OVERSEAS_PRE-NURTURE_CLASS IX 12-11-2022

6 Ram and Shyam start walking along the sides

PHYSICS MARKS : 120 of a square field ABCD of side 90 m. They
1 Which of the following is not a force? start from corner B and corner C respectively
in the clockwise direction and anti-clockwise
(1) Normal reaction directions with speeds of 8 km/hr and 10
(2) Thrust km/hr respectively. Where shall they cross
each other the second time during their
(3) Tension motion?
(4) Impulse (1) On AD at a distance of 30 m from A
2 The first of a month is the new moon day. (2) On BC at a distance of 10 m from B
Which of the following figure would represent
the phase of the moon, on fifteenth of the (3) On AD at a distance of 30 m from D
same month? (Shaded portion is invisible part (4) On BC at a distance of 10 m from C
of moon)
7 The velocity-time graph for a cart of mass 16
kg is shown in figure given below. what is the
force being exerted on this cart?
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

3 Shyam has a weight Y on the surface of Earth. (1) 4 N (2) 16 N (3) 8 N (4) 32 N
What is his weight on a planet which has mass 8 The tail of a comet points away from the Sun
20 times that of earth and a radius of 8 times due to
that of the earth? (1) Centrifugal force
(1) 10/15 Y (2) 5/16 Y (2) Electrical repulsion
(3) 16/5 Y (4) 5/10 Y (3) Attraction of comet due to other planets
4 Where is the crust of the earth the thickest? (4) Radiation pressure
(1) At the continents 9 Consider a planet X between Earth and Mars.
(2) At the ocean The time period of the planet X would be :
(1) Less than that of Earth
(3) At the poles
(2) Greater than that of Mars
(4) Near faults
5 Find the angle of deviation when the angle (3) Equal to that of Earth or Mars
between the mirror and incident ray is 30°. (4) Greater than that of Earth
10 A machine gun fires a bullet of mass 40 g with
velocity 1200 ms–1. The person holding it can
apply a maximum force of 144 newton on the
gun. What is the maximum number of bullets
that can be fired per second.
(1) 30° (2) 60° (3) 50° (4) 40° (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 7

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 TALLENTEX : 2023 12-11-2022
11 Which of the following cannot be zero when 16 Match Column-I with Column-ll and mark the
the particle is in motion for some time? correct option from the codes given below.
(1) Displacement Column-I Column-II
2h
(2) Average velocity (a) gh at height h (i) g (1 − )
R
(3) Average speed
GM
(4) Both (1) and (2) (b) gh at depth h (ii)
R2
12 A mirror having a very wide field of view h
must be (c) gpoles (iii) g (1 − )
R
(1) concave
(d) g (iv) maximum
(2) convex
(1) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
(3) plane
(2) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
(4) none of these
(3) (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
13 Which of the following is/are true ?
(i) Lightning and spark from woolen clothing (4) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
are essentially the same phenomena.
17 The force of gravitation between two bodies
(ii) When you rub a balloon on your dry hair,
does not depend on :
it acquires a charge.
(iii) Repulsion is a true test of charging. (1) Their separation
(iv) The leaves of an electroscope diverge (2) The product of their masses
when a negatively charged rod is touched with
the knob of the electroscope (3) The sum of their masses
(1) (i) & (iii) only (4) The gravitation constant
(2) (i), (iii) & (iv) 18 When we look at the distant objects then
eyelens is in :
(3) (ii) & (iii) only
(1) Relaxed state
(4) all (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(2) Compressed state
14 If a wheel of 1 m radius completes its half
rotation in 2 sec on a straight path, find out the (3) Stressed state
linear speed of the center point of wheel. (4) None of these
(1) π m/sec 19 The unit of linear momentum is:
π
(2) m/sec (1) Ns (2) kg ms–2
2
3π (3) Ns–1 (4) kg2 ms–1
(3) m/sec
4 20 A 650 kg rocket is to be speeded up form 440
m/s to 520 m/s in outer space. If the thrust of
(4) Insufficient data
the engine is 1200 N, For how long must the
15 A ball and a brick are dropped from a certain engine be fired?
height. They accelerate
(1) 3.83 s (2) 38.3 s
(1) equally
(3) 4.33 s (4) 43.3 s
(2) unequally
21 If speed of light travelling from air to a
(3) does not accelerate medium decreases by 40%, find the refractive
index of the medium with respect to air
(4) retards uniformly
(1) 2.5 (2) 1.67 (3) 1.3 (4) 1.25

