Together With Cbse Class 10 Science WWW - Examsakha.in

®
Together with
CBSE QUESTION
BANK
Study Science
Material
Based on the
(Topic-Wise)
Latest CBSE Syllabus
and NCERT Textbooks
10 Scan this QR code

and get Examination
Paper
Authors
RP Manchanda SK Goel Archita Baruah Bhattacharyya
MSc, MEd MSc (Physics), BEd MSc, MEd
Former Principal MSc (Gold Medallist)
Pathfinder Global School MPhil, BEd
Edited by
Haryana
Rajender Shah
MSc, BEd, PGDBA
HOD (Science) & PGT (Physics)
GD Goenka Public School
Vasant Kunj, New Delhi
RACHNA SAGAR PVT. LTD.

E d u c at i ona l P u b l i she r s
Science
Class 10
First Edition 1999
Latest Revised Edition
PUBLISHED BY 4583 / 15, Daryaganj, New Delhi - 110 002

PO Box 7226
Phone 011 - 4358 5858, 2328 5568
Fax 011 - 2324 3519
Email info@rachnasagar.in,
rachnasagar@hotmail.com,
editorial@rachnasagar.in,
RACHNA SAGAR PVT. LTD. order@rachnasagar.in
– EDUCATIONAL PUBLISHERS – export@rachnasagar.in
where quality speaks for itself... Web www.rachnasagar.in
IE License No. 0501009426
Offices
Ahmedabad 25, Avani Bungalow and Row House Behind D Mart, Motera Ahmedabad,
Gujarat - 380 005, Phone – 0 99246 45576
BENGALURU 90 / 7 & 90 / 8, 1st Floor, 1st Cross, Vittal Nagar, Mysore Road, Bengaluru,
Karnataka – 560 026, Phone – 0 90085 57707, (080) 2674 7475, 2674 7476
BHOPAL E - 6 / 127, Ground Floor, Arera Colony, Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh – 462 016,
Phone – 0 97525 93355
CHANDIGARH Plot No. BMM-36 First Floor, Bulk Material Market, Phase 11, Sector 65, SAS Nagar,
Mohali, Punjab – 160062, Phone – 0 96466 33300
CHENNAI Old No. 18, New No. 80, Ramar Koil Street (Opp. Chennai Trade Centre),
Nandambakkam, Chennai, Tamilnadu – 600 089, Phone – 0 87545 80793
COCHIN House No. 1007/A2, Sahridaya Nagar (Road), Edappally, Cochin,
Kerala – 682 024, Phone – 0 90085 57704
DEHRADUN I - 15, Nehru Colony, Dehradun, Uttrakhand – 248 001, Phone – 0 73889 33938
GUWAHATI House no. - 03 Fatasil Ambari, Rang Pathar Bylane name - Uday Nagar path
Guwahati, Assam - 781025, Phone – 0 70860 90866
HYDERABAD 12-5-151/2, Vijayapuri Colony, South Lalaguda, Secunderabad, Hyderabad,
Telangana – 500017, Phone – 0 91009 14234
JAIPUR Shivam Appartment, Flat No. G-1, Plot No.B-1/ 564, Akshar Dham Chauraha,
Chitrakoot, Vaishali Nagar, Jaipur, Rajasthan - 302021, Phone – 0 97999 99123
KOLKATA 220, Bipin Ganguly Road Dum Dum Kolkata - 700 030, West Bengal, Phone – 0 93301 02176
LUCKNOW C - 1454, Indira Nagar, Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh – 226016,
Phone – (0522) 400 4909, 0 97948 52855
MUMBAI Flat No.- 203, 2nd Floor, Anmol Annexie, CTS No. 98/99, Dhobi Ali, Near Civil Hospital
Thane West, Mumbai (Maharashtra) – 400602, Phone – 0 81084 48884, 0 84258 69445
PATNA 4H/41, Bahadurpur Housing Colony, Bhootnath Road, Kankarbagh, Patna,
Bihar – 800 026, Phone – 0 97714 41611
RANCHI 1360 - Bali Bagicha, Old Argora Road Argora, Ranchi, Jharkhand – 834002,
Phone – 0 97714 41620
© Reserved with All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced in any form whatsoever,
the publishers without the prior written permission of the publishers.
Disclaimer The publishers and the author or seller will not be responsible for any damage or loss of action
of anyone, of any kind, in any manner, therefrom. Every effort has been made to avoid errors or omissions in
this publication. In spite of this, some errors might have crept in. Any mistake, error or discrepancy noted may
be brought to our notice which shall be taken care of in the next edition. For binding mistakes, misprints or for
missing pages, etc., the publisher’s liability is limited to replacement within one month of purchase by similar
edition. All expenses in this connection are to be borne by the purchaser.
Preface
NCF envisaged an evaluation system which would grade the students on their regular activities in the classrooms
and enable them to understand and focus on their learning gaps.
Rachna Sagar Pvt. Ltd., known for its support to its valued students and teachers for achieving the desired goal,
has come out with the comprehensive practice material.
With the above considerations “Together with ® Science - 10” has been visualised. The book has been designed
to equip both the teachers and the students with ideal guidance, exercises and material for Board Examinations.
Features of each chapter:

1. Mind Map, Important chemical reactions and Important figures are given in the beginning of each chapter.
2. All textual questions of NCERT revised textbook (Intext and Exercises) with Answers, Select NCERT
Exemplar Problems and HOTS questions (Completely Solved) have been included that would help students
reinforce their problem-solving skills.
3. The book contains Topic-wise Solved Questions including Competency Focused Practice Questions (CFPQ)
released by Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) that would help students in understanding the
concepts in a better way.
4. Ample number of Questions from CBSE Teacher Energised Resource Manuals (T.E.R.M.) have also been
included in chapters.
5. Case-based questions introduced by the CBSE from 2021-2022 session and onwards have also been added.
6. The text also includes Practice Questions at the end of each topic. This would help students test their
knowledge.
7. Self-Evaluation Tests given at the end of each chapter will challenge your preparations.
We would like to thank Ms. Manju Kapoor, Kulachi Hansraj Model School, Ashok Vihar for her contribution
in Physics part of this book.
I, Mrs. Archita B. Bhattacharyya, dedicate my part of the book to my father Lt. (Mr.) Amal Chandra Baruah
as a remembrance of what I am today.
In case any errors are found or suggestions for further improvement are made, forward them to
editorial@rachnasagar.in at the earliest so that further improvements can be taken up for the benefit of students.
Looking forward to your suggestions.
Authors
AUGMENTED REALITY (FOR ANDROID USERS)

RACHNA SAGAR PVT. LTD. DIGITAL LEARNING
Enhanced Interactive Content Beyond the Book
D OW N LOA D
APPLICATION
R ACHNA SAGAR PVT. LTD.
Download all the videos after installing the application.
Now, scan the image to see the animated video or play the downloaded video directly.
See on Page 92, 93, 107, 113, 125, 192, 201, 212, 214, 222, 290, 291, 308, 389, 390
(3)
Syllabus Marks: 80
Unit No. Unit Marks
I Chemical Substances-Nature and Behaviour 25
II World of Living 25
III Natural Phenomena 12
IV Effects of Current 13
V Natural Resources 05
Total 80
Internal assessment 20
Grand Total 100
Theme: Materials
Unit I: Chemical Substances - Nature and Behaviour
Chemical reactions: Chemical equation, Balanced chemical equation, implications of a balanced chemical equation,
types of chemical reactions: combination, decomposition, displacement, double displacement, precipitation, endothermic
exothermic reactions, oxidation and reduction.
Acids, bases and salts: Their definitions in terms of furnishing of H+ and OH– ions, General properties, examples and
uses, neutralization, concept of pH scale (Definition relating to logarithm not required), importance of pH in everyday life;
preparation and uses of Sodium Hydroxide, Bleaching powder, Baking soda, Washing soda and Plaster of Paris.
Metals and nonmetals: Properties of metals and non-metals; Reactivity series; Formation and properties of ionic compounds;
Basic metallurgical processes; Corrosion and its prevention.
Carbon compounds: Covalent bonding in carbon compounds. Versatile nature of carbon. Homologous series. Nomenclature
of carbon compounds containing functional groups (halogens, alcohol, ketones, aldehydes, alkanes and alkynes), difference
between saturated hydro carbons and unsaturated hydrocarbons. Chemical properties of carbon compounds (combustion,
oxidation, addition and substitution reaction). Ethanol and Ethanoic acid (only properties and uses), soaps and detergents.
Theme: The World of the Living
Unit II: World of Living
Life processes: ‘Living Being’. Basic concept of nutrition, respiration, transport and excretion in plants and animals.
Control and co-ordination in animals and plants: Tropic movements in plants; Introduction of plant hormones; Control

and co-ordination in animals: Nervous system; Voluntary, involuntary and reflex action; Chemical co-ordination: animal
hormones.
Reproduction: Reproduction in animals and plants (asexual and sexual) reproductive health - need and methods of family

planning. Safe sex vs HIV/AIDS. Child bearing and women’s health.
Heredity and Evolution: Heredity; Mendel’s contribution- Laws for inheritance of traits: Sex determination: brief

introduction: (topics excluded - evolution; evolution and classification and evolution should not be equated with progress).
Theme: Natural Phenomena
Unit III: Natural Phenomena
Reflection of light by curved surfaces; Images formed by spherical mirrors, centre of curvature, principal axis, principal
focus, focal length, mirror formula (Derivation not required),magnification.
Refraction; Laws of refraction, refractive index.
Refraction of light by spherical lens; Image formed by spherical lenses; Lens formula(Derivation not required); Magnification.
Power of a lens.
Functioning of a lens in human eye, defects of vision and their corrections, applications of spherical mirrors and lenses.
Refraction of light through a prism, dispersion of light, scattering of light, applications in daily life (excluding colour of
the sun at sunrise and sunset).
(5)
Theme: How Things Work
Unit IV: Effects of Currect
Electric current, potential difference and electric current. Ohm’s law; Resistance, Resistivity, Factors on which the resistance
of a conductor depends. Series combination of resistors, parallel combination of resistors and its applications in daily life.
Heating effect of electric current and its applications in daily life. Electric power, Interrelation between P, V, I and R.
Magnetic effects of current : Magnetic field, field lines, field due to a current carrying conductor, field due to current
carrying coil or solenoid; Force on current carrying conductor, Fleming’s Left Hand Rule, Direct current. Alternating
current: frequency of AC. Advantage of AC over DC. Domestic electric circuits.
Theme: Natural Resources
Unit V: Natural Resources
Our environment: Eco-system, Environmental problems, Ozone depletion, waste production and their solutions.
Biodegradable and non-biodegradable substances.
Note for the Teachers:

1. The chapter Management of Natural Resources (NCERT Chapter 16) will not be assessed in the year-end examination.
However, learners may be assigned to read this chapter and encouraged to prepare a brief write up to any concept of this
chapter in their Portfolio. This may be for Internal Assessment and credit may be given Periodic Assessment/Portfolio).
2. The NCERT text books present information in boxes across the book. These help students to get conceptual clarity.
However, the information in these boxes would not be assessed in the year-end examination.
(6)
Theory (80 marks) Question Paper Design
(Class X)
Subject: Science
Competencies Total
Demonstrate Knowledge and Understanding 46 %
Application of Knowledge/Concepts 22 %
Formulate, Analyze, Evaluate and Create 32 %
100%
Note:
• Typology of Questions: VSA including objective type questions, Assertion – Reasoning type questions; SA; LA;
Source-based/ Case-based/ Passage-based/ Integrated assessment questions.
• An internal choice of approximately 33% would be provided.
Internal Assessment (20 Marks)
• Periodic Assessment - 05 marks + 05 marks
• Subject Enrichment (Practical Work) - 05 marks
• Portfolio - 05 marks
Suggestive verbs for various competencies
• Demonstrate Knowledge and Understanding
• State, name, list, identify, define, suggest, describe, outline, summarize, etc.
• Application of Knowledge/Concepts
• Calculate, illustrate, show, adapt, explain, distinguish, etc.
• Formulate, Analyze, Evaluate and Create
• Interpret, analyze, compare, contrast, examine, evaluate, discuss, construct, etc.
(7)
How to use Science
(Topic-Wise)
this book
10
RACHNA SAGAR PVT. LTD.

E d u c at i ona l P u b l i she r s
Mind Maps/
Chapter at a Glance
A mind map is a fun way of
learning which makes complex
ideas to understand, revise
and clarify your topics.
Solved Question Bank
A pool of questions with varied
number of questions along
with answers in sequence with
the NCERT content. Practice Question Bank/Assess
Yourself (Self-Evaluation Test)
Unsolved questions for
self-practice and
self-assessment of students.
Answers can be checked
given at the back of
Case Based Questions the book.
These questions assess
students analytical skills and
problem-solving
capabilities on whole.
NCERT Zone
It contains all NCERT
(Exercise and Intext) along
with Select Exemplar Problems.
The students can take it as a
last step or initial step.
Practice Papers
These are meant for final
practice after completion of
complete syllabus.
Contents
S. No. Chapters Page No.
PART - I
[Mind Map, Topic-wise Solved & Practice Question Bank, NCERT Intext Questions, NCERT Exercises,
Select NCERT Exemplar problems]
1. Chemical Reactions and Equations .......................................................................................... 15 – 36

Self-Evaluation Test......................................................................................................................... 37
2. Acids, Bases and Salts............................................................................................................... 38 – 63
3. Metals and Non-metals.............................................................................................................. 65 – 90
4. Carbon and its Compounds........................................................................................................ 92 – 126
5. Life Processes........................................................................................................................... 128 – 159
6. Control and Coordination......................................................................................................... 161 – 182
7. How Do Organisms Reproduce? ............................................................................................ 184 – 212
8. Heredity.................................................................................................................................... 214 – 228
9. Light – Reflection and Refraction............................................................................................ 230 – 280
10. The Human Eye and the Colourful World............................................................................... 282 – 309
11. Electricity................................................................................................................................. 311 – 349
12. Magnetic Effects of Electric Current....................................................................................... 351 – 383
13. Our Environment...................................................................................................................... 385 – 402
Answers to unsolved questions
(Practice, Integrated (Mixed), Assertion and Reason, Case-Based)............................................... 405 - 477
PART - II
[CBSE Sample Paper, Practice Papers]

 CBSE Sample Paper (Solved).................................................................................................. 479 – 484
 Practice Papers 1 and 2 (Solved)............................................................................................. 485 – 502
 Practice Papers 3 to 10 (Unsolved—Answers available at gowebrachnasagar.com)........... 503 – 544
(11)
Part I
q Mind map
q Solved and Practice
v Question Bank (Topic-wise) including
 Previous Years’ & Important Questions
 Multiple Choice Questions [1 Mark]
 Very Short Answer Type Questions [2 Marks]
 Short Answer Type Questions [3 Marks]
 Long Answer Type Questions [5 Marks]
 Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOtS) Questions
 DoE & KVS Questions
q Integrated (Mixed) Questions
q Assertion and Reason Questions
q Case-Based Questions
q Ncert zone
 Intext Questions
 NCERT Exercises
 Select NCERT Exemplar Problems
1
Chemical Reactions and Equations 15
Chemical Reactions and Equations

CHAPTER
MIND MAP
Types of Chemical Reactions
Displacement reaction Double displacement reaction

Combination reaction More reactive element displaces less reactive. (Precipitation reaction)
Two elements or compounds combine to Zn(s) + 2HCl(dil) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2 Two compounds exchange their ions to
form new compound. Zn(s) + H2SO4(dil) → ZnSO4 + H2 form new compounds. An insoluble salt
2Mg(s)+O2(g)→2MgO(s) [CBSE 2023] Cu + 2AgNO3 → Cu(NO3)2 + 2Ag(aq) i.e precipitate may be produced.
CaO(s)+H2O(l)→Ca(OH)2+heat [CBSE 2023] [CBSE 2023] [CBSE 2020]
N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g) [CBSE 2023] Fe + CuSO4 → FeSO4 + Cu FeS + H2SO4 → FeSO4 + H2S
H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g) Zn + FeSO4 → ZnSO4 + Fe [CBSE 2023] BaCl 2 + Na 2SO 4 → BaSO 4 + 2NaCl
2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(l) Cl2 + 2KI → 2KCl + I2 (White ppt.)
C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) Cl2 + 2KBr → 2KCl + Br2 AgNO3 + KBr → AgBr + KNO3
Pictorial representation of reaction (Yellow ppt.)
Pictorial representation of reaction AgNO3 + KI → AgI + KNO3

2Na + Cl2 → 2NaCl (Dark yellow ppt.)
AgNO3 + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO3
(White ppt.)
H2 + CuO → Cu + H2O
NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O
[CBSE 2023] [CBSE 2023]
Zn(s) + CuSO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
Pictorial representation of reaction
Decomposition reaction Blue Colourless [CBSE 2020]
One compound breaks into two or more Equation Zn(s) + 2HCl(dil.) → ZnCl2(aq) +H2(g)
elements or compounds. can be represented as:
Pictorial representation of reaction + → + Na+ OH – H + Cl –
NaOH HCl
+
Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2
Zinc replaces the hydrogen in hydrochloric acid to form zinc
chloride and hydrogen gas in this single-displacement reaction.
OH –
Electrolysis Na + Cl – H +
2H2O2 → 2H2 + O2 NaCl + H2O
CuSO4(aq) + H2S(g) → CuS(s) + H2SO4(aq)
Endothermic reaction: These reactions Equation NaCl + AgF → NaF + AgCl can be
Blue Black
in which heat is absorbed e.g. represented as:
[CBSE 2020]
CaCO3(s) →
∆
CaO + CO2
[CBSE 2023] + → +
NaCl + AgF → NaF +AgCl Exothermic reaction: These reactions
...Continued on next page A double displacement reaction occurs when sodium chloride in which heat is evolved, eg.,
reacts with silver fluoride to form sodium fluoride and silver C + O3 → CO2 + heat
chloride (a precipitate).
16 Together with® Science—10
...Continue from previous page
Decomposition reaction
Thermal decomposition Electrical decomposition

On applying electric current. Photochemical decomposition
A single compound breaks down into two or
more elements or compounds on heating. 2H2O(l) electrolysis
→ 2H2(g) + O2(g) In the presence of sunlight.
Sunlight
CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g) 2AgCl(s) → 2Ag(s) + Cl2(g)
heat
[CBSE 2023]
Sunlight
ZnCO3(s) →
heat
ZnO(s) + CO2(g) 2AgBr(s) → 2Ag(s) + Br2(g)
Sunlight
2AgI(s) → 2Ag(s) + I2(g)
[ CBSE 2023]
Oxidation and Reduction
Oxidation reaction Reduction reaction

1. Addition of O2 or electronegative element. [CBSE 2023] 1. Addition of H2 or electropositive element.
2. Removal of H2 or electropositive element. 2. Removal of O2 or electronegative element. [CBSE 2023]
3. Loss of electrons by an atom or an ion. 3. Gain of electrons by an atom or an ion.
e.g. 4Na + O2 → 2Na2O; 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO e.g.2Na + H2 → 2NaH; HgCl2 + Hg → Hg2Cl2
CH3CH2OH + 2[O] → CH3COOH + H2O Fe 3+ –
+ e → Fe 2+
; Ni
CH2==CH2 + H2 → CH3—CH3
heat
2+ 3+ –
Fe → Fe +e
Redox reaction
Reaction in which both oxidation and reduction takes place

Zn(s) + CuSO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
2e– lost-Oxidation
Zn-reducing agent (can lose electrons)
Zn + Cu2+ → Zn2+ + Cu
2e– gain-Reduction
2+
Cu –Oxidising agent(can gain electrons)
Oxidising agent Reducing agent

1. Can add oxygen or electronegative element. 1. Can add H2 or electropositive element.
2. Can remove hydrogen or electropositive element. 2. Can remove O2 or electronegative element.
3. Can gain electrons. 3. Can lose electrons.
Examples: Non-metals, CuO, MnO2 Examples: Metals, H2, NaH, LiAlH4, NaBH4
KMnO4, K2Cr2O7, Fe3+, Cu2+
TOPICS COVERED
Chemical equations and Types of chemical reactions
(c) The ratio of the mass produced of the two

Multiple Choice substances.
Questions 1 Mark (d) The ratio of the densities of the two substances.
1. 5. Reema took 5 mL of lead nitrate solution in a
beaker and added approximately 4 mL of KI
Tong solution to it. What would she observe?
Magnesium [CBSE Sample Paper 2022]
ribbon
(a) The solution turned red.
(b) Yellow precipitate was formed.
Burner Watch glass
Magnesium
(c) White precipitate was formed.
oxide (d) The reaction mixture becomes hot.
6. A student took sodium sulphate solution in a test
Which of the following is correct observation of tube and added barium chloride solution to it. He
the reaction shown in above set up? observed that an insoluble substance has formed.
[CBSE Sample Paper 2023] The colour and molecular formula of the insoluble
(a) Brown powder of magnesium oxide is formed. substance is: [CBSE 2021]
(b) Colourless gas which turns lime water milky is (a) Grey, Ba2SO4 (b) Yellow, Ba(SO4)2
evolved. (c) White, BaSO4 (d) Pink, BaSO4
(c) Magnesium ribbon burns with brilliant white 7. C6H12O6(aq) + 6O2(aq) → 6CO2(aq) + 6H2O(l)
light.
(d) Reddish brown gas with a smell of burning The above reaction is a/an [CBSE 2021]

sulphur has evolved. (a) displacement reaction
(b) endothermic reaction
2. Which of the following is an example of simple (c) exothermic reaction
displacement? [CFPQ, CBSE]
(d) neutralisation reaction
(a) The electrolysis of water
(b) The burning of methane 8. It is important to balance the chemical equations

(c) The reaction of a metal with an acid to satisfy the law of conservation of mass. Which
(d) The reaction of two salt solutions to form a of the following statements of the law is incorrect?

precipitate [CBSE 2021]
(a) Total total mass of the elements present in the
3. Which of the following is a NECESSARY condition reactants is equal to the total mass of the elements
for ALL chemical reactions? [CFPQ, CBSE]
presents in the products.
(a) The reactants should be in the same state. (b) The number of atoms of each element remains
(b) Energy should be supplied to the reactants. the same, before and after a chemical reaction.
(c) The reactants should be at the same temperature. (c) The chemical composition of the reactants is the
(d) There should be physical contact between the same before and after the reaction.
reactants. (d) Mass can neither be created nor can it be
4. Given below is the balanced chemical equation destroyed in a chemical reaction.
for the thermal decomposition of lead nitrate. 9. Which one of the following reactions is categorised
2Pb(NO3)2 → 2PbO + 4NO2 + O2 as thermal decomposition reaction? [CBSE 2021]
Which of the following information does the (a) 2H2O(l) → 2H2(g) + O2(g)
coefficients of PbO and NO 2 in the equation (b) 2AgBr(s) → 2Ag(s) + Br2(g)
(2 and 4 respectively) tell us? [CFPQ, CBSE] (c) 2AgCl(s) → 2Ag(s) + Cl2(g)
(a) The ratio of the number of moles produced of (d) CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)
the two substances. 10. 2HNO3 + Ca(OH)2 ¾→ Ca(NO3)2 + 2H2O; is an
(b) The ratio of the number of atoms in the two example of [KVS]
substances. (i) displacement reaction
(ii) double displacement reaction 17. W
hich of the following is a thermal decomposition
(iii) neutralisation reaction reaction ?
(iv) combination reaction. (a) 2H2O → 2H2 + O2
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (b) 2AgCl → 2Ag + Cl2
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv) (c) ZnCO3 → ZnO + CO2
11. Burning magnesium ribbon is brought in the gas (d) H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g)
jar of carbon dioxide. Which of the following is 18. Calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water to
correct ? produce slaked lime.
(i) It keeps on burning CaO(s) + H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2(aq)
(ii) It gets extinguished
This reaction can be classified as:
(iii) A l t h o u g h C O 2 i s n o n - s u p p o r t e r o f
(A) Combination reaction
combustion but burning magnesium breaks
(B) Exothermic reaction
CO2 into carbon and oxygen, oxygen helps
(C) Endothermic reaction
in burning.
(D) Oxidation reaction
(iv) Carbon dioxide is supporter of combustion.
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iii) Which of the following is a correct option?
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) (iii) and (iv) [CBSE 2020]
(a) (A) and (C) (b) (C) and (D)
12. What is observed when a solution of potassium
(c) (A), (C) and (D) (d) (A) and (B)
iodide is added to silver nitrate solution? [KVS]
(a) No reaction takes place 19. In a double displacement reaction such as the
(b) White precipitate of silver iodide is formed reaction between sodium sulphate solution and
(c) Yellow precipitate of AgI is formed barium chloride solution:
(d) AgI is soluble in water. (A) exchange of atoms takes place
(B) exchange of ions takes place
13. Identify ‘x’, ‘y’ and ‘z’ in the following balanced
(C) a precipitate is produced
reaction [CBSE 2023] [KVS]
Heat (D) an insoluble salt is produced
xPb(NO3)2(s) → yPbO(s) + zNO2(g) + O2(g) The correct option is: [CBSE 2020]
(a) 2, 4, 2 (b) 2, 2, 4 (a) (B) and (D) (b) (A) and (C)
(c) 2, 4, 4 (d) 4, 2, 2 (c) only (B) (d) (B), (C) and (D)
14. Which of the following is precipitation as well as 20. The brown gas evolved on heating of copper
double displacement reaction ? nitrate is [KVS]
(a) NaOH(aq) + HNO3(aq) → NaNO3(aq) (a) O2 (b) NO2 (c) N2 (d) NO
+ H2O(l)
21. Zinc reacts with silver nitrate to form which
(b) Cu(s) + 2AgNO3(aq) → Cu(NO3)2(aq)
compounds? [KVS]
+ 2Ag(s)
Heat (a) Zn(NO3)2 + Ag (b) ZnNO3 + Ag
(c) 2Hg(s) + O2(g) → 2HgO(s) (c) AgNO3 + Zn(NO3)2 (d) Ag + Zn(NO3)3
(d) FeCl3(aq) + 3NH4OH(aq) → Fe(OH)3(s) Sunlight
+ 3NH4Cl(aq) 22. 2AgI(s) → 2Ag(s) + I2(g)
15. Which of the following reactions will not take The colour of iodine is
place? (a) green (b) purple (c) brown (d) pink
(a) Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu 23. On heating solid lead nitrate in a test tube, we
(b) 2KBr + Cl2 → KCl + Br2 observe [DoE Pre-Board 2023]
(c) Zn + MgSO4 → ZnSO4 + Mg (a) fumes of yellow colour
(d) Mg + FeSO4 → MgSO4 + Fe (b) melting of lead nitrate
16. When hydrogen sulphide gas is passed through (c) formation of black solid
a blue solution of copper sulphate, a black (d) fumes of brown colour
precipitate of copper sulphide is obtained and the Answers
sulphuric acid so formed remains in the solution.
The reaction is an example of a: [CBSE 2020] 1. (c) 2Mg(s) + O2(g) → 2MgO(s) + heat + light
(a) Combination reaction 2. (c) Metals react with acid to form salt and H2(g).
(b) Displacement reaction 3. (d) Reactants must be in contact so as to react.
(c) Decomposition reaction
4. (a) 2 moles of lead nitrate on decomposition gives
(d) Double displacement reaction
4 moles of nitrogen dioxide (NO2).
5. (b) Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2KI(aq) → PbI2(s) + 2KNO2(aq) 26. What is a balanced chemical equation?
6. (c) BaCl 2 (aq) + Na 2 SO 4 (aq) → BaSO 4 (s) [CBSE 2021 (C)]
+ 2NaCl (aq) Ans. The equation in which the number of atoms of all
7. (c) Heat is evolved. the molecules is equal on both sides of the equation
8. (c) Chemical composition of the reactants changes. (Reactants as well as products side) is called balanced
chemical equation.
9. (d); (a) is electrical, (b) and (c) are photochemical
decomposition. 27. Why is respiration considered an exothermic
reaction? [CBSE 2021 (C)]
10. (b) HNO3 is acid and Ca(OH)2 is base.
Ans. Respiration is considered an exothermic reaction
11. (b) 2Mg + CO2 → 2MgO + C because, in respiration process, oxidation of glucose
12. (c) AgNO3(aq) + KI(aq) → AgI(s) + KNO3(aq) takes place which produces a large amount of heat
(Yellow) energy, which is stored in the form of ATP.
Heat
13. (b) 2Pb (NO3)2(s) → 2PbO(s) + 4NO2 (g) + O2(g) The chemical equation shown below:
14. (d) Fe(OH)3 is reddish brown ppt. C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + energy
15. (c) Because Zn is less reactive than Mg. 28. Balance the given chemical equations:
16. (d) It is double displacement reaction. (a) Al(s) + CuCl2(aq) → AlCl3(aq) + Cu(s)
Heat
17. (c) (b) FeSO4(s) → Fe2O3(s) + SO2(g) + SO3(g)
18. (d) It is exothermic as well as combination reaction. [KVS]
19. (d) Exchange of ions takes place, an insoluble salt Ans. (a) 2Al(s) + 3CuCl2(aq) → 2AlCl3(aq) + 3Cu(s)
Heat
i.e precipitate is formed. (b) 2FeSO4(s) → Fe2O3(s) + SO2(g) + SO3(g)
D
20. (b) 2Cu(NO3)2(s) → 2CuO(s) + 4NO2(g) 29. (a) Balance the given chemical equation:
(Brown) Fe(s) + H2O(g) → Fe3O4(s) + H2(g)
+ O2(g) (b) AgNO3(aq) + NaCl(aq) → AgCl(s) ↓
21. (a) Zn(s) + 2AgNO3(aq) → Zn(NO3)2 (aq) + NaNO3(aq)
+ 2Ag (s) FeS + H2SO4 → FeSO4 + H2S ↑
22. (b) Iodine is purple in colour. Consider the above mentioned two chemical
equations with two different kinds of arrows
23. (d) Brown fumes of NO2 are formed.
( ↑ and ↓) along with product. What do these
two different arrows indicate? [KVS]
V S A Very Short Answer Ans. (a) 3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g) → Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g)
Type Questions 2 Marks (b) ↑ shows the gas evolved whereas ↓ shows
insoluble substance (precipitate) formed.
24. Trupti mixes an aqueous solution of sodium 30. Hydrogen being a highly inflammable gas and
sulphate (Na2SO4) and an aqueous solution of oxygen being a supporter of combustion, yet water
copper chloride (CuCl2). which is a compound made up of hydrogen and
Will this lead to a double displacement reaction? oxygen is used to extinguish fire. Why?
Justify your answer. [CFPQ, CBSE] Ans. It is because properties of compound (H 2O) are
Ans. There will be no reaction. different from properties of its constituting elements
Sodium sulphate and CuCl2 will ionise in aqueous i.e. H2 and O2.
solution and will remain as ions. 31. Give the chemical name of the reactants as well as
Direction: Match Column I with Column II. the products of the following chemical equation:
2HNO3 + Ca(OH)2 → Ca(NO3)2 + 2H2O
25. Column I Column II [CBSE 2021 (C)]
(i) AgNO3(aq) + NaCl(aq) (A) Neutralisation Ans. Chemical name of reactants:
→ AgCl(s) + NaNO3(aq) reaction HNO3 → Nitric acid
(ii) H2(g) + Cl2(g) → (B) Decomposition Ca(OH)2 → Calcium hydroxide
2HCl(g) reaction Chemical name of products:
(iii) 2NaOH + H2SO4 → (C) Precipitation Ca(NO3)2 → Calcium nitrate
Na2SO4 + 2H2O reaction H2O → Water
(iv) 2Cu(NO3)2 → 2CuO (D) Redox and 32. Write any two observations in an activity which
combination may suggest that a chemical reaction has taken
+ 4NO2 + O2
reaction place. Give an example in support of your answer.
Ans. (i) (C) (ii) (D) (iii) (A) (iv) (B) [KVS]
Ans. Any two of these observations will suggest chemical (b) Why copper can displace silver from silver
reaction has taken place. nitrate and silver cannot displace copper from
(i) Change in state. copper sulphate solution?
(ii) Change in colour. Ans. (a) Yellow precipitate of lead iodide is formed. It is
(iii) Evolution of gas. precipitation reaction.
(iv) Change in temperature. It is also called double displacement reaction.
e.g. lead nitrate is white crystalline solid, on heating Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2KI(aq) → PbI2(s)
gives yellowish brown solid (lead monoxide), brown + 2KNO3(aq)
gas is evolved and a colourless gas is evolved. It (b) Copper can displace silver from AgNO3 because
shows chemical reaction has taken place. copper is more reactive than Ag, e.g.
heat
2Pb(NO3)2(s) → 2PbO(s) + 4NO2(g) + O2(g) Cu + 2AgNO3(aq) → Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 2Ag (s)
(White) (Yellowish brown) (Brown) (Colourless) [CBSE 2023]
33. Write balanced chemical equations for the Silver cannot displace copper from CuSO4 because
following reactions: silver is less reactive than Cu.
(a) Silver bromide on exposure to sunlight
decomposes into silver and bromine. A Short Answer
(b) Sodium metal reacts with water to form S Type Questions 3 Marks
sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.
Sunlight
Ans. (a) 2AgBr(s) → 2Ag(s) + Br2(g) 37. The diagram below shows the set-up in which
(b) 2Na(s) + 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + H2(g) electrolysis of water takes place.
Test tubes
34. (a) A solution of substance ‘X’ is used for white Oxygen
washing. What is the substance ‘X’? State the Hydrogen
chemical reaction of ‘X’ with water. [HOTS] Cathode Anode
(b) Why does the colour of copper sulphate
solution change when an iron nail is dipped Glass container
in it?
Ans. (a) ‘X’ is calcium oxide (CaO). Rubber stopper
CaO(s) + H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2(aq) + Heat
Direct current
(b) It is because iron displaces copper from CuSO4
to form FeSO4 which is pale green. Source
Fe(s) + CuSO4(aq) → FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
(Blue) (Pale green) (a) What type of reaction takes place?
35. A zinc plate was put into a solution of copper (b) Explain why this is an example of an
sulphate kept in a glass container. It was found endothermic reaction?
that blue colour of the solution gets fader and (c) The test tube containing hydrogen is removed
fader with the passage of time. After a few days carefully from the apparatus. A lit match stick
when zinc plate was taken out of the solution, a is brought near the mouth of this test tube. The
number of holes were observed on it. [CBSE 2020] gas burns with an explosive “pop” sound.
(a) State the reason for changes observed on the
Write a balanced chemical equation for this
zinc plate.
reaction and indicate whether energy is absorbed
(b) Write the chemical equation for the reaction
involved. or released. [CFPQ, CBSE]
Ans. (a) A number of holes were observed because zinc Ans. (a) Decomposition/Electrolytic decomposition
has displaced copper from CuSO4. Zinc metal because H2O is breaking down with help of
has been used to form zinc sulphate, therefore, electricity to form H2 at cathode and O2 at anode.
number of holes were observed. (b) Energy in the form of electrical energy is absorbed
(b) Zn(s) + CuSO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s) during the decomposition of water. Most of the
(Blue) (Colourless) decomposition reactions are endothermic.
(c) Balanced equation:
36. (a) What is observed when a solution of potassium
2H2O(l) + energy → 2H2(g) + O2(g)
iodide solution is added to a solution of lead
nitrate? Name the type of reaction. Write a 38. Identify the following changes as chemical or
balanced chemical equation to represent the physical.
above chemical reaction.[CBSE 2023, 22, 14, 13] (a) Crumpling a sheet of aluminium foil.
(b) Baking a cake. 42. Write chemical equation for the reactions taking
(c) Shredding paper. place when
(d) Sublimation of dry ice. (a) Iron reacts with steam.
(e) Changing colour and properties. (b) Magnesium reacts with dil. HCl.
(f) Burning of paper. (c) Copper is heated in air. [CBSE 2014]
Ans. (a) Physical change. (b) Chemical change. Ans. (a) 3Fe (s) + 4H2O (g) → Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g)
(c) Physical change. (d) Physical change.
(b) Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2
(e) Chemical change. (f) Chemical change. heat
(c) 2Cu + O2 → 2CuO (s)
39. Write the chemical equation of the reaction in
which the following changes have taken place with 43. Write balanced equations for the following,
an example of each: mentioning the type of reaction involved.
(a) change in colour. (a) Aluminium + Bromine → Aluminium bromide
(b) change in temperature. (b) Calcium carbonate → Calcium oxide
(c) formation of precipitate. [CBSE 2015, 14] + Carbon dioxide
Ans. (a) Cu (s) + 2AgNO3 (aq) → Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 2Ag (c) Silver chloride → Silver + Chlorine
The solution will become blue in colour and shiny Ans. (a) 2Al(s) + 3Br2(g) → 2AlBr3(s)
silver metal will be deposited. (b) CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)
(b) NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O + Heat Sunlight
(c) 2AgCl(s) → 2Ag(s) + Cl2(g)
The temperature will increase because heat will
be evolved. 44. 2 g of ferrous sulphate crystals are heated in a dry
(c) Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2KI(aq) → PbI2(s) + 2KNO3(aq) boiling tube.
(Yellow ppt.) (a) List any two observations.
Yellow precipitate of PbI2 will be formed. (b) Name the type of chemical reaction taking
40. What is meant by skeletal type chemical equation? place.
What does it represent? Using the equation for (c) Write the chemical equation for the reaction.
electrolytic decomposition of water, differentiate [CBSE 2020, 15]
between a skeletal chemical equation and a Ans. (a) (i) Green colour of FeSO4 disappears and
balanced chemical equation. reddish brown Fe2O3 is formed.
Ans. The equations in which gaseous are written in atomic (ii) Smell of burning sulphur.
form instead of molecular form and equation is
(b) Decomposition reaction.
not balanced are called skeletal type of chemical heat
equations. They represent gaseous elements formed (c) 2FeSO4(s) → Fe2O3(s) + SO2(g) + SO3 (g)
in atomic state and equation is not balanced. 45. (a) A + BC AC + B
electrolysis
H2O → H + O (Skeletal equation) (b)
AB + CD AC + BD
Hydrogen and oxygen are written in atomic forms
and equation is not balanced. Identify the types of reaction mentioned above in
2H2O → 2H2 + O2 (Balanced chemical equation) (a) and (b). Give one example for each type in the
H2O → H2 + O2 is also skeletal equation. form of a balanced chemical equation.
41. (a) Which of the following reactions is/are an [CBSE Sample Paper 2023]
endothermic reaction(s) where decomposition Ans. (a) Displacement - (½ Mark)
also happens? • Fe(s) + CuSO4(aq) → FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
• Respiration (1 mark)
• Heating of lead nitrate • Zn(s) + CuSO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
• Decomposition of organic matter • Pb(s) + CuCl2(aq) → PbCl2(aq) + Cu(s)
• Electrolysis of acidified water (Any one of the reaction or other displacement
(b) Silver chloride when kept in the open turns reaction.)
grey. Illustrate this with a balanced chemical (b) Double displacement (½ Mark)
equation. [CBSE Sample Paper 2021]
Na2SO4(aq) + BaCl2(aq) → BaSO4(s)
Ans. (a) Heating of lead nitrate; and electrolysis of
+ 2NaCl(aq) (1 Mark)
acidified water. (2 marks)
Sunlight (Any one of the reaction or other double
(b) 2AgCl(s) → 2Ag(s) + Cl2(g) displacement reaction.)
(1 mark) [CBSE Marking Scheme]
[CBSE Marking Scheme]
A Long Answer
L Type Questions 5 Marks
46. A metal nitrate ‘A’ on heating gives yellowish brown coloured metal oxide along with brown gas ‘B’ and a
colourless gas ‘C’. Aqueous solution of ‘A’ on reaction with potassium iodide forms a yellow precipitate of
compound ‘D’. Identify ‘A, B, C, D’. Also identify the types of both the reactions. Metal present in ‘A’ is
used in alloy which is used for soldering purposes. [CBSE 2023] [HOTS]
Ans. Metal nitrate ‘A’ is Pb(NO3)2.
Heat
2Pb(NO3)2(s) → 2PbO(s) + 4NO2(g) + O2(g) ...(i)
Lead nitrate Lead (II) oxide Nitrogen Oxygen
‘A’ (Yellowish brown) dioxide (Brown) (Colourless)
‘B’ ‘C’
Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2KI(aq) → PbI2(s) + 2KNO3(aq)...(ii)
‘A’ Potassium Lead iodide Potassium nitrate
iodide (Yellow ppt.)
‘D’
‘A’ is lead nitrate, ‘B’ is nitrogen dioxide, ‘C’ is oxygen and ‘D’ is lead iodide.
(i) Is decomposition reaction and (ii) Is double displacement reaction (Precipitation reaction).
47. (a) Write chemical equations for the following and balance them.
(i) Zinc carbonate(s) → Zinc oxide + Carbon dioxide
(ii) Potassium bromide (aq) + Barium iodide (aq) → Potassium iodide + Barium bromide
(iii) Nitrogen + Hydrogen → Ammonia.
(b) What happens when electricity is passed through acidified water? [KVS]
Heat
Ans. (a) (i) ZnCO3(s) → ZnO(s) + CO2(g)
(ii) 2KBr(aq) + BaI2(aq) → BaBr2(aq) + 2KI(aq)
(iii) N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
(b) H2 gas is formed at cathode and O2 gas at anode.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Identify the type of reaction (a) turns blue, and grey substance is deposited on
Fe(s) + CuSO4(aq) → FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s) copper coin.
(i) Displacement reaction (b) colourless and a grey substance is deposited on
(ii) Redox reaction the copper coin.
(iii) Combination reaction (c) turns colourless and a reddish brown substance
(iv) Double displacement reaction is deposited on the copper coin.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (d) remains green with no change in the copper coin.
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv) 5. Which of the following represents a balanced
2. CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O chemical equation? [CBSE Sample Paper 2023]
The above reaction is (a) Fe(s) + 4H2O(g) → Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g)
(a) oxidation (b) 3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g) → Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g)
(b) decomposition reaction (c) 3Fe(s) + H2O(g) → Fe3O4(s) + H2(g)
(c) endothermic reaction (d) 3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g) → Fe3O4(s) + H2(g)
(d) double displacement reaction 6. The chemical reaction between copper and oxygen
3. Which of the following observations help(s) us to can be regarded as [CBSE Sample Paper 2022]
determine that a chemical change has taken place? (a) displacement reaction
[KVS]
(b) decomposition reaction
(a) Change in temperature (c) combination reaction
(b) Change in colour (d) double displacement reactioon
(c) Evolution of gas 7. Why is it important to balance a skeletal chemical
(d) All of these equation? [CBSE Sample Paper 2022]

4. On placing a copper coin in a test tube containing green (a) To verify law of conservation of energy.
ferrous sulphate solution, it will be observed that the (b) To verify law of constant proportion.
ferrous sulphate solution [CBSE Sample Paper 2023] (c) To verify law of conservation of mass.
(d) To verify law of conservation by momentum.
Step 1
8. Lime stone → X + CO2; 13. Balance the following chemical equations:
Heated
Step 2
(a) C6H12O6 + O2 → CO2 + H2O
X + H2O → Slaked lime (b) CH4 + O2 → CO2 + H2O
The Step 1 and Step 2 respectively are (c) KClO3 → KCl + O2
(a) endothermic, exothermic (d) CO + H2 → CH3OH
(b) both endothermic (e) CuSO4 + NaOH → Cu(OH)2 + Na2SO4
(c) both exothermic (f) Fe + H2O → Fe3O4 + H2
(d) exothermic, endothermic 14. Write the balanced equation for the following
9. Give two example of double displacement reaction. equations for the following reactions.
(a) Hydrogen combines with nitrogen to form
10. Consider the following chemical reaction
ammonia.
X + Barium chloride → Y + Sodium chloride
(b) Magnesium burns in oxygen to form magnesium
(White ppt.)
oxide.
(a) Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’.
(c) Barium chloride solution is added to copper
(b) The type of reaction.
sulphate solution to form barium sulphate along
11. 2 g of silver chloride is taken in a china dish and with copper chloride solution.
the china dish is placed in sunlight for sometime.
15. (a) What happens when
What will be your observation in this case? Write the
(i) a piece of magnesium metal is placed in
chemical reaction involved in the form of a balanced
copper sulphate solution?
chemical equation. Identify the type of chemical
(ii) a piece of copper metal is placed in iron
reaction. [Delhi 2019]
sulphate solution?
12. 2 g of lead nitrate powder is taken in a boiling tube. (b) Giving an example list two information
The boiling tube is heated over a flame. Now answer which make a chemical equation more useful
the following: (informative). [CBSE 2015]
(a) State the colour of the fumes evolved and the
16. Give an example, each for thermal decomposition
residue left.
and photochemical decomposition reactions. Write
(b) Name the type of chemical reaction that has taken
balanced equation for the same. [KVS]
place stating its balanced chemical equation.
TOPICS COVERED
Redox Reactions, Corrosion and Rancidity
(b)The jewellary comes in contact with air, moisture,

Multiple Choice
acids and corrodes.
Questions 1 Mark (c) The polish over the jewellary was removed after
wearing for few months.
1. A student notices that new hammer made of iron
(d) Silver breaks due to wear and tear and turns its
is shiny while an old one kept in the tool box has a
colour change due to rusting.
reddish brown deposit over it. What does the change
in colour of hammer indicate? [CBSE T.E.R.M.*] 3. A student notices that bread kept out has a green
(a) Effect of moisture on metals coating over it after few days. What explains the
(b) Iron hammer turns brown after sometime. reason for the student’s observation?

(c) Effects of kept in a box for longer duration. [CBSE T.E.R.M.*]
(d) Iron changes colour when kept with other tools. (a) The oils of bread oxidises and cause rancidity.
2. A student notices her jewellary turned dull and (b) Bread comes in contact with atmospheric
had grey black film over it after wearing for a few moisture and corrodes.
months. What results in the change in its colour? (c) The oils in the bread reduces and causes change
[CBSE T.E.R.M.*] in colour of bread.
(a) Dust deposit over the jewellary which changes (d) Comes in contact with the atmospheric nitrogen
its colour. and layer deposit over it.
*Teacher Energised Resource Manuals
4. A student learns that food companies fill bags of Answers
chips with nitrogen gas. What is the purpose of
packing it with N2 gas? [CBSE T.E.R.M.*] 1. (a) Fe2O3.xH2O is formed.
(a) It prevents rancidity of chips. 2. (b) Silver turns black due to Ag2S.
(b) It keeps mosquitos away from chips. 3. (a) Oxidation causes rancidity.
(c) It keeps the chips dry if pack falls in water.
4. (a) N2 being inert, prevents oxidation.
(d) Prevents chips from spilling out when pack is
opened. 5. (c) MnO2 is oxidising agent and HCl is reducing agent
5. Which of the following statements about the 6. (a) Hg22+ is losing electron to form 2Hg2+.
reaction given below are correct? 7. (b)
MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2 8. (a) MnO2 is oxidising agent because it is removing
(i) HCl is oxidised to Cl2 [CBSE 2021] hydrogen from HCl to form Cl2.
9. (a) Fe and Fe respectively.
(ii) MnO2 is reduced to MnCl2
10. (d) The chemical formula of rust is Fe2O3.xH2O.
(iii) MnCl2 acts as an oxidising agent
(iv) HCl acts as an oxidising agent V S A Very Short Answer
(a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) Type Questions 2 Marks
(c) (i) and (ii) only (d) (iii) and (iv) only
6. In the reaction Hg2Cl2 + Cl2 → 2HgCl2 11. Eight identical, iron blocks are placed on the
ground in the two arrangements X and Y as shown
The reducing agent is below. The block arrangements are kept moist by
(a) Hg2Cl2 (b) Cl2 sprinkling water every few hours.
(c) HgCl2 (d) Both Cl2 and HgCl2
7. Oxidation involves
(i) gain of electron
(ii) loss of electron
(iii) addition of oxygen or electronegative element
(iv) removal of hydrogen or electropositive
element [KVS]
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) (b) (ii), (iii), (iv) X Y
(c) (i), (iii), (iv) (d) (i), (ii), (iv) Which of the arrangements is likely to gather more
8. MnO2 (s) + 4HCl(conc.) → MnCl2(aq) + H2O (l) rust after ten days? Justify your answer.
+ Cl2(g) [CFPQ, CBSE]
The oxidising agent is Ans. Arrangement Y is likely to gather more rust after ten
days. Rusting is a surface phenomenon. Arrangement
(a) MnO2 (b) HCl
(c) MnCl2 (d) Ag + Zn(NO3)3 Y has a larger surface area exposed to air.
Greater the surface area more rusting will take place.
9. In the reaction of iron with copper sulphate solution:
CuSO4 + Fe → Cu + FeSO4 12. (a) Potato chips manufacturers fill the packet of
chips with nitrogen gas. Why? [DoE]
Which option in the given table correctly represents (b) Why do gold and platinum not corrode in
the substance oxidised and the reducing agent? moist air?
[CBSE Sample Paper 2022] Ans. (a) To provide an inert atmosphere to prevent chips
Option Substance Oxidized Reducing Agent from getting oxidised. N2 does not allow chips
(a) Fe Fe to get spoiled by oxidation.
(b) They are least reactive and do not react with
(b) Fe FeSO4
substances present in moist air.
(c) Cu Fe
13. A reddish brown coloured metal, used in electrical
(d) CuSO4 Fe wires, when powdered and heated strongly in an
10. Chemically the rust is [KVS] open china dish, its colour turns black. When
(a) Ferric sulphate hydrogen gas is passed over this black substance,
(b) Ferric oxide it regains its original colour. Based on the above
information answer the following questions.
(c) Hydrated ferrous oxide
(a) Name the metal and the black coloured
(d) Hydrated ferric oxide substance formed.
(b) Write balanced chemical equations for both after five hours to take it home. She noticed that
the reactions. [CBSE 2023] [DoE] the white substance had turned grey.
Ans. (a) Reddish brown metal is copper. When it is (a) What could be the most likely substance on
heated in china dish in presence of oxygen, black the paper that Tina found?
coloured copper oxide is formed. (b) The substance changed from white to grey.
(b) 2Cu(s) + O2(g) → 2CuO(s) Write the chemical equation for this reaction.
When hydrogen gas is passed over heated copper (c) State ONE application of this property of the
oxide, reddish brown copper metal is formed e.g. substance seen in daily life. [CFPQ, CBSE]
heat Ans. (a) Silver chloride (AgCI)/silver bromide (AgBr) is
CuO(s) + H2(g) → Cu(s) + H2O(l) photosensitive which turn grey when exposed to
sunlight.
A Short Answer (b) 2AgCl → 2Ag(s) + Cl2(g)
S Type Questions 3 Marks Silver chloride Grey (yellowish green)
(White) (pungent smell)
14. Tina finds a paper covered with a white substance 2AgBr(s) → 2Ag(s) + Br2(g)
in a chemistry lab. She keeps the paper near the Light yellow Grey
window of the lab and comes back to pick it up (c) In black and white photography. Photographic
and X-ray films are coated with AgBr.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Silver turns black if kept in air dur to formation of 4. Why are metals good reducing agents where as non-
(a) Ag2S (b) Ag2O metals good oxidising agents?
(c) Ag2SO4 (d) Ag2CO3 5. (a) Define oxidation
2. Copper turns green when exposed to air due to (b) Identify oxidising as well as reducing agent in
formation of the following reaction:
(a) CuO (b) CuCO3.Cu(OH)2 (i) 3MnO2 + 2Al → 3Mn + Al2O3
(c) Cu2O (d) CuSO4 (ii) Pb3O4 + 8HCl → 3PbCl2 + Cl2 + 4H2O
[CBSE 2023]
3. What are redox reactions? Give one example.
INTEGRATED (MIXED) QUESTIONS

1. (a) In the reaction represented by the equation. 3MnO2 + 4Al → 3Mn + 2Al2O3
CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O (3 Marks) State which is more reactive, Mn or Al and
(i) Name the oxidising agent. why? [CBSE 2015]
(ii) Name the reducing agent. 3. (a) Explain how rancidity can be retarded by storing
(iii) Name the substance oxidised. foods away from light? [DoE]
(iv) Name the substance reduced. (5 Marks)
(b) What type of chemical reactions are represented (b) Give reason for the following:
by the following equations? Digestion of food in the body is an example of
(i) X + YZ → XZ + Y (ii) X + Y → Z decomposition reaction. [DoE]
2. (a) Identify the type of reaction from the following (c) Write the balanced chemical equation for the
equations: (5 Marks) following reaction:
(i) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O (i) phosphorus burns in presence of chlorine
(ii) Pb(NO3)2 + 2KI → PbI2 + 2KNO3 to form phosphorus pentachloride.
(iii) CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2 (ii) burning of natural gas.
(iv) CuSO4 + Zn → ZnSO4 + Cu[CBSE 2012] (iii) the process of respiration.
(v) 2KNO3(s) → 2KNO2(s) + O2(g) 4. (a) Explain two ways by which food industries
(vi) Zn(s) + 2AgNO3(aq) → Zn(NO3)2 prevent rancidity. (5 Marks)
+ 2Ag(s) (b) Discuss the importance of decomposition reaction
(b) Name the reducing agent in the following in metal industry with three points.[CBSE 2015]
reaction:
5. State one characteristic each of the chemical reaction (b) On heating copper powder in air in a china dish,
which takes place when: (5 Marks) the surface of copper powder turns black.
(a) Zn + H2SO4 → ZnSO4 + H2 (c) On heating green coloured ferrous sulphate
(b) Ca(OH)2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + H2O crystals, reddish brown solid is left and smell
(c) 2Pb(NO3)2 → 2PbO + 4NO2 + O2 of a gas having odour of burning sulphur is
(d) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O experienced.
(e) 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O (d) Iron nails when left dipped in blue copper sulphate
6. Identify the type of chemical reaction taking place solution become brownish in colour and the blue
in each of the following: (5 Marks) colour of copper sulphate fades away.
(a) Barium chloride solution is mixed with copper (e) Quick lime reacts vigorously with water releasing
sulphate solution and a white precipitate is a large amount of heat.
observed.
ASSERTION AND REASON QUESTIONS

Direction: In the following Questions, the Assertion and Reason: Lead nitrate reacts with potassium iodide
Reason have been put forward. Read the statements to form yellow ppt of lead iodide and the reaction is
carefully and choose the correct alternative from the double displacement as well as precipitation reaction.
following: 7. Assertion: Following is a balanced chemical equation
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the for the action of steam on iron.
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. 3Fe + 4H2O → Fe3O4 + 4H2
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the
Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. Reason: The law of conservation of mass holds good
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false. for a chemical equation. [CBSE 2020]
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason 8. Assertion: A reaction in which a substance is
is true. decomposed into two or more simpler products is
1. Assertion: Burning of Natural gas is an endothermic known as decomposition reaction.
process. Reason: The decomposition of a substance is
Reason: Methane gas combines with oxygen to impossible without supplying energy. [CBSE 2020]
produce carbon dioxide and water. 9. Assertion: PbO2 + 4HCl → PbCl2 + Cl2 + 2H2O
2. Assertion: AgBr is used on photographic and X-ray is redox reaction.
film. Reason: PbO2 oxidise HCl to Cl2 and gets reduced
Reason: AgBr is photosensitive and changes to Ag to PbCl2.
and bromine in presence of sunlight and undergoes 10. Assertion: After white washing the walls, a shiny
decomposition reaction. [KVS] white finish on the walls is obtained after two to three
3. Assertion: Magnesium ribbon keeps on burning in days.
atmosphere of nitrogen. Reason: Calcium oxide reacts with carbon deoxide to
Reason: Magnesium reacts with nitrogen to form form calcium hydrogen carbonate which gives shiny
magnesium nitrides and this reaction is combination finish. [CBSE 2020]
reaction. [KVS] 11. Assertion: A reaction in which a substance is
4. Assertion: Zinc reacts with sulphuric acid to form decomposed into two or more substances is known
zinc sulphate and hydrogen gas and it is displacement as decomposition reaction.
reaction. Reason: The decomposition of a substance is
Reason: Zinc reacts with oxygen to form zinc impossible without supplying energy. [CBSE 2020(C)]
oxide. [KVS] 12. Assertion: Combustion reaction is also called
5. Assertion: MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + Cl2 + 2H2O exothermic oxidation reaction.
is redox reaction. Reason: In a combustion reaction O2 is added and
Reason: MnO2 oxidises HCl to Cl2 and gets reduced heat is released.
to MnCl2. [KVS]
13. Assertion: Silver bromide decomposition is used in
6. Assertion: A lead nitrate on thermal decomposition black and white photography.
gives lead oxide, brown coloured nitrogen dioxide Reason: Light provides energy for this exothermic
and oxygen gas. reaction.
CASE-BASED QUESTIONS
1. Read the given passage and answer the questions reduction) are various type of chemical reactions.
based on passage and related studied concepts. (a) What is formula of marble?
The reaction between MnO2 with HCl is depicted (b) Which compound is used in photographic and
in the following diagram. It was observed that a gas X-ray films?
with bleaching abilities was released. (c) What happens when potassium reacts with water?
HCl(aq)
Write balanced chemical equation.
Or
(c) What happens when
(i) Iron reacts with chlorine
(ii) Copper reacts with oxygen on heating
MnO2(s) 4. Answer the questions on the basis of your
understanding of the following paragraph and
REACTANTS PRODUCTS the related studied concepts.
(a) What type of reaction is between MnO2 and conc. Redox reactions involves both oxidation as well as
HCl? reduction. If we cut an apple, it turns reddish brown
(b) Which compound reacts with Cl 2 to form after some time because Fe2+ present in apple gets
bleaching powder? converted into Fe3+ by loss of electrons. Oxidation
(c) Identify oxidising agent, reducing agent, is a process in which loss of electrons takes place.
substance oxidised and substance reduced in Oxidation is carried out with the help of oxidising
reaction of MnO2 and HCl. agent which can give O2 or remove hydrogen or can
Or gain electrons. Non-metals are good oxidising agents,
(c) What will happen if we take dry HCl instead of KMnO4, K2Cr2O7 are also good oxidising agent in
aqueous HCl? What is colour of MnO2? acidic medium. Combustion is oxidation reaction.
2. Read the given passage and answer the questions Reduction involves gain of electrons. Reducing agent
based on passage and related studied concepts. can add H2 or remove O2 or can lose electrons. Metals
The metal sodium reacts with air and water. are good reducing agents. Reducing agents are used
A student reacted sodium with water and measured in extraction of metals.
the volume of gas at intervals of 30 seconds. The (a) Fe2O3(s) + 3CO(g) → 2Fe(s) + 3CO2(g)
results are shown below: Identify oxidising and reducing agents in the
above equation.
Time/s 0 30 60 90 120 150 180 (b) H2S(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g) + S(s)
3
Volume/cm 0 40 60 74 86 96 140 Name the substance which are getting oxidised
(a) Up to what time reaction was fastest? Why? and reduced.
(b) Which gas is liberated in above reaction? (c) Mg(s) + 2H+(aq) → Mg2+(aq) + H2(g)
(c) What will be colour of universal indicator in Why is magnesium acting as reducing agent and
the solution formed? Write balanced chemical H+ are oxidising agent?
reaction. Or
Or (c) (i) Cr2O3 + 2Al → Al2O3 + 2Cr
(c) (i) What will be colour of phenolphthalein in Identify the type of above reaction.
solution formed? (ii) Fe3O4 + 4H2 → 3Fe + 4H2O
(ii) Which ions are responsible for basic nature Which substance undergoes oxidation and
of NaOH? reduction?
3. Read the given passage and answer the questions 5. Read the given passage and answer the questions
based on passage and related studied concepts. based on passage and related studied concepts.
Chemical reaction involves chemical changes in Chemistry in Automobiles:
which new substances with new properties are For an internal combustion engine to move a vehicle
formed, when two or more substances react with down the road,it must convert the energy stored in
each other. Combination, decomposition (thermal, the fuel into mechanical energy to drive the wheels.
electrical and photochemical), displacement, double In your car,the distributor and battery provide this
displacement (precipitation), redox (oxidation and starting energy by creating an electrical “spark”,which
helps in combustion of fuels like gasoline. Below (a) What might be the reason for the varied
is the reaction depicting complete combustion of observations of the two students?
gasoline in full supply of air: (b) In another set up the students coated iron nails
2C8H18(l) + 25O2(g) → 16X + 18 Y with zinc metal and noted that, iron nails coated
(a) What products are obtained in above reaction? with zinc prevents rusting. They also observed
(b) Identify the type of reaction taking place during that zinc initially acts as a physical barrier,
combustion of fuel. but an extra advantage of using zinc is that it
(c) On the basis of evolution/absorption of energy continues to prevent rusting even if the layer
which of the following processes are similar to of zinc is damaged. Name this process of rust
combustion of fuel? prevention and give any two other methods to
I. Photosynthesis is plants prevent rusting.
II. Respiration in human body Or
III. Decomposition of vegetable matter (b) In which of the following applications of Iron,
IV. Decomposition of Ferrous sulphate rusting will occur most? Support your answer
Or with valid reason.
(c) (i) Why is there rich smoke in the exhaust of
moving trucks on the road?
(ii) Why does N2 not take part in combustion?
6. Two students decided to investigate the effect of water
and air on iron object under identical experimental A B C D
conditions. They measured the mass of each object A - Iron Bucket electroplated with Zinc
before placing it partially immersed in 10 ml of water. B - Electricity cables having iron wires covered
After a few days, the object were removed, dried and with aluminium
their masses were measured. The table shows their C - Iron hinges on a gate
results. [CBSE Sample Paper 2023] D - Painted iron fence
Student Object Mass of Mass of
Object before the coated
Rusting in g object in g
A Nail 3.0 3.15
B Thin plate 6.0 6.33
NCERT ZONE
NCERT INTEXT QUESTIONS
Page 6 (c) Sodium + Water → Sodium hydroxide

+ Hydrogen
1. Why should a magnesium ribbon be cleaned
Ans. (a) H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g)
before burning in air? (b) 3BaCl2(aq) + Al2(SO4)3(aq) → 3BaSO4(s)
Ans. When magnesium ribbon is exposed to air, it forms a + 2AlCl3(aq)
layer of magnesium oxide on its surface. This layer of (c) 2Na(s) + 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + H2(g)
magnesium oxide, being a stable compound, prevents
further reaction of magnesium with oxygen. Hence, 3. Write a balanced chemical equation with state
it should be cleaned before burning in air to remove symbols for the following reactions.
this layer so that the metal can be exposed to air (a) Solutions of barium chloride and sodium
properly(the oxide layer may prevent or slow down sulphate in water react to give insoluble barium
the burning of magnesium). sulphate and the solution of sodium chloride.
2. Write the balanced equation for the following (b) Sodium hydroxide solution (in water) reacts
chemical reactions. with hydrochloric acid solution (in water) to
(a) Hydrogen + Chlorine → Hydrogen chloride produce sodium chloride solution and water.
(b) Barium chloride + Aluminium sulphate → Ans. (a) BaCl2(aq) + Na2SO4(aq) → BaSO4(s)
Barium sulphate + Aluminium chloride + 2NaCl(aq)
(b) NaOH(aq) + HCl(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(l)
Page 10 iron displaces copper from its solution to form iron
sulphate, which is green in colour.
1. A solution of a substance X is used for white
Fe(s) + CuSO4(aq) → FeSO4 (aq) + Cu(s)
washing. Hence, the blue colour of copper sulphate solution
(a) Name the substance X and write its formula. changes into green colour because of this displacement
(b) Write the reaction of the substance X named reaction. It is redox reaction.
in (i) above with water.
2. Give an example of a double displacement reaction
Ans. (a) The substance X is lime or quick lime which is
other than the one given in Activity 1.10.
used for white washing. Its formula is CaO.
Ans. Sodium carbonate and calcium chloride exchange
(b) CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2 + Heat ions to form two new compounds calcium carbonate
2. Why is the amount of gas collected in one of the and sodium chloride.
test tubes in Activity 1.7, (electrolysis of water) is Na2CO3(aq) + CaCl2(aq) → CaCO3(s)
double of the amount collected in the other? Name + 2NaCl(aq)
this gas. 3. Identify the substances that are oxidized and
Ans. Water contains two parts of hydrogen and one part of the substances that are reduced in the following
oxygen. Therefore, during the electrolysis of water reactions:
the amount of hydrogen gas collected in one of the (a) 4Na(s) +O2(g) → 2Na2O(s)
test tubes is double that of the oxygen produced and (b) CuO(s) + H2(g) → Cu(s) + H2O(l)
collected in the other test tube. Ans. (a) Sodium (Na) is oxidized to Na2O, oxygen is
getting reduced to O2– ion.
Page 13
(b) CuO (Copper oxide) is reduced to Cu, while H2
1. Why does the colour of copper sulphate solution gas is oxidized to H2O.
change when an iron nail is dipped in it?
Ans. Iron is more reactive than copper. So, when an
iron nail is dipped in a copper sulphate solution,
NCERT EXERCISES
1. Which of the statements about the reaction below are (c) No reaction takes place.
incorrect? (d) Iron salt and water are produced.
2PbO(s) + C(s) → 2Pb(s) + CO2(g)[CBSE 2021] Ans. (a) Fe(s) + 2HCl(dil.) → FeCl2(aq) + H2(g)
(a) Lead is getting reduced. Hydrogen gas and Iron (II) chloride are produced.
(b) Carbon dioxide is getting oxidised. 4. What is a balanced chemical equation? Why should
(c) Carbon is getting oxidised. chemical equations be balanced?
(d) Lead oxide is getting reduced. Ans. Balanced chemical equation means total number of
(i) (a) and (b) atoms of each element should be equal on both sides
(ii) (a) and (c) of the reaction.
(iii) (a), (b) and (c) For example, magnesium and oxygen combine, when
(iv) all heated to form a single compound, magnesium oxide.
Ans. (i) (a) and (b) are incorrect statements because ‘Pb’ 2Mg(s) + O2(g) → 2MgO(s)
and ‘CO2’ are products and not reactants. The reaction should be balanced because matter can
neither be created nor be destroyed. The total mass of
2. Fe2O3 + 2Al → Al2O3 + 2Fe reactants should be equal to the total mass of products.
The above reaction is an example of a 5. Translate the following statements into chemical
(a) combination reaction. equations and then balance them.
(b) double displacement reaction. (a) Hydrogen gas combines with nitrogen to form
(c) decomposition reaction. ammonia. [CBSE 2023]
(d) displacement reaction. (b) Hydrogen sulphide gas burns in air to give
Ans. (d) Al is displacing iron from iron (III) oxide. water and sulphur dioxide.
Therefore, it is a displacement and redox reaction. (c) Barium chloride reacts with aluminium
3. What happens when dilute hydrochloric acid is sulphate to give aluminium chloride and a
added to iron fillings? Tick the correct answer. precipitate of barium sulphate.
(a) Hydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced. (d) Potassium metal reacts with water to give
(b) Chlorine gas and iron hydroxide are produced. potassium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.
Ans. (a) 3H2(g) + N2(g) → 2NH3(g) 9. What does one mean by exothermic and
(b) 2H2S(g) + 3O2(g) → 2H2O(l) + 2SO2(g) endothermic reactions? Give examples.
(c) 3BaCl2(aq) + Al2(SO4)3(aq) → 3BaSO4(s) Ans. Exothermic reactions are those reactions in which
+ 2AlCl3(aq) heat is evolved, e.g.
(d) 2K(s) + 2H2O(l) → 2KOH(aq) + H2(g) C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) + heat
6. Balance the following chemical equations. CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(l) + heat
(a) HNO3 + Ca(OH)2 → Ca(NO3)2 + H2O Endothermic reactions are those reactions in which
(b) NaOH + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + H2O heat is absorbed, e.g.
heat
(c) NaCl + AgNO3 → AgCl + NaNO3 CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)
(d) BaCl2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + HCl heat
N2(g) + O2(g) → 2NO(g)
Ans. (a) 2HNO3(aq) + Ca(OH)2(aq) → Ca(NO3)2(aq)
10. Why is respiration considered an exothermic
+ 2H2O(l)
reaction? Explain.
(b) 2NaOH(aq) + H2SO4(aq) → Na2SO4(aq)
Ans. During respiration, glucose combines with oxygen in
+ 2H2O(l)
the cells of our body and provides energy. As energy
(c) NaCl(aq) + AgNO3(aq) → AgCl(s)
is released during respiration, therefore, respiration
+ NaNO3(aq)
is regarded as exothermic reaction.
(d) BaCl2(aq) + H2SO4(aq) → BaSO4(s)
C6H12O6(aq) + 6O2(g) → 6CO2(g) + 6H2O(l)
+ 2HCl(aq)
+ Energy
7. Write the balanced chemical equations for the 11. Why are decomposition reactions called the
following reactions. opposite of combination reactions? Write
(a) Calcium hydroxide + Carbon dioxide → equations for these reactions.
Calcium carbonate + Water Ans. In decomposition reaction, a compound is broken
(b) Zinc + Silver nitrate → Zinc nitrate + Silver down into simpler compounds or elements, e.g.
(c) Aluminium + Copper chloride → Aluminium Heat
CuCO3(s) → CuO(s) + CO2(g)
chloride + Copper
Combination reaction is a reaction in which two or
(d) Barium chloride + Potassium sulphate →
more elements or compounds combine to form new
Barium sulphate + Potassium chloride.
compound, e.g.
Ans. (a) Ca(OH)2(aq) + CO2(g) → CaCO3(s) + H2O(l)
N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g) [CBSE 2023]
(b) Zn(s) + 2AgNO3(aq) → Zn(NO3)2(aq)
Thus, decomposition and combination reactions are
+ 2Ag(s)
opposite to each other.
(c) 2Al(s) + 3CuCl2(aq) → 2AlCl3(aq) + 3Cu(s)
12. Write one equation each for decomposition
(d) BaCl2(aq) + K2SO4(aq) → BaSO4(s)
reactions where energy is supplied in the form of
+ 2KCl(aq)
heat, light or electricity. [KVS] [CBSE 2018, 16]
8. Write the balanced chemical equation for the Heat
Ans. (i) CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)
following and identify the type of reaction in each Sunlight
case. (ii) 2AgCl(s) → 2Ag(s) + Cl2(g)
Electricity
(a) Potassium bromide(aq) + Barium iodide(aq) (iii) 2H2O(l) → 2H2(g) + O2(g)
→ Potassium iodide(aq) 13. What is the difference between displacement and
+ Barium bromide(s) double displacement reactions? Write equations
(b) Zinc carbonate(s) → Zinc oxide(s) for these reactions.
+ Carbon dioxide(g) Ans. Displacement reaction: Those reactions in which
(c) Hydrogen(g) + Chlorine(g) → Hydrogen more reactive metal displaces less reactive metal from
chloride(g) its salt solution are called displacement reactions.
(d) Magnesium(s) + Hydrochloric acid(aq) → Fe(s) + CuSO4(aq) → FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
Magnesium chloride(aq) + Hydrogen(g) Double displacement reaction: Those reactions in
Ans. (a) 2KBr(aq) + BaI2(aq) → 2KI(aq) which two compounds exchange their ions to form
+ BaBr2(s) two new compounds are called double displacement
Double displacement reaction. reactions. It is redox reaction.
(b) ZnCO3(s) → ZnO(s) + CO2(g) HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(l)
Decomposition reaction. 14. In the refining of silver, the recovery of silver from
(c) H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g) silver nitrate solution involved displacement by
Combination reaction and redox reaction. copper metal. Write down the reaction involved.
(d) Mg(s) + 2HCl(aq) → MgCl2(aq) + H2(g) Ans. Cu(s) + 2AgNO3(aq) → Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 2Ag(s)
Displacement reaction and redox reaction. Copper Silver nitrate Copper nitrate Silver
Thus, silver metal can be recovered. [CBSE 2023]
15. What do you mean by a precipitation reaction? 18. Why do we apply paint on iron articles?
Explain by giving examples. [DoE] [KVS] Ans. Painting is done so as to prevent iron from rusting.
Ans. Those reactions in which two compounds react to When the surface of iron is coated with paint,
form insoluble compound, which is called precipitate, its surface does not come in contact with oxygen
are called precipitation reactions, e.g. and moisture and therefore, rusting does not take
When solutions of silver nitrate and sodium chloride place.
are mixed, white precipitate of silver chloride is 19. Oil and fat containing food items are flushed
formed. with nitrogen. Why?
AgNO3(aq) + NaCl(aq) → AgCl(s) + NaNO3(aq) Ans. When food items prepared in oil are kept for a long
On adding dilute hydrochloric acid to the aqueous time, fat and oils present in them get oxidised by
solution of lead nitrate, precipitate of lead chloride the oxygen. As a result of oxidation, some products
is formed. are formed which have unpleasant smell and taste.
Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2HCl(aq) → PbCl2(s) + 2HNO3(aq) To prevent the food items containing oil and fat
16. Explain the following in terms of gain or loss of from being oxidised and turned rancid, they are
oxygen with two examples each. [CBSE 2023] flushed with an unreactive gas like nitrogen.
(a) Oxidation (b) Reduction 20. Explain the following terms with one example
Ans. (a) Oxidation: It is a process in which gain of each.
oxygen takes place, e.g. (a) Corrosion (b) Rancidity
Burning
2Mg(s) + O2(g) → 2MgO(s) Ans. (a) Corrosion: It is a process in which metal reacts
Heat with substances present in the atmosphere to
2Cu(s) + O2(g) → 2CuO(s)
(b) Reduction: It is a process in which removal of form surface compounds, e.g. iron reacts with
oxygen takes place, e.g. oxygen in presence of moisture to form rust,
Heat
CuO(s) + H2(g) → Cu(s) + H2O(g) Fe2O3 . xH2O (hydrated Iron(III) oxide).
Fe2O3(s) + 2Al(s) → Al2O3(s) + 2Fe(s) (b) Rancidity: When food items prepared in oil
such as potato chips are kept for long time,
17. A shiny brown coloured element ‘X’ on heating fat and oil present in them get oxidised by
in air becomes black in colour. Name the the oxygen, and they start giving unpleasant
element ‘X’ and the black coloured compound smell and taste. This condition, produced
formed. [CBSE 2023] [KVS] by aerial oxidation of fats and oils in foods
Ans. ‘X’ is copper. marked by unpleasant smell and taste, is called
Copper gets oxidised to copper oxide which is black rancidity. Rancidity spoils the food materials
in colour.
Heat and makes them unfit for eating.
2Cu(s) + O2(g) → 2CuO(s)
Copper Oxygen Copper oxide
(Reddish brown) (Black)
SELECT NCERT EXEMPLAR PROBLEMS

1. The following reaction is an example of a Ans. (a)
4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) → 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g) 3. Barium chloride on reacting with ammonium
(i) displacement reaction sulphate forms barium sulphate and ammonium
(ii) combination reaction chloride. Which of the following correctly
(iii) redox reaction represents the type of the reaction involved?
(iv) neutralisation reaction (i) Displacement reaction
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iii) (ii) Precipitation reaction
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv) (iii) Combination reaction
Ans. (c) NH3 is reducing agent and O2 is oxidising agent. (iv) Double displacement reaction
2. Which of the following are exothermic processes? (a) (i) only (b) (ii) only
(i) Reaction of water with quick lime (c) (iv) only (d) (ii) and (iv)
(ii) Dilution of an acid Ans. (d) BaCl2 (aq) + (NH4)2 SO4 (aq) → BaSO4(s)
(iii) Evaporation of water + 2NH4Cl (aq)
(iv) Sublimation of camphor (crystals)
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)
4. Electrolysis of water is a decomposition reaction. 10. Three beakers labelled as A, B and C each
The molar ratio of hydrogen and oxygen gases containing 25 ml of water were taken. A small
liberated during electrolysis of water is amount of NaOH, anhydrous CuSO4 and NaCl
[CBSE 2023] [KVS] were added to the beakers A, B and C respectively.
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 It was observed that there was an increase in
(c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 2 the temperature of the solutions contained in
Ans. (b) beakers A and B, whereas in case of beaker C, the
5. Which of the following is (are) an endothermic temperature of the solution falls. Which one of the
process(es)? following statements(s) is (are) correct?
(i) Dilution of sulphuric acid (i) In beakers A and B, exothermic process has
(ii) Sublimation of dry ice occurred.
(iii) Condensation of water vapours (ii) In beakers A and B, endothermic process has
(iv) Evaporation of water occurred.
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) only (iii) In beaker C exothermic process has occurred.
(c) (iii) only (d) (ii) and (iv) (iv) In beaker C endothermic process has
Ans. (d) occurred.
(a) (i) only (b) (ii) only
6. Which of the following gases can be used for
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii)
storage of fresh sample of an oil for a long time?
Ans. (c) (i) and (iv) are correct. In beakers A and B,
(a) Carbon dioxide or oxygen
exothermic process takes place whereas in
(b) Nitrogen or oxygen
beaker ‘C’ endothermic process takes place.
(c) Carbon dioxide or helium
(d) Helium or nitrogen 11. A dilute ferrous sulphate solution was gradually
Ans. (d) These are inert gases. added to the beaker containing acidified potassium
permanganate solution. The light purple colour of
7. The following reaction is used for the preparation
the solution fades and finally disappears. Which
of oxygen gas in the laboratory
Heat of the following is the correct explanation for the
2KClO3(s) → Catalyst 2KCl (s) + 3O2(g) observation?
Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct (a) KMnO4 is an oxidising agent, it oxidises FeSO4
about the reaction? (b) FeSO4 acts as an oxidising agent and oxidises
(a) It is a decomposition reaction and endothermic KMnO4
in nature (c) The colour disappears due to dilution : no
(b) It is a combination reaction reaction is involved
(c) It is a decomposition reaction and accompanied (d) KMnO4 is an unstable compound and decomposes
by release of heat in presence of FeSO4 to a colourless compound.
(d) It is a photochemical decomposition reaction and Ans. (a) KMnO4 oxidises FeSO4 to Fe2(SO4)3 and gets
exothermic in nature reduced to MnSO4.
Ans. (a)
12. Which among the following statement(s) is/(are)
8. Which one of the following processes involve true?
chemical reactions? Exposure of silver chloride to sunlight for a long
(a) Storing of oxygen gas under pressure in a gas duration turns grey due to
cylinder (i) the formation of silver by decomposition of
(b) Liquefaction of air silver chloride
(c) Keeping petrol in a china dish in the open (ii) sublimation of silver chloride
(d) Heating copper wire in presence of air at high (iii) decomposition of chlorine gas from silver
temperature chloride
Ans. (d) (iv) oxidation of silver chloride
9. In which of the following chemical equations, (a) (i) only (b) (i) and (iii)
the abbreviations represent the correct states of (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iv) only
the reactants and products involved at reaction Ans. (a) It is due to formation of Ag by decomposition of
temperature? AgCl.
(a) 2H2(l) + O2(l) → 2H2O(g) 13. Solid calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water
(b) 2H2(g) + O2(l) → 2H2O(l) to form calcium hydroxide accompanied by
(c) 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(l) liberation of heat. This process is called slaking
(d) 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(g) of lime. Calcium hydroxide dissolves in water to
Ans. (c)
form its solution called lime water. 2 4 H SO conc.
Which among the following is (are) true about (c) C2H5OH + CH3COOH →
slaking of lime and the solution formed? CH3COOC2H5 + H2O
(i) It is an endothermic reaction Double displacement reaction/Esterification.
(ii) It is an exothermic reaction (d) C2H4 + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 2H2O + heat + light
(iii) The pH of the resulting solution will be more Redox reaction/combustion reaction.
than seven 17. Write the balanced chemical equations for the
(iv) The pH of the resulting solution will be less following reactions and identify the type of
than seven reaction in each case.
(a) (i) and (ii) (a) Thermite reaction, iron (III) oxide reacts
(b) (ii) and (iii) with aluminium and gives molten iron and
(c) (i) and (iv) aluminium oxide. [CBSE 2012]
(d) (iii) and (iv) (b) Magnesium ribbon is burnt in an atmosphere
Ans. (b) The reaction is highly exothermic. pH of Ca(OH)2 of nitrogen gas to form solid magnesium
is more than 7 because it is basic. nitride.
14. In the double displacement reaction between (c) Chlorine gas is passed in an aqueous potassium
aqueous potassium iodide and aqueous lead iodide solution to form potassium chloride
nitrate, a yellow precipitate of lead iodide is solution and solid iodine.
formed. While performing the activity if lead (d) Ethanol is burnt in air to form carbon dioxide,
nitrate is not available, which of the following can water and releases heat.
be used in place of lead nitrate? [KVS] Ans. (a) Fe2O3(s) + 2Al(s) → Al2O3(s) + 2Fe(l) + heat
Iron (III) Aluminium Aluminium Molten iron
(a) Lead sulphate (insoluble) oxide oxide
(b) Lead acetate It is a displacement reaction because Al is
(c) Ammonium nitrate displacing Fe from Fe2O3.
(d) Potassium sulphate (b) 3Mg(s) + N2(g) Burning Mg3N2(s)
Ans. (b) Lead acetate can be used instead of Pb(NO3)2 Magnesium Nitrogen → Magnesium
because it is soluble in water. nitride
15. Which of the following are combination reactions? It is a combination reaction as magnesium on
Heat burning reacts with N2 to form magnesium nitride.
(i) 2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2 (c) Cl2(g) + 2KI(aq) → 2KCl(aq) + I2(aq)
(ii) MgO + H2O → Mg(OH)2 It is a displacement reaction because chlorine is
(iii) 4Al + 3O2 → 2Al2O3 displacing iodine from potassium iodide to form
(iv) Zn + FeSO4 → ZnSO4 + Fe potassium chloride and solid iodine.
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (iii) and (iv) (d) C2H5OH(l) + 3O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 3H2O(l)
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii) + heat
Ans. (d) Two elements or compounds combine to form a It is oxidation reaction. It is also called combustion
single compound reaction.
16. Write the balanced chemical equation for the
following equations for the following reaction and 18. Complete the missing components/variables given
identify the type of reaction in each case. as x and y in the following reactions:
(a) Nitrogen gas is treated with hydrogen gas in (a) Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2Kl(aq) → PbI2(x)
the presence of a catalyst at 773 K to form + 2KNO3(y)
ammonia gas. (b) Cu(s) + 2AgNO3(aq) → Cu(NO3)2(aq) + x
(b) Sodium hydroxide solution is treated with (c) Z n ( s ) + H 2 S O 4 ( a q ) → Z n S O 4 ( x )
acetic acid to form sodium acetate and water. + H2(y)
x
(c) Ethanol is warmed with ethanoic acid to form (d) CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)
ethyl acetate in presence of conc. H2SO4. Ans. (a) Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2KI(aq) → PbI2(s)
(d) Ethene is burnt in presence of oxygen to form + 2KNO3(aq) therefore ‘x’ is (s), ‘y’ is (aq).
carbon dioxide, water and releases heat and (b) Cu(s) + 2AgNO 3(aq) → Cu(NO 3) 2(aq)
light. + 2Ag(s) therefore ‘x’ is Ag(s).
Catalyst
Ans. (a) N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g) (c) Zn(s) + H2SO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + H2(g)
773 K therefore ‘x’ is (aq), ‘y’ is (g).
Combination reaction heat
(b) NaOH + CH3COOH → CH3COONa + H2O (d) CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)
Double displacement reaction/Neutralisation ‘x’ is ‘heat’.
reaction.
19. Which among the following changes are exothermic (e) H2O is oxidising agent.
or endothermic in nature? (f) CuO is oxidising agent.
(a) Decomposition of ferrous sulphate. 23. A solution of potassium chloride when mixed with
(b) Dilution of sulphuric acid. silver nitrate solution, an insoluble white substance
(c) Dissolution of sodium hydroxide in water. is formed. Write the chemical reaction involved
(d) Dissolution of ammonium chloride in water. and also mention the type of the chemical reaction.
Ans. (a) It is endothermic reaction. Ans. KCl(aq) + AgNO3(aq) → AgCl(s) + KNO3(aq)
(b) It is exothermic process. Potassium Silver Silver chloride Potassium
(c) It is exothermic process. chloride nitrate (White ppt.) nitrate
(d) It is endothermic process. It is a double displacement reaction. It is also a
20. Write the balanced chemical equations for the precipitation reaction as AgCl is a white precipitate.
following reactions. 24. Why do fireflies glow at night?
(a) Sodium carbonate on reaction with hydro- Ans. It is because protein present in fireflies undergoes
chloric acid in equal molar concentrations oxidation in presence of air and an enzyme. This
gives sodium chloride and sodium hydrogen- chemical reaction involves emission of visible light.
carbonate. Therefore, fireflies glow at night.
(b) Sodium hydrogencarbonate on reaction with 25. Grapes hanging on the plant do not ferment
hydrochloric acid gives sodium chloride, but after being plucked from the plant can be
water and liberates carbon dioxide. fermented. Under what conditions do these grapes
(c) Copper sulphate on treatment with potassium ferment? Is it a chemical or a physical change?
iodide precipitates cuprous iodide (Cu 2I2), Ans. Grapes when attached to plants are living and therefore
liberates iodine gas and also forms potassium they have their immune system due to which they
sulphate. cannot get fermented. When microbes attack plucked
Ans. (a) Na2CO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) → NaCl(aq) grapes in absence of air, they undergo fermentation
+ CO2(g) + H2O(l) to form alcohol. This is a chemical process.
(b) NaHCO3(s) + HCl(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(l) 26. During the reaction of some metals with dilute
+ CO2(g) hydrochloric acid, following observations were made.
(c) 2CuSO4(aq) + 4KI(aq) → (a) Silver metal does not show any change.
2K2SO4(aq) + Cu2I2(s) + I2(s) (b) The temperature of the reaction mixture rises
Potassium Copper(I) Iodine when aluminium (Al) is added.
sulphate iodide
(c) The reaction of sodium metal is found to be
21. Identify the reducing agent in the following highly explosive.
reactions: (d) Some bubbles of a gas are seen when lead (Pb)
(a) 4NH3 + 5O2 → 4NO + 6H2O is reacted with the acid.
(b) H2O + F2 → HF + HOF Explain these observations giving suitable
(c) Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2 reasons.
(d) 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O [CBSE 2023] Ans. (a) It is because silver is less reactive than hydrogen.
Ans. (a) NH3 is reducing agent. It cannot displace hydrogen from dilute acid.
(b) H2O is reducing agent. (b) It is because the reaction is exothermic.
(c) CO (Carbon monoxide) is reducing agent. (c) It is because sodium is highly reactive and
(d) H2 is reducing agent. forms hydrogen gas in the presence of moisture
22. Identify the oxidising agent (oxidant) in the (H2O) which catches fire as the reaction is highly
following reactions: exothermic and H2 is highly inflammable.
(a) Pb3O4 + 8HCl → 3PbCl2 + Cl2 + 4H2O (d) It is due to formation of hydrogen gas. The
(b) 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO [CBSE 2023] reaction becomes slow after some time as
(c) CuSO4 + Zn → Cu + ZnSO4 PbCl2(s) covers Pb metal.
(d) V2O5 + 5Ca → 2V + 5CaO Pb(s) + 2HCl(dil.) → PbCl2(s) + H2(g)
(e) 3Fe + 4H2O → Fe3O4 + 4H2 27. A substance ‘X’, which is an oxide of a group
(f) CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O 2 element, is used intensively in the cement
Ans. (a) Pb3O4 (Red lead). It is also called Sindur used by industry. This element is present in bones also.
married ladies. It is an oxidant (oxidising agent). On treatment with water, it forms a solution which
(b) O2 is oxidising agent. turns red litmus blue. Identify ‘X’ and also write
(c) CuSO4 is oxidising agent. the chemical reactions involved. [HOTS]
(d) V2O5 is oxidising agent.
Ans. The substance ‘X’ is calcium oxide (CaO), element U.V.
(f ) 2H2O2(l) → 2H2O(l) + O2(g);
is calcium. Calcium oxide is used in cement industry.
Decomposition reaction
Calcium is present in bones in form of calcium
phosphate. 31. A magnesium ribbon is burnt in oxygen to give a
Calcium oxide dissolves in water forming alkali white compound ‘X’ accompanied by emission of
which turns red litmus blue. light. If the burning ribbon is now placed in an
CaO(s) + H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2(aq) atmosphere of nitrogen, it continues to burn and
Calcium oxide Calcium hydroxide forms a compound ‘Y’.
(Lime water) (a) Write the chemical formulae of ‘X’ and ‘Y’.
28. Write a balanced chemical equation for each of [HOTS]
the following reactions and also classify them. (b) Write a balanced chemical equation, when X
(a) Lead acetate solution is treated with dilute is dissolved in water.
hydrochloric acid to form lead chloride and Burning
acetic acid solution. Ans. (a) 2Mg(s) + O2(g)  → 2MgO(s) + Light
(b) A piece of sodium metal is added to absolute ‘X’
ethanol to form sodium ethoxide and hydrogen 3Mg(s) + N2(g) → Mg3N2(s)
gas. ‘Y’
(c) Iron(III) oxide on heating with carbon (b) MgO(s) + H2O(l) → Mg(OH)2(aq)
Magnesium Water Magnesium
monoxide reacts to form solid iron and oxide hydroxide
liberates carbon dioxide gas. ‘X’
(d) Hydrogen sulphide gas reacts with oxygen gas
to form solid sulphur and liquid water. 32. Zinc liberated hydrogen gas when reacted with
Ans. (a) Pb(COOCH3)2(aq) + 2HCl(dil.) → PbCl2(s) dilute hydrochloric acid, whereas copper does not.
+ 2CH3COOH(l); Explain why?
Double displacement reaction Ans. Zn(s) + 2HCl(dil.) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)
(b) 2Na(s) + 2C2H5OH(l) → 2C2H5ONa(l) Zinc is more reactive than H2, therefore, displace H2
Displacement reaction + H2(g); from dil. HCl. Copper is less reactive than hydrogen,
(c) Fe2O3(s) + 3CO(g) → 2Fe(s) + 3CO2(g); therefore, it does not liberate H2(g) from dilute acid.
Redox reaction 33. A silver article generally turns black when kept in
(d) 2H2S(s) + 3O2(g) → 2H2O(l) + 2SO2(g); the open for a few days. The article when rubbed
Redox reaction with toothpaste again starts shining.
29. Why do we store silver chloride in dark coloured (a) Why do silver articles turn black when
bottles? [DoE] kept in the open for a few days? Name the
Ans. It is because silver chloride decomposes to silver and phenomenon involved.
chlorine gas in presence of sunlight. (b) Name the black substance formed and give its
Sunlight chemical formula.
2AgCl(s) → 2Ag(s) + Cl2(g)
Ans. (a) Silver reacts with H2S gas present in atmosphere to
30. Balance the following chemical equations and
form a black compound Ag2S (silver sulphide) on
identify the type of chemical reaction.
its surface. This phenomenon is called corrosion.
(a) Mg(s) + Cl2(g) → MgCl2(s)
Heat
(b) Ag2S(silver sulphide) is a black coloured solid.
(b) HgO(s) → Hg(l) + O2(g) 34. On heating blue coloured powder of copper (II)
Fuse
(c) Na(s) + S(s) → Na2S(s) nitrate in boiling tube, copper oxide (black),
(d) TiCl4(l) + Mg(s) → Ti(s) + MgCl2(s) oxygen gas and a brown gas ‘X’ is formed.
(e) CaO(s) + SiO2(s) → CaSiO3(s) (a) Write a balanced chemical equation of the
U.V. reaction.
(f ) H2O2(l) → H2O(l) + O2(g)
Ans. (a) Mg(s) + Cl2(g) → MgCl2(s); (b) Identify the brown gas ‘X’ evolved.
Combination reaction (c) Identify the type of reaction.
(b) 2HgO(s) → 2Hg(l) + O2(g); (d) What could be the pH range of aqueous
Decomposition reaction solution of the gas ‘X’?
heat
(c)
Fuse
2Na(s) + S(s) → Na2S(s); Ans. (a) 2Cu(NO3)2(s) → 2CuO(s) + 4NO2(g) + O2(g)
Copper(II) nitrate Copper ‘X’
Combination reaction (Blue) oxide Nitrogen
(d) TiCl4(l) + 2Mg(s) → Ti(s) + 2MgCl2(s); (Black) dioxide (Brown)
Displacement reaction (b) The brown gas ‘X’ is nitrogen dioxide (NO2).
(e) CaO(s) + SiO2(s) → CaSiO3(s) (c) The reaction is a thermal decomposition reaction.
Combination reaction
(d) The gas ‘X’ is acidic in nature because it is a Ans. (a) The solution will become colourless due to
non-metallic oxide. Its aqueous solution has pH formation of zinc sulphate and reddish brown
less than 7. copper metal will get deposited.
35. What happens when a piece of Zn(s) + CuSO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
(Grey) (Blue) (Colourless) (Reddish
(a) zinc metal is added to copper sulphate Zinc Copper Zinc brown)
solution? [CBSE 2020] sulphate sulphate
(b) a l u m i n i u m m e t a l i s a d d e d t o d i l u t e (b) Hydrogen gas and aluminium chloride solution
hydrochloric acid? will be formed.
(c) silver metal is added to copper sulphate 2Al(s) + 6HCl(dil.) → 2AlCl3(aq) + 3H2(g)
solution? (c) No reaction will take place because silver is less
Also, write the balanced chemical equation if the reactive than copper, it cannot displace copper
reaction occurs. from copper sulphate.
Scan to get Activities (Based on NCERT)
Answers to all unsolved questions are given at the end of all the chapters.
Self-Evaluation Test
1. Which of the following is redox reaction? 7. What happens when
(a) NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O (i) Magnesium burns in presence of N2
(b) 4Na + O2 → 2Na2O (ii) Zinc carbonate is heated.
heat Write balanced chemical equations.
(c) CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
(d) Pb(NO3)2 + 2KI → PbI2 + 2KNO3 8. Define redox reaction. Illustrate it with an example.
2. Which of the following is not balanced? 9. (a) PbO2 + 4HCl → PbCl2 + Cl2 + 2H2O
(a) Cu + HNO3 → Cu(NO3)2 + NO2 + H2O Identify
(b) Zn + H2SO4 → ZnSO4 + H2 (i) Oxidising agent
(c) 2KOH + H2SO4 → K2SO4 + 2H2O (ii) Reducing agent
D (iii) Substance getting oxidised
(d) (NH4)2Cr2O7 → N2+ Cr2O3 + 4H2O
(iv) Substance getting reduced
3. Which of the following is endothermic combination
(b) Why does a apple turn brown when kept in air?
reaction?
(a) C + O2 → CO2 10. Translate the following into balanced chemical
(b) N2 + O2 → 2NO equation.
(c) N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 (i) Potassium permanganate on heating gives
(d) CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2 potassium manganate.
(ii) Sulphur burns in presence of oxygen to form
4. Which of the following are correct about the reaction
sulphur dioxide.
Zn(s) + 2HCl(dil.) → ZnCl2 + H2 (iii) Potassium reacts with water to form potassium
I. It is displacement reaction. hydroxide and hydrogen gas.
II. It is exothermic. 11. Complete the following reactions and balance them.
III. Zinc is more reactive than hydrogen. (i) Mg + O2 →
(ii) MnO2 + HCl →
IV. Zinc is less reaction than H2.
(iii) NH3 + HCl →
(a) I, II (b) I, II, III
(iv) CuO + H2 →
(c) II and III (d) II and IV Sunlight
Direction: In the following Questions, the Assertion and (v) CO2 + H2O →
Chlorophyll
Reason have been put forward. Read the statements
12. Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) is a colourless liquid
carefully and choose the correct alternative from the
which can act as oxidising as well as reducing
following:
agent. When it acts as oxidising agent, only water is
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the
formed. When it acts as reducing agent, oxygen gas
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
is formed. It acts as rocket fuel. Its dilute solution
acts as antiseptic and bleaching agent.
Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(a) What are products formed when H2O2 undergoes
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
decomposition reaction?
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason
(b) With FeCl 3 (aq), H 2 O 2 acts as oxidising or
is true.
reducing agent?
5. Assertion: All combustion reactions are oxidation (c) Complete the following
reactions. (i) PbS + 4H2O2 →
Reason: Combustion reactions are exothermic. (ii) 2NaOH + H2O2 →
6. Assertion: Electrolysis of acidified water liberates Or
H2 at cathode. (c) Why does H2O2 act as both oxidising as well as
Reason: Cathode is positive electrode. reducing agent? Explain.
Scan to get Answers

CHAPTER
2 Acids, Bases and Salts
MIND MAP
Chemical Substance
Acids Bases Salt
Type Physical properties Chemical properties

1. Turn blue litmus red. 2. Sour in taste. Reaction with metals:
3. Give H+ in aqueous solution. Metal + Acid → Salt + Hydrogen gas
4. pH < 7
Zn(s) + H2SO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + H2(g)
5. They conduct electricity in aqueous solution.
6. They turn universal indicator red. Reaction with metal carbonates:
Metal carbonate + Acid → Salt
+ Carbon dioxide gas + Water
Strong acids: Those acids which Weak acids: Those acids which par tially Na2CO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) → 2NaCl(aq)
completely ionised in water ionised in water and provide limited amount + CO2(g) + H2O(l) [CBSE 2023]
and provide hydrogen ions. of hydrogen ions.
Hydrochloric acid, sulphuric acid Reaction with metal hydrogencarbonates:
Acetic acid, formic acid, citric acid, tartaric Metal hydrogencarbonate + Acid →
and nitric acid are strong acids.
acid, etc are weak acids.
Salt + Carbon dioxide + Water
Molecule NaHCO3(s) + HCl(aq) → NaCl(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)
Cation (H +)
Cation (H +)
Anion Reaction with metallic oxides [CBSE 2023]
Anion
Strong acid: Completely
Metal oxide + Acid → Salt + Water
dissociated into ion Weak acid: partly
ionised into ions CuO(s) + H2SO4(aq) → CuSO4(aq) + H2O(l)
HCl, HNO3, HCl, HI, HClO4
Bases
Type
Strong bases: Those bases which completely Physical properties Chemical properties
ionised in water and provide large amount of 1. Turn red litmus blue. Reaction with metals:
hydroxide ions. 2. Soapy touch and bitter in taste.
3. Give OH– in aqueous solution. Base + Metal → Salt + Hydrogen
Sodium hydroxide, potassium hydroxide are
strong bases. 4. pH > 7 2NaOH(aq) + Zn(s) → Na2ZnO2(aq) + H2(g)
5. They also conduct electricity in [CBSE 2023]
aqueous solution. Reaction with non-metallic oxide
Weak bases: Those bases which partially ionised
6. They turn universal indication
in water and provide limited amount of hydroxide Base + Non-metallic oxide → Salt + Water
blue. [CBSE 2023]
ions. Ca(OH)2(aq) + CO2(g) → CaCO3(s) + H2O(l)
Ammonium hydroxide, magnesium hydroxide, etc [CBSE 2023]
are weak bases.
Acids, Bases and Salts 39
Indicators
Those substances which change colour/smell in different
medium/aqueous solution.
Natural indicators Synthetic indicators

Indicators which are produced from natural sources. Indicators which are produced in laboratory.
Litmus, turmeric, red cabbage, china rose, etc. are Phenolphthalein and methyl orange are synthetic
few natural indicators. indicators.
Colour of some indicators in acidic and basic medium

Indicators Colour in acidic Colour in basic
medium medium
Litmus Red Blue
Methyl orange Pinkish red Yellow
Phenolphthalein Colourless Pink [CBSE 2023]
Olfactory indicators
Indicators whose odour changes in acidic or basic solutions. Vanilla, onion and clove are used as olfactory indicators.
Odour Odour in ba-

in acidic sic medium
medium
Odour of Odour of
onion can be onion cannot
Onion pieces kept in detected. be detected.
Onion pieces
plastic bag with two Pouring dil. HCl on one
strips of clean cloth Bag left overnight in strip and dil. NaOH on
refrigerator the other
pH scale
The strength of an acid or an alkali is also represented by what is known as pH scale. The pH scale varies from 1 to 14. If the pH of the solution
is between 7 to 14, it is a basic solution. A solution having pH value 7 is termed as neutral (e.g., water). Acidic substances have pH value less
than 7 and basic substances have pH value greater than 7.
Gastric juice Grapes Bananas Pure water Baking soda Ammonia Oven cleaner
Sodium hydroxide
Lemon Tomatoes Milk Eggs Soap Bleach solution
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
Acidic Neutral Bases
Salts
Salts are formed by neutralisation reaction of acids and bases. Salts are electrically neutral.
Acid + Base → Salt + Water
HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(l)
HNO3(l) + KOH(aq) → KNO3(aq) + H2O(l)
Important Chemical name Chemical Preparation Uses

salts formula
Common Sodium chloride NaCl By combination reaction of sodium hydroxide and hy- (i) As raw material for mak-
salt drochloric acid ing many chemicals such
NaOH(aq) + HCl(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(aq) as sodium hydroxide, bak-
ing soda, washing soda,
bleaching powder and
many more.
(ii) In edible food.
Caustic Sodium hydrox- NaOH By passing electricity through aqueous sodium chloride (i) In detergents and soaps
soda ide (brine) solution. This process is known as chlor-alkali (ii) In paper making
process. (iii) In bleach manufacture
2NaCl(aq) + 2H2O(aq) → 2NaOH(aq) + Cl2(g) + H2(g) (iv) In bauxite purification to
extract aluminium
Bleaching Calcium oxychlo- CaOCl2 By passing chlorine gas over dry slaked lime [Ca(OH2)] (i) For bleaching cotton and
powder ride Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 → CaOCl2 + H2O [CBSE 2023] linen for bleaching wood
pulp in paper factories
and for bleaching washed
clothes in laundary textile.
(ii) For disinfecting drinking
water.
(iii) As an oxidising agent in
chemical industry.
Baking Sodium hydrogen NaHCO3 On reacting cold concentrated sodium chloride (brine) (i) Preparing baking powder.
soda carbonate solution with ammonia and carbon dioxide (ii) As an antacid in medicine.
NaCl + NH3 + CO2 + H2O → NaHCO3 + NH4Cl (iii) In soda-acid fire extin-
[CBSE 2023] guishers.
Washing Sodium carbon- Na2CO3.10H2O By recrystallisation of sodium carbonate in water (i) In glass, soap and paper
soda ate decahydrate Na2CO3 + 10H2O → Na2CO3.10H2O [CBSE 2023] industries.
heat (ii) Cleaning agent for domes-
2NaHCO3 → Na2CO3 + CO2 + H2O [CBSE 2023]
tic purposes.
(iii) Softening hard water.
Plaster of Calcium sulphate 1 By heating gypsum at 373 K (i) For making casts of stat-
Paris hemihydrate CaSO4. H2O 1 1 ues, models, toys, etc.
2 CaSO4.2H2O → CaSO4. H2O + 1 H2O
2 2 (ii) For making fireproof mate-
rials.
(iii) For setting fractured
bones.
TOPICS COVERED
Properties and Strength of Acids and Bases
(d)
Multiple Choice
Questions 1 Mark
1. Adding which of the following to a colourless pH
solution would give an indication that the solution
could possibly be hydrochloric acid? [CFPQ, CBSE]
(a) Copper metal strips
(b) Silver metal strips
(c) Calcium carbonate Time
(d) Sodium chloride 3. Which fruit is basic in nature? [CBSE T.E.R.M.*]
2. Which of these graphs shows how the pH of milk (a) Apples (b) Strawberries
changes as it forms curd? [CFPQ, CBSE] (c) Oranges (d) Banana
(a) 4. An oxide of an element ‘P’ is added to acid where it
forms salt and water. The table shows the possible
values of pH and type of element before the reaction.
[CBSE T.E.R.M.*]
pH
pH Type of Element
(a) <7 Metal
Time (b) <7 Non-metal

(b) (c) >7 Metal
(d) >7 Non-Metal
pH Which option is correct?
5. Which of the following will be present in dilute

aqueous solution of sulphuric acid?
[DoE Pre-Board 2023]
Time (a) H3O+ + SO42–

(c) (b) H3O+ + OH–
(c) OH– + SO42–

(d) H3O+ + SO2
6. A student learnts that plants grow when the pH
pH
of the soil is slightly acidic. Which range of pH is
most suited for plant growth? [CBSE T.E.R.M.*]
(a) 1 – 3 (b) 5.5 – 7
(c) 7 – 9 (d) 11 – 14
Time

7. The change in colour of the moist litmus paper in the given set up is due to [CBSE Sample Paper 2023]
Moist litmus paper
Dropper containing
concentrated H2SO4 Delivery tube
Cork
Test Tube
A pair of tongs A pair of tongs
Test tube
Guard tube containing
Sodium chloride calcium chloride
(i) presence of acid (ii) presence of base

(iii) presence of H+(aq) in the solution (iv) presence of litmus which acts as an indicator
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) Only (ii) (c) Only (iii) (d) Only (iv)
8. With the reference to four gases CO2, CO, Cl2 and O2, which one of the option in the table is correct?
[CBSE Sample Paper 2023]
Option Acidic oxide Used in treatment of Product of Product of incomplete
water respiration combustion
(a) CO Cl2 O2 CO
(b) CO2 Cl2 CO2 CO
(c) CO2 O2 O2 CO2
(d) CO O2 CO2 CO2
9. Anita added a drop each of diluted acetic acid and diluted hydrochloric acid on pH paper and compared
the colors. Which of the following is the correct conclusion? [CBSE Sample Paper 2023]
(a) pH of acetic acid is more than that of hydrochloric acid.
(b) pH of acetic acid is less than that of hydrochloric acid.
(c) Acetic acid dissociates completely in aqueous solution.
(d) Acetic acid is a strong acid.
10. Identify gas A in the following experiment. [CBSE Sample Paper 2022]
(a) Nitrogen (b) Hydrogen (c) Oxygen (d) Carbon dioxide

11. The graph given below depicts a neutralization
reaction (acid + alkali → salt + water). The pH of 14 A B
a solution changes as we add excess of acid to an
alkali.
C
pH
7
D
0
Volume of acid added
Which letter denotes the area of the graph where both 15. Which of the following oxide(s) is/are soluble in
acid and salt are present? [CBSE Sample Paper 2022] water to form alkalies? [CBSE 2021]
(a) A (b) B (i) Na2O (ii) SO2 (iii) K2O (iv) NO2
(c) C (d) D (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) only
12. Which of the given options correctly represents (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (iii) only
the parent acid and base of calcium carbonate?
[CBSE Sample Paper 2022] 16. Study the diagram given below and identify the
Option Parent Acid Parent Base gas formed in the reaction. [CBSE 2021]
(a) HCl NaOH
(b) H2CO3 Ca(OH)2
(c) H3PO3 CaSO4 Dilute sulphuric acid
(d) H2SO4 CaSO4 Zinc granules

