3 pairs of hooklets in an ovum - Hymenolepis Diminuta Biggest problem with PCR? - Contamination with nucleotides.

Which is the agent of hand, foot and mouth disease of humans? - Coxsackie A. Quantitative (real time) PCR is useful in detecting ... - EBV
Detection of antigen in urine specimen can be used for which of the following type of What HBV disease marker is found in individuals with a past infection? life time marker?
pneumonia infection - Anti-HBc
a. Fusobacterium Positive anti-HBe, anti-HBc IgG, and Anti-HBs indicates what stage of hepatitis? -
B. Y. Pestis Immunity to Hep B due to previous infection
C. Legionella Following a throat infection, patient is having kidney problems. What bacteria causing it?
D. Mycobacterium TB. - Legionella - Streptococcus pyogenes
Antler hyphae found in ... - Microsporum Audouinii Patient has walking pneumoniae and is prescribed penicillin. 2 weeks later, still sick.
What grows on chocolate agar - Haemophilus spp. What happened? - Bacteria has no cell wall
*requires X and V factor Potassium permanganate in auramine-rhodamine stain for Mycobacterium - Quenching
agent
It could grow around colonies of with Staph. Aureus forming Satellitism as Staph. Aureus Specimen of choice for rotavirus? - stool
(in addition Neisseria and Pneumococcus) releases Hemin and NAD AKA factor 10 and Took a swab sample from a wound and incubated on three different medias (including
Factor 5 anaerobic media). Nothing grew. What happened? - Swab material inhibited the sample.
Double zone of hemolysis and beta lactamase - Clostridium Perfringens Latex agglutination for Staphylococcus Aureus detects what? - Protein A and clumping
Which increases first after an MI - Myoglobin factor
Which of the following parasite cause autoinfection in immunocompromised patients? - Different between Staphylococcus aureus and other Staph. Spp? - Staphylococcus
Strongyloides Stercoralis Aureus is Coagulase Positive
Which of the following causes antibody against TSH? - Graves Disease = TSHR How to differentiate between Staphylococcus aureus and Micrococcus - Micrococcus
antibody arranged in tetrads
 increase T3 and T4, decrease TSH Colonies are yellow and none hemolytic on SBA
Which of the following causes antibody against Thyroglubulin and Thyroid cells? -
Hashimotos = Anti-thyroglobulin most importantly Micrococcus is Furazolidone resistant
 decrease T3 and T4 ,increase TSH Burr cells blood picture - uremia
What RBC inclusion can be seen on blood smear of a child who accidentally ingested Stomatocytes blood picture - Liver disease
moth balls? - Heinz Bodies Badly discolored blood picture with very spiky cells. What caused this? - Slide not dry
Which of the following causes decrease HbA1c? - Sickel cell or any chronic Hemolytic
Anemia Looks like dark Burr cells
Which of the following cells releases histamine/heparin? - Eosinophil and Basophil Iatrogenic anemia is due to what? - to excessive blood draws.
Which of the following Mycobacteria we can acquire from tap water? - Mycobacterium What cell type is increased in Infectious mononucleosis? - lymphs
Gordonae
Which of the following analytes is cofactor for most of 300 enzymes? - Magnesium (Zinc B cells infected
too) reference range: 1.7-2.4 mg/dl T cells reactive (pictured)
Which of the following condition is the most common cause of increase anion gap? - Lupus anticoagulant causes what? - Increased risk of thrombosis
Uremia (Renal failure), Lactic acidosis, Ketoacidosis, Hypernatremia, ingestion of Sample taken from indwelling catheter. Patient isn't on any anticoagulants yet PTT and TT
Methanol, Ethylene Glycol or Salycilate (SLUMPED) are way elevated. - Heparin contamination from the catheter
Double zone of hemolysis bacteria... how to confirmation? - positive reverse CAMP Anti-Thrombin III - It is a Heparin Co-factor
test. deficiency is associated with thrombosis
Gram negative anaerobes after a Jaw surgery - Veillonella In which case is Magesium monitored? - Pre-eclampsia (eclampsia)
Patient taking primidone showing toxicity, but blood levels normal. What do you do next?
reduce nitrate to nitrite, does not ferment carbohydrates. - - Test phenobarbital level.
Gram negative, beta hemolytic, oxidase positive organism isolated from wound. A/A on Sperm count can be done on semen sample when - Liquefaction is complete (30-60
TSI - Aeromonas minutes)
ONPG negative - N meningitis, not sure? anti-sperm antibodies - causes agglutination in the form of attached sperms. Head to
What requires oil or olive oil - Malassezia furfur (Tinea Versicolor) head, tail to tail or head to tail.
Tumor marker seen in pancreatic cancer - CA 19-9
Spaghetti and meatballs appearance Fasting glucose 120. What's the diagnosis? - Impaired fasting glucose.
Patient receiving blood from mother requires what type of blood - Irradiated blood
0-50 mg/dl = hypoglycemia
relatives might probably have similar HLA which will recognized by the baby's immune 50-100 mg/dl = normal
system as same, hence won't be attacked. 100-125 mg/dl = impaired
>126 mg/dl = diabetes
May cause Graft vs Host disease. Hence, Leukocyte need to be irradiated What increase in Pheochromocytoma ? - Metanephrines in urine (24 hours collection)
HTLV- confirmatory test - Western blot sensitivity is - TP/TP +FN X 100
Positive RPR negative FTA for Syphilis - False positive specificity is - TN/TN+TP X 100
Given a mini panel of antibody reactions. The serum is tested against Group 0 RBCs and Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction - anaphylactic shock . Examples: bee sting, hay fever,
cord cells. Reacts with all adult cells, no reaction with cord cells. What antibody? - anti-I asthma, food allergies.
because it did not react with cord cells Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction - Agglutination, eg transfusion reaction, HDFN.
Antigens Le a and Le b - Is absorbed from the serum onto red cells Hashimotos
A cold agglutinin picture. The first question asked what disease/infection it was Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction - Immune complex like serum sickness, Systemic Lupus
associated with it and second asked what would cause this blood picture - Mycoplasma Erythematosus, Rheumatoid Arthritis
pneumoniae and Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction - T-cell dependent like contact dermatitis, TB, Leprosy,
GVHD
Cold reacting antibodies Increased Alkaline Phosphatase in - Obstruction Jaundice (post hepatic)
Given mother blood type (AB-) and baby type (O+), what do you do next? - Since O blood Chronic hepatitis - anti-smooth muscle antibody (not sure)
type is impossible from AB mom, get a new heelstick from baby. Waxy cast found in urine indicates ? - End stage of degeneration (renal failure)
HgbA1c decrease in - Chronic Hemolysis (hemolytic anemia) Most severe cause of HDN - ABO (I don't think so)
Lipoprotein that transport the majority of cholesterol into cells - LDL How to calculate LAP score and its importance in hematology? - Reference Range is 13-
Micrococcus - Resistance to Furazolidone 130
Procainamide metabolite that need to be measured along with Procainamideis - NAPA
Main metabolite of cocaine - Benzoylecgonine Increase in Leukemoid reaction
Type 1 hypersensitivity stimulated by - IgE decreased in CML
Blood product that has highest capability of transmitting hepatitis - Needle stick during a
procedure The number of 1+ cells x 1
Heinz bodies - Heinz bodies The number of 2+ cells x 2
Child swallowed naphthalene ball, what is expected to be seen on peripheral blood smear The number of 3+ cells x 3
? - Heinz Bodies The number of 4+ cells x 4
Stomatocytes - liver disease ADD TOGETHER
Urine Bilirubin crystals - liver disease Trepanomal highest Sensitivity (may be specificity) - FTA-ABS