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 OVERSEAS_PRE-NURTURE_CLASS IX 12-11-2022
22 If a mirror is rotated by 20° degrees then 27 A particle covers 3/4th of a circle of radius R.
reflected ray rotates by The distance and displacement of particle will
be :-
(1) 30° (2) 40° (3) 50° (4) 60° 3πR −−
− 3πR –
(1) , √2R (2) , R√2
23 Identify the correct image formation : 2 2
π R 3π
(3) , (4) , 2R
2 2 2
(1)
28 Which of these represents the correct order of
planets in the solar system in relation to the
Sun?
(1) Venus, Mars, Earth, Mercury, Jupiter,
(2) Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
(2) Earth, Mercury, Venus, Mars, Jupiter,
Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
(3) Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter,
(3)
Saturn, Neptune, Uranus
(4) Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter,
(4) None of these Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
24 If mass of body is increased by 10 % and its 29 A plane mirror is approaching you at a speed
speed is decreased by 10 % then percentage of 10 cm/s you can see your image in it. At
change in magnitude of its momentum will be : what speed will your image approach you?
(Assume you are at rest)
(1) 1 % increase (2) 1 % decrease
(1) 10 cm/s (2) 5 cm/s
(3) 2 % increase (4) 2 % decrease
(3) 15 cm/s (4) 20 cm/s
25 The current in the circuit will be
30 Mass of a man is 80 kg. He stands on a
weighing scale in a lift which is moving
upward with a uniform acceleration of 5 ms–2.
What would be the reading on the scale? (g =
10 ms–2)
(1) 1/45A (2) 1/15A (1) zero
(3) 1/10A (4) 1/5A (2) 400 N
26 Which of the following statement(s) is/are true (3) 120 N
for electric charge? (4) 1200 N
(a) It is a scalar quantity.
(b) It can neither be created nor be destroyed. CHEMISTRY MARKS : 120
(c) It resides on the outer surface of a 31 A thick black coloured substance which is a
conductor. mixture of about 200 substances is-
(1) (a) and (b) only (1) Coke
(2) (b) and (c) only (2) Bitumen
(3) (a) and (c) only (3) Coal tar
(4) (a), (b) and (c) (4) Coal gas

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32 Which of the following properties belong to 38 A solution is made by dissolving 20 g of
carbon monoxide?
(i) Carbon monoxide is produced by glucose in 80 g of water so as to obtain 20%
incomplete burning of fuels. concentrated (w/w) solution. How much water
(ii) Carbon monoxide is a poisonous gas.
should be added in this solution so that the
(iii) Carbon monoxide reduces the oxygen
carrying capacity of blood. concentration becomes 15% ?
(1) (i) & (ii) (2) (ii) & (iii) (1) 10 g
(3) (iii) & (i) (4) (i), (ii) & (iii) (2) 27.6 g
33 How many of the following are particulate (3) 33.33 g
pollutants ?
Ash, Sulphur dioxide, Nitrogen dioxide, (4) 30.03 g
Pollen grains, Cement dust, Smoke, Carbon 39 You have prepared four different mixtures in
monoxide
water using
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 6 1. Charcoal powder
34 The calorific value of petrol is 45,000 KJ / kg. 2. Chalk powder
What is the amount of heat energy produced in 3. Sawdust
(KJ), if 9 kg of petrol is burnt? 4. Detergent powder
(1) 5000 KJ (2) 4,05,000 KJ If you filter these mixtures through a filter
paper, there will be no residue left after
(3) 45,000 KJ (4) 50,000 KJ
filtration in the case of
35 The substance which is not combustible is
(1) Charcoal powder
(1) Coal tar (2) Plastic
(2) Chalk powder
(3) Iron piece (4) Hydrogen
(3) Sawdust
36 A fully inflated balloon goes higher in the
atmosphere, so what will be the pressure (4) Detergent powder
outside and inside the balloon respectively?
40 A spoon is kept in contact with ice cubes for
(1) Increases, Decreases some time. Later, the same spoon was held
(2) Decreases, Increases over the flame of a small candle. The
observation is shown in the figure. What do
(3) Decreases, Remains constant
you infer from the given figure?
(4) Increases, Remains constant
37

Which of the following process is correctly

shown by the above mentioned figure?
(1) Boiling of water by applying pressure. (1) Deposition of unburnt carbon particles
due to complete combustion.
(2) Melting of ice by increasing temperature.
(2) Presence of unburnt wax vapours in
(3) Condensation of water by applying outermost zone of flame.
pressure.
(3) Burning of candle is explosion.
(4) Liquefaction of gases by applying
pressure. (4) Water vapour is a product of combustion.

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 OVERSEAS_PRE-NURTURE_CLASS IX 12-11-2022
41 In shaving cream 44
(1) Dispersed phase - Gas
Dispersion medium - Liquid
(2) Dispersed phase - Liquid
Dispersion medium - Gas
Which of the following compound will
(3) Dispersed phase - Solid undergo physical process E shown in figure
Dispersion medium - Liquid above?
(4) Dispersed phase - Solid (1) Sodium chloride
Dispersion medium - Gas
(2) Water
42 Different types of water pollution and their
effects are described in the table below. (3) Ammonium chloride
Type Effect (4) Ice
Illnesses such as typhoid 45 The following graph was made when two
Raw Sewage and hepatitis liquids being distilled. What observation can
can spread to humans be made regarding phase BC ?
Growth of algae increases,
then
Phosphate and
decaying algae uses up
Nitrate
oxygen in
water
Stored in the bodies of fish
Poison and builds
(1) One liquid component is boiling
up in organisms that eat fish
Becomes stuck on bird (2) Heat remains constant
Oil
feathers (3) Heat is utilised in the form of latent heat
Causes water to be less able of fusion
to contain
Thermal (heat) (4) Energy is being removed from the liquid
oxygen; causes bacteria to
grow 46 To make a saturated solution, 136 g of a salt
Based on the table, which of the following is dissolved in 500 g water at 293 K, find its
results from both phosphate and nitrate solubility at this temperatures:
pollution and thermal (heat) pollution in water ? (1) 20.9 g (2) 27.2 g (3) 30.7 g (4) 33.7 g
(1) Diseases are carried through the water.
47 Match column I with column II and choose the
(2) Materials contaminate the bodies of birds. correct option from the codes given below.
Column-I
(3) Growth of algae rapidly decreases. Column-II
(Constituents of
(Use)
(4) Level of oxygen in the water decreases. petroleum)
Solvent for dry
43 A substance which upon combustion produces (P) Paraffin wax (i)
cleaning
usable energy is fuel. Use this information to
find which of the following will not act as a (Q) Kerosene (ii) Ointments
set of fuel? (R) Petrol (iii) Paints
(a) Wood, Charcoal Fuel for jet
(b) Charcoal, Kerosene (S) Bitumen (iv)
aircraft
(c) Petrol, biogas
(d) Sulphur, Oxygen (1) P-(i), Q-(iv), R-(iii), S-(ii)

