This is PG Chandigarh Nursing Officer_Exam_2016_Ques

tion_Paper
1. The vaccine used for the prevention of cervical cancer is _

A. HPV.

B. IgG

C. Hepatitis B

D. BCG

2. What is the most potentially Dangerous Complication of chronic peritoneal dialysis.?

A. Peritonitis.

B. Abdominal pain

C. Muscle cramps

D. dyspnea

3. Which of the following function as First Referral Unit

(FRUs)in India?

A. Sub center

B. Primary health centre

C. Community health centre.

D. Regional hospital

4. The average weight gain per week during later months of pregnancy is _

A. 1.5 kg

B. 1.0 kg

C. 0.25 kg

D. 0.5 kg.

5. A client's condition following cardiac catheterization is evaluated by palpating the pulse

A. Above the catheter insertion

B. At the insertion site

C. Distal to the catheter insertion.

D. In all extremities

6. Which of the following anti-tubercular drug is bacteriostatic-

A. streptomycin

B. ethambutol

C. rifampicin

D. INH

7. Normally by one year of age the birth weight of an infant should increase by _

A. 1.5 times

B. 2 times

C. 3 times.

D. 4 times

8. Specificity is the ability of .......identity-

A. true positive

B. true negative

C. false positive

D. false negative

9. A patient was in an automobile accident, sustained a head injury. Following admission to the hospital,
a diagnosis of increased intracranial pressure was made. The nursing intervention appropriate in the
care of patients is to _

A. Encourage the intake of clear fluid

B. Teach controlled coughing and deep breathing.

C. Provide a quiet and bright environment

D. Elevating the head 15 to 30 degree.

10. Which of the best method for removing of temporary hardness of water-
A. sterilization

B. boiling

C. filtration

11. Involution of uterus is completed by _

A. 6 weeks.

B. 8 weeks

C. 12 weeks

D. 16 weeks

12. Strongest stimulus of lactation is by_

A. PPH

B. Sucking.

C. Metoclopramide

D. Bromocriptine

13. " Injection Anti-D " should be given following Rh(+)ve delivery within _

A. 8 hours

B. 72 hours

C. 7 days

D. 24 hours

14. Dyspnea associated with congestive heart failure is primarily due to-

A. blockage of pulmonary artery by an embolus.

B. accumulation of fluid in the interstitial space & alveoli of

the lungs.

C. blockage of bronchi by mucus secretion.

D. compretion of lungs by the dilated heart.

15. Territory level of prevention of diseases is related to-

A. vaccination

B. good nutrition

C. rehabilitation

D. good rest & sleep.

16 Placental bed blood circulation through-

A. villi

B. spiral artery

C. chorional membrane

D. umblical artery.

17. The danger of convulsion in a woman with preeclampsia ends-

A. After labour begins

B. after delivery occurs

C. 24 hours postpartum

D. 48 hours postpartum

18. All of the following are mosquito born disease except-

A. malaria

B. kala azar

C. KTO

D. dengue

19. Immunity by antibody formation during the course of a

disease is-

A. active natural immunity

B. active artificial immunity

C. passive natural Immunity

D. passive natural immunity

20. Major route of transmission of hepatitis-A is-

A. faeco-oral route

B. parenteral route

C sexual transmission

D placental transmission.

