06/07/2022

CODE-A

Aakash
OeYJUS
Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8. Pusa Road New Delhi-110005. Ph
011-47623456

INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2022

MM: 720
Test 20 Time 3 Hrs. 20 Mins.

(Complete Syllabus of Class-XI & XII

Instructions:
There are two sections in each subject. ie Section-A & Section-8 You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15
(i) Each question carries 4 marks For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks
(ii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle
(iv) Mark should be dark and completel fill the circle
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only
(vi) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fuid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet

PHYSICS
Chooso the corroct answor:
SECTION-A A uniform rod of mass M and length L is hanging
1 If the net external force acting on a system vertically about a hinge passing through it's one
zero, the position of centre of mass of sy stem end The time period of rod for small oscillations
will be
(1) Will not change
(2) ill change only along a single axis
(3) Will change along all the axes )2
(4) May or may not change
Radius of gyration for a uniform solid sphere 3L
2) 2 29
about it's diametrical axis is (R = Radius of

sphere.)
(1) R
R
)2 392
2 (4) 2R (4) 269g
(33
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cST-20 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
4. A conducting rod of length I is moving with
velocity v in an uniform and transverse magnetic (2)
field B as shown in the figure. Potential difference
between centre of rod and its lower end (Vo - Va) (3) (4)
is
x
8. Consider a hot body initially at temperature T
placed in an environment at lower temperature
X
To. Choose the correct conclusions in
accordance with the given situation.
(1) The rate of emission of body is more than
rate of absorption initially
(1) +Bv (2) Zero (2) The rate of emission of body is less than rate
of absorption initially
(4) Bv2
(3) B / v
(3)+ (3) The rate of emission of body will be equal to
rate of absorption when equilibrium is
5 The focal length of a convex lens when immersed attained
in liquid having same refractive index as that of (4) Both (1) and (3)
lens will be 9 The wave function (in S.I units) for an
(1) Zero electromagnetic wave is given as
(x, ) = 10sin(3 x 10x - 9x 1014). The angular
(2) Infinity
frequency of the wave is
(3) Equal to its focal length outside liquid
(1) 9 x 1014 rad/s (2) 3 x 106 rad/s
(4) Half of its focal length outside liquid (4) 9x 107 rad/s
(3) 3x 107 rad/s
6 For a person, eye lens can form the image on 10. The phenomenon of interference is based upon
retina only if the object is placed beyond,15 cm.
1)
Conservation of charge
for the object placed at 14 cm the image formed
(2) Conservation of energy
will be
(3) Equipatition of energy
(1) Real image in front of retina (4) Conservation of mass
Virtual image in front of retina graph represents uniform
(2) 11 Which of the following
(3) On retina straight line motion?

(4) Behind retina

S S

conductor as shown
7. The thermal conductivity of (1) (2)
thermal resistance
in figure is K. The ratio of
between c and d and a and b is
points
S

(3) (4) Both (2) and (3)

d
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Intensive Program for NEET-2022
12. A bodyfloats in water with 20% of its volume
CST-20 (Code-A)
17. To determine Young's modulus of
outside water. When the same body floats in an
a wire, the
oil, 60% of its volume remains outside oil. The relation Y Stress FIA is used. The
Strain
relative density of the oil is
multiplicative conversion factor to change value
1 of Young's modulus from SI to CGS
(1)2 system is:
2)3 (1) 1 (2) 10
(3) 0.1 (4) 100
(4) 3
18. A refrigerator operating on reverse carnot cycle
13. n identical drops of mercury having same electric takes heat from water at 0°C and transfer it to a
potential V coalesce to form a single bigger room at 30°C. If 100 kg of water is converted in
drop. The electric potential of new drop will be ice at 0°C then calculate the work input.
(Latent
heat of ice is 3.4 x 105 J/kg).
(2) nV
(1) 3.36 x 10 J (2) 4.36 x 10s J

(3) n2 (4) n23V (3) 3.16 x 105 J (4) 3.73 x 10 J

14. Electrical conductivity increases in the order of 19. Four molecules of a gas have speed u, 4u, 10u
and 15u. The ratio of their rms speed to average
(1) Al, Ag. Cu (2) Al, Cu, Ag
speed of molecules will be
(3) Cu, Al, Ag 4) Ag, Cu, Al
15. The reading of ideal ammeter 66
(1) 56 (2) 342
connected in the V225
following circuit is
62
www- (4) 1

4 20.Magnetic dipole moment of a bar magnet is

2.4 A m2 If.dimensions of bar magnet are 12 cm,
3 2 2 çm and 1 cm than what is its
ww.- intensity of
magnetisation?
ww
1 105 Am-1
2 2 (2) 4 x 104 A m-1
(1) 0.5 A (2) 0.4 A
(3) 2* 105 Am-1
(3) 0.3 A (4) 0.1 A (4) 2 x 104 A m1
16. When a bird of weight W sits on a stretched wire,
21. Vectors A and B have equal magnitudes of
the tension Tin the wire is always.
5 unit. If the sum of A and B is the vector

(1) (2) = W 6junit, the angle between and B can be

(1) 53 (2) 74
(3)<W 4) 2 (3) 37 (4) 106
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 20 TOgtdin
A satellite is orbiting round the earth. While in 27. A rectangular coil of dimensions 5.40 cm x 8.50 cm
22
orbit a small part separates from the satellite. consists of 25 turns of wire and carries a current
The separated part. of 15.0 mA. A magnetic field of 0.35 T is applied
parallel to the plane of the loop. The magnitude
(1) Falls directly to the earth of its magnetic dipole moment is
(2) Moves in a spiral path and reaches the earth (1) 1.72 x 10-3 A m2 (2) 6.8x 10-2 A m2
after few revolutions about the earth (4) 9.8 x 10-2 A m2
(3) 4.3 x 102 A m2

(3) Continues to move in the same orbit 28. In the given figure if i = 3sinwt and h = 4 cosot,

(4) Moves gradually farther from the earth then is is

23 The speed of sound in water, which has a bulk

modulus of 2.1 x 10° N/m2 and a density of
1.00x 103 kg/m> is nearly
(1) 250 m/s (2) 750 m/s