brownish in color Fluorecent Treponemal Antibody-Absorption Test

Urine Tyrosine crystals - liver disease preferred testing for legionella - urine antigen testing
Urine Leucine crystals - Liver disease What is the immunity test for CMV? - PCR DNA urine (not sure)
Eosinphils in urine - Interstitial nephritis IgG and IgM titer (not sure)
Chopped meat agar (iron and glycerol) - Anaerobes Sezary syndrome is - T cell lymphoma
Anaerobes causing jaw abscess - Veillonella (gram - cocci) and Peptostreptococcus
(gram + cocci) - A variant of Mycosis Fungoides
Patient has walking pneumonia but treatment shows penicillin resistance because ..... -
they are normal flora of the oral cavity no cell wall
t(15;17) for - Acute Promyelocytic leukemia -APL, or M3 Normocytic, normochromic, normal WBC, normal platelet, but retics is 0.1% - pure red
cell aplasia
hypergranular Promyelocytes in bone marrow apirate Blood smear picture that looks like Howell bodies, the retic is 18%, the technologist
Retics stain with .... - New methylene blue should stain with? - Heinz body staining
wrights (polychomactophilic) Adrenal cushing syndrome causes: - Decreased ACTH, ↑ cortisol increased
Howell jolly bodies stain with - Wrights and new methylene blue Apolipoprotein A - found in ..... - HDL
Papperheimer bodies stain with - Wrights, new methylene blue, and The stain being too blue and what do you do? - Decrease pH buffer
How is LDL extracted from HDL? - Heparin-manganese
confirm with Prussain blue What's the purpose of the caffeine in bilirubin? - Take the albumin off (probably wrong,
Heinz bodies stain with - new methylene blue correct response should be solubilize and measure unconjugated bilirubin)
supravital stain Difference between yersinias? - All Yersinia Species are motile at 25C but not at 37C
How do yo differentiate except,
1. Yersinia enterocolitica vs
2. Yersinia pestis? - Y. Enterocolitica: ODC positive Yersinia Pestis is not motile at both temperature
Increased in cathecolamines in what disease? - Pheochromocytoma
MR + urease +; Lactose negative, H2S negative, VP negative, citrate negative, PD Elevated level of aminolevulinic acid in urine is due to presence of ....... - Lead poisoning
negative Purpose of AHG : - Detect immunoglobulins present on surface of RBC and serum
Blastoconidia are the beginning of ... - Pseudohyphae
Y. Pestis: ODC negative Liver cancer Marker - Alpha-Fetoprotein
Differentiate between Echinocyte and Acanthocyte - echinocyte: equal
acanthocyte: crazy looking may be significant in ovarian or testicular cancer as well.
the action of Caffeine for Diazo reaction. - to measure unconjugated bilirubin Breast cancer Marker - CA 15-3
Enzyme that uses p-Nitrophenylphosphate (pnp) as substrate @ pH of 9.6 - Alkaline Pancreatic cancer Marker - CA 19-9
Phosphatase (ALP) Ovarian cancer Marker - CA 125
Enzyme that uses p-Nitrophenylphosphate (pnp) as substrate @ pH of 9.6 is highest at Colorectal cancer - CEA
what disease - Paget disease (bone destruction disease) B-hCG marker for malignancy - BETA SUBUNIT of Human chorionic gonadotropin (unique
Estrogen increase in pregnant women to hCG) increase in trophoblastic tumors
...... - Estriol If there is a Rouleaux formation on the blood what will you do? - Saline replacement
Increased right before ovulation - Luetinizing hormone-LH How to determine true from false agglutination - add normal saline
RIST-Radioimmunosorbent test- test detects what? - Measures total IgE
estraDIol Why is albumin the first protein to be detected in tests for renal failure? - The molecular
"di-ing from cramps" size is smallest
Nucleolar pattern ANA is seen in ... - scleroderma Cortisol excess will result in _____ - Hyperglycemia - Elevated glucose levels in blood
Butterly rash is seen in ... - Systemic Lupus Erythematosus-SLE Organism that gives off a "bleach-like" odor in culture? - Eikenella
Measurement of FLM- Fetal Lung Maturity - Phosphatidyl glycerol Organism that gives off a "Horse-stable" odor in culture? - Clostridium Dificile
Oral Contraceptives cause an Increase in - Serum Fe (not sure?) This spiral-form organism is seen in urine and cultured on Fletcher's media - Leptospira
Hashimoto's lab and antibodies - T4 and T3 decreased , TSH increased How many bands for Lyme disease testing ? - CDC requires at least 5 out of 10 bands to
be positive
Most common cause of Primary hypothyroidism Presence of rheumatoid factor in blood may result in false positives for what test? -
TPOAb, TMAb, TgAb present VDRL
Disease associated with the following results? Elevated TSH; Elevated T3; Elevated free
TMAbs = Thyroid Anti-Microsomal Antibody T4 - Pituitary tumor
TPOAbs= Anti-Thyroid PeroOxidase Antibody If excess PTH is released, what would you find in elevated amounts in serum? - Calcium
TgAbs= Anti-Thyroglobulin Antibody
Mucoid, pink colonies on plate; produces gas; indole (+). On TSI tube you see yellow on Lipase breaks down - fats
the slant and yellow in the deep. What organism is this? - Klebsiella oxytoca LD is increased in which situation - AMI (LD2 > LD1-not specific), Hemolysis (LD 1 > LD 2)
PAD (+); indole (+); Organism stains gram negative. What is it? - Proteus vulgaris Which of the following is used as a source for irradiation of blood products: - Cs137
You see a curved gram negative bacilli. It was cultured from the GI tract of a person Which of the following conditions would NOT be associated with an increased level of
with ulcers. What test would you do next to confirm its identity? - Test for urease alpha-fetoprotein? - Prostate cancer
Enzyme controls run on a machine give results around -3 standard deviations. Samples The prozone effect ( when performing a screening titer) is most likely to result in: -
run on the same machine give results of less than 1 standard deviation. What could be False negatives
the problem? - Controls were left at room temperature for several days The radioactive method used to measure red cell survival uses which of the following
HIV-1 & HIV-2 combination ELISA test is positive in a patient with symptoms of immune isotopes: - Cr51
deficiency. Western blot was inconclusive for HIV-1. What do you do next? - do EHIV-2 Which of the following is not a likely cause of an abnormal thrombin time (TT): - Aspirin
western blot When evaluating a patient for a suspected Wilson's Disease diagnosis, low values of
What are the steps of PCR? - Denaturation, Annealing, Transcription plasma ceruloplasmin would be expected along with: - increased urine copper,
RAST test detects what? - IgE to particular Antigens decreased serum copper
After collecting a blood sample in an EDTA tube for CBC, you find that the Hematocrit is A hemoglobin F concentration of 100% may be seen in which beta thalassemia? - Delta-
very high (67%). What should you do next? - report these results beta thalassemia major
Blood was collected on Nov 1. Blood was then frozen in glycerol on Nov 5. What should Pappenheimer bodies are usually seen in patients who have: - splenectomies
the expiration date read? - Nov 1; 10 years from now Order of draw - Blue
When you conduct a procedure using fluorescence, it's important to protect yourself Red
from the: - Excited light Green
fluorescence polarized immunoassay (competitive inhibition) - The amount of analyte in Purple
the sample is inversely proportional to the amount of fluorescence polarization. That is, Gray (other)
the greater the concentration of analyte, the less the amount of polarized light detected
A person was successfully treated for syphilis 12 years ago. However, he has just come *Big Red Grosses People Out
in again, worried about having been re-infected. What would you look for in his blood? - The half life of IgM and IgA - are approximately 5-6 days.
VDRL, RPR The half life of IgD - 2.8 days (1-3)
A patient demonstrates a positive antibody screen. You suspect either Jka, K or c Half life of IgE - 2-3 days
antibodies. You know from a previous history that this patient has Jka antigen on their Half life of IgG - 23 days
red cells. You then react the patients serum with cells positive for certain antigens and At an alkaline pH, which hemoglobin cannot be separated from hemoglobin S during
see the following: hemoglobin electrophoresis? - Hb D

