Practise set : 26 (b) Tree ferns and some monocots

(c) Gymnosperms
Biology (d) Dicotyledonous plants

10. Algae have cell wall made up of:

1. A system of classification in which a large (a) cellulose, galactans and mannans
number of traits are considered, is (b) hemicellulose, pectins and proteins
(a) artificial system (c) pectins, cellulose and proteins
(b) synthetic system (d) cellulose, hemicellulose and pectins
(c) natural system
(d) phylogenetic system 11. Fish which can be used in biological control of
mosquitoes/Larvicidal fish is
2. Trypanosoma belongs to class (a) Eel
(a) Sarcodina (b) Carp
(b) Zooflagellata (c) Cat Fish
(c) Ciliata (d) Gambusia
(d) Sporozoa
12. An egg laying mammal is
3. Temperature tolerance of thermal blue-green (a) Kangaroo
algae is due to (b) Platypus
(a) cell wall structure (c) Koala
(b) cell organisation (d) Whale
(c) mitochondrial structure
(d) homopolar bonds in their proteins 13. Closed circulatory system occurs in
(a) snail
4. The plasmids pesent in the bacterial cells are (b) cockroach
(a) circular double helical DNA molecules (c) cuttle Fish
(b) circular double helical RNA molecules (d) all of these
(c) linear double helical DNA molecules
(d) linear double helical RNA molecules. 14. One of the following is a very unique feature of
the mammalian body:
5. In bacteria, plasmid is (a) Homeothermy
(a) extra – chromosomal material (b) Presence of diaphragm
(b) main DNA (c) Four chambered heart
(c) non-functional DNA (d) Rib cage
(d) repetitive gene
15. Which one of the following statements is totally
6. Bacterial leaf blight of rice is caused by a species wrong about the occurrence of notochord, while the
of other three are correct?
(a) Xanthomonas (a) It is present only in larval tail in Ascidians
(b) Pseudomonas (b) It is replaced by a vertebral column in adult frog
(c) Alternaria (c) It is absent throughout life in humans from the
(d) Erwinia very beginning
(d) It is present throughout life in Amphioxus
7. Which one of the following is true for fungi?
(a) They are phagotrophs 16. Epipetalous stamens with free filaments and
(b) They lack a rigid cell wall fused anthers occur in
(c) They are heterotrophs (a) Asteraceae
(d) They lack nuclear membrane (b) Solanaceae
(c) Liliaceae
8. The ‘wing’ of Pinus seed is derived from (d) Poaceae
(a) testa
(b) testa and tegmen 17. In a cereal grain the single cotyledon of embryo
(c) surface of ovuliferous scale is represented by
(d) all the above (a) scutellum
(b) prophyll
9. The largest ovules, largest male and female (c) coleoptile
gametes and largest plants are found among (d) coleorhiza
(a) Angiosperms
18. Among flowers of Calotropis, tulip, Sesbania, 26. The term ‘glycocalyx’ is used for
Asparagus, Colchicine, Sweet pea, Petunia, (a) A layer surrounding the cell wall of bacteria
Indigofera, Mustard, Soyabean, Tobacco and (b) A layer present between cell wall and
groundnut how many plants have corolla with membrane of bacteria
valvate aestivation? (c) Cell wall of bacteria
(a) Five (d) Bacterial cell glyco-engineered to possess
(b) Six Nglycosylated proteins
(c) Seven
(d) Eight 27. DNA synthesis can be specifically measured by
estimating the incorporation of radio labelled
19. Which exposed wood will decay faster (a) uracil
(a) Sapwood (b) adenine
(b) Softwood (c) thymidine
(c) Wood with lot of fibres (d) deoxyribose sugar
(d) Heartwood
28. Which one of the following hydrolyses internal
20. Which one of the following is resistant to phosphodiester bonds in a polynucleotide chain?
enzyme action? (a) Lipase
(a) Cork (b) Protease
(b) Wood fibre (c) Endonuclease
(c) Pollen exine (d) Exonuclease
(d) Leaf cuticle
29. Microtubule is involved in the
21. Histamine secreting cells are found in (a) cell division
(a) connective tissues (b) muscle contraction
(b) lungs (c) membrane architecture
(c) muscular tissue (d) dNA recognition
(d) nervous tissue
30. Water movement between cells is due to
22. In which one of the following preparations are (a) T.P.
your likely to come across cell junctions most (b) W.P.
frequently? (c) D.P.D
(a) Thrombocytes (d) Incipient plasmolysis
(b) Tendon
(c) Hyaline cartilage 31. Sulphur is an important nutrient for optimum
(d) Ciliated epithelium. growth and productivity in
(a) cereals
23. Magnification of compound microscope is not (b) fibre crops
connected with (c) oilseed crops
(a) numerical aperture (d) pulse crops
(b) focal length of objective
(c) focal length of eye piece 32. Boron in green plants assists in