(3) 1450 m/s (4) 2800 m/s

(1) 5sin(ot+ 53°) (2) 5sin(t+37)
24. Two waves travelling in opposite directions
(3) 5sin(ot+ 45°) (4) 5cos(ot+ 53)
produce a standing wave. The individual wave
new system of
functions are 29 One calorie is equal to 4.2 J. In a
is y m
units the unit of mass is x kg. Unit of length
y1 =
(4.0 cm) sin(3.0x-2.0) and unit of time is z s. Then in
terms of new units
and y = (4.0 cm) sin(3.0x +2.0 one calorie is equal to

where x and y are measured

in centimetres. The (1) 4.2x-222 (2) 4.2xy2z2

amplitude of the simple

harmonic motion of the (3) 4.2xy (4) 4.2xPz
of the medium located at
x 2.3 cm is no dimensions is
particle 30. Quantity having units but
nearly (use sin(6.9 rad)
= 0.6) (2) Solid angle
(1) Intensity of sound
(2) 4.8 cm (4) Relative density
(1) 1.2 cm (3) Strain
(4) 16.2 cm emitter mode as
A transistor is used in
(3) 8 cm common
31.
of the electron of a namplifier. Then
25. The magnitude of energy
orbit of radius n is forward biased.
orbiting in a stationary
hydrogen (a) The base emitter junction
reverse biased.
is proportional to
(b) The base emitter junction is
(2) 1/m Base-collector junction is reverse biased.
(1) (c)
(4) 1/ connected in series with
(3) P (d) The input signal is collector
with fast bias the base
aluminium is bombarded
voltage applied to
Consider when of
26. sodium with
emission junction.
neutrons, it changes into
and (c) are correct
to the equation (1) (a)
particle according correct
Na+x, what is
the name
of x? (2) (b) and (c) are

Al+n (3) (a) and (b) are correct

(2) Proton
(1) Electron are correct
(4) (b) and (d)
(4) Alpha-particle
(3) Neutron
Work
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 Jucton. FiNd Lana mass m IS
the kinetic energy of the hole \ying
when it crosses the
junction if the hole approached the junction from on a smooth table and
th part of its length is
the p-side
hanging vertically down over the edge of the
(1) 100 meV (2) 200 meV table. If g is acceleration due to
gravity then
(3) 150 meV (4) 50 meV minimum work required to pull the
hanging part
of the chain on the table is
33 Consider the following two statements.
A. Total electric flux (1) mgL
through any closed surface
is always zero. 5
B. Electric field due to
uniform.
an electric dipole is (2) 8 mgL
5
Which of the following option is correct? (3) SmgL
(1) Statement A is correct while statement B
is 25
incorrect
(4) 2mgL
(2) Statement B is correct while statement A is 25
incorrect
37. Two narrow bores of radius 3.0 mm and 6.0 mm
(3) Both statement A and B are correct are
joined together to form a U-shaped tube open
(4) Both statement A and B are incorrect at both ends. If the U-tube contains water, what
34. A point charge of is the difference in its levels in the two limbs of
+4C is placed near a positively
charged metallic shell. Which of the following thetube, Surface tension of water is 7.3 * 10-2
statement is true? N/m. (Take the angle of contact to be zero and
(1) Both objects will repel each other density of water to be 103 kg/m3;g= 9.8 m/s)
(2) Both objects will attract each other 1) 6.52 mm
(3) Both objects may attract each other (2) 5.81 mm
(4) Both objects neither attract nor repel each 3 2.48 mm
other (4) 1.12 mm
35. A small ball is released from a height of 20 m 38. Two conducting spheres A and B of radii 4 cm
from ground. It strikes ground and bounce back. and 2 carry charges of 18* 10- C and
cm
If coefficient of restitution for ball and ground is
9x 10-8 C respectively. When they are put in
1/2 then height attained by the ball after 3d
contact, the charge will
collision will be
(1) Not flow at all

()3m (2)m (2) Flow from A to B

(3) Flow from B to A
5
(3)m16 (4)m (4) Disappear from both spheres

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CST-20 (Code-A)
39. The current drawn from the battery shown in the 44. A block slides down a ramp of inclination 45 with
figure is constant velocity as shown in figure. The
R magnitude of its angular momentum about
ww.-
point O
R

w-
R

45
() (2 3R (1) Increases continously

4) V
(2) First increases then decreases
()2R 4R
(3) First decreases then increases
40. Monochromatic light of wavelength 3000 À is
incident on a surface of area 4 cm?. If intensity of (4) Remains constant
light is 150 mW/m? Find the rate at which 45. A concave mirror of radius of curvature R is
photons strike the target.
placed at h height above surface of liquid as
(1) 9x 1011 s-1 (2) 8x 1013 s-1
shown. If image of object O coincides with it, then
(3) 9x 1010 s-1 (4) 9x 1013s-1
depthx of object under liquid surface is
41. If A = B C= 1 and X = ABC +BCACAB,
(refractive index of liquid is )
then X=
neea*a**
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 100 (4) 110

42. The minimum and maximum temperature of

day are (18 0.2)°C and (34 0.4)°c. The rise of
temperature of the day will be

(1) (12 0.2)°C (2) (16 +0.2)C

(3) (160.6)°C (4) (12+0.6)
43. An unpolarised light has amplitude A which falls
on a polariser and angle between analyser and (1) (R-h)
polariser is 30. Light transmitted by analyser has
amplitude (2) 2(R-h)
(3)-h

(3) (4) A (4) R-h

2/2 2
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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-20 (Code-A)
A metal sphere is hung by a string fixed to a wall. (1) Zero (2) 0.6 calories
46
The forces acting on the sphere are shown in (3) 1.2 calories (4) 6 calories
figure. Which of the following statements is
48. The electric current in a circuit is given by i =i
corect?

(TTension in string, R Normal reaction for some time. What is the rms current for the
from wall, W> Weight of sphere) period t= 0, to t= t.

(2)
3
() 4)

Rw 49. Two different planets have same density but

different radii. The acceleration due to gravity(9)
on the surface of the planets depend on its radius
(R) as:

a. R+T+W=ô b. T=R+ W (1) gR (2) g oc R2

C. T R+ W d. R= W tane
(1) a, b, c (2) b, c, d (3) 9R (4) goc R

(3) a, b, d (4) a, b, c, d 50. A singly charged ion completes five revolutions in

47. 300 calories of heat is supplied to aise the a uniform magneti field of magnitude 5.00 x 10-2
temperature of 50 g of air from 20°C to 30°C Tin 1.50 ms. The mass of the ion in kilograms is
(1)3.8x10-25 kg (2) 8.48 x 10-1 kg
without any change in its volume Changein
internal energy for one gram of air is SS (3) 11.2 x 10-19 kg (4) 17.38 x 10-17 kg

CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A (2) HI<HBr< HCI< HF (pKa)
51. The alcohol which gives blue colourain Victor (3) l2 < Br2 F2 < Ck (Bond dissociation
Meyer test is enthalpy)
(1) CH:CH20H (2) CH-CH-OH (4) Fa< Ch < Bra « le (Density)
CHa 53. Strongest oxidising agent among the following is
(1) CIO
(3) CH,-- OH CH,OH
CH (2) CIO
52. Which of the following property is not in
(3) CIo
accordance with the property stated against it?

