NATIONAL STANDARD EXAMINATION IN JUNIOR SCIENCE

(NSEJS 2023)

Time: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 216

Name of the Candidate: ________________________________Roll No._______________________

Centre of Examination (in Capitals):____________________________________________________

Candidate’s Signature:____________________Invigilator’s Signature:________________________

READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

Note: Don’t Use Whitener in answer booklet.
s

1. The candidates should not write their Roll Number anywhere else (except in the specified space)
on the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
2. This Test Booklet consists of 60 questions.
3. Question paper contains (Biology, Chemistry and Physics).
4. (I) For Part A1, each correct answer carries 3 marks whereas 1 mark will be deducted for each
wrong answer.
(II) In Part A2, you get 6 marks if all the correct alternatives are marked. No negative marks in
this part.
5. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, mobile
phone or any electronic device etc., except the Identity Card inside the examination hall/room.
6. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
7. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on
duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidate is allowed to take away this Test Booklet with
them.
S. No. Subjects Number of Single Correct Multiple Correct
Questions Type Type
1. Biology 20 16 4
2. Chemistry 20 16 4
3. Physics 20 16 4
Constants you may need....
Mass of electron m𝑧 = 9.10 × 10−31 kg Magnitude of charge on electron e = 1.60 × 10−19 C
Mass of proton mp = 1.67 × 10−27 kg Planck's constant h = 6.625 × 10−34 Js
Acceleration due to gravity g = 9.8 ms−2 Density of water at 𝜌 = 1.0 × 103 kgm−3
Universal gravitational constant (1 + 𝑥)𝑛 = 1 + 𝑛𝑥, if |𝑥| ≪ 1
G = 6.67 × 10−11 Nm2 Kg −2
Universal gas constant R = 8.31Jmol−1 K −1 1eV = 1.6 × 10−19 J
Boltzmann constant k = 1.38 × 10−15 JK −1 sin⁡(A − B) = sin⁡ Acos⁡ B − cos⁡ Asin⁡ B
Avogadro's constant A = 6.02 × 10 25
mol−1
E = mc 2 , It's an equation which gives mass and energy
equivalence.
Speed of light in free space c = 3.0 × 108 ms−1 One unit of electric power = 1kWh
 ATTEMPT ALL SIXTY QUESTIONS
A-1
ONLY ONE OUT OF FOUR OPTIONS IS CORRECT. BUBBLE THE CORRECT OPTION.
1. The cell cycle can be divided in four phases: G1, S, G2 and M where:
(A) G stands for gap meaning that in this phase no cell growth occurs
(B) S stands for synthesis meaning that cell growth and organelle duplication take only in this phase
(C) M stands for multiplication meaning that DNA replication takes place in this phase
(D) M stands for mitosis

2. Cornelius Van Neil, performed his experiments on purple and green bacteria to demonstrate the
(A) effects of action spectrum in photosynthesis
(B) production of glucose by green plants
(C) necessity of sunlight for plant processes
(D) role of hydrogen to reduce carbon dioxide

3. Cut or excised leaves remain green for long if dipped in

(A) gibberellins (B) cytokinins (C) auxins (D) ethylene

4. Two systems A & B were separated by a semi permeable membrane. Water molecules started
moving from system B to A. After 2 hours this movement stopped because the water potential of
(A) A is more than B
(B) B is more than A
(C) A and B is same
(D) A and B is variable

5. In a dicotyledonous stem, the sequence of tissues from inside to outside is

(A) phloem-phellem-pericycle-endodermis
(B) Phellem-phloem-endodermis-pericycle
(C) phloem-pericycle-endodermis-phellem
(D) Pericycle-phellem-endodermis-phloem

6. Carnivorous plants are found in

(A) mineral rich soil
(B) oxygen deficient soil
(C) water deficient soil
(D) nitrogen deficient soil

7. A protein whose one of the subunits masks the active binding site for myosin on the actin filament
in the resting state is
(A) tropomyosin (B) troponin
(C) meromyosin (D) myoglobin

8. The glands of Brunner are seen in the

(A) duodenum (B) jejunum
(C) stomach (D) ileum
9. In humans, the condition hyperdactyly (the possession of twelve fingers) is determined by a
dominant allele (H) and the normal condition by the recessive allele (h).
The following diagram shows a family tree in which some members of the family are
hyperdactylous.