13. How will you protect yourself from the heat
generated while diluting a concentrated acid?
[CBSE Sample Paper 2022] (a) Carbon dioxide which extinguishes the burning
(a) By adding acid to water with constant stirring. candle.
(b) By adding water to acid with constant stirring. (b) Oxygen due to which the candle burns more
(c) By adding water to acid followed by base. brightly.
(d) By adding base to acid with constant stirring. (c) Sulphur dioxide which produces a suffocating
14. In which of the following setups would the bulb smell.
glow? [CBSE Sample Paper 2022; Similar CBSE 2023] (d) Hydrogen which while burning produces a popping
(i) 6 volt Bulb sound.
battery Switch
17. Which of the options in the given table are correct?
[CBSE 2021]
Beaker Option Natural source Acid present
Nail Dilute HCl (i) Orange Oxalic acid
solution
Rubber cork (ii) Sour milk Lactic acid
(ii) 6 volt
Bulb (iii) Ant sting Methanoic acid
battery Switch (iv) Tamarind Acetic acid
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
Beaker
18. Select from the following the statement which is
Nail Sugar solution true for bases. [CBSE 2021]
Rubber cork (a) Bases are bitter and turn blue litmus red.
(iii) 6 volt
Bulb (b) Bases have a pH less than 7.
battery Switch (c) Bases are sour and change red litmus to blue.
(d) Bases turn pink when a drop of phenolphthalein
Beaker
is added to them.
19. Study the following table and choose the correct
Nail Alcohol in option: [CBSE 2021]
water
Rubber cork Salt Parent Parent Nature
(iv) 6 volt
Bulb Acid Base of Salt
battery Switch (a) Sodium HCl NaOH Basic
Chloride
Beaker (b) Sodium H2CO3 NaOH Neutral
Carbonate
Nail Lime water (c) Sodium H2SO4 NaOH Acidic
Rubber cork Sulphate
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iv) (d) Sodium CH3COOH NaOH Basic
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iv) Acetate
20. Consider the pH value of the following acidic The correct statements are: [CBSE 2020]
samples: [CBSE 2021] (a) (A) and (C) (b) (B) and (D)
S.No. Sample pH value (c) (A) and (B) (d) (C) and (D)
1. Lemon juice 2.2
25. NaHCO3 is formed by reaction of
(a) NaOH + H2CO3 (b) NaCl + H2CO3
2. Gastric juice 1.2 (c) Na2CO3 + HCl (d) NaOH + Na2CO3
3. Vinegar 3.76 26. pH of H2O is
(a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 10
4. Dil. Acetic acid 3.0
27. Ag2S reacts with H2SO4 to form
The decreasing order of their H+ ion concentration (a) AgSO4 (b) Ag2SO4 + H2S
is (c) Ag2O + H2S (d) AgOH + H2S
(a) 3 > 4 > 1 > 2 (b) 2 > 1 > 3 > 4 28. A solution turns the colour of turmeric to reddish
(c) 2 > 1 > 4 > 3 (d) 3 > 4 > 2 > 1 brown. If the same solution is poured on universal
21. Study the experimental set up shown in given figure indicator the colour would change to [CBSE 2023]
and choose the correct option from the following: (a) violet (b) blue
[CBSE 2021]
(c) red (d) green
29. Acid present in tomato is [CBSE 2023]
(a) methanoic acid (b) acetic acid
(c) lactic acid (d) oxalic acid
Answers
1. (c) Calcium carbonate reacts with HCl to form brisk
Q effervescence due to CO2.
Dilute CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + CO2
hydrochloric Calcium others will not react with HCl.
hydroxide
acid
solution
2. (a) Milk is nearly neutral. When it changes to curd
P
its pH decreases as lactic acid is present in curd.
pH keeps on decreasing, curd is acidic with low
pH.
P Q Change observed
3. (d) Banana is basic in nature.
in calcium
4. (a) The pH of acid before the reaction is less than 7.
hydroxide solution
The element is metal which forms basic oxide.
(a) K2CO3 Cl2 gas No change 5. (a) H2SO4 + 2H2O → H3O+ + SO42–
(b) KHCO3 CO2 gas No change 6. (b)
(c) KHCO3 H2 gas Turns milky 7. (c) Acids turn moist blue litmus paper red.
8. (b)
(d) K2CO3 CO2 gas Turns milky 9. (a) Acetic acid is weaker acid with pH more than
22. An aqueous solution with pH = 1 is hydrochloric acid (strong acid).
(a) strongly acidic (b) strongly basic 10. (b) Zn(s) + H2SO4(dil.) → ZnSO4(aq) + H2(g)
(c) neutral (d) weakly acidic 11. (d) Salt and excess of acid is present.
23. Curd cannot be stored in [DoE]
12. (b) H2CO3 + Ca(OH)2 → CaCO3 + H2O
(i) Brass vessel (ii) Copper vessel 13. (a) Cooling under running water will also help.
(iii) Steel (iv) Bronze 14. (b) Dil. HCl, lime water will conduct electricity, sugar
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) (b) (ii), (iii), (iv) solution and alcohol will not.
(c) (i), (ii), (iv) (d) (i), (iii), (iv) 15. (a) Na2O + H2O → 2NaOH; K2O + H2O → 2KOH
16. (d)
24. When a small amount of acid is added to water, 17. (c)
the phenomena which occur are: 18. (d) Bases turn phenolphthalein pink.
(A) Dilution 19. (d) CH3COOH is weak acid and NaOH is strong base.
(B) Neutralisation 20. (c) Higher the concentration of H+, lower will be pH.
(C) Formation of H3O+ ions 21. (d) K2CO3 + 2HCl → 2KCl + CO2 + H2O;
(D) Salt formation Ca(OH)2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + H2O
22. (a) Lower the pH, stronger will be acid. Ans. (a) The pH meter will indicate a slightly higher pH
23. (c) C opper reacts with acid to form poisonous reading than the actual pH of the solution if the
substance. second solution is acidic because distilled water
24. (a) will decrease H3O+ concentration.
25. (a) NaOH + H2CO3 → NaHCO3 + H2O (b) The pH meter will indicate a slightly lower pH
26. (a) pH of H2O is 7 because it is neutral. reading than the actual pH of the solution if the
27. (b) Ag2S + H2SO4 → Ag2SO4 + H2S second solution is basic because distilled water
28. (b) Q solution is basic in nature. will decrease (OH –) and increase (H3O+).
29. (d) 32. Dipti has three flasks containing dilute hydrochloric
acid, dilute sulphuric acid and dilute sodium
V S A Very Short Answer hydroxide respectively. The flasks are not labeled
Type Questions 2 Marks and she does not have any pH indicator.
(a) Which of the solutions will she be able to
30. To prepare a salad dressing, Parag adds a solution identify just by making mixtures of pairs of
of sodium chloride in distilled water to vinegar. the substances?
State what change will occur in the following: (b) What observation will help her to make this
(a) the pH of the vinegar identification? [CFPQ, CBSE]
(b) the acidity of the vinegar [CFPQ, CBSE] Ans. (a) The dilute sodium hydroxide
Ans. (a) The pH will increase because vinegar (dil. (b) The flasks containing mixtures of sodium
solution of acetic acid) is acidic in nature hydroxide with hydrochloric acid and with
whereas NaCl(aq) is neutral (pH = 7). sulphuric acid will be warm to touch.
(b) The acidity will decrease because NaCl(aq) NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O + heat
is being added i.e., water is being increased. 2NaOH + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + 2H2O + heat
Acidity decreases with dilution. Neutralisation reactions are exothermic.
31. pH is measured using a pH meter, which comprises 33. (a) What is the colour of litmus in a solution of
a detecting unit consisting of a pH sensitive glass ammonium hydroxide?
electrode and an indicating unit which indicates (b) A bud of Petunia became reddish purple after
the pH as shown below. first shower of rain. What does it indicate ?
Ans. (a) Red litmus will turn blue in ammonium
hydroxide.
(b) The rain was acid-rain.
34. (a) How will you test for the gas which is liberated
pH reading
when hydrochloric acid reacts with an active
metal?
Gas (b) Which gas is evolved when sodium hydroge-
Electrode ncarbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric
Indicating acid?
unit
Ans. (a) Bring a burning matchstick near the gas. It burns
with ‘pop’ sound showing that it is hydrogen.
(b) Carbon dioxide gas is evolved.
Solution 35. (a) A few drops of sulphuric acid is added to
water before electrolysis, why?
To measure the pH of a solution, the glass electrode (b) What effect does the concentration of H+(aq)
is dipped into the solution and the pH is displayed on have on the acidic nature of the solution?
the screen of the indicating unit. Before measuring Ans. (a) It makes water better conductor.
the pH of another solution, the glass electrode is (b) Acidic nature increases with increase in conc.
rinsed with distilled water and dried carefully with of H3O+ ion.
tissue paper. 36. (a) Name the metals which are soluble in aqua
How is the pH reading of the second solution likely regia.
to be affected if the glass electrode is not dried with (b) What will you do if conc. H2SO4 falls on
tissue paper in the following cases? your hand?
(a) If the second solution being measured is Ans. (a) Au and Pt can dissolve in aqua regia.
acidic in nature. (b) Put hand in running water till irritation stops.
(b) If the second solution being measured is basic
in nature. [CFPQ, CBSE]
37. Out of the two — hydrochloric acid and acetic 44. Keerti added dilute hydrochloric acid to four
acid, which one is considered a strong acid and metals and recorded her observations as shown
why? Write the name/molecular formula of one in the table given below:
more strong acid. [CBSE 2021 (C)] Metal Gas Evolved
Ans. Hydrochloric acid is a strong acid because it has more Copper Yes
number of hydronium (H3O+) ions whereas acetic acid
contains less number of hydronium (H3O+) ions. So Iron Yes
it is a weak acid. Magnesium No
Sulphuric acid (H2SO4) is also a strong acid. Zinc Yes
38. What are the amphoteric oxides? Give an example. Select the correct observation(s) and give chemical
[CBSE 2021 (C)] equation(s) of the reaction involved.
Ans. Amphoteric oxides have both acidic and basic [CBSE Sample Paper 2023]
properties. They form salts when they react with acids. Ans. Fe + HCl → FeCl2/ FeCl3 + H2 (1 mark)
They also react with alkalis to form complex salts. Zn + HCl → ZnCl2 + H2 (1 mark)
Examples: Al2O3. [CBSE Marking Scheme]
39. Define olfactory indicators. Name two substances

which can be used as olfactory indicators. A Short Answer
S Type Questions 3 Marks
Ans. Those substances whose smell (odour) changes in
acidic or basic solution are called olfactory indicators, 45. The pH of three solutions is given in the table.
e.g. onion and vanilla. Answer the questions that follow.
40. Classify the following into strong acids and weak Solution pH
acids. P 1
CH3COOH, H2SO4, H2CO3, HNO3
Q 7
Ans. H2SO4 and HNO3 are strong acids.
CH2COOH, H2CO3 and H2SO3 are weak acids. R 14
(a) Which of these solutions could possibly react
41. Explain the action of dilute hydrochloric acid on
with zinc metal to produce hydrogen gas?
the following with chemical equations: [CBSE 2015]
(b) Which of these solutions could be formed by
(a) Magnesium ribbon
the reaction of a metal oxide with water?
(b) Crushed egg shells
(c) Which of these solutions could be the raw
Ans. (a) Hydrogen gas will be formed, e.g.
material for the industrial manufacture of
Mg (s) + 2HCl (dil) → MgCl2 (aq) + H2 (s)
chlorine? [CFPQ, CBSE]
(b) Crushed egg shells are made up of CaCO3 which
Ans. (a) – Solution P because it is acid (strong), will
reacts with dil HCl to give brisk effervescence
displace H2 by reacting with zinc.
due to CO2, e.g.
– Solution R because it is strong base, zinc
CaCO3 (s) + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O + CO2
reacts with strong base to form H2(g).
42. Write two example of neutralization reaction. (b) Solution R because it is strong base, formed by
Ans. Examples of neutralization reaction are as follows: reaction of metal oxide with water to form metal
(i) HCl (aq) + NH4OH (aq) → NH4Cl (aq) + hydroxide (base).
H2O (c) Solution Q is of NaCl (pH = 7) which on elec-
(ii) NaOH (aq) + HCl (aq) → NaCl (aq) + H2O trolysis will produce chlorine gas on industrial
43. A clear solution of slaked lime is made by dissolving scale as a by-product in manufacture of NaOH.
Ca(OH)2 in an excess of water. This solution is left 46. Sunlta carried out the following reactions in the
exposed to air. The solution slowly goes milky as a laboratory:
faint white precipitate forms. Explain why a faint (i) Complete neutralisation of one mole of
white precipitate forms, support your response sodium carbonate with hydrochloric acid
with the help of a chemical equation. (ii) Complete neutralisation of one mole of
[CBSE Sample Paper 2023] sodium bicarbonate with hydrochloric acid
Ans. Calcium hydroxide reacts with carbon dioxide present She found that the amount of carbon dioxide
in the atmosphere to form calcium carbonate which formed in both the reactions was the same.
results in milkiness/white ppt / Formation of calcium (a) Is her finding correct? Justify your answer.
carbonate (1 mark) (b) How does the amount of salt formed in case
Ca(OH)2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + H2O (1 mark) (i) compare with the amount of salt formed
[CBSE Marking Scheme] in case (ii)? [CFPQ, CBSE]
Ans. (a) Yes, her finding is correct. the formation of hydronium ions due to which colour
1 mole of CO2 is produced in both the cases. change of litmus paper take place.
Na2CO3(s) + 2HCl(dil.) → 2NaCl(aq) + H2O 2NaCl + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + 2HCl
+ CO2(g) …(i) 52. 2 mL of sodium hydroxide solution is added to a
NaHCO3(s) + HCl(dil.) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(l) few pieces of granulated zinc metal taken in a test
+ CO2(g) …(ii) tube. When the contents are warmed, a gas evolves
(b) The amount of salt (2 mole NaCl) formed in case which is bubbled through a soap solution before
(i) is twice the amount of salt (1 mole of NaCl) testing. Write the equation of the chemical reaction
formed in case (ii). involved and the test to detect the gas. Name the
Questions 47, 48 and 49 are based on the given passage. gas which will be evolved when the same metal
Rajesh was given a substance and asked to identify reacts with dilute solution of a strong acid.
it. He conducted three tests on the substance and [CBSE 2020, 18]
recorded the results below. Ans. (a) Zinc reacts with NaOH to form sodium zincate
P. It releases carbon dioxide, water and a and hydrogen gas
sodium salt on heating with water. Zn + 2NaOH → Na2ZnO2 + H2
Q. It turns universal indicator greenish-blue. Sodium Hydrogen
zincate gas
R. It can be prepared from ammonia as a raw
material. [CFPQ, CBSE]
(b) When a burning splinter is brought near the gas,
the splinter will gives out a ‘pop’ sound which
47. What substance was Rajesh given? shows the gas evolved is hydrogen.
Ans. Sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO3). (c) Hydrogen gas will be evolved when Zn metal
48. Give ONE use of the substance based on the reacts with dilute solution of strong acid.
properties mentioned in P and Q. Zn(s) + H2SO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + H2↑
Ans. – Used as antacids
– Used as baking soda A Long Answer
– Used as a first aid in acidic insect bites L Type Questions 5 Marks
– Used in soda acid-fire extinguisher (any one)
53. A remarkable property of acids is that they can
49. Rajesh later read that recrystallisation of the ‘dissolve’ metals. When metals are added to an
sodium salt formed in P gives another basic salt acid, they disintegrate and disappear into the acid.
that is used in manufacture of borax. (a) State one other common observation when
Identify the sodium salt formed in P. metals ‘dissolve’ in acids. Explain the reason
Ans. Sodium carbonate (Na2CO3) is used for manufacture for this observation.
of borax (Na2B4O7.10H2O) (b) If the acid with the ‘dissolved’ metal is
50. While constructing a house, a builder selects marble evaporated, can we get the metal back?
flooring and marble top for kitchen where vinegar Why or why not?
and juices of lemon, tamarind etc. are more often (c) In this question, the word ‘dissolve’ is used
used for cooking. Will you agree to this selection within quotes. This is because it is not actually
and why? [DoE] an example of dissolving. What is the MAIN
Ans. No, I won’t agree with the selection because vinegar, difference between a metal ‘dissolving’ in an
juices of lemon and tamarind contains organic acids acid and sugar dissolving in water?
like acetic acid, citric acid and tartaric acid. Marble [CFPQ, CBSE]
is calcium carbonate. If accidentally juices of citrus Ans. (a) Observation: Bubbling is seen.
fruits will fall on the marble floor, it will react with Reason: Because hydrogen is produced, e.g.
the calcium carbonate and will leave mark on the floor Zn(s) + H2SO4(dil.) → ZnSO4(aq)
which will look really bed. + H2(g) + heat
51. 1 g of solid sodium chloride is taken in a clean and Alternative solution:
dry test tube and 2 mL of conc. sulphuric acid is Observation: The vessel becomes warm.
added to it. If the gas evolved is tested first with Reason: Because it is an exothermic reaction.
dry and then with wet blue litmus paper, in which (b) – No, because metal has reacted with acid to
case will the litmus paper change colour? Give form salt solution.
reason for your answer with chemical equation – The metal is present as a part of a salt
for the reaction. [CBSE 2018 (C)] solution.
Ans. The colour change will be observed in wet blue (c) Metal dissolving in acid is a chemical change
litmus paper because moisture/water is needed for while sugar dissolving in water is a physical
change. In chemical change, metal cannot be 55. (a) The pH of soil A is 7.5 while that of soil B is
recovered whereas in sugar solution, sugar can 4.5. Which of the two soils A or B should be
be obtained by crystallisation. treated with powdered chalk to adjust its pH
54. State reason for the following statements: and why? [CBSE 2016]
(a) Tap water conducts electricity whereas (b) Name the chemical which is injected into the
distilled water does not. skin of a person:
(b) Dry hydrogen chloride gas does not turn blue (i) During an ant’s sting
litmus red whereas dilute hydrochloric acid (ii) During the nettle leaf sting.
does. How can the effect of these stings be
(c) During summer season, a milk man usually neutralised?
adds a very small amount of baking soda to (c) Explain how the pH change in the river water
fresh milk. can endanger the lives of aquatic animals like
(d) For a dilution of acid, acid is added into fish?
water and not water into acid. Ans. (a) Soil ‘B’ is acidic. It should be treated with
(e) Ammonia is a base but does not contain powdered chalk which is basic so as to adjust
hydroxyl group. [CBSE 2015] its pH.
Ans. (a) Tap water contains ions which conduct electricity, (b) (i) Formic acid, (HCOOH).
distilled water does not contain ions. (ii) Formic acid, (HCOOH).
(b) Dry HCl does not form ions but HCl gives H+ The effect of these stings neutralized by rubbing
and Cl–. the skin with mild base like baking soda
(c) Baking soda does not allow milk to change to (NaHCO3).
lactic acid which makes milk sour. (c) If pH of river water changes, amount of oxygen
(d) Adding water to acid is highly exothermic. dissolved in water may decrease. Acidic and
Therefore, water is added to acid very slowly basic water is harmful for skin of aquatic animals
with cooling. like fish.
(e) Ammonia dissolves in water forms OH – .
Therefore, it is basic.
NH3 + H2O → NH+4 + OH–
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Select the correct option(s) in the following table. 2. The aqua regia is
Option Natural source Acid present (a) 3HNO3(conc.) + 1 HCl (conc.)
(b) 3HCl (conc.) + 1 HNO3 (conc.)
(i) Tamarind Tartaric acid
(c) HNO3 (conc.) + H2SO4 (conc.)
(ii) Tomato Lactic acid (d) HNO3(conc.) + HCl (conc.)
(iii) Ant sting Oxalic acid 3. The acid having highest hydronium ion concentration
(iv) Nettle sting Methanoic acid is one with
[CBSE 2023] (a) pH = 2.5 (b) pH = 1.8
(a) (i) only (b) (iii) only (c) pH = 7 (d) pH = 10 [KVS]
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iv)
4. The table below has information regarding pH and nature (acidic/basic) for four different solutions. Which one of
the option in the table is correct? [CBSE 2023]
Solution Colour of pH paper Approx pH Nature of solution
(a) Lemon juice Orange 3 Basic
(b) Milk of magnesia Blue 10 Basic
(c) Gastric juice Red 6 Acidic
(d) Pure water Yellow 7 Neutral
5. Name the acid present in the following: (a) What change would be observed in lime water?
(a) Tomato (b) Vinegar
[CBSE 2015] (b)
Write balanced chemical equation for the above
6. Write any two natural and two synthetic indicators. change.
7. A student dropped few pieces of marble in dilute HCl 8. What happens when an acid reacts with metal oxides?
contained in a test tube. The evolved gas was passed Give two chemical equations of the reaction involved.
through lime water.
9. Name an indicator which is (c) What is observed when sulphur dioxide is passed
(a) pink in acidic solution and yellow in basic through
solution. (i) water (ii) lime water?
(b) colourless in acidic solution and pink in basic Also write chemical equations for the reactions
solution. that take place.
10. (a) Which bases are called alkalies? Give an example 17. (a) The soil in a field is highly acidic. List any
of alkalies. two materials which can be added to this soil
(b) What is cure for bee sting? Why? to reduce its acidity. Give the reason for your
11. (a) The pH of a sample of vegetable soup was found choice. [CBSE 2016]
to be 6.5. How is this soup likely to taste? (b) A gas produced in the laboratory is highly soluble
(b) Which remedy you will suggest if someone in in water. Its colourless solution turns pink when
family is suffering from problem of acidity and a few drops of phenolphthalein is added to it.
why? What is the nature of this gas?
12. (a) What are antacids? Give one example. 18. (a) Explain the following chemical properties of acids
(b) State the purpose for which litmus is used in with the help of balanced chemical equations
laboratories. [CBSE 2021 (C)] only.
13. (a) What is an alkali? Give an example. (i) when an acid reacts with a metal carbonate
(b) Why do HCl, HNO3, etc. show acidic characters in (ii) when an acid reacts with a metal bicarbonate
aqueous solutions while solutions of compounds (iii) when an acid reacts with a metal oxide
like alcohol and glucose do not show acidic (b) You are given three solutions A, B and C with
character? pH values 2, 10 and 13 respectively. Write which
solution has more hydrogen ion concentration
14. Identify the acid and base which form sodium hydrogen
among the three and state the nature ‘acidic or
carbonate. Write chemical equation in support of your
basic’ of each solution.
answer. State whether this compound is acidic, basic
or neutral. Also write its pH value. [Delhi 2019] 19. (a) A metal compound ‘X’ reacts with dil.
H2SO4 to produce effervescence The gas evolved
15. On passing excess carbon dioxide gas through lime
extinguishes a burning candle. If one of the
water, it first turns milky and then becomes colourless.
compounds formed is calcium sulphate, then
Explain why? Write all the chemical equations of the
what is ‘X’ and the gas evolved? Also write
reactions involved. [CBSE 2023, 20, 16]
a balanced chemical equation for the reaction
16. (a) What is pH value of salt formed by a which occurred.
(i) weak acid and strong base? (b) (i) Name one antacid. How does it help to
(ii) strong acid and strong base? relieve indigestion in stomach?
(b) 15 mL of water and 10 mL of sulphuric acid are (ii) A farmer treats the soil with quick
to be mixed in a beaker lime or calcium carbonate. What is the
(i) State the method that should be followed nature of soil? Why does the farmer treat
with reason. the soil with quick lime?
(ii) What is this process called? [CBSE 2015]
TOPIC COVERED
More about Salts
(i) Bleaching powder (ii) Plaster of Paris
Multiple Choice (iii) Washing soda (iv) Baking soda
Questions 1 Mark (a) (ii) and (iv)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
1. Dry slaked lime reacts with Cl2 gas to form
(d) (i) and (iv)
(a) CaCl2 (b) CaOCl2
(c) Ca(OH)2 (d) CaO 3. Which of the following is not a acidic salt?
(a) CuSO4 (b) NH4Cl
2. Which of the following salts do not have the water
(c) FeCl3 (d) CH3COONa
of crystalisation? [CBSE 2021]
4. A solution of NaCl 6. (a) CaOCl2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + Cl2
(i) will turn red litmus blue CaOCl2 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + Cl2 + H2O
(ii) will turn pH paper green 7. (a)
(iii) will turn blue litmus red 8. (a) Na 2CO 3 is basic turns phenolphthalein pink,
(iv) will not affect litmus NH4Cl does not.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), and, (iii) 9. (a) 2NaCl + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2 + Cl2
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv) 10. (c) Baking soda is mixture of NaHCO3 and tartaric
5. Many salts absorbs water from atmosphere. This acid.
1
property is called 11. (c) CaSO4 . H2O is Plaster of Paris.
2
(a) deliquescence (b) efflorescence
(c) hydration (d) addition V S A Very Short Answer
6. CaOCl2 will liberate Cl2 gas in presence of Type Questions 2 Marks
(i) CO2 (ii) HCl (iii) CO (iv) NO 12. (a) Why does bleaching powder act as bleaching
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) agent?
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv) (b) Write chemical equation representing the
7. Egg shell is made up of action of CO2 present in atmosphere on
(a) CaCO3 (b) CaO bleaching powder left in open. [CBSE 2013]
(c) Ca(OH)2 (d) CaCl2 Ans. (a) It is because it is oxidising agent.
8. Two salts X and Y are dissolved in water separately. (b) CaOCl2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + Cl2(g)
When phenolphthalein is added to these two 13. The pH of a salt used to make tasty and crispy
solutions, the solution ‘X’ turns pink and the pakoras is 14. Identify the salt and write a chemical
solution Y does not show any change in colour, equation for its formation.
therefore X and Y are [CBSE 2023] Ans. (i) The salt is sodium hydrogen carbonate
X Y (NaHCO3) or sodium bicarbonate (pH = 8.4).
(a) Na2CO3 NH4Cl (ii) Manufacture of baking soda is as follows:
(b) Na SO NaHCO NaCl + H2O + CO2 + NH3 → NH4Cl + NaHCO3
2 4 3
(c) NH4Cl Na2SO4 A Short Answer
(d) NaNO3 Na2SO4 S Type Questions 3 Marks
9. NaOH is obtained by electrolysis of 14. How is washing soda prepared from sodium
(a) Aq. solution of NaCl carbonate? Give its chemical equation. State the
(b) Aq. Na2CO3 (c) Aq. NaHCO3 type of this salt.
(d) Molten NaCl Name the type of hardness of water which can be
10. Baking soda is a mixture of: [CBSE 2020] removed by it. [CBSE 2020]
(a) Sodium carbonate and acetic acid Ans. Washing soda is perpared from sodium carbonate
(b) Sodium carbonate and tartaric acid by crystallisation of saturated solution of sodium
(c) Sodium hydrogen carbonate and tartaric acid carbonate.
(d) Sodium hydrogen carbonate and acetic acid Na2CO3 + 10H2O(l) → Na2CO3.10H2O(s)
11. The chemical formula for Plaster of Paris is: Sodium Washing soda
carbonate
[CBSE 2020]
Sodium carbonate is basic salt because it is salt of
(a) CaSO4.2H2O (b) CaSO4 .H2O
strong base (NaOH) and weak acid (H2CO3).
1
(c) CaSO4 . H2O (d) 2CaSO4 . H2O It can be used for removal of permanent hardness of
2 water.
15. (a) Mention the pH of aqueous solution of
Answers the following salts as 7, more than 7, less
than 7.
1. (b) Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 → CaOCl2 + H2O NH4Cl, NaNO3
2. (d) Bleaching powder (CaOCl2) and Baking soda (b) Two solutions ‘A’ and ‘B’ have pH value 3.0
(NaHCO3) do not have water of crystalisation. and 10.5 respectively. Which of these will
3. (d) It is basic salt of strong base NaOH and weak turn
acid CH3COOH. (i) Blue litmus solution red.
4. (d) NaCl is neutral salt. (ii) Phenolphthalein from colourless to
5. (a) pink?
Justify you answer in each case.
Ans. (a) (i) NH4Cl pH < 7 Electric current
(c) 2NaCl(aq) + 2H2O(l)
(ii) NaNO3 pH = 7
2NaOH(aq) + Cl2 (g) + H2 (g) (1 mark)
(b) (i) pH = 3.0 will turn blue litmus red because
it is acidic in nature.
(ii) pH = 10.5 will turn phenolphthalein 18. (a) For the preparation of cakes, baking powder
colourless to pink because solution is basic is used. If at home your mother uses baking
in nature. soda instead of baking powder, how will it
affect the taste of the cake and why?
16. (a) Write the chemical equation involved in the
(b) How is baking soda be converted into baking
preparation of sodium hydroxide. Name the
powder? [CBSE 2020]
process.
(c) What makes the cake soft and spongy?
(b) Why does bleaching powder smell strongly
[CBSE 2018(C)]
of chlorine and does not dissolve completely
Ans. (a) Baking powder consists of sodium hydrogen-
in water? [DoE]
Electrolysis carbonate (baking soda) and tartaric acid. If only
Ans. (a) 2NaCl(aq) + 2H2O(l) → baking soda is used in making cake, then sodium
2NaOH(aq) + H2(g) + Cl2(g) carbonate is formed on heating which will give
It is called chlor-alkali process. a bitter taste to cake.
(b) When bleaching powder is exposed to air, it (b) Baking soda can be converted into baking by
gives strong smell of chlorine because bleaching adding starch and tartaric acid.
powder reacts with carbon dioxide from the (c) Sodium hydrogencarbonate gives carbon dioxide
atmosphere to produce calcium carbonate and (CO 2) gas which makes the cakes soft and
chlorine. spongy.
CaOCl2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + Cl2
Bleaching powder is a mixture of different 19. What is water of crystallisation? Name and
calcium salts which are insoluble in water. give formula two salts which contain water of
crystallisation. [CBSE 2018 for blind, CBSE 2020]
17. Titanium Mild steel
Ans. The water molecules present in crystalline salts are
anode cathode
+ – called water of crystallisation.
Hydrated copper sulphate (Blue vitriol)
CuSO4 . 5H2O
Na+ Hydrated ferrous sulphate (Green vitriol)
Light cell FeSO4 . 7H2O
OH– Washing soda Na2CO3 . 10H2O
Brine Brine contaning
Sodium hydroxide 20. White chemical compound becomes hard on
H 2O H2O Dark cell mixing proper quantity of water. It is also used
to maintain broken founts in fixed position. Name
Ion Exchange Membrane the chemical compound and write its chemical
(a) Identify the gases evolved at the anode and formula. Write the chemical equation to show what
cathode in the above experimental set up. happens when water is added to this compound in
(b) Name the process that occurs. Why is it proper quantity? [CBSE Sample Paper 2018]
called so? Ans. The compound is Plaster of Paris. Its formula is
(c) Illustrate the reaction of the process with 1
the help of a chemical equation. CaSO4 . H2O
2
[CBSE Sample Paper 2023] It changes into gypsum when proper quantity of water
Ans. (a) Anode: Chlorine; Cathode: Hydrogen (1 mark) is added to it.
(b) Chlor alkali process as the products obtained are 1 3
alkali, chlorine gas and hydrogen gas. (1 mark) CaSO4 . H2O + H2O → CaSO4 . 2H2O
2 2
Plaster of Pairs Gypsum
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following salts does not contain water 2. Select the washing soda from the following: [CBSE 2023]
of crystallisation? [KVS] (a) NaHCO3
(a) Blue vitriol (b) Baking soda (b) Na2CO3 . 5H2O
(c) Gypsum (d) Washing soda (c) Na2CO3 . 10H2O
(d) NaOH
3. Few drops of aqueous solution NH4Cl are put on (a) Write chemical name and formula of the powder.
universal indicator paper. The paper turns pink. Study (b) When this white powder is mixed with water
the following table and choose the correct option. a hard solid mass is obtained. Write balanced
NH4Cl is salt of [CBSE 2023] chemical equation for the change.
Nature Acetic and Base Range of pH [CBSE 2015][KVS]
(a) Acidic Weak acid and strong <7 8. A gas ‘X’ reacts with lime water and forms a
base compound ‘Y’ which is used as a bleaching agent in
the chemical industry. Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’. Give the
(b) Basic Weak acid and strong >7
chemical equation of the reactions involved.
base
9. A compound which is prepared from gypsum has
(c) Acidic Strong acid and weak <7 the property of hardening when mixed with proper
base quantity of water.
(d) Basic Strong acid and strong 7 (a) Identify the compound.
base (b) Write the chemical equation for its preparation.
4. When dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with sodium (c) Mention one important use of this compound.
hydrogen carbonate, then ____________, carbon 10. List the important products of the Chlor-alkali
dioxide and water are formed. process. Write one important use of each.
(a) sodium chloride (b) calcium chloride [CBSE 2020]
(c) sodium carbonate (d) calcium carbonate 11. (a) Crystals of a substance changed their color on
5. Which of the following salts does not contain water heating in a closed test tube but regained it after
of crystallisation? some time when they were allowed to cool
(a) Alum (b) Bleaching powder down. Name the substance and write its formula.
(c) Gypsum (d) Washing soda Explain the phenomenon.
6. List four uses of sodium bicarbonate. (b) How is sodium carbonate prepared? Give two
7. A white coloured powder is used by doctors for uses of the compound. [KVS]
supporting fractured bones.

1. Answer the following questions: (c) What will be change in colour in blue litmus
(a) State the colour of phenolphthalein in soap solution if ZCO 3 is added to it and ‘Z’ is
solution. potassium. [CBSE 2023] (3 Marks)
(b) Name the by-product of chlor-alkali process 4. (a) Given below are the pH values of four different
which is used for the manufacture of bleaching liquids :
powder. 7.0, 14.0, 4.0, 2.0
(c) Name one indicator which specifies the various Which of these could be that of
levels of H+ ion concentration. (i) lemon juice,
[CBSE 2016] (3 Marks) (ii) distilled water,
2. (a) Which property do acids and bases have in (iii) 1 M sodium hydroxide solution,
common? Explain with the help of example. (iv) tomato juice? [KVS]
(b) A compound which is prepared from Gypsum (b) (i) What is the role of toothpastes in preventing
has the property of hardening when mixed with cavities? [DoE]
water. Identify the compound and write its (ii) How washing soda is prepared from baking
formula. How is compound prepared? Describe soda? [DoE] (5 Marks)
in form of chemical equation only. 5. (a) What is chlor – alkali process? Give chemical
[CBSE 2023] (3 Marks)
equation of the reaction involved.
3. Consider the following salts (b) Write any two uses of bleaching powder.
(i) YCl (ii) NH4X and (iii) ZCO3. (c) Write equations to show the reaction between:
(a) What would be pH of salt solution of YCl if Y (i) acid and bases
is Na? (ii) acid and hydrogen carbonates (5 Marks)
(b) If salt NH4X, X is nitrate, then the solution will
give what colour with universal indicator and why?
6. (a) Identify the acid and the base whose combination (b) What is rock salt? Mention its colour and the
forms the common salt that you use in your food. reason due to which it has this colour.
Write its formula and chemical name of this salt. (c) What happens when electricity is passed through
Name the source from where it is obtained. brine? Write the chemical equation for it.
(5 Marks)

Direction: In the following Questions, the Assertion and Reason: Aqueous solutions of glucose and alcohol
Reason have been put forward. Read the statements do not give H+ ions. [KVS]
carefully and choose the correct alternative from the 8. Assertion: After white washing the walls, a shiny
following: white finish on walls is obtained after two or three
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct days.
and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Reason: Calcium oxide reacts with carbon dioxide to
Assertion. form Calcium hydrogen carbonate which gives shiny
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but white finish. [CBSE Sample Paper 2021]
the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
9. Assertion: Ferrous sulphate is acidic salt.
Assertion.
Reason: It is a salt of weak base Fe(OH)2 and strong
acid (H2SO4).
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the
Reason is true. 10. Assertion: Salts are formed by reaction of acid and
base.
1. Assertion: Sodium hydrogen carbonate is used as an
Reason: Salts may be acidic, basic or neutral.
ingredient in antacids. [CBSE 2021]
Reason: NaHCO3 is a mild non-corrosive basic salt. 11. Assertion: Baking powder is used for making cake
instead of baking soda.
2. Assertion: Carbonic acid is weak acid
Reason: Baking powder contains tartaric acid which
Reason: It ionised completely in aqueous solution.
reacts with Na2CO3 and remove bitter taste.
[KVS]
12. Assertion: Pure water is neither acidic nor basic.
3. Assertion: Copper sulphate is acidic salt.
Reason: The pH of solution is inversely proportional
Reason: It is a salt of weak base [Cu(OH)2] and strong
to conc. of [H3O]+.
acid (H2SO4).
13. Assertion: A gas is produced when conc. H2SO4 is
4. Assertion: Ammonium hydroxide is weak base.
added to NaCl in a test tube. The gas is passed over
Reason: Phenolphthalein becomes pink in NH4OH.
dry blue litmus paper, it changed to red.
5. Assertion: Bleaching power liberate chlorine when Reason: Blue colour of dry litmus paper does not
kept in atmosphere. change to red.
Reason: CaOCl2 reacts with CO2 present in atmosphere
14. Assertion: A white coloured powder is used by doctors
to form CaCO3 and chlorine gas.
for supporting fractured bone. It is plaster of paris.
6. Assertion: Universal indicator gives green colour Reason: It is gypsum.
with distilled water.
15. Assertion: It is advised while diluting an acid, one
Reason: pH of distilled water is 7 and it is neutral
should add water to acid, not acid to water keeping
and universal indicator gives green colour with neutral
the solution continuously stirred.
solution.
Reason: The process of dissolving an acid into water
7. Assertion: The aqueous solutions of glucose and is highly exothermic.
alcohol do not show acidic character.
1. Read the given passage and answer the questions About 60 years ago it was discovered that this
based on passage and related studied concepts. monument is being eaten away by acid rain. The
Taj Mahal, the great wonder of the world, is made of Archeological survey of India, that looks after this
white marble which is composed of calcium carbonate. building of historical importance is of the opinion
that the atmospheric pollution due to vehicular traffic suffering from a problem of acidity after overeating,
and industries, mainly Mathura Refinery may be a we give baking soda solution (ENO) to the person to
major cause of acid rain in and around the monument. give relief. Vinegar contains acetic acid, sour milk
Normal rain is slightly acidic because it absorbs some (curd) contains lactic acid, lemon contains citric acid
CO2 from the atmospheric air. Acid rain is more acidic where as nettle sting contains methanoic acid. Bitter
than normal rain because it also has absorbed oxides gourd, cucumber, fenugreek are bitter in taste due to
of nitrogen and sulphur. [CBSE 2020] presence of bases in them.
(a) What is the formula of calcium carbonate? (a) What is nature of bitter gourd juice?
(b) Name two gases which contribute to acid rain. (b) It soil is acidic in nature, which chemical is added
(c) What happens when acid rain falls on Taj Mahal? to make it neutral?
Write balanced chemical equation. (c) W hat happens when ammonium sulphate is
Or warmed with aq. NaOH? What will be the nature
(c) Name the acids and bases which will form of gas evolved and effect on litmus solution?
calcium carbonate. What is nature of salt? Give Or
reason. Solution Colour of universal indicator
(c)
2. Read the given passage and answer the questions
based on passage and related studied concepts. A Blue
Salts are formed by reactions of acids and bases, B Green
strong acids react with strong bases to form neutral
salt. Weak acids react with strong bases to form basic C Red
salts whose aqueous solution turned red litmus blue,
phenolphthalein pink and universal indicator blue. D Violet
Acidic salts are formed by strong acids and weak bases. Identify nature of A, B, C and D.
Na2CO3 and NaHCO3 are salts of NaOH (strong base) 4. Observe the graph drawn between concentration
and H2CO3 (Carbonic acid) weak acid and are basic of H3O+ Vs pH. Observe the graph carefully and
in nature. Electrolysis of brine solution gives caustic answer the questions that follow:
soda (NaOH), H2 gas and Cl2. Bleaching powder
(CaOCl2) is prepared when slaked lime reacts with dry
chlorine gas used as disinfectant, washing soda is used A
to remove permanent hardness of water. Crystalline
salts are hydrated and lose water of crystallisation on
heating, may change colour and become amorphous [H3O+]
(powdery). Gypsum on heating at 373K gives Plaster
of Paris, used in making chalk, plastering fractured
bones. NaHCO3 is baking soda used in making crisp
pakora and as antacid. B
(a) What is formula of plaster of paris?
(b) What is composition of baking powder?
pH
(c) What happens when milk of magnesia reacts with
sulphuric acid? Write balanced chemical equation. (a) What conclusion can you draw on the basis of
Or the graph?
(c) (i) Name an indicator used by visually impaired (b) Does base have H3O+ ? If yes then how are they
children. basic?
(ii) Give one use of bleaching powder. (c) If pH = 2, what is concentration of H3O+?
[log 10–2 = – 2]
3. Answer the questions based on the paragraph given
Or
below and the related studied concepts.
(c) What is nature of ‘A’ and ‘B’ shown in graph?
The sour and bitter taste of food is due to acids and
Give reason.
bases, respectively present in them. If some person is
5. Lime is an alkaline substance. The figure shows some of the properties of a calcium compound ‘X’. The letters
are not chemical symbols of substances. Answer the questions that follow:
A colourless compound 'X'
heat heat
strongly
Mix
White solid 'Y' Gas 'P' Lime water turns milky
with lime water
Dissolves in water
Add universal
Colourless aqueous solution 'Z' Blue colour
Indicator
(a) Name an acid which can liberate ‘P’ from ‘X’.
(b) Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’.
(c) Write chemical reaction from ‘X’ to ‘Y’ and identify ‘P’.
Or
(c) Identify ‘Z’ and write equation between ‘Z’ and ‘P’.
6. Mineral acids are strong acids as compared to organic (b) What is formula of washing soda?
acids. Mineral acids are HCl, H2SO4, HNO3 which are (c) What happens when hydrated copper sulphate is
obtained from minerals such as chlorides, sulphates heated? Write chemical equation. [CBSE 2023]
and nitrates. Organic acids are present in living Or
organisms. Strong acids are completely ionised in (c) What happens when water is added to anhydrous
aqueous solution and their pH is close to 2. Weak copper sulphate? Write chemical equation involved.
acids do not ionise completely, their pH is close to 4. 8. The teacher was conducting practicals in laboratory
Acids combine with bases to form salts, which may divided the students in three groups and gave them
be acidic, basic or neutral depending upon strength various solutions to find their pH and classify them
of acid and base. into acidic, basic and neutral solutions.
(a) Name on organic acid. Group A: Lemon juice, vinegar, colourless aerated
(b) Give two examples of weak acids. drink.
(c) What is nature of gastric juice secreted in our Group B: Tomato juice, coffee, ginger juice.
stomach? What is its pH? Group C: Sodium hydroxide, sodium chloride lime
Or water.
(c) Name one antacid. Give its pH in aqueous solution. (a) For the solution provided, which group is/are
7. Crystalline salts have water of crystallisation. The likely to have pH value (i) < 7 (ii) > 7.
number of water molecules associated with crystals (b) List two ways of determining pH of a solution.
depends upon size of cation. The colour and physical (c) Explain, why the sour substances such as lemon
state may be different for crystalline and amorphous juice are effective in cleaning the tarnished copper
salt. Crystalline salts have well defined geometrical vessels.
shape, sharp melting point. Amorphous compounds Or
do not have well defined shape. (c) “pH has great importance in our daily life.” Justify
(a) What is colour of hydrated copper sulphate? this statement giving two examples.[CBSE 2023]
NCERT ZONE
Page 18 paper, how will you identify the contents of each
1. You have been provided with three test tubes. One test tube?
of them contains distilled water and the other two Ans. Dip red litmus paper in all the three test tubes. The
contain an acidic solution and a basic solution, one which changes its colour to blue contains basic
respectively. If you are given only red litmus solution. Now dip this blue litmus paper to each of
the two test tubes. The one which changes its colour Carbon dioxide gas is used as a fire extinguisher.
to red is acidic solution, the remaining one is distilled Therefore, it extinguishes a burning candle. Hence,
water as it has no effect on any litmus paper. the metal compound A is calcium carbonate.
Page 22 CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) → CaCl2(s) + CO2(g)
+ H2O(l)
1. Why should curd and sour substances not be kept Page 25
in brass and copper vessels? [DoE]
Ans. Curd and the sour substances if kept in brass or copper 1. Why do HCl, HNO3, etc. show acidic characters
vessels react with them and form hydrogen and other in aqueous solutions while solutions of compounds
harmful substances due to presence of acid in them. like alcohol and glucose do not show acidic
These toxic substance can cause food poisoning or character?
other damage to health. Due to this reason, curd and Ans. HCl, HNO3, etc. dissociate into their ions in the
the sour substances should not be kept in brass and presence of water. They form hydrogen ions (H+).
copper vessels. These hydrogen ions combine with H2O to form
hydronium ions (H3O+). The reaction can be given
2. Which gas is usually liberated when an acid reacts as follows:
with a metal? Illustrate with an example. How will
HCl → H+ + Cl–
you test for the presence of this gas? [KVS] +
H + H2O → H3O+
Ans. Usually, hydrogen gas is liberated when an acid reacts
HCl + H2O → H3O+ + Cl– [CBSE 2020]
with a metal. For example, let us take the reaction
Similarly, HNO3 → H+ + NO–3
between zinc and sulphuric acid.
Thistle H+ + H2O → H3O+

funnel HNO3 + H2O → H3O+ + NO–3

Due to this property, HCl and HNO3 show acidic
character in aqueous solutions. On the other hand,
Woulfe-
alcohol and glucose cannot dissociate in water to
bottle H 2
form hydrogen ions. Hence, they do not show acidic
gas character.
dil. 2. Why does an aqueous solution of an acid conduct
H2SO4 electricity?
Ans. An aqueous solution of an acid conduct electricity
Zinc granules
Reaction of zinc granules with dil. H2SO4 to liberate because of the presence of charged particles called
hydrogen gas which burns with a ‘pop’ sound ions in it. When dissolved in water, acids dissociate
1. Take 5 g of zinc granules in a Woulfe-bottle. to form ions, e.g.
2. Set the apparatus as shown in the diagram. HCl + H2O → Cl– + H3O+

3. Add 20 mL of dil. H2SO4 with the help of a These ions are responsible for conducting electricity.
thistle funnel. 3. Why does dry HCl gas not change the colour of
4. Collect the gas evolved in a gas jar as shown in the dry litmus paper? [CBSE 2023]
the figure. Ans. We know that the colour of the litmus is changed by
5. Observe the colour and odour of the gas. H+ ions of an acid. Dry HCl does not dissociate to
6. Bring a burning matchstick near the gas jar and give H+ ions. Acids dissociate to give ions only in
record your observations. the aqueous medium. Since in this case, neither HCl
Observation: A colourless, odourless gas is evolved. is in aqueous form nor is the litmus paper wet, so the
It burns explosively with a ‘pop’ sound when a colour of litmus paper does not change.
burning matchstick is brought near it, indicating the 4. While diluting an acid, why is it recommended
presence of hydrogen gas. that the acid should be added to water and not
Chemical Reaction: water to the acid? [CBSE 2023]
Zn(s) + H2SO4(dil) → ZnSO4(aq) + H2(g) Ans. The process of dissolving an acid in water is a highly
3. Metal compound A reacts with dilute hydrochloric exothermic reaction. The acid must always be added
acid to produce effervescence. The gas evolved slowly to water with constant stirring. If water is
extinguishes a burning candle. Write a balanced added to a concentrated acid, the heat generated may
chemical equation for the reaction if one of the cause the mixture to splash out and cause severe
compounds formed is calcium chloride. burns. The glass container may also break due to
Ans. Calcium carbonate (A), when reacts with hydrochloric excessive heating.
acid, produces carbon dioxide gas with effervescence.
5. How is the concentration of hydronium ions (calcium oxide) or slaked lime (calcium hydroxide)
(H 3O +) affected when a solution of an acid is or chalk (calcium carbonate)?
diluted? Ans. If the farmer finds his soil to be more acidic, then to
Ans. Concentration of hydronium ions (H3O+) decreases increase the basicity of the soil, he should treat the
when a solution of an acid is diluted. soil of his field with quick lime (calcium oxide) or
6. How is the concentration of hydroxide ions (OH–) slaked lime (calcium hydroxide) or chalk (calcium
affected when excess base is dissolved in a solution carbonate).
of sodium hydroxide? Page 33
Ans. Concentration of hydroxide ions (OH–) increases
1. What is the common name of the compound
when excess base is dissolved in a solution of sodium
CaOCl2? [CBSE 2023]
hydroxide.
Ans. Bleaching powder.
Page 28
2. Name the substance which on treatment with
1. You have two solutions, A and B. The pH of solu- chlorine yields bleaching powder.
tion A is 6 and pH of solution B is 8. Which solution Ans. Dry slaked lime [Ca(OH)2].
has more hydrogen ion concentration? Which of 3. Name the sodium compound which is used for
this is acidic and which one is basic? [KVS] softening hard water.
Ans. Solution A has more H+ ion concentration. A pH Ans. Washing soda, i.e. sodium carbonate (Na2CO3.10H2O).
value of less than 7 indicates the acidic nature while 4. What will happen if a solution of sodium
greater than 7 indicates the basic nature of a solution. hydrocarbonate is heated? Give the equation of
So, solution A is acidic and solution B is basic. the reaction involved. [CBSE 2023]
2. What effect does the concentration of H+ (aq) ions Ans. When sodium hydrogen carbonate is heated, sodium
have on the nature of the solution? carbonate and water are formed along with the
Ans. As the concentration of H+ ions increases, the solution liberation of carbon dioxide gas, e.g.
becomes more acidic while a decrease of H + ion Heat
2NaHCO3 → Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2↑
causes an increase in the basicity of the solution. Sodium hydrogen Sodium carbonate
3. Do basic solutions also have H+ (aq) ions? If yes, carbonate
then why are these basic? [CBSE 2023] 5. Write an equation to show the reaction between
+
Ans. Yes, basic solutions also have H ions. However, their Plaster of Paris and water.
concentration is less as compared to the OH ions that Ans. CaSO . 1 H O + 3 H O → CaSO .2H O
–
4
makes the solution basic. 2 2 2 2 4 2
Plaster of Paris Gypsum
4. Under what soil condition do you think a farmer
would treat the soil of his fields with quick lime
NCERT EXERCISES
1. A solution turns red litmus blue, its pH is likely NaOH, the amount of HCl solution (the same
to be solution as before) required to neutralise it will be
(a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 10 (a) 4 mL (b) 8 mL (c) 12 mL (d) 16 mL
Ans. (d) pH = 10, bases turn red litmus blue and their pH Ans. (d) \ 10 mL of NaOH will neutralise
is more than 7. = 8 mL of HCl.
2. A solution reacts with crushed egg-shells to give \ 20 mL of NaOH will neutralise
8
a gas that turns lime-water milky. The solution = × 20 = 16 mL.
contains 10
(a) NaCl (b) HCl (c) LiCl (d) KCl 4. Which one of the following types of medicines is
Ans. (b) Egg shells are made up of CaCO3 which reacts used for treating indigestion?
with HCl to form CO2 and this CO2 turns lime (a) Antibiotic (b) Analgesic
water milky, e.g. (c) Antacid (d) Antiseptic
CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(dil) → CaCl2(aq) Ans. (c) Antacids are used to neutralise hyperacidity
+ H2O(l) + CO2(g) in the stomach due to excess of HCl which
Ca(OH)2(aq) + CO2(g) → CaCO3(s) + H2O(l) causes indigestion. Antibiotics are used to fight
3. 10 mL of a solution of NaOH is found to be infections. Analgesics are pain killer while
completely neutralised by 8 mL of a given solution antiseptics prevent growth of bacteria and other
of HCl. If we take 20 mL of the same solution of micro-organisms on wounds.
5. Write word equations and then balanced equations 7. Why does distilled water not conduct electricity,
for the reaction taking place when whereas rain water does?
(a) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with zinc Ans. Distilled water, does not contain any ionic compounds
granules. like acids, bases or salts. Therefore, it does not
(b) dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with dissociate into ions as it is a weak electrolyte. Salts are
magnesium ribbon. present in rain water which help in dissociation of rain
(c) dilute sulphuric acid reacts with aluminium water into ions which help in conduction of electricity.
powder. 8. Why do acids not show acidic behaviour in the
(d) dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with iron absence of water?
filings. Ans. It is because acids do not dissociate into ions in
Ans. (a) Zn(s) + H2SO4(dil) → ZnSO4(aq) + H2(g) absence of water. But when an acid is dissolved in
Zinc Sulphuric acid Zinc Hydrogen
sulphate gas
water, it forms hydrogen ions and hence, shows acidic
(b) Mg(s) + 2HCl(dil) → MgCl2(aq) + H2(g) behaviour, e.g.
dissolve in water
Magnesium Hydrochloric Magnesium Hydrogen HCl(g) → H+(aq) + Cl–(aq).
acid chloride gas
9. Five solutions A, B, C, D and E when tested with
(c) 2Al(s) + 3H2SO4(dil) → Al2(SO4)3(aq) universal indicator showed pH as 4, 1, 11, 7 and
Aluminium Sulphuric acid Aluminium sulphate
9 respectively. Which solution is (a) neutral?
+ 3H2(g)
Hydrogen gas (b) strongly alkaline? (c) strongly acidic?
(d) Fe(s) + 2HCl(aq) → FeCl2(aq) + H2(g) (d) weakly acidic? (e) weakly alkaline?
Iron Hydrochloric Iron(II) Hydrogen Arrange the pH in increasing order of hydrogen-
acid chloride gas ion concentration.
6. Compounds such as alcohols and glucose also Ans. (a) ‘D’ with pH = 7 is neutral.
contain hydrogen but are not categorised as acids. (b) ‘C’ with pH = 11 is strongly alkaline.
Describe an Activity to prove it. [CBSE 2023] (c) ‘B’ with pH = 1 is strongly acidic.
Ans. • Fix two iron nails on a cork and place this cork (d) ‘A’ with pH = 4 is weakly acidic.
in a beaker. (e) ‘E’ with pH = 9 is weakly alkaline.
• Connect the nails to the two terminals of a 6 volt ‘C’, ‘E’, ‘D’, ‘A’, ‘B’ is increasing order of H+ ion
battery through a switch and a bulb as shown in concentration.
figure. 10. Equal lengths of magnesium ribbons are taken
• Now add some dilute hydrochloric acid in beaker in test tubes A and B. Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is
and switch on the current. Take the observation. added to test tube A, while acetic acid (CH3COOH)
• Repeat the experiment separately with alcohol is added to test tube B. Amount and concentration
and glucose solution. taken for both the acids are same. In which test
tube will the fizzing occur more vigorously and
why?
Ans. Fizzing occurs more vigorously in hydrochloric acid
(A) than in acetic acid (B) because HCl is stronger
acid than acetic acid. HCl dissociates into H+ and
Cl– ions completely whereas acetic acid partially
dissociates into its ions.
11. Fresh milk has a pH of 6. How do you think the
pH will change as it turns into curd? Explain
your answer.
Ans. Milk contains a carbohydrate lactose. When milk sets
Observation: You will observe that in case of dilute into curd, lactose gets converted into an acid called
hydrochloric acid bulb glows but when glucose or lactic acid. Due to formation of lactic acid, pH of
alcohol solution is taken in beaker, the bulb does not glow. milk falls below 6.
Conclusion: The aqueous solution of hydrochloric 12. A milkman adds a very small amount of baking
acid conducts electricity due to presence of types soda to fresh milk.
of charged particles – hydrogen ions and chloride (a) Why does he shift the pH of the fresh milk
ions. Unlike acids glucose and ethanol do not ionise from 6 to slightly alkaline? [KVS]
in aqueous solution, i.e. they do not give H+ ions, (b) Why does this milk take a long time to set as
therefore they cannot conduct electricity. Thus, curd?
glucose and ethanol are not categorised as acids.
Ans. (a) It is done to increase the shelf life of milk. Examples:
(b) The alkaline milk takes a longer time to set into NaOH(aq) + HCl(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(l)
curd because lactic acid being formed has to H2SO4(aq) + 2NH4OH(aq) → (NH4)2SO4(aq)
neutralise the alkali present in it. + 2H2O(l)
13. Plaster of Paris should be stored in a moisture- HCl(aq) + NH4OH(aq) → NH4Cl(aq) + H2O(l)
proof container. Explain why? 15. Give two important uses of washing soda and
Ans. It will absorb water to form gypsum which set into baking soda.
hard solid mass. This will make Plaster of Paris Ans. Uses of washing soda:
useless after some time, e.g. (i) It is used in the manufacture of glass, soap,
1 3 paper and other sodium compounds like borax,
CaSO4. H2O + H O → CaSO4.2H2O
2 2 2 etc.
Plaster of Paris Gypsum (ii) It is used in softening of hard water.
14. What is a neutralisation reaction? Give two Uses of baking soda:
examples. (i) It is used as antacid to neutralise excess of
Ans. The reaction in which a base reacts with an acid is acidity (hyper-acidity) in the stomach.
called neutralisation reaction. (ii) It is an ingredient of baking powder which
contains NaHCO3 and tartaric acid.

1. What happens when a solution of an acid is mixed 5. Sodium carbonate is a basic salt because it is a salt
with a solution of a base in a test tube? of [CBSE 2023 (Similar)]
(i) The temperature of the solution increases (a) strong acid and strong base.
(ii) The temperature of the solution decreases (b) weak acid and weak base.
(iii) The temperature of the solution remains the (c) strong acid and weak base.
same (d) weak acid and strong base.
(iv) Salt formation takes place. Ans. (d) H2CO3 is weak acid, NaOH is strong base.
(a) (i) only (b) (i) and (iii) 6. Calcium phosphate is present in tooth enamel. Its
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv) nature is [KVS] [CBSE 2023]
Ans. (d) Acid + base → salt + water + heat (a) basic (b) acidic
2. An aqueous solution turns red litmus solution blue. (c) neutral (d) amphoteric
Excess addition of which of the following solution Ans. (a) Ca(OH)2 is strong base, H3PO4 is weak acid.
would reverse the change? [KVS] 7. A sample of soil is mixed with water and allowed
(a) Baking power to settle. The clear supernatant solution turns
(b) Lime the pH paper yellowish-orange. Which of the
(c) Ammonium hydroxide solution following would change the colour of this pH
(d) Hydrochloric acid paper to greenish-blue?
Ans. (d) HCl will neutralise base and become in excess. (a) Lemon juice (b) Vinegar
3. During the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas (c) Common salt (d) An antacid
on a humid day, the gas is usually passed through Ans. (d) Antacid is basic in nature.
the guard tube containing calcium chloride. The 8. Which of the following gives the correct increasing
role of calcium chloride taken in the guard tube order of acidic strength ? [CBSE 2023]
is to (a) Water <Acetic acid <Hydrochloric acid
(a) absorb the evolved gas (b) Water <Hydrochloric acid <Acetic acid
(b) moisten the gas (c) Acetic acid <Water <Hydrochloric acid
(c) absorb moisture from the gas (d) Hydrochloric acid <Water <Acetic acid
(d) absorb Cl– ions from the evolved gas Ans. (a) HCl is strong acid and CH3COOH is weak acid.
Ans. (c)
9. Which of the following phenomena occur, when a
4. Which of the following salts does not contain water small amount of acid is added to water ?
of crystallisation? (i) Ionisation
(a) Blue vitriol (b) Baking soda (ii) Neutralisation
(c) Washing soda (d) Gypsum (iii) Dilution
Ans. (b) (iv) Salt formation
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii) Ans. (b) Metal oxides react with water to form metal
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv) hydroxide.
Ans. (b) 15. Equal volumes of hydrochloric acid and sodium
10. Which one of the following can be used as an hydroxide solutions of same concentration are
acid-base indicator by a visually impared (blind) mixed and the pH of the resulting solution is
student? [KVS] checked with a pH paper. What would be the
(a) Litmus (b) Turmeric colour obtained? (You may use colour guide given
(c) Vanilla essence (d) Petunia leaves in figure)
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
Ans. (c) Its colour changes in acids and bases.
Green
Blue
Red
11. In an attempt to demonstrate electrical conductivity
through an electrolyte, the following apparatus was
set up. (a) Red (b) Yellow
6 volt battery Bulb (c) Yellowish green (d) Blue
Switch Ans. (c) pH = 7 because NaCl is neutral.
Beaker 16. Which of the following is(are) true when HCl (g)
is passed through water?
(i) It does not ionise in the solution as it is a
covalent compound.
(ii) It ionises in the solution.
Nail
Dilute NaOH (iii) It gives both hydrogen and hydroxyl ion in
solution
the solution.
Rubber cork
(iv) It forms hydronium ion in the solution due
Which among the following statement(s) is (are) to the combination of hydrogen ion with
correct? water molecule.
(i) Bulb will not glow because electrolyte is not (a) (i) only (b) (iii) only
acidic. (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)
(ii) Bulb will glow because NaOH is a strong Ans. (c) HCl + H2O → H3O+ + Cl–
base and furnishes ions for conduction. 17. Which of the following statements is true for
(iii) Bulb will not glow because circuit is acids?
incomplete. (a) Bitter and change red litmus to blue.
(iv) Bulb will not glow because it depends upon (b) Sour and change red litmus to blue.
the type of electrolytic solution. (c) Sour and change blue litmus to red.
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv) (d) Bitter and change blue litmus to red.
(c) (ii) only (d) (iv) only Ans. (c) Acids are sour, and change blue litmus to red.
Ans. (c)
18. Which of the following are present in a dilute
12. Which of the following is used for dissolution of aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid?
gold? (a) H3O+ + Cl– (b) H3O+ + OH–
(a) Hydrochloric acid (b) Sulphuric acid –
(c) Cl + OH –
(d) unionised HCl
(c) Nitric acid (d) Aqua regia Ans. (a) HCl + H2O → H3O+ + Cl–
Ans. (d) Aqua regia is 3HCl + 1HNO3(conc).
19. Sodium hydrogen carbonate when added to
13. Which among the following is not a base ? acetic acid evolves a gas. Which of the following
(a) NaOH (b) KOH statements are true about the gas evolved?
(c) NH4OH (d) C2H5OH (i) It turns lime water milky
Ans. (d) C2H5OH does not ionise. (ii) It extinguishes a burning splinter
14. Which of the following statement is not correct? (iii) It dissolves in a solution of sodium hydroxide
(a) All metal carbonates react with acid to give salt, (iv) It has a pungent odour
water and carbon dioxide. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) All metal oxides react with water to give salt (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
and acid. Ans. (b) CH3COOH + NaHCO3 → CH3COONa +
(c) Some metals react with acids to give salt and H2O + CO2, CO2
hydrogen. turns lime water milky, non-supporter of combustion,
(d) Some non-metal oxides react with water to dissolves in NaOH, is colourless and odourless.
form an acid.
20. Common salt, besides being used in kitchen, can Column (A) Column (B)
also be used as the raw material for making (a) Plaster of Paris (i) Ca(OH)2
(i) washing soda (b) Gypsum (ii) CaSO4.1/2H2O
(ii) bleaching powder (c) Bleaching Powder (iii) CaSO4.2H2O
(iii) baking soda (d) Slaked Lime (iv) CaOCl2
(iv) slaked lime Ans. (a) Plaster of Paris (ii) CaSO4⋅½H2O
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv) (b) Gypsum (iii) CaSO4·2H2O
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv) (c) Bleaching powder (iv) CaOCl2
Ans. (c) Na2CO3.10H2O and NaHCO3 are prepared (d) Slaked lime (i) Ca(OH)2
from NaCl (Brine solution). 27. What will be the action of the following substances
21. Which of the following statements is correct about on litmus paper?
an aqueous solution of an acid and of a base ? Dry HCl gas, Moistened NH3 gas, Lemon juice,
(i) Higher the pH, stronger the acid Carbonated soft drink, Curd, Soap solution.
(ii) Higher the pH, weaker the acid Ans. Dry HCl gas will not have any effect on litmus paper.
(iii) Lower the pH, stronger the base Moistened NH3 gas will turn red litmus blue. Curd,
(iv) Lower the pH, weaker the base lemon juice, carbonated soft drink will turn blue
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii) litmus red. Soap solution will turn red litmus blue.
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv) 28. Name the acid present in ant sting and give its
Ans. (d) Lower pH, more H+, stronger acid. Lower pH, chemical formula. Also give the common method
less OH–, weaker base. to get relief from the discomfort caused by the ant
22. The pH of the gastric juices released during sting.
digestion is Ans. Ant sting contains methanoic acid (formic acid). Its
(a) less than 7 (b) more than 7 chemical formula is HCOOH. The common method
(c) equal to 7 (d) equal to 0 to get relief is to apply paste of NaHCO3 (baking
Ans. (a) Its pH = 2 due to secreation of HCl. soda) on it.
23. Which of the following substance will not give 29. What happens when nitric acid is added to egg-
carbon dioxide on treatment with dilute acid ? shell?
(a) Marble (b) Limestone Ans. Egg-shell is made up of calcium carbonate which will
(c) Baking soda (d) Lime react with HNO3 to form CO2 (g) and H2O (l) along
Ans. (d) Lime is CaO, does not give CO2 with HCl. with calcium nitrate, e.g.
Others are carbonates. Marble is CaCO3 (lime CaCO3 + 2HNO3 → Ca(NO3)2 + CO2 + H2O
stone). NaHCO3 (baking soda) will give CO2 30. A student prepared solutions of (i) an acid and
with HCl. (ii) a base in two separate beakers. She forgot to
24. Which of the following is not a mineral acid ? label the solutions and litmus paper is not available
(a) Hydrochloric acid (b) Citric acid in the laboratory. Since, both the solutions are
(c) Sulphuric acid (d) Nitric acid colourless, how will she distinguish between the
Ans. (b) Citric acid is organic acid, not a mineral acid. two? [HOTS]
25. Identify the correct representation of reaction Ans. Add phenolphthalein to a portion of each solution in
occurring during chloralkali process. separate test tube. If it turns pink, the beaker contains
(a) 2NaCl(l) + 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH(l) + Cl2 (g) base whereas if it remains colourless, it is an acid.
+ H2 (g) If phenolphthalein is not available, pH paper can be
(b) 2NaCl (aq) + 2H2O(aq) → 2NaOH(aq) used. Acid will turn pH paper red, base will turn pH
+ Cl2 (g) + H2 (g) paper blue.
(c) 2NaCl (aq) + 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH (aq) 31. In one of the industrial processes used for
+ Cl2 (aq) + H2 (aq) manufacture of sodium hydroxide, a gas X is formed
(d) 2NaCl (aq) + 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) as by-product. The gas X reacts with lime water to
+ Cl2 (g) + H2 (g) give a compound Y which is used as a bleaching
Ans. (d) NaOH, H2 and Cl2 are formed by electrolysis of agent in chemical industry. Identify X and Y giving
brine solution. the chemical equation of the reactions involved.
26. Match the important chemicals given in [HOTS]
Column (A) with the chemical formulae given in Ans. ‘X’ is chlorine gas.
Electricity
Column (B). 2NaCl + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2(g) + Cl2(g)
‘X’
[CBSE 2023]
Ca(OH)2 + Cl2(g) → CaOCl2 + H 2O Ans. Formula Base Acid
Lime water ‘Y’ (i) NH4Cl NH4OH HCl [CBSE 2020]
Bleaching powder
(ii) CuSO4 Cu(OH)2 H2SO4
‘X’ is Cl2 gas, ‘Y’ is CaOCl2.
(iii) NaCl NaOH HCl
32. Fill in the missing data in the following table: [CBSE 2023, 20]
Salt obtained from Formula Base Acid
Name of the salt Formula
Base Acid (iv) Mg(NO3)2 Mg(OH)2 HNO3
(i) Ammonium NH4Cl NH4OH — (v) K2SO4 KOH H2SO4
chloride (vi) Ca(NO3)2 Ca(OH)2 HNO3
(ii) Copper — — H2SO4
sulphate
(iii) Sodium NaCl NaOH —
chloride
(iv) Magnesium Mg(NO ) — HNO3
3 2
nitrate
(v) P o t a s s i u m K2SO4 — —
sulphate
(vi) Calcium
Ca(NO3)2 Ca(OH)2 —
nitrate
33. In the following schematic diagram for the preparation of hydrogen gas as shown in the given figure, what
would happen if following changes are made?
(a) In place of zinc granules, same amount of zinc dust is taken in the test tube.
(b) Instead of dilute sulphuric acid, dilute hydrochloric acid is taken.
(c) In place of zinc, copper turnings are taken.
(d) Sodium hydroxide is taken in place of dilute sulphuric acid and the tube is heated. [HOTS]
Ans. (a) The reaction will become faster because zinc dust has more surface area.
(b) Nearly same amount of hydrogen gas will be evolved.
(c) No reaction will take place as copper is less reactive than hydrogen.
(d) The reaction will take place and hydrogen gas will be evolved.
Heat
Zn + 2NaOH → Na2ZnO2 + H2(g) [CBSE 2023]
Zinc Sodium Sodium Hydrogen
hydroxide zincate
34. A metal carbonate X on reacting with an acid Ans. ‘X’ is calcium carbonate.
gives a gas which when passed through a solution CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(dil) → CaCl2(g) + CO2(g) + H2O (l)
Y gives the carbonate back. On the other hand, a ‘X’
gas G that is obtained at anode during electrolysis Ca(OH)2 + CO2 → CaCO3 (s) + H2O
of brine is passed on dry Y, it gives a compound ‘Y’ ‘X’
Z, used for disinfecting drinking water. Identify ‘Y’ is calcium hydroxide.
X, Y, G and Z. [HOTS] 2NaCl + 2H2O → 2NaOH + Cl2(g) + H2(g)
(Brine) (At anode) (At cathode)
‘G’
The gas ‘G’ is chlorine gas which is obtained at anode. When it is left in open, it becomes solid mass
Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 → CaOCl2 + H2O CaSO4·2H2O (Gypsum) which cannot be used for
Dry slaked ‘G’ ‘Z’ moulding purposes as it is hard solid mass.
lime ‘Y’
36. Identify the compound X on the basis of the
‘Z’ is calcium oxychloride used for disinfecting
reactions given below. Also, write the name and
drinking water.
chemical formulae of A, B and C. [DoE]
35. A sulphate salt of Group 2 element of the Periodic + Zn
A + H2(g)
Table is a white, soft substance, which can be
moulded into different shapes by making its Compound + HCl
dough. When this compound is left in open for B + H2O
‘X’
sometime, it becomes a solid mass and cannot be + CH3COOH
C + H2O
used for moulding purposes. Identify the sulphate
Ans. ‘X’ is NaOH.
salt. Why does it show such a behaviour? Give the
2NaOH + Zn → Na2ZnO2 + H2(g)
reaction involved. ‘X’ ‘A’
1
Ans. Salt is CaSO4· H2O, Plaster of Paris, white soft Sodium hydroxide Sodium zincate
2 NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O
substance. It can be dough, moulded into different ‘X’ ‘B’
shapes, as 2 moles of CaSO4 share 1 mole of H2O Sodium chloride
molecule. NaOH + CH3COOH → CH3COONa + H2O
1 3 ‘X’ ‘C’
CaSO4· H2O + H2O → CaSO4·2H2O Sodium ethanoate
2 2
1. Which acid is used in lead storage car batteries? 9. Complete the following:
(a) HCl (b) HNO3 (i) Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 →
(c) H2SO4 (d) CH3COOH D
(ii) NaHCO3 →
2. Which of the following has highest concentration 373 K
of OH – ? (iii) CaSO4.2H2O →
(a) pH = 3 (b) pH = 5 10. (a) How can be prepare dil. H2SO4 from conc.
(c) pH = 7 (d) pH = 12 H2SO4? Explain.
3. Which of the following does not react with dilute (b) What happens when conc. HNO 3 comes in
HCl and liberate H2 gas? contact with our skin? Give reason.
(a) Mg (b) Cu (c) Why should we avoid contact with conc. H2SO4?
(c) Zn (d) Fe 11. Complete the following reaction:
4. Mg liberates H2(g) with (i) Mn + HNO3(5%) →
(a) HCl (b) H2SO4(dil.) (ii) NaOH + H2CO3 →
(c) HNO3(5%) (d) All of these (iii) CaCO3 + HCl →
Direction: In the following Questions, the Assertion and (iv) Ca(OH)2 + CO2 →
Reason have been put forward. Read the statements (v) Cu + HNO3(dil.) →
carefully and choose the correct alternative from the 12. The table shows the results of different experiments
following: conducted on two acids ‘X’ of ‘Y’ of equal
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the concentration.
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. ‘X’ ‘Y’
Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. Conductivity of solution 400 7.00
Rise in temperature on 6.9°C 6.7°C
reaction with NaOH
is true.
5. Assertion: Gold and platinum are soluble in aqua Reaction with Mg Hydrogen H2 gas
regia. gas produced
Reason: Aqua regia containing conc. HCl and conc. produced slowly
HNO3 in ratio of 3 : 1. rapidly
6. Assertion: Sodium acetate is basic salt. (a) Identify strength of ‘X’ and ‘Y’.
Reason: It is because it is salt of weak acid (b) Why is conductivity of ‘X’ higher than ‘Y’?
(CH3COOH) and strong base (NaOH) (c) Name the reaction between ‘X’ and ‘Y’ with
7. Write product of electrolysis of brine solution. Write NaOH. Is it exothermic or endothermic?
products at cathode and anode. Or
8. How do we prepare plaster of paris from Gypsum? (c) What will be nature of salt formed between
Give one of its use. (i) ‘X’ and NaOH
(ii) ‘Y’ and NaOH
Give reason.
Scan to get Answers

3
Metals and Non-metals 65
Metals and Non-metals

CHAPTER
MIND MAP
Elements
Metal Non-metal
Physical Properties Chemical Properties

1. They are strong, hard to cut except Na, K. 1. They react with oxygen to form metal oxides.
2. They are malleable, beaten into sheets. Metals + Oxygen → Metal oxide
3. They are ductile, can be drawn into wires. 4Na + O2 → 2Na2O(s) 4K + O2 → 2K2O(s)
heat heat
4. They are sonorous, produce sound when 2Cu + O2 → 2CuO(s) 4Al + 3O2 → 2Al2O3(s)
strike them. 2. Metallic oxides are mostly basic.
5. They are lustrous (shiny). 3. Metals can lose electrons to form positive ions.
6. They are good conductors of heat and 4. Transition metals show variable valency, e.g. Cu+, Cu2+, Fe2+, Fe3+
electricity. 5. Some metals react with cold water, some with hot, some with steam to form oxides or
7. They have high melting and boiling point hydroxide and hydrogen gas.
except Na, K. Metal + Water → Metal oxide/metal hydroxide + Hydrogen
8. They are all solids except mercury. 2Na + 2H2O(cold) → 2NaOH + H2 2K + 2H2O(cold) → 2KOH + H2
9. They have high density except Na, K, Li, etc. Mg + 2H2O(hot) → Mg(OH)2 + H2 2Al + 3H2O(steam) → Al2O3 + 3H2
10. They have mostly 1,2 or 3 valence elec-
6. Metals react with dilute acids to form salt and hydrogen gas except with dil HNO3 which
trons.
is oxidising agent.
Metal + dilute acid → Salt + Hydrogen
Zn + 2HCl(dil.) → ZnCl2 + H2 Mg + H2SO4(dil.) → MgSO4 + H2
Mg + 2HNO3(v.v.dil.) → Mg(NO3)2 + H2 Mn + 2HNO3(5 %) → Mn(NO3)2 + H2
7. Metals are good reducing agents.
8. More reactive metals can displace less reactive metals from its salt solution.
Non-metal Chemical Properties

1. They react with oxygen to form acidic oxides or neutral oxides.
Non-metals + Oxygen → Non-metal oxide (acidic oxide neutral oxide)
Physical Properties C + O2 → CO2 (Acidic oxide)
1. They are brittle. 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O (Neutral oxide)
2. They exist as solid, liquid and gas. 2. They gain electrons to form negative ions.
3. They are non-lustrous except diamond and 3. They are good oxidising agents.
iodine. 4. Their oxides dissolve in water forming acids.
4. They are not conductors of heat and electricity Non-metalic oxide + Water → Acids
except graphite. CO2 + H2O → H2CO3 (Carbonic acid)
5. Low melting and boiling point except diamond SO2 + H2O → H2SO3 (Sulphurous acid)
and graphite. 5. They do not react with dilute acids because they cannot lose electrons.
6. Low density. 6. More reactive non-metals can displace less reactive non-metals from their salt
7. They have mostly 5, 6, 7 valence electrons solution.
[CBSE 2023]
Activity series of Metals Relative Reactivities of Metals
1. More reactive metals can lose electrons most easily. K Potassium → Most reactive
Na Sodium
2. More reactive metals form stable compound.
Ca Calcium
3. More reactive metals are difficult to extract from its ore and exist Mg Magnesium
as compounds. Al Aluminium Reactivity decreases
4. Least reactive metals are found in nature in free state, e.g. copper, Zn Zinc
silver, gold. Fe Iron
Pb Lead
H Hydrogen
Cu Copper
Hg Mercury
Ag Silver
Au Gold → Least reactive
Ionic compounds
Properties Formation
1. Some metal salts impart characteristic colour to flame. NaCl im- Ionic compounds are formed by metals and non-metals
parts golden yellow, KCl imparts violet, CaCl2 bricked, BaCl2 apple • Na → Na+ + e – • Ca → Ca2+ + 2e–
green. (2,8,1) (2,8) [CBSE 2023]
(2,8,8,2) (2,8,8)
–
2. Mostly ionic compounds are solids and have high melting points. Cl + e – → Cl –
O + 2e → O2–
(2,8,7) (2,8,8) 2,6 2,8
3. Most ionic compounds are soluble in water.
+ – 2+ 2–
4. Ionic compounds do not conduct electricity in solid state but → O → (Ca )( O )
Na• Cl → Na ( Cl ) Ca →
conduct electricity in molten state or in aqueous solution.
[CBSE 2023] [CBSE 2020]
Extraction and Purification of metals
Ore
Concentration of Ore
Metals of high reactivity Metals of medium reactivity Metals of low reactivity
Electrolytic reduction Sulphide ores

Carbonate ore Sulphide ore
Pure metal Roasting

Calcination Roasting
Metals
Metal oxide
Pure metal
Metals
Pure metal
Concentration of ore
(Enrichment of ores)
1. Hydraulic washing: Wash with stream of water under pressure.

2. Magnetic separation: Magnetic ores are separated from non-magnetic impurities as shown in Fig. 2.
3. Froth-Floatation process: Sulphide ores are concentrated as shown in Fig. 1.
4. Leaching (Chemical separation)
Ore is treated with suitable reagent which reacts with ore but not with impurities. Metal compound is changed into purified ore, e.g.
Al2O3 + 2NaOH → 2NaAlO2 + H2O
NaAlO2 + 2H2O → Al(OH)3 + NaOH
heat
2Al(OH)3 → Al2O3 + 3H2O

Fig. 1: Froth-Floatation process Fig. 2: Magnetic separation
Conversion of concentrated ore into metal oxide
Calcination Roasting
The carbonate ores are converted into oxides by heating The sulphide ores are convverted into oxides by heating
strongly in limited supply of air or in the absence of air. strongly in presence of air.
D D
CaCO3 → CaO + CO2 2ZnS + 3O2 → 2ZnO + 2SO2
D D
ZnCO3 → ZnO + CO2 2Cu2S + 3O2 → 2Cu2O + SO2 [CBSE 2023]
Refining of Metals
The process of converting impure metal into pure metal is called refining of metals. Many metals
such as copper, zinc, tin, nickel, silver, gold are refined by electrolytic refining. Impure metal acts
as anode, pure metal as cathode and soluble salt of metal as electrolyte. When current is passed
impure metal changes into metal ions which gain electrons at cathode and change into pure
metal. Impurities are left as anode mud. [CBSE 2023]
Electrolytic refining
Corrosion: The process in which metals react with substances present in atmosphere to form surface compounds.
Silver turns black due Copper turns green due to Iron when exposed to moist air
to formation of Ag2S by formation of basic copper for a long time acquires a brown
exposure to H2S gas. carbonate. CuCO3 . Cu(OH)2 flaky substance is called rust.
[CBSE 2023] Rust, chemically is hydrated
ferric oxide Fe2O3 . xH2O
Air and moisture are essential
condition for rusting to take place.
Air and water both are required for rusting of iron

Prevention of corrosion: Painting, oiling, greasing, galvanisation, chrome plating, anodising and making alloys are methods to prevent rusting.
Alloys: Homogeneous mixture of two or more metals which have better properties than metals one of them can be non-metal also steel is alloys.
Iron and carbon, does not get rusted.
How are alloys made?
Alloys are made by melting a primary metal and dissolving the other elements in definite proportions then cooled.
Composition, properties and uses of some alloys

Alloy Constituents Properties Uses
1. Brass Copper, zinc Ductile, malleable, corrosion For making utensils, nails, screws, electric goods,
resistant cartridge containers, parts of watches and musical
instruments, etc.
2. Bronze Copper, tin [CBSE 2023] Hard, corrosion resistant Statues, bearings
3. Duralumin Aluminium, copper, Light and strong, ductile and For making bodies of aeroplanes, vehicles, pressure
(or duralium) magnesium, manga- corrosion resistant cookers, etc.
nese
4. German silver Copper, zinc, nickel High electrical resistance Utensils, electric heaters, resistors.
5. Magnalium Aluminium, magnesium Light and strong Balances and other light instruments, bodies of aero-
planes and vehicles.
6. Stainless Iron, chromium, nickel Hard and rust proof For making utensils, cutlery, surgical instruments, etc.
steel
7. Steel Iron, carbon Strong For making nails, tanks, bodies of ships and other
vehicles, bridges, railway lines, etc.
8. Solder Lead, tin Low melting point Joining metals
TOPICS COVERED
Physical and Chemical Properties of Metals and Non-metals, Formation
and Properties of Ionic Compounds
Multiple Choice
Questions 1 Mark
1. Metal oxides react generally with acids but few oxides of metal also react with bases. Such metallic oxides are
I. MgO II. ZnO III. Al2O3 IV. CaO [CBSE 2023]
(a) I and II (b) II and III (c) III and IV (d) I and IV
2. The number of valence electrons in outermost shell of the atom of a non-metal [CBSE 2023]
(a) 1, 2 or 3 (b) 3, 4 or 5 (c) 5, 6 or 7 (d) 5, 6 or 8
3. The image shows an incomplete chemical equation of the reaction between iron and oxygen.
4Fe(s) + 3O2(g) →
Which option shows the products formed during the reaction? [CBSE T.E.R.M.*]
(a) 4FeO(s) (b) 12FeO(s) (c) 3Fe4O2(s) (d) 2Fe2O3(s)
4. Which option classifies the substance based on their physical properties? [CBSE T.E.R.M.*]
Good conductor of Bad conductor of
Lustrous Malleable
electricity electricity
(a) Graphite and silver Copper Iron Rubber
(b) Copper Rubber Iron Graphite and silver
(c) Copper Graphite and silver Iron Rubber
(d) Copper Graphite and silver Rubber Iron
5. A student writes two incomplete chemical reactions. He notices that LED does not glow. He replaces
X-P4(s) + 5O2 → distilled water by salt solution and observes that
Y-2Mg(s) + O2(g) → LED glows. [CBSE T.E.R.M.*]
Which option completes the reaction to form a
balanced chemical equation? [CBSE T.E.R.M.*] Bulb
(a) X-P5O4(s), Y-MgO(s)
(b) X-4PO10(s), Y-4MgO(s)
(c) X-P4O10(s), Y-2MgO(s)
(d) X-5P4O2(s), Y-Mg2O2(s)
6. A student studying the chemical properties of Distilled
water
metals finds an incomplete chemical reaction as
shown below. [CBSE T.E.R.M.*] How does the salt solution help the LED to glow?
MgO + HNO3 → (a) Salt solution is covalent in nature and conducts
Which option completes the reaction? electricity.
(a) MgO + HNO3 → Mg3N2 + 4H2O (b) Salt solution has low melting point which allows
(b) MgO + HNO3 → Mg(OH)2 + 2NO2 current to flow through it.
(c) MgO + HNO3 → Mg + NO2 + O2 (c) Salt solution has high boiling point which allows
(d) MgO + 2HNO3 → Mg(NO3)2 + H2O the flow of current in the circuit without getting
7. The chemical reaction between a piece of copper hot.
and nitric acid is given by the chemical equations, (d) Salt solution contains ions which make it
Cu + 2HNO3 → Cu(NO3)2 + 2[H] conductive and allows electricity to flow through it.
conc. Questions 11, 12, 13, 14, 15 are based on the information
[H] + HNO3 → H2O + NO2 given below:
What can be inferred from the chemical equation? Krunal connected a copper plate and an iron plate
[CBSE T.E.R.M.*] to the positive and negative terminals of a battery
(a) Copper causes the oxidation of HNO3 to form NO2 respectively along with a switch. He immersed the
(b) Hydrogen gets oxidised by HNO3 to form water. plates into a beaker containing acidified copper
(c) Hydrogen gas reacts with oxygen in air to form sulphate solution. [CFPQ, CBSE]
water.
(d) Nitrate reacts with hydrogen to form NO2 and H2O.
8. A student adds an equal amount of CuSO4 in two
beakers. He adds zinc in the beaker P and silver in
beaker Q. The student observes that the colour of
the solution in beaker P changes while no change
is observed in beaker Q. Which option arranges
metals in correct increasing order of reactivity?
[CBSE T.E.R.M.*]
(a) Ag < Zn < Cu (b) Zn < Cu < Ag
(c) Ag < Cu < Zn (d) Cu < Ag < Zn 11. After a few minutes, even before he turned the
switch on he noticed that copper was deposited on
9. A student learns that Na and Mg react with Cl2 to the iron plate. This could have been due to_____.
form NaCl and MgCl2. (a) electrolysis
2Na + Cl2 → 2NaCl; Mg + Cl2 → MgCl2 (b) electroplating
The melting point of NaCl is 1074 K while melting (c) a combination reaction
point of MgCl2 is 981 K. Why does NaCl and MgCl2 (d) a displacement reaction
have different melting points? [CBSE T.E.R.M.*]
(a) MgCl2 is soluble in kerosene and petrol. 12. Which of the following is likely to happen when
(b) Sodium chloride is formed by combining Na and the current is started?
1 molecule of Cl2 (a) Iron will be deposited on the copper plate.
(c) NaCl has strong inter-ionic bonding than MgCl2. (b) Copper will continue to be deposited on the iron
(d) MgCl2 is formed by combining one molecule of Mg. plate.
(c) No reaction will occur at the iron plate or at the
10. A student makes an electric circuit using an LED, a copper plate.
battery and connecting wires as shown in diagram. (d) The copper already deposited on the iron plate
*Teacher Energised Resource Manuals will go back into the solution.
13. Krunal now replaces the iron plate with a silver (c) 2Na(s) + 2H2O(l) → NaOH(aq) + 2H2(g)
plate. He sees that there is no deposition of copper (d) 2Na(s) + H2O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + 2H2(g)
on the silver plate before starting the current. 20. Which one of the following structures correctly
Which of the following could be the reason? depicts the compound CaCl2? [CBSE 2021]
(a) Silver is more reactive than iron. 2+ 2+
(b) Silver is less reactive than copper. (a) Ca2+ Cl (b) Ca Cl
2
(c) Silver is a poorer conductor of electricity than iron. – + –
(d) Silver is a better conductor of electricity than (c) Ca2+ Cl (d) Ca Cl
2 2
copper. 21. The pair(s) which will show displacement reaction
14. What is likely to happen to the concentration of is/are [CBSE 2021]
copper sulphate in the solution on passing electric (i) NaCl solution and copper metal
current through the solution in the set-up with the (ii) AgNO3 solution and copper metal
silver plate? (iii) Al2(SO4)3 solution and magnesium metal
(a) It will increase. (iv) ZnSO4 solution and iron metal
(b) It will decrease. (a) (ii) only (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) It will remain the same. (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (ii)
(d) Cannot say without knowing the amount of current 22. The metal with lowest density among these
passed. (a) Hg (b) Ga (c) Cs (d) Fr
15. Which of the following will happen to the weights 23. Aqua regia is called as royal water because it
of the silver and copper plates after passing the dissolves gold its composition is 1:3 concentrated.
current for some time? (a) H2SO4 : HNO3
(a) The weight of the silver plate will increase and (b) HNO3 : H2SO4
that of the copper plate will decrease. (c) HNO3 : HCl
(b) The weight of the copper plate will increase and (d) HCl : HNO3 [KVS]
that of the silver plate will decrease. 24. Which of the following is purest form of carbon?
(c) Both the plates will decrease in weight. (a) Diamond (b) Graphite
(d) Both the plates will increase in weight. (c) Fullerene (d) Charcoal
16. Which of the following non-metal is lustrous? 25. An element ‘X’ is yellow coloured solid, insoluble
[DoE Pre-Board 2023] in water but soluble in carbon disulphide. It has
(a) Oxygen (b) Chlorine low melting point 114.5°C. It boils at 445°C and
(c) Hydrogen (d) Iodine it burns with pale blue flame forming pungent
17. Generally when metals react with nitric acid the smelling gas ‘Y’ which turns moist blue litmus red
gas is produced is [DoE Pre-Board 2023] and finally colourless. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are
(a) CO2 (b) SO2 (c) NO2 (d) CO (a) C, CO2 (b) N, NO2
18. A student performs some activities on two substances (c) S, SO2 (d) I2, I2O5
and records the observations in a table shown 26. Which of the following metals liberate hydrogen
below. gas with 5% HNO3?
Activity M N (i) Cu (ii) Zn
Cut with Knife Forms small Forms small (iii) Mn (iv) Mg
pieces pieces (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
Beaten with Shape changes Changes into (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
hammer powder 27. An element ‘X’ reacts with O2 to give a compound
Which option classify substances into metal and with a high melting point. This compound is also
non-metals? soluble in water. The element ‘X’ is likely to be:
(a) Both are metals (a) iron (b) calcium
(b) Both are non-metals (c) carbon (d) silicon [CBSE 2020]
(c) M is metal, N is non-metal 28. Reaction between X and Y, forms compound Z. X
(d) M is non-metal, N is metal loses electron and Y gains electron. Which of the
19. Sodium reacts with water to form sodium hydroxide following properties is not shown by Z ?
and hydrogen gas. The balanced equation which (a) Has high melting point
represents the above reaction is, [CBSE 2021] (b) Insoluble in water
(a) Na(s) + 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + 2H2(g) (c) Conducts electricity in molten state
(b) 2Na(s) + 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + H2(g) (d) Occurs as solid
29. A student adds some metallic ash in water taken Answers
in a test tube. The ash gets completely dissolved
in water and solution changes colour. 1. (b) These oxides are amphoteric (acidic as well as
What should be done to test the product of solution? basic)
(a) Evaporate solution to get crystals. 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (c)
(b) Test the basicity using red litmus paper. 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (b)
(c) Test the acidity of solution by blue litmus. 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (d)
(d) Measure the temperature using a thermometer. 11. (d) Fe(s) + CuSO4(aq) → FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
30. What happens when sodium is dropped in water? 12. (b) Cu2+ + 2e– → Cu [At cathode]
(a) It catches fire and forms oxide. 13. (b) Ag(s) + CuSO4(aq) → No reaction
(b) It absorbs heat and forms oxide. 14. (c) It will remain same because no reaction is taking
(c) It catches fire and forms hydroxide. place
(d) It absorbs heat and forms hydroxide. 15. (a) Copper metal will change into Cu2+(aq) and its
31. A student drops pieces of potassium and silver weight will decrease. Cu2+ will get deposited on
in beakers I and II containing water. What are Ag metal. Therefore, its weight will increase.
products formed in each beaker? 16. (d) Iodine is crystalline, lustrous solid.
K + H2O Ag + H2O 17. (c) Brown coloured (NO2) gas is evolved.
18. (c)
19. (b) Sodium reacts vigorously with water.
20. (c) Ca loses two electrons, 2Cl gain two electrons.
Water Water 21. (b) Cu + 2AgNO3 → Cu(NO3)2 + 2Ag
3Mg + Al2 (SO4)3 → 3MgSO4 + 2Al
I II 22. (c) Cs has lowest density among these.
(a) K2O and H2O in I, Ag2O and H2O in II 23. (c)
(b) KOH + H2O in I, AgO + H2O in II 24. (c) It does not have edges, impurities can’t enter into it.
(c) K2O + H2O in I, II no reaction takes place 25. (c) S + O2 → SO2 (acidic oxide)
(d) KOH + H2, in I, II no reaction takes place 26. (c)
32. Mg reacts with 5% of HNO3 and gives 27. (b) Calcium oxide has high melting point and soluble
(a) MgNO3 + 2H2 (b) Mg(NO3)2 + H2O in water.
(c) Mg(NO3)2 + H2 (d) MgNO3 + H2O \ ‘X’ is calcium.
33. Which of the following statement is true about the 28. (b) Ionic compounds are soluble in water.
position of metals in the activity series of metals? 29. (b) Metallic oxides are mostly basic in nature.
(a) Copper is below hydrogen but above leads. 30. (c) 2Na + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2, H2 catches fire.
(b) Iron is below lead and zinc. 31. (d) 2K + 2H2O → 2KOH + H2
(c) Zinc is below Mg and above Al. 32. (c) Mg + 2HNO3(5%) → Mg(NO3)2 + H2
(d) Mg is below Ca but above Al. [CBSE 2020(C)] 33. (d) Mg is less reactive than Ca but more reactive than
34. Metal cubes of same size were each dropped in a Al.
beaker containing dil. HCl. 34. (a)
What are the possible identities of the metal cubes V S A Very Short Answer
in the beaker? Type Questions 2 Marks
dil. HCl dil. HCl

35. Read the following statements.
(P) Stainless steel does not rust.
Metal
cube Metal (Q) Iron, nickel and chromium form an alloy.
A B cube Does statement (Q) present a valid explanation for
statement (P)? Justify your answer. [CFPQ, CBSE]
dil. HCl
Ans. Yes, it does. Alloying can change the properties of a
metal.
Metal 36. A metallic element, M, has the following properties:
C cube • floats on water
‘A’ ‘B’ ‘C’ • can be cut with a knife
(a) Mg Fe Cu • occurs naturally as its chloride, of formula MCl
(b) Na K Cu • its oxide dissolves in water to form the hydroxide
(c) Pb Mg Ag (a) State the method of manufacture of the metal M.
(d) Zn Mg Au
(b) Name the major byproduct obtained in the Ans. Yes, sodium reacts explosively even with cold wa-
process. [CFPQ, CBSE] ter, it is most reactive. Magnesium reacts with hot
Ans. (a) Electrolysis of the molten chloride water, it is less reactive than Na. Iron reacts only
(b) Chlorine is obtained as byproduct in electrolysis with steam which shows it is least reactive.
of NaCl. 43. Which of the following listed metals can displace
37. Give reason for the following: zinc from its salt solution? Give reason of your
(a) School bells are made up of metals. answer along with chemical equation.[CBSE 2016]
(b) Electric wire are made up of copper. Copper, Lead, Magnesium, Silver
[CBSE 2013] Ans. Metals which are more reactive than zinc can displace
Ans. (a) It is because metals are sonorous, i.e. produce Zn from its salt solution. Therefore, Magnesium can
sound when struck with a hard substance. displace zinc from its salt solution.
(b) It is because copper is good conductor of Mg(s) + ZnSO4(aq) → MgSO4(aq) + Zn(s)
substance.
A Short Answer
38. Write one example of each of S Type Questions 3 Marks
(a) A metal which is so soft that, it can be cut with
44. A teacher asks her students to identify a metal, M.
knife and a non-metal which is the hardest
She gives them the following clues to help them.
substance.
(P) Its oxide reacts with both HCI and NaOH.
(b) A metal and a non-metal which exist as liquid
(Q) It does not react with hot or cold water but
at room temperature. [CBSE 2015]
reacts with steam.
Ans. (a) Sodium, carbon (diamond)
(R) It can be extracted by electrolysis of its ore.
(b) Mercury is liquid metal, bromine is liquid non-
(a) Identify the metal.
metal.
(b) Write the chemical equations for the reaction
39. Name the following: of the metal with HCI and NaOH respectively.
(a) A metal, which is preserved in kerosene. (c) What would happen if the metal is reacted
(b) A lustrous coloured non-metal. with iron oxide?
(c) A metal, which can melt while kept on palm. Ans. (a) A luminium because it forms Al2O 3 which is
(d) A metal, which is a poor conductor of heat. amphoteric.
[CBSE 2012] (b) AI2O3 + 2NaOH → 2NaAIO2 + H2O [CBSE 2023]
Ans. (a) Sodium is preserved in kerosene. AI2O3 + 6HCI → 2AICI3 + 3H2O
(b) Iodine is lustrous coloured non-metal. (c) It would displace iron to form aluminium oxide.
(c) Gallium 2Al + Fe2O3 → Al2O3 + Fe
(d) Lead
45. The atomic number of an element is 20. Write its
40. Give two examples each of the metals that are electronic configuration. State whether this element
good conductors and poor conductors of heat is a metal or a non-metal. What is its valency? Write
respectively. the name and formula of the compound which this
Ans. Good conductors of heat are copper and silver. element forms with chlorine. [CBSE 2021 (C)]
Poor conductors of heat are lead and mercury. Ans. The electronic configuration of calcium (Z = 20) is
41. Explain why calcium metal after reacting with 2, 8, 8, 2. Since it has two valence electrons its
water starts floating on its surface. Write the valency is 2 and due to presence in group 2, it is a
chemical equation for the reaction. Name one metal. The name of compound calcium forms with
more metal that starts floating after some time chlorine is calcium chloride and its formal is CaCl2.
when immersed in water. [KVS] [CBSE 2012] 46. (a) Draw the electron-dot structures of the
Ans. Calcium starts floating because the bubbles of following compound:
hydrogen gas formed stick to the surface of metal. (i) KCl (ii) CaO
Ca(s) + 2H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2 (aq) + H2(g) (b) The electronic configuration of two elements
Magnesium reacts with hot water and starts float- X and Y are given below:
ing due to the bubbles of hydrogen gas sticking to X: 2, 7 Y: 2, 8, 1
its surface. What type of bond will be formed between the
42. The way, metals like sodium, magnesium and atoms of X and Y?
iron react with air and water is an indication of Ans. (a) (i) K → K+ + e–
their relative positions in the ‘reactivity series’. (2, 8, 8, 1) (2, 8, 8)
Is this statement true ? Justify your answer with Cl + e– → Cl–
examples. (2, 8, 7) (2, 8, 8)
×
K Cl or (K+)( Cl –) or KCl
(ii) Ca → Ca2+ + 2e– 49. You are given samples of three metals: Sodium,

(2, 8, 8, 2) (2, 8, 8) magnesium and copper. Suggest any two activities
O + 2e → O2–
– to arrange them in order of decreasing activity.
[CBSE 2014]
(2, 6) (2, 8) Ans. Activity 1: Sodium reacts with cold water to form
2– sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.
Ca + O → Ca2+ O
2Na (s) + 2H2O (l) → 2NaOH (aq) + H2 (g)
(b) The bond formed will be ionic. Y (2, 8, 1) will cold
donate its extra one electron to X (2, 7), so that both Magnesium does not react with cold water but
of them will acquire stable electronic configuration. with hot water to form magnesium hydroxide and
–
(Y+) ( X ) hydrogen gas.
Mg (s) + 2H2O → Mg(OH)2 (aq) + H2 (g)
47. State three reasons for the following facts: (hot)
(a) Sulphur is a non-metal Hence sodium is more reactive than magnesium.
(b) Magnesium is a metal Activity 2: Mg (s) + CuSO4 (aq) → MgSO4 (aq) + Cu (s)
One of the reasons must be supported with a Cu (s) + MgSO4 (aq) → No reaction
chemical equation. [CBSE 2015]
So magnesium is more reactive than copper. Con-
Ans. (a) Sulphur is a (b) Magnesium is a cluding from activity 1 and 2 Na > Mg > Cu.
non-metal metal
50. (a) Write the electron dot structures for potassium
(i) Poor conductor (i) Good conductor of
and chlorine.
of heat and heat and electricity.
(b) Show the formation of KCl by the transfer
electricity.
of electrons.
(ii) Neither malleable (ii) Malleable and (c) Name the ions present in this compound, KCl.
nor ductile. ductile [CBSE 2015]
(iii) S+ O2 → SO2 (iii) 2Mg + O2 → Ans. (a) K Cl
Sulphur dioxide is 2MgO (2, 8, 8, 1) (2, 8, 7)
acidic oxide. Magnesium oxide (b) K → K+ + e–
SO2 + H2O → is basic in nature. Cl + e– → Cl–
H2SO3 MgO + H2O → K
×
Cl or (K+)( Cl –) or KCl
(Sulphurous acid) Mg(OH)
2 (c) KCl has K+ and Cl–.
(Magnesium hydroxide)
48. Explain the following: A Long Answer
L Type Questions5 Marks
(a) Sodium chloride is an ionic compound which
does not conduct electricity in solid state 51. (a) Write electron dot structure for chlorine (At
where as it does conduct electricity in molten No. 17) and calcium (At No. 20). Show the
state as well as in aqueous solution. formation of calcium chloride by the transfer
(b) Reactivity of aluminium decreases if it is of electrons.
dipped in nitric acid. (b) Identify the nature of the above compound
(c) Metals like calcium and magnesium are never and explain three physical properties of such
found in their free state in nature. [Delhi 2019] compounds. [CBSE 2020, 15]
Ans. (a) • Sodium chloride is an ionic compound Ans. (a) Cl Ca××
because it is made up of Na+ and Cl– ions. (2, 8, 7) (2, 8, 8, 2)
• It does not conduct electricity in solid state Ca → Ca2+ + 2e–
because ions are not free to move. 2Cl + 2e– → 2Cl–
• It conducts electricity in molten state be- Cl
cause ions are free to move. Ca×× (Ca2+) (×Cl –)2 CaCl2
(b) It is due to formation of oxide layer on its Cl
surface which makes it passive (less reactive) (b) It is ionic compound.
HNO3 is good oxidising agent. Physical properties
(c) It is because Mg and Ca are highly reactive, (i) It is hard and solid.
react with other elements to form compounds, (ii) It has high melting and boiling point.
therefore, are not found in free state. (iii) It is soluble in water.
52. Distinguish between metals and non-metals on the basis of (a) two physical and (b) three chemical
properties. [CBSE 2018 for Blind, KVS]
Ans. Metals Non-metals

Physical:
(i) Metals are malleable and ductile. (i) Non-metals are brittle.
(ii) Metals are good conductor of heat and electricity. (ii) Non-metals do not conduct heat and electricity.
Chemical:
(i) Reactive metals displace hydrogen from dilute acids. (i) Non-metals do not displace H2 from dilute acids.
(ii) Metallic oxides are basic in nature. (ii) Non-metallic oxides are acidic in nature.
(iii) Metal can lose electron to form positive ions. (iii) Non-metals can gain electrons to form negative
ions.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Among the following the metal with lowest density 9. Which of the following is not an ionic compound?
is [CBSE 2023] (a) KCl (b) MgCl2
(a) Lithium (b) Lead (c) HCl (d) NaCl
(c) Magnesium (d) Aluminium 10. A gas is evolved when dil. sulphuric acid reacts with
2. The compound obtained on reaction of iron with steam zinc granules. It gives a pop sound when lit match
is/are: [CBSE 2020] stick is introduced near it. Identify the gas.
(a) Fe2O3 (b) Fe3O4 (a) Nitrogen (b) Hydrogen
(c) FeO (d) Fe2O3 and Fe3O4 (c) Oxygen (d) Carbon dioxide
3. Which one of the following metals would be displaced 11. Metal X reacts with dil. HCl to form metal salt and
from the solution of its salts by other three metals? gas. Identify X. [CBSE Sample Paper 2022]
[KVS] (a) Copper (b) Mercury
(a) Mg (b) Ag (c) Zn (d) Cu (c) Silver (d) Zinc
4. The chemical reaction between Cu and nitric acid is 12. When zinc reacts with sodium hydroxide, the product
given by chemical equation formed is [CBSE 2023]
Cu + 4HNO3(conc.) → Cu(NO3)2 + 2NO2 + 2H2O (a) Sodium oxide (b) Sodium zincate
Which of the following is correct? (c) Zinc hydroxide (d) Zinc oxide
(a) Copper oxidises HNO3 to NO2 13. The reason for different behaviour (floating) of Mg
(b) HNO3 gets oxidised to H2O in dil HCl is due to:
(c) HNO3 gets reduced to NO2 (a) Mg is lighter element than dil. HCl.
(d) None of these (b) Mg reacts with dil. HCl to produce H2 gas which
5. Pb(s) + CuCl2(aq) → PbCl2(aq) + Cu(s) helps in floating.
Which option explains reason for formation of PbCl2? (c) Mg reacts with dil. HCl to produce N2 gas which
(a) Copper is more reactive than lead helps in floating.
(b) Lead is less reactive than Cu (d) Mg reacts with dil. HCl to produce CO2 gas which
(c) Pb and Cu are equally reactive helps in floating. [CBSE Sample Paper 2022]
(d) Lead is more reactive than Cu 14. Which of the following solutions are electrolytes?
6. Aluminium strip is dipped in FeSO4(aq) and change I. Dil. HCl II. Sugar Solution
that is observed, is III. Alcohol in water IV. Lime water
(a) Green colour changes to brown (a) I and II (b) I and IV
(b) Lower end of test tube becomes warm (c) II, III and IV (d) I, II and IV
(c) Coloured gas with smell of burning sulphur [CBSE Sample Paper 2022]
(d) None of these
15. (a) Why is potassium kept immersed in kerosene?
7. Copper is used for making utensils. Which of the [CBSE 2021 (C)]
following physical properties of copper is not (b) Write the name of an allotrope of carbon.
responsible for the same? [CBSE 2021 (C)]
(a) Malleability (b) High melting point
16. (a) Name any one metal which reacts neither with
(c) Thermal conductivity
cold water nor with hot water, but reacts with
(d) High reactivity
heated steam to produce hydrogen gas.
8. The most abundant element in the universe is (b) Arrange the following metals in the decreasing
(a) Hydrogen (b) Helium order of reactivity:
(c) Carbon (d) Oxygen Na, K, Cu, Ag
17. (a) A non-metal X exists in two different forms Y 25. (a) Why are ionic compounds generally hard?
and Z. Y is the hardest natural substance, whereas (b) Name the solvent in which ionic compounds
Z is a good conductor of electricity. Identify X, are generally soluble.
Y and Z. [CBSE 2020, HOTS] (c) Why are aqueous solutions of ionic compounds
(b) Which metal does not react with water at all? able to conduct electricity?
[DoE] 26. A metal ‘X’ loses two electrons and a non-metal ‘Y’
18. When metal reacts with nitric acid, H2 is not evolved gains one electron. Show the electron dot structure
why? of compound formed between them. Is it ionic or
19. From amongst the metals sodium, calcium, aluminium, covalent? Does it have high melting point or low?
copper and magnesium, name the metal Will it conduct electricity in solid state or in aqueous
(a) which reacts with water only on boiling, and solution and why ? Will it be soluble in water?
(b) another which does not react even with steam. 27. Show the formation of magnesium chloride with
20. Name one metal and one non-metal that exist in liquid the help of electron dot structure. [CBSE 2023, 20]
state at room temperature. Also name two metals [HOTS]
having melting point less than 310 K (37°C). 28. What happens when
21. Give reason why: (a) Zinc reacts with copper sulphate solution
(a) gold and silver are used for making jewellery. (b) Aluminum reacts with steam
(b) a few metals are used for making cooking (c) Sodium reacts with water
utensils. [CBSE 2021 (C)] Give balanced equations for each. [KVS]
22. (a) Give reason for the following : 29. (a) Show the formation of Na2O by the transfer of
(i) Aluminium oxide is considered as an electrons between the combining atoms.
amphoteric oxide. (b) Why are ionic compounds usually hard?
(ii) Ionic compounds conduct electricity in (c) How is it that ionic compounds in the solid state
molten state. do not conduct electricity but they do so when
(b) Name the metal: in molten state? [CBSE 2023]
(i) Which has low melting point. 30. A student was given Mn, Zn, Fe and Cu metals.
(ii) Which exist in liquid state at room Identify which of them
temperature. (a) will not displace H2 from dil. HCl.
(iii) Which is most abundant in earth’s crust. (b) will react only with steam to give H2(g).
(iv) Which is placed at the top of the reactivity (c) will give H2 with 5% HNO3.
series. Write the chemical reactions involved. [HOTS]
23. How do metals reacts with dilute acids? Explain 31. With the help of a suitable example, explain how
with the help of an example. ionic compounds are formed. State any three general
24. Give the names and formulae of properties of ionic compounds.
(a) two acidic oxides (b) two basic oxides
32. Four metals A, B, C and D are added to the following aqueous solutions one by one. The observations made are
tabulated below:
Metal Iron (II) sulphate Copper (II) sulphate Zinc sulphate Silver nitrate
A No reaction Reddish brown deposit ...................... ......................
B Grey deposit ...................... No reaction ......................
C No reaction No reaction No reaction White shining deposit
D No reaction No reaction No reaction No reaction
Answer the following questions based on the above observations:
(a) Which is the most active metal and why?
(b) What would be observed if B is added to a solution of copper (II) sulphate and why?
(c) Arrange the metals A, B, C and D in order of increasing reactivity.
(d) Container of which metal can be used to store both zinc sulphate solution and silver nitrate solution?
(e) Which of the above solutions can be easily stored in a container made up of any of these metals?
TOPICS COVERED
Occurrence and Extraction of Metals, Corrosion, Alloys
Multiple Choice
Questions 1 Mark
1. Copper becomes green when exposed to air for a 9. In extraction of copper, the flux used is
long time due to (a) CaO (b) SiO2
(a) formation of CuO on the surface (c) FeO (d) FeSiO3
(b) formation of basic copper carbonate on surface 10. Cu2S + 3 Cu2O → 6 Cu + SO2
(c) formation of copper hydroxide on the surface The above process is
(d) none of the above (a) auto-reduction (b) Roasting
2. In stainless steel, iron metal is alloyed with (c) electrolytic reduction (d) None of these
(a) Cu and Cr (b) Cr and Ni 11. Which of the following is not an ionic compound?
(c) Cr and Sn (d) Cu and Ni [KVS] (a) KCl (b) MgCl2
3. The process of heating sulphide ore in presence of (c) CCl4 (d) NaCl [KVS]
air is called 12. Which option gives the process of extraction of
(a) roasting mercury from its ore cinnabar? [CBSE T.E.R.M.*]
(b) calcination (a) Cooling cinnabar in the presence of excess air.
(c) smelting (b) Cooling cinnabar to convert into HgO and then
(d) electrolytic refining heating it.
4. The process in which carbonate ore is heated (c) Heating cinnabar in air to convert into HgO and
strongly in absence of air is called then heating it again.
(a) roasting (b) calcination (d) Heating cinnabar in limited air and then adding
(c) smelting (d) reduction to small amount of water.
5. Which of the statements about the reaction, 13. A researcher conducts an experiment to obtain Zn
ZnO + CO → Zn + CO2 is correct? from its ore. Which option gives the process that
(a) ZnO is being oxidised the researcher must perform? [CBSE T.E.R.M.*]
(b) CO is being reduced (a) Converting metal sulphide into metal oxides then
(c) CO2 is being oxidised using carbon to reduce it to obtain pure metal.
(d) ZnO is being reduced (b) Metal oxide into metal sulphide and reducing
6. Bauxite is mixed with cryolite so as to with C to get pure metal.
(i) reduce its melting point (c) Converting metal oxide into metal carbonate then
(ii) increase its electrical conductivity reducing with C to get pure metal.
(iii) molten cryolite acts as solvent (d) Metal sulphide into metal carbonate and then
(iv) increase its melting point heating to get pure metal.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) 14. In extraction of iron, the flux used is
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (ii) (a) CaO (b) SiO2
7. In electrolytic refining of copper, the electrolyte (c) FeO (d) FeSiO3
used is
(a) CuO (b) Cu(OH)2
Answers
(c) Acidified CuSO4(aq) 1. (b) CuCO3.Cu(OH)2 is green.
(d) CuSO4(s) 2. (b)
8. Which of the following ore is concentrated by 3. (a) 2ZnS + 3O2 → 2ZnO + 2SO2
Froth floatation process? 4. (b) ZnCO3 →heat
ZnO + CO2
(a) ZnCO3 (b) ZnO 5. (d) CO is reducing agent.
(c) ZnS (d) Na2S
6. (a) A Short Answer
7. (c) CuSO4 + dil H2SO4 S Type Questions 3 Marks
8. (c) Sulphide ores are concentrated by this process.
9. (b)SiO2 + FeO(gangue) → FeSiO3 19. An ore on heating in air produces sulphur
10. (a) Cu2S is reducing agent. dioxide. Which process would you suggest for
11. (c) It is covalent compound. its concentration? Describe briefly any two steps
12. (c) 2HgS + 3O2 → 2HgO + 2SO2, involved in the conversion of this concentrated
2HgO D → 2Hg + O2 ore into related metal. [CBSE 2020]
13. (a) Ans. It is concentrated by froth-floatation process.
14. (a) CaO + SiO2 (gangue) → CaSiO3 (i) Roasting : The concentrated sulphide ore is
heated strongly in the presence of oxygen to
V S A Very Short Answer convert it into its oxide.
Type Questions 2 Marks 2ZnS(s) + 3O2(g) → 2ZnO(s) + 2SO2(g)
(ii) Reduction : This oxide of metal is reduced
15. Name a metal/non-metal: [CBSE 2016] with suitable reducing agent to get free metal.
(i) Which makes iron hard and strong? heat
ZnO(s) + C(s) → Zn(s) + CO(g)
(ii) Which is alloyed with any other metal to 20. (a) What is reactivity series? How does the
make an amalgam? reactivity series help in predicting the relative
(iii) Which is used to galvanise iron articles? activity of various metal?
(iv) Whose articles when exposed to air form a (b) Suggest different chemical processes used for
black coating? obtaining a metal from its oxides of metals
Ans. (i) Carbon makes iron hard and strong. Tungsten in the middle and top of reactivity series.
can also make iron hard and strong. Support your answer with one example.
(ii) Mercury [CBSE Sample Paper 2018]
(iii) Zinc Ans. (a) The series of metals in decreasing order of reac-
(iv) Silver tivity is called reactivity series of metals.
16. Which one of the methods given in Column I are The metals at the top are most reactive and met-
used for extraction of each of the metals given in als at the bottom are least reactive.
Column II. (b) The metals in the middle of reactivity series are
Column I Column II obtained from their ores by chemical reduction
(i) Electrolytic Al with suitable reducing agent, e.g.
reduction Zn ZnO + C → Zn + CO
(ii) Reduction with Na
The metals at the top of series are obtained by
carbon Fe
electrolytic reduction of their molten orc.
(iii) Reduction with Al Mn electrolysis
Sn Al2O3 → 2Al3+ + 3O2–
Ans. (i) Electrolytic reduction is used in case of Al, Molten
Na. At cathode: 2Al3+ + 6e– → 2Al
(ii) Reduction with carbon is done in case of Zn, At anode: O2– – 2e– → O
Fe, Sn. O + O → O2
(iii) Reduction with Al is carried out in case of Mn. 21. What is cinnabar? How is metal extracted from
17. What is an alloy? State the constituents of solder. cinnabar? Explain briefly. [CBSE 2020, 15]
Which property of solder makes it suitable for
welding electrical wires? Ans. Cinnabar is HgS.
Ans. Alloy is a homogeneous mixture of two or more Mercury is obtained by roasting cinnabar. HgO
metals. One of them can be a non-metal also. Solder formed is thermally unstable and gives mercury.
consists of lead and tin, it has low melting point 2HgS(s) + O2(g) → HgO(s) + SO2(g)
heat
which makes it suitable for soldering electric wires. 2HgO(s) → Hg (l) + O2(g) [CBSE 2023]
18. What is 24 carat gold ? How will you convert it Or
into 18 carat gold? HgS(s) + O2(g) → Hg(l) + SO2(g)
Ans. 24 carat gold is pure gold. It is converted into 18 Mercury can be purified by distillation.
carat gold by adding 6 parts of copper to 1 part of 22. What is ‘rusting’? Describe with a labelled
gold, i.e., 75% Au and 25% Cu. diagram an activity to investigate the conditions
under which iron rusts. [CBSE 2023]
Ans. Rusting is a process in which reddish brown coating (b) Name two metals that can be used to reduce
of hydrated ferric oxide is formed at the surface of metal oxides to metals. [CBSE 2012]
iron. Ans. (a) Calcination Roasting
Activity:
(i) Take three boiling tubes A, B and C. It is a process in It is process in which
(ii) Pour some water in test tube A. Put iron nails which carbonate oresulphide ore is heated
in it and cork it. in presence of oxygen
is heated in absence
(iii) Pour boiled distilled water in another test tube to convert into oxide.
of air to form oxide.
heat
B and put iron nails in it. Add 1 ml of oil over ZnCO3(s) → 2ZnS + 3O2 → 2ZnO
it such that oil floats over it and prevents the ZnO(s) + CO2(g) + 2SO2
air from entering. [CBSE 2023]
(iv) Take some iron nails in test tube C and put By reduction process, Zn can be extracted
some anhydrous calcium chloride in it and from its ore.
cork it. Reduction.
(v) Leave all the three test tubes for one day and ZnO + C → Zn + CO2
then observe. (b) Aluminium, Magnesium.
25. (a) Write the steps involved in the extraction of
pure metals in the middle of the activity series
from their carbonate ores.
(b) How is copper extracted from its sulphide
ore? Explain the various steps supported by
chemical equations. Draw labelled diagram
for the electrolytic refining of copper. [KVS]
[CBSE 2018]
Ans. (a) (i) Concentration of ore (ii) Calcination
Observation: Iron nails get rusted in test tube A (iii) Reduction (iv) Purification
because both air and water are present in it. Iron (b) (i) Ore of copper is concentrated by froth
nails do not get rusted in B because there is water floatation process.
but no air. In C, rusting will not take place because (ii) Roasting:
there is neither air nor water. 2CuFeS2 + O2 → Cu2S + FeS + SO2
Conclusion: Iron gets rusted in the presence of air 2Cu2S + 3O2 → 2Cu2O + 2SO2

and water. 2FeS + 3O2 → 2FeO + 2SO2

23. What is purpose of making alloys? [CBSE 2020] FeO + SiO2 → FeSiO3
Ans. Purpose of Making Alloy are as follows: (iii) Smelting:
(i) Alloys do not get corroded or corroded to 2Cu2O + Cu2S → 6Cu + SO2
very less extent. (iv) Electrolytic refining: Impure copper
(ii) They are harder and stronger than pure metal, is taken as anode, pure copper is taken
e.g., gold mixed with copper is harder than as cathode. Acidified CuSO4 is taken as
pure gold. electrolyte. Impure copper changes into
(iii) They have less conductance than pure metals, Cu2+ which gain electron at cathode form-
e.g., copper is good conductor of heat and ing pure Cu. Impurities are left behind as
electricity whereas brass and bronze are not anode mud.
good conductors. At anode Cu (impure) → Cu2+ + 2e–
(iv) Some alloys have lower melting point than At cathode Cu2+ + 2e– → Cu (pure)
pure metals, e.g., solder is an alloy of lead and
tin which has lower melting point than each of
the metals. It is used for soldering of metals.
Cu
A Long Answer (pure
metal)
Cu
24. (a) Differentiate between roasting and calcination. (impure
Explain the two with the help of suitable metal)
chemical equations. How is zinc extracted Cu CuSO4
from its ore? mud
Electrolytic refining
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Bronze is an alloy of (c) Name the ions present in this compound CaS.
(a) Copper and zinc [Atomic number of Ca = 20, O = 16.]
(b) Aluminium and tin [CBSE 2015]
(c) Copper, tin, zinc 6. (a) Explain the formation of ionic compound
(d) Copper and tin [CBSE 2023] CaO with electron dot structure. Atomic
2. Which of the following is incorrect description of number of calcium and oxygen are 20 and 8
the process: [CBSE 2023] respectively.
(a) The impure metal from anode dissolves in (b) Name the constituent metals of bronze.
electrolyte. [CBSE 2020]
(b) The pure metal from the electrolyte deposits at 7. Suggest a method of reduction for the following
cathode. metals during their metallurgical processes:
(c) Insoluble impurities settle at the bottom of anode. (a) metal ‘A’ which is one of the last second or third
(d) On passing electric current through the position in the reactivity.
electrolyte, the pure metal from anode dissolves (b) metal ‘B’ which gives vigorous reaction even
into electrolyte. [CBSE 2023] with water and air.
3. Mention the names of the metals for the following: (c) metal ‘C’ which is kept in the middle of activity
(a) Two metals which are alloyed with iron to make series. [KVS] [CBSE 2013]
stainless steel. 8. (a) Carbon cannot be used as reducing agent to
(b) Two metals which are used to make jewellary. obtain Mg from MgO. Why?
[CBSE 2015] (b) How is sodium obtained from molten sodium
4. A student has been collecting silver coins and chloride? Give equation of the reactions.
copper coins. One day she observed a black coating (c) How is copper obtained from its sulphide ore?
on silver coins and green coating on copper coins. Give equations of the reactions.
Give the chemical name of black and green coating. 9. (a) Define corrosion. [CBSE 2016]
How are they formed? (b) What is corrosion of iron called?
5. (a) State the electron-dot structure for calcium and (c) How will you recognise the corrosion of silver?
sulphur. (d) Why corrosion of iron is a serious problem?
(b) Show the formation of CaS by the transfer of (e) How can we prevent corrosion of iron?
electrons.

