of
114. A proton and an alpha particle both an L-C-R circuit used for
enter a region of uniform magnetic communication?
field B, moving at right angles to the (1) R = 15Ω, L = 1.5 H , C = 35µ F
field B. If the radius of circular orbits
(2) R = 15Ω, L = 2.5 H , C = 45µ F
for both the particles is equal and the
(3) R = 15Ω, L = 3.5H , C = 30µ F
kinetic energy of proton is 1 MeV then
(4) R = 15Ω, L = 1.5 H , C = 45µ F
the kinetic energy of the alpha particle
will be 118. Two coils have a mutual inductance
(1) 1.5 MeV 0.005 H. The current changes in the
(2) 1MeV first coil according to equation
(3) 4 MeV I = I 0 sin ω t , where I 0 = 10 A and
(4) 0.5 MeV ω = 100π rad / sec . The maximum
115. A closely wound solenoid of 2000 value of e.m.f. in the second coil is
turns and area of cross-section (1) π
1.5 × 10−4 m2 carries a current of 2.0 A. (2) 5π
It is suspended through its centre and (3) 2π
perpendicular to its length, allowing it (4) 4π
to turn in a horizontal plane in a
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119. The structure of solids is investigated 123. Electro magnetic wave is travelling
by using along y-direction. If the corresponding

(1) Cosmic rays E at any time is along the x-axis then

(2) X-rays the direction of B at that time is along
(3) γ -rays (1) +y-axis
(2) +x-axis
(4) infra-red radiations (3) +z-axis
120. The interference pattern is obtained (4) -z-axis
with two coherent light sources of 124. If the momentum of an electron is
changed by P, then the de-Brogile’s
intensity ratio n. In the interference
wavelength associated with it changes
I max − I min by 0.5%. The initial momentum of
pattern, the ratio will be
I max + I min electron will be
(1) 200P
n
(1) (2) 400P
n +1
P
2 n (3)
(2) 200
n +1 (4) 100P
n 125. The cathode of a photoelectric cell is
(3)
( n + 1) 2
changed such that the work function
2 n changes from W1 to W2 (W2 > W1 ) . If the
(4)
( n + 1) 2 current before and after changes are I1
121. In Young’s double slit experiment the and I 2 , all other conditions remaining
distance between the slits and the unchanged, then (assuming hυ > W2 )
(1) I1 = I 2
screen is doubled. The separation
(2) I1 < I 2
between the slits is reduced to half. As
(3) I1 > I 2
a result the fringe width
(4) I1 < I 2 < 2 I1
(1) Is halved
126. An electron of a stationary hydrogen
(2) Becomes four times atom passes from the fifth energy level
(3) Remains unchanged to the ground level. The velocity that
(4) Remains unchanged the atom acquired as a result of photon
emission will be (Terms have their
122. If the refractive index of material of
usual meaning)
equilateral prism is 3 , then angle of 24hR
(1)
minimum deviation of the prism is 25m
(1) 60º 25hR
(2)
(2) 45º 24m
25m
(3) 30º (3)
24hR
(4) 75º 24m
(4)
25hR
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127. Two radioactive substances A and B (3) It is for a photodiode and points
have decay constants 5λ and λ A and B represents open circuit
respectively. At t = 0 they have the voltage and current, respectively
same number of nuclei. The ratio of (4) It is for a LED and points A and B
number of nuclei of A to those of B will represent open circuit voltage and
be (1 / e) after a time interval
2
short circuit current, respectively.
(1) 4λ 130. In forward biasing of the p-n junction
(2) 2λ (1) The positive terminal of the
(3) 1 / 2λ battery is connected to p-side and
(4) 1 / 4λ the depletion region becomes
128. In the circuit shown in the figure , the thick
input voltage Vi is 20V, VBE = 0 and (2) The positive terminal of the
VCE = 0 . The values of I B , I C and β are battery is connected to n-side and
given by the depletion region becomes thin
(3) The positive terminal of the
battery is connected to n-side and
the depletion region becomes
thick
(4) The positive terminal of the
battery is connected to p-side and
the depletion region becomes
thin.
(1) I B = 40 µ A, I C = 10mA, β = 250 131. For the given incident ray as shown in
figure, for the condition of total
(2) I B = 25µ A, I C = 5mA, β = 200
internal reflection at vertical face of the
(3) I B = 20µ A, I C = 5mA, β = 250
slab the required refractive index of
(4) I B = 40 µ A, I C = 5mA, β = 125 the slab will be
129. The given graph represents V-I
Incident
characteristic for a semiconductor 450 ray
device.
Which of the following statements is
correct ?