21. The uterine blood flow at term-

A. 50 ml/min

B. 100-150 ml/min

C. 350-375 ml/min

D. 500-750 ml/min

22. A woman has been pushing effectively for 1 hour, a nurse should need at this time is to-

A. change position frequently

B. ambulate

C. consume oral food & fluids.

D. rest b/w contractions.

23. A patient need an intradermal injection for mantoux test,

but he currently has bilateral forearm cast in place. which of

the following would be the best alternative site-

A. abdomen

B. lateral upper arm

C. medial upper arm

D. antecubital space

24. Which is not a freeze dried vaccine is-

A. BCG

B. DPT
C. measles

D. yellow fever

25. Major cause of blindness in india is-

A. glaucoma

B. refractive error

C. cornea blindness

D. cataract

26. India accounts for nearly...... of the global incidence of

tuberculosis-

A. 50%

B. 25%

C. 33%

D. 20%

27. Inadequate intake of which vitamin by the pregnant

women may cause neural tube defects-

A. niacin

B.riboflavin

C. folic acid

D. thiaminthia

28.the safe t method of termination of pregnancy before 12 weeks is -

A. suction evacuation

B. D&C

C. luminaria tant

D. prostaglandin
29. The principal features of kawashiorkor is -

A. visible muscle wasting

B. usually good appetite

C. severe fat wasting

D. Oedema in lower leg & face

30. The concept of MHW was given by-

A. kartar singh committee

B. shrivastva committee

C. chada committee

31. A characteristic of infant & young children who have

experienced maternal deprivation is -

A. tendency toward overeating

B. responsiveness to stimuli

C. proneness to illness

D. extreme activity

32. A skin infection that can be a sequela of a

staphylococus infection is -

A. herpes simplex

B. scabies

C. intertrigo

D. impetigo

33. Caput succedenum is -

A. birth mark

B.swelling on the face of the body

C. collection of fluid under scalp

D. swelling will not cross the suture line.

34. The reason for using the parenteral route to administer

medication includes -

A. parenteral medication last longer than an oral medication

B. it is the least expensive method

C. it is easier to measure an accurate dose

D. the parenteral route allow more rapid absorption than the

oral route

35. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing action

when caring a patient a patient who has a radium implant

for cancer of cervix-

A. restrict the visitors to 10 minutes stay

B. store urine in a lead-lined container

C. wear a lead apron when giving care

D. avoid giving IM injection to gluteal region

36. A patient's physics orders nuclear cardiography and

makes an appointment for a thallium scan.

The purpose of injecting a radioisotope into the blood

stream is to detect-

A. normal versus abnormal tissue

B. damage in area of the heart

C. ventricular function

D. myocardial scanning & perfusion

37. Protein are required for-

A. weight reduction
B. absorption of calcium

C. maintenance of body tissue.

D. synthesis of steroid hormone.

38. The enzyme release by the sperm which allow

penetration of the ovum is-

A. amylase

B. hyaluronidase

C. lipase

D. trypsin

39. Total blood volume of a newborn at birth is-

A. 80 ml/kg

B. 100 ml/kg

C. 125 ml/kg

D. 150 ml/kg

40. A 20 months old is to receive isotype-P 240 ml IV in 6

hours.

The drop factor of the minidropper is 60 drops/ml. The

nurse should regulate the IV to run at-

A. 36 drop/min

B. 40 drop/min

C. 32 drop/min

D. 20 drop/min

41. When a patient is in liver failure, which of the following behavioral changes is the most important
assessment is report-

A. shortness of breath

B. lethargy
C. fatigue

D. nausea

42. Under IMNCI care is rendered to-

A. only newborn

B. under 5 children

C. 2 months to 5 year old children

D. age upto 2 months and 2 months to 5 year old children

43. Which of the following clinical finding indicates the patient is experiencing hypokalamia-

A. Edema

B. muscle spasm

C. kussmaul breathing

D. abdominal distention

44. Pain felt in calf muscle when the foot is dorsiflexed with the leg extended at the knee is called-

A. kernig's sign

B. spalding's sign

C. homan sign

D. goodell's sign

45. The population covered by a suncenters in plain area is-

A. 1000

B. 5000

C. 30000

D. 80000

46. The mean cardiac output of the foetus is-

A. 100 ml/kg/min

B. 225 ml/kg/min
C. 350 ml/kg/min

D. 415 ml/kg/min

47. A 20 year old male patient is admitted to the Hospital for a suspected brain tumor, while asseesing
the patient, th nurse would keep in mind that the most reliable index of cerebral status is-

A. pulil response

B. deep tendon reflexes

C. muscle strength

D. level of consciousness

48. EPI include all vaccines except-

A. DPT

B. MMR

C. BCG

D. polio

49. Most appropriate age for early primary immunization against TB, DPT, polio, measles, & hepatitis-B
is-

A . birth to 1 year

B. birth to 6 months

C. birth to 9 months

D. birth to 18 months

50. The first person becoming sick in an epidemic is called-

A. primary case

B.secondary case

C. contact case

D. index case

51. ART-DOTS linkage are being established at all-

A. health centers
B. ART centers under AIDS control progtamme

C. Hospital

D. TB centers

52. The immunity develop as a results of infecti on by pathogenic organisms is-

A. active immunity

B. passive immunity

C. natural immunity

D. acquired immunity

53. Normally newborn lose weight in first week of life-

A. 10 % of birth weight

B. 5 % of birth weight

C. 1 % of birth weight

D. 20 % of birth weight

54. Which of the following is a preparation of choice for a patient who has been admitted in emergency
department with an open contaminated injury and no recent history of tetanus immunization-

A. DPT vaccine

B. tetanus toxoid

C. tetanus antitoxin

D. tetanus immunoglobulin.

55. BCG, measles, MMR, should be stored in-

A. 10 to 120* C

B. 20 to 250* C

C. 2 to 8* C

D. 15 to 200* C

56. The nurse will evaluate for the most significant

complications in patients undergone chronic peritoneal

dialysis , which is-

A . pulmonary embolism

B. hypotension

C. dyspnoea

D. peritonitis

57. Communicability of measles decline-

A. after onset of fever

B. during prodromal period

C. at the time of eruption

D. after appearance of rash

58. The physician has ordered a 24 hours urine specimen.

after explaining the procedure to the patients, the nurse

collects the first specimen, this specimen is then-

A. discarded then the collection begain

B. saved as part of the 24 hours collection

C. tested, than discarded

D. placed in a separate container & later added to the

collection.