1. The way, metals like sodium, magnesium and iron (ii) Hydrogen is not evolved when a metal
react with air and water is an indication of their reacts with dilute nitric acid.
relative positions in the ‘reactivity series’. Is this (b) Write chemical equations that shows zinc oxide
statement true ? Justify your answer with examples. reacts with acid as well as base.
(2 Marks) 4. (a) Write one example of each of (3 Marks)
2. Explain the following statements: (3 Marks) (i) A metal which is so soft that, it can be cut
(a) Most metal oxides are insoluble in water but with knife and a non-metal which is the
some of these dissolve in water. What are these hardest sustance.
oxides and their solutions in water called? (ii) A metal and a non-metal which exist as
(b) At ordinary temperature the surface of metals liquid at room temperature.
such as magnesium, aluminium, zinc, etc. is (b) Using the electronic configurations, explain how
covered with a thin layer. What is the composition magnesium atom combines with oxygen atom to
of this layer? State its importance. form magnesium oxide by transfer of electrons.
(c) Some alkali metals can be cut with a knife. 5. (a) Elements magnesium and oxygen respectively
[CBSE 2016] belong to group 2 and group 16 of the Modern
3. (a) Give reason for the following: (3 Marks) Periodic Table. If the atomic numbers of
(i) Metals can be given different shapes magnesium and oxygen are 12 and 8 respectively,
according to our needs.
draw their electronic configurations and show (b)
(i) Give one method to prevent the corrosion
the process of formation of their compound by of copper.
transfer of electrons. (ii) Name the ores of the following metals:
• mercury, and • zinc (3 Marks)

Direction: In the following Questions, the Assertion and Reason: Sodium reacts with air to form sodium
Reason have been put forward. Read the statements oxide (Na2O).
carefully and choose the correct alternative from the 8. Assertion: Metals are reducing agents.
following:
Reason: Metals form positive ions by loss of electrons.
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. 9. Assertion: Lead reacts with H2SO4 to form lead
sulphate and further reaction stops.
Reason: Lead sulphate is insoluble in water and
forms a coating over lead metal preventing further
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false. reaction.
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason 10. Assertion: Sodium chloride has melting point above
is true. 1000° C.
1. Assertion: Sodium oxide is an amphoteric oxide. Reason: Sodium chloride conducts electricity in
Reason: Those oxides which react with acid as well solid state.
as base are amphoteric oxides. [CBSE 2023] 11. Assertion: The colour of an aqueous solution of
2. Assertion: Nitrogen is a non-metal. copper sulphate turns colourless when a piece of
Reason: Nitrogen has 5 valence electrons. [KVS] lead is added to it.
3. Assertion: Copper does not reacts with dil. H2SO4. Reason: Lead is more reactive than copper and hence
Reason: Copper is more reactive than hydrogen displaces copper from its salt solution.
4. Assertion: Highly reactive metals are obtained by 12. Assertion: K is more reactive than Na.
electrolytic reduction of their molten ore. Reason: K is smaller is size than Na.
Reason: Highly reactive metals can be extracted by 13. Assertion: Certain elements show properties of both
chemical reduction. metals and non-metals and are called metalloids.
5. Assertion: Silver becomes black in colour when Reason: Silicon and germanium are metalloids as
exposed to atmosphere. they resemble with metals as well as non-metals.
Reason: Silver reacts with H2S gas to form Ag2S 14. Assertion: MgCl2 is covalent compound.
which is black in colour. Reason: Metals and non-metals react by mutual
6. Assertion: The metals and alloys are good conductors transfer of electrons.
of electricity. 15. Assertion: Sodium is less reactive than lead.
Reason: Bronze is an alloy of copper and tin and it Reason: Sodium is kept in kerosene.
is not good conductor of electricity. [CBSE 2020] 16. Assertion: Na, Ca, Mg are obtained by electrolysis
7. Assertion: If Na2O reacts with HCl, it will form of their molten oxides.
NaCl and H2O. Reason: These metals have more affinity for oxygen
than carbon. [CBSE 2023]
1. Read the following passage and answer the non-lustrous, brittle, exist as soilds, liquids and gases,
questions that follow based on passage and related non-conductor of heat and electricity, form negative
studied concepts. ions and acidic oxides mostly. Some metals form
Elements are classified into metals, non-metals and amphoteric oxides and some non-metals form neutral
metalloids. Metals are lustrous, malleable, ductile and oxides. A more reactive metal can displace less reactive
good conductors of heat and electricity, mostly solids, metal from its salt solution. Some less reactive metals
form positive ions and basic oxides. Non-metals are occur in free state. Most of metals occur in combined
state in form of ores. Carbonates ores are converted P – Did not react either with cold or hot water but
into oxides by calcination and sulphide ores are roasted reacted with steam.
in presence of oxygen to form oxides. Oxides are Q – Reacted with hot water and the metal started
reduced with suitable reducing agent to get free metal. floating.
Metals of middle reactivity series are obtained from R – Reacted violently with cold water.
their oxides by reduction with Al, Mg. Most reactive S – Did not react with water at all.
metals are obtained by electrolytic reduction of their Based on the above observations answer the following:
molten ores. Impure metals are refined by suitable (a) Identify metal Q out of Fe, Zn, K, Mg? Give
methods. Metals form ionic compounds with non- reason.
metals. Ionic compounds are soluble in water, high (b) Identify metal which forms amphoteric oxide.
melting solids, conduct electricity in molten state and (c) Arrange the metals in increasing order of
in aqueous solution. reactivity. Give reason.
(a) Out of elements from atomic number 1 to 20, Or
name metalloids. (c) Which metal is kept in kerosene oil and why?
(b) X has atomic number (20) and Y has 17. What 4. The activity series of metals is shown in the box.
is formula of compound formed? Study this table carefully and answer the questions
(c) What happens when zinc carbonate is heated in based on this series and related studied concepts.
absence of air? Name the process.
Or Reactivity Series
(c) What happens when Zn metal reacts with K
FeSO4(aq)? Write chemical equation. Na
2. Read the given passage and answer the questions Ca
based on the passage and related studied concepts. Mg
Pure metals are usually too soft and weak for most Al
uses. In pure metals the atoms are arranged orderly
Zn
in layers. When force is applies to the metal, the
Fe
layers of metal atoms can slide over one another.
To improve the strength and hardness of metals, Pb
atoms of another element can be added usually in H
small amounts which prevents atoms of the metal Cu
from sliding over one another, making the metals Ag
stronger and harder and less likely to get its shape Au
distorted. The final product is an alloy of metal, e.g. (a) What happens when Ag metal is added to CuSO4
ornaments are made up of 22 carat gold in which solution?
copper is added to gold. Alloy is a homogeneous (b) Why does Au exist in free state?
mixture of two or more metals. One of them can (c) Can we store MgSO4(aq) in copper container?
be non-metal also, e.g., steel is an alloy of Fe and Give reason.
carbon. Alloys are made so as to improve properties Or
of metals. Amalgam is alloy of metal with mercury. (c) Which metals do not occur in free state and react
(a) What is composition of stainless steel? with cold water? How are these extracted?
(b) Which metal is present is solder, brass and 5. The following table gives melting point of some
bronze? metals. Study the table and answer the questions
(c) What is amalgam? Give an example. related to table and related studied concepts.
Or
Metals Melting Point
(c) Calculate the percentage of gold present in
22 carat gold. Na 98°C
3. A student, took four metals P, Q, R and S and carried Ag 961.8°C
out different experiments to study the properties of Cu 1085°C
metals. Some of the observations were: [CBSE 2021] Al 660.3°C
• All metals could not be cut with knife except metal R. Zn 419.5°C
• Metal P combined with oxygen to form an oxide Au 1064°C
M2O3 which reacted with both acids and bases. Sn 231.9°C
• Reaction with water. Hg –38.83°C
(a) How are sodium and mercury refined? Why (a) Name the process of reduction used for a metal
(b) Name two metals purified by electrolytic refining. that gives vigorous reaction with air and water
(c) In electrolytic refining of copper, name the both.
cathode, anode and electrolyte used. (b) Carbon cannot be used as reducing agent to
Or obtain aluminium from its oxide. Why?
(c) Why is bauxite mixed with cryolite before (c) Describe briefly the method to obtain mercury
electrolytic reduction in extraction of aluminium? from cinnabar. Write the chemical equation for
6. Almost all metals combine with oxygen to form the reaction involved in the process.
metal oxides. Metal oxides are generally basic in Or
nature. But some metals show both basic as well as (c) Differentiate between roasting and calcination
acidic behaviour. Different metals show different giving chemical equation for each.
reactivities towards oxygen. Some react vigorously 8. The melting points and boiling points of some ionic
while some do not react at all. compounds are given below: [CBSE 2023]
(a) What happens when copper is heated in air? Compound Melting Point Boiling Point
Give the equation of the reaction involved. (K) (K)
(b) W hy are some metal oxides categorised as NaCl 1074 1686
amphoteric? Give one example. LiCl 887 1600
(c) Complete the following reaction [CBSE 2023] CaCl2 1045 1900
(i) Na2O(s) + H2O(l) → CaO 2850 3120
(ii) Al2O3(s) + 2NaOH → MgCl2 981 1685
Or These compounds are termed ionic because they are
(c) On burning sulphur in oxygen a colourless gas formed by the transfer of electrons from a metal to a
is produced. non-metal. The electron transfer in such compounds is
(i) Write chemical equation for the reaction. controlled by the electronic configuration of the elements
(ii) Name the gas formed. involved. Every element tends to attain a completely
(iii) State the nature of the gas. filled valence shell of its nearest noble gas or a stable
(iv) What will be action of this on dry litmus octet.
paper? (a) Show the electron transfer in the formation of
7. On the basis of reactivity metals are grouped into magnesium chloride.
three categories: (b) List two properties of ionic compounds other
(i) Metals of low reactivity than their high melting and boiling points.
(ii) Metals of medium reactivity (c) While forming an ionic compound say sodium
(iii) Metals of high reactivity. chloride how does sodium atom attain its stable
Therefore metals are extracted in pure form from their configuration?
ores on the basis of their chemical properties. Or
[CBSE 2023]
(c) Give reasons:
Metals of high reactivity are extracted from their (i) Why do ionic compounds in the solid state
ores by electrolysis of their molten ores. Metals of not conduct electricity?
low reactivity are extracted from their sulphide ores (ii) What happens at the cathode when electricity
which are converted into their oxides. The oxides of is passed through an aqueous solution of
these metals are reduced to metals by simple heating. sodium chloride?
NCERT ZONE
Page 40 Ans. (i) Metal that exists in liquid state at room
1. Give an example of a metal which temperature is mercury.
(i) is a liquid at room temperature. [CBSE 2020] (ii) Metal that can be easily cut with a knife is
(ii) can be easily cut with a knife. [CBSE 2020] sodium.
(iii) is the best conductor of heat. (iii) Metal that is the best conductor of heat is
(iv) is a poor conductor of heat. silver.
(iv) Metal that is a poor conductor of heat is lead.
2. Explain the meanings of malleable and ductile. It also reacts violently with cold water. Hence, it
Ans. Malleable: Substances that can be beaten into thin catches fire if kept in open. Therefore, to prevent
sheets are called malleable. Most of the metals are accidental fires and accidents, sodium is stored
malleable. The most malleable metals are gold and immersed in kerosene oil.
silver. 2. Write equations for the reactions of
Ductile: Substances that can be drawn into thin (i) iron with steam.
wires are called ductile. Most of the metals are (ii) calcium and potassium with water.
ductile. Platinum, gold and silver are the most Ans. (i) 3Fe(s) + 4H2O(l) → Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g)
ductile metals. [CBSE 2020]
Page 46 (ii) Ca(s) + 2H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2(aq) + H2(g)
+ Heat
1. Why is sodium kept immersed in kerosene oil?
Ans. Sodium is a very reactive metal and combines
explosively with air(oxygen) at room temperature.
3. Samples of four metals A, B, C and D were taken and added to the following solutions one by one. The
results obtained have been tabulated as follows.
Iron(II) Copper(II) Zinc Silver
Metal
sulphate sulphate sulphate nitrate
A No reaction Displacement
B Displacement No reaction
C No reaction No reaction No reaction Displacement
Use the Table above to answer the following questions about metals A, B, C and D.
(i) Which is the most reactive metal?
(ii) What would you observe if B is added to a solution of copper (II) sulphate?
(iii) Arrange the metals A, B, C and D in the order of decreasing reactivity.
Ans. A + FeSO4 → No reaction, i.e. A is less reactive than iron.
A + CuSO4 → Displacement, i.e. A is more reactive than copper.
B + FeSO4 → Displacement, i.e. B is more reactive than iron.
B + ZnSO4 → No reaction, i.e. B is less reactive than zinc.
C + FeSO4 → No reaction, i.e. C is less reactive than iron.
C + CuSO4 → No reaction, i.e. C is less reactive than copper.
C + ZnSO4 → No reaction, i.e. C is less reactive than zinc.
C + AgNO3 → Displacement, i.e. C is more reactive than silver.
D + FeSO4/CuSO4/ZnSO4/AgNO3 → No reaction, i.e.
D is less reactive than iron, copper, zinc, and silver.
From the above equations, we obtain:
(i) B is the most reactive metal.
(ii) If B is added to a solution of copper (II) sulphate, then it would displace copper.
B + CuSO4 → Displacement
(iii) The arrangement of the metals in the order of decreasing reactivity is:
B > A > C > D
4. Which gas is produced when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to a reactive metal? Write the chemical
reaction when iron reacts with dilute H2SO4.
Ans. When dilute hydrochloric acid is added to a reactive metal, hydrogen gas is evolved.
The reaction between iron and H2SO4 is:
Fe(s) + H2SO4(dil.) → FeSO4(aq) + H2(g)
Iron Sulphuric acid Iron(II) sulphate Hydrogen
5. What would you observe when zinc is added to a solution of iron(II) sulphate? Write the chemical reaction
that takes place.
Ans. Zinc is more reactive than iron. Therefore, if zinc is added to a solution of iron (II) sulphate, then it would displace
iron from the solution.
Zn(s) + FeSO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + Fe(s)
Zinc Iron(II) sulphate Zinc sulphate Iron
(Silvery-white) (Greenish solution) (Colourless solution) (Grey)
Page 49
1. (i) Write the electron-dot structures for sodium, oxygen and magnesium.
(ii) Show the formation of Na2O and MgO by the transfer of electrons.
(iii) What are the ions present in these compounds?
Ans. (i) Electronic configuration of sodium is 2,8,1.
Electron dot structure of sodium is: Na.
Electronic configuration of oxygen is 2,6.
Electron dot structure of oxygen is: O
Electronic configuration of magnesium is 2,8,2.
Electron dot structure of magnesium is: Mg:
(ii) (a) Formation of Na2O
Na → Na+ + e–
2,8,1 2,8
Neutral Sodium ion [CBSE 2023]
Sodium atom (Neon configuration)
O + 2e– → O2–
2,6 2, 8
Neutral Oxygen Oxide ion
atom (Neon configuration)
Na
O (Na+)2 [ O ]2–
Na
Each sodium Oxygen atom Neutral
atom loses gain two ionic
one electron electrons compound
(b) Formation of MgO
Mg → Mg2+ + 2e–
2,8,2 2,8
Neutral Magnesium ion
Magnesium atom (Neon configuration)
O + 2e– → O2–
2,6 2,8
Neutral Oxygen Oxide ion
atom (Neon configuration)
Mg + O Mg2+ [ O ]2–
Magnesium Oxygen atom Neutral

atom loses gain two ionic
two electrons electrons compound
(iii) The ions present are Na+, O2– and Mg2+ in compounds sodium oxide (Na2O) and magnesium oxide (MgO).
2. Why do ionic compounds have high melting points? [KVS]
Ans. Ionic compounds have high melting points because of the strong force of attraction between the oppositely
charged ions. High energy is required to break the metallic bonds between these ions.
Page 53
1. Define the following terms.
(i) Mineral (ii) Ore (iii) Gangue
Ans. (i) The natural materials in which metals occur in the form of their compounds are called minerals. They are
mostly found in earth’s crust. Some minerals are also found in sea water, e.g., NaCl (sodium chloride),
feldspar, mica, kaolin, etc.
(ii) They are minerals from which metals are extracted profitably, e.g., haematite (Fe2O3) is an ore of iron,
bauxite (Al2O3.2H2O) is an ore of aluminium.
(iii) The unwanted material present in the ores mined from earth is called gangue. It needs to be removed prior
to the extraction process.
2. Name two metals which are found in nature in the free state.
Ans. The metals present at the bottom of the reactivity series are mostly found in free state. For example: gold, silver,
and platinum. (any two)
3. What chemical process is used for obtaining a metal from its oxide?
Ans. The chemical process used for obtaining a metal from its oxide is reduction.
There are mainly three different methods of reduction:
(i) By heating
(ii) By using carbon
(iii) By using aluminium, calcium, sodium etc. as reducing agents.
Page 55
1. Metallic oxides of zinc, magnesium and copper were heated with the following metals.
Metal Zinc Magnesium Copper
Zinc oxide — — —
Magnesium oxide — — —
Copper oxide — — —
In which cases will you find displacement reactions taking place?
Ans. Metal Zinc Magnesium Copper
Zinc oxide No reaction Displacement No reaction
Magnesium oxide No reaction No reaction No reaction
Copper oxide Displacement Displacement No reaction
2. Which metals do not corrode easily?
Ans. Gold, platinum, rhodium.
3. What are alloys?
Ans. Alloy are a homogeneous mixture of two or more metals or a metal and a non-metal. For example, brass is an
alloy of copper and zinc.
NCERT EXERCISES
1. Which of the following pairs will give displacement 3. An element reacts with oxygen to give a compound
reactions? with a high melting point. This compound is also
(a) NaCl solution and copper metal soluble in water. The element is likely to be
(b) MgCl2 solution and aluminium metal (a) calcium. (b) carbon.
(c) FeSO4 solution and silver metal (c) silicon. (d) iron.
(d) AgNO3 solution and copper metal. Ans. (a) Calcium oxide has high melting point as it is
Ans. (d) Cu(s) + 2AgNO3(aq) → Cu(NO3)2(aq) ionic in nature and is soluble in water.
+ 2Ag(s) 4. Food cans are coated with tin and not with zinc
because copper is more reactive than Ag. because
2. Which of the following methods is suitable for (a) Zinc is costlier than tin.
preventing an iron frying pan from rusting? (b) Zinc has a higher melting point than tin.
(a) Applying grease (c) Zinc is more reactive than tin.
(b) Applying paint (d) Zinc is less reactive than tin.
(c) Applying a coating of zinc Ans. (c) Zinc is more reactive than tin, that is why, tin
(d) All of the above. is used.
Ans. (c) Grease and paints are organic matter which can 5. You are given a hammer, a battery, a bulb, wires
burn on heating. So, we do not apply grease or and a switch.
paint on a frying pan to prevent it from rusting. (a) How would you use them to distinguish
We can prevent it from rusting by applying between samples of metals and non-metals?
coating of zinc. Zinc is more reactive than iron (b) Assess the usefulness of these tests in
and hence it does not allow iron to rust. distinguishing between metals and non-
metals.
Ans. (a)  Take the sample of metal. dilute acids because they are less reactive than
Hammer it for long time. Observe the metal hydrogen.
after sometime. Zn(s) + 2HCl(dil) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)
 Take the sample of non-metal and hammer 2Al(s) + 6HCl(dil) → 2AlCl3(aq) + 3H2(g)
it a little. 8. In the electrolytic refining of a metal M, what
You will observe that metal changes into would you take as the anode, cathode and
sheets on hammering, i.e. it is malleable electrolyte?
whereas non-metal is brittle and it breaks on Ans. Impure metal acts as anode, pure metal acts as
hammering. cathode. Soluble salt of metal acts as electrolyte.
9. Pratyush took sulphur powder on a spatula and
heated it. He collected the gas evolved by inverting
a test tube over it, as shown in figure below.
Test tube
Spatula containing
sulphur powder
Burner
Collection of gas
 Set the apparatus as shown in the figure
above. Take the sample of metal and put it (a) What will be the action of gas on
between the clips. Switch on the current and (i) dry litmus paper?
observe the bulb. (ii) moist litmus paper?
Now take the sample of non-metal and insert (b) Write a balanced chemical equation for the
it between clips. Switch on the current and reaction taking place.
observe the bulb. Ans. (a) (i) There will be no effect of gas on dry
You will observe that the bulb glows when litmus paper.
current is switched on in case of metal sam- (ii) Moist blue litmus paper will turn red.
ple. The bulb does not glow in case of non- (b) S(s) + O2(g) → SO2(g)
Sulphur Oxygen Sulphur dioxide
metal sample. SO2(g) + H2O(l) → H2SO3(aq)
This shows metals are good conductors of Sulphur Sulphurous
electricity whereas non-metals are bad con- dioxide acid
ductors of electricity. (acidic oxide)
(b) These two tests can be used to distinguish Sulphurous acid turns blue litmus red.
between metals and non-metals. Hammering 10. State two ways to prevent the rusting of iron.
can be used in most of metals except in case of Ans. (i) Painting: Iron articles are painted so that
sodium, potassium and lithium. surface does not come in contact with air and
Conduction of electricity can be used in water and it does not get rusted.
classification of most of the metals and non- (ii) Galvanisation: It is a process in which iron
metals except in graphite which is a non- articles are coated with zinc metal so as to
metallic conductor. prevent them from rusting. Zinc is more
6. What are amphoteric oxides? Give two examples reactive than iron, therefore, it loses electrons
of amphoteric oxides. more readily and prevents iron from rusting.
Ans. The oxides which act as both acidic as well as 11. What type of oxides are formed when non-metals
basic are called amphoteric oxides, e.g. Al2O3 and combine with oxygen?
ZnO are amphoteric oxides. Ans. Mostly acidic oxides are formed when non-metal
7. Name two metals which will displace hydrogen combines with oxygen.
from dilute acids, and two metals which will not. 12. Give reasons.
Ans. Zn and Al will displace hydrogen from dilute acids (i) Platinum, gold and silver are used to make
because they are more reactive than hydrogen jewellery.
whereas Cu and Ag cannot displace hydrogen from (ii) Sodium, potassium and lithium are stored
under oil.
(iii) Aluminium is a highly reactive metal, yet it
(ii) Metals form basic (ii) Non-metals form
is used to make utensils for cooking.
oxides. acidic oxides.
(iv) Carbonate and sulphide ores are usually
converted into oxides during the process of (iii) Metals can dis- (iii) Non-metals
extraction. place hydrogen cannot displace
Ans. (i) It is because they are highly lustrous and from dilute acids. hydrogen from
least reactive. dilute acids.
(ii) They are highly reactive. They catch fire and
(iv) Reactive met- (iv) Non-metals
start burning when kept open in the air. To
als can displace cannot displace
prevent their reaction with oxygen, moisture
and carbon dioxide of air, they are stored hydrogen from hydrogen from
under oil. water or steam. water.
(iii) It is because aluminium is a good conductor 15. A man went door to door posing as a goldsmith.
of heat. He promised to bring back the glitter of old and
(iv) It is because it is easier to reduce oxide ores dull gold ornaments. An unsuspecting lady gave
as compared to carbonates and sulphides. a set of gold bangles to him which he dipped in
13. You must have seen tarnished copper vessels being a particular solution. The bangles sparkled like
cleaned with lemon or tamarind juice. Explain new but their weight was reduced drastically.
why these sour substances are effective in cleaning The lady was upset but after a futile argument
the vessels. the man beat a hasty retreat. Can you play the
Ans. It is because basic copper carbonate formed on detective to find out the nature of the solution he
copper vessel reacts with acid present in lemon had used?
or tamarind juice and gets dissolved and green Ans. The solution he had used was aqua regia, which
layer is removed. is a freshly prepared mixture of concentrated
hydrochloric acid and concentrated nitric acid in the
14. Differentiate between metal and non-metal on the
ratio 3 : 1. Aqua regia is one of the few reagents that
basis of their chemical properties.
is able to dissolve gold. When the person claimed
Ans. Metals Non-metals to be goldsmith dipped bangles in aqua regia, some
(i) Metals can lose (i) Non-metals can of the gold got dissolved and hence weight of the
electrons easily gain electrons bangles got reduced.
to form positive easily to form 16. Give the reason why copper is used to make hot
ions. negative ions. water tanks and not steel (an alloy of iron).
Ans. Copper is better conductor of heat than steel there-
fore, it is used for making hot water tanks.
1. Which one of the following metals do not react Ans. (c) These are less reactive.
with cold as well as hot water? 4. Metals are refined by using different methods.
(a) Na (b) Ca (c) Mg (d) Fe Which of the following metals are refined by
Ans. (d) It reacts with steam. electrolytic refining?
2. Generally metals react with acids to give salt and (i) Au (ii) Cu
hydrogen gas. Which of the following acids does (iii) Na (iv) K
not give hydrogen gas on reacting with metals (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii)
(except Mn and Mg)? [KVS] (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
(a) H2SO4 (b) HCl Ans. (a)
(c) HNO3 (d) All of these 5. Which of the following metals are obtained by
Ans. (c) electrolysis of their chlorides in molten state?
3. Which of the following metals exist in their native (i) Na (ii) Ca
state in nature? [KVS] (iii) Fe (iv) Cu
(i) Cu (ii) Au (a) (i) and (iv) (b) (iii) and (iv)
(iii) Zn (iv) Ag (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i) and (ii)
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) Ans. (d) Because Na and Ca are strong reducing agents.
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)
6. 2 mL each of concentrated HCl, HNO3 and a 13. Although metals form basic oxides, which of the
mixture of concentrated HCl and concentrated following metals form an amphoteric oxide?
HNO3 in the ratio of 3 : 1 were taken in test tubes (a) Na (b) Ca
labelled as A, B and C. A small piece of metal was (c) Al (d) Cu
put in each test tube. No change occurred in test Ans. (c) Al2O3 is amphoteric.
tubes A and B but the metal got dissolved in test 14. Which of the following can undergo a chemical
tube C respectively. The metal could be reaction? [KVS]
(a) Al (b) Au (a) MgSO4 + Fe (b) ZnSO4 + Fe
(c) Cu (d) Ag (c) MgSO4 + Pb (d) CuSO4 + Fe
Ans. (b) Cold is soluble in aqua regia. Ans. (d) Fe + CuSO4 → FeSO4 + Cu
7. An electrolytic cell consists of 15. Which one of the following figures correctly
(i) positively charged cathode describes the process of electrolytic refining?
(ii) negatively charged anode
(iii) positively charged anode
(iv) negatively charged cathode
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
Ans. (b)
(a) (b)
8. An element A is soft and can be cut with a
knife. This is very reactive to air and cannot be
kept open in air. It reacts vigorously with water.
Identify the element from the following [KVS]
(a) Mg (b) Na
(c) P (d) Ca (c) (d)
Ans. (b) 2Na + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2 Ans. (c) Impure Cu as anode; Pure Cu as cathode
9. Alloys are homogeneous mixtures of a metal with a 16. Which of the following property is generally not
metal or non-metal. Which of the following alloys shown by metals?
contain non-metal as one of its constituents? (a) Electrical conduction
(a) Brass (b) Bronze (b) Sonorous in nature
(c) Amalgam (d) Steel (c) Dullness
Ans. (d) Steel is an alloy of Fe and C. (d) Ductility [KVS]
10. Which among the following alloys contain mercury Ans. (c) Dullness is not shown by metals. Metals are
as one of its constituents? mostly lustrous.
(a) Stainless steel (b) Alnico 17. The ability of metals to be drawn into thin wire
(c) Solder (d) Zinc amalgam is known as
Ans. (d) Amalgam contains mercury. (a) ductility (b) malleability
11. Reaction between X and Y, forms compound Z. X (c) sonorousity (d) conductivity [KVS]
loses electron and Y gains electron. Which of the Ans. (a) Ductility is ability of metals to be drawn into
following properties is not shown by Z? [KVS] wires.
(a) Has high melting point 18. What happens when calcium is treated with
(b) Has low melting point water?
(c) Conducts electricity in molten state (i) It does not react with water
(d) Occurs as solid (ii) It reacts violently with water
Ans. (b) It cannot have low melting point. (iii) It reacts less violently with water
12. The electronic configurations of three elements (iv) Bubbles of hydrogen gas formed stick to the
X, Y and Z are X —2, 8; Y — 2, 8, 7 and surface of calcium
Z — 2, 8, 2. Which of the following is correct? (a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(a) X is a metal (c) (i) and (ii) (d) (iii) and (iv) [KVS]
(b) Y is a metal Ans. (d) Ca + 2H2O → Ca(OH)2 + H2 + Heat
(c) Z is a non-metal 19. Which one of the following properties is not
(d) Y is a non-metal and Z is a metal generally exhibited by ionic compounds?
Ans. (d) X can gain electron; Z can lose electrons. (a) Solubility in water
(b) Electrical conductivity in solid state
(c) High melting and boiling points (c) Pure silver will be formed at cathode.
(d) Electrical conductivity in molten state At anode : Ag → Ag+ + e–
Ans. (b) Ionic solids do not conduct electricity in solid At cathode : Ag+ + e– → Ag
state because ions are not free to move. 26. Why should the metal sulphides and carbonates
20. Which among the following statements is be converted to metal oxides in the process of
incorrect for magnesium metal? [KVS] extraction of metal from them?
(a) It burns in oxygen with a dazzling white flame Ans. It is because it is easier to reduce metal oxides to
(b) It reacts with cold water to form magnesium get free metals as compared to metal sulphides and
oxide and evolves hydrogen gas metal carbonates.
(c) It reacts with hot water to form magnesium 27. Compound X and aluminium are used to join
hydroxide and evolves hydrogen gas railway tracks.
(d) It reacts with steam to form magnesium hydroxide (a) Identify the compound X.
and evolves hydrogen gas (b) Name the reaction.
Ans. (b) Mg reacts with hot water and not cold water. (c) Write down its reaction. [HOTS, CBSE 2020]
21. Generally, non-metals are not conductors of Ans. (a) ‘X’ is Fe2O3.
electricity. Which of the following is a good (b) It is called thermite reaction.
conductor of electricity? (c) 2Al(s) + Fe2O3(s) → Al2O3(s) + 2Fe(l) + heat
(a) Diamond (b) Graphite (molten)
(c) Sulphur (d) Fullerene Molten iron is used to form broken railway tracks.
Ans. (b) Graphite conducts electricity because electrons 28. When a metal X is treated with cold water, it
are free to move. gives a basic salt Y with molecular formula XOH
22. Electrical wires have a coating of an insulating (molecular mass = 40) and liberates a gas Z which
material. The material, generally used is easily catches fire. Identify X, Y and Z and also
(a) Sulphur (b) Graphite write the reaction involved.
(c) PVC (d) All can be used Ans. Both sodium (Na) and potassium (K) react with
Ans. (c) PVC is insulator. cold water to give basic salt NaOH and KOH
23. Which of the following non-metals is a liquid? respectively.
[KVS] Since the molecular mass of XOH is 40, therefore,
(a) Carbon (b) Bromine the metal X is Na. Since, the molecular mass of
(c) Phosphorus (d) Sulphur NaOH is 40 (23 + 16 + 1 = 40). Therefore, Y is
Ans. (b) Bromine is liquid non-metal. NaOH and the gas liberated during reaction is
hydrogen. Thus, Z is H2.
24. Iqbal treated a lustrous, divalent element M with
2Na + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2 + Heat energy
sodium hydroxide. He observed the formation of
bubbles in reaction mixture. He made the same 29. The following reaction takes place when
observations when this element was treated with aluminium powder is heated with MnO2 :
hydrochloric acid. Suggest how can he identify 3MnO2(s) + 4Al(s) → 3Mn(l) + 2Al2O3(l) + Heat
(Molten) (Molten)
the produced gas. Write chemical equations for
(a) Is aluminium getting reduced?
both the reactions.
(b) Is MnO2 getting oxidised?
Ans. M + 2NaOH → Na2MO2 + H2(g)
Ans. (a) No, aluminium is getting oxidised.
M + 2HCl → MCl2 + H2(g)
(b) No, MnO2 is getting reduced.
Bring a burning candle near the gas. If it burns
with pop sound, the gas is hydrogen and the ele- 30. A metal A, which is used in thermite process,
ment is a metal. when heated with oxygen gives an oxide B, which
25. During extraction of metals, electolytic refining is amphoteric in nature? Identify A and B. Write
is used to obtain pure metals. down the reactions of oxide B with HCl and
(a) Which material will be used as anode and NaOH. [HOTS]
cathode for refining of silver metal by this Ans. ‘A’ is aluminium.
heat
process? 4Al(s) + 3O2(g) → 2Al2O3(s)
(b) Suggest a suitable electrolyte also. ‘B’ is Al2O3, amphoteric in nature.
(c) In this electrolytic cell, where do we get pure Al2O3 + 6HCl → 2AlCl3 + 3H2O
silver after passing electric current? Al2O3 + 2NaOH → 2NaAlO2 + H2O [CBSE 2023]
Ans. (a) Pure silver rod will be used as cathode and 31. Give the formulae of the stable binary compounds
impure silver rod will be used as anode. that would be formed by the combination of
(b) AgNO3(aq) can be used as electrolyte. following pairs of elements:
(a) Mg and N2 (b) Li and O2 34. A non-metal A which is the largest constituent
(c) Al and Cl2 (d) K and O2 of air, when heated with H2 in 1 : 3 ratio in the
Ans. (a) 3Mg + N2 → Mg3N2 presence of catalyst (Fe) gives a gas B. On heating
(b) 4Li + O2 → 2Li2O with O2, it gives an oxide C. If this oxide is passed
(c) 2Al + 3Cl2 → 2AlCl3 into water in the presence of air, it gives an acid
(d) 4K + O2 → 2K2O D which acts as a strong oxidising agent.
32. A non-metal A is an important constituent of our (a) Identify A, B, C and D. [HOTS]
food and forms two oxides B and C. Oxide B is (b) To which group of periodic table does this
toxic whereas oxide C causes global warming. non-metal belong?
(a) Identify A, B and C. Ans. (a) N2 is largest constituent of air, when heated
(b) To which group of periodic table does A with H2 in the ratio of 1 : 3 in the presence of
belong? [HOTS] catalyst (Fe) gives a gas NH3(B).
Ans. (a) ‘A’ is carbon. It forms two oxides: CO (B) is 773 K
N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(s)
toxic whereas CO2 (C) causes global warming Fe
‘A’ Hydrogen ‘B’
as it absorbs heat radiations from atmosphere. 1 : 3 [CBSE 2023]
(b) ‘A’ belongs to group 14 of periodic table. Nitrogen reacts with oxygen on heating to form
33. An element A reacts with water to form a nitrogen monoxide ‘C’, which gets oxidised in
compound B which is used in white washing. The the presence of O2 to nitrogen dioxide. Nitrogen
compound B on heating forms an oxide C which dioxide dissolves in water in the presence of
on treatment with water gives back B. Identify A, oxygen to form nitric acid which is an oxidising
B and C and give the reactions involved. [HOTS] agent.
heat
Ans. Ca(s) + 2H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2(aq) + H2(g) N2(g) + O2(g) → 2NO
‘ A’ ‘B’ ‘C’
‘B’ Ca(OH)2 is used in white washing. 2NO + O2 → 2NO2
heat ‘C’
Ca(OH)2(aq) → CaO(s) + H2O(l)
‘B’ ‘C’ 4NO2 + 2H2O + O2 → 4HNO3
‘D’
CaO(s) + H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2(aq) (Nitric acid)
‘C’ ‘B’
‘A’ is calcium metal, ‘B’ is calcium hydroxide, ‘C’ ‘A’ is N2, ‘B’ is NH3, ‘C’ is NO and ‘D’ is HNO3.
is calcium oxide. (b) Group 15
1. Which of the following is most reactive with dil. 8. (a) Why is copper used for making electric wires?
H2SO4? (b) Why do metals form ionic compounds with non-
(a) Fe (b) Zn (c) Cu (d) Mg metals?
2. Which of the following statement is not correct for 9. (a) Draw electron dot diagram of CaCl2.
Zn(s) + CuSO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + Ca(s) (b) Why do ionic compounds have high melting
(a) Zinc is more reactive than Cu point?
(b) Zn loses electrons to form Zn2+ ion (c) Why is CaCl2 soluble in water?
(c) Zn is lower down the reactivity series as compared 10. What happens when
to Cu (a) Zinc metal is heated with sodium hydroxide.
(d) Zn is strong reducing agent and can reduce (b) Ferrous carbonate is heated.
Cu2+ to Cu. (c) Aluminium strip is added to copper sulphate
3. Which of the following metal is extracted by solution
electrolytic reduction of their ores? Write balanced chemical equations for all reactions.
(a) Cu (b) Al (c) Zn (d) Hg 11. Complete the following:
4. Which type of copper is formed by the reaction: (i) ZnS + O2 →
2Cu2S + 3O2 → 2Cu2O + 2SO2 (ii) ZnCO3
heat
Cu2S + 2Cu2O → 6Cu + SO2 (iii) HgS + O2 →

(a) Blister copper (b) Copper cusp (iv) Al2O3 + NaOH →
(c) Reduced copper (d) Copper slag (v) NaAlO2 + H2O →
Direction: In the following Questions, the Assertion and 12. Alloys are made up of two or more metals. Stainless
Reason have been put forward. Read the statements steel is an alloy of Fe,C, Cr and Ni, used in making
carefully and choose the correct alternative from the utensils and surgical instruments. Duralumin is used
following: for making aeroplanes. Solder is used for soldering
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the electric circuits. Brass and bronze are widely used in
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. daily life. 22 carat gold is used for making jewellary.
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Diamond is used in jewellary due to its brilliance.
Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. (a) Why is stainless steel preffered over iron and
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false. copper for making utensils?
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason (b) What is the composition of solder?
is true. (c) Which metal is added to gold to make it hard?
5. Assertion: Sulphur is a non-metal. Calculate % of gold in 22 carat gold.
Reason: Sulphur can gain 2 electrons to form S2– ion. Or
6. Assertion: Boron and silicon are metalloids. (c) Give composition and one use of each of
Reason: B2O3 is more acidic than SiO2. following alloys
(i) Bronze
7. The welding of railway tracks is done with help of
(ii) Brass
thermite reaction which involves displacement of a
metal (X) from its solid oxide (Y).
Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’ and write chemical reaction
involved.
Scan to get Answers

92 Together with® Science–10
Chapter
4 Carbon and its Compounds
Mind Map
Carbon
Occurrence of Carbon Versatile nature of carbon Bonding in Carbon
The earth's crust has only 0.02% carbon in the form of It is the bond formed by equal
minerals and the atmosphere has 0.03% of carbon dioxide. sharing of electrons, e.g.,
Hydrogen has one valence
electron. It can share one valence
Allotropes of Carbon. The carbon exists both in crystalline and amorphous
electron with other hydrogen
forms. The two well known allotropes of carbon are diamond and graphite.
atom to form H2 molecule so
Fullerenes as to acquire nearest noble
gas configuration. The bond
Diamond Graphite A third form of carbon known between two hydrogen atoms
as fullerenes were discovered by by sharing one electron each
1. It is hardest substance known. 1. Graphite is soft and slippery H. W. Kroto, R. F. Cur t and R. is called covalent bond.
with density of 2.3 g/ml. E. Smalley. Fullerenes consist of [CBSE 2020]
2. Its crystals are octahedral,
hollow cage of carbon atoms. They
colourless and transparent. 2. It is black coloured, opaque
are large spheroidal molecules of
3. In diamond, each carbon atom and has hexagonal crystals.
composition C2n; two important
3. In graphite, carbon atoms Unique Nature of Carbon
is covalently bonded to four members of this family are
other carbon atoms along four are bonded together in flat C 60 and C 70 . The 1996 Nobel
corners of regular tetrahedron. layers by strong covalent Prize was awarded Carbon has small size and therefore
This pattern extends in three bonds in a regular hexagon. to above scientists can form strong covalent bonds
dimensions. Diamond is hard These layers are held for the discovery of with other atoms. It forms maximum
due to strong covalent bonds together by much weaker fullerenes, used as number of compounds. Our body
van der Waals’ forces, antioxidants.
present in it. is made up of carbon compounds
therefore the cr ystals Water soluble like proteins, fats, nucleic acids.
4. Diamond is a non-conductor of
of graphite are soft and fullerene is used to
electricity. [CBSE 2020]
slippery. treat HIV.
4. Graphite is a conductor of
electricity.
141.5 pm Catenation Tetravalency of Carbon
340 pm
It is a property due to which Carbon has four valence

carbon can form bonds with electrons. It can share four
other atoms of carbon. Carbon electrons with other atoms
shows the property of catenation of carbon as well as oxygen,
Structure of diamond
to maximum extent because it is hydrogen, nitrogen, sulphur and
Structure of graphite
small in size and can form halogens.
strong covalent bonds.
Carbon and its Compounds 93
Electron Dot Structures of Covalent Molecules
Cl Cl H O H
H H H Cl
H H Cl Cl H Cl H O H
Hydrogen Chlorine [CBSE 2023] Hydrogen Chloride Water
H N H
H
H N H
H
Ammonia
H H
H C C H
H H
H H
H C C H
H H
Ethane
H H
H C C H
O O N N
H H H
H C H O O H C C H N N
Oxygen Ethene Nitrogen [CBSE 2023]
H
H
H C C H O C O
H C H
H H C C H O==C==O
Methane Ethyne Carbon dioxide
Hydrocarbons
Saturated Unsaturated
Those hydrocarbons which contain single bonds only are Those hydrocarbons in which valency of carbon is satisfied by
double or triple bond are called unsaturated hydrocarbons, e.g.,
called saturated hydrocarbons, e.g., CH4 (methane), C2H6 C2H4, C3H6, C2H2.
(ethane), C3H8 (propane), C4H10 (butane), etc.
H H H H
H H H
H C C H [CBSE 2020]
H C C H
H C H H C C H Ethene
H H H H H H H H H
Methane Ethane
H C C C H H C C C H
H H H H H H H
H H
H C C C H H C C C C H Propene
H H H H H H H H C C H H C C H
Propane Butane Ethyne
Alkanes
Alkenes Alkynes
All compounds in which carbon and hydrogen are
attached with single bonds are called alkanes. The Those unsaturated hydrocarbons which Those unsaturated hydrocarbons which
general formula of alkane from which all the members have one or more double bonds are called contain one or more triple bonds are called
of family can be derived is CnH2n+2, e.g., CH4, C2H6, alkenes. Their general formula is CnH2n, alkynes. The general formula of alkynes
C3H8, C4H10, C5H12, C6H14. e.g., C 2H 4 (ethene), C 3H 6 (propene), is CnH 2n–2, e.g., C 2H 2 (ethyne), C 3H 4
C4H8 (butene), C5H10 (pentene), C6H12 (propyne), C4H6 (butyne), C5H8 (pentyne),
(hexene), etc. C6H10 (hexyne).
Isomerism
Compounds with the same molecular formula but different structural formulae are called isomers. This property is called isomerism.
Eg. Butane C4H10 has 2 isomers. They are butane and Isobutane. [CBSE 2023, 20]
H H H H H H H
H C C C C H H C C C H
H H H H H H
Butane H C H
H
Isobutane
IUPAC–2-methyl propane
Functional Group
It is atom or group of atoms or reactive part of compound which largely determines the chemical properties of compound, e.g.,
O O
—OH (Alcohol), —CHO (Aldehyde), C (Ketone), C OH (Carboxylic acid), —X (Halogens)

where X is Cl, Br, F, I.
Functional group Suffix Prefix
Alkanes (single bond) — –ane —
Alkenes (double bond) == –ene —
Alkynes (Triple bond) –yne —
Alcohol [CBSE 2023] —OH –ol Hydroxy
O
Aldehyde –al Formyl
—C—H
O
Ketone –one Oxo
—C—
O
Carboxylic acid [CBSE 2023] –oic acid Carboxy
—C—OH
O
Esters –oate Carboxy alkyl
—C—OR
Chlorine —Cl – Chloro
Bromine —Br – Bromo
Iodine —I – Iodo
Fluorine —F – Fluoro
Homologous series
It is a series of compounds which are derived from same general formula, having same functional group, similar chemical properties and show
gradation in physical properties. Each member differs from successive member by —CH2—. The difference in molecular weight between two
successive members is 14 u. [CBSE 2020]
Alkanes. They have general formula CnH2n + 2 where n is the number of carbon atoms.
Molecular Formula Structural Formula Condensed Structural Formula Name
H
When n = 1, CH4 H C H CH4 Methane
H
H H
When n = 2, C2H6 H C C H CH3—CH3 Ethane
H H
H H H
When n = 3, C3H8 H C C C H CH3—CH2—CH3 Propane
H H H

H H H H
For n = 4, C4H10 as n-Butane
H C C C C H CH3—CH2—CH2—CH3
two isomers Butane(IUPAC)
H H H H
H H H
H C C C H CH3—CH—CH3 Isobutane
IUPAC name is
HH C HH CH3 2-methylpropane
H
H H H H H
For n = 5, C5H12 has n-Pentane
H C C C C C H CH3—CH2—CH2—CH2—CH3
three isomers Pentane(IUPAC)
H H H H H
H H H H
H C C C C H CH3—CH —CH2—CH3 Isopentane IUPAC

name is 2-methylbu-
HH C HH H CH3 tane
H
H
HH C HH H CH3
Neopentane
H C C C C H CH3—C —CH3 IUPAC name is 2,
2-dimethyl propane
HH C HH H CH3
H
–ane is the suffix used in alkanes.
Alkenes. They have general formula CnH2n, where n is the number of carbon atoms.
H H
n = 2, C2H4 CH2 CH2 Ethene
H C C H
H H H
n = 3, C3H6 H C C C H CH2 CH CH3 Propene
H
H H H H
n = 4, C4H8 has three
H C C C C H CH2 CH CH2 CH3 But-1-ene
isomers
H H
H H
H C C C C H CH3 CH CH CH3 But-2-ene
H H H H

H H
H C C C H H2C C CH3
2-Methylpropene
H C HH CH3
Alkynes. General formula is CnH2n–2.

n = 2, C2H2 H C C H HC CH Ethyne
H
n = 3, C3H4 H C C C H CH C CH3 Propyne
H
H H H
n = 4, C4H6 has two
C C C C H CH C CH2 CH3 But-1-yne
isomers
H H
H H
H C C C C H CH3 C C CH3 But-2-yne
H H
H H H
n = 5, C5H8 has three
H C C C C C H HC C CH2 CH2 CH3 Pent-1-yne
isomers
H H H
H H H
H C C C C C H CH3 C C CH2 CH3 Pent-2-yne
H H H
H H
HC C C C H 1 2 3 4
HC C CH CH3 3-Methylbut-1-yne
H C HH
CH3
H
Cyclo alkane
CH2 CH2 CH2

Cyclo propane Cyclo butane
H2C CH2 CH2 CH2
CH2 CH2
H2C CH2 H2C CH2
Cyclo pentane Cyclo hexane
H 2C CH2 [CBSE 2020]
CH2 CH2 CH2
Chemical Properties of Compounds of Carbon
Combustion Oxidation Addition Substitution
Carbon, in all allotropic forms, burns in presence of oxygen to form carbon dioxide
with evolution of heat and light energy. In case of diamond, graphite and fullerene, Those reactions in which unsaturated compounds react
they burn completely to form CO2 because they are purest form of carbon. with a molecule like H2, Cl2, etc., to form another saturated
C + O2 CO2 + heat + light compounds are called addition reactions. [CBSE 2020]
Ni catalyst
Most of the carbon compounds are combustible and burn in presence of oxygen CH2==CH2 + H2 → CH3—CH3
Heat
to form CO2 and H2O, e.g., Ethene Hydrogen Ethane
CH4(g) + 2O2(g) CO2(g) + 2H2O (l) + heat + light H H

R R Ni catalyst
[CBSE 2023] C==C + H2 → R—C—C—R
R R Heat
2C2H6(g) + 7O2(g) 4CO2(g) + 6H2O (l) + heat + light Vegetable oil Hydrogen H H
Vegetable ghee
2CH3OH (g) + 3O2(g) 2CO2(g) + 4H2O (l) + heat + light
CH3CH2OH (l) + 3O2(g) 2CO2(g) + 3H2O (l) + heat
CH3COOH (l) + 2O2(g) 2CO2(g) + 2H2O (l) + heat
Those reactions in which an atom or group of atoms of a
compound is replaced by other atom or group of atoms are
Carbon compounds like alcohols are oxidised to carboxylic acids on heating with called substitution reactions. [CBSE 2020]
oxidising agents like alkaline Potassium permanganate —KMnO4 or oxidised to Saturated hydrocarbons are less reactive and do not react with
Carboxylic acids. most reagents.
alkaline KMnO4 + heat
C2H5OH + 2[O] CH3COOH + H2O They react with halogens in presence of sunlight and undergo
Or acidic K2Cr2O7 + heat
Ethanol Ethanoic acid substitution reaction. The reaction is very fast. It is photochemical
reaction because it takes place in presence of sunlight.
Soaps and Detergents CH4(g) + Cl2(g) Sun CH3Cl(g) + HCl (g)
Light
Chloromethane [CBSE 2020]
Sun
Saponification CH3Cl(g) + Cl2(g) CH2Cl2(g) + HCl (g)
Light
Dichloromethane
CH2Cl2(g) + Cl2(g) Sun CHCl3(l) + HCl (g)
Light
It is a process in which an ester reacts with sodium hydroxide to form sodium Trichloromethane
salt of acid and alcohol is formed. (Chloroform)
CH3COOC2H5 + NaOH CH3COONa + C2H5OH CHCl3(l) + Cl2(g) Sun CCl4(l) + HCl (g)
Light
Ethyl ethanoate Sodium hydroxide Sodium ethanoate Ethanol
Tetrachloromethane
(Carbon tetrachloride)
Saponification is also used for preparation of soap. [CBSE 2023]
Soaps Detergent
Detergents are sodium or potassium salts of sulphonic acids

Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of higher fatty acids. Fatty acids are of hydrocarbons of alkene type. They have – SO3H group, i.e.,
carboxylic acids containing 12 or more carbon atoms, e.g., The common sulphonic acid group. [CBSE 2023]
fatty acids and their formula are given below: [CBSE 2023]
Examples.
Table : Some examples of fatty acids
(i) Sodium lauryl sulphate CH3(CH2)10CH2OSO3– Na+ (present in
Name of Fatty acid Formula Name of Fatty acid toothpaste).
C15H31COOH Palmitic acid C17H35COOH Stearic acid (ii) Sodium dodecylbenzenesulphonate CH3(CH2)10CH2SO3– Na+
C17H33COOH Oleic acid C11H23COOH Lauric acid OR
C17H31COOH Linoleic acid C13H27COOH Myristic acid CH3—(CH2)11 SO3– Na+.

Important Compounds of Carbon
Ethanol Ethanoic acid
Physical Properties Uses Chemical Properties
(i) Dehydration: Ethanol, when heated with Conc. H2SO4 at 443 K or Al2O3 at 623 K undergoes
(i) Pure ethanol is a colourless liquid. dehydration, i.e., loses water molecule to from alkene.
(ii) It has a specific smell and burning taste. Conc. H2SO4, 443 K
(iii) Its boiling point is 351 K which is higher than CH3CH2OH CH2==CH2 + H2O [CBSE 2023, 20]
or Al2O3, 623 K
corresponding alkanes. Ethanol Ethene
(iv) It is soluble in water, i.e., it is miscible with water (ii) Reaction with Sodium: Alcohols are very weakly acidic. Ethanol reacts with sodium metal
in all proportions. to form sodium ethoxide and hydrogen gas.
2C2H5OH + 2Na 2 C2H5ONa + H2 [CBSE 2023, 20]
Ethanol Sodium Sodium ethoxide Hydrogen
(iii) Oxidation with Chromic anhydride (CrO3).
(i) Ethanol is present in alcoholic beverages such CrO3 in
CH3CH2OH CH3CHO
as beer, wine, whisky. CH3COOH
Ethanol Ethanal
(ii) Ethanol is used as antiseptic for sterilising (iv) Oxidation with Alkaline KMnO4.
wounds. Alkaline
(iii) Ethanol is used in cough syrups, digestive CH3CH2OH + [O] CH3COOH + H2O [CBSE 2020]
KMnO4
syrups and tonics. Ethanol Ethanoic acid
(iv) Ethanol is being mixed with petrol and is used as (v) Oxidation with acidified Potassium dichromate: Ethanol is oxidised to ethanoic acid with
motor fuel. This mixture is called power alcohol. the help of acidified K2Cr2O7.
(v) A mixture of ethanol and water has lower freezing K2Cr2O7/H2SO4 (Conc.)
CH3CH2OH + 2[O] CH3COOH + H2O [CBSE 2023, 20]
point than water. This mixture is known as
antifreeze and is used in radiators of vehicles
in cold countries and at hill stations. During this reaction, orange colour of K2Cr2O7 changes to green. Therefore, this reaction
can be used for the identification of alcohols.
(vi) Ethanol is used for preparation of chloroform,
iodoform, ethanoic acid, ethanal, ethyl ethanoate (vi) Esterification: Ethanol reacts with ethanoic acid in presence of concentrated H2SO4 to
etc. form ethyl ethanoate and water. The compound formed by the reaction of an alcohol with
carboxylic acid is known as ester and the reaction is called Esterification. Esters are sweet
(vii) Ethyl alcohol is used as hypnotic (induces
fruity smelling compounds because they occur in fruits. They are used in ice creams, cold
sleep).
drinks and perfumes. The reaction takes place as follows.
CH3COOH + C2H5OH Conc. H2SO4 CH3COOC2H5 + H2O [CBSE 2023]
Alcohol CnH2n +1—OH Ethanoic acid Ethanol Ethyl ethanoate Water
Conc. H2SO4 acts as dehydrating agent, i.e., it removes water formed otherwise ester formed
CH3OH Methyl alcohol Methanol
will get hydrolysed. [CBSE 2023]
CH3CH2OH Ethyl alcohol Ethanol
(vii) Combustion: Ethanol is highly inflammable liquid, i.e., it catches fire very easily. It burns
CH3CH2CH2OH n-Propyl alcohol Propan-1-ol with blue flame in presence of oxygen to form carbon dioxide and water.
CH3CH2CH2CH2OH n-Butyl alcohol Butan-1-ol C2H5OH + 3O2 2CO2 + 3H2O (l)
[CBSE 2020] Ethanol Oxygen Carbon dioxide Water
O
O O
Aldehydes CnH2n +1—C—H
Ketones CnH2n +1—C—CnH2n +1 Carboxylic acid CnH2n +1—C—OH
O
O
H—C—H Formaldehyde Methanal HCOOH Formic acid Methanoic acid
O CH3—C—CH3 Acetone Propan-2-one CH3COOH Acetic acid Ethanoic acid
O CH3CH2COOH Propionic acid Propanoic acid
CH3—C—H Acetaldehyde Ethanal
CH3—C—CH2—CH3 Ethylmethyl Ketone Butan-2-one CH3CH2CH2COOH Butyric acid Butanoic acid
CH3—CH2—CHO Propionaldehyde Propanal
O [CBSE 2020(C)] [CBSE 2023]
CH3CH2CH2CHO Butyraldehyde Butanal
CH3CH2CH2CH2COOH Valeric acid Pentanoic acid
[CBSE 2020] CH3—C—CH2—CH2—CH3 Methyl n-Propyl Ketone Pentan-2-one
[CBSE 2020(C)]
O
CH3—CH2—C—CH2—CH3 Diethyl Ketone Pentan-3-one

Physical Properties Uses Chemical Properties
(i) Ethanoic acid is vinegar smelling liquid. The (i) Ethanoic acid is weak acid but it turns blue litmus red.
lower carboxylic acids are liquids whereas
(ii) Reaction with Metals: Ethanoic acid reacts with metals like Na, K, Zn etc. to form metal
higher ones are solids. ethanoates and hydrogen gas.
(ii) Ethanoic acid is sour in taste. Other lower 2CH3COOH + 2Na 2CH3COONa + H2
carboxylic acids are also sour in taste. Sodium ethanoate
(iii) Ethanoic acid has boiling point 391 K. 2CH3COOH + Zn (CH3COO)2Zn + H2
Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points Ethanoic acid Zinc ethanoate
than corresponding alcohols, aldehydes (iii) Reaction with Carbonates and Bicarbonates: Ethanoic acid reacts with bicarbonates and
and ketones. carbonates and produces brisk effervescence due to formation of carbon dioxide.
(iv) Acetic acid is soluble in water, i.e., it is 2CH3COOH + Na2CO3 2CH3COONa + CO2 + H2O
Ethanoic acid Sodium carbonate
miscible with water in all proportions.
CH3COOH + NaHCO3 CH3COONa + H2O + CO2
The lower carboxylic acids are soluble in
Sodium bicarbonate Sodium ethanoate
water but solubility in water decreases with (Sodium hydrogen carbonate)
increase in molecular weight.
(iv) Reaction with Base: Ethanoic acid reacts with sodium hydroxide to form sodium ethanoate
(v) Acetic acid freezes at 290 K. Thus, in cold and water.
weather crystallization of acetic acid may CH3COOH + NaOH CH3COONa + H2O
take place that is why pure acetic acid is Ethanoic acid Sodium hydroxide Sodium ethanoate Water
called glacial acetic acid. (v) Decarboxylation (Removal of CO2): When sodium salt of ethanoic acid, i.e., sodium ethanoate
is heated with soda lime (3 parts of NaOH and 1 part of CaO), methane gas is formed.
heat
CH3COONa + NaOH (CaO) CH4 + Na2CO3
(i) It is used for making vinegar. Sodium ethanoate Soda lime
(ii) It is used as a laboratory reagent. This reaction is known as decarboxylation because a molecule of CO2 is removed from a
molecule of acid.
(iii) It is used for preparation of white lead
(vi) Reaction with alcohols: Ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol in presence of concentrated
[2PbCO3.Pb(OH)2] which is used in white sulphuric acid to form esters which are pleasant fruity smelling compounds. It is called
paints. esterification. [CBSE 2020]
(iv) It is used for coagulation of rubber from CH3COOH (l) + C2H5OH (l)
Conc. H2SO4
CH3COOC2H5 (l) + H2O (l)
latex and caesin (protein) from milk. D
Ethanoic acid Ethanol Ethyl ethanoate [CBSE 2023]
(v) It is used in preparation of acetone, ethyl CH3COOH (l) + C3H7OH (l) Conc. H2SO4 CH3COOC3H7 (l) + H2O (l)
acetate, acetic anhydride, aspirin which is [CBSE 2020 for Blind]
used in medicines.
(vii) Saponification: The process in which esters react with NaOH to form sodium salt of acid
(vi) It is used in preparation of cellulose acetate and alcohol is formed is called saponification eg.
which is used for making photographic CH3COOC2H5 + NaOH CH3COONa + C2H5OH
film. Ethyl ethanoate [CBSE 2023, 20 for Blind]
(vii) Its esters are used in artificial flavours in (viii) Reduction: Acetic acid, on reduction with lithium aluminium hydride, results in formation of
perfumes. ethanal, which on further reduction gives ethanol.
(viii) Its 5% solution is bactericidal (destroys LiAlH4 LiAlH4
CH3COOH CH3CHO CH3CH2OH
bacteria). Ethanoic acid Ethanal Ethanol
(ix) Its compound basic copper acetate
(verdigris) is used as green pigment.
(x) Aluminium acetate and chromium acetate O
are used as mordants in dyeing and Ester CnH2n +1—C—O CnH2n +1
waterproofing of fabrics.
HCOOCH3 Methyl formate Methyl methanoate
CH3COOCH3 Methyl acetate Methyl ethanoate
CH3COOC2H5 Ethyl acetate Ethyl ethanoate
C2H5COOCH3 Methyl propionate Methyl propanoate
TOPICS COVERED
Bonding in Carbon, Covalent Compounds, Nomenclature,

Homologous Series, Properties of Compounds of Carbon
11. Which amongst the following will conduct
Multiple Choice electricity?
Questions 1 Mark (a) C6H12O6 (b) KCl(s)
(c) C2H5OH (d) NaCl (aq)
1. —CHO represents the functional group 12. The self linkage property (catenation) is maximum
(a) esters (b) carboxylic acid in
(c) alcohols (d) aldehydes (a) carbon (b) silicon
2. A functional group mainly determines the (c) sulphur (d) phosphorus
(a) physical properties 13. Ethane and ethene can be distinguished by
(b) chemical properties (a) Br2(l) (b) Br2 (aq) water
(c) both (d) none of these (c) Cl2 (d) I2
alkaline
3. Solubility of alcohol in water is due to 14. CH 3 CH 2 OH →KMnO4 CH 3 COOH, alkaline
(a) low density of alcohol KMnO4 acts as
(b) volatile nature of alcohol (a) oxidising agent
(c) ionisation (b) reducing agent
(d) hydrogen bonding (c) dehydrating agent
4. Artificial flavour for orange is obtained from (d) catalyst
(a) amyl acetate (b) isoamyl valerate 15. The blindness and death is caused by consuming
(c) methyl butyrate (d) octyl acetate adultrated liquor contains.
5. Drinking alcohol is very harmful and it ruins the (a) CH3OH (b) CH3COOH
health. “Drinking alcohol” stands for (c) CH3COCH3 (d) CH3CHO
(a) drinking methyl alcohol 16. Ethanol, on heating at 443 K with conc H2SO4
(b) drinking ethyl alcohol gives
(c) drinking propyl alcohol (a) CH2==CH2 (b) HC CH
(d) drinking isopropyl alcohol (c) CH4 (d) C2H6
6. The difference in the formula and molecular 17. When sodium hydrogen carbonate is added to
masses of CH3OH and C2H5OH is ethanoic acid a gas evolves. Consider the following
(a) CH3 and 16u (b) CH2 and 14u statements about the gas evolved?
(c) CH4 and 18u (d) CH3 and 16u (A) It turns lime water milky.
7. Which of the following statements about graphite (B) It is evolved with a brisk effervescence.
and diamond is true? (C) It has a smell of burning sulphur.
(a) They have the same crystal structure (D) It is also by – product of respiration.
(b) They have the same degree of hardness The correct statements are: [CBSE 2020]
(c) They have the same electrical conductivity (a) (A) and (B) only
(d) They can undergo the same chemical reactions (b) (B) and (D) only
8. Which of the following is ethanol? (c) (A), (C) and (D)
(a) CH3CHO (b) CH3COOH (d) (A), (B) and (D)
(c) CH3CH2OH (d) CH3COOCH3 18. The IUPAC name of the following structure is
H H H O
9. Which of the following contains covalent bond?
(a) MgCl2 (b) CaF2 H—C—C—C—C—O—H
(c) Al2O3 (d) HCl
H H H
10. The number of covalent bonds in C4H10 is
(a) Pentanone (b) Butyric acid
(a) 10 (b) 8
(c) Butanoic acid (d) Butanone
(c) 13 (d) 12
19. On undergoing complete combustion in an 24. There are some organic compounds in the list
adequate supply of oxygen, an organic compound below:
produces only carbon dioxide and water vapour C6H10, C7H16, C8H16, C2H2, C5H8
as the products. Now choose the correct option [DoE Pre-Board 2023]
Based on this information, which of the following (a) They are only alkenes in the list.
homologous series could the compound belong to? (b) All the compounds in the list are alkanes.
(P) Alkanes (Q) Alcohols (R) Aldehydes (c) There is no alkyne in the list.
[CFPQ, CBSE] (d) There are saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons
(a) only P (b) only P or Q in the list.
(c) only Q or R (d) any - P, Q or R 25. Which of the following compounds can be classified
20. A compound with which of the following as unsaturated compound? [CBSE T.E.R.M.*]
functional groups is MOST LIKELY to cause the H H
CH2
decomposition of baking soda to produce carbon
(a) (b) H—C—C—H
dioxide? [CFPQ, CBSE] CH2—CH2
O
H H H
— OH —C —C— —C—OH H H H O
O (c) H—C==C—H (d) H—C—C—OH
O
P Q R S
H
(a) P (b) Q 26. A student studies that vinegar, which is diluted
(c) R (d) S solution of ethanoic acid freezes during winter.
21. 1 mole of ethene and 1 mole of ethyne are separately What does this suggest about physical properties
made to completely undergo addition reaction to of acetic acid? [CBSE T.E.R.M.*]
form the respective saturated compound. (a) It has low boiling point.
Which of the following will be DIFFERENT for (b) It has low melting point.
the two reactions? (c) It has very high boiling point.
(P) T he number of moles of the saturated (d) It has a very high melting point.
compound formed. Sunlight
27. CHCl3 + Cl2 → CCl4 + HCl. How does
(Q) The number of moles of the hydrogen chlorine react to hydrocarbon in presence of
consumed. [CFPQ, CBSE]
sunlight? [CBSE T.E.R.M.*]
(a) only P (b) only Q (a) It adds hydrogen into the compound.
(c) both P and Q (d) neither P nor Q (b) It adds an oxygen atom into the compound.
O (c) It substitutes hydrogen atom from the compound.
22. In the compound C which of the following (d) It breaks double and triple bonds into single
bonds.
CH3 CH3
28. A student burns naphthalene. He observed it gives
functional group is present? [CBSE T.E.R.M.*] yellow flame with lots of smoke and sooty deposits
(a) Alcohol (b) Aldehyde around it. What type of hydrocabon naphthalene
(c) Carboxylic acid (d) Ketone contains? [CBSE T.E.R.M.*]
23. Which of the following represents benzene? (a) Unsaturated, as black smoke represents complete
(a) H—C≡≡C—H (b) combustion.
(b) Unsaturated, as sooty deposit represents unburnt
H hydrocarbons.
(c) Saturated, as it gives yellow flame which
C represents complete combustion.
H
C C—H (d) Saturated, as burning of any substance represents
(c) (d) complete combustion.
C C—H 29. Which of these series can be classified as homologous
H C series? [CBSE T.E.R.M.*]
(a) CHCl3, C2H5OH, C3H7OH
H (b) CH3OH, C2H5OH, C3H7OH
(c) CHCl3, C4H9OH, CH3COOH
*Teacher Energised Resource Manuals (d) CH3COOH, C4H9OH, C2H5OH
Answers 31. (a) Name the following compound:
H H H H
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (d)
5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (c) H—C—C—C—C—C≡≡C—H
9. (d) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (a) H H H H
13. (b) Ethene will decolourise bromine water. (b) Write the name and structure of an alcohol
14. (a) with three carbon atoms units molecule.
15. (a) Methanol causes blindness and even death. [AI 2016]
Conc H2SO4 Ans. (a) 1-Hexyne is IUPAC name of the compound.
16. (a) CH3CH2OH → 443 K
CH2==CH2 + H2O H H H
17. (d) CO2 gas is evolved with brisk effervescence, is
(b) CH3CH2CH2OH or H—C—C—C—OH
also by– product of respiration and turns lime
1–Propanol
water milky. H H H
18. (c) Butanoic acid 32. (a) How many covalent bonds are present in
19. (d) All of them produce CO2 and H2O on combustion. pentane C5H12? [DoE]
20. (d) Acid reacts with NaHCO3 and librate CO2 gas. (b) Write molecular formula of an alkyne
21. (b) CH2==CH2 + H2 → CH3—CH3 containing 10 atoms of hydrogen. [DoE]
HC≡≡CH + 2H2 → CH3—CH3 Ans. (a) There are 16 covalent bonds present in C5H12.
H H H H H
22. (d) Ketone
H H—C—C—C—C—C—H
C H H H H H
H
C C—H (b) C6H10, HC≡≡C—CH2—CH2—CH2—CH3
23. (d) 33. Write the next homologue of each of the following.
C C—H [Delhi 2016]
H C (a) C2H4 (b) C4H6
Ans. (a) C3H6 (b) C5H8
H 34. Which type of hydrocarbons burn with yellow
24. (d) There are saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons
smoky flame? Why?
in the list.
Ans. Unsaturated hydrocarbons. Due to presence of higher
H H percentage of carbon.
25. (c) H—C==C—H 35. The table shows the electronic structures of four
elements.
26. (b) It has low melting point.
27. (c) It substitutes hydrogen atom from the compound. Element Electronic Structure
28. (b) Unsaturated, as sooty deposit represents unburnt P 2,6
hydrocarbons. Q 2,8,1
29. (b) CH3OH, C2H5OH, C3H7OH
R 2,8,7
V S A Very Short Answer S 2,8,8
Type Questions 2 Marks
(a) Identify which element(s) will form covalent
30. “Carbon prefers to share its valence electrons bonds with carbon.
with other atoms of carbon or with atoms of (b) “Carbon reacts with an element in the above
other elements rather than gaining or losing table to form several compounds.” Give suitable
the valence electrons in order to attain noble reason. [CBSE Sample Question Paper 2022]
gas configuration.” Give reasons to justify this Ans. (a) P and R (½ + ½ Mark)
statement. (b) Carbon has a valency four or tetravalency and
Ans. Carbon (2, 4) has four valence electrons. It cannot catenation are responsible. (½ + ½ Mark)
lose 4 electrons because large amount of energy is [CBSE Marking Scheme]
needed to remove four electrons. Carbon cannot
36. “Carbon forms strong bonds with most other
gain four electrons because 6 protons cannot hold
element making the compounds exceptionally
10 electrons. Carbon can share four electrons easily
stable”. Give reason to justify this statement.
to form covalent bonds with other carbon atoms and [CBSE 2021 (C)]
atoms of other elements.
Ans. Carbon has small atomic size and four valence Ans. Homologous series is a series of organic compounds
electrons. It shares 4 electrons with other elements which have same functional group and similar
to form covalent bonds which are very strong and chemical properties. Each member of this series
stable because octet of carbon become complete. is differ by —CH2— in its molecular formula and
37. Write the electron dot structure of methane (CH4) 14 u in its molecular mass.
and ethene (C2H4). [CBSE 2021 (C)] C2H6O (C2H5OH) and CH4O (CH3OH) belong to
Ans. same homologous series.
H
H 42. What is the IUPAC name of
(i) CH3— CH2—CH==CH2
H C H H—C—H (ii) CH3CHO?
H Ans. (i) But-1-ene (ii) Ethanal
H 43. Heating an alcohol with concentrated sulphuric
H H acid results in the dehydration of the alcohol to
H H give the alkene as shown by the reaction of ethanol
H C C H to give ethene.
H—C==C—H Hot conc. sulphuric acid
CH3CH2OH → CH2==CH2
Pramila heated 2-butanol (shown below) with
concentrated sulphuric acid.
38. With the help of a suitable example explain in CH3CH2CHCH3
brief the process of hydrogenation mentioning the
conditions for the reaction and also state any one OH
physical property of substances which changes Write the structural formulae of all the possible
due to hydrogenation. products of the reaction. [CFPQ, CBSE]
H H Ans. CH3CH==CHCH3, But-2-ene
R R
Ans. Ni
C==C + H2 heat R—C—C—R CH3CH2CH==CH2, But-1-ene
R R 44. Organic compounds belonging to different
R R homologous series can be isomers. For example,
When unsaturated hydrocarbons are heated with
hydrogen in presence of nickel as catalyst, saturated propanal and propanone are isomers.
hydrocarbons are formed. If the starting unsaturated Can an alkane and an alcohol be isomers? Why
hydrocarbons are liquids, they will change into or why not? [CFPQ, CBSE]
solids. Vegetable oils are hydrogenated to form Ans. – No, they cannot be isomers because isomers must
vegetable ghee by hydrogenation process. have same molecular formula.
– Alkanes have only carbon and hydrogen atoms,
39. Select alkene and alkyne from the following : while alcohols have oxygen atoms too.
C6H12 , C3H4 , C2H4 , CH4 , C4H8 , C5H8
Ans. Alkenes: C6H12 , C2H4 , C4H8 45. The number of carbon compounds is more than
Alkynes: C3H4, C5H8 those formed by all other elements put together.
Justify the statement by giving two reasons.
40. Write the names and molecular formula of two [CBSE Sample Paper 2021]
organic compounds having functional group Ans. • Due to self linking ability of carbon/catenation.
suffixed as ‘–oic acid’. With the help of a balanced • Since carbon has a valency of four it can form
chemical equation and explain what happens when bonds with four other atoms of carbon or atoms
any one of them reacts with sodium hydroxide. of some other mono-valent element. (1+1 mark)
Ans. HCOOH (Methanoic acid), its molecular formula is • Due to small size of carbon it forms very strong and
CH2O2. (or) stable bonds with other elements. (any two)
CH3COOH (Ethanoic acid), its molecular formula [CBSE Marking Scheme]
is C2H4O2.
When acid reacts with sodium hydroxide, its sodium A Short Answer
salt and water is formed. S Type Questions 3 Marks
CH3COOH + NaOH —→ CH3COONa + H2O
Ethanoic acid Sodium ethanoate Water 46. Alkanes are saturated compounds of carbon and
41. What is a homologous series? Which two of the hydrogen that can be represented by the general
following organic compounds belong to the same formula CnH2n+2 where ‘n’ is the number of carbon
homologous? atoms. An example of such a compound is ethane
C2H6, C2H6O, C2H6O2, CH4O. C2H6.
Maya has a compound of carbon and hydrogen (iii) – perfumes
whose formula is C3H4. – flavouring agents in ice creams, cold
(a) What is true about the type of flame this drinks, etc.) (any one)
compound will give on combustion? 49. Compounds with identical molecular formula but
(b) Draw all the possible straight chain structures different structures are called structural isomers.
of this compound. [CFPQ, CBSE] (a) In the case of saturated hydrocarbons, what
Ans. (a) The compound being unsaturated will burn with is the MINIMUM number of carbon atoms
a sooty or smoky flame. needed in a molecule for it to have a structural
(b) H H
H isomer?
C==C==C and H—C≡≡C—C—H (b) Draw the structural isomers of the saturated
hydrocarbon having the minimum number of
H H
H carbon atoms mentioned in (a). [CFPQ, CBSE]
Propa-1,2-diene Propyne Ans. (a) Four
47. A carbon compound of molecular formula C5H10O C4H10 will show isomerism
contains a ketone functional group. (b) CH3—CH2—CH2—CH3 and
Draw the structures of three isomers of this Butane
compound having a ketone group. [CFPQ, CBSE] CH3
Ans. CH3—CH2—CH2— C—CH3
CH3—CH—CH3
2-methyl propane
O
Pentan-2-one 50. An open-chain hydrocarbon X having the general
CH3—CH2—C—CH2—CH3 formula of CnH2n-2 is hydrogenated in the presence
of a catalyst.
O
(a) State the number of moles of hydrogen
Pentan-3-one
CH3 required to completely saturate 1 mole of
compound X.
CH3—CH—C—CH3 (b) The hydrocarbon X contains carbon-carbon
single bonds. Apart from the single bonds,
O state the number and the type of other
3-Methyl butan-2-one carbon-carbon bonds that could possibly be
48. Ethanol (C 2 H 5 OH) is heated with alkaline present in the compound X. [CFPQ, CBSE]
potassium permanganate to give a compound X. Ans. (a) 2 moles
alkaline KMnO + heat R—C≡≡CH + 2H → R—CH2—CH3
C2H5OH → 4
X
where ‘R’ is alkyl group.
(a) How many carbon atoms will compound X
(b) – two C—C double bonds
contain? H H H
(b) Compound X is now reacted with ethanol
in the presence of an acid catalyst to give a H—C==C==C—C—H
compound Y.
X + C2H5OH → Y
acid H
– one C—C triple bond
(i) Name the type of compound formed in the H H H
above reaction with respect to the functional
group it contains. H—C—C≡≡C—C—C—H
(ii) State one characteristic property of
H H H
compounds of the type of compound Y.
51. Shown below are the structural formulae of four
(iii) State one use of compounds of this type.
carbon compounds.
[CFPQ, CBSE]
Ans. (a) Two CH3—C—CH3 CH3—CH—CH3
alkaline KMnO4
C2H5OH + 2[O] → CH3COOH
‘X’
O OH
(b) (i) ester P Q
acid
CH3COOH + C2H5OH → CH3COOC2H5 CH3—CH2—C—OH CH3—OH
‘X’
+ H2O O

(ii) Esters are pleasant fruity smelling
R S
compounds in ice creams, cold drinks etc.
(a) Two of these compounds are more likely to 55. An aldehyde as well as ketone can be represented
have similar chemical properties. Identify by the same molecular formula, say C3H6O. Write
these two compounds. Give a reason for your their structures and name them. State the relation
answer. between the two in the language of science. [AI 2016]
(b) Identify which of these compounds are likely O O
to have the same boiling point. Justify your
Ans. CH3—CH2—C—H CH3—C—CH3
answer. [CFPQ, CBSE]
Propanal Propanone
Ans. (a) – Q and S because both belong to same family
of alcohols. They are functional isomers.
– They have the same functional group. 56. C 3 H 6 , C 4 H 8 and C 5 H 10 belong to the same
(b) – none of them because different compounds homologous series.
differ in physical properties like boiling point. (a) Define homologous series.
– They are all different chemical substances. (b) Why the melting and boiling points of C5H10
52. Manasi wrote the names of four compounds as is higher than C4H8?
the first members of their respective homologous (c) Arrange these hydrocarbons in order of
series. increasing boiling points. [CBSE 2016]
– Methanol – Methanal Ans. (a) The series of organic compounds which have
– Methanone – Methanoic acid similar chemical properties, same functional
(a) Which name has she written incorrectly? group is called homologous series.
Justify your answer. (b) It is because C5H10 has higher molecular weight,
(b) What name should she have written instead? more Van der Waal’s force of attraction and
[CFPQ, CBSE] higher boiling points and melting points.
Ans. (a) – Methanone is not possible (c) C3H6 < C4H8 < C5H10 is increasing order of
– The smallest ketone has three carbon atoms. boiling point.
(b) Propanone 57. What are covalent compounds? Why are they
53. (a) How many isomers are possible for the different from ionic compounds? List their three
compound with the molecular formula C4H8? characteristic properties. [Delhi 2016]
Draw the electron dot structure of branched Ans. Those compounds which are formed by sharing
chain isomer. of electrons are called covalent compounds. They
(b) How will you prove that C4H8 and C5H10 are differ from ionic compounds because they do not
homologues? [CBSE Sample Question Paper 2022] have ions. Ionic compounds are formed by transfer
Ans. (a) Four of electrons.
H H Properties
(i) They have low melting and boiling points.
H C C C H CH2==C—CH3 (ii) They do not conduct electricity in molten state
or in aqueous solution.
H C H H CH3 (iii) They are mostly insoluble in water but soluble
H
2-methyl propene in organic solvents.
(b) C4H8 and C5H10 are homologues as they differ in 58. Complete the following chemical equations:
• “—CH2—” (a) CH3COOC2H5 + NaOH → [CBSE 2020(C)]
• differ in 14u molecular mass (b) CH3COOH + NaOH →
Conc. H2SO4
• Same functional group (c) C2H5OH + CH3COOH →
• Same general formula (Any two reasons) [Delhi 2017]
54. What is an oxidising agent? What happens when Ans. (a) CH3COOC2H5 + NaOH →
an oxidising agent is added to propanol? Explain CH3COONa + C2H5OH
with the help of a chemical equation. [Delhi 2016] (b) CH3COOH + NaOH → CH3COONa + H2O
Ans. Those substances which add oxygen are called Conc. H2SO4
oxidising agent and propanoic acid is formed. (c) C2H5OH + CH3COOH →
CH3CH2CH2OH + 2[O] CH3COOC2H5 + H2O
1-Propanol 59. Write the chemical equation to explain what
Alkaline KMnO4\H2SO4 happens when ethanol is heated with alkaline
→ CH3CH2COOH + H2O
solution of potassium permanganate. Mention two
Propanoic acid
physical properties and two uses of ethanol.
Propanol will get oxidised to propanoic acid by
[Foreign 2015]
acidified KMnO4.
alkaline KMnO or
Ans. C2H5OH + 2[O] →
4
CH3COOH + H2O CH3COOC2H5 + NaOH → CH3COONa
Ethanoic acid Ethyl ethanoate Sodium ethanoate
Alkaline KMnO4 is dark pink in colour. So when it (C4H8O2) + C2H5OH
is added to ethanol and heated, the pink colour of Ethanol
the solution disappears. When excess of KMnO4 is Saponification is the process in which an ester is
added, the pink colour does not disappear, indicating treated with sodium hydroxide to form sodium salt
that all the ethanol has been converted to ethanoic of acid and alcohol is formed.
acid. 61. Study the following information given and answer
• Physical properties of ethanol : the questions that follow.
(a) It is a colourless liquid with pleasant smell Ethanol is a renewable biofuel because it is made
and burning taste. from biomass. Ethanol is a clear, colourless alcohol
(b) It is a volatile liquid with low boiling point. made from a variety of biomass materials. Ethanol
• Uses of ethanol : producers mostly use food grains and crops with
(a) It is used in the manufacture of medicines, high starch and sugar content such as corn,
varnished, paints, dyes, soap, etc. sorghum, barley, sugar cane, and sugar beets. The
(b) It is a good solvent. Many organic most common ethanol production processes today
compounds which are insoluble in water use yeast to ferment the starch and sugars in corn,
are soluble in ethanol. sugar cane, and sugar beets.
(a) What is the chemical formula for ethanol?
(b) What other compound is obtained as a by-
product when ethanol is obtained from a
sugar?
(c) What would be the products formed when
ethanol undergoes complete combustion?
Support your answer with a balanced chemical
equation.
Ans. (a) CH3CH2OH
(b) carbon dioxide (CO2)
(c) carbon dioxide and water
CH3CH2OH + 3O2 —→ 2 CO2 + 3H2O
A Long Answer
60. An ester has the molecular formula C4H8O2. Write
62. Give reasons for the following:
its structural formula. What happens when this
(a) Element carbon forms compounds mainly by
ester is heated in the presence of sodium hydroxide
covalent bonding.
solution? Write the balanced chemical equation
(b) Diamond has a high melting point.
for the reaction and name the products. What is
(c) Graphite is a good conductor of electricity.
a saponification reaction? [HOTS]
(d) Acetylene burns with a sooty flame.
Ans. There are three possible structural formulae of esters
(e) Kerosene does not decolourise bromine water
with molecular formula C4H8O2. while cooking oils do.
CH3CH2COOCH3, HCOOCH2CH2CH3, Ans.
(a) It is because carbon has four valence electrons,
CH3COOC2H5 are isomers. it cannot gain or lose four electrons because
CH3CH2COOCH3 + NaOH → CH3CH2COONa high energy is needed. It can only share four
Methyl propanoate Sodium propanoate electrons.
(C4H8O2) + CH3OH (b) It is due to strong covalent bonds and compact
Methanol structure of diamond.
or (c) It is due to presence of free electrons in graphite
HCOOCH2CH2CH3 + NaOH → HCOONa because each carbon is linked to three more
Propyl methanoate Sodium methanoate
carbon atoms.
(C4H8O2) + CH3CH2CH2OH
(d) It is due to high percentage of carbon, it burns
1-Propanol
with sooty or smoky flame.
(e) Kerosene oil is mixture of saturated hydrocarbons
therefore does not decolourise bromine water.
63. (a) Give a chemical test to distinguish between (b) Use of A- dil solution used as vinegar in
saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbon. cooking/ preservative in pickles (1 Mark)
(b) Name the products formed when ethane burns Use of B – making perfumes, flavoring agent
in air. Write the balanced chemical equation (1 Mark)
Conc. H2SO4
for the reaction showing the types of energies (c) CH3COOH + C2H5OH →
liberated. CH3COOC2H5 + H2O (1 Mark)
(c) Why is reaction between methane and CH3COOC2H5 + NaOH → CH3COONa
chlorine in the presence of sunlight considered + C2H5OH (1 Mark)
a substitution reaction? [Delhi 2016] [CBSE Marking Scheme]
Ans. (a) Add bromine water. Unsaturated hydrocarbon
66. (a) What is the role of concentrated sulphuric
will decolourise bromine water whereas saturated
acid when it is heated with ethanol at 443 K?
hydrocarbon will not react.
Give the reaction involved.
(b) Carbon dioxide and water are formed.
(b) Reshu by mistake forgot to label the two
2C2H6 (g) + 7O2 (g) → 4CO2 (g) test tubes containing ethanol and ethanoic
Carbon dioxide acid. Suggest an experiment to identify the
+ 6H2O + Heat + Light substances correctly. Illustrate the reactions
Water with the help of chemical equations.
Sunlight
(c) CH4 (g) + Cl2 (g) → CH3Cl (g) + HCl (g) [CBSE Sample Paper 2023]
It is because hydrogen atom of methane Ans. (a) Sulphuric acid acts as dehydrating agent.
gets substituted by chlorine atom to form (1 Mark)
Conc. H2SO4, 443 K
chloromethane, therefore, it is called substitution C2H5OH → C2H4 + H2O
reaction. (1 Mark)
64. List in tabular form three physical and two (b) By reaction with sodium carbonate/ bicarbonate
chemical properties on the basis of which ethanol with the samples, ethanol will not react
and ethanoic acid can be differentiated. whereas ethanoic acid gives brisk effervescence
Ans. Physical properties: (2 Marks)
Ethanol Ethanoic acid 2CH3COOH + Na2CO3 → 2CH3COONa
(i) It has specific smell. (i) It has vinegar like + H2O + CO2 (1 Mark)
smell. or
(ii) It has burning taste. (ii) It is sour in taste. CH3COOH + NaHCO3 → CH3COONa
+ H2O + CO2
(iii) It does not freeze in (iii) It freezes in winters. [CBSE Marking Scheme]
winters.
Chemical properties: 67. The formulae of four organic compounds are
given below:
Ethanol Ethanoic acid A B C D
(i) It does not react with (i) It gives CO 2 with C2H4 CH3COOH C2H5OH C2H6
NaHCO3. NaHCO3. (a) Which one of these compounds A, B, C or
(ii) It burns with blue (ii) It does not burn with D is a saturated hydrocarbon?
flame. blue flame. (b) Identify the organic acid and give its
(iii) It does not affect (iii) It turns blue litmus structural formula.
blue litmus. red.
(c) Which of the above compounds when heated
65. Shristi heated Ethanol with a compound A in at 443K in the presence of concentrated
presence of a few drops of concentrated sulphuric H2SO4 forms ethene as the major product?
acid and observed a sweet smelling compound B is What is the role played by concentrated
formed. When B is treated with sodium hydroxide H 2SO 4 in this reaction? Also write the
it gives back Ethanol and a compound C. chemical equation involved.
(a) Identify A and C (d) Give a chemical equation when B and C react
(b) Give one use each of compounds A and B. with each other in presence of concentrated
(c) Write the chemical reactions involved and H2SO4. Name the major product formed and
name the reactions.[CBSE Sample Paper 2023] mention one of its important use.
Ans. (a) A – Ethanoic acid/ Or any other carboxylic [CBSE Sample Paper 2020]
acid, C- Sodium salt of ethanoic acid/ any other Ans. (a) D is a saturated hydrocarbon (½ Mark)
carboxylic acid/ sodium ethanoate (½ + ½ Mark) (b) B is an organic acid. (½ Mark)
Structural formula
H O (b) Functional group is an atom or group of atoms
or reactive part of compound which determines
H—C—C chemical properties of organic compounds e.g.,
O—H
H (½ Mark) —OH is present in alcohols, —COOH is
(c) C is the compound. (½ Mark) functional group in carboxylic acids.
It acts as a dehydrating agent and removes a 69. (a)
It is observed that covalent compounds are
water molecule from ethanol. (½ Mark) bad conductor of electricity. Give reason.
hot Conc. H2SO4
(d) C2H5OH → C2H4 + H2O (b) Carbon can neither form C4+ cation and nor
(1 Mark) C4– anion. Explain.
Conc. H2SO4 (c) Draw electron dot structure of ethanol.
(e) CH3COOH + C2H5OH →
CH3COOC2H5 + H2O (1 Mark) (d) Identify the heteroatom (s) in the following
Major product is ester and it is used in making compounds.
perfumes/flavouring agents. (½ Mark) (i) CH3CH2—C—CH3
[CBSE Marking Scheme] O
68. (a) W hat is homologous series of carbon (ii) CH3CH2Cl. [CBSE 2023]
compounds? Write general formula of Ans. (a) It is because covalent compounds do not form
alkynes. Name and draw the electron dot ions therefore do not conduct electricity.
structure of first homologue of this series. (b) Carbon cannot lose 4 electrons to form C4+ cation
(b) State the meaning of the functional group because very large amount of energy is required.
in an organic compound. Write the formula It cannot gain 4 electrons to form C4– anion
of functional group present in alcohols and because 6 protons can not hold 10 electrons.
carboxylic acids. [CBSE 2023] H H
H H
And. (a) The series of organic compounds having same
:
:
H : C : C :O: H
: :
functional group, similar chemical properties, (c) H—C—C—O—H,
gradation in physical properties are called
:
H H H H
homologous series.
General formula of alkynes CnH2n–2 (d) (i) oxygen
(ii) chlorine
H—C≡≡C—H, Ethyne, H : C
C : H
...
...
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which amongst the following contains triple bond ? (d) there is single bond between carbon and
(a) C2H4 (b) C2H6 hydroxide diatoms.
(c) C2H2 (d) C4H8 5. What is allotropy? Give example.
2. Which of the following are members of same 6. Name the following compounds: [Delhi 2016]
homologous series? H
(a) HCOOCH3 and CH3COOCH3 (a) CH3—CH2—OH, (b) CH3—C==O
(b) HCOOH and HCOOCH3
7. (a) Write the general formula of hydrocarbon alkene.
(c) CH3COCH3 and CH3CH2CHO
Write the name of simplest alkene. [CBSE 2015]
(d) C2H5OH and CH3OCH3
(b) Write the number of covalent bonds in the
3. Which of the following represents cyclohexane? molecule of butane, C4H10. [AI 2015]
(a) C6H14 (b) C6H12
8. (a) Name the first member of ketone. [DoE]
(c) C6H10 (d) C6H6
(b) Write the molecular formula of benzene and
O state the number of double bonds in its structure.
4. A student studies CH3—C—OH is saturated [CBSE 2023, 13]
compound. The reason is 9. Write the molecular formula of the first two members
(a) there is single bond between carbon atoms. of the homologous series having functional group
(b) there is double bond between carbon and oxygen —COOH. [Foreign 2017]
atoms. rd
10. Write the name and formula of the 3 member of
(c) there is single bond between carbon and hydrogen homologous series having general formula CnH2n.
atoms.
11. (a)
D raw the structure of butanone molecule, 13. Explain why carbon generally forms compounds by
CH3COC2H5. covalent bonds.
(b)
Draw the structure of the hexanal molecule, 14. Write the name and molecular formula of an
C5H11CHO. organic compound having its name suffixed with
12. An organic compound burns with blue flame. It is ‘–ol’ and having two carbon atoms in the molecule.
saturated or unsaturated compound. Give reason. With the help of a balanced chemical equation
[DoE] indicate what happens when it is heated with excess
of conc. H2SO4.
15. Column I Column II
CHBr2
(i) CH≡≡CH + Br2 → A. Combustion reaction
CHBr2
(ii) CH3COOH + NaHCO3 → CH3COONa + H2O + CO2 B. Test for carboxylic acid
(iii) CH2 CH2 + H2O

H SO
→
2 4
CH3CH2OH C. Bromine water test
(iv) CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O D. Hydration
16. Write the molecular formula of an alkene and an (b) What happens when 5% alkaline KMnO4 solution
alkane with twenty carbon atoms. is added drop by drop to warm ethanol taken in
17. Select alkene and alkyne from the following : a test tube? State the role of alkaline KMnO4
C6H12 , C3H4 , C2H4 , CH4 , C4H8 , C5H8 solution in this reaction. [Foreign 2016]
18. What is the IUPAC name of 24. Two carbon compounds X and Y have the molecular
(a) CH3— CH2—CH==CH2 formula C4H8 and C5H12 respectively. Which one
(b) CH3CHO of these is most likely to show addition reaction?

Justify your answer. Also give the chemical equation
19. Write IUPAC names of
to explain the process of addition reaction in this
(a) CH3COCH2CH3
case. [Delhi 2017]
(b) CH3—CH—CH3
25. (a) Why are most carbon compounds poor
OH conductors of electricity?
(c) HCOOH (b) Write the name and structure of a saturated
(d) CH3COOCH3 compound in which the carbon atoms are
20. What is the function of conc. H2SO4 in the formation arranged in a ring. Give the number of single
of ethene from ethanol? bonds present in this compound.[CBSE 2023, 18]
21. A carbon compound ‘A’ having melting point 156K 26. Write the molecular formula of the following
and boiling point 351K, with molecular formula compounds and draw their electron-dot structures:
C2H6O is soluble in water in all proportions. (a) Ethane (b) Ethene
(a) Identify ‘A’ and draw its electron dot structure. (c) Ethyne [Foreign 2015, KVS]
[CBSE 2023] 27. Write the structural formula of ethanol and list its two
(b) Give the molecular formulae of any two physical properties. What happens when it is heated
homologues of ‘A’. [CBSE Sample Paper 2022] with excess of conc. H2SO4 at 443 K? State the role
22. What happens when hydrogen is added to a of conc. H2SO4 in this reaction.
vegetable oil in the presence of nickel? Name the [DoE, AI 2017, Foreign 2013]
reaction and write one difference between the 28. An organic compound ‘P’ is a constituent of wine.
physical property of the vegetable oil and the product ‘P’ on reacting with acidified K2Cr2O7 forms another
obtained in this reaction. Write the role of nickel in compound ‘Q’. When a piece of sodium is added to
this reaction. [CBSE 2018C] ‘Q’ a gas ‘R’ evolves which burns with a pop sound.
23. (a) Define the term functional group. Identify the Identify P, Q and R and write the chemical equations
functional group present in of the reactions involved. [Foreign 2016]
O H OH 29. Write IUPAC names of
(a) HC≡≡CH (b) CH3CH2CH2OH
(i) H—C—H (ii) H—C—C==O O
H (c) CH3—C—H [DoE, CBSE 2020]
30. 3 mL of ethanol is taken in a test tube and warmed ‘Z’ on combustion forms two molecules of CO2 and
gently in a water bath. A 5% solution of alkaline three molecules of H2O. Identify giving reasons the
potassium permanganate is added first drop by drop compounds ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’. Write the chemical
to this solution, then in excess. [CBSE 2020] equations for all the chemical reactions involved.
(a) How is 5% solution of KMnO4 prepared? [AI 2013]
(b) State the role of alkaline potassium permanganate 37. A compound (A) C2H4O2 reacts with sodium metal to
in this reaction. What happens on adding it in form a compound ‘B’ and evolves a gas which burns
excess? with a ‘pop’ sound. Compound ‘A’ on treatment with
(c) Write chemical equation of this reaction. alcohol ‘C’ in the presence of acid forms a sweet
31. Complete the following reactions: smelling compound ‘D’ (C4H8O2). On addition of
(a) CH3COOH + NaOH → NaOH to D gives back ‘B’ and ‘C’. Identify A, B, C
R R and D and write the reactions involve.
Ni
(b) C==C + H2 → [CBSE 2023, CBSE Sample Paper 2018]
R R
38.
(a) Identify the compounds ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ in the
873-923 K
(c) CH3OH + O2 → following reactions:
MoO3
(i) C2H5OH + CH3CH2COOH
(d) CH2==CH2 + Br2 → Conc. H SO
(e) CH3COOC2H5 + NaOH → →2 4
‘A’ + H2O
H SO (ii) CH3COOC2H5 + NaOH
(f) CH2==CH2 + H2O →
2 4
——→ ‘B’ + C2H5OH
32. (a) Why do we add ethanol to petrol in these days? (iii) CH3COONa + NaOH(CaO)
(b) Give one use of ethanol in medicines. heat
→ ‘C’ + Na2CO3
(c) Why is vinegar used in pickles? (b) A cyclic compound ‘X’ has molecular formula
33. Give the IUPAC name of the following: C6H6. It is unsaturated and burns with sooty
H H H H O H H flame. Identify ‘X’ and write its structural
(b) H—C—C—C—OH (b) H—C—C—C—C—H formula. Will it decolourise bromine water or
not and why? [HOTS]
H H H H H H 39. An organic compound with molecular formula
H H O C2H4O2 produces brisk effervescence on addition
(c) H—C—C—C—OH of sodium carbonate /bicarbonate.
(a) Identify the organic compound.
H H (b) Name the gas evolved.
34. (a) Write two characteristics of homologous series. (c) How will you test the gas evolved?
(b) Name the functional present in the following (d) Write the chemical equation for the above reaction.
compounds. (e) List two important uses of the above compound.
(i) HCHO [KVS]
(ii) CH3CHO 40. (i) Draw two structural isomers of butane.
(iii) CH3COOH (ii) Draw the structures of propanol and propanone.
(iv) CH3OH (iii) Name the third homologue of (a) alcohols
35. You are provided with as organic compound having (b) aldehyde
the molecular formula, C2H6. Give the name and (iv) Name the following:
formula of the compound formed when: H
(a) One H atom of C2H6 is replaced by a OH group. C
(b) One H atom of C2H6 is replaced by a CHO group. C H
H C
(c) One H atom of C2H6 is replaced by a COOH group.
(a) C H (b) CH3—CH==CH2
36. An organic compound ‘X’ on heating with conc. H C C
H2SO4 forms a compound ‘Y’ which on addition of
H
one molecule of hydrogen in the presence of nickel [CBSE 2023]

forms a compound ‘Z’. One molecule of compound
TOPICS COVERED
Soaps and Detergents and their Cleaning Action
A Long Answer
Multiple Choice L Type Questions 5 Marks
Questions 1 Mark
5. Soaps and detergents are both types of salts.
1. The ionic part of synthetic detergent is State the difference between the two. Write the
(a) —OSO3– Na+ mechanism of the cleaning action of soaps. Why
(b) —COO–Na+ do soaps not form lather (foam) with hard water?
(c) —COO–H+ Mention any two problems that arise due to the
(d) —COO– CH3+ use of detergents instead of soaps.
2. Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of [CBSE 2023; Delhi 2017]
(a) alcohol (b) fatty acids Ans. Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of fatty acids
(c) sulphonic acid (d) esters having —COONa group. Detergents are sodium or
3. Which of the following is correct about detergents? potassium salts of sulphonic acids having —SO3Na
(a) They are 100% biodegradable. and —SO4Na group.
(b) They work well with hard water. Cleaning Action of Soap. Soaps consist of a large
(c) They do not create pollution. hydrocarbon tail which is hydrophobic (water-hating
(d) They do not work with hard water. or water repelling) with a negatively charged head
4. A student studies that soap solution results in which is hydrophilic (water-loving) as shown in
micelle formation which helps to remove dirt. It figure.
has unique orientation which helps in keeping the –
COO Na
+
dirt out of the water as shown in the image. Which long hydrocarbon chain polar end
helps the dirt to risen away? [CBSE T.E.R.M.*] (hydrophobic end) (hydrophilic)
Na+ (water-repellent) (water-loving)
Na+
Na+
Na+
(a) Suspension of the dirt in micelle. When a soap is dissolved in water, the molecules
(b) A collection of water molecules in the centre of associate together as clusters called micelles in
micelles. which, water molecules being polar in nature,
(c) Attraction between ionic part and dirt to remove it. surround the ions and the hydrocarbon part of the
(d) Mixing of soap molecules along with dirt so as molecule attracts grease, oil and dirt.
to make it heavier. Hard water has Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions that react with soap
to form insoluble compound and soap goes waste.
Answers Disadvantages of Detergents
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (b) (i) Detergents are expensive.
4. (a) Suspension of the dirt in micelle. (ii) Many detergents are branched chain
hydrocarbon which are not biodegradable
*Teacher Energised Resource Manuals and create water pollution.
6. What are micelles? Why does it form when soap is
added to water? Will a micelle be formed in other
solvents such as ethanol also? State briefly how
the formation of micelles help to clean the clothes
having oily spots. [CBSE 2023; Foreign 2016]
Ans. Micelles: When molecular ions in soaps and
detergents aggregate, they form micelles.
It is because large number of molecular ions of soaps
get aggregated and form colloidal solution. Soap
has hydrophobic tail (hydrocarbon) which dissolves
in hydrocarbon part and hydrophilic part dissolves
in water. Ethanol is non-polar solvent therefore
micelles are not formed because hydrocarbon part
get attracted towards ethanol and ionic end will not
dissolve in alcohol.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. (a) With the help of diagram show the formation (2) In which test tube curdy solid will be
of micelles, when soap is applied to oily dirt. formed? Why? [CBSE 2023]
(b) Take two test tubes ‘X’ and ‘Y’ with 10 mL 2. (a) What are soaps? Explain the mechanism of
of hard water in each. In test tube ‘X’ add few cleaning action of soaps with the help of labelled
drops of soap solution and in test tube ‘Y’ add diagram.
a few drops of detergent solution. Shake both (b) Detergents are better than soaps. Justify.
the test tubes for the same period. [CBSE 2023]
(1) In which test tube the formation of foam
will be more? Why?

1. (a) Write three difference between soaps and (b) What are soaps? How are they chemically
detergents. different from detergents? Why do soaps do not
(b) Give two uses of ethanoic acid. work effectively in hard water? [CBSE 2023]
(c) Name the products formed when ethanol reacts 3. Write chemical equations for the following:
with sodium metal. (5 Marks)
(a) Combustion of methane
2. (a) What are isomers? Write the structures of two (b) Oxidation of alcohol
compounds having molecular formula C3H6O (c) Hydrogenation of ethene
and give their names. [CBSE 2023] (5 Marks) (d) Esterification
(e) Saponification reaction.[CBSE 2023] (5 Marks)

Direction: The questions given below consist of an 1. Assertion: Vegetable oils are healthier than animal
assertion and the reason. Use the following key to choose fats.
the appropriate answer. Reason: Vegetable oils generally have long unsaturated
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the carbon chains while animal fats have saturated carbon
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. chains.
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the 2. Assertion: Ammonia is an ionic compound.
Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. Reason: Covalent compounds are formed by sharing
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false. of electrons. [DoE 2023]
is true.
3. Assertion: Methane is simplest saturated hydrocarbon Reason: When esters react with sodium hydroxide
which is a major component of natural gas. an alcohol and sodium salt of carboxylic acid are
Reason: Methane belongs to alkene. obtained. [CBSE 2020]
4. Assertion: Ethanol is present in alcoholic drinks. 10. Assertion: Butane exhibits isomerism.
Reason: Ethanol has formula CH3OH. Reason: Butane is a saturated hydrocarbon.
5. Assertion: Ethanoic acid reacts with ethyl alcohol 11. Assertion: Carbon forms strong and stable covalent
in presence of conc H2SO4 to form ethyl ethanoate. bonds.
Reason: Esters are used in ice creams and cold Reason: Carbon is tetravalent and the Carbon atom
drinks. is small in size.
6. Assertion: Vegetable oils are unsaturated, react with 12. Assertion: Following are the members of a
hydrogen in presence of nickel to form vegetable homologous series:
ghee. CH3OH, CH3CH2OH, CH3CH2CH2OH
Reason: This reaction is saponification. Reason: A series of compounds with same functional
group but differing by –CH 2– in unit is called
7. Assertion: In a homologous series of alcohols, the
homologous series. [CBSE 2020]
formula for the second member is C2H5OH and the
third member is C3H7OH. 13. Assertion: Ethanoic acid is also known as glacial
Reason: The difference between the molecular acetic acid.
masses of the two consecutive members of a Reason: The melting point of pure ethanoic acid is
homologous series is 144. [CBSE 2020] 290 K and hence it often freezes during winters in
cold climates. [CBSE 2023, 20]
8. Assertion: Soaps are 100% biodegradable but do not
work well with hard water. 14. Assertion: Carbon has a strong tendency to either lose
Reason: Some detergents are not bio-degradable but or gain electrons to attain noble gas configuration.
work well with hard water. Reason: Carbon has four valence electrons in
outermost shell and has the tendency to share
9. Assertion: Esterification is a process in which a sweet
electrons with carbon or other elements. [CBSE 2020]
smelling substance is produced.
1. Read the given passage and answer the questions (a) ‘X’ on combustion gives yellow sooty flame. ‘X’
based on passage and related studied concepts. is saturated or unsaturated?
Carbon has four valence electrons. It cannot lose or (b) Which types of fatty acids are good for health?
gain four electrons. It can share four electrons easily. (c) Give two properties of covalent compounds.
It forms large number of covalent compounds due to Or
property of catenation and tetra valency. Carbon has (c) What happens when propanol reacts with sodium
three crystalline allotropes-diamond, graphite and metal?
fullerene which differ in physical properties. Alkanes 2. Read the given passage and answer the questions
are saturated hydrocarbons, undergo combustion based on passage and related studied concepts.
and substitution reactions. Alkenes and alkynes Alcohols form a homologous series with general
are unsaturated hydrocarbons undergo addition formula C nH 2n+1 — OH and hydroxyl (—OH)
reactions. Ethanol on dehydration with conc. H2SO4 group as functional group. Alcohols are colourless
at 443K gives ethene. Hydrogenation of vegetable liquids, boiling points higher than hydrocarbons,
oils in presence of nickel forms vegetable ghee. soluble in water. Lower alcohols have specific smell
Alcohol react with carboxylic acid in presence of and burning taste. Their boiling point increases
conc. H2SO4 to form esters, pleasant fruity smelling with increase in molecular weight but solubility
compounds. Alcohol and carboxylic acids react with in water decrease. Methanol is called wood spirit
Na metal to liberate hydrogen. Acetic acid reacts used as disinfectant. Ethanol is commonly called
with NaHCO3 and Na2CO3 to give CO2 which turns alcohol and is used in alcoholic drinks. It is good
lime water milky. Esters on heating with NaOH solvent, used in medicines, cough syrups, tonics.
to give sodium salt of acid and alcohol. Soaps are Consumption of alcohol leads to loss of muscular
prepared by saponification of fat or oil with NaOH. and nervous control. Intake of small amount of pure
Detergents are more effective and work well with alcohol can be fatal and long term consumption of
hard water but some of them are non-biodegradable.
alcoholic drinks cause many health problems and 5. Read the given passage and answer the questions
ruin family life. Drinking methanol may lead to based on passage and related studied concepts.
blindness and even death. Soaps and detergents are cleansing agents. Soaps
(a) Write structural formula of 5th member of are sodium or potassium salts of higher fatty acids.
alcohol homologous series. Detergents are sodium or potassium salts of sulphonic
(b) What happens when 1-propanol is heated with acids. Soaps do not work well with hard water where
conc H2SO4? Write chemical reaction. as detergents work well with hard water. Soaps are
(c) What happens when ethanoic acid reacts with biodegradable and do not create water pollution.
1-propanol in presence of conc H2SO4? What is Some detergents create water pollution.
name of reaction? (a) Write functional group present in detergent.
Or (b) Name the useful product obtained in saponification
(c) What happens when ethyl ethanoate reacts with of oil or fat to form soap.
NaOH? What is name of the reaction? (c) Give two examples of soaps.
3. Hydrocarbons are the organic compounds of Or
carbon and hydrogen, which are obtained from coal, (c) Give two examples of detergents.
petroleum and natural gas. Hydrocarbons and their 6. Read the given passage and answer the questions
derivatives may be saturated, unsaturated, cyclic based on passage and related studied concepts.
and aromatic. Due to their large number, in order The element carbon occurs in different forms in
to correlate and have a systematic study of organic nature with widely varying physical properties.
compounds they have been further classified into a Both diamond and graphite are formed by carbon
number of series or families known as homologous atoms, the difference lies in the manner in which the
series. carbon atoms are bonded to one another. Diamond is
(a) Out of ethane, ethanol and ethanoic acid, which hard whereas graphite is soft and slippery. Graphite
has lowest boiling point? is conductor of electricity whereas diamond is not
(b) What is formula for cyclohexane? conductor. Fullerenes form another class of carbon
(c) What is general formula of ketone? Write formula in which carbon atoms (C-60) arranged in shape of
of ketone with four carbon atoms. football.
Or (a) What is name given to forms of same element
(c) What is general formula of alkyl group? Give which differ in physical properties? Which form
formula for n-pentyl group. of carbon is purest?
4. Observe the table of boiling points of alcohols and (b) Why is diamond hard?
carboxylic acids. Study this table and answer the (c) How are diamonds synthesised? Why do they
questions related to studied concepts. not conduct electricity?
Or
Compound Boiling point
(c) Why is graphite soft and slippery and how
1. Methanol 64°C valency of carbon satisfied?
2. Ethanol 78°C 7. Read the given passage and answer the questions
3. Propanol 97°C based on passage and related studied concepts.
4. Butanol 117°C Covalent bonds are formed by sharing electrons.
5. Methanoic acid 101°C Not just carbon, but many other elements form
molecules by sharing electrons in this manner. The
6. Ethanoic acid 118°C
shared electrons belong to outer shells of both the
7. Propanoic acid 141°C atoms and lead to both atoms attaining the noble gas
8. Butanoic acid 164°C configuration. Hydrogen is simplest molecule formed
(a) Why do acids have higher boiling points than in this manner. Single bond is formed between two
alcohol? hydrogen atoms by sharing one electron each. Double
(b) Why does ethanol have higher boiling point than bond is formed by sharing two electrons each. Triple
CH3OH? bond is formed by sharing three electrons each.
(c) (i) What is vinegar? Ammonia, water, methane also have covalent bonds.
(ii) What is glacial acetic acid? Covalently bonded molecules are seen to have strong
Or bonds within the molecule but intermolecular forces
(c) (i) Which acid is present in Rancid butter? are small.
(ii) What happens when 5% alkaline KMnO4 (a) Hydrogen molecule acquires stable electronic
is added to butanol? configuration of which noble gas after forming
covalent bonds?
(b) Draw the electron dot diagram of nitrogen. element. Try and heat a copper wire in flame of a gas
[CBSE 2023] stove and observe its colour. Some compounds, on
(c) Draw the electron dot diagram of ammonia. Does combustion give sooty (smoky) flame. Heat common
it conduct electricity? Give reason. salt in flame and observe the colour of the flame.
Or Coal and petroleum are fossil fuels and create lot of
(c) Draw electron dot diagram of water molecule. pollution on combustion. Ethanol burns with blue
Which has higher boiling point-H2O or NaCl? flame and creates less pollution. Hydrogen is best
Give reason. fuel.
8. Read the given passage and answer the questions (a) Why do some substances on combustion produce
based on passage and related studied concepts. flame, others do not?
Have you ever observed either a coal or a wood (b) What type of hydrocarbons burn with blue (non-
fire? If not, the next time you get a chance, take a luminous) flame and why?
note of what happens when wood or coal starts to (c) Among LPG, ethanol, hydrogen, coal arrange
burn. You must have seen above the candle or the them in increasing order of suitability in order
LPG in gas stove burns with a flame. However, you to reduce pollution? Give reason.
will observe that coal or charcoal in an ‘angithi’ Or
sometimes just glows red and gives out heat without (c) Which coloured flame is produced by
a flame. There are two types of flames, luminous (i) Heating copper wire in flame
flame and non luminous flame. The colour produced (ii) Sodium chloride in flame
by each element is characteristic property of that Why do elements produce specific colour flame?
NCERT ZONE

Page 61 S S S
1. What would be the electron dot structure of
carbon dioxide which has the formula CO2? S S
Ans. A molecule of CO 2 consists of one atom of
carbon and two atoms of oxygen. The electronic S
configuration of carbon is 2,4 while that of oxygen
is 2, 6. Each of the two atoms of oxygen shares two S S

electrons with carbon atom to complete the octet
of both the elements, thereby forming a double Page 68
covalent bond. 1. How many structural isomers can you draw for
Shared pairs of electrons Double bond pentane?
Ans. We can draw three structural isomers of pentane
(C5H12).
H H H H H
O + C → O C O → O==C==O
H—C—C—C—C—C—H
2, 6 2, 4
Electron Dot Structure of Carbon dioxide H H H H H
2. What would be the electron dot structure of a n-Pentane
Pentane (IUPAC)
molecule of sulphur which is made up of eight
atoms of sulphur? [Hint: The eight atoms of
sulphur are joined together in the form of a ring.]
Ans. In S8, the atoms are joined together in the form of a
ring.
H O
H—C—H Ans. (i) CH3—C—OH
H H H H H H Ethanoic acid
5 4 3 2 1
H—C—C—C—C—H H—C—C—C—H (ii) CH3—CH2—CH2—CH2—CH2Br
H H H H H Bromopentane
H—C—H H—C—H O
H H (iii) CH3—C—CH2 —CH3
Isopentane Neopentane Butanone
(2-Methyl butane) (2, 2-Dimethyl propane)
H H H H H O
2. What are the two properties of carbon which lead
to the huge number of carbon compounds we see (iv) H—C—C—C—C—C—C—H
around us?
H H H H H
Ans. Catenation and tetravalency.
Hexanal
3. What will be the formula and electron dot Yes, structural isomers are possible for bromopentane.
structure of cyclopentane?
5. How would you name the following compounds?
Ans. The formula of cyclopentane is C5H10.
H
H H
(i) CH3—CH2—Br (ii) H—C==O
H H H H H H
C
(iii) H—C—C—C—C—C C—H
C C H
H H H H H
C C Ans. (i) Bromoethane (ii) Methanal (iii) 1-Hexyne
H
Page 71
H
H H 1. Why is the conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid
or an oxidation reaction? [KVS]
[O]
H H Ans. CH3CH2OH → CH3COOH
H C C H Since the conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid
involves the addition of oxygen to ethanol, it is an
oxidation reaction.
H C C H 2. A mixture of oxygen and ethyne is burnt for
welding. Can you tell why a mixture of ethyne
H C H and air is not used?
H H Ans. 2HC≡≡CH + 5O2 → 4CO2 + 2H2O + Heat
H H When ethyne is burnt in air, it gives a sooty flame due
to incomplete combustion caused by limited supply
H—C—C—H of oxygen (in air). However, if ethyne is burnt with
H H oxygen (at 3000 °C), it gives a clean flame because
C C of complete combustion. This oxy-acetylene flame
H H is used for welding. It is not possible to attain such
C a high temperature without mixing oxygen.
H H Page 74
Electron Dot Structure of Cyclopentane
1. How would you distinguish experimentally
4. Draw the structures for the following compounds: between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid?
(i) Ethanoic acid (ii) Bromopentane* Ans. We can distinguish between an alcohol and a
(iii) Butanone (iv) Hexanal carboxylic acid on the basis of their reaction with
[CBSE 2020 (C)] carbonates and hydrogen carbonates. Carboxylic
*Are structural isomers possible for bromopen- acid reacts with carbonate and hydrogen carbonate
tane?
to evolve carbon dioxide gas which turns lime water 2. People use a variety of methods to wash clothes.
milky. On the other hand, alcohols do not react with Usually after adding the soap, they ‘beat’ the
carbonates and hydrogen carbonates. clothes on a stone, or beat it with a paddle, scrub
Metal carbonate/Metal hydrogen carbonate + with a brush or the mixture is agitated in a washing
Carboxylic acid → Salt + Water + Carbon dioxide machine. Why is agitation necessary to get clean
2. What are oxidising agents? Give an example. clothes?
[DoE] Ans. A soap molecule has two parts namely hydrophobic
Ans. Those substances which give oxygen or replace and hydrophilic. With the help of these, it attaches
hydrogen on reaction with other compounds are to the grease or dirt particles and forms a cluster
known as oxidising agents. For example, potassium called micelle. These micelles remain suspended in
permanganate (KMnO4). solution as a colloid.
When water is agitated, the oily dirt tends to lift off
Page 76
from the dirty surface and dissociates into fragments.
1. Would you be able to check if water is hard by This gives an opportunity to other tails to stick to
using a detergent? [CBSE 2020 (C)] oil. This results in the formation of an emulsion in
Ans. No. Detergents are sodium or potassium salts of water. This emulsion now contains small globules of
sulphonic acids of hydrocarbons of alkene type. oil surrounded by soap or detergent molecules. The
Unlike soap, they do not react with calcium and negatively charged heads present in water prevent
magnesium ions present in hard water to form scum. the small globules from coming together and form
They give a good amount of lather with both soft clusters. Thus, the oily dirt is removed from the
water and hard water. Hence, it cannot be used to object.
check whether the water is hard or not.
NCERT EXERCISES
1. Ethane, with the molecular formula C2H6 has
(a) 6 covalent bonds. (b) 7 covalent bonds. H
(c) 8 covalent bonds. (d) 9 covalent bonds.
[AI 2015] H C Cl H
Ans. (b) The structural formula for ethane is
H H H—C—Cl
H
H—C—C—H , so it has 7 covalent bonds.
H
Electron dot structure Structural formula
H H for Chloromethane (CH3Cl) for Chloromethane
2. Butanone is a four-carbon compound with the 5. Draw the electron dot structures for
functional group (a) ethanoic acid. (b) H2S.
(a) carboxylic acid. (b) aldehyde. (c) propanone. (d) F2.
(c) ketone. (d) alcohol. Ans. (a) Ethanoic acid (CH3COOH)
Ans. (c) Butanone has ketone functional group. H O
3. While cooking, if the bottom of the vessel is getting
blackened on the outside, it means that
(a) the food is not cooked completely. C C O H
H
(b) the fuel is not burning completely.
(c) the fuel is wet.
H O
(d) the fuel is burning completely.
Ans. (b) This means that the fuel is not burning completely CH3—C—O—H
and unburnt carbon particles get deposited on the
bottom of the vessel, making it black. (b) H2S
4. Explain the nature of the covalent bond using the
bond formation in CH3Cl. H S H H—S—H
Ans. Carbon has four valence electrons. It shares one
electron with chlorine and one electron each with
three hydrogen atoms.
O Ans. A soap molecule has both a hydrophilic and a
hydrophobic end. The hydrophilic end is soluble in
(c) Propanone (CH3— C —CH3) water, whereas the hydrophobic end is insoluble in
H water. When soap is added in water, the hydrophilic
H O part gets dissolved in water but hydrocarbon tail being
hydrophobic part forms clusters called micelles. As
H C C C H soap is soluble in ethanol, micelle formation will not
take place in it.
H H 9. Why are carbon and its compounds used as fuels
for most applications?
H O H Ans. During the process of combustion of carbon and
H—C—C—C—H its compounds, a large amount of heat and light is
released. Because of this carbon and its compounds
H H are used as fuels.
(d) F2
10. Explain the formation of scum when hard water
is treated with soap.
F F F —F Ans. Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of fatty acids.
Hard water contains Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions, which react
6. What is homologous series? Explain with an with soap to form calcium and magnesium salts of
example. [CBSE 2023, 20] fatty acids which are insoluble and are called scum.
Ans. It is a series of organic compounds having same 2C17H35COONa + Ca2+
general formula, same functional group, same Sodium stearate Calcium ion
general methods of preparation, similar chemical → 2Na+ + (C17H35COO)2Ca

Sodium ion Calcium stearate
properties and gradation in physical properties, e.g. (scum)
The general formula for the homologous series 2C17H35COONa + Mg2+
of alkanes is C n H 2n + 2 . CH 4 (Methane), C 2 H 6
Magnesium ion
(Ethane), C3H8 (Propane) and C4H10 (Butane). → 2Na+ + (C17H35COO)2Mg
Every homologous series have general formula. In Magnesium stearate
alkane single bond is functional group, in alkene (scum)
double bond and in alkyne triple bond. 11. What change will you observe if you test soap with
7. H o w c a n e t h a n o l a n d e t h a n o i c a c i d b e litmus paper (red and blue)?
differentiated on the basis of their physical and Ans. As soap solution is basic in nature, it will turn red
chemical properties? litmus paper into blue but it will not affect blue
Ans. Difference on the physical basis: Ethanol has litmus paper.
pleasant smell, whereas ethanoic acid has vinegar- 12. What is hydrogenation? What is its industrial
like smell. application? [CBSE 2023]
Difference on the chemical basis: Ethanol does Ans. Hydrogenation is a process in which a substance
not react with sodium hydrogen carbonate, whereas reacts with hydrogen in the presence of nickel or
ethanoic acid liberates CO2 on treatment with sodium palladium as catalyst.
hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO3). Industrial application:
CH3COOH + NaHCO3 → CH3COONa + H2O + CO2 The process of hydrogenation is used to prepare
C2H5OH + NaHCO3 → No Reaction vegetable ghee from vegetable oil.
When a few drops of alkaline KMnO4 are added to Ni
alcohol and the resultant mixture is heated, the pink Vegetable oil + H2 → Vegetable ghee
Heat
colour of alkaline KMnO4 disappears. Ethanoic acid 13. Which of the following hydrocarbons undergo
does not give this test. addition reactions:
Alkaline KMnO +Heat C2H6, C3H8, C3H6 , C2H2, CH4?
C2H5OH →
4
CH3COOH
Ethanol Ethanoic acid Ans. C 3 H 6 and C 2 H 2 are unsaturated hydrocarbons,
Alkaline KMnO4+Heat therefore, they will undergo addition reactions.
CH3COOH → No Reaction 14. Give a test that can be used to differentiate between
Ethanoic acid
saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons.
8. Why does micelle formation take place when soap Ans. Add bromine water to each of them. Cooking oil
is added to water? Will a micelle be formed in will decolourise bromine water showing that it is
other solvents such as ethanol also? [Foreign 2016] unsaturated, whereas butter will not decolourise
bromine water showing that it is saturated.
15. Explain the mechanism of the cleaning action of of micelle. These micelles stay in solution as a
soaps. [CBSE 2023] colloid and will not come together to form precipitate
Ans. A soap molecule has hydrophobic and hydrophilic because of ion-ion repulsion. Thus the dirt suspended
ends. In water, hydrophobic ends of soap, which in the micelles can be easily rinsed away and hence,
consists of hydrocarbon chains, cluster together to soaps are effective in cleaning.
form micelles. The oily dirt collects in the centre

1. Carbon exists in the atmosphere in the form of H H H
(a) carbon monoxide only
(b) carbon monoxide in traces and carbon dioxide (iii) H—C—C—C—H
(c) carbon dioxide only H C—H
(d) coal [KVS 2023]
Ans. (c) H
H H
2. Which of the following statements are usually
correct for carbon compounds? These H—C—C—H
(i) are good conductors of electricity (iv)
(ii) are poor conductors of electricity H—C—C—H
(iii) have strong forces of attraction between their H H
molecules
(iv) do not have strong forces of attraction (a) (i) and (iii)
between their molecules (b) (ii) and (iv)
(a) (i) and (iii) (c) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv) [KVS 2023]
(c) (i) and (iv) Ans. (c)
(d) (ii) and (iv) [KVS 2023] 6. Oils on treating with hydrogen in the presence of
Ans. (d) palladium or nickel catalyst form fats. This is an
example of
3. A molecule of ammonia (NH3) has
(a) Addition reaction
(a) only single bonds
(b) Substitution reaction
(b) only double bonds
(c) Displacement reaction
(c) only triple bonds
(d) Oxidation reaction [KVS 2023]
(d) two double bonds and one single bond
H Ans. (a)
7. Which of the following is the correct representation
Ans. (a) H—N—H of electron dot structure of nitrogen?
4. Buckminsterfullerene is an allotropic form of (a) :N : N: (b) :N :: N:
(a) phosphorus (b) sulphur (c) :N N: (d) :N N:
(c) carbon (d) tin [KVS 2023] Ans. (d) :N≡≡N:
Ans. (c) 8. Structural formula of ethyne is
5. Which of the following are correct structural (a) H—C C—H (b) H3C—C C—H
H
H H
isomers of butane? H
H H H H (c) H—C—C—H (d) H—C—C—H
H H
H H
(i) H—C—C—C—C—H Ans. (a)
H H H H 9. Chlorine reacts with saturated hydrocarbons at
H H H room temperature in the
(a) absence of sunlight
(ii) H—C——C——C—H
(b) presence of sunlight
H H (c) presence of water
H—C—H (d) presence of hydrochloric acid
Sun light
Ans. (b) CH4(g) + Cl2(g) → CH3Cl + HCl
H
10. Pentane has the molecular formula C5H12. It has (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(a) 5 covalent bonds (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
(b) 12 covalent bonds Ans. (d)
(c) 16 covalent bonds 18. Which of the following represents saponification
(d) 17 covalent bonds [KVS 2023] reaction?
Ans. (c) CaO
(a) CH3COONa + NaOH → CH4 + Na2CO3
11. Ethanol reacts with sodium and forms two H2SO4
(b) CH3COOH + C2H5OH →
products. These are
CH3COOC2H5 + H2O
(a) sodium ethanoate and hydrogen
(c) 2CH3COOH + 2Na → 2CH3COONa + H2
(b) sodium ethanoate and oxygen
(d) CH3COOC2H5 + NaOH → CH3COONa
(c) sodium ethoxide and hydrogen
+ C2H5OH
(d) sodium ethoxide and oxygen
Ans. (d)
[CBSE 2023; KVS 2023]
Ans. (c) 2CH3CH2OH + 2Na → 2CH3CH2ONa + H2 19. In which of the following compounds, —OH is the
functional group?
12. Vinegar is a solution of
(a) Butanone (b) Butanol
(a) 50 % – 60 % acetic acid in alcohol
(c) Butanoic acid (d) Butanal [KVS 2023]
(b) 5 % – 8 % acetic acid in alcohol
Ans. (b) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH has —OH as functional
(c) 5 % – 8 % acetic acid in water
group.
(d) 50 % – 60 % acetic acid in water
Ans. (c) 20. The soap molecule has a
(a) hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail
13. Carbon forms four covalent bonds by sharing its
(b) hydrophobic head and a hydrophilic tail
four valence electrons with four univalent atoms,
(c) hydrophobic head and a hydrophobic tail
e.g. hydrogen. After the formation of four bonds,
(d) hydrophilic head and a hydrophilic tail
carbon attains the electronic configuration of
(a) helium (b) neon
Ans. (a) —COONa head, hydrophilic, hydrocarbon is
(c) argon (d) krypton
hydrophobic tail.
Ans. (b)
21. Identify the unsaturated compounds from the
14. The correct electron dot structure of a water
following
molecule is
(i) Propane (ii) Propene
(a) H O O (b) H O O
(iii) Propyne (iv) Chloropropane
(c) H O H (d) H O O
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iv)
Ans. (c)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii) [KVS 2023]
15. Which among the following are unsaturated Ans. (d) Propene, CH 3 —CH CH 2 and propyne
hydrocarbons? HC C—CH3 are unsaturated.
(i) H3C—CH2—CH2—CH3
22. In the soap micelles
(ii) H3C—C C—CH3
(a) the ionic end of soap is on the surface of the
(iii) H3C—CH—CH3
cluster while the carbon chain is in the interior
CH3 of the cluster.
(iv) H3C—C CH2 (b) ionic end of soap is in the interior of the cluster
and the carbon chain is out of the cluster.
CH3 (c) both ionic end and carbon chain are in the interior
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii) of the cluster.
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv) (d) both ionic end and carbon chain are on the
Ans. (c) exterior of the cluster.
16. Which of the following does not belong to the same Ans. (a) Ionic end of soap is hydrophilic (water loving)
homologous series? whereas carbon chain of soap is hydrophobic
(a) CH4 (b) C2H6 (water hating) but attracts oil, dirt and grease.
(c) C3H8 (d) C4H8 23. Mineral acids are stronger acids than carboxylic
Ans. (d) acids because
17. The heteroatoms present in (i) mineral acids are completely ionised
CH3—CH2—O—CH2—CH2Cl are (ii) carboxylic acids are completely ionised
(i) oxygen (ii) carbon (iii) mineral acids are partially ionised
(iii) hydrogen (iv) chlorine (iv) carboxylic acids are partially ionised
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iii) H H O H H
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
Ans. (a) HCl(aq) → H+(aq) + Cl–(aq) [Mineral acid] (c) H—C—C—C—C—C—H
CH3COOH(aq) CH3COO–(aq) + H+(aq) H H H H
24. Which of the following is not a straight chain H H H H
hydrocarbon?
(a) H3C—CH2—CH2—CH2—CH2 (d) H—C—C—C==C—H
CH3 H H
(b) H3C—CH2—CH2—CH2—CH2—CH3 Ans. Functional group Name
CH3
(a) —OH Alcohol
(c) H2C—H2C—H2C—CH2
O
CH3 Carboxylic acid
(b) — C —OH
CH3
(d) CH—CH2—CH2—CH3 O
H3C Ketone
Ans. (d) It is branched chain because —CH3 is attached (c) — C —
to 2nd carbon.
25. Draw the electron dot structure of ethyne and also Alkene
(d) — C == C —
draw its structural formula.
28. A compound X is formed by the reaction of a
Ans. H C C H carboxylic acid C2H4O2 and an alcohol in presence
of a few drops of H2SO4. The alcohol on oxidation
It is electron dot structure of ethyne (C2H2).
with alkaline KMnO4 followed by acidification
H—C C—H is its structural formula.
gives the same carboxylic acid as used in this
26. Write the names of the following compounds.
H H H H O reaction. Give the names and structures of
(a) carboxylic acid,
(a) H—C—C—C—C—C—OH
[CBSE 2020] (b) alcohol and
H H H H (c) the compound X. Also write the reaction.
H H Ans. (a) Carboxylic acid is ethanoic acid (CH3COOH).
(b) Alcohol is ethanol (C2H5OH).
(b) H—C—C—C≡≡C—H
(c) ‘X’ is ethyl ethanoate (CH3COOC2H5).
conc. H SO
H H CH3COOH + CH3CH2OH → 2 4
H H H H H H H Ethanoic acid EthanolCH3COOC2H5 + H2O

X Water
(c) H—C—C—C—C—C—C—C==O
Ethyl ethanoate
CH3CH2OH + 2[O] → Alkaline CH3COOH
H H H H H H KMno4
H H H H H Ethanol Ethanoic acid
+ H2O
(d) H—C—C—C—C—C—OH
29. Why detergents are better cleansing agents than
H H H H H soaps? Explain. [CBSE 2023]
Ans. It is because detergents form lot of lather even with hard
Ans. (a) Pentanoic acid (b) 1-Butyne water.
(c) Heptanal (d) 1-Pentanol Hard water contains Ca 2+ and Mg 2+ ions which
27. Identify and name the functional groups present react with soap to form insoluble salts of calcium
in the following compounds. and magnesium called scum and soap goes waste.
H H H
Detergents do not form insoluble compounds with
(a) H—C—C—C—OH Ca 2+ and Mg 2+ ions, therefore, these are more
effective.
H H H 30. Name the functional groups present in the
H H H O following compounds.
(a) CH3COCH2CH2CH2CH3
(b) H—C—C—C—C—OH
(b) CH3CH2CH2COOH
H H
(c) CH3CH2CH2CH2CHO
(d) CH3CH2OH (b) Cl Cl [CBSE 2023]
Ans. (a) Ketone (b) Carboxylic acid
(c) Aldehyde (d) Alcohol 34. Catenation is the ability of an atom to form
bonds with other atoms of the same element. It
31. Intake of small quantity of methanol can be lethal. is exhibited by both carbon and silicon. Compare
Comment. the ability of catenation of the two elements.
Ans. Methanol is oxidised to methanal in liver. Methanal Give reasons.
is highly reactive and good reducing agent. It causes Ans. Carbon shows catenation to large extent as compared
protoplasm to coagulate. It also affects optic nerve to silicon as well as any other element due to smaller
and leads to blindness. size of carbon. C—C bond is stronger than Si–Si bond
32. Carbon, Group (14) element in the Periodic Table, because Si is larger in size, so, it forms weaker bond.
is known to form compounds with many elements. 35. Unsaturated hydrocarbons contain multiple bonds
Write an example of a compound formed with: between the two C-atoms and show addition
(a) chlorine (Group 17 of Periodic Table) reactions. Give the test to distinguish ethane from
(b) oxygen (Group 16 of Periodic Table) ethene.
Ans. (a) CCl4 (Carbon tetrachloride) Ans. Add bromine water. Ethane will not react. Ethene
(b) CO2 (Carbon dioxide) will decolourise bromine water.
33. In electron dot structure, the valence shell electrons Alternative Method:
are represented by crosses or dots. Combustion test:
(a) The atomic number of chlorine is 17. Write Ethane, a saturated hydrocarbon, will burn with
its electronic configuration. blue flame which is non-smoky, whereas ethene,
(b) Draw the electron dot structure of chlorine an unsaturated hydrocarbon, will burn with yellow
molecule. flame which is smoky due to the presence of unburnt
Ans. (a) Cl(17) carbon particles.
Electronic configuration: K L M
287
36. Match the reactions given in Column (A) with the names given in Column (B).
Column (A) Column (B)
H+ (i) Addition reaction
(a) CH3OH + CH3COOH → CH3COOCH3 + H2O
Ni
(b) CH2==CH2 + H2 → CH3—CH3 (ii) Substitution reaction
Sunlight
(c) CH4 + Cl2 → CH3Cl + HCl (iii) Neutralisation reaction
(d) CH3COOH + NaOH → CH3COONa + H2O (iv) Esterification reaction

Ans. (a) – (iv) Esterification reaction because ester is being formed from carboxylic acid and alcohol.
(b) – (i) Addition reaction as hydrogen is being added.
(c) – (ii) Substitution reaction because hydrogen of methane is being substituted by chlorine atom.
(d) – (iii) Neutralisation reaction because acetic acid reacts with sodium hydroxide to form salt and water.
37. Write the structural formulae of all the isomers
of hexane. H H H H H
H H H H H H 1 2 3 4 5
H—C—C—C——C—C—H [CBSE 2023]
Ans. H—C—C—C—C—C—C—H
H H CH3 H H
H H H H H H 3-Methylpentane
n-Hexane
H H H H H H CH3 H H
1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4
H—C—C—
—C—C—C—H H—C—C—
—C—C—H [CBSE 2023]
H CH3 H H H H CH3 H H
2, 2-Dimethylbutane
2-Methylpentane
H H H H
1 2 3 4
H—C—C—
—C——C—H
H CH3 CH3 H
2, 3-Dimethylbutane
38. What is the role of metal or reagents written on
arrows in the given chemical reactions?
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3

Ni
(a) C C + H2 → CH3—C——C—CH3 Evolution of carbon dioxide gas by reaction
of ethanoic acid with sodium carbonate
CH3 CH3 H H Observation : Brisk effervescence due to carbon
conc. H2SO4 dioxide formed which turns lime water milky.
(b) CH3COOH + CH3CH2OH → Chemical Reaction :
CH3COOC2H5 + H2O 2CH3COOH (l) + Na2CO3 (s) →
Alkaline KMnO 2CH3COONa(aq) + H2O(l) + CO2(g)
(c) CH3CH 2OH → 4 CH 3COOH
Heat CH3COOH (l) + NaHCO3 → CH3COONa(aq)
[CBSE 2023]
+ H2O(l) + CO2(g)
Ans. (a) Ni is used as a catalyst.
C a(OH) (aq) + CO (g) → CaCO 3 (s) + H2O(l)
(b) Conc. H2SO4 acts as a dehydrating agent. 2
Lime water
2
(White ppt.)
(c) Alkaline KMnO4 is an oxidising agent. Conclusion : Carboxylic acid reacts with sodium
39. A salt ‘X’ is formed and a gas is evolved when carbonate and sodium hydrogencarbonate to liberate
ethanoic acid react with sodium hydrogen CO2 gas which turns lime water milky.
carbonate. Name the salt ‘X’ and the gas evolved. 40. (a) What are hydrocarbons? Give examples.
Describe an activity and draw the diagram of the (b) Give the structural differences between
apparatus to prove that the evolved gas is the one saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons
which you have named. Also write the chemical with two examples each.
equation of the reaction involved. [HOTS] (c) What is a functional group? Give examples
Ans. CH3COOH + NaHCO3 → CH3COONa of four different functional groups.
‘X’
Ans. (a) Hydrocarbons are the compounds made up
+ H2O + CO2 of carbon and hydrogen atoms only, e.g. CH4
The salt ‘X’is sodium ethanoate. The gas evolved is CO2.