(1) b only (2) b and d (2) P-(i), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(iii)

(3) c and d (4) d only (3) P-(ii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(iii)

(4) P-(ii), Q-(i), R-(iv), S-(iii)

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48 The boiling point of some gases found in air 51 Match column I with column II and choose the
are given below. correct option form the codes give below.

Gases Krypton Neon Nitrogen Oxygen Column I Column II

Boiling Evaporation
point –152 –246 –196 –183 Hot tea poured in increases

(°C) (P) saucer gets cooled (i) with

faster. increase in
If liquid mixture is fractionally distilled, the
temperature.
order of gases distilled out (starting from first)
is: Evaporation
We feel more cold
increases
(1) Krypton, Neon, Nitrogen, Oxygen after a hot water
(Q) (ii) with
bath than a cold
(2) Neon, Nitrogen, Oxygen, Krypton decrease in
water bath.
humidity.
(3) Nitrogen, Neon, Oxygen, Krypton
Evaporation
(4) Oxygen, Neon, Nitrogen, Krypton
Water is cool in increases
49 Identify the correct statement. (R) earthen pitcher (iii) with
(1) Components of true solution can be during dry hot day. increase in
separated by filtration process. wind speed.
(2) Components of suspension can be Evaporation
separated by filtration process.
We feel increases
(3) A true solution always scatter beam of comfortable under with
(S) (iv)
light. a moving fan in increase in
(4) A colloid will not scatter beam of light. summer. surface
50 A drop each of two non-corrosive and non- area.

irritating liquids A and B at temperature of (1) P – (ii), Q – (i), R – (iii), S – (iv)

22°C are placed on the skin. Liquid A gives a (2) P – (iii), Q – (iv), R – (ii), S – (i)
more cooling sensation than liquid B. Which
(3) P – (iv), Q – (i), R – (ii), S – (iii)
of the following can be said about the liquids
(4) P – (iv), Q – (ii), R – (iii), S – (i)
A and B?
(1) Liquid A has higher boiling point than
that of liquid B.
(2) Liquid A has high latent heat of
vaporisation than that of liquid B.
(3) Liquid A has low latent heat of
vaporisation than that of liquid B.
(4) The boiling points of liquids A and B are
equal.

