1-Eventually, digital radiography came into being, in which the photographic film was replaced by a

photosensitive cassette or plate that could be processed by?

a. Magnetic reader
B. Electric reader
c. Impulse reader
d. All of them

2-Conventional radiography is limited to demonstrating five basic densities. Which one is extra?
A ) Calcium
B ) Metal
C) Fat
D) Skin

3-Traditionally, CT images were viewed mostly in the...

A. Appendicular plane
B. Coronal plane
C. Axial plane
D. Sagittal plane

4-In the modalities of conventional radiography, CT, and fluoroscopy, images are produced using
A . lonizing radiation
B. Magnetic radiation
C. Electric radiation
D) Without any radiation

5-What is the name of the radiation that passes through the patient and interacts with the detector to
create the image ?
A. Reflected radiation
B. Transmitted radiation
C. Local radiation
D. Spread radiation

6-There are three major radiation safety practices Which one is extra ?
A. Time
B. Distance
c. Location
d. Shielding

7-Underpenetration can introduce at least two errors into your interpretation : First, the left
hemidiaphragm may not be visible on the frontal film because the left lung base may appear opaque
. Second ….
A. The coronary markings
B. The pulmonary markings
C. The carotid markings
D. None of them

8- You can recognize an apical lordotic chest study when you see the clavicles project at or above
...
a. the first ribs on the frontal image
b. the second ribs on the frontal image
c. the third ribs on the frontal image
d. the fourth ribs on the frontal image

9-Which of the followings is not correct ?

A) If the chest is adequately penetrated , you should be able to see the spine through the heart
B. If the patient has taken an adequate rotation, you should see at least eight or nine posterior ribs
above the diaphragm
C. The spinous process should fall equidistant between the medial ends of the clavicles to indicate
the patient is not rotated
D. inspiratory efforts may mimic basilar lung disease and may make the heart appear larger

10-Key areas to inspect on the lateral projection radiograph are:

A. retrosternal clear space and the hilar region
B. Fissures and the thoracic spine
C. the diaphragm/posterior costophrenic sulci
D. All of them

11. Which of the followings is not correct?

a. Normal pulmonary vasculature tapers gradually from central to peripheral, and the vessels are
normally larger at the base than at the apex on an upright chest radiograph.
b. There is normally a retrosternal "clear space" on a lateral radiograph that can "fill in" with a mediastinal
mass, such as lymphoma.
c. The minor fissure, not the major fissure, will usually be visible on a frontal view radiograph.
d. The costophrenic angles are normally not acute and sharply outlined. Pleural effusions does not cause
blunting of the costophrenic angles.

Which of the followings is not correct?

a. Common to all forms of atelectasis is volume loss, but the radiographic appearance of atelectasis
will differ depending on the type of atelectasis
b. Subsegmental atelectasis usually occurs in patients who are taking a deep breath and not produces
linear densities, usually at the lung bases
c. Atelectasis tends to resolve quickly if it occurs acutely; the more chronic the process, the longer it
usually takes to resolve
d. Obstructive atelectasis occurs distal to an occluding lesion of the bronchial tree because of
reabsorption of the air in the distal airspaces via the pulmonary capillary bed

12. Which of the followings is not correct?

A. Normal anatomy of the major structures is described only two levels in the chest: upper cardiac
and lower cardiac levels.
B. Cardiac CT scanning uses a fast, multi slice CT scanner, usually with intravenous iodinated contrast and
electrocardiographic (ECG)-gated acquisition to reduce motion artifact.
C. Cardiac CT scanning is used for evaluation of the coronary arteries, the presence of cardia masses,
abnormalities of the aorta (including aortic dissection) and pericardial diseases.
D. Normal coronary artery anatomy is described. The artery that supplies the posterior des artery
(PDA) determines coronary artery dominance. The overwhelming majority of the population is right-
dominant.