(methane), C2H6 (ethane), CH2==CH2 (ethene),
Pass the gas through lime water. It will turn milky. etc.
It shows that gas evolved is CO2. (b) Saturated hydrocarbons contain single
Ca(OH)2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + H2O H
Aim : To demonstrate the reaction of carboxylic
acid with sodium carbonate and sodium covalent bonds only, e.g. H—C—H (methane)
hydrogencarbonate. H
Materials Required : Ethanoic acid, sodium H H
carbonate, sodium hydrogen-carbonate, lime water.
Procedure : and H—C—C—H (ethane) are saturated
1. Set the apparatus as shown in diagram. H H
2. Take 1 g of Na2CO3 and add 2 ml of ethanoic hydrocarbons.
acid into it. Unsaturated hydrocarbons contain double or
3. Pass the gas formed through lime water and triple covalent bonds, e.g.
note down the observations. H H
4. Repeat the same procedure with sodium
hydrogen-carbonate and record your H—C ==C —H (ethene) and H—C≡≡C—H
observations. (ethyne) are unsaturated hydrocarbons.
(c) Functional group is an atom or group of
atoms or reactive part of the compound which
determines chemical properties of the those
compounds, e.g.
(i) —OH (Alcohol)
CH3CH2OH (Ethanol)
Compound ‘C’ on treatment with an alcohol ‘A’
(ii) C==O (Ketone) in presence of an acid forms a sweet smelling
CH3COCH3 (Propanone) compound ‘S’ (molecular formula C3H6O2). On
addition of NaOH to ‘C’, it also gives ‘R’ and
(iii) C==O (Aldehyde) water. ‘S’ on treatment with NaOH solution gives
back ‘R’ and ‘A’.
H
CH3CHO (Ethanal) Identify ‘C’, ‘R’, ‘A’, ‘S’ and write down the
O reactions involved.
Ans. 2CH3COOH(l) + 2Na(s) →
(iv) — C —OH (Carboxylic acid) ‘C’ Sodium
CH3COOH (Ethanoic acid) Ethanoic acid
41. Esters are sweet smelling substances and are used (C2H4O2) 2CH3COONa(aq) + H2(g)
‘R’ Hydrogen
in making perfumes. Suggest one activity and the (Sodium ethanoate)
reaction involved for the preparation of ester with H2 gas burns with ‘pop’ sound.
well labelled diagram. CH3COOH + CH3OH → CH3COOCH3 + H2O
Ans. Aim : To demonstrate the preparation of ester. ‘C’ ‘A’ ‘S’ Water
Materials Required : Beaker, water, test tube, Ethanoic acid Methanol Methyl ethanoate
ethanol, acetic acid, conc. H 2SO4, tripod stand, (C3H6O2)
burner, wire gauze, etc. CH3COOH + NaOH → CH3COONa + H2O
Method : ‘C’ Sodium Sodium ethanoate Water
Ethanoic acid hydroxide ‘R’
1. Take 2 ml of ethanol in a test tube.
CH3COOCH3 + NaOH →
2. Add 2 ml of ethanoic acid (acetic acid) into it. ‘S’ Sodium
3. Add few drops of conc. H2SO4. Methyl ethanoate hydroxide
4. Warm it in a beaker containing water. CH3COONa + CH3OH
5. Observe the smell of the products formed. ‘R’ ‘A’
Sodium ethanoate Methanol
Test tube
containing
‘C’ is ethanoic acid, ‘R’ is sodium ethanoate, ‘A’ is
ethanol, acetic Beaker methanol and ‘S’ is methyl ethanoate.
acid and conc.
H2SO4
43. Look at figure and answer the following questions:
(a) What change would you observe in the calcium
hydroxide solution taken in tube ‘B’?
Water
(b) Write the reaction involved in test tubes ‘A’
Wire gauze and ‘B’ respectively.
(c) If ethanol is given instead of ethanoic acid,
Tripod
stand would you expect the same change?
(d) How can a solution of lime water be prepared
Burner
in the laboratory?
Thistle funnel
Stand Delivery
Formation of ester (ethyl acetate) tube
Cork

Observations : Pleasant fruity smelling compound Test
(called ester) is formed. tube B
Carbon A
Chemical Reaction Involved : dioxide gas Test tube
conc. H2SO4 Ethanoic ‘A’
CH3COOH (l) + C2H5OH (l) → acid
Calcium
hydroxide
Ethanoic acid Ethanol
solution
CH3COOC2H5(l) + H2O(l)
Ethyl ethanoate Water Sodium carbonate
Conclusion : Carboxylic acid reacts with alcohol in Ans. (a) Lime water will turn milky.
presence of conc. H2SO4, which acts as a dehydrating (b) Test tube A:
agent to form esters. 2CH3COOH(l) + Na2CO3(s) →
2CH3COONa(aq) + H2O(l) + CO2(g)
42. A compound ‘C’ (molecular formula, C2H4O2)
Test tube B:
reacts with Na metal to form a compound ‘R’
Ca(OH)2(aq) + CO2(g) → CaCO3(s) + H2O(l)
and evolves a gas which burns with a pop sound.
(c) Ethanol will not react with Na2CO3 and CO2 gas (b)
Those reactions in which oxygen is added
will not be formed. or hydrogen is removed are called oxidation
(d) Add Ca(OH)2 in water, shake it well. Filter the reactions. e.g.
solution. The filtrate is lime water. Alkaline
CH3OH + [O] → HCOOH + H2O
44. How would you bring about the following Methanol KMnO4 Methanoic acid
conversions? Name the process and write the (c) Substitution reaction: The reaction in which
reaction involved. one or more atoms of compound is replaced
(a) Ethanol to ethene by another atom or group of atoms, it is called
(b) Propanol to propanoic acid substitution reaction, e.g.
Conc. H2SO4 Sunlight
Ans. (a) CH3CH2OH → CH2== CH2 + H2O CH4 + Br2 → CH3Br + HBr
Ethanol Heat Ethene Methane Bromomethane
The reaction is called dehydration. (d) Saponification reaction: When an ester reacts
Alkaline with sodium hydroxide to form sodium salt
(b) CH3CH2CH2OH + 2[O] →
Propanol KMnO4 of carboxylic acid and alcohol, it is called
CH3CH2COOH + H2O saponification, e.g.
Propanoic acid C2H5COOCH3 + NaOH → CH3OH
The reaction is called oxidation. Methyl propanoate Sodium Methanol
45. Draw the possible isomers of compound with hydroxide + C2H5COONa
molecular formula C3H6O and also give their Sodium
electron dot structures. propanoate
[CBSE 2023, CBSE Sample Paper 2018] (e) Combustion reaction: When an organic
Ans. C3H6O represents aldehyde as well as ketone. compound burns in presence of air to form CO2
H H O and H 2O along with heat and light is called
H H O
combustion reaction, e.g.
H—C—C—C—H H C C C H 2C2H6(g) + 7O2(g) → 4CO2(g) + 6H2O(l)
Ethane Carbon dioxide Water
H H + Heat + Light
H H
Propanal 47. An organic compound ‘A’ on heating with conc.
H2SO4 forms a compound B, which on addition
H O H with 1 mole of hydrogen in presence of Ni forms
H O H
a compound ‘C. One mole of compound ‘C’ on
H—C—C—C—H H C C C H
combustion forms two moles of CO2 and 3 moles of
H H H2O. Identify the compounds A, B and C and write
H H the chemical equation of the reactions involved.
Propanone [HOTS]
46. Explain the given reactions with the examples Ans. The compounds are as follows:
(a) Hydrogenation reaction [CBSE 2023] A —Ethanol, B—Ethene, C—Ethane
(b) Oxidation reaction 2 4 Conc. H SO
CH3CH2OH → CH2==CH2 + H2O
(c) Substitution reaction ‘A’ ‘B’
(d) Saponification reaction [CBSE 2023] Ethanol Ethene
(e) Combustion reaction [CBSE 2023] Ni
CH2==CH2 + H2 → CH3—CH3
Ans. (a) Hydrogenation reaction: When hydrogen is ‘B’ Heat Ethane
added to unsaturated hydrocarbons having double Ethene ‘C’
or triple bond in presence of Ni as catalyst, the C2H6 + 7 O2 → 2CO2(g) + 3H2O(l)
reaction is called hydrogenation, e.g. 2
Ni
Ethane Oxygen Carbon Water
CH2==CH2 + H2 → CH3—CH3 ‘C’ dioxide [CBSE 2023]
Ethene 573 K Ethane

1. Which of the following represents formula of a 8. Write IUPAC names of following
carboxylic acid? O
(a) C2H4 (b) C4H10 (i) CH3CH2COOH (ii) CH3—C—CH3
(c) CH4O (d) C2H4O2 O
2. Which of the following can have structural isomers?
(iii) CH3—C—H (iv) CH3CH2—C≡≡CH
(a) Ethane (b) Butane
(c) Propane (d) Methane 9. Write chemical reactions involved:
(a) Ethanol is heated with conc. H2SO4 at 443 K
3. Which of the following is general formula of alkynes?
(b) Ethane reacts with chlorine in presence of
(a) CnH2n+2 (b) CnH2n sunlight.
(c) CnH2n–2 (d) CnH2n–6 (c) Ethene reacts with H2O in presence of H2SO4.
4. Which of the following compound is formed when 10. Complete the following reactions.
ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol in presence of conc. (a) C2H6 + O2 →
H2SO4? KMnO4/dil. H2SO4
(a) CH3COCH2CH3 (b) CH3CH2OH →
(c) CH3COOH + Na2CO3 →
(b) CH3COOCH2CH3
(c) CH3CH2COOCH3 11. A compound ‘X’ (C4H8O2) on acidic hydrolysis gives
‘Y’ and ‘Z’. ‘Y’ does not react with Mg metal as well
(d) CH3CH2COOCH2CH3
as sodium carbonate. ‘Z’ reacts with Mg metal as
Direction: In the following Questions, the Assertion and well as with sodium carbonate. ‘Y’ on oxidation with
Reason have been put forward. Read the statements acidified potassium dichromate gives ‘Z’. Identify
carefully and choose the correct alternative from the ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ and write reactions involved.
following: 12. Scientists have discovered that methane is green
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the house gas which is responsible for global warming.
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. Methane is emitted from oil wells, natural gas
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the leakage, land fills, cattles, organic fertilizers, ponds,
Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. paddy fields filled with water, decomposition of
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false. organic matter. We have to reduce the use of fossil
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason fuels and decrease level of CH4 by proper waste
is true. management.
(a) Name the major component of natural gas.
5. Assertion: Unsaturated hydrocarbons decolourise
(b) Why is natural gas a clean fuel?
bromine water.
(c) What happens when
Reason: Saturated hydrocarbons undergo substitution
reaction. (i) methane undergoes combustion
6. Assertion: Ethanol reacts with Na metal to form (ii) methane reacts with chlorine in presence
of sunlight
sodium ethoxide and hydrogen gas
Or
Reason: Ethanol does not react with NaHCO3.
(c) (i) Name an alcohol derived from methane.
7. Write three isomers of C5H12. Write their IUPAC (ii) Name an aldehyde containing one carbon
names. atom.
Scan to get Answers

CHAPTER
5 Life Processes
MIND MAP
Life Processes
1. Nutrition 2. Respiration 3. Transportation 4. Excretion
1. Nutrition
It is the method of obtaining nutrients from the environment. It can be defined as the process by which the organism ingests, digests,
absorbs, transports and utilises nutrients and disposes off their end products.
Autotrophic Heterotrophic
All green plants and
certain bacteria
Saprotrophic Parasitic Holozoic
Photosynthesis e.g. Fungi, Yeast e.g. Cuscuta, leech e.g. Amoeba, Human Beings
Light
6CO2+ 6H2O chlorophyll C6H12O6+ 6O2 + Energy
Parasite Host Nutrition in Nutrition in

Raw materials for photosynthesis
Amoeba Human Beings
CO2 Water Chlorophyll Light

Ingestion Digestion Absorption Assimilation Egestion
Alimentary canal Digestive Glands
Small Large
Mouth Pharynx Oesophagus Stomach Rectum Anus
intestine intestine
Salivary glands Gastric glands Liver Pancreas
Saliva Gastric juice Bile juice Pancreatic juice

Life Processes 129
2. Respiration
Respiration is the process in which food is oxidised to release energy, which can be aerobic or anaerobic.
The first step in respiration is called breathing.
Aerobic Anaerobic
Glycolysis in absence of O
(1) Glucose →
(in cytoplasm)
Pyruvate →
(yeast)
2
2C2H5OH + 2CO2 + ATP
(Pyruvic acid) (Carbon (Energy)
(2 molecules) (Fermentation) (Ethyl alcohol)
dioxide)
Glycolysis in absence of O
(2) Glucose →
(in cytoplasm)
Pyruvate →
2
Lactic acid + 2 ATP
(Pyruvic acid) (Muscle tissues) (energy)
(2 molecules)
Respiration in plants
Glycolysis Oxygen (Kreb’s cycle)
Glucose →
(in cytoplasm)
Pyruvate →
in Mitochondria
6CO2 + 6H2O + 38ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate)
(Pyruvic acid) (energy)
Respiration in animals (2 molecules)
Gills Skin Lungs Air tubes (trachea)

e.g. Fish e.g. Frog e.g. Humans e.g. Cockroach
Dissolved oxygen Mouth Blood Human respiratory system

in water
Nostrils Nasal Cavities Pharynx Trachea or Windpipe Bronchi Bronchioles Alveoli
3. Transportation
A life process in which a substance absorbed in one part of the body of an organisms is carried to other
parts of its body.
A. Transportation in Human beings B. Transportation in Plants
Continued on next page
Xylem Phloem
Transports water and dissolved minerals Conducts food from the leaves to other
nutrients from root to other parts parts of the plants.
Vessels Tracheids Xylem fibres Xylem parenchyma Phloem Sieve plates Sieve tubes Companion cells
parenchyma
A. Transportation in Human beings
Circulatory system Double Circulation
Heart Blood vessels Blood Pulmonary circulation Systematic circulation
Valves Chambers Arteries Capillaries

• Carry • Exchange of O2, CO2,
dissolved nutrients and Plasma Blood Cells
oxygenated
blood excretor y products
Atrium Ventricles take place
Veins Blood
RBCs WBCs
Platelets
• Carry deoxygenated blood
Left Right Left Right
Contains haemoglobin
which carry oxygen
Lymph vessels
Lymph Lymphatic Lymphatic Lymph

(extra cellular fluid) Capillaries Vessels Nodes
4. Excretion
It is the biological process of elimination of harmful metabolic waste products from the body of an organism. The mode
of excretion is different in different organisms. Many unicellular organisms remove these wastes by simple diffusion from
the body surface into the surrounding water; while complex multicellular organisms use specialised organs for excretion.
The organs that are involved in this process constitute the excretory system.
Excretion in human beings Excretion in plants

• Excess water by transpiration.
• Gaseous wastes are removed
Ureters (Excretory through the stomata.
Kidneys Urinary bladder Urethra
tubes • Stored as resins and gums.
• Removes the poisonous substances.

• Regulates the water balance of the blood.
• Regulates pH of the blood.
Nephrons
Life Processes 131
IMPORTANT FIGURES
1. 2. Nasal passage

Tongue Mouth Trachea
(Buccal cavity) Mouth cavity
Pharynx Rings of
Oesophagus cartilage
Larynx
Diaphragm
Bronchi Lung
Gall bladder
Bronchioles
(stores bile)
Stomach Alveolar sac
Bile duct Ribs
Liver Small intestine
Diaphragm
Pancreas
Large intestine Respiratory
Alveoli
Appendix (Colon) bronchioles
Anus
Alimentary Canal of Human Beings Human Respiratory System
3. Aorta
Pulmonary
Vena Cava from
arteries
upper body
Pulmonary
veins
Right atrium
Left atrium
Vena Cava from

lower body
Right ventricle
Left ventricle
Septum
(dividing wall)
Internal Structure of Human Heart
4.
Excretory system in human beings

TOPIC COVERED
Nutrition
Multiple Choice
Questions 1 Mark Stomata
1. Autotrophic organisms include Guard cells

(a) bacteria and virus
(b) bacteria and fungi
(c) green plants and some bacteria
(d) green plants and all bacteria (a) Large amount of water flows into the guard cells.
(b) Gaseous exchange is occurring in large amount.
2. A gland not associated with the alimentary canal (c) Large amount of water flows out from the guard
is cells.
(a) liver (b) salivary glands (d) Large amount of sugar collects in the guard cells.
(c) pancreas (d) adrenal
7. In the given transverse section of the leaf identify
3. Which of the following are chiefly digested in the the layer of cells where maximum photosynthesis
stomach? occurs. [CBSE Sample Paper 2023]
(a) Carbohydrates (b) Proteins
(c) Lipids (d) Fats I
4. From the given picture of the digestive system,
identify the part labelled as pancreas.
II
III
IV

(a) I, II (b) II, III
(c) III, IV (d) I, IV
8. Many processes happen in the bodies of living
organisms.
Those processes which involve the building up of
complex molecules from simpler ones are called
(a) A (b) B anabolism. Those which involve the breakdown
(c) C (d ) D of complex molecules into simpler ones are called
catabolism.
5. The process in which loss of water takes place
Which of the following life processes can be
in the form of water vapour through stomata is
considered as an example of anabolism?
called
[CFPQ, CBSE]
(a) transportation (b) transpiration
(a) Digestion
(c) guttation (d) translocation
(b) Respiration
6. Which one of the following conditions is true for (c) Transpiration
the state of stomata of a green leaf shown in the (d) Photosynthesis
given diagram? [CBSE 2021]
Life Processes 133
9. Read the following two statements and answer Answers
the question.
1. Gastroparesis is a disease in which the muscles 1. (c) Green plants and some bacteria can make their
of the stomach become paralysed and cannot own food in presence of sunlight.
contract or relax. 2. (d) There are two adrenal glands located in our
2. Foods high in fat can delay the process of body, one of top of each kidney.
digestion and the emptying of the stomach. 3. (b) Digestion of proteins chiefly occurs in the
Which of the following food would be advised to a stomach.
patient suffering from gastroparesis? [CFPQ, CBSE] 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (b)
(a) Soups and juices only 8. (d) Photosynthesis can be considered as an example
(b) Soups and chicken salads only of anabolism as carbohydrates are synthesised
(c) Fried chicken and fried rice by green plants in this process using carbon
(d) Ice cream and milk only dioxide and water.
9. (a)
10. Opening and closing of stomata is due to: 10. (b)
[CBSE 2023] 11. (c) Saliva contains an enzyme called salivary
(a) High pressure of gases inside the cells. amylase that breaks down starch which is a
(b) Movement of water in and out of the guard cells. complex molecule to give simple sugar.
(c) Stimulus of light in the guard cells. 12. (d)
(d) Diffusion of CO2 in and out of the guard cells.
11. An incomplete equation for the digestion of starch V S A Very Short Answer
using saliva is shown as: Type Questions 2 Marks
Saliva + Starch (in test tube) →
13. Explain the process of nutrition in Amoeba.
What will be the likely outcome of this?
Ans. The mode of nutrition in Amoeba is holozoic. It feeds
[CBSE T.E.R.M.*]
on unicellular plant or animal. The various steps
(a) Saliva will convert starch into complex fat
of nutrition are ingestion, digestion, assimilation
molecules.
and egestion. When Amoeba comes in contact with
(b) Saliva will convert starch into complex sugar
food particles, it sends out pseudopodia, which
molecules.
engulfs the prey by forming a food cup, which is
(c) Saliva will breakdown starch into simple sugar
known as ingestion. When the tips of the encircling
molecules.
pseudopodia touch each other, the food is encaptured
(d) Saliva will breakdown starch into simple protein
into a bag called food vacuole. The food vacuole
molecules.
serves as a temporary stomach secreting digestive
12. The image shows how Amoeba obtains nutrition. juice, this step is known as digestion. The digested
Nucleus
Food particle food gets absorbed and diffuses into the cytoplasm
and then assimilated. Egestion of undigested food
takes place at any point on the surface of the body.
14. What is saliva? State its role in the digestion of
Pseudopodia
food.
Ans. Saliva is a watery fluid secreted by the salivary
Food vacuole glands in the mouth.
Food particle In the mouth, food gets mixed up with saliva secreted
by salivary glands. Saliva contains an enzyme
salivary amylase which breaks polysaccharide starch
into disaccharide maltose (sugar).
15. What is the role of HCl in protein digestion?
[HOTS]
How this process is advantageous for Amoeba? Ans. HCl activates pepsinogen into active pepsin, which
[CBSE T.E.R.M.*] is a protease.
(a) Capturing of food takes less time. 16. Why is the inner wall of alimentary canal not
(b) Complex food can be digested easily. digested although the digestive enzyme can digest
(c) More amount of food can be consumed. all the materials that make cells? [HOTS]
(d) Fast distribution of nutrition within the body. Ans. The inner wall of alimentary canal is not digested
*Teacher Energised Resource Manuals because it has the following protective mechanisms:
(i) The gastric mucin secreted by the gastric In the absence of stored bile, emulsification of fats
mucosa acts as buffer, which reduces high will be negligible/ affected/ less (1 Mark)
gastric acidity and prevents injury to the inner and thus fat digestion will be slow. Hence there are
wall of the alimentary canal. such diet restrictions. [CBSE Marking Scheme]
(ii) The enzymes are secreted only when food is 24. There are various muscles present in the human
present in the alimentary canal and they are in digestive system known as sphincters. Two
an inactive form. examples of those are given below:
17. Where are salivary glands situated in man? What 1. pyloric sphincter - at the junction of stomach
are their functions? and small intestine
Ans. Salivary glands are situated in the mouth of man 2. anal sphincter - at the anus
and contains starch-digestive enzymes. Salivary G i v e O N E m o s t l i k e l y c o n s e q u e n c e o f
glands secrete saliva and the mucin in saliva helps malfunctioning of each of these sphincters.
to lubricate the food for swallowing. [CFPQ, CBSE]
18. State two functions performed by bile juice. Ans. Pyloric sphincter: Food getting into small intestine
[CBSE 2016] too fast causing poor absorption/poor digestion.
Ans. Bile juice is secreted by the liver. (i) It contains bile Anal sphincter: Involuntary release of feces from
pigments, bile salts that emulsifies fat to fatty acids. the body
(ii) Bile juice also neutralizes the acidic food in the 25. (a) What is peristaltic movement?
stomach and makes it alkaline so that it can react (b) ‘Stomata remain closed in desert plants during
with the enzymes of pancreatic juice. daytime’. How do they do photosynthesis?
[KVS]
19. Write any two functions of large intestine in man.
Ans. (a) The relaxation of gut muscles to move the
Ans. Functions of large intestine in man are:
partially digested food downwards throughout
(i) It serves to store the unabsorbed food remnants
the alimentary canal is called peristaltic
temporarily.
movement.
(ii) It concentrates the contents by absorbing water.
(b) In desert plants, stomata open at night and take
(iii) The movements of colon help to void the faeces
in carbon dioxide (CO2). Stomata remain closed
through anus. (any two)
during daytime to prevent the loss of water by
20. How would digestion of food be affected if the transpiration. They take carbon dioxide during
bile duct is completely blocked? Explain.[HOTS] the night time and convert it into intermediate
Ans. If the bile duct is completely blocked, bile juice will product of photosynthesis. During the day time
not reach the small intestine and the digestion of fats in the presence of sunlight this intermediate
will be affected. compound is convert into the final product of
21. How would it affect the digestion of proteins and photosynthesis.
carbohydrates in the duodenum of man if there 26. In each of the following situations what happens
is a blockage in the pancreatic duct? Explain. to the rate of photosynthesis?
[HOTS] (a) Cloudy days
Ans. If there is a blockage in the pancreatic duct, the (b) Stomata gets blocked due to dust [KVS]
pancreatic juice which contains enzymes for the Ans. (a) In cloudy days photosynthesis is reduced due
digestion of carbohydrates and proteins will not to low light intensity.
reach the small intestine. (b) When stomata gets blocked due to dust,
22. What are enzymes? Name any one enzyme of our photosynthesis decreases by reducing gaseous
digestive system and write its function. exchange.
Ans. Enzymes are biological catalysts. Catalysts are
proteins that increase the rate of chemical reactions A Short Answer
without being used up.
For example: Amylase catalyses the breakdown of
starch into sugars in the mouth and small intestine. 27. (a) Explain the process of nutrition in Amoeba.
(b) If you chew chapatti for long after some time

23. Patients whose gall bladder are removed are
it taste sweet? Why is this so? [DoE]
recommended to eat less oily food. Why?
Ans. (a) The various steps of nutrition are ingestion,
digestion, assimilation and egestion. When
Ans. Gall bladder stores bile which helps in emulsification
Amoeba comes in contact with food particles,
of lipids. (1 Mark)
it sends out pseudopodia, which engulfs the
prey by forming a food cup, which is known
Life Processes 135
as ingestion. When the tips of the encircling pulp of the tooth, causing inflammation and
pseudopodia touch each other, the food is infection of the tooth.
encaptured into a bag called food vacuole. The 31. (a) What are enzymes? Name any one enzyme of
food vacuole serves as a temporary stomach our digestive system and write its function.
secreting digestive juice, this step is known as (b) Explain the cause of cramps after excessive
digestion. The digested food gets absorbed and physical exercise. [DoE]
diffuses into the cytoplasm and then assimilated. Ans. (a) Enzymes are biological catalysts, which increase
Egestion of undigested food takes place at any the rate of chemical reactions without being used
point on the surface of the body. up.
(b) Chapatti contains starch which is converted to For example: Salivary amylase catalyses the
simple sugar by the action of enzyme salivary breakdown of starch into sugars in the mouth
amylase. The salivary glands help in chemical and small intestine
digestion by secreting enzyme. (b) During excessive physical exercise, most of our
28. (a) 1 ml of dilute starch solution (1% starch energy in our muscles is produced by aerobic
solution) is taken in test tube and 1 ml of respiration. Anaerobic respiration in muscles
saliva is added to it. After keeping the mixture provide only some extra energy which is needed
for an hour, few drops of iodine solution are under excessive physical exercise. The anaerobic
added to the test tube. Is there any change respiration breakdown glucose into lactic acid.
in the colour of the test tube? What does this This lactic acid accumulates in the muscle. This
tell you about the action of saliva on starch? accumulation of lactic acid in this muscles cause
(b) How would digestion of food be affected if muscle cramps.
the bile duct is completely blocked? Explain. 32. In human alimentary canal, name the site of
[HOTS] complete digestion of various components of food.
Ans. (a) There is no change in colour when iodine Explain the process of digestion. [CBSE 2012]
solution is added to the test tube. Saliva had Ans. In small intestine, complete digestion of various
broken down starch into simple sugar which components of food take place.
does not react with iodine solution to produce The process of digestion of food in mouth, stomach
any colour. and small intestine in human body are as follows:
(b) If the bile duct is completely blocked, bile Mouth: Digestion of food begins in the mouth.
juice will not reach the small intestine and the Saliva present in mouth contains a digestive enzyme,
digestion of fats will be affected. called salivary amylase, which breaks down starch
29. (a) Where are salivary glands situated in man? into sugar.
What are their functions? Stomach: Stomach stores and mixes the food
(b) Name the first digestive organ that is received from the oesophagus with gastric juices. The
associated with the breakdown of proteins main components of gastric juice are hydrochloric
in humans. What are its three releases? acid, mucus and pepsin.
Ans. (a) Salivary glands are situated in the mouth of man 33. State the role of the following in human digestive
and contains starch-digestive enzymes. system:
Salivary glands secrete saliva which helps to (a) Digestive enzymes
lubricate the food for swallowing and helps in (b) Hydrochloric acid [KVS]
digestion of starch. (c) Villi [CBSE 2015, KVS]
(b) The first digestive organ in humans is the Ans. (a) Digestive enzymes digest the food we eat.
stomach. It releases are enzymes, HCl and (b) Hydrochloric acid creates an acidic medium to
mucus. facilitate the action of enzyme pepsin.
30. (a) Write the functions of large intestine in man. (c) Villi increases the surface area inside the small
(b) What is dental caries? What are its adverse intestine to facilitate absorption of food.
effect? 34. (a) How does Paramecium obtain its food?
Ans. (a) The walls of large intestine absorbs water and (b) List the role of each of the following in our
electrolytes from the undigested food and forms digestive system:
and stores faeces. (i) Hydrochloric acid
(b) It is the tooth decay which involves destruction of (ii) Trypsin
the enamel layer of the tooth by acids produced (iii) Muscular walls of stomach
by the action of bacteria on sugar. If dental caries (iv) Salivary amylase [CBSE 2023]
is not treated, it can spread to the dentine and
Ans. (a) In Paramecium the cell has a definite shape Ans. The leaves of a healthy plant coated with vaseline
and food is taken in at a specific spot. Food is would not stay healthy because vaseline coating
moved to this spot by the movement of cilia will block the stomata. In the plant, there will be
which cover the entire surface of the cell. no intake of carbon dioxide from the surrounding
(b) (i) The hydrochloric acid creates an acidic to carry out the process of photosynthesis because
medium in stomach which facilitates the the pores of stomata are blocked by the vaseline.
action of protein digesting enzyme pepsin.
(ii) Trypsin enzyme is secreted by pancreas A Long Answer
for digesting proteins.
(iii) Muscular walls of stomach contract 38. (a) Name the process and explain the type of
periodically and help in the churning and nutrition found in green plants. List the raw
mixing of food with the digestive enzymes materials required for this process. Give
and HCl acid. chemical equation for the mentioned process.
(iv) Salivary amylase enzyme is present in (b) Write three events that occur during this
saliva and it breaks down starch which is process. [CBSE 2018C]
a complex sugar to give simple sugar. Ans. (a) – Photosynthesis is the process.
35. What are stomata? Draw a labelled diagram of – Green plants show autotrophic nutrition.
stomata. Write any two functions of stomata. [KVS] – The raw materials required for photosynthesis
Ans. Stomata are pores regulated by two chloroplast are carbon dioxide and water and energy in
containing guard cells that occur in the epidermis the form of sunlight.
of leaves. – The equation is as follows:
Chorophyll
6CO2 + 12H2O → Sunlight
C6H12O6 + 6O2
Guard cell Glucose

+ 6H2O
(b) The three events in photosynthesis are
Stomatal pore
(i) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll.
Chloroplast (ii) Conversion of light energy to chemical
Stomata
energy and spliting of water molecules
Functions of stomata into hydrogen and oxygen.
– Exchange of gases (iii) R e d u c t i o n o f c a r b o n d i o x i d e t o
– Transpiration. carbohydrates.
36. Complete the following flow chart as per the given 39. Define heterotrophic nutrition. What are the
instructions. [KVS]
various types of heterotrophic nutrition? Give
examples of each.
Gastric glands present in the wall of stomach.
Ans. Heterotrophic Nutrition: The type of nutrition in
Secretions which organisms derive their food (nutrients) from
other living organisms. In heterotrophic nutrition, the
(a) (b) (c) energy is derived from the intake and digestion of the
organic substances, normally of plant or animal tissue.
Function Function Function Heterotrophic mode of nutrition are of different types:
(d) (e) (f) (i) Saprotrophic Nutrition: It refers to the
mode of nutrition in which organisms obtain
Ans. (a) Pepsin
nutrients from the dead and decaying organic
(b) HCl (Hydrochloric acid)
matter, e.g., fungi, yeast and bacteria are called
(c) Mucus
saprophytes.
(d) The main function of pepsin is to digest proteins.
(ii) Parasitic Nutrition: It refers to the mode
(e) The main function of HCl is to create an acidic
of obtaining food synthesised by others. The
environment, kill microbes and activate inactive
organism which obtains food is called the
pepsinogen into an active form.
‘parasite’ and the organism from which food
(f) Mucus protects the wall of the stomach from
is absorbed is called the ‘host’. This nutrition
the acidic effect of acid.
is observed in fungi, bacteria, a few plants like
37. Leaves of a healthy potted plant were coated with Cuscuta and some animals like Plasmodium
vaseline. Will this plant remain healthy for long? and roundworm.
Give reasons for your answer. [KVS]
Life Processes 137
(iii) Holozoic Nutrition: It refers to the mode of (i) Light energy is absorbed by chlorophyll.
nutrition in which the complex organic matter (ii) Light energy is converted to chemical
in the form of solid food is ingested, digested energy and water molecules are split into
and then absorbed into the cells and utilised, hydrogen and oxygen.
e.g., Amoeba, frog, human beings. (iii) Carbon dioxide is then reduced to
40. Describe an experiment to show that “sunlight is carbohydrate.
essential for photosynthesis.” Oxygen gas is produced due to the splitting up
Ans. Sunlight is essential for Photosynthesis: A healthy of water molecules as follows:
green potted plant is placed in a dark room for 1-2 2H2O → 4H+ + 4e– + O2
days. This is done to ensure that the plant consumes This is the first phase of photosynthesis which
all its reserve food and the leaves do not contain any is called light reaction. In second phase which is
starch. Both sides of a green leaf is covered with called dark reaction, carbon dioxide is reduced
two uniform pieces of black paper and then fix the to carbohydrate in a metabolic pathway known
cover in position with two paper clips. as the Calvin cycle
(b) (i) Stomata: The tiny pores present on the
epidermal surface of the leaves are called
stomata.
(ii) The opening and closing of the pore is a
function of the guard cells. The guard cells
swell when water flows into them causing
the stomatal pore to open. Similarly, the
pore closes if the guard cells shrink. As
large amount of water is lost through these
stomata, the plant closes these pores when
it does not require carbon dioxide for
photosynthesis.
(iii)
Now, the plant is exposed to bright light.

After few hours, the leaf is removed and it is
decolourised with alcohol. Now, the presence of
food (starch) is tested by putting iodine solution
on the leaf. It can be observed that the covered
portion of the leaf does not show any presence
of starch (food).
This is because plants store the food prepared by
42. (a) Draw a diagram of human alimentary canal
the process of photosynthesis as starch. Starch
and label – gall bladder, pancreas, liver and
reacts with iodine solution to give blue-black
small intestine on it.
colour. In this experiment, only those portions
(b) Give two reasons to explain why absorption
of the leaf that were exposed to light could
of digested food occurs mainly in the small
photosynthesise. Hence, the uncovered portion
intestine. [CBSE 2020]
of the leaf gives blue-black colour when tested
with iodine. The covered portion does not change Ans. (a)
its colour when treated with iodine solution.
Thus, it can be concluded that the sunlight is
essential for photosynthesis.
41. (a) A gas is released during photosynthesis. Name Gall bladder
the gas and also state the way by which the (stores bile)
gas is evolved.
(b) What are stomata? What governs the opening Liver Small
and closing of stomata? [CBSE 2020] Pancreas intestine
Ans. (a) Oxygen(O2) gas is released during the process
of photosynthesis. The following events occur
during the process of photosynthesis:
(b) The two reasons to explain why absorption of that causes emulsification of fats and the
digested food occurs mainly in the small intestine pancreas produces pancreatic juice for
digesting proteins and emulsified fats. This
are : digested food is finally absorbed through
(i) Small intestine is the site of complete the intestinal walls.
digestion of carbohydrates, proteins and (ii) Villi are finger-like projections in the
fats. Small intestine produces intestinal
small intestine. They help to increase the
juice from the glands present on its
surface area for absorption of the digested
wall. The intestinal juice helps in further
food. Villi are richly supplied with blood
digestion of food. Small intestine also
obtains digestive juices from liver and vessel which help to absorb digested food
pancreas. The liver produces bile juice into the blood stream.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Amoeba shows the following kind of nutrition–
(a) Autotrophic
(b) Holozoic
(c) Saprotrophic
(d) Parasitic [KVS]
2. Which of the following organisms have parasitic
mode of nutrition?
(a) Penicillium (b) Plasmodium
(c) Paramecium (d) Rhizobium [KVS]
3. Why leaves become yellow in the absence of light? (a) (b)
4. Bile juice does not contain any digestive enzymes, (a) Name the atmospheric gas which is essential
yet it is essential for digestion, why so? Explain. for photosynthesis.
5. Name two proteases in pancreatic juice. What are (b) What is kept in watch-glass in figure ‘a’ and
their specific roles? why?
(c) Write the balanced chemical equation for the
6. (a) Which enzyme initiates the digestion of process of photosynthesis.
proteins ? Name the other enzyme produced (d) When do the desert plants takeup carbon dioxide
by the same gland. and perform photosynthesis? [CBSE 2015]
(b) How would the digestion of proteins and 8. Name the main organs of the human digestive
carbohydrates be affected if the pancreatic duct system in the order they participate in the process of
is completely blocked? [HOTS]
digestion. Describe how digestion of carbohydrates
7. Given below is the experimental set-up to establish and proteins take place in our body. [HOTS]
that one of the atmospheric gases is essential for
photosynthesis in plants.
TOPIC COVERED
Respiration
(c) Lactic acid + Alcohol
Multiple Choice (d) Carbon dioxide + Lactic acid [CBSE 2021]
Questions 1 Mark 2. The fermentation of glucose by yeast normally
yields
1. In living organisms during respiration which of (a) alcohol, CO2 and 36 ATP
the following products are not formed if oxygen (b) CO2, H2O and 36 ATP
is not available? (c) alcohol, CO2 and 2ATP
(a) Carbon dioxide + Water (d) lactic acid, CO2 and 2 ATP
(b) Carbon dioxide + Alcohol
Life Processes 139
3. A large quantity of one of the following is removed Answers
from our body by lungs:
(a) CO2 and H2O (b) CO2 only 1. (a) In absence of oxygen, in our muscle cells lactic
(c) H2O only (d) ammonia acid is formed.
4. In respiration, air passes through 2. (c)
(a) Pharynx → nasal cavity → larynx → trachea 3. (a)
→ bronchi → bronchioles 4. (b)
(b) Nasal cavity → pharynx → larynx → trachea 5. (c)
→ bronchi → bronchioles 6. (b)
(c) Larynx → nasal cavity → pharynx → trachea 7. (b) Anaerobic respiration in human muscle cells
(d) Larynx → pharynx → trachea → lungs produces lactic acid and energy. In yeast,
5. A biochemical compound that readily combines anaerobic respiration produces ethanol, carbon
with oxygen and distributes it throughout the dioxide and energy.
human body is 8. (a) The equation of fermentation is
(a) water (b) urea Absence of O
C6H12O6 → 2
2C2H5OH + 2CO2
(c) haemoglobin (d) acetylcholine
+ Energy
6. Observe the experimental setup shown below. The equation of aerobic respiration is
Name the chemical indicated as ‘X’ that can C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
absorb the gas which is evolved as a byproduct
of respiration.
V S A Very Short Answer
9. Name two animals having cutaneous respiration.
Bell Jar What special features of the skin make cutaneous
respiration effective?
X Ans. Frog and earthworm have cutaneous respiration.
This respiration is effective because of presence of
features like thin, moist and highly vascular skin
which is also highly permeable to gases.
(a) NaOH (b) KOH 10. How are inspiration and expiration brought about
(c) Ca(OH)2 (d) K2CO3 in human beings?
7. Which row in the table below shows the correct Ans. Inspiration is brought about by contraction of
products of anaerobic respiration in humans and diaphragm muscles and some intercostal muscles.
in yeast? [CFPQ, CBSE] The diaphragm moves downward and the intercostal
muscles move the lateral walls of thorax outward
humans humans yeast yeast
and upward. The volume of thorax increases and
lactic carbon lactic carbon the air pressure is decreased. So, air is drawn into
acid dioxide acid dioxide the lungs.
(a) 7 3 7 7 Expiration is brought about when the contracted
(b) 3 7 7 3 muscles of diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax,
(c) 7 3 3 7 the diaphragm moves upward and the lateral walls,
move inward and downward. This decreases the
(d) 3 3 3 7
volume of thorax and increases the air pressure. So,
8. Read the following statements. air is sent out of lungs.
X: Amount of carbon dioxide produced per
11. If one holds his breath after expiration for about
molecule of glucose during aerobic respiration.
30 sec., would there still be occurring any
Y: Amount of carbon dioxide produced per
exchange of respiratory gases in the lungs during
molecule of glucose during fermentation by
this period? Explain.
yeast.
Ans. The exchange of gases will continue. Even after
Which of the following is TRUE about X and
forceful expiration, some volume of air remains in
Y? [CFPQ, CBSE]
the lungs, which is called residual volume. Exchange
(a) X is more than Y. (b) X is less than Y.
of gases continues because of this air.
(c) X is equal to Y. (d) Cannot be determined.
12. Arthropods and molluscs have a copper-containing cells when stomata is open and carbon dioxide
respiratory pigment called hemocyanin while diffuses out of the leaves through it.
human beings have iron-containing hemoglobin. (b)
(a) How do respiratory pigments help in the Guard cell
process of respiration?
(b) Why do multicellular animals need a
respiratory pigments? [CFPQ, CBSE]
Stomatal pore
Ans. (a) Respiratory pigments combine with oxygen and
help in transport of oxygen throughout the body. Chloroplast
(b) When the body size of animals is large, (A) (B)
diffusion pressure alone cannot take care Showing Opening (A) and Closing (B) of Stoma
of oxygen delivery to all parts of the body.
Hence,respiratory pigments take up oxygen from 14. (a) Why do the walls of a trachea not collapse
the air in the lungs and carry it to tissues which when there is less air in it?[CBSE 2012] [HOTS]
are deficient in oxygen. (b) How are lungs designed in human beings to
maximise the area for exchange of gases?
A Short Answer Ans. (a) The walls of trachea does not collapse when
S Type Questions 3 Marks there is less air in it as it is supported by rings
13. (a) What are stomata? What is their role in of soft bones of cartilage.
respiration? (b) There are millions of alveoli in the lungs. There
(b) Draw a schematic diagram to show the alveolus provides a very large surface area for
opening and closing of stomata. the exchange of gases. The availability of large
Ans. (a) Stomata are tiny openings found on the surface surface area maximises the exchange of gases.
of the leaves. Stomata functions in gaseous For example, if all the alveoli from the two
exchange between the plant and the atmosphere. human lungs are unfolded, they would give an
The oxygen from the air diffuses inside the leaf area of about 80 square meters.
15. Explain the process of breakdown of glucose in a cell
(a) in the presence of oxygen, (b) in the absence of oxygen. [DoE, HOTS]
Ans. Glucose can breakdown in three different ways. The process of breakdown of glucose in a cell are as follows:
The first step in the breakdown of glucose both in presence of O2 and in absence of O2 is same.
In this step, glucose is broken down into pyruvate.
(a) In presence of O2: In presence of O2, pyruvate is converted into CO2 and water. Energy released during
aerobic respiration is much greater than that released during an anaerobic respiration.
(b) In absence of O2: In absence of O2 in yeast, pyruvate is converted into ethanol and CO2 and the process is
called fermentation.
When there is a lack of O2, anaerobic respiration takes place in our muscle cells, pyruvate is converted
into lactic acid. The build up of lactic acid in muscle cells causes painful contractions of muscles which are
called cramps.
A Long Answer (c) Name the balloon likes structures present in
L Type Questions 5 Marks lungs. List its two functions.
(d) Name the respiratory pigment and write its
16. (a) Write the reaction that occurs when glucose role in human beings. [CBSE 2018C]
breaks down anaerobically in yeast. Ans. (a) Glucose →
In the
Pyruvate →
In the
Ethanol
(b) Write the mechanism by which fishes breath Cytoplasm Cytoplasm
in water. + carbon dioxide + Energy.
Life Processes 141
(b) Fishes breathe with gills by diffusion. (b)
(c) Alveoli are the balloon-like structures.
– They provide a surface for exchange of gases. Trachea
– They contains a residual volume of air so that
Pharynx
there is sufficient time for exchange of gases.
(d) Haemoglobin is the respiratory pigment in
humans. It transports a major part of oxygen and Lung
some amount of carbon dioxide through blood.
17. (a) Why is there a difference in the rate of Alveolar sac
breathing between aquatic organisms and
terrestrial organisms? Explain.
Diaphragm
(b) Draw a diagram of human respiratory
system and label – pharynx, trachea, lungs, Alveoli Respiratory
diaphragm and alveolar sac on it. [CBSE 2020] bronchioles
Ans. (a) Quantity of dissolved oxygen is fairly low in
water as compared to the amount of oxygen in
air. Aquatic organisms therefore have to breathe
faster than terrestrial organisms to absorb the
required amount of oxygen from the water.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. In humans, carbon dioxide that is excreted passes
from the blood directly into the Gills (I)
(a) trachea
(b) kidneys
Water flows
(c) alveoli in through
(d) liver mouth
2. Observe the diagram of an activity given below. What

does it help to conclude, when the person exhales Alveoli (II)
into the test-tube? [CBSE 2021]
(a) Both are placed internally in the body of animal.

(b) Both have thin and moist surface for gaseous
Lime
water
exchange.
(c) Both are poorly supplied with blood vessels to
conserve energy.
(a) Percentage of carbon dioxide is more in inhaled (d) In both the blood returns to the heart after being
air. oxygenated. [CBSE 2021]
(b) Fermentation occurs in the presence of oxygen. 4. With a schematic diagram, explain the overall process
(c) Percentage of carbon dioxide is more in the of respiration. [HOTS]
exhaled air.
5. Differentiate between left lung and right lung of
(d) Fermentation occurs in the presence of carbon
humans.
dioxide.
6. (a) Describe the mechanism of breathing in human
3. Respiratory structures of two different animals– a
beings.
fish and a human being are as shown.
(b) (i) Under normal conditions, what is the rate
Observe (I) and (II) and select one characteristic that
of breathing per minute?
holds true for both of them.
(ii) Why does the rate of breathing increase by
20 to 25 times during vigorous exercise?
[HOTS]
7. Explain the process by which inhalation occurs (a) Ethanol and carbon dioxide
during breathing in human beings. [HOTS] (b) Lactic acid
8. Complete the following: (c) Carbon dioxide and water [KVS]
Absence of Oxygen
a 9. Explain with a schematic representation the exchange
(in yeast) of gases in tissues. [HOTS]
In
cytoplasm Leak of Oxygen
Glucose Pyruvate b
(6-carbon (in our
(3-carbon
molecule) muscle cells)
molecule)
+ Presence of
energy Oxygen
c
(in mitochondria)
TOPIC COVERED
Transportation
(b) Sieve tubes and companion cells
Multiple Choice (c) Phloem parenchyma and companion cells
Questions 1 Mark (d) Phloem fibres and sieve tubes
2. In a closed circulatory system, blood is completely
1. Identify the two components of phloem tissue that enclosed within
help in transportation of food in plants. (a) vessels (b) heart
[CBSE 2021] (c) skeleton (d) sinuses
(a) Phloem parenchyma and sieve tubes
3. Which row of the table given below correctly gives the movement of gases across blood and cells? [CFPQ, CBSE]
Oxygen Carbon dioxide
from to process from to process
P RBC cells diffusion cells RBC osmosis
Q RBC cells osmosis cells plasma osmosis
R RBC cells osmosis cells RBC diffusion
S RBC cells diffusion cells RBC diffusion
(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S
4. The image shows oxygenated and deoxygenated (a) Towards the lungs.
blood in the human heart. (b) Towards the left atrium of heart.
From upper body
(c) Towards the upper body.
(d) Towards the lower body.
To lungs 5. The image shows the transport of gases in the
To lungs body through heart and lungs.
From lungs Lungs
From lungs Left atrium
Right atrium
Right Pulmonary Pulmonary

Left
ventricle artery vein
ventricle
From lower body Left atrium
Right atrium
Oxygenated blood Right ventricle Left ventricle
Deoxygenated blood
What is the direction of deoxygenated blood from Venacava
right atrium of the heart? [CBSE T.E.R.M.*]
*Teacher Energised Resource Manuals Blood vessels
Life Processes 143
Which option correctly shows the transport of
oxygen to the cell? [CBSE T.E.R.M.*]
Water vapour
(a) Lungs → pulmonary vein → left atrium → left
ventricle → aorta → body cells
Leaf
(b) Lungs → pulmonary vein → right atrium →
right ventricle → aorta → body cells
(c) Lungs → pulmonary artery → left atrium →
left ventricle → vena cava → body cells
(d) Lungs → pulmonary artery → right atrium →
right ventricle → vena cava → body cells
6. The process in which loss of water takes place
in the form of water vapour through stomata is Water
called
(a) Evaporation: maintains water contents in leaf
(a) transportation (b) transpiration
cells.
(c) guttation (d) translocation
(b) Transpiration: creates a suction force which pulls
7. In a closed circulatory system, blood is completely water inside the plant.
enclosed within (c) Excretion: helps in excreting out waste water
(a) vessels (b) heart from the plant.
(c) skeleton (d) sinuses (d) Translocation: helps in transporting materials
8. Normal blood pressure (systolic/diastolic) is from one cell to another.
(a) 120/80 mm of Hg
(b) 160/80 mm of Hg Answers
(c) 120/60 mm of Hg
(d) 180/80 mm of Hg 1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a)
9. Blood pressure is measured by an instrument 5. (a)
called 6. (b) Transpiration is the loss of water in the form of
(a) barometer vapours through the leaves of the plants.
(b) sphygmomanometer 7. (b) Blood is completely enclosed within blood
(c) photometer vessels in closed circulatory system.
(d) manometer 8. (a) Normal blood pressure is 120/80 mm of Hg
10. Observe the following diagram and identify the 9. (b) Sphygmomanometer is an instrument used to
process and its significance from the following measure blood pressure.
options: [CBSE 2023] 10. (b)

11. Name the water and mineral conducting element of non-flowering plants. Mention how conduction takes
place in it.
Ans. Tracheids are the conducting cells of non-flowering plants. They are long, thin, spindle-shaped cells having
pits in their thick cell walls. In them, water flows from one tracheid to other through these pits.
12. Write down any two differences between the transport of materials in xylem and phloem. [KVS]
Ans. Xylem Phloem
– Xylem conducts water and dissolved minerals from – Phloem conducts prepared food material from leaves
roots to leaves and other parts. to other parts of plant in dissolved form.
– In xylem, the transport of material takes place – In phloem, transport of material takes place through
through vessels and tracheids which are dead tissues. sieve tubes with the help of companion cells, which
are living cells.
13. A major portion of the carbohydrates produced by plants is stored in different parts of the plant (storage
organs). Explain the mechanism by which this stored food is made available when different organs need
it for growth. [CFPQ, CBSE]
Ans. Sugar from storage organ is moved to phloem using energy. This increases osmotic pressure of phloem.
As a result water enters into the phloem. Increased pressure inside the phloem cells moves sugar to cells with
lower pressure to reach other organs.
A Short Answer
14. Mention the three kinds of cells present in blood. Write one function of each. [CBSE 2016]
Ans. Blood is made up of plasma and corpuscles. Three kind of cells are:
WBC, RBC and Blood platelets.
Red Blood cells (RBC) are small, biconcave cells that contain haemoglobin to transport O2 from the lungs to the
body cells and CO2 from body cells to the lungs.
White blood cell’s (WBC) main function is defence of the body against diseases and other infection.
Blood platelets are responsible for the clotting of blood during injuries.
15. List the three kinds of blood vessels of human circulatory system and write their functions in tabular form.
[CBSE 2013]
Or
Write three types of blood vessels. Give one important feature of each. [Delhi 2019]
Ans. Three types of blood vessels in human circulatory system are -Arteries, Veins and Capillaries. Their functions
are tabulated below:
Arteries Veins Capillaries
(i) Arteries carry oxygenated (i) Veins carry deoxygenated (i) Exchange of materials between blood and
blood from heart to various blood from various organs to surrounding cells take place in the capillaries.
organs of the body. heart.
(ii) They are thick walled. (ii) They are thin walled. (ii) They are thin walled and extremely narrow tubes
or blood vessels which connect arteries to veins.
16. Draw a diagram of the front view of human heart Ans. (a) 1. Pulmonary artery to lungs
and label any six parts including at least two, that 2. Lung capillaries
are concerned with arterial blood supply to the 3. Pulmonary vein from lungs
heart muscles. 4. Aorta to body
Ans. Vena Cava Aorta 5. Capillaries in body organs
from upper
Pulmonary 6. Vena cava from body. (any four)
arteries
body
Pulmonary
(b) The two functions represented are :
Right atrium veins (i) Transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide
Vena Cava Left atrium (ii) Exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide
from lower 18. Write one function of each of the following
body components of the transport system in human
Right ventricle
Septum Left ventricle beings:
(dividing wall) (a) Blood vessels
External Structure of Human Heart (b) Lymph
(c) Heart [CBSE 2016]
17. (a) Label any 4 parts in the given diagram. Ans. Function of the following components of the transport
(b) What are the two functions represented in system in human beings are as follows:
this diagram? [HOTS]
(a) Blood vessels: There are three types of blood
vessels of different sizes involved in blood
circulation viz. arteries, veins and capillaries,
which are all connected to form a continuous
closed system.
(b) Lymph: It carries digested and absorbed fat
from intestine and drains excess fluid from extra
cellular space back into the blood.
(c) Heart: It is a pumping organ that receives blood
from the veins and pumps it into the arteries.
Life Processes 145
19. What is blood pressure? How it is measured ? to pass to the body. During second circulation
Give one difference between systolic pressure and deoxygenated blood from body comes to right
diastolic pressure. [HOTS] atrium and then right ventricle to pass for
Ans. Blood Pressure: It is the force that blood exerts oxygenation to the lungs again.
against the wall of a vessel. This pressure is much Double circulation allows for separation of
greater in arteries than in veins. oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in the
It is measured by using an instrument called body.
sphygmomanometer. (b) (i) Pulmonary vein (ii) Pulmonary artery
The pressure of blood inside artery during contraction
or ventricular systole is called systolic pressure and A Long Answer
pressure in artery during relaxation or ventricular
diastole is called diastolic pressure. The normal 23. (a) Mention any two components of blood.
systolic pressure is about 120 mm of Hg and diastolic (b) Trace the movement of oxygenated blood in
pressure is 80 mm of Hg. the body.
20. (a) What is double circulation? (c) Write the function of valves present in
(b) Why is the separation of the right side and between atria and ventricles.
the left side of the heart useful? How does it (d) Write one structural difference between the
help birds and mammals? [CBSE 2023] composition of artery and veins.
Ans. (a) The circulatory system of man is called double [CBSE 2018, KVS]
circulation as the blood passes through the heart Ans. (a) Blood is composed of plasma and three types
twice in one complete cycle of the body. of cells–Red blood cells, white blood cells and
(b) The right side and the left side of the human platelets.
heart are useful to prevent deoxygenated and (b) – Oxygenated blood from the lungs is brought
oxygenated blood from mixing. This type of to the left atrium by pulmonary veins.
separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated – When the atrium contracts, blood is
blood ensures a highly efficient supply of oxygen transferred to left ventricle.
to the body. This is useful in case of birds and – When the ventricle contracts, blood is
mammals because it constantly gives energy to pushed into the aorta and through arteries
maintain their body temperature. to all parts of the body.
21. How is lymph an important fluid involved (c) The valves prevent the backflow of blood from
in transportation? If lymphatic vessels get ventricles into atria.
blocked, how would it affect the human body? (d) Arteries Veins
Elaborate. [CBSE Sample Paper 2023]
(i) They have thick (i) T h e y a r e t h i n
Ans. Lymph carries digested and absorbed fat from the
intestine (1 Mark) elastic walls. walled.
and drains excess fluid from extracellular space back (ii) T h e y h a v e n o (ii) They have valves
into the blood. (1 Mark) internal valves. internally.
Blockage of lymphatic system will lead to water 24. (a) Name the blood vessel that brings oxygenated
retention and poor fat absorption in the body. blood to the human heart.
(1 Mark) (b) Which chamber of human heart receives
[CBSE Marking Scheme] oxygenated blood?
22. Human beings exhibit ‘double circulation’ during (c) Explain how oxygenated blood from this
which blood is passed through the lungs and heart. chamber is sent to all parts of the body. [HOTS]
(a) State the route of the first and the second Ans. (a) The pulmonary vein brings oxygenated blood
circulation through the chambers of the heart to the human heart.
and explain the usefulness of such circulation (b) The left auricle of human heart receives
in humans. oxygenated blood.
(b) Name the blood vessels that: (c) (i) When oxygenated blood comes into the left
(i) carry oxygenated blood from the lungs atrium, it contracts and pours blood into left
to the heart. ventricle.
(ii) carry deoxygenated blood from the heart (ii) The left ventricle contracts and the
to the lungs. [CFPQ, CBSE] oxygenated blood from here is distributed
Ans. (a) During first circulation oxygenated blood from to all parts of the body through aorta.
lungs come to the left atrium to left ventricle
25. What is double circulation? What is its advantage? (ii) Transport of Carbon dioxide: Carbon dioxide
Show with labelled diagram. [KVS] produced by the tissues as a result of respiration
Ans. Double Circulation: A circulatory system in which is transported by the blood plasma and also by
blood flows twice through heart during each cycle. the haemoglobin to the lungs from where it is
This takes place in some vertebrates including human removed.
beings. In double circulation deoxygenated blood (iii) Transport of Nutrients: The digested and
reaches heart, then it is sent to lungs for oxygenation absorbed nutrients like glucose, amino acids,
and oxygenated blood is carried back again to the fatty acids, vitamins, etc. are first transported
heart. From the heart, oxygenated blood is passed to the liver and then to the whole of tissues for
to all body parts. their storage, oxidation and synthesis to new
substances.
(iv) Tr a n s p o r t o f E x c r e t o r y P r o d u c t s :
Nitrogenous wastes like ammonia, urea and
uric acid of body are transported to the kidneys
Vena Cava
by the blood from where they are eliminated.
Aorta (v) Regulation of Body Temperature: The blood
flows in all parts of the body, so it equalises
To body the body temperature. It carries heat produced
From body from one place to another place of the body.
(vi) Maintenance of pH: The plasma proteins act
as buffer system and maintain required pH of
the body tissues.
Vein Artery
(vii) Transport of Hormones: The plasma of blood
transports various hormones from one region
Schematic representation of transport and to another and brings about the co-ordination
exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. in the working of the body.
Advantage of double circulation: (viii) Water Balance: The blood maintains water
• It allows the separation of pure and impure blood balance at constant level by distributing
in the body. uniformly over the body.
• It helps in maintaining a high blood pressure (ix) Protection from Diseases: The WBCs
required for other life processes. (eosinophils, neutrophils, monocytes) engulf
the bacteria and other disease causing
26. Explain the various functions of blood. [HOTS]
organisms by phagocytosis. The lymphocytes
Ans. Functions of Blood — Blood performs the following
produce antibodies against the invading
functions :
antigens.
(i) Transport of Oxygen: Red blood corpuscles
(x) Clotting of Blood: Blood forms a clot at the
contain haemoglobin that combines with
site of injury, thus preventing further loss of
oxygen to form oxyhaemoglobin which is
blood. Blood helps in rapid healing of wounds.
transported to the tissues of the body for the
(any five)
purpose of respiration.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following has no muscular walls? 3. Give a schematic diagram to show absorption of
(a) Artery water through root hairs.
(b) Vein 4. Differentiate between lymphatic capillaries and blood
(c) Arteriole capillaries.
(d) Capillary
5. Draw a sieve tube and label the various parts. Name
2. Which of the following contributes most to the the dead elements of the phloem.
transport of water from the ground to the leaves of
6. (a) Name the blood vessel that brings deoxygenated
a tall tree?
blood to the human heart.
(a) Root pressure
(b) Which chamber of the human heart receives
(b) Capillary rise of water in xylem
deoxygenated blood?
(c) Breakdown of ATP
(c) Describe how deoxygenated blood from this
(d) Cohesion of water and transpiration pull
chamber is sent to lungs for oxygenation. [HOTS]
Life Processes 147
7. (a) Draw a schematic representation of transport
(b) What is the advantage of separate chambers
and exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in mammals and birds for oxygenated and
during transportation of blood in human beings deoxygenated blood? [HOTS]
and label on it:
Lung capillaries, Pulmonary artery to lungs,
Aorta to body, Pulmonary veins from lungs.
[CBSE 2014]
TOPIC COVERED
Excretion
Which row of the following table correctly shows
Multiple Choice where filtration and selective reabsorption occur?
Questions 1 Mark [CFPQ, CBSE]
Filtration Selective
1. Which of the following statement is not correct? reabsorption
(a) Deoxygenated blood is poured into right atrium (a) P Q
of heart.
(b) Q S
(b) The excretory units of flatworms are flame cells.
(c) Q R
(c) Human kidney has about 1 million nephridia.
(d) Tracheids and vessels are non-living conducting (d) P R
tissues. 4. Nitrogenous wastes are formed from the
2. The image shows the excretory system in humans. breakdown of
(a) fat (b) water
(c) amino acids (d) ammonia
5. A plant gets rid of excess water through
transpiration. Which is a method used by plants
to get rid of solid waste products? [CBSE T.E.R.M.*]
(a) Shortening of stem
X
(b) Dropping down of fruits
(c) Shedding of yellow leaves
(d) Expansion of roots into the soil
What is the importance of the labelled part in
excretory system? Answers
(a) It produces urine.
(b) It filters waste from the blood. 1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (c)
(c) It stores the urine till urination. 5. (c)
(d) It carries urine from kidney to outside.
3. Given below is a diagram of a nephron. V S A Very Short Answer
P Type Questions 2 Marks
Q
6. Write one specific function each of the following
organs in relation with excretion in human beings:
(i) Renal Artery (ii) Urethra
(iii) Glomerulus
(iv) Tubular part of nephron [CBSE 2023]
R
Ans. (i) To carry blood from the heart to kidneys.
(ii) To expel urine out of the body.
S
(iii) To filter the blood passing through it and initiate
urine formation.
(iv) Major function of tubules is reabsorption. Also,
tubular secretion helps in urine formation without
*Teacher Energised Resource Manuals affecting the electrolyte balance of the body.
7. (a) Name two excretory products other than O2 ● The nitrogenous waste such as urea or uric acid
and CO2 in plants. are removed from blood in the kidneys.
(b) Why is urine yellow in colour? ● Each capillary cluster in the kidney is associated
Ans. (a) The two excretory products other than O2 and with the cup-shaped end of a tube that collects
CO2 in plants are resins and gums. the filtered urine.
(b) Urine contains pigment urochrome. Which ● Each kidney has large numbers of these filtration
imparts yellow colour. units called nephrons.
8. Name the substances other than water, that are ● Some substances in the initial filtrate such as
reabsorbed during urine formation. What are the glucose, amino acids, salts and a major amount
two parameters that decide the amount of water of water are selectively reabsorbed as the urine
that is reabsorbed in the kidney? flows along the tube. This depends on how much
[CBSE Sample Paper 2023] excess water is there in the body and on how
Ans. Glucose, amino acids, salts (any two) much of dissolved waste is there to be excreted.
(1/2 Mark each) ● The urine forming in each kidney enters a long
tube, the ureter, which connects the kidneys with
and a major amount of water are selectively
the urinary bladder.
reabsorbed as the urine flows along the tube.
● Urine is stored in the urinary bladder until the
The amount of water reabsorbed depends on how pressure of the expanded bladder leads to pass
much excess water there is in the body (1/2 Mark) out through the urethra.
and on how much of dissolved waste there is to be 11. Explain the process of dialysis with the help of a
excreted. (1/2 Mark) diagram.
Ans. It is the procedure used in artificial kidney to replace
a non-functional or damaged kidney. In the process,
A Short Answer blood of the patient is allowed to pass through the
S Type Questions 3 Marks long cellulose tubes dipped in a tank containing
dialysing solution having same ionic concentration
9. Describe in brief the functions of kidneys, ureters,
as plasma. The waste substances diffuse out of blood
urinary bladder and urethra.
into the tank and the cleansed blood is returned back
Ans. Functions of Kidneys
into the patient through a vein.
It removes the nitrogenous wastes such as urea and Line from
excess water from the blood. It regulates the osmotic artery to pump Tubing made of a
pressure/water balance/pH of the blood. selectively permeable
membrane
Functions of Ureters
Urine formed in each kidney is carried by the long
tube called ureter to the urinary bladder. Some
amount of glucose, amino acid, salt and a major
amount of water are reabsorbed in ureter.
Functions of Urinary bladder
It acts as a reservoir that stores urine before being Dialysing
discharged to the outside. Line from solution
Functions of Urethra apparatus to vein
Urine is passed out from the body through the urethra.
Fresh dialysing Used dialysing
10. How is urine produced? [KVS] solution solution
Ans. Formation of Urine. The purpose of urine is to filter (with urea and
out waste products from the blood. excess salts)
A Long Answer
12. (a) Define excretion.

(b) Name the basic filtration unit present in the kidney.
(c) Draw excretory system in human beings and label the following organs of the excretory system which
perform following functions:
(i) form urine.
(ii) is a long tube which collects urine from kidney.
(iii) store urine until it is passed out. [CBSE 2018]
Life Processes 149
Ans. (a) Excretion is the biological process of removal of harmful metabolic wastes from the body.
(b) Nephrons.
(c) (i) Kidney
(ii) Ureter
(iii) Urinary bladder
Kidney
Ureter
Urinary bladder
Excretory system in human beings
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. The process by which blood is cleared of metabolic 2. Differentiate between ureter and urethra.
wastes in case of kidney failure is called 3. (a) Name the organs that form the excretory system
(a) Artificial kidney in human beings.
(b) Dialysis (b) Describe in brief how urine is produced in human
(c) Transplantation body. [CBSE 2020]
(d) Filtration [KVS]

1. (a) What is a pulse? (3 Marks) 7. (a) What is ATP? What is its use?
(b) How does Paramoecium obtain its food? (b) How does smoking affect the health of a person?
2. (a) “The breathing cycle is rhythmic whereas (c) Describe the circulatory system on a fish.
exchange of gases is a continuous process”. (5 Marks)
Justify this statement. (3 Marks) 8. (a) Account for the following.
(b) What happens if conducting tubes of circulatory Amphibians or many reptiles have three
system develops a leak? State in brief, how could chambered hearts and can tolerate mixing of
this be avoided? oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.
(c) What is hypertension? How is it caused? What (b) Why are the walls of ventricles thicker than the
damage can it do in our body? auricles ? [HOTS]
(c) State two sources from which plants obtain
3. How does gaseous exchange take place in Amoeba?
nitrogen for the synthesis of proteins and other
(3 Marks)
compounds. (5 Marks)
4. In single celled organisms diffusion is sufficient to 9. (a) Write the difference between inhalation and
meet all their requirements of food, exchange of exhalation. [DoE]
gases or removal of wastes but it is not in case of (b) State the roles of liver and pancreas.
multicellular organisms. Explain the reason for this (c) Name the organ which performs the following
difference. [CBSE 2015] (3 Marks) functions in humans:
5. Distinguish between photosynthesis and respiration. (i) Absorption of digested food
(3 Marks) (ii) Absorption of water [HOTS] (5 Marks)
6. The leaves of a plant were covered with aluminium 10. (a) What are the function of lungs?
foil, how would it affect the physiology of the plant? (b) State the functions of the following components
[CBSE Sample Paper 2023] (3 Marks) of transport system: (5 Marks)
(i) Blood (ii) Lymph [KVS]
11. (a) Explain the mechanism of gaseous exchange
(c) How is carbon dioxide obtained by (i) aquatic
between tissues and blood. [HOTS] plants and (ii) terrestrial plants? (5 Marks)
(b) Describe the mechanism of blood clotting.
[HOTS]

In the following Questions, the Assertion and Reason Reason: Parasites obtain predigested or partially
have been put forward. Read the statements carefully digested food from their host.
and choose the correct alternative from the following: 10. Assertion: The stomata are present in the leaves and
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the green stems of a plant.
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. Reason: The gaseous exchange in plants takes place
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the only through the stomata in leaves.
11. Assertion: Chloroplasts are the organelles in the
cells of green plants which contain chlorophyll.
Reason: The site of photosynthesis in cell of the
is true.
leaf is chlorophyll.
1. Assertion: When air is blown through lime water,
12. Assertion: The process of obtaining food by Amoeba
lime water turns milky.
is phagocytosis.
Reason: Air contains 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen.
Reason: Amoeba ingests the food particles by
2. Assertion: Veins have thin walls to collect blood forming finger like projections called pseudopodia
from different organs. around it
Reason: Blood in veins are not under pressure.
13. Assertion: Due to the presence of hydrochloric acid,
3. Assertion: Human being has a complex respiratory the gastric juice is acidic in nature.
system. Reason: In acidic medium, the enzyme pepsin begins
Reason: Human skin is impermeable to gases. the digestion of proteins present in food the form
4. Assertion: All proteins in our food are digested in smaller molecules in small intestine.
small intestine only. 14. Assertion: The digested food which is not used by
Reason: The protein digesting enzymes are released our body immediately is stored in the liver in the
into small intestine and stomach. form of a carbohydrate starch.
5. Assertion: Nitrogen is an essential element for Reason: The stored food can be used as a source of
plant growth and is taken up by plants in the form energy by the body as and when required.
of inorganic nitrates or nitrites. 15. Assertion: The act of expelling the undigested food
Reason: The soil is the nearest and richest source from the large intestine is called excretion.
of raw materials like nitrogen, phosphorus and other Reason: The exit of undigested food is controlled
minerals for the plants. [CBSE 2021] by anal sphincter.
6. Assertion: Aerobic respiration release less energy 16. Assertion: Plants use oxygen of air for respiration
as compared to anaerobic respiration. and release carbon dioxide.
Reason: Mitochondria is the power house of the Reason: Oxygen and carbon dioxide are called
cell. [KVS] respiratory gases.
7. Assertion: Energy is required to carry out different 17. Assertion: The build up of lactic acid in our muscles
life processes. during sudden activity causes cramps.
Reason: Energy is obtained in the form of ATP in Reason: The anaerobic respiration in animal muscle
the mitochondria. [KVS] tissue produces lactic acid as the end produce.
8. Assertion: Molecular movements help in repair and 18. Assertion: The inner walls of the small intestine have
maintenance of cell organelles, cells and tissues. finger like projections called villi which are rich in
Reason: Molecular movements are involved in blood.
removal of catabolic products like CO2 and NH3. Reason: These villi have a large surface area to
9. Assertion: In parasitic nutrition, an organism lives help the small intestine in completing the digestion
on or inside another living organism and derives its of food. [CBSE 2023]
food.
Life Processes 151
The following questions are case-based with 2-3 short (a) Give one functional difference between kidney
sub-parts. and artificial kidney.
1. Three main regions of the small intestine are the (b) Name the duct by which urine is transferred
duodenum, the jejunum, and the ileum. The small from kidney to the urinary bladder.
intestine is where digestion is completed and virtually (c) What is an artificial kidney?
all absorption occurs. These two activities are Or
facilitated by structural adaptations that increase the (c) Name the process by which waste products from
mucosal surface area by 600-fold, including circular blood pass into dialysing fluid.
folds, villi, and microvilli. There are around 200 3. Respiratory disease causes an immense worldwide
million microvilli per square millimeter of small health burden. It is estimated that 235 million people
intestine, which contain brush border enzymes that suffer from asthma, more than 200 million people
complete the digestion of carbohydrates and proteins. have chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD),
Combined with pancreatic juice, intestinal juice 65 million endure moderate-to-severe COPD , more
provides the liquid medium needed to further digest than 100 million adult population experience sleep
and absorb substances from chyme large intestine. disordered breathing, 8.7 million people develop
The main regions of the large intestine are the tuberculosis (TB) annually, millions live with
cecum, the colon, and the rectum. The large intestine pulmonary hypertension and more than 50 million
absorbs water and forms feces, and is responsible people struggle with occupational lung diseases. At
for defecation. least 2 billion people are exposed to the toxic effects
(a) What is the function of large intestine? of biomass fuel consumption, 1 billion are exposed
(b) What controls the exit of waste material from to outdoor air pollution and 1 billion are exposed
intestine? to tobacco smoke. Each year, 4 million people die
(c) How is the area of absorption increased in small prematurely from chronic respiratory disease. Infants
intestine? and young children are particularly susceptible. Nine
Or million children under 5 years of age die annually and
(c) What are the enzymes secreted by pancreatic lung diseases are the most common causes of these
juice? deaths. Pneumonia is the world’s leading killer of
2. The figure shown below represents a common type young children. Asthma is the most common chronic
of dialysis called as Haemodialysis. It removes waste disease, affecting about 14% of children globally
products from the blood. Such as excess salts, and and is still rising. COPD is the fourth leading cause
urea which are insufficiently removed by the kidney of death worldwide and the numbers are growing.
in patients with kidney failure. During the procedure, The most common lethal cancer in the world is lung
the patients blood is cleaned by filtration through a cancer, which kills more than 1.4 million people each
series of semi-permeable membranes before being year, and the numbers are growing. Respiratory tract
returned to the blood of the patient. On the basis of infections caused by influenza kill 250 000–500 000
this, answer the following questions: people and cost 71–167 billion US dollars annually.
Line from Tubing made of a Respiratory infections are ranked as the greatest
artery to pump selectively permeable single contributor to the overall burden of disease
membrane
in the world.
(a) Write one difference between respiration in
plants and respiration in animals.
(b) Define cilia.
(c) How are lungs designed to maximize exchange
of gases?
Dialysing Or
Line from solution (c) ‘While breathing cycle is rhythmic, exchange
apparatus to vein of gases is a continuous process.’ Justify.
Fresh dialysing Used dialysing 4. The heart is a pumping organ that receives blood
solution solution from the veins and pumps it into the arteries. It is
situated in the thoracic cavity which lies above the 7. The glucose breakdown pathway in case of aerobic
diaphragm between the two lungs. It is enclosed in respiration is shown in the flow chart given below.
a double walled membraneous sac. In cytoplasm In absence of O2
Glucose A B
(a) Name the double walled membranous sac that
encloses the heart. In presence In
(b) What is the function of valves in the heart?
of O2 Mitochondria
(c) The left ventricle of the heart has a thicker wall
than the right ventricle. Explain.
Or CO2 + H2O + Energy
(c) Give two differences between auricles and (a) Identify A and B in the flow chart.
ventricles. (b) Give one point which is common for both aerobic
5. During photosynthesis, green plants synthesise and anaerobic respiration.
organic materials they require from inorganic source. (c) Why is anaerobic respiration less efficient?
Light is a source of energy for this synthesis. Or
(a) Mention the raw materials required for (c) State the basic difference between the process
photosynthesis. of respiration and photosynthesis.
(b) Where does photosynthesis mostly take place 8. Green plants are called the life supporters of the
in a plant? world as they synthesise food by using the sunlight
(c) Write the balanced chemical equation for the by the process of photosynthesis. The food prepared
process of photosynthesis. by green plants supports all other life on our planet
Or earth. The leaves are called kitchen of the plants.
(c) When do the desert plants take up carbon dioxide Water also plays an important role in plant life
and perform photosynthesis? processes like transpiration and photosynthesis.
(a) You must have seen the plants on the road side
6. Plants lose water in vapour form from the aerial are mostly covered with certain deposits like
parts by the process of transpiration. Besides removal dust and smoke. Mention three processes which
of excess water, transpiration also helps in upward may be hampered due to the dust and smoke on
movement of cell sap, to regulate temperature of the the leaves. Write a chemical reaction to show
plant and helps to absorb and distribute the salt. the process of photosynthesis.
(a) What is ascent of sap? (b) The food prepared by the leaves is transported to
(b) Name the vascular tissues which conduct water other parts of the plant. How is food transported
and translocate food. in plants?
(c) Write two difference(s) between transpiration Or
and translocation. (b) Name the elements of xylem which transport
Or water and minerals in the upward direction.
(c) Explain the mechanism of opening and closing Explain the mechanism of transport of water
of stomata. and minerals in plants.
NCERT ZONE

Page 81 2. What criteria do we use to decide whether
1. Why is diffusion insufficient to meet the oxygen something is alive?
requirements of multicellular organisms like Ans. If something shows any one of the following
humans? characteristics, then it is a living being:
Ans. In multicellular organisms, only the cells of skin are (i) It can move on its own.
in direct contact with the environment. Diffusion is (ii) It needs food to get energy and nutrients.
a very slow process and it will take very long time (iii) It respires.
to reach all the cells of the body part. Diffusion is (iv) It responds to changes that take place in its
insufficient to meet oxygen requirement. surroundings.
Life Processes 153
(v) It exhibits growth and development. 3. What is the role of the acid in our stomach? [DoE]
(vi) It removes its metabolic wastes. Ans. The acid found in our stomach is hydrochloric acid.
3. What are outside raw materials used for by an It helps to kill harmful germs which may have come
organism? along with food. Stomach acid activates the enzyme
Ans. All organisms take in oxygen,water and food as pepsin for digestion of protein.
raw material from the outside. As plants make their 4. What is the function of digestive enzymes?
own food by the process of photosynthesis and they Ans. The function of digestive enzyme is to speed up the
need carbon dioxide and water as raw material for process of breaking up of complex molecules into
photosynthesis. simpler and absorbable molecules so that it is easier
4. What processes would you consider essential for for the body to absorb food.
maintaining life? 5. How is the small intestine designed to absorb
Ans. Nutrition, respiration, transportation, excretion digested food?
are some processes that are essential for maintaining Ans. In the small intestine, the innermost layer is in
life. the shape of finger like projections known as villi.
Page 87 Several folds of villi increase the absorbing surface
area of small intestine. The blood capillaries in villi
1. What are the differences between autotrophic help to absorb simpler molecules from food.
nutrition and heterotrophic nutrition?
Page 91
Or
List in tabular form three distinguishing features 1. What advantage over an aquatic organism does a
between autotrophic nutrition and heterotrophic terrestrial organism have with regard to obtaining
nutrition. [Allahabad 2019] oxygen for respiration?
Ans. The amount of oxygen dissolved in water is very
Ans. Autotrophic nutrition Heterotrophic nutrition low as compared to the amount of oxygen present in
(a) Autotrophic nutri- (a) Heterotrophic nu- the air. Because of this, terrestrial organisms have to
tion implies that the trition implies that make less efforts for obtaining oxygen for respiration
organism prepares the organism is not than the aquatic organisms.
its own food and is able to prepare its 2. What are the different ways in which glucose is
not dependent on own food and is oxidised to provide energy in various organisms?
any other organism dependent on other Ans. There are two types of respiration for oxidisation of
for its food. organisms for its glucose.
(a) Aerobic respiration: In this process, complete
food.
oxidation of glucose is involved hence, optimum
(b) In autotrophic nutri- (b) I n h e t e r o t r o p h i c output of energy is achieved. This process takes
tion, organic mate- nutrition organic place in presence of oxygen.
rial is prepared from material cannot be (b) Anaerobic respiration: This process takes
inorganic materials prepared from inor- place in the absence of oxygen hence, complete
like carbon dioxide ganic materials like oxidation of glucose does not take place.
and water by uti- carbon dioxide and Usually, bacteria shows anaerobic respiration.
lizing the sunlight water. Even sometimes in our calf muscles, anaerobic
energy. respiration takes place.
(c) Green plants and cer- (c) Animals and non- 3. How is oxygen and carbon dioxide transported
tain bacteria perform green plants perform in human beings?
autotrophic mode of heterotrophic mode Ans. Oxygen and carbon dioxide are transported in human
nutrition. of nutrition. beings with a gas transportation system. This system
is mainly composed of following parts:
2. Where do plants get each of the raw materials Lungs: Lungs help in breathing in oxygen-rich air
required for photosynthesis? and breathing out carbon dioxide-rich air.
Ans. Raw material for Heart: Heart pumps deoxygenated blood to lungs
Source for oxygenation and pumps oxygenated blood to
photosynthesis
different organs of the body.
Carbon dioxide Atmosphere Veins: Veins usually carry deoxygenated blood from
Water Ground water different parts of the body to the heart. One exception
Solar energy Sun is the pulmonary vein which carries oxygenated
blood from lungs to heart.
Arteries: Arteries usually carry oxygenated blood 4. How are water and minerals transported in plants?
from heart to different parts of the body. One Ans. Mechanism of Transport of Water and Minerals in
exception is the pulmonary artery which carries a Plant
deoxygenated blood from heart to lungs. • The vessels and tracheids of roots, stems and
4. How are the lungs designed in human beings to leaves in xylem tissue are interconnected to form
maximise the area for exchange of gases? a continuous system of water-conducting channels
Ans. In the lungs, the air-passage divides into smaller reaching all parts of the plant.
tubes called bronchi which form bronchioles. The • The cells of the roots in contact with the soil
bronchioles terminate in balloon-like structures called actively take up ions which creates a difference in
alveoli. The alveoli present in the lungs provide the ion concentration between the root and the soil.
maximum surface for exchange of gases. The alveoli • Thus, there is steady movement of water into root
have very thin walls and contain an extensive network xylem from the soil, creating a column of water
of blood vessels to facilitate exchange of gases. that is pushed upwards.
• Plant uses another strategy to move water in the
Page 96 xylem upwards to the highest points of the plant
1. What are the components of the transport system body.
in human beings? What are the functions of these • The water which is lost through the stomata is
components? replaced by water from the xylem vessels in the
Ans. In human beings, for the transport of various leaf.
substances, a well-developed circulatory system is • Evaporation of water molecules from the cells of
present. Main components of circulatory system are a leaf creates a suction which pulls water from the
Heart, blood vessels and blood. xylem cells of roots.
Heart: It pumps the blood and circulate the blood • This loss of water is transpiration which helps in
in the whole body continuously. the absorption and upward movement of water and
Blood vessels: minerals dissolved in it from roots to the leaves.
Arteries are thick blood vessels which carry • Transpiration becomes the major driving force in
oxygenated blood from the heart to all the parts of movement of water in the xylem during the day
the body. when the stomata are open.
Veins are thin walled blood vessels which carry • This mechanism is also known as cohesion of
deoxygenated blood from all the parts of the body water theory or transpiration pull.
back to the heart. 5. How is food transported in plants?
Capillaries are thin and narrow blood vessels in Ans. In the plants, the food is transported through phloem to
which exchange of material between the blood and the storage organs like roots, fruits, seeds and growing
surrounding cells takes place. parts. This process is called translocation. In the
Blood: It acts as a connective tissue which transport phloem, sieve tubes are present, which with the help
food, oxygen, waste materials, hormones, etc. from of companion cells, translocate food both in upward
one part of the body to another. and downward directions. For the translocation,
2. Why is it necessary to separate oxygenated and energy is required which is provided by ATP.
deoxygenated blood in mammals and birds? Page 98
Ans. Mammals and birds are warm blooded animals. This 1. Describe the structure and functioning of nephron.
means they can control their body temperature and Ans. Structure of nephron:
they need not to depend on environment for body
temperature regulation. Because of this birds and
mammals need optimum oxidation of glucose which
is possible with good supply of oxygen without
mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.
3. What are the components of the transport system
in highly organised plants?
Ans. The main components of transport system in highly
organised plants are two conducting tissues called
xylem and phloem.
• Xylem consists of vessels and tracheids.
• Phloem consists of sieve tubes and companion
cells. Structure of a nephron
Life Processes 155
Each nephron is a long-coiled tubule whose one end they become useless. Plants have a mechanism to
is cup-shaped called Bowman’s capsule while its release some waste products through roots also. Some
other end connects to a urine collecting duct of the waste products are deposited near bark as raisins or
kidney. The Bowman’s capsule contains a bundle of gums.
blood capillaries which is called glomerulus. 3. How is the amount of urine produced regulated?
Function of nephron: Ans. The kidney is equipped with a mechanism to reabsorb
It is the functional unit of kidney. It filters uncleaned water from the filtrate. This depends on how much
blood so that waste substances can be removed from water is left in the body and in the filtrate. The
the blood. comparative concentration of water gives a signal
2. What are the methods used by plants to get rid to the brain which then takes the required corrective
of excretory products? [DoE] action of either reabsorbing water or releasing
Ans. Plants get rid of carbon dioxide and oxygen through more water. Thus, the amount of urine formation is
diffusion. Old branches and leaves are shed off when regulated by kidneys.
NCERT EXERCISES
1. The kidneys in human beings are a part of the (i) Bile salts break large globules into small
system for globules.
(a) nutrition. (b) respiration. (ii) Pancreatic juice secreted by pancreas has
(c) excretion. (d) transportation. enzyme lipase which breaks down emulsified
Ans. (c) Nitrogenous wastes such as urea are removed fats.
from blood in the kidneys. (iii) Enzymes secreted from the walls of small
2. The xylem in plants are responsible for intestine finally converts fats into fatty acids.
(a) transport of water. 6. What is the role of saliva in the digestion of food?
(b) transport of food. Ans. Saliva contains water, salts, mucin and an enzyme
(c) transport of amino acids. salivary amylase that breaks down starch present in
(d) transport of oxygen. the food into sugar.
Ans. (a) Xylem transports water and minerals from soil 7. What are the necessary conditions for autotrophic
to leaves. nutrition and what are its by-products?
3. The autotrophic mode of nutrition requires Ans. The necessary conditions for autotrophic nutrition
(a) carbon dioxide and water. are as follows:
(b) chlorophyll. (i) CO2 is necessary for photosynthesis.
(c) sunlight. (ii) Water is required.
(d) all of the above. (iii) Sunlight is necessary for photosynthesis.
Ans. (d) Autotrophic mode of nutrition requires carbon (iv) Chlorophyll is also essential for photosynthesis.
dioxide, water, chlorophyll and sunlight for Oxygen is liberated as a by-product.
photosynthesis. 8. What are the differences between aerobic and
4. The breakdown of pyruvate to give carbon anaerobic respiration? Name some organisms
dioxide, water and energy takes place in that use the anaerobic mode of respiration. [KVS]
(a) cytoplasm. (b) mitochondria. Ans. Aerobic Respiration Anaerobic Respiration
(c) chloroplast. (d) nucleus.
Ans. (b) Breakdown of pyruvate using oxygen takes (i) When oxidation (i) When oxidation
place in the mitochondria. This process breaks of food nutrients of nutrients
up the three-carbon pyruvate molecules to occurs in the occurs without
give three molecules of carbon dioxide and the presence of mo- the utilisation
other product is water. Since the process takes lecular oxygen, it of molecular
place in presence of oxygen, it is called aerobic is called aerobic oxygen, it is
respiration.
respiration. called anaerobic
5. How are fats digested in our body? Where does respiration.
this process take place?
(ii) M o r e e n e r g y (ii) Less amount of
Ans. Fats are digested in our body in the small intestine.
Fats entering the small intestine are in the form of is produced as energy is produced
large globules. The digestion of fats complete in the oxidation is com- as oxidation is not
following steps. plete. complete.
(iii) Takes place in (iii) Takes place in the 12. What are the differences between the transport
of materials in xylem and phloem?
cytoplasm and cytoplasm.
Ans. Differences between the transport of materials in
mitochondria. xylem and phloem are as follows:
Anaerobic mode of respiration occurs in some
organisms like Bacteria and Yeast. Xylem Phloem
9. How are the alveoli designed to maximise the (i) In xylem, trans- (i) I n p h l o e m ,
exchange of gases? port of water and transport of food
Ans. In human beings, to maximise the area for exchange minerals occurs occurs from leaves
of gases, inner surface of lungs has smaller tubes that from roots to to other parts of
terminate into balloon-like structures called alveoli. leaves. plant.
The walls of alveoli have extensive network of blood
(ii) C o n d u c t i o n o f (ii) C o n d u c t i o n o f
vessels.
water and materials food takes place
10. What would be the consequences of a deficiency takes place through through sieve tube
of haemoglobin in our bodies?
xylem vessels and and companion
Ans. Deficiency of haemoglobin in our bodies will affect
tracheids (dead cells (living cells).
the supply of oxygen to tissues and cells because
haemoglobin is the carrier of oxygen. Thus, a person tissues).
shows symptoms of breathlessness, tiredness with 13. Compare the functioning of alveoli in the lungs
indications of iron deficiency, i.e. anaemia. and nephrons in the kidneys with respect to their
11. Describe double circulation in blood of human structure and functioning.
beings. Why is it necessary? Ans. The comparison between alveoli in the lungs and
Ans. The circulatory system of man is called double nephrons in kidneys with respect to their structure
circulation as the blood passes through the heart and functioning is as follows:
twice in one complete cycle of the body. It involves Alveoli in Lungs Nephrons in Kidneys
two circulations:
(i) Pulmonary circulation: It begins from the (i) Alveoli are balloon- (i) N e p h r o n s a r e
right ventricle which expels the blood into like structures. long tubular
the pulmonary trunk. The blood flowing into structures.
the vascular system of the lungs, becomes
oxygenated and returns to the heart (left atrium) (ii) It is made up of (ii) I t i s m a d e u p
through pulmonary veins. one-celled thick of glomerulus,
(ii) Systemic circulation: This circulation starts wall which contains Bowman’s
from the left ventricle which sends the blood extensive network capsule and a
into the aorta. The aorta divides into arteries, of blood capillaries. long renal tube.
arterioles and finally to capillaries and thereby,
supplies oxygenated blood to various parts of (iii) A l v e o l i a r e t h e (iii) Nephrons are the
the body. From there deoxygenated blood is site of gaseous basic filtration
collected by venules which join to form veins exchange in lungs. unit of kidney.
and finally vena cava and pour blood back into
the right auricle of heart. (iv) Here exchange of (iv) Each nephron
Necessity of double circulation: The right side oxygen and carbon filters the blood
and the left side of the human heart are useful to dioxide takes and separates
prevent deoxygenated and oxygenated blood from place between the the nitrogenous
mixing. This type of separation of oxygenated blood flowing in waste in the form
and deoxygenated blood ensures a highly efficient capillaries which of urine.
supply of oxygen to the body. This is useful in case surround the alveoli
of humans because it constantly gives energy to
and gases present in
maintain their body temperature.
the alveoli.
Life Processes 157

1. Which part of alimentary canal receives bile from 8. Which of the following equations is the summary
the liver ? of photosynthesis?
(a) Stomach (b) Small intestine (a) 6CO2 + 12H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2 + 6H2O
(c) Large intestine (d) Oesophagus (b) 6CO2 + H2O + Sunlight → C6H12O6 + O2
Ans. (b) + 6H2O
2. When air is blown from mouth into a test-tube (c) 6CO2 + 12H2O + Chlorophyll + Sunlight →
containing lime water, the lime water turns milky C6H12O6 + 6O2 + 6H2O
due to the presence of (d) 6CO2 + 12H2O + Chlorophyll + Sunlight →
(a) oxygen (b) carbon dioxide C6H12O6 + 6CO2 + 6H2O
(c) nitrogen (d) water vapour Ans. (c)
Ans. (b)
9. Lack of oxygen in muscles often leads to cramps
3. The filtration units of kidneys are called among cricketers. This results due to
(a) ureter (b) urethra (a) conversion of pyruvate to ethanol.
(c) neurons (d) nephrons (b) conversion of pyruvate to glucose.
Ans. (d)
(c) non conversion of glucose to pyruvate.
4. The opening and closing of the stomatal pore (d) conversion of pyruvate to lactic acid.
depends upon Ans. (d)
(a) oxygen
(b) temperature 10. Name the following:
(c) water in guard cells (a) The process in plants that links light energy
(d) concentration of CO2 in stomata with chemical energy.
Ans. (c) (b) Organism that can prepare their own food.
(c) The cell organelle where photosynthesis
5. Which of the following statements about the
occurs.
autotrophs is incorrect?
(d) Cells that surround a stomatal pore.
(a) They synthesise carbohydrates from carbon
(e) Organisms that cannot prepare their own
dioxide and water in the presence of sunlight
food.
and chlorophyll.
(b) They store carbohydrates in the form of starch. (f) An enzyme secreted from gastric glands acts
(c) They convert carbon dioxide and water into on proteins.
carbohydrates in the absence of sunlight. Ans. (a) Photosynthesis (b) Autotrophs
(d) They constitute the first trophic level in food (c) Chloroplasts (d) Guard cells
chains. (e) Heterotrophs (f) Pepsin
Ans. (c) 11. “All plants give out oxygen during day and
6. Which is the correct sequence of parts in human carbon dioxide during night”. Do yo agree with
alimentary canal? this statement? Give reason. [HOTS]
(a) Mouth → stomach → small intestine → Ans. Yes, respiration takes place throughout day and night
oesophagus → large intestine but photosynthesis occurs only during the day. During
(b) Mouth → oesophagus → stomach → large daytime, plants give out oxygen which is a product
intestine → small intestine of photosynthesis. Thus, during night when there is
no photosynthesis, plants liberate carbon dioxide.
(c) Mouth → stomach → oesophagus → small
intestine → large intestine 12. Two green plants are kept separately in oxygen
(d) Mouth → oesophagus → stomach → small free containers. One in dark and other in
intestine → large intestine continuous light which one will longer? Give
Ans. (d) reasons.
Ans. The plant which kept in continuous light will live
7. What prevents backflow of blood inside the heart
longer because in light, the plant will be able to
during contraction?
undergo photosynthesis and able to convert carbon
(a) Valves in heart
dioxide into oxygen whereas the plant in dark cannot
(b) Thick muscular walls of ventricles
perform photosynthesis and lack of oxygen will kill
(c) Thin walls of atria
the plant.
(d) Inner lining of the heart
Ans. (a)
13. Why do fishes die when taken out of water? 19. Why is small intestine in herbivores longer than
Ans. Fishes die when taken out of water because they in carnivores? [HOTS]
cannot obtain gaseous oxygen. Ans. Herbivores eat grass and need a longer small
They breath through gills, which are richly supplied intestine to allow complete digestion of cellulose.
with blood capillaries and can readily absorb oxygen But carnivores cannot digest cellulose, and therefore
dissolved in water. they have a shorter intestine.
14. Is ‘nutrition’ a necessity for an organism? Discuss. 20. What will happen if mucus is not secreted by the
Ans. Yes, ‘nutrition’ is a necessity for an organism gastric glands?
because: Ans. If mucus is not secreted by the gastric glands, it will
(i) It is required for the growth of new cells and lead to corrosion of inner lining of stomach, causing
repair of worn out cells. excessive acidity, ulcers and extreme discomfort as
(ii) It is required to develop resistance against mucus protects the inner lining of stomach from the
various diseases. action of hydrochloric acid and enzyme pepsin.
(iii) It gives us energy for various metabolic 21. Why does absorption of digested food occur
activities of our body. mainly in the small intestine?
15. What would happen if green plants disappear Ans. Absorption of digested food occur mainly in the
from earth? small intestine because:
Ans. If green plants disappear from earth, then the (i) Digestion of food is completed in small
herbivores will die of starvation followed by intestine.
carnivores and then decomposers. (ii) Inner lining of small intestine bears a number
16. Leaves of a healthy plotted plant were coated of finger-like projections called villi, which
with vaseline will this plant remain healthy for increases the surface area for absorption.
long? Give reasons for your answer. (iii) Wall of intestine has blood vessels for carrying
Ans. (a) The plant will die soon because layer of the absorbed food to different parts of the body.
vaseline will prevent the exchange of gases for 22. Why is the rate of breathing in aquatic organisms
respiration. much faster than in terrestrial organisms?[DoE]
(b) It will also close the stomatal openings and plant Ans. The rate of breathing in aquatic organisms is much
won’t be able to get the necessary raw materials faster than in terrestrial organisms because the
for photosynthesis. amount of dissolved oxygen in water is low as
17. What are the adaptations of leaf for photo- compared to the amount of oxygen in the air. Aquatic
synthesis? animals take in water through their mouths and pass
Ans. The adaptations of leaf for photosynthesis are as it to the gills where the dissolved oxygen is taken
follows: up by blood.
(i) Leaf has a large surface area to absorb 23. What is the advantage of having four chambered
maximum light. heart? [HOTS]
(ii) Arrangement of leaves in order to absorb Ans. The advantage of having four chambered heart is
optimum amount of light. that it prevents oxygenated and deoxygenated blood
(iii) The large number of veins provide mechanical from mixing, as the left half of the four chambered
strength and also take part in quick transport heart is completely separated from right half by
of substances to and from the mesophyll cells. septum. This mechanism is useful to animals with
(iv) Leaf is the site of transpiration which cools high energy needs such as birds and mammals. In
the leaf surface for optimum photosynthesis. this way, highly efficient supply of oxygenated blood
(v) Leaf has numerous stomata for gaseous is passed to all parts of the body.
exchange. 24. In each of the following situations what happens
(vi) Large number of chloroplasts are present on to the rate of photosynthesis?
upper surface of leaves. (a) Cloudy days
18. Why do herbivores have longer, small intestine (b) No rainfall in the area
than carnivores? [CBSE 2014] (c) Good manuring in the area
Ans. Cellulose is difficult to digest and hence takes a longer (d) Stomata gets blocked due to dust. [HOTS]
time for complete digestion which is why herbivores Ans. (a) In cloudy days, photosynthesis is reduced due
need a comparatively longer small intestine. Meat is to low light intensity.
easy to digest and hence carnivores like tigers have (b) In case of no rainfall in the area, rate of
a comparatively shorter small intestine. photosynthesis decreases.
Life Processes 159
(c) With good manuring in the area, rate of (b) Transpiration of gases via stomata helps in
photosynthesis increases, it increases soil removal of gaseous waste of respiration and
fertility. photosynthesis.
(d) When stomata gets blocked due to dust, 31. Explain the importance of soil for plant growth.
photosynthesis decreases by reducing gaseous Ans. Importance of soil for plant growth:
exchange. (i) It anchors the plant.
25. Name the energy currency in the living organisms. (ii) It is the source of water and minerals.
When and where is it produced? (iii) It helps in symbiotic association with microbes.
Ans. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is the energy currency (iv) It helps for respiration of root cells due to
of the living organisms. It is produced during availability of oxygen of food material.
respiration in living organisms and also during 32. Describe the alimentary canal of man.
photosynthesis in plants. Ans. Alimentary canal in man is 9 metres long and consists
26. What is common for cuscuta, ticks and leeches? of the following parts :
Ans. All are parasites and they derive their nutrition from (i) Mouth. It leads into buccal cavity.
their hosts directly without killing them. The floor of the buccal cavity has a tongue
27. What are the functions of gastric glands present bearing taste buds. Man possess teeth on both
in the wall of the stomach? the jaws. There are 32 teeth of four different
Ans. Functions of the gastric glands present in the wall types, namely incisors, canines, premolars and
of the stomach are as follows: molars.
(i) Secretion of mucus for protection of inner lining (ii) Pharynx. It is a short, conical region that lies
of stomach. after the mouth cavity.
(ii) Secretion of HCl which makes the food soft and (iii) Oesophagus. It is a long, narrow, muscular
acidified for pepsin to act upon food. tube which leads to the stomach.
(iii) Secretion of pepsin enzyme that digests proteins. (iv) Stomach. It lies below the diaphragm on the left
side of abdominal cavity and is J-shaped. The
28. Plants have low energy needs as compared to
food is stored and partly digested in the stomach.
animals. Explain.
(v) Small Intestine. It is a convoluted tube
Ans. Plants have low energy needs as compared to animals
and differentiated into three regions, viz.,
because plants do not move and most of their body
duodenum, which is the first part of small
is made up of dead cells like sclerenchyma. But
intestine and is curved C-shaped; jejunum,
animals move about in search of food, mate and
comparatively longer and more coiled, and
shelter.
ileum, which is the last part of small intestine
29. Why and how does water enter continuously into whose inner surface is folded to form villi,
the root xylem? which absorbs the products of digestion.
Ans. Cells of root are in close contact with soil and so (vi) Large Intestine. It is much shorter and wider
actively take up ions. Ions pass inward increasing than small intestine and is differentiated into three
osmotic concentration of xylem. Because of it water regions viz., caecum, which is small rounded
from the soil continuously pass into the root xylem. blind sac from which vermiform appendix
30. How do leaves of plants help in excretion? arises; colon is the inverted U-shaped tube
Ans. (a) In leaves, the waste materials are stored in the and the rectum opens to exterior through anus.
vacuoles of mesophyll and epidermal cells.
When old leaves fall, the waste materials are
excreted along with the leaves.
1. Formation of urine involves the following processes 6. Assertion: Aerobic respiration require less energy as
in order: compared to anaerobic respiration.
(a) Filtration, secretion, reabsorption Reason: Mitochondria is the power house of the cell.
(b) Secretion, absorption, filtration 7. Explain the mechanism of gaseous exchange in
(c) Glomerular filtration, reabsorption, tubular tissues and blood.
secretion
8. Why is there no mixing of deoxygenated and
(d) Reabsorption, filtration, secretion
oxygenated blood in human heart normally?
2. Urea is transported by:
9. What are the components of the transport system in
(a) Plasma (b) RBC
highly organised plants? What are the functions of
(c) WBC (d) All of these
these components?
3. Which of the following contributes most to transport
10. Describe the mechanism of breathing in human being.
water from the ground to the leaves of a tall tree?
11. (a) Draw a labelled diagram of stomata. List two
(a) Breakdown of ATP
functions of stomata.
(b) Root Pressure
(b) What are the raw materials used during
(c) Capillary rise of water in xulem
photosynthesis? Write chemical equation for
(d) Cohesion of water and transpirtation pull
photosynthesis.
4. Arteries carry oxygenated blood except
12. The maintenance of living organisms continue
(a) Pulmonary artery (b) Coronary artery
even when they do not do anything particular. The
(c) Hepatic artery (d) Systemic artery
maintenance processes are needed to prevent damage
Direction: In the following Questions, the Assertion and
or breakdown, for which energy is needed. The
energy comes from outside the body of the organism,
which is called food. There is a process to transfer
following:
energy from outside the body to inside the body of the
organism. Depending on the complexity of the food,
different organisms use different kind of nutritional
processes to transfer energy.
(a) State one difference between autotrophic and
heterotrophic mode of nutrition.
(b) How do organisms like bread mould and
is true.
mushrooms obtain their food?
5. Assertion: All proteins in our food are digested in (c) What is the function of digestive enzyme?
small intestine only. Or
Reason: The protein digesting enzymes are released (c) What is the role of acid in our stomach?
in small intestine and stomach.
Scan to get Answers

Control and Coordination 161
CHAPTER
6 Control and Coordination
MIND MAP
Control and Coordination
1. Animals Nervous System 2. Coordination in Plants 3. Hormones in Animals
1. Animals Nervous System
• Regulates involuntary actions Nerve cells or Neurons

• Controls and coordinates voluntary muscular activities • Largest cell
• Informs us about the outside world through the sense • Elongated/branched cell
organs
• Carry messages
• Enables us to think, reason and remember
• Controls all the reflex action.
Cyton or cell body Dendrites Axon
Central Nervous System Peripheral Nervous System Autonomic Nervous System
Brain Spinal cord Cranial Nerves Spinal Nerves Sympathetic Parasympathetic

(12 Pairs) (31 Pairs)
• Receives information carry-
ing impulses • Centre of reflex action
• Sends instructions to groups • Conduction of nerve impulses
• Correlates the stimuli and
produces appropriate
response Reflex action Reflex arc
• Stores information
Fore brain Mid brain Hind brain
Cerebrum Olfactory lobes Cerebellum Pons Medulla oblongata
Occipital lobe Temporal lobe Frontal lobe Parietal lobe

2. Coordination in Plants
Tropic movement Phytohormones or Plant hormones
Phototropism Geotropism Hydrotropism Chemotropism Auxins Gibberellins Abscisic Acid Cytokinins
3. Hormones in Animals
Endocrine Glands
Hypothalamus Pituitary Thyroid Parathyroid Pineal Adrenal

Thymus Pancreas Testis Ovaries
glands glands gland glands gland glands
Releasing Thyroxine Adrenalin Insulin Testosterone

Hormones
Estrogen Progesterone
Growth Trophic
hormone hormone
IMPORTANT FIGURES
Nucleus Dendrite
1.
Axon
Nerve
ending
A nerve cell (Neuron)
Cell body
2.
Reflex arc
3. Cerebrum Cranium (Skull)
Fore-brain
Mid-brain
Hypothalamus
Pituitary gland Hind-brain Pons
Medulla
Spinal-cord
Cerebellum
Human Brain
4.
(a) (b)
Endocrine glands in human beings (a) male (b) female
TOPIC COVERED
Animals – Nervous System
3. Which of the following tissues provide control and

Multiple Choice coordination in animals?
Questions 1 Mark (a) Nervous and Skeletal
(b) Muscular and Skeletal
1. Which part of a nerve cell contains a nucleus? (c) Muscular and Transport
(a) Axon (b) Dendrite (d) Nervous and Muscular
(c) Cyton (d) Nerve endings 4. A student accidentally places her hand on a flame
2. Reflex arc is formed by of candle and quickly pulls her hand away. The
(a) muscle → brain → receptor flame represents
(b) muscle → spinal cord → receptor (a) a response (b) a stimulus
(c) receptor → brain → muscles (c) an impulse (d) an effector
(d) receptor → spinal cord → muscle
5. How many pairs of cranial nerves are present in (i) The main thinking part of the brain is hind
man? brain.
(a) 12 (b) 21 (c) 31 (d) 41 (ii) Centres of hearing, smell, memory, sight, etc.
6. Reflex actions are mediated through are located in fore-brain.
(a) brain (b) effectors (iii) Involuntary actions like salivation, vomiting,
(c) spinal cord (d) receptors blood pressure are controlled by the medulla
in the hind-brain.
7. Synapse is defined as a
(iv) Cerebellum does not control posture and
(a) gap between two muscle cells
balance of the body.
(b) gap between two neurons
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) gap between two bones
(d) gap between muscle and bone
8. The spinal cord is protected by
Answers
(a) aorta (b) vertebral column
(c) pleura (d) diaphragm 1. (c) Nerve cell comprises of cyton, axon and nerve
9. Which option correctly shows the order of events ending and nucleus lies within cyton.
when a bright light is focused on our eyes? 2. (d) In a reflex action, the nerve impulse moves from
[CBSE T.E.R.M.*] the receptor organ to the spinal cord and then to
the effector organ like muscles.
(a) Bright light → receptors in eyes → sensory neuron
3. (d)
→ spinal cord → motor neurons → eyelid closes
4. (b) In a reflex action, the effector organ responds to
(b) Bright light → receptors in eyes → spinal cord →
the stimulus and here the effector organ (hand)
sensory neuron → motor neurons → eyelid closes
responds to the stimulus, flame.
(c) Bright light → receptors in eyes → sensory neuron
5. (a) There are 12 pairs of cranial nerves present in man.
→ motor neurons → spinal cord → eyelid closes
6. (c) Reflex impulse moves from the receptor organ
(d) Bright light → receptors in eyes → spinal cord
to the spinal cord and then to the effector organ
→ motor neurons → sensory neuron → eyelid
like muscles.
closes
7. (b)
10. The image shows the structure of a neuron. 8. (b)
Nucleus Dendrite 9. (a)
10. (a) Olfactory receptors → dendritic tip of a nerve cell
→ axon → nerve ending → release of signal →
dendritic tip of other nerve cell.
11. (c)
Axon Nerve
ending V S A Very Short Answer
Cell body Type Questions 2 Marks
After our nose senses a smell, which option shows
the mechanism of the travelling of sense in our 12. Name the two main organs of our central nervous
body? [CBSE T.E.R.M.*] system. Which one of them plays a major role
(a) Olfactory receptors → dendritic tip of a nerve cell in sending command to muscles to act without
→ axon → nerve ending → release of signal → involving thinking process? Name the phenomenon
dendritic tip of other nerve cell involved.
(b) Olfactory receptors → dendritic tip of a nerve Ans. The two main organs of CNS are brain and spinal
cell → axon → cell body → release of signal → cord.
dendritic tip of other nerve cell Spinal cord plays a major role in sending command
(c) Gustatory receptors → dendritic tip of a nerve to muscles to act without involving thinking process.
cell → cell body → axon → release of signal → This phenomenon is called reflex action.
dendritic tip of other nerve cell 13. Name the two types of neurons? How is the
(d) Gustatory receptors → dendritic tip of a nerve functioning of one different from the other?
cell → axon → cell body → release of signal → Ans. Two types of neurons are:
dendritic tip of other nerve cell (i) Sensory neurons – They pass information from
11. Which of the following statements are true about the receptors to the brain.
the brain? (ii) Motor neurons – They transmit information from
*Teacher Energised Resource Manuals the brain to the effector organs.
14. Which is the control centre of a reflex action? What (iii) Thinking
is the route taken by the reflex action called? (iv) Blood pressure [CBSE 2023]
Ans. Spinal cord is the control centre of a reflex action. The Ans. (i) Cerebellum
route taken by the reflex action is called reflex arc. (ii) Medulla
15. Distinguish between spinal nerve and cranial nerve. (iii) Cerebrum
(iv) Medulla
Ans. Spinal nerve Cranial nerve
(i) They arise from (i) They arise from A Short Answer
spinal cord. brain.
(ii) There are 31 pairs (ii) There are 12 pairs 20. (a) What are receptors?
of spinal nerves. of cranial nerves. (b) Define stimulus?
Ans. (a) It is a cell or group of cells specialised to detect a
16. How does the nervous system serve for coordination particular stimulus and to initiate the transmission
of all other systems in the body? of impulses via the sensory nerves.
Ans. (i) Nervous system receives information of changes (b) It is the change in the external or internal
in the external environment, analyses and environment of an organism that provokes a
interprets the information to produce sensations physiological and behavioural response in the
like vision or pain. organism.
(ii) It also receives information of changes in the
interior of the body and coordinates the activities 21. (a) (i) Name one gustatory receptor and one
of the visceral organs in the light of those changes olfactory receptor present in human
and maintains a constant internal environment. beings.
(ii) Write a and b in the given flow chart of
17. What are cranial nerves? How many cranial nerves neuron through which information travels
does a human being have? as an electrical impulse. [CBSE 2018]
Ans. Cranial nerves are those nerves which arise from Dendrite → a → b
different parts of the brain.
A human being has 12 pairs of cranial nerves.
→ End point of Neuron
18.
(b) What do you understand by the term ‘target
organ’? Give any one example.
Ans. (a) (i) Gustatory receptor—Tongue
Olfactory receptor—Nose
(A) (ii) a–Cell body/Cyton
(B)
b–Axon
So, electric impulse flow chart will be as follows:
Dendrite → Cell body/Cyton → Axon
→ End point of neuron

(b) Specific tissue or organ on which hormones act
(a) Name the parts labelled A and B in the neuron
are called target organs, e.g. digestive system.
drawn above.
(b) Which part acquires the information in the 22. (a) Which is the control centre of a reflex action?
neuron? What is the route taken by the reflex action
(c) Through which part does the information called?
travel? (b) What is Neuromuscular Junction?
(d) In what form does this information travel? [KVS] Ans. (a) Spinal cord is the control centre of a reflex action. The
Ans. (a) A-Dendrite, B-Axon route taken by the reflex action is called reflex arc.
(b) Dendrite. (b) It is the point where a muscle fibre comes in
(c) Dendrite to cell body or cyton to axon. contact with a motor neuron carrying nerve
(d) Electrical impulse in the region of synapse. impulses from the central nervous system. The
impulses travel from the neuron to the muscle fibre
19. Name the part of brain which is responsible for
by means of a neurotransmitter in the same way
the following actions:
as the transmission of impulses across a synapse
(i) Maintaining posture and balance
between two neurons.
(ii) Beating of heart
Ans. (a) Cerebrum is the largest part of the brain. Its
various regions carry out different activities, i.e.
occipital lobe for vision, temporal for auditory
reception, parietal for touch, smell, temperature
and consciousness and frontal lobe for muscular
activities.
(b) Spinal nerve Cranial nerve
(i) They arise from (i) They arise from
spinal cord. brain.
(ii) There are 31 (ii) There are 12
pairs of spinal pairs of cranial
nerves. nerves.
26. (a) What are sensory and motor neurons? Write
their function. [DoE]
(b) Different parts of brain are associated with
Neuromuscular junction specific functions. Name the part of human
23. (a) Where are pons present in the brain? Which brain which perform the following functions:
activity do they control? [CBSE 2018C]
(b) Different parts of brain are associated with (i) Sensation of feeling full
specific functions. Name the part of human (ii) Vomitting
brain which perform the following functions: Ans. (a) Two types of neurons are:
(i) Picking up a pencil (i) Sensory neurons – They transmit information
(ii) Riding a bicyle from the receptors to the central nervous
Ans. (a) Pons are situated below the cerebellum and above system.
the medulla oblongata in the hind-brain. They are (ii) Motor neurons – They transmit information
responsible for regulating the respiratory activity. from the brain to the effector organs.
(b) (i) Hind-brain (cerebellum) (b) (i) Fore-brain (a centre for hunger)
(ii) Hind-brain (cerebellum) (ii) Hind-brain (medulla)
24. (a) What are cranial nerves? How many cranial 27. State the functions of any three of the structural
nerves does a human being have? and functional unit of nervous system.
(b) Write the difference between cerebellum and Ans. The structural and functional unit of nervous system
cerebrum. is neuron and their functions are as follows:
Ans. (a) Cranial nerves arise from the brain and spread (i) Cell body: Stimulus received from dendrite is
throughout the head. changed into impulse in the cyton.
There are twelve pairs of cranial nerves. (ii) Dendrites: They receive sensation or stimulus,
(b) which may be physical, chemical, mechanical
Cerebrum Cerebellum
or electrical. They pass the stimulus to cyton.
(i) It is the largest (i) It is the second (iii) Axon: It conducts impulse away from the cell
highly developed largest part of the body.
and prominent brain and lies at 28. What is a reflex action? Describe the steps involved
part of the brain. the posterior part in a reflex action. [KVS]
of the brain. Ans. Reflex Action. It is defined as an unconscious,
(ii) It is the con- (ii) It controls the automatic and involuntary response of effectors, i.e.
trolling centre skeletal, muscle muscles and glands, to a stimulus, which is monitored
for senses. It is activities and through the spinal cord.
responsible for maintains the Mechanism of Reflex Action. It involves the following
steps :
memory, intelli- equilibrium of the
(i) Receptor organ like skin perceives the stimulus
gence, hearing, body. and activates a sensory nerve impulse.
etc. (ii) Sensory organ carries message in the form of
25. (a) Which is the largest part of the brain? What sensory impulse to the spinal cord.
are its functions? (iii) The spinal cord acts as modulator. The neurons
(b) Distinguish between spinal nerve and cranial of spinal cord transmit the sensory nerve impulse
nerve. to motor neuron.
(iv) Motor nerve conducts these impulses to the Ans. Cerebrum Cranium (Skull)
effectors like leg muscles which responds by

pulling back the organ away from the harmful
stimulus.
29. What is synapse? In a neuron cell how is an
electrical impulse created and what is the role of Mid-brain
synapse in this context? [CBSE 2015]

Ans. Synapse is the junction between two adjacent neurons
or nerve cells, i.e. between axon ending of one and
the dendrite of the next.
Pituitary gland
Transmission of Nerve Impulse. The information Medulla
Spinal cord
acquired at the end of the dendritic tip of a neuron
sets off a chemical reaction which creates an electrical A Long Answer
impulse. This impulse travels from the dendrite to L Type Questions 5 Marks
the cyton along the axon to its end. At the end of the A
axon, the electrical impulse sets off the release of 33. (a)
some chemicals, which cross the synapse and start
a similar electrical impulse in a dendrite of the next
neuron. In this way nerve impulses travel in the body.
Synapse helps in transmitting impulses from one
neuron to another.
30. (a) How is brain protected from injury and shock? B
(b) Name two main parts of hind-brain and state A nerve cell (Neuron)
the functions of each.
(i) Name the parts labelled A and B in the
Ans. (a) The brain sits inside a bony box. Inside the box,
neuron drawn above.
the brain is contained in a fluid filled balloon
(ii) Which part acquires the information in
which provides further shock absorption.
the neuron?
(b) Two main parts of hind-brain are–Medulla and
(iii) Through which part does the information
Cerebellum. Their functions are:
travel?
Medulla: It controls involuntary actions such
(iv) In what form does this information travel?
as blood pressure, salivation and vomiting are
(v) Where is the impulse converted into a
controlled by medulla.
chemical signal for onward transmission?
Cerebellum: It is responsible for precision of
(b) What is reflex? How does it work in human?
voluntary actions and maintaining the posture
Ans. (a) (i) A – Dendrite B – Axon
and balance of the body.
(ii) The information in the neuron is acquired
31. Write any three functions of the nervous system. at the end of the dendrite tip.
Ans. (i) It regulates involuntary actions. (iii) The information travels from the dendrite
(ii) It controls and coordinates voluntary muscular to the cell body and then along the axon to
activities. its end.
(iii) It keeps us informed about the outside world (iv) The information travels in the form of an
through the sense organs. impulse.
(iv) It enables us to think, reason and remember. (v) The impulse is converted into a chemical
(v) It controls all the reflex actions in our body, thus signal at the end of the axon.
protecting it from harm. (any three) (b) Sudden action in response to something. Nerves
32. Draw neat diagram of human brain and label on that detect an emergency situation is connected
it the following parts: to nerves that move the muscles immediately
(a) Mid-brain 34. Suggest six reflex actions of the body. Explain how
(b) Pituitary gland the reflex arc is the same in all of them.
(c) Medulla Ans. Six reflex actions of the body are:
(d) Cerebrum (i) When we see a speeding car moving towards
(e) Cranium us, we move aside.
(f) Spinal cord (ii) We withdraw our hands on being pricked by a pin.
(iii) We withdraw our hands on touching very hot Or
substance. Name the parts (a) to (e) in the following diagram.
(c)
(iv) We close our eyes on seeing direct sun or
extremely bright source of light.
(v) We close our eyes on hearing a loud noise.
(vi) We shiver on feeling cold. (b)
Reflex arc in all the above cases is same because in (e)
all the cases, the stimulus is received by sense organs. (d)
Then this information is carried to spinal cord through (a)

sensory nerves. Thus, information from spinal cord
is sent to the effectors such as muscles via motor
neurons.
Sensory Motor What is the term given to the sequence of events
Receptors → Spinal cord → Effectors
neurons neurons occurring in the diagram? [CBSE 2020]
35. What is a reflex arc? Draw a neat labelled diagram Ans. Reflex action is defined as an unconscious, automatic
of the components in a reflex arc. Why do impulses and involuntary response of effector, i.e. muscle and
flow only in one direction in a reflex arc? [HOTS] gland to a stimulus which is monitored through the
Ans. Reflex arc is the pathway taken by the nerve impulses spinal cord.
(c)
and responses in a reflex action, i.e. from the receptor
organs like skin to the spinal cord and from the spinal
cord to the effector organs like muscles.
Hot Plate (b)
(e)
(Stimulus) (a)
(d)
Sensory neurons
Receptors
(Like skin)
REFLEX ARC Spinal cord Reflex arc
Response
Sequence of events when we touch a hot object are:

Effectors

 Receptor organ skin receives the stimulus and
(Like muscles) Motor neurons
activates a sensory nerve impulse.
Impulses flow only in one direction in a reflex arc,
 Sensory neuron carries the message in the form of
because each synapse in the reflex arc allows impulses sensory impulse to the spinal cord.
to cross in a single direction.
 The spinal cord acts as a modulator. The neurons
of spinal cord transmit the sensory nerve impulses
36. What is meant by reflex action? With the help of
to motor neuron.
a labelled diagram trace the sequence of events
 Motor nerve conducts these impulses to the effector
which occur when we touch a hot object. [CBSE 2015] organ hand which responds by pulling back the
hand away from the hot object.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which is not the part of hind-brain? 3. Junction of two neurons is called: [KVS]
(a) Medulla oblongata (a) Synapse (b) Synapsis
(b) Cerebrum (c) Joint (d) Junction
(c) Cerebellum 4. What is voluntary action?
(d) Pons
5. What is involuntary action?
2. Which area of the brain is responsible for control of
6. Draw the diagram of human brain and label the parts.
the body temperature?
Write the function of cerebellum and pons. [KVS]
(a) Pituitary (b) Thalamus
(c) Hypothalamus (d) Hind-brain
TOPIC COVERED
Coordination in Plants
Multiple Choice
Questions 1 Mark
1. Observe the three figures given below. Which of the following depicts tropic movements appropriately?
(A) (B) (C)
(a) B and C (b) A and C (c) B only (d) C only

2. Which statement is incorrect about auxins? Which of the following should he do? [CFPQ, CBSE]
(a) They promote the growth of root (a) Spray water on the tips of the stems to increase
(b) They promote the growth of shoot growth
(c) They influence the formation of flower and (b) Dig around the plant roots and apply more manure
ripening of fruit (c) Trim the hedge by cutting off the tips of the stems
(d) They inhibit the growth of root (d) Remove all the weeds that grow around the hedge
3. The hormone that is used to keep flowers fresh is 8. The leaves of Mimosa are sensitive to
(a) cytokinin (b) gibberellins (a) light (b) smell (c) touch (d) heat
(c) auxin (d) abscisic acid 9. During pollination, plants ensure that the pollen
4. The main effect of cytokinin in plants is to grain from a species germinates on the stigma of
(a) improve the quality of fruits the same species.
(b) prevent the growth of lateral buds Which of the following ensures this? [CFPQ, CBSE]
(c) regulate opening and closing of stomata (a) Hydrotropism (b) Chemotropism
(d) stimulate cell division (c) Phototropism (d) Geotropism
5. Abscisic acid controls 10. Akash potted some germinated seeds in a pot. He
(a) cell elongation and cell wall formation put the pot in a cardboard box that was open from
(b) shoot elongation one side. He keeps the box in a way that the open
(c) cell division side of box faces sunlight near his window. After
(d) leaf fall and dormancy 2-3 days he observes the shoot bends towards light
6. In plants the role of cytokinin is: [CBSE 2023] as shown in image.
(a) Promote cell division. Which type of tropism he observes?
(b) Wilting of leaves. [CBSE T.E.R.M.*]
(c) Promote the opening of stomatal pore.
(d) Help in the growth of stem.
7. Auxin is a plant hormone that promotes cell
elongation and is produced by the apical meristem.
It inhibits the growth of lateral buds which are
present at nodes (where leaves attach to the stem).
As long as sufficient auxin is produced by the apical
meristem, the lateral buds remain dormant.
A gardener wants the plants in the hedge that he (a) Geotropism (b) Phototropism
is growing to become bushier with more branches. (c) Chemotropism (d) Hydrotropism
Answers of pollen tube towards a chemical produced by
ovule.
1. (d) C only 10. (b) Phototropism is the movement of a part of a plant
2. (d) Auxins are group of plant hormones synthesised towards light.
at the shoot tip of the plant body. They promote
the growth of root. V S A Very Short Answer
3. (a) Cytokinins helps in delaying senescence in plant Type Questions 2 Marks
parts that are cut. They are used to keep cut flowers
fresh. 11. List the sequence of events that occur when a
4. (d) plant is exposed to unidirectional light, leading
5. (d) to bending of a growing shoot. Also name the
6. (a) Cytokinins are present in greater concentration hormone and the type of movement.
in plants in area of rapid cell division, such as in Ans. • Auxin diffuses towards shady side.
fruit and seeds. • Causes elongation on one side (shady side) resulting
7. (c) in bending of growing shoot.
8. (c) The leaves of Mimosa begin to fold up and droop • The hormone responsible for bending is auxin and
when touched. the movement is phototropic movement.
9. (b) Chemotropism is the movement of a part of a
plant in response to a chemical stimuli, e.g. growth
12. The given experimental set-up establishes the response of different plant parts towards gravity.
(a) Give the scientific term used for such response/movement.