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53 Study the flowchart and select the 57 Which of the following is incorrect statement?
correct option
(1) When air is passed over red hot coke,
producer gas is formed.
(2) Water gas was used for street lighting for
the first time in London.
(3) Crude oil is also known as black gold.
(4) Naphthalene balls are obtained from coal
tar.
58 An ambitions plan to save river Ganga was
R S T launched in 1985. Now, the government of
Definite Definite Diffuse India has launched a new initiative NMCG in
(1) which year?
pressure surface slowly
Definite Definite Diffuse (1) 2016 (2) 2010
(2)
shape volume rapidly
(3) 2000 (4) 2020
Definite Definite Diffuse
(3) 59 In sewage, nitrates and phosphates are
surface pressure rapidly
Definite Definite Diffuse (1) Nutrients
(4)
volume shape slowly (2) Inorganic impurities
54 The substance added to detect the leakage of (3) Organic impurities
LPG is
(4) None of these
(1) Methyl mercaptan
60 Read the given statements carefully.
(2) Ethyl mercaptan (A) Wells should be covered to control water
(3) Both (1) & (2) pollution.
(B) Don't use drinking water to clean cars to
(4) None of these
prevent water wastages.
55 Assertion (A) : Wood Charcoal is a better fuel (C) Blue baby syndrome is due to mercury
than wood for domestic purposes. poisoning.
Reason (R) : Wood Charcoal produces less (D) Bhopal gas disaster is due to leakage of
residue and have more calorific value than
methyl isocyanate.
wood.
(E) Improper toilet facilities should be
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct provided to the rural people.
explanation of A. Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the (1) A, B and C (2) A, B and D
correct explanation of A.
(3) B, C and E (4) A, C and D
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true. BIOLOGY MARKS : 120
56 Which of the following are required for 61 Given below are some diseases caused by
combustion? infectious agents.
(i) Combustible substance
Cholera, typhoid, dengue, hepatitis, diphtheria,
(ii) Carbon dioxide
(iii) Oxygen giardiasis, elephantiasis, tetanus, mumps,
(iv) Ignition temperature pertussis
How many of the above diseases are caused
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (i)
due to bacteria?
(3) (i), (ii) and (iv) (4) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(1) 6 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
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62 Which of the following options represent the 66 Tadpoles swimming in a pond failed to
correct combination of statements? undergo metamorphosis into an adult frog due
A. Field fallow reduces the reliance on to
fertilizers. (a) Lack of adrenal hormones
B. Fertilizers have lower solubility compared (b) Lack of sex hormones
to manure. (c) Lack of thyroxine
C. Potash is an example of fertilizer. (d) Lack of insulin
D. Manure is a combination of inorganic Select the correct alternative.
compounds only.
(1) Both (a) and (b) (2) Both (a) and (c)
(1) A and D (2) B and C
(3) Only (c) (4) Only (d)
(3) B and D (4) A and C
67 What is true for the given diagram?
63 Read the given information carefully.
(i) Artificial beehives are called apiaries.
(ii) Apis dorsata is commonly called as little
bee.
(iii) Apis mellifera is preferred for its
ferocious & migratory nature.
(A) Most cells divide by this method.
(iv) Rock bee produces maximum amount of
(B) It helps in repair, growth and development.
honey. (C) It takes place in germ cells.
(v) Apis mellifera is an indigenous breed. (D) Genetic material in daughter cell is same
(vi) Apis florae is very docile but yield is less. as parent cell.
How many of the above statements are not (E) Genetic material in daughter cell is half as
correct regarding apiculture. parent cell.
(1) (iii), (iv), (vi) (2) (i), (ii), (iii) (1) B, C, D are correct
(3) (ii), (iii), (v) (4) (ii), (iii), (iv) (2) A, B, E are correct
64 Find the correct match. (3) A, B, D are correct
Column I Column II (4) A, B, C are correct
(Indigenous) (Exotic)
68 Read the following information carefully.
a. Leghorn Aseel I - It is a type of organism that has cell wall
b. Jersey Sahiwal made up of murein - Go to A
c. Red Sindhi Brown Swiss II - It is a multicellular heterotrophic organism
that lack chlorophyll - Go to B
(1) a and b are correct A - It is a rod shaped organism - Go to P
(2) b and c are correct B - Cell wall is made up of chitin - Go to Q
P - Causative agent of anthrax - X
(3) Only b is correct Q - It is used to extract antibiotic griseofulvin
(4) Only c is correct -Y
65 The variety of life and the diversity of genes, (1) X - Salmonella ; Y - Penicillium
species and ecosystems of a region and their griseofulvum
inter -relationship is called (2) X - Bacillus anthracis ; Y - Penicillium
(1) Biosphere aureofaciens
(2) Biodiversity (3) X - Mycobacterium ; Y - Penicillium
aureofaciens
(3) Bioconservation
(4) X - Bacillus anthracis ; Y - Penicillium
(4) Biocommunity griseofulvum

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69 According to the extent of threat to some 72 The RER in the cell synthesizes a protein
which would be later used in building the
species and their population in its natural
plasma membrane. But it is observed that the
habitat, some categories are identified which protein in the membrane is slightly different
are given below- from the protein made in the RER. The protein
was probably modified in another cell
I. Vulnerable
organelle identify that organelle in the given
II. Least threatened diagram.
III. Critically endangered
IV. Least concern
V. Endangered
VI. Extinct in wild
Select the correct order of these species
according to their conservation priority.

(1) V > II > IV > I > III > VI (1) D (2) A (3) B (4) C
(2) III > VI > V > I > II > IV 73 The diagram below shows “pit” which are
present in ___(i)____ and function for
(3) VI > III > I > V > II > IV ____(ii)______.
(4) VI > III > V > I > II > IV
70 A normal human germ cell divides via
meiosis. Which of the given option is correct
regarding its chromosome number during
different phases (Meiosis).
METAPHASE ANAPHASE
(1) Parenchyma; water transportation
(2) Collenchyma; food transportation
MEIOSIS- MEIOSIS- MEIOSIS- MEIOSIS-
I II I II (3) Tracheids; water transportation
(4) Sclerenchyma; food transportation
(1) 46 23 23 46
74 Pick the odd one out from each series given
(2) 46 23 96 46
below and select the correct option.
(3) 46 23 46 46 (A) Catla, Rohu, Tuna, Mrigal
(4) 46 46 96 46 (B) White leghorn, Aseel, Peela, Yakub
(C) Murrah, Mehsana, Surti, Tharparker
71 There are some insects and animals which act (D) 2, 4-D, Malathion, Butachlor, Atrazine
as carriers of disease causing microbes. Tse-
A B C D
tse fly carries a pathogen ____________ that
White
causes _________. (1) Tuna Mehsana Malathion
leghorn
(1) Leishmania, sleeping sickness
(2) Mrigal Peela Tharparker 2,4-D
(2) Trypanosoma, Kala azar
White
(3) Tuna Tharparker Malathion
(3) Trypanosoma, sleeping sickness leghorn