(1) HCI<HBr <HF <HI (Melting point) (4) CIO

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CST-20 (Code-A) 59. I n magnesiui(2 =
0 are
biphenyl is optically number n
=
2 and m
Which of the following having quantum
54.
active? equal to

CH NO2 (1) 6
(2) 8

(4) 4
(3) 5
(1) mixed in the
60. Two volatile liquids A and B are

CHs NO, molar ratio of 1:2. If vapour

pressure of pure

CH 300 mm Hg and 600

mm Hg
Br liquids A and B is Hg)
then the vapour pressure (in
mm
respectively
(2) of the solution will be

Br CH (1) 500
(2) 400

NO (3) 200
(4) 350
Br
states
61. The correct statements regarding gaseous
(3) of matter are
CI direction.
SoH I. Gases exert pressure equally in all
Gases have lower density than that
of solids
II.
(4) and liquids.
amines
Gases have lower kinetic energy than that of
55 Total number of primary and secondary IlI.
possible with molecular formulaCaHeNH2 solids and liquids at room temperature.
respectively are
(1) and ll only (2) l and lll only
(2) 4 and3
(1) 4 and2 (3) 1and lll only (4) I, Il and IlI
(3) 3 and3 (4) 5 and 3
62 The total number of semi-metals among the
56. Semi-synthetic polymer among the following is following is
(1) Cellulose (2) Cellulose nitrate
Al, Ge, Ga, As, Sn, Se
(3) Proteins (4) Buna-S
(1) 5 (2) 4
57. Which of the following is/are antiseptic?
(3) 3 (4) 2
2-3% solution of iodine in alcohol-water
63 Which of the following compound is used in the
mixture. for
preparation of bleaching powder and
I1. Boric acid in dilute aqueous solution.
purification of sugar?
I1. .2% solution of phenol. (1) CaCOs (2) Ca(OH2
(1) I only (2) I and ll only
(3) CasO4 (4) Ca:SioOs
(3) I, Il and II (4) 1I and Il only
64. When Borax is heated in Bunsen burner flamne
A real gas is most likely to obey ideal gas laws at
58 with a metal oxide on a loop of platinum wire, a
(1) High temperature and high pressure blue coloured bead is formed due to the
(2) High temperature and low pressure formation of

(3) Low temperature and high pressure (1) Co(BO2)2 (2) NaBO2
(4) Low temperature and low pressure (3) Ni(B0:)2 (4) Fe(BO:)2
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CST-20 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
54. Which of the following biphenyl is optically 59. In magnesium (Z = 12), the no. of electrons
active? having quantum number n 2 and m = 0 are

CH, NO equal to
(1) 6 (2))8
(1)
(3) 5 (4) 4
C NO 60. Two volatile liquids A and B are mixed in the
Br molar ratio of 1:2. If vapour pressure of pure
liquids A and B is 300 mm Hg and 600 mm Hg
respectively then the vapour pressure (in mm Hg)
of the solution will be
3
CH (1) 500 (2) 400
Br NO,
(3) 200 (4) 350

(3) 61. The correct statements regarding gaseous states

of matter are
SOH
I.Gases exert pressure equally in all direction.
Il. Gases have lower density than that of solids
and liquids.
55. Total number of primary and secondary amines I1. Gases have lower kinetic energy than that of
possible with molecular formula CaHsNH2 solids and liquids at room temperature.
respectively are
(1) Iand II only (2) 11 and ll onily
(1) 4 and 2 (2) 4 and 3
(3) I and l only (4) I, Il and lIl
(3) 3 and3 (4) 5 and 3
62. The total number of semi-metals among the
56. Semi-synthetic polymer among the following is
following is
(1) Cellulose (2) Cellulose nitrate
Al, Ge, Ga, As, Sn, Se
(3) Proteins (4) Buna-S
(1) 5 (2) 4
57. Which of the following is/are antiseptic?
(3)3 (4) 2
. 2-3% solution of iodine in alcohol-water
63 Which of the following compound is used in the
mixture.
preparation of bleaching powder and for
II. Boric acid in dilute aqueous solution purification of sugar?
II. 0.2% solution of phenol. (1) CaCOs (2) Ca(OH)2
(1) Ionly (2) I and ll only
(3) CasOs (4) CasSiOs
(3) I, Il and Ill (4) 1l and Ill only
64. When Borax is heated in Bunsen burner fame
likely to obey ideal gas
A real gas is most laws at with a metal oxide on a loop of platinum wire, a
58.
blue coloured bead is formed due to the
(1) High temperature and high pressure
formation of
(2) High temperature and low pressure
(3) Low temperature and high pressure
(1) Co(BO (2) NaBO2

Low temperature and low pressure

(3) Ni(BO2)2 (4) Fe(BO2)
(4)
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Intensive Programfor NEET-2022 cST-20 (Code-A)
65. The highly polluted water has BOD value more 70. Copper crystallises into a fcc lattice with edge
than length 3.6 x 10- cm. The density of the crystal is
(atomic mass of Cu = 63.5 and Na = 6 x 1023)
(1) 5 ppm (2) 0.5 ppm

(3) 10 ppm (4) 17 ppm (1) 9.07 g/cm (2) 8.15 g/cm3

66. Statement-l: Hydrogenation of vegetable oils (3) 9.72 g/cm3 (4) 10.12 g/cm
using nickel as catalyst gives Vanaspati ghee. 71. An example of cubic crystal system among the

Statement-|l: Hydroformylation of ethene gives following is

propanal. (1) Graphite (2) Calcite
In the light of above statements, choose the (3) Zinc blende (4) Rhombic sulphur
correct option among the following. 72. Maximum number of atoms are present in which
(1) Both statement-I and statement-ll are true of the following options?
(2) Both statement-l and statement-ll are false (1) 2g of Hao)
(3) Statement-l is true but statement-ll is false (2) 2 mol of He(g)
(4) Statement-l is false but statement-1l is true (3) 22.4 L of SOs (g) at STP