(b) How is shoot response different from root response/movement?
Ans. (a) Scientific term used for such movement is Geotropism.
(b) Root shows positive geotropic movement while shoot shows negative geotropic movement.
13. How does control and coordination take place in (b) Why did the tomatoes in the paper bag ripen
plants? faster? [CFPQ, CBSE]
Ans. In plants, control and coordination is brought about by Ans. (a) Ethylene hormone facilitates the ripening of fruits.
means of chemical substances called phytohormones. (b) Ethylene is a gaseous hormone and the paper bag
In addition, environmental factors like water, prevented it from diffusing into the air. Hence the
temperature and light, controls growth and tomatoes in the paper bag ripened faster.
development. 16. Give a schematic diagram to explain the effect of
14. Where are auxins synthesized in a plant? Which auxins in different parts of the plant.
organ of the plant shows: [CBSE 2023] Ans. shoot
(a) Positive phototropism
(b) Negative geotropism
(c) Positive hydrotropism
Ans. Auxins are synthesised in the stem of a plant.
(a) Stem as it moves towards light.
(b) Shoots as it moves upwards.
(c) Roots as it moves towards water in soil.
15. Hema bought some unripe tomatoes and left half root
of them in a brown paper bag and the other half
in an open tray. After two days she noticed that root
the tomatoes in the paper bag had ripened, but the
ones in the open tray had not.
(a) What hormone facilitated the ripening of Effect of auxins in different parts of the plant
tomatoes?
A Short Answer (i) Germination of seeds or breaking the dormancy

S Type Questions 3 Marks of seeds,
(ii) Growth of root, stem and leaves,
17. Write one example each of the following tropic (iii) Flowering of plants,
movements : (iv) Ripening of fruits,
(a) Positive phototropism (v) Movement of stomata in leaves, and
(b) Negative phototropism (vi) Phototropism, geotropism, chemotropism and
(c) Positive geotropism nastic movements.
(d) Negative geotropism Four different types of plant hormones are auxins,
(e) Hydrotropism gibberellins, cytokinins and abscisic acid.
(f) Chemotropism [CBSE 2014]
Ans. (a) Positive Phototropism: Movement of stem of a A Long Answer
plant towards light. L Type Questions 5 Marks
(b) Negative phototropism: Movement of roots away
from light. 21. (a) Classify the following movements as tropic or
(c) Positive geotropism: Movement of roots towards nastic:
gravity. (i) Opening of flower.
(d) Negative geotropism: Upward movement of (ii) Roots moving downwards.
shoots. (iii) Shoots moving towards light.
(e) Hydrotropism: Growth of roots of a plant towards (iv) Twirling of a tendril.
water in soil. (b) (i) Which plant hormone is present in greater
(f) Chemotropism: Growth of pollen tubes towards concentration in the areas of rapid cell
ovule. division?
18. Write the main difference between auxins and (ii) Give one example of a plant growth
cytokinins. promoter and a plant growth inhibitor.
Ans. Auxins Cytokinins (c) Why is abscisic acid is also called as stress
hormone? [DoE]
(i) They are the growth (i) They are responsible Ans. (a) (i) Nastic (ii) Tropic
hormones. for cell division. (iii) Tropic (iv) Nastic
(ii) They are synthesised (ii) They are synthesised (b) (i) Cytokinin is present in greater concentration
in the shoot tip. in the endosperms of in the areas of rapid cell division.
seeds and roots. (ii) An example of a plant growth promoter is
gibberellins and example of a plant growth
(iii) They are responsi- (iii) They are responsi-
inhibitor is abscisic acid.
ble for growth, root ble for cell division, (c) (i) Abscisic acid is called as stress hormone
formation and pro- ageing, initiation of because it signals the closure of stomata to
duction of partheno- roots, shoots and prevent water loss during severe drought,
carpic fruits. apical dominance. intense sunlight and heat and other adverse
environmental conditions.
19. What is geotropism? Draw a labelled diagram of
(ii) It acts as a growth inhibitor and inhibitor
a potted plant showing positive geotropism and
of plant metabolism.
negative geotropism. [CBSE 2018C]
Ans. Geotropism refers to the growth movements of plants 22. Define tropism. Explain four kinds of tropisms
in response to the gravity or pull of earth. with one example each.
Negatively geotropic Ans. The movement of plant in the direction of stimulus
is known as tropism. Plants respond to light, touch,
gravitational forces and chemicals.
The four kinds of tropism are as follows:
(a) Phototropism: It is the movement of a plant in
response to light.
Positively geotropic For example: Plants need sunlight, so the stem (or
20. State the functions of plant hormones. Name four shoots) respond to sunlight by growing towards
different types of plant hormones. it.
Ans. The plant hormones regulate many functions in plants, (b) Geotropism: It is the movement of a plant in
which are as follows: response to gravity.
For example: The movements of plant roots (d) Chemotropism: It is the movement of a plant in
towards the earth and that of stem away from the response to a chemical stimulus.
earth. For example: The growth of a pollen tube towards
(c) Hydrotropism: It is the movement of a plant in the ovule induced by a sugary substance.
response to water.
For example: The roots of plants always go
towards water, even if it means going against the
pull of gravity.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Plants bend towards a light source as a result of 4. The growth of tendrils in pea plants is due to [KVS]
(a) unequal auxin distribution in their stems (a) effect of light
(b) increased amount of food synthesised by leaves (b) effect of gravity
(c) necessity of light for transpiration (c) rapid cell division in tendrillar cells in contact
(d) inability to synthesise chemical regulators with the support
2. Growth of pollen tube towards ovule is called: (d) rapid cell divisions in tendrillar cells that are away
(a) phototropism (b) chemotropism from the support.
(c) hydrotropism (d) geotropism 5. Why do stem and root show unilateral growth towards
3. When we touch the leaves of “touch-me-not” plant, they light and gravity of earth respectively?
began to fold up and droop. How does the plant com- 6. What are auxins and where are they synthesised in
municate the information of touch? [CBSE T.E.R.M.*] the plant body?
(a) The plant uses electrical signals to transfer 7. (a) What is tropism?
information from cell to cell. (b) How do auxins promote the growth of a tendril
(b) The plant uses electrical-chemical signals to around a support? [CBSE 2020]
transfer information from cell to cell.
8. Name the plant growth hormone which is synthesized
(c) The plant uses electrical-chemical signals to
at the shoot tip. Explain briefly why a plant bends
transfer information from tissue to specialised
towards light during its growth. [KVS]
cells.
(d) The plant uses electrical signals to transfer
information from cell to specialised tissues.
TOPIC COVERED
Hormones in Animals
(b) Thyroxine
Multiple Choice (c) Testosterone
Questions 1 Mark (d) Vasopressin
4. Which of the following is not a ductless gland?
1. Which one of the endocrine gland is known as (a) Adrenal (b) Liver
‘master gland’? [KVS] (c) Thyroid (d) Pituitary
(a) Pancreas (b) Adrenal
(c) Pituitary (d) Hypothalamus 5. Ageing in human beings is caused by disappearance
of which of the following glands?
2. Which of the following acts as both endocrine and (a) Adrenal (b) Pituitary
exocrine glands? (c) Thyroid (d) Thymus
(a) Adrenal (b) Pituitary
(c) Ovaries (d) Pancreas 6. Hormones produced in one part of the human body
reach the target location via
3. Which hormone regulates the ionic balance in the (a) blood (b) muscles
body? (c) bones (d) cartilage
(a) Glucagon
Answers organs. A person having deficiency of growth
hormone suffers from dwarfism whereas a person
1. (c) Pituitary gland is located at the base of the brain.
having too much growth hormone becomes very
It is known as ‘master gland’ as it controls the tall.
functions of the other endocrine glands.
2. (d) A Short Answer
3. (d) S Type Questions 3 Marks
4. (b) Liver secretes bile juice through a duct to the
11. (a) How do you support the statement that
small intestine to facilitate the action of pancreatic
enzymes. ‘pancreas’ are the overall controller of the
5. (d) blood glucose level ? [HOTS]
6. (a) Hormones are produced by endocrine glands (b) What are ‘releasing hormones’? Where are
which are ductless and travel via blood throughout they released from?
the body. Ans. (a) Pancreas releases insulin which lowers the blood
glucose. Moreover, it also releases glucagon which
V S A Very Short Answer increases blood glucose. Therefore, pancreas is
Type Questions 2 Marks the overall controller of blood glucose level.
(b) ‘Releasing hormones’ are chemical substances
7. Write names of four hormones secreted from which regulate the secretion of hormones from
pituitary gland and also write their functions. pituitary gland.
Ans. The four hormones secreted from pituitary gland along They are released from hypothalamus gland.
with their functions are as follows :
12. (a) Justify that the pancreas and the gonads
Hormone Function perform dual functions.
(i) Growth Development of bones and (b) Explain with an example the role played by
hormone muscles. hypothalamus in human body.
(ii) Prolactin Regulation of functioning
Ans. (a) Pancreas secretes digestive enzymes as well as
of mammary gland. insulin and glucagon hormones. Similarly, gonads
produce gametes as well as male and female sex
(iii) Oxytocin Regulates ejection of milk hormones. Thus, pancreas and gonads perform
and birth hormone. ‘dual functions’.
(iv) Vasopressin Regulation of water and (b) Hypothalamus plays important role in producing
electrolyte balance. releasing hormones and inhibiting hormones.
8. How do you support the statement that ‘pancreas’ For example, if the level of growth hormone
are the overall controller of the blood glucose level? decreases in body, the hypothalamus releases
Ans. Pancreas releases insulin which lowers the blood neurohormones which stimulates the pituitary
glucose. It also releases glucagon which increases gland to release growth hormone.
blood glucose. Thus, pancreas is the overall controller 13. Distinguish between exocrine and endocrine glands.
of blood glucose level. Ans. Exocrine glands Endocrine glands
9. Name the hormone secreted by human testes. State (i) They may or may (i) They are ductless
its functions.
not have ducts. glands.
Ans. Testes secrete male sex hormone called testosterone.
(ii) They secrete (ii) They secrete
The function of testosterone is to regulate male
accessory sex organs and secondary sexual characters enzymes. hormones.
like moustache, beard and voice. (iii) They either (iii) They pour their
function in situ secretions directly
10. (a) Name the hormones that are released in
human males and females when they reach and pour their into blood.
puberty. secretions directly
(b) Name a gland associated with brain. Which near its target or
problem is caused due to the deficiency of the through a duct.
hormone released by this gland? [CBSE 2014] 14. Name the hormone which regulates carbohydrate,
Ans. (a) Testes in males produces hormone testosterone. protein and fat metabolism in our body. Which
Ovaries in females produces hormone oestrogen. gland secretes this hormone? Why is it important
(b) Pituitary gland is associated with brain. It releases for us to have iodised salt in our diet?[CBSE 2016]
growth hormone which stimulates growth in all
Ans. Thyroxine regulates carbohydrates, protein and fat A Long Answer
metaboslism in our body. L Type Questions 5 Marks
Thyroxine is secreted from thyroid gland. Deficiency
of iodine in our food causes (goitre) where the thyroid 17. (a) Name the hormone which is released into
gland enlarges as it needs to absorb more amount the blood when its sugar level rises. Name
of iodine. Iodine is required to make thyroxine. the organ which produces this hormone and
Therefore, iodine is added to salt to supplement iodine its effect on blood sugar level. Also mention
requirement. the digestive enzymes secreted by this organ
with one function of each.
15. What is feedback mechanism of hormonic
regulation. Take the example of insulin to explain (b) Explain the need of chemical communication
this phenomenon. [Delhi 2019]
in multicellular organisms. [CBSE 2014]
Ans. Hormones are secreted in extremely less quantity. Ans. (a) When sugar level rises, hormone insulin is
Excess or deficiency of such hormones can have released into blood. Insulin is released in our
harmful effects on our body. A feedback mechanism body by pancreas. When insulin is secreted in
controls the timing and secretion of hormones released lower quantity by pancreas, the blood sugar
by various glands. level of the concerned person increases. On the
For example: On the rise of blood glucose level, other hand if the insulin is secreted in excess,
information is sent to pancreas to release insulin. the person suffers from low sugar in blood.
When the appropriate amount of glucose level Pancreas secretes enzyme like trypsin for
is obtained in the blood, the release of insulin is digesting proteins and lipase for breaking down
stopped. emulsified fats.
16. A squirrel is in a scary situation. Its body has to (b) Chemical communication is required in
prepare for either fighting or running away. State multicellular organisms to deal with emergency
the immediate changes that take place in its body demand such as infection, traums, dehydration,
so that the squirrel is able to either fight or run? starvation, haemorrhage, extreme temperature,
[CBSE 2020] etc. The nervous coordination is fast but short-
Ans. Adrenaline hormone in large amount is secreted in lived. As the nerve fibres do not connect to all
its body when a squirrel is in scary situation and cells of the body and the cellular functions need
following immediate changes takes place in its body to be continuously regulated; a special kind of
so that squirrel is able to either fight or run: coordination and integration has to be provided.
(i) The heartbeat increases This function is carried out by hormones. The
(ii) The breathing rate increases nervous system and the endocrine system
(iii) More glucose goes into blood to release energy jointly coordinate and regulate the physiological
which helps squirrel to either fight or run away. functions in the body.
18. What are hormones? Give the name of associated gland and functions of different animal hormones.[DoE]
Ans. Hormones are the chemical substances which control and coordinate the activities of living organisms and also
their growth. Name of hormones with their releasing gland and function is tabulated below:
S. No. Name of hormone Releasing gland Function of the hormone
1. Growth hormone Pituitary gland It stimulates growth in all organs. The height of a person
depends on it. Normal secretion leads to normal height,
excess secretion produces in very tall person and deficiency
of its causes dwarfness. Main tissues related to its work
are bones, cartilage, muscles, fat, liver and heart.
2. Thyroxine Thyroid gland It controls the rate of metabolism of carbohydrates, fats
and proteins in the body.
3. Insulin Pancreas It acts to lower or raise blood sugar level. It also acts to
control glucagon and insulin release.
4. Testosterone Testes Regulates sex drive, bone mass, fat distribution, muscle
mass and produces sperms. It also promotes development
of secondary sexual characteristics of male.
5. Progesterone and Ovaries Estrogen helps female in development of breast and

estrogen reproductive organs in female. Estrogen also helps in
maintenance of pregnancy.
Progesterone prepares the female body for pregnancy by
causing thickening of uterine lining.
6. Releasing hormone Hypothalamus It regulates the secretion of hormones from pituitary gland,
i.e. hypothalamus controls the pituitary hormones.
7. Adrenaline Adrenal gland It regulates the heart rate, breathing rate, blood pressure
and carbohydrate metabolism.
(any five)
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Name the hormone that lowers the blood sugar level. 4. Name the source gland and one major effect of each
(a) Adrenaline (b) Estrogen of the following hormones:
(c) Glucagon (d) Insulin (a) Parathormone (b) Progesterone
2. Which hormone is responsible for the development 5. Give one example to show how the endocrine system
of female characteristics? coordinates our body activities.
(a) Adrenaline (b) Estrogen 6. A compound of iodine is compulsorily added to
(c) Thyroxine (d) Testosterone common salt in small quantity.
3. Which hormone regulates carbohydrate, protein and (a) Why is it important for us to have iodized salt in
fat metabolism? our diet?
(a) Insulin (b) Glucagon (b) Name the disease caused by its deficiency.
(c) Thyroxine (d) Adrenaline (c) Write the symptoms of the disease. [KVS]

1. (a) As first line of defense, stress hormones are 5. (a) Explain any three directional movements in plants.
released in humans. As an equivalent, which (b) How brain and spinal cord are protected in human?
hormone is most likely to be released as first line (c) Name the master gland present in the brain.
of defense in plants? [CBSE 2013] (3 Marks)
(b) There have been reports of plant hormones being 6. Why is chemical communication better than electrical
found in animal bodies even when they are not
impulses as a means of communication between cells
synthesised by the animal. What can be the most
in a multicellular organism? [CBSE 2020] (3 Marks)
common pathway of entry of such hormones in
animals? [CFPQ, CBSE] (2 Marks) 7. (a) How does control and coordination take place in
2. (a) Name ONE plant hormone that controls directional plants? (5 Marks)
growth. (b) Distinguish between cerebrum and spinal cord.
(b) Plant hormones are also referred to as growth (c) Give technical terms for following events:
regulators and can be controlled by a number of (i) The movement of plant in the direction of
stimuli. Mention ONE point of difference between light.
the functioning of animal growth hormones and (ii) The movement of plant parts in response to
plant growth regulators with respect to such water.
control. [CFPQ, CBSE] (2 Marks) (iii) The movement of plant parts towards
3. Suggest a proof that even unicellular organisms chemical substance.
like Amoeba respond to stimuli. Justify giving two (iv) The downward movement of roots in
examples that even plants respond to stimuli. (3 Marks) response to gravitational force.
4. (a) Explain any three directional movements in plants.
(b) How brain and spinal cord are protected in human?
(c) Name the master gland present in the brain.

In the following Questions, the Assertion (A) and Reason 3. Assertion: Brain is a delicate organ which is protected
(R) have been put forward. Read both the statements from injury
carefully and choose the correct alternative from the Reason: Only the bony box protects the brain from
following: any shock.
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the 4. Assertion: Plants do have a nervous system for control
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. and coordination
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason: Plants use electro chemical means to convey
Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. information from cell to cell.
5. Assertion: On attaining puberty, breast size increases
and reproductive organs develop in females.
is true.
Reason: Ovaries release hormone progesterone in
1. Assertion: Reflex arc works faster than thinking female.
process of brain.
6. Assertion: Insulin regulates blood sugar level.
Reason: Reflex arc works in case of those animals
Reason: Insufficient secretion of insulin will cause
who do not have thinking process.
diabetes. [KVS]
2. Assertion: Impulse travels from dendrite to cell body
7. Assertion: A nerve impulse is an electrochemical event.
and then along the axon to its end.
Reason: In a nerve impulse there are changes in the
Reason: Information acquired at the end of the dendrite
resting potential which spread down the nerve fiber.
tip of a nerve cell sets of an electric impulse.
[KVS]
The following questions are case-based with 2-3 short (c) What is the function of adrenaline hormone?
sub-parts. Or
1. Spinal cord reflexes are simple behaviors produced (c) What is the significance of reflex action?
by central nervous system (CNS) pathways that lie 2. All living organisms have the ability to detect changes
entirely within the spinal cord. The sensory afferent in external as well as internal environment and to
fibers that evoke these reflexes enter the spinal cord respond and react appropriately to these changes.
and activate spinal motor neurons directly or through Such an ability of organisms is called irritability. The
a chain of one or more spinal interneurons. Although changes in the environment are called stimuli and the
these pathways are entirely spinal, they are affected organs that detect them are response. The response
by descending pathways from the brain, either directly
to a stimulus may be carried out by the individual
or through other spinal interneurons. Through these
cell, tissue, organs or organ system. The movements
descending pathways, the brain exerts both short-
shown in response to any stimulus are definite, highly
term and long-term influence over spinal cord reflex
function. In the short-term, the brain rapidly adjusts controlled and coordinated. Various organs work in full
spinal reflexes to suit the needs of different tasks (e.g., cooperation and provide appropriate reaction for the
standing vs. walking vs. running). In the long-term, it stimulus and this is called coordination. Coordination
gradually shapes spinal reflexes during development, in animals is brought about the nervous and endocrine
during skill acquisition later in life, and in response systems i.e. nervous and chemical control. In plants,
to CNS trauma and disease. The long-term changes it is brought about only by chemicals (hormones).
that the brain induces in spinal cord reflexes involve When we are frightened by a dog, we run away as
activity-dependent plasticity in the spinal cord itself. fast as we can. Here fear of dog is the stimulus and
(a) Name the part of the brain which controls posture running away is the response.
and balance of the body. (a) What are the stimulus in (i) Geotropism and
(b) What are the two components of the CNS in (ii) Chemotropism
humans? (b) What are the functions of hypothalamus?
(c) Why brain and spinal cord are considered as but PD can affect younger persons as well. There are
central nervous system? an estimated 1 million Americans living with PD and
Or more than 10 million people worldwide.
(c) Where is glucagon secreted? What is its function? (a) Name the hormone synthesised at the shoot tip
3. When we eat food, our eyes, hands and mouth works of plants
in perfect coordination. The eyes focus on the food, (b) What is the significance of reflex action?
the hands pick it up and take it to the mouth where (c) What are endocrine glands?
it is chewed. All these actions are completed in a Or
particular sequence. Similarly, internal functions of (c) Which hormone is released by hypothalamus
our body are carried out by the nervous system in a gland? What is the function of this hormone?
particular sequence. 6. Plants do not move but they respond to their
(a) What is a reflex arc? environment. It means their cells must be able to
(b) How is the spinal cord protected? communicate with other cells. Hormones send
(c) How does an impulse travel in a nerve cell? messages between the cells. Plant hormones or
Or phytohormones are also known as plant growth
(c) Do plants also have nerve cells? How does substances as they coordinate the activities of plants
coordination take place in plant cells? by controlling one or other aspect of the growth of
4. Pea plants need support to grow. It clings on any other the plant. The growth of the plant can be divided into
support and grows. It is possible due to response of three stages: cell division, cell enlargement and cell
plant hormones to different stimuli. Normally, plants differentiation which occur in particular locations in
respond to such stimuli slowly. Plants respond to some a plant. The phytohormones also promote dormancy
stimuli by growing towards it or away from it. in seeds and buds, breaking of dormancy, stomata
(a) The ‘touch-me-not’ plant is an example of which control, wilting and falling of leaves, fruit growth,
tropism? ripening of fruits and delay in ageing of plants.
(b) Give one example of chemotropism. The plant hormones are synthesised at places away from
(c) How does a pea plant cling to its support? where they act and simply diffuse to the area of action.
Or (a) Name a plant hormone that inhibits growth.
(c) Name four different types of tropisms shown by (b) Which hormone is synthesied when growing plants
plants. detect light? Where it is synthesied?
(c) Write two functions of cytokinins.
5. Parkinson (PD) is a type of movement disorder that can
Or
affect the ability to perform common, daily activities.
(c) Write two function of gibberellins.
Although PD is associated with a wide range of
symptoms, there are features of PD that most people 7. Rohit saw an advertisement about iodised salt while
with the condition will experience. These symptoms watching TV. In the advertisement it was stated that
are typically divided into those that affect movement one should take only iodised salt. He also remembered
(motor symptoms) and those that do not (non-motor that the doctor has advised his elder sister to eat iodised
symptoms). The most common motor symptoms of salt when she had developed swollen neck. His teacher
PD are tremor (a form of rhythmic shaking), stiffness has also taught them about various animal hormones.
or rigidity of the muscles, and slowness of movement. (a) Name the disease from which Rohit’s sister
A person with PD may also have trouble with posture, suffered. Why has the doctor advised her to eat
balance, coordination, and walking. Common non- iodised salt?
motor symptoms of PD include sleep problems, (b) Which hormone is known as emergency hormone?
constipation, anxiety, depression, and fatigue, among How it helps in coping during emergency?
others. It is important to note that, although there Or
are common symptoms of PD, they can vary greatly (b) Name an endocrine gland that secretes a hormone
from person to person. Most people who develop the called insulin. Why are some diabetes patients
symptoms of PD do so sometime after the age of 50, treated by giving insulin injections?
NCERT ZONE
Page 105 Page 108

1. What is the difference between a reflex action and 1. What are plant hormones?
walking? Ans. A plant hormone is a chemical substance which is
Ans. Reflex action Walking produced naturally in the plant and regulate growth
and physiological processes to bring about control
(i) It is a spontaneous, (i) It is a voluntary
and coordination of various activities in plants.
involuntary res- response to a stim-
ponse to a stimulus. ulus.
2. How is the movement of leaves of the sensitive
(ii) It is controlled by (ii) It is controlled by plant different from the movement of a shoot
spinal cord. brain. towards light?
(iii) This kind of re- (iii) This kind of re- Ans. Movement of leaves Movement of shoot
sponse occur with- sponse takes lon- of sensitive plant towards light
in the fraction of ger time.
second. (a) Movement of (a) Movement of
leaves of the shoot towards light
2. What happens at the synapse between two sensitive plant is an example of
neurons? is an example of tropic movement.
Ans. Synapse is a gap present between two adjacent
nastic movements.
neurons. Here, the axon terminal of one neuron
(b) Its stimulus is (b) Its stimulus is
is in close proximity to the dendrite of the second
touch. light.
neuron. When the information collected by the nerve
(c) It is not regarded as (c) It is regarded as
endings of the dendrite tip of the nerve cells set up a
growth movement. growth movement.
chemical reaction that creates an electrical impulse.
This impulse is sent to cell body and them along the 3. Give an example of a plant hormone that promotes
axon it reaches the nerve ending of the axon. growth.
At the nerve ending, the electrical signals release Ans. Auxin is a plant hormone that promotes growth.
chemicals. These chemicals cross the gap and again 4. How do auxins promote the growth of a tendril
start a similar electrical impulse in another dendrite of around a support?
another nerve cell. Thus, at the synapse, nerve impulse Ans. Tendrils are sensitive to touch or contact of other
is transmitted from one neuron to other neuron. objects. When a tendril touches a support, the
3. Which part of the brain maintains posture and hormone auxin from the tip of the tendril diffuses
equilibrium of the body? towards the side of the tendril that is not in contact
Ans. Cerebellum which is a part of hindbrain maintains with the support. As a result, the side that is not in
posture and equilibrium of the body. contact with the support grows faster than the side
4. How do we detect the smell of an agarbatti (incense which is in contact with the support. This leads to the
stick)? bending of tendril towards the support.
Ans. In our nose, olfactory receptors are present. They 5. D e s i g n a n e x p e r i m e n t t o d e m o n s t r a t e
detect the smell of incense stick and set off a chemical hydrotropism.
reaction. As a result, a nerve impulse is generated Ans. Following item are required to demonstrate
which is transmitted to sensory nerve. The sensory hydrotropism: Seeds of bean, a deep tray, sand, a
nerve relay the information in the form of nerve porous flower pot.
impulse to the brain via spinal cord. The olfactory
lobe present in the forebrain interpret the message
and we feel the smell.
5. What is the role of the brain in reflex action?
Ans. Reflex action takes place in spinal cord. The
informtion that a reflex action has provided goes on
to reach the brain which stores the information and Set up showing hydrotropism
remembers it for future use.
Procedure: The thyroxine hormone regulates the metabolism of
• The tray should be big enough to accommodate carbohydrates, fats and proteins in the body, so as to
the porous pot. provide the best balance for growth. Deficiency of
• Fill the tray with sand and insert some seeds in iodine in our diet results in a disorder called goitre
it. in which thyroid gland becomes enlarged and thus,
• Make a pit in the sand and insert the porous pot neck becomes swollen. Thus, use of iodised salt is
in it. advisable to prevent the goitre disease.
• Fill the porous pot with water. 3. How does our body respond when adrenaline is
• Leave the set-up for about a week. secreted into the blood?
Observation: After a week when seeds are taken Ans. Adrenal glands secrete hormone adrenaline which is
out, it is observed that roots grow in the direction of called emergency hormone. This hormone is rapidly
the porous pot. This shows hydrotropic movement secreted in response to stress or during emergency
in roots. situations. This hormone speeds up heart beat, rate
Page 111 of respiration and raises glucose level in the blood,
1. How does chemical coordination take place in so that we can get a lot of energy quickly to fight or
animals? flight from the emergency situation.
Ans. In animals, endocrine gland as a result of a stimulation 4. Why are some patients of diabetes treated by
releases a chemical substance called hormone directly giving injections of insulin?
into the blood. Blood carries the hormone to the Ans. Insulin plays an important role in sugar metabolism.
target organ. In target organ, hormone transmit the Insulin lowers the blood sugar level. In some patients
information to bring about the effect. of diabetes, insulin secretion is reduced. Insulin
2. Why is the use of iodised salt advisable? [DoE] injection is given to such patients to compensate for
Ans. Thyroid gland makes a hormone, thyroxine. Iodine is reduced insulin secretion.
necessary for the thyroid gland to make this hormone.
NCERT EXERCISES
1. Which of the following is a plant hormone? cannot convert environmental stimuli into impulses
(a) Insulin (b) Thyroxine and hence, our body would not respond. For example,
(c) Oestrogen (d) Cytokinin gustatory receptors are the receptors of taste located
Ans. (d) Cytokinin is a plant hormone. on the tongue. Now, if the gustatory receptors do not
2. The gap between two neurons is called a work properly, we will not be able to enjoy the taste
(a) dendrite. (b) synapse. of different types of food.
(c) axon. (d) impulse. Olfactory receptors are the receptors of smell located
Ans. (b) Synapse is known as the gap between two in the nasal cavity. If olfactory receptors present in
neurons. our nose do not work properly, we will not be able
to smell things.
3. The brain is responsible for
(a) thinking. 5. Draw the structure of a neuron and explain its
(b) regulating the heart beat. function.
(c) balancing the body. Ans. Nucleus Dendrite
(d) all of these
Ans. (d) The brain is responsible for thinking, regulating
the heart beat and balancing the body as well.
4. What is the function of receptors in our body?
Think of situations where receptors do not work
properly. What problems are likely to arise?
Axon
Ans. The function of receptors in our body is to collect Nerve
informations about the changes in the environment. ending
A nerve cell (Neuron)
Receptors pass this information to central nervous Cell body
system where message is interpreted and appropriate
Function of Neuron: The function of neurons is to
instructions are sent to effector which reveals carry information over long distances in the body
response. These receptors are located in our sense of a person. The impulse of information then travel
organs. If receptors do not work properly, our body from dendrites to cell body, and then along the axon
to its end. These impulses then cross the synapse. At Reflex action is defined as an unconscious, automatic
the end, the impulses travel from one neuron to the and involuntary response of effectors, i.e. muscles
other up to the spinal cord or to the concerned part and glands, to a stimulus, which is monitored through
of the body. the spinal cord. Example of reflex action is the closing
6. How does phototropism occur in plants? of eyes immediately when bright light is focussed to
Ans. The directional or tropic movement of plants towards eyes. Reflex actions are connected with emergency.
the light or away from the light is called phototropism. 11. Compare and contrast nervous and hormonal
When a growing plant detects light, auxin synthesises mechanisms for control and coordination in
at the shoot tip to help the cells to grow longer. When animals. [CBSE 2013]
light comes from one side, auxin diffuses towards the
Ans. Nervous mechanism Hormonal mechanism
shady side of the shoot. This concentration of auxin
stimulates the cells to grow longer on the side of the (i) It is performed by (i) It is performed by
shoot which is away from light and the plant appears nervous system chemical substanc-
to bend towards light. which sent an es, called hor-
electrical impulse mones, secreted by
along axons, and endocrine glands.
as a chemical
across synapse
and acts through
effectors.
(ii) The information is (ii) The information is

transmitted instan- transmitted slowly.
7. Which signals will get disrupted in case of a spinal taneously.
cord injury? (iii) The effects are (iii) The effects are
Ans. All the signals and responses which pass from and to short-lived. generally more
the brain through the spinal cord will get disturbed. prolonged.
Reflex actions will also get disrupted.
12. What is the difference between the manner in
8. How does chemical coordination occur in plants?
which movement takes place in a sensitive plant
Ans. In plants, the stimulated cells release chemical
and the movement in our legs?
compounds, which are called plant hormones.
Different plant hormones help to coordinate growth, Ans. Movement in sensitive Movement in our legs
development and responses to the environment. They plant
are synthesised at places away from where they act
(a) The movement that (a) Movement in our
and simply diffuse to the area of action.
takes place in a sen- legs due to the vol-
9. What is the need for a system of control and sitive plant occurs untary actions.
coordination in an organism? [DoE]
in response to touch
Ans. The different organs of our body work in coordination
(stimulus).
when we perform any activity. For example, when we
are taking food, our eyes help in locating the food, (b) In this movement, (b) The signal or
our nose detects the smell, our hand brings the food the information is messages for these
to our mouth, the teeth and jaw muscles chew the transmitted from cell actions are passed to
food and saliva starts the digestive process. to cell by electro- the brain and hence
So, control and coordination is essential in maintaining chemical signals as are consciously con-
a state of stability and a steady state between the plants do not have trolled.
internal conditions of an organism and the external any specialised
environment. tissue for conduction
10. How are involuntary actions and reflex actions of impulses.
different from each other?
Ans. Involuntary action is the set of muscle movement (c) The plant cells (c) In animal muscle
which does not require thinking. These actions are change shape by cells, some proteins
controlled by brain. Example of involuntary actions changing amount of are found which al-
are beating of heart, breathing, etc. Involuntary water for this move- low the movement to
actions are concerned with the functioning of the ment to take place. occur.
internal body parts.

1. Which of the following statements is correct about 8. Answer the following:
receptors? (a) Which hormone is responsible for the changes
(a) Gustatory receptors detect taste while olfactory noticed in females at puberty?
receptors detect smell (b) Dwarfism results due to deficiency of which
(b) Both gustatory and olfactory receptors detect smell hormone?
(c) Auditory receptors detect smell and olfactory (c) Blood sugar level rises due to deficiency of
receptors detect taste which hormone?
(d) Olfactory receptors detect taste and gustatory (d) Iodine is necessary for the synthesis of which
receptors smell hormone?
Ans. (a) Ans. (a) Oestrogen (b) Growth hormone
(c) Insulin (d) Thyroxine
2. Which of the following is not associated with
growth of plant? 9. Answer the following:
(a) Auxin (b) Gibberellins (a) Name the endocrine gland associated with
(c) Cytokinins (d) Abscisic acid brain.
Ans. (d) (b) Which gland secretes digestive enzymes as
well as hormones?
3. Involuntary actions in the body are controlled by (c) Name the endocrine gland associated with
(a) medulla in fore-brain kidneys.
(b) medulla in mid-brain (d) Which endocrine gland is present in males but
(c) medulla in hind-brain not in females?
(d) medulla in spinal cord Ans. (a) Pituitary gland (b) Pancreas
Ans. (c) (c) Adrenal glands (d) Testes
4. Electrical impulse travels in a neuron from: 10. What are the major parts of the brain? Mention
(a) Dendrite → Axon → Axonal end → Cell body the functions of different parts.
(b) Cell body → Dendrite → Axon → Axonal end Ans. The major parts of the brain are:
(c) Dendrite → Cell body → Axon → Axonal end (i) Fore-brain including cerebrum and olfactory
(d) Axonal end → Axon → Cell body → Dendrite lobes.
Ans. (c) (ii) Mid-brain
5. Which of the following is not an involuntary (iii) Hind-brain including cerebellum, pons and
action? medulla oblongata.
(a) Vomiting (b) Salivation Functions of different parts are as follows:
(c) Heart beat (d) Chewing (i) Fore-brain: There are specific regions in
Ans. (d) cerebrum for each kind of stimulus and response.
(a) Occipital lobe is the region for sight,
6. Why is it advised to use iodised salt in our diet? i.e. visual reception.
[CBSE 2015, KVS]
(b) Temporal lobe is the region for hearing,
Ans. Iodised salt contains iodine which is necessary for i.e. auditory reception.
the thyroid gland to synthesise thyroxine hormone. (c) Frontal lobe is the region for speech,
Thyroxine regulates carbohydrate, protein and fat facial muscular activities and higher
metabolism in the body to provide growth balance. mental activities.
Its deficiency causes goitre. (d) Parietal lobe is the region for taste,
7. Label the endocrine glands in the given figure. smell, touch and conscious association.
(e) Olfactory lobe receives sensation of smell.
(a)
(b)
(ii) Mid-brain: It controls reflex movements of the
head, neck and trunk in response to visual and
(c) auditory stimuli.
(iii) Hind-brain:
(d)
(a) Cerebellum controls the coordination of
body movements and posture.
Ans. (a) Pineal gland (b) Pons take part in regulating respiration.
(b) Pituitary gland (c) Medulla oblongata is the regulating
(c) Thyroid gland centre for swallowing, coughing, sneez-
(d) Thymus gland ing and vomiting.
11. Name various plant hormones. Also give their Abscisic acid (ABA) – They are responsible for in-
physiological effects on plant growth and devel- hibiting or checking the growth. It also causes wilting
opment. of the leaves.
Ans. The various plant hormones are auxin, gibberellin, 12. Why is the flow of signals in a synapse from ax-
cytokinin and abscisic acid. onal end of one neuron to dendrite end of another
Their physiological effects on plant growth and de- neuron but not the reverse?
velopment are as follows : Ans. A chemical substance is released when the electrical
Auxin – It is a growth hormone which helps in cell signal reaches the axonal end of a neuron and this
enlargement and cell differentiation. Auxin also chemical diffuses to the dendrite end of another
promote fruit growth. neuron, which generates electrical signal. Thus, at
Gibberellin – It also helps in the growth of the stem. the axonal end, the electrical signals converted into
Cytokinin – It promotes the cell division. It is pres- chemical signals but at the dendrite end of neurons
ent in high concentrations in the areas of rapid cell these chemicals are not present thus the reverse action
division such as fruits and seeds. is not possible.
1. The hormone not secreted by ovary is 7. What causes shoots of plants to bend towards light?
(a) Relaxin (b) Progesterone 8. ‘There is a close coordination between nerves and
(c) Estrogen (d) Testosterone hormones.’ Explain with an example.
2. The nature of nerve impulse is 9. Name the major parts of the human brain. Which part
(a) Chemical (b) Magnetic of the brain maintains posture and equilibrium of the
(c) Electrochemical (d) Electromagnetic body?
3. Which of the following is the correct sequence 10. (a) Draw the structure of a neuron and label its
regarding the flow of an impulse in a neuron? various parts.
(a) Dendrite → Axon → Cell Body (b) How does nerve impulse travel from one neuron
(b) Axon → Dendrite → Cell Body to another?
(c) Axon → Cell Body → Dendrite 11. (a) Define phototropism and geotropism. With a
(d) Cell Body → Axon → Nerve Terminal labelled diagram, describe an activity to show
4. The number of cranial nerves in mammals is that light and gravity change the direction of
(a) 6 (b) 12 plant parts .
(c) 24 (d) 48 (b) Mention the role of each of the following plant
Direction: In the following Questions, the Assertion and hormones
Reason have been put forward. Read the statements (i) Auxin (ii) Abscisic acid
carefully and choose the correct alternative from the 12. Reflex arcs have evolved in animals because the
following: thinking process of the brain is not fast enough. In fact
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the many animals have very little or none of the complex
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. neuron network needed for thinking. So, it is quite
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the likely that reflex arcs have evolved as efficient way of
Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. functioning in the absence of true thought processes.
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false. However, even after complex neuron networks have
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason come into existing, reflex arcs continue to be more
is true. efficient for quick response.
5. Assertion: Plants respond to light, touch, gravitational Based of above para, answer the following:
force and other stimulus. (a) What is a reflex arc?
Reason: Plants use electrochemical means to convey (b) State two advantages of reflex action.
information from cell to cell (c) What is involuntary action? Give an example.
Or
6. Assertion: Insulin regulates blood sugar level
(c) What will happen if reflex action is not available
Reason: Insufficient secretion of insulin will cause in human being?
diabetes
Scan to get Answers

CHAPTER
7 How do Organisms Reproduce?
MIND MAP
Reproduction
Asexual Sexual (Cont. on next page)

(Need one parent) (Need two parents)
Fission Fragmentation Regeneration Budding Vegetative Spore Formation

Propagation E.g. Rhizopus
Breaks up into 2 or Broken parts of the

Binary Multiple more small pieces organism grow into
fission fission e.g. Spirogyra. separate individuals Natural Artificial
e.g. Planaria.
• Nucleus first divides into two Roots Leaves

• Cytoplasm divides into two e.g. e.g. Bryophyllum
• Two daughter cells are formed Dahlia
e.g. Amoeba, Leishmania.
Stem
e.g.
• Nucleus divides repeatedly producing many nuclei. Ginger
• Each nucleus is surrounded by small amount of cytoplasm.
• Cysts breaks up and offsprings are liberated.
e.g. Plasmodium Cutting Grafting
Any part of a plant • Scion
is cut & buried (Portion grafted)
partly in moist soil, • Stock
1. A bud develops as an outgrowth due to repeated cell division. e.g. rose. (Plant on which
2. When matured, bud gets detached from parent body. grafted)
3. A new independent individual is formed. e.g. Mango
e.g. yeast, Hydra
Layering
• Adventitious roots are produced
• Plant is then detached
e.g. Jasmine
How do Organisms Reproduce? 185
Sexual Reproduction
Unisexual
Human
Flower
Bisexual
Parts of Flower
Sepals Petals Stamen Pistil
Filament Anther Stigma Style Ovary
Sexual Reproduction
Self-Pollination Cross-pollination
Transfer of pollen to the stigma Transfer of pollen to the stigma

of the same flower or another of another flower of a different
flower of the same plant. plant.
Fertilisation
Ovule → Seed Ovary → Fruit

Advantages
Advantages 1. Healthier offspring
1. Preserves parental character 2. Variation
2. Not necessary to produce nectar, odour or be colourful. 3. More viable seeds
Sexual Reproduction
Puberty: Age at which gametes are produced.
Boys Girls
1. Hair growth in armpit & genital area. 1. Hair growth in armpit & genital area.
2. Oily skin & appearance of pimples. 2. Oily skin & appearance of pimples.
3. Thick facial hair growth. 3. Breast size increases.
4. Voice begin to crack. 4. Darkening of nipple skin.
5. Penis occasionally become enlarged & erect. 5. Start of menstruation.
Human Reproductive System
Male Reproductive System Female Reproductive System
1. Testes: Primary reproductive organ. 1. Ovaries: Produce eggs and secrete estrogen and
2. Vas deferens: Long tube to carry sperms to seminal vesicles. progesterone.
3. Urethra: Common duct for urine and spermatic fluid. 2. Fallopian Tube: Carries eggs from ovary to uterus.
4. Penis: Copulatory organ. 3. Uterus: Hollow organ where embryo develops.
5. Seminal Vesicles: Secrete fluid for nourishment of sperms. 4. Vagina: Receives sperms and passage for foetus.
6. Prostate Gland: Produce fluid.
7. Scrotum : A pair of testes lies in the small sac-like muscular
structure outside the abdominal cavity called scrotum.
Sexually Transmitted Diseases

Diseases which spread through sexual contact with an infected person.
1. Gonorrhoea and Syphilis: Caused by bacteria.

Symptoms— Burning sensation in urination, urethral discharge containing pus and sores in the genitals.
2. AIDS (Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome): Caused by HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus).
Symptoms— Suppresses body’s immune mechanism.
Sex Ratio
Number of females per 1000 male.
Pregnancy Control
Mechanical Barrier Use of Uterine Contraceptive Chemical Method Surgical Method

e.g. Condom, cervical cap Devices (IUCDs) e.g. Oral pill Vasectomy (in males)
e.g. Copper-T Tubectomy (in females)
IMPORTANT DIAGRAMS
1. 2.
Binary Fission in Amoeba

Binary fission in Leishmania
3.
Multiple Fission in Plasmodium
4. 5.
Fragmentation in Spirogyra
Regeneration in Planaria
6.
Tentacles
Bud
Budding in Hydra
7. 8.
Leaf of Bryophyllum with Buds

(a) (b) (c) (d)
Different Stages of Grafting
9. 10.
Longitudinal section of a flower

Spore Formation in Rhizopus
11. 12.
Human Male Reproductive System
Fertilisation in a Flowering Plant
13. Oviduct or Fallopian tube
Ovary
Uterus
Cervix
Vagina
Human Female Reproductive System

TOPIC COVERED
Modes of Reproduction Used by Single Organisms
(b) Spores combine with other spores and grow.
Multiple-Choice (c) Spores enlarge in size for the growth of new
Questions 1 Mark individual.
(d) Spores land on other organising and increase
1. Which is the most common method of reproduction with their growth in size.
in bacteria? 7. The image shows a bud developing a Hydra.
(a) Budding (b) Spore formation
(c) Binary fission (d) Multiple fission
2. Which of the following is not an artificial method
of vegetative propagation?
(a) Cutting (b) Layering
(c) Budding (d) Grafting
3. Many unicellular organisms reproduce by the What is the likely purpose of this division in
Hydra? [CBSE T.E.R.M.*]
process of
(a) fission (b) ovulation (a) To increase the body size.
(c) regeneration (d) non-disjunction (b) To recover lost body parts.
(c) To induce variation in body.
4. The ability of an organism to develop whole body (d) To develop new independent individual.
from a broken piece or fragment is called
(a) binary fission (b) budding
(c) multiple fission (d) regeneration Answers
5. While studying binary fission in Amoeba from a
permanent slide under a microscope, 1. (c) B
inary fission is the method of asexual
(i) unicellular and uninucleate organisms showing reproduction in which the formation of two
irregular outline is observed under low power. daughter cells take place from one parent cell.
(ii) unicellular and uninucleate organisms showing It is the most common method of reproduction
irregular outline is observed under high power. in bacteria.
(iii) division of cells of Amoeba are observed under 2. (c) Buds occur naturally.
high power. 3. (a) For unicellular organisms cell division or fission
(iv) division of cells of Amoeba are observed under leads to the creation of new individuals.
low power. 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (d)
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
6. The image shows the formation of spores in Type Questions 2 Marks
Rhizopus.
8. Rajesh observed a patch of greenish black powdery
mass on a stale piece of bread.
(a) Name the organism responsible for this and
its specific mode of asexual reproduction.
(b) Name its vegetative and reproductive parts.
Ans. (a) The greenish black powdery mass on a stale piece
of bread is due to bread mould Rhizopus, which
reproduces by spore formation.
(b) Hyphae or thread like structures are the vegetative
How spores develop into Rhizopus? [CBSE T.E.R.M.*] part and tiny blob like structures or sporangia
(a) Spores divide and grow into new individual. are the reproductive parts.
9. Write two differences between binary fission and 15. Illustrate the following with the help of a suitable
multiple fission in a tabular form. [Delhi 2015] diagram:
Ans. Differences between: Leaf of Bryophyllum with buds.
Binary fission Multiple fission Ans.
(i) It is the division (i) It is the division of
of the parent into the parent into many
two nearly equal small daughter
sized daughter individuals.
individuals.
(ii) N u c l e u s o f t h e (ii) Nucleus of the parent
parent cell divides cell divides to form a 16. List any four reasons for vegetative propagation
to form two nuclei. number of nuclei. being practised in the growth of some type of
10. H o w d o P l a s m o d i u m a n d L e i s h m a n i a plants.
reproduce? Write one difference in their mode Or
of reproduction. [Foreign 2014] List four advantages of vegetative propagation.
Ans. Plasmodium and Leishmania reproduce through [DoE, Foreign 2013]
fission–an asexual method of reproduction. Ans. Advantages of vegetative propagation
Leishmania reproduce with the help of binary (i) Vegetative propagation is a cheaper, easier
fission. Plasmodium reproduce by multiple fission and more rapid method of propagation in
dividing itself into many daughter cells inside its plants than growing plants from their seeds.
cell wall. (ii) Better quality of the plants can be maintained
11. Define multiple fission. Give its one example. by this method.
[Foreign 2014] (iii) It results in propagation of those plants which
Ans. Multiple fission is a type of cell division in which do not produce viable seeds or produce seeds
a single cell divides into many daughter cells with prolonged period of dormancy.
simultaneously, inside a protective covering called (iv) The plants generated from vegetative
cyst, e.g. in Plasmodium. means require less time to grow and have
12. List two advantages of growing grapes or banana the advantage of being more uniform and
plants through vegetative propagation.[AI 2013] genetically similar to the parent stock.
Ans. (i) Traits of the parent plants are preserved. 17. List two advantages of vegetative reproduction
(ii) Since they donot possess viable seeds, practised in case of an orange plant. [Delhi 2012]
vegetative propagation helps to reproduce. Ans. Two advantages of practising vegetative reproduction
13. With the help of a diagram show the different in an orange plant are:
stages of binary fission in Amoeba. [Foreign 2013] (i) the oranges produced are similar in size and
Ans. Binary fission is the division of one cell which shape.
cuts into two similar or identical cells. (ii) many oranges do not produce viable seeds
and hence, vegetative method is a good
alternative.
18. Explain regeneration. [DoE]
Ans. Regeneration is the process by which fully
differentiated organisms give rise to new individual
Binary fission in Amoeba organisms from their body parts. More complex
14. Draw the various stages of binary fission of organisms cannot give rise to new individuals
Leishmania. through regeneration.
Ans. 19. What is meant by asexual reproduction? List its
any two different forms.
Ans. Asexual reproduction: It is the process of producing
new organism from a single parent without the
involvement of sex cells.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f) Fission and fragmentation are two different forms
Binary fission in Leishmania of asexual reproduction.
20. Name an organism which reproduces by spore Reproduction (Budding) in Hydra:

formation. List three conditions favourable for
• Hydra reproduces by budding using the
spores to germinate and grow. regenerative cells.
Ans. Rhizopus reproduces by spore formation
• A bud develops as an outgrowth in Hydra due to
Conditions favourable for spore formation are: repeated cell division at one specific site.
(i) Cool place, (ii) Moist place
• When fully mature, the bud detaches itself
(iii) Dark place. from the parent body and develops into new
21. A farmer bought some strawberries and liked the independent individual.
taste. He decided to grow his own strawberries that Tentacles
should have the same taste.
(a) Which method of cultivation should the farmer
adopt?
(b) Why would the farmer choose this method?
[CFPQ, CBSE] Bud
Ans. (a) Asexual reproduction / Vegetative propagation
(b) It is because fruit produced through vegetative Budding in Hydra
propagation would carry conserved parental 25. What happens when
characteristics. (a) Planaria gets cut into two pieces?
22. What could be the TWO most likely reasons for (b) A mature Spirogyra filament attains
unicellular organisms to reproduce only through considerable length?
asexual reproduction? [CFPQ, CBSE] (c) On maturation sporangia burst? [Foreign 2016]
Ans. (i) They can produce a large number of offsprings Ans. (a) When Planaria gets cut into two pieces, each
in a small period of time. piece grows into a complete organism.
(ii) The offsprings are adapted to survive in the same (b) A mature Spirogyra on attaining considerable
environment. length breaks up into two or more small pieces.
Each piece then grows into a new individual.
A Short Answer (c) When sporangia bursts, spores are released, each
S Type Questions 3 Marks one of which develops into new individual.
26. (a) List two advantages of growing grapes or
23. The process of spore formation takes place in banana plants through vegetative propagation.
many simple multicellular organisms. Name the [AI 2013]
(a) organism using this process to reproduce, and (b) A potato is cut into a number of small pieces.
(b) reproductive and non-reproductive parts of These pieces are then placed only on wet
such organisms. List two benefits to an organism cotton kept in a tray. After few days some
that reproduces through spores. [CBSE 2021 (C)] of the potato pieces gave rise to fresh green
Ans. (a) The organism that reproduces by spore shoots and roots. Why?
formation – Rhizopus. Ans. (a) (i) Traits of the parent plants are preserved.
(b) Reproductive parts of Rhizopus – Sporangia (ii) Since they donot possess viable seeds,
Non-reproductive parts of Rhizopus–Hyphae vegetative propagation helps to reproduce.
Benefits to an organism that reproduces (b) The green shoots and roots were produced only
by spores: those potato pieces which have buds on them
• Spores can be spread through air, water pieces of potato without buds were not able
or animals and so it is good for spread of produce green shoots and roots.
rhizopus to more place. 27. (a) Draw the various stages of binary fission of
• Spores can remain dormant till favourable Leishmania.
conditions become available. (b) What are the changes seen in boys at the time
of puberty?
• Spores help an organism to tide over bad
Ans. (a)
phase. (any two)
24. What is asexual reproduction? Write the process
of budding in Hydra. [Delhi 2017(C)]
Ans. Asexual reproduction: A single parent is involved
and no formation or fusion of gametes take place. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f)
The offspring is the exact copy of the parent. Binary fission in Leishmania
(b) At the time of puberty, the changes which are carried out by specialised cells which proliferate and
seen in boys are given below: make large number of cells and then tissues.
• Thick hairs grow under armpits and pubic
regions. Hairs also grown on other parts of body
like chest and face.
• Voice starts to crack (or deepens).
• Penis begins to enlarge and testes start to make
sperms.
28. What is regeneration? Give one example of
an organism that shows this process and one
organism that does not. Why does regeneration
not occur in the later? [Foreign 2017]
Ans. Regeneration is defined as the ability of any small
part of the body to give rise to a new individual e.g.
(i) Hydra and Planaria shows regeneration. In regeneration, the organism need to be cut into
(ii) Amphibians and human beings do not show pieces to get more organisms. In reproduction, the
regeneration. organism need not to be cut to multiply.
– Regeneration is carried out by certain specialised 31. (a) Name the following: [Delhi 2015]
cells, which can proliferate to make a large (i) Thread like non-reproductive structures
number of cells and different cells undergo present in Rhizopus.
development to become various cell types and (ii) ‘Blobs’ that develop at the tips of the
tissues. non-reproductive threads in Rhizopus.
– Such regenerative cells are not found in (b) Explain how these structures protect themselves
amphibians and humans. and what is the function of the structures
29. Illustrate the following with the help of suitable released from the ‘blobs’ in Rhizopus.
diagrams : Ans. (a) (i) Hyphae (ii) Sporangium
(a) Spore formation in Rhizopus (b) Spores are enclosed within sporangia which
(b) Multiple fission in Plasmodium [HOTS] protects the spores.
Ans. (a) Spore formation in Rhizopus Spores when released from sporangia develops
into new Rhizopus.
32. Explain giving one example of each, the unisexual
and the bisexual flowers. When is it used? Name
three methods of vegetative propagation
Ans. Unisexual flowers contain either stamens or carpels
but not both.
Example: Papaya, watermelon.
Bisexual flowers contain both stamens and carpels.
Example: Hibiscus, Mustard.
The method of developing new plants from the
(b) Multiple Fission in Plasmodium vegetative parts of a plant, such as root, stem or leaf
is called vegetative propagation.
Vegetative propagation can be classified into natural
and artificial methods.
The method of vegetative propagation is used when
some plants like banana, orange, rose and jasmine
have lost the capacity to produce seeds.
The three methods of vegetative propagation are
cutting, layering and grafting.
33. What is vegetative propagation? State two
30. Explain the process of regeneration in Planaria. advantages and two disadvantages of this method.
How is this process different from reproduction? [KVS, AI 2017]
[Foreign 2015; Delhi 2013] Ans. Vegetative propagation refers to the development
Ans. If a Planaria is cut into any number of pieces, each piece of new plants from vegetative parts (roots, stem or
will grow into a complete organism. Regeneration is leaves) of an existing plant.
Advantages of vegetative propagation a synthetic/artificial medium. Tissue culture for
(i) Vegetative propagation is a cheaper, easier and producing new plants is done as follows:
more rapid method of propagation in plants than (i) The tissue/cells are collected from the shoot
growing plants from their seeds. tip of a desired plant.
(ii) Better quality of the plants can be maintained (ii) These cells are then grown in a nutritive
by this method. artificial medium where they divide and
(iii) It results in propagation of those plants which form a mass of identical cells known as
do not produce viable seeds or produce seeds callus.
with prolonged period of dormancy. (iii) The callus are then allowed to grow in
(iv) The plants generated from vegetative means another medium containg hormones
require less time to grow and have the advantage needed for growth and development.
of being more uniform and genetically similar (iv) When small plantlets are developed, they
to the parent stock. (any two) are transplanted into soil or pots where they
Disadvantages: can grow to form mature plants.
(a) No genetic variation is created. (b) (i) It is a fast technique in which thousands of
(b) Continued vegetative propagation can lead to plantlets can be produced in short span of
loss of vigour. time.
(ii) New plants produced through tissue culture
A Long Answer are disease free.
L Type Questions 5 Marks (iii) Plantlets can be grown throughout the year,
irrespective of weather or season. (any two)
34. (a) With the help of a diagram show the different 36.
stages of binary fission in Amoeba. [Foreign 2013]
(b) How do Plasmodium and Leishmania
reproduce? Write one difference in their
mode of reproduction. [Foreign 2014]
(c) Why are budding, fragmentation and
regeneration all considered as asexual types A B
of reproduction?
Ans. (a) Binary fission is the division of one cell which
cuts into two similar or identical cells.

C D
(a) Identify the organisms in figure A, B, C and D.
(b) Identify the life process shown in all the
Binary fission in Amoeba figures.
(c) How is this life process advantageous to the
(b) Plasmodium and Leishmania reproduce through organisms? [HOTS]
fission an asexual method of reproduction. Ans. (a) A. Hydra B. Rhizopus
Leishmania reproduce with the help of binary C. Bryophyllum D. Planaria
fission. Plasmodium reproduce by multiple fission (b) The life process shown in the figures is asexual
dividing itself into many daughter cells inside mode of reproduction.
its cell wall. (c) This life process is advantageous to the organisms
(c) Budding, fragmentation and regeneration are because
all considered as asexual type of reproduction (i) Only one individual is required.
because they involve the formation of (ii) Large numbers of offsprings are produced.
new individuals from single parent without
fertilisation or fusion of gametes. 37. (i) Name and explain the two modes of asexual
reproduction observed in Hydra.
35. (a) What is tissue culture? How it is done? (ii) What is vegetative propagation? List two
(b) Disscuss two advantages of tissue culture. advantages of using this technique. [CBSE 2023]
Ans. (a) Tissue culture is the method of developing plants Ans. (i) Hydra reproduces asexually by regeneration
from plant cells or small pieces of plant tissue in and budding.
Regeneration in Hydra: (ii) V
egetative propagation refers to the development
If a Hydra is cut into any number of pieces, of new plants from vegetative parts (roots, stem
each piece will grow into a complete organism. or leaves) of an existing plant.
Regeneration is carried out by specialised cells Advantages of vegetative propagation
which proliferate and make large number of cells – Vegetative propagation is a cheaper, easier
and then tissues. and more rapid method of propagation in
Budding in Hydra: plants than growing plants from their seeds.
• Hydra reproduces by budding using the – Better quality of the plants can be maintained
regenerative cells. by this method.
• A bud develops as an outgrowth in Hydra due – It results in propagation of those plants which
to repeated cell division at one specific site. do not produce viable seeds or produce seeds
• When fully mature, the bud detaches itself with prolonged period of dormancy.
from the parent body and develops into new – The plants generated from vegetative means
independent individual. require less time to grow and have the advantage
of being more uniform and genetically similar
Tentacles
to the parent stock. (any two)
Bud
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. The main method of reproduction in yeast is (iv) The changes take place in an organised sequence
(a) budding referred to as development.
(b) cutting (a) i, ii, iii, iv (b) i, iii, ii, iv
(c) sporogenesis (c) i, iv, ii, iii (d) i, iii, iv, ii
(d) grafting 4. Tissue culture technique is used for
2. The figure shows that a single celled organism divides (a) rabi crops (b) cash crops
into many daughter cells simultaneously by multiple (c) ornamental plants (d) fruit trees
fission. Identify the organism. 5. Vegetative propagation is practiced for growing plants
which
(i) produce seeds
(ii) do not produce seed
(iii) produce viable seeds
(iv) produce non-viable seeds
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
6. Leaves of Bryophyllum fallen on the ground produce
new plants whereas the leaves of rose do not. Why ?
(a) Paramecium (b) Amoeba 7. ‘Grafting is a common method of obtaining a superior
(c) Plasmodium (d) Leishmania plant from two different plants’. Explain.
3. The steps of the process of regeneration are given in 8. How do the ornamental plants propagate ? Mention
a random order. Which of the following is the correct the method of propagation for the following:
sequence of steps? (i) Jasmine (ii) Rose
(i) Regeneration is carried out by specialised cells. (iii) Bougainvillea (iv) Hibiscus
(ii) From the mass of cells, different cells undergo 9. What causes joining up of stock and scion in grafting ?
changes to become various cell types and Name one positive trait that the plant contributing
tissues. scion should have and one positive trait that the plant
(iii) The specialised cells proliferate and make large contributing the stock should have. [HOTS]
number of cells.
10. (a) List in tabular form two differences between 12. Describe the different methods of asexual
binary fission and multiple fission. reproduction seen in animals with the help of neat
(b) What happens when a mature Spirogyra filament labelled diagrams. [KVS]
attains considerable length? [CBSE 2020] 13. (a) How do Leishmania and Plasmodium reproduce?
11. What is meant by tissue culture? How this technique (b) State one difference in their mode of reproduction.
is performed? In which area this technique is finding (c) Define the term vegetative propagation
its application? [DoE] (d) List four advantages of vegetative propagation.
TOPICS COVERED
DNA Copying and Sexual Reproduction
4. The image shows the different parts of a flower.
Multiple-Choice
Questions 1 Mark
1. During the process of copying the DNA, some

variations are so drastic that
(a) a new born cell divides to give rise to two cells.
(b) a new born cell will survive and start multiplying.
(c) the new DNA copy will work with the cellular
apparatus it inherits.
(d) the new DNA copy will not work with the cellular
apparatus it inherits. Which part of the pistil is responsible for
2. The diagram shown below depicts pollination. receiving pollen from stamen in order to perform
Choose the options that will show a maximum reproduction? [CBSE T.E.R.M.*]
variation in the offspring.[CBSE Sample Paper 2023] (a) Anther (b) Ovary
A (c) Petal (d) Stigma
C B
5. The image shows the female reproductive system.
Oviduct or
Fallopian tube
D Ovary
Uterus
Cervix
(a) A, B and C (b) B and D
(c) B, C and D (d) A and C Vagina
3. The diagram below represents the male human
reproductive system.
Which event will be likely affected, if a female’s
P
uterus is implanted with intrauterine device?
[CBSE T.E.R.M.*]
Q (a) Release of eggs (b) Entering of sperms
R
(c) Maturation of eggs (d) Implantation of embryo
6. Pollen grains are produced by
S
(a) ovary (b) ovule
(c) anther (d) corolla [KVS]
Identify the part that is responsible for the 7. Which of the following is a primary sex organ in
secretion of testosterone. a mammal?
(a) P (b) Q (a) Ovary (b) Vagina
(c) R (d) S (c) Uterus (d) Mammary glands
8. The ability to reproduce is lost in a female after
(a) fertilisation (b) menstruation
(c) gamete formation (d) menopause
9. When a sperm is deposited into the vagina which 14. (a) Trace the path a male gamete takes to fertilise
route does it travel? a female gamete after being released from the
(a) Vagina → Oviduct → Uterus → Cervix penis.
(b) Vagina → Ovary → Uterus → Oviduct (b) State the number of sets of chromosomes
(c) Vagina → Cervix → Uterus → Oviduct present in a zygote. [CBSE Sample Paper 2022]
(d) Vagina → Uterus → Cervix → Oviduct Ans. (a) Male gamete (sperm) travels in the female
10. In case the ova does not fertilise, which of the reproductive tract after being released. The path
following events will take place? which it takes to fertilise the female gamete (egg)
(a) Menstruation (b) Pregnancy is vagina, uterus, fallopian tube resulting in a
(c) Implantation (d) Ovulation zygote.
11. When the foetus is growing inside the uterus (b) Zygote has 2 sets of chromosomes
it needs nutrients. Which part provides these 15. (a) Label (1) and (2) in the given diagram showing
nutrients? sex determination in human beings.
(a) Placenta (b) Amniotic sac (b) If a child inherits X-chromosome from the father
(c) Oviduct (d) Uterus what will be his/her gender? [CBSE 2021 (C)]
12. What marks the beginning of the reproductive life 1. 1.
of a woman?
(a) Menopause (b) Menarche
(c) Fertilisation (d) Ovulation X
X Y
13. Where does fertilisation take place?
(a) Uterus (b) Vagina
(c) Oviduct (d) Cervix
2. 2.
Answers
XX XY
1. (d) S ome variations are so drastic that the new DNA Ans. (a) 1. R e p r e s e n t s s p e r m s h a v i n g X a n d
copy cannot work with the cellular apparatus it Y-chromosomes and an ovum having
inherits. Such a newborn cell will simply die. X-chromosomes.
2. (d) 2. Represent a zygote having XX-chromosomes
3. (d) Testes (S) secrete hormone testosterone. which will develop into a girl child and a
4. (d) Stigma of pistil receives pollens. zygote having XY-chromosomes which will
5. (d) develop into a male child.
6. (c) Stamen comprising of anther and filament is the (b) If a child inherits X-chromosome from the father,
male reproductive part and it produces pollen the gender will be a female.
grains.
7. (a) Ovary is the primary sex organ as it releases egg. 16. Justify the statement ‘Primary sex organs
8. (d) control the growth, function and maintenance of
9. (c) secondary sex organs’.
10. (a) If the egg is not fertilised, the lining of uterus Ans. Primary sex organs produce the gametes and sex
slowly breaks and comes out through the vagina hormones - testes secretes testosterone and ovary
as blood, known as menstruation. secretes estrogen and progesterone.
11. (a) The embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s Testosterone controls the growth, maintenance and
blood with the help of a special tissue called functions of secondary sex organs like prostate gland,
placenta. seminal vesicles and penis in a male.
12. (b) W hen the ovary starts producing eggs, the Estrogen and progesterone controls the growth,
reproductive health of a woman starts and it is maintenance and functions of secondary sex organs
called menarche. like uterus, fallopian tubes, etc.
13. (c) The sperm introduced inside the vagina move up Thus, we can justify that the primary sex organs
through the cervix into the uterus and then pass control the growth and development of secondary
into oviduct where it meets the egg. sex organs.
17. Why is it said that ‘sexual reproduction promotes, (b) Why are testes located outside the abdominal
diversity of characters in the offsprings’? [HOTS] cavity of the body?
Ans. It is said that ‘sexual reproduction promotes diversity Ans. (a) The two types of germ cells present in human
of characters in the offsprings’ because sexual beings are sperm and ova. The sperm of human
reproduction results from the fusion of two gametes have either X or Y chromosome. The ova always
coming from two different and sexually distinct carry X chromosome. The sperm is structurally
individuals. This leads to variation which is necessary long with a tail. Whereas the ova is round in
for evolution. structure.
(b) Testes are located outside the abdominal cavity
A Short Answer because sperm formation requires a lower
S Type Questions 3 Marks temperature in comparison to normal body
temperature. Testes being outside the abdominal
18. What is placenta? Describe its role during cavity, gets an optimal temperature for the
pregnancy. [CBSE 2021 (C)] production of sperms.
Ans. A special tissue placenta is a disc which is embedded 22. (a) Describe why variations are observed in the
in the uterine wall. It contains villi on the embryo’s offspring formed by sexual reproduction.
side of the tissue and on mother’s side are blood (b) List two preparations shown every month
spaces which surround the villi. by the uterus in anticipation of pregnancy in
Role of placenta during pregnancy. human. [Foreign 2014]
(i) Placenta provides a large surface area for
Ans. (a) Variations are observed in the offspring
glucose and oxygen to pass from the mother’s
formed by sexual reproduction. During sexual
side to the embryo.
reproduction, two types of gametes fuse. Even
(ii) It also transports wastes generated by the
though the gametes contain the same number of
developing embryo into mother’s blood. chromosomes, their DNA is not identical. This
19. Describe ‘double fertilisation’ in plants. [HOTS] causes variation among offsprings.
Ans. During fertilisation in plants, the following events take (b) The uterus prepares itself every month to receive
place : and nurture the growing embryo. The lining
(i) One of the male gametes fuses with the female thickens and is richly supplied with blood to
gamete present in the embryo sac. nourish the growing embryo.
(ii) The other male gamete fuses with the two polar
23. (a) List the parts of human male reproductive
nuclei in the embryo sac.
system which contribute fluid to the semen.
The first fusion product gives rise to the zygote while
State two advantages semen offers to the
the second one forms the endosperm. The process of
sperms.
fusion occurring twice in the embryo sac is called (b) Describe the role of fallopian tubes in the
double fertilisaton. female reproductive system.
20. What are chromosomes? Explain how in Ans. (a) Prostate gland and seminal vesicles add fluid in
sexually reproducing organisms the number of the vas deferens. Semen makes transportation of
chromosomes in the progeny is maintained. sperms easier and also provides nutrition to the
[AI 2015] sperms.
Ans. ‘Chromosomes’ are long thread-like structures which (b) Fallopian tubes:
contain hereditary information of the individual and (i) They carry eggs from ovaries to uterus.
are thereby the carriers of genes. Chromosomes are (ii) They allow sperm to travel to meet the egg.
located in the nucleus of a cell. (iii) Fertilisation takes place here.
The parents are diploid (2n) as each of them has two 24. Name the three parts A, B and C of the flower shown
sets of chromosomes. They form haploid (1n) male in the following diagram and state one function of
and female gametes through the process of meiosis. each. [AI 2017(C); Delhi 2016]
The haploid gametes have one set of chromosomes.
These two gametes fuse during fertilisation and the
offspring become diploid (2n) which is same as A
parents chromosome number.
B
21. (a) Name the two types of germ-cells present in
human beings. How do they structurally differ C
from each other? Give two differences.[DoE]
Ans. A = Anther of stamen. Function of pollen tube: The pollen tube facilitates
Function: Anther contains two pollen sacs within movement of male germ cell through it to reach
which numerous pollen grains are produced. female germ cell.
B = Style Function of female germ cell: It meets with the male
Function: It connects the ovary and stigma through germ cell to form zygote which divides many times
which the pollen enters the ovary. to form an embryo.
C = Ovule 27. S t a t e t h e b a s i c re q u i re m e n t f o r s e x u a l
Function: Ovule contains female gamete, egg.
reproduction? Write the importance of such
25. What is meant by pollination? Name and reproductions in nature. [Delhi 2017]
differentiate between the two modes of pollination Ans. Sexual reproduction requires male and female
in flowering plants. [CBSE 2020, 16] individuals of the species.
Ans. Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from the New genetic variations are created, where each
anther of a stamen to the stigma of a carpel. The two variation would be novel, as sexual reproduction
modes of pollination are self pollination and cross combines DNA (genetic material with accumulated
pollination. variations) from two different individuals. Such genetic
Self-pollination Cross-pollination variations are useful in ensuring survival of species.
(i) S e l f - p o l l i n a t i o n (i) Cross-pollination 28. List six specific characteristics of sexual
occurs within a occurs between reproduction. [AI 2015]
flower or between two flowers borne Ans. Specific characteristics of sexual mode of
two flowers of the on different plants reproduction.
same plant. of the same species.
(i) Sexual reproduction promotes diversity of
characters in the offsprings.
(ii) F l o w e r s d o n o t (ii) A g e n t s s u c h a s (ii) It results in new combinations of genes brought
depend on other insects, water and together in the gametes and this reshuffling
agencies for wind are required increases genetic variation.
pollination. for pollination. (iii) It plays a prominent role in the origin of new
species.
(iii) Pollen grains are (iii) Pollen grains are (iv) The sexual mode of reproduction incorporates
produced in small produced in large process of combining DNA from two different
numbers. numbers. individuals during reproduction.
(v) It need two parents to produce an offspring.
26. Identify A, B and C in the given diagram and write
(vi) Sex cells are used in sexual reproduction.
one function of each. [AI 2015]
29. Name the male and female gametes in animals.
A What is fertilization and where does it take place
in human females? [HOTS]
Ans. The male and female gametes in animals are sperm
and ovum respectively.
B Fertilization is defined as the fusion of a male gamete
(sperm) with a female gamete (an ovum or egg) to
form a zygote during sexual reproduction.
Fertilization takes place in the fallopian tube of a
human female.
30. State the changes that take place in the uterus
C
when:
(a) Implantation of embryo has occurred.
(b) Female gamete/egg is not fertilised. [Delhi 2017]
Ans. (a) After implantation, the cell divisions continue to
Ans. A = Stigma B = Pollen tube occur.
C = Female germ cell A placenta develops and the embryo gets nutrition
Function of stigma: Stigma helps in receiving from the mother’s blood through placenta.
the pollen grains from the anther of stamen during The complete development of the foetus occurs
pollination. in about nine months.
(b) When the female gamete is not fertilised, the (ii) AIDS and genital Warts are STDs caused by
thickened and spongy lining of the uterus is not viral infection.
required any more. Spread of STDs can be prevented by—
Hence, the lining along with its blood vessels, (a) Avoiding sexual contact with infected persons.
breaks and comes out through the vagina as blood (b) Using condom for penis during sexual act.
and mucus, in the process, called menstruation. 34. What is AIDS? Which microbe is responsible for
31. Draw a well labelled diagram of human female AIDS infection? State one mode of transmission
reproductive system. Explain the menstrual cycle of this disease. Explain in brief one measure for
of female. [DoE] the prevention of AIDS.
Ans. Oviduct or Ans. AIDS is the Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome.
Fallopian tube
It is caused by a virus called Human Immunodeficiency
Ovary
Virus.
Uterus
AIDS is transmitted by sexual contact with an
infected person.
Cervix
AIDS can be prevented by avoiding sexual contact
with an infected person or by using condom during
Vagina sex.
35. What does HIV stand for? Is AIDS an infectious
The uterus prepares itself every month to receive and disease ? List any four modes of spreading AIDS.
nurture the fertilized egg. The lining of the uterus Ans. HIV stands for Human Immunodeficiency Virus.
thickens and is richly supplied with blood to nourish Yes, AIDS is an infectious disease.
the embryo. If the egg is not fertilized, the thick and Four modes of spreading AIDS are as follows:
nourishing lining of the uterus breaks and comes out (i) By having sexual contact with an infected
through vagina as blood and mucus which is called person.
menstruation. The cycle of events taking place in (ii) By the transfusion of blood from an infected
the ovaries and uterus every twenty eight days and person.
marked by menstrual flow is called menstrual cycle. (iii) Through infected needles used for injection.
32. In human females, what happens when (iv) Through the placenta from the mother to child
(a) egg is fertilised during pregnancy.
(b) egg is not fertilised? [DoE] 36. Expand AIDS. List any four methods of prevention
Ans. The lining of uterus becomes thick and spongy before (control) of AIDS.
release of an egg. Ans. AIDS stands for Acquired Immuno Deficiency
(a) If the egg is fertilized, it moves upto uterus Syndrome.
and gets implanted on uterus. The uterine wall Four methods of prevention or control of AIDS are as
thickens and richly supplied with blood. The follows :
region between embryo and uterine wall grows (i) Using condom during sex.
into placenta which provides nourishment and (ii) Avoiding sharing of needles or use of disposable
oxygen to the embryo. The child is borne as
needles.
a result of rhythmic contraction of the uterine
(iii) Testing blood for AIDS before transfusion.
muscle.
(iv) Avoiding sexual contact with unknown person.
(b) If the egg is not fertilized, the thick and nourishing
lining of the uterus breaks and comes out through 37. List four categories of contraceptive methods.
vagina as blood and mucus which is called State in brief two advantages of adopting such
menstruation. preventive methods. [AI 2015]
33. What are sexually transmitted diseases. List two Ans. Four methods of contraception used by humans are:
example of each diseases caused due to (i) bacterial (a) Mechanical barrier such as condom.
infection and (ii) viral infection. Which device or (b) Surgical method such as vasectomy or tubectomy.
devices may be used to prevent the spread of such (c) Chemical method such as oral or vaginal pill.
diseases. [DoE, Delhi 2015, 13] (d) Copper-T.
Ans. STDs are diseases which spread by sexual contact Advantages of using contraceptives.
from an infected person to a healthy person. (a) It helps in avoiding unwanted pregnancy.
(i) Gonorrhoea and Syphilis are STDs caused by (b) Condom helps in preventing transmission of
bacterial infection. STDs.
38. List three points of significance of reproductive 41. In the diagram below, each labelled region (P to W)
health in a society. represents a certain combination of reproductive
Ans. (i) The mother carrying a child should be physically processes found in an animal. Each labelled region
matured. is characterised by the different circles that it is
(ii) The mother should be mentally fit to take care (or is not) a part of. [CFPQ, CBSE]
of the child. Internal Embryo develops inside
(iii) There should be at least 3 years gap between 2 fertilisation the mother’s body
children.
S
(iv) Nutritious food should be available to the P T
mother during pregnancy and lactation period. R
(any three) U
39. List three techniques that have been developed to
prevent pregnancy. Which one of these techniques W V
is not meant for males? How does the use of these Embryo gets nutrition
techniques have a direct impact on the health and directly from the
prosperity of a family? [AI 2017] mother’s body
(a) Name any one animal whose mode of
Ans. The techniques to prevent pregnancy include:
reproduction is represented by region P.
(i) Creation of mechanical barriers.
(ii) Changing the hormonal balance of the body. (b) The description of a species of fish called
(iii) Use of intra-uterine contraceptive devices. ‘guppy’ is given below:
(iv) Surgical methods. “Guppies are live-bearing fish, with a gestation
Use of intra-uterine devices is not meant for males. period of 21-30 days. Once inseminated,
Impact of use of contraceptives: female guppies can store sperm in their
(i) Use of mechanical barriers like condoms can ovaries, which can continue to fertilise ova
prevent the spread of sexually-transmitted up to eight months, meaning the female mate
diseases. can give birth to the male’s offspring long
(ii) Pregnancy will make major demands on the after the male’s death.”
body and mind of the woman and if she is not (i) Based on the given information, which
ready for it, her health will be adversely af- labelled regions CAN guppies belong to?
fected; such a condition can be avoided. (ii) What additional information is required
(iii) By having a small family, the standard of living to identify the labelled region in the
can be improved. diagram that guppies ACTUALLY
40. List any four methods of contraceptions used by belong to? [CFPQ, CBSE]
humans. How does their use have a direct effect Ans. (a) Animals that lay eggs after internal fertilisation
on the health and prosperity of a family. such as birds, lizards, etc.
[Delhi 2015, AI 2013] (b) (i) R or S
Ans. Four methods of contraception used by humans are: (ii) Whether the embryo gets nutrition directly
(i) Mechanical barrier such as condom. from the mother’s body
(ii) Surgical method such as vasectomy for male
and tubectomy for female. A Long Answer
(iii) Chemical method such as oral and vaginal pills. L Type Questions 5 Marks
(iv) Copper-T
Sexual act always has the potential to pregnancy. 42. (a) What is pollination? Explain its significance.
Pregnancy makes major demand on the body and [CBSE 2020]
mind of the woman, and if she is not ready for it, (b) Explain the process of fertilisation in flowers.
her health will be adversely affected. Contraceptive Name the parts of the flower that develop after
methods help in avoiding pregnancy and also help fertilisation into
in keeping gap between two children, so that the (i) seed, (ii) fruit.
woman’s body recovers. These methods help in Ans. (a) It is the transfer of pollen grain from the anther
limiting number of children to one or two. If family of a flower to the stigma of a carpel.
size is small, the family can save some amount after Significance of pollination:
meeting the day to day expenditure. This will improve (i) It is necessary for seed formation and thus,
the economic condition of the family and the family perpetuation of species.
will prosper. (ii) It stimulates the development of fruits.
(b) • After the pollen lands on a suitable stigma, (c)
it has to reach the female germ cells in the
ovary.
• The pollen tube grows out of the
pollen grain through the style to reach the
ovary.
• Male germ cell travels through the pollen
tube to reach the female germ cell and
fertilizes it.
• After fertilisation, the zygote divides
several times to form an embryo within
the ovule.
(i) Ovule becomes seed.
(ii) Ovary becomes fruit.
Fertilisation in a flowering plant

44. (a) Name the human male reproductive organ that
produces sperms and also secretes hormones.
Write the functions of the hormone secreted.
(b) Name the parts of the human female
reproductive system where (i) fertilization and
(ii) implantation occur respectively. Explain
how the embryo gets nutrition inside the
mother’s body. [Foreign 2014]
Ans. (a) The formation of sperms takes place in the testis.
It secretes the hormone, called testosterone. In
addition to regulating the formation of sperms,
testosterone brings about changes in appearance
seen in boys at the time of puberty.
43. (a) How does pollination occur in plants? (b) (i) The fertilisation takes place in the fallopian
(b) How does pollination lead to fertilisation? tubes.
Explain. (ii) The implantation occurs in the uterus.
(c) Draw a diagram showing germination of The uterus prepares itself every month to receive
pollen on stigma of a flower. [DoE, KVS] and nurture the growing embryo. The lining
Ans. (a) Pollination is of two types – self-pollination and thickens and is richly supplied with blood to
cross- pollination. nourish the growing embryo.
Self-Pollination: It is the transfer of pollen grains The embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s
from the anther of a flower to the stigma of the blood with the help of a special tissue called
same flower or another flower of the same plant. placenta. The development of the child inside the
It is seen in pea plant. mother’s body takes approximately nine months.
Cross Pollination: When the pollen grains from On completion of nine months, the child is born
the anther of a flower on one plant are transferred due to a rhythmic contractions of the muscles in
to the stigma of a flower on another similar plant, the uterus.
it is called cross pollination. 45. (a) Write the functions of the following parts in
(b) When pollen grains fall on the stimga of the human female reproductive system:
carpel, it grows a polen tube downwards through
(i) Ovary (ii) Oviduct (iii) Uterus
the style towards the female gamete in the ovary.
(b) Describe the structure and function of
A male gamete moves down the tube. when the
placenta.[CBSE 2018, AI 2017, 17(C), Delhi 2016]
pollen tube enters the ovule, its tip bursts open
Ans. (a) (i) Ovary
and male gamete comes out of the pollen tube
– It produces the female gametes or germ
and combine with the nucleus of the female
cells, called ova.
gamete and forms zygote. This process is known
– It secretes the female sex hormones such
as fertilization.
as oestrogen and progesterone.
(ii) Oviduct (b) Seminal vesicle: Seminal vesicles are a pair
– It transports the ova from the ovary to of thin-walled muscular elongated sac which
uterus/womb. secrete fluid for nourishment of sperms.
– Fertilisation occurs in the oviduct. (c) Vas deferens: The sperms are carried by a long
(iii) Uterus tube called vas deferens to organs called seminal
– Implantation of the embryo occurs in vesicles where the sperms get nourishment, and
the lining of uterus and the complete stored.
development of foetus occurs here. (d) Ureter: It is the tube that carries urine from
– the contractions of the muscles of uterus kidney to the urinary bladder. In humans, there
help in child birth. are two ureters, one attached to each kidney.
(b) Structure of placenta: (e) Prostate gland: Prostate gland produce a fluid
– Placenta is a disc-like structure embedded in the which is released in the urethra along with the
uterine wall. secretion of seminal vesicles for nourishment
– It contains villi on the embryo’s side and on and transportation of sperms.
the mother’s side there are blood spaces, 48. (a) Name the organ that produces sperms as well
which surround the villi; this arrangement as secretes a hormone in human males. Name
provides a large surface area for exchange of the hormone it secretes and write its functions.
materials. (b) Name the parts of the human female
Functions of placenta: reproductive system where fertilisation
– It transfers glucose and oxygen from the mother’s occurs.
blood to the foetus. (c) Explain how the developing embryo gets
– It also removes the wastes (CO2 and nitrogenous nourishment inside the mother’s body.
wastes) generated by the foetus to the mother’s [Delhi 2017]
blood. Ans. (a) The male organ is testis. It secretes the hormone
46. (a) Why does fertilisation occur only once in a testosterone and regulates the formation of
month in a human female? Explain. sperms.
(b) Prenatal sex determination has been prohibited It brings about changes in the appearance of boys
by law. State the necessity of enforcement of at the time of puberty.
this law. (b) Fertilisation occurs in the oviduct.
(c) Where are human testis located and why? (c) The developing embryo gets nourishment from
State their functions. [Foreign 2013] the mother’s blood with the help of a special
Ans. (a) On attaining puberty, the eggs in the ovaries of tissue, called placenta.
a human female starts maturing. Only one egg The placenta provides a large surface area for the
is produced by one of the ovaries every month. passage of glucose and oxygen from the mother’s
Fertilisation can therefore occur only once in a blood to the embryo.
month in a human female. 49. What is a seed? What are the parts of a seed?
(b) The most ideal female, male sex ratio for a Explain with the help of a labelled diagram. What
healthy society is 1000:1000. Because of reckless are the advantages of seed formation for the plant?
female foeticide, sex ratio is decreasing at an Ans. A seed is the reproductive unit of a plant.
alarming rate in some sections of our society. It A see has following parts:
has therefore become necessary to ban detection Seed coat: It is the protective covering of the seed.
of sex of the foetus. Cotyledons: These are the embryonic leaves that
(c) Testis are located outside the abdominal cavity store food for the germination of young plant.
inside the scrotum in a human male. The scrotum Plumule: It is the part of embryo that gives rise to
provides optimum temperature for the formation shoot.
of sperms. Radicle: It is the part of embryo that gives rise to
47. Describe in brief the role of (a) testis (b) seminal roots.
vesicle, (c) vas deferens, (d) ureter and (e) prostate
gland in human male reproductive system.
Ans. (a) Testis: Testis are oval-shaped primary
reproductive organs in men. The function of Plumule
(future shoot)
testes is to produce sperms and male sex hormone Cotyledon
testosterone. The scrotum provides optimal (food store) Radicle
temperature for the formation of sperms. (Future root)
Germination of seed
Seed provide the following advantages to a plant: (b) Viral infections: Warts, AIDS (Acquired Immuno
(i) Seed provide protection to young embryo. Deficiency Syndrome)
(ii) Seed formation is more dependable, therefore, (c) Role of placenta.
it helps the species to spread in other areas by After implantation, a disc like special tissue
different modes of dispersion. develops between the uterus wall and the embryo
(iii) Seeds stores food for embryo to be nourished. called placenta.
50. List two sexually transmitted diseases in each of the The exchange of nutrients, oxygen and waste
following cases: products between the embryo and the mother
(a) Bacterial infections takes place through the placenta.
(b) Viral infections (b) If the egg does not get fertilised (due to non-
(c) State the role of placenta in the development availability of sperms in the female body) then
of embryo. the thick and soft inner lining of uterus along
with the blood vessels and the dead egg comes
(d) What happens when the egg is not fertilized?
out of the vagina in the form of bleeding called
Ans. (a) Bacterial infections: Gonorrhoea, Syphilis
menstruation.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. What provides oxygen and nutrition to the developing 6. What is a seed? How does it help in reproduction in
embryo in the female body? [KVS] plants?
(a) Fallopian tube 7. Fertilisation is possible if ovulation has taken place
(b) Ovary during middle of the menstrual cycle. Give reasons.
(c) Uterus [HOTS]
(d) Placenta
8. What changes are noticed on sexual maturity of
2. Which of the following is caused by Virus? [KVS] human beings?
(a) AIDS (b) Gonorrhoea
9. How does the embryo get nourishment inside the
(c) Syphilis (d) All of these
mother’s body? [KVS]
3. The time period for the development of fetus inside
10. Name two bacterial diseases which are sexually
the mother’s body is called: [KVS]
transmitted. Name their causal organisms, symptoms
(a) Gestation (b) Ovulation
and preventive measures.
(c) Menarche (d) Menopause
4. A pair of duct arising from testis, which carry sperms 11. (a) How are variations useful for species if there is
are drastic alteration in the niches?
(a) fallopian tube (b) vas deferens (b) Explain how the uterus and placenta provide
(c) oviduct (d) urethra necessary conditions for proper growth and
development of the embryo after implantation?
5. “DNA copies generated will be similar, but may not
be identical to the original.” Explain. [HOTS]

1. Differentiate between the following: (3 Marks) 4. Write one difference between asexual and sexual
(a) Bud of Hydra and bud of Bryophyllum mode of reproduction. Which species is likely to
(b) Fragmentation and regeneration have comparatively better chances of survival – the
(c) Fertilization and germination one reproducing asexually or the one reproducing
2. Define reproduction. How does it help in providing sexually? Give reason to justify your answer.
stability to the population of species?[DoE, AI 2016] [CBSE 2018] (3 Marks)
(3 Marks) 5. (a) Which are the two main types of reproduction
3. Reproduction is one of the most important in living organisms?
characteristics of living beings. Give three reasons (b) Classify the following under these two types:
in support of the statement. [AI 2017] Amoeba, Frog, Earthworm, Yeast [HOTS]
(3 Marks) (3 Marks)
6. Planarians can regenerate lost body parts due to the 7. (a) Why is it not possible to reconstruct the
presence of specialised cells called neoblasts. These whole organism from a fragment in complex
specialised cells multiply and make a large mass of multicellular organisms?
cells from which different cells undergo changes to (b) Sexual maturation of reproductive tissues and
become different types of cells and tissues. organs are necessary link for reproduction.
(a) In plants, in which type of tissue are cells that Elucidate. [CBSE Sample Paper 2023]
have a function similar to neoblasts found? (5 Marks)
(b) How do the characteristics of a planarium formed
by regeneration compare with the characteristics
of the original planarium? Justify your answer.
[CFPQ, CBSE]
(3 Marks)

Direction: In the following Questions, the Assertion and 4. Assertion: Plants raised by vegetative propagation
Reason have been put forward. Read the statements can bear flower and seed earlier than those produced
carefully and choose the correct alternative from the from seeds.
following: Reason: Plants which lost capacity to bear viable
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the seeds, can propagate through vegetable propagation.
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. 5. Assertion: Ovary releases one egg every month.
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason: The lining of uterus is always thick and
Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. spongy.
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false. 6. Assertion: In human beings the female produces two
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason types of gametes.
is true. Reason: Female has two X chromosomes. [KVS]
1. Assertion: Amoeba reproduces by fission. 7. Assertion: A bisexual flower produces ova as well
Reason: All unicellular organisms reproduce by as the pollen.
asexual method. Reason: Ova and pollen are produced in the carpel.
2. Assertion: In human beings, the female play a major [KVS]
role in determining the sex of the offspring. 8. Assertion: Oral contraceptive pills and copper-T do
Reason: Women have two X chromosomes. not prevent sexually transmitted diseases.
3. Assertion: In male reproductive system, transport Reason: Sexually transmitted disease are transmitted
of sperm takes place in a fluid which also provide by contact with mucous membranes of infected organs.
nutrition.
Reason: Prostate glands and seminal vesicles secrete
in the vas deferens.
The following questions are case-based with 2-3 short
sub-parts.
1. The male reproductive system consists of portions
that produce the germ cells and other portions that
deliver the germ cells to the site of fertilisation.
Testes are located outside the abdominal cavity in
the scrotum. Vas deferens unites with a tube coming
from the urinary bladder. The urethra is a common
passage for sperms and urine. The prostate gland and
seminal vesicles add their secretions so that sperms
are now in a fluid.
(a) Name the site of production of sperm in males. Reproduction is the process by which organisms
(b) State the function of testosterone hormone. increase their population. The process of sexual
(c) What is the significance of human testis being maturation for reproduction is gradual and takes place
located in the scrotum? while general body growth is still going on. Some
Or degree of sexual maturation does not necessarily
(c) Human testis is known as extra abdominal. Give mean that the mind or body is ready for sexual acts
reason. or for having and bringing up children. Various
2. The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) targets contraceptive devices are being used by human
the immune system and weakens people’s defence beings to control the size of population.[CBSE 2020]
systems against infections. As the virus destroys (a) List two common signs of sexual maturation in
and impairs the function of immune cells, infected boys and girls.
individuals gradually become immunodeficient. (b) Write two factors that determine the size of a
Immunodeficiency results in increased susceptibility population.
to a wide range of infections, cancers and other (c) What is the result of reckless female foeticide?
diseases that people with healthy immune systems Or
can fight off. (c) Which contraceptive method changes the
The most advanced stage of HIV infection is acquired hormonal balance of the body?
immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), which can 5. Vegetative propagation refers to the development
take from 2 to 15 years to develop if not treated, of new plants from vegetative parts (roots, stem or
depending on the individual. The symptoms of HIV leaves) of an existing plant. It is generally preferred
vary depending on the stage of infection. Though for growing those plants which cannot produce
people living with HIV tend to be most infectious their seeds or those which produce non-viable seeds
in the first few months after being infected, many (or seeds with prolonged period of dormancy). It is
are unaware of their status until the later stages. In cheaper, easier and more rapid method of propagation
the first few weeks after initial infection people may in plants than growing plants from their seeds.
experience no symptoms or an influenza-like illness (a) Name the part of Bryophyllum where the buds
including fever, headache, rash or sore throat. are produced for vegetative propagation.
(a) Do contraceptive pills prevent transmission of (b) Name the plant parts that are used in vegetative
STD? propagation.
(b) Name one STD caused by bacteria. (c) List two disadvantages of vegetative propagation.
(c) What happens when a person is infected by HIV? Or
Or (c) State what type of method is used for growing
(c) Mention two modes of transmission of HIV. (i) jasmine plant (ii) rose plant
3. Reproduction is the process by which organisms 6. Angiospermic plants rely on pollination before
increase their population. It is of two types – asexual fertilization. Pollination is the transfer of pollen
and sexual reproduction. The rates of birth and from anthers to the stigma of a flower/s. The major
death determine the size of human population. An pollinators are honey bees but other pollinating
expanding population makes it harder to improve agents like wind, water and other insects also help
everybody’s standard of living. If we look around in pollination.
us, we can identify that expanding population is the (a) Observe the given figures, identify them and write
most important reason for poor living standards. one similarity and one dissimilarity between
The process of reproduction also introduces new these.
variations. These variations introduce changes
which enable species to survive in even adverse
environment.
(a) Give one advantage of asexual reproduction.
(b) Name two modes of reproduction used by single
organisms.
(c) Write two significance of reproduction.
Or
(c) What is the importance of variation in a species? (A) (B)
4. The growing size of the human population is a (b) (i) W

hat are the disadvantages of self
cause of concern for all people. The rate of birth and pollination and cross pollination?
death in a given population will determine its size. (ii) Draw a germinating seed and label the
future root and shoot.
Or (a) How long the baby is carried in mother’s womb?
(b) Outline the journey of pollen after landing on a Draw a diagram of human reproductive system
suitable stigma to the formation of seeds. and mark where the baby is carried in mother’s
7. Ankita started feeling changes in her body and also womb for a long time.
observed similar changes taking place in all the girls of (b) What are some of the changes that are seen in
her class. She is curious to know about it. Her mother girls but not in boys?
explained that changes are seen both in boys and girls. Or
But in girls, the changes are more important as they (b) Ankita also wants to know how does embryo get
become mothers to babies and the baby is carried in nutrition from mother’s blood?
mother’s body for a long period and will be breast fed
later.
NCERT ZONE
Page 114 Ans. Differences:

1. What is the importance of DNA copying in Binary fission Multiple fission
reproduction? [KVS] (i) It is the division (i) It is the division of
Ans. DNA contains information for inheritance of characters of the parent into the parent into many
from parents to the next generation. As a result of two nearly equal small daughter
DNA copying, blueprints of body design are produced sized daughter individuals.
which passes from parents to the offsprings. Thus, individuals.
DNA copying maintains the body features in different (ii) N u c l e u s o f t h e (ii) Nucleus of the parent
generations of a species. Sometimes DNA copying also parent cell divides cell divides to form a
creates variation which are useful for the survival of to form two nuclei. number of nuclei.
species over time. (iii) Ameoba and (iii) Plasmodium and
2. Why is variation beneficial to the species but not Leishmania divide yeast divide by
necessarily for the individual? by binary fission. multiple fission.
Ans. A species include a large number of individuals of 2. How will an organism be benefitted if it reproduces
the same kind. All the organisms of a species have through spores?
similar body design and well adapted to a niche or Ans. There are some benefits for the organisms which
place. If a variation arises in the individual, it may not reproduce through spore formation. They are given
be of much benefit to it; even this variation may lead below:
to the death of the individual. But the variation may (i) Reproduction through spores is a simple as well
be beneficial if the species faces a drastically altered as faster mode of reproduction.
condition. In this condition, the population may be (ii) The spores are light in weight and thus, they
wiped out completely. But if some variations are there keep floating in the air. This helps in the dis-
in few individuals of these populations, there could be persal of the organism.
chances for survival and thus, variation is beneficial (iii) The spores are covered with thick layer which
for the species. For example, if there is a population of enable them to survive in the unfavourable
certain bacteria living in water which is neither hot or conditions like extreme temperatures lack of
cold and if the temperature of water increases suddenly, food and water.
then most of the bacteria living in that water would die. 3. Can you think of reasons why more complex
But some bacteria which are resistant to heat would organisms cannot give rise to new individuals
be able to survive. However, if these variation were through regeneration?
not there, then the entire species of bacteria would not Ans. More complex organisms cannot give rise to new
have been survived. individuals through regeneration because:
Page 119 (i) Simple organisms reproduce through regenera-
1. How does binary fission differ from multiple tion as their entire body is made up of similar
fission? [CBSE 2020] kind of cells whereas complex organisms have
a very high degree of organisation in their body.
(ii) There are specific organs to do specific func- 5. Why is DNA copying an essential part of the pro-
tions. cess of reproduction? [DoE]
(iii) There is a labour division in the body of com- Ans. The process of reproduction results in the produc-
plex organisms. tion of offsprings which resemble to their parents.
(iv) Regeneration is carried out by specialised cells This means during the reproduction there must be
which are not present in complex organisms. a transfer of the blueprint of the body design from
4. Why is vegetative propagation practised for grow- parent to the offsprings. DNA copying is essential
ing some types of plants? as it passes generic information from parents to off-
Ans. Vegetative propagation is generally preferred for spring. It determines the body design of an individual.
growing those plants which cannot produce their The reproducing cells produce a copy of their DNA
seeds or those which produce non-viable seeds (or through some chemical reactions and results in two
seeds with prolonged period of dormancy). copies of DNA. Out of these two copies, one copy
is passed to the newly formed individual.
Page 126
1. How is the process of pollination different from fertilisation? [KVS]
Ans. Differences between:
Pollination Fertilisation
(a) It is the transfer of pollen grains from anther to the (a) It is the fusion of male and female gametes.
stigma of a flower.
(b) Pollination precedes fertilisation. (b) Fertilisation occurs only after pollination when the
pollen grain has germinated and sent the male gametes
to ovule.
(c) Pollination carries the male gamete producing pollen (c) Fertilisation brings about fusion of gametes.
grains to the female sex organ.
2. What is the role of the seminal vesicles and the • Menstruation starts and the ovaries also start to
prostate gland? [DoE, KVS] release eggs.
Ans. (i) Seminal vesicles are a pair of thin-walled 4. How does the embryo get nourishment inside the
muscular elongated sac which secrete fluid for mother’s body?
nourishment and smooth transport of sperms. [Delhi 2012]
(ii) Prostate gland also produce fluid which is Ans. The embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s blood
released in the urethra along with the secretion with the help of a special tissue called placenta.
of seminal vesicles to make transportation of This is a disc which is embedded in the uterine wall.
sperms easier and also provides nutrition. The embryo receives the oxygen and nutrients from
3. What are the changes seen in girls at the time of the mother’s blood through placenta. The waste
puberty? materials produced by the embryo are also cleared
Ans. At the time of puberty, the changes which are seen away through placenta.
in girls are given below: 5. If a woman is using a copper-T, will it help
• Thick hair grows in armpits and in the pubic in protecting her from sexually transmitted
region. diseases?
• Mammary glands develop and begin to enlarge. Ans. If a woman is using a copper-T, it will not help in
• The hips broaden. protecting her from sexually transmitted diseases.
• Fat is deposited in various parts of the body as STDs transmit due to exchange of body fluid and
thigh, hips and shoulders. copper-T cannot prevent from exchanging body fluid.
NCERT EXERCISES
1. Asexual reproduction takes place through budding 2. Which of the following is not a part of the female
in reproductive system in human beings?
(a) Amoeba. (b) Yeast. (a) Ovary. (b) Uterus.
(c) Plasmodium. (d) Leishmania. (c) Vas deferens. (d) Fallopian tube.
Ans. (b) Yeast reproduces asexually by budding. Ans. (c) Except vas deferens, all others are parts of female
reproductive system in human beings.
3. The anther contains 8. What are the different methods of contraception?
(a) sepals. (b) ovules. [KVS]
(c) carpel. (d) pollen grains. Ans. The different methods of contraception are:
Ans. (d) Anther contains pollen grains. (i) Mechanical Barrier Methods: In these
methods, physical devices such as condoms,
4. What are the advantages of sexual reproduction diaphragm and cervical caps are used. These
over asexual reproduction? devices prevent the entry of sperms in the
Ans. Advantages of sexual reproduction: female genital tract during copulation, thus
(i) Sexual reproduction promotes diversity of acting as a barrier between them.
characters in the offsprings. (ii) Chemical Methods: In these methods, specific
(ii) The sexual mode of reproduction incorporates drugs are used by females, which are of two
process of combining DNA from two different types — oral pills and vaginal pills.
individuals during reproduction. It plays a It contains hormones which stop the ovaries
prominent role in the origin of new species. from releasing ovum into the Oviduct. These
(iii) The genetic variations that arise as a result pills act by changing the hormonal balance
of sexual reproduction also provide wider of the body, so that eggs are not released and
adaptability to the offsprings which ensures fertilisation cannot occur.
survival advantage. (iii) Use of Intra Uterine Contraceptive Devices
5. What are the functions performed by the testis in (IUCDs): Copper-T is very effective in
human beings? preventing pregnancy. It prevents implantation
Ans. The functions performed by the testis in human beings in the uterus. It is placed safely inside the uterus
are as follows: by a doctor or a nurse.
(i) Formation of sperms takes place in testis. (iv) Surgical Methods: In these methods, a small
(ii) It secretes the hormone testosterone which portion of vas deferens in male and the fallopian
regulates the formation of sperms and brings tube in female is surgically removed or tied. It
about secondary sexual characters in boys at is called vasectomy in males and tubectomy in
the time of puberty. females. If the vas deferens in male is blocked,
sperm transfer will be prevented and if the
6. Why does menstruation occur? fallopian tube in the female is blocked, the
Ans. Menstruation is a process in which thick blood flows egg will not be able to reach the uterus, thus
out in the form of vaginal bleeding. This process take fertilisation will not take place.
place every month because every month an egg is
9. How are the modes of reproduction different in
received from the ovary and uterus prepares itself to
unicellular and multicellular organisms?
receive the fertilized egg. Thus, the inner lining of the
Ans. The modes of reproduction are different in unicellular
uterus gets thickened and is supplied with blood to and multicellular organisms. The unicellular
nourish the embryo. If the egg is not fertilised, then organisms have only one cell. There is no separate
the lining of the uterus breaks down slowly and gets tissue for reproduction. So, they can reproduce by
released in the form of blood and mucous from the the process of fission, i.e. binary or multiple fission,
vagina. or by budding as in Yeast.
7. Draw a labelled diagram of the longitudinal The multicellular organisms contain various cells
section of a flower. and separate system for reproduction, so that they
Ans. can reproduce by both sexual and asexual methods.
10. How does reproduction help in providing stability
to populations of species?
Ans. Reproduction helps in providing stability to
populations of species because it helps living
organisms to produce new individuals that resembles
to the parents.
The process of reproduction also introduce new
variations. These variations introduce changes
which enable species to survive in even adverse
environment.
Longitudinal section of a flower
11. What could be the reasons for adopting there should be a gap between the two issues
contraceptive methods? and contraceptives are used to prevent and delay
Ans. Contraceptive methods are adopted for the following the unwanted pregnancy.
reasons. (ii) For preventing STDs: Condom is used to
(i) For preventing unwanted pregnancy: prevent the transmission of fatal diseases like
Childbirth affects the health of a woman. So, AIDS which transmits through sexual act

1. In the list of organisms given below, those that (c) they reproduce only sexually
reproduce by the asexual method are (d) they are all multicellular
(i) banana (ii) dog Ans. (a)
(iii) yeast (iv) Amoeba 7. Vegetative propagation refers to formation of new
(a) (ii) and (iv) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv) plants from:
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (a) stem, roots and flowers
Ans. (b) (b) stem, roots and leaves
2. In a flower, the parts that produce male and female (c) stem, flowers and fruits
gametes (germ cells) are: (d) stem, leaves and flowers
(a) stamen and anther Ans. (b)
(b) filament and stigma 8. During adolescence, several changes occur in the
(c) anther and ovary human body. Mark one change associated with
(d) stamen and style sexual maturation in boys.
Ans. (c) (a) Loss of milk teeth (b) Increase in height
3. Offspring formed by asexual method of (c) Cracking of voice (d) Weight gain
reproduction have greater similarity among Ans. (c)
themselves because: 9. In human males, the testes lie in the scrotum,
(i) asexual reproduction involves only one because it helps in the:
parent (a) process of mating
(ii) asexual reproduction does not involve (b) formation of sperm
gametes (c) easy transfer of gametes
(iii) asexual reproduction occurs before sexual (d) all the above
reproduction Ans. (b)
(iv) asexual reproduction occurs after sexual
10. Which among the following is not the function of
reproduction
testes at puberty?
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii)
(i) formation of germ cells
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)
(ii) secretion of testosterone
Ans. (a) (iii) development of placenta
4. Characters transmitted from parents to offspring (iv) secretion of estrogen
are present in: (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(a) cytoplasm (b) ribosome (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
(c) Golgi bodies (d) genes Ans. (c)
Ans. (d) 11. The correct sequence of organs in the male
5. Characters that are transmitted from parents to reproductive system for transport of sperms is:
offspring during reproduction show: (a) testis → vas deferens → urethra
(a) only similarities with parents (b) testis → ureter → urethra
(b) only variations with parents (c) testis → urethra → ureter
(c) both similarities and variations with parents (d) testis → vas deferens → ureter
(d) neither similarities nor variations Ans. (a)
Ans. (c) 12. Which among the following diseases is not sexually
6. A feature of reproduction that is common to transmitted?
Amoeba, Spirogyra and Yeast is that: (a) Syphillis (b) Hepatitis
(a) they reproduce asexually (c) HIV - AIDS (d) Gonorrhoea
(b) they are all unicellular Ans. (b)
13. In a bisexual flower inspite of the young stamens
being removed artificially, the flower produces
fruit. Provide a suitable explanation for the above
situation. [HOTS]
Ans. Removal of stamens of a bisexual flower will not
A B C D E
affect pollination as its pistil is inact. Therefore,
Ans. Yes, a Planaria cut vertically into two halves
formation of fruit will take place as transfer of
regenerate into two individuals. The shaded parts in
pollen grains from the anther of another flower to figures D and E represent the regenerated halves.
the stigma of flower will take place which causes
cross-pollination.
14. Can you consider cell division as a type of
reproduction in unicellular organism? Give one
reason.
D E
Ans. Yes, because cell division in a unicellular organism
results in the formation of two daughter cells, which 20. From the internet, gather information about the
means it produces more individuals of the organisms. chromosome numbers of five animals and five
For example, Amoeba is a simple unicellular organism plants. Correlate the number with the size of
that splits into two daughter cells. organism and answer the following questions.
(a) Do larger organisms have more number of
15. What is a clone? Why do offsprings formed chromosomes/cells?
by asexual reproduction exhibit remarkable (b) Can organism with fewer chromosomes
similarity? reproduce more easily than organisms with
Ans. Clone is the exact genetic replica of another more number of chromosomes?
individual. All the offsprings formed from a parent (c) More the number of chromosomes/cells
through asexual method of reproduction are same. greater is the DNA contents. Justify.
The remarkable similarity of asexually produced Ans. (a) No, there is no correlation between chromosome
daughter individuals is due to genetic similarity as number and size of the individual.
they possess exact copies of DNA of their parent. (b) No, chromosome number does not affect
16. Colonies of yeast fail to multiply in water, but reproduction. Reproduction depends on
multiply in sugar solution. Give one reason for environmental factors like nutrients availability,
this. [HOTS] water source, etc.
Ans. Energy is essential for any activity in living organisms. (c) Yes, since major component of chromosome is
Sugar provides this energy for sustaining all life DNA, if there are more chromosomes in a cell
activities in yeasts. In water, it fails to reproduce means more DNA.
because of inadequate energy in its cells. So, colonies 21. In tobacco plant, the male gametes have twenty
of yeast fail to multiply in water but multiply in sugar four chromosomes. What is the number of
solution. chromosomes in the female gamete ?
17. Why does bread mould grow profusely on a moist What is the number of chromosomes in the zygote?
slice of bread rather than on a dry slice of bread? [HOTS]
Ans. Bread mould require moisture and nutrients for its Ans. The number of chromosomes in the female gamete
growth. A moist slice of bread contains both moisture is 24. The number of chromosomes in the zygote is
and nutrients, hence it grows profusely as compared 48.
to a dry slice of bread which contains only nutrients 22. Why cannot fertilisation take place in flowers if
but no moisture. pollination does not occur?
18. Give two reasons for the appearance of variations Ans. Pollination is essential for bringing the male gametes
among the progeny formed by sexual reproduction. to meet the female gamete. Only after the arrival
Ans. (i) In sexual reproduction, two parents have of pollen grains on stigma and entry of pollen tube
different sets of characters. into ovary, male gamete fuse with female gamete. In
absence of pollination, there will be no male gamete
(ii) Gene combinations are different in gametes.
to bring about fertilisation.
19. Would a Planaria cut vertically into two halves
23. Is the chromosome number of zygote, embryonal
regenerate into two individuals? Complete figure
cells and adult of a particular organism always
D and E by indicating the regenerated regions.
constant? How is the constancy maintained in
these three stages? [HOTS]
Ans. Yes, the chromosome number of zygote, embryonal known as menstruation and it lasts for about two to
cells and adult of a particular organism is always eight days.
constant. The constancy is maintained because the 29. What changes are observed in the uterus
cells in all these three structures undergo only mitotic subsequent to implantation of young embryo?
divisions. Ans. The changes observed in the uterus subsequent to
24. Where is the zygote located in the flower after implantation of young embryo are —
fertilisation ? The uterine wall thickens and is richly supplied
Ans. Zygote is located inside the ovule which is present with blood. The contact region between embryo and
in the ovary part of the pistil. uterine wall grows into placenta which provides
25. Reproduction is linked to stability of population nourishment and oxygen to the embryo. Waste
of species. Justify the statement. material of developing embryo are removed by
Ans. In reproduction, DNA passes from one generation transferring them into the mother’s blood through
to the next. The copying of DNA takes place with the placenta.
consistency but with minor variations and this 30. What are the benefits of using mechanical barriers
consistency leads to stability of species. during sexual act?
26. How are general growth and sexual maturation Ans. The benefits of using mechanical barriers during
different from each other? [HOTS] sexual act are —
Ans. General growth is the growth of different types of (i) Prevention of pregnancy – Mechanical barriers
developmental process in the body like increase in like condom prevents the sperms from reaching
height, weight gain, changes in shape and size of the the egg, which is an effective method to avoid
body. Reproductive organs are less active during this pregnancy.
phase. (ii) Non-transmission of Infections – There is no
Sexual maturation is a set of changes in the body of transfer of diseases from the infected person to
an individual at puberty like cracking of voice, new non-infected person.
hair patterns, development of breast in female, etc. 31. What would be the ratio of chromosome number
27. Trace the path of sperm during ejaculation and between an egg and its zygote? How is the sperm
mention the gland and their functions associated genetically different from the egg? [HOTS]
with the male reproductive system. [DoE] Ans. The ratio of chromosome number between an egg and
Ans. The sperms comes out from testis into the vas deferens its zygote is 1: 2. Egg is produced through meiosis
and then pass through urethra before ejaculation. and therefore, contains half number of chromosomes
The secretions of seminal vesicle and prostate glands of its parent cell whereas zygote is the product of
provide nutrition to the sperms and also facilitate their fertilization between male and female gamete and
transport. thus, contains double the number of chromosomes
28. What changes are observed in the uterus if with respect to egg.
fertilisation does not occur? Sperm is genetically different from the egg in the way
Ans. The thick and spongy lining of the uterus slowly that it contains either X or Y chromosome whereas,
breaks and comes out through the vagina as blood an egg always contains an X chromosome.
and mucous if fertilisation does not occur. This is
32. Distinguish between a gamete and zygote. Explain their roles in sexual reproduction.
Ans. Differences between:
Gamete Zygote
(i) It is a germ cell that takes part in fertilisation. (i) It is a product of fertilisation.
(ii) There are two types of gametes – male and female. (ii) Zygote is of one type.
(iii) A gamete has haploid or 1n chromosome number. (iii) Zygote has diploid or 2n chromosome number.
(iv) A gamete carries charac-teristics of only one parent. (iv) It carries characteristics of both the parents.
(v) Gamete is the last cell of its generation. (v) It is the first cell of new generation.
Role of Gamete in sexual reproduction — Gamete is the sex or germ cell specialised to take part in sexual
reproduction. Fusion of male gamete with a female gamete produces a zygote.
Role of Zygote in sexual reproduction — Zygote develops into embryo that later forms the new individual.