13. Which of the followings is not correct?

a. Nuclear medicine utilizes radioisotopes that have been given the property to "target" different organs
of the body to evaluate the physiology and anatomy of those organs.
b. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) produces images based on the energy derived from hydrogen atoms
placed in a very strong magnetic field and subjected to radiofrequency pulsing.
c. Ultrasonography produces images using the acoustic properties of tissue and does not employ
ionizing radiation. It is thus safe for use in children and in women of childbearing age and during
pregnancy
d. Computed tomography (CT) utilizes ionizing radiation to produce real-time visualization of the body that
allows for evaluation of motion, positioning, and the visualization of barium or iodine contrast agents
moving through the gastrointestinal and genitourinary tracts and blood vessels.
15- What is Transmitted radiation ?
A.is the radiation that interacts with the tissues of the patient , depositing its energy in those tissue .
B. is the radiation that passes through the patient and interacts with the detector to create the
image. Unfortunately , only about 5% to 15% of the radiation produced by the source becomes
transmitted radiation )
C. it is the source of the patient radiation exposure .
D. Transmitted radiation can degrade the quality of the image and can be an exposure source to personnel

16. The unit for absorbed dose is the:

a. Sv
b. Gray
c. Rad
d. Rem

17. There are five basic radiographic densities, arranged in order from that which appears the
whitest to that which appears the blackest:
a. fat, air, calcium (bone), fluid (soft tissue), metal.
b. fluid (soft tissue), fat, air, calcium (bone) metal.
c. metal, calcium (bone), fluid (soft tissue), fat, air..
d. fluid (soft tissue), metal, calcium (bone), fat, air..

18-. Which radiological examination method is safe to use in children and women of reproductive age
and during pregnancy?
a. X-ray
b. Computed Tomography (CT)
c. Ultrasound
d. Fluoroscopy

19. Which parameters do not defines an adequate chest examination?

a. Penetration
b. Expiration
c. Rotation
d. Magnification

20. Who discovered the x-rays?

a. Ernests Rezerford
b. Maria Skłodowska-Curie
c. Wilhelm Röntgen
d. Henri Becquerel

21. What defines a technically adequate chest radiograph?

a. Penetration and Rotation
b. Magnification and Inspiration
c. Angulation and Magnification
d. All of them.
 22. Which of the followings is correct?
A. The aortic knob is normally <50 mm and will normally push the trachea slightly to the left.
B. The ascending aorta should normally project farther to the right than the right heart border.
c.The normal left atrium does not contribute to the border of the heart on a nonrotated frontal chest
radiograph..

23. Which of the followings is correct?

a. Computed tomography (CT) utilizes rapidly spinning arrays of xray sources and detectors and
sophisticated computer processing to increase the sensitivity of findings visible and display them in any
geometric plane.
b. Computed tomography (CT) utilizes ionizing radiation to produce real-time visualization of the body that
allows for evaluation of motion, positioning, and the visualization of barium or iodine contrast agents
moving through the gastrointestinal and genitourinary tracts and blood vessels.
c. Computed tomography (CT) utilizes radioisotopes that have been given the property to "target"
different organs of the body to evaluate the physiology and anatomy of those organs.
d. Computed tomography (CT) produces images based on the energy derived from hydrogen atoms placed
in a very strong magnetic field and subjected to radiofrequency pulsing

24. Which of the followings is correct?

a. With pneumonia of an entire lung, there is a shift away from the side of opacification because the
large pleural effusion can act as if it were a mass.
b. With a large pleural effusion, there is usually no shift, but air bronchograms may be present..
C. With atelectasis, there is no shift toward the side of the opacified hemithorax because of volume loss
in the affected lung.
d. The trachea, heart, and hemidiaphragms are mobile structures that have the capability of moving
(shifting) if there is either something pushing them or something pulling them.

25. what is cardiothoracic ratio?

A. It is a measurement of the narrowest oblique diameter of the heart compared to the widest
internal diameter of the rib cage.
B. This is a measurement of the widest transverse diameter of the heart compared with the widest
internal diameter of the rib cage.
C. It is a measurement of the widest oblique diameter of the heart compared to the widest intern
diameter of the rib cage.