(4) Leishmania, kala azar (4) Catla Peela Mehsana 2,4-D

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75 Observe the figure given below 78 Species which are restricted only to a specific
area and not in any other geographical area are
called.
(1) Extinct (2) Endangered
(3) Endemic (4) Threatened
79 Which of the following is food preservative?
(1) Sodium bezoate (2) Common salt
Read the following statements
(i) Cells present at ‘A’ are immature and are (3) Vinegar (4) All of these
not capable of dividing indefinitely. 80 Communication of malaria causing parasite
(ii) ‘C’ helps to increase the girth of plant. occurs by
(iii) Vascular cambium belongs to the part (1) Plasmodium
labelled as ‘B’.
(2) Female anapheles mosquito
(iv) Cork is formed by the activity of part
labelled as ‘A’. (3) Male anapheles mosquito
(v) Cells present at part ‘B’ are small & thin (4) Female aedes mosquito
walled, without intercellular spaces.
(vi) Part labelled as ‘B’ helps in elongation of
81 The process of separating grains from chaff is
known as
body parts.
(vii) Part labelled as ‘C’ is responsible for (1) threshing (2) harvesting
secondary growth in plants. (3) winnowing (4) transplantation
Which of the above statements are not correct
82 Examples of marine fishes is/are
regarding the given diagram
(1) Tuna (2) Cod
(1) (ii), (v), (vi), (vii)
(3) Catla (4) Both (1) and (2)
(2) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
83 The experimental method of using weak
(3) (i), (iii), (iv) solution of silver nitrate in tracing the delicate
(4) (ii), (v), (vi) ramification of cells is introduced by the
scientist named
76 Provide the correct order in which the
menstrual cycle occurs. (1) Benda
(i) Follicular phase (2) Camillo Golgi
(ii) Ovulation
(iii) Luteal phase (3) Schleiden
(iv) Menstrual phase (4) Robert brown
(1) (iv) – (i) – (ii) – (iii) 84 Read the following (A - D):
(2) (i) – (ii) – (iii) – (iv) (A) Veins carry blood from heart to organs of
body.
(3) (iii) – (iv) – (i) – (ii) (B) A healthy adult man had an average of 5
(4) (ii) – (iv) – (i) – (iii) billions to 5.5 billions of platelets/mm–3 of
blood.
77 Menarche is (C) RBCs have iron containing pigment.
(1) beginning of menstrual flow. (D) Ventricles pump blood into arteries.
How many of the above statements are
(2) Stoppage of menstrual flow. incorrect.
(3) Attachment of embryo with the uterus (1) 4 (2) 3
(4) None (3) 2 (4) 1

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85 X Y 90 What are genetically modified crops?
Shape of the cell is Cell shape is fixed (1) Plants which are crossed with plants of
irregular shape shape different genes.
Nucleus present in Nucleus present in (2) Plants containing genes that have been
center periphery
introduced into them.
Centriole present in
It has centrioles (3) Plants having superior genes.
lower forms only
On the basis of above information identify cell (4) Plants which are devoid of desirable
X and cell Y. genes.
(1) X-plant cell, Y-fungal cell
MATHEMATICS MARKS : 120
(2) X-plant cell, Y-animal cell
(3) X-fungal cell, Y-plant cell
91 If 1 ≤ a ≤ 2 then
−−−−−−−−−− −−−−−−−−−−
−−−− −−−−
a
√ − √ − 2 a
−√ + √ − 1 a 2 a 1 is equal to
(4) X-animal cell, Y-plant cell
_________.
86 Which of the following muscles is present in
−−−−
the urinary bladder? (1) 2 (2) 2√a − 1
(1) Smooth muscles (2) Skeletal muscles (3) –4 (4)
−−−−
2 a
− √ − 1
(3) Striated muscles (4) Cardiac muscles 92 In a certain store, the profit is 320% of the
87 Which of the following cells are found in cost. If the cost increases by 17% but the
areolar tissue? selling price remains same, approximately
(1) Mast cells (2) Plasma cells what percentage of the selling price is the
(3) Fibroblasts (4) All of these profit?

88 The cross section of leaf shows the presence (1) 62.14% (2) 72.14%
of similar type of cells on the lower and upper (3) 93.14% (4) 70%
surface of leaves. From the given statements
below which of them are correct function of 93 Find the total number of factors of
these cells. 27 × 27 – 81 × 21 + 27 × 49 – 343.
(A) Protect the inner parts.
(B) Synthesis food. (1) 1 (2) 0 (3) 4 (4) 8
(C) Regulate transpiration. 94 4 pipes can fill a tank in 15, 20, 30 & 60 hours
(D) Exchange the gases. respectively. The first was opened at 6 a.m.,
(1) (A), (B), (C) and (D) second at 7 a.m., third at 8 a.m. and fourth at 9
(2) (A) and (B) a.m. When will the tank be full?