33. Draw the diagram of a flower and label the four whorls. Write the names of gamete producing organs in the
flower.
Ans.
Parts of a Flower

Male gamete forming part – Anther of stamen.
Female gamete forming part – Ovary of pistil
34. How does fertilisation take place? Fertilisation occurs once in a month. Comment.
Ans. Fertilisation takes place in the following ways:
(i) The sperm enters through the vaginal passage during sexual intercourse and moves upward.
(ii) Egg released from the ovary reaches the oviduct.
(iii) Sperm encounters egg in the oviduct and fertilisation takes place.
Fertilisation occurs once in a month because egg is released by female ovary once every month in the middle
of menstrual cycle.
1. Gynoecium is 7. Describe the role of fallopian tube in the female
(a) Differentiated into ovary, style and stigma reproductive system.
(b) Differentiated into filament and anther 8. Why is DNA copying an essential part of the process
(c) Male reproductive part of reproduction?
(f) Female reproductive part
9. ‘Grafting is a common method of obtaining a superior
2. Double fertilisation is a characteristics of plant from two different plants’. Explain.
(a) Angiosperms (b) Pteridophytes
10. Illustrate the following with the help of suitable
(c) Gymnosperms (d) Bryophytes
diagram:
3. Fertilisation of ovum takes place in (a) Binary Fission in Amoeba
(a) Ovary (b) Fallopian tube (b) Leaf of Bryophyllum with buds
(c) Cervix (d) Uterus
11. What is pollination? How does it occur in plants?
4. The period of development of foetus in the uterus is How does pollination lead to fertilisation?
known as:
12. Read the following paragraph and answer the
(a) Cleavage (b) Gestation
questions:
(c) Implantation (d) Menstruation
Direction: In the following Questions, the Assertion and Creation of two new cells from one involves copying of
Reason have been put forward. Read the statements the DNA as well as of the cellular apparatus. The DNA
carefully and choose the correct alternative from the copying mechanism, cannot be absolutely accurate,
following: and the resultant errors are a source of variations in
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the populations of organisms. Every individual organism
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. cannot be protected by variations, but in a population,
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the variations are useful for ensuring the survival of the
Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. species. It would therefore make sense if organisms
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false. come up with reproductive mode that allows more
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason and more variation to be generated.
is true. (a) Write one significance of reproduction.
(b) What is the advantage of sexual mode of
5. Assertion: Banana reproduce from roots reproduction?
Reason: Plants which lost the capability to produce (c) Write one advantage of asexual mode of
viable seeds reproduce by vegetative method reproduction.
6. Assertion: In male reproductive system, transport Or
of sperms take place in a fluid which also provide (c) How do organisms reproduce by regeneration?
nutrition.
Reason: Protective glands and seminal vesicles
secrete in the vas deferens
Scan to get Answers

CHAPTER
8 Heredity
MIND MAP
IMPORTANCE OF VARIATION
1. It enables organisms to adapt in changing environment. 2. It forms the basis of heredity.
3. It forms the raw material for evolution and development of new species.
Traits
Inherited traits Acquired traits

Characteristics transmitted from parent to offspring, generation to generation. Characteristics developed during the lifetime of an individual.
Mendel’s experiment with one Mendel’s experiment with two

contrasting character contrasting characters
Heredity
Transmission of traits
from parents to their
offspring.
Chromosome Sex determination in human being
[Long thread-like structure containing hereditary information]
Gene
[Unit of inheritance]
DNA
[Chemical in the chromosome which carries hereditary characters in a coded form]
Heredity 215
TOPIC COVERED
Accumulation of Variation During Reproduction

Multiple Choice Type Questions 2 Marks
Questions 1 Mark
4. Why is variation beneficial for the species, but not
1. Which of the following is an example of genetic necessarily for the individual? [Foreign 2013, HOTS]
variation? Ans. Accumulation of variation in a species enables them
(a) One person has a scar, but his friend does not. to adapt according to the changes and the new needs.
(b) One person is older than another. This provides survival advantage to the species. But an
(c) Reeta eats meat, but her sister Geeta is a individual does not get any advantage due to variation
vegetarian. that takes place on him. Thus, variation is beneficial
(d) Two children have different eye colours. for a species, but not necessary for the individual.
2. Differences between organisms in a species are 5. Define variation in relation to a species. Why is
described as variation. Which of the following variation beneficial to the species? [HOTS, DoE]
would you describe as continuous variation? Ans. Variation refers to the differences in the characters or
(a) Hair colour (b) Eye colour traits among the individuals of a species. Variation is
(c) Weight (d) Sex beneficial to the species because:
3. The image shows the model of a family of dogs. It (i) It enable the organisms to adapt themselves in
can be observed that the offspring is similar to the changing environment.
parent but not identical. What is the likely reason (ii) It forms the basis of heredity.
for this? [KVS] (iii) It forms the raw materials for evolution and
White ears development of new species.
Brown 6. Describe briefly four ways in which individuals
ears with a particular trait may increase in a population.
[HOTS]
Ans. The four ways in which individuals with a particular
trait may increase in a population are as follows:
Father Mother
(i) Sexual reproduction results into increase in
population.
(ii) The individuals with special traits survive the
Both white attack of their predators and multiply while the
and brown
ears other will perish.
Offspring
(iii) Genetic drift provides diversity without any
adaptation.
(a) Variation in the genetic material (iv) Variations in the species may lead to increased
(b) Fast multiplication of body cells survival of the individuals with a particular trait.
(c) Asexual mode of reproduction
7. Mustard was growing in two fields- A and B. While
(d) Effect of environment on the offspring
Field A produced brown coloured seeds, field
B produced yellow coloured seeds.
Answers It was observed that in field A, the offsprings
1. (d) showed only the parental trait for consecutive
2. (c) Continuous variation has no limit on the value generations, whereas in field B, majority of the
it can have in a population. Weight, height are offsprings showed a variation in the progeny.
some of the examples of continuous variation. What are the probable reasons for these?
3. (a) [CBSE Sample Paper 2022]
Ans. In field A, the reason for parental trait in consecutive Ans. (a) All the variations do not have equal chances
generations of the offsprings is self-pollination. of survival as some variations might not be
(1 Mark) beneficial and would ultimately be eliminated.
In field B, variation is seen to occur because of (b) Because human being reproduce sexually and
recombination of genes as cross-pollination is taking variation are more in sexually reproducing
place. (1 Mark) [CBSE Marking Scheme] organisms.
8. In an asexually reproducing species, if a trait X A Short Answer
exists in 5% of a population and trait Y exists in S Type Question 3 Marks
70% of the same population, which of the two trait
is likely to have arisen earlier? Give reason. 10. Explain with an example how variation took place
[CBSE Sample Paper 2022] due to inheritance.
Ans. Trait Y which exists in 70% (larger fraction) of the Ans. Variation in Population:
population, is likely to have arisen earlier because An example. Few red beetles live on a green leafy bush,
in asexual reproduction, identical copies of DNA grows by sexual reproduction and generate variation.
are produced and variations do not occur. (1 Mark) • Crows eat these beetles, leaving only fewer beetles
New traits come in the population due to sudden available for reproduction.
• Due to colour variation during reproduction, only
mutation and then are inherited. 70 % of the population
one green beetle evolved and therefore, all its
with trait Y is likely to have been replicating that
progeny beetles become green.
trait for a longer period than 5 % of population • Crows cannot see green coloured beetles on green
with trait X. (1 Mark) [CBSE Marking Scheme] leaves and hence, cannot eat them, resulting in
9. (a) All the variations in a species do not have equal more green beetles than red ones in the beetle
chances of survival. Why? [Foreign 2014] population.
(b) Why variations are more in human beings? • This type of variation gives a survival advantage.
PRACTICE QUESTION
1. Name the scientific terms used to represent the (b) The transmission of traits from parents to
following: offspring.
(a) The branch of biology which studies heredity (c) Differences in a trait in human beings.
and variation. (d) A recognisable feature of an organism.
TOPIC COVERED
Heredity
2. Two individuals are as shown using geometric
Multiple Choice shapes.
Questions 1 Mark
1. To study the natural phenomenon of inheritance,
Mendel selected the pea plants. Which of the
following properties were suitable for their
studies? Xf Y Xm Xm
(i) Plants would easily self pollinate or cross Their sex chromosomes are respectively denoted by
pollinate in nature. Xf, Xm and Y. What are the possible combinations
(ii) Plants were easily grown in garden soil with a of sex chromosomes for their male and female
considerably shorter generation time. offspring respectively? [CBSE T.E.R.M.*]
(iii) Pea plants do not require the true-breeding for (a) Xf Xm and Xm Xm (b) Xm Y and Xm Xm
hybridisation experiments. (c) Xf Y and Xm Y (d) XmY and Xm Xf
(iv) Many parts of the plant such as pod, seed, 3. If a tall pea plant is crossed with a pure dwarf
flower, cotyledons showed distinct phenotypes. pea plant then, what percentage of F1 and F2
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv) generation respectively will be tall?
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) [CBSE Sample Paper 2023]
Heredity 217
(a) 25%, 25% (b) 50%, 50% 8. (c) Both parents DNA influences the trait of their
(c) 75%, 100% (d) 100%, 75% offspring.
4. Attached earlobes in humans is an inherited 9. (c)
condition. The allele for attached earlobes is
recessive. V S A Very Short Answer
What are the chances of parents, both having Type Questions 2 Marks
attached earlobes, to have a child with attached
10. Sex determination in humans happens through sex
earlobes? [CFPQ, CBSE]
chromosomes. Along with other parameters, such
(a) 0% (b) 25% (c) 75% (d) 100%
processes often help in forensic studies in crime
5. Humans have two different sex chromosomes, investigation and / or identification of accidents
X and Y. Based on Mendel’s laws; a male offspring and natural calamities, In order to determine
will inherit which combination of chromosomes? whether an accident victim is male or female,
[CBSE T.E.R.M.*] which cells can be used and why? [CFPQ, CBSE]
(a) Both the X chromosomes from one of its parents. Ans. • Any cell of the body can be used.
(b) Both the Y chromosomes from one of its parents. • It is because every cell has the sex chromosomes
(c) Combination of X chromosomes from either of as the 23rd pair.
its parents.
11. Why did Mendel select pea plants for conducting
(d) Combination of X and Y chromosome from either
his experiments on inheritance? [DoE]
of its parents.
Ans. Mendel selected pea plant for his experiment because-
6. A monohybrid cross is conducted between one (i) Many varieties of pea plants are available with
variety of pea plants having pods that are full (FF) observable contrasting traits.
and another having pods that are constricted (ff). (ii) Peas are normally self pollinating and the flower
What is the percentage of heterozygous offsprings structure is also suitable for cross-pollination.
in Fl generation? [CFPQ, CBSE]
12. What are ‘chromosomes’? Where are they located
(a) 100% (b) 75% (c) 50% (d) 25%
in the cell? [HOTS]
7. A zygote which has an X-chromosome inherited Ans. ‘Chromosomes’ are long thread-like structures which
from the father will develop into a [KVS] contain hereditary information of the individual and
(a) girl are therefore the carriers of genes.
(b) boy Chromosomes are located in the nucleus of a cell.
(c) either boy or girl
13. “The sex of the children is determined by what they
(d) X-chromosome does not influence the sex of a
inherit from their father and not their mother.”
child.
Justify. [HOTS, DoE]
8. A trait of an organism is influenced by Ans. It is because a child who inherits an X chromosome
(a) paternal DNA only from father will be a girl and one who inherits a
(b) maternal DNA only Y chromosome from father will be a boy. But all
(c) both maternal and paternal DNA children will inherit an X chromosome from their
(d) none of these mother regardless of whether they are boys or girls.
9. A cross between pea plant with white flowers (vv) 14. What is a sex chromosome? [HOTS]
and pea plant with violet flowers (VV) resulted in Ans. Sex chromosome is a chromosome that operates in
F2 progeny in which ratio of violet (VV) and white the sex-determining mechanism of a species. Many
(vv) flowers will be: [CBSE 2023] animals have two different types of sex chromosomes.
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 3 : 1 (d) 1 : 3 For example, in humans there is a large X chromosome
and a much smaller Y chromosome.
Answers
A Short Answer
1. (b) Pea plant can be grown easily at home. It also S Type Questions 3 Marks
has many distinct phenotypes.
2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (d) 15. (a) Name the two types of gametes produced by
6. (a) men.
7. (a) When the zygote inherits X chromosome from the (b) Does a male child inherit X chromosome from
father, it develops into girl. If the zygote inherits Y his father? Justify.
chromosome from the father, it develops into boy. (c) How many types of gametes are produced by
a human female? [CBSE 2022]
Ans. (a) The gametes produced by men are sperms. The (b) Both parents contribute equally in sexual
two types of sperms (gametes) produced by men reproduction. So each pea plant inherited
are 50% carrying ‘X’ chromosomes and 50% genes of both tallness and dwarfness in the F1
carrying ‘Y’ chromosomes. Thus, two types generation. But only the dominant trait, tallness
of gametes having X and Y chromosomes are got expressed. When F1 plants are crossed, in the
produced by males. F2 generation, there are some plants (25%) which
(b) No, a male child does not inherit X chromosome carry only the dwarfness character and hence the
from his father. Humans have 23 pairs of same got expressed in the F2 generation.
chromosomes, out of which 1 pair is sex 17. How did Mendel explain that it is possible
chromosomes and 22 pairs are autosomes. that a trait is inherited but not expressed in an
Women have a perfect pair of sex chromosome, organism? [AI 2017]
both called X. But men have a mismatched pair, Ans. – Mendel crossed a tall pea plant with a short pea
out of which X is normal size while Y is a shorter plant.
sex chromosome. So women have XX and men – All the plants produced in the F1 generation were
have XY chromosomes. A male child inherits tall.
a Y chromosome from his father whereas an X – When the F1 tall plants were self-pollinated, the F2
chromosome from his mother as shown in the figure. generation consisted of both tall and short plants.
– It explains that the dominant trait expresses itself in
the F1 plants, where the recessive trait (shortness)
is hidden.
– The appearance of short plants in the F2 indicates
XX
that the trait shortness has been inherited by the
XY
F1 plants, but not expressed.
18. In a monohybrid cross between tall pea plants
(TT) and short pea plants (tt) a scientist obtained
only tall pea plants (Tt) in the F 1 generation.
Male Female
However, on selfing the F1 generation pea plants,
Gametes he obtained both tall and short plants in F 2
generation. On the basis of above observations
X Y
X with other angiosperms also, can the scientist
arrive at a law? If yes, explain the law, if not, give
justification for your answer.
Ans. On the basis of the experiment, the scientist can arrive
Zygote
at a law as below:
XX XY
Offsprings
Female Male
(c) The types of gametes produced by a human
female are only XX sex chromosomes.
16. In one of his experiments with pea plants Mendel
observed that when a pure tall pea plant is crossed
with a pure dwarf pea plant, in the first generation
(F1) only tall plants appear.
(a) What happens to the trait of dwarfness in this (i) Both the parents must be contributing a copy
case? of the same gene.
(b) When the F 1 generation plants were self- (ii) For each trait, a plant carries two copies, one
fertilised, he observed that in the plants of from each parents.
second generation, F2 both tall plants and (iii) If the copies of the traits are not same, the
dwarf plants were present. Why it happened? dominant trait shall gets expressed.
Explain briefly. (iv) When F1 generation are crossed, the recessive
Ans. (a) In the F1 generation, the trait of dwarfness is trait of F1 generation shall also get expressed
recessive. in the F2 generation at a ratio of 3:1.
Heredity 219
19. (a) What is F2 generation? 21. Explain Mendel’s experiment with peas on
(b) Why traits such as intelligence and knowledge inheritance of characters, considering only one
cannot be passed on to the next generation? visible contrasting character. [DoE, Foreign 2014]
(c) “The sex of the children is determined by what Ans. Mendel crossed tall pea plants with dwarf pea plants:
they inherit from their father and not their Parents : (TT) × (tt)
mother.” Justify. [HOTS, DoE]
Pure tall plant Pure short plant
Ans. (a) The generation produced by the offspring to F1
F1 generation : (Tt) (Tt) (Tt) (Tt)
generation, i.e. first generation as parent is called
F2 generation. Selfing of F 1 : (Tt) × (Tt)
(b) Trait such as intelligence and knowledge are F2 generation : (TT) (Tt) (Tt) (tt)
acquired traits wich do not bring any change in Observation: F1 generation—No ‘medium-height’
the DNA of the germ cell and therefore, cannot plants were there. All plants were tall. Only one of the
be passed to next generation. parental traits was seen, not some mixture of the two.
(c) It is because a child who inherits an X chromosome F2 progeny— Not all plants were tall. One quarter
from father will be a girl and one who inherits a of them were short. This indicates that both the
Y chromosome from father will be a boy. But all tallness and shortness traits were inherited in the
children will inherit an X chromosome from their F1 plants, but only the tallness trait was expressed.
mother regardless of whether they are boys or girls. Mendel proposed that something was being passed
20. “We cannot pass onto our progeny the experiences unchanged from generation to generation which we
and qualifications earned during our life time”. called ‘factors’. Factors contain and carry hereditary
Justify the statement giving reason and examples. information.
[Delhi 2015]
Ans. Experiences of life and qualifications we earn donot 22. How do Mendel’s experiment show that traits are
make any change in the genes of the individual. inherited independently? [AI 2016]
Changes made in the gene are only passed on from Ans. Mendel performed an experiment in which he took
one generation to the next. These qualities are two different traits like tall and dwarf plant and round
acquired by an individual in his life, and are called and wrinkled seeds. In second (F2) generation, some
acquired traits which cannot be passed on to future plants were tall with round seeds and some were
progeny. For example, if a person reads a book on dwarf with wrinkled seeds. There would also be dwarf
birds, the knowledge he earns by reading the book plants having round seeds. Thus, the tall/short traits
does not make any change in his genes. Hence, this
and round/wrinkled seed traits are independently
knowledge will not get automatically transmitted to
inherited.
his next generation.
23. A blue coloured flower plant denoted by BB is crossbred with that of white coloured flower plant denoted by bb.
(a) State the colour of flower you would expect in their F1 generation plants.
(b) What must be the percentage of white flower plants in F2 generation if flowers of F1 plants are self-pollinated?
(c) State the expected ratio of the genotypes BB and Bb in the F2 progeny. [AI 2013]
Ans. Parents: Blue flower White flower
×
BB bb
b
B B b
F1 generation: Bb Bb Bb Bb
Blue flower Blue flower Blue flower Blue flower
Bb × Bb
B b B b
F2 generation: BB Bb bb Bb
Blue flower Blue flower White flower Blue flower
(a) The colour of all the flowers in F1 generation will be blue.
(b) Percentage of white flower plants in F2 generation will be 25.
(c) The ratio of genotypes BB and Bb in F2 progeny will be 1 : 2
24. If we cross-bred tall (dominant pea plant with pure-breed dwarf (recessive) pea plant, we will get plants of
F1 generation. If we now self-cross the pea plant of F1 generation, we obtain pea plants of F2 generation.
(a) What do the plants of F1 generation look like?
(b) State the ratio of tall plants to dwarf plants in F2 generation.
(c) State the type of plants not found in F1 generation but appeared in F2 generation. Write the reason for
the same. [Al 2017C, 13]
Ans. (a) The plants of F1 generation will be tall like the dominant parent.
(b) Tall plants 3 : Dwarf plants 1, i.e., 3 : 1.
(c) – Dwarf plants are not found in F1 generation.
– It is because, when two copies of a gene (alleles) exist together in the F1 plants, only the trait; tallness is
expressed, i.e. it is dominant.
– The other trait dwarfness remains hidden as it is a recessive trait.
25. List two differences in tabular form between dominant trait and recessive traits. What percentage/proportion
of the plants in the F2 generation/progeny were round, in Mendel’s cross between round and wrinkled pea
plants? [Foreign 2016]
Ans. Dominant Trait Recessive trait
(i) When both dominant and recessive traits are inherited, (i) When both dominant and recessive traits are inherited,
the dominant trait gets expressed. the recessive trait does not get expressed.
(ii) A single copy of dominant trait is enough to get it (ii) Both the copies of a trait should be recessive to get it
expressed. expressed.
75% of the plants in F2 generation were round in Mendel’s cross between round and wrinkled pea plants.
26. “It is possible that a trait is inherited but may not be expressed.” Give a suitable example to justify this
statement. [Foreign 2015]
Ans. The statement “It is possible that a trait is inherited but may not be expressed” can be explained with the help of
Mendel’s experiment on pea plant with one visible contrasting character.
Mendel took pure breeding pea plant with one visible contrasting character viz. height of the plant (tall and short
plant). The pure breed tall and short plant were crossed and it was found that all the plants in the F1 progeny
were tall. Mendel then allowed the F1 progeny plants for self-pollination. It was found that all the F2 progeny
plants are not tall, some are short. This indicates that both tallness and shortness traits were inherited separately
in the F1 progeny but shortness trait was not expressed in the F1 progeny.
27. List in tabular form distinguishing features between acquired traits and inherited traits, with one example
of each. [DoE, Delhi 2017, 16, 15]
Or
List two differences between acquired traits and inherited traits by giving an example of each. [Delhi 2019]
Ans. Acquired traits Inherited traits
(i) These traits are the characteristics which are (i) These are the characteristics transmitted from
developed during the lifetime of an individual. parent to the offspring.
(ii) These traits are not passed on to the next generation. (ii) Inherited trait is genetically determined
characteristic that distinguishes a person.
(iii) Their effect is only in the somatic cells, which (iii) These have effects on the non-somatic cells which
does not get inherited to another generation. e.g. pass to the progeny. e.g. Inherited trait: Colour
Acquired trait: Loss of body weight due to of hair and eye.
starvation.
28. What are acquired traits? Why are these traits generally not inherited over generations? Explain.
[CBSE 2018C]
Ans. Acquired traits are those traits which an individual acquired after birth during its life-time.
– These are changes in the non-reproductive tissues.
– The DNA or gene of the germ cells is not influenced/changed by these characters; hence, they cannot be passed
on to the next generation.
Heredity 221
29. What are chromosomes? Explain how in (b) Tt × Tt
sexually reproducing organisms the number of T t
chromosomes in the progeny is maintained. T TT Tt
[Delhi 2017C] t Tt tt
Ans. Chromosomes are the structures that bear the DNA 32. How do Mendel’s experiments show that the
or genes; they carry the DNA or genes to the progeny (a) traits may be dominant or recessive
cells. (b) traits are inherited independently?
[Delhi 2017(C); DoE, AI 2015]
– There are special type of cells in the sexually- Ans. Mendel’s Experiments on Inheritance of Traits.
reproducing organisms. Mendel used a number of visible contrasting
– These cells undergo a special type of cell division, characters of garden pea like round/wrinkled seeds,
called meiosis; consequently, the germ cells formed tall/short plants, white/violet flowers, etc.
have only half the number of chromosomes as the
parents cell.
RR yy rr YY
– When two such germ cells (with half the number (round, green) (wrinkled, yellow
of chromosomes) fuse, a zygote/new individual is
formed with the same number of chromosomes as Ry rY
the parent organsism.
30. Two pea plants - one with round yellow seeds F1
(RRYY) and another with wrinkled green (rryy) Rr Yy
(round, yellow)
seeds produce F1 progeny that have round, yellow
(RrYy) seeds.
When F 1 plants are self-pollinated, which Rr Yy Rr Yy
F1 F1
new combination of characters is expected in
F 2 progeny? How many seeds with these new RY Ry rY ry
combinations of characters will be produced when F2
a total 160 seeds are produced in F2 generation? RY
Explain with reason. [CBSE Sample Paper 2022] RRYY RRYy RrYY RrYy
Ans. Round green (½ Mark) : 30 (½ Mark) Ry
Wrinkled yellow (½ Mark) : 30 (½ Mark) RRYy RRyy RrYy Rryy 315 round, yellow 9
New combinations are produced because of the
rY 108 round, green
independent inheritance of seed shape and seed 3
RrYY RrYy rrYY rrYy
colour trait. (1 Mark) 101 wrinkled, yellow 3
[CBSE Marking Scheme] ry
32 wrinkled, green 1
RrYy Rryy rrYy rryy
556 seeds 16
Independent inheritance of two separate
A Long Answer
L Type Questions 5 Marks traits, shape and colour of seeds
(a) Traits may be dominant or recessive:
31. Consider a pea plant that is recessive for plant
– Mendel used a number of visible contrasting
height. Its ‘genotype’ is tt and ‘phenotype’ is pairs of characters in garden pea.
dwarf. – He made crosses between pea plants with
(a) Assuming that the gene for plant height obeys different characters; there were no halfway
the Mendel’s laws of inheritance, indicate the or intermediate characters.
genotypes and phenotypes of ALL the possible – Only one of the parental traits appeared in
parent pairs that could have dwarf offspring. the F1 generation; it is called dominant trait
(b) Using any of the parent pairs mentioned and the trait which remains hidden, is called
by you in (a), perform a cross to show the recessive trait.
genotypes of the offspring that might arise in – When the F1 plants were self-pollinated,
the next generation. [CFPQ, CBSE] the F2 progeny consists of plants with the
Ans. (a) (i) Tt × Tt, Tt × tt and tt × tt dominant trait and recessive trait in the ratio
(ii) Tt (tall) × Tt (tall), Tt (tall) × tt (dwarf) and of 3 : 1; it proves that traits may be dominant
tt(dwarf) × tt (dwarf) or recessive.
(b) Traits are inherited independently: 34. “The sex of a newborn child is matter of chance and
– When a cross is made between a tall plant none of the parents may be considered responsible
with round seeds, (when inheritance of two for it”. Justify this statement with the help of a
traits is considered), with a short plant with flow chart showing sex-determination in human
wrinkled seeds, the F1 progeny plants were beings. [Allahabad 2019]
all tall with round plants. Ans. Sex of a child depends on what happens during
– When the F1 plants are self-pollinated, the fertilization:
F2 progeny consisted of some tall plants
with round seeds and some short plants with
wrinkled seeds; these two are the parental
types of combinations of traits.
– There were also some new combinations
like tall plants with wrinkled seeds and short
plants with round seeds.
– Thus it is clear that the tall and short traits
and round and wrinkled seed traits are
inherited independently of each other. Determination of sex in humans beings
33. (a) With an example, explain how genes control (i) The female gamete, ova always contributes an
the characteristics. X chromosome during fertilization.
(b) Which of the following traits can be passed (ii) The male gamete, sperm contributes either X
on to the progeny and which cannot? or Y chromosome during fertilization. Whether
(i) Hair type and colour. sperm will contribute the X chromosome or Y
(ii) The cut tail of a mouse. chromosome is a matter of chance and the man
(iii) Preferance for certain types of food. does not have any control on it.
(iv) Red colour of beetles. (iii) If a sperm carrying X chromosome fertilizes
(c) Define species. Give two examples of plant an egg which always carries a X chromosome,
species and two of animals. then the child born will be a girl. But if a sperm
Ans. (a) Genes are the units of heredity. Each gene carrying Y chromosome fertilizes an egg which
exercise its function by synthesizing specific always carries X chromosome, then the child
protein which is responsible for the expression born will be a boy.
of characteristic. (iv) Thus, sex of a newborn child is a matter
For example, consider the height as a characterstic of chance and none of the parents may be
of the plant. We know that plants have hormones considered responsible for it.
that can trigger growth. So, height of plants 35. (a) What is the law of dominance of traits?
depend upon the amount of particular hormone. Explain with an example.
However, if the gene has alteration that makes the (b) Why are the traits acquired during the life time
enzyme less efficient, the amount of the hormone of an individual not inherited? Explain.
will be less and plant will be dwarf. This clearly [CBSE 2020]
indicates that characterstics are under the control Ans. (a) Law of Dominance: Mendel took pea plant and
of genes. carried two contrasting characters (tall and short)
(b) Traits which can be passed on to progeny are: and cross pollination done among them . The traits
(i) Hair type and colour. which get expressed in F1 generation are called
(ii) Red colour of beetles. dominant and which are unexpressed are called
Traits which cannot be passed on to progeny recessive which reappears in F2 generation. This
are: is called law of dominance.
(iii) The cut tail of a mouse. Traits may be dominant or recessive.
(iv) Preferance for certain types of food. • When Mendel crossed a tall pea plant with a
(c) It refers to a population of organism consisting dwarf pea plant, all the F1 plants were tall.
of similar individuals which can breed together • When the F1 plants were self-pollinated and an
and produce fertile offsprings. F2 progeny raised, there were tall plants and
Two examples of plants species are rose and lily. dwarf plants.
Two examples of animal species are lion and • The trait (tallness) which has appeared in
elephant. the F1 plants is called a dominant trait, while
Heredity 223
dwarfness that remained hidden in F1 plants, but (b) Epigenetic factors refer to factors external
appeared in F2 plants, is called a recessive trait. to the genetic component of an individual.
(b) Certain experiences and traits acquired by people Name evidence of ONE epigenetic condition
during their lifetime are not passed on to their next that determines sexuality in animals.
generations because these traits do not change the (c) State Mendel’s law of segregation and explain
gene/DNA of the germ cells. For example, how sex determination violates the law.
(i) Losing weight due to starvation. (d) Which parent determines the sex of the
(ii) Cutting the tails of mice for a few generation offspring in human beings? Why? [CFPQ, CBSE]
can not produce tailless mice. Such traits can Ans. (a) Sex chromosomes
only be passed on to the next generation when (b) In some reptiles temperature of the fertilised egg
they alter/change the DNA of the germ cells. determines sex of the embryo.
36. “Sex determination is an important developmental (c) The law of segregation states that a diploid
event in the life cycle of all sexually reproducing organism passes a randomly selected allele for
plants. Recent studies of sex determination in a trait to its offspring, such that the offspring
many plant species, from ferns to maize, have been receives one allele from each parent. If sex
fruitful in identifying the diversity of genetic and determination in plants is governed by genetic
epigenetic factors that are involved in determining factors, the offspring will get one copy of a gene
the sex of the flower or individual. ” from each parent. Sex determination violates the
The above is an excerpt from an article by two law of segregation as the human female does not
scientists Cristina Juarez and Jo Ann Banks. have any copy of the Y-chromosomal genes.
(a) What is the most likely genetic factor for sex (d) The father determines the sex of the offspring in
determination in unisexual plants? human beings. It is because the father can pass
either X or Y chromosome to the offspring.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Out of tallness and dwarfness of pea plants, tallness 7. Explain Mendel’s experiment with peas on inheritance
is more prominent among pea plants, because of traits considering two visible contrasting characters.
(a) tallness is dominant over dwarfness. 8. On the basis of the possibilities of combination of the
(b) dwarfness is dominant over tallness. sex chromosomes, what percentage probability does
(c) tallness is determined by one gene having many a couple have of having a son or a daughter? Show
effects. the same by making a cross.
(d) tallness is determined by many genes having 9. “It is a matter of chance whether a couple will have
multiple effects. a male or a female child.” Justify this statement by
2. How many types of gametes will be produced in F2 drawing a flow chart. [Foreign 2015]
generation in a dihybrid cross? 10. With the help of a flow chart explain in brief how the
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16 sex of a newborn is genetically determined in human
3. A pea plant with round green (RRyy) pea seed is beings. Which of the two parents, the mother or the
crossed with another pea plant with wrinkled yellow father, is responsible for determination of the sex of
(rrYY) seeds. What would be the nature of seeds in a child? [Delhi 2013]
the first generation? 11. Sameer’s father is a wrestler and has a well-built
(a) Round Green (b) Round Yellow body. He was awarded as Mr. India when he was
(c) Wrinkled Green (d) Wrinkled Yellow young. Sameer is his only son. As Sameer grew older,
4. The genotypic ratio of monohybrid cross in F 2 everyone expected him to have the same body build
generation is up as his father. But he is thin. His friends tease him
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 and he feels depressed by it.
(c) 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 2 : 1 (a) Is it true that a wrestler’s son should also have
5. Gametes contain heavy muscles?
(a) haploid chromosomes (b) What type of character is it; acquired or inherited?
(b) diploid chromosomes (c) What are the values shown by Sameer’s friends?
(c) homologous chromosomes [KVS]
(d) no chromosomes 12. When a tall plant is crossed with a dwarf plant
6. “Genes and chromosomes have similar behaviour.” what will be the ratio of tall to dwarf plants in F1
Justify. generation? Show with a help of Mendel’s cross.
[HOTS, KVS]

1. (a) What is variation? How is variation created in a
population? How does the creation of variation
in a species promote survival?
XY XX
(b) Explain how, offspring and parents of organisms
reproducing sexually have the same number
chromosomes. [CBSE 2018C] (5 Marks)
2. (a) How do variations arise in organisms? “Variation
is useful for the survival of species.” Justify this
statement with the help of an example.
[Foreign 2017] 1 2
(b) Identify male and female in the figures given below. 4

GAMETES
Also fill in the blanks 3 to 8 and then clarify about 3
the misconception that mother and not father is
responsible for bearing daughters and not sons.
[HOTS] (5 Marks) 7 8
5 6

Direction: In the following Questions, the Assertion and 4. Assertion: Height in pea plants is controlled by
Reason have been put forward. Read the statements efficiency of enzymes and is thus genetically
carefully and choose the correct alternative from the controlled.
following: Reason: Cellular DNA is the information source for
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the making proteins in the cell.[CBSE Sample Paper 2023]
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. 5. Assertion: Variation is beneficial to species.
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason: Variation enables a species for its survival.
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false. 6. Assertion: In human beings, males produce similar
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason gametes.
is true. Reason: Males have a pair of sex chromosomes XY
and 22 pairs of autosomes.
1. Assertion: When pure breed tall plants are crossed
with pure breed short plants, all the plants in F1 7. Assertion: Each and every child has two versions of
progeny are tall. When the tall plants of F1 progeny DNA-both paternal and maternal.
are crossed, short plants re-appear in F2 progeny. Reason: Both the father and the mother contribute
Reason: Traits are independently inherited. equal amounts of genetic materials to their child.
2. Assertion: Variation is high in sexually reproducing 8. Assertion: When pure breed tall plants are crossed
organisms compared to asexually reproducing with pure breed short plants, all the plants in F1
organisms. progeny are tall. When the tall plants of F1 progeny
Reason: Inaccuracies during DNA copying give rise are crossed, short plants re-appear in F2 progeny.
to variation. Reason: Traits are independently inherited.
3. Assertion: Acquired trait cannot be passed on from 9. Assertion: The sex of a new born individual is always
one generation to next generation. genetically determined.
Reason: Inaccuracy during DNA copying of acquired Reason: Snails can change their sex depending on
trait is minimum. the temperature at which the fertilized eggs are kept.
Heredity 225
The following questions are case-based questions with (a) What name is given to such type of cross.
2-3 short sub-parts. (b) Make a flow diagram cross between the parents
1. Mendel blended his knowledge of Science and showing F1 and F2 generation.
Mathematics to keep the count of the individuals (c) Write the genotype of (i) parents (ii) F2 generation.
exhibiting a particular trait in each generation. He Or
observed a number of contrasting visible characters (c) If we take round and wrinkled seeds, what will
controlled in pea plants in a field. He conducted be the phenotypic ratio and genotype ratio of F1
many experiments to arrive at the laws of inheritance. and F2 generation?
[CBSE 2022] 4. Gregor Johann Mendel was an Austrian monk who
(a) What do the F1 progeny of tall plants with round studied Science and Mathematics at the University of
seeds and short plants with wrinkled seeds look Vienna. He conducted hybridisation experiments on
like? garden pea plant and arrived at laws of inheritance.
(b) Name the recessive traits in above case. On the other hand, Charles Darwin believed that
(c) Mention the type of the new combinations of organisms which can utilise natural resources better
plants obtained in F2 progeny along with their than others have more chances of being successful
ratio, if F1 progeny was allowed to self pollinate. in the struggle for existence and better chances of
Or survival. He could give a number of examples for
(c) If 1600 plants were obtained in F2 progeny, write that but he could not explain why organisms become
the number of plants having traits: different. This would not have been the situation, if
(i) Tall with round seeds. he had seen the significance of Mendel’s experiments.
(ii) Short with wrinkled seeds. But then, Mendel too did not notice Darwin’s work
Write the conclusion of the above experiment. as relevant to his.
2. The most obvious outcome of the reproductive (a) A scientist crossed the F1 generation of pure
process is the generation of individuals of similar breeding parents for round and wrinkled seeds
design, but in sexual reproduction they may not be and found the number of offsprings produced is
exactly alike. The resemblances as well as differences 12,420. Write the correct ratio of round seeds
are marked. The rules of heredity determine the and wrinkled seeds (As roundness of seeds is a
process by which traits and characteristics are reliably dominant trait and wrinkled is recessive trait).
inherited. Many experiments have been done to study (b) Which condition is mainly required for F 2
the rules of inheritance. [CBSE 2023] generation?
(a) Why an offspring of human being is not a true (c) Mendel obtained four different combinations of
copy of his parents in sexual reproduction? shape and colour. Write those phenotypic ratio
(b) While performing experiments on inheritance in with its particular combination of shape and colour.
plants, what is the difference between F1 and F2 Or
generation? (c) Who is known as father of genetics and why?
(c) (i) Why do we say that variations are useful 5. Pooja has green eyes while her parents and brother
for the survival of a species over time? have black eyes. Pooja’s husband Ravi has black eyes
Or while his mother has green eyes and father has black
(ii) Study Mendel’s cross between two plants eyes. [CBSE Sample Paper 2023]
with a pair of contrasting characters. (a) On the basis of the above given information, is
RRYY rryy the green eye colour a dominant or recessive
Round Yellow × Wrinkled Green trait? Justify your answer.
He observed 4 types of combinations in (b) What is the possible genetic make up of Pooja’s
F 2 generation. Which of these were new brother’s eye colour?
combinations? Why do new features which (c) What is the probability that the offspring of Pooja
are not present in the parents, appear in F 2 and Ravi will have green eyes? Also, show the
generation? inheritance of eye colour in the offspring with
3. If we cross-bred tall (dominant) pea plant with pure- the help of a suitable cross.
bred dwarf (recessive) pea plant, we will get plants of Or
F1 generation. If we now self-cross the pea plant of (c) 50% of the offspring of Pooja’s brother are green
F1 generation, we obtain pea plants of F2 generation. eyed. With help of cross show how this is possible.
6. It has been established that in human beings, sex chromosomes are present in a sperm and an
is genetically determined, mothers should not be ovum?
blamed for giving birth to a girl child. Also both male (b) Why do all the gametes formed is human females
and female babies have equal right to live and illegal have an X chromosome?
absorption of female foetus is a crime. But in some (c) Explain how in sexually producing organisms the
of the animals, sex determination is also controlled number of chromosomes in the progeny remains
by the environmental factors. For examples in a turtle the same.
(Chrysema picta), high incubation temperature leads Or
to the development of female offsprings. On the (c) A woman has only daughters. Analyse the
other hand lizard (Agama agama), high incubation situation genetically and explain.
temperature results in male progeny.
(a) What are sex chromosomes? How many
NCERT ZONE
Page 129 were not tall. Instead, one-fourth of the F2 plants were
short. Hence, Mendel concluded that F1 tall plants
1. If a trait A exists in 10% of a population of an
were not true breeding. They were carrying traits of
asexually reproducing species and a trait B exists
both short height and tall height. The trait of tallness
in 60% of the same population, which trait is likely
is dominant character, while the trait of dwarfness
to have arisen earlier? is recessive character. Thus, Mendel’s experiments
Ans. In a population of asexually reproducing species, the show that trait may be dominant or recessive.
chances of appearance of new traits (that is variation)
2. How do Mendel’s experiments show that traits
is very low, so, the trait which is already present in
are inherited independently? [KVS]
the population in higher percentage has arisen earlier.
Ans. In a dihybrid cross made by Mendel, it was observed
As the trait B is present in 60% of the population,
that when two pairs of traits or characters were
thus, this trait is likely to have arisen earlier.
considered; each trait expressed itself independent
2. How does the creation of variations in a species of the other. Thus, Mendel was able to propose the
promote survival? law of independent assortment which says about
Ans. Variations take place in response to the changes in independent inheritance of traits.
the environment. Such variations enable a species to
3. A man with blood group A marries a woman with
cope with the new changes in the environment. Thus,
blood group O and their daughter has blood group
variations help a species to survive.
O. Is this information enough to tell you which of
For example, if the temperature of water increases
the traits — blood group A or O — is dominant?
suddenly, most of the bacteria living in that water
Why or why not?
would die. Only few variants resistant to heat would Ans. A person having blood group A may have two
be able to survive. If these variations were not there, genotypes which are IA IA, IA Io, so, this information
then the entire species of bacteria would have been is not sufficient to tell which of the traits — blood
destroyed. Thus, these variations help in the survival group A or O — is dominant.
of the species.
4. How is the sex of the child determined in human
Page 133 beings?
Ans. In human beings, somatic cells contain 23 pairs
1. How do Mendel’s experiments show that traits
of chromosomes. Out of them the 23rd pair is the
may be dominant or recessive? [KVS]
sex chromosome which is composed of different
Ans. Mendel conducted experiments on garden pea plants,
types of chromosomes which are named as X and
selecting several visible contrasting characters. He
Y chromosomes. This pair has one X and one Y
selected and crossed the pure-bred tall pea plants
chromosome in a male sperm. On the other hand,
having the genotype TT with a pure-bred dwarf pea
in a female egg, it has two X chromosomes. When
plant having the genotype tt. F1 generation consists
a sperm with X chromosome fertilises the egg, the
of only tall plants having the genotype Tt. Then,
resulting zygote would develop into a female child.
Mendel self-pollinated the F1 generation plants and
When a sperm with Y chromosome fertilises the egg,
observed that all plants obtained in F2 generation
the resulting zygote would develop into a male child.
Heredity 227
NCERT EXERCISES
1. A Mendelian experiment consisted of breeding dogs are allowed to interbreed, in F2 generation if
tall pea plants bearing violet flowers with short black colour is dominant, out of every 4 dogs, 3 will
pea plants bearing white flowers. In the progeny be black, and if white colour is dominant, 3 out of 4
all bore violet flowers, but almost half of them are dogs will be white.
short. This suggests that the genetic make-up of
the tall parent can be depicted as
(a) TTWW (b) TTww
(c) TtWW (d) TtWw
Ans. (c) Genetic make-up of the tall plant can be depicted
by TtWW.
2. A study found that children with light-coloured
eyes are likely to have parents with light-coloured
eyes. On this basis, can we say anything about
whether the light eye colour trait is dominant or
recessive? Why or why not?
Ans. No, we cannot say whether light colour trait is a
dominant trait or a recessive trait. However, since
both parents and children have light coloured eye, 4. How is the equal genetic contribution of male and
light coloured eye may be recessive trait. Had light female parents ensured in the progeny?
coloured eye been a dominant trait, heterozygus light Ans. The equal genetic contribution of male and female
eye parents might have some dark eye children of parents in a progeny is ensured through gametes
recessive trait. which have only half the amount of DNA as compared
to other body cells. The normal body cells of human
3. Outline a project which aims to find the dominant being contain 46 chromosomes each.
coat colour in dogs. During sexual reproduction, a female gamete or egg
Ans. A homozygous black (BB) male dog and a cell fuse with a male gamete or sperm cell (which
homozygous white (bb) female dog are taken and are haploid) to form zygote. Zygote is diploid which
given to mate and produce offspring in F1 generation. contains 23 chromosomes from mother and 23 from
In F1 generation all the dogs will be black if black father in humans. In this way, an equal genetic
colour is dominant. However all the dogs will be contribution of male and female parents is ensured
white if white colour is dominant. If F1 generation in the progeny.

1. Two pink coloured flowers on crossing resulted situated on
in 1 red, 2 pink and 1 white flower progeny. The (a) copies of the same chromosome
nature of the cross will be (b) two different chromosomes
(a) double fertilisation (b) self-pollination (c) sex chromosomes
(c) cross-fertilisation (d) no fertilisation (d) any chromosome
Ans. (c) Ans. (a)
2. Select the incorrect statement: 4. The maleness of a child is determined by
(a) Frequency of certain genes in a population (a) the X chromosome in the zygote
change over several generations resulting in (b) the Y chromosome in zygote
evolution (c) the cytoplasm of germ cell which determines the
(b) Reduction in weight of the organism due to sex
starvation is genetically controlled (d) sex is determined by chance
(c) Low weight parents can have heavy weight Ans. (b)
progeny 5. Do genetic combination of mothers play a
(d) Traits which are not inherited over generations significant role in determining the sex of new born?
do not cause evolution Ans. No, mothers have no role in determining the sex of the
Ans. (b) new born. Mothers have a pair of X chromosome and
3. The two versions of a trait (character) which are all children will inherit an ‘X’ chromosome from their
brought in by the male and female gametes are
mother regardless of whether they are boys or girls. (d) RR YY × rr yy ......................
Only presence or absence of ‘Y’ chromosome present
in male gametes determine the sex of new born. Round, yellow and wrinkled ......................
green ......................
6. Why do all the gametes formed in human females
have an X-chromosome? Ans. (a) Round yellow
Ans. All the gametes formed in human females have an (b) Round yellow, Round green
‘X’ chromosome because during meiosis at the time Wrinkled yellow, Wrinkled green
of gamete formation, one X chromosome enters each (c) Wrinkled green
gamete. (d) Round yellow
7. In human beings, the statistical probability of 11. Study the following cross and showing self-
getting either a male or female child is 50: 50. Give pollination in F1, fill in the blank and answer the
a suitable explanation. [HOTS] question that follows: (5 marks)
Ans. The sex of a child is determined by the type of Parents RRYY × rryy
sex chromosome contributed by male gamete. The Round, yellow wrinkled, green
statistical probability of getting either a male or female
F1 — Rr Yy × ?
child is 50 : 50, because the ratio of male gametes
Round, yellow
containing X chromsome and those containing Y
chromosome is 50 : 50. Ans. Rr Yy Round, yellow.
8. Give the pair of contrasting traits of the following 12. In previous question, what are the combinations
characters in pea plant and mention which is of character in the F2 progeny? What are their
dominant and recessive ratios?
(a) yellow seed (b) round seed Ans. Round yellow – 9 ; Round green – 3
Ans. (a) Seed colour — Yellow (dominant), Wrinkled yellow – 3 : Wrinkled green – 1
green (recessive) i.e. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1.
(b) Seed shape — Round (dominant), 13. Give reasons for the appearance of new
wrinkled (recessive) combinations of characters in the F2 progeny.
Ans. An organism can inherit each character independently.
9. A woman has only daughters. Analyse the situation
So, in the F2 progeny new combination of character
genetically and provide a suitable explanation.
appears. Tall/Short and Round/Wrinkled seed trait
Ans. The women produces ova with both ‘X’ chromosome
are independently inherited.
and man produces sperms with X and Y chromosome.
If the husband of the woman transfer X chromosome, 14. Give the basic features of the mechanism of
then child will be a girl. On the other hand, if the inheritance.
husband transfer Y chromosome, the child will be a Ans. Basic features for the mechanism of Inheritance are
boy. In the case, the husband is always transferring as follows:
X chromosome and hence, all the children are girl. (i) Characters are controlled by genes.
(ii) Each gene controls one character.
10. In the following crosses write the characteristics (iii) Genes are located on chromosomes.
of the progeny: [HOTS] (iv) There may be two or more forms of gene.
Cross Progeny (v) An individual possess two forms of genes
(a) RR YY × RR YY ...................... whether similar or dissimilar.
(vi) One form may be dominant over the other.
Round, yellow and Round, ......................
(vii) The two alleles separate at the time of gamete
yellow ...................... formation.
(b) Rr Yy × Rr Yy ...................... (viii) The two forms are brought together in the
Round, yellow and Round, ...................... zygote.
yellow (ix) Alleles of different genes located on separate
...................... chromosomes behave independent of one
(c) rr yy × rr yy
...................... another.
wrinkled, green and wrinkled,
......................
green
......................
Heredity 229
1. The genotype of offspring formed from Tt × tt will 6. Assertion: Mouse whose tails are cut, give offspring
be with tail.
(a) TT and tt (b) Tt and tt Reason: Cutting of tails do not make any change in
(c) Only tt (d) Only TT the genes.
2. A pea plant with round and green pea (RRyy) seed is 7. Why are sexually reproducing organisms capable of
crossed with another pea plant with wrinkled yellow showing more heredity features?
(rrYY) seeds. What could be the nature of seed in the 8. What is chromosome? Where are they located in the
F1 generation? cells?
(a) Round and Green
9. Why is variation beneficial for the species, but not
(b) Wrinkled and Green
necessary for the individual?
(c) Wrinkled and Yellow
(d) Round and Yellow 10. On the basis of the possibilities of combination of the
sex chromosomes, what percentage probability does
3. Phenotypic ratio in F2 generation in dihybrid cross is
a couple have of having a son or a daughter? Show
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
the same by making a cross.
(c) 1 : 2 : 1 (d) 2:1
11. Explain Mendel’s experiment with peas on inheritance
4. A plant with red coloured flower is crossed with a
of traits considering two visible contrasting characters.
plant having white flowers. The red and white colour
of the flowers is controlled by a single gene. Red is 12. Read the following passage and answer the
dominant over white. The F1 progeny is then self questions:
pollinated. What will be the phenotypic ratio of plants Cellular DNA is the information source for making
with different flower colour in F2 generation? proteins in the cell. A section of DNA that provides
(a) All plants with red flowers information for one protein is called the gene for that
(a) Red : White in the ratio 3 : 1 protein. Thus proteins control the characteristics.
(a) Pink : White in the ratio 3 : 1 Tallness is a characteristics of plant. Plants have
(a) Red : Pink : White in the ratio 1 : 2 : 1 hormones that can trigger growth. Plant height
Direction: In the following Questions, the Assertion and can thus depend on amount of particular hormone.
Reason have been put forward. Read the statements Amount of that particular hormone to be made depend
carefully and choose the correct alternative from the on the efficiency of the process of making it. If the
following: enzyme that make this particular hormone works
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the efficiently, a lot of hormone will be made and the
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. plant will be tall. If there is less quantity of hormone
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the produced, the plant will be short.
Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. (a) What controls the trait?
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false. (b) Define heredity.
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason (c) Why are tall plants not always produced from
is true. tall plants?
5. Assertion: When pure breed round seed plants are Or
crossed with pure breed wrinkled seed plants, all (c) What is a dominant trait?
the plants in the F1 progeny have round seed. When
round F1 seeds are crossed, wrinkled seeds reappear
in F2 progeny.
Reason: Traits are independently inherited.
Scan to get Answers

9
Light—Reflection and Refraction

CHAPTER
MIND MAP
LIGHT
• It is the form of energy which brings the sensation of light.
8 –1
• It travels with the speed of 3 × 10 ms in vacuum in a straight line path.
Reflection Continued on
Refraction page 232
• The light incident on a polished surface gets
reflected back into the same medium.
• A highly polished surface, such as a mirror,
reflects most of the light falling on it and
follows the laws of reflection. Laws of reflection
• Angle of incidence = Angle of reflec-
tion,
* Important terms related to spherical mirror i.e. ∠i = ∠r
• Pole (P) • The incident ray, the reflected ray and
Types of mirror Nature of image
• Centre of curvature (C) normal at the point of incidence, all
• Radius of curvature (R) = CP lies in the same plane.
• Focus (F)
CP R
• Focal length (f) = FP = =
2 2
• R = 2f
Real image Virtual image

• Actual interaction • Rays appear to
of light rays. meet.
• Can be formed on • Cannot be formed
Plane mirror Spherical mirror the screen. on screen.
1 1 1 • Always inverted. • Always erect.
Properties • Mirror formula: = +
f v u
• Obeys a set of sign convention
• m = +1 rules for u, v, f and R.
• Image is always virtual and erect. Magnification(m) of
• Focal length of mirror is independent
• The size of image is equal to that of the spherical mirror
(i) material of mirror h v
size of object. • m= i =–
• The image is formed at the same dis- (ii) medium in which it is placed ho u
tance behind the mirror as the object is (iii) wavelength of incident light
• m > 0; Virtual and
in front of the mirror.
erect image
• The image is laterally inverted.
• m < 0; Real and
inverted
Concave mirror Convex mirror image
• Silvered at outer surface • Silvered at inner surface • |m| > 1; Enlarged
• Reflecting surface curved • Reflecting surface curved image
inward outward • |m| < 1; diminished
image
• |m| = 1; Same size
To be continued To be continued image
on next page on next page
Light—Reflection and Refraction 231
Concave mirror
Rules for image formation Position of Object Position of Image Nature of Image Ray Diagram
• Rays, parallel to the principal axis,
get reflected back through focus.
• Rays, passing through the focus, Real, inverted u and v
will emerge parallel to the princi- (i) At infinity At focus and highly = – ve
pal axis after reflection. diminished. f is –ve
• Rays from the centre of curvature
get reflected back along its own
path.
• A ray of light incident obliquely u is –ve,
at pole gets reflected at the same Real, inverted v is –ve
(ii) Beyond C Between F and C
angle on the other side of princi- and diminished. and
pal axis into the same medium. f is –ve.
Used
• by a dentist Real, inverted u, v, f are
(iii) At C At C
• in shaving mirror and same size. all –ve.
• in search light
• in headlamps
• in Ophthalmoscope
(iv) Between Real, inverted u, v, f are

Beyond C
F and C and enlarged. all –ve.
Real, inverted
u, v, f are
(v) At F At infinity and highly
all –ve.
enlarged
Convex mirror
u, f are
(vi) Between Virtual, enlarged
Behind the mirror –ve
F and P and erect image
v is +ve.
Rules for image formation
• Rays parallel to principal axis get
reflected and appear to come from
the principal focus.
• Rays going towards the principal
focus, will emerge parallel to the Position of Object Position of Image Nature of Image Ray Diagram
principal axis after reflection.
• Rays from the centre of curvature u = – ve
get reflected back along its own v and f is +ve
path.
Virtual, erect and
• A ray of light incident obliquely At focus, behind
(i) At infinity highly dimin-
at pole gets reflected at the same the mirror
ished size
angle on the other side of principal
axis into the same medium.
Uses
• As a rear-view mirror. u is –ve,
Between P and
(ii) At any other Virtual, erect and v is +ve
• In shops to check theft. F and behind the
position diminished. and
• At traffic junctions. mirror
f is +ve.
• To lighten large area.
New Cartesian Sign Conventions for reflection of light by spherical mirror. The set of rules, to use ‘+’ or ‘–’ signs with the values while doing any problem in
optics, is called sign convention. They are—
(i) The object is always placed to the left of the mirror, so that the incident light moves left to right.
(ii) All distances are to be measured from the pole of the mirror, i.e. from origin of coordinate axis.
(iii) The distances measured in the direction of the incident light will be taken as ‘+ve’ (along
positive X-axis) while those measured to the left of the origin (along negative X-axis) will be taken
as ‘–ve’.
(iv) All measurements of heights above the principal axis (along positive Y-axis) are to be taken as
‘+ ve’ and below it (along negative Y axis) are taken as ‘–ve’.
Refraction To be continued
By spherical lens on next page
The deviation in the path of ray of light when it travels from one medium to another.
Follows Causes
Laws of Refraction • Wavelength and velocity of light ray
It occurs due to different speeds of
• Snell’s law of refraction changes while frequency remains
light in different media.
sin i same.
= constant = n21
sin r • Intensity of light decreases.
Where n21 = Refractive index of me-
dium 2 with respect to the medium Optical density is the ability of the
1. medium to refract light rays.
• The incident ray, the refracted ray
and the normal to the interface of Rarer to denser medium Denser to rarer medium
When the light rays
two transparent media at the point • Slow down travel from optically • Speed up
of incidence, all lie in the same • Bend towards the normal • Bend away from the normal
plane.
• ∠i > ∠r • ∠i < ∠r
The extent of the change in direction of Through glass slab

the ray of light in a given pair of media. • Refraction takes place at both parallel surfaces.
For air-glass interface, ∠r < ∠i.
Effects of refraction
•
Known as • At the second parallel surface, i.e. at glass-air interface, ∠e > ∠r.
• The emergent ray is parallel to the incident ray.
Refractive index ‘n’
• Angle of emergence (∠e) = Angle of incidence (∠i).
Speed of light in medium (1) v1
• n21 = = • Lateral shift = y
• n12 = =
N1
• Principle of reversibility of light:
i
n21 × n12 = 1 Air
D C
Glass
Speed of light in vacuum or air c r
• nm = = M1
Speed of light in medium v N2 r
y
• The medium with larger refractive index is optically A B
denser medium than the other. e Air
• It has no unit as it is the ratio of two same quantities. M2
Effects of Refraction of Light

(a) The bottom of a tank or pond, filled with water appears to be raised.
(b) A coin placed at the bottom of a glass tumbler, appears to be raised.
(c) When a straight rod or a spoon or a pencil, partly immersed in water, viewed from the sides, they appear to be broken/bent.
(d) The part of the rod/pencil/spoon inside water also appears thick, if viewed from the sides.
(e) When a lemon kept in water in a bowl/glass tumbler/jar viewed from side, it appears larger than their actual size.
(f) An ink mark or a line drawn on a piece of paper appears to be raised when viewed by keeping a glass slab/glass beaker over it.
Refraction by Spherical Lens
• Obeys a set of sign convention

rules for u, v and f. Important terms
Obeys laws of refraction
1 1 1
• Lens formula: = – • Optical centre: O.
f v u
h v • Centre of curvature: C1 and C2.
• Magnification: m = i = +
ho u • Radius of curvature: R1 = OC1 and R2 = OC2
Types of spherical lens • Principal axis of lens: Line joining C1 and C2.
Concave lens (Continue on
• Focus: F
next page)
• Focal length, f = OF
Convex lens
• Thicker at centre. • Positive magnification i.e. m > 0 means virtual • |m| > 1; Magnified image
• Thinner at edges. and erect image is formed.
• |m| < 1; diminished image
• Both refractive surfaces are convex. • Negative magnification i.e. m < 0 means real
• |m| = 1; Same size image
• Converges light rays. and inverted image is formed.
Image formation rules Position of Object Position of Image Nature of Image Ray Diagram
• Rays parallel to the principal object at ∞
axis, will pass through second
principal focus after refraction. Real, inverted F
• Rays passing through the fo- (i) At infinity At focus and highly
cus will emerge parallel to the diminished. Image at F
u is –ve
principal axis after refraction. v and f are +ve
• Rays passing through the opti-
cal centre, will emerge without
any deviation after refraction
Real, inverted
through the lens. (ii) Beyond 2F Between F and 2F
and diminished.
u is –ve
v and f are +ve
Used in
• Telescope
• Camera Real, inverted
(iii) At 2F At 2F
• Projector size to size.
u is –ve
• Microscope
v and f are +ve
• Magnifying glass
u is –ve
v and f are +ve
(iv) Between Real, inverted
Beyond 2F
F and 2F and enlarged.
Real, inverted
(v) At F At ∞
and enlarged
u is –ve
v and f are +ve
u and v are –ve,

f is +ve
(vi) Between
On the same side Virtual, erect and
F and optical
of the object enlarged
centre
Concave lens
• Thinner at the middle. • Magnification (m) produced by concave lens
• Thicker at the edges. is always positive as it forms only virtual and
erect image on the same side of the object.
• Both refractive surfaces are concave.
• Diverges light rays.
Image formation rules Position of Object Position of Image Nature of Image Ray Diagram
• Rays parallel to principal axis ap-
pear to diverge from the principal u, v and f all
focus, which is located on the are –ve
same side of the incident ray.
• Ray going towards the principal Virtual, erect and
(i) At infinity At focus
focus, will emerge parallel to the diminished
principal axis after refraction.
• Rays passing through the optical
centre will emerge without any
deviation after refraction through
the lens. u, v and f all
are –ve
(ii) At any position Virtual, erect
Between F and
between ∞ and and highly
optical centre
Used in optical centre diminished.
• Wide-angle
spyhole indoors
Power of a lens: The degree of convergence or divergence of light rays after refraction through the lens is expressed in terms of power of lens. It is defined
as the reciprocal of focal length in metre.
1 1
Power = or P =
Focal length in metre f (m )
• Power of convex lens is positive while that of concave lens is negative.
• Power of lens combination, P = P1 + P2 + P3 + ... + Pn
• Unit of power is dioptre (D).
TOPIC COVERED
Reflection of Light
(b) Light is a form of energy

Multiple Choice (c) Light needs a medium to propagate
Questions 1 Mark (d) It has a finite speed
4. The light incident on a highly polished surface
1. The things visible to us due to the presence of
rebound into the same medium in same or different
(a) object (b) light (c) dark (d) none of these direction, is called
2. Which of the following phenomenon is not associated (a) reflection of light (b) refraction of light
with light? (c) scattering of light (d) none of these
(a) Image formation by mirror
5. Image formed by the plane mirror is
(b) Twinkling of stars
(a) virtual, diminished and behind the mirror
(c) Formation of rainbow
(b) virtual, erect, same size and behind the mirror
(d) Magnetic field lines
(c) real, same size, formed on the same side of the
3. Which of the following is incorrect about the object.
properties of light? (d) virtual, erect, enlarged and behind the mirror
(a) Straight-line propagation of light
6. Which type of mirror is used to get a virtual, erect, 8. (c) ∠i + ∠r = 60°, but ∠i = ∠r
laterally inverted and same size image as that of \ ∠i = 30°
object? 9. (d) From figure
(a) Convex mirror (b) Concave mirror
(c) Plane mirror (d) All of these
7. In reflection of light, the angle of reflection is 30° 30°
_______ the angle of incidence. 60°
(a) equal to (b) greater tnan
Angle of deviation of reflected ray
(c) less than (d) cannot say
= 60° + 30° + 30° = 120°
8. The angle between the incident ray and reflected 10. (d)
ray is 60°, the angle of incidence is
(a) 60° (b) 45° V S A Very Short Answer
(c) 30° (d) 90° Type Questions 2 Marks
9. A ray of light is incident on a plane reflecting surface
at angle of incidence of 30°. Then the reflected ray 11. State the two laws of reflection of light.
is deviated by an angle equal to Ans. Laws of reflection of light
(a) 30° (b) 150° (i) The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of
(c) 60° (d) 120° reflection.
10. The angle of incidence for a ray of light having zero (ii) The incident ray, the normal to the reflecting
reflection angle is surface at the point of incidence and reflected
(a) 90° (b) 45° (c) 30° (d) 0° ray from that point, all lies in the same plan
12. List four characteristics of the images formed by
Answers plane mirrors. [Delhi 2015; Foreign 2013]
Ans. Characteristics of image formed by a plane mirror
1. (b) 2. (d) (i) It is always virtual and erect.
3. (c) Light is an electromagnetic wave in nature which (ii) The size of image is equal to that of the object.
do not require any medium for its propagation. (iii) The image is formed at the same distance behind
4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (a) the mirror as the object is in front of the mirror.
(iv) The image is laterally inverted.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. The law of reflection holds good for: 3. Choose the incorrect statement from the following:
(a) plane mirror only. (a) For a smooth surface, reflected light rays travel in
(b) spherical mirror only. the same direction.
(c) parabolic mirror only. (b) For a rough surface, reflected light rays travel in
(d) any highly polished surface irrespective of their the same direction.
shape. (c) For a rough surface, reflected light rays scatter in
2. Straight line propogation of light is due to all directions.
(a) large velocity (d) Flat, still water surface acts as a reflective surface.
(b) small wavelength 4. (a) State the difference between ray and beam of light.
(c) its unabsorption by surroundings (b) What is the angle of reflection when a ray of light
(d) its reflection by surroundings falls normally on a smooth reflecting surface?
TOPIC COVERED
Spherical Mirrors
Answers
Multiple Choice
Questions 1 Mark 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b)
5. (c)
1. The surface of the spoon curved inwards can be 6. (d) The focal length of spherical mirror does not
approximated to depends on the surrounding medium.
(a) convex mirror (b) concave mirror 7. (c) (A) and (B)
(c) plane mirror (d) concavo convex mirror
2. The centre of the reflecting surface of a spherical
mirror is a point called V S A Very Short Answer
(a) centre of curvature
(b) focus 8. (a) Explain why a ray of light passing through the
(c) pole centre of curvature of a concave mirror, gets
(d) none of the above reflected along the same path.
3. Centre of curvature of a convex mirror lies (b) State the type of mirror that can make a parallel
(a) behind the mirror beam of light when light from a point source is
(b) infront of the mirror incident on it. At what location on the principal
(c) at the surface of the mirror any where axis, this point source is placed?
(d) at infinity Ans. (a) The ray passing through the centre of curvature
4. Principal axis of a spherical mirror is always normal incident to the mirror along its normal, so
to the mirror at its ∠i = ∠r = 0. Therefore, the ray retraces its path.
(a) focus (b) Concave mirror. At focus.
(b) pole
9. Draw ray diagrams to show the principal focus of a
(c) centre of curvature
(d) both (a) and (c) (i) concave mirror
(ii) convex mirror
5. Diameter of the reflecting surface of spherical
mirror is called Ans. (i)
(a) radius of curvature
(b) focal length
(c) aperture
(d) both (a) and (b)
6. A concave mirror of radius 30 cm is placed in water.
It’s focal length in air and water differ by
(a) 15 (b) 20
(c) 30 (d) 0 Focus of concave mirror
7. A real image is formed by the light rays after (ii)
reflection or refraction when they:
(A) actually meet or intersect with each other.
(B) actually converge at a point.
(C) appear to meet when they are produced in the
backward direction.
(D) appear to diverge from a point.
Which of the above statements are correct?
[CBSE 2020]
(a) (A) and (D) (b) (B) and (D)
(c) (A) and (B) (d) (B) and (C) Focus of convex mirror
10. Define the radius of curvature of spherical mirrors. (iii) Principal Axis: The straight line joining the pole
Find the nature and focal length of a spherical and the centre of curvature is called the principal
mirror whose radius of curvature is +24 cm. axis.
[AI 2017] (iv) Principal Focus: The point ‘F’ on the principal
Ans. Radius of Curvature: The separation between the axis, where the incident light rays parallel to
pole (P) and the centre of curvature (C) or the radius the principal axis actually meet (converge) (in
of the hollow sphere, of which the mirror is a part, is case of a concave mirror) or appear to diverge
called radius of curvature (R), i.e., PC = R. or come from (in case of a convex mirror) after
Given, R = 2f = 24 cm reflection, is called its principal focus (F).
Therefore, f = +12 cm 12. State any three difference between real image and
The focal length of the mirror is positive. This indicates virtual image formed by a spherical mirror.
that nature of the given spherical mirror is convex/
Ans. Difference between real image and virtual image
diverging mirror.
Real Image Virtual image
A Short Answer (i) After reflection from (i) After reflection from
S Type Questions 3 Marks the mirror, the light the mirror, the light
rays are actually rays do not intersect
11. Define the following terms in the context of spherical
meet or intersect. but appear to meet at
mirrors:
a point.
(i) Pole
(ii) Centre of curvature (ii) Image can be (ii) Image cannot be
(iii) Principal axis obtained on the obtained on the
(iv) Principal focus screen. screen.
Ans. (i) Pole: The central point of the reflecting spherical (iii) The real image is (iii) The virtual image
surface is called the pole (P). It lies on the surface always inverted and is always erect and
of the mirror. formed below the formed above the
(ii) Centre of Curvature: The centre of the hollow principal axis. principal axis.
sphere of which the spherical mirror is a part, is (iv) It is always formed in (iv) It is always formed
called the centre of curvature (C). front of the spherical behind the spherical
mirror/lens. mirror/lens.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Centre of curvature of a spherical mirror is 3. The relation R = 2f is valid:
(a) not a part of the mirror (a) For concave mirrors but not for convex mirrors
(b) lies outside its reflecting surface (b) For convex mirrors but not for concave mirrors
(c) both (a) and (b) (c) Neither for concave mirrors nor for convex mirrors
(d) neither (a) nor (b) (d) For both concave and convex mirrors
2. A student obtained a bright and sharp image of a sun 4. (a) Where the principal focus of a spherical mirror
by using a concave mirror and exposed to it sunlight lies exactly?
for some time, it catches fire because (b) If the radius of curvature of a concave mirror is
(a) reflected ray has more energy twice that of convex mirror, what is the ratio of
(b) the heat produced due to the concentration of their focal length?
sunlight at the focus of a concave mirror ignites 5. (a) Define focal length of spherical mirror.
the paper. (b) How we can we find an approximate focal length
(c) high temperature of atmosphere able to burn the of a concave mirror? Give reason.
paper itself and sun rays have no role.
(d) none of these
TOPIC COVERED
Image Formation by Concave Mirror
6. An object at a distance of 30 cm from a concave

Multiple Choice mirror gets its image at the same point. The focal
Questions 1 Mark length of the mirror is
(a) – 30 cm (b) 30 cm
1. (c) – 15 cm (d) +15 cm
Object Questions 7, 8, 9 and 10 are based on the following
passage.
The image below shows a student demonstrating that
C F sun-rays concentrated to a point using a spherical mirror
can burn a paper as a science project. [CFPQ, CBSE]
Which of the following statements is not true in

reference to the diagram shown above? [CBSE 2021]
(a) Image formed is real.
(b) Image formed is enlarged
(c) Image is formed at a distance equal to double the
focal length.
(d) Image formed is inverted.

2. When an object is kept within the focus of a concave
mirror, an enlarged image is formed behind the 7. What is the term used for the distance between the
mirror. This image is: [CBSE 2020] mirror and the paper?
(a) real (a) radius of curvature
(b) inverted (b) principal focus
(c) virtual and inverted (c) principal axis
(d) virtual and erect (d) focal length
3. For a real object, which of the following can produce 8. What kind of image would be formed on the paper?
(a) Real and diminished
a real image?
(b) Real and enlarged
(a) Plane mirror (b) Concave mirror
(c) Virtual and diminished
(c) Concave lens (d) Convex mirror
(d) Virtual and enlarged
4. The nature of the image formed by concave mirror
9. The student wants to depict the above experiment
when the object is placed between the focus (F) and
as a ray diagram. Which of the following diagram
centre of curvature (C) of the mirror observed by should he draw?
us is
(a) real, inverted and diminished (a)
A
(b) virtual, erect and smaller in size C B
(c) real, inverted and enlarged F
(d) virtual, upright and enlarged
5. The radius of curvature of a converging mirror is
30 cm. At what distance from the mirror should an (b) A
object be placed so as to obtain a virtual image?
[CBSE 2021]
(a) Infinity C F
(b) 30 cm
(c) Between 15 cm and 30 cm B
(d) Between 0 cm and 15 cm
(c) A M Q
P
B′ O
B C F C F
A′
State the type of the mirror M and one characteristic

(d) A′ property of the image Q. [Delhi 2016]
A Ans. The given mirror M is a concave spherical mirror.
C When the object lies between the pole and the focus
F B B′ of the concave mirror, an erect, virtual and enlarged
image is formed. So one characteristic property of the
image Q formed in the given figure is that it is virtual.
10. If the student wishes to point the mirror to another 13. For a concave mirror draw a ray diagram to show
object so as to obtain a virtual enlarged image, what the reflected ray when the ray of light incident
should be the position of object with respect to the obliquely on the pole of mirror.
mirror? Ans.
(a) At principal focus
(b) At centre of curvature
(c) Between pole and principal focus
(d) Between centre of curvature and principal focus
Answers 14. What is the minimum number of rays required

for locating the image formed by a concave mirror
1. (b) for an object? Draw a ray diagram to show the
2. (d) virtual and erect formation of a virtual image by a concave mirror.
3. (b) Only concave mirror can produces a real image Ans. Two rays are required.
for the any position of object between its focus
and infinity.
4. (c) When object lies between C and F, the real,
inverted and enlarged image is formed beyond C.
5. (d)
6. (c) When object is placed at 2F, the image formed
by concave mirror is also at 2F. So 2f = –30 or
f = –15 cm. A Short Answer
7. (d) focal length
8. (a) Real and inverted because rays actually intersect 15. Draw the following diagram in which a ray of
after reflection and image can be taken on the light is incident on a concave/convex mirror on
screen. your answer sheet. Show the path of this ray, after
9. (b) reflection, in each case. [Delhi 2016]
10. (c)

11. List four properties of the image formed by a F F F

concave mirror, when object is placed between focus
and pole of the mirror.
Ans. (i) Behind the mirror
(ii) Enlarged, i.e. magnified Ans.
(iii) Virtual
(iv) Erect
12. Consider the following diagram in which M is a F F F
mirror and P is an object and Q is its magnified
image formed by the mirror.
16. For the given data showing the focal lengths of three (b) Concave mirror ‘C’ can be used as a make-up
concave mirrors A, B and C, and the respective mirror as the object distance is less than the focal
distances of different objects from these mirrors. length of concave mirror, i.e. when the object is
placed between the focus ‘F’ and the pole ‘P’ of
S.No Object distance (cm) Focal length (cm)
the concave mirror, a virtual, erect and enlarged
A 45 20 image is formed.
B 30 15
C 20 30
Answer the following questions:
(a) In the given position of object from the mirrors,
which mirror will form a diminished image
of the object. Draw a ray diagram for image
formation by this mirror. 17. “A concave mirror of focal length 15 cm can form
(b) Which mirror can be conveniently used as a magnified erect as well as inverted image of an
a make-up mirror? Draw a ray diagram to object placed in front of it.” Justify this statement
illustrate this function. stating the position of the object with respect to the
Ans. (a) Concave mirror A will form the diminished image pole of the mirror in both cases for obtaining the
of the object as the object is placed beyond the images. [AI 2014, 13]
centre of curvature (> 2f ) of the mirror. Ans. (i) When the object is placed between P (pole) and F
(focus) of the concave mirror, we get a magnified
and erect image.
(ii) When the object is placed between C (centre of
curvature) and F (focus), we get a magnified and
inverted image.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Under which of the following condition(s) a concave (iv) this is a concave mirror and hence the focal length
mirror can form an enlarged image? will be negative.
(a) At C (b) At F Which one of the above statements are correct?
(c) Between C and F (d) Beyond C [CBSE Sample Paper 2022]
2. The image formed by concave mirror is real for the (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii)
position of object (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(a) at infinity (b) at centre of curvature 4. Redraw the following diagram on your answer-sheet
(c) at its focus (d) all of these and show the path of the reflected ray. Also mark the
3. angle of incidence (∠i) and the angle of reflection (∠r)
on the diagram.
Object
Principal Axis
C F
P
C F
While looking at the above diagram, Nalini concluded
the following-
(i) the image of the object will be a virtual one.
(ii) the reflected ray will travel along the same path 5. The image formed by a concave mirror is observed
as the incident ray but in opposite direction. to be virtual, erect and larger than the object. Where
(iii) the image of the object will be inverted. should be the position of the object with respect to the
mirror? Draw ray diagram to justify your answer.
TOPIC COVERED
Image Formation by Convex Mirror
Ans. Properties of image formed by a convex mirror:

Multiple Choice (i) It always formed behind the mirror, between the
Questions 1 Mark pole and its focus.
(ii) The image is always virtual and erect.
1. The nature of image formed by a convex mirror (iii) The size of image is always smaller than the object.
when the object distance from the mirror is less (iv) Magnification is always positive.
than the distance between pole and focal point (F) 6. The focal length of a convex mirror is 12.5 cm. How
of the mirror would be far is its centre of curvature (i) from the pole (ii)
(a) real, inverted and diminished in size from the focus.
(b) real, inverted and enlarged in size Ans. The centre of curvature of a mirror is always located
(c) virtual, upright and diminished in size at a distance equal to its radius of curvature which is
(d) virtual, upright and enlarged in size twice of its focal length. So, (i) the centre of curvature
2. An object at a distance of +15 cm is slowly moved is 25 cm away from its pole and (ii) from the focus, it
towards the pole of a convex mirror. The image will is 12.5 cm away.
get 7. Draw a ray diagram to show the path of the reflected
(a) shortened and real ray corresponding to an incident ray which is
(b) enlarged and real directed towards the principal focus of a convex
(c) enlarge and virtual mirror. Mark on it the angle of incidence and the
(d) diminished and virtual angle of reflection. [Delhi 2014]
3. On moving the object from infinity towards the pole Ans. The required ray diagram is as follows:
of the convex mirror, the image moves from
(a) focus towards pole
(b) focus towards centre of curvature
(c) pole to infinity on the same side of object
(d) focus to infinity behind the mirror
4. If the object moves away from the pole of a convex
mirror, then, the size of image gradually changes from
(a) highly enlarged to enlarged 8. If the image formed by a spherical mirror for
(b) diminished to point size all positions of the object placed in front of it is
(c) highly diminished to diminished always erect and diminished, what type of mirror
(d) highly diminished to same size of object is it? Draw a labelled ray diagram to support your
answer. [CBSE 2018, AI 2015, Foreign 2016]
Answers Ans. The required spherical mirror is convex mirror because
the image formed by a convex mirror for all position
1. (c) Convex mirror always forms a virtual, erect of the object placed in front of it is always erect and
diminished image irrespective of the position of diminished.
object in front of it. (i) Object between pole and infinity
2. (d) Convex mirror always formed virtual and
diminished image. M
3. (a) A
4. (b)
A′
V S A Very Short Answer B P B′ F C

5. List four specific characteristics of the images of

N
the object formed by convex mirrors. [Delhi 2015, 12] (a)
(ii) At infinity
P F C (c)
B 10. Define the following terms in the context of a

diverging mirror: (i) Principal focus (ii) Focal
(b) length
Draw a labelled ray diagram to illustrate your
A Short Answer answer. [CBSE 2023]
S Type Questions 3 Marks Ans. (i) The point ‘F’ on the principal axis, where the
incident light rays parallel to the principal axis
9. Draw a ray diagram to show the path of the reflected appear to diverge or come from after reflection, is
ray in each of the following cases. A ray of light called its principal focus (F) of a diverging mirror.
incident on a convex mirror. [Foreign 2015] In case of a diverging mirror, principal focus lies
(a) strikes at its pole making an angle q from the on the opposite side of the reflecting surface.
principal axis. (ii) The distance between the pole and the focus of
(b) is directed towards its principal focus. the mirror is called the focal length of the mirror.
(c) is parallel to its principal axis. For a diverging mirror, focal length is always
Ans. positive.
(a) (b)
Focus of convex mirror
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following ray diagram is correct for the 4. If the image formed by a spherical mirror for all
ray of light incident on a convex mirror as shown in positions of the object placed in front of it is always
figure? erect and diminished, what type of mirror is it? Draw
(a) (b) a labelled ray diagram to support your answer.
5. Draw a ray diagram to show the path of the reflected
P F C P F C
ray corresponding to an incident ray which is directed
towards the principal focus of a convex mirror. Mark
(c) (d) on it the angle of incidence and the angle of reflection.
P 6. The focal length of a convex mirror is 15 cm. A object
F C
P F C is placed at a distance equal to its radius of curvature
in front of it. Draw a ray diagram to show the image
2. Give reason (s): We cannot obtain an image formed formation in this case. What kind of image is formed?
by a convex mirror on a screen.
3. Draw a ray diagram to show the path of the reflected
ray corresponding to an incident ray of light parallel
to the principal axis of a convex mirror and show the
angle of incidence and the angle of reflection on it.
TOPIC COVERED
Sign Convention for Reflection by Spherical Mirror
(a) u – negative, f – positive

Multiple Choice (b) u – negative, f – negative
Questions 1 Mark (c) u – positive, f – negative
(d) u – positive, f – positive
1. An object is placed in front of a convex mirror
at infinity. According to the New Cartesian Sign Answers
Convention, the sign of the focal length and the sign
of image distance in this case are respectively: 1. (d) Both lies on +ve x-axis.
(a) +, – (b) –, + 2. (b)
(c) –, – (d) +, + [CBSE 2023]
3. (a)
2.
A Short Answer
A
S Type Question 3 Marks
P
C F O
4. List the New Cartesian Sign convention for reflection
of light spherical mirrors.
Ans. New Cartesian Sign convention for reflection of light
For the diagram shown, according to the New by spherical mirrors:
Cartesian Sign convention the magnification (i) The object is always placed to the left of the mirror.
of the image formed will have the following (ii) All the distances parallel to the principal axis are
specifications: [CBSE 2021] always measured from the pole of the spherical
(a) Sign – Positive, Value – Less than 1 mirror.
(b) Sign – Positive, Value – More than 1 (iii) All the distances measured along the direction
(c) Sign – Negative, Value – Less than 1 of incident light, i.e. along +ve x-axis, the
(d) Sign – Negative, Value – More than 1 corresponding quantities are considered to be
positive.
3.
A (iv) All the distances measured opposite to the
direction of incident light, i.e. along –ve x-axis,
the corresponding quantities are taken as
O P F C negative.
(v) The distances measured in upward direction, i.e.
perpendicular to and above the principal axis
along +ve y-axis, are taken as positive.
For the diagram shown, according to new Cartesian (vi) The distances measured in the downward
sign convention, the object distance (u) and focal direction, along –ve y-axis, i.e. perpendicular to
length (f) of the mirror will have the following and below the principal axis, are taken as negative.
specifications:
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. According to the Cartesian Sign convention, the sign 2. What is the sign convention for the image distance
assigned to image distance (v) and height of the image formed by concave mirror?
(hi) formed by convex mirror: 3. What are the sign convention for the height of (a) real
(a) both will have negative in sign image (b) virtual image formed by spherical mirrors?
(b) both will have positive in sign Give reason.
(c) negative sign for image distance and positive sign
for image height
(d) positive sign for image distance and negative sign
for image height.
TOPICS COVERED
Mirror Formula and Magnification
75
Multiple Choice ⇒ v=cm
2
Questions 1 Mark Now, from mirror formula,
1. A concave mirror of focal length 20 cm forms an 1 1 1
= +
image having twice the size of object. For the virtual f v u
position of image, the position of object will be at 1 1 1
= + =–
(a) 25 cm (b) 40 cm 75/2 –25 75
(c) 10 cm (d) At infinity \ f = –75 cm
2. If a man’s face is 25 cm in front of concave shaving
mirror producing erect image 1.5 times the size of Hence, focal length of concave mirror is 75 cm.
face, focal length of the mirror would be 3. (b) When an object is placed at the centre of curvature
(a) 75 cm (b) 25 cm in front of a concave mirror, image is also formed
(c) 15 cm (d) 60 cm at the centre of curvature, so u = –2f = v = 30 cm.
3. What is the position of the object placed on the side 1 1 1
4. (c) Mirror formula, = + gives
of reflecting surface of a concave mirror of focal v f u
length 15 cm if the image is formed at the distance v = +7.5 cm and
of 30 cm from the mirror? h v
Magnification, m = i = –
(a) 15 cm (b) 30 cm ho u
(c) 25 cm (d) 40 cm ⇒ hi = +1.0 cm
4. An object of height 4 cm is kept at a distance of 30
cm from the pole of a diverging mirror. If the focal V S A Very Short Answer
length of the mirror is 10 cm, the height of the image Type Question 2 Marks
formed is [CBSE 2021]
(a) + 3.0 cm (b) + 2.5 cm 1 th
(c) + 1.0 cm (d) + 0.75 cm 5. A real image, d n the size of object is formed at a
5
distance of 18 cm from a mirror. What is the nature
Answers of mirror? Calculate its focal length. [DoE]
Ans. Concave mirror as it forms a real image.
1. (c) For virtual image, 1
v Given hi = ho and v = – 18 cm
m = – = +2 ⇒ v = –2u 5
u v 1
\ m =– =–
1 1 1 u 5
As + =
u v f − 18 1
⇒ –d n = –
1 1 1 u 5
\ + =
u –2u –20 ⇒ u = – 90 cm
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
⇒ = Using = + = +
2u –20 f v u – 18 – 90
⇒ u = –10 cm –5 1 6 1
= – =− =–
90 90 90 15
2. (a) In concave shaving mirror, virtual erect and large

\ f = – 15 cm
size image, behind the mirror is obtained, using
v v Since focal length is negative, therefore spherical
m = – ⇒ 1.5 = –
u –25 mirror is concave mirror.
A Short Answer 1 3 1 2
\ 30 = – u' + u' = – u'

⇒ u′ = – 60 cm
6. An object 4 cm in height, is placed at 15 cm in front
of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm. At what Hence the object should be placed at a distance of 60 cm
distance from the mirror should a screen be placed in front of a convex mirror to get the magnification
to obtain a sharp image of the object. Calculate the of 1/3.
height of the image. [Delhi 2017] 8. “The linear magnification produced by a spherical
Ans. Given: h1 = + 4 cm, f = – 10 cm, u = – 15 cm, mirror is +1/3. Analysing this value state the
v =? and h2 =? (a) type of mirror and (b) position of the object with
Using spherical mirror formula, we get respect to the pole of the mirror. Draw ray diagram
1 1 1
= + to justify your answer. [Foreign 2014]
f v u 1
Ans. (a) Since the magnification is + , the image is
1 1 1 3
⇒ = −
v f u virtual. It is a convex mirror.
1 1 1 −3 + 2 1 Image distance
= − = =− (b) m =
v − 10 − 15 30 30 Object distance

\ v = – 30 cm height of image h 1
= = i =+
height of object ho 3
Thus, screen should be placed at a distance of 30 cm
on the same side of the object to obtain its sharp image. The Image formed is of smaller size than the size of
h2 v object placed in front of the mirror while the object is
Now, = − placed anywhere between the pole (P) of the mirror
h1 u
v − 30 cm and infinity.
\ h2 = − × h1 =− × 4 cm
u − 15 cm
= – 8 cm
The height of real and inverted image is 8 cm.

7. An object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from
a convex mirror, the magnification produced is
1/2. Where should the object be placed to get the
magnification of 1/3? [HOTS]
9. Draw a diagram and apply Cartesian sign
Ans. Given: u = – 30 cm, m = 1/2 conventions for calculating the focal length and
Using the formula, nature of a spherical mirror which forms a 1/3 times
v
m=– (For a convex spherical mirror) magnified virtual image of an object placed 18 cm
u in front of it.
1 v
\ = − ⇒ v = + 15 cm Ans. According to question, for a virtual image
2 − 30
Using mirror formula, 1
m = + , u = – 18 cm
3
1 1 1 v 1
= + But, m = −u =+
f v u 3
1 1 1 1 u − 18

⇒ = + = ⇒ v = − =− = + 6 cm
f 15 − 30 30 3 3

\ f = + 30 cm Using mirror formula,
v' 1 1 1 1 1
Again, m’ = – = + = +
u' f v u 6 − 18
1 v′ u′
=– ⇒ v’ = – 1 1 3−1 = 2 = 1
3 u′ 3 = − =
18 18 9
6 18
1 1 1
Using again, = ∴ f = + 9 cm
f v′ + u′
So, the focal length of the given spherical mirror is 9
cm. The positive sign shows the given mirror is convex
in nature.
11. An object 4.0 cm in size, is placed 25.0 cm in front

of a concave mirror of focal length 15.0 cm.
(a) At what distance from the mirror should a
screen be placed in order to obtain a sharp
A Long Answer image?
L Type Questions 5 Marks (b) Find the size of the image.
(c) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of
10. A student has focussed the image of a candle flame image in this case. [CBSE 2020]
on a white screen using a concave mirror. The Ans. (a) Given: For concave mirror,
situation is as given below: Object distance (u) = –25 cm; Focal length
Length of the flame = 1.5 cm (f) = – 15 cm; Height of object (ho) = 4.0 cm
Focal length of the mirror = 12 cm 1 1 1
Distance of flame from the mirror = 18 cm Mirror formula : + =
v u f
If the flame is perpendicular to the principal axis
of the mirror, then calculate the following: Substituting u and f, we get
(a) Distance of the image from the mirror 1 1 1
= –
(b) Length of the image. v f u
If the distance between the mirror and the flame 1 1 –2
= – =
is reduced to 10 cm, then what would be observed –15 –25 75
on the screen? Draw ray diagram to justify your
answer for this situation. [Foreign 2015] v = –37.5 cm
Ans. Given: ho = + 1.5 cm, f = – 12 cm, u = – 18 cm Therefore, the screen should be placed in front
(a) For a concave mirror, using mirror formula of the mirror i.e on same side of the object at a
1 1 1 distance of 37.5 cm from the mirror in order to
= + , we get obtain the sharp image of the object on it.
f v u
1 1 1 1 1 (b) Magnification of the mirror is given by
= − = − h v
v f u − 12 − 18 m = i =–
1 1 −3 + 2 ho u
= − + = v
12 18 36 hi = –ho ×
1 1 u
or = –
v 36 –37.5
= –4 × = –6 cm
or v = – 36 cm –25
So, the distance of the image from the mirror is Therefore, size of image is 6 cm.
36 cm, the negative sign indicates that the image Since hi > ho, the image is enlarged and negative
is formed on the same side of the object. sign of v shows that image is real and inverted.
h v (c) Ray diagram to show the formation of image in
(b) Using the formula m = i = –
ho u the case.
v – 36
or hi = – × ho = – ×1.5
u – 18
ho
= – 3.0 cm
So, the length of the image is 3.0 cm. C F P
hi
If the distance between the mirror and the flame
is reduced to 10 cm, no image is formed on the
screen as the object lies between the focus and the 15 cm
pole of the mirror. So, a virtual image behind the 25 cm
mirror is obtained as shown in the figure given 37.5 cm
below.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Consider the situation where: 3. The linear magnification produced by a spherical
• An object is 3 cm (height). mirror is –1/5. Analysing this value state the (i) type of
• Mirror is concave with 6 cm focal length. spherical mirror and (ii) the position of the object with
• Object is placed at the centre of curvature. respect to the pole of the mirror. Draw ray diagram to
Which of the following options are correct? justify your answer. [Foreign 2014]
[CBSE Sample Paper 2021] 4. An object is kept in front of a concave mirror of focal
(a) The mirror will produce an image of magnification length 20 cm. The image is three times the size of the
+1.5. object. Calculate two possible distances of the object
(b) The mirror will produce an image of magnification from the mirror.
–1. 5. An object is kept in front of a convex mirror as shown
(c) The mirror will produce an image of magnification in figure. What will be the value of magnification
+1. produced by it?
(d) The mirror will produce an image of magnification B
–1.5.
2.
Concave mirror A P F C
2F F
C P
F 6. An object is kept at a certain distance in front of a
concave mirror with a focal length of 12 cm. The real
image is formed at a point that is 10 cm away from
the object. Calculate the magnification of the image
Examine the above figure and state which of the formed by mirror.
following option is correct? [One small box in the
figure is equal to 1 cm] [CBSE Sample Paper 2022]
7. An object 2 cm in size is placed 30 cm in front of a
(a) The mirror has a focal length of –6 cm and will concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. At what distance
produce an image of magnification +1. from the mirror should a screen be placed in order to
(b) The mirror has a focal length of –3 cm and will obtain a sharp image? What will be the nature and the
size of the image formed? Draw a ray diagram to show
produce an image of magnification –1.
the formation of the image in this case.
(c) The mirror has a focal length of –3 cm and will
produce an image of magnification +1. 8. A student has focussed the image of an object of height
(d) The mirror has a focal length of –6 cm and will 3 cm on a white screen using a concave mirror of focal
produce an image of magnification –1. length 12 cm. If the distance of the object from the
mirror is 18 cm, find the values of following:
(i) Distance of the image from the mirror
(ii) Height of the image [CBSE 2023]
TOPIC COVERED
Uses of Spherical Mirrors
(c) A safety mirror in shopping malls.

Multiple Choice (d) In viewing full size image of distant tall buildings.
Questions 1 Mark 2. Which of the following mirror is used by a dentist
to examine a small cavity?
1. In which of the following is a concave mirror used? (a) Convex mirror
[CBSE 2021] (b) Plane mirror
(a) A solar cooker. (c) Concave mirror
(b) A rear view mirror in vehicles. (d) Combination of convex and concave mirror
3. Magnification produced by the rear-view mirror vehicle is at a safe distance behind, when in fact it is
fitted in vehicles quite a bit closer. The warning serves as a reminder to
(a) is equal to one the driver of this potential problem.
(b) is greater than one
(c) is less than one A Short Answer
(d) depends on distance and height of the vehicle
behind the driver’s vehicles.
4. A full length image of the Taj Mahal can definitely 7. Name the type of mirror used
be seen by using (a) by dentist and (b) in vehicles headlights
(a) a plane mirror Give reason why such mirrors are used in each case.
(b) a concave mirror Ans. (a) Dentists use a concave mirror because it converges
(c) a convex mirror the light and when the object lies between its
(d) all of these pole and principal focus, it forms a virtual, erect
and enlarged image behind it. Hence they use the
concave mirror so that they could see the cavity
Answers or plaque clearly, which is inside the teeth.
(b) Concave mirror is used in the vehicle headlights.
1. (a)
The light bulb is placed at its focus. The light
2. (c) Concave mirror forms erect and enlarged image
rays emitted from the bulb, after reflection from
when held close to the cavity.
the mirror becomes parallel to the principal axis.
3. (c) A rear-view mirror fitted in vehicles is convex in
This powerful parallel beam of light enabling the
nature. Convex mirror always forms virtual, erect
driver to see the road ahead clearly.
and diminished image irrespective of the object
distance, i.e. v < u. So, magnification produced by 8. Why do we prefer to use a convex mirror instead
it is always less than 1. of plane mirror as a rear view mirror? Illustrate
4. (c) your answer with the help of a ray diagram.
Ans. Convex mirror is used because
(i) it always produces a virtual and erect image
V S A Very Short Answer between its pole and focus.
(ii) the size of image formed is smaller than the object
5. What should be the position of the object, when a irrespective of position of object.
concave mirror is used: [DoE]
Therefore, it enables the driver to see wide field view
(a) as a shaving mirror? of the traffic approaching from behind the vehicle in
(b) in torches as reflecting mirror? a small mirror.
Ans. (a) Object should be placed between pole and focus.
(b) Object should be placed at focus. Convex
mirror
6. “Vehicles in this mirror are closer than they i
appear”. Why is this warning printed on the side r
view mirror of most vehicles? [DoE]
Wide field of view
Dr
Ans. The phrase “vehicles in this mirror are closer than C ive
r
they appear” is a safety warning printed on the side O
view mirror of most vehicles. It is present because
the side view mirror is a convex mirror and it gives
r
a virtual image of wide field behind the vehicle and
i
appears the objects smaller and farther away than they
actually are, and the angular size of the virtual image is
also smaller than the angular size of the object. During
the lane change, a driver assumes that an adjacent
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. In torches, search light and vehicles head lights the (b) at the centre of curvature of the reflector.
source of light is placed (c) very near to the focus of reflector.
(a) between the focus and centre of curvature of the (d) between pole and focus of the reflector.
reflector.
2. If you look into the mirror and find that the image of (c) plane mirror
your face is larger than your face, then the type of (d) combination of plane and concave mirror
mirror is 3. Name the type of the mirrors used in design of solar
(a) concave mirror furnaces. Explain how high temperature is achieved
(b) convex mirror by this device.
TOPIC COVERED
Refraction of Light
Multiple Choice
Questions 1 Mark (c) (d)
1. The phenomenon of light exhibit in the case of
apparent displacement of a pencil, partly immersed
in water is
(a) refraction (b) reflection 5. A real image is formed by the light rays after
(c) dispersion (d) scattering reflection or refraction when they:
2. As light travels from optically rarer medium to an (A) actually meet or intersect with each other.
optically denser medium, it will have (B) actually converge at a point.
(a) increase in velocity (C) appear to meet when they are produced in the
(b) decrease in velocity backward direction.
(c) no change in velocity (D) appear to diverge from a point.
(d) cannot say Which of the above statements are correct?
3. Which of the following figures shows refraction of [CBSE 2020]
light while going from denser to rarer medium? (a) (A) and (D)
(b) (B) and (D)
(c) (A) and (B)
(d) (B) and (C)
(a) (b)
Answers
1. (a)
2. (b) When the optical density of the medium increases,
its refractive index value also increases, and the
(c) (d) speed of light in that medium decreases as both
are inversely proportional to each other.
3. (d)
4. (a)
4. Which of the following figure shows no refraction 5. (c) (A) and (B)
of light when it is incident normally on a boundary
of the two interfacing medium?
(a) (b) 6. A ray of light is refracted as per the following
diagram. Which media A or B is optically denser
than other? [DoE]
A Medium 1
Medium 2
Ans. The given figure shows that the ray of light bends Case II: (medium 2 having
higher refractive index)
towards the normal after refraction, when it enters from
medium A to medium B and ∠i > ∠r. This indicates Ans. Medium with higher refractive index will optically
that medium B is optically denser than A. denser medium with respect to other. So obliquely
incident light ray will:
7. Explain with the help of a diagram, why a pencil Case I: bend away from the normal in medium
partly immersed in water appears to be bent at the 2 after refractions.
water surface. Case II: bend towards the normal in medium 2 after
Ans. The light from different points on the pencil, immersed refraction.
in water, refracts and appears to come from a point
above the original position.
A Short Answer
Pencil N1
N2
Air 9. A coin is kept at the bottom of an empty bucket.
A student standing near to it cannot see the coin.
Another student pours some water into the bucket
A′
N 1′ N 2′ without disturbing the coin. Now, the first student is
A able to see the coin from the same position. Explain
Water
how it become possible to see the coin now? Draw
a ray diagram to illustrate it. [HOTS]
8. For the following two cases, state whether the
Ans. When the coin is under water, then due to refraction
obliquely incident ray light on interface of medium
of light, a virtual image of the coin is formed which is
1 and medium 2 will bend towards or away from
slightly above its actual position nearer to the water
the normal after refraction, in medium 2.
surface as shown in the figure. Thus, the coin becomes
visible again on pouring some water into the bucket.
Medium 1
Medium 2
Case I: (medium 1 having

higher refractive index)
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. A lemon is kept in water in a glass tumbler, when (c) Speed of light in different media is same.
viewed from the side appears to be (d) All of the above
(a) bigger than its actual size 3. For the same angle of incidence 45°, the angle of
(b) smaller than its actual size refraction in two transparent medium I and II are 20°
(c) same size as the as the actual size and 30° respectively. Out of I and II, which medium
(d) dark is optically denser and why?
2. Choose the incorrect statement from the following: 4. A ray of light travelling in air enters obliquely into
(a) Letters appear to be raised, when seen through a water. Does the light ray bend towards or away from
glass slab placed over it. the normal? Why? Draw a ray diagram to show the
(b) Light does not travel in the same direction in all refraction of light in this situation.
media.
TOPIC COVERED
Refraction Through a Rectangular Glass Slab
When he showed these ‘guidelines’ to his teacher,

Multiple Choice the teacher corrected and modified the ‘guidelines’
Questions 1 Mark labelled as
(a) B, C, E (b) B, D, E
1. A light ray incident on a rectangular glass slab, (c) B, C, D (d) C, D, E
after emerging from the opposite parallel faces, it 6. A student has traced the path of ray of light through
is found that the a glass slab as follows. If you are asked to label 1,
(a) ∠i > ∠e (b) ∠i < ∠e 2, 3 and 4, the correct sequence of labelling ∠i, ∠e,
(c) ∠i = ∠e (d) ∠i ≠ ∠e ∠r and lateral displacement respectively is
where ∠i = angle of incidence [CBSE 2016]
∠e = angle of emergence
2. Choose the correct statement for a rectangular glass
slab. 1
(a) The emergent ray is not shifted sidewards slightly A B
(b) The emergent ray is perpendicular to the incident
ray. 2
(c) The ray emerges parallel to the incident ray.
(d) The incident and emergent rays are inclined
towards each other.
3. A ray of light falling on a glass slab at 90°. The angle
D C
of incidence is 3
(a) 90° (b) zero 4
(c) < 90° ≠ 0 (d) greater then 90°
4. Mohit took a thick glass slab whose one opposite
parallel face is silvered. He observed that it formed (a) 2, 1, 3, 4
multiple images. This happened on account of (b) 1, 2, 3, 4
(a) refraction of light (b) reflection of light (c) 1, 3, 2, 4
(c) dispersion of light (d) both (a) and (b) (d) 1, 3, 4, 2
5. A student suggested the following ‘guidelines’ to 7. Select the correct statement(s) from the following
his friend for doing the experiment on tracing the regarding refraction of light when light is incident
path of a ray of light passing through a rectangular from the optically denser medium A on a optically
glass slab for three different angles of incidence: rarer medium B.
[Delhi 2008] I. Light will bend towards the normal in medium
A. Draw the ‘outline’ of the glass slab at three B.
positions on the drawing sheet. II. Speed of light will be more in medium B as
B. Draw ‘normals’ on the top side of these compared to medium A.
‘outlines’ near their left end. III. Angle of refraction will be more than angle of
C. Draw the incident rays on the three ‘outlines’ incidence.
in directions making angles of 30°, 45°, 60° with IV. Angle of refraction will be less than angle of
the normals drawn. incidence.
D. Fix two pins vertically on each of these incident
(a) Both I and II
rays at two points nearly 1 cm apart.
(b) Both II and III
E. Look for the images of the ‘heads’ of these pins
(c) Both II and IV
while fixing two pins from the other side, to get
(d) Only I, II and IV
the refracted rays.
Answers A Short Answer
1. (c)
2. (c) 9. When a ray of light passes through the glass slab,
3. (b) When light rays incident along the normal, then then how many times does it change its path and
by definition the angle of incidence is zero. why?
4. (d) Silvered face acts as a smooth reflecting surface. Ans. • When a ray of light passes through the glass slab,
5. (b) The normals are not generally at the ends. it bends twice.
While fixing pins, the foot has to be taken as • First time, at air-glass interface, it bends towards
reference. The pins should be far off from each normal at denser medium i.e., inside glass slab. It is
other. due to decrease in the speed of refracted light ray.
6. (c) • Second time, at glass-air interface, the speed of light
7. (b) of refracted ray in rarer medium increases and the
ray bends away from the normal.
V S A Very Short Answer 10. What is understood by lateral displacement of
Type Question 2 Marks light? Illustrate it with the help of a diagram. List
any two factors on which the lateral displacement
8. (a) Why does the emergent ray in a glass slab is of a particular substance depends.
parallel to the incident ray? P
(b) Why does the emergent ray shift sidewards? i
Ans. (a) We know that, in case of refraction, when incident Q
ray travels from air to glass, it bends towards r
normal and bends away from the normal when
R
it travels through glass to air. Thus, the extent e L In
ci
of bending of the ray of light at the opposite de
B nt
Em
parallel faces i.e. air-glass and glass-air interface ra
y
er
ge
of rectangular glass slab are equal and opposite.
nt
ra
Hence, the emergent ray is parallel to the incident ray
y
in case of refraction through rectangular glass slab. Ans. Lateral displacement is the perpendicular distance
(b) The emergent ray shift sidewards slightly because between the incident ray produced and emergent ray.
of The lateral displacement in the given diagram is BL.
(i) angle of incidence, and The lateral displacement depends on the thickness of
(ii) thickness of glass slab the slab, the incident angle and the refractive index of
the material.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. The angle of incidence from air to glass at point O on (a) 45°
the hemispherical glass slab is: (b) 0°
[CBSE Sample Paper 2022] (c) 90°
Q (d) 180°
2. Why does a light ray incident on a rectangular glass
Air slab immersed in any medium emerge parallel to itself?
P
Explain using a diagram.
Glass
Air
O
TOPIC COVERED
Refractive Index
In the diagram shown above n 1, n 2 and n 3 are

Multiple Choice refractive indices of the media 1, 2 and 3 respectively.
Questions 1 Mark Which one of the following is true in this case?
[CBSE 2021]
1. Snell’s law can be derived from which type of (a) n1 = n2 (b) n1 > n2
incidence of light ray? (c) n2 > n3 (d) n3 > n1
(a) Angle of refraction (b) Angle of incidence 6. The refractive index of medium A is 1.5 and that
(c) Oblique incidence (d) Angle of reflection of medium B is 1.33. If the speed of light in air is 3
2. Which of the following represents correctly Snell’s × 108 m/s, what is the speed of light in medium A
law of refraction? and B respectively? [CBSE 2021]
sin r 1 sin i n2 8
(a) 2 × 10 m/s and 1.33 × 10 m/s 8
(a) = (b) =
sin i n sin r n1 (b) 1.33 × 108 m/s and 2 × 108 m/s
(c) n2 sin i = constant (d) All of these (c) 2.25 × 108 m/s and 2 × 108 m/s
3. When an incident ray of light enters a medium (d) 2 × 108 m/s and 2.25 × 108 m/s
from air, it bends towards the normal. Which of 7. You are given three media A, B and C of refractive
the following is TRUE about the refractive index index 1.33, 1.65 and 1.46. The medium in which the
of the medium (nm) as compared to the refractive light will travel fastest is
index of air (na)? [CFPQ, CBSE] (a) A (b) B
(a) nm is equal to na (c) C (d) equal in all three media
(b) nm is less than na
(c) nm is more than na Answers
(d) The refractive indices cannot be compared based
on the given information. 1. (c)
4. 2. (b)
1 3. (c) The bending of the ray of light towards the normal
A
indicates that the second medium is an optically
B 2 denser medium whose refractive index is higher
3
than that of air.
4. (c)
C 4
5. (d) Bending of light ray in medium 3 is more that in
A ray of light is incident as shown. If A, B and C medium 1, i.e. q3 < q1 so, n3 > n1.
are three different transparent media, then which c
6. (d) Use v = .
among the following options is true for the given n
v v
diagram? [CBSE 2021] 7. (a) As, anm = a or vm = a
(a) ∠ 1 > ∠ 4 (b) ∠ 1 < ∠ 2 vm a nm
(c) ∠ 3 = ∠ 2 (d) ∠ 3 > ∠ 4 So, the light will travel faster in a medium having
5. lower refractive index.
1 q1
n 1
2 n2
q2 Type Questions 2 Marks
3 8. A ray of light enters into benzene from air. If the

q3 n3 refractive index of benzene is 1.50, by what percent
does the speed of light reduce on entering the
benzene?
Ans. The absolute refractive index of benzene is given by 2 4
Speed of light in vacuum (c) Ans. Given: nxy = , n = , n =?
n = 3 yz 3 zx
Speed of light in benzene (v) We know that,
3 × 10 8 nxy × nyz × nzx = 1
1.50 =
v 2 4
⇒ v = 2 × 108 ms–1
⇒ # # n zx = 1