Patient serum vs: reagent K cells reagent c cells (Sad Dog Gets Love)
Reaction strength: 0 4+ Which of the following group B antigens is generally associated with a mixed field
reaction: - B3
What can you conclude about the antigenic makeup of this patients red cells? - Rule out Which of the following parameters may be affected by the lipemia? - MCHC
c antigen but cannot confirm the presence or absence of K antigen on the patients red
cells Lipemia and high WBCs count interfere with the light used for measureing MCHC
Urine protein chemistry dipstick (Reagent strip) detected no proteins but sulfosalicylic Which of the following hormones increases plasma glucose concentration by converting
acid (SSA) test did detect proteins. Why? - Bence jones proteins in urine (proteins other glycogen to glucose? - Glucagon and epinepherine
than Albumin) Which of the following species of Mycobacterium might be associated with contamination
Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) would result in what of the hot water system in large institutions such as hospitals? - Mycobacterium Xenopi
in blood? - Dilutional Hyponatremia- deficient sodium Acute phase proteins generally fall into which category? - Glycoproteins
Fiber strands in urine resemble what under the microscope? - Hyaline cast Rhinocladiella description - Growth on the side and around the tip
HBa1c levels cannot always be used to monitor glucose levels in conditions such as: - Electrical fire is class - C
sickle cell What is the correct procedure when using a winged collection device (butterfly) to draw
Which of the following regulates myocyte contraction? - Cardiac troponins a light-blue top tube intended for a coagulation test if this is the first tube that will be
Increased total bilirubin is in what situations - liver diease, hemolysis, HDFN collected in the draw? - Draw and discard a waste light-blue top tube before the tube
that will be used for coagulation studies.
In infants with >20mg/dL is kernicterus Which of the following patients is most at risk for hyperosmolar nonketotic coma? - A
Increased conjugated (direct) bilirubin is in what situations - liver disease and 70-year-old type 2 diabetic patient
obstructive jaundice Beta hemolytic spore forming agent is - Bacillus spp.
Increased unconjugated bilirubin is in which situations - prehepatic, posthepatic, and "box car"
some types of hepatic jaundice GPB
ACTH produced by - Pituitary Gland Non-beta hemolytic, Non Motile, Catalase positive, spore forming agent is ..... - Bacillus
FSH is _____ production - sperm and ovum Anthracis
ACTH is regulated by - corticotropin-releasing hormone from hypothalamus Medusa-Head Colonies
LH regulates - maturation of follicles, ovulation, production of estrogen, progesterone, Black escher ulcers
and testosterone GPB
Prolactin regulates - lactation Enterobacteriaceae that is MR negative - Enterobacter
Pituitary gland (activated by Hypothalamus) produces - ACTH Kleb
FSH Serratia
growth hormone (GH) How to differentiate between citrobacter and E. coli - E. coli is citrate negative (IMViC++-
LH -)
prolactin
TSH Citrobacter is citrate positive (?+?+)
ADH How to differentiate kleb and enterobacter - Kleb is non motile
Oxytocin
Amylase breaks down - Starch enterobacter is motile
 No Growth on 6.5% NaCl
*both are LF negative methyl red Associated with Colorectal Cancer - Streptococcus Bovis/Gallolyticus
How to differentiate different species of enterobacter - Lysine. Group D Streptococcus
Optochin Sensitive bacteria - Streptococcus Pneumonia
E. cloacae is negative
E. aerogines and E. seikazaki is positive Polysaccharide capsule
How to differentiate kleb species - Kleb oxytoca is indole positive
Lancet-Shaped diplococci
Kleb pneumo is indole negative Grame Positive Cocci
Lactose fermenting enterobacteriaceae - E.coli Catalase: (-)
Klebsiella Bile Esculin: positive (+)
Citrobacter 6.5% NaCl: positive (+)
Enterobacter PYR: Positive (+) - Enterocuccus
Non lactose fermenting enterobacteriacea - shigella
salmonella Vanocmycin-resistant enterococci is E. Faecium
yersinia Gram Positive cocci
morganella BILE ESCULIN positive
serratia 6.5 NACL (+)
edwardsiella PYR negative (-)
proteus LAP negative (-) - Leuconostoc
providencia Butchers cut (or fishermen, veterinarians)
Of the NLF enterobacteriaceae which one is non motile - Shigella
*DO NOTHING BUG Catalase Negative (-)
How to differentiate shigella species - Mannitol. Esculin Negaive (-)
H2S Positive on TSI
Shigella dysenteriae is the only one that is negative Test tube brush growth in Gelatin - Erysipelothrix Rhusiopathiae
How to differentiate the mannitol positive shigellas - S. sonnei is the only one that is
ONPG positive (+) It is important to differentiate it from Listeria
PAD positive - proteus Gram Positive (+) BRANCHING (Filamentous) Bacilli
providencia PARTIALLY ACID FAST - Nocardia asteroides
morganella Musty odor of a colony - Nocardia spp
How to differentiate the PAD positive species - Proteus is the only one that is H2S
positive Pasteurella Multocida
How to differentiate proteus species - P. Vulgaris is indole positive - citrate negative Gram Postive Bacilli
P. Mirabilis is indole negative - citrate positive Catalase Positive (+)
How to differentiate between providencia and morganella - Providencia is citrate Spore forming
positive Non-Motile
Morganella is citrate negative Non=Hemolytic - Bacillus Anthracis
Gram Postive Bacilli
+morgan can't CIT with us because she doesn't have H2S Motile
Of the PAD negative organisms, which one does not produce H2S - Yersinia Beta-Hemolytic - Bacillus Cereus
How to differentiate Salmonella from edwardsiella - salmonella is indole negative
edwardsiella is indole positive Differentiate between B. Cereus and B. Anthracis
How to differentiate yersinia species - Y. enterocolitica is ODC + What Antibiotics (contents) in THYER-MARTIN Selective Media - 1. Vancomycin
Y. pestis and pseudoTB are ODC negative 2. Nystatin
How to differentiate Y. pestis and Y. pseudoTB - Y. pestis is nonmotile at 25C 3. Colistin
Y. pseudoTB is motile at 25C 4. Isovitalex
Selective and differential medium for Y. entercolitica - CIN Medium = Cefsulodin-irgasan- 5. Hemoglobin
novobiocin Medium Lactose Fermenter Bacilli (Pink on MAC)
LOA: Negative, Positive, Positive (-++)
Colonies will ferment mannitol and absorb the dye => clear colonies with pink center
Staphylococus on Mannitol Salt agar (MSA) - Staphylococci can tolerate the high salt Lysine negative (-)
concentration (7.5%) of Ortherine positive (+)
Mannitol salt agar (MSA) Argenine positive (+) - Enterobacter Cloacae
Biochemical Reaction for Salmonella - K/A H2S on TSI
Produces Yellow Colonies MOTILE
Different between s.aureus and other staph spp? - Staph. Aureus is coagulase positive CITRATE POSITIVE
Other Staph. Species Coagulase Negative
Micrococcus as a normal flora must be differentiated from Staphylococcus by ........ - Indole, Urease, Lactose Negative
Micrococcus is
Furazolidone Resistant Green Colonies with Black centers on Hektoen agar
Bacitracin Sensitive Edwardsiella resemble Salmonella biochemically, how can you differentiate between
them? - Edwardsiella is
non hemolytic on SBA Indole positive (+)
Gram Positive Cocci in chains Citrate Negative (-)
Catalase Negative
Bile-Esculin Positive (BEM positive) Salmonella
Indole Negative TEST FOR MYCOBACTERIUM Tuberculosis - Niacin accumulation/production
Citrate positive Tap water mycobacterium - Mycobacterium gordonae has been recovered from water
SALMONELLA ISOLATED BUT ANTISERA IS NEGATIVE? what might be the reason - Heat stills, faucets, and bodies of water in nature, which is why it has been called the "tap
water scotochromogen."
Vi-Antigen is the heat labile capsular antigen Tuberculin test is ....... - Initiated by T-cells
How you differentiate between Providencia and Morganella? - Providencia Citrate What favors growth of Gram Negative (-) Bacilli in Anaerobic media? - Vitamin K and
Positive (+) Hemin
Morganella Citrave Negative (-) Phenylethyl alcohol Agar (PEA) and Columbia -colistin-naladixic agar (CNA) used to
Which of the following doesn't belong to the HACEK group - E. Coli culture ..... - Gram positive Bacteria
Man tested positive for syphilis 2 years ago but may have again, how would you test
HACEK group are fastidious and an important cause of endocarditis him? - Rapid plasma reagin(RPR)
Haemophilus Satellitism - Haemophilus growth requires Hemin AKA factor X and NAD AKA Media for Leptospira - Fletcher Media
Factor V. TCBS culture, yellow colonies - Vibrio Cholera
Cystic Fibrosis are associated with what infection? - Pseudomonas
it can grow around colonies of S. Aureus producing satellitism as S. Aureus releases Bulkholderia
NAD. Staphylocuccus (not sure)
How to differentiate Pseudomonas aeruginosa from P. putida? - Growth @ 42°C 1. Identify image ?