3 +1
(1)
2
2 +1
(1) It is V – I characteristic for solar (2)
cell where, point A represents 2
open circuit voltage and point B 3
(3)
short circuit current 2
(2) It is for a solar cell and point A
7
and B represent open circuit (4)
voltage and current, respectively. 6
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132. A step-up transformer operates on a (3) 12 cm
230 V line and supplies a load of 2 (4) 16 cm
ampere. The ratio of the primary and 136. A gaseous mixture contains oxygen
secondary windings is 1 : 25. The and nitrogen in the ratio of 1:4 by
current in the primary is weight. Therefore, the ratio of their
(1) 15A number of molecules is
(2) 50A (1) 1:4
(3) 25 A (2) 1:8
(4) 12.5 A (3) 7:32
133. Two bar magnets having same (4) 3:16
geometry with magnetic moments M 137. For the redox reaction
and 2M, are first placed in such a way MnO4 − + C2O42− + H + → Mn 2+ + CO2 + H 2O
that their similar poles are same side The correct coefficient of the reactants
then its time period of oscillations is for the balanced reaction are
T1 . Now the polarity of one of the MnO4 − C2O42 − H+
magnet is reversed then time period of (1) 2 5 16
oscillation is T2 , then (2) 16 5 2
(1) T1 < T2 (3) 5 16 2

(2) T1 = T2 (4) 2 16 5
138. Number of electrons possible with n=3
(3) T1 > T2
and m=0 are
(4) T2 = ∞
(1) 6
134. The masses of the wires of copper is in
(2) 8
the ratio of 1 : 3 : 5 and their lengths
(3) 2
are in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 1. The ratio of
(4) 4
their electrical resistance is
139. Incorrect order of following is
(1) 1:3:5
(1) Na2O>MgO>Al2O3>SiO2….. basic
(2) 5:3:1
nature
(3) 1 : 25 : 125
(2) Cl>P>S>Si……IP1
(4) 125 : 15 : 1
(3) O > N > F > C…..IP2
135. A 10 eV electron is circulating in a
(4) F>O>N>C……EN
plane at right angles to a uniform field o
−4 2 140. The ionic radii (in A ) of N 3− , O 2− and
of magnetic induction 10 Wb / m
F − respectively are
(=1.0 gauss). The orbital radius of
(1) 1.36, 1.40 and 1.71
electron is
(2) 1.36, 1.71 and 1.40
(1) 11 cm
(3) 1.71, 1.40 and 1.36
(2) 18 cm
(4) 1.71, 1.36 and 1.40
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141. Amongst H 2O, H 2 S , H 2 Se and H 2Te, the 145. For reaction ,
one with the highest boiling point is CO ( g ) + H 2O ( g ) ⇌ CO2 ( g ) + H 2 ( g ),

(1) H 2O because of hydrogen At a given temperature, the

bonding equilibrium amount of CO2 ( g ) can be

(2) H 2Te because of higher molecular increased by

weight (1) Adding a suitable catalyst

(2) Adding an inert gas
(3) H2 S because of hydrogen
(3) Decreasing the volume of the
bonding
container
(4) H 2 Se because of lower molecular
(4) Increasing the amount of CO( g )
weight
146. Ag + + NH 3 ⇌ [ Ag ( NH 3 ) ] ; K1 = 3.5 ×10−3
+

142. Arrange the following compounds in

[ Ag ( NH 3 )] + NH 3 ⇌ [ Ag ( NH 3 ) 2 ] ; K 2 = 1.7 × 10 −3
+ +

order of increasing dipole moment,

then the formation constant of
toluene (I),
[ Ag ( NH 3 )2 ]
+
is
m-dichlorobenzene (II),
(1) 6.08 × 10 −6
o-dichlorobenzene (III),
(2) 6.08 × 10 6
p-dichlorobenzene (IV)
(3) 6.08 × 10 −9
(1) II < IV < I < III
(4) None of these
(2) IV < I < II < III
147. Which of the following statements is
(3) IV <II < III < I
false?
(4) II < I < III<IV
(1) Work is a state function
143. Assuming Z-axis as the internuclear
(2) Temperature is a state function
axis which of the following is a zero (3) Change in the state is completely
overlap defined when the initial and final
(1) s-s states are specified
(2) s-py (4) Work appears at the boundary of
(3) pz-pz the system
(4) px-px 148. The difference between heats of
144. The rate of diffusion of methane at a reaction at constant pressure and
given temperature is twice that of a gas constant volume for the reaction
X. The molecular weight of X is 2C6 H 6 (l ) + 15O2 → 12CO2 ( g ) + 6 H 2O(l )
(1) 64.0 At 250 C in kJ is
(2) 32.0 (1) -7.43
(2) +3.72
(3) 4.0
(3) -3.72
(4) 8.0
(4) +7.43
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149. A 0.2M sucrose solution is isotonic 1
(3) g
with 0.08M BaCl2 solution . Degree of 8