26. How can you estimate the size of the heart silhouette on a frontal chest X-ray?
A. using the cardiopulmonary ratio
B. using the cardiothoracic ratio
C. using good win coefficient

27. What can you identify at Five-Vessel level?

A. the lungs
B. trachea
C. the esophagus
D. all of them

28. How can MRI be used for anatomical and functional imaging of the heart?
A. Cardiac MRI uses a fast, multi slice MRI scanner, usually with intravenous iodinated co
electrocardiographic (ECG)-gated acquisition to reduce motion artifact
B. Cardiac MRI can not show scarring from a myocardial infarction, depict perfusion of the show
anatomic defects or masses, and assess the function of the valves and cardiac
c. MRI can be used to obtain anatomic and functional images of the heart.

29. What can fill the airspaces besides air?

a. Fluid and Blood
b. Gastric juices and Inflammatory exudate
c. Water
d. All of them

30- Choose incorrect answer. What can fill the airspaces besides air?
A) Fluid and Blood
B) Gastric juices and Inflammatory exudate
C) Water
D) Bone

31. What is the most common type of atelectasis?

a. Subsegmental atelectasis
b. Compressive or passive atelectasis
C. Obstructive atelectasis
d. All of them

32. Signs of obstructive atelectasis include:

a. Displacement of the fissures and increased density of the affected lung
b. Shift of the mobile structures of the thorax toward the atelectasis and compensatory overinflation of
the unaffected ipsilateral or contralateral lung
c. None of
them
d.) All of them

33. Examples of airspace disease include:

a. fluffy, confluent densities that are indistinctly marginated and may demonstrate air bronchograms
b. sarcoidosis
c. pulmonary interstitial edema, pulmonary fibrosis
d. interstitial pneumonia

34- Airspace disease is...

A) Infiltrative disease
B) Alveolar disease
C) Vesicular disease
D) None of them

35- Reticular interstitial disease appears as...

A) Network of lines
B) Assortment of dots
C) Both lines and dots
D) None of them

36- When two objects of the same radiographic density are in contact with each other, the or margin
between them
A) Will be clear
B) Sometimes is clear, sometimes not CY
C) Will disappear
D) None of them

37- Tuberculosis is an example of a disease process that can demonstrate

A) Airspace lung pattern
B) Interstitial lung pattern
C) Both airspace and interstitial lung patterns
D) None of them
 38- Which one is not correct? The three most commonly observed types of atelectasis are
A) Subsegmental atelectasis
B) Decompressive atelectasis
C) Compressive atelectasis
D) Obstructive atelectasis

39.!!! Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is an abnormality that causes

a. asymmetric or concentric thickening the myocardium
b. asymmetric or concentric thickening of the endocardium
c. asymmetric or concentric thickening of the epicardium
d. asymmetric concentric thickening of the peridicardium

40. In restrictive cardiomyopathy, the heart is?

a. usually enlarged
b. usually not enlarged
c. always enlarged
d. normal size

41. Aneurysms of the ascending aorta may extend

a. Posteriorly and to the left
b. Posteriorly and to the right
c. Anteriorly and to the right
d. anteriorly and to the left

42. Which one is not correct ? Cardiomyopathies are divided into :

a. Constrictive
b. Dilated
c. Hypertrophic
d. Restrictive

43. Aortic dissections most often originate :

a. Arch of the aorta
b. Ascending aorta
c. Descending aorta
d. All of them

44. in normal adults, the cardiothoracic ratio usually is

a. <50%
b. <70%
C. >50%
d. >30%

45. Key findings of pulmonary interstitial edema are:

a. fluffy, indistinct, patchy airspace densities
b. batwing or butterfly configuration , frequently sparing the outer third of lungs
c. thickening of the interlobular septa peribronchial cuffing fluid in the fissures, and pleural effusions
d. pleural effusions, especially with cardiogenic pulmonary edema

46. A patient with cardiogenic pulmonary edema is more likely than a patient with noncardiogenic
pulmonary edema to have :
a . pleural effusions and Kerley B lines
b. cardiomegaly
C. an elevated pulmonary capillary wedge pressure
d. all of them
47. Cardiomyopathies are divided into the following forms
a .dilated
b. hypertrophic
c. restrictive
d. all of them
 1. What does OPG allow us?
A. It is especially helpful to collect pictures of soft tissue such as organs and muscles that don't
show up on x-ray examinations.
B. OPG scans can be used to identify disease or injury within various regions of the body.
C. It allows us to detect bone fractures, certain tumors and other pathological masses, pneumonia,
some types of injuries, calcifications, foreign objects or dental problems.
D. Orthopantomography allow images of multiple angles to be taken to make up the composite
panoramic image, where the maxilla (upper jaw) and mandible (lower jaw) are in the viewed area. The
structures that are outside the viewed area are blurred.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2. Which of the following is not an OPG indication?