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is able to grow at 42°C 2. Disease associated?

Stenotrophomonas malthophilia - Ferment Glucose, Grows on Mac
Oxidase negative (-) 3. related to which antibody - 1. Cold Agglutinin Disease
Catalase Posive (+)
Specimen recovery for whooping cough? - Nasopharyngeal swab 2. Mycoplasma Pneumoniae

Swabs of the nasopharynx are inoculated on the selective agar Regan-Lowe show as 3. Anti-i & Anti-I
mercury drops. Cephalexin is added to the culture medium to inhibit the growth of Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria associated with which antigen ? - P Antigen
contaminating indigenous flora
Bacteria acquired by cat/dog bite is ..... - 1. Pasteurella Multocida is the most common IgG biphasic Donath-Landsteiner antibody
2. Actinobacillus In acute hemolytic anemia, when hemoglobinuria occurs? - Haptoglobin is depleted
Rapid detection test for legionella in urine specimen? - Antigen detection test (Urine Result of haptoglobin in hemolytic anemia - decreased
Antigen Assay) What is the laboratory value in Anemia of Chronic Diseases? - normal to increased
BCYE = buffered charcoal yeast extract agar used for ... - Legionella ferritin
low serum iron
as it requires L-cystein for growth low TIBC
Nugent scoring for Bacterial Vaginosis - 0-3 is considered negative for BV
4-6 is considered intermediate reference ranges
7+ is considered indicative of BV Serum Iron = 65-175 in males, 50-170 females
Cat-Scratch disease - Bartonella henselae Ferritin = 20-250 in males, 10-120 in females
Organism isolated from wound. TIBC = 250-425 ug/dl
What is an early test for detecting Iron Deficiency anemia ? - Ferritin decreases early in
TSI: A/A iron-deficiency
Catalase: positive (+) disorders, making it a sensitive, early indicator of disease.
Oxidate: positive (+) - Aeromonas hydrophila
reference range: 20-250 ng/ml
is typically found in fresh water and has been implicated in human infections. Growth on Effect of oral contraceptive on iron - increase iron (storage)
MacConkey agar and a positive oxidase reaction are characterisic of this organism. A increase TIBC (not sure)
positive oxidase reaction differentiates this organism from all of the Bart Hgb found in .... - Alpha Thalassemia
Enterobacteriaceae, except the recently added Plesiomonas shigelloides. On sheep blood
agar, many strains of Aeromonas produce beta-hemolysis. TSI => A/A no Alpha Chain
GRAM STAIN (PICTURE ) FOR STOOL ISOLATE GROW IN 42 MICROAEROPHILIC? - YYYY= Bart (not compatible with life)
Campylobacter jejuni BBBB= Hemoglobin H. (3 alpha chain deleted)
DECONTAMINATION OF SPUTUM FOR Acid-Fast Bacillus (AFB) CULTURE? - NaOH with N- CBC results: Instrument A is repeated with the use of instrument B. discrepancy in the
acetyl-L-cysteine (NALC) values. The discrepancy is due to?