3 3
Therefore, percentage decrease in the speed of light 9
on entering the benzene. ⇒ nzx =
c–v 8
= × 100% Speed of light in medium ‘y’: Let the speed of light
v
in medium y be v and speed of light in medium ‘x’ is
3 × 10 8 – 2 × 10 8 c
= × 100 c, then nyx =
3 × 10 8 v
100 1 c 1 3 × 10 8
= ⇒ = ⇒ =
3 n xy v 2/3 v
= 33.33% 2
⇒ v = 3 × 108 × = 2 × 108 ms–1
9. A ray of light is incident on the interface separating 3
diamond and water. Given that refractive indices of Hence, the speed of light in medium ‘y’ is 2 × 108 ms–1.
diamond and water with respect to air are 2.42 and
12. Light enters from air to water having refractive
1.33 respectively, complete the diagram by showing
index 4/3. Find the speed of light in water. The speed
a refracted ray and mark the angles of incidence
of light in vacuum is 3 × 108 ms–1.
and refraction.
4
Ans. Refractive index of water =
diamond 3
water
Speed of light in vacuum = 3 × 108 ms–1
Speed of light in vacuum c
Ans. Since the refractive index of diamond is more than that Using, n= =
of water, so it is optically denser. Hence the light ray Speed of light in water v
8
moves from a denser medium to a rarer medium and 4 3× 10
⇒ =
it will bend away from the normal in water as shown 3 v
below. 9 × 10 8
⇒ v= = 2.25 × 108 ms–1
4
Angle of \ Speed of light in water = 2.25 × 108 ms–1.
incidence
diamond
i 13. The image below shows the refraction of light in
three transparent rectangular blocks, X, Y and Z,
r water made of different materials when they are placed in
Angle of
refraction air. The angle of incidence is different in each case
such that i3 > i2 > i1 but the angle of refraction is
the same in all three blocks. [CFPQ, CBSE]
10. With respect to air, the refractive index of ice is 1.31 i1 i2
and that of rock salt is 1.54. Calculate the refractive
index of rock salt with respect to ice.
r r
Ans. Given: airnice = 1.31, airnrock = 1.54
air nrock 1.54

icenrock = = = 1.18
air nice 1.31
X Y
11. The refractive index of a medium ‘x’ with respect to i3
‘y’ is 2/3 and the refractive index of medium ‘y’ with
respect to ‘z’ is 4/3. Calculate the refractive index of
medium ‘z’ with respect of ‘x’. If the speed of light
medium ‘x’ is 3 × 108 ms–1, calculate the speed of
light in medium ‘y’. [CBSE 2020, HOTS]
Z
Compare the speed of light in the three blocks. (b) When light enters from air to glass, the
Justify your answer. angles of incidence and refraction in air
Ans. According to Snell’s law and glass are 45° and 30° respectively. Find
sin i the refractive index of glass. (Given that
= n ⇒ sin i > n …(i)
sin r 1 1
c 1 sin 45° = , sin 30° = ) [HOTS]
But n = ⇒ n∝ …(ii) 2 2
v v sin i
Combining (i) and (ii), we have Ans. (a) From Snell’s law, n =
sin r
1 1 c
sin i ∝ or v ∝ Also, n= v,
v sin i
Thus, we conclude that if the angle of incidence is where c = velocity of light in vacuum /air
minimum, speed of light is maximum. Hence, c sin i
\ v = sin r
vx > vy > vz … for i3 > i2 > i1
i.e. Speed of light in x > Speed of light in y > Speed Since c and sin i are constant. Therefore,
of light in z. sin r ∝ v.
Since the value of sin r will be least for 15° and
maximum for 45° among the three, the velocity
A Short Answer of light will be (i) minimum in medium R.
S Type Questions 3 Marks (ii) maximum in P.
(b) Using Snell’s law,
14. (a) What is the unit of refractive index? If not,
sin i sin 45°
why? nga = =
(b) Complete the following ray diagram by sin r sin 30°
showing the path of ray of light through each 1/ 2
⇒ nga = = 2 = 1.41
medium. The refractive index of turpentine oil, 1/2
alcohol and kerosene are 1.47, 1.36 and 1.44 16. State the laws of refraction of light. Explain the term
respectively. ‘absolute refractive index of a medium’ and write
an expression to relate it with the speed of light in
vacuum. [CBSE 2018]
Turpentine oil Ans. Laws of refraction of light:
(a) The incident ray, the normal at the point of
incidence and the refracted ray, all lie in the same
Kerosene
plane for the two given transparent media.
(b) The ratio of sine of angle of incidence, i.e.
Alcohol sin i to the sine of angle of refraction, i.e. sin r is
always constant, for the light of a given colour and
Ans. (a) Refractive index has no unit as it is the ratio of for the given pair of media.
two similar quantities. sin i
Mathematically, = constant = n21
(b) sin r
i The constant n21 is called the refractive index of the
Turpentine oil
n1 = 1.47 second medium with respect to the first medium.
Absolute Refractive Index: The refractive index
Kerosene oil r r n2 = 1.44 of medium 2 with respect to vacuum or air is
i considered to be its absolute refractive index. It
is represented by n2. It is also equal to the speed
e
of light in vacuum to the speed of light in the
Alcohol n3 = 1.36
medium.
Speed of light in air or vacuum (c)
15. (a) For the same angle of incidence in media P, i.e. n2 =
Speed of light in the medium (v)
Q and R, the angles of refraction are 45°,
35° and 15° respectively. In which medium c
= v
will the velocity of light be (i) minimum
17. (a) Find the absolute refractive index of a
(ii) maximum? Give reason for your answer.
medium in which light travels with a speed of
[HOTS]
1.4 × 108 m/s.
(b) How do we distinguish a medium to be rarer v1
or denser ? Give two reasons. = v2
2
Ans. (a) Absolute refractive index of the medium is given by v
Hence n = 1 (1/2 Mark)
Speed of light in vacuum (c) v2
nm =
Speed of light in medium (v) v1
= =2 (1 Mark)
c (v1/2)
i.e. nm = v
(b) (i) The ray moves towards the normal.
Given: c = 3 × 108 m/s, v = 1.4 × 108 m/s (1/2 Mark)
n2
c 3 × 10 8 3
\ nm = v = = = 2.14
1.4 × 10 8 1 .4
(b) (i) Based on the bending of light.
(ii) Based on the velocity of light in the medium
or by knowing its refractive index. n1
(1 Mark)
A Long Answer (ii) The ray moves undeviated.
L Type Question 5 Marks
n2
18. (a) On entering in a medium from air, the speed of
light becomes half of its value in air. Find the
refractive index of that medium with respect
to air?
(b) A glass slab made of a material of refractive index n1
n1 is kept in a medium of refractive index n2. (1 Mark)
A light ray is incident on the slab. Draw the
path of the rays of light emerging from the glass (iii) The ray moves away from the normal.
slab, if (i) n1 > n2 (ii) n1 = n2 (iii) n1 < n2. n2
Ans. (a) Refractive Index of a medium (n)
Velocity of light in vacuum
=
Velocity of light in the medium
n1
Let the velocity of light in vacuum be v1 and (1 Mark)
velocity of light in the medium be v2. [CBSE Marking Scheme]
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. ∠2 < ∠1. Which of the following statement would be
1 correct? [CBSE Sample Paper 2022]
medium 1
(a) Medium 1 is the denser than medium 3 but it’s
density is equal to medium 2.
(b) Medium 2 is the rarest medium.
medium 2 2
(c) Medium 3 is denser than medium 1.
(d) Medium 1 and 3 are essentially the same medium,
but medium 2 is denser than 1 and 3.
3
medium 3 4 2. Consider these indices of refraction: glass: 1.52; air:
1.0003; water: 1.333. Based on the refractive indices
of three materials, arrange the speed of light through
medium 1 4 them in decreasing order.
(a) The speed of light in water > the speed of light in
air > the speed of light in glass.
In the above diagram light is travelling through different (b) The speed of light in glass > the speed of light in
media. It is noted by a scientist that ∠1 = ∠3 = ∠4 but water > the speed of light in air.
(c) The speed of light in air > the speed of light in (a) n1 < n2 < n3 (b) n1 > n2 > n3
water > the speed of light in glass. (c) n1 < n2 = n3 (d) n1 = n3 < n2
(d) The speed of light in glass > the speed of light in 4. Prove that refraction will not take place at the boundary
air > the speed of light in water. that separates two media of equal refractive indices.
3. When light is incident on a glass slab, the incident Draw ray diagram to justify this statement.
ray, refracted ray and the emergent ray are in the three 5. With respect to air, the refractive index of ice is 1.31
media A, B and C. If n1, n2 and n3 are the refractive and that of rock salt is 1.54. Calculate the refractive
indices of A, B and C respectively and the emergent ray index of rock salt with respect to ice.
is parallel to the incident ray, which of the following
is true?
TOPICS COVERED
Refraction by Spherical Lenses and Formation of Images
(c) (d)
Multiple Choice
Questions 1 Mark
1. The following diagram shows the use of an optical
6. A student wants to obtain magnified image of an
device to perform an experiment of light. As per the
object AB as on a screen. Which one of the following
arrangement shown, the optical device is likely to
arrangements shows the correct position of AB for
be a; [CBSE 2021]
him/her to be successful? [CBSE 2021]
M
A
B O
(a) Concave mirror (b) Concave lens (a)
2F1 F1
(c) Convex mirror (d) Convex lens C1
2. A divergent lens will produce
N
(a) always real image
(b) always virtual image M
A C
(c) both real and virtual image
(d) none of these B
3. When object moves closer to convex lens, the image (b)
2F1 F1 O
formed by it shift
(a) away from the lens (b) towards the lens
(c) first towards and then away from the lens N
(d) first away and then towards the lens M
4. When object moves closer to a concave lens the

image formed by it shifts O
(c)
(a) away from the lens on the same side of object 2F1 F1
(b) toward the lens
(c) away from the lens on the other side of lens
N
(d) first towards and then away from the lens
M
5. The distance between the optical centre and point A
of convergence is called focal length in which of the
following cases? B O
(d)
(a) (b) 2F1 F1
C1
N
7. When a lens in placed at Q, a sharp image is formed 2. (b) Diverging (concave) lens will always forms a
on the screen. The image formed is real, inverted virtual, erect and diminished image.
and diminished. When the lens is moved to P, 3. (a) As object moves from infinity towards optical
another sharp image is formed on the screen. centre of the convex lens image is shifted away
from its focal point and moves towards infinity.
4. (b) When object is at infinity, image is formed at the
focus of concave lens. When object is moved
towards lens, the image is also moved towards
lens from its focus and its size increases.
Object 5. (c) Parallel rays after refracting meet at the focus of
P Q
a convex lens.
Screen
6. (c)
What is the nature of the image formed when the 7. (a) When the distance between the convex lens and
lens is at P? [CFPQ, CBSE]
an object is decreased, then the size of image
(a) Magnified and inverted is increased. The sharp image is continuously
(b) Magnified and upright formed on the screen that is real and inverted. On
(c) Diminished and upright decreasing the distance further in such a may that
(d) Diminished and inverted the object comes between the principal focus and
optical centre of the lens, then virtual, upright and
8. When sun rays are focused with the help of a convex
lens, a sharp bright spot is observed on a sheet of paper
the magnified image is formed and this virtual
at its focus. What does this bright spot indicate? image cannot be taken on the screen.
(a) Bright image of the sun 8. (c)
(b) Virtual image of the sun 9. (b) f = separation between the screen and pole
(c) Real image of the sun = 33.6 – 22.6 = 11.0 cm.
(d) Magnified image of the sun 10. (a)
9. The focal length of the concave mirror in the
experimental set up shown below, is : V S A Very Short Answer
11. The image formed by a convex lens is of the same

size as that of the object. What is the position and
nature of the image with respect to the lens?
Ans. The image will be real, inverted and will be formed at
the centre of curvature of the given convex lens.
12. With the help of a ray diagrams, differentiate
between a converging lens and diverging lens.
Ans.
(a) 10.2 cm (b) 11.0 cm
(c) 11.4 cm (d) 12.2 cm
10. Which of the following correctly shows refraction of
light from a concave lens? O F F O
(a)
(b)
Converging action of Diverging action of a
a converging lens diverging lens
(c) (d)
13. (a) What is a lens?
(b) Distinguish between a double convex lens and
a double concave lens.
Answers Ans. (a) Lens: It is a piece of transparent material bound
by two surfaces, of which one or both surfaces
1. (b) Rays are refracted and diverse, so the optical are spherical.
device is concave lens.
(b) Differences: A ray of light passing through the optical centre of a
Double convex lens Double concave lens lens will emerge from the lens without any deviation
in the path.
(i) Both spherical (i) Both spherical
surfaces bulging surfaces curved
outwards. inwards.
(ii) It is thicker at (ii) It is thicker at the
the middle as edges than at the
compared to edges. middle.
(iii) It is also called (iii) It is also known as 17. Draw a ray diagram to show the path of the
converging lens. diverging lens. refracted ray in each of the following cases:
14. State the two factors on which focal length of the A ray of light incident on a concave lens is
spherical lens depends. (a) passing through its optical centre.
Ans. Focal length of spherical lens depends on the (b) parallel to its principal axis.
(i) refractive index of the glass, and (c) directed towards its principal focus. [AI 2014]
(ii) radius of curvature of its two surfaces.
15. The images formed by an ordinary convex lens
suffer from a defect, called chromatic defect, which
leads to false coloured edges in the images. This Ans. (a) O
F F
happens because light rays of different colours bend
differently as they enter and leave the lens.
If a parallel white light beam passes through a
convex lens, the light of which colour (among violet Incident ray passing through the
to red in the spectrum) will converge at a point optical centre of a concave lens
closest to the lens? Justify your answer.
Ans. • The violet colour will converge at a point closest to
the lens.
• Among the colour components of white light in
F F
the spectrum, glass has highest refractive index for (b) O
violet colour light. Hence, the deviation of violet Principal
axis
light will be maximum after refraction through the
glass lens.
Incident ray parallel to the principal
A Short Answer axis of a concave lens
16. To construct a ray diagram, we use two light rays
which are so chosen that it is easy to know their
directions after refraction from the lens. List these (c) F O F Principal
two rays and state the path of these rays after focus
refraction. Use these two rays to locate the image of
an object placed between ‘F’ and ‘2F’ of a convex
lens. Incident ray directed towards the principal
Ans. List of two light rays chosen for refraction focus of a concave lens
(i) A ray of light parallel to the principal axis.
18. We wish to obtain an equal sized inverted image of
(ii) A ray of light passing through the optical centre
a candle flame on a screen kept at distance of 4 m
of a lens.
from the candle flame.
Path of these rays after refraction
(a) Name the type of lens that should be used.
In case of a convex lens, the ray parallel to principal
(b) What should be the focal length of the lens and
axis, after refraction, it will pass through the principal
at what distance from the candle flame the lens
focus on the other side of the lens.
be placed.
In case of a concave lens, the ray will appear to diverge
(c) Draw a labelled diagram to show the image
or appear to come from the principal focus positioned
formation in this case. [CBSE 2018C]
on the same side of the object.
Ans. (a) Convex lens.
(b) Candle should be placed at centre of curvature of (c) Draw ray diagram to show the formation of
convex lens i.e. u = 2f to obtain equal size inverted the image in each case. [Delhi 2014]
image at 2F2 i.e. v = 2f on the other side of the Ans. (a) He should use a convex lens as it forms a real
lens. image.
Here, u + v = 4 m (b) He should place the candle flame between F1 and
4 2F1 (the focus and the centre of curvature of the
⇒ 2f + 2f = 4 ⇒ f = = 1 m
4 lens) to get the magnified image on the wall, while
So, focal length of convex lens, f = 1 m the diminished image is obtained when the object
Distance of candle flame from the lens, is located at a distance greater than 2f.
u = 2f = 2 × 1 = 2 m. (c) (i) Ray diagram for a magnified image
(c) A
B′
2F1 B F1 O F2 2F2
A Long Answer A′
L Type Question 5 Marks (ii) Ray diagram for a diminished image
19. A student wants to project the image of a candle A
flame on the walls of school laboratory by using a
lens. F2 B′ 2F2
(a) Which type of lens should he use and why? B O
2F1 F1
(b) At what distance in terms of focal length ‘f ’
of the lens should he place the candle flame so A′
as to get (i) a magnified, and (ii) a diminished 2f
image respectively on the wall?
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Study the diagram given below and identify the type of 2. A student has focused on the screen a distant building
lens XX′ and the position of the point on the principal using a convex lens. If he has selected a blue coloured
axis OO′ where the image of the object AB appear to building as object, select from the following options
be formed: [CBSE 2021] the one which gives the correct characteristics of the
image formed on the screen. [CBSE 2015]
X
(a) virtual, erect, diminished and in green shade
(b) real, inverted, diminished and in violet shade
A
(c) real, inverted, diminished and in blue shade
(d) virtual, inverted, diminished and in blue shade
3. How does the focal length of a thick convex lens differ
O B Y O′ from that of a thin lens made of the same glass?
4. What is the difference between a convex lens and a
biconvex lens?
5. Which lens bends more light, thick convex lens or thin
convex lens made of the same material?
X′
6. (a) On what factor does the size of image formed by
(a) Concave; between O′ and Y a thin convex lens depends?
(b) Concave; between O and Y (b) A ray of light is passing through the principal
(c) Convex; between O′ and Y focus of a convex lens. How will it emerge after
(d) Convex; between O and Y refraction through the lens?
(c) Which law is obeyed by the light rays when
refracted through a spherical lens?
7. (a) What is the focal length of the lens used in
sunglasses?
(b) The following figures show the path of light rays
through three lenses marked L1, L2 and L3 and their
focal points F1, F2 and F3 respectively. Identify the
nature of lenses.
(i) (ii) (iii)
TOPICS COVERED
Sign Convention for Spherical Lenses, Lens Formula and
Magnification
6. An object is placed at distance of 15 cm in front of
Multiple Choice a concave lens of focal length 15 cm. The position
Questions 1 Mark of image formed will be at a distance of
(a) – 15 cm (b) + 15 cm
1. For the diagram shown, according to New Cartesian (c) – 7.5 cm (d) + 7.5 cm
Sign Convention, the sign of object distance, image 7. A teacher sets up the stand carrying a convex lens
distance and focal length for the given lens will be of focal length 21 cm placed at 42 cm mark on the
optical bench. He asks four students A, B, C and
D to suggest the position of screen on the optical
2F bench so that a distinct image of a distance tree
2F F F obtained on it. The correct position of the screen on
the optical bench suggested by one of the student is
(a) 63 cm (b) 32 cm (c) 21 cm (d) 84 cm
(a) – , + , + (b) – , – , +
(c) – , – , – (d) + , – , +
Answers
2. If the magnification produced by lens has a negative
value, the image will be 1.
(a)
(a) real and erect (b) virtual and erect 2.
(c)
(c) real and inverted (d) virtual and inverted 3.
(c)
3. Linear magnification of a concave lens is always v
4.
(d) For real image, m = –3 = ⇒ v = – 3u
positive but less than one. This is because it forms u
By lens formula, we get u = – 40 cm
(a) real image only
5. (d)
(b) virtual and erect image on the other side of lens
6. (c) Substitute u = –15 cm, f = –15 cm in lens formula,
(c) virtual and diminished image on the same side of
we get, v = –7.5 cm.
object irrespective of its position.
7. (a) The parallel rays coming from the distant tree
(d) virtual, erect and enlarged image
are focused by the convex lens at its focal point.
4. A converging lens forms a three times magnified Therefore, the position of screen on optical bench
image of an object, which can be taken on a screen. is 42 + 21 = 63 cm.
If the focal length of the lens is 30 cm, then the
distance of the object from the lens is [CBSE 2021] V S A Very Short Answer
(a) –55 cm (b) –50 cm Type Questions 2 Marks
(c) –45 cm (d) –40 cm
5. The condition for which the spherical lens has equal 8. An object is is placed at a distance of 15 cm from
focal length on either side of the lens is[CBSE 2021] a convex lens of focal length 20 cm. List four
(a) same medium on either side of lens characteristics of the image formed by the lens.
(b) same radius of curvature of both curved surface [AI 2017]
(c) independent of medium on either side of lens. Ans. Given: u = –15 cm, f = +20 cm
(d) both (a) and (b) As |u| < |f|
Therefore object is placed between ‘F’ and ‘O’ of the 1 1 1
lens. Thus, the characteristics of the image is erect,
\ = –
–5 v –10
virtual, enlarged and formed on the same side of the
1 1 1 –2 – 1 –3
lens as object. or v = –5 – 10 = 10 = 10
2
9. A real image rd of the size of the object is formed 10
3 v = – cm
by a convex lens when the object is at a distance of 3
12 cm from it. Find the focal length of the lens. Thus, the image is formed on the same side of the
[AI 2019] 10
2 object at a distance of cm from the optical centre
Ans. Given: h′ = – h , u = –12 cm 3
3 of the lens. The negative sign indicates that the image
hl v
• Magnification, m= = is virtual.
h u Using the formula,
hl h v
⇒ v= ×u m= i =
h ho u
2
– h v –10
⇒ hi = u × ho = × 6 = +2 cm
= 3 × – 12 = 8 cm 3 × (–10)
h
The positive sign indicates that the image is erect.
• Using lens formula
12. An object placed on a metre scale at 8 cm mark was
1 1 1 1 1 focussed on a white screen placed at 92 cm mark,
= – = –
f v u 8 –12 using a converging lens placed on the scale at 50
1 1 5 cm mark.
= + =
8 12 24 (a) Find the focal length of converging lens.
24 (b) Find the position of the image formed if the
\ f= + = + 4.8 cm object is shifted towards the lens at a position
5
of 29.0 cm.
10. State the meaning of linear magnification. How is (c) State the nature of the image formed if the
it related to object distance and image distance? object is further shifted towards the lens.
When is magnification positive or negative? [AI 2013]
[Foreign 2013] Ans. (a) Q u = – (50 – 8) = – 42 cm,
Ans. Linear magnification is the ratio of the height of the v = 92 – 50 = 42 cm
image to the height of the object. It is represented by Focal length of converging lens (convex lens) is
the letter ‘m’. given by
Height of image (hi) h 1 1 1
m = = i = v – u (lens formula)
Height of object (ho) ho f
where hi is the height of the image and ho is the height 1 1 1 2 1
= – = =
of the object. f 42 – 42 42 21
If the image formed is virtual and erect, then the \ f = 21 cm
magnification is positive and if the image formed is
real and inverted, then the magnification is negative. (b) Now, the object is shifted towards the lens at
a position of 29.0 cm. Therefore, new object
distance, u′ = – (50 – 29) = – 21 cm.
A Short Answer
S Type Questions 3 Marks Again lens formula,
1 1 1
= –
11. An object of height 6 cm is placed perpendicular to f v l ul
the principal axis of a concave lens of focal length 1 1 1 1 1
= – = +
5 cm. Use lens formula to determine the position, 21 v' –21 v' 21
size and nature of the image if the distance of the 1 1 1
object from the lens is 10 cm. [Delhi 2013] \ = – =0
v' 21 21
Ans. Given: ho = 6 cm, f = –5 cm, u = –10 cm
1
Using lens formula, or v′ = =∞
1 1 1 0
= – So, the image will be formed at infinity.
f v u
(c) If the object is further shifted towards the lens, the The position of image is at distance 37.5 cm from the
object is now within the focus of a convex lens so lens. The image is formed on the right side of the lens
the nature of image formed is and it is real and inverted in nature.
• virtual and erect, and 15. (a) A lens of focal length 5 cm is being used by
• enlarged or magnified, i.e. larger than the size Debashree in the laboratory as a magnifying
of the object. glass. Her least distance of distinct vision is
13. We wish to obtain an equal sized inverted image 25 cm. What is the magnification obtained by
of a candle flame on a screen kept at distance of using the glass?
4 m from the candle flame. (b) Ravi kept a book at a distance of 10 cm from
(a) Name the type of lens that should be used. the eyes of his friend Hari. Hari is not able to
(b) What should be the focal length of the lens and read anything written in the book. Give reasons
at what distance from the candle flame the lens for this? [CBSE Sample Paper 2023]
be placed.
Ans. (a) Given, image distance = v = –25 cm,
(c) Draw a labelled diagram to show the image
focal length = f = 5 cm, magnification = m = ?
formation in this case. [CBSE 2018C]
From lens formula,
Ans. (a) Convex lens.
1 1 1 1 1 1
(b) Candle should be placed at centre of curvature of = – ⇒ = −
convex lens i.e. u = 2f to obtain equal size inverted f v u u v f
image at 2F2 i.e. v = 2f on the other side of the 1 1 1 −1 − 5 −6
⇒ = − = =
lens. u − 25 5 25 25
Here, u + v = 4 m − 25
4 Object distance = u = cm
⇒ 2f + 2f = 4 ⇒ f = = 1 m 6
4 v − 25 × 6
So, focal length of convex lens, f = 1 m We know that, m = = = 6 (2 Marks)
u − 25
Distance of candle flame from the lens,
(b) This is because the least distance of distinct vision
u = 2f = 2 × 1 = 2 m.
is 25 cm. (1 Mark) [CBSE Marking Scheme]
(c)
A Long Answer
16. Analyse the following observation table showing
variation of image-distance (v) with object distance
14. An object of height 10 cm is placed 25 cm away from
(u) in case of a convex lens and answer the questions
the optical centre of a converging lens of focal length
that follow, without doing any calculations:
15 cm. Calculate the image-distance and height of
the image formed. [CBSE 2023] S. No. Object distance u Image distance v
Ans. Given: For converging lens, object distance (u) (cm) (cm)
= – 25 cm; 1 – 100 + 25
Focal length (f ) = 15 cm; 2 – 60 + 30
height of object (h0) = 10 cm 3 – 40 + 40
1 1 1 4 – 30 + 60
Lens formula: = –
f v u 5 – 25 + 100
Substituting u and f, we get 6 – 15 + 120
1 1 1 1 1 2
= + = + = (a) What is the focal length of the convex lens?
v f u 15 – 25 75 Give reason to justify your answer.
v = 37.5 cm (b) Write the serial number of the observation
Hence, image distance = 37.5 cm which is not correct. On what basis have you
Magnification of the lens is given by arrived at this conclusion?
h v (c) Select an appropriate scale and draw a ray
m= i =
ho u diagram for the observation at S.No. 2. Also
find the approximate value of magnification.
v 37.5
hi = ho × = 10 × = – 15 cm [AI 2017]
u – 25
Ans. (a) The focal length of the convex lens is f = 20 cm. (c)
Reason: Objects at S.No. 3 indicates that B
u = – 40 cm, v = +40 cm B′
Thus, object is at 2F.
A
Therefore, 2 f = 40 cm ⇒ f = 20 cm O F2
F1 A′
(b) Observation at S.No. 6 is not correct. 10 cm
The value, u = – 15 cm, indicates that the object 20 cm
is in between the optical centre and the focus
(i.e., less than the focal length) of the lens and AB = Object height = +4cm
hence, the image should be on the same side as A′B′ = Image height = +2cm
the object. Accordingly, the image distance should 18. At what distance from a concave lens of focal length
be negative and cannot be positive (+120 cm) as 20 cm, a 6 cm tall object be placed so as to obtain
shown in table. its image at 15 cm from the lens? Also calculate
(c) Ray diagram for the observation at S.No. 2 : Given: the size of the image formed. Draw a ray diagram
u = – 60 cm; v = +30 cm; f = 20 cm to justify your answer for the above situation and
A label it. [Foreign 2016]
Ans. Given: f = –20 cm, ho = 6 cm, v = –15 cm
Using lens formula,
F B′ 2F 1 1 1
B 2F F O = −
f v u
60 cm A′
1 1 1 1 1 1
30 cm ⇒ = − = − =−
u v f − 15 − 20 60
v 30 cm ⇒ u = – 60 cm
Magnification, m = u = −1
− 60 cm = 2 = – 0.5 Using the formula,
17. (a) Define optical centre of a spherical lens. h v
m = i =
(b) A divergent lens has a focal length of 20 cm. At ho u
what distance should an object of height 4 cm v − 15
from the optical centre of the lens be placed so ⇒ hi = × ho = × 6 = + 1.5
u − 60
that its image is formed 10 cm away from the Therefore, a diminished image is formed and its size
lens. Find the size of the image also. is 1.5 cm.
(c) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of
image in above situation. [AI 2016]
Ans. (a) Optical centre: The central point ‘O’ on the
principal axis of the lens, through which an
incident ray of light passes (refracted) without
suffering any deviation, is called optical centre
of the lens.
(b) Given: f = – 20 cm, ho = 4 cm, v = – 10 cm
Using lens formula,
1 1 1
= − 19. An object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from a
f v u concave lens of focal length 30 cm.
1 1 1 1 1 1 (a) Use lens formula to find the distance of the
⇒ u = − = − =−
v f − 10 − 20 20 image from the lens.
⇒ u = – 20 cm (b) List four characteristics of the image (nature,
position, size, erect/inverted) formed by the lens
hi v in this case.
Q m = = (c) Draw ray diagram to justify your answer of part
ho u
(b). [Delhi 2019]
v − 10
\ hi = × ho = ×4= +2 Ans. Given for concave lens, u = – 60 cm, f = – 30 cm
u − 20 (a) Using lens formula,
Therefore, a diminished virtual image is formed 1 1 1
and its size is 2 cm. = – we get
f v u
1 1 1 1 1 (ii) Aperture
= – = +
–30 v –60 v 60 (iii) Focal length
1 1 1 (b) A converging lens has focal length of 12 cm.
\ = – –
v 30 60 Calculate at what distance should the object be
3 1 placed from the lens so that it forms an image
= – =–
60 20 at 48 cm on the other side of the lens.
\ v = –20 cm Ans. (a) (i) Optical centre: The centre point of a lens
is known as its optical centre. It always lies
(b) • Nature of image : Virtual
inside the lens. A light beam passing through
• Position of image : Between optical centre and
the optical centre emerges out without any
focus of concave lens.
deviation after refraction.
• Size of image: Smaller than the object using
(ii) Aperture: This is the length of the lens
h v
m = i = through which refraction takes place.
h0 u (iii) Focal length: The distance of the principal
v –20 h focus from the optical centre of the spherical
hi = × h 0 = × h0 = 0
u –60 3 lens is called the focal length (f) of the lens.
So size of image is one third of the object. (b) Focal length of the converging lens,
• Erect/inverted : Erect image f = + 12 cm
(c) Image distance, v = + 48 cm (+ ve sign is taken
because of sign convention)
Using lens formula,
A
1 1 1
A′ = –
f v u
B 2F F B′ O 1 1 1
⇒ = –
+ 12 + 48 u
60 cm
1 1 1 –3
\ = − =
30 cm u + 48 12 48
20. (a) Explain the following terms related to spherical u = –16 cm
lenses:
So, the distance of the object from the lens is
(i) Optical centre
16 cm.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. If the real image of the candle flame formed by a lens length 20 cm. Draw a ray diagram to find the position
is three times the size of the flame and the distance and size of the image formed. Mark optical centre ‘O’
between lens and image is 80 cm, at what distance and principal focus ‘F’ on the diagram. Also find the
should the candle be placed from the lens? [CBSE 2021] approximate ratio of size of image to the size of the
(a) –80 cm (b) –40 cm object. [CBSE 2018]
40 80 4. (a) The image of an object formed by a lens is of same
(c) – cm (d) – cm
3 3 size but inverted. If the object distance is 30 cm,
2. A concave lens has focal length of 20 cm. At what calculate
distance from the lens a 5 cm tall object be placed so (i) The distance between the object and its image.
that it forms an image at 15 cm from the lens? Also (ii) Focal length of the lens.
calculate the size of the image formed. (b) Draw a ray diagram to show the image formed in
3. An object of height 4.0 cm is placed at distance of 30 above case. [CBSE 2023]
cm from the optical centre ‘O’ of a convex lens of focal
TOPICS COVERED
Combination, Power and Uses of Spherical Lens
1 1
Multiple Choice = + = 2 + 2.5 = 4.5D
0.5 0.4
Questions 1 Mark 4. (b) P = P1 + P2 = +3D – 3D = 0D
\ The combination will behave as a plane glass
1. If the power of lens is –4.0D, then it means that the
sheet/slab.
lens is a [CBSE Sample Paper 2022] 1
(a) concave lens of focal length –50 m 5. (a) P ∝
f
(b) convex lens of focal length +50 cm
(c) concave lens of focal length –25 cm
A Short Answer
(d) convex lens of focal length –25 cm S Type Questions 3 Marks
2. In which of the following devices, convex lens is not
used? 6. (a) The power of a combination of two lenses XY
(a) Magnifying glass (b) Microscope is 5D if the focal length of lens X is 15 cm. State
(c) Flashlights (d) Telescope the nature and focal length of lens Y. [DoE]
3. Two convex lens P and Q have focal length (b) When object is placed between infinity and the
0.50 m and 0.40 m respectively. pole of the convex mirror, where is the image
Which of the following is TRUE about the combined formed?
power of the two lenses? [CFPQ, CBSE] Ans. (a) P o w e r o f a c o m b i n a t i o n o f t w o l e n s e s
(a) P is equal to 4.5 D. X and Y = 5D
(b) P is less than 4.5 D. Q P = PX + PY
(c) P is more than 4.5 D. 100 1
\ 5 = + (Q fX = 15 cm)
(d) P cannot be determined from the information 15 fY
given.
1 100 25
4. The combination of spherical lens of power +3D ⇒ = 5– =–
fY 15 15
and –3D acts as a
15
(a) bifocal lens of power 6D \ fY ==– –= 0.6 m – 60 cm
(b) plane glass sheet/slab 25
(c) convex lens having no power Therefore, the focal length of given lens Y is
(d) concave lens of power – 6D 60 cm and it is a concave lens.
5. The focal length of four convex lens P, Q, R and S (b) Between P and F, behind the mirror.
are 20 cm, 15 cm, 5 cm and 10 cm respectively. The 7. If the image formed by a lens for all positions of
lens having lowest power is an object placed in front of it is always erect and
(a) P (b) Q diminished, what is the nature of this lens? Draw a
(c) R (d) S ray diagram to justify your answer. If the numerical
value of the power of this lens is 10 D, what is its
Answers focal length in the Cartesian system? [AI 2017]
Ans. It is a concave or diverging lens.
100 M
1. (c) P = –4D, therefore P = ⇒ f = –25 cm A
f (cm)
Negative focal length means concave lens. A′
2. (c) Concave lens is used in flashlights to widen the
beam produced by the bulb. 2F1 B F1 B′ O
3. (a) P = P1 + P2
1 1
= +
f1(m) f2 /m
N
1 1 1 1
f= ,
⇒ – =
P 25 50 v
P = – 10D, 1 1
1
⇒ = ⇒ v = 50 cm
f= = – 0.1 m Or f = – 10 cm 50 v
− 10D  Magnification
8. An object is kept at a distance of 18 cm, 20 cm, v h
22 cm and 30 cm respectively from a lens of power m = = i
u ho
+ 5D. 50
(a) In which case or cases would you get a magnified \ m = =–1
− 50
image?
The position of image is at distance 50 cm from the
(b) Which of the magnified image can be got on a
lens. The image is formed on the right side of lens and
screen? [HOTS]
it is real and inverted in nature. The size of the image
Ans. Q Power of lens = + 5 D
1 1 is same as size of the object.
\f= = = +0.2 m = + 20 cm
P +5
(a) We would get a magnified image only when the
object is kept at a distance of 18 cm, 22 cm and
30 cm respectively.
(b) The object at the positions of 22 cm and 30 cm
will produce a magnified, real image on a screen.
Reason:
(i) A magnified virtual image is formed by a convex 10. Define power of a lens. The focal length of a lens
lens when the object lies between the focus and is – 10 cm. Write the nature of the lens and find
the optical centre of the lens. its power. If an object is placed at a distance of
(ii) A magnified real image is formed by a convex 20 cm from the optical centre of this lens, according
lens when the object lies between F and 2F. to the New Cartesian Sign Convention, what will be
the sign of magnification in this case? [CBSE 2023]
9. The power of a lens is +4D. Find the focal length Ans. • Power of a Lens: The ability of a lens to converge
of this lens. An object is placed at a distance of or diverge the ray of light after refraction, is called
50 cm from the optical centre of this lens. State power (P) of the lens. It is defined as the reciprocal
the nature and magnification of the image formed 1
by the lens and also draw a ray diagram to justify of the focal length, i.e. P = .
f
your answer.
Ans.  Power of lens = +4D • Focal length of lens is –10 cm. Therefore, nature of
1 1 lens = concave
\f= = = + 0.25 m = 25 cm 100
P +4 Power of lens, P =
f (cm)
Since, f is positive hence the lens is converging lens.
Given that u = – 50 cm 100
= = –10D
Using lens formula, we have –10 cm
1 1 1 • Magnification produced by concave lens is always
= –
f v u positive as it forms only virtual and erect image on
1 1 1 the same side of the object.
= –
25 v (− 50)
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. A lens of power +2D and lens of power –1D are placed 2. If a lens can converge the sun rays at a point 20 cm
in close contact with each other. The combination will away from its optical centre, the power of the lens is
behave like (a) +2D (b) –2D
(a) a convergent lens of focal length 50 cm (c) +5D (d) –5D
(b) a convergent lens of focal length 100 cm 3. A convex lens of focal length 25 cm and a concave
(c) a convergent lens of focal length 150 cm lens of focal length 20 cm are placed in close contact
(d) a divergent lens of focal length 100 cm with one another.
(a) What is the power of the combination? what distance from the combination will the beam get
(b) Is this combination converging or diverging? focused? State the nature of image formed.
4. A concave lens of power –2D is in contact with the 5. State three uses of (a) convex lens (b) concave lens in
convex lens of power +4D. Now a parallel beam of our daily life.
light is allowed to incident on this combination. At

1. Distinguish between a convex and a concave mirror. (b) Two thin lenses of power +3.5 D and –2.5 D are
(2 Marks) placed in contact. Find the power and focal length
of the lens combination. [DoE] (3 Marks)
2. Why does a ray falling normally on a plane mirror,
retrace its path? (2 Marks) 8. The diagram given below shows an object O and image
I. (3 Marks)
3. A lens made of material with refractive index 1.5 is
immersed in a liquid with refractive index 1.5. I
O
The diagram below shows two rays incident on the
lens when it is immersed in the liquid. (2 Marks) 2F F
Liquid of
RI 1.5
Without actually drawing the ray diagram, state the
following:
(a) Type of lens (Converging/Diverging)
(b) Name two optical instruments where such an

image is obtained.
Copy the diagram and draw the light rays after they (c) List three characteristics of the image formed if
pass through the lens. Justify your diagram. this lens is replaced by concave mirror of focal
[CFPQ, CBSE] length ‘f ’ and an object is placed at a distance ‘f /2’
4. (a) Differentiate between reflection and refraction. in front of the mirror [CBSE AI 2020]
(b) A lemon kept in water in a glass tumbler appears 9. Rohit wants to have an erect image of an object using
to be bigger than its actual size, when viewed from a converging mirror of focal length 40 cm. (3 Marks)
the sides. Explain why it so appears. (a) Specify the range of distance where the object can
[HOTS] (3 Marks) be placed in front of the mirror. Justify.
(b) Draw a ray diagram to show image formation in
5. (a) “A convex lens of focal length ‘f ’ can form a
this case.
magnified erect as well as inverted image.” Justify
(c) State one use of the mirror based on the above kind
this statement stating the position of the object of image formation. [CBSE Sample Paper 2023]
with respect to the lens in each case for obtaining
these images. [AI 2013]
10. Suppose you have three concave mirrors A, B and C
(b) A convex lens of focal length 25 cm and a concave of focal lengths 10 cm, 15 cm and 20 cm. For each
concave mirror you perform the experiment of image
lens of focal length 10 cm are placed in close
formation for three values of object distances of
contact with each other. Calculate the lens power
10 cm, 20 cm and 30 cm. Giving reason answer the
of this combination. (3 Marks)
following: (5 Marks)
6. An object is kept at a distance of 18 cm, 20 cm, (a) For the three object distances, identify the mirror/
22 cm and 30 cm respectively from a lens of power + mirrors which will form an image of magnification
5D. (3 Marks) –1.
(a) In which case or cases would you get a magnified (b) Out of the three mirrors identify the mirror
image? which would be preferred to be used for shaving
(b) Which of the magnified image can be got on a purposes/make-up.
screen? [HOTS] (c) For the mirror B draw ray diagram for image
7. (a) How can we differentiate between convex and formation for object distances 10 cm and
concave lenses without touching them? [DoE] 20 cm. [Foreign 2016]
11. (a) Draw a ray diagram for showing the convergence (b) anywhere in front of a concave lens.
of a parallel beam of light by a concave mirror (c) at 2F of a convex lens.
and mark the positions of pole and the centre of State the signs and values of magnifications in the
curvature in it. above mentioned cases (a) and (b). [CBSE 2020]
(b) An object 4 cm in size is placed at 25 cm in front 13. (a) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of
of a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. At what image by a concave lens when the object is placed
distance from the mirror should a screen be placed in front of it. (5 Marks)
in order to obtain a sharp image? Find the nature (b) In the above diagram mark the object distance
and size of the image. (u) and the image distance (v) with their proper
(c) List any two uses of a concave mirror. signs (+ve or –ve as per New Cartersian Sign
[CBSE 2023] (5 Marks) convention) and state how these distances are
12. Draw a ray diagram in each of the following cases related to the focal length (f ) of the concave lens
to show the formation of image, when the object is in this case.
placed: (5 Marks) (c) Find the nature and power of the lens which forms
(a) between optical centre and principal focus of a a real and inverted image of magnification –1 at
convex lens. a distance of 40 cm from its optical centre.
[CBSE 2016]

Direction: The questions given below consist of an Reason: The perpendicular distance between the
assertion and the reason. Use the following key to choose original path of incident ray and emergent ray coming
the appropriate answer. out of glass slab is called lateral displacement of the
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the emergent ray of light.
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. 5. Assertion: When a pencil is partly immersed in water
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the and held obliquely to the surface, the pencil appears
Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. to bend at the water surface.
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false. Reason: The apparent bending of the pencil is due to
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason the refraction of light when it passes from water to air.
is true.
6. Assertion: 1.33 is the absolute refractive index of
1. Assertion: Incident light is reflected in only one water.
direction from a smooth surface. Reason: Air is optically denser than water. [KVS]
Reason: Since the angle of incidence and the angle
7. Assertion: The value of f in a concave mirror is taken
of reflection are same, a beam of parallel rays of light
as –ve and in a convex mirror, it is taken as +ve.
falling on a smooth surface is reflected as a beam of
Reason: All distances measured to the right of the
parallel light rays in one direction only.
origin are taken as +ve and those measured along the
2. Assertion: The word AMBULANCE on the left of the origin are taken as –ve. [KVS]
hospital vans is written in the form of its mirror as
8. Assertion: A concave lens of very short focal length
.
causes higher divergence than one with longer focal
Reason: The image formed in a plane mirror is same
length.
size of the object.
Reason: The power of lens is directly proportional to
3. Assertion: Concave mirrors are used as reflectors in its focal length. [CBSE 2021C]
torches, vehicle head-lights and in search lights.
9. Assertion: The SI unit of power of lens is ‘diopter’.
Reason: When an object is placed beyond the centre
Reason: The power of concave lens is positive and
of curvature of a concave mirror, the image formed is
that of convex lens is negative. [CBSE 2021C]
real and inverted.
10. Assertion: Higher the refractive index of the medium,
4. Assertion: The light emerges from a parallel sided
lesser will be the velocity of light in that media.
glass slab in a direction perpendicular to that in which
Reason: Refractive index is inversely proportional to
it enters into the glass slab.
the velocity of light in the medium.
The following questions are source-based/case-based projector. Her slide projector produced a 500 times
questions. Read the case carefully and answer the enlarged and inverted image of a slide on a screen 10
questions that follow. m away. [CBSE Sample Paper 2023]
1. Analyse the following observation table showing (a) Based on the text and data given in the above
variation of image distance (v) with object distance paragraph, what kind of lens must the slide
(u) in case of a convex lens and answer the questions projector have?
that follow, without doing any calculations: (b) If v is the symbol used for image distance and u
for object distance then with one reason state what
S. Object distance u Image distance v v
will be the sign for in the given case?
No. (cm) (cm) (c) A slide projector hasu a convex lens with a focal
1 – 90 + 18 length of 20 cm. The slide is placed upside down
2 – 60 + 20 21 cm from the lens. How far away should the
3 – 30 + 30 screen be placed from the slide projector’s lens
so that the slide is in focus?
4 – 20 + 60
Or
5 – 18 + 90 (c) When a slide is placed 15 cm behind the lens in
6 – 10 + 100 the projector, an image is formed 3 m in front of
(a) State the lens formula. the lens. If the focal length of the lens is 14 cm,
(b) Write the serial number of that observation which is draw a ray diagram to show image formation. (not
not correct. How did you arrive at this conclusion? to scale)
(c) Take an appropriate scale to draw ray diagram for 3. With the help of mirrors, we can form a variety of
the observation at S. No. 2. images. For example, in plane mirrors, images are
Or the same size as the object and are located behind the
(c) Under what condition does a biconvex lens of mirror. Dental mirrors may produce a magnified image
glass having a certain refractive index act as a while security mirror in shops, on the other hand,
plane glass sheet when immersed in a liquid? form images that are smaller than the object. These
2. images can be either real or virtual depending upon the
position of object. The real image can be obtained on
the screen only when the reflected rays meet actually.
Virtual image does not form on the screen because
after reflection, the reflected rays appear to meet.
(a) What are the advantages and disadvantages of
using a convex mirror for seeing traffic at the rear?
The above images are that of a specialized slide (b) Name the mirror that can give an erect and enlarged
projector. Slides are small transparencies mounted image of the object.
in sturdy frames ideally suited to magnification and (c) An object is placed at the distance of 10 cm,
projection, since they have a very high resolution 20 cm, 30 cm and 40 cm respectively from a
and a high image quality. There is a tray where the concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. Which
slides are to be put into a particular orientation so that position of the object will produce (i) virtual
the viewers can see the enlarged erect images of the image and (ii) an image of same size?
transparent slides. This means that the slides will have Or
to be inserted upside down in the projector tray. (c) What does the negative sign in the value of
To show her students the images of insects that she magnification produced by a mirror indicate about
investigated in the lab, Mrs. Iyer brought a slide a image?
4. The absolute refractive index of a medium is simply called its refractive index. The ability of a medium to refract
light is also expressed in terms of its optical density. We have been using ‘rarer medium’ and ‘denser medium’ which
actually means optically rarer medium’ and optically denser medium. In comparing two media the one with larger
refractive index is optically denser and vice-versa.
Material medium Refractive index Material medium Refractive index

Air 1.0003 Canada Balsam 1.53
Ice 1.31
Water 1.33 Rock salt 1.54
Alcohol 1.36
Kerosene 1.44 Carbon disulphide 1.63
Fused quartz 1.46 Dense flint glass 1.65
Turpentine oil 1.47 Ruby 1.71
Benzene 1.50 Sapphire 1.77
Crown glass 1.52 Diamond 2.42
(a) Name the medium which have lowest and highest optical density.
(b) You are given water, kerosene, benzene and dense flint glass. In which of these media a ray of light incident
obliquely at same angle would bend the most?
(c) How the absolute refractive index related to speed of light?
Or
(c) Draw a ray diagram to show the path of ray of light passing obliquely from water to alcohol.
5. The science teacher told the students to demonstrate (a) What types of lenses must be L1 and L2?
some properties of light in their science project. One (b) What is the value and sign of magnification
of the student, Alankrita, kept ‘X’ inside the box as (according to the New Cartesian Sign convention)
shown in figure and with the help of a laser pointer, of the image formed by L1?
made light rays pass through the holes on one side of (c) If the power of the eye piece (L2) is 5 D and it
the box. She has a small butter paper screen to see the forms an image at a distance 80 cm from its optical
rays of light cast as they emerged. centre, at what distance should the object be?
Ray 2 Or
(c) If the power of lenses L1 and L2 are in the ratio of
Ray 1 4 : 1, what would be ratio of the focal length of
X L1 and L2? [CBSE 2022]
Ray 2 7. When the coin is under water, then due to refraction
of light, a virtual image of the coin is formed which is
Ray 1 slightly above its actual position nearer to water surface
(a) What could be the X that she placed inside the box as shown in figure. This is because the light rays
to make the rays behave as shown? coming from coin and then go from water to air, they
(b) She measured the angle of incidence for both rays deviate from their path and get deflected away from
on the left side of the box to be 48.6°. She knew the normal. Backward extension of these refracted ray
the refractive index of the material ‘X’ inside the appear to meet at point ‘I’, the image of the coin.
box was 1.5. What will be the approximate value
of angle of refraction? (Given: sin 48.6° = 0.75)
(c) What would she observe in the lateral shift of the
emergent ray if the object inside the box was made
of a material with a refractive index less than 1.5?
Or
(c) Draw the label diagram for the path of refracted
ray through the material ‘X’ inside the box for the
incident ray 1.
6. A compound microscope is an instrument which (a) State the relationship between angle of incidence
consists of two lenses L1 and L2. The lens L1 called and angle of refraction formed by the ray at the
objective, forms a real, inverted and magnified image point B of water-air interface.
of the given object. This serves as the object for the (b) Why does the coin appear raised when kept in
second lens L2; the eye piece. The eye piece functions water at the bottom of bucket?
like a simple microscope or magnifier. It produces (c) The medium is changed from water (refractive
the final image, which is inverted with respect to the index of water = 1.33) to a new medium having
original object, enlarged and virtual. refractive index 1.5. State what your observation
will be about the image of the coin in the new (ii) magnification of the image formed with sign
medium? Give a reason. as per Cartesian Sign convention.
Or 9. The ability of a medium to refract light is expressed
(c) On what basis can we distinguish a medium as in terms of its optical density. Optical density has
being optically rarer or optically denser? a definite connotation. It is not the same as mass
8. Hold a concave mirror in your hand and direct its density. On comparing two media, the one with the
reflecting surface towards the sun. Direct the light large refractive index is optically denser medium than
reflected by the mirror on to a white card-board held the other. The other medium with a lower refractive
close to the mirror. Move the card-board back and forth index is optically rarer. Also the speed of light through
gradually until you find a bright, sharp spot of light on a given medium is inversely proportional to its optical
the board. This spot of light is the image of the sun on density. [CBSE 2023]
the sheet of paper; which is also termed as “Principal (a) Determine the speed of light in diamond if the
Focus” of the concave mirror. [CBSE 2023] refractive index of diamond with respect to
Concave mirror vacuum is 2.42. Speed of light in vacuum is
3 × 108 m/s.
(b) Refractive indices of glass, water and carbon
disulphide are 1.5, 1.33 and 1.62 respectively. If a
O
ray of light is incident in these media at the same
F angle (say q), then write the increasing order of
Principal axis
the angle of refraction in these media.
(c) The speed of light in glass is 2 × 108 m/s and in
Principal Focus
water is 2.25 × 108 m/s.
(i) Which one of the two is optically denser and
(a) List two applications of concave mirror. why?
(b) If the distance between the mirror and the principal (ii) A ray of light is incident normally at the
focus is 15 cm, find the radius of curvature of the water-glass interface when it enters a thick
mirror. glass container filled with water. What will
(c) Draw a ray diagram to show the type of image happen to the path of the ray after entering
formed when an object is placed between pole the glass? Give reason.
and focus of a concave mirror. Or
Or (c) The absolute refractive indices of water and glass
(c) An object 10 cm in size is placed at 100 cm in front are 4/3 and 3/2 respectively. If the speed of light
of a concave mirror. If its image is formed at the in glass is 2 × 108 m/s, find the speed of light in
same point where the object is located, find: (i) vacuum and (ii) water.
(i) focal length of the mirror, and
NCERT ZONE
Page 142 3. Name a mirror that can give an erect and enlarged
1. Define the principal focus of a concave mirror. image of an object.
Ans. The point on the principal axis, where all the incident Ans. Concave mirror.
rays, parallel to the principal axis, actually meet or 4. Why do we prefer a convex mirror as a rear-view
converge after reflection from the concave mirror is mirror in vehicles?
called principal focus of a concave mirror. Ans. Convex mirror is used because:
2. The radius of curvature of a spherical mirror is (i) it always produces a virtual and erect image.
20 cm. What is its focal length? [DoE, KVS] (ii) the size of image formed is smaller than the
R 20 cm object.
Ans. We know = f= = 10 cm Therefore, it enables the driver to see a wide field
2 2
where f and R are the focal length and radius of view of the traffic behind the vehicle in a small mirror.
curvature respectively.
Page 145 Kerosene 1.44 Carbon 1.63
1. Find the focal length of a convex mirror whose disulphide
radius of curvature is 32 cm. Fused 1.46 Dense 1.65
R 32 quartz flint glass
Ans. We know f = = = 16 cm
2 2 Turpentine 1.47
Hence, the focal length of convex mirror is 16 cm. oil Ruby 1.71
2. A concave mirror produces three times magnified Benzene 1.50 Sapphire 1.77
(enlarged) real image of an object placed at 10 cm Crown glass 1.52 Diamond 2.42
in front of it. Where is the image located?
Ans. Highest optical density = Diamond
Ans. Given: u = –10 cm, v =? m = – 3 Lowest optical density = Air
(If image is real) When you compare the two media, you will find that
m is –ve. the optically denser medium has the larger refractive
\ Using the formula, index than the other. Therefore, from the table, we
v
m = – we get, observe that diamond and air have the highest and
u
–v lowest refractive indices, accordingly, the diamond
\ –3 = has highest optical density and air has the lowest
(–10)
optical density.
\ v = – 30 cm
\ The image is formed at a distance of 30 cm from 4. You are given kerosene, turpentine and water. In
the mirror on the same side of the object. which of these does the light travel fastest? Use
the information given in Table 9.3.
Page 150
Ans. The refractive index of the medium,
1. A ray of light travelling in air enters obliquely into
Speed of light in air c
water. Does the light ray bend towards the normal nm = =
or away from the normal? Why? Speed of light in medium vm
c
Ans. A ray of light travelling in air enters obliquely into Therefore, speed of light in medium, vm = n
m
water, it will bend towards the normal. This is because
the speed of light is lesser in a denser medium than From the above relation, it is clear that the speed
the rarer medium. Water is optically denser than air. of light is fastest in that medium whose refractive
index is lowest. Water has the lowest refractive index
2. Light enters from air to glass having refractive among the three given media. Hence, the light will
index 1.50. What is the speed of light in the glass? travel fastest in the water.
The speed of light in vacuum is 3 × 108 ms–1. [DoE]
5. The refractive index of diamond is 2.42. What is
Ans. The refractive index of the medium, the meaning of this statement?
Speed of light in air c Ans. This means that the ratio of speed of light in air to
nm = =
Speed of light in medium (glass) v g the speed of light in diamond is equal to 2.42.
Therefore, speed of light in glass, Page 158
c 3 × 10 8 1. Define 1 dioptre of power of a lens.
(vg)= = = 2 × 10 8 ms –1. Ans. 1 dioptre is the power of a lens whose focal length is
nm 1.5
3. Find out, from Table 9.3, the medium having 1 metre. 1D = 1 m–1.
highest optical density. Also find the medium with 2. A convex lens forms a real and inverted image of
lowest optical density. a needle at a distance of 50 cm from it. Where is
Table 9.3 Absolute refractive index of some material the needle placed in front of the convex lens if the
media image is equal to the size of the object? Also, find
the power of the lens.
Material Refrac- Material Refractive
medium tive index medium index Ans. The size of real and inverted image is equal to the size
of the object. This is possible only when the object
Air 1.0003 Canada 1.53
is placed at 2F1 of the convex lens. In this case, the
Balsam
image will also be formed at 2F2 on the other side of
Ice 1.31 the lens. This means, |u| = |v| = +50 cm and v = 2f.
Water 1.33 Rock salt 1.54 Therefore, focal length of the convex lens is
v 50
Alcohol 1.36 f = = = + 25 cm = + 0.25 m
2 2
[as v = 2f = +50 cm]

\Power of lens, Ans. Focal length of concave lens, f = – 2 m = – 200 cm.
1 1 Here, negative sign is due to diverging nature of the
P = = = +4D
f (in metres) + .25
0 concave lens.
Hence, the power of the given lens is +4D. Power of the lens,
1 100 100
3. Find the power of a concave lens of focal length P= = = = − 0.5 D
2 m. f (in metres) f (in cm) − 200
Hence, the power of the given lens is – 0.5 D
NCERT EXERCISES
1. Which one of the following materials cannot be 5. No matter how far you stand from a mirror, your
used to make a lens? image appears erect. The mirror is likely to be
(a) Water (b) Glass (a) only plane.
(c) Plastic (d) Clay (b) only concave.
Ans. (d) Clay cannot be used to make a lens because it (c) only convex.
cannot allow the light to pass through it while (d) only either plane or convex.
the other materials allow. Ans. (d) No matter whatever is the position of object, a
2. The image formed by a concave mirror is observed convex mirror always forms a virtual, erect and
to be virtual, erect and larger than the object. diminished image of the object placed in front of
Where should be the position of the object? it, whereas a plane mirror always forms a virtual,
(a) Between the principal focus and the centre of erect and of the same size image as that of the
curvature object placed in front of it. Therefore, the given
(b) At the centre of curvature mirror could be either plane or convex.
(c) Beyond the centre of curvature 6. Which of the following lenses would you prefer
(d) Between the pole of the mirror and its principal to use while reading small letters found in a
focus. dictionary?
Ans. (d) The image formed by a concave mirror is (a) A convex lens of focal length 50 cm.
observed to be virtual, erect and larger than the (b) A concave lens of focal length 50 cm.
object only when the object is placed between (c) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm.
the pole of the mirror and its principal focus. (d) A concave lens of focal length 5 cm.
Ans. (c) For reading small letters, we need a lens which
3. Where should an object is placed in front of a forms a virtual, erect and magnified image. This
convex lens to get a real image of the size of the condition is fulfilled by a convex lens. Also, the
object? magnification is more for a short focal length of
(a) At the principal focus of the lens lens. Hence, for reading small letters, a convex
(b) At twice the focal length lens of focal length 5 cm would prefer to use.
(c) At infinity
7. We wish to obtain an erect image of an object,
(d) Between the optical centre of the lens and its
using a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. What
principal focus.
should be the range of distance of the object from
Ans. (b) When an object is placed at 2F1 of the convex
the mirror? What is the nature of the image? Is the
lens, the image is formed at 2F2 on the other side
image larger or smaller than the object? Draw a ray
of the lens. The image formed is real, inverted
diagram to show the image formation in this case.
and of the same size as the object.
Ans. Focal length of concave mirror, f = – 15 cm.
4. A spherical mirror and a thin spherical lens have
each a focal length of –15 cm. The mirror and the
lens are likely to be—
(a) both concave.
(b) both convex.
(c) the mirror is concave and the lens is convex.
(d) the mirror is convex, but the lens is concave.
Ans. (a) By sign convention, the negative sign of focal Range of distance of the object from the mirror:
length indicates that it is the focal length of For getting an erect image using a concave mirror,
a concave mirror and a concave lens. Hence, the object should be placed at a distance less than the
both the spherical mirror and spherical lens are focal length, i.e. 15 cm from the pole.
concave in nature.
Nature of the image: Image will be virtual, erect
and the image is larger than the object (magnified).
8. Name the type of mirror used in the following
situations.
(a) Headlights of a car.
(b) Side/rear-view mirror of a vehicle.
(c) Solar furnace.
Support your answer with reason. Note that the same result would also be obtained as
[Delhi 2013, 12, Foreign 2013, KVS] shown in figure given below if the upper half part of
Ans. Type of mirror used in the lens will be covered with black paper.
(a) Headlights of a car: Concave mirror
Concave mirror is used because light from
the bulb placed at its focus gets reflected and
a powerful parallel beam of light is obtained,
which illuminates the road. This beam of light

helps us to see things clearly upto a considerable
distance at night. Explanation: This is because some of the rays, from
(b) Side/rear-view mirror of a vehicle: Convex large number of incident light rays, are refracted
mirror through the uncovered part of the lens but other rays
Convex mirror is used because are blocked by the covered part of the lens. So, the
(i) it always produces a virtual and erect image lesser number of refracted rays will now reach on the
between its pole and focus. screen. Hence the less bright but complete image will
(ii) the size of image formed is smaller than the be formed.
object irrespective of position of object. 10. An object 5 cm in length is held 25 cm away from
Therefore, it enables the driver to see wide field a converging lens of focal length 10 cm. Draw the
view of the traffic approaching from behind the ray diagram and find the position, size and the
vehicle in a small mirror. nature of the image formed.
(c) Solar furnace: Concave mirror Ans. Given that u = –25 cm, f = 10 cm and ho = 5 cm
Concave mirror has the property to converge the Using lens formula, we have
sunlight along with heat radiation at its focus. As
a result, the temperature at its focus increases
and the substance placed at the focal point gets
heated to a high temperature.
9. One-half of a convex lens is covered with a black
paper. Will this lens produce a complete image
of the object? Verify your answer experimentally.
Explain your observations.
Ans. Yes, a complete image will be formed. When one- 1 1 1
half of the lens (lower or upper) is covered; the other = –
f v u
half part of the lens refracts light rays through it and 1 1 1
contributes to the final image. The intensity of the ⇒ = –
image formed is reduced to half. 10 v (–25)
Experimental verification: 1 1 1 15 1
⇒ – = ⇒ =
Take a convex lens. Mount it vertically on the optical 10 25 v 250 v
bench. On one side of it, place a needle or burning 250 50
⇒ v= = = 16.67 cm
candle at 2F1. On the opposite side of the lens, mount 15 3
a white screen. Take the complete and sharp image Q Magnification
of the burning candle on the screen by adjusting the v h
position of screen which is obtained at 2F2. m= = i
u ho
Now cover the lower half part of the lens with black 50/3 h –10
paper. Ensure yourself that the position of burning \ = ⇒ h= = – 3.33 cm
–25 5 3
candle, half-covered lens and screen will not change. It
will remain the same as in previous. You will observe The position of image is at distance 16.67 cm from
that the complete and clear image of the burning the lens. The image is formed on the right side of lens
candle is still formed on the screen at 2F2 as shown and it is real and inverted in nature.
in figure but the brightness of the image decreases.
11. A concave lens of focal length 15 cm forms an Ans. The positive sign in magnification shows that the
image 10 cm from the lens. How far is the object image formed by a plane mirror is virtual, erect and
placed from the lens? Draw the ray diagram. exactly of the same size as that of the object.
[DoE] 14. An object 5.0 cm in length is placed at a distance
Ans. For concave lens, f = –15 cm, v = –10 cm of 20 cm in front of a convex mirror of radius of
Using lens formula, we have, curvature 30 cm. Find the position of the image,
1 1 1 its nature and size.
= –
f v u Ans. For convex mirror,
1 1 1 ho = + 5.0 cm, u = –20 cm,
⇒ = –
u v f R 30
Q f= = cm = +15 cm
1 1 1 2 2
= – =– 1 1 1
–10 –15 30 Using mirror formula, = + , we get
\ u = – 30 cm f v u
The negative value of u indicates that the object 1 1 1
v = f –u
should be placed at 30 cm in front of the concave
lens. This is shown in the following ray diagram. 1 1 1 4+3
v = 15 – –20 = 60
60
\ v= = + 8.57 cm
B 7
h –v
B′ Magnification, m = i = we get,
A ho u
2F1 F1 A′ F2 2F2 – 8.57
hi = 5 × = + 2.14 cm
15 cm –20
Since v is + ve, the image is virtual.
10 cm
Since hi = 2.14 cm < 5.0 cm, i.e. hi < ho, the image
30 cm is diminished.
Hence a virtual, erect and diminished image of size
12. An object is placed at a distance of 10 cm from
2.14 cm is formed behind the mirror at a distance of
a convex mirror of focal length 15 cm. Find the
8.57 cm from the pole of the convex mirror.
position and nature of the image. [DoE, KVS]
Ans. Focal length of convex mirror, f = +15 cm 15. An object of size 7.0 cm is placed at 27 cm in
Object distance, u = –10 cm front of a concave mirror of focal length 18 cm.
According to the mirror formula, At what distance from the mirror should a screen
1 1 1 be placed, so that a sharp focussed image can
= + , we get be obtained? Find the size and the nature of the
f v u
image.
1 1 1 Ans. For concave mirror, ho = 7.0 cm, u = –27 cm,
\ = +
15 v –10 f = –18 cm
1 1 1 5 1 Using mirror formula,
⇒ = + = = 1 1 1
v 15 10 30 6 = + , we get
f v u
or v = +6 cm
The positive value of v shows that the image is formed 1 1 1 1 1
= − = –
on the other side of the mirror, i.e. behind the mirror. v f u –18 (–27)
Image distance −1 1 –3 + 2 –1
Magnification = = + = =
Object distance 18 27 54 54
v 6 \ v = – 54 cm
= − = − = + 0.6
u − 10 Hence the screen should be placed at a distance of
The positive value of magnification shows that the 54 cm in front of the concave mirror to get the sharp
image is virtual and erect. focussed image of the object on it.
Magnification of spherical mirror is given by
13. The magnification produced by a plane mirror is h v
+1. What does it mean? m = i =–
ho u
v – 54 17. A doctor has prescribed a corrective lens of power

⇒ hi =
= –ho –=
7× –14 cm +1.5 D. Find the focal length of the lens. Is the
u – 27
\ The height of image is 14 cm. prescribed lens diverging or converging?
Since hi > ho, the image is enlarged. 1
Ans. Power of lens, P =
Since v is –ve, the image is real and inverted. f (in metres)
16. Find the focal length of a lens of power – 2.0 D. 1
What type of lens is this?
⇒ 1.5 =
Ans. Power of lens is given by f
1 2
1 1 ⇒ f = = = + 0.67 m = + 67 cm
P= ⇒ – 2.0 = 1.5 3
f (in metres) f
Hence the focal length of the given corrective lens is
\ f = – 0.5 m = – 50 cm 0.67 m. The positive value of focal length indicates
Since the negative focal length of spherical lens
that the prescribed lens is converging, i.e. convex lens.
indicates that it is concave in nature, hence, it is a
concave lens.
1. A 10 mm long awl pin is placed vertically in front

of a concave mirror. A 5 mm long image of the awl Medium B
pin is formed at 30 cm in front of the mirror. The
focal length of this mirror is
(a) – 30 cm (b) – 20 cm
(c) – 40 cm (d) – 60 cm
Ans. (b) Given ho = +10 mm = + 0.1 cm,
hi = – 5 mm = – 0.5 cm Medium A
for real image, v = – 30 cm
h v (a) greater than unity (b) less than unity
Now, magnification, m = i = –
ho u (c) equal to unity (d) zero
On solving, we get, u = – 60 cm Ans. (b) In medium B, light ray bends away from the
1 1 1 1 1 – 2 –1 1 normal. It indicates that medium B is optically
= + = + = =– rarer than medium A. Hence speed of light in
f v u –30 –60 60 20
\ f = –20 cm medium B is more than that in medium A.
2. Figure shows a ray of light as it travels from medium Now, refractive index
v
A to medium B. Refractive index of the medium B AnB = A
relative to medium A is vB
vB v
As vB > vA ⇒ > 1 or A < 1
vA vB
45° \ AnB < 1
45° Medium B 4. Beams of light are incident through the holes
30°
60° A and B and emerge out of box through the holes
Medium A C and D respectively as shown in the figure. Which
of the following could be inside the box?
3 2 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) 2
2 3 2 A
Ans. (a) Here, ∠i = 60°, ∠r = 45° C
Using Snell’s law of refraction, refractive index

of medium B with respect to medium A. B
sin i sin 60° ( 3 /2) 3
AnB = = = = D
sin r sin 45° (1/ 2 ) 2
3. A light ray enters from medium A to medium B as Box
shown in figure. The refractive index of medium (a) A rectangular glass slab
B relative to A will be
(b) A convex lens (a) A (b) B
(c) A concave lens (c) C (d) D
(d) A prism Ans. (b) When a light ray is incident obliquely on one face
Ans. (a) Figure shows that emergent ray are parallel to the of rectangular glass slab, the emergent ray will be
incident ray and shifted side ward slightly. This parallel to the incident ray and shifted sideward
can be done by the rectangular glass slab only. slightly.
5. Which of the following statements is/are true? 9. In which of the following, the image of an object
(a) A convex lens has 4 dioptre power having a focal placed at infinity will be highly diminished and
length 0.25 m point sized?
(b) A convex lens has –4 dioptre power having a focal
(a) Concave mirror only
length 0.25 m
(b) Convex mirror only
(c) A concave lens has 4 dioptre power having a focal
length 0.25 m (c) Convex lens only
(d) A concave lens has – 4 dioptre having a focal (d) Concave mirror, convex mirror, concave lens and
0.25 m convex lens.
Ans. (a) Positive sign with power and focal length indicates Ans. (d) The incident ray coming from the object placed
that the given lens is convex. at infinity will be parallel to the principal axis.
1 1 When the parallel beam of light incident on a
Also f = = = 0.25m
mirror or lens, irrespective of their nature, after
P 4
6. Magnification produced by a rear view mirror fitted reflection/refraction, will pass or appear to pass
in vehicles through their principal focus. Hence highly
(a) is less than one (b) is more than one diminished and point size image will be formed
(c) is equal to one at their focus.
(d) can be more than or less than one depending upon
10. Identify the device used as a spherical mirror or
the position of the object in front of it.
Ans. (a) Convex mirror is used as rear view mirror and lens in following cases, when the image formed is
always forms virtual, erect and diminished image. virtual and erect in each case.
So magnification produced by a rear view mirror (a) Object is placed between device and its focus,
is less than one. image formed is enlarged and behind it.
(b) Object is placed between the focus and device,
7. The laws of reflection hold good for
(a) plane mirror only (b) concave mirror only image formed is enlarged and on the same side
(c) convex mirror only as that of the object.
(d) all mirrors irrespective of their shape (c) Object is placed between infinity and device,
Ans. (d) The laws of reflection hold good for light reflected image formed is diminished and between focus
from any smooth surface irrespective of their and optical centre on the same side as that of
shapes. the object.
8. The path of a ray of light coming from air passing (d) Object is placed between infinity and device,
through a rectangular glass slab traced by four image formed is diminished and between pole
students are shown as A, B, C and D in figure. and focus, behind it.
Which one of them is correct? Ans. (a) Concave mirror
(b) Convex lens
(c) Concave lens
(d) Convex mirror
11. Why does a light ray incident on a rectangular glass
slab immersed in any medium emerge parallel to
A B itself ? Explain using a diagram. [Delhi 2013, HOTS]
Ans. Due to variation in the speed of light in different media,
the light ray bends as it moves from one medium to
another. Since there are two surfaces for refraction
which are parallel, the light ray would bend in opposite
sense in them equally, the emerging light ray is always
parallel to the incident.
C D

Ans. Power of a lens is defined as the reciprocal of the focal
length.
1 100
P = =
f (in m) f ( in cm)
100
\ P20 = = 5D
20
100
P40 = = 2.5 D
40
So, the lens of 20 cm focal length will converge more.
17. Under what condition in an arrangement of two
12. A pencil when dipped in water in a glass tumbler plane mirrors, incident ray and reflected ray will
appears to be bent at the interface of air and water. always be parallel to each other, whatever may be
Will the pencil appears to be bent to the same extent, angle of incidence. Show the same with the help of
if instead of water we use liquids like, kerosene or diagram.
turpentine. Support your answer with reason.[DoE] Ans. When the two mirrors are placed at 90° to each other,
Ans. No, it will be dependent on the refractive index of the incident and the reflected rays will remain parallel
the liquid in which the pencil is dipped. The tip at the to each other.
bottom will get elevated as per the relation.
real depth
Refractive index (n) =
apparent depth
13. Refractive index of diamond with respect to glass
is 1.6 and absolute refractive index of glass is 1.5.
Find out the absolute refractive index of diamond.
Ans. Given: ndg = 1.6, ng = 1.5
n
Since ndg = d
ng
We have nd = ng × ndg = 1.5 × 1.6 = 2.4 18. The image of a candle flame formed by a lens is
obtained on a screen placed on the other side of
14. A convex lens of focal length 20 cm can produce the lens. If the image is three times the size of the
a magnified virtual as well as real image. Is this a flame and the distance between lens and image is
correct statement ? If yes, where shall the object be 80 cm, at what distance should the candle be placed
placed in each case for obtaining these images? from the lens? What is the nature of the image at
Ans. Yes, for getting a virtual image, the object has to be a distance of 80 cm and the lens?
placed between the optical centre and the focus. For a h v
real and enlarged image, the object should be between Ans. Q m = i = for a lens.
F1 and 2F1. ho u
Q Image is real.
15. Sudha finds out that a sharp image of the v
windowpane of her science laboratory is formed \ m = –3 =
u
at a distance of 15 cm from the lens. She now tries to v 80
With v = 80 cm, u = = cm. The image is
focus the building visible to her outside the window −3 −3
instead of the windowpane without disturbing the obtained on the screen placed on the other side of the
lens. In which direction will she move the screen lens, it is possible only in the case of convex lens.
to obtain the sharp image of the building? What is Hence, the candle should be placed at a distance of
the approximate focal length of this lens? [HOTS] 80
= 26.6 cm to the left of the convex lens to form
Ans. She will move the screen towards the lens such that 3
the final image is at the focus. The focal length will the real and inverted image at a distance of 80 cm on
be slightly less than 15 cm as building can be treated the right side of the lens.
as the object at infinite distance.
19. The size of image of an object by a mirror having
16. How are power and focal length of a lens related? a focal length of 20 cm is observed to be reduced
You are provided with two lenses of focal length 20 to 1/3rd of its size. At what distance the object has
cm and 40 cm respectively. Which lens will you use been placed from the mirror? What is the nature
to obtain more convergent light? of the image and the mirror?
Ans. If the image is real (as in concave mirror), If the image is virtual (as in convex mirror),
1 v 1 1 v 1
m = − . Therefore, − = − . m = . Therefore, − = .
3 u 3 3 u 3
1 1 1 1 1 1
Using mirror formula, = + , we get Using mirror formula, = + , we get
f v u f v u
1 1 1 3 1 4 1 1 1 1 −2
= + = + = ⇒ u = –80 cm = + = (1 − 3 ) =
− 20 u u u u u 20 −u u u u
d n
3 3
⇒ u = – 40 cm
1. An object of height 4 cm is kept at a distance of 9. (a) Define unit of a power of a lens.
30 cm from the pole of a diverging mirror. If the focal (b) A converging lens has a focal length of 250 mm.
length of the mirror is 10 cm, the height of the image Calculate its power and express it according to Sign
formed is Convention.
(a) + 3.0 cm (b) + 2.5 cm 10. The image of a candle flame placed at a distance of
(c) + 1.0 cm (d) + 0.75 cm 36 cm from a spherical lens is formed on a screen placed
2. A convex lens forms a virtual image when an object is at a distance of 72 cm from the lens. Identify the type
placed at a distance of 20 cm from it. The focal length of lens and calculate its focal length. If the height of the
of the lens is flame is 2.5 cm, find the height of the image.
(a) f = 40 cm (b) f = 20 cm 11. (a) A student holding mirror in his hand, directed the
(c) f > 20 cm (d) f < 20 cm reflecting surface of a mirror towards the Sun. He
3. The refractive index of water, sulphuric acid, glass then directed the reflected light on to a sheet of
and carbon disulphide are 1.33, 1.43, 1.53 and 1.63 paper held close to the mirror.
respectively. The light travel slowest in (i) What should he do to burn the paper?
(a) glass (b) water (ii) What type of mirror does he have?
(c) sulphuric acid (d) carbon disulphide (iii) Will he be able to determine the appropriate
4. When a ray passing through focus strikes concave lens, value of focal lengh of this mirror from this
the refracted ray will activity? Give reason for your answer in this
(a) retrace its path case.
(b) emerge parallel to the principal axis (b) A divergent lens has a focal length of 30 cm. At
(c) emerge perpendicular to the principal axis what distance should an object of height 5 cm from
(d) emerge through a focus on another side the optical centre of the lens be placed so that its
Direction: In the following Questions, the Assertion and image is formed 15 cm away from the lens? Find
Reason have been put forward. Read the statements carefully the size of the image also. Draw a ray diagram to
and choose the correct alternative from the following: show the formation of image in the above situation.
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the 12. A student took three concave mirrors of different focal
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. lengths and performed the experiment to see the image
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason formation by placing an object at different distances
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. with these mirrors as shown in the following table.
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false. Object Focal
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason Case No
Distance Length
is true.
5. Assertion: A concave lens of very short focal length I 45 cm 20 cm
causes higher divergence than one with the longer focal II 30 cm 15 cm
length. III 20 cm 30 cm
Reason: The power of lens is directly proportional to Now answer the following questions:
its focal length. (a) List two properties of the image formed in case I.
6. Assertion: The centre of curvature lies outside the (b) In which one of the cases given in the table, the
reflecting surface of spherical mirror and is not a part mirror will form real image of same size and why?
of mirror. (c) Name the type of mirror used by dentists. Give
Reason: The reflecting surface of a spherical mirror reason why do they use such type of mirrors.
forms a part of a sphere which has a centre. Or
7. A ray of light enters into benzene from air. If the refractive (c) Look at the table and identify the situation (object
index of benzene is 1.50, by what percent does the speed distance and focal length) which resemble the
of light reduce on entering the benzene? situation in which concave mirrors are used as
8. List four properties of the image formed by a concave shaving mirrors. Draw a ray diagram to show the
mirror when an object is placed between the focus and image formation in this case.
pole of the mirror.
Scan to get Answers

10
CHAPTER
The Human Eye and the
Colourful World
MIND MAP
THE HUMAN EYE AND THE COLOURFUL WORLD
To be continued
Human Eye (Most valuable and on page 284
Optical phenomena in nature
sensitive organ)
For normal eye To be continued

• Far point - infinity on next page
Main parts of eye Accomodation of eye Defects of vision
• Near point - 25 cm
• A thin membrane covering the surface of eyeball,

Cornea through which light enters into the eye.
• Acts as a primary lens. For distant objects For nearby objects
• A dark muscular diaphragm located just behind

Iris the cornea. Ciliary muscles Ciliary muscles
• Controls the size of the pupil. relax. contract.
Eye lens becomes Eye lens becomes

• A black opening between the aqueous humour thin. thick.
and the eye lens.
Pupil
• Regulates and controls the amount of light
entering the eye. An increase in focal A decrease in focal
length of the eye lens. length of the eye lens
• Modify the curvature and focus of the eye lens.

Ciliary muscles
• Hold the eye lens in position.
Transport the electrical signal
Composed of a fibrous, jelly proteinaceous like from retina to the brain where
Optic nerves
material. processes the information to
Crystalline perceive objects as they are.
• Converging in nature.
lens
• Focuses the incoming light rays from the object
on the retina. It provides power to cornea.
Aqueous humor
• A delicate membrane having enormous number
of light sensitive cells. • Filled between eye lens
Vitreous and retina.
Retina • Acts like a screen. humor • Keep retina in place by
• A real, inverted and diminished image is formed pressing it against the
by the eye lens on it. To be continued choroid.
on next page
• Power of accomodation. The ability of eye to see nearby objects clearly as well as far objects distinctly, i.e. to adjust its focal length to
form the sharp image of the object at varying distances on the retina is called power of accomodation.
• Range of vision. For healthy eye its 25 cm to infinity. The minimum distance at which normal eye can see clearly is called least distance
of distinct vision (D), which is 25 cm.
The Human Eye and the Colourful World 283
Retina
Having large number of light sensitive cells
Get activated
Rod shaped cells upon illumination Cone shaped cells
• Respond to intensity of light Generate • Respond to colour

• Sensitive to dim light
Transmitt via
to For further
Electrical signals Optic nerves Brain processing
Defects of Vision
Myopia or Near-sightedness Hypermetropia or Presbyopia Cataract

• Cannot see distant objects Far-sightedness • Near point of the eye • Eye lens becomes milky
gradually recedes away with and cloudy.
distinctly. • Cannot see nearby objects ageing.
• Can see nearby objects distinctly. • Image cannot be seen
• Power of accommodation of
clearly. • Can see distant objects eye decreases. distinctly.
• Image of distant objects is clearly.
formed in front of the retina. • Image of nearby objects is
formed behind the retina.
Causes Causes Causes Causes

• Excessive curvature of the • Gradual weakening of the • Protein layer formation
• Focal length of the eye
eye lens or decrease in focal ciliary muscles. over eye lens.
lens is too long.
length of eye lens. • Diminishing flexibility of the
• Eyeball becomes short.
• Elongation of eyeball. eye lens.
• An eye suffers from both Correction
myopia and hypermetropia. Cataract surgery for removal
of extra growth on eye lens to
restore the vision.
Correction Correction Correction

Using concave lens of suitable power Using convex lens of suitable power Bifocal lens
• Upper portion is consists of
concave for distant vision.
• Lower portion is consists of
convex for near vision.
A person can see upto a distance x A person can not see before distance
and wants to see the object at distance 'x' and want to see the object placed
'y' (y > x) so, required power of at distance 'D' from eye (x > D), the
corrective lens, required power of corrective lens,
x–y x–y
P = xy P=
xD
Optical phenomena in nature
Dispersion of light Atmospheric refraction Scattering of light

Splitting up of light into its component • Due to the continuous variation in the density Throwing of sunlight in various random directions by
colours and temperature in the different layers of large number of molecules present in the atmosphere.
earth’s atmosphere, these layers will acts as
a different medium. • Fine particles in air scatter blue colour.
A band of coloured
components of a light beam • Sunlight gets refracted through these • Large-sized particles scatter longer
atmospheric layers. wavelength of light
Spectrum It is the basic cause of is the basic cause of some

some natural events like natural events like
Consists of
seven colours
• Apparent star position • Blue colour of the sky
• Twinkling of stars • White colour of clouds
VIBGYOR
• Advance sunrise • Danger signals are red
• Delayed sunset • Tyndall effect
• Red light bends the least • Apparent flattening of the sun’s
• Violet bends the most disc at sunset and sunrise.
Appears in the nature as a
Rainbow
Conditions for its formation
Is caused by
Dispersion of sunlight by tiny water droplets, • Presence of water droplets in the atmosphere.
acts like a small prism present in atmosphere. • The sun must be at the back of the observers.
TOPICS COVERED
The Human Eye and Power of Accommodation
4. The ability of eye lens to adjust its focal length
Multiple Choice to form a sharp image of the object at varying
Questions 1 Mark distances on the retina is called
(a) power of observation of the eye
1. The muscular diaphragm that controls the size of (b) power of adjustment of the eye
the pupil is (c) power of accommodation of the eye
(a) cornea (b) ciliary muscles (d) power of enabling of the eye
(c) iris (d) retina
5. The image formed on the retina of the human
2. The black opening between the aqueous humour eye is
and the lens is called (a) virtual and inverted (b) real and inverted
(a) retina (b) iris (c) real and erect (d) virtual and erect
(c) cornea (d) pupil
6. The near point and the far point are determined
3. Near and far points of a young person normal eye with regards to the function of which part of the
respectively are: eye? [CFPQ, CBSE]
(a) 0 and infinity (b) 0 and 25 cm (a) Pupil (b) Retina
(c) 25 cm and infinity (c) Eye-ball (d) Ciliary muscles
(d) 25 cm and 150 cm.
7. Which of the following can be directly affected if (c) Iris: It controls the size of the pupil.
the iris does not function properly?[CFPQ, CBSE] (d) Retina: A real, inverted and diminished image
(a) Identification of colours of the object is formed on it.
(b) The amount of light entering the eye 11. What is meant by least distance of distinct vision?
(c) Transmission of visual information to the brain How does this vary between the very young and
(d) Finer adjustments for focussing the objects old people ?
8. When the eye is looking at a distant objects, the Ans. The minimum distance at which an object can be seen
ciliary muscles are in a most distinctly without strain by the eye, is termed
(a) contract position as least distance of distinct vision.
(b) relaxed position For an infant, it is about 5 to 8 cm.
(c) neutral position For a young adult with normal vision, it is about
(d) stretched position 25 cm.
9. Which of the following correctly gives the sequence For an old person, the power of accommodation of
of events that take place when human eye changes the eye decreases due to gradual weakening of ciliary
its focus from a distant object to an object closer muscles and the diminishing flexibility of the eye
to the eye? [CFPQ, CBSE] lens. Hence the least distance of distinct vision for
(a) Ciliary muscles relax → Curvature of eye lens him generally increases.
increases → Focal length of eye lens increases 12. The limitation of an eye is that the distance from
(b) Ciliary muscles contract → Curvature of eye lens the eye lens to where the image formed is always
decreases → Focal length of eye lens increases the same. How is then it possible for the eye to
(c) Ciliary muscles relax → Curvature of eye lens form focussed images from the objects that are
decreases → Focal length of eye lens decreases located at varying distances from the eye?
(d) Ciliary muscles contract → Curvature of eye lens Ans. The ability of eye lens to adjust its focal length with
increases → Focal length of eye lens decreases the help of ciliary muscles, it is possible for the
eye to form focussed images from the objects that
Answers are located at varying distances from the eye. This
mechanism is called accommodation.
1. (c) Iris controls the size of pupil.
13. Why does it take sometime to see the objects in
2. (d) The black opening between the aqueous humour
dim light when you enter the room from bright
and the eye lens is called pupil.
sunlight outside?
3. (c) Near point = 25 cm while far point = infinity.
Ans. In bright sunlight, the iris contracts the pupil to allow
4. (c) It is called power of accommodation of the eye.
less light to enter the eye and in dim light, the iris
5. (b) Eye lens is convex in nature. So, image formed
expands the pupil to admit more light to see the object
by it on the retina is real and inverted.
clearly. Therefore, it takes sometime to increase the
6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (d)
size of pupil in dim light.
14. Why are we not able to see the things clearly when
V S A Very Short Answer we come out of a darkroom?
Ans. In dim light, the iris expands the pupil to allow more
10. Name the four parts labelled as a, b, c and d in light to enter the eye. So, when we come out of a
given diagram and write their functions. [DoE] darkroom into the bright sunlight, a large amount of
light enters into our eyes and due to glare feeling, we
are not able to see the things clearly. Gradually, the
iris contracts the pupil to allow less light to enter the
eye to see the objects clearly. It take some time for
the pupil. For that time interval, person is unable to
see the things.
15. In which of the following two cases the focal length
of the eye lens will be more–
Ans. (a) Pupil: It controls and regulates the amount of
(i) When ciliary muscles of a normal eye is most
light entering the eye.
relaxed.
(b) Ciliary muscles: These muscles help to modify
(ii) When ciliary muscles of a normal eye is in
the curvature and there by the focal length of eye
most contracted state.
lens to focus the image of the object on the retina.
Explain with reason.
Ans. The focal length of the eye lens will be more in case (c) The eye lens of human eye is in the form of
(i) i.e. when ciliary muscles of a normal eye is most convex lens which as thicker in the middle and
relaxed. thinner at the edge. It converge the rays incident
Reason: When ciliary muscles are relaxed, the on it and form the real, inverted and diminished
eye lens becomes thin. Thus, its focal length image on the retina.
increases. 18. W h a t i s m e a n t b y t h e t e r m ‘ p o w e r o f
(ii) When ciliary muscles is in most contracted state, accommodation’ of human eye? How does it help
curvature of eye lens increases. Lens becomes a person to see nearby as well as distant objects
thicker. This decreases the focal length of eye clearly?
lens. Or
16. What happens to the image distance in the normal What is power of accommodation? How ciliary
human eye when we decrease the distance of an muscles help in accommodation? [DoE]
object, say 10 m to 1 m? Justify your answer. Ans. The ability of eye lens to adjust its focal length to
[Delhi 2019] form a sharp image of the object at varying distances
Ans. There is no change in the image distance in the on the retina, is called its power of accommodation.
eye. The eye lens has the ability to adjust its focal Help by the ciliary muscles in accommodation:
length called accommodation. When object distance When we are looking at nearby object, the ciliary
decreases, ciliary muscles contract and lens becomes muscles contract or strained. This increases the
thick and its focal length decreases. It facilitate the curvature of eye lens but its radius of curvature
near vision. decreases. The eye lens then becomes thicker. As a
result, the focal length of the eye lens decreases in
A Short Answer such a way that a clear sharp image of nearby object
S Type Questions 3 Marks is formed on the retina. Thus, the object is seen clearly
to us.
17. (a) Which part of the eye has delicate membrane
When we are looking at distant object, these muscles
and containing large number of light sensitive
are in relaxed position. This decreases the curvature
cells?
of eye lens but its radius of curvature increases. The
(b) What happens to the size of pupil of our eye
eye lens becomes thinner. As a result, the focal length
in (i) dim light, (ii) bright light?
of the eye lens increases. Therefore, the parallel rays
(c) State the structure of eye lens and its function.
coming from the distant object are focussed on the
Ans. (a) Retina contains large number of light sensitive retina and the object is seen clearly to us.
cells known as rods and cones. Thus, the accommodation power of an eye helps a
(b) (i) Increases (ii) Decreases. person to see nearby as well as distant objects clearly.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Most of the refraction for the light rays occurs 3. In human eye, the pupil opens completely through
(a) at the outer surface of the cornea the
(b) at the inner surface of the cornea (a) relaxation of eye lens
(c) at the eye lens (b) contraction of ciliary muscles
(d) by the iris behind the cornea (c) relaxation of ciliary muscles
2. The amount of light entering the human eye is (d) relaxation of iris
regulated and controlled by 4. State the function of pupil and ciliary muscles.
(a) cornea 5. (a) State one function each of iris and cornea.
(b) iris (b) Calculate maximum power of accommodation
(c) pupil of a person having normal vision.
(d) crystalline lens
TOPICS COVERED
Defects of Vision and their Correction
L
Multiple Choice
Questions 1 Mark (c) F
1. Which of these is a reason why a far-sighted person

needs a convex lens to correct his vision? L
[CFPQ, CBSE]
(a) The image forms in front of his retina. (d) F

(b) The image forms behind the retina.
(c) The image forms below the retina.
(d) The image forms on the retina.
7. Corrective lens used to correct the myopic defect
2. U n d e r w h i c h o f t h e s e c a n m y o p i a a n d of eye forms a virtual image of distant object at
hypermetropia be classified? [CFPQ, CBSE] (a) near point of myopic eye
(a) Breakdown of tissues. (b) far point of myopic eye

(b) Incorrect bending of light in the eye. (c) least distance of distinct vision
(c) Incorrect reflection of light by surfaces around (d) any where between near point and far point of

us. the eye.
(d) Incorrect coordination with brain for colour.
8. The defective eye of a person has near point 0.5 m
3. Myopia and hypermetropia can be corrected by and far point is at 3 m. The power for corrective
(a) concave and plano-convex lens lens required for (i) reading purpose and (ii) seeing
(b) concave and convex lens distant objects, respectively are:
(c) convex and concave lens 1
(a) 0.5 D and +3D (b) +2D and – D
(d) plano-concave lens for both defects. 3
4. Bi-focal lens are required to correct 1
(c) – 2D and + D (d) 0.5 D and – 3.0 D
(a) cataract 3
(b) hypermetropia 9. The defect of vision in which image of nearby
(c) myopia objects is formed behind the retina is [CBSE 2000]
(d) presbyopia (a) short-sightedness (b) far-sightedness
(c) presbyopia (d) all of these
5. The basic cause of refractive error that makes
far-away objects look blurry is 10. If curvature of eye lens causes decrease in its focal
(a) decrease in the focal length of eye-lens. length, then the refractive defect of vision will be
(b) increase in the focal length of eye-lens. (a) myopia (b) hypermetropia

(c) decreasing curvature of eye-lens. (c) presbyopia (d) cataract
(d) weakening of ciliary muscles. 11. A person’s near point is at 45 cm and far point is
6. The diagram showing the correctness of refractive at 2 m. What kind of corrective lens is BEST suited
error in which images focus in front of retina is for his vision defect? [CFPQ, CBSE]
L (a) Convex (b) Concave
(c) Bifocal (d) Plano-convex
(a) F I 12. The defect of vision in which the person is able to
see distant object distinctly but cannot see nearby
objects clearly is called
(a) Long sightedness (b) Far-sightedness
(c) Hypermetropia (d) All of these
N O
(b)

I
Answers
1. (b)
2. (b)
3. (b) Myopia is corrected by using of suitable power (b) When student is seated at front seat.
of concave lens while hypermetropia is corrected
by convex lens.
4. (d) Bifocal lens are required to correct the presbyopia.
Upper point of bifocal lens consists of concave
lens used for distant vision while lower point
consists of convex lens facilitates near vision. 15. When a person is said to have developed cataract?
5. (a) How is the vision of such a person restored?
6. (a) Ans. When the crystalline lens of eye becomes hazy (or
7. (b) even opaque) due to the formation of thin membrane
8. (b) For reading purpose over it, this causes partial or complete loss of vision.
u = – 25 cm, v = 0.5 m = – 50 cm, f = ? P = ? This defect of eye is called cataract. The vision of the
1 1 1 1 1 1 defected eye can be restored by the cataract surgery.
Using, = – = – =
f v u – 50 − 25 50 16. The near point of a hypermetropic eye is 50 cm.
100 1 What is the nature and power of the lens required
\ P = = 100 × =+2D to enable him to read a book placed at 25 cm from
f (cm) 50
the eye?
For distant objects Ans. Given: Object distance, u = – 25, Image distance, v
u = ∞, v = – 3 m, f = ? P = ? = – 50 cm, Power of lens, P =?
1 1 1 1 1 1 Using lens formula,
= – = – =−
f v u –3 3 3 1 1 1 1 1 1
= − ⇒ = −
1 1 f v u f − 50 − 25
\ P = =− D
f (m) 3 1 1 1 1
=− + =
9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (c) f 50 25 50
or f = + 50 cm = + 0.5 m
12. (d) Hypermetropia is also called long-sightedness
The nature of lens is convex.
or far-sightedness.
1 1
and power, P = = = + 2.0 D
f (m) 0.5
V S A Very Short Answer 17. A student has difficulty in reading the blackboard
while sitting in the last row. What could be his
13. Name the defect of vision due to defect of vision? Draw a ray diagram to illustrate
(i) Power of the eye is too long. this defect of vision.
(ii) Focal length of the eye lens is too long. Ans. Short-sightedness or myopia: The image in this
Ans. (i) Short-sightedness case forms in front of the retina.
(ii) Long-sightedness.
14. A student sitting at the back bench in a
class, is not able to see what is written on the
blackboard. He, however, sees it clearly when
sitting on the front seat at an approximate
distance of 1.5 m from the blackboard. Draw ray 18. Name the type of defect of vision a person is
diagrams to illustrate the image formation of the suffering from, if he uses convex lenses in his
blackboard when he is seated at the (a) back seat spectacles for the correction of his vision. If the
(b) front seat. [HOTS] power of the lenses is +0.5 D, find the focal length
Ans. (a) When student is seated at the back seat. of the lenses. [AI 2017C]
Ans. The defect of vision is hypermetropia.
1 1
Focal length of lenses, f = = = +2 m
P + 0.5 D
A Short Answer
In this case student is suffering from myopia
19. (a) Name the defects of vision when a person
and have short focal length of eye lens. cannot see clearly:
(i) the nearby objects
(ii) the distant objects
(b) Ritu needs a lens of power -2D for correct of find the power of corrective lens and type of lens
her vision. used by the person to see the objects clearly.
(i) What kind of defect in vision is she Ans. Here, v = – 350 cm = – 3.5 cm.
suffering from? u = – ∞, f = ?
(ii) What are the possible cause of this Using lens formula,
defect? 1 1 1
(iii) What is the nature of corrective lens? = –
f v u
[KVS]
1 1 1
Ans. (a) (i) Hypermetropia = – =–
(ii) Myopia –3.5 –3 3.5
(b) (i) Ritu is suffering from myopia or short ⇒ f = – 3.5 m
sightedness. Negative sign shows that corrective lens is concave
(ii) Causes: • Increase in size of eye ball. lens and its power is
• Decrease in focal length of eye lens. 1 1
P= =– = – 0.28 D
(iii) Nature of corrective lens: Concave/ f (m) 3.5
diverging lens. 23. Study the diagram given below and answer the
20. You are given three lenses namely, bifocal lens, questions that follow it.
convex lens and concave lens. Which lens would
you prefer to correct the myopia, hypermetropia,
and presbyopia respectively?
Ans. Eye defects Corrective lenses N′ N
Myopia Concave lens

Hypermetropia Convex lens (a) Identify the defect of vision. Give reason for
your answer.
Presbyopia Bifocal lens (b) State two possible causes of this defect.
21. Explain why? (c) How can we rectify this defect? Explain with
(a) A myopic person prefer to remove his a diagram. [DoE]
spectacles while reading a book. Ans. (a) This defect of vision is hypermetropia, as the
(b) A hypermetropic person prefer to remove his image is formed behind the retina.
spectacles while looking at the sky. [HOTS] (b) (i) Due to greater focal length of the eye lens and
Ans. (a) A myopic person does not need spectacles while (ii) Eyeball becomes smaller.
reading a book as he has the near point at 25 cm. (c) It can be corrected by using a convex lens as
If such person reads the book with corrective shown below.
lens (concave) he will have to keep the book at
a distance greater than 25 cm so that the image
of book will be formed by the concave lens at 25
cm and moreover, the size of the book appears to
him is also smaller then actual size. Therefore,
the person prefer to remove his spectacles while
reading a book. 24. The far point of myopic person is 150 cm in front
(b) A hypermetropic person does not need spectacles of the eye. Calculate the focal length and power
to see distant objects as he has the far point at of the lens required to enable him to see distant
infinity. objects clearly. [CBSE 2014]
If such person uses spectacles (convex lens) Ans. For myopic person, u = ∞, v = – 150 cm, f = ?
to see the distant objects, the image will be
1 1 1
formed before the retina due to increase in From less formula, = −
f v u
converging power and hence the person cannot
1 1 1
see distant objects distinctly. Therefore, such = − =−
− 150 3 150
person prefers to remove his spectacles while
⇒ f = – 150 cm = – 1.5 m
looking at the sky.
Power of corrective lens,
22. A person can see clearly objects only when the 1
object is lies between 40 cm and 350 cm. In order to P=
f (m)
increase the distances of distinct vision to infinity,
–1 –2 point, the image formed is focussed on the retina by
= = the eye lens and therefore the object is clearly visible
1.5 3
⇒ P = –0.66 D to us.
So, concave lens of power, 0.66 D enable him to see
distant objects clearly.
25. Observe the following diagram and answer the
questions following it:

The far point (F) of a myopic eye is less
Retina
than infinity: Image is formed on the retina
The short-sightedness is corrected by using a concave
lens of suitable power placed in front of eye. It
Light rays Eye lens Eye ball
diverges the rays and forms a virtual image of distant
(i) Identify the defect of vision shown. object at far point of the myopic eye. These diverged
(ii) List its two causes. rays enter into the eye and form the image on the
(iii) Name the type of lens used for the correction retina. Thus, the concave lens shifts the image back
of this defect. [CBSE 2023] onto the retina instead of in front of it and the defect
Ans. (i) The defect of vision shown is myopia. is corrected.
(ii) – Excessive curvature of the eye lens. Ray diagrams to show the image formation in case of:
– Elongation of eyeball. (i) Defective eye
(iii) Myopia can be corrected by using a concave In a myopic eye, the image of distant object
lens of suitable power placed in front of eye. is formed in front of the retina (and not on the
retina).
A Long Answer
26. What is myopia? List two causes for the
development of this defect. How can this defect
be corrected using a lens? Draw ray diagrams to
show the image formation in case of (i) defective (ii) Corrected eye
eye and (ii) corrected eye. [Foreign 2014]
Or
A student is unable to see clearly the words
written on the blackboard placed at a distance
of approximately 4 m from him. Name the defect
of vision the boy is suffering from. Explain the A concave lens is placed in front of the eye
method of correcting this defect. Draw ray which forms a virtual image of distant object
diagram for the: at far point (F) of the myopic eye.
(i) defect of vision and also
(ii) for its correction. [Delhi 2015]
Or
What is myopia? State the two causes of myopia.
With the help of a labelled ray diagram show
(a) eye defect (b) correction of myopia. [DoE]
Ans. Myopia or Short-sightedness or Nearsightedness:
The defect of vision is due to which an eye cannot see
distant object distinctly but can see nearby objects
clearly. This defect of the eye is called myopia.
Short-sightedness is caused due to
(i) excessive curvature of the eye lens or
(ii) elongation of eyeball.
The image in this case, forms in front of the retina,
so the distant object looks blurred. For every myopic
eye, there exists a far point beyond which a clear 27. What is hypermetropia? List two causes for the
image cannot be seen. When the object lies at the far development of this defect. Explain the method
of correcting this defect with the help of ray
diagrams.
Or
What is hypermetropia? State two causes. With
the help of ray diagram show (a) eye defect
(b) correction of hypermetropia. [DoE]
Or
A person is unable to see distinctly the words
printed on a newspaper. Name the defect of
vision he is suffering from. Draw ray diagram to
illustrate this defect. List its two possible causes.
Draw a ray diagram to show this defect may be
corrected using lens of appropriate focal length.
[Delhi 2017C]
Ans. Hypermetropia or Long-sightedness or Far-
sightedness. The defect of vision due to which an
eye cannot see nearby objects clearly but can see
distant objects distinctly. This defect of the eye is
called hypermetropia.
Long-sightedness is caused due to
(i) greater focal length of the eye lens or 28. What is presbyopia? State its cause. How is it
(ii) smaller eyeball. corrected?
The image in this case, forms behind the retina, so Or
the nearby objects looks blurred. An old person finds it difficult to see nearby objects
comfortably and distinctly without corrective eye
glasses.
(i) What defect of vision is he suffering from?
What is it?
(ii) List two causes for the development of this
For every hypermetropic eye, there exists a near point defect.
N′ which is more than the least distance of distinct (iii) What kind of lens will be required to see
vision, i.e. 25 cm. The diverging rays from the object clearly the nearby as well as distant objects?
Give reasons.
lying at the near point N′ is focussed on the retina by
Ans. (i) Presbyopia
the eye lens and therefore, the object is clearly visible
• Presbyopia is a condition that occurs as a part
to the eye.
of normal ageing.
Due to loss of power of accommodation of the
eye, with age, objects at a normal near working
distance will appear blurry. The near point
gradually recedes away. This defect of eye is
called Presbyopia.
• Sometimes, a person may suffer from both
myopia and hypermetropia.
Therefore, long-sightedness is corrected by using a (ii) Presbyopia is caused due to
convex lens of suitable power placed in front of the • weakening of ciliary muscles, and
eye. It converges the rays coming from the object • eye lens becomes less flexible and elastic,
lying at normal near point N and forms its virtual i.e. reducing ability of eye lens to change its
image at near point N′ of the hypermetropic eye. curvature with the help of ciliary muscles.
The rays appear to come from N′ enter into the eye (iii) Bifocal lens will be required to see clearly nearby
and get focussed by the eye lens on the retina. Thus, as well as the distant object. For myopic defect,
convex lens provides additional focussing power to upper part of bifocal lens consists of a concave
the eye lens and shifts the image back onto the retina lens used for distant vision and to correct
from beyond and therefore the defect is corrected. hypermetropia, lower part of bifocal lens consists
of a convex lens. It facilitates near vision.
29. A person cannot see the objects distinctly, when 30. Noopur needs a lens of power – 4.5D for correction
placed beyond 2 m. of her vision.
(a) Identify the eye defect. (a) What kind of defect in vision is she suffering
(b) Give two reasons for this defect. from?
(c) Calculate the power and nature of the lens he (b) What is the focal length and nature of the
should be using to see the distant objects clearly. corrective lens?
(d) Draw the ray diagrams for the defective and (c) Draw ray diagrams showing the (i) defected
the corrected eye. eye and (ii) correction for this defect.
Ans. (a) The eye defect is myopia. (d) What are the causes of this defect?
(b) Two causes for myopia are [CBSE Sample Paper 2018]
(i) excessive curvature of eye lens or Ans. (a) Myopia (1 Mark)
(ii) elongation of eye ball –1
(c) Required power of corrective lens is (b) f = = –0.22 cm
45
1 1 1 Concave lens (½ + ½ Mark)
P= = −
f (m) v u (c) (i)
1 1
= − (v = – 2 m, u = – ∞)
−2 −3
1
⇒ P = − = – 0.5 D
2 Myopic eye
So, he should use concave lens of power – 0.5D (ii)
to see distant objects clearly.
(d)
Correction for myopia

(1+1 Mark)
(d) Causes:
(i) Due to excess curvature of eye lens
(ii) Elongation of the eye ball. (½ + ½ Mark)
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. The defect of vision in which eyeball is elongated is 5. When do we consider a student sitting in the class to
(a) myopia (b) hypermetropia be (a) myopic (b) hypermetropic?
(c) presbyopia (d) cataract 6. Why is concave lens used to correct myopia? Why
2. Far-sightedness is caused by large focal length of the not convex lens?
eye lens. It is corrected by using 7. An old man cannot see objects closer than 1 m from the
(a) divergent lens eye clearly. Name the defect of vision he is suffering
(b) converging lens from. How can it be corrected? Draw ray diagram for the
(c) bifocal lens (i) defect of vision and also (ii) for its correction.
(d) plano-concave lens
8. Draw a diagram to show why distant objects cannot
3. When a person is myopic, he/she can clearly see be seen distinctly by a myopic eye. List two reasons
(a) distant object clearly due to which this defect of vision may be caused.
(b) nearby objects clearly A person with a myopic eye cannot see objects
(c) both near and distant objects clearly beyond a distance of 2 m. Name the type of
(d) between infinity and 25 cm corrective lens that would be needed to correct the
4. Name the defect of vision caused by defect of vision and draw a ray diagram to show how
(i) Excessive curvature of cornea the defect gets corrected.
(ii) Power of accommodation of eye decreases.
TOPICS COVERED
Refraction and Dispersion of White Light through a Prism
5. When white light enters a prism, it gets split into
Multiple Choice its constituent colours. This is due to
Questions 1 Mark (a) different refractive index for different wavelength
1. A student traces the path of ray of light through of each colour
a triangular glass prism for different values of (b) each colours has same velocity in the prism.
angle of incidence. On analysing the ray diagrams, (c) prism material have high density.
which one of the following conclusions is he likely (d) scattering of light.
to draw? [CBSE 2015] 6. If a beam of red light and a beam of violet light are
(a) The emergent ray is parallel to incident ray. incident at the same angle on the inclined surface
(b) The emergent ray bends at an angle to the of a prism from air medium and produce angles
direction of incident ray. of refraction ‘r’ and ‘v’ respectively, which of the
(c) The emergent ray and refracted ray are at right following is correct? [CBSE Sample Paper 2021]
angles to each other. 1
(a) r = v (b) r > v (c) r = (d) r < v
(d) The emergent ray is perpendicular to the incident v
7. The phenomenon of dispersion prove that
ray. (a) white light passes through a transparent medium.
2. In the following diagram, the correctly marked (b) sunlight is made up of seven colours.
angles are [CBSE 2017] (c) light travels in a straight line path.
A
(d) different colours travel with the same speed while
passing through a glass prism.
8. When a narrow beam of white light is passed
P r e through two identical prisms, one placed inverted
Q
i D with respect to the other, the emerging beam will
be
B C (a) white beam (b) blue light
(a) ∠A and ∠e (c) red light (d) all seven colours
(b) ∠i, ∠A and ∠D 9. When a ray of light passes through a glass prism
(c) ∠A, ∠i and ∠e it suffers two refractions. During these refractions
(d) ∠A, ∠r and ∠D the ray bends: [CBSE 2022]
3. In the diagram given below, X and Y are the end (a) Away from the base in both cases
colours of the spectrum of white light. The colour (b) Towards the base in both cases
of ‘Y’ represents the [CBSE 2021]
(c) Towards the base in first case and away from the
base in second case
(d) Away from the base in first case and towards the
X
Y White light base in second case
10. In the formation of rainbow, the role of water
droplet presents in water fountains is to act as a
[CBSE 2021]
(a) colour of sky as seen from earth during the day. (a) glass slab (b) convex lens
(b) colour of the sky as seen from the moon. (c) concave lens (d) prism
(c) colour used to paint the danger signals. 11. When sunlight enters the water droplet suspended
(d) colour of sun at the time of noon. in the atmosphere after rainfall, it will get
4. A prism is used to (a) refracted only
(a) change the path of light by reflection and (b) refracted internally
refraction both (c) refracted and dispersed
(b) rotate the image (d) first refracted and then dispersed while coming
(c) disperse the light into its components out of the water droplet.
(d) all of these
Answers wavelength than blue as the velocity of yellow light
is greater than blue. (½ + ½ Mark)
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (c) [CBSE Marking Scheme]
5. (a) Dispersion takes place because refractive index
of the material of prism is different for different 15. How will you use two identical prisms so that a
wavelength. narrow beam of white light incident on one prism
6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (b) emerges out of the second prism as white light?
10. (d) 11. (c) Draw the diagram. [CBSE Sample Paper 2023]
Ans. Angle of deflections of the two prisms need to be
equal and opposite. While the first prism splits the
V S A Very Short Answer light in the seven colours due to different angles of
Type Questions 2 Marks deflection, the second prism combines the spectrum
12. Draw a path of light ray passing through a prism. along a single ray and the colours again combine to
Label angle of incidence and angle of deviation in give white light as the emergent light. (1 Mark)
Screen
the ray diagram. [CBSE Sample Paper 2018] A P
A H
Ans.
White
N M light R R R White
G light
D
V V
i r e V
E F
Q R
P1 A
P S
(1 Mark) [CBSE Marking Scheme]
B C 16. What is dispersion of light? Name component of
PE – Incident ray ∠i – Angle of incidence white light that deviate (i) the least (ii) the most
EF – Refracted ray ∠r – Angle of refraction while passing through a glass prism.
FS – Emergent ray ∠e – Angle of emergence Ans. Dispersion: Splitting of white light into its component
∠A – Angle of prism ∠D – Angle of deviation colours is called dispersion. The component of white
13. No rainbow could be observed from the surface light that deviate
of the moon by the astronauts. What could be the (i) the most – violet
possible reason? (ii) the least – red
Ans. The Moon does not have any blanket of air or while passing through the glass prism.
atmosphere and consequently, in the absence of
water droplets no dispersion of sunrays is possible. A Short Answer
Therefore, rainbow could not be observed from the
surface of the Moon by the astronauts. 17. A narrow beam PQ of white light is passing through
14. a glass prism ABC as shown in the diagram.
Radiation D
A
from the Sun
Prism P
Yellow light
B C
E
Blue light Trace it on your answer sheet and show the path of
State the phenomena observed in the above the emergent beam as observed on the screen DE.
diagram. Explain with reference to the diagram, (a) Write the name and cause of the phenomenon
which of the two lights mentioned above will have observed.
the higher wavelength? [CBSE Sample Paper 2023] (b) Where else in nature is this phenomenon
Ans. Dispersion: The splitting of white light into seven observed?
colours on passing through a prism. (1 Mark) (c) Based on this observation, state the conclusion
Velocity is directly proportional to wavelength given which can be drawn about the constituents of
constant frequency. So yellow will have greater white light.
Ans. A 19. Describe an activity to show that the colours

Screen of white light splitted by a glass prism can be
recombined to get white light by another identical
glass prism. Also draw ray diagram to show the
Q
hite R recombination of the spectrum of white light.
fw O

yo Y [AI 2016]
Ra t
h G Ans. Recombination of Colours: The colours of white
P lig B
I
light splitted by a glass prism can be recombined to get
C
B Prism V white light by another identical glass prism. Newton
demonstrated this phenomenon of recombination of
(a) The splitting of light into its constituent colours
the coloured rays of a spectrum to get back white light.
is called dispersion. The dispersion of light
(a) A triangular prism ABC is placed on its base BC.
is caused as the varying speeds of different
(b) A similar prism A′B′C′ is placed alongside with
constituent colours of white light offer different
its refracting surface in the opposite direction,
refractive indices to the material of the prism.
i.e. in an inverted position with respect to first
Due to this refracted colours emerges through a
prism as shown in figure.
prism at different angles which form a spectrum
Second
on the screen. Prism
A B′ C′ White spot
(b) The formation of rainbow is caused by the t
Recombination ligh
B ite
dispersion of the sunlight into its constituent t Wh
colours. ligh
ite
Wh
(c) (i) A beam of white light consists of seven V
Dispersion
colours. B First C A′
Screen
(ii) The violet colour suffers maximum Prism
deviation and the red colour suffers (c) A beam of white light entering the prism ABC
minimum deviation. undergoes refraction and is dispersed into its
18. A beam of white light falling on a glass prism gets split constituent seven colours.
up into seven colours marked 1 to 7 as shown in the (d) These constituent seven coloured rays are
diagram. A student makes the following statements incident on the second inverted prism A′B′C′
about the spectrum observed on the screen. and get further refracted.
(e) The second prism recombines them into a beam
of white light and emerges from the other side
of the second prism and falls on the screen.
1 (f) This is due to the fact that the refraction or
2
3 bending produced by the second inverted prism
4
5
6
is equal and opposite to the refraction or bending
7 produced by the first prism. This causes the seven
(a) The colours at positions marked 3 and 5 are colours to recombine.
similar to the colour of the sky and the colour (g) A white patch of light is formed on the screen
of gold metal respectively. placed beyond the second prism. This proves
Is the above statement made by the student the phenomenon of recombination of spectrum
correct or incorrect? Justify. of white light.
(b) Which two positions correspond closely to the 20. What is a spectrum? How can we recombine the
colour of components of white light after a glass prism
(i) a brinjal has separated them? Illustrate it by drawing a
(ii) ‘danger’ or stop signal lights? diagram. [Foreign 2014]
Ans. (a) Incorrect as the student is stating the nature of Or
colours in reverse order, i.e. 3 represents the When we place a glass prism in the path of a narrow
colour of gold metal and 5 represents the colour beam of white light, a spectrum is obtained. What
of the sky. happens when a second identical prism is placed in
(b) (i) Colour marked 7 is violet. an inverted position with respect to the first prism?
(ii) Colour marked 1 is red. Draw a labelled ray diagram to illustrate it.
Ans. Spectrum: The band of the coloured components of a • The angle of deviation of other colours lies
white light beam such as Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, in between the angle of deviation of red and
Yellow, Orange and Red, is called its spectrum. violet colour.
• Thus, when white light is incident on a glass
prism, it splits into its constituent colour after
being refracted through the glass prism. The
different colour emerges along different angles
and become distinct. This is called dispersion.
(b) Rainbow: It is an optical natural spectrum,
We can recombine the components of the white light produced by the nature in the sky, in the form of
after a glass prism has separated them by placing a a multicoloured arc. It is always formed in the
second identical prism in an inverted position with direction opposite to that of the sun after a rain
respect to the first prism. shower. It is caused by the dispersion of sunlight
These constituent seven coloured rays refracted by by water droplets suspended in the atmosphere
the first prism are incident on the second inverted after rainfall. These water droplets act like small
prism and get further refracted. These coloured rays prisms. The Sunlight enters the water droplets. At
again recombine by the second prism into a beam of the point of incidence, it refracts and disperses then
white light, which emerges out from the other side gets reflected internally and finally gets refracted
of the second prism. again at the point of emergence as it comes out of
the rain-drop.
A Long Answer
21. (a) What is dispersion of white light? State its
cause.
(b) “Rainbow is an example of dispersion of
sunlight.” Justify this statement by explaining,
with the help of a labelled diagram, the
formation of a rainbow in the sky. List two
essential conditions for observing a rainbow.
[Foreign 2016]
Or
When and where does a rainbow appear in the Formation of primary rainbow
sky? Draw a labelled ray diagram to show its Therefore, due to refraction, dispersion and
formation. [CBSE 2023] internal reflection of the sunlight, different
Ans. (a) Dispersion: The splitting up of white light into colours reach the observer’s eye along different
its component colours is called dispersion. paths and become distinct. It creates a rainbow
Cause of dispersion. in the sky.
• From Snell’s law of refraction, the angle of Hence “Rainbow is an example of dispersion of
refraction of light in a glass prism depends sunlight.”
on its refractive index which is different for Necessary conditions for the formation of a
different wavelength(l) and for different rainbow.
1 1 (i) The presence of water droplets in the
speed (v) and (n ∝ and n ∝ ). atmosphere, and
λ v (ii) The sun must be at the back of the observer,
• The red light bends the least as it has maximum
i.e. the observer must stand with his back
wavelength/speed while violet bends the most
towards the sun.
due to its smaller wavelength/speed.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. The property of light used by the prism to form a (c) dispersion of light
spectrum is (d) diffused reflection of light.
(a) refraction of light
(b) reflection of light
2. Which of the following figures correctly represents
(a) (b)
dispersion of white light by the triangular glass prism?
(a) A
D D
Q R
h ite
fw O i
yo Y i
Ra G
ht (c) (d)
P lig B
I
C V
B Prism D D
A
(b)
Q i i
e V
it
f wh I 5. In which of the following cases, the dispersion will
yo B
take place when sunlight passes through it?
Ra G
ht
P lig Y
O
C R
B Prism
(c) A
(i) (ii) (iii)
Q (a) In figure (i) only (b) In figure (ii) only

ite (c) In figure (iii) ony (d) In all three figures
f wh R
yo 6. A ray of light in incident on one of the refracting
Ra O
ht face of the prism. At condition of least deviation it
P lig Y
B C G
emerges out from its other side making an angle of
Prism emergence
B
(a) smaller than angle of incidence
I
(b) equal to prism angle
V
(c) equal to angle of incidence
(d) A
R (d) greater than the angle of incidence
O
Y 7. Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of a
G rainbow and mark the point where (i) dispersion,
(ii) internal reflection occurs. [Foreign 2012]
Q
h ite 8. (a) What is meant by dispersion of white light? Draw
fw a ray diagram to show the dispersion of white
yo B
Ra
ht I light by a glass prism.
P lig
V (b) Light of two colours A and B pass through a
B C
Prism prism. ‘A’ deviate more than ‘B’ from its path
of incidence. Which colour has a higher speed
3. The factors on which the angle of deviation through in the prism?
a prism depends
(a) angle of prism 9. A narrow beam of light produces a spectrum XY on
(b) angle of incidence passing through a triangular glass prism.
(c) nature of the material of prism
(d) all of the above
4. Which of the following graph represents the correct t
variation of angle of incidence (i) and angle of ite ligh Y
Wh
deviation (D) in the study of refraction of light
through a triangular glass prism? X
(a) State the colour at X and Y. 10. What is meant by dispersion and recombination?
(b) Why do the different components of white light Explain with the help of a diagram. What is a
bend through different angles with respect to the spectrum? Name the various colours of spectrum of
incident beam of light? [DoE] white light in proper sequence. [KVS]
TOPICS COVERED
Atmospheric Refraction and Scattering of Light
(a) Atmospheric reflection of starlight
Multiple Choice (b) Atmospheric refraction of starlight
Questions 1 Mark (c) Scattering of starlight
1. The air layer of atmosphere whose temperature (d) Dispersion of starlight
is less then the hot layer behave as optically 8. Blue colour of clear sky is due to
(a) denser medium (a) refraction of light (b) absorption of light
(b) rarer medium (c) reflection of light (d) scattering of light
(c) inactive medium
(d) either denser or rarer medium
Answers
2. Refraction of light by the earth’s atmosphere due
to variation in air density is called 1. (a) The cold air layer of the atmosphere acts as a
(a) atmospheirc reflection optically denser medium than hot air because
(b) atmospheric dispersion the molecules are closely packed together.
(c) atmospheric scattering 2. (d) This phenomena is called atmospheric refraction.
(d) atmospheric refraction 3. (b) The said phenomenon is called scattering of light.
4. (d) Objects are not visible through the fog because
3. The deflection of light by minute particles and
droplets scatter the light rays.
molecules of the atmosphere in all direction is
5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (d)
called ___________ of light.
(a) dispersion (b) scattering
(c) interference (d) tyndell effect V S A Very Short Answer
4. One cannot see through the fog, because
(a) refractive index of the fog is very high 9. Nanda saw rays of sunlight entering into a dark
(b) light suffers total reflection at droplets room as shown below.
(c) fog absorbs light
(d) light is scattered by the droplets
5. To an astronaut the sky on the moon appear dark
because [CBSE 2022]
(a) there is no light on the moon.
(b) there is no atmosphere on the surface of the
moon.
(c) moon is non-luminous object.
(d) the surface of the moon absorbs all the sunlights. He then did something to the air in the room after
6. Rohan lit an incense stick in his room and after which he was NOT able to see the rays of sunlight
an hour observed that when a beam of sunlight in the room.
entered his room through a small gap in the What is it that Nanda could have done to make the
window, he was able to see the path of the beam. rays of sunlight invisible? Justify your answer.
Which of the following is most likely TRUE about [CFPQ, CBSE]
the air present in the room? [CFPQ, CBSE] Ans. Removing all the dust particles from the air in the
(a) It is a pure substance.(b) It is a compound. room by passing the air through a very efficient filter.
(c) It is a solution. (d) It is a colloid. Filtering the air removes the suspended dust particles
7. Which one of the following is the correct reason thus preventing the scattering of light which make
for twinkling of stars? [CBSE 2021C] the rays visible.
10. Space is mostly vacuum, devoid of any medium. blue colour has a shorter wavelength than the red.
(a) What colour does the sun appear to the So, according to Rayleigh scattering law, the blue
astronauts on International Space Station? colour of sunlight is scattered more strongly by the
(b) Give reason for your answer to (a). large number of fine particles having size smaller
[CFPQ, CBSE] than the wavelength of visible light in the earth’s
Ans. (a) White atmosphere. The scattered blue light enters our eyes,
(b) Since there is no medium to disperse or scatter hence the sky appears blue.
the light coming from the Sun, it appears white. For an astronaut, staying in the international space
11. What is meant by scattering of light? State its two station orbiting the earth, the colour of the sky will
effects that are produced by the atmosphere. be black, i.e. sky will appear dark.
Ans. Scattering of Light: The phenomenon in which Reason: Sunlight does not scatter in the absence of
light rays are directed in different direction when it atmosphere.
interacts with the large number of molecules, such 14. Why is Tyndall effect shown by colloidal particles?
as smoke, tiny water droplets, suspended particles State four instances of observing the Tyndall
of dust and molecules of air present in the earth’s effect. [CBSE 2020]
atmosphere, is called scattering of light. Ans. Tyndall effect: Scattering of beam of visible light by
The effects are the colloidal particles present in the colloidal solution
(i) Tyndall effect is called Tyndall effect. It occurs when the dimension
(ii) Blue colour of sky of the dispersed particle that are causing the scattering
12. The colour of clear sky from the earth appears are larger than the wavelength of incident light i.e
blue but from the space it appears black. Why? 10–7 m. Accordingly, the colour of the scattered
[CBSE 2023] light depends on the size of the scattering particles
Ans. When sunlight passes through the earth’s atmosphere, in colloidal solution.
it is scattered in all directions by the gaseous and Four instances of observing the Tyndall effect are
other fine particles present in the atmosphere. The (a) Headlight of a car shining through fog.
blue colour has a shorter wavelength than the red. (b) When a fine beam of sunlight enters a smoke-
So, according to Rayleigh scattering law, the blue filled room through a small hole.
colour of sunlight is scattered more strongly by the (c) When sunlight passes through a canopy of a
large number of fine particles having size smaller dense forest.
than the wavelength of visible light in the earth’s (d) Blue colour of sky.
atmosphere. The scattered blue light enters our eyes,
hence the sky appears blue. A Long Answer
From space sky appears black because at such huge
heights due to absence of atmosphere no scattering 15. What is atmospheric refraction? Use this
of light takes place. phenomenon to explain the following natural
events.
A Short Answer (a) Twinkling of stars [AI 2012]
S Type Questions 3 Marks (b) Advanced sunrise and delayed sunset.
13. Explain giving reason why the sky appears blue to [Delhi 2014, Foreign 2015]
an observer from the surface of the earth. What Draw diagrams to illustrate your answers.
should the appearance of the sky be during the [AI 2016]
day for an astronaut staying in the international Ans. Atmospheric Refraction: The refraction of light caused
space station orbiting the Earth? State reason to by the earth’s atmosphere due to gradual change in the
justify your answer. [Foreign 2015] refractive indices of its different layers by the varying
Or conditions of it, is called atmospheric refraction.
Explain giving reason why the sky appears blue (a) Twinkling of stars
to an observer from the surface of the earth? The hot layers (low densities) of air at a high
What will the colour of the sky be for an astronaut altitude, behave as an optically rarer medium for
staying in the international space station orbiting the light rays, whereas the cold dense layers (high
the earth? Justify your answer giving reason. densities) of air near the earth’s surface, behave
[Delhi 2014] as an optically denser medium for the light rays.
Ans. When sunlight passes through the earth’s atmosphere, So, when the light rays (starlight) pass through the
it is scattered in all directions by the gaseous and various layers of atmosphere, they will get deviated
other fine particles present in the atmosphere. The and bent toward the normal. As a result, the apparent
position of star is slightly different from its actual horizon while the apparent position S′, above the
position. Thus, the stars appear slightly higher horizon as appear to us.
(above) than their actual positions in the sky. When the sun is slightly below the horizon, the
light rays move through the different layers of
varying refractive indices of air and get bent
towards the normal. These rays appear to come
from S′, which is the apparent position of the
sun. That is why, the sun is visible to us when it
has been actually below the horizon or before the
actual crossing of horizon by the sun at the time
of sunrise or sunset. So, due to the atmospheric
refraction, the phenomenon of advanced advance
sunrise and delayed sunset is observed.
16. (a) Draw a figure which shows the arrangement
for observing the phenomenon of scattering
The fluctuation in the positions of the stars occurs of light in the laboratory.
continuously due to the changing amount of light (b) What colours would you observe in the
entering the eye. The stars sometimes appear experiment? Why?
brighter and at some other times, they appear Ans. (a) An arrangement for observing the scattering of
fainter. This causes twinkling of stars. light in the laboratory is as shown below.
(b) Advanced sunrise and delayed sunset
The sun is visible 2 minutes before sunrise and
2 minutes after sunset because of atmospheric
refraction. This can be explained as below.
(b) (i) On the screen, first orange red colour and

then bright crimson red colour patch is
observed.
(ii) From the other three sides of colloidal
solution of sulphur in a glass tank (T), blue
colour is observed.
This is because the very fine colloidal sulphur particles
Atmospheric refraction effects at sunset or sunrise scatter away the blue colour from the path of beam
The figure shows the actual position of the sun and only red colour (least scattered) of the beam of
S at the time of sunrise or sunset, just below the white light reaches the screen through the solution.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following statements is not true for 3. At noon, the sun appears white as [CBSE 2016]
scattering of light? [CBSE 2021] (a) light is least scattered.
(a) Colour of the scattered light depends on the size (b) all the colours of the white light are scattered
of particles of the atmosphere. away.
(b) Red light is least scattered in the atmosphere. (c) blue colour is scattered the most.
(c) Scattering of light takes place as various colours (d) red colour is scattered the most.
of white light travel with different speed in air. 4. The apparent flattening of the sun’s disc at sunrise
(d) The fine particles in the atmospheric air scatter and sunset is due to: [CBSE 2021(C)]
the blue light more strongly than red. So the (a) Dispersion of light
scattered blue light enters our eyes. (b) Scattering of light
2. Tyndall effect is colloidal solution is due to (c) Atmospheric refraction of light
(a) reflection of light (b) absorption of light (d) Tyndall effect
(c) scattering of light (d) refraction of light
5. What is the colour of the clear sky during daytime? 9. Imagine you and your family members are astronauts
Give reason for it. on the space station now. You record the following
6. Is the position of star as seen by us in its true position? observations from your spaceship and send them to
Justify your answer. a friend by e-mail.
(a) Star appears to twinkle while the planets do not
7. What is the basic cause of atmospheric refraction?
similar to as observed from the earth.
8. State the reason behind the following phenomenon/ (b) Sky appears black in colour.
observations. (c) The length of the day is same as observed on the
(a) Pathway of light visible in foggy atmosphere or earth.
a dusty room/smoke filled room. How can each observation be justified by your friend?
(b) The apparent flattering of the sun’s disc at sunrise
and sunset.
(c) Danger signal lights are red in colour.