ionization of BaCl2 is 1
(4) g
16
(1) 0.87
154. The temporary hardness of water is
(2) 0.75
due to calcium bicarbonate can be
(3) 0.66
removed by adding
(4) 0.5
(1) CaCO3
150. For which of the following battery, cell
potential remains constant during its (2) Ca(OH )2
life time (3) CaCl2
(1) dry cell (4) HCl
(2) lead accumulator 155. Which one of the following IIA metal
(3) mercury cell sulphates has its hydration enthalpy
(4) nickel cadmium battery greater than its lattice enthalpy?
151. The gas X at 1 atm is bubbled through (1) CaSO4
a solution containing a mixture of 1 M
(2) BeSO4
Y − and 1 M Z − at 250 C. If the order of
(3) BaSO4
reduction potential is
(4) SrSO4
Z Z − > Y Y− >X+ X
then 156. A cobalt salt in borax bead test gives
(1) Y will oxidize X and not Z − (1) blue coloured Co(BO2)2
(2) Y will oxidize Z − and not X (2) orange coloured Co(BO2)2
(3) Y will oxidize both X and Z − (3) green coloured Co(BO2)2
(4) Y will reduce both X + and Z (4) yellow coloured Co(BO2)2
152. The rate constant of a reaction depends 157. Which of the following halides is least
on stable and has doubtful existence?
(1) Temperature (1) CCl4
(2) Initial concentration of the (2) GeI 4
reaction
(3) SnI 4
(3) Time of reaction
(4) PbI 4
(4) Extent of reaction
153. The half-life period of a radioactive 158. Which of the following has −O − O −
element is 140 days. After 560 days, linkage?
one gram of the element will reduce to. (1) H 2 S2O6
1 (2) H 2 S2O8
(1) g
2
(3) H 2 S2O3
1
(2) g
4 (4) H 2 S4O6

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159. Which one of the following is the (3) Coordination isomers
strongest base? (4) Ionisation isomers
(1) AsH3 165. De-penicillamine is used to remove
(2) NH3 excess of _____from plants / animal
(3) PH3 system
(1) Ti, Pb
(4) SbH3
(2) Mn, Cr
160. The formula of first noble gas
(3) Co, Ni
compound is
(4) Fe, Cu
(1) XePtF6
166. How many optically active
(2) XePtF2
stereoisomers are possible for butane-2,
(3) XePtF4
3-diol?
(4) XePtF5
(1) 1
161. The set with correct order of acidic
(2) 2
strength is
(3) 3
(1) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4
(4) 4
(2) HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2 < HClO
167. A 0.01moles of gaseous hydrocarbon
(3) HClO < HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2 gives upon combustion 0.72 g of water
(4) HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO and 3.08 g of CO2 . The empirical
162. Which of the following transition metal formula of the hydrocarbon is
is present in misch metal
(1) Cu (1) C2 H 4
(2) Fe (2) C3 H4
(3) Zn
(3) C6 H5
(4) Mn
(4) C7 H8
163. Which of the following complex
168. Arrange the following compounds in
absorbs light of maximum wavelength
+3
the order of decreasing acidity
(1) Co ( H 2O )6  OH
OH OH OH
−3
(2) [CoF6 ]
−3 ; ; ;
(3) Co ( CN )6 
+3
(4) Co ( NH 3 )  Cl CH 3 NO2 OCH 3
 6 (I ) ( II ) ( III ) ( IV )
164. Co ( NH 3 )6  Cr ( CN )6  and
(1) II > IV > I > III
Cr ( NH 3 )6  Co ( CN )6  are
   (2) I > II > III > IV
(1) Linkage isomers (3) III > I > II > IV
(2) Coordination position isomers (4) IV > III > I > II

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169. The correct stability order for the (2) (CH3 )3 COD
following species is (3) (CD3 )3 CD

⊕ (4) (CD3 )3 COD

O
(I) 172. The reagent(s) for the following
conversion,
⊕


?
→
Br
H H
(II) Br

⊕ is/are
O (1) Alcoholic KOH
(III)
(2) Alcoholic KOH followed by NaNH 2

(3) Aqueous KOH followed by NaNH 2

⊕
(4) Zn / CH 3OH
(IV)
173. The reaction of
(1) (II) > (IV) > (I) > (III)
(2) (I) > (II) > (III) > (IV) CH 3CH = CH OH

(3) (II) > (I) > (IV) > (III)

with HBr gives
(4) (I) > (III) > (II) > (IV)
SO3 H CH 3CHBrCH 2 OH
(1)
+CH 3COONa

CH 3 CH 3CHBrCH 2 Br
170.
(2)

(1) H 3C COONa
CH 3CH 2CHBr OH
(3)
(2) H 3C + SO3
CH 3CH 2CHBr Br
(4)
(3) H 3C SO3 Na + CH 3COOH
174. The reaction condition leading to the
best yield of C2 H5Cl is
(4) H 3C SO2OCOCH 3 + NaOH
(1) C2 H 6 (excess ) + Cl2 
UVlight
→
171. (CH3 )3 CMgCl on reaction with D2O
(2) C2 H 6 + Cl2 (excess) drak
room temp.
→
produces
(3) C2 H 6 + Cl2 (excess ) 
UVlight
→
(1) (CH 3 )3 CD
(4) C2 H 6 + Cl2 
CCl
→
4

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175. In the reaction, 178. In the following sequence of reactions
CH 3COOH → A 
→ B 
LiAlH 4
→CPCl5 Alc . KOH
Toluene 
KMnO
→ A 
4 SOCl
→ B 
2 H / Pd
2
→ C,
BaSO 4