NALC is a mucolytic 1) Lyse resistant target cells

NaHO is antibacterial 2) Lyse sensitive target cells
a positive culture of sputum was stained. carbol fusshin was added, washed, de 3) Fragility of Hgb C
colorized and malachite blue was used as counter stain. two entire field was scanned 3) Lyse resistant Hgb C - Lyse resistant Hgb C
and no acid fast bacilli were found. the most probably reason is .....? - Inadequate Characteristic feature of hemoglobin C disease? - Target cells
scanning of slide (not sure) Acute Myelomonocytic leukemia (AMMoL) - FAB M4
Bio-safety level for TB - Bio safety Level III Acute monocytic Leukemia - FAB M5
PICTURE OF AN AFB SMEAR
GROWS WELL ON AN EGGS BASED MEDIUM AFTER 3 WEEKS - M. TUBERCULOSIS Nonspecific Esterase positive (+)
The function of malachite green in Lowenstein-Jensen MEDIA ? - to inhibit growth of CD 14 , CD 64 positive (+)
normal flora Di Guglielmo's Syndrome - Acute Erythroleukemia, FAB M6
Potassium permanganate in Auramine-Rhodamine fluorescent staining (acid fast bacilli)
function as .... - Quenching agent PAS positive (+) for malignant normoblast
Sudan Black B Positive (+) myeloblast Echinocytes, burr cells: seen in what disease ? - Uremia
Echinocytes, crenated: seen in what condition? - Faulty drying
Markers codocytes, target cells: seen in what condition - Hemoglobin C/SC
CD45 and CD71 for normoblast (normocytic/normochromic anemia), Hemoglobin S (sickle cells seen)
CD13, CD 15 and CD 33 to myeloblast Thalassemias (microcytic/hypochromic anemia)
Acute megakaryocytic Leukemia - FAB M7 False DECREASE ESR - delay 8 hrs in set up (old blood)
False increase ESR - 1) tube tilted,
CD 41, CD 42 and CD 61 2) vibration of tube during testing,
Picture of target cells with hemoglobin C crystals, The white count was high on 3) testing > 1hour,
instrument 1, so a second instrument was used with a stronger lysing agent, and the 4) improper blood dilution, improper mixing of blood and room temp >25C
white count was corrected, reason? - Erythrocytes containing Hemoglobin C do not lyse Principle of Kleihauer-Betke method - Fetal cell resist Acid elusion
normally (lyse resistant) Calculation of Kleihauer-Betke method - (Fetal Maternal Hemorrage % x 5)/3
What is the result of underfilled EDTA? - Decreased Microhematocrite
round up or down, then add one
due to the shrinkage of RBC-crenated cells Citrate agar 6.2 electrophoresis -
Identify the image Low erythropoietin is found in .... - Polycythemia vera
what CD markers? - Hairy cell leukemia JAK2 oncogene is implicated in ..... - Polycythemia vera
Sezary syndrome - T/NK cell neoplasm/lymphoma (look like brain groves)
CD 19, CD 20
Identify image, Auer Rod found in ? - Auer rod in AML CD2, CD3 & CD4
Auer Rod stain with ... - Romanowsky stain What disease is presented with Monocytosis? - Tuberculosis
What you see in aplastic anemia - Pancytopenia Pheochromocytoma Monitoring - Metanephrines
Disease associated with t(8:21) - Acute Myelogenous Leukemia-FAB M2 CA+ elevated, PO4 elevated, reason ... - Multiple Myeloma due to bone
Many reticulocytes present. what MLS do next? - Heinz stain destruction/involvement
Rouleaux formation image, what disease? - Multiple Myeloma Value of HCG to be positive? - 25 mIU/ml
Identify image with Rouleaux formation and state the reason reason - Rouleaux due to Creatinine Kinase :Normal,
high amount of protein, mainly fibrinogen. Troponin I: Increased
Calculation of corrected WBC count - Corrected WBC =
diagnosis? - Acute Myocardial Infarction
100 X uncorrected/100+ NRBCs What cardiac marker regulates myocyte contraction? - Troponin
t-15:17 found in - Acute Promyelocytic Which set of analytes is increased in Myocardial Infarction? - 1. myoglobin first
Leukemia. (APL), FAB-M3 2. Troponin second and stay longer
t-9:22, philadilphia chromosome - Chronic myelogenous leukemia 2. Creatine Kinase third
CD3+ in what cell line? - Lymphocyte Electrophoresis pattern: LOW ALBUMIN, Beta-Gamma Bridging - Active Cirrhosis
Other name for CD4 is ...... - Inducer What increase anion gap? - uremia (important),
CD 13 and CD 33 - myeloid cells lineage lactic acidosis, ketoacidosis,
CD 34 - Stem cell marker (lymphoid & Myeloid) hypernatremia,
CD8 - Suppressor/cytotoxic T cells and ingestion of methanol, ethylene glycol, or salicylate
Blood collected in citrate tube , decreased ratio of plasma to cells 68% was the Cofactor of many (300) enzymes? - Magnesium
hematocrit, what to do next - Report the result
Zinc also, but Magnesium in your first choice for the test.
Hematocrite is age and sex dependent Magnesium must be monitored in
RBC: 3.6
HGB: 45 A) Pre-vomiting
HCT: 33%, B) Pre-eclampsia
manual hct 33.5% in manual c) Diarrhea - Pre-eclampsia
Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) , what condition is seen and
what is the reason for the discrepancy? - Lipemic Specimen why? - Hyponatremia due to dilution