(d) tube length (a) sugar transport
(b) activation of enzymes
24. Series of reactions which can convert fatty acids (c) acting as enzyme cofactor
to sugars in plants but not in animals is (d) photosynthesis
(a) krebs cycle
(b) glyoxylate cycle 33. The size of chlorophyll molecule is
(c) ornithine cycle (a) Head 15 × 15 Å , tail 25 Å
(d) glycolysis (b) Head 20 × 20 Å , tail 25 Å
(c) Head 15 × 15 Å , tail 20 Å
25. Which one of the following is not a constituent (d) Head 10 × 12 Å , tail 25 Å
of cell membrane?
(a) glycolipids 34. Chlorophyll ‘a’ molecule at its carbon atom 3 of
(b) proline the Pyrrole ring II has one of the following
(c) phospholipids (a) aldehyde group
(d) cholesterol. (b) methyl group
(c) carboxyl group
(d) magnesium. intestinal mucosa with the help of carrier ions like
Na+.
35. The first acceptor of electrons from an excited (b) Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles
chlorophyll molecule of photosystem II is that are transported from intestine into blood
(a) iron-sulphur protein capillaries.
(b) ferredoxin (c) About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by salivary
(c) quinone amylase in our mouth
(d) cytochrome (d) Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the
proenzyme pepsinogen.
36. When one glucose molecule is completely
oxidised, it changes 43. Listed below are four respiratory capacities (i–
(a) 36 ADP molecules into 36 ATP molecules iv) and four jumbled respiratory volumes of a
(b) 38 ADP molecules into 38 ATP molecules normal human adult: Respiratory Respiratory
(c) 30 ADP molecules into 30 ATP molecules capacities volumes
(d) 32 ADP molecules into 32 ATP molecules (i) Residual volume 2500mL
(ii) Vital capacity 3500mL
37. How many ATP molecules could maximally be (iii) Inspiratory reserve 1200mL volume
generated from one molecule of glucose, if the (iv) Inspiratory capacity 4500mL
complete oxidation of one mole of glucose to CO2 Which one of the following is the correct matching
and H2O yields 686 kcal and the useful chemical of two capacities and volumes?
energy available in the high energy phosphate bond (a) (ii) 2500mL, (iii) 4500mL
of one mole of ATP is 12 kcal? (b) (iii) 1200mL, (iv) 2500mL
(a) Thirty (c) (iv) 3500 mL, (i) 1200mL
(b) Fifty -seven (d) (i) 4500 mL, (ii) 3500mL
(c) One
(d) Two 44. The lymph serves to
(a) transport oxygen to the brain
38. Which is employed for artificial ripening of (b) transport carbon dioxide to the lungs
banana fruits? (c) return the interstitial fluid to the blood
(a) Auxin (d) return the WBCs and RBCs to the lymph nodes
(b) Coumarin
(c) Ethylene 45. A drop of each of the following, is placed
(d) Cytokinin separately on four slides. Which of them will not
coagulate?
39. Proteinaceous pigment which control activities (a) Blood serum
concerned with light (b) Sample from the thoracic duct of lymphatic
(a) phytochrome system
(b) chlorophyll (c) Whole blood from pulmonary vein
(c) anthocyanin (d) Blood plasma.
(d) carotenoids
46. Uric acid is nitrogenous waste in
40. In man the zymogen or chief cells are mainly (a) Mammals and molluscs
found in (b) Birds and lizards
(a) Cardiac part of stomach (c) Frog and cartilaginous fishes
(b) Pyloric part of stomach (d) Insects and bony fishes
(c) Duodenum
(d) Fundic part of stomach 47. Which one of the following statements is
correct with respect to kidney function regulation?
41. Secretin and cholecystokinin are two hormones (a) When someone drinks lot of water, ADH release
involved in digestion. They are secreted by is suppressed.
(a) Duodenum (b) Exposure to cold temperature blood flow
(b) Ileum stimulates formation of Angiotensin II.
(c) Oesophagus (c) An increase in glomerular blood flow stimulates
(d) Stomach formation of Angiotensin II.
(d) During summer when body loses lot of water by
42. Which one of the following statements is true evaporation, the release of ADH is suppressed.
regarding digestion and absorption of food in
humans? 48. Which one of the following is the correct
(a) Fructose and amino acids are absorbed through matching
of three items and their grouping category? Items (d) Size of embryo decreases
Group
(a) ilium, ischium, pubis - coxal bones of pelvic 54. Syngamy means
girdle (a) fusion of gametes
(b) actin, myosin, - muscle proteins rhodopsin. (b) fusion of cytoplasms
(c) cytosine, uracil, - pyrimidines thiamine (c) fusion of two similar spores
(d) malleus, incus, - ear ossicles cochlea (d) fusion of two dissimilar spores