59. Tertiory prevention is needed in which stage of the natural history of disease-

A. prepathogenesis

B. pathogenesis

C. predromal

D. terminal

60. Strawberry spot vagina is seen in-

A. candida
B. trichomonas

C. CMV

D. herpes simplex

61. A non-stess test is prescribed for a pregnant monther

and nurse about the procedure, the nurse tells the client that-

A. the test is an invasive procedure and requires that an

informed consent be signed

B. the test will take about 2 hours and will require close

monitoring for 2 hours after procedure is completed

C. an ultrasound transducer that records fetal heart activity

is secured over the abdomen where the fetal heart sound is

heared most clearly.

D. The fetus is challenged a stresed by uterine contraction

to obtain the necessary information

62. The first dose of vitamin-A is given at the age of-

A. 18 months

B. 2 years

C. 9 months

D. 6 months

63. A way to promote trust with a patient is to-

A. allow family members to visit whenever they want

B. assure the patient that her doctor is excellent

C. follow through when u say u will do something

D. talk with her at length, about her life, likes & dislikes

64. Physiological anemia in pregnant women is a result of-

A. poor dietary intake of iron

B. increased erthropoiesis

C. increased detoxification demands

D. increased blood volume of women

65. A young patient who was hit by a car was fortunate

because the level of his injury did not interrupt his

respiratory function. The cord segment invoved with

maintaining respiratory functions are-

A. thoracic level 5 & 6

B. thoracic level 2 & 3

C. cervical level 7 & 8

D. cervical level 3 & 4

66. When a patient's medical record is needed as evidence

for a ligal action, you are aware that the record is the

property of-

A. the patient

B. the court

C. the patient's lawyer

D. the health care agency

67. Which of the clients would nurse identity as being at

most risk for developing DIC-

A. a 4th gravida delivered 8 hours ago & has lost 500 ml of

blood

B. a 2nd gravida diagnosed with dead foetus syndrome

C. a primigravida with mild preeclampsia

D. a primigravida who delivered a 3.5 kg baby 3 hours ago

68. the principle of risk approach is-

A. something for all

B. more for the needly

C. all for some

D. all for all

69. A patient has the diagnosis of left ventricular failure and

a high pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP). The

physician order dopamine to improve ventricular function.

The nurse will know the medication is working if the

patient's-

A. blood pressure rises

B. blood pressure decreases

C. cardiac index falls

D. PCWP rises

70. A main objective of intensive IEC activities for leprosy

programme is-

A. cure of illness

B. case identification

C. reduction of stigma

D. eradication of disease

71. Promot

on by

pathogenic organisms is-

A. active immunity

B. passive immunity

C. natural immunity

D. acquired immunity

53. Normally newborn lose weight in first week of life-

A. 10 % of birth weight

B. 5 % of birth weight

C. 1 % of birth weight

D. 20 % of birth weight

54. Which of the following is a preparation of choice for a

patient who has been admitted in emergency department

with an open contaminated injury and no recent history of

tetanus immunization-

A. DPT vaccine

B. tetanus toxoid

C. tetanus antitoxin

D. tetanus immunoglobulin.

55. BCG, measles, MMR, should be stored in-

A. 10 to 120* C

B. 20 to 250* C

C. 2 to 8* C

D. 15 to 200* C

56. The nurse will evaluate for the most significant

complications in patients undergone chronic peritoneal

dialysis , which is-

A . pulmonary embolism

B. hypotension

C. dyspnoea

D. peritonitis

57. Communicability of measles decline-

A. after onset of fever

B. during prodromal period

C. at the time of eruption

D. after appearance of rash

58. The physician has ordered a 24 hours urine specimen.

after explaining the procedure to the patients, the nurse

collects the first specimen, this specimen is then-

A. discarded then the collection begain

B. saved as part of the 24 hours collection

C. tested, than discarded

D. placed in a separate container & later added to the

collection.

59. Tertiory prevention is needed in which stage of the

natural history of disease-

A. prepathogenesis

B. pathogenesis

C. predromal

D. terminal

60. Strawberry spot vagina is seen in-

A. candida
B. trichomonas

C. CMV

D. herpes simplex

61. A non-stess test is prescribed for a pregnant monther

and nurse about the procedure, the nurse tells the client that-

A. the test is an invasive procedure and requires that an

informed consent be signed

B. the test will take about 2 hours and will require close

monitoring for 2 hours after procedure is completed

C. an ultrasound transducer that records fetal heart activity

is secured over the abdomen where the fetal heart sound is

heared most clearly.