The genotypes of persons 1, 2 and 3 in this family tree are –

1 2 3
(A) HH Hh hh
(B) HH HH hh
(C) Hh HH Hh
(D) Hh Hh hh

10. A scientist wanted to genetically engineer a new type of corn plant that could withstand cold
temperatures. He decided to try to change the composition of plant’s membrane to lower the
temperature of phase transition. Which of the following membrane changes might be expected to
improve the cold tolerance of the plants?
(A) Increasing the change of the fatty chain acid.
(B) Eliminating all steroids.
(C) Increasing the frequency of unsaturated fatty acyl chains.
(D) Decreasing the frequency of unsaturated fatty acyl chains.

11. Read the given statement and choose the correct option:
Statement I : The physical distance between two genes determines both the strength of linkage
and frequency of crossing over between two genes.
Statement II: One cross over reduces the occurrence of another cross over in vicinity.
(A) Both statement I and statement II are correct and, statement II is correct explanation for
statement I.
(B) Both statement I and statement II are correct , but statement II is not correct explanation for
statement I.
(C) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
(D) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

12. Removal of ring wood of tissue outside the vascular cambium from the tree trunk kills it because–
(A) Water cannot move up
(B) Food does not travel down and root become starved
(C) Shoot become starved
(D) Annual ring and not produced

13. Which one is connected with cell division ?

(A) ER (B) Peroxisomes (C) Chloroplast (D) Microtubules
14. How many different types of gametes can be formed by F 1 progeny, resulting from the cross AA BB
CC × aa bb cc
(A) 3 (B) 8 (C) 27 (D) 64

15. The cardiac pacemaker in a patient fails to function normally. The doctors find that an artificial
pacemaker is to be grafted in him. It is likely that it will be grafted at the site of
(A) Atrio ventricular bundles (B) Purkinje system
(C) Sino-atrial node (D) Wall of left ventricle

16. Microorganism used for commercial production of acetic acid is

(A) Aspergillus niger (B) Clostridium butylicum
(C) Acetobacter aceti (D) Saccharomyces

17. In the reaction, 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) + X cals, most favorable condition of temperature and
pressure for greater yield of SO3 are -
(A) Low temperature and low pressure (B) High temperature and low pressure
(C) High temperature and high pressure (D) Low temperature and high pressure

18. Which of the following solution will have pH close to 1.0?

(A) 100 ml of M/100 HCl + 100 ml of M/10 NaOH
(B) 55 ml of M/10 HCl + 45 ml of M/10 NaOH
(C) 10 ml of M/10 HCl + 90 ml of M/10 NaOH
(D) 75 ml of M/5 HCl + 25 ml of M/5 NaOH

19. Which of the following process is used in the extraction of metallurgy of magnesium -
(A) Fused salt electrolysis (B) Self reduction
(C) Aqueous solution electrolysis (D) Thermite reduction

20. Oxalic acid, H2C2O4, reacts with permanganate ion according to the balanced equation given below:
5H2C2O4(aq) + 2MnO4 (aq) + 6H+(aq) → 2Mn2+ (aq) + 10CO2(g) + 8H2O
How many mL of 0.0154 M KMnO4 solution are required to react with 25.0 mL of 0.0208 M H 2C2O4
solution?
(A) 13.5 mL (B) 18.5 mL (C) 33.8 mL (D) 84.4 mL

21. With the increasing principal quantum number, the energy difference between adjacent energy
levels in H atom
(A) decreases
(B) increases
(C) remains constant
(D) decreases for low value of Z and increases for higher value of Z

22. The IUPAC name of the compound CH3CH = CHCH2 CHCH2COOH is

NH2
(A) 5- amino - 2 - heptenoic acid. (B) 2 - amino- 3- heptanoic acid.
(C) 5- aminohex - 2- enecarboxylic acid. (D) 3- amino -5- heptenoic acid.
23. The IUPAC name of OHC – CH = CH – CH – CH = CH2 is