67. Which among the following reaction generally not (4) 0.5 g-molecules of HeO(g)
take place at 500-800 K in blast furnace during9 73. For isothermal irreversible change
the metallurgy of Iron ore?
(1) 3Fe20s + CO 2FesO4 + CO (1) W-nRT
(2) Fes04 +4C0 3 F e + 4CO2

3) Fe20s + CO>2FeO + CO2 (2) W nC(T-T)

(3) W=- Pext. (V-V)
(4) FeO+ CO > Fe +CO2
(4) W nCT-T)
68. What is the change in oxidation number of Hg in
the following reaction? 74 Considerthe following compounds
2HgCla(aq ) + SnCh(aq.)-> Hg2Cla(s) +SnClulag)
ON NO2 NO
(1) +2 to 0 (2) +2 to +1
(4) +4 to +2
(3) +1 to +2
NO O,N No, NO2
69. For the cell reaction Zn(s) Fe(aq.)
) (i) (ii)
Zn2(aq) Fe(s), Eell will be (Given:
The correct order of reactivity towards
ET2
Zn/Zn
0.76 V and E2 =0.44 V) nucleophilic substitution reaction is

(1) 1.2V
(1) ()> ()> (i)
(2) (ii)> (i) > ()
(2) 0.32 V
(3) () ( i ) > (i)
(3) -0.32 VV
(4) ()> (i) > (ii)
(4) 1.2 V

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CST-20 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
75. Which among the following compounds on 79 Consider the following compounds
reaction with copper at 573 K gives ketone as
major product? OH

(2)
OH () (ii)
(ii)
OH
(3)
OH
76. Statement-!: A 40% solution of
formaldehyde is
known as formalin. (iv) (
Statement-ll: Ethanoic acid is used as solvent The number of compounds which will show keto-
and enol tautomerism is
as vinegar in food industry.
In (1) 4 (2) 3
light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer (3)2 (4) 5
(1) Both statement-i and statement-ll are correct 80. Statement-l: Rate of reaction of alkanes with
(2) Both statement-1 and statement-ll are halogens in presence of light is
incorrect l>BrClaFa
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-1l is Statement-l: lodination of alkane is carried out
incorrect in presence of oxidising agents like HIO3 or
(4) Statemer is incorrect but statement-ll is HNO
correct In light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer
77. Corect order of ligand field strength based on (1) Statement-I is correct but statement-ll is
spectrochemical series is

(1) F>S>ÖH>H,O incorrect

2Statement-! is incorrect but statement-ll is
(2) OH H20> F-> S2 correct

(3) HO>ÖH>F">$2 (3) Both statement-I and statement-ll are correct

(4) Both statement-I and statement-l are
(4) SH,0>ÕH>F incorrect
78. The pair of amino acids which contain sulphur 81. If Kp of the reaction 2S02 + O2 2S03 is 4 x
atomi is

(1) Lysine and Arginine 1024 then K, for the reaction

$O,SO,+;02
(2) Valine and Leucine at same temperature will be

(3) Cysteine and Methionine (1) 2 x 1024 (2) 2 x 1012

(4) Tyrosine and Serine (3) 5x 10-13 (4) 4 x 1024

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 cST-20 (Code-A)
82. Maximum covalent character among the 87. Match the reaction given in column I with their
following is in names given in column II

(1) NaC Column Column lI

(2) MgClh
(3) AIC ) Carbylamine
R-C-NH,BrNa
a.
reaction
(4) KCI
CHCIyKOH i) Gatterman
83. A ternary electrolyte AB2 has degree of b. R NH2
dissociation = 0.2. The van't Hoff factor of the reaction
electrolyte is
KO CuBryHBr i)Hoffmann
(1) 1.2 (2) 1.4
.
Bromamide
(3) 1.6 (4) 1.8 degradation
reaction
84 Negative deviation from Raoult's law is shown by
(1) Bromoethane and chloroethane
KO-ix
Cu/HCI
(iv) Sandmeyer
(2) Ethanol and acetone reaction
(3) Chloroform and acetone (1) a), b(i), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(ii), bi), c(iv), d(i)
(4) Benzene and toluene (3) a(ii), b), c(i), dfiv) (4) a), b{i), civ), d(i)
85. Average rate is equal to instantaneous rate 88. Energy of the electron in the second orbit of Li2
for ion will be
which of the following order reaction?
(1) First order (1)-13.6eV
(2) Zero order (2-30.6 eV
(3) Third order (3) 54.4 eV
(4) Second order (4) 23.4 eV
SECTION-B 89. Which of the following hydroxide is the most
soluble in water?
86. Statement-i: Lyophilic sols are more stable than
lyophobic sols (1) Be(OH)2 (2) Mg(OH)2
Statement-ll: Lyophilic sols are extensively (3) Ca(OH)2 (4) Sr(OH)2
solvated. 90. Equivalent weight of Fe in the following reaction
In the light of the above statements, choose the
corect answer from the options given below: Fe + H20 Fe:O4 + H2

(1) Statement-l is false but statement-ll is true

(1) 56 (2)
(2) Both statement -I and statement-|l are true 8
(3) Both statement-I and statement-ll are false (3) x56 (4) 8 x56

(4) Statement-l is true but statement-ll is false 8 3

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cST-20 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
91. Aqueous solution of which of the following 96. Total number of lone pair of electrons present in
compounds is the best conductor of electric ICl, ion is
Current?

(1) Urea (2) Sulphuric acid (1) 3 (2) 5

(3) Acetic acid (4) Sucrose
(3) 6 (4) 9
92. Which of the following has shortest C-O bond
length? 97. When viewed by the reflected light, a mixture of
milk and water appears
(1) [Ni(CO)4 (2) IFe(CO)
(3) [Mn(CO) (4) [Co(co)-T (1) White (2) Transparent
93. Which among the following is a tribasic acid?
(3) Blue (4) Red
(1) Adipic acid (2) Glutaric acid
98. It takes 100 min for 75% completion of a first
(3) Malonic acid (4) Carballlic acid
order reaction. The rate constant of the reaction
94. Heterocyclic aromatic compound among the
following is is

(1) 0.0138 min-1 (2) 0.027 min

(1) (2)
(3) 0.041 min (4) 0.31 min-1
NH2 99. Conjugate base of HPO is
(3)
H (1) PO (2) H,PO
95. A hydrocarbon on reductive ozonolysis gives
compounds X and Y. X gives iodoform test but Y (3) HPO (4) HPO
does not. The structure of hydrocarbon could be
100 ArH is non zero for which of the following
(2) species?