D. The fetus is challenged a stresed by uterine contraction

to obtain the necessary information

62. The first dose of vitamin-A is given at the age of-

A. 18 months

B. 2 years

C. 9 months

D. 6 months

63. A way to promote trust with a patient is to-

A. allow family members to visit whenever they want

B. assure the patient that her doctor is excellent

C. follow through when u say u will do something

D. talk with her at length, about her life, likes & dislikes

64. Physiological anemia in pregnant women is a result of-

A. poor dietary intake of iron

B. increased erthropoiesis

C. increased detoxification demands

D. increased blood volume of women

65. A young patient who was hit by a car was fortunate

because the level of his injury did not interrupt his

respiratory function. The cord segment invoved with

maintaining respiratory functions are-

A. thoracic level 5 & 6

B. thoracic level 2 & 3

C. cervical level 7 & 8

D. cervical level 3 & 4

66. When a patient's medical record is needed as evidence

for a ligal action, you are aware that the record is the

property of-

A. the patient

B. the court

C. the patient's lawyer

D. the health care agency

67. Which of the clients would nurse identity as being at

most risk for developing DIC-

A. a 4th gravida delivered 8 hours ago & has lost 500 ml of

blood

B. a 2nd gravida diagnosed with dead foetus syndrome

C. a primigravida with mild preeclampsia

D. a primigravida who delivered a 3.5 kg baby 3 hours ago

68. the principle of risk approach is-

A. something for all

B. more for the needly

C. all for some

D. all for all

69. A patient has the diagnosis of left ventricular failure and

a high pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP). The

physician order dopamine to improve ventricular function.

The nurse will know the medication is working if the

patient's-

A. blood pressure rises

B. blood pressure decreases

C. cardiac index falls

D. PCWP rises

70. A main objective of intensive IEC activities for leprosy

programme is-

A. cure of illness

B. case identification

C. reduction of stigma

D. eradication of disease

71. Promot

ion of infant & young child feeding practice is

ancompassed along with continuous of complementary

feeding up to-
A. 1 year of life

B. 2 year of life

C. 3 year of life

D. 4 year of life

72. Thrombophlebitis is a common complication following

vascular surgery. Which of the following sign indicates that

a possible thrombus has occured-

A. kernig's sign

B. hegar's sig

C. homan's sign

D. brudzindki's sign

73. During a retention catheter insertion or bladder

irrigation, the nurse must use-

A. clean equipment & maintain surgical asepsis

B. sterile equipment & maintain medical asepsis

C. clean equipment & techniques

D. sterile equipment & wear sterile gloves

74. Saffron coloured meconium seen in-

A. post maturity

B. TB

C. breech

D. normal in appearance

75 The extra calories needed by a woman having singleton

pregnancy-

A. 100 kcal
B. 200 kcal

C. 300 kcal

D. 500 kcal

76. Which of the following principle guided nurses priorities

at a disaster cause by a collapse building in an earthquake-

A. haemorrhage necessitates immediate care to save most

lives

B. those requiring minimal care are treated first so that they

can help others

C. those with head injuries are treated first so that their care

more complex

D. children should get highest priority because they have the

greatest life expectancy

77. Mantoux test is done to diagnose-

A. malaria

B. filaria

C. tuberculosis

D. typhoid

78. A 45 year old patient Mrs. sunita devi has just been

admitted to the Hospital for ab abdominal hysterectomy

following a diagnosis of uterine cancer. Results of lab tests

indicate that the patient's WBC is 9800/cumm.

The most appropriate intervention is to-

A. call the operating room & cancel the surgery

B. notify the surgeon immediately

C. take no action as this is a normal value

D. call the lab & have the test repeated

79. The result of mantoux test are read after-

A. 6 hours

B. 24 hours

C. 48 hours

D. 72 hours

80. Bitot's spot are due to the deficiency of-

A. vitamin-A

B. vitamin-B

C. vitamin-D

D. carbohydrate

81. Chikunguniya is a non-fatal. .... illness-

A. viral

B. bacterial

C. protozoa

D. plasmodoum

82. following a liver biopsy, the highest priority assessment

of the patient's conditions is to check for-

A. pulmonary edema

B. uneven respiratory pattern

C. haemorrhag

D. pain

83. The number of death per 1000 population per year in a

given community is known as-

A. crude death rate

B. infant death rate

C. neonatal death rate

D. perinatal death rate

84. A pregnant women in Labour room is attached to

external electronic fetal monitor, nurse should do Initial

assessment which of the following-

A. identity type of acceleration

B. assessing baseline FHR

C. determining frequency of the contractions

D. determining intensity of the contractions

85. A female patient Mrs. seema verma has a ceslum

needle implanted in her cervix. She ask the nurse if she may

get out of bed to go to the bathroom.