CH2 CH2CH2CH3
(A) 5-vinyloct-3-en-1-al (B) 4-butyl-2,5-hexadien-1-al
(C) 5-vinyloct-5-en-8-al (D) 3-butyl-1, 4-hexadien-8-al

24. Which of the following is correct order of increasing bond strength –

(A) HF < HCl < HBr < HI (B) HI < HBr < HF < HCl
(C) HI < HBr < HCl < HF (D) HCl < HBr < HF < HI

25. The maximum mass of substance that dissolves in 100gm of a solvent at a particular temperature
is called
(A) solubility (B) molarity (C) molality (D) normality

26. 3.7 dm3 of 1 M NaOH solution is mixed 5 dm3 of 0.3 M NaOH solution. The molarity of the resulting
solution is
(A) 0.80 M (B) 0.10 M (C) 0.73 M (D) 0.59 M

27. Leaching is a process of –

(A) Reduction (B) Concentration (C) Refining (D) Oxidation

28. How many millimoles of methane (CH4) are present in 6.4 g of this gas?
(A) 0.40 (B) 4.0 (C) 40. (D) 4.0 x 102

29. Which statement is correct with respect to the property of the elements with increase in atomic
number in the carbon family
(A) Their metallic character decreases (B) The stability of + 2 oxidation state increases
(C) Their ionization energy increases (D) Their atomic size decreases

30. The alloy used in making aircraft bodies is -

(A) steel (B) duralumin (C) magnalium (D) invar

31. The equation

Cu + xHNO3 → Cu(NO3)2 + yNO2 + 2H2O
The values of x and y are
(A) 3 and 5 (B) 8 and 6 (C) 4 and 2 (D) 7 and 1

32. A sample of CaCO3 has Ca = 40%, C = 12% and O = 48%. If the law of constant proportion is true
then the weight of Ca in 16 g of CaCO3 made from different processes will be -
(A) 64 g (B) 0.64 g (C) 6.4 g (D) 4.6 g

33. In the adjacent circuit, the voltages across AD, BD and CD are 2 V, 6 V and 8 V respectively. If
resistance 𝑅𝐴 = 1kΩ, then the values of resistances R B and R C are and respectively.

(A) 4kΩ and 6kΩ

(B) 2kΩ and 1kΩ
(C) 1kΩ and 2kΩ
(D) data insufficient as battery voltage is not given
34. Consider the motion of a small spherical steel body of mass 𝑚, falling freely through a long column
of a fluid that opposes its motion with a force proportional to its speed. Initially the body moves
down fast, but after some time attains a constant velocity known as terminal velocity. If weight 𝑚𝑔,
opposing force (𝐹𝑣 ) and buoyant force (𝐹𝑏 ) act on the body, then the correct equation relating these
forces, after the terminal velocity is reached, is:
(A) 𝑚𝑔 + 𝐹𝑣 = 𝐹𝑏 (B) 𝑚𝑔 = 𝐹𝑣 − 𝐹𝑏 (C) 𝑚𝑔 = 𝐹𝑣 + 𝐹𝑏 (D) none

35. At any instant of time, the total energy (𝐸) of a simple pendulum is equal to the sum of its kinetic
1 1
energy ( 𝑚𝑣 2 ) and potential energy ( 𝑘𝑥 2 ), where, 𝑚 is the mass, 𝑣 is the velocity, 𝑥 is the
2 2

displacement of the bob and 𝑘 is a constant for the pendulum. The amplitude of oscillation of the
pendulum is 10 cm and its total energy is 4 mJ. Find 𝑘.
(A) 1.8Nm−1 (B) 0.8Nm−1 (C) 0.5Nm−1 (D) data insufficient

36. A rigid body of mass 𝑚 is suspended from point O using an inextensible string of length 𝐿. When it
is displaced through an angle 𝜃, what is the change in the potential energy of the mass? (Refer
adjacent figure.)

(A) 𝑚𝑔𝐿(1 − cos⁡ 𝜃) (B) 𝑚𝑔𝐿(cos⁡ 𝜃 − 1) (C) 𝑚𝑔𝐿cos⁡ 𝜃 (D) 𝑚𝑔𝐿(1 − sin⁡ 𝜃)

37. Refer to the adjacent figure. A variable force F is applied to a body of mass 6 kg at rest. The body
moves along x-axis as shown. The speed of the body at x = 5 m and x = 6 m is ___ and ___
respectively.