A. Fluid in the space between your lungs and your chest wall (pleural effusion)
B. trauma assessment for tooth or jaw fractures and facial bone disease evaluation
C. general dental health evaluation for caries or pulp origin disease
D. temporomandibular joint assessment for disease, fractures or dislocations
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
 3. Underpenetration can introduce at least two errors into your interpretation: First, the left
hemidiaphragm may not be visible on the frontal film because the left lung base may appear opaque.
Second....
a. The coronary markings
b. The pulmonary markings

c. The carotid markings

d. None of them

1. What is an Orthopantomography (OPG)?

A. An OPG (Orthopantomagram) is a panoramic scanning dental X-ray of the upper and lower limb.
 B. An OPG is a quick, painless test that produces images of the structures inside your body particularly
your bones.
C. An OPG (Orthopantomagram) is a panoramic scanning dental X-ray of the upper
andlower jaw.

D. is a type of diagnostic test that can create detailed images of nearly every structure and
organ inside the body.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

2. What does OPG (Orthopantomography) show us?

a. It is used to investigate or diagnose conditions that affect soft tissue such as tumours or brain
disorders.

b. b. It shows a flattened two-dimensional view of a half-circle from ear to ear.

c. It shows the organs in your chest.

d. An OPG shows the heart while it is beating. It also shows the heart valves and other structures.

What is the position of the patient during OPG?/ A

a. During an OPG the patient remains in a stationary position (seated or standing)

whileboth the x-ray source and film rotate in combination around the patient.

b. The patient's arms should be tucked at the patient's sides with a bedsheet, secured with arm guards to
sleds.
C. During an OPG the patient remains in a Supine Position, while both the x-ray source and film rotate in
combination around the patient.
d. During an OPG the patient remains in a Prone position, the thorax must be

placed on a pad with a large opening;

3. During OPG, the patient should be positioned, except:

a. sitting/standing completely upright

b. head immobilized and on a chin rest

c. biting down on a radiolucent bite block

d. Special attention should be given to leg positioning

4. Which of the followings is not correct?
a. If the chest is adequately penetrated, you should be able to see the spine through the heart.
b. If the patient has taken an adequate rotation, you should see at least eight or ninposterior ribs
above the diaphragm.
c. The spinous process should fall equidistant between the medial ends of the clavicles to indicate the
Patient is not rotated.
d. inspiratory efforts may mimic basilar lung disease and may make the heart appear larger.

8 . The easiest way to assess whether the patient is rotated towards the left or right is:
a. by studying the position of the lateral ends of each clavicle relative to the spinous process of the
thoracic vertebral body between the clavicles
b. by studying the position of the medial ends of each clavicle relative to the spinousprocess of the
thoracic vertebral body between the clavicles.

c. by studying the position of the medial ends of each clavicle relative to the acromion process
d. by studying the position of the medial ends of each clavicle relative to the acromion process

1 What are the characteristics of blood vessels?

a. Blood vessels characteristically branch and taper gradually from the hila centrally to theperipheral
margins of the lungs.
b. Blood vessels characteristically branch and taper gradually from the peripheral margins of the lungs
to the hila centrally.
c. They are mostly invisible on a normal chest radiograph because they are normally very thin walled.
d. They contain air, and they are surrounded by air.