The appropriate response is to tell her-

A. she may not get out of the bed while the needle is

implanted

B. she may get out of bed with the nurse's help

C. the nurse will have to get a physician order for her to get

out of bed

D. she must stay in bed , but she can move around to be

more comfortable while the needle is implanted

86. Rice water stool is the typical sign of-

A. cholera

B. hepatitis-A
C. hepatitis-B

D. dysentery

87. The assessment finding that shold be reported

immediately should it develop in the patient with acute

pancreatitis is-

A. nausea & vomiting

B. abdominal pain

C. decreased bowel sound

D. shortness of breath

88. A nurse is assessing a child for dehydration. The nurse

determines that the which moderately dehydrated if which of

the symptom is noted-

A. flat fontonalle

B. moist mucus membrane

C. pale skin

D. oligouria

89. The nurse know that the most informative measurement

for determining carcinogenic shock is-

A. arterial blood pressure

B. CVP

C. pulmonary artery pressure

D. cardiac index

90. Which of the following is the appropriate nursing

intervention for a patient with a terminal illness who is

passing through the "acceptance stage"-

A. allowing th

e patient to cry

B. encouraging unrestricted visiting

C. explains the patient what is being done

D. begin around through not speaking

91. A female patient has a laparoscopic cholecystectomy

this morning. She is now complaining of right shoulder pain.

The nurse would explain to the patient this symptoms is-

A. common following this operation

B.expected after General anesthesia

C. unusual & Will be reported to the surgeon

D. indicative of a need to use the incentive spirometer

92. Which immunization produces a permanent scar-

A. DPT

B. BCG

C. Measles vaccination

D. hepatitis-B vaccination

93. To disinfect 20 litres of water, one shold use a single

chlorine tablet of-

A. 0.5 g

B. 1.5 g

C. 2.5 g

D. 3.5 g

94. Expenditure in health sector a public health is about. ....

of the GDP-

A. 1%

B. 2%

C. 5%

D. 6%

95. Which of the following system is an Indian origin-

A. homeopathy

B. Siddha

C. unani-tibb

D. acupuncture

96. Normal crown-rump length at birth is-

A. 20-25 cms

B. 38-50 cms

C. 72-80 cms

D. 78-85 cms

97. Which of the following assessment indicates is extra

cellular fluid loss-

A. distended jugular vein.

B. elevated haemocrate value

C. rapid thready pulse

D. increased serum sodium level

98. INH is prescribed for a 2 year old child with positive

mantoux test. The nurse know the prescribed medicine

should be given for-

A. 6 months
B. 9 month

C. 12 months

D. 18 months

‫اصطالحات طبی‬..............!

*Common Abbreviations*

> Rx = Treatment.

> Hx = History

> Dx = Diagnosis

> q = Every

> qd = Every day

> qod = Every other day

> qh = Every Hour

> S = without

> SS = On e half

> C = With

> SOS = If needed

> AC = Before Meals

> PC = After meals

> BID = Twice a Day

> TID = Thrice a Day

> QID = Four times a day

> OD = Once a Day

> BT = Bed Time

> hs = Bed Time

> BBF = Before Breakfast

> BD = Before Dinner

> Tw = Twice a week

> SQ = sub cutaneous

> IM = Intramuscular . .

> ID = Intradermal

> IV = Intravenous

> Q4H = (every 4 hours)

> QOD = (every other day)

> HS = (at bedtime)

> PRN = (as needed)

> PO or "per os" (by mouth)

> AC (before meals)

> PC = (after meals)

> Mg = (milligrams)

> Mcg/ug = (micrograms)

> G or Gm = (grams)

> 1TSF ( Teaspoon) = 5 ml

> 1 Tablespoonful =15ml

~ DDx=differential Diagnosis

Tx=Treatment

RTx=Radiotherapy

CTx=Chemotherapy

R/O=rule out

s.p=status post
PMH(x)=post medical history

Px=Prognosis

Ix=Indication

CIx=contraindication

Bx =biopsy

Cx=complication...

Knowledge About Blood.

1. Which is known as ‘River of Life’?

Answer: Blood

2. Blood circulation was discovered by?

Answer: William Harvey

3. The total blood volume in an adult?

Answer: 5-6 Litres

4. The pH value of Human blood?

Answer: 7.35-7.45

5. The normal blood cholesterol level?

Answer: 150-250 mg/100 ml

6. The fluid part of blood?

Answer: Plasma

7. Plasma protein fibrinogen has an active role in?

Answer: Clotting of blood.