Lipemia cause false elevation of Hemoglobin sodium reference range: 136-145 mmol/L
0.1% retics normal RBC and PLT - Pure red cell aplasia Low Sodium is seen in ..... . - Hyperglycemia (dilutional hypernatremia)
A 3 year old child has sever anemia with a very low RBC of 1.7 10^6 count, but his WBC
and Platelet counts are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis? - Pure red cell aplasia sodium reference range: 136-145 mmol/L
Stomatocyte Image, indicative of what disease? - Liver disease Low sodium normal other electrolytes, what MLS do next ? - Measure/Perform indirect
Elliptocytes image, indicative of what disease? - megaloblastic anemia Ion Selective Electrode (ISE)
thalassemia major
hereditary elliptocytosis sodium reference range: 136-145 mmol/L
Helmet cells, indicative of what disease? - microangiopathic hemolytic anemias Patient is in a coma, what test to perform? - Amonia (neurotoxic)
Dacryocytes, indicative of what disease(s)? - megaloblastic anemias The presence of aminolevulinic acid is indicative of ..... - lead poisoning
thalassemia Zinc protoporphyrin is never tested in children on lead poisoning, why? - Not Specific
myelofibrosis
myelophthisic anemia (also used for iron deficiency anemia in children)
Spherocytes, indicative of what disease(s)? - MCHC > 37% Caffeine-sodium benzoate (or methanol) for diazo reaction measures what? - used to
measure unconjugated bilirubin
Hereditary spherocytosis
G6PD deficiency it (they) binds to unconjugated bilirubin to solubilize it before proceeding with the diazo
immune hemolytic anemias reaction
Liver Enzyme markers - a. ALT: Most specific for hepatocyte injury What is measured in the urease method determination of BUN? - NAD
b. AST: Less specific than ALT; significant presence in other tissues Cocain Metabolite is ...... - benzoylecgonine
c. LD: Least specific; significant presence in other tissues Drug toxicity screening of a 7 yr old girl shows presence of ACETAMINOPHEN level. What
5-HIAA (5-hydroxyindole acetic acid) found in urine indicates? - Carcinoid Tumors test should be requested next? - AST and ALT (liver toxicity)
Phenytoin (diphenylhydantoin) monitoring - trough and peak levels
5-HIAA is a metabolites of serotonin
Oligoclonal bands (picture) are found in ....... - Multiple Sclerosis trough level prior to the next dose
In Protein electrophoresis, what proteins are closest to the Cathode? - Gamma and Beta Peak level 4-5 hours from the last dose
HbA1c measure glucose level in the past ....... - previous 2- to 3-month period Primidone monitoring, suspected to have primidone overdose, but the serum
concentration is within normal range, what should MLS do next? - Measure
RBC life span Phenobarbital concentration
HgbA1C - what can be the trouble with the test? - A decreased life span on RBCs (in the A patient with procainamide should be tested in parallel with what drug? - N-
case of sickle cell) acetylprocainamide (NAPA)
Transferrin Saturation computation In Biliary obstruction, how does the urin bilirubin and urobilinogen change? - Urine
bilirubin is positive
UIBC = 185 urobilinogen is decreased or negative
Serum Fe = 125 - TIBC = UIBC + Serum Fe = 310 Antibiotic valinomycin is used in ISE to measure what analyte? - Potassium
Saturation = (Serum Fe/TIBC ) x 100 Carbon dioxide ion selective electrode measure? - CO2 pressure and it actually
Saturation = (125/310) x 100 = 40% measuring the pH
Postprandial turbidity of serum is due to the presence of ..... - Lipoproteins What do you use for Calibration of blood gas analyzer? - 2 buffers with known pH and
Hypercalcemia, Normal PTH - Metastatic Carcinoma (Malignancy involving bones) constant temperature
FBS: 120 In Chloride shift: exchange chloride with what electrolyte .... - Bicarbonate (HCO3)
OGTT: 140 - Impaired glucose In hemolytic anemia, what are the changes in bilirubin, urobilinogen? - 1) increased
Patient suspected for Diabetes Mellitus UNCONJUGATED bili,
2. Normal Bilirubin
Fasting Blood Glucose: 155 mg/dL 3. Increased urobilinogen
2nd Hour OGTT/PG: in Crigler-Najjar disease: which is manifised by uncongugated bilirubinemia, other values
are ... - Urine Bilirubin is negative (normal)
Urine Bilinogen is positive (normal)
Patient suspected for Diabetes Mellitus Excessive erythrocyte destruction effect on bilirubin ..... - 1) increased UNCONJUGATED
Fasting Blood Glucose: 155 mg/dL bilirubin,
2nd Hour OGTT/PG: 225 mg/dL 2. Normal Bilirubin
What should the MT do to confirm diagnosis - No Further testing. 2 diagnostic criteria 3. Increased/Normal urobilinogen
are indicative of DM. Urobilinogen color - colorless
prolonged apnea after succinylcholine administration during surgery is observed in what Instrument Linearity: Comparison of 2 means - T test/Paired T test
enzyme deficiency? - Decreased Pseudocholinesterase Interference in light scanner would affect in nephelometry? - Sensitivity
Thyroid antimicrosomal antibodies found in ... - Hashimoto thyroiditis Fluorometry Principle - Frequently UV light is used for excitation and is passed through a
Creatinine clearance formula - creatinine reference range is primary filter for proper wavelength selection for the analyte being measured. The
Male: 0.9-1.2 mg/dl excitation light is absorbed by the atoms of the analyte in solution, which causes the
female: 0.6-1.1 mg/dl electrons to move to higher energy
The meaning of Creatinine Clearance ... ... - it is used to access the Glomerular Filtration orbitals.
Rate (GFR) and one of the renal function test. Upon return to ground state, light is emitted from the fluorescing analyte and that light
passes through a secondary filter. The
normal Creatinine clearance is 120 ml/min for adult and it decrease with age secondary filter and the detector are placed at a right angle to the light source to
In addition to prostate cancer, PSA increase in what disease ? - benign prostatic prevent incident light from being measured by the detector
hyperplasia (BPH) Fluorometer ... - Emits longer wavelength
What is used to evaluate fetal lung maturity? - phosphatidylglycerol At what stage the second phase and irreversible platelet aggregation occur? - Release
of ADP from dense granules
and PT normal (patient for gall bladder surgery), PTT prolonged, TT normal. what MLS should
lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio which should be 2:1 do next? - Factor XII assay
Cushing Syndrome gives .. - hyperglycemia Protein C value after Coumadin therapy? - Decreased
Adrenal Cushing's syndrome has the following lab values ... - Cortisol increased
ACTH decreased Protein C is Vit. K dependent; Coumadin is a known Vit. K antagonist
Cushing's disease, how does ACTH and Cortisol levels change? - Cortisol increased A Patient diagnosed with acute myocardial infarction is treated with streptokinase. What
ACTH increased test is abnormal immediately after treatment? - D-dimer
Carrier of endogenous triglycerides? - VLDL Control was ran, PT is normal but APTT is prolonged. What should the technologist do? -
Carrier of cholesterol into cells ? - LDL Replace thromboplastin reagent
Measurement of Serum Iron content method? - 1) Acidification (Ethanolic extraction) PT, PTT,TT prolonged Decreased Fibrinogen - DIC
2) Reduction A blood sample was taken from an indwelling catheter of patient that hasn't been on any
3) color reagent anticoagulant therapies. APTT and TT are prolonged. The results are due to? - Heparin
Patient results are given, all are normal including amylase except LIPASE. What is the contamination from catheter
possible disease? - Acute pancreatitis On an automated coagulation analyzer, PT controls are in range but PTT control are out
of range. New controls produce same results, what do you do? - CaCl2 might have been
Lipase stays elevated for 8-14 days while Amylase return to normal within 3-4 days added to aPTT reagent accidentally, change reagents and repeat
Enzyme elevated in MUMPS - Amylase Presense of lupus anticoagulant leads to .... - Thrombosis
Enzyme that uses p-Nitrophenylphosphate (PNP) as substrate @ pH of 9.6 - Alkaline Precipitation reaction - Soluble antigen and soluble antibody react to
Phosphatase (ALP) form an insoluble product (precipitate)
HIV marker of disease activity - HIV RNA FMH volume was given from a packet cell (not whole blood). how many vials of RhIG will
An antibody reacts with particle coated with a known antigen. - - Passive Agglutination be given. - 300 ug for each 15 ml (packed RBC)
An antibody reacts with particle coated with a known antibody - - Reverse passive
agglutination: remember, 300 ug for each 30 ml (whole blood)
Analysis of CSF Oligoclonal bands is used to screen for what disease? - Multiple When the first dose of RhIG is given to the mother? - 28 weeks
Sclerosis Who is not a candidate for RhiG ? - Mother with an Anti-D titer of 1:4096
In the CSF of a Multiple Sclerosis, what is increased - 1) increased IgG What blood type should be transfused to a baby?
2) Increased Oligoclonal band Mother: Type O, Rh negative (-), Anti-D, Anti-I and Anti-Lea
Increased Neutrophil in CSF indicates ........ - Bacterial infection (meningitis) Child: Type A, Rh positive (+), DAT positive - Type O, Rh negative, without C, I and Lea
antigens
normal value = 0-5 wbcs/ul Mother: Type O, Rh negative (-), no antibody to D antigen
diff = 70% lymphocyte & 30 Monocyte Child: Type O, Rh Positve (+)
Increased lymphocytes in CSF indicates ........ - viral infection (meningitis)
what to do? - RhIG administration
normal value = 0-5 wbcs/ul
diff = 70% lymphocyte & 30 Monocyte first dose at 28 weeks
What type of hypersensitivity reaction is PPD test - Type 4, delayed Hypersensitivity the use the formula to decide how many dose

employsT lymphocyte and macrophages (FMB% x 5)/3

Test to monitor AIDS progression? - CD4 count round and add one more vial
Anti C3D (+)ve, Anti IgG (-)ve
AIDS causes depletion of CD4 inverting the ratio of CD4:CD8 to 1:2
what do do? - prewarm the sample
normal ratio is 2:1
A patient is from West Africa. He is positive in the test of HIV 1 and HIV 2 combination. HIV A prewarmed technique, in which the donor's cells and patient's serum are warmed
1 Western blot is performed - indeterminate, what to do next? - Repeat western blot separately to 37°C before combining, is commonly used to eliminate interference from
An initial screening for Anti-HIV 1/2 using ELISA tested reactive, what MLS should do cold agglutinins.
next? - Perform Western Blot What to do after testing a patient that is positive in HTLV-1 - Confirm with western blot
What is the immunodominant sugar in group A? - N-acetylgalactosamine
positive if band P24, gp41, gp120 and gp160 present Rouleaux is NOT noticeable in what phase? - AHG phase
Nucleolar ANA Pattern - Scleroderma
Crithidia luciliae is a confirmation for - Anti-dsDNA Rouleaux will not be present in the antiglobulin phase because all of the serum proteins
SLE are washed away before the AHG is added.
ANA anti-centromere pattern - CREST Rh control should be
DiGeorge Syndrome - Newborn without thymus gland, A. Positve
normal B cells but no production of t cells B. Negative - Must be always NEGATIVE
Rheumatoid Factor is ? - An IgM against the Fc portion of abnormal IgG leading to
Rheumatoid Arthritis. Positive Rh Control render invalid result
Deferred for Blood donation? - Hepatitis B immune globulin 6 months ago
type three Hypersensitivity blood transfusion
Teacher exposed to rubella, tested positive for IgG. Status? - Immune exposure to blood
Imprisonment
IgG is produced in secondary/anamnestic antibody response Tattoo/piercing
sexual contact with high risk for HIV
new infection will probably have IgM Rape victim
Monoclonal gammopathy (Monoclonal Hypergammaglobulinemia) is observed in ? - 1.
Multiple Myeloma (Lymphoproliferative disease produce Bence jones protein in urine and ALL should be o.k. after 12 months
dry tap from bone marrow) Collected blood only 390 ml what to do? - Use for Packed RBC (do not prepare other
component due to abnormal anticoagulant-to-plasma Ratio.
2. Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia (uncontrolled proliferation of a clone of B cells) Significant antibody can transfer from mother to baby? - Kidd antibody