2. Which of the following is correct?

a. Chest CT scans are usually "windowed" and displayed in at least two formats designed tobe viewed
as parts of the same study to optimize anatomic definition.
b. Mediastinal windows are chosen to maximize the ability to image abnormalities of the lung
parenchyma and to identify normal and abnormal bronchial anatomy.
c. Lung windows are chosen to display the mediastinal, hilar, and pleural structures to best advantage.
d. Mediastinal structures usually appear as a heterogeneous white mass on the lung windows

1. Which of the following is false?

a. Lung windows are chosen to maximize the ability to image abnormalities of the lung parenchyma
and to identify normal and abnormal bronchial anatomy.
b. The mediastinal structures usually appear as a homogeneous white density on lung windows.

c. CT scans of the chest are typically "windowed" and displayed in at least four
formatsdesigned as parts of the same study to optimize functional definition.

d. Mediastinal windows are chosen to display the mediastinal, hilar, and pleural structures to best
advantage.
 What are the "white lines" we see in the lungs on chest radiographs?

a. Blood vessels
b. Bronchi
c. Lymphatic vessels
d. Bronchioles
2. Which of the following is false?
a. Lung windows are chosen to maximize the ability to image abnormalities of the
lungparenchyma and to identify normal and abnormal bronchial anatomy.
b. The mediastinal structures usually appear as a homogeneous white density on
lungwindows.

C. CT scans of the chest are typically "windowed" and displayed in at least four
formatsdesigneda as parts of the same study to optimize functional definition.

d.Mediastinal windows are chosen to display the mediastinal, hilar, and pleural structuresto
best advantage.
1-

Tuberculosis-pott's with gibbus

deformity= ossification of soft tissues
osteomyelitis
diffuse bone resorption

2-

A. osteosarcoma
B. fibrous dysplasia
C. chondroma =
D. tuberculosis
E. solitary cyst

3-
A. polyposis =
B. peptic ulcer
C. Menetrier's disease
D. chronic gastritis
E. ulcerating infiltrating cancer

4-

. A. Paget's disease
B. Ollier's disease
C. chondroma
D. osteomyelitis =
E. osteosarcoma

5-

A. cholelithiasis =
B. adenocarcinoma
C. Both
D. Neithe

r 6-
A. Arthritis
B. Tuberculosis spondilitis
C. Rheumatoid arthritis =
D. Sarcoma
E. Osteomyelitis
7-

A. bronchiectases =
B. tuberculosis
C. pneumoconiosis
D. carcinoma
E. cystic fibrosis

8-

1. diafragmatic hernia - morgani hernia =

2.diaphragmatic rupture bogdalec hernia
3.. tuberculosis
4. carcinoma
9

malrotacia =
carcinoma
mechanical obstruction of small intestine
volvulus

10-

A. Chondroma
B. Tuberculosis
C. Sarcoma
D. Osteoarthritis =
E. Osteoarthrosis

11-
A. bone destruction =
B. narrowing of joint space
C. periosteal calcification
D. sequestrations
E. changes in bone structure

12-

1.cyst in right kidney

B. right kidney aplasia
D. left-sided tumor
E. right-sided pyelonephritis
F. stones =

13-

A. cholelithiasis =
B. acute cholecystitis
C. chronic cholecystitis
D. choledochal cyst
E. None of the above

14-
 A. ulcerative colitis
B. pseudomembranous colitis
C. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
D. colonic diverticulosis
E. Hirschsprung's diseas =

15-

A. gastric ulcer =
B. gastric stricture
C. gastric spasm
D. pyloric cancer

6. Acute airspace diseases include al! of the following except one:

a. pneumonia
b: aspiration
c. hemorrhage
d. sarcoid
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
7. Which of the following belong to chronic airspace diseases?
a silicosis.
b. bronchogenic carcinoma
c . bronchoalveolar cell carcinoma
d. puimonary alveolar edema

1- To see an air-fluid level, the x-ray beam must be directed:

(A) horizontally, parallel to the floor
B) horizontally, parallel to the roof
C) vertically, parallel to the floor
D) vertically, parallel to the roof

2- The small bowel is centrally placed:

A) In the thorax
B In the abdomen
C) In the pelvic
D) In the neck

3. The small bowel can achieve a maximum diameter, when abnormally dilated, of about
A) 15 cm
B)10 cm
C. 5 cm
D) 1 cm

4-The large bowel functions, in part, to remove fluid, so:

A) There is almost always fluid
B) There is almost always air
C . There are two or three air-fluid levels
(D There are usually no or very few air-fluid levels

5- Conventional radiographic evaluation of soft tissue structures in the abdomen is limited,

because:
A . these structures are soft tissue densities
B) these structures are hard tissue densities
C) these structures are muscle tissue densities
D) these structures are bone densities