8. Plasma protein globulins functions as?

Answer: Antibodies

9. Plasma proteins maintain the blood pH?

Answer: Albumins

10. Biconcave discs shaped blood cell?

Answer: RBC (Erythrocytes)

11. Non nucleated blood cell?

Answer: RBC (Erythrocytes)

12. Respiratory pigments present in RBC?

Answer: Haemoglobin

13. Red pigment present in RBC?

Answer: Haemoglobin

14. RBC produced in the?

Answer: Bone marrow

15. Iron containing pigment of Haemoglobin?

Answer: Haem

16. Protein containing pigment of Haemoglobin?

Answer: Globin

17. Graveyard of RBC?

Answer: Spleen

18. Blood bank in the body?

Answer: Spleen

19. Life span of RBC?

Answer: 120 Days

20. Total count is measured by an instrument known as?

Answer: Haemocytometer

21. A decrease in RBC count is known as?

Answer: Anemia
22. An increase in RBC count is known as?

Answer: Polycythemia

23. A high concentration of bilirubin in the blood causes?

Answer: Jaundice

24. The disease resistant blood cell?

Answer: WBC (leucocytes)

25. Which WBC is known as soldiers of the body?

Answer: Neutrophils

26. Largest WBC?

Answer: Monocyes

27. Smallest WBC?

Answer: Lymphocytes

28. Antibodies producing WBC?

Answer: Lymphocytes

29. Life span of WBC?

Answer: 10-15 days

30. Blood cell performs an important role in blood clotting?

Answer: Thrombocytes (Platelets)

31. Vessels is called?

Answer: Thrombus

32. Anticoagulant present in Blood?

Answer: Heparin

33. A hereditary bleeding disease?

Answer: Haemophilia

34. Bleeder’s disease?

Answer: Haemophilia

35. Christmas disease?

Answer: Haemophilia

36. A type of Anemia with sickle shaped RBC?

Answer: Sickle cell anemia

37. Viscosity of Blood?

Answer: 4.5 to 5.5

38. Instrument used to measure haemoglobin?

Answer: Haemoglobinometer

39. Who demonstrated blood groups?

Answer: Karl Landsteiner

40. Who demonstrated Rh factor?

Answer: Karl Landsteiner

41. Blood group which is called Universal donor?

Answer: O

42. Blood group which is called Universal recipient?

Answer: AB

43. Blood group is most common among the Asians?

Answer: B

MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY

Everybody should know the basic functioning of Human Body and its main parts in order to express and
explain their ailment to the Doctor and at the same time one should be able to understand the diagnosis
expressed by the Doctor in the medical terminology. For easy recognition of the Compounded Words
used in the Medical Terminology for naming the disease, Suffixes are added to Prefixes. For this
hereunder giving you a few such prefixes for your ready reference and understanding.
Prefix - Meaning

1. Adeno - Glandular

2. An - Not

3. Anti - Against

4. Aorto - Aorta

5. Artho -

✍✍Human Biology✍✍

1: number of bones: 206

2: number of muscles: 639

3: number of kidneys: 2

4: number of milk teeth: 20

5: number of ribs: 24 (12 pair)

6: Heart Camera Number: 4

7: bigger artery: aorta

8: normal blood pressure: 120/80 Mmhg

9: Ph of blood: 7.4

10: number of vertebrae in the spine: 33

11: number of vertebrae on the neck: 7

12: number of bones in medium ear: 6

13: number of bones in the face: 14

14: number of bones in skull: 22

15: number of bones in the chest: 25

16: number of bones in arms: 6

17: number of muscles in the human arm: 72

18: number of bombs in the heart: 2

19: bigger organ: skin

20: bigger gland: liver

21: largest cell: female egg

22: smaller cell: male sperm

23: smaller bone: Stirrup

24: first transplanted organ: Kidney

25: average length of small intestine: 7 M

26: average length of large intestine: 1.5 m

27: average weight of newborn baby: 2.6 kg

28: pulse rate in one minute: 72 times

29: normal body temperature: 37 v (98.4 f°)

30: average blood volume: 4 TO 5 litres

31: RBC LIFE SPAN: 120 days

32: WBC LIFE SPAN: 10 to 15 days

33: pregnancy period: 280 days (40 week)

34: number of bones on human foot: 33

35: number of bones on each doll: 8

36: number of bones in hand: 27

37: largest endocrine gland: Thyroid

38: largest lymphatic organ: spleen

39: bigger part of the brain: brain

40: bigger and stronger bone: femur

41: Smaller Muscle: Stapedius (Middle Ear)

41: chromosome number: 46 (23 pair)

42: number of bones in the newborn baby: 306

43: blood viscosity: 4.5 to 5.5

44: Universal Donor Blood Group: O

45: Universal recipient blood group: AB

46: MAJOR CMB: Monocyte

47: smaller cmb: Lymphocytes

48: increase the rbc count called: Polycythaemia

49: Blood Bank in the body is: spleen

50: the non-nucleated blood cell is: RBC

51: RBC produced in the bone marrow

52: River of life is called: blood

53: normal level of blood cholesterol: 100 mg / DL

54: Fluid part of the blood is: Plasma

d history and physical examination the physican decided to conduct surgery to the patient. But the
patient was refused to sign a consent to under go surgery. Without the consent of the patient the
physician conducted the surgery and the patient was died. Which right of the patient was violated?