(1), Smonocinie (2) Cgraphite

(4) (3) PAwhite (4) Oz(g)

BOTANY

SECTION-A (1) Family Muscidae

101. Select the correctly written scientific name of (2) Genus Solanum
(3) Order Polymoniales
mango.
(4) Class Primata
(1) Mangifera Indica
103. Select the correct statement about aerobic
(2) Mangifera indica respiration.
(3) mangifera indica
(1) It is incomplete oxidation of glucose
(2) Most common in higher organisms
(4) Mangifera Indica
(3) In all organisms it takes place in cytosol only
102. Select the incorrect match. (4) It is a process of generating NADPH2
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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 cST-20 (Code-A)
104. State true (T) or false (F) for the following 108. All the following characters belong to algae,
statements and select the correct option. except
A. Breeding of crops with high levels of minerals, (1) They bear chitinous and nitrogenous
polysaccharide cell wall
vitamins and proteins is called
biofortification (2) They are autotrophic
B. Ratna developed for green revolution is the
(3) They have simple, thalloid body
variety of rice.
(4) Their form and size is highly variable
A
109. Select the incorrect match
(1) T F (1) Solute potential Always negative
of a solution
(2) F
(2) Simple diffusion Uphill transport
(3) F (3) Facilitated transport - Requires special
membrane proteins
(4) T T
(4) Active transport Requires pump
105. Read the following statements and select the 110. Toxicity of which among the following is
correct option. responsible for appearance of brown spots
surrounded by chlorotic veins?
A. Fungus fixes atmospheric nitrogen for the alga
in lichens. (1) Magnesium (2) Calcium

B. Lichen is
(3) Iron (4) Manganese
symbiotic association between algae
and fungi.
111.
Which ofthe following is the best stage to study
the shape of chromosomes?
(1) Only statement A is correct
(1) Anaphase (2) Telophase
(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Prophase (4) Metaphase
(3) Both statements A and B are correct 112. inplant cells,
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect (1)Cytokinesis is achieved by furrow formation
(2) Furrow formation starts at the periphery and
106. Anthropogenic ecosystem does not have t h e n moves inward
(1) High productivity (3) Cell plate formation starts at the centre of the
(2) Little diversity cell and grows outwards

(3) Simple food chain (4) Both (1) and (2) are correct
113. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t chief
(4) Self regulatory mechanism
photosynthetic pigment.
107. Select the odd one out w.r.t mosses. (1) It is chlorophyll-a
(1) Marchantia (2) It has magnesium element

(2) Sphagnum (3) Photosystem I lacks this pigment

(4) It appears bright or blue green in
(3) Polytrichum
chromatogram during chromatographic
(4) Funaia separation of leaf pigments.

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CST-20 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
114. The rRNA 120. Read the following statements and select the
correct option.
(1) Constitutes 5% of total RNA in a cell
(2) Carries code for a polypeptide Statement A: Biogas production was developed
in India due to efforts of KVIC and lIARI.
(3) Has structural and catalytic role during
Statement B: In organic farming. pests are
translation
completely eradicated from the farm lands
(4) Carries amino acid during translation
(1) Only statement A is incorrect
115. Which of the given statements is true for the
(2) Only statement B is incorrect
terminator in a transcription unit?
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(1) It is present at 3' end of coding strand
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(2) It is present upstream towards 5' end of
structural gene of transcription unit 121. Select the plant group whose pollen grains can
lose viability within 30 minutes of their release?
(3) It provides binding site for RNA Polymerase
to start transcription (1) Members of Solanaceae

(4) It has some short conserved sequences, (2) Members of Poaceae

known as recognition sequences (3) Members of Rosaceae
116. Which of the given is not required during (4) Members of Leguminosae
activation of amino acids w.r.t the process of 122. The fusion of gametes occurs inside the body of
translation?
all given organisms, except
(1) Amino acids
(1) Pteridophytes (2) Bryophytes
(2) tRNA (4) Most of the algae
(3 Gymnosperms
(3) Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase 123 n plant cells
(4) ATP
Vacuole Jacks tonoplast
117. Which of the given contributes maximum to
(2).Organele involved in
photosynthesis also
global biodiversity of vertebrates? contains enzymes for protein synthesis
(1) Fishes (2) Mammals (3y Main arena of various types of activities is
(3) Birds (4) Reptiles nucleoplasm

118. Which component of CFC molecules reacts with (4) Outermost layer of cell envelope is made up
ozone in stratosphere of phospholipids
(2) Chlorine 124. Which of the following functions is not performed
(1) Hydrogen
(4) Carbon
by eukaryotic cell?
(3) Sulphur
to
(1) CO2 Fixation
119. Application of which
chemical helps overcome

(2) Protein synthesis

seed dormancy?
(1) Abscisic acid (2) Phenolic acids (3) Synthesis of lipids

Para-ascorbic acid (4) Nitrates (4) Atmospheric Na fixation

(3)
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IntensiveProgram for NEET-2022
125. The structure that forms the
CST-20 (Code-A)
living component in 130. Choose the correct
the dead cell wall of plants is statement(s) for the gene
which leads to white eye mutation in
Drosophila.
(1) Middle lamella (2) Bordered pit (a) It shows pleiotropic effect.
(3) Plasmodesmata (4) Primary wall (b) Causes depigmentation in many other parts
126. Select the incorrect option regarding of body.
racemose
inflorescence (c) Shows incomplete dominance.
(1) The shoot axis continues to grow (1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and ()
(2) Flowers are borne in a basipetal order (3) (a) and (c) 4) (a) only
(3) Younger flowers are present towards the 131. Which of the given is false for chromosomal
apex theory of inheritance?
(4) Such inflorescence is seen in the members of (1) Both chromosomes as well as genes Occur in
family Fabaceae pairs in somatic or diploid cells
127. Underground stem in all of the (2) A gamete carries only one chromosome of a
following plants
modifies to store food material, except in type
(1) Sweet potato (3) The paired condition of both chromosomes
(2) Ginger
as well as mendelian factors is restored
(3) Turmeric (4) Potato during gamete formation
128. Fascicular vascular cambium is found between
(4) Chromosomes retain their number, structure
(1) Cork and secondary cortex of stem and individuality throughout the life of an
(2) Pericycle and secondary phloem of dicot organism
roots 132. Female Drosophila

(3) Xylem and phloem of conjoint vascular (1) Has smaller body size than male
bundle (2) Has heteromorphic autosomes
(4) Endodermis and primary phloem (3) Has egg laying structure