6- There are two fundamental ways of recognizing the presence, and estimating the size, of soft
tissue masses or organs on conventional radiographs of the abdomen:
A) The first is by direct visualization of the edges of the structure
B) The second is to recognize indirect evidence of the mass or enlarged visceral organ
C. Both of them
D) None of them a

1- Which one is correct? There are two kinds of functional ileus:

A) Localized ileus affects only one or two loops of (usually smail) bowel (also called sentinel loops)
B) Generalized adynamic ileus affects all loops of large and small bowel and frequently the
stomach
C. Both of them
D) None of them
2- The cause of the localized ileus is frequently visible:
A) on CT scans of the abdomen
B) on CT scans of the thorax
C) on MRI scans of the abdomen
D) on MRI scans of the thorax

3- Dilated localized ileus means the small bowel loops are persistently larger than:
A) 1.5
B.2 .5
C) 3.5
D) 4.5

4-In a localized ileus there is usually gas:

A) In the ileum or sigmoid
B) In the transverse or descending
C) In the transverse or rectum
D In the rectum or sigmoid

5- There is danger of cecal rupture when the cecum reaches a diameter:

A) above 12 to 14 cm
B) above 12 to 15 cm
C) above 10 to 15 cm
D) above 10 to 14 cm

6- There are two varieties of mechanical obstruction:

A) small bowel obstruction (SBO) and large bowel obstruction (LBO)
B) localized ileus (sentinel loops) and generalized adynamic ileus
C) localized ileus (sentinel loops) and small bowel obstruction (SBO)
D) large bowel obstruction (LBO) and generalized adynamic ileus

1- Fluoroscopic observation of the esophagus can also reveal abnormalities

A) in esophageal motility
B) in esophageal stability
C) in esophageal mortality
D) All of them

2- Diverticula of the Gf tract are usually produced when the mucosal and submucosal layers
herniate through a defect:
A) in the skin layer of the bowel wall
B) in the serous layer of the bowel wall
in the muscular layer of the bowel wall
E) None of them
F)
3- Barium esophagrams are frequently the initial study in patients with symptoms such as:
A) Diarrhea
B ) Dysphagia
C) Dyslipidemia
D) All of them

4- The two most common causes of pancreatitis are:

A) gallstones
B) alcoholism
C) alcoholism and gallstones
D) none of them

5- Which one is increasingly utilized as the modality of choice in the evaluation of both focal
and diffuse liver disease?
A) MRI
B) X-ray
C) CT
D) None of them

6- Most malignant bladder tumors are:

A) emissive cell tumors
B) renal cell carcinoma
C) transitional cell tumors
D) All of them

3. What is the position of the patient during OPG?

a. During an OPG the patient remains in a stationary position (seated or standing) while both
the x-ray source and film rotate in combination around the patient.
b. The patient's arms should be tucked at the patient's sides with a bedsheet, secured with arm
guards to sleds.
C. During an OPG the patient remains in a Supine Position, while both the x-ray source and film
rotate in combination around the patient.
d. During an OPG the patient remains in a Prone position, the thorax must be placed on a pad
with a large opening;

4. During OPG, the patient should be positioned, except:

a. sitting/standing completely upright
b. head immobilized and on a chin rest
c. biting down on a radiolucent bite block
d. Special attention should be given to leg positioning

.
5. Which of the followings is not correct?
a. If the chest is adequately penetrated, you should be able to see the spine through the heart.
b. If the patient has taken an adequate rotation, you should see at least eight or nin posterior
ribs above the diaphragm.
c. The spinous process should fall equidistant between the medial ends of the clavicles to indicate
the Patient is not rotated.
d. inspiratory efforts may mimic basilar lung disease and may make the heart appear larger.