A. Autonomy

B. Justice

C. Mal practice

D. Confidentiality

Nursing licensure exam

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30. A para III, gravida IV mother was just delivered at health facility and she complains vaginal bleeding
after delivery. when the nurse checks her ux, it was not in its place and the nurse notes/feel membrane
slightly via PV.

What is the most priority nursing intervention ?

A. manual utrine Return

B. Bimanual utrine compression

C. Oxytocin IV infusion

D. Positioning the mothe

Toyib Ibn abdellah:

31. A one day infant who is unable to breast feed with weight of 2.1kg comes to hospital and admitted
NICU. what will be the total amout of maintainace given to him?

A. 189ml C. 144ml

B.168ml D.126ml

TI Abdella

32. A Mother brought her 4 day infant with respiratory distress and secretion. The baby was admitted
to NICU and he has severe fluid defecit. What is the most likey way of administering fluid to this infant?

A. breast feeding

B. feeding by tube

C. feeding by cup

D. giving IV fluids

33. ?? A 42-year-old man attends the GP reporting hearing loss. He reports sudden-onset right hearing
loss that has remained continuous for the past three weeks. He notes that the day prior to this he hit his
head with some force. Additionally, he mentions he has been experiencing some dizzy episodes over the
same time frame. He goes onto have a pure-tone audiogram that demonstrates significant sensorineural
hearing loss on the right side.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Stroke

B. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)

C. Meniere's disease

D. Subdural haemorrhage

34. A 8 year old child come to hospital with a complain of fever, SOB and cough. The cough is aggravated
durig night.

What is the most likely diagnosis

A. Pnumonia

B. Brochial asthma

c. Bronchitis
D. Empysem

35. ???A 47-year-old nurse presents to Hospital complaining of a poorly healing ulcer of her left second
digit. The ulcer started a week ago and is painless.

The patient has tried using over the-counter antibacterial and hydrocortisone creams without
improvement. She denies trauma to the hand.

The patient has a temperature of 38.4°C (101.1°F) and left-sided epitrochlear and axillary adenopathy.
She has a 4-cm ulcer on the dorsal side of the left second digit covered by a black eschar and surrounded
by an extensive amount of nonpitting edema.

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis

a. Smallpox infection

b. Cutaneous anthrax

c. Cat-scratch disease

d. Leprosy infection

36. A 23 year old primigravida mother delivered at health facility. After giving birth she complains
vaginal bleeding, and a nurse in charge examined her found tear in her perineum which involves the
anal spinecture but not rectal mucosa.

What is the most likely stage of genitial tear?

A. Stage I

B. Stage II

C. Stage III

D. Stage IV

Nursing licensure exam

37. A nurse working in x hospital collects instrumentes after procedure. What is the first stage of
instrument processing that the nurse follows?

A. Disinfection

B. Decontamination

C. Stralization

D. HLD
38. A 8 year baby come to hospital with a complain of fever, SOB and cough. His vital sign reading shows
BP 85/50 mmhg, Temperature 37.2 oc and O2 80%.

What is the most priority nursing intervention?

A. Administering IV fluid

B. Clearing airway

C. Administering oxygen

D. Adiministering analegesics

39. A 45 year old male patient come to health facilities with a complain of cough. He has thick tenacious
secration. His vital sign was Bp 90/60 mmhg, pulse 105 beat/min, Temperature 36.5

c, and RR 22 breath/min.

What is the most priority nursing diagnosis ?

A. Ineffective airway clearance

B. Ineffective brathing patteren

c. Impaired tissue perfusion

D.?

40. A 42 year old COPD patient come to hospital with a complain of fever, cough and difficulty of
breathing. He has stridor breathing sound. His vital sign was Bp 110/70mmgh, pulse 96 beat/min,
Temperature 38.3 oc and O2 85%.

What is the most priority nursing intervention ?

A. Clear breath sound

B. Airway clearance

C. Oxygen administration

D. Improving tissue perfusion

41. Mr.x come to hospital with a complain of vague abdominal pain 3 days ago. The physician ordered
cleansing enema. The nurse in charge assessed the patient vital sign as follows, Bp 160/90 mmhg, pulse
rate 100 beat/min, Temperature 37.5 oc and RR 20 breath per min.

Which solution for cleansing enema most likely the nurse will use?