49. Anesthetics reduce pain by blocking the 55. In a flowering plant, archesporium gives rise to
transmission of nerve impulses. The kind of (a) only tapetum and sporogenous cells
chemicals working as anesthetics are those that (b) only the wall of the sporangium
block (c) both wall and the sporogenous cells
(a) only the voltage-gated sodium channels in (d) wall and the tapetum
membranes
(b) only the voltage-gated potassium channels in 56. Megaspores are produced from the megaspore
membranes mother cells after
(c) only the neuro-transmitter receptors (a) Meiotic division
(d) voltage-gated sodium and potassium channels (b) Mitotic division
and neuro-transmitter receptors (c) Formation of a thick wall
(d) Differentiation
50. A person entering an empty room suddenly
finds a snake right in front on opening the door. 57. Seminal plasma in human males is rich in:
Which one of the following is likely to happen in his (a) fructose and calcium
neurohormonal control system? (b) glucose and calcium
(a) Sympathetic nervous system is activated (c) DNA and testosterone
releasing epinephrin and norepinephrin from (d) ribose and potassium
adrenal medulla.
(b) Neurotransmitters diffuse rapidly across the 58. The test-tube Baby Programme employs which
cleft and transmit a nerve impulse. one of the following techniques
(c) Hypothalamus activates the parasympathetic (a) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)
division of brain. (b) Intra uterine insemination (IUI)
(d) Sympathetic nervous system is activated (c) Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIET)
releasing epinephrin and norepinephrin from (d) Zygote intra fallopian transfer (ZIFT)
adrenal cortex.
59. First geneticist/ father of genetics was
51. Insulin differs from growth hormone in that it (a) de Vries
(a) stimulates lipoprotein lipase in vicinity of fat (b) Mendel
cells (c) Darwin
(b) increases the transport of amino acids across (d) Morgan
the cell membranes of muscles
(c) increases mRNA/ribosome acitivity 60. The process of mating between closely related
(d) stimulates hormone sensitive lipase in fat cells individuals is
(a) self breeding
52. A health disorder that results from the (b) inbreeding
deficiency of thyroxine in adults and characterised (c) hybridisation
by (d) heterosis
(i) a low metabolic rate,
(ii) increase in body weight and 61. Molecular weight of chromosome of yeast cell is
(iii) tendency to retain water in tissues is: (a) 2.56 × 109
(a) simple goitre (b) 40 × 109
(b) myxoedema (c) 0.5 × 109
(c) cretinism (d) 1 × 109
(d) hypothyroidism
62. In Drosophila, the sex is determined by
53. What is true for cleavage? (a) whether the egg is fertilized or develops
(a) Size of embryo increases parthenogenetically
(b) Size of cells decrease (b) the ratio of number of X-chromosomes to the
(c) Size of cells increase sets of autosomes
(c) X and Y chromosomes
(d) the ratio of pairs of X-chromosomes to the pairs (d) appearance
of autosomes
70. Which of the following are homologous organs?
63. In Mendel’s experiment with garden pea, round (a) Wings of birds and locust
seed shape (RR) was dominant over wrinkled seeds (b) Wings of birds (sparrow) and pectoral fins of
(rr), yellow cotyledon (YY) was dominant over fish
green cotyledon (yy). What are the expected (c) Wings of bat and butterfly
phenotypes in (d) Legs of frog and cockroach
the F2 generation of the cross RRYY × rryy?
(a) only wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons 71. Evolutionary history of an organism is known
(b) only wrinkled seeds with green cotyledons as
(c) Round seeds with yellow cotyledons, and (a) Ancestry
wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons (b) Paleontology
(d) only round seeds with green cotyledons (c) Ontogeny
(d) Phylogeny
64. A test cross is carried out to
(a) determine the genotype of a plant at F2. 72. The process by which organisms with different
(b) predict whether two traits are linked. evolutionary history evolve similar phenotypic
(c) assess the number of alleles of a gene. adaptations in response to a common
(d) determine whether two species or varieties will environmental challenge, is called:
breed successfully. (a) Convergent evolution
(b) Non-random evolution
65. In Escherichia coli, lac operon is induced by (c) Adaptive radiation
(a) lactose (d) Natural selection
(b) promoter gene
(c) β -galactosidase 73. Human immuno deficiency virus (HIV) has a
(d) I-gene protein coat and a genetic material which is
(a) single stranded DNA
66. One function of the telomeres in a chromosome (b) double stranded DNA
is to (c) single stranded RNA
(a) indentify the correct number of the homologous (d) double stranded RNA
pair of chromosomes
(b) help two chromatids to move towards poles 74. Antibodies in our body are complex
(c) "seal" the ends of chromosomes (a) steroids
(d) start RNA synthesis (b) prostaglandins
(c) glycoproteins
67. Which one of the following makes use of RNA as (d) lipoproteins
a template to synthesize DNA?
(a) DNA polymerase 75. In which one of the following options the two
(b) RNA polymerase examples are correctly matched with their
(c) Reverse transcriptase particular type of immunity. Examples -- Types of
(d) DNA dependant RNA polymerase immunity
(a) Polymorphonuclear leukocytes and monocytes
68. Which of the following forms the basis of DNA -- Cellular barriers
Finger printing? (b) Anti-tetanus and antisnake bite injection –
(a) The relative proportions of purines and Active immunity
pyrimidines in DNA. (c) Saliva in mouth and Tear in eyes -- Physical
(b) Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated short barriers
DNA segments. (d) Mucus coating of epithelium lining the
(c) The relative difference in the DNA occurrence in urinogenital tract-and the HCl in stomach --
blood, skin and saliva. Physiological barriers
(d) The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and
grooves of the fingerprints. 76. What is Agent Orange?
(a) Colour used in fluorescent lamps
69. The homologous organs are those that show (b) A weedicide containing dioxin
similarity in (c) A biodegradable insecticide
(a) size (d) A hazardous chemical used in luminous paints
(b) origin
(c) function 77. Which one of the following pairs of organisms
are exotic species introduced in India? stops will be having
(a) Lantana camara, water hyacinth (a) low stability and high resilience
(b) Water hyacinth, Prosopis cinereria (b) high stability and low resilience
(c) Nile perch, Ficus religiosa (c) low stability and low resilience
(d) Ficus religiosa, Lantana camara (d) high stability and high resilience
78. Two microbes found to be very useful in genetic
engineering are 85. Soil conservation is
(a) Vibrio cholerae and a tailed bacteriophage (a) conversion of sterile soil into fertile one
(b) Diplococcus sp. and Pseudomonas sp. (b) aeration of soil
(c) Crown gall bacterium and Caenorhabditis (c) erosion of soil
elegans (d) protection against loss
(d) Escherichia coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens
86. Which group of vertebrates comprises the
79. Select the correct statement from the following? highest number of endangered species?
(a) Biogas is produced by the activity of aerobic (a) Birds
bacteria on animal waste (b) Mammals
(b) Methanobacterium is an aerobic bacterium (c) Fishes
found in rumen of cattle (d) Reptiles
(c) Biogas, commonly called gobar gas, is pure
methane 87. Which of the following re present maximum
(d) Activated sludge-sediment in settlement tanks number of species among global biodiversity?
of sewage treatment plant is a rich source of (a) Lichens
aerobic bacteria (b) Fungi
(c) Mosses and Ferns
80. Which one of the following is commonly used in (d) Algae
transfer of foreign DNA into crop plants?
(a) Meloidogyne incognita 88. How does carbon monoxide, a poisonous gas
(b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens emitted by automobiles, prevent transport of
(c) Penicillium expansum oxygen into the body tissues?
(d) Trichoderma harzianum (a) By destroying the haemoglobin
(b) By forming a stable compound with
81. Soil best suited for plant growth is haemoglobin
(a) clay (c) By obstructing the reaction of oxygen with
(b) loam haemoglobin
(c) sandy (d) By changing oxygen into carbon dioxide.
(d) gravel
89. Which one of the following is the correct
82. Certain characteristic demographic features of percentag of the two (out of the total of 4) green
developing countries are house gases that contribute to the total global
(a) high fertility, low or rapidly falling mortality warming?
rate, rapid population growth and a very young age (a) CFCs 14%, Methane 20%
distribution (b) CO2, 40%, CFCs 30%
(b) high fertility, high density, rapidly rising (c) N2 O 6%, CO2 86%
mortality rate and a very young age distribution (d) Methane 20%, N2 O 18%
(c) high infant mortality, low fertility, uneven
population growth and a very young age 90. The second commitment period for Kyoto
distribution Protocol was decided at
(d) high mortality, high density, uneven population (a) Cancun
growth and a very old age distribution (b) Durban
(c) Bali
83. The pyramid which cannot be inverted in a (d) Doha
stable ecosystem is that of
(a) Biomass 91. A temporary endocrine gland in the
(b) Number human body is :
(c) Energy (a) Corpus cardiacum
(d) All the above (b) corpus luteum
(c) Corpus allatum
84. An ecosystem which can be easily damaged but (d) Pineal gland
can recover after some time if damaging effect
92. Which of the following is made up of sporophyte for some time, is first observed in
dead cells? :
(a) Collenchyma (a) Liverworts
(b) Phellem (b) Mosses
(c) Phloem (c) Pteridophytes
(d) Xylem parenchyma (d) Gymnosperms