The product C is
The product C is
(1) Acetaldehyde
(2) Acetylene (1) C6 H5COOH
(3) Ethylene (2) C6 H5CH3
(4) Acetyl chloride
(3) C6 H 5CH 2OH
176. Which of the following product is
obtained when acetamide is treated (4) C6 H5CHO
with LiAlH 4
179. Glucose can react with
(1) methanamide
(1) HCN
(2) ethanoicacid
(3) methanamine (2) Schiff’s reagent
(4) ethanamine (3) NH3
177. In the reaction, (4) NaHSO3
NH 2
180. Which of the following is the solvent

→
NaNO2 / HCl
D →
CuCN / KCN
E + N2 used in transparent soaps
0.50 C △

(1) Benzene
CH 3
The (2) Water
product E is (3) Ethanol
COOH
(4) Ether

CH 3
(1)

H 3C CH 3
(2)
CN

CH 3
(3)
CH 3

(4)
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 SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA
A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI
SR MEDICAL ALL & LTC-IC Date : 27.04.20
NEET GRAND TEST – 06 KEY
BOT:- 1,2,3,7,9,11,13,14,17,19,21,23,25,26,29,31,33,34,37,39,41,42,45,47,49,51,53,55,56,59,61,
63,65,67,69,71,72,75,76,79,81,863,85,87,89

ZOO:- 4,5,6,8,10,12,15,16,18,20,22,24,27,28,30,32,35,36,38,40,43,44,46,48,50,52,54,57,58,60,
62,64,66,68,70,73,74,77,78,80,82,84,86,88,90

BIOLOGY
1) 3 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3 5) 4 6) 3 7) 1 8) 1 9) 4 10) 3
11) 1 12) 4 13) 2 14) 1 15) 2 16) 3 17) 2 18) 2 19) 3 20) 4
21) 4 22) 4 23) 4 24) 4 25) 2 26) 3 27) 2 28) 2 29) 4 30) 4
31) 4 32) 3 33) 1 34) 3 35) 1 36) 4 37) 4 38) 2 39) 2 40) 2
41) 3 42) 2 43) 2 44) 3 45) 4 46) 4 47) 4 48) 4 49) 4 50) 2
51) 4 52) 4 53) 4 54) 4 55) 3 56) 2 57) 3 58) 2 59) 3 60) 4
61) 4 62) 4 63) 3 64) 4 65) 3 66) 2 67) 4 68) 3 69) 3 70) 3
71) 4 72) 1 73) 2 74) 4 75) 3 76) 2 77) 4 78) 2 79) 3 80) 4
81) 1 82) 2 83) 1 84) 3 85) 4 86) 1 87) 3 88) 3 89) 3 90) 1

PHYSICS
91) 4 92) 1 93) 1 94) 4 95) 2 96) 2 97) 1 98) 3 99) 4 100) 3

101) 3 102) 3 103) 1 104) 4 105) 3 106) 3 107) 3 108) 1 109) 1 110) 4

111) 3 112) 2 113) 4 114) 2 115) 3 116) 3 117) 3 118) 2 119) 2 120) 2

121) 2 122) 1 123) 4 124) 1 125) 1 126) 1 127) 3 128) 4 129) 1 130) 4

131) 3 132) 2 133) 1 134) 4 135) 1

CHEMISTRY

136) 3 137) 1 138) 1 139) 3 140) 3 141) 1 142) 2 143) 2 144) 1 145) 4
146) 1 147) 1 148) 1 149) 2 150) 3 151) 1 152) 1 153) 4 154) 2 155) 2
156) 1 157) 4 158) 2 159) 2 160) 1 161) 1 162) 2 163) 2 164) 3 165) 4
166) 2 167) 4 168) 3 169) 4 170) 3 171) 1 172) 2 173) 3 174) 1 175) 3
176) 4 177) 3 178) 4 179) 1 180) 3
 SOLUTIONS_27-04-2020
PHYSICS 94. For vertical equilibrium on the road,
91. Diameter of the ball N cos θ = mg + f sin θ
= MSR + CSR ×(Least count) – Zero error mg = N cos θ − f sin θ
= 5 mm + 25 × 0.001 cm – (– 0.004) cm
Centripetal force for safe turning,
= 0.5 cm + 25×0.001 cm – (–0.004) cm =
0.529 cm. mv 2
N sin θ + f cos θ =
Given : x = 9t − t R
2 3
92.
From eqns. (i) and (ii), we get
Speed v =
dx d
=
dt dt
( )
9t 2 − t 3 = 18t − 3t 2 . v 2 N sin θ + f cos θ
=
For maximum speed, Rg N cos θ − f sin θ
dv
= 0 ⇒ 18 − 6t = 0
2
vmax N sin θ + µ s N cos θ
⇒ =
dt Rg N cos θ − µ s N sin θ
∴ t = 3s .
∴ xmax = 81m − 27 m = 54m .  µ + tan θ 
vmax = Rg  s
 1 − µ s tan θ 
(From x = 9t − t )
2 3