A. Soap solution
B. Normal saline

C. Tap water

D. Kcl solution

42. A 18 year old patient come to hospital with swelling over his lower extermity. When the nurse
checks his lower extermity it has pitting type odema. His vital sign was Bp 80/50mmhg, pulse
96beat/min, temperature 37.8oc and Respiration 18 breath/min.

What is the most priority nursing intervention ?

A. Administering fluid

B. Administering diuretics

C. Elevation

D. Positioning

43. The color of nasal discharge during the infection of influenza virus is. A. Clear.
B. Green. C. Cloudy. D. Black. Nursing licensure exam

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44. Which one of the following is mostly looks the acute complications of common cold?

A. Pharyngitis.

B. Laryngitis.

C. Otitis media.

D. ????????

45. A 2 year child come to health facility with a complain of Respiratory distress and barking cough. He
has intercostal retraction, caynosis and O2 saturation is 86%.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. B. Asthma.

B. Brocholitis

C. Croup

D. Pneumonia

ion of infant & young child feeding practice is

ancompassed along with continuous of complementary

feeding up to-

A. 1 yy. 4 year of life

72. Thrombophlebitis is a common complication following

vascular surgery. Which of the following sign indicates that

a possible thrombus has occured-

A. kernig's sign

B. hegar's sig

C. homan's sign

D. brudzindki's sign

73. During a retention catheter insertion or bladder

irrigation, the nurse must use-

A. clean equipment & maintain surgical asepsis

B. sterile equipment & maintain medical asepsis

C. clean equipment & techniques

D. sterile equipment & wear sterile gloves

74. Saffron coloured meconium seen in-

A. post maturity

B. TB

C. breech

D. normal in appearance

75 The extra calories needed by a woman having singleton

pregnancy-

A. 100 kcal

B. 200 kcal
C. 300 kcal

D. 500 kcal

76. Which of the following principle guided nurses priorities

at a disaster cause by a collapse building in an earthquake-

A. haemorrhage necessitates immediate care to save most

lives

B. those requiring minimal care are treated first so that they

can help others

C. those with head injuries are treated first so that their care

more complex

D. children should get highest priority because they have the

greatest life expectancy

77. Mantoux test is done to diagnose-

A. malaria

B. filaria

C. tuberculosis

D. typhoid

78. A 45 year old patient Mrs. sunita devi has just been

admitted to the Hospital for ab abdominal hysterectomy

following a diagnosis of uterine cancer. Results of lab tests

indicate that the patient's WBC is 9800/cumm.

The most appropriate intervention is to-

A. call the operating room & cancel the surgery

B. notify the surgeon immediately

C. take no action as this is a normal value

D. call the lab & have the test repeated

79. The result of mantoux test are read after-

A. 6 hours

B. 24 hours

C. 48 hours

D. 72 hours

80. Bitot's spot are due to the deficiency of-

A. vitamin-A

B. vitamin-B

C. vitamin-D

D. carbohydrate

81. Chikunguniya is a non-fatal. .... illness-

A. viral

B. bacterial

C. protozoa

D. plasmodoum

82. following a liver biopsy, the highest priority assessment

of the patient's conditions is to check for-

A. pulmonary edema

B. uneven respiratory pattern

C. haemorrhag

D. pain

83. The number of death per 1000 population per year in a

given community is known as-

A. crude death rate

B. infant death rate

C. neonatal death rate

D. perinatal death rate

84. A pregnant women in Labour room is attached to

external electronic fetal monitor, nurse should do Initial

assessment which of the following-

A. identity type of acceleration

B. assessing baseline FHR

C. determining frequency of the contractions

D. determining intensity of the contractions

85. A female patient Mrs. seema verma has a ceslum

needle implanted in her cervix. She ask the nurse if she may

get out of bed to go to the bathroom.

The appropriate response is to tell her-

A. she may not get out of the bed while the needle is

implanted

B. she may get out of bed with the nurse's help

C. the nurse will have to get a physician order for her to get

out of bed

D. she must stay in bed , but she can move around to be more comfortable while the needle is
implanted

86. Rice water stool is the typical sign of-

A. cholera

B. hepatitis-A

C. hepatitis-B

D. dysentery
87. The assessment finding that shold be reported

immediately should it develop in the patient with acute

pancreatitis is-

A. nausea & vomiting

B. abdominal pain

C. decreased bowel sound

D. shortness of breath

88. A nurse is assessing a child for dehydration. The nurse

determines that the which moderately dehydrated if which of

the symptom is noted-

A. flat fontonalle

B. moist mucus membrane

C. pale skin

D. oligouria

89. The nurse know that the most informative measurement

for determining carcinogenic shock is-

A. arterial blood pressure

B. CVP

C. pulmonary artery pressure

D. cardiac index

90. Which of the following is the appropriate nursing

intervention for a patient with a terminal illness who is

passing through the "acceptance stage"-

A. allowing th