93. An example of colonial alga is : 100. In Antirrhinum (Snapdragon), a red

(a) Volvox flower was crossed with a white flower and in
(b) Ulothrix F1 generation pink flowers were obtained.
(c) Spirogyra When pink flowers were selfed, the F2
(d) Chlorella generation showed white, red and pink
flowers. Choose the incorrect statement from
94. Which of the following features is used to the following :
identify a male cockroach from a female (a) This experiment does not follow the
cockroach? Principle of Dominance.
(a) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the (b) Pink colour in F1 is due to incomplete
9th abdominal segment dominance.
(b) Presence of caudal styles 2 1
(c) Presence of anal cerci (c) Ratio of F2 is ¼ (Red) : (Pink) : (white)
4 4
(d) Forewings with darker tegmina
(d) Law of Segregation does not apply in this
experiment
95. Which of the following organisms are
known as chief producers in the oceans?
(a) Dinoflagellates
(b) Diatoms
(c) Euglenoids
(d) Cyanobacteria

96. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans

in
(a) using flagella for locomotion
(b) having a contractile vacuole for removing
excess water
(c) having two types of nuclei
(d) using pseudopodia for capturing prey

97. Select the correct sequence of organs in

the alimentary canal of cockroach starting
from mouth
(a) Pharynx → Oesophagus →Crop →
Gizzard→ Ileum → Colon → Rectum
(b) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Gizzard →
Crop → Ileum → Colon→ Rectum
(c) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Gizzard →
Ileum → Crop → Colon → Rectum
(d) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Ileum → Crop
→ Gizzard → Colon → Rectum

98. Which of the following pairs of gases is

mainly responsible for green house effect?
(a) Ozone and Ammonia
(b) Oxygen and Nitrogen
(c) Nitrogen and Sulphur dioxide
(d) Carbon dioxide and Methane

99. From evolutionary point of view,

retention of the female gametophyte with
developing young embryo on the parent
 8. In which of the following ionisation processes the
bond energy increases and the magnetic behaviour
Chemistry changes from paramagnetic to diamagnetic?
1. The maximum number of molecules is present in (a)
(a) 15 L of H2 gas at STP
(b) 5 Lof N2 gas at STP (b)
(c) 0.5 g of H2 gas
(d) 10 g of O2 gas
(c)
2. If ionization potential for hydrogen atom is 93.6
eV, then ionization potential for He+ will be (d)
(a) 54.4 eV
(b) 6.8 eV
(c) 13.6 eV 9. If 522 ml of gas Aat 422 torr and 666.6 ml of Bat
(d) 24.5 eV 622 torr are placed in a 3 litre flask, the pressure of
the system will be
3. Which of the following is not permissible (a) 200 torr
arrangement of electrons in an atom? (b) 100 torr
(a) n = 5, l = 3, m = 0, s = + 1/2 (c) 550 torr
(b) n = 3, l = 2, m = – 3, s = – 1/2 (d) 366 torr
(c) n = 3, l = 2, m = – 2, s = – 1/2
(d) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = – 1/2 10.