(3) (C) and (D) (1) 12:30 pm (2) 1 pm

(4) (A), (C) and (D) (3) 2 pm (4) 1:30 pm

95 1 1
89 Single celled animals are said to be immortal If 2 − m
× = ,
because 2m 4
1
(1) They grow indefinitely in size. 1 1 −

then {(4m )1 / 2
+( ) } is
7 5m
(2) They can tolerate any degree of change in
temperature. (1) Prime number
(3) They can reproduce throughout their life (2) Even number
span.
(3) Composite number
(4) They continue to live as their daughter
cells. (4) Rational number
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96 A cylindrical tank of height 42 cm and 102 P(x) = x149 + 2x148 + ...... + 149 is a
diameter 2.8 m is being filled by the help of polynomial of degree 149. When P(x) is
flowing water which is flowing at 70 cm3/sec. divided by (x – 6) and (x – 2) respectively the
Find the time required to fill the half tank. remainders obtained are 2, 1. what will be the
remainder if it is divided by x2 – 8x + 12.
(1) 308 minutes
x 1 x 1
(2) 616 minutes (1) + (2) +
4 2 2 4
(3) 1232 minutes x 1 x 1
(3) − (4) −
(4) 154 minutes 4 2 2 4
97 Given that 12 + 22 + 32 + ..... + 102 = 385, 103 The sum of the present ages of Ankit and his
2 2 2 2 daughter (in months) is 420 months. If his
2 + 4 + 6 + . . . . + 20
find the value of . daughter's age is one fourth of Ankit's age,
140 then find the age of Ankit (in years) when his
(1) 7 (2) 11 daughter was born.
(3) 154 (4) 1540 (1) 28 (2) 29
98 Each interior angle of a regular polygon is (3) 21 (4) 25
144°. Find each interior angle of a regular 104 A beam of light shines from point S, reflects
polygon which has double the number of sides off a reflector at point P and reaches point T,
as the first polygon. such that PT is perpendicular to RS. Then x =
_________.
(1) 100° (2) 160°
(3) 36° (4) 162°
1 2
99 The factors of z 2 + + 2 − 2z − are
z2 z
1 1
(1) z+
( + 2) (z − )
z z
1 1
(2) z+
( ) (z + − 2)
z z (1) 32° (2) 37°

1 1 (3) 45° (4) 38°

(3) z−
( + 2) (z + )
z z 105 The perimeter of the triangle formed by the
1 1 points (0, 0) (2, 0) and (0, 2) is:
(4) z−
( ) (z − − 2) – –
z z (1) 4 ± 2√2 units (2) 4 − 2√2 units
100 The co-ordinates of the two points are P(–4, 3) –
(3) 6 units (4) 4 + 2√2 units
and Q(–1, –2), then (ordinate of P) – (abscissa
106 5(a – b) = 125 and 7(a + b) = 2401 the a2 + b2
of Q) is:
is equal to:
(1) –3 (2) 3
47 25
(3) 5 (4) 4 (1) (2)
2 2
101 4101 + 4102 + 4103 + 4104 is divisible by a (3) 50 (4) 25
two digit prime number. Find the one fourth of 107 If (x – y) = 7, then what is the value of
the sum of digits of that prime number. (x – 15) 3 – (y – 8) 3 ?
(1) 2 (2) 4 (1) 3 (2) 2
(3) 1 (4) 13 (3) 1 (4) 0
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108 A, B and C invested amounts in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5 114 In the given ΔMNO, MC is the bisector of
respectively. If the schemes offered compound ∠NMO and MD is perpendicular to ON. If
interest at the rate of 20% per annum, 15% per ∠MON = 60° and ∠MNO = 80°, then ∠DMC
annum and 10% pre annum respectively, then is _______.
what will be the ratio of their amounts after 1
year?
(1) 12 : 15 : 22
(2) 4 : 3 : 2
(3) 36 : 46 : 55
(4) 25 : 36 : 49
−−−−−
(1) 5° (2) 15°
109 If √ 12769 = 113, then the value of
−−−−− −−−−− −−−−−−− −−−−−−−−− (3) 10° (4) None of these
(√127.69 +√1.2769+√ 0.012769
+√ 0.00012769
)

is: 115 The side of a square is 3 cm and semicircles

are constructed (outside) on each side of the
(1) 1.25543 (2) 1255.43 square, then the area of the whole figure in
(3) 12.5543 (4) 125.543 cm2 is:
110 3 –
If the number √ 4−
9, √
− 6−
20 , √
−
25 are arranged in 9
(1) 9 + π
ascending order, then the right arrangement is: 4
6−− 4−− 3 – 9
(1) √ 25
,√ ,√ 20 9 (2) 9 − π
– −− −−
2
3 4 6
(2) √ 9, √ 20 , √ 25 9
4−− 6−− 3 – (3) 9 + π
(3) √ 20
,√ ,√ 25 9 8
6−− 3 – 4 −− 9
(4) √ 25
,√ 9, √ 20 (4) 9 + π
th
2
3
111 If ( ) of a number is 25 more then half of 116 If 2K3 – aK2 – 5K – 14 has (K + 2) as a factor.
5 Then find the value of a.
original number. then find twice of that
number. (1) – 6 (2) 4

(1) 400 (2) 450 (3) 475 (4) 500 (3) – 5 (4) 7

112 In a hostel, 150 students had provisions of 117 A person lost 15% of his money in betting and
food for 45 days. After 10 days, 25 students 20% of the remaining he invested to buy some
left the hostel. How long would the food last shares. If the amount left with him was Rs.
at the same rate? 30,600. Find the amount which he had
initially.
(1) 35 days (2) 42 days
(1) Rs. 40000
(3) 40 days (4) 30 days
(2) Rs. 45000
113 A cuboidal tin is 30 cm × 40 cm × 50 cm. Find
the cost of tin required for making 20 such tins (3) Rs. 50000
if the cost of the tin sheet is Rs. 12 per square (4) Rs. 55000
meter.
118 A point in the 3rd quadrant is 8 units away
(1) Rs. 225.6 from x axis and 7 units away from y axis. The
(2) Rs. 220.5 co-ordinates of the point are