2. Which of the following is correct?

a. Chest CT scans are usually "windowed" and displayed in at least two formats designed to be
viewed as parts of the same study to optimize anatomic definition.
b. Mediastinal windows are chosen to maximize the ability to image abnormalities of the lung
parenchyma and to identify normal and abnormal bronchial anatomy.
c. Lung windows are chosen to display the mediastinal, hilar, and pleural structures to best
advantage.
d. Mediastinal structures usually appear as a heterogeneous white mass on the lung windows

1. Which of the following is false?

a. Lung windows are chosen to maximize the ability to image abnormalities of the lung
parenchyma and to identify normal and abnormal bronchial anatomy.
b. The mediastinal structures usually appear as a homogeneous white density on lung windows.
c. CT scans of the chest are typically "windowed" and displayed in at least four formats designed
as parts of the same study to optimize functional definition.
d. Mediastinal windows are chosen to display the mediastinal, hilar, and pleural structures to
best advantage.

7. Which of the followings is correct?

A. The aortic knob is normally-<50 mm and will normally push the trachea slightly to the left.
B. The ascending aorta should normally project farther to the right than the right heart border.
C. The normal left atrium does not contribute to the border of the heart on a nonrotated frontal
chest radiograph.

9. How can you estimate the size of the heart silhouette on a frontal chest Xray?
A. using the cardiopulmonary ratio
B. using the cardiothoracic ratio
C. using goodwin coefficient

Tuberculosis is an example of a disease process that can demonstrate

A) Airspace lung pattern
B) Interstitial lung pattern
C) Both airspace and interstitial lung patterns
D) None of them

1. During which study is the entire cortex visualized?

A. MRI
B. CT
 C. X-ray
D. Ultrasonography
2. Which of the followings is correct?
a. Both CT and Ultrasound are superior exa for evaluation of soft tissues
b. There must be almost a 100% reduction in the mass of bone in order for a difference in density
to be perceived on conventional radiographs.
C. MRI is particularly sensitive to assessment of the marrow.
D. X-ray is much more sensitive to the presence of medullary metastatic disease
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
!!!!- 3. Examples of diseases that can cause general impairment Bone density includes:
A. Paget disease
B. Pathologic fractures
C. Hyperparathyroidism
D. Avascular Necrosis of Bone

4. Which disease is not characterized by avascular necrosis of bone?

a. Vasculitis
b. Sickle cell disease
C. Polycythemia vera
D. Paget disease
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. What characterizes hyperparathyroidism on a conventional radiographs?
A. Overall decrease in bony density
b. Irregularly shaped, lucent bone lesions, which can be single or multiple
C. The most common early manifestation is diffuse and usually severe osteoporosis
D. There is coarsening and thickening of the trabeculae
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. Which of the followings is not correct?
A. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism usually caused by a single adenoma in most patients (80% to
90%) and almost always results in hypercalcemia
b. Osteolytic metastases, especially from lung, renal, thyroid, and breast cancer, can produce focal
areas of decreased bone density, as can solitary plasmacytomas. Plasmacytomas are considered
to be precursors to multiple myeloma, the most common primary tumor of bone.
c. Pathologic fractures are those that occur with minimal or no trauma in bones that had a
preexisting abnormality
d. Osteoporosis is characterized by low bone mineral density and is most often either
postmenopausal or age related. Osteoporosis predisposes persons to pathologic fractures

1. How is a closed fracture characterized?

a. Closed fractures are produced by the forceful contraction of a tendon or ligament;
b. Closed fractures occur as a result of numerous microfractures and frequently are not visible on
conventional radiographs taken when the pain first begins; after some time, bony callus
formation, and/or a dense zone of sclerosis becomes visible;
d. Closed fractures are those in which there is no communication between the fracture and
 the outside atmosphere;

2. The direction of fracture lines is not described as:

a. transverse,
b. diagonal,
c. spiral,
d. horizontal.

3. Simple fractures have:

a. four fragments;
b. two fragments;
c. three fragments;
d. one fragment;

4. Which of the followings is correct?

a. Subluxation is present when two bones that originally formed a joint are no longer in contact
with each other;
b. Dislocation is present when two bones that originally formed a joint are in partial contact with
each other;
C. Complete fractures involve the entire cortex, are more common, and typically occur in adults;
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. Fracture healing is determined by:
a. The age of the patient,
b. The fracture site,
c. The position of the fracture fragments,
d. All of them.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
6. Major parameters most commonly used to describe the relationship of fracture fragments
are:
a. Displacement and Angulation,
b. Shortening and Rotation,
C. None of them,
d. Both of them.