4. Which one of the following ions will be the

smallest in size?
(a) Na+
(b) Mg2+
(c) F-
(d) O2+ (a)

5. Which statement is NOTcorrect?

(a) A sigma bond is weaker than a S-bond.
(b) A sigma bond is stronger than a S-bond. (b)
(c) A double bond is stronger than a single bond.
(d) A double bond is shorter than a single bond.
(c) 2x –y
6. The AsF5 molecule is trigonal bipyramidal. The
hybrid orbitals used by the As atom for bonding are
(d) y- 2x
(a)

11.
(b)

(c)

(d)
(a) 273 K
(b) 450 K
7. The number of unpaired electrons in a (c) 300 K
paramagnetic diatomic molecule of an element with (d) 285.7 K
atomic number 96 is
(a) 3 12. In which of the following the solubility of AgCl
(b) 4 will be maximum?
(c) 1 (a) 0.1 M NaNO3
(d) 2 (b) Water
(c) 0.1 MNaCl
(d) 0.1 MNaBr. (d) 2

13. The solubility product of a sparingly soluble 21. Which of the following compounds has the
sale AX2 is 3.210-11. Its solubility (in moles/litre) is lowest boiling point?
(a) 5.6  10-6 (a) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3
(b) 3.1  10-4 (b) CH3CH= CHCH2CH3
(c) 2  10-4 (c) CH3CH= CH– CH= CH2
(d) 4  10-4 (d) CH3CH2CH2CH3

22.
14. Equimolar solutions of the following substances
were prepared separately. Which one of these will
record the highest pHvalue?
(a) BaCl2
(b) AlCl3 (a) 7 p-orbitals and 6 unpaired electrons
(c) LiCl (b) 7 p-orbitals and 7 unpaired electrons
(d) BeCl2 (c) 6 p-orbitals and 7 unpaired electrons
(d) 6 p-orbitals and 6 unpaired electrons
15. The dielectric constant of H2O is 80. The
electrostatic force of attraction between Na+ and Cl– 23. In face-centred cubic lattice, a unit cell is shared
will be equally by how many unit cells?
(a) reduced to 1/40 in water than in air (a) 2
(b) reduced to 1/80 in water than in air (b) 4
(c) will be increased to 80 in water than in air (c) 6
(d) will remain unchanged. (d) 8

16. In which of the following the hydration energy 24. Vapour pressure of benzene at 30°C is 121.8
is higher than the lattice energy? mm. When 15 g of a non volatile solute is dissolved
(a) MgSO4 in 250 g of benzene its vapour pressure decreased
(b) RaSO4 to 120.2 mm. The molecular weight of the solute
(c) SrSO4 (Mo. wt. of solvent = 78)
(d) BaSO4 (a) 356.2
(b) 456.8
17. Which of the following structure is similar to (c) 530.1
graphite? (d) 656.7
(a) B
(b) B4C 25. 200 mL of an aqueous solution of a protein
(c) B2H6 contains its 1.26 g. The osmotic pressure of this
(d) BN solution at 300 Kis found to be 2.57 × 10–3 bar. The
molar mass of protein will be (R= 0.083 Lbar mol–1
18. Lassaigne’s test for the detection of nitrogen K-1 )
fails in (a) 51022 g mol-1
(a) NH2CONHNH2.HCl (b) 122044 g mol-1
(b) NH2NH2.HCl (c) 31011 g mol-1
(c) NH2CONH2 (d) 61038 g mol-1
(d) C6H5NHNH2.HCL
26.
19. IUPACname of the following is CH2 CHCH2 CH2
C{CH
(a) 1, 5-hexenyne
(b) 1-hexene- 5-yne
(c) 1-hexyne- 5-ene
(d) 1, 5-hexynene
(a) 2.0  1011
20. How many stereoisomers does this molecule (b) 4.0  1012
have? CHCHCHCHCHBrCH3 23 (c) 1.0  102
(a) 4 (d) 1.0  1010
(b) 6
(c) 8
 (d) Potassium nitrate

27. Achemical reaction is catalyzed by a catalyst X. 32. The oxidation state of Cr in K2Cr2O7 is
Hence X (a) + 5
(a) reduces enthalpy of the reaction (b) + 3
(b) decreases rate constant of the reaction (c) + 6
(c) increases activation energy of the reaction (d) + 7
(d) does not affect equilibrium constant of the 33. Which of the following forms colourless
reaction compound?
(a) Sc3-
28. (b) V3-
(c) Ti3+
(d) Cr3+

34.