(3) Rs. 230.5 (1) (7, 8) (2) (–7, 8)

(4) Rs. 245.8 (3) (–7, –8) (4) (7, –8)

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119 In the given figure PQ || RS and QS || TU. If 122 If ‘TIMES’ is written ‘BIDEJ’, then how
∠PQS = ∠SQR = a, ∠PSQ = ∠QSR = b, ∠SRT would ‘HERCULES’ be written in that code?
= c and ∠QRU = d. Then which of the (1) PEICULET (2) PEICCRS
following is correct? (3) HEICCCEJ (4) HEICCULRS
123 If in a certain code language ‘KOMAL’ is
written as ‘31462’, ‘POT’ is written as ‘267’,
then how will ‘TIGER’ be written in that
language?
(1) 95927 (2) 95279
(3) 95729 (4) 95792
124 Count the number of triangles in the following
figure.

(1) a ≠ c and b = d
(2) a = d and b ≠ c
(3) a = b = c = d
(4) None of the above
120 If p(x) = 4x3 – 3x2 + 2x + 1, q(x) = x3 – x2 + (1) 42 (2) 46 (3) 48 (4) 50
x + 1, r(x) = x2 – 2x + 1, then the value of 125 Count the number of square in the given
figure.
3p(x) – 2q(x) + r(x) is:
(1) 10x3 – 6x2 + 2x – 2
(2) –10x3 + 6x2 – 2x – 2
(3) –10x3 + 6x2 + 2x + 2
(4) 10x3 – 6x2 + 2x + 2
(1) 91 (2) 100 (3) 36 (4) 150
MENTAL ABILITY MARKS : 160
126 Read the following information and answer
121 Read the information carefully to answer the the question based on it.
question given below it : (I) The length, breadth and height of a
(i) ‘X % Y’ means that Y is brother of X. rectangular piece of wood are 4 cm, 3 cm, and
(ii) ‘X × Y’ means that X is mother of Y. 5 cm respectively.
(iii) ‘X ÷ Y’ means that X is the sister of Y. (II) Opposite sides of 5 cm × 4 cm piece are
coloured in red colour.
(iv) ‘X = Y’ means that Y is father of X.
(III) Opposite sides of 4 cm × 3 cm are
Which of the following means “I is the coloured in blue.
nephew of Q" ? (IV) Rest 5 cm × 3 cm are coloured in green in
(i) Q % J = I (ii) Q ÷ M × B % I (iii) C ÷ I both sides.
=B%Q (V) Now the piece is cut in such way that a
(1) Only (iii) cube of 1 cm × 1 cm × 1 cm will be made.
How many cubes will have painted atleast two
(2) Only (i) faces coloured ?
(3) Only (ii) (1) 22 (2) 24
(4) None of these (3) 30 (4) None of these

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 OVERSEAS_PRE-NURTURE_CLASS IX 12-11-2022
127 Raju walked 20 meters towards East. Then he 131 The following question consists of five figures
turned to his left and walked 20 meters. He marked A, B, C, D and E called the Problem
turned 45° clockwise direction and walked Figures followed by five other figures marked
–
2√2 meters. Now he turned 135° clockwise 1, 2, 3 and 4 called the answer figures. Select a
direction and walked 42 meters. Finally turned figure from the answer figures which will
right and walked 7 meters. How far is from the continue the same series as established by the
starting point? five problem figures.
Problem figures
(1) 20m
(2) 25m
(3) 30m
(4) 40m Answer figures
128 The following figure is embedded in one of
the four answer figures which figure contains
the problem figure? (1) (2)

(3) (4)

132 Which of the following symbols should

(1) A (2) B replace the question mark in the given
(3) C (4) D expression to make the expressions "A ≤ B" as
well as "C > D" definitely true?
129 The following figure is embedded in one of B≥C?A>E>D
the four answer figures which figure contains
the problem figure? (1) > (2) < (3) ≤ (4) =
133 In the following question, choose the correct
mirror image of figure (X) from the answer
figures (1), (2), (3) and (4), when mirror is
placed along AB.

(1) A (2) B
(1) (2)
(3) C (4) D
130 In the given question, which number when
placed at the sign of interrogation shall (3) (4)
complete the given pattern.
9 11 7 24
134 Find the next term in the given series?
17 6 4 24 71, 79, 95, 109, 119, 130, 134, ?
12 12 9 ? (1) 576 (2) 164
(1) 23 (2) 24 (3) 27 (4) 30 (3) 142 (4) 152