129. Read the following features related to an element (4) Both (2) and (3)
of complex permanent tissue in plants. 133. Based on the sequence of A genes, Carl
Woese found that the six kingdoms naturally
Stores reserve foods like starch orfat. cluster into B
Helps in radial conduction of water.
Select the correct option for A and B.
Also stores substancesliketannins
A B
Identify the element and choose the correct
option. (1) mRNA wo domains
(1) Companion cell
(2) 16S rRNA Three domains
(2) Vessel
(3) DNA Four domains
(3) Phioem fibre -

(4) Xylem parenchyma (4) 16S rRNA | Three kingdoms

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CST-20 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
134. Organisms with soap box like body 139. Mark True (T) or False (F) for thee following
(a) Are very good indicators of water pollution. statements w.r.t. gymnosperms.
(b) Have silica impregnated cell membrane. I. The multicellular female
gametophyte is not
(c) Are called flagellated golden protists. retained within megasporangium in
(d) Lack chiorophyll a gymnosperms.
Choose the incorrect one(s) I. The ovules are not enclosed by
ovary wall,
both before and after fertilization.
(1) (a). (b) and (c) (2) (b). (c) and (d)
Select the correct option.
(3) (a) only (4) (b) and (d) only
135. Agaricus sexually reproduces through
(1) Somatogamy
(1) T
(2) Endogenously produced non motile spores
(3) Haploid mitospores (2) F
T
(4) Gametangial copulation (3) F

SECTION-B (4)F
136. Find the incorrect match.
140. The city in India where the entire public transport
(1) Terrestrial ecosystem Desert
i.e. buses were converted to run on CNG by the
(2) Aquaticecosystem- Estuaries end of 2002 is
(3) Natural ecosystem - Forests
(1) Delhi (2) Bangalore
(4) Man made ecosystem- Ocean
(3) Kolkata (4) Chennai
137. Select the incorrect one about
logistic growth 141 Conservation of biodiversity outside the natural
(1) Resources are limiting in the environment. habitat is done through/in
(2) Species cannot grow beyond carrying, (1)
Ex situ conservation (2) In situ conservation
capacity
(3) Hotspots (4) Biosphere reserve
(3) Organisms always show exponential growth
142. The principle of complementarity governs the
(4) Population growth is represented by a procèss of
sigmoid curve.
1 ) Replication (2) Transcription
138. Read the following statements and select the
correct option. (3) Translation (4) Both (1) and (2)
Statement A: Adhesion is the attraction of water 143. A flowering plant (2n) has 36 chromosomes, then
molecules to polarsurfaces what would be the number of chromosomes in
Statement B: Transpiration cools leaf surfaces its zygote and primary endosperm nucleus

by evaporative cooling. respectively?

(1) Only statement A is true (1) 36 and 36

(2) 18 and 36
(2) Only statement B is true
(3) 36 and54
(3) Both statements are false
(4) Both statements are true (4) 72 and 108

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 cST-20 (Code-A)
144. Read the following statements, state them True (3) Granum Stacks of thylakoids
(T) or False (F) and select the correct option. Single membrane bound
(4)Amyloplast
A. Abscisic acid acts as an antagonist to structure
gibberellic acid
148. Which of the following options does not
B. Both ethylene and ABA are responsible for differentiate dicot leaf and monocot leaf
promoting shedding of leaves, fruits and
correctly?
flowers.
Dicot leaf Monocot leaf
C. 2,4-D is a natural auxin.

A B C (1) Leaves are Leaves are

isobilateral dorsiventral
(1) TT| Vascular bundles
(2) Veins vary in
(2) TT thickness in are nearly similar in

reticulate size except in main

()FFT venation vein

(4)FT (3) Bulliform cells are Bulliform cells are

145. Which microbe can be used for bread making
not present present in grasses
and is also known as Brewer's yeast?
(4)Stomataare Stomata are equal
(1) Clostridium butylicum
usually more in in number on lower
(2) Lactobacillus
number on lower and upper
(3) Monascus purpureus epidermis
epidermis
(4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
149. Prions lack
146. The leaflets are attached at a common point, ie
at the tip of petiole in
(1) Genetic material

(1) Calotropis 2 )Pathogenicity

(3) Protein
(2) Alstonia

(3) Silk cotton

4) Any type of biomolecule

(4) Neem 150. Down's syndrome is due to trisomy of

147. Select the incorrect match from the following. (1) An allosome

(1) Elaioplast Stores fats and oils (2) X chromosome

(2) Stroma Space enclosed by inner (3) 11th chromosome

membrane of chloroplast (4) An autosome

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CST-20 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
Z00LOGY

SECTION-A 157. The new oral contraceptive for females contains

151. Mark the correct statement w.r.t. rib cage of an a non-steroidal preparation. This contraceptive is
adult man. (1) With maximum side effects
(1) Each rib is a thin flat bone connected dorsally
(2) High in average failure rate
to sternum and ventrally to vertebral column.
(3) Once a week pill
(2) First seven pairs of ribs are called vertebro
chondral ribs. (4) Taken on the day of ovulation only
(3) 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs do not articulate 158. Select the genetically engineered bacterium that
directly with the sternum but join the 7th pair is used to clean up oil-spills.
of ribs by hyaline cartilage.
(1) Escherichia coli
(4) Last 2 pairs of ribs are non-bicephalic and
are connected only ventrally to the vertebral (2) Pseudomonas putida
column. (3) Bacillus thuringiensis
152. Pivot joint is present in between (4) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(1) Atlas and axis vertebra
159. The middle layer of the wall of the eye ball is
(2) Humerus and ulna thickened in the anterior part to form:
(3) Carpal and metacarpal of thumb
(1) Ciliary body (2) Lens
(4) Carpal bones
(3) Retina (4) Cornea
153. Select the organism that does not release uric
acid as the prime excretory product. 160 How many of the following are not second
messengers?
(1) Parrot (2) Lizard

(3) Grasshopper (4) Duck-billed platypus (a) Ca (b) IPs

154. Which of the following set of volumes/capacities c) Cyclic AMP
cannot be measured by spirometer? Choose the correct option.
(1) TLC, IRV (2) RV, FRC 1) Zero (2) One
(3) VC, ERV (4) IRV, ERV (3) Two (4) Three
155. Complete the given analogy by selecting the
161. Agarose is a natural polymer extracted from sea
correct option.
weeds. It is the most commonly used matrix in
Babesiosis:: Mad-cow disease Prion technique X in biotechnology. This technique is
(1) Virus (2) Bacterium done for
(3) Protozoan (4) Helminth (1) Isolation of the genetic material
156. What was the approximate world population in
(2) Amplification of gene of interest
the year 2000?
(3) Insertion of rDNA into the host cell
(1) 7.2 billion (2) 6 million
(4) Separation and isolation of DNA fragments
(3) 10 billion (4) 6 billion