93. Two vectors A and B are orthogonal to each  dm 
95. Rate of burning of fuel 
  = 1kg / s and
other, if their scalar product is zero dt 



i.e. A.B = 0 . velocity of ejected fuel (v) = 60 km/s

 = 60 × 103 m / s
Here, A = cos ω tiɵ + sin ωt ɵj and
Force = Rate of change of momentum

 ωt ωt dp d ( mv)
B = cos ɵi + sin ɵj = = =v
dm
( )
= 60 × 103 × 1 = 60000 N .
2 2 dt dt dt

( )



∴ A.B = cos ω tiɵ + sin ωt ɵj 96. Here, U =
A B
−
r2 r
 ωt ɵ ωt ɵj 
 cos i + sin  For equilibrium,
dU
=0
2 2
dr
ωt ωt 2A B 2A B 2A
= cos ωt cos + sin ωt sin ∴− 3 + 2 = 0 or 3 = 2 or r =
2 2 r r r r B
(∵ɵi.ɵi = ɵj.ɵj = 1and ɵi.ɵj = ɵj.ɵi = 0) For stable equilibrium,
dU2
>0
 ωt  dr 2
= cos  ωt −  d 2U 6 A 2 B
 2 = 4 − 3
dr 2 r r
(∵ cos ( A −B) = cos A cos B + sin A sin B)




 d 2U 6 AB 4 2 B 4 B 4
But A.B = 0 (as A and B are orthogonal to = − = >0
each other)
dr 2 r =( 2 A / B )
16 A4 8 A3 8 A3
 ωt  So for stable equilibrium, the distance of the
∴ cos  ωt −  = 0 2A
 2 particle is .
B
 ωt  π ωt π
cos  ωt −  = cos or ωt − = 97. Work done required to bring a object to rest
 2 2 2 2 ∆W = ∆KE
ωt π π 1
= or ∆W = I ω 2 ; where I = moment of inertia
2 2 ω 2
 For same ω , ∆W ∝ I Where F is the force applied, L is the length, D
is the diameter and ∆L is the extension of the
2
For a solid sphere, I A = MR 2 wire respectively. As each wire is made up of
5 same material therefore their Young’s
modulus is same for each wire.
MR 2
For disc I B = For all the four wires, Y, F(= tension) are the
2 same.
For a circular ring, I C = MR
2
L
∴∆L ∝
∴ I C > I B > I A ∴WC > WB > WA D2
98. As the system is initially at rest, therefore, L 200cm −1
In (a) = 2 = 5 × 10 cm
3
initial angular momentum Li = 0 . D 2
( 0.2cm)
According to the principle of conservation of
L 300cm −1
angular momentum, final angular momentum, In (b) = 2 = 3.3 × 10 cm
3

Lf = 0 . D 2
( 0.3cm)
∴ Angular momentum of disc = Angular L 50cm −1
In (c) = 2 = 20 × 10 cm
3
momentum of man is in opposite direction of
platform.
D 2
( 0.05cm)
i.e., mvR = I ω L 100cm −1
In (d) = 2 = 10 × 10 cm
3

or ω=
mυ R 50 × 1 × 2 1
= = rads −1
D 2
( 0.1cm)
I 200 2 Hence, ∆L is maximum in (c)
Angular velocity of man relative to platform is 102. The internal energy of 2 moles of O2 atom is
1 1 υ
ω r = ω + = + = 1rads −1 n1 f1 5
R 2 2 U O2 = RT = 2 × × RT
2 2
Time taken by the man to complete one
2π 2π U O2 = 5RT
revolution is T = = = 2π s
ωr 1 The internal energy of 4 moles of Ar atom is
n2 f 2 RT 3
99. If universal Gravitational constant becomes U Ar = = 4 × × RT = 6 RT
ten times, then G ' = 10G . 2 2
So, acceleration due to gravity increases. i.e, ∴ The total internal energy of the system is
(d) is wrong option. n f RT 3
100. From Wien’s law, λ maxT =constant U Ar = 2 2 = 4 × × RT = 6 RT
2 2
So, λ max T1 = λ max T2
1 2
∴ The total internal energy of the system is
U = U O2 + U Ar = 5RT + 6 RT = 11RT
3λ0 T' 4
⇒ λ 0T = T '⇒ = 103. Conceptual
4 T 3
According to Stefan –Boltzman law, energy 104. Heat required to melt 1 kg ice at 0ºC to water
at 0ºC is
emitted unit time by a black body is Aeσ T ,
4

i.e., power radiated. Q = mice Lice = (1kg )( 80cal / g )