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 TALLENTEX : 2023 12-11-2022
135 In a row of boys facing North. Ram is 20th to 141 Lenin is the grandfather of Orion, who is the
the left of Ravi, who is 31st from the right nephew of George. Unity is the son of Merry,
end. If Raju, who is 18th from the left end, is who is married to Lenin. Victory is the sister-
in-law of George. How George is related to
6th to the right of Ram, how many persons are Merry?
there in the row?
(1) Daughter
(1) 72 (2) 63 (3) 60 (4) 62
(2) Mother
136 In a row Ravi is 8th from the right, Mohan's
place is 7th from the left side and only Anil is (3) Son
sitting in between the two. Find the minimum (4) Either Son or Daughter
number of boys sitting in the row.
142 A total of 78 girls were standing in a vertical
(1) 12 (2) 14 (3) 15 (4) 16 line. Chinki was standing at the 25th position
from the bottom. Minki was standing at the
137 Find the next term in the given series. 20th position from top. How many soldiers
KING, LKOI, MMPK, NOQM, ____ were standing between chinki and minki ?
(1) OQRO (2) QORO (1) 31 (2) 32 (3) 33 (4) 34
(3) ORQO (4) ORRO 143 Find out the alternative figure which contains
figure (?) as its part.
138 Find the next term in the given series.
15, 19, 83, 119, 631, ?
(1) 731 (2) 693 (3) 712 (4) 683
139 The following question is based on the
diagram given below :
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

(1) Rectangle represents males 144 Four positions of dice are given below. Which
(2) Triangle represents educated letter is opposite to D.
(3) Circle represents urban
(4) Square represents civil servants
Who among the following is uneducated and
also an urban male only?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) A
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 11 (4) 12
140 Choose the alternatives which closely
145 Total number of triangles in the given figure
are _____.
resembles the water image of the given
combination

(1)

(2) (1) 23 (2) 27 (3) 25 (4) 21

(3)
146 Find the next term of the given number series
0, 4, 18, 48, 100, 180, ?
(4) (1) 200 (2) 174 (3) 294 (4) 343

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 OVERSEAS_PRE-NURTURE_CLASS IX 12-11-2022
147 Choose the alternative which is closely Paragraph for Questions 152 - 153
resembles the water-image of the given
Find the missing term:
combination.
152 9, 73, 241, 561, ?

(1) (1) 988 (2) 1234 (3) 1081 (4) 1105

(2)
153 1015, 508, 255, 129, 66.5, ?, 20.875
(1) 34.50 (2) 35 (3) 35.30 (4) 35.75
(3)
154 A dice is numbered from 1 to 6 in different
(4) ways. If 4 is adjacent to 5, 6 and 3, then which
148 In the question below, you are given a figure of the following statements is necessarily true?
(X) followed by four figures (1), (2), (3) and (1) 2 is adjacent to 4 (2) 2 is adjacent to 5
(4) such that (X) is embedded in one of them. (3) 1 is adjacent to 4 (4) 1 is adjacent to 2
Trace out the correct alternative.
155 In a certain code, TRICK is written as *%÷#×
and CAPE is written as #$+%. How is PART
written in that code?
(1) $ %×# (2) $%÷# (3) +$%* (4) ÷+×%
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 156 Which number should replace the question
mark ?
149 Select a figure from amongst the Answer
Figures which will continue the same series as
established by the five Problem Figures.
Problem figure (1) 6 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 8
157 Rachel and Rose are of the same height. Marry
is taller than Sara but not shorter than Rachel.
Mary is shorter than Pam. Who is the tallest?
(1) Rachel (2) Rose
(1) (2) (3) Marry (4) Pam
158 The next two terms of the given letter series
(3) (4) are
A, A, B, D, C, I, D, P, __, __
150 A school has 63 students studying Physics, (1) F, Z (2) E, Y
Chemistry, and Biology out of which 33 (3) F, P (4) G, X
students study Physics, 25 students study
Chemistry and 26 students study Biology. 10 159 In a class of 20 girls and 30 boys, Rida's rank
study Physics and Chemistry, 9 study Biology is 8th among girls and 24th in the class. How
and Chemistry while 8 study Physics and many boys are there before Rida?
Biology. 3 students study all the three subjects. (1) 16 (2) 17 (3) 18 (4) 19
How many students study none of these three 160 Find the missing number in the given figure.
subjects?
4 5 6
(1) 7 (2) 6 (3) 5 (4) 3 3 9 15
151 A cube is made of 216 smaller pieces. Three 5 ? 27
of its faces are coloured. How many maximum
cubes are there having two faces painted? 0 17 44

(1) 15 (2) 12 (3) 20 (4) 10 (1) 13 (2) 12 (3) 15 (4) 17

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 (OVERSEAS_PRE-NURTURE_CLASS IX) 12-11-2022
TARGET: TALLENTEX : 2023
TEST PATTERN :OBJECTIVE ANSWER KEY TEST TYPE :MINOR

ANSWER KEY
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 1 2 1 2 4 4 4 4 1 3 2 4 2 1 3 3 1 1 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 2 4 2 3 4 2 4 4 4 3 4 2 2 3 3 4 3 4 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 1 4 4 3 1 2 3 2 2 3 3 4 4 2 1 4 2 1 2 2
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A. 4 4 3 4 2 3 3 4 4 3 3 1 3 3 3 1 1 3 4 2
Q. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 3 4 2 3 4 1 4 1 4 2 4 2 3 2 4 1 2 4 2 4
Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 1 1 3 1 4 2 4 3 3 4 4 2 1 3 4 3 2 3 3 4
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
A. 3 3 4 3 1 4 2 4 4 4 2 4 3 3 4 1 1 1 4 3
Q. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
A. 3 3 4 4 2 3 3 3 3 4 1 3 4 4 3 1 4 2 1 2

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