3. Primary amyloidosis Jka > Jkb

What Hepatitis B marker shows Previous infection, and considered a life time marker - IgG class
Anti-HBc AUTO Anti-P AKA Donath-Landsteiner antibody is associated with ... - Paroxysmal Cold
Positive Anti-HAV (IgM) indicates what type of Hepatitis infection? - Recent acute Hep A Hemoglobinuria (PCH)
Positive HBsAg and positive HBeAg with or without anti-HBe or anti-HBc IgM indicates
what type of infection? - Acute Hep B For patient with Auto Anti-P may require warmer blood for transfusion.
Positive HBsAg and positive HBeAg with a positive anti-HBc IgG indicates what type of Detection of ab where 11 tubes resulted negative in AHG, but when added CC 4 of them
infection? - Chronic hepatitis B didn't agglutinate? - Machine probably didn't dispense correctly the saline in the wash
Positive anti-HBe, anti-HBc IgG, and Anti-HBs indicates what stage of hepatitis? -
Immunity to Hep B due to previous infection Check cells must be agglutinated in order to consider the results.
Positive anti-HBs only indicates what stage of hepatitis? - Immunity due to vaccination CAUSE OF FALSE NEGATIVE ABO TYPING - Blood Typing done at 37C
Positive anti-HBc only, what might be the problem ? - repeat HBs Ag (not sure) as ABO are IgM (cold antibodies) and they react best in room temperature
Positive anti-HCV indicates what? - Chronic Hep C
Anti-myelin are antibodies associated with what condition? - Multiple sclerosis keep in mind that POSITIVE DAT causes false positive
regarding blood banking, reagent deteriorate fast while in USE? - MNS reagent
regarding blood banking, reagent deteriorate fast while in STORAGE? - P reagent
PATIENT DAT (4+), IAT (+), DID ELUATE AND THE RESULTS ARE DAT (2+) THEY AUTO ABSORB Parasite with irregular spread out trophozoites
SERUM AND KEEPS REACTING TO SCI1 & SC2 IN AHG, WHAT SHOULD YOU DO? - Antibody Golden brown pegment
Identification with enzyme 12-24 merozoites
what Plasmodium species is this consistent with? - Plasmodium Vivax
(Another answer, MAKE ANOTHER AUTOADSORPTION, doesn't seem right) Trichuris trichiura (whipworm) image - Trichuris trichiura
IS 37 AHG CC Parasite associated with Homemade Contact lens Solution? - Acanthamoeba
SC1 0 0 0 2+ Blastocystis hominis Image - Blastocystis hominis
SC2 +/- +/- 0 2+
a large central body that fills about 90% of the cell volume. There is an outer ring of
what to do next? - ADD 4 DROPS OF SERUM cytoplasm with several nuclei around the central body
(not sure) PARASITE FOUND IN MUCOID STOOL - Entamoeba histolytica
37/LISS AHG Which parasite is known for its autoinfection capability? - Strongyloides stercoralis
SC1 0 +/- Cryptosporidium Staining - Modified Acid Fast Stain
SC2 0 +/- Specimen of choice for Rotavirus? - Stool
You recieved a sputum specimen for Rotavirus, what to do? - Clarify request
what to do next? - use polyspecific AHG Positive ELISA test for Rotavirus, what MLS do next? - Report as (+)ve for Rotavirus
Sperm count is done ...... - after liquefaction (30-60 minutes)
Polyspecific AHG contains both IgG and Anti-C3 which will cause red cell to agglutinate Abnormal sperm -
even if the cell coated with IgM (cold) as it will fix complement C3 Different Fecal Fat tests are affected similarly by ..... - Weighing and Extraction
Anti-A: 4+ A1 cells: 2+ Effusions (fluid in a body cavity) that is non-inflammatory with fewer than 1000 cells/ul
Anti-B: 4+ B cells: 2+ and protein less than 3gm/dl is called .... - Transudate
Effusions (fluid in a body cavity) that is inflammatory (yellow-white) with higher than
What should you do next? - Wash Red cells with Saline 1000 cells/ul and protein more than 3gm/dl is called .... - Exudates
Leukocyte esterase is 1+ but in microscopic exam no WBC seen. What is the cause? -
(causes are rouleaux or autoantibody) Lysed WBC
washing will solve the Rouleaux issue.
Three (3) test tubes are negative to Antihuman Glubulin (AHG), when check cell is added, Leukocytes reagent strip react with Leukocyte esterase from lysed WBCs
the result is still negative. Protein reagent strip negative, while Sulfosalicylic acid (SSA) is positive, what might be
the issue? - Proteins other than albumin, like Bence Jones Protein
What is the error? - Serum was omitted from the reaction Clreatinine Clearance formula .. - C = U x V/P
What is the urine formation pathway? - glomerulus, bowman's capsule, proximal
Check Cells (CC) are used as quality control measure for negative indirect and direct convoluted tubule, loop of henle, distal convoluted tubule, collective tubule and renal
AHG test performed in test tubes and should always be positive when added? pelvis.
If an individual is a nonsecretor sese with Lewis phenotype Le a+b-, what antigen will be Picture of Triple Phosphate, seen in What urine? - Alkaline Urine
detected in his/her fluids? - Le a Urine Crystals seen indication liver disease .... - 1) Tyrosine
How RBC become positive for lewis antigen(s)? - They are glycoprotein found in plasma 2) Leucine &
(secretions) and adsorbed on the surface of RBCs. 3) Bilirubin
What gene is deleted in Mcleod syndrome? - Kx A gram stain is done on a CSF specimen in the evening shift and shows gram negative
When separating whole blood into its components, what is the timeframe to separate? - rods. how should the MLS store it for a culture on the next day? - Keep at around 35 c or
8 hours room temperature
Cryoprecipitate after pooling - Expires in 4 hours (open system), 6 hours (closed On a urinalysis test, blood is positive on strip test, but no red cells are seen under the
system) when kept in room temperature after thawthing microscope. what can be an explanation? - 1. Hypotonic and alkaline urine
Fresh Frozen Plasma after thawing - Expires in 24 hours when stored at 1-6 C 2. Hemoglobinuria
Mucor - No rhizoids (filamentous outgrowth)
Microsporum audouinii - Septate hyphae (comb like) In dilute or alkaline urine, RBCs swell and lyse with release of hemoglobin, leaving an
Description of Zygomycetes - Aseptae Hyphae with Sporangiospores (spores that are empty cell, which appears as a ghost cell.
produced in a sporangium/Fungi) Glucose reagent strip positive (+), Clinitest negative (-) - Glucose is present
INCUBATION TIME FOR FUNGAL CULTURE? - 2-5 weeks
Alternaria picture - Alternaria Strip test is more sensitive than Clinitest
Lesion on the arm Production of abnormal small amount of urine (>400 ml) is called ... - Oliguria
complete cessation of urine flow - Anuria
Mold form: flowerette/daisy like conidia Ph 4.5 in urine is found with/in .... - high protein diet
Yeast form: cigar shaped /asteroid body - Sporothrix Schenckii Principle of reagent strip of pH? - Double indicator system