(A) 0 m/s, 0 m/s (B) 0 m/s, 2 m/s (C) 2 m/s, 2 m/s (D) 2 m/s, 4 m/s

38. A piece of ice is floating in water at 4º C in a beaker. When the ice melts completely, the water
level in the beaker will
(A) rise (B) fall
(C) remains unchanged (D) unpredictable
39. In a screw-nut assembly (shown below) the nut is held fixed in its position and the screw is allowed
to rotate inside it. A convex lens (L) of focal length 6.0 cm is fixed on the nut. An object pin (P) is
attached to the screw head. The image of the object is observed on a screen Y. When the screw
head is rotated through one rotation, the linear distance moved by the screw tip is 1.0 mm. The
observations are made only when the image is obtained in the same orientation on the screen. At
a certain position of P, the image formed is three times magnified as that of the pin height. Through
how many turns should the screw head be rotated so that the image is two times magnified?

(A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 14

40. The triangular face of a crown glass prism ABC is isosceles. Length AB = length AC and the
rectangular face with edge AC is silvered. A ray of light is incident normally on rectangular face with
edge AB. It undergoes reflections at AC and AB internally and it emerges normally through the
rectangular base with edge BC. Then angle BAC of the prism is
(A) 24∘ (B) 30∘ (C) 36∘ (D) 42∘

41. A particle experiences constant acceleration for 20 s after starting from rest. If it travels a distance
𝑆1 in the first 10 s and distance 𝑆2 in the next 10 s, the relation between 𝑆1 and 𝑆2 is:
(A) S2 = 3 S1 (B) S1 = 3 S2 (C) S2 = 2 S1 (D) 𝑆1 = 10𝑆2

42. A sound wave is produced by a vibrating metallic string stretched between its ends. Four
statements are given below. Some of them are correct.
(P) Sound wave is produced inside the string.
(Q) Sound wave in the string is transverse.
(R) Wavelength of the sound wave in surrounding air is equal to the wavelength of the transverse
wave on the string.
(S) Loudness of sound is proportional to the square of the amplitude of the vibrating string.
Choose the correct option.
(A) P (B) R and S (C) P and Q (D) S

43. A machine gun is mounted on a 2000 kg car on a horizontal frictionless surface. At some instant
the gun fires bullets of mass 10 gm with a velocity of 500 m/sec with respect to the car. The number
of bullets fired per second is ten. The average thrust on the system is
(A) 550 N (B) 50 N (C) 250 N (D) 250 dyne

44. A man is standing on a weighing machine placed in a lift. When stationary his weight is recorded as
40 kg. If the lift is accelerated upwards with an acceleration of 2 m/s 2, then the weight recorded in
the machine will be (g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 32 kg (B) 40 kg (C) 42 kg (D) 48 kg
45. Which of the four arrangements in the figure correctly shows the vector addition of two forces F1

and F2 to yield the third force F3

 
F1 F1
  
F1  F1  F3
F3 F3 
 F2
F3
(A)  (B) 
(C) (D) 
F2 F2 F2

46. Water drops fall at regular intervals from a tap which is 5 m from the ground, the third drop is
leaving the tap at the instant the first drop touches the ground. How far above the ground is the
second drop at that instant ?
(A) 3.75 m (B) 4.00 m (C) 4.00 m (D) 2.50 m

47. A jet plane flies in the air because

(A) The gravity does not act on bodies moving with high speeds
(B) The thrust of the jet compensates for the force of gravity
(C) The flow of air around the wings causes an upward force, which compensates for the force of
gravity
(D) The weight of air whose volume is equal to the volume of the plane is more than the weight of
the plane

48. The uniform motion of a runner is synchronised with the tossing of a coin upwards. Speed of runner
is constant and he covers a distance ‘S1’ during upward journey of coin, while distance S2 is covered
by runner during downward journey of coin. Provided that motion of coin is perpendicular to earth
(g = constant) and air offers uniform resistance against motion of coin, the relation between ‘S 1’
and ‘S2’ will be :
(A) S1 = S2 (B) S1 > S2
(C) S1 < S2 (D) Nothing can be predicted from given condition.
 A-2
ANY NUMBER OF OPTIONS 4, 3, 2 or 1 MAY BE CORRECT MARKS WILL BE AWARDED ONLY IF ALL THE
CORRECT OPTIONS ARE BUBBLED.