∴P ∝T 4 = (1000 g )( 80cal / g ) = 8 × 104 cal
4 4
P  T '  4 256 Change in entropy,
So, 2 =   ⇒ n =   =
P1  T   3 81 Q 8 × 104 cal
∆S = =
101. Young’s modulus, T ( 273K )
FL 4 FL 4FL = 293 cal/K
Y= = or ∆L =
A∆L π D ∆L
2
π D 2Y 105. y = sin ω t − cos ω t
  1 1   π 109. For isolated capacitor, charge Q = constant.
= 2 sin ω t − cos ωt  = 2 sin  ω t − 
 2 2   4
Q2
It represents a SHM with time period, Electrostatic force, Fplate = F
2 Aε 0
2π
T= . is independent of the distance between plates.
ω
110. According to the given problem, U s = U p
y = 1 + ω t + ω 2t 2
Substituting the values of U s and U p from
It represents a non-periodic motion. Also it is
not physically acceptable as y → ∞ as equations (ii) and (iv), we get
t → ∞. 1 C1 1
106. For simple harmonic motion velocity
( 4V ) 2 = ( n2C2 ) (V ) 2
2 n1 2
v = ω a 2 − x 2 at displacement x. C116 16C1
or = n2C2 or C2 =
10 = ω a 2 − 16 ____ (i) n1 n1n2
8 = ω a 2 − 25 V
____ (ii) 111. R = − G , in series
ig
100
= a 2 − 16 _____ (iii)
ω 2
112. ( 47 ± 4.7) k Ω = 47 × 103 ± 10%Ω
64 ∴ Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver
= a 2 − 25 _____ (iv)
ω 2
113. Here, Length of each rod, l = 1 m
36 Area of cross-section of each rod,
∴ Equation (iii) – (iv) gives =9
ω2 A = 0.01cm 2 = 0.01 × 10−4 m 2
⇒ ω = 2rad / s Resistivity of copper rod,
2π 2π ρcu = 1.7 × 10−6 Ωcm
or T = = = π sec
ω 2 = 1.7 × 10−6 × 10−2 Ωm = 1.7 × 10−8 Ωm
107. The required frequency of sound heard by the Resistivity of iron rod,
driver of second car is given as
ρ Fe = 10−5 Ωcm
 v + v0 
υ' = υ , = 10−5 × 10−2 Ωm = 10−7 Ωm
 v − v  s
∴ Resistance of copper rod,
Where v = velocity of sound
l
v0 =velocity of observer, i.e., second car RCu = ρFe
A
vs = velocity of source i.e., first car l
And resistance of iron rod, RFe = ρ Fe
 340 + 16.5   356.5  A
υ ' = 400   = 400 
 340 − 22   318  As copper and iron rods are connected in
series, therefore equivalent resistance is
υ ' ≈ 448Hz
l l l
108. y = 0.25sin (10π x − 2π t ) R = RCu + RFe = ρCu + ρ Fe = ( ρCu + ρ Fe )
A A A
ymax = 0.25 Voltage required to produce 1 A current in the
2π (
rods is V = IR = (1) RCu + RFe )
k= = 10π ⇒ λ = 0.2m
λ l
= ( ρCu + ρ Fe )  
ω = 2π f = 2π ⇒ f = 1Hz  A
The sign is negative inside the bracket.  
Therefore this wave travels in the positive x- (
= 1.7 × 10 −8 + 10−7 
1
) −4 
 0.01 × 10 
V
direction.
 ( )
= 10−7 ( 0.17 + 1) 106 V = 1.17 × 10−1V = 0.117V  n + 1
2

−1
( ) ( )
2 2
2 2  n − 1 n +1 − n −1
 qα   m p   Rα  = =
+1 (
114. Kα = K P  n + 1) + ( n − 1)
2 2 2
     n + 1
 q p   mα   R p   n − 1

qα m 1 4 n 2 n
Here, K p = 1MeV , = 2, p = = =
qp mα 4 2 ( n + 1) n + 1
Rα
=1 λD
and
Rp 121. Fringe width, β=
d
Where D is the distance between slits and
2  1
∴ Kα = (1MeV )( 2)   (1) = 1MeV
2
screen and d is the distance between the slits.
 4 When D is doubled and d is reduced to half,
115. Magnetic moment of the loop. then fringe width becomes
M = NIA = 2000 × 2 × 1.5 × 10−4 = 0.6 J / T λ ( 2 D) 4λ D
τ = MB sin 30º β'= = = 4β
Torque ( d / 2) d
1
= 0.6 × 5 × 10−2 × = 1.5 × 10−2 Nm 122. A = 60º, µ = 3, δ m = ?
2
116. Magnetic susceptibility is negative for  A + δm 
sin 
diamagnetic material only.  2 
117. Quality factor of an L-C-R circuit is given by. µ= ∴ δ m = 60º
A
sin
1 L 2
Q=