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022
162. In PCR
technique, Taq polymerase adds
cST-20 (Code-A)
deoxyribonucleotides to 166. When migration of a section of
population to
another place occurs, this may not result in
(1) 3-OH end of primers
(1) Change in gene frequencies of
(2) 5-P end of primers original
population
(3) 3-OH end of template DNA strand (2) Change in gene frequencies of new
(4) 5-P end of template DNA strand population
163. A research student (3) Maintenance of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
ligated gene of interest in the
coding sequence of B-galactosidase of the (4) Evolution
cloning vector pUC8. In this scenario, which of
the following is 167. Which of the
likely to occur? following is not a correct statement
w.r.t. chordates?
(1) He will not be able to
identify between the
recombinant and non-recombinant host cells (1) Viviparity is characteristic feature of all
(2) Recombinants will produce white coloured mammals.
colonies in presence of (2) Three-chambered heart is present in
substrate
a
chromogenic
amphibians and reptiles.
(3) Non-recombinants will produce blue colones (3) Paired fins and jaws are absent in
in absence of
chromogenic substrate cyclostomes.
(4) Insertional activation of the gene for the (4) In bony fishes, gills are covered by an
synthesis of B-galactosidase
operculum
164. In large population which is in Hardy-Weinberg
a 168. Which of the given classes is named on the basis
equilibrium, the percentage of the homozygous of their
creeping or crawling mode of locomotion?
recessive genotype is 36%.
frequency of heterozygotes?
What would be the (1 Amphibia (2) Aves
(1) 0.36 (2) 0.6 3) Mammalia (4) Reptilia
(3) 0.48 (4) 0.16 169 Match column-I with column-l and select the
165. Read the following statements and choose correct optton.
correct option.
the
Column- Column-
(a) According to Thomas Malthus populations
are stable in size except forseasonar Euspongia () Liver fluke
fluctuations.
Fasciola Ci) Bath sponge
(b) When we describe the story of life on earth,
we treat evolution as a consequence of a c. Ophiura (ii) Hagfish
process called natural selection.
(c) Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt
d. Myxine Civ) Brittle star
and get selected by nature a b C d

(1) (a) and (b) are incorrect, and (o) is correct (1) () () (ii) iv)
(2) (a) and (c) are correct, and (b) is incorrect (2) (i) iv) (ii)
(3) (b) and (c) are correct, and (a) is incorrect (3)(i) (iv) (i
(4) (a), (b) and (o) are correct (4) (v) () (i)
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CST-20 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
170. Assetion(A): Events in sexual reproduction (1) Only statement A is correct
after the formation of zygote are called
fertilisation events.
post (2) Only statement B is correct
Reason(R): Formation of the diploid zygote is (3) Both statements A and B are incorrect
not universal in all sexually reproducing (4) Both statements A and B are correct
organisms. 175. Choose the odd one w.r.t. jointed sense organs
In the light of above statements, choose the of cockroach.
correct answer from the options given below.
(1) Antennae (2) Anal cerci
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
corect explanation of (A) (3) Anal styles (4) Labial palps
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the 176. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. second
corect explanation of (A) heart sound?

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (1) Produced by closure of semilunar valves
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true (2) Low pitched as compared to first heart sound
171.Which of the followingis not an event in (3) Heard at the beginning of ventricular diastole
reproduction in humans? (4) It is of short duration
(1) Gametogenesis (2) Fertilisatior 177. Match column-I with column-|l and select the
(3) Implantation (4) Assimilation correct option
172. Each seminiferous tubule is lined
on itsinner side
by all of the following cells, except Column-l Column-
(1) Sertoli cells (2) Male germ cells (a) Monocytes ) Non-nucleated cell
(3) Leydig cells (4) Spermatogonia fragments
173. In humans at puberty, starts due to 6)Eosinophils (i) Bilobed nucleus
significant increase in the secretion of GnRH
Select the
option that correctly flls )Neutrophils (ii) Nucleus is bean
the blank. shaped
(1) Spermatogenesis
(2) Oogenesis
(d) Platelets (iv) Many lobed
nucleus
(3) Formation of oogonia
(4) Descend of testis (1) a(i), bi), cfiv), d(i) (2) a(i), b[ii), c(iv). d()
174. Read the given statements and select the (3) a(i), b(i), c(), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b[ii),. c), d)
correct option. 178. Choose the odd one w.r.t. the type of blood
Statement A: All smooth muscle fibres are carried by them.
involuntary but all involuntary muscle fibres are (1) Pulmonary artery
not smooth muscle fibres.
(2) Vena cava
Statement B: In nearly all animal tissues,
(3) Hepatic vein
specialised junctions provide both structural and
functional links between its individual cells. (4) Pulmonary vein

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-20 (Code-A)
179. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. vitamin and its (1) Two copies of ssRNA
deficiency disease.
(2) Two copies of ssDNA
(1) Calciferol Rickets (3) Single copy of ssRNA
(2) Retinol Xerophthalmia (4) Single copy of ssDNA
(3) Tocopherol Beri beri
184. Read the given statements carefully and select
(4) Niacin Pellagra the correct one.
180. The initial step in the digestion of proteins in
(1) In DNA, the two strands of polynucleotides
humans is carried out in by are parallel to each other.
Mark the correct option that fill the blanks (2) The backbone is formed by the sugar
respectively. phosphate, sugar chain.
(1) Mouth, Amylase (3) The nitrogen bases are projected more or
(2) Stomach, Pepsin less perpendicular to the backbone but face
(3) Small intestine, Pepsin outside.