49. Which of the following is not true for secretin?

(A) stimulates enzyme secretion by pancreas, inhibits acid secretion in stomach, stimulates gall
bladder.
(B) stimulates bicarbonate secretion by pancreas, inhibits acid secretion in stomach, stimulates
bicarbonate secretion by liver.
(C) stimulates acid secretion in stomach, potentiates action of CCK, inhibits intestinal movements.
(D) stimulates gall bladder, inhibits acid secretion in stomach, stimulates bicarbonate secretion
by pancreas.

50. Select the following statements and choose the correct ones:
(A) expiration is normally brought about by the relaxation of inspiratory muscles.
(B) oxyhaemoglobin can hold much less carbon dioxide in the form of carbaminohaemoglobin than
what deoxyhaemoglobin can.
(C) a person can expel all the air from lungs by forceful expiration.
(D) a rise in PCO2 increases the oxygen affinity of haemoglobin.

51. Which of the following statements is/are false regarding digestion and absorption of food in
humans?
(A) Fructose is absorbed by intestinal mucosa through facilitated diffusion and amino acids are
absorbed through intestinal mucosa with the help of carrier ions like sodium.
(B) Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles that are transported from stomach into blood
capillaries.
(C) About 60% of starch hydrolysed by salivary amylase in our mouth.
(D) Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the proenzyme pepsinogen.

52. Which of the following changes does not occur in diaphragm and intercostal muscles when
expiration of air takes place?
(A) External intercostal muscles relax and diaphragm contracts.
(B) External intercostal muscles contract and diaphragm relaxes.
(C) External intercostals muscles and diaphragm relax.
(D) External intercostals muscles and diaphragm contract.

53. Which of the following statements are incorrect:

(A) Molar volume of every ideal gas at STP is 22.7 L
(B) Under critical states compressibility factor is 1
(C) All gases will have equal value of average KE at a given temperature
3
(D) At absolute zero, KE is R.
2

54. Which is/are true statement(s)?

(A) Tl3+ salts are better oxidising agents
(B) Ga+ salts are better reducing agents
(C) Pb4+ salts are better oxidising agents
(D) As 5+ salts are better oxidising agents
55. The factors that influence the ionisation energies are:
(A) the size of the atom
(B) the charge on the nucleus
(C) how effectively the inner electron shell screen the nuclear charge
(D) the type of electrons involved (s, p, d f)

56. Which of the following is not correct?

𝑐 1 1
(A) 𝜆 = (B) 𝑣⃗ = (C) 1Å = 10−2 cm (D) 𝜆 =
𝑣 𝜆 𝑣

57. Refer the system shown in the figure. Block is sliding down the wedge. All surfaces are
frictionless. Find correct statement(s).

(A) Acceleration of block is g sin (B) Acceleration of block is g cos

(C) Tension in the string is mg cos2 (D) Tension in the string is mg sin cos

58. Mark the correct statements for a particle going on a straight line
(A) if the velocity is zero at any instant, the acceleration should also be zero at that instant
(B) if the velocity is zero for a time interval, the acceleration is zero at any instant within the time
interval
(C) if the velocity and acceleration have opposite sign, the object is slowing down
(D) if the position and velocity have opposite sign, the particle is moving towards the origin

59. A current passes through an ohmic conductor of nonuniform cross section. Which of the following
quantities are independent of the cross-section?
(A) the charge crossing in a given time interval.
(B) drift speed
(C) current density
(D) free-electron density

60. The given plot shows the variation of U, the potential energy of interaction between two particles
with the distance separating them is r. Then which of the following statements is / are correct:

(A) B and D are equilibrium points

(B) C is a point of stable equilibrium
(C) The force of interaction between the two particles is attractive between points C and D and
repulsive between points D and E on the curve.
(D) The force of interaction between the particles is repulsive between points E and F on the curve.