R C 123. Direction of propagation is parallel to E × B
dI 124. de Brogile wavelength associated with an
118. As, ε =M electron is
dt
h h
d
= M ( I 0 sin ωt ) = MI 0ω cos ωt
λ= or P =
dt
P λ
∆P ∆λ
∴ ε max = 0.005 × 10 × 100π × 1 = 5π ∴ =−
119. X-rays are used for the investigation of
P λ
structure of solids. P 0.5
=
I1 Pinitial 100
120. Here, =n
I2 Pinitial = 200 P
2 2 125. The work function has no effect on
I max  I1 + I 2   I1 / I 2 + 1 photoelectric current so long as hυ > W0 . The
= =
I min  I1 − I 2   I1 / I 2 − 1 photoelectric current proportional to the
2 intensity of incident light. Since there is no
 n + 1 change in the intensity of light, hence I1 = I 2 .
= 
 n − 1 126. According to Rydberg formula
I max 1 1 1
−1 = R 2 − 2 
I max − I min I min λ  n f ni 
=
I max + I min I max
+1 Here, n f = 1, ni = 5
I min
1 1 1  1 1  24
∴ = R 2 − 2  = R −  = R
λ 1 5  1 25  25
 According to conservation of linear
momentum, we get
Momentum of photon = Moment of atom
h
= mυ or
λ
h h  24 R  24hR
υ= =  =
mλ m  25  25m 130. In forward biasing, the positive terminal of the
127. Given : λ A = 5λ , λ B = λ battery is connected to p-side junction, the
forward bais voltage opposes the potential
At t = 0, N 0 ( ) A = ( N0 )B barrier. Due to it, the depletion region
2 becomes thin.
N A  1
=  131. Applying Snell’s law of refraction at A, we get
NB  e
N
According to radioactive decay, = e − λt
N0
NA −λ
∴ = e At ……… (i)
( N0 ) A
NB −λ
= e Bt …….. (ii)
( N0 ) B
sin i sin 45º
Divide (i) by (ii), we get µ= =
sin r sin r
NA NA
= e ( A B) = e −( 5 λ − λ ) t
− λ −λ t
or, ∴ sin r = 1 / 2µ
NB NB
 1 
 1
2
 1
2
 1
4 λt
∴ r = sin −1  
or,   = e
−4 λ t
or,   =    2µ 
 e  e  e
Applying the condition of total internal
2 1 reflection at B, we get
or, 4λ t = 2 ⇒ t = =
4λ 2λ ic = sin−1 (1 / µ )
128. Given VBE = 0;VCE = 0 Where ic is the critical angle

∴ Collecter current, I C =
( 20 − 0) Now, r+ic =90º= π / 2
4 × 103 1 π 1
∴ sin −1 = − sin −1
or I C = 5 × 10 A = 5mA
−3 2µ 2 µ
1 1
Input voltage, Vi = VBE + I B RB or , sin −1 = cos−1
2µ µ
or Vi = 0 + I B RB or 20 = I B × 500 × 10
3

1 µ 2 −1 1
20 ∴ = or = µ 2 −1 .
∴ IB = = 40µ A 2µ µ 2
500 × 103
∴ current gain, ∴ µ = 3/ 2
IC 5 × 10−3 EP N 1
β= = = 125 132. = P = ; ES = 5750V
I B 40 × 10−6 ES NS 25
129. The V-I characteristic for a solar cell is as EP N 1
= P = ; ES = 5750V
shown the figure. ES NS 25
 PP P 2× 5750 And
IP = = S = = 50 A
VP VP 230 I1 + I 2 2I
T2 = 2π = 2π
133. a) S (M1 + M 2 ) H (2M − M ) H

For difference position.

T1 M 1
∴ = = <1.
i) T2 3M 3
(i ) M = M 1M 2 (ii ) M = M 1 − M 2 ∴ T1 < T2
I = I1 + I 2 I = I1 + I 2 134. m = l × area × density
i) Similar poles are placed at the same side 1 l2
(sum position) R ∝= ∝
Area m
ii) Opposite poles are placed at the same side
(difference position) l12 l22 l32
R1 : R2 : R3 = : :
I1 and I2 are the moments of inertia of the m1 m2 m3
magnets and M1 and M2 are the moments of
25 9 1
the magnets. Here M 1 = M and R1 : R2 : R3 = : : = 125 :15 :1
1 3 5
M 2 = 2 M , I1 = I 2 = I (say), for same
mV
geometry. 135. r =
I1 + I 2 2I Bq
∴ T1 = 2π = 2π
(M1 + M 2 ) H (M + 2M ) H
For same position.
CHEMISTRY
136. WO2 = 1 WN 2 = 4
1 4
n O2 = n N2 =
32 28
1 mole  →N
1 N
moles  → molecule
32 32
1 mole  →N
4 4N
→
28 28
N 28
× = 7 : 32
32 4 N
137.

by 1×2

MnO−4 + C2O24− + H + 
→ Mn 2+ + CO2 + H 2O
+7 +3 +2 +4

by 5
− 2−
2MnO + 5C 2 O + 16H + 
4 → 2Mn 2+ + 10CO 2 + 8H 2 O
4
2, 5, 16
138. n = 3
m=0
3s, 3p3, 3d 32 = Total 6e −
139. C < N < O < F
140. For isoelectronic species with increase in negative charge size increases
N 3− > O 2 − > F −
141.
H 2O i

i H 2Te
i H Se
2
i
H 2S
H2O high B.P due to H.B
142. Disubstituted benzene
o>m>T>p
para has µ = 0