BLASTOMYCES DERMATITIDIS IS SEEN MICROSCOPICALLY AS? - BROAD BASE BUDDING 1) Methyl red
WITH MOTHER AND DAUGHTER CELLS 2) Bromthymol Blue
Describe Blastoconidia - Mother budding and daughter cell with constriction. Specific gravity 1.010 using refractometer at 4C result glucose 1000mg/dL - what MLS
Favic chandelier is seen in ... - Trichophyton schoenleinii should do? - correct the specific gravity due to high glucose
Hair Baiting Test Positive in ..... - Trychophyton mentagrophytes A urine specific gravity of 1.053 in the refractometer - Protein and Glucose result Trace
Hair perforation test is for identification of which two fungi? - Trichophyton - Radiographic Dyes would increase Specific Gravity (Abnormal Solute)
mentagrophytes and Consistent SG in urine of 1.010 may be found in .... - Diabetes Insipidus (consistently low
Trichophyton rubrum Specific Gravity)
Plasmodium species that does not present trophozoite and schizont in PBS(peripheral Urinalysis Result: with
blood smear) - Plasmodium falciparum 1) WBC Cast,
2) RTE Cells,
banana shaped 3) Fatty Cast,
A wright stain of peripheral smear reveals Erythrocytes enlarged to 1.5-2X normal 4) Oval Fat Bodies - - Nephrotic Syndrome
Schuffners dots
Effect on increased aldosterone to Na and K - Increase Sodium (Na) , Decreased ORGANISM ISOLATED IN HEKTOEN AGAR
Potassium (K) TSI K/A, H2S positive (+),
urine analysis PAD negative (-),
RBC (20-25/hpf) LYSINE DECARBOXYLASE negative (-),
Hyaline casts (6-8/hpf) UREA positive (+),
WBC (5-10/hpf) CITRATE positive (+) - TECH REPORT AS NORMAL FLORA
RTE (25-35/hpf) - Tubular necrosis SENSITIVITY FORMULA - TP/TP+FN X 100
Birefringent crystal (refractive) in synovial fluid causes .... - Pseudogout (Calcium Ouchterlony - inverted V or U shape = identity
pyrophosphate) X shape = non-identity
inverted Y = Partial identity
remember gout is caused by Monosodium urate crystal A PATIENT HAD A SURGERY TO REMOVE A PROSTATE CANCER 12 MONTH AGO, THE REGULAR
What is added to check for mucin clot in synovial fluid ? - Glacial Acetic Acid (2.5%) PSA TEST SHOWED A LEVEL OF 14 NG/ML (N:<4 NG/ML) WHAT WILL BE THE DIAGNOSIS? -
RECURRENCE OF THE DISEASE
poor mucin clot formation are indications of decreased hyaluronate concentration AUTOCLAVE STERILIZATION - 121C, 15 PSI, 15 MINS
(decreased viscosity) A2B with A1 looks like in ABO discrepancy - see image
lactic acidosis findings - ABO discrepancy -
What is used to compare two sets of mean? - Paired T-test Coefficient of Variation (CV) - Standard Deviation/mean X 100
What does a delta check mean when doing automated clinical measurements? -
Significant change in patient's lab result compared to previous result reflects random variation of analytical
Concentration of a substance is directly proportional to the amount of light absorbed or methods in units that are independent of methodology.
inversely proportional to the logarithm of transmitted light - Beers Law
Specimen for blood gas analysis? - Heparinized syringe with needle pierced on rubber Ideal CVs are less than 3%
stopper Indicates acceptable precision
Effect of blood sample exposure to air (bubble) .. - increase pH Decreased alpha-1 antitrypsin found in ... - Emphysema-associated pulmonary disease
decreased CO2
increased O2 It neutralizes trypsin type enzyme that can damages structural proteins.
Viral Specimen in the laboratory is to be shipped for 96hours. What temperature should Branched Chain DNA (bDNA) is what time of amplification? - Signal Amplification
the specimen be kept - Lyophilized in a serum Purpose of D Positive (+) red cell indicator in the rosette test is ... - forms rosette with
C1 esterase deficiency treatment - Factor 12 fetal D positive red cell
What is Weil-Felix test - It is the use of Proteus OX-19, OX-2 and OX-K as antigens to Test for glucose was collected in heparin and specimen cannot be tested within 3 hours.
detect hard to culture Rickettsial Antibody (heterophil antibody) What to do next? - Wrong anticoagulant used
How Weil-Felix test should be considered positive? - 4-folds rise in titer or the following results correlate with ....
1:160 titer
what are the Rickettsial organisms negative for Proteus antigens? - R. Akari that causes 5.5 % hba1c, 160 mg/dl FBS: - Good control for the past months,
Ricketssial Pox) and poor recent control
Coxiella Burnetti that causes Q-Fever Uric acid Crystals - Normal Acid urine Crystals
How Rickettsia Prowazekii which causes typhus Fever, will react in Weil-Felix test? -
Proteus OX-19 Positive Purine metabolite
Proteus OX-2 varialble Why it is hard to identify a blood group for a patient who is receiving dextran? - I don't
Proteus OX-K negative know
How Rickettsia Rickettsiae which causes Rocky Mountain Spotted fever, will react in Sequence of Hep A. marker (which one appear first, second and third) - Options were
Weil-Felix test? - Proteus OX-19 Positive Antigen in fecal specimen, IgM in blood, IgG in blood (that was the order I chose, it could
Proteus OX-2 posive be wrong)
Proteus OX-K negative 3 Platelet aggregation curves - analyse the 3 curves and identify which one is normal
How Rickettsia Typhi which causes Murine Typhus, will react in Weil-Felix test? - Proteus and which one is abnormal.
OX-19 Positive Recurrent Plateletphareses donners - identify the minimum value of their platelet prior
Proteus OX-2 posive allowing him/her to donate again.
Proteus OX-K negative Patient suspected for Sickle cell disease,
REJECTION CRITERIA FOR SPUTUM SPECEMIN? - HIGH EPITHELIAL CELLS no sickle cells in PBS
hemoglobin shows only A and S bands at 8.6 pH. which might be the diagnoses -
squamous epithelial cells are an indication of contamination with oral flora, whereas Hemoglobin D trade (travel with HgS at alkaline pH)
polymorphonuclear cells (PMNs) indicate a quality specimen. A general rule for an patient admitted to the hospital with severe abdominal pain. lab work show high amylase,
acceptable specimen might be <10 squamous epithelial lipase (result shown). the patient blood expected be
cells and >25 PMNs/low power field. a. ictric
reason for a false Positive ABO - Positve DAT b. viscous
In multichannel analyzer, controls of enzymatic assays are lower than expected values c. lipemic
while non-enzymatic assay controls are within normal limits. What is the probable d. hemolysed - lipemic
cause? - Instrument temperature may be low
Speckled ANA pattern - anti SBB & anti-SSA (Sjorgen),
anti RNP (Mixed Connective Tissue Disease),
anti Sm (SLE)
COAGULATION RESULT OF A PATIENT THAT HAS UNDERGONE A GALLBLADDER SURGERY PT
IS NORMAL, APTT IS PROLONGED, THE FACTOR DEFICIENT IS .... - Factor XII
Factor X1
FactorIX

Any factor in the intrinsic pathway only (not the common pathway)