(4) Oesophagus, Trypsin (4) T andC of one strand complementarily base

pairs with G and A in other strand,
181. Select the correct option w.r.t. lymph nodes
respectively.
(1) ls the primary lymphoid organ
(2) Constitute 50% of the lymphoid issue in our
185. Identirý the bacterial disease that shows air
borne transmission
body
(1)Tetanus
(3) Fluid that flows in it has thesame
composition as that of blood Typhoid
(4) Serves to trap the micro-organisms that 3) Diptheia
activates lymphocytes and causes immune (4 Smallpox
response SECTION-B
182. Select the correct option to complete 186. Read the given statements and choose the
analogy. correct option.
Oral Polio Vaccine Artificial active immunity Statement X: There is reduction in the size of T-
Anti-tetanus serum: wave in coronary ischemia.
(1) Natural active immunity Statement Y: A thick wall of fibrous tissue called
(2) Artificial active immunity inter-atrial septum separates the right and the let
atria.
(3) Artificial passive immunity
(1) Both statements X and Y are incorrect
(4) Natural passive immunity
183. Acquired immune deficiency syndrome is caused (2) Both statements X and Y are correct
by a retrovirus which has as its genome. (3) Only statement X is correct
Select the option that fills the blank correctly. (4) Only statement Y is correct

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CST-20 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
187. Choose the mismatch among the following. (d) Ligation of the DNA fragment into a vector

Cnidoblasts (e) Transferring the recombinant DNA into the

(1) Hydra
host
(2) Salamandra Tympanum represents Choose the option which represents the correct
ear
sequence.
(3) Pteropus Oviparous (1) c>b>a >d-e
(4) Crocodilus 4-chambered heart (2) a>b>C->d e

188. Choose the common feature among Obelia, (3) C d a > b > e
Pleurobrachia and Asterias. (4) a->e>d>b>c
(1) Water vascular system 192. Select the correct match from the following.
(2) Water canal system

(3) Diploblasty
(1) Sweet potato and -Homologous organs
potato
(4) Radial symmetry
(2) Proteins and genes-Molecular homology
189. Read the following statements w.r.t. adut
of humans and
humans and choose the correct option.
Male reproductive system is located in the
chimpanzees
(1)
thoracic region of the body. (3) Darwin'sfinches -Adaptive
(2) The testes are situated inside the abdominal convergence
cavity within a pouch called scrotum.
(4) Antibiotic -Artificial selection
(3) The male sex accessory ducts include rete resistance bacteria
testis, vasa efferentia, epididymisand
seminal vesicle. 193 All ofthe following are required for the successful
(4) The vasa efferentia leave the testis and open implementation of various action plans to attain

into epididymis located along the posterior reproductive health, except

surface of each testis. (1) Infrastructural facilities
190. The segment of circular dsDNA of the bacterium (2) Promotion of unsafe sexual practices
which causes crown gall tumor in dicot plants is
(3) Professional expertise
(1) T-DNA (2) Ti plasmid
(4) Material support
(3) Agrobacterium (4) Bacteriophage 194. Radioactivity is used in which of the given
involved in recombinant DNA
191. A few steps diagnostic procedures?
technology are given below (1) ELISA
(a) Isolation of desired DNA fragment
(2) Widal test
of DNA by restriction
(b) Fragmentation
endonucleases
(3) Autoradiography
(4) Serum analysis
(c) Isolation of DNA is pure form.

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Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-20 (Code-A)
195. The stapes is attached to the A and the 198. Mechanism of breathing varies among different
groups of animals, depending on their habitat
malleus is attached to the B
and level of organisation.
Select the option which fills the blanks A and B Which of the following organisms shows
respectively. exchange of O2 with CO2 by simple diffusion over
(1) Tympanic membrane, Oval window their entire body surface.
(2) Round window, Eustachian tube (1) Locusta (2) Planaria
(3) Tympanic membrane, Round window (3) Aplysia (4) Neophron
(4) Oval window, Tympanic membrane 199. All of the following are polymeric substances,
196. Choose the odd one among the following w.r.t. except
the number in an individual's body. (1) RuBisCO
(1) Testes (2) Ovary (2) Rubber
(3) Pancreas (4) Adrenal gland
(3) Collagen
197. Juxta-medullary nephrons in humans do not
(4) Glycerol
possess the given characteristics, except
200. Select the amino acid among the following that
(1) They constitute about 85% of total nephrons. does not contain a cyclic ring in its structure.
(2) Loop of Henle is too short and extends a litte
into the medulla.
(1) Phenylalanine
(2) Tryptophan
(3) Vasa recta is absent or highly reduced
(4) They have longer loop of Henle which helps (3) Tyrosine

BYJU'
YJUS
in concentration of urine. (4)Valine

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Intensive Prograi
SECTION-B
potential barrier of 250 meV
32. In a p-n junction, a
and mass m is lying
across the junction. A hole with a kinetic
36. A uniform chain of length L
exists
the junction. Find
energy of 300 meV approaches smooth table and th part of its length is
when it c r o s s e s the on a
the kinetic energy of the hole
if the hole approached the junction
from
down edge of the
over the
junction hanging vertically
due to gravity then
the p-side table. If g is acceleration
the hanging part
(1) 100 meV
(2) 200 meV minimum work required to pull
(4) 50 meV of the chain on the table is
(3) 150 meV

33. Consider the following two statements.

(1) mgL
closed surface 5
A. Total electric flux through any
is always zero.
(2) mgL
B. Electric field due to an electric dipole is 5
uniform.
correct? (3) 8mgt
Which of the following option is 25
B is
(1) Statement A is correct while statement
incorrect (4) 2mgL
statement A is
25
(2) Statement B is correct while
3.0 mm and 6.0 mm
incorrect 37 Two narrow bores of radius
U-shaped tube open
Both statementA and B are correct
are joined togetherto form a
(3) U-tube contains water, what
statement incorrect
A and B are
at
both ends. If the two limbs of
(4) Both is the difference in its levels in the
A point charge of +4C is placed near positively of water is 7.3 x 10-2
a
34.
Which of the following sthe tube, Surface tension
charged metallic shell. the of contact to be zero and
angle
N/m (Take
statement is true? to be 103 kg/m g= 9.8 m/s*)
each other
density ofwater
(1) Both objects will repel
will attract each other
1) 6.52 mm
(2) Both objects (2) 5.81 mm
(3) Both objects may attract each other
32.48 mm
(4) Both objects neither attract nor repel each
4) 1.12 mm
other
conducting spheres A and B of radii 4
cm
20 m
35. A small ball is released from a height of 38. Two

from ground. It strikes ground and bounce

back. and 2 cm carry charges of 18* 1 0 Cand
in
If coefficient of restitution for ball and ground
is 9x 10-3C respectively. When they are put
the ball after 3rd
1/2 then height attained by contact, the charge will
collision will be
(1) Not flow at all

(1) 10
30 ()m (2) Flow from A to BB

(3) Flow from B to A

5
(3m
16 (4)m (4) Disappear from both spheres

Space for Rough Work

(5)