143. Zero overlap

144. rCH4 = 2 rx = 1
M CH 4 = 16 M x = ?
r1 M2
=
r2 M1
2 Mx
= = M x = 64
1 16
145. Addition of reactants shifts the equation to right side
⇀ Ag(NH3 ) + ; K1 = 3.5 ×10−3
146. Ag + + NH3 ↽
⇀[Ag(NH3 ) 2 ] ; K 2 = 1.7 ×10−3
[Ag(NH3 )+ +NH3 ↽
⇀[Ag(NH3 ) 2 ]+ ; K
Ag + + 2NH3 ↽
K = K1 × K 2 = 3.5 ×10 −3 ×1.7 × 10−3 = 5.95 ×10 −6
147. Work → path function
148. ∆H − ∆E = ∆nRT = −3 × 8.314 ×10 −3 × 298 = −7.432 KJ
149. For isotonic solutions
π1 = π 2 BaCl 2 → Ba 2+ + 2Cl −
C1 = C2 (1 − α) α + 2α = 1 + 2α
0.2 M = (1 + 2α) 0.08
0.2
= (1 + 2α)
0.08
(1 + 2α) = 2.5
2α = 1.5
α = 0.75
151. High SRP element can oxidise less SRP element SRP ∝ O.N
152. Rate constant depends on T only
t 560
153. Number of half lives (x) = = =4
t1/2 140
N 1 1
N = x0 4 =
2 2 16
154. Ca(OH3)2 + Ca(OH)2  → 2CaCO3 + 2H2O
slaked lime is used in Clark’s method.
 1
155. Size ∝
H.E
For BeSO4 H.E > L.E that is why it is more soluble then BaSO4
156. CoO + B2O3  → Co(BO2)2
blue bead
157. PbI4 is least stable due to inert pair effect
158. H2S2O8
O O

HO − S − O − O − S − OH

O O
159. Basic nature of NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3
+1 +5
160. Xe[ Pt F6 ]
Xenon hexa fluoro platinate (V)
161. Acidic strength increase with increase in oxidation state of chlorine
HClO < HClO 2 < HClO3 < HClO 4
162. Misch metal is an alloy of Lanthanoid metal (95%) and Fe ( ≃ 5%) along with traces of S, C, Ca and
Al.
163. Wave length of light absorbed is inversely proportional to strength of the ligand
164. Both are co-ordination isomers
165. De-pericillamine is used to remove Fe and Cu
166.
OH OH
*
CH3 −* C − C − CH3

H H
It has plane of symmetry.
Number of optically active isomers = 2n - 1 = 22 - 1 = 2
Number of optically in active isomers is mesomers = 2n/2 - 1 = 22/2 - 1 = 20 = 1
 y y
167. C x H y +  x +  O 2 
→ x CO 2 + H 2 O
1 mole  4 x mole 2
y/2 moles

0.01 moles  → 0.72 gm water

1
1 mole  → × 0.72 = 72 gm
0.01
72
= = 4 moles H2O
18
y
∴ =4⇒ y=8
2
0.01 moles  → 3.08 gm CO2
3.08
1 mole  → = 308 gm
0.01
308
= = 7 moles CO2
44
∴ Formula of Hydrocarbon is C7H8.
168. Presence of electron withdrawing group increase and electron releasing group decrease the acidic
strength of phenols, alcohols and carboxylic acids.
169. Presence of lone pair atoms gives more stability to carbocation due to resonance
 + ⊕
ii
O ⊕ O
ii ⊕
I III
II IV
6 - Hyperconjugation 3 - hyper conjugations
and lone pair atom 2° carbocation and lone pair atom 1° carbocation
Stability of I > III > II > IV
170.
SO3H SO3− Na +

+ CH3COONa 
→ + CH3COOH

CH 3 CH 3

171.
x
RMgX + D2O 
→ RD + Mg
OD
Cl
( CH3 )3 CMgCl + D2O 
→ ( CH3 )3 C − D + Mg
OD
172.
Br + KBr + H2O 
NaNH2
→ CH ≡ CH + NaBr + NH3
Br 
alc
KOH, ∆
→
Br
173.

HBr
CH3 − CH = CH OH  → CH3 − CH 2 − CH OH

Br
Major
174. C2 H 6 + Cl2 → C2 H5Cl + HCl
UV

excess
LiAlH PI Alc.KOH
175. CH 3COOH 4
→ CH3CH 2OH 
2 → C H I 
2 5 → C2 H 4
(A) ( B)
176. CH3CONH 2 4
→ CH3CH 2 NH 2
LiAlH

Ethanamine
177.
NH 2 N +2 Cl− CN

NaNO2 HCl
 → 
CuCN KCN
→ + N2
0−5°C ∆

CH 3 CH 3 CH 3
(D) (E)
178.
CH 3 COOH COCl CHO

SOCl2
KMnO4
 →  → →
H 2 Pd
BaSO 4

(A) (C)
(B)
179. Glucose has no reaction with Schiff’s base, NH3, NaHSO3
180. Ethanol is used as solvent in making transparent soaps