(a)

(b)

(c) (a) Co (Z= 27)

(b) Ni (Z= 28)
(c) Cu (Z= 29)
(d)
(d) Fe (Z= 26)

35. Atomic number of Cr and Fe are respectively 25

29. Which of the following statements, about the and 26, which of the following is paramagnetic?
advantage of roasting of sulphide ore before (a) [Cr(CO)6]
reduction is not true? (b) [Fe(CO)5]
(a) (c) [Fe(CN)6]-4
(d) [Cr(NH3) 6]+3

36. Which one of the following is an outer orbital

(b) complex and exhibits paramagnetic behaviour?
(a) [Ni(NH3) 6]2+
(b) [Zn(NH3) 6 )]2+
(c) [Cr(NH3) 6]3+
(d) [CO(NH3) 6]3+
(c)
37. The reaction of toluene with Cl2 in presence of
FeCl3 gives 'X' and reaction in presence of light gives
(d) ‘Y’. Thus, ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are:
(a) X= Benzal chloride, Y= o – Chlorotoluene
(b) X= m – Chlorotoluene, Y= p – Chlorotoluene
(c) X= o –and p – Chlorotoluene, Y=
Trichloromethyl – benzene
30. PH4 I+ NaOH forms (d) X= Benzyl chloride, Y= m – Chlorotoluene
(a) PH3
(b) NH3 38. H2COH · CH2OH on heating with periodic acid
(c) P4O6 gives:
(d) P4O10 (a) 2HCOOH
(b)
31. Repeated use of which one of the following
fertilizers would increase the acidity of the soil?
(a) Urea
(b) Superphosphate of lime
(c) Ammonium sulphate (c)
(d) 2CO2
(d)
39. Schotten-Baumann reaction is a reaction of
phenols with
(a) Benzoyl chloride and sodium hydroxide
(b) Acetyl chloride and sodium hydroxide 43. Enzymes are made up of
(c) Salicylic acid and conc. H2 SO4 (a) Edible proteins
(d) Acetyl chloride and conc H2 SO4 (b) Proteins with specific structure
(c) Nitrogen containing carbohydrates
40. Acarbonyl compound reacts with hydrogen (d) Carbohydrates
cyanide to form cyanohydrin which on hydrolysis
forms a racemic mixture of D-hydroxy acid. The 44. Bakelite is prepared by the reaction between
carbonyl compound is (a) urea and formaldehyde
(a) acetone (b) ethylene glycol
(b) diethyl ketone (c) phenol and formaldehyde
(c) formaldehyde (d) tetramethylene glycol
(d) acetaldehyde
45. Which one of the following is employed as
41. What is the decreasing order of basicity of Antihistamine?
primary, secondary and tertiary methylamines and (a) Chloramphenicol
NH3? (b) Diphenyl hydramine
(a) (c) Norothindrone
(d) Omeprazole

46. A first order reaction has a specific

reaction rate of 10-2 sec-1 . How much time
(b) will it take for 20g of the reactant to reduce
to 5 g ?
(a) 138.6 sec
(b) 346.5 sec
(c) 693.0 sec
(c)
(d) 238.6 sec

47. Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common

pollutant introduced into the atmosphere
(d) both due to natural and human activity?
(a) N2O5
(b) NO2
(c) NO
(d) N2O

42. An organic compound (C3H9N) , when treated 48. For the second period elements the
with nitrous acid, gave an alcohol and N2 gas was correct increasing order of first ionisation
evolved. on warming with CHCl3 and caustic potash enthalpy is:
gave which on reduction gave isopropyl (a) Li < Be < B < C < N < O < F < Ne
methylamine. Predict the structure of . (b) Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne
(a) (c) Li < B < Be < C < N < O < F < Ne
(d) Li < Be < B < C < O < N < F < Ne

49. Paper chromatography is an example of

(b) (a) Thin layer chromatography
(b) Column chromatography
(c) Adsorption chromatography
(c) (d) Partition chromatography
50. The equivalent capacitance of the
combination shown in the figure is

3C
(a)
2
(b) 3C
(c) 2C
C
(d)
2
Physics
1. The dimensions of universal gravitational (d)
constant are
(a) M-2 L2 T-1
(b) M-1 L3 T-2
(c) ML2 T-1 6. A5000 kg rocket is set for vertical firing. The
(d) M-2 L3 T-2 exhaust speed is 800 ms-1 . To give an initial upward
acceleration of 20 ms-2 , the amount of gas ejected
2. The water drops fall at regular intervals from a per second to supply the needed thrust will be (g =
tap 5 m above the ground. The third drop is leaving 10 ms-2 )
the tap at an instant when the first drop touches the (a) 127.5 kg s-1
ground. How far above the ground is the second (b) 187.5 kg s-1
drop at that instant? (Take g = 10 m/s2 ) (c) 185.5 kg s-1
(a) 1.25 m (d) 137.5 kg s-1
(b) 2.50 m
(c) 3.75 m 7. A position dependent force, F= (7 – 2x + 3x2) N
(d) 5.00 m acts on a small body of mass 2 kg and displaces it
from x = 0 to x = 5 m. Work done in joule is
3. The motion of a particle along a straight line is (a) 35
described by equation: (b) 70
x = 8 + 12t – t3 (c) 135
where x is in metre and t in second. The retardation (d) 270
of the particle when its velocity becomes zero, is:
(a) 24 ms-2 8. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15
(b) zero kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to
(c) 6 ms-2 frictional force are 10% of energy. How much
(d) 12 ms-2 power is generated by the turbine?( g = 10 m/s2)
(a) 8.1 kW
4. A person swims in a river aiming to reach exactly (b) 10.2 kW
opposite point on the bank of a river. His speed of (c) 12.3 kW
swimming is 0.5 m/s at an angle 120° with the (d) 7.0 kW
direction of flow of water. The speed of water in
stream is 9.
(a) 1.0 m/s
(b) 0.5 m/s
(c) 0.25 m/s
(d) 0.43 m/s.

5.

(a) 60 units
(b)

(c) zero
(d) 7.5 units

10. A solid sphere of radius R is placed on a smooth

(a) horizontal surface. A horizontal force F is applied at
height h from the lowest point. For the maximum
acceleration of the centre of mass,
(b) (a) h = R
(b) h = 2R
(c) h = 0
(c) (d) The acceleration will be same whatever h may
be (a) 6400 J
(b) 5400 J
11. (c) 7900 J
The moment of inertia of a thin uniform rod of (d) 8900 J
mass M and length L about an axis passing through
its midpoint and perpendicular to its length is I0. Its 17. At 10° C the value of the density of a fixed mass
moment of inertia about an axis passing through of an ideal gas divided by its pressure is x. At
one of its ends and perpendicular to its length is 110°Cthis ratio is:
(a) I0 + ML2 /2 (a) x
(b) I0 + ML2 /4 (b) 383/283 x
(c) I0 + 2ML2 (c) 10/110 x
(d) I0 + ML2 (d) 283/383 x

12. The escape velocity of a body on the surface of 18.

the earth is 99.0 km/s. If the earth’s mass increases
to twice its present value and the radius of the
earth becomes half, the escape velocity would
become
(a) 44.8 km/s
(b) 22.4 km/s
(c) 11.2 km/s (remains unchanged) (a) a circle and the actual motion is clockwise
(d) 5.6 km/s (b) an ellipse and the actual motion is
counterclockwise
13. Infinite number of bodies, each of mass 2 kg are (c) an elllipse and the actual motion is clockwise
situated on x-axis at distances 1m, 2m, 4m, 8m, ..... (d) a circle and the actual motion is counter
respectively, from the origin. The resulting clockwise
gravitational potential due to this system at the
origin will be 19. The damping force on an oscillator is directly
(a) proportional to the velocity. The units of the
constant of proportionality are:
(a) kgms-1
(b) kgms-2
(b) (c) kgs-1
(d) kgs
20. The equation of a sound wave is given as: y =
0.0015 sin (62.4 x + 316 t). The wavelength of this
(c) -4G wave is
(d) -G (a) 0.4 unit
(b) 0.3 unit
14. A cylindrical rod having temperature T1 and T2 (c) 0.2 unit
at its end. The rate of flow of heat is Q1 cal/sec. If all (d) 0.1 unit
the linear dimensions are doubled keeping
temperature constant, then the rate of flow of heat 21. Two points are located at a distance of 10 m
Q2 will be and 15 m from the source of oscillation. The period
(a) 4Q1 of oscillation is0.05 sec and the velocity of the wave
(b) 2Q1 is 300 m/sec. What is the phase difference between
(c) Q1 /4 the oscillations of two points?
(d) Q1 /2 (a) π/3
(b) 0π/3
15. For hydrogen gas, Cp – Cv = a and for oxygen gas, (c) π
Cp – Cv = b, so the relation between a and b is given (d) π/6
by
(a) a = 16 b 22. A point Q lies on the perpendicular bisector of
(b) 16 b = a an electrical dipole of dipole moment p. If the
(c) a = 4 b distance of Q from the dipole is r (much larger than
(d) a = b the size of the dipole), then the electric field at Q is
proportional to
16. The internal energy change in a system that has (a) p-1 and r-2
absorbed 2 kcals of heat and done 500 J of work is: (b) p and r-2
(c) p2 and r-3 (d) none of the above
(d) p and r-3
29. Electromagnets are made of soft iron because
23. A hollow metal sphere of radius 10 cm is soft iron has
charged such that the potential on its surface is 80 (a) low retentivity and high coercive force
V. The potential at the centre of the sphere is (b) high retentivity and high coercive force
(a) zero (c) low retentivity and low coercive force
(b) 80 V (d) high retentivity and low coercive force
(c) 800 V
(d) 8 V 30. A conducting circular loop is placed in a
uniform magnetic field, B=0.025 T with its plane
24. Two parallel metal plates having charges + Q perpendicular to the loop. The radius of the loop is
and – Q face each other ata certain distance made to shrink at a constant rate of 1 mm s–1. The
between them. If the plaves are now dipped in induced e.m.f. when the radius is 2 cm, is
kerosene oil tank, the electric field between the (a)
plates will
(a) remain same
(b) become zero (b)
(c) increases
(d) decrease
(c)
25. Kirchoff’s first law, i.e. Σi =2 at a junction, deals
with the conservation of
(a) charge (d)
(b) energy
(c) momentum
(d) angular momentum
31. What is the value of inductance L for which the
26. In India electricity is supplied for domestic use current is maximum in a series LCR circuit with C=
at 220 V. It is supplied at 110 Vin USA. If the 10 µF and Z= 1000s -1 ?
resistance of a 60 W bulb for use in India is R, the (a) 1 mH
resistance of a 60 W bulb for use in USA will be (b) cannot be calculated unless R is known
(a) R/2 (c) 10 mH
(b) R (d) 100 mH
(c) 2R
(d) R/4 32. Green-house effect is the heating up of earth's
atmosphere due to
27. (a) green plants
(b) infra-red rays
(c) X-rays
(d) ultraviolet rays

33. Light travels through a glass plate of thickness t

and refractive index u. If c is the speed of light in
vacuum, the time taken by light to travel this
thickness of glass is
(a)

(a) 30° C (b)

(b) 450° C
(c) 400 ° C
(d) 225° C
(c)
28. A coil carrying electric current is placed in
uniform magnetic field, then
(a) torque is formed
(b) e.m.f is induced (d)
(c) both (a) and (b) are correct
34. A biconvex lens has a radius of curvature of
magnitude 20 cm. Which one of the following
options best describe the image formed of an object
of height 2 cm placed 30 cm from the lens?
(a) Virtual, upright, height = 1 cm (a) A and C are isotopes
(b) Virtual, upright, height =0.5 cm (b) A and C are isobars
(c) Real, inverted, height = 4 cm (c) A and B are isotopes
(d) Real, inverted, height = 1cm (d) A and B are isobars

35. The periodic waves of intensities I1 and I2 pass 40. The stable nucleus that has a radius half that of
through a region at the same time in the same Fe56 is
direction. The sum of the maximum and minimum (a) Li7
intensities is: (b) Na21
(a) (c) S16
(d) Ca40

(b) 41. The nuclei of which one of the following pairs of

nuclei are isotones?
(a) 34Se74 , 31Ga71
(b) 38Sr84 , 38Sr86
(c) (c) 42Mo92 , 40Zr92
(d) 20Ca40 , 16S32

42. The half life of a radioactive isotope ‘X’ is 02

(d) years. It decays to another element ‘Y’ which is
stable. The two elements ‘X’ and ‘Y’ were found to
be in the ratio of 1: 7 in a sample of a the given rock.
The age of the rock is estimated to be
36. The 21 cm radio wave emitted by hydrogen in (a) 60 years
interstellar space is due to the interaction called the (b) 80 years
hyperfine interaction in atomic hydrogen. The (c) 100 years
energy of the emitted wave is nearly (d) 40 years
(a) 10-17 J 43.
(b) 1 J
(c) 7 × 10-8 J
(d) 10-24 J

37. In the Davisson and Germer experiment, the

velocity of electrons emitted from the electron gun
can be increased by
(a) increasing the potential difference between the
anode and filament
(b) increasing the filament current (a) NOR
(c) decreasing the filament current (b) XOR
(d) decreasing the potential difference between the (c) NAND
anode and filament (d) OR
38. When an electron jumps from the fourth orbit 44. The output of OR gate is 1
to the second orbit, one gets the (a) if either input is zero
(a) second line of Lyman series (b) if both inputs are zero
(b) second line of Paschen series (c) if either or both inputs are 1
(c) second line of Balmer series (d) only if both inputs are 1
(d) first line of Pfund series
45. A transistor is operated in common emitter
39. configuration at Vc = 2V such that a change in the
base current from 100 μA to 300 μA produces a (b) Inductor
change in the collector current from 10mA to (c) Switch
20mA. The current gain is (d) Fuse
(a) 50
(b) 75 50. The escape velocity from the Earth's
(c) 100 surface is v. The escape velocity from the
(d) 25 surface of another planet having a radius,
four times that of Earth and same
46. A wire of length L, area of cross section A mass density is
is hanging from a fixed support. The length (a) 4v
of the wire changes to L1 when mass M is (b) v
suspended from its free end. The expression (c) 2v
for Young’s modulus is : (d) 3v

(a)

(b)

(c)

)
(d

47. The acceleration due to gravity at a

height 1 km above the earth is the same as
at a depth d below the surface of earth. Then
(a) d = 1 km
3
(b) d = km
2
(c) d = 2 km
1
(d) d = km
2

48. In the combination of the following gates

the output Y can be written in terms of
inputs A and B as

(a) ⃗
A. B
(b) A. B + A .B
(c) A+ B
(d) A . B +A.B

49. Which of the following acts as a circuit

protects device?
(a) Conductor
Biology
1. c 2. b 3. d 4. a 5. a
6. a 7. c 8. c 9. c 10. a
11. d 12. b 13. c 14. b 15. c
16. a 17. a 18. c 19. a 20. c
21. a 22. d 23. a 24. b 25. b
26. a 27. c 28. c 29. a 30. c
31. d 32. a 33. c 34. b 35. c
36. c 37. b 38. c 39. a 40. d
41. a 42. a 43. c 44. c 45. a
46. b 47. a 48. a 49. d 50. a
51. d 52. b 53. b 54. a 55. c
56. a 57. a 58. d 59. b 60. b
61. a 62. b 63. c 64. a 65. a
66. c 67. c 68. b 69. b 70. b
71. d 72. a 73. c 74. c 75. a
76. b 77. a 78. d 79. d 80. b
81. b 82. a 83. c 84. a 85. d
86. b 87. b 88. b 89. a 90. d
91.b 92.b 93.a 94.b 95.b
96.c 97.a 98.d 99.c 100.b

Chemistry :
1. a 2. a 3.B 4. b 5. a
6. c 7. d 8. d 9. a 10. b

11. d 12. c 13. c 14. a 15. b

16. a 17. d 18. b 19. b 20. d
21. d 22. d 23. c 24.A 25. d
26. d 27. d 28. c 29. d 30. a
31. c 32. c 33. a 34. c 35. d
36. a 37. c 38. c 39. a 40. d
41. d 42. a 43.B 44. c 45. b
46.a 47.a 48.b 49.d 50.c

Physics :

1. b 2. c 3. d 4. c 5. c
6. d 7. c 8. a 9. a 10.D
11. b 12. b 13. c 14. b 15. d
16. c 17. d 18. d 19. c 20. d
21. b 22. d 23. b 24. d 25. a
26. d 27. d 28. a 29.D 30. b
31. d 32. b 33. d 34. c 35. d
36. d 37. a 38. c 39. a 40. a
41. a 42. a 43. a 44. c 45. a
46.b 47.d 48.b 49.d 50.a