1. (a) Which part of the eye has delicate membrane and 6. (a) Explain the following terms used in relation to
containing large number of light sensitive cells? defects in vision and correction provided by them:
(b) A person is advised to wear spectacles with (i) Myopia (ii) Bifocal lenses
convex lenses. What type of defect of vision is (iii) Far-sightedness.
he suffering from? (2 Marks) (b) Why is the normal eye unable to focus on an object
2. A glass prism is able to produce a spectrum when placed within 10 cm from the eye? (5 Marks)
white light passes through it but a glass slab does not 7. Instruction: Read the passage carefully and answer
produce any spectrum. Explain why is it so? (2 Marks) the following questions given below it.
3. (a) A person can see objects if they are placed at You are given that the diameter of the eyeball is about
1.5 m. What kind of lens would be required to 2.3 cm and a normal eye can adjust the focal length
read a book at a distance of 25 cm? What kind of its eye lens to see objects situated anywhere from
of eye defect is it? Calculate the power of lens 25 cm to an infinite distance away from it.
used to correct the defect. (a) What is the power of the (normal) eye lens, when
(b) The limitation of an eye is that the distance from the ciliary muscles are fully relaxed?
eye lens to where the image formed is always the (b) What is the power of the (normal) eye lens, when
same. How is then it possible for the eye to form ciliary muscles are in their maximum contract
focussed images from the objects that are located position?
at varying distances from the eye? (3 Marks) (c) The maximum variation in the power of the
eye lens, when it adjust itself, from the normal
4. (a) A very thin narrow beam of white light is made
relaxed position to the position where the eye
incident on three glass objects as shown below.
can see the nearby object clearly? [HOTS]
Comment on the nature of behaviour of the
(5 Marks)
emergent beam in all three cases.
8. (a) What is meant by the term ‘power of
accommodation’? Name the component
of eye that is responsible for the power of
accommodation.
(b) A student sitting at the back bench in a class has
difficulty in reading. What could be his defect
(i) (ii) (iii) of vision? Draw ray diagrams to illustrate the
(b) There is a similarity between two of the emergent image formation of the blackboard when he is
beams. Identify the two. (3 Marks) seated at the (i) back seat (ii) front seat. State
5. Differentiate between a glass slab and a glass two possible causes of this defect. Explain the
prism. What happens when a narrow beam of method of correcting this defect with the help of a
(a) a monochromatic light, and (b) white light passes ray diagram. [CBSE Sample Paper 2019] (5 Marks)
through (i) glass slab and (ii) glass prism?
9. (a) (i) What is meant by scattering of light? (b) Which of the two is scattered more easily-light of
[CBSE 2023] short wavelength or light of longer wavelength?
(ii) State the factors on which the colour of Give reason.
scattered light perceived by us depends. (c) How is the eye defect of old person differing from
[AI 2015] near-sightedness and far-sightedness? [HOTS]
(5 Marks)

In the following Questions, the Assertion and Reason have Reason: The rainbow is formed in the sky when the
been put forward. Read the statements carefully and choose sun is shining and presence of water droplets at the
the correct alternative from the following: same time.
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the 5. Assertion: Sky appears blue in the day time.
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. Reason: White light is composed of seven colours.
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the [CBSE 2022]
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false. 6. Assertion: When objects are observed through a
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason turbulent stream of hot air, they appear to be flickered.
is true. Reason: Hotter air has a refractive index less than
that of the cooler air.
1. Assertion: The near-point of a hypermetropic eye is
more than 25 cm away. 7. Assertion: A person suffering from myopia cannot
Reason: Hypermetropia is corrected using spectacles see the distant object clearly.
containing concave lenses. Reason: Converging lens is used for the correction
of myopic eye as it can form real as well as virtual
2. Assertion: Myopia is the defect of vision in which images of the objects placed in front of it. [CBSE 2023]
a person cannot see the distant objects clearly.
Reason: This due to eye-ball being too short. 8. Assertion: The angle through which a ray of light
bends on passing through a prism is called the angle
3. Assertion: Pupil is black in colour. of deviation.
Reason: Pupil is black in colour as no light is reflected Reason: The peculiar shape of a prism makes the
back. emergent ray bend at angle to the direction of the
4. Assertion: The rainbow is a man made spectrum of incident ray. [CBSE 2023]
sunlight in the sky.
The following questions are source-based/case-based the children. Another man sitting beside him realised
questions. Read the case carefully and answer the the problem and helped him to reach the children.
questions that follow. (a) Name the defect of vision the grandfather is
1. Two children went to the park with their grandfather. suffering from.
On reaching the park, the children joined others to (b) Which type of lens is used to correct this eye
play, while their grandfather after taking three rounds defect?
of the park, sat on the chair, took out newspaper (c) State the cause of eye defect by which grandfather
from his bag and began to read with the help of his is suffering.
spectacle. After sometime, he realised that it was too Or
long to see the children, he looked around, but though (c) If a grandfather wears lens of power – 6D for the
he has worn spectacle, he couldn’t see anything. He distant vision and for correcting his near vision,
then realised that he had forgotten his other spectacle, he needs a lens of +2D. Determine the focal
which he used to see the far away places, were left length of the lenses in both the cases.
at home. He began calling them by their names, but 2. A rainbow is one of the most spectacular natural light
due to the large distance, his voice was not reaching shows observed in the sky. A number of scientist
and mathematician including Aristotle, Bacon, back together by placing the second identical prism
Theodoric, Descartes, Newton, Young, Airy and in an inverted position with respect to the first prism.
Mie have worked on the explanation of various (a) State the phenomenon of light used by the prism
observations on rainbows. to form spectrum.
To understand the formation of rainbow one should (b) How does the angle of minimum deviation of
actually study the refraction, internal reflection, glass prism vary if the incident violet light is
dispersion and total deviation of white light by the replaced by red light?
spherical water drop. (c) The refractive index of the material of the prism
A rainbow is produced when sunlight falls and gets is 2 and angle of prism is 30°. One of the
diverted to the eyes of the observer due to a large two refracting surfaces of the prism is made a
number of water droplets in the sky on a rainy day. mirror inwards with a silver coating. At what
In addition to primary Rainbow there is a secondary angle of incidence, a beam of monochromatic
rainbow. It occurs in the same manner as the primary light entering the prism from the other face will
rainbow but due to two internal reflections. In nature retrace its path (after reflection from the silvered
we can observe only primary and secondary rainbows. surface)?
Higher order rainbows are never seen since they are Or
weaker than (i) the background sky brightness (ii) the (c) What conclusion would you like to draw about
light reflected from the outside surface of the drops and angle of incident and angle of emergence in the
(iii) the light transmitted through the process with no case of refraction of light through a triangular
internal reflections. glass prism?
(a) What is refraction? 5. A student sitting at the back bench in a class has
(b) List two essential conditions for observing a difficulty in reading. He observed that he has no
rainbow. difficulty in reading if he seated at front seat of
(c) What is the shape of a rainbow? the class. Doctor prescribed him a suitable lens of
Or
negative power and explain him that this lens shifts
(c) Why the red appears on the top of rainbow?
the image back onto the retina instead of in front of
3. Pranav has too much enthusiasm to celebrate the it. He is now able to read the blackboard while sitting
end of winter season and welcomes the season of at the back bench in the class.
fruitfulness with family members and relatives. In (a) Name the defect of vision in the student’s eye.
the evening all family members gather up and move (b) If the doctor prescribes the lenses of power – 0.5D
in a circle around the bonfire. At particular moment, write the type of these lenses.
Pranav observe that the apparent position of object, as (c) Why the student is unable to see distinctly written
seen through the hot air or beyond and above the fire on the blackboard from the back bench of the
changes continuously. After sometimes, he find that class?
this phenomena can also be used to explain several Or
observation around us. (c) Write the function of retina in human eye.
(a) Name the phenomenon which could explain the
6. Glasses are among the most common forms of
wavering of objects above a fire.
eye wear to correct sight, adding or subtracting
(b) Define the phenomena observed by Pranav.
power to manage near-sightedness (myopia), far-
(c) Name two observations which can be explained
sightedness (hypermetropia), misshapen corneas
by the above phenomena.
Or (astigmatism i.e., imperfection in the curvature of
(c) How does the refractive index of earth’s eye’s cornea or lens), or farsightedness associated
atmosphere vary with height? with age (presbyopia).
An eye exam helps to detect eye problems at their
4. The foundation of modern optics lays in 1672 earliest stage. Regular eye exams give your eye care
when Sir Isaac Newton publishes his paper on the professional a chance to help you correct or adapt to
bending of light through prism. His experiments in vision changes and provide you with tips on caring for
bending of light through prisms led, eventually, to your eyes and give you a prescription for corrective
the revolutionary discovery of distinct coloured rays lenses.
in white light and, distinguishable when refracted Single vision prescriptions are for patients who
through a prism. In his experiment, he set up a prism have trouble seeing either near or far (but not both).
near his window, and projected a beautiful spectrum Cylindrical lens and axis both together are required
22 feet onto the far wall. Further, to prove that the to correct the astigmatism while multifocal lenses
prism was not colouring the light, he refracted the light
eyeglasses are used to correct presbyopia. Three prescriptions for three persons having different eye diseases are
shown below:
For person A
Spectacles Right Eye (OD) Left Eye (OS)
Sph Cyl Axis Prism V/A Sph Cyl Axis Prism V/A
and Base and Base
Distance –1.5 6/6 –2.25 6/6
Near
For person B
and Base and Base
Distance
Near +1.00 6/6 +0.25 6/6
For person C
and Base and Base
Distance –0.5 +1.25 50° 6/6 –1.00 75° 6/6
Near +2.50 +2.50
(a) What does the number in the column of spherical lens represents?
(b) After analysing the table, state the persons who have suffered from myopia and hypermetropia.
(c) Is the defect in vision a disease? If not, why?
Or
(c) State the nature of corrective lens and its focal length for the right eye of person B as prescribed by the doctor.
7. In an experiment, Pooja used a equilateral triangular 8. Light seems to travel along straight line paths in a
glass prism and projected a narrow beam of white transparent medium. But when light enters obliquely
light source from one side of the surface of the prism. from one transparent medium to another, some
She placed a screen on the other side and saw many changes are observed. This is because different
colours appearing as patches on the screen. But when mediums have different optical densities. The extent
she used a red light source, she could only see a red of the change in the direction of light that takes
patch on the screen. Similarly she used a blue and place when it enters obliquely in a given pair of
green light source and could only see one colour patch media is expressed in terms of a constant: Light
on both occasions. travels the fastest in vacuum. Light gets refracted
(a) State the phenomenon that she was trying to through a transparent prism. Several phenomena are
demonstrate. observed due to the reflection, refraction, dispersion
(b) Give reason: Why she could not see any other and scattering of light by various medium.
colour when the red light was used? [CBSE 2021(C)]
(c) She also could relate to another natural (a) Which phenomena is/are responsible for the
phenomenon that we observe on a rainy humid formation of rainbow?
day as sun comes out. What could be that (b) What the angles marked ∠1 and ∠2 represents
phenomenon? respectively in the given diagram showing
Or refraction of a narrow beam of a monochromatic
(c) State the reason that Pooja can give to her friends light through a glass prism?
to explain the phenomenon observed by her in
the experiment.
(c) Consider the following statements.
I. Violet light bends the least while red light
bends the most when a beam of white light
1 2 passes through a glass prism.
II. The path of the beam of light passing through
a true solution is not visible while visible
through a colloidal solution.
(c) Why the clear sky appears blue to us? III. The refractive index of hotter air is slightly
Or less than that of the cooler air.
Choose the correct statement(s) from above.
NCERT ZONE
Page 164 3. What is the far point and near point of the human
1. What is meant by power of accommodation of the eye with normal vision? [KVS]
eye? Ans. For normal vision, the near point is about 25 cm and
Ans. Power of accommodation: The ability of eye lens far point is infinity. Thus, a normal eye can see objects
to adjust its focal length to form a sharp image of clearly that are between 25 cm and infinity.
the object at varying distances on the retina is called 4. A student has difficulty reading the blackboard
power of accommodation. while sitting in the last row. What could be the
2. A person with a myopic eye cannot see objects defect the child is suffering from? How can it be
beyond 1.2 m distinctly. What should be the type corrected?
of the corrective lens used to restore proper vision? Ans. Child is suffering from myopia or short sightedness.
Ans. A person with myopic eye defect should use concave The defect is corrected by using a concave lens of
lens of focal length 1.2 m to restore his proper vision. suitable power placed in front of eye defective.
NCERT EXERCISES
1. The human eye can focus objects at different 5. A person needs a lens of power –5.5 dioptres for
distances by adjusting the focal length of the eye correcting his distant vision. For correcting his
lens. This is due to near vision he needs a lens of power +1.5 dioptre.
(a) presbyopia. (b) accommodation. What is the focal length of the lens required for
(c) near-sightedness. (d) far-sightedness. correcting
Ans. (b) accomodation. (i) distant vision (ii) near vision?
2. The human eye forms the image of an object at Ans. (i) Focal length of the lens for distant vision
its 1 100
= = cm = – 18 cm (approx.)
(a) cornea. (b) iris. Power – 5.5
(c) pupil. (d) retina. (ii) Focal length of the lens for near vision
Ans. (d) retina. 100
= cm = 66.66 cm
3. The least distance of distinct vision for a young 1.5
adult with normal vision is about 6. The far point of a myopic person is 80 cm in front
(a) 25 m. (b) 2.5 cm. of the eye. What is the nature and power of the
(c) 25 cm. (d) 2.5 m. lens required to correct the problem?
Ans. (c) 25 cm. Ans. The far point of a normal eye is infinity. Since the
4. The change in focal length of an eye lens is caused far point of the defective eye is given as 80 cm, the
by the action of the eye is short-sighted. To correct it, the lens should be
(a) pupil. (b) retina. such that an object at infinity must form its image at
(c) ciliary muscles. (d) iris. the far point of defective eye.
Ans. (c) ciliary muscles. ∴ u = − ∞, v = –80 cm
Using lens formula, Ans. The focal length of the eye lens cannot be reduced
1 1 1 below a certain limit.
= –
f v u 9. What happens to the image distance in the eye
1 1 1 when we increase the distance of an object from
\ = – the eye?
f –80 (– 3)
Or
1 If we increase the distance of an object from the
= –
80 eye, how will the distance of image formed in the
∴ Focal length of lens is – 80 cm. eye change? [DoE]
The correction is done by using a concave lens of Ans. In eye, the image is always formed on the retina.
focal length 80 cm. The image distance is the distance between the eye
100 100
Power of the lens = =– = – 1.25 D lens and the retina. When we increase the distance
f (in cm) 80 of the object from the eye, the focal length of the eye
7. Make a diagram to show how hypermetropia is lens increases due to the action of ciliary muscles so
corrected. The near point of a hypermetropic eye is 1 that the image of object is formed on the retina and
m. What is the power of a lens required to correct therefore, the image distance remains the same.
this defect? Assume that near point of the normal 10. Why do stars twinkle? [Foreign 2016]
eye is 25 cm. Ans. The stars twinkle at night, because the intensity of
Ans. starlight reaching our eyes increases and decreases
continuously due to atmospheric refraction. When
Image is
the starlight reaching our eyes increases, the stars
N O
I formed on look bright and when the starlight reaching our
Near point of the the retina eyes decreases, they appear dim. This gives us the
defective hypermetropic eye twinkling effect.
25 cm 11. Explain why the planets do not twinkle.
To correct the defect, the image of an object at 25 cm [Foreign 2015, KVS]
should be brought at 100 cm. Ans. The planets are much nearer to the earth as compared
1 1 1 to the stars so they can be treated as a collection of
∴ = – large number of point-sized source of light. Due to
f v u
1 1 varying condition of atmosphere, the darkest part
= – of the twinkling effect from one point source may
– 100 – 25 be overlapped by the focussed light from the point
1 –1 1 –1+ 4 3 source of other region of planet, so the total amount
⇒ = + = =
f 100 25 100 100 of light entering into the eye remains constant. Thus,
100 the planets look steady and do not appear twinkle.
∴ f =+ = + 33.3 cm
3 12. Why does the sky appear dark instead of blue to
So, a convex lens of focal length 33.3 cm is required. an astronaut?
100 Ans. At such huge heights due to absence of atmosphere,
Power, P = = 3.0 D no scattering of the light takes place. Therefore, sky
33.3
appears dark.
8. Why is a normal eye not able to see clearly the
objects placed closer than 25 cm?
1. A person cannot see distinctly objects kept beyond Ans. (b) Person cannot see distant objects clearly. So he
2 m. This defect can be corrected by using a lens is suffering from myopia. The defect is corrected
of power by using concave lens of power
(a) + 0.5 D 1 1
P = = = – 0.5 D
(b) – 0.5 D f −2 m
(c) + 0.2 D
2. A prism ABC (with BC as base) is placed in
(d) – 0.2 D
different orientations. A narrow beam of white
light is incident on the prism as shown in figure. 6. The bluish colour of water in deep sea is due to
In which of the following cases, after dispersion, (a) the presence of algae and other plants found in
the third colour from the top corresponds to the water
colour of the sky? (b) reflection of sky in water
(a) A (b) C B (c) scattering of light
(d) absorption of light by the sea
Ans. (c) The fine water molecules mainly scatter blue
light due to its shorter wavelength.
B C A
7. When light rays enter the eye, most of the refraction
(c) C (d) C occurs at the
(a) crystalline lens
A A (b) outer surface of the cornea
(c) iris
(d) pupil
B B
Ans. (b) Most of the refraction for light rays entering the
Ans. (b) In figure (a) base BC of the prism is at the bottom, eye occurs at the outer surface of cornea which
then violet colour lies at the bottom but in figure acts a primary lens converging in nature.
(b), the base BC is at the top, then violet would
8. The focal length of the eye lens increases when eye
be at the top after dispersion, and third colour muscles
would be blue. (a) are relaxed and lens becomes thinner
3. Twinkling of stars is due to atmospheric (b) contract and lens becomes thicker
(a) dispersion of light by water droplets (c) are relaxed and lens becomes thicker
(b) refraction of light by different layers of varying (d) contract and lens becomes thinner
refractive indices Ans. (a) Cilliary muscles modify the curvature of eye lens.
(c) scattering of light by dust particles When eye muscles are relaxed, eye lens becomes
(d) internal reflection of light by clouds. thinner thereby increase in the focal length of eye
Ans. (b) Twinkling of star is due to atmospheric refraction lens.
of starlight caused by the gradual change in 9. A student sitting on the last bench can read the
refractive index of different air layers at different letters written on the blackboard but is not able
height, the apparent position of star keeps on to read the letters written in his text book. Which
changing. of the following statements is correct?
4. The clear sky appears blue because (a) The near point of his eyes has receded away
(a) blue light gets absorbed in the atmosphere. (b) The near point of his eyes has come closer to him
(b) ultraviolet radiations are absorbed in the (c) The far point of his eyes has come closer to him
atmosphere. (d) The far point of his eyes has receded away
Ans. (a)
(c) violet and blue lights get scattered more than
lights of all other colours by the atmosphere. 10. Which of the following phenomena of light are
(d) light of all other colours is scattered more than the involved in the formation of a rainbow?
violet and blue colour lights by the atmosphere. (a) Reflection, refraction and dispersion
Ans. (c) Violet and blue colour have shorter wavelength. (b) Refraction, dispersion and total internal reflection
So, they scattered more than lights of other colour (c) Refraction, dispersion and internal reflection
by the molecules present in the atmosphere. (d) Dispersion, scattering and total internal reflection
Ans. (c)
5. The danger signals installed at the top of tall
11. Which of the following statements is correct
buildings are red in colour. These can be easily
regarding the propagation of light of different
seen from a distance because among all other
colours of white light in air?
colours, the red light
(a) Red light moves fastest.
(a) is scattered the most by smoke or fog (b) Blue light moves faster than green light.
(b) is scattered the least by smoke or fog (c) All the colours of the white light move with the
(c) is absorbed the most by smoke or fog same speed.
(d) moves fastest in air (d) Yellow light moves with the mean speed as that
Ans. (b) Red colour has longer wavelength so least of the red and the violet light.
scattered by smoke or fog. Ans. (c)
12. Which of the following statement is correct? Ans. Accommodation: The ability of the ciliary muscles
(a) A person with myopia can see distant objects to adjust the curvature and thereby the focal length
clearly. of eyelens to get a clear view of the objects is called
(b) A person with hypermetropia can see nearby accommodation. There is always a limit up to which
objects clearly. ciliary muscles can increase or decrease the focal
(c) A person with myopia can see nearby objects length of eye lens. This change enables us to see
clearly. nearer and far-off objects clearly.
(d) A person with hypermetropia cannot see distant 15. A person needs a lens of power – 4.5 D for
objects clearly. correction of his vision.
Ans. (c) (a) What kind of defect in vision is he suffering
13. A student sitting at the back of the classroom from?
cannot read clearly the letters written on the (b) What is the focal length of the corrective lens?
blackboard. What advice will a doctor give to (c) What is the nature of the corrective lens?
him? Draw ray diagram for the correction of this Ans. (a) The defect is myopia (short-sightedness).
defect. 1 100
Ans. The student is suffering from short-sightedness. (b) Focal length = =– = – 22.2 cm
Power 4.5
Doctor will advise to him to wear a concave lens (c) The lens is a concave lens.
having suitable power for correcting the vision. 16. Is the position of a star as seen by us its true
position? Justify your answer.
Ans. Light from the star passing through various layers
of the atmosphere bends towards the normal due to
the changing refractive indices of different layers of
the atmosphere and appears as if it is coming from a
14. How are we able to see the nearby as well as distant higher level than their true position. As a result, the
objects clearly? star appears slightly higher than its actual position.
17. Explain the structure and functioning of Human eye. How are we able to see nearby as well as distant objects ?
Ans. Human Eye: The natural optical device through which one could see objects around him. It forms an inverted and
real image on a light sensitive surface called the retina.
The parts of human eye and its functions:

(i) Cornea: It is a thin membrane, covering the surface of eyeball, through which light enters. It acts as a primary
lens, which provides the refraction for light rays entering the eye.
(ii) Aqueous Humour: It is a transparent gelatinous fluid, secreted from ciliary muscles and fills the space between
the cornea and the eye lens. It provides nutrition to the eye tissues and increases the protection against dust,
wind, pollen grains, etc.
(iii) Iris: It is a dark muscular diaphragm that controls the size of the pupil and is located just behind the cornea
in the eye.
(iv) Pupil: The black opening between the aqueous humour and the eye lens. Since light does not get reflected
from it, so its appearance is dark. The amount of light entering the eye is controlled by the size of the pupil.
In dim light, it opens up completely through the iris, but in bright light, it becomes very small.
(v) Ciliary Muscle: (a) It modifies the curvature illumination. Rods respond to the intensity
and thereby the focal length of the eye lens of light, whereas cones respond to the colour.
by contracting or relaxing itself to focus the There are around 125 million rodsand cone cells.
image of an object on the retina according to These cells generate electrical signals which are
the distance of the object. (b) It holds the eye transmitted to the brain through optical nerves.
lens in position. The brain processes the information via these
(vi) Eye Lens: It is converging in nature, made by electric signals and gives the impression of erect
the jelly-like proteinaceous material. The focal image to us.
length of the eye lens is changed by the ciliary To see nearby as well as distant objects, ciliary
muscles. Its function is to focus the incoming muscles modify the curvature of eye lens. This leads
light rays from the object on the retina using its to the variation in focal length of the eye lens as
refractive property. explain below.
(vii) Vitreous Humour: It is a transparent, colourless (a) When ciliary muscles are relaxed, the lens
gelatinous mass that fills the space between the becomes thin. The focal length of the lens
eye lens and the retina of the eyeball. It helps increases and has maximum value, equal to the
to keep retina in place by pressing it against the distance from the retina. So, the parallel rays
choroid. coming from the distant objects entering the eye,
(viii) Retina: It is a delicate membrane. It acts like a get focussed on the retina. This enables us to see
screen on which a real, inverted and diminished distant objects clearly.
image of the object, is formed by the crystalline (b) When the eye looks at nearby objects, the ciliary
lens of the eye. It contains enormous number of muscles are strained/ contract. This increases the
light sensitive cells. These light receptors are curvature of the eye lens and it becomes thicker.
known as rod and cone cells which generate As a result, its focal length decreases but increases
electrical signals upon illumination. These its converging power. Hence, the sharp image of
electrical impulses are sent to the brain via optic the nearby objects again forms on the retina.
nerves for further processing. This enables us to see nearby objects clearly.
(ix) Rods and Cones: These are the light sensitive T h i s p h e n o m e n o n i s c a l l e d t h e p o w e r o f
cells present in retina and get activated upon accommodation of the eye.
1. Red colour is used as danger sign because (iii) Draw a labelled diagram to show the type of
(a) red colour is scattered least by smoke corrective lens used for restoring the vision of
(b) red colour is scattered most by smoke such an eye.
(c) red colour moves fast in smoke 8. A narrow beam XY of white light is passing through a
(d) red colour is absorbed by smoke glass prism ABC as shown in the diagram:
2. Which of the following is controls the amount of light A
entering the eye? P
(a) Pupil (b) Iris
(a) Eye lens (b) Cornea Y
3. A star appears slightly higher (above) than its actual
position in the sky. It is due to X
(a) atmospheric reflection B C Q
(b) atmospheric refraction Trace it on your answer sheet and show the path of
(c) atmospheric scattering emergent beam as observed on the screen PQ. Name
(d) none of these the phenomenon observed and state its cause.
4. A normal eye is not able to see objects closer the 9. A star at sometimes appears bright and at sometimes
25 cm because fainter. What is this effect called? State the reason for
(a) distance between eye lens and retina is 25 cm. this effect.
(b) eye lens has a fixed focal length of 25 cm. 10. A student cannot see a chart hanging on a wall placed at
(c) beyond a certain limit eye cannot decrease its focal a distance of 3 m from him. Name the defect of vision
length he is suffering from. How can it be corrected? Draw ray
(d) both (a) and (b) diagrams for the
Direction: In the following Questions, the Assertion and (i) defect of vision (ii) for its correction
Reason have been put forward. Read the statements carefully 11. What is atmospheric refraction? Use this phenomenon
and choose the correct alternative from the following: to explain the following natural events:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the (a) Twinkling of stars.
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. (b) Advance sunrise and delayed sunset
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason Draw diagrams to illustrate your answers.
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. 12. When a ray of light incident on a solid glass prism, it
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false. will split and the band of colour obtained on the screen
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is VIBGYOR. During when light ray passes through
is true. the prism, it suffers refraction twice and hence the ray
5. Assertion: When a white light beam passes through the deviates through a certain angle from its original path.
glass prism, a spectrum is obtained. This angle is called angle of deviation.
Reason: The different colours have the same speed Now answer the following questions:
while passing through the glass prism. (a) Name the phenomenons that are observed when a
6. Assertion: A person suffering from hypermetropia white light falls on a prism.
cannot see nearby objects distinctly. (b) For which colour of spectrum, the angle of deviation
Reason: A converging lens is used for the correction of is minimum?
hypermetropic eye as it can form real as well as virtual (c) What is the cause of obtaining VIBGYOR on the
images of the objects placed in front of it. screen? Explain it. List an example of that cause
7. It is observed that the power of an eye to see nearby in nature.
objects as well as far off objects diminishes with age. Or
(i) Give reason for the above statement. (c) How did Newton, using two identical glass prisms,
(ii) Name the defect that is likely to arise in the eyes showed that white light is made of seven colours?
in such a condition.
Scan to get Answers

11
Electricity 311
Electricity
CHAPTER
MIND MAP
Positive charge
Charge (E.g.: Proton (+1.6 × 10–19C)
Negative charge
• Unlike charges attract each other. (E.g.: Electron (–1.6 × 10–19C)
• Like charges repel each other.
• SI unit of charge is coulomb (C).
Charge at rest Charge in motion

Static electricity Current electricity
• Flow of charge in a closed circuit.

• Direction of flow of positive charge is the direction of
conventional current.
• Direction of current is opposite to the direction of
flow of electron in a circuit.
Flow of charge per unit time Work done in moving a unit charge from one point
to another point
• Flow of electrons in a conductor when cell
Q or battery is connected across its end. Electric potential difference • SI unit-volt
Electric Current, I = • 1 V = 1 J C–1.
t • SI unit ampere (A). V = VB – VA =
WAB
• 1 A = 1 C s–1. Q • Measured by voltmeter.
• Measured by ammeter. • Current will flow from a
region higher potential to a
region of lower potential.
Both are related by
• The ratio V/I is constant.
Ohm’s law: I ∝ V i.e., V ∝ I • Graph between V and I is a straight line inclined to x-axis.
(at constant temperature) • Slope of V-I graph gives resistance of the given conductor at a
given temperature.
Proportionality constant is called
depends on • Length of conductor (R ∝ l).
1
Resistance R =
V • It opposes the flow of current • Area of cross-section dR \ n
I A
through the conductor • Nature of its material
• SI unit of resistance is ohm (W).
Connect in combinations of • 1 W = 1 V A–1.
R ∝ l or R = r l
2 2
Series Parallel where ‘r’ is

constant known as
R1 R2 R3 R1
• R2 Resistivity or specific
• Same current passes through each resis- RA
• Voltage across each resistor is same. resistance, r =
tor. 1 l
• Different potential difference across • Current divided in each branch dI \ n
R
different resistor (V ∝ R). • I = I 1 + I 2 + I 3. • SI unit is ohm-meter (W-m).
• V = V1 + V2 + V3. 1 1 1 • Low resistivity, good conductor.
• Equivalent resistance is = +
RP R1 R 2 Independent of length and thickness
• Equivalent resistance is •
R S = R 1 + R 2 + R3 of wire.
• Nature of material depends on
• Temperature of substance
Heating Effect of Electric Current Thus, the electrical energy consumed by an
1. Electrical energy: The work done or energy supplied electrical device at the rate of 1 J/s (the power of
by the source (battery or cell) in maintaining the flow device) is said to be 1 watt.
of current in an electric circuit is called as electrical • Using,
energy. It appears as heat and is given by Electrical energy dissipated (E)
Power (P) =
V2 t Time (t)
H = VIt = = I2Rt
R ⇒ E = P×t
SI unit of electric energy is joule (J) where, So, the electrical energy consumed or dissipated by
1 J= 1 volt × 1 A × 1 second = 1 watt × 1 second an electrical device is equal to the product of power
If the energy is used by an electrical device at the rate and time. The unit of electrical energy is, therefore,
of 1 watt, then the total energy used in 1 second is watt hour or kilowatt hour.
equal to 1 joule (J). watt hour: When 1 watt of power is used by an
2. Joule’s law of heating: The heat produced in a resistor electrical device for 1 hour continuously, the energy
is directly proportional to consumed by that device is said to be 1 watt hour
(i) the square of current for a given resistance (Wh).
(H ∝ I 2) kilowatt hour (kWh): The commercial unit of
(ii) the resistance for a given current (H ∝ R) electrical energy is called kilowatt hour (kWh).
(iii) the time for which the current flows through the The electrical energy used in shops, factories,
resistor. (H ∝ t) residential houses, etc. is measured in terms of kilowatt
Thus, the heat produced in the wire by current in time hour. One kilowatt hour is also called one unit.
‘t’ is ∴ One unit = 1 kWh = 1000 Wh
H ∝ I 2Rt or H = KI 2Rt = 1000 watts × 1 hour
But K = 1, so H = I2Rt (joule) = 1000 Js–1 × 3600 s
3. Electric power: It is the rate of doing work by an = 3.6 × 106 J
energy source or the rate at which the electrical energy Thus, if an electrical appliance of power 1000 watt
is dissipated or consumed per unit time in an electric is operated for 1 hour on the main supply, then it
circuit. will consume 1 kWh electrical energy or 1 unit of
Work done (W) V2 2 electricity.
Power P = = VI = =IR
Time (t) R 1 kWh = 1000 Wh
Unit of electric power: SI unit of electric power is 4. Method to calculate the electrical energy consumed
watt (W). • 1 unit means 1 kWh.
Watt: 1 watt is the power consumed by an electrical • Number of units of electrical energy consumed
device that carry 1 ampere current when operated at Watt × hours
a potential difference of 1 volt. = Number of kWh =
1000
i.e., 1 watt = 1 volt × 1 amp. • Total electrical energy consumed in a month
• Bigger units of power are
= Total number of units
1 kilowatt = 1 kW = 1000 W = 103 W
Watt × hours × days
1 megawatt = 1 MW = 106 W =
1000
• The relationship between watt and joule is given
= Number of units × Number of
W
by (using P = ) days in a month.
t
1J • Total cost of electricity consumed
1 watt = or 1W = 1 Js–1 = Total units × cost per unit of electricity.
1 sec
Electricity 313
TOPICS COVERED
Electric Current and Circuit
(b) 10–6 and 10–9 A respectively

Multiple Choice (c) 10–3 and 10–6 A respectively
Questions 1 Mark (d) 103 and 106 A respectively
Ans. (c)
1. The electric current in the conductor exists only
when the quantity that flows through it is
Answers
(a) electric charge (b) air current
(c) water current (d) all of these 1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (c)
2. Amount of charge flowing through a particular 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (d)
area in unit time is called
(a) electric charge (b) electric current 9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (c)
(c) electric potential (d) all of these
3. The unit of electric charge is V S A Very Short Answer
(a) ampere (b) joule Type Questions 2 Marks
(c) coulomb (d) ohm
12. State two properties of charge.
4. Choose the incorrect statements from the following: Ans. Properties of Charge
(a) Charge on the body may be positive or negative. (i) The basic idea about positive and negative charge
(b) Electric charge is scalar quantity. is that “like charges repel and unlike charges
(c) Coulomb is the cgs unit of charge. attract each other.
(d) A continuous and closed path is required for the (ii) Electric charge can neither be created nor
flow of electric charge. destroyed but it can transfer from one body to
5. The particles that constitute the flow of charge another i.e., total electric charge in an isolated
through a conductor is system is conserved.
(a) electrons (b) protons (iii) Total charge on a body is equal to the algebraic
(c) neutrons (d) atoms sum of all the charges located on that body.
(iv) Charges are quantized i.e., charge on a body is
6. The materials which allow electric current to pass an integral multiple of the charge of electron or
through them easily are called proton.
(a) conductors (b) insulators Therefore, the total charge Q on a body is given by
(c) semiconductors (d) alloys Q = ne
7. Conventionally, direction of electric current in the Where, e = 1.6 × 10–19 coulomb, n = ±1, ±2,
circuit is taken as the direction of flow of ±3, and so on. (any two)
(a) negative charge (b) atoms 13. Name the two fundamental particles which carry
(c) positive charge (d) neutrons equal and opposite charges. What amount of
8. The relation between electric current and electric charge they carry?
charge is Ans. Electron and proton
(a) Q = I/t (b) t = QI Charge on electron = –1.6 × 10–19 C
(c) I = Qt (d) I = Q/t Charge on proton = +1.6 × 10–19 C
9. The number of electrons constituting one coulomb 14. How many electrons must be removed from a
of charge is conductor, so that it acquires a charge of 4.8 mC?
(a) 6 × 1018 (b) 1.6 × 10–19 Ans. Here q = 4.8 mC = 4.8 × 10–6 C
(c) 6 × 10 –18
(d) 1.6 × 1019 Charge on electron, e = 1.6 × 10–19 C
Using, q = ne
10. SI unit of electric current is
q 4.8 × 10 –6
(a) ohm (b) ampere (c) volt (d) joule ⇒ n = = = 3 × 1013
e 1.6 × 10 – 19
11. The value of 1 mA and 1 mA are [CBSE 2020]
(a) 10–6 and 10–3 A respectively So, n = 3 × 1013 electrons
15. In how much time 9 × 103 coulomb of charge will from B to A. What is the direction of conventional
flow, if an electric current of 6 A is drawn by an current? Give justification for your answer.
electrical appliance? A steady current of 1 ampere flows through a
Ans. Using, Q = It ⇒ 9 × 103 = 6 × t conductor. Calculate the number of electrons
9 × 10 3 that flows through any section of the conductor in
\ t = = 1500 s = 25 min 1 second. (Charge on electron 1.6 × 10–19 coulomb).
6
[CBSE 2015]
A Short Answer Ans. • Electric Current: The amount of charge ‘Q’
S Type Question 3 Marks flowing through a particular area of cross section
16. A current of 1 A is drawn by a filament of an in unit time ‘t’ is called electric current. i.e.
electric bulb. Calculate the number of electrons Q
Electric current, I =
passing through the cross-section of the filament t
in 30 minutes. • SI unit of electric current is ampere.
Ans. Given: I = 1 A, t = 30 min = 30 × 60 = 1800 sec • One ampere of current is that current which flow
Using, Q = It = 1 × 1800 = 1800 C when one coulomb of electric charge flowing
Now, Q = ne through a particular area of cross-section of the
⇒ 1800 = n × 1.6 × 10–19 conductor in one second, i.e. 1A = 1 Cs–1.
1800 • The direction of conventional current is A to B,
⇒ n = = 1125 × 1019
1.6 × 10 –19 i.e. opposite to the direction of flow of electrons.
In a metal, flow of electrons carrying negative
⇒ n = 1.125 × 1022
charge constitutes the current. Direction of flow of
Hence, number of electrons passing through the
electrons gives the direction of electronic current by
filament in 30 minutes = 1.125 × 1022 electrons. convention, the direction of flow of positive charge
 1022 electrons is taken as the direction of conventional current.
• Charge, q = It = ne
A Long Answer
L Type Question 5 Marks It 1×1 1019
n = = =
17. What is meant by electric current? Name and define e 1.6 × 10 –19 C 1.6
its SI unit. In a conductor electrons are flowing = 6.25 × 1018 electrons
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. The device which measures the electric current in the 3. Calculate the amount of charge that would flow in one
circuit is hour through an element of electric gyser drawing a
(a) ammeter (b) voltmeter current of 2 A.
(c) galvanometer (d) all of these 4. How long would a charge of 900 C move through a
2. If electrons flow in a conductor from its one end ‘A’ closed circuit at a steady rate of 15 Cs–1?
to other end ‘B’, the current will flow from 5. 5.40 × 1021 electrons flow through the element of
(a) A to B (b) B to A electric iron in 3 minutes.
(c) mid-point of the conductor to end A (a) How much charge flows through this appliance?
(d) mid-point of the conductor to end B (b) Calculate the current flow through it in 3 min.
TOPICS COVERED
Electric Potential and Potential Difference
carrying some current is called as

Multiple Choice (a) power
Questions 1 Mark (b) electric potential difference
(c) electric current
1. The amount of work done to move a unit charge (d) resistance
from one point to the other in an electric circuit
Electricity 315
2. Amount of work done needed for each coulomb of 10. When a particle of charge 10 µC is brought from
charge between two points in a current carrying infinity to a point in the electric field, 10 mJ work
conductor having potential difference of 1 V is is done by the external forces. What is the potential
(a) 1 Joule (b) 1 Watt at that point?
(c) 1 Ohm (d) 1 kW Ans. Given Q = 10 mC = 10 × 10–6 C = 10–5 C
3. 1 volt is equal to W = 10 mJ = 10 × 10–3 J = 10–2 J
(a) 1 Js–1 (b) 1 JC–1 At infinity potential is zero
–1
(c) 1 Nm (d) 1 CJ–1 W
Using, VA – VB =
Q
4. The source of energy which provide the potential
W
difference for the steady flow of current in the ⇒ V – V∞ = (let VA = V, VB = V∞)
Q
electric circuit is
(a) ammeter (b) voltmeter 10 –2
⇒ V–0 =
(c) battery (d) all of these 10 –5
5. Potential difference between two points in an ⇒ V = 10–2+5 = 103 = 1000 V
electric circuit is measured by an instrument called 11. (a) State the relation between work, charge and
(a) battery (b) ammeter potential difference for an electric circuit.
(c) galvanometer (d) voltmeter (b) Calculate the potential difference between the
6. Which of the following expressions correctly two terminals of a battery if 100 J of work is
represent the potential difference between two required to transfer 20 C of charge from one
points in an electric circuit? terminal of the battery to the other.
W Q Work done
(a) V = (b) V = Ans. (a) Potential difference =
Q W Ch arg e
W
(c) V = Q × W (d) Q = VW VA – VB =
Q
7. A battery of 10 volt carries 20,000 C of charge (b) Q = 20 C, W = 100 J
through a resistance of 20 W. The work done in \ Potential difference,
10 seconds is W 100
V = =
(a) 2 × 103 joule (b) 2 × 105 joule Q 20
4
(c) 2 × 10 joule (d) 2 × 102 joule ⇒ V = 5 volt
8. When two points at different potential are 12. Calculate the amount of work done in shifting of
connected across the ends of a conductor, the charge of 2 C from a point A to B having potentials
electric current flows through it from the point +10 V and –5 V respectively.
(a) at a higher potential to a lower potential Ans. Q = 2 C, VA = +10 V, VB = –5 V
(b) at a lower potential to a higher potential W
(c) at zero potential to the some potential point Using VA – VB =
Q
(d) cannot say W
⇒ 10 – (–5) =
2
Answers ⇒ W = 30 J
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) A Short Answer

5. (d) 6. (a)
7. (b) W = qV = 20000 × 10 = 2,00, 000 = 2 × 105 J 13. Define 1 volt. Express it in terms of SI unit of
8. (a) work and charge. Calculate the amount of energy
consumed in carrying a charge of 1 coulomb
V S A Very Short Answer through a battery of 3 V. [CBSE 2014]
Type Questions 2 Marks Ans. When 1 joule of work is done in carrying 1 coulomb
of charge, from infinity to a point in the electric field,
9. Why must voltmeter have high resistance? then potential at that point is called 1 volt.
Ans. The voltmeter connected in parallel across the Potential difference between two points is
component, such as resistor must have high resistance W
so that a very small current passes through it and V =
Q
the potential difference across that component is not
affected. or W =Q×V
= 1 × 3 = 3 J
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. In an electric circuit, there are two paths available (b) VA = +10 V and VB = –14 V
between two points ‘A’ and ‘B’ for the transfer of (c) VA = 24 V and VB = 0 V
charge ‘q’. Let the work done be W1 and W2, for (d) VA – VB = 24 V
path 1 and 2, respectively. Which of the following Choose the best interpretation from the above.
relationship is true? 3. (a) What do you understand by the term “electric
(a) W1 < W2 (b) W1 = W2 potential at a point” in an electric field?
(c) W1 > W2 (d) Insufficient data, cannot (b) Potential difference between two points is
say measured by voltmeter. How it is connected in
2. A manufacturer has shown that the potential difference the circuit?
between two terminals of the battery is 24 volts. 4. Calculate the work done in moving of charge of 2 C
VA VB
+ – from a point at 30 V to another point at 50 V.
5. How much chemical energy is transferred by a
Four students interpret it as follows: 24 V battery to each coulomb of charge to move in
(a) VA = 6 V and VB = –18 V a circuit?
TOPICS COVERED
Circuit and Circuit Diagram
A
Multiple Choice
Questions 1 Mark B
1. A continuous and closed path of an electric current + –

is called
C D
(a) an electric circuit
(b) electric pressure (a) A-Bulb, B-Battery, C-Open key, D-Resistor
(c) circuit element (b) A-Resistor, B-Bulb, C-Battery, D-Open key
(d) all of these (c) A-Cell, B-Bulb, C-Resistor, D-Closed key
2. The position of switch/key in an electric circuit is (d) A-Variable Resistor, B-Bulb, C-Cell,
(a) right side of the cell or battery D-Closed key
(b) left side of the cell or battery
(c) anywhere in the circuit Answers
(d) before the circuit element
3. The function of switch in an electric circuit is 1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (a)
(a) to make the circuit closed 5. (b) 6. (b)
(b) to make the circuit open
(c) both (a) and (b) V S A Very Short Answer
(d) neither (a) nor (b) Type Questions 2 Marks
4. Which of the following is an essential element in 7. (a) What do the following symbols represent?
an electric circuit?
(a) Connecting wire (b) Bulb
(c) An ammeter (d) A plug key (i) (ii)
5. A schematic diagram drawn by using symbols
which represent electrical components is called
(a) electric diagram (b) circuit diagram (b) Name the electrical devices that are connected
(c) element diagram (d) current diagram in the following part of the circuit.
6. Identify the electrical components labelled as A,
B, C and D.
Electricity 317
2 8. What is an electric circuit? Distinguish between
+
V – an open and a closed circuit.
Ans. An arrangement for maintaining the continuous flow
1
+ + – of electric current by the electrical energy source
A –
3 through the various electrical components connected
with each other by conducting wires is termed as
Ans. (a) (i) Wire crossing without joining
electric circuit.
(ii) Variable resistor or rheostat
An open circuit does not carry any current, while a
(b) 1-Ammeter, 2-voltmeter and 3-resistor closed circuit carries current.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. The direction of conventional current in electric circuit 2. (a) What is the use of connecting wires in the electric
marked by you in the external circuit is circuit?
(a) from negative terminal to positive terminal of (b) What is the role of electric switch/key in the
the cell circuit?
(b) from positive terminal to negative terminal of 3. What are three basic components of a circuit?
the cell
(c) in any direction
(d) cannot say
TOPICS COVERED
Ohm’s Law and Factors on which the Resistance of a Conductor
Depends
Multiple Choice
Questions 1 Mark
I I I
1. Choose the incorrect statement regarding Ohm’s
law.
(a) It is temperature independent V V V
(I) (II) (III)
(b) It is valid for constant temperature
(c) It is valid for ohmic resistance The observation likely to be correct are those of
(d) It defines the relationship between potential (a) Student I only (b) Student II only
difference and current through the conductor. (c) Student III only (d) All the three students
2. In Ohm‘s law, if physical condition of the conductor 4. To the terminals marked as X and Y in the given
remains same, then circuit, three students connect 4 cells of voltage
1 1.5 V each in three different manners shown below.
(a) I ∝ V (b) I ∝ +
V V –
1
(c) I ∝ V 2 (d) I ∝
V2 A R B
3. In the experiment on studying the dependence –

A
of current (I) and potential difference (V), three
+
students plotted the following graph between (V)
X Y
and (I) as per their respective observations.
Student (A): X Y
X Y Plastic insulation surrounds a wire having diameter
Student (B):
d and length l as shown above. A decrease in the
Student (C): X Y resistance of the wire would be produced by an
increase in the [CBSE Sample Paper 2023]
Which of the following student(s) get the maximum (a) length l of the wire (b) diameter d of the wire
reading of voltmeter? (c) temperature of the wire
(a) Student A (b) Student B (d) thickness of the plastic insulation
(c) Student C (d) All three students 11. A complete circuit is left on for several minutes,
5. For verifying Ohm’s law, we design an electric causing the connecting copper wire to become hot. As
circuit diagram in which we show the arrangement the temperature of the wire increases, the electrical
of different circuit components. We find that with resistance of the wire [CBSE Sample Paper 2023]
respect to resistor [CBSE 2023] (a) decreases. (b) remains the same.
(a) ammeter is connected in parallel and voltmeter (c) increases.
in series. (d) increases for some time and then decreases.
(b) ammeter is connected in series and voltmeter in 12. The resistivity of the metals and alloys are in the
parallel. range of
(c) ammeter and voltmeter are both connected in (a) 10–8 W m to 10–6 W m
series. (b) 10–10 W m to 10–14 W m
(d) ammeter and voltmeter are both connected in (c) 1010 W m to 1014 W m
parallel. (d) 108 W m to 106 W m
6. The resistance whose V – I graph is given below is 13. The temperature of a conductor is increased. The
graph best showing the variation of its resistance is
9 (a) (b)
V (volt)
6 R R
0 5 10 15 20 T T
I (ampere)
(c) (d)
5 3 5 2
(a) W (b) W (c) W (d) W R R
3 5 2 5
7. When a 4 V battery is connected across an unknown
resistor there is a current of 100 mA in the circuit. The T T
value of the resistance of the resistor is [CBSE 2019]
(a) 4 W (b) 40 W (c) 400 W (d) 0.4 W
8. A cylindrical conductor of length ‘l’ and uniform Answers
area of cross-section ‘A’ has resistance ‘R’. Another
conductor of length 2.5l and resistance 0.5R of the 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a)
same material has area of cross-section [CBSE 2020] 5. (b)
1 6. (b) Resistance = slope line of V-I graph
(a) 5 A (b) 2.5 A (c) 0.5 A (d) A 9−0 9 3
5 = = = W.
9. The value of specific resistance depends upon 15 − 0 15 5
(a) area of cross-section of the conductor 7. (b) G i v e n : V = 4 V, I = 1 0 0 m A = 0 . 1 A
(b) length of the conductor Using, V = IR
(c) nature of material of conductor V 4
(d) all of above \ R = = = 40 W
I 0.1
Metal core
10. l
Plastic insulation 8. (a) Case I: R = ρ
A
2.5l
d Case II: 0.5R = ρ
Al
On dividing, we get,
l A′ = 5 A
Electricity 319
9. (c) 17. Priya has a copper wire and an aluminium wire

10. (b) diameter (d) of the wire of the same length. Can the electrical resistance of
the two wires be the same? Justify your answer.
11. (c)
Ans. Yes, the electrical resistance of the two wires can be
12. (a) the same.
13. (a) Resistance is directly proportional to temperature The reasons can be:
of the conductor. – The area of cross-section of the two wires is different.
– The thickness of the two wires is different.
18. A piece of wire of resistance 20 Ω is drawn out
V S A Very Short Answer so that its length is increased to twice its original
length. Calculate the resistance of the wire in the
14. How much current will an electric bulb draw new situation.
from 220 V source, if the resistance of the bulb is ρl
Ans. Using, R = ,
1200 Ω? If in place of bulb, a heater of resistance A
100 Ω is connected to the sources, calculate the R1 l A
current drawn by it. We have, = 1 . 2
R2 A1 l2
Ans. Given : V : 220 V, R1 = 1200 Ω, I1 = ?
R2 = 100 Ω, I2 = ? Given : l2= 2l1
Using Ohm’s law, V = I1R1 Volume of material will be conserved. So, A1l1 = A2l2
V 220 A1 l
⇒ I1 = = = 0.18 A ∴ = 2 = 2;
R1 1200 A2 l1
V 220 R1 l l1 l12 1
and, I2 = = = 2.2 A = 1. = =
R2 100
R2 l2 l2 l 22 4
15. In a experiment to study the dependence of current
on potential difference across a resistor, a student ∴ R2 = 4R1 = 80 Ω
obtained the graph as shown in the diagram. 19. Two wires of equal lengths, one of copper and
the other of manganin (an alloy) have the same
0.4 thickness. Which one can be used for (i) electrical
I(A) 0.3 transmission lines, and (ii) electrical heating
devices? Why?
0.2
Ans. (i) Copper, as it has the lesser resistivity.
0.1 (ii) Manganin, as it has the comparatively higher
resistivity, less oxidation even at high temperature.
1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0
V(volts) 20. In the given circuit, resistors A and B are made
From the graph find the value of resistance of the up of same metal and are of the same length but,
given resistor. A is thicker than B.
Ans. From the I-V graph,
1 1
Resistance = =
Slope of line ∆ I/∆V
∆V 3–2
= = = 10 W
∆I 0.3 – 0.2
16. 100 J of work is done in transferring 20 C of
charge between two points in a conductor. Find
the resistance offered by the conductor, if a current
of 2A flows through it. [HOTS] Which of the two ammeters will show a higher
Ans. Given : W = 100 J, q = 20 C, I = 2 A, R = ? reading? Justify your answer.
Work done in carrying 20 C charge Ans. Thicker wire has more cross-sectional area. So,
W = qV it offers lesser resistance to the flow of current as
From Ohm’s law, V = IR 1
R∝ .
∴ W = q(IR) A
W 100 = 5 Hence, more current will flow through it.
⇒ R = = = 2.5 Ω
qI 20 × 2 2 In the given circuit, A is thicker than B.
So, RA< RB (ρ is same) 24. A V-I graph for a nichrome wire is given below.

⇒ IA > IB (for same potential) What do you infer from this graph? Draw a labelled
circuit diagram to obtained such a graph.
So, Ammeter A1 will show higher reading. [CBSE 2020]
21. The resistance of a metal wire of length 1 m is
104 Ω at 20 °C. If the diameter of the wire is 0.15 mm, 2.0
find the resistivity of the metal at that temperature.
Ans. Radius of wire = 0.15/2 = 0.075 mm = 0.075 × 10–3 m 1.6
Potential difference (V)

Area of cross-section of wire = A = pr2
1.2
= 3.14 × (0.075 × 10–3)2
= 3.14 × 0.005625 × 10–6 m2
0.8
= 0.0176 × 10–6 m2 = 1.76 × 10–8 m2
A 10 4 × 1.76 × 10 –8 0.4
Using, r = R =
l 1
–4
= 1.76 × 10 Wm 0
0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6
22. (a) In a given ammeter, a student saw that needle Current (A)
indicates 12th division in ammeter while Ans. From the V–I graph for a nichrome wire, the straight
performing an experiment to verify Ohm’s line plot shows that as the current through a wire
law. If ammeter has 10 divisions between increases, the potential difference across the wire
0 to 0.5 A, then what is the ammeter reading increases linearly – this is called Ohm’s law.
corresponding to 12th division? i.e., V ∝I
V
(b) How do you connect an ammeter and a or = constant = R
voltmeter in an electric circuit? [CBSE 2019] I
0.5 or V = IR
Ans. (a) Least count of ammeter = = 0.05 A
10 Circuit Diagram
Thus, the value corresponding to 12 divisions
= 0.05 × 12 = 0.6 A A = Ammeter
(b) The ammeter is connected in series and a voltmeter V = Voltmeter
is connected in parallel in an electric circuit.
R = Resistor
A Short Answer
S Type Questions 3 Marks B = Battery
K = Key
23. (a) Write the relationship between electrical
resistance and electrical resistivity for a Rh = Rheostat
metallic conductor of cylindrical shape. Hence
derive the SI unit of electrical resistivity. 25. (a) Draw a closed circuit diagram consisting of a
(b) Find the resistivity of the material of a metallic 0.5 m long nichrome wire XY, an ammeter, a
conductor of length 2 m and area of cross- voltmeter, four cells of 1.5 V each and a plug key.
section 1.4 × 10–6 m2. The resistance of the (b) Following graph was plotted between V and
conductor is 0.04 ohm. [CBSE 2022] I values :
A
Ans. (a) r = R (½ Mark)
l
m2
SI unit of r = ohm × (½ Mark)
m
= ohm × metre or Wm (½ Mark)
A
(b) r = R (1 Mark)
l
0.04 Ω × 1.4 × 10 –6 m 2
=
2m
–8
= 2.8 × 10 Wm (½ Mark)
Electricity 321
What would be the values of V /I ratios when T2
the potential difference is 0.8 V, 1.2 V and V
1.6 V respectively? What conclusion do you draw T1
from these values? [CBSE 2015]
Ans. (a)
I
Ans. (a) Using Ohm’s law, V = IR
For constant potential difference
IR = constant
i.e., I1R1= I2R2
I2 R1 R 1 1
∴ = = = ⇒ I2 = I1
I1 R 2 2R 2 2
(b) From the graph, when p.d is 1.6 volt and So, current will reduce to half of its initial value.
0.6 A current the ratio of (b) Slope of the V-I graph represents the resistance of
V 1.6 the given conductor at given temperature. At the
= = 2.67 Ω.
I 0.6 temperature T2, the resistance of the conductor
Therefore, straight line nature of graph shows that is higher as it has greater slope than that of at
V temperature T1.
the value of ratio for all potential difference
I 28. (a) List the factors on which the resistance of a
of 0.8 V, 1.2 V and 1.6 volt will be same and is conductor in the shape of a wire depends.
equal to 2.67 Ω. (b) Why are metals good conductors of electricity
We conclude that at the given temperature, the whereas glass is a bad conductor of electricity?
resistance of wire is constant and is equal to 2.67 Ω. Give reason.
26. V (volts) 0.5 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5 3.0 3.5 4.0 (c) Why are alloys commonly used in electrical
heating devices? Give reason. [CBSE 2018]
I (amperes) 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6 0.7 0.8
Ans. (a) The factors on which the resistance of a conductor
Plot a graph between Current (I) and potential in the shape of wire depends
difference (V) and determine the resistance (R) of (i) L ength of the conductor: Resistance
the resistor. [CBSE 2018] is directly proportional to length of the
Ans. conductor.
4.0
B
(ii) Area of cross section of the wire: The
3.5 resistance is inversely proportional to area
3.0 of cross section of the wire.
2.5 (iii) The resistance of the conductor depends on
V (volt)
2.0 the nature of its material.

A
1.5 C
(iv) Temperature of the conductor: Resistance
1.0
is directly proportional to the temperature
0.5
of the conductor.
(b) Metals are good conductor of electricity as they
0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6 0.7 0.8
have free electrons to conduct whereas glass
I (ampere)
Resistance (R) of the resistor is a bad conductor of electricity as it does not
= Slope of V – I line allow electric current to pass through it due to
BC ∆V 3.5 − 1.5 2.0 non-availability of free electrons.
= = = = = 5 Ω. (c) The alloys are commonly used in electric heating
AC ∆I 0.7 − 0.3 0.4
device. This is because
27. (a) Keeping the potential difference constant, the (i) Alloy are combination of two or more metals.
resistance of a circuit is doubled. By what (ii) Its resistivity is higher than that of its
factor does the current change in the circuit? constituent metals.
(b) The voltage – current ( V – I) graph for (iii) It neither gets oxidised nor burn easily at
a conductor at two different temperature high temperature.
T1 and T2 (V–I) is shown. At which of the two (iv) It shows less rapid variations of resistivity
temperatures the resistance of the conductor due to change in temperature.
is higher? Justify your answer. [HOTS]
29. V-I graph for two conducting wires A and B are 31. (a) List the factors on which the resistance of
shown. If both wires are of the same length and a uniform cylindrical conductor of a given
same thickness, which of the two is made of a material depends.
material of high resistivity? Give justification for (b) The resistance of wire of 0.01 cm radius is 10 W.
your answer. [CBSE 2023] If the resistivity of the wire is 50 × 10–8 Wm,
A
find the length of this wire. [CBSE 2022]
Ans. (a) Resistance of a conductor depends upon
B (i) length of the conductor (l) [R ∝ l]
V (ii) Area of cross-section of the conductor (A).
1
=R ? G
A
(b) Radius of wire, r = 0.01 cm
I = 0.01 × 10–2 m = 10–4 m
Ans. Greater is the slope of V-I graph, greater will be the Resistance, R = 10 W
resistance of given metallic wire. In the given graph, Resistivity, r = 50 × 10–8 Wm
wire A has greater slope then B. Hence, wire A has l l Rπr 2
Using, R = ρ = ρ ⇒ l=
greater resistance. A πr 2 ρ
For the wires of same length and same thickness,
10 × 22 × (10 –4) 2 22
resistance depends on the nature of material of the ⇒ l= = = 0.628 m
wire, i.e. 7 × 50 × 10 –8 35
l l ⇒ l = 0.62 m
R1 = ρ1 and R2 = ρ 2
A A
R1 r A Long Answer
⇒ = 1 or R ∝ r L Type Question 5 Marks
R2 r2
Hence, wire ‘A’ is made of a material of high 32. (a) Draw a labelled circuit diagram of the circuit
resistivity. used to show the variation of potential
difference across the ends of a resistor with
30. The figure below shows three cylindrical copper
current flowing through it. If you use this
conductors along with their face areas and lengths.
circuit, what relation would you find between
Discuss in which geometrical shape the resistance
the voltmeter reading, V and the ammeter
will be highest. [CBSE Sample Paper 2018]
reading, I ?
(b) A wire of given material having length l and
A area of cross-section ‘A’ has a resistance of
A/3 4 W. Find the resistance of another wire of the
L
3L same material having length l/2 and area of
(a) (b) cross-section 2A. [CBSE 2021 (C)]
Ans. (a) Circuit diagram
K
3A + –
Battery
+
L/3
(c) A
Ans. For geometrical shape shown in –
L
Figure (a) Ra = ρ R
A
3L 9ρL
Figure (b) Rb = ρ d n= = 9Ra +
V
–
A/3 A The relation between ‘V ’ and ‘I ’ is
L/3 1 ρL 1
Figure (c) Rc = ρ d n= . = R V ∝ I or
V
= constant
3A 9 A 9 a I
Hence, Rb > Ra > Rc l
Since all the three conductors are of same material (b) For 1st wire, R1 = ρ1 = 4 W
A
i.e. copper. Hence, they have the same resistivity. For 2nd wire,
i.e. ra = rb = rc = r l/2 1 1
R2 = ρ = R1 ⇒ R2 = × 4 = 1 W
2A 4 4
Electricity 323
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. A piece of wire of resistance R is drawn to double R R
its length. The new resistance is
R + – + –
(a) R (b) 2R (c) 4 (d) V A
4
2. Two wires of equal length made of materials of – –
resistivity ratio 1 : 2 and area of cross-section A V
3 : 2 have the potential drop across them in the ratio + +
X : Y when connected in series. The ratio X : Y is + – + –
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 2 : 5 (c) 5 : 2 (d) 1 : 3
(A) (B)
3. A wire of length l, made of material resistivity r is + –
V
cut into two equal parts. The resistivity of each parts – + + –
is equal to V A
ρ
(a) r (b) (c) 2 r (d) 4 r
2 R R
4. Ohm’s law fails –
(a) if temperature and pressure are not kept constant A
(b) to explain the behaviour of semiconductor +
(c) to explain the phenomenon of electric arc + – + –
(d) all of above (C) (D)
5. The resistivity of copper is 1.7 × 10–8 Wm. What (b) Define resistance. Give its SI unit. [CBSE 2019]
length of copper wire of diameter 0.1 mm will have 7. (a) Explain why a conductor offers resistance to the
a resistance of 34 Ω? flow of current?
6. (a) Which one the following is the correct set-up for (b) Differentiate between conductor, resistor and
studying the dependence of the current on the resistance.
potential difference across a resistor and why?
TOPIC COVERED
Resistance of a System of Resistors
The correct set up is that of
Multiple Choice (a) student X only
Questions 1 Mark (b) student Y only
(c) student Z only
1. For determining the equivalent resistance of two (d) student X and Z
resistors R1 and R2 connected in series, three students 1
X, Y and Z set up their circuits as shown below: 2. If a person has five resistors each of value W,
R2 5
+
V
– then the maximum resistance he can obtain by
connecting them is
R2 (a) 1 W (b) 5 W
+ V R1 R1
– (c) 10 W (d) 25 W
+ – + – – +
A A 3. Two wires of same length and area made of two
(X) (Y) materials of resistivity r1 and r2 are connected in
+
V – series to a source of potential V. The equivalent
resistivity for the combination is
ρ1ρ 2
(a) r1 + r2 (b)
R2 R1 ρ1 + ρ 2
+
A (ρ1 + ρ 2) ρ + ρ2
– (c) (d) d 1 n
ρ1ρ 2 2
(Z)
4. Two bulbs of 100 W and 40 W are connected in 11. The equivalent resistance of the resistors connected
series. The current through the 100 W bulb is in parallel is
1 A. The current through the 40 W bulb will be: (a) greater than the greatest resistance
[CBSE 2020] (b) smaller than the smallest resistance
(a) 0.4 A (b) 0.6 A (c) 0.8 A (d) 1 A (c) sum of all the resistance
5. In series combination of resistors, the flow of (d) multiple of all the resistance
current across each resistor is 12. Magnitude of current in different branches of the
(a) initially increases then decreases parallel combination is
(b) increases continuously (a) same in each branch
(c) decreases continuously (b) different in different branches
(d) remains the same (c) divides as per number of branches
6. In your daily life experience, which of the following (d) none of the above
is not used in series combination? 13. The total current in parallel combination of three
(a) Decorative bulbs resistors is
(b) Fuses I +I
(a) I = I1 + I2 + I3 (b) I = 1 2
(c) Domestic appliances I3
(d) All of them (c) I = (I1 + I2) × I3 (d) I = I1 + I2 – I3
7. Pick out the incorrect statement from the following 14. To get 2 W resistance, using only 6 W resistors, the
about series combination of resistors. number of them required is
(a) The current across each resistor is the same. (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6
(b) The potential difference is same across each 15. Two devices are connected between two points say
resistor A and B in parallel. The physical quantity that will
(c) Equivalent resistance is larger than the largest remain the same between the two points is
resistor (a) current (b) voltage
(d) It is used to decrease the current in the circuit. (c) resistance (d) none of these
8. Three resistors of resistance 1 W, 2W and 3 W are
connected in series combination and draw the Answers
current 0.5 A from the power source. The potential
difference across the combination is
1 1. (d)
(a) 3 V (b) 12 V (c) V (d) 6 V 2. (a) For maximum resistance, all resistors should be
12
connected in series.
9. Raman wants to draw the graph to show how the \ Rs = R1 + R2 + R3 + R4 + R5
resistivity (r) of a wire change with length (l) of 1 1 1 1 1
the wire. What should his graph look like? = + + + +
5 5 5 5 5
(a) (b) 5
= =1W
5
2l
r(Wm)
r(Wm)
3. (d) R = ρ. = R1 + R2
A
2l l l l
ρ. = ρ1 + ρ 2 = (r1 + r2)
l(m) l(m) A A A A
(c) (d) ρ + ρ2
r = 1
2
4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (b)
r(Wm)
r(Wm)
8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (c) 11. (b)

12. (b) 13. (a)
l(m) l(m) 14. (b) Three resistors of 6 W is required to get 2 W
10. The resistor R1 and R2 are connected in parallel because resultant is less than individual resistance
the equivalent resistance of the combination is when connected in parallel.
(a) R1 + R2 (b) R1 – R2 15. (b) In parallel combination voltage remains same
R1R 2 R + R2 across two points.
(c) (d) 1
R1 + R 2 R1R 2
Electricity 325
(c) Find the potential difference across the
V S A Very Short Answer terminals of the battery.
Ans. (a) P.d across 6 Ω = 12 V
16. Apply Ohm’s law to obtain the relation for ∴ Current through 6 Ω,
combined resistance when three resistors R1, R2 V 12
and R3 are connected in series. I = = =2A
R 6
Ans. Series combination: Consider a system in which three As R and 6 Ω are connected in series. So, the
resistances, R1, R2 and R3 respectively are connected current through R is 2 A.
in series with the cell as shown in figure. V 6
Using Ohm’s law, R = = =3Ω
I 2
(b) Reading of ammeter = 2 A
(c) P.d across the terminals of the battery
V = V1 + V2
= 6 + 12 = 18 V
19. Two resistors 3 Ω and unknown resistor are
Let V be the potential difference maintained by the cell connected in a series across a 12 V battery. If the
across the combination and I be the current flowing voltage drop across the unknown resistor is 6 V, find
through each resistor. (a) potential across 3 Ω resistance
Using Ohm’s law, potential difference across each (b) the current through unknown resistor ‘R’
resistor is (c) equivalent resistance of the circuit.
V1 = IR1, V2 = IR2, V3 = IR3 Ans. (a) Same current will flow through each resistor of
but V = V1 + V2 + V3 series combination, the potential drop across both
IRS = IR1 + IR2 + IR3 = I(R1 + R2 + R3) 3 W resistor will be same (V1 = V2). In series,
⇒ RS = R1 + R2 + R3 applied potential,
where RS is the equivalent resistance of the series V = V1 + V2 + V3
combination. ⇒ 12 = V1 + V1 + 6
17. Draw a schematic diagrams of an electric circuit 2V1 = 12 – 6
comprising of 3 cells and an electric bulb, ammeter, V1 = 3 volt
plug-key in the ON mode and another with same
components but with two bulbs in parallel and a
voltmeter across the combination.
Ans.
B1
B
B2
(b) Current through 3 W resistance
+ V – V 3
I = = =1A
R 3
– A + + –
– A+ + –
So, current through unknown resistance R is 1 A.
K V (c) Unknown resistance
(3 cells) V V 6
(3 cells) R = = =6W
I 1
A Short Answer \ Equivalent resistance,
S Type Questions 3 Marks Rs = R1 + R2 + R3
= 3 + 3 + 6 = 12 W.
18. A circuit is shown in the diagram given below.
20. Consider the following circuit: [CBSE 2018(C)]
V
+ –
5W 8W + – 12 W
A
(a) Find the value of R. +

6V
–
(b) Find the reading of the ammeter.
What would be the readings of the ammeter and 23. Answer the questions based on the electric circuit
the voltmeter when key is closed? Give reason to shown below. All the four bulbs are identical.
justify your answer. [CFPQ, CBSE]
Ans. All the resistor are connected in series V1
\ R = R1 + R2 + R3 = 5 + 8 + 12 = 25 W
V 6 Bulb 1
Current, I = = = 0.24 A
R 25
Hence current through 12 W resistor
A
6
= = 0.24 A
25 Bulb 2
Hence, reading of voltmeter
6 72 V2
V = IR = × 12 = Bulb 3
25 25
or V = 2.88 V Bulb 4
+ –
21. Series arrangements are not used for domestic
circuits. List any three reasons. (a) How does the voltage reading on voltmeter 1
Ans. Series arrangements are not used for domestic circuit compare with the voltage reading on voltmeter
because 2?
(i) The electrical appliances need current of widely (b) Identify the bulb(s) through which a current
different values to operate properly. equal to the reading on the ammeter flows.
(ii) In series arrangement, when one component fails, Ans. (a) The voltage reading on voltmeter 1 will be the
the circuit is broken and none of the components same as the reading on voltmeter 2.
works. (b) • Bulb 3, and • Bulb 4
(iii) All electrical appliances work at a constant 24. Deduce the expression for the equivalent resistance
voltage. But in series circuit, the current of the parallel combination of three resistors R1,
is constant throughout the electric circuit R2 and R3.
and potential is different across the different Ans. Consider the following parallel circuit shown
components. So, series arrangement is not below :
suitable for domestic circuits.
22. You have three resistors of resistance R W each
and a battery of ‘E’ volts. How would you connect
these resistors with a battery to obtain maximum
current? Draw circuit diagram to illustrate your
answer and also calculate the current drawn from
the battery. [CBSE 2016]
Ans. All three resistors should be connected in parallel [Parallel circuit]
with the battery to obtain the maximum current. Let I1, I2 and I3 be the current flow through the resistor
RW
R1, R2 and R3 connected in parallel.
Using Ohm’s law, current through each resistor is
RW V V V
I1 = , I2 = and I3 =
R1 R2 R3
I RW I
Let their equivalent resistance be RP then
V
V = IRP ⇒ I =
RP
Total current through the circuit is
E
The equivalent resistance of the combination I = I1 + I2 + I3
1 1 1 1 3 V V V V
= + + = or = + +
Rp R R R R RP R1 R2 R3
R
⇒ Rp = V 1 1 1
3 or = Ve + + o
RP R1 R2 R3
By Ohm’s law
V E 3E 1 1 1 1
I = = = or = + +
R R/3 R RP R1 R2 R3
Electricity 327
25. Consider the following electric circuit : 10 R1 = (9 R1 + 30)
5V
Thus, R1 = 30 ohm.
27. R1 = 7 W R3 = 6 W
+
V = 24 V R2 = 10 W R4 = 4 W
–
(a) Which two resistors are connected in series?

(b) Which two resistors are connected in parallel? Calculate the total resistance of the circuit and
(c) If every resistor of the circuit is of 2 Ω, what find the total current in the circuit.
current will flow in the circuit? [HOTS] [CBSE Sample Paper 2022]
Ans. For the given circuit Ans. R 3 and R 4 are in series. Hence their equivalent
(a) R5 and R4 with Parallel combination of R2 and resistance
R3 are in series RS = R3 + R4
1
(b) R2 and R3 are in parallel. = 6 + 4 = 10 W
(c) R2 and R3 in parallel gives Rp = 1 Ω Now R2 and RS are in parallel
1
Rp, R5 and R4 are in series. So, Req = 5 Ω R2 . RS1
\ Rp =
R1 is not to be taken as it is shorted. R2 + RS1
V 5
Current flowing = I = = =1A 10 × 10 100
Req 5 = = =5W
10 + 10 20
26. 6W Now R1 and Rp are in series
\ Rs = R1 + Rp = 7 + 5 = 12 W
V
2A A 5W 10 W R1 By Ohm’s law, I =
Rs
–
30 V
+ 6W 24
= =2A
In the above circuit, if the current reading in the 12
ammeter A is 2A, what would be the value of R1? 28. Find the current following through the following
[CBSE Sample Paper 2022] electric circuit. [CBSE 2022C]
1W 2W 6W
Ans. 5 ohm, 10 ohm and R1 are in parallel
1 1 1 1
= + +
Rp 5 10 R1
]2 + 1g 1
2W
1 3 1
= + = +
Rp 10 R1 10 R1
1 _3R1 + 10i + –
=
Rp 10R1 4V
10R1 Ans. Both 2 W are in parallel combination
Rp = 1 1 1
_3R1 + 10i
\ = +
Rp R1 R
Now, 6 ohm, 6 ohm and Rp are in series 1 1 2
10R1 = + = =1
2 2 2
Thus, Req = 12 + ...(1)
(3R1 + 10) Rp = 1 W
V = IReq Now, 1 W, Rp and 6 W are in series
From the circuit \ Rs = 1 + Rp + 6 = 1 + 1 + 6 = 8 W
30 So, current in the circuit, from Ohm’s law
Req = = 15 W...(2)
2 V 4V
I = = = 0.5 A
Equating (1) and (2) Rs 8Ω
10R1
12 + = 15 29. List three advantage of connecting electrical
(3R1 + 10) appliances in parallel with the mains instead of
10R1 connecting them in series. [CBSE 2022(C)]
=3
(3R1 + 10)
Ans. Three advantages are 31. Find the current drawn from the battery by the
(i) Proper voltage to every appliances. network of four resistors shown in the figure.
(ii) Separate switches for each appliances. [CBSE 2015]
(iii) If one appliances fail other remains functional.
30. Calculate the electric current in the given circuit 10 W
10 W
when
(a) key K1 is open and K2 is closed
(b) both the keys are closed
10 W
(c) K1 is closed and K2 is open [HOTS] 10 W
3V
Ans. Equivalent resistance of the given network is
1 1 1
= +
R R4 R1 + R2 + R3
Ans. (a) Key K1 is open and K2 is closed, then no current 1 1
= +
flows in the circuit as circuit is an open circuit. 10 10 + 10 + 10
(b) Both the keys are closed : Current flows through 1 1 3+1 4
= + = =
the circuit. 10 30 30 30
30
\ R = = 7.5 W
4
Current drawn from the battery
V 3 30 2
I = = = =
R 7.5 75 5
⇒ I = 0.4 A
32. Show how would you join three resistors, each of
resistance 9 W so that the equivalent resistance of
the combination is (a) 13.5 W, (b) 6 W? [CBSE 2018]
Ans. (a) When two 9 W resistances are in parallel and the
Equivalent resistance of the circuit, third is in series combination to this, the equivalent
1 1 1 resistance will be 13.5 W as shown below:
= + 9W
R R1 + R2 R3 + R4
9W
1 1
= + 9W
4+ 4 4 + 4
1 1 2 1 1 1 1
= + = = = +
8 8 8 4 R R1 R2
So, R =4Ω 1 1 1 2
Electric current, = + =
V 12 Rp 9 9 9
I = = =3A 9
R 4 Rp = W = 4.5 W
2
(c) K1 is closed and K2 is open
Rs = Rp + R3= 4.5 + 9 = 13.5 W
When K2 is open, the part ADB will become an
(b) When two 9 W resistances are in series and the
open circuit, So no current will flow in the ADB
third is in parallel to them, then it will be 6 W.
part. 9W 9W
∴ Net resistance of circuit,
R = R1 + R2 = 4 + 4 = 8 Ω
A 9W B
∴ Electric current,
V 12 3 For series, Rs = R1 + R2 = 9 + 9 = 18 W
I = = = = 1.5 A
R 8 2 For parallel,
Electricity 329
1 1 1 1 1 3 1 Which of the two diagrams correctly represents
= + = + = = the labels ‘series and parallel’ on the plotted
Rp R s R3 18 9 18 6
curves? Justify your answer. [HOTS]
Therefore, Rp = 6 W (b) Find the equivalent resistance across the two
33. Find the equivalent resistance across the two ends ends A and B of the following circuit.
A and B of this circuit. [HOTS] 5W
5W 5W
A B
5W
Ans. (a) In series, the resistances are added so, the
equivalent resistance will be more than the case
when they are connected in parallel. Also the slope
(V/I) of given V – I graph gives the resistance.
Slope (V/I) is more for series and less for parallel
in ‘A’. So graph ‘A’ is correct.
(b)
Ans. The equivalent resistance of the resistors R1 and R2

in parallel between A and C is
1 1 1 1 1 2
= + = + = =1
R AC R1 R2 2 2 2
R2 and R3 are in series, so
∴ RAC = 1 Ω
R = R2 + R3
Similarly, between B and C, s
1 1 1 1 1 = 5 + 5 = 10 Ω
= + = + =1 R1, Rs and R4 are in parallel. So
R BC R3 R 4 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
= + + = + +
∴ RBC = 1 Ω RP R1 R s R4 5 10 5
Now, RAC and RBC are joined in series 1 5
∴ R′ = RAC + RBC = 1 + 1 = 2 Ω =
RP 10
Parallel combination of R8 and R7 between A and D
gives or R P = 2 Ω
RAD = 1 Ω
and parallel combination of R5 and R6 between D and L A Long Answer
B gives Type Questions 5 Marks
RDB = 1 Ω
35. In the given circuit, A, B, C and D are four lamps
The equivalent resistance of series combination of
connected with a battery of 60V.
RAD and RDB is
R″ = RAD + RDB = 1 + 1 = 2 Ω
R′ and R″ are connected in parallel.
The equivalent resistance is 60 V
1 1 1 1 1
= + = + =1 3A 5A
Req Rl Rll 2 2
A B C D
∴ Req = 1 Ω 4A 3A
34. (a) Two students perform the experiments on
series and parallel combinations of two given
resistors R1 and R2 and plot the following V-I Analyse the circuit to answer the following
graphs. questions. [CBSE Sample Paper 2021]
Series Parallel (i) What kind of combination are the lamps
V V arranged in (series or parallel)?
Parallel Series
(ii) Explain with reference to your above answer,
what are the advantages (any two) of this
combination of lamps?
(iii) Explain with proper calculations which lamp
I I
(A) (B)
glows the brightest?
(iv) Find out the total resistance of the circuit.
Ans. (i) The lamps are in parallel. (1 Mark) Ans. (a) R1 and R2 are in parallel
(ii) Advantages: 1 1 1
\ = +
If one lamp is faulty, it will not affect the working Rp R1 R2
of the other lamps. They will also be using the R1R2
full potential of the battery as they are connected ⇒ Rp= =3 …(i)
R1 + R2
in parallel. (1 Mark)
(iii) The lamp with the highest power will glow the When R1 and R2 are in series combination,
brightest. (1 Mark) Rs = R1 + R2 = 16 W …(ii)
P = VI From equation (i) and (ii), we get
In this case, all the bulbs have the same voltage. R1 R2 = 3(R1 + R2)
But lamp C has the highest current. = 3 × 16 = 48 W …(iii)
Hence, for Lamp C, Using,
P = 5 × 60 Watt (1 Mark) (R1 – R2)2 = (R1 + R2)2 – 4R1 R2
= 300 W. (the maximum). = (16)2 – 4 × 48 = 64
(iv) The total current in the circuit = 3 + 4 + 5 + 3 A ⇒ R1 – R2 = 8 …(iv)
= 15A(1 Mark) On solving equation (ii) and (iv), we get
The Voltage = 60 V R1 = 12 W and R2 = 4 W
V 60 V (b) When R1 and R2 are in parallel, Rp = 3 W
V = IR and hence R = = =4W
I 15 A From Ohm’s law,
V 24
[CBSE Marking Scheme] \ Ip = = =8A
Rp 3
36. (a) When two resistors of resistance R1 and R2
are connected in parallel, the net resistance When R1 and R2 are in series, Rs = 16 W
is 3 W. When connected in series its value is V 24 3
\ Is = = = = 1.5 A
16 W. Calculate the value of R1 and R2. Rs 16 2
(b) Calculate the ratio of current drawn in both 3
the cases from the power supply of 24 V. \ Ip : Is = 8 : = 16 : 3
2
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. A wire of resistance 20 W is bent in the form of a V
circle. The effective resistance between two points 3W 2W
at the ends of any diameter of the circle is A B C D
A
1W
(a) 10 W (b) 40 W
(c) 5 W (d) 20 W
2. The two identical resistors are connected first in series
and then in parallel respectively. The ratio of their + –
equivalent resistance would be
3V
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 1 : 4 6. (a) Draw a circuit diagram to show how two resistors
(c) 2 : 3 (d) 3 : 2 are connected in parallel?
3. If four identical resistors, of resistance 8 ohm, are (b) In the above circuit, if the two resistors are 5 W
first connected in series so as to give an effective and 10 W respectively, how does the potential
resistance Rs and then connected in parallel so as difference across each resistor compare?
to give an effective resistance Rp, then the ratio of 7. Two students perform experiments on two given
Rs resistors R1 and R2 and plot the V–I graph shown by
is [CBSE 2023]
Rp diagram 1 and 2. If R1> R2, which of two diagrams
correctly represent the situation on the plotted curves?
(a) 32 (b) 12
Justify your answer.
(c) 0.5 (d) 16 Diagram - 1 Diagram - 2
4. A 9 Ω resistance is cut into three equal parts and R1 R2
connected in parallel. Find the equivalent resistance V V
of the combination.
R2 R1
5. How would the reading of voltmeter (V) change if it is
connected between ‘B’ and ‘C’? Justify your answer.
I I
Electricity 331
8. Five resistors are connected in a circuit as shown. 11. (a) Find the value of current I in the circuit given
Find the ammeter reading when circuit is closed. below:
(b) You have four resistors of 8 Ω each. Show

how would you connect these resistors to have
9. Three V–I graphs are drawn individually for two effective resistance of 8 Ω. [HOTS]
resistors and their series combination. Out of A, B, C
12. (a) Find the minimum resistance that can be made
which one represents the graph for series combination
using four resistors, each of 20 W.
of the other two? Give reason for your answer.
(b) Study the following circuit and find :
C – +
V
B
R2 = 10 W R5 = 10 W
V (volts)
A
R1 = 5 W
+ R3 = 4 W R4 = 6 W
A
–
I (A)
10. (a) Identify the type of combination in which R1 and
R2 are connected in the given circuit diagram.
R1 = 3 W
20 V K
(i) Effective resistance of the circuit
+ – (ii) Current drawn from the battery
(iii) Potential difference across the 5 W resistor
[CBSE 2022]
R2 = 6 W
(b) Find the effective resistance of the combination.
TOPIC COVERED
Heating Effect of Electric Current
3. Elements of electric heating devices, such as bread
Multiple Choice toasters and electric iron are generally made up of
Questions 1 Mark (a) metal (b) non-metal
(c) alloy (d) tin
1. The resistance of resistor is reduced to half of its
4. According to Joule’s law of heating, the heat
initial value. If other parameters of the circuit
produced in a resistor in time t is
remain unchanged, the amount of heat produced
(a) H = I 2Rt (b) H = IR 2t
in the resistor will become [CBSE 2023, 20] 2
(c) H = V It (d) All of these
(a) four times (b) two times
(c) half (d) one fourth 5. Which of the following is used almost exclusively
for filaments of electric lamp?
2. In a resistive circuit if the current is increased to
(a) Copper
two times, the percentage change in the amount
(b) Silver
of heat dissipated in the circuit would be:
(c) Tungsten
(a) 400% (b) 300%
(d) Titanium
(c) 200% (d) 100%
6. Water boils in an electric kettle in 18 minutes
after switching on. If the length of heating wire is
decreased to 1/3rd of its initial value, then the same
amount of water will boil with the same supply of 11. Explain the role of fuse in series with any electrical
voltage in appliance in an electric circuit. Why should a fuse
(a) 6 minutes (b) 12 minutes with defined rating for an electric circuit not be
(c) 54 minutes (d) 18 minutes replaced by one with a larger rating?
7. 50 J heat is produced each second in a 2 W resistor. Ans. Fuse wire is a safety device connected in series with
The potential difference across the resistor is the live wire of circuit. It has high resistivity and low
(a) 10 V (b) 25 V melting point. It melts when a sudden urge of large
(c) 50 V (d) 100 V current passes through it and disconnects the entire
8. An electric fuse is based on circuit from the electrical supply. But, in case if we
(a) the chemical effect of current use a larger rating instead of a defined rating, then it
(b) the magnetic effect of current will not protect the circuit as high current will easily
(c) the heating effect of current pass through it and it will not melt.
(d) none of these 12. In what time is 400 joules of heat produced across
9. The fuse wire should have a a 16 W resistor at 80 V potential difference?
(a) low melting point (b) high resistance Ans. Given: H = 400 J, t = ?, R = 16 W, V = 80 V
(c) high melting point (d) both (a) and (b) V2t 80 2 × t
10. Which circuit shows the correct and safe position Using, H = ⇒ 400 =
R 16
for the fuse and switch?
400 × 16
(a) Live wire (b) Live wire ⇒ t = or t = 1 s
80 2
A Short Answer
Neutral wire Neutral wire
(c) Live wire (d) Live wire 13. State the factors on which the heat produced in
a current carrying conductor depends. Give one
practical application of this effect.
Neutral wire Ans. • According to Joule’s law of heating effect, the
Neutral wire
heat (H) produced in a current carrying conductor
depends upon
Answers (i) square of current pass through it (H ∝ I 2).
(ii) resistance of the conductor (H ∝ R).
1. (b) Heat produced, (iii) time for which current is passed in conductor
1 (H ∝ t).
H ∝ (Q V = Constant)
R • Practical application of heating effect
H1 R (i) Electric heater (ii) Fuse (Any one)
\ = 2
H2 R1 14. A fuse wire melts at 5 A. If it is desired that the
R/2 1 fuse wire of the same material melt at 10 A, then
= =
R 2 should the new fuse wire be of smaller or larger
\ H2 = 2H1 radius than the earlier one? Give reason for your
2. (b) The percentage change in heat dissipation answer.
Ans. Let the resistance of fuse wire that melts at 5 A be
Hl – H I l2 – I 2
= e o × 100 = f p × 100 R1. Then heat produced every seocnd is,
H I2 H = I 12 R1 = 52R1 = 25R1 …(i)
= 3 × 100 = 300% Let the resistance of new fuse wire for current I2 be
3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (a) R2. For the same heat,
7. (a) From Joule’s law of heating, H = I 22 R2 = 102R2 = 100R2 …(ii)
V2t HR 50 × 2 From equation (i) and (ii), we have
H = I 2Rt = ⇒ V2 = =
R t 1 100R2 = 25R1
V 2 = 100 ⇒ V = 10 V R2 1
⇒ =
8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (a) R1 4
Electricity 333
1 (b) An electric heater of resistance 15 W draws
But R ∝ (A = Area of cross-section 5 A current from the service mains in 1.5 hours.
A of wire) Calculate the rate at which heat is developed
R2 A1 1

\ = = ⇒ A2 = 4A1 in the heater.
R1 A2 4 Ans. (a) When small magnitude of current flows through

⇒ pr22 = 4pr12 ⇒ r2 = 2r1 the fuse wire, small amount of heat is produced.
Therefore, the radius of new fuse wire would be larger This amount of heat is not enough to melt the
and twice that of earlier one. fuse wire and transmitted to the surroundings.
(b) The rate at which heat is developed
15. (a) Why does the fuse wire not break when the H I 2 Rt
allowed magnitude of current flows in the = = I2R = (5)2 × 15
circuit? t t
= 25 × 15 = 375 Js–1
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Heat produced in a wire of resistance R due to current 4. An electric heater of resistance 6 W is operated for
flowing at constant potential difference for a given 10 minutes on a 220 V supply line. Calculate the
time is proportional to amount of heat energy liberated in that time.
(a) R2 (b) R 5. A current of 3 A passing through a conductor produce
1 90 J of heat in 10 seconds. What is the resistance of
(c) (d) R
R that conductor?
2. A coil develops heat at the rate of 800 Js–1 when 6. (a) State the working principle of an electric fuse.
20 volt is applied across its end. The resistance of (b) Out of 5 A fuse and 15 A fuse which will you
the coil is prefer to use for the lighting circuit?
(a) 40 W (b) 20 W (c) Given reason:
(c) 2 W (d) 0.2 W (i) Electric bulbs are usually filled with
3. Mention two practical disadvantages of heating effect chemically inactive gases.
of electric current. (ii) Fuse wire is placed in series with the device.
TOPICS COVERED
Electric Power and Energy
4. For maximum power consumption, all given
Multiple Choice resistors should be connected in
Questions 1 Mark (a) parallel
(b) series
1. If R1 and R2 be the resistance of the filament of (c) some in parallel and some in series
40 W and 60 W respectively operating 220 V, then (d) none of these
(a) R1 < R2 (b) R2 < R1
5. Which of the following does not represent electric
(c) R1 = R2 (d) R1 ≥ R2
power? [CBSE 2020]
2. The resistance of hot filament of the bulb is about (a) I 2R (b) IR2
10 times the cold resistance. What will be the (c) VI (d) V 2/R
resistance of 100 W-220 V lamp, when not in use?
6. One kilowatt hour is equal to
(a) 48 W (b) 400 W
(a) 36 × 106 J (b) 3.6 × 106 J
(c) 484 W (d) 48.4 W
(c) 0.36 × 106 J (d) all of these
3. If P and V are the power and potential of device,
7. If R1 and R2 are respectively the filament resistances
the power consumed with a supply potential V1 is
of a 200 W bulb and 100 W bulb design to operate
V2 V2
(a) 1 P (b) P on the same voltage, then
V2 V12 (a) R1 = 4R2 (b) R2 = 4R1
V V (c) R2 = 2R1 (d) R1 = 2R2
(c) P (d) 1 P
V1 V
8. Two heater wires of same length and same material P1 R
but of different thickness are connected in series = 2
P2 R1
across a power supply. The power dissipated will be
R2 P
(a) more in thicker wire
\ = 1
(b) more in thinner wire R1 P2
(c) same in both 1000 1
= =
(d) cannot say 2000 2
⇒ 2R2 = R1
Answers So room heater has greater resistance.
11. In the circuit given below:
V2 V2
1. (b) Using power, P = or R =
R P
1
For the same voltage, R ∝
P
More the power, lesser the resistance.
Accordingly, R2 < R1
V2 220 × 220
2. (c) R= = = 484 W
P 100
(a) Would any bulb glow when plug key is in open
V2 V2 V2 position?
3. (a) R= and P1 = 1 = 1 P
P R V2 (b) Write the order of brightness of the bulb when
1 key is closed. Give reason.
4. (a) For the same voltage, P ∝
R Ans. (a) No bulb will glow when the plug key is in open
position because no current will flow through the
5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (b)
circuit.
V S A Very Short Answer (b) Power of bulb, P = I2R
Type Questions 2 Marks for the same current P ∝ R
1 1
but for the same voltage P ∝ or R ∝
9. The wattage of a bulb is 24 W when it is connected R P
to a 12 V battery. Calculate its effective wattage if So, resistance order of all bulb is,
it operates on a 6 V battery (Neglect the change in R25 > R40 > R60
resistance due to unequal heating of the filament According to Jule’s law of heating, H ∝ R (for
in the two cases). [CBSE 2011] the same current and time)
Ans. Given: P1 = 24 W, V1 = 12 V, P2 = ?, V2 = 6 V Hence, order of heating produced is
V2 H25 > H40 > H60
Using P =
R which is order of brightness of the bulbs when
P1 V12 key is closed.
= 12. The electric power consumed by a device may
P2 V 22
be calculated by either of the two expression
V2

⇒ P2 = f p × P1 P = I2R or P =
V2
. The first expression indicates
V1 R
6 2 1 that it is directly proportional to R whereas the
= e o × 24 = × 24 = 6 W second expression indicates inverse proportionality.
12 4
How can the seemingly different dependence of P
10. For the same potential difference, out of the two, on R in these expression be explained?
a room heater of 1000 W and an electric motor of Ans. (a) In series, the current in each resistor is same and
2 kW, which has a greater resistance? constant. Therefore, P = I 2R is used for series
Ans. Power of room heater = 1000 W = P1 connection.
Power of electric motor = 2 kW = 2000 W = P2 (b) In parallel, voltage across each resistance is same
V2 V2
Using P = and constant. Therefore P = is used where
R R
For same potential resistors are connected in parallel combination.
Electricity 335
A Short Answer V2
S Type Questions 3 Marks large. We know that P = . Since V is constant,
R
13. (a) It would cost a man Rs. 3.50 to buy 1.0 kWh R should be decreased. Since R is directly
of electrical energy from the Main Electricity proportional to l so length of heating element
Board. His generator has a maximum power of should be decreased.
2.0 kW. The generator produces energy at this 14. An electric motor rated 1100 W is connected to
maximum power for 3 hours. Calculate how 220 V mains. Find:
much it would cost to buy the same amount (i) The current drawn from the mains.
of energy from the Main Electricity Board. (ii) Electric energy consumed if the motor is used
(b) A student boils water in an electric kettle for for 5 hours daily for 6 days.
20 minutes. Using the same mains supply he (iii) Total cost of energy consumed if the rate of
wants to reduce the boiling time of water. To one unit is ` 5. [CBSE 2022]
do so should he increase or decrease the length Ans. Given: Power, P = 110 W, V = 220 W
of the heating element? Justify your answer. P 1100 W
(i) Current drawn = I = = =5A
[CBSE Sample Paper 2022] V 220 V
Ans. (a) E =P×T (ii) E= P×t
So, E = 3 × 2 = 6 kWh = 1100 W × 5 h × 6 days
Cost of buying electricity from the main electricity = 33000 Wh = 33 kWh
board = 6 × 3.50 = ` 21.0 (iii) Cost of one commercial unit = ` 5
(b) To reduce the boiling time using the same mains Energy consumed = 33 kWh = 33 unit
supply, the rate of heat production should be = ` 33 × 5 = ` 165
A Long Answer
15. (a) Write two point of difference between electric energy and electric power.
(b) Out of 60 W and 40 W lamps, which one has higher electrical resistance when in use.
(c) What is the commercial unit of electric energy? Convert it into joules. [CBSE 2015, 16]
Ans. (a) Difference between electric energy and electric power:
Electrical energy Electric power
(i) The work done or energy supplied by the (i) The time rate at which electric energy is
source in maintaining the flow of electric consumed or dissipated by an electrical device
current is called electrical energy. It appears in is called electric power and is given by
the form of heat given by V2
2 P = VI = = I2R
V t R
H = VIt = = I2RT
R
(ii) It is equal to the product of power and time (ii) It equal to the rate of doing work by an energy
E=P×t source.
W
P=
t
(iii) Its SI unit is joule (J) (iii) Its SI unit is watt (W)
1 J = 1 W × 1s 1 W = 1 J s–1
(any two)
1 1
(b) For the same applied voltage, P ∝ or R ∝
R P
i.e. less the power of electrical device, higher is its electrical resistance.
Therefore, a 40 W lamp has higher electrical resistance when in use.
(c) Kilowatt hour – Commercial unit of electrical energy
J
1 kWh = 1000 Wh = 1000 × 3600 sec = 3600000 J = 3.6 × 106 J
S
16. (a) Define electric power. Express it in terms of Electrical energy dissipated
potential difference V and resistance R. =
Time (t)
(b) An electrical fuse is rated at 2A. What is meant
by this statement? VIt V2
= = VI =
(c) An electric iron of 1 kW is operated at 220 V. t R
Find which of the following fuses that (b) It means, the maximum current will flow through
respectively rated at 1 A, 3 A and 5 A can be it is only 2 A. Fuse wire will melt if the current
used in it. [CBSE 2014] exceeds 2 A value through it.
Ans. (a) Electric power: It is the rate of doing work by an (c) Given: P = 1 kW = 1000 W, V = 220 V
energy source or the rate at which the electrical P 1000 50
Current drawn, I = = = = 4.54 A
energy is dissipated or consumed per unit time V 220 11
in the electric circuit is called electric power. To run electric iron of 1 kW, rated fuse of 5 A
Work done (W)
So, Power P = should be used
Time (t)
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which of the following graph correctly shows the 4. An electric motor takes 5 A from 220 V line. Determine
variation in the dissipation of power ‘P’ current varies the power of a motor and the energy consumed in
with current ‘I’ for the same resistance? 2 hour.
(a) P (b) 5. (i) Define electric energy. In which form it appears?
P
(ii) What is the difference between kilowatt and
kilowatt hour?
6. (a) An electric kettle of 2 kW is used for 2 h. Calculate
the energy consumed in (i) Kilowatt hour
I I (ii) Joules. [CBSE 2022]
(c) (d) (b) When a constant current is for a time of t seconds,
P P
how can you increase the heat produced to four
times?
7. Calculate the total cost of running the following
electrical devices in the month of September, if the
I I rate of 1 unit of electricity is ` 6.00.
2. The watt is a (i) Electric heater of 1000 W for 5 hours daily.
(a) Js–1 (ii) Electric refrigerator of 400 W for 10 hours daily.
(b) V-A [CBSE 2018(C)]
(c) both (a) and (b) 8. A bulb is rated 40 W; 220 V. Find the current drawn
(d) neither (a) nor (b) by it when it is connected to a 220 V supply. Also
3. A 60 W electric lamp gives off energy in the form of find its resistance. If the given bulb is replaced by a
light at a rate of 7.5 joule per second. What percentage bulb of rating 25 W; 220 V, will there be any change
of energy does the lamp transform into light energy? in the value of current and resistance? Justify your
answer and determine the change. [CBSE 2019]

1. A boy records that 4000 joule of work is required to (a) < 100 W (b) < 4 W
transfer 10 coulomb of charge between two points (c) < 1 W (d) > 2 W
of a resistor of 50 W. The current passing through it 3. Two wires of same length and area, made of two
is (1 Mark) materials of resistivity r1 and r2 are connected in
(a) 2 A (b) 4 A (c) 8 A (d) 16 A parallel to a source of potential V. The equivalent
2. The least resistance obtained by using 2 W, 4 W, 1 W resistivity for the combination is (1 Mark)
and 100 W is (1 Mark)
Electricity 337
2ρ1ρ 2 13. (a) When a particle of charge 10 μC is brought from
(a) r1 + r2 (b) infinity to a point in the electric field, 10 mJ
ρ1 + ρ 2
ρ1 + ρ 2 ρ +ρ work is done by the external forces. What is the
(c) (d) 1 2 potential at that point?
2ρ1ρ 2 2
(b) Draw an electric circuit to describe Ohm’s law.
4. Two LED bulbs of 12 W and 6 W are connected in Label the circuit components used to measure
series. If the current through 12 W bulb is 0.06 A, electric current and potential difference. (3 Marks)
the current through 6 W bulb will be 14. (a) Write any three difference between the series and
[CBSE 2023] (1 Mark) parallel combination of resistance.
(a) 0.04 A (b) 0.06 A (c) 0.08 A (d) 0.12 A (b) A set of ‘n’ identical resistors each resistance R
5. An electric iron of 1500 W, 200 V and a flash light are connected in series and the effective resistance
of 500 W, 200 V are used in homes. The rating of is found to be ‘X’. When these are connected in
fuse to be used should be [CBSE 2023] (1 Mark) parallel, the effective resistance is found to be
(a) 5 A (b) 10 A (c) 15 A (d) 20 A ‘Y’. Find the ratio of X and Y. [HOTS] (3 Marks)
6. Two resistors connected to 100 V supply in parallel 15. (a) Though same current flows through the electric
draw 10 A current from the supply. If the power line wires and the filament of bulb, yet only the
dissipation in one resistor is 600 W, find filament glows. Why?
(i) power dissipation in the other. (b) The temperature of the filament of bulb is
(ii) resistance of each. (2 Marks) 2700 °C when it glows. Why does it not get burnt
7. Three resistors 3 W, 6 W and 9 W are connected to up at such high temperature?
a battery. In which of them power dissipation be (c) The filament of an electric lamp, which draws a
maximum, if, they are all connected in (i) parallel current of 0.25 A is used for four hours. Calculate
(ii) series. Give reasons. (2 Marks) the amount of charge flowing through the circuit.
(d) An electric iron is rated 2 kW at 220 V. Calculate
8. Two lamps, one rated 100 W at 220 V and the other
the capacity of the fuse that should be used for
60 W at 220 V, are connected in parallel to electric
the electric iron. (5 Marks)
mains supply of 220 V. Draw a circuit diagram to show
this arrangement and calculate the current drawn by 16. (a) How is electric current related to potential
the two lamps from the mains. difference across the terminals of a conductor?
[CBSE 2021(C)] (3 Marks) Draw the labelled circuit diagram to verify the
relationship.
9. List in a tabular form three differences between a
(b) Why should an ammeter have low resistance?
voltmeter and an ammeter. (3 Marks)
(c) Two V-I graph A and B for series and parallel
10. Consider the circuit shown in the diagram. Find the combination of two resistors as shown.
current in 3 Ω resistor. (3 Marks) B
A
I
V
11. Name the physical quantity which is (i) same Giving reason state which graph show (a) series
(ii) different in all the bulbs when three bulbs of : (b) parallel combination of the resistors.
(a) same wattage are connected in series. [CBSE 2023] (5 Marks)
(b) same wattage are connected in parallel. 17. (a) An electric iron consumes energy at a rate of
(c) different wattage are connected in series. 880 W when heating is at the maximum rate and
(d) different wattage are connected in parallel. 330 W when the heating is at the minimum. If
(3 Marks) the source voltage is 220 V, calculate the current
12. Two resistors with resistances 5 Ω and 10 Ω are to and resistance in each case.
be connected to a battery of emf 6 V so as to obtain: (b) What is heating effect of electric current?
(i) minimum current (ii) maximum current (c) Find an expression for the amount of heat
(a) How will you connect the resistances in each produced when a current passes through a resistor
case ? for some time. [CBSE 2023] (5 Marks)
(b) Calculate the strength of the total current in the
circuit in the two cases. [HOTS] (3 Marks)

In the following Questions, the Assertion and Reason 5. Assertion: In an open circuit, the current passes from
have been put forward. Read the statements carefully one terminal of the electric cell to another.
and choose the correct alternative from the following: Reason: Generally, the metal disc of a cell acts as a
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the positive terminal.
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. 6. Assertion: The statement of Ohm’s law is V = IR
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason: V = IR is the equation which defines
Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. resistance.
7. Assertion: Bending of wire decrease the resistance
of electric wire.
is true.
Reason: The resistance of a conductor depends on
1. Assertion: The metals and alloys are good conductors length, thickness, nature of material and temperature
of electricity. of the conductor.
Reason: Bronze is an alloy of copper and tin and it
8. Assertion: If a graph is plotted between potential
is not a good conductor of electricity. [CBSE 2020]
difference and current a linear graph is obtained.
2. Assertion: Alloys are commonly used in electrical Reason: Current is directly proportional to the
heating devices like electric iron and heater. potential difference. [KVS]
Reason: Resistivity of an alloy is generally higher
9. Assertion: A cell converts chemical energy into
than that of its constituent metals but the alloys have
electrical energy.
low melting points than their constituent metals.
Reason: A cell maintains a potential difference across
[CBSE 2020]
its terminals due to chemical reactions. [KVS]
3. Assertion: At high temperatures, metals wires have
10. Assertion: Thicker wires have smaller resistance and
a greater chance of short circuiting.
the thinner wires have greater resistance.
Reason: Both resistance and resistivity of a material
Reason: Resistance is inversely proportional to the
vary with temperature.
area of cross-section of wire.
4. Assertion: Conductors allow the current to flow
through themselves.
Reason: They have free charge carriers.
The following questions are source-based/case based question. Read the case carefully and answer the questions
that follow.
1. Study the following electric circuit in which the resistors are arranged in three arms A, B and C.
B
5W 10 W 15 W
A
5W 15 W 20 W
10 W 20 W 30 W
+ – –
A +
3V
(a) Find the equivalent resistance of arm C.
(b) Calculate the equivalent resistance of the parallel combination of the arm B and C.
(c) Determine the current that flows through the ammeter.
Or
(c) Determine the current that flows in the ammeter when the arm B is withdrawn from the circuit.[CBSE 2022]
Electricity 339
2. Consider the following electric circuit diagram in which nine identical resistors of 3 W each are connected as
shown. If the reading of the ammeter A1 is 1 ampere, answer the following questions:
+ V + 3W +
1 V2 A2
3W 3W 3W
+A 3W + A
1 3
3W
3W 3W 3W
(a) What is the relationship between the readings A1 and A3? Give reason for your answer.
(b) What is the relationship between the readings of A2 and A3?
(c) Determine the reading of the voltmeter V1.
Or
(c) Find the total resistance of the circuit. [CBSE 2023]
3. Electricity requires an electric path to flow and there resistive heating and superconducting. The materials
are many conducting materials used for this purpose. which have high resistivity are poor conductors of
There are non-conducting materials which are used electricity.
as insulation during working on live-lines. Materials are put into different categories according
Permanent indoor wiring is responsible for bringing to their level or resistivity. The material’s resistivity,
electricity throughout your home. In house hold wiring, in ohm-metre, measured at room temperature.
switches, holders and sockets should be fixed on The temperature often has a significant effect
wooden/sunmica boards and blocks. Nowadays, there on resistivity. For example, in metal conductors,
are many semiconducting materials which are used increased temperature causes the ions to vibrate more,
to reduce the voltage and also drop the current flow. which hinders the flow of electrons, causing resistivity
This will reduce our consumption of electrical energy. to increase.
(a) In which combination household wiring is done? (a) Arrange the following material in increasing order
(b) Write down the properties of copper and of resistivity.
aluminium and about their applications in Conductor, alloy, insulator and semiconductor.
electrical wiring. (b) The following table given below shows the
(c) Write the equation relating power to voltage and resistivity of three samples. Analyse the table
current, for an electrical resistance. Also, describe and find which one of these is the best conductor
what physical form this dissipated energy usually and best insulator?
takes. Sample Resistivity (Wm)
Or
(c) What is the effective resistance between A and X 3 × 10–8
B of the given circuit below?
A 4W 6W Y 11.1 × 10–6
Z 18 × 10+14
(c) How resistance of the conductor is related to its
temperature? Show it graphically.
B Or
4. Resistivity is a characteristic property of the material. (c) If we take a lot of copper metal of resistivity
It measures the resistance of a given dimensions 1.62 × 10–8 Wm and form a cube of side 1 m and
of a specific material to electrical conduction. The one square metre area of cross-section, then what
resistivity is a figure that enables comparisons of the will be its resistance?
way in which different materials allow or resist current 5. In 1827, a German physicist Georg Simon Ohm (1787-
flow. It is essential in many material applications 1854) gave the relationship between the current (I),
including resistors in electrical circuits, dielectrics, flowing in a metallic wire and the potential difference
(V) across its terminals. It is called Ohm’s Law. It are different, which one would you use as
states that “the potential difference (V), across the (i) resistance wire are (ii) connecting wire?
ends of a given metallic wire (nichrome) in an electric D
circuit is directly proportional to the current (I) flowing C
through it”. Temperature (T) remains constant.
V ∝I B
V = IR I
A
Where, R is a constant for the given metallic wire at
a given temperature and is called its resistance. V-I
graph is a straight line passing through the origin of V
the graph as shown: Or
(c) A lamp draws a current of 0.5 A when it is
connected to a 60 V source. What is the resistance
of filament of the bulb?
6. The circuit below consists of a variable resistor
connected in series with two 200 W resistors. The
variable resistor can be adjusted to any value between
0–400 W.
+
V –
(a) What is the resistance of the conductor whose

0 – 400 W 200 W 200 W
V-I graph is given below?
9 C + –
B 12 V
6
V(Volt)
A (a) What is the purpose of variable resistor in the

3 D
circuit?
0 5 10 15 20
(b) The maximum possible current in the circuit is
I(amp) 0.03 A. Calculate the minimum possible current.
(b) To verify the Ohm’s law, if number of cells in (c) As the resistance of the variable resistor is
series in the same circuit increases, what would changed, what is the (i) smallest and (ii) maximum
you observe in the ammeter and voltmeter possible reading on the voltmeter?
readings? Or
(c) The I-V graph for four conductors A, B, C (c) In which case, the power dissipation across
and D having resistance RA, RB, RC and RD 200 W resistor will be more:
respectively are shown here. If the dimensions of When variable resistor is at maximum value or
all the conductors are identical but their materials at minimum value? Justify it.
7. Observe the tables given below and answer the following questions.
Table – A Combination of resistor
Combination Circuit Equivalent resistance
R1
Parallel 1 1 1
A B = +
Req R1 R2
R2
R1 R2
Series Req = R1 + R2
A B
Electricity 341
Table – B Combination of resistance
Student Circuit Equivalent resistance
3Ω
2Ω
A 4Ω
6Ω
Circuit I
3.6 Ω 6Ω 3Ω
B 3.4 Ω
1Ω 4Ω
Circuit II
(a) Which student measured the wrong equivalent resistance in table B?

(b) Which physical quantity that will remain same across the combination of 3 Ω and 6 Ω in circuit-I and
combination of 6 Ω along with the combination of 1 Ω and 4 Ω in circuit-II.
(c) If both students connected their respective circuits through an external source, how can they measure the
current in the circuit?
Or
(c) In an electrical circuit, two resistor of 2 Ω and 4 Ω respectively are connected in series to a 6 V battery.
Calculate what amount of heat will be dissipated by the 4 W resistor in 5 seconds.
8. Study the table related to combination of resistors and answer the questions that follow on the basis of your
understanding and the related studied concepts.
Circuits consisting of just one battery and one load resistance are very simple to analyse, but they are not often
found in practical applications. Usually, we find circuits where more than two components are connected together
in different combinations. These combinations of resistors put the limit on the current that flow through the circuit.
After performing the experiments using two different types of circuit arrangements, the following observations
were made by them and find the resistance using Ohm’s law.
Resistor Number of Voltmeter Ammeter V
R=
Used Observation reading in reading in I
Volt (V) ampere (A) (in ohm)
(a) 0.01 0.01 1.0

R1
(b) 0.02 0.02 1.0
(a) 0.06 0.03 2.0

R2
(b) 0.08 0.04 2.0
(a) 0.03 0.01 3.0

Ist combination of R1 and R2
(b) 0.06 0.02 3.0
(a) 0.03 0.045 0.66

IInd combination of R1 and R2
(b) 0.06 0.09 0.66
(a) From observation, which combination represents series and parallel combination of the resistor R1 and R2?
(b) You will plot V vs I for each of the four circuits on one graph. What value should each slope have? (Note: I
on X-axis and V on Y-axis)
(c) Note that the measured currents across each resistor in parallel circuit were not the same. Which resistor had
the larger current going through it? Why?
Or
(c) Do you think the bulbs in the parallel circuit or the series circuit will burn brighter?
NCERT ZONE
Page 172 Ans. Resistance of a conductor depends upon:

1. What does an electric circuit mean? (i) Resistivity of the material.
Ans. Electric circuit is a continuous and closed path made (ii) Length of the conductor.
of conducting wires, through which the electric (iii) Cross-sectional area of the conductor.
current flows. It comprises a cell, ammeter, voltmeter, (iv) Temperature of the conductor.
plug key, etc. 2. Will current flow more easily through a thick wire
2. Define the unit of current. or thin wire of the same material, when connected
Ans. SI unit of electric current is ampere (A). to the same source? Why?
Ampere is the flow of electric charges through a Ans. The current flows more easily through a thick wire
surface at the rate of one coulomb per second, i.e. if than through a thin wire because the resistance of
1 coulomb of electric charge flows through a cross- thick wire is less than that of a thin wire as R ∝ 1/A.
section of wire for 1 second, then it would be equal 3. Let the resistance of an electrical component
to 1 ampere. remains constant while the potential difference
1C across the two ends of the component decreases
So, 1 ampere = i.e. 1A = 1 Cs–1
1s to half of its former value. What change will occur
3. Calculate the number of electrons constituting one in the current through it?
coulomb of charge. Ans. As we know that
Ans. Given q = 1 C, e = 1.6 × 10–19 C, n = ?, q = ne V
I=
1 C = n × 1.6 × 10–19 C R
1 V
n = = 6.25 × 1018 electrons if V′ =
2
–19
(1.6 × 10 )
Vl = V = I
Page 174 ⇒ I′ =
R 2R 2
1. Name a device that helps to maintain a potential Hence, the current through it also becomes half of its
difference across a conductor. [CBSE 2014] previous value.
Ans. Cell or battery eliminator. 4. Why are the coils of electric toasters and electric
2. What is meant by saying that the potential irons made of an alloy rather than a pure metal?
difference between two points is 1 V? Ans. The coils of electric toaster and electric iron are made
W of an alloy rather than a pure metal because of the
Ans. As we know that V =
q following reasons:
Thus, the potential difference between two points is (i) The resistivity of an alloy is higher than that of
one volt when one joule of work is done to carry a a pure metal.
charge of one coulomb between the two points in the (ii) It has high melting point and does not oxidise.
electric field. 5. Use the data in Table 11.2 of NCERT book to
3. How much energy is given to each coulomb of answer the following:
charge passing through a 6 V battery? (a) Which among iron and mercury is a better
Ans. q = 1 C; V = 6 V, conductor?
W (b) Which material is the best conductor?
V= ⇒ W=q×V
q Ans. (a) Iron because its resistivity is less than mercury.
So, Work done = 1 C × 6 V = 6 J (b) Silver is the best conductor as it has the least
As, Energy = Work done resistivity.
⇒ Energy = 6 J Page 185
Page 181 1. Draw a schematic diagram of a circuit consisting
of a battery of three cells of 2 V each, a 5 Ω resistor,
1. On what factors does the resistance of a conductor a 8 Ω resistor and a 12 Ω resistor and a plug key,
depend? [DoE] all connected in series.
Electricity 343
Ans. 5W 8W 12 W 1 1 1 1
= + +
R R1 R2 R3
1 1 1
= + +
100 50 500
5 + 10 + 1 16
= =
+ – + –+ – 500 500
500 125
2V 2V 2V R= = Ω
2. Redraw the circuit of the above question, putting 16 4
in an ammeter to measure the current through the Current through all the appliances
V 220 220 # 4
resistors and a voltmeter to measure the potential I== =
difference across the 12 Ω resistor. What would be R 125/4 125
the reading in the ammeter and the voltmeter? = 7.04 A
+
V
– Now if only electric iron is connected to the same
Ans. source such that it takes as much current as all three
5W 8W 12 W appliances, i.e. I = 7.04 A, its resistance should be
125
equal to Ω, i.e. 31.25 W.
4
3. What are the advantages of connecting electrical
devices in parallel with the battery instead of
connecting them in series ?
+ – + –+ – – +
A Ans. Advantages of connecting electrical devices in
2V 2V 2V parallel:
Total resistance of the circuit = R (i) When the appliances are connected in parallel
Since all the three resistors are connected in series, with the battery, each appliance gets the same
so, the equivalent resistance R is equal to the sum of potential difference as that of battery which is
all resistance i.e., not possible in series connection.
R = R1 + R2 + R3 (ii) Each appliance has different resistances and
R = 5 Ω + 8 Ω + 12 Ω = 25 Ω requires different currents to operate properly.
V = 2V+2V+2V=6V This is possible only in parallel connection, as
V = IR in series connection, same current flows through
V 6 all devices, irrespective of their resistances.
⇒ I= = = 0.24 A
R 25 (iii) If one appliance fails to work, other will
The reading of voltmenter across 12 Ω is continue to work property. If they are connected
V′ = IR′ = 0.24 × 12 = 2.88 V in parallel.
Page 188 4. How can three resistors of resistances 2 Ω, 3 Ω
1. Judge the equivalent resistance when the following and 6 Ω be connected to give a total resistance of
are connected in parallel. (a) 4 Ω (b) 1 Ω?
(a) 1 Ω and 106 Ω (b) 1 Ω and, 103 Ω, and, 106 Ω. Ans. (a) In order to get 4 Ω, resistance 2 Ω should be
Ans. Equivalent resistance in parallel combination of connected in series with the parallel combination
resistors is always less than the least resistance of of 3 Ω and 6 Ω.
3W
any resistor in the circuit.
Hence, in both the given cases, the equivalent
2W
resistance is less than 1 W.
A B C D
2. An electric lamp of 100 Ω, a toaster of resistance
6W
50 Ω, and a water filter of resistance 500 Ω are
connected in parallel to a 220 V source. What is 1 1 1 2 +1 3 1
= + = = =
the resistance of an electric iron connected to the RCD 3 6 6 6 2
same source that takes as much current as all three RCD = 2 Ω, RAB = 2 Ω
appliances, and what is the current flows through ⇒ RAD = RAB + RCD = 2 Ω + 2 Ω
it? = 4 Ω
Ans. R1 = 100 Ω, R2 = 50 Ω, R3 = 500 Ω (b) In order to get 1 Ω, all three resistors should be
All the applications are connected in parallel, so connected in parallel as
2W H = I2Rt
Thus, for the same current H ∝ R, more heat is
3W produced by heating element as it has more resistance,
A B and it glows.
6W 2. Compute the heat generated while transferring
96000 coulomb of charge in one hour through a
1 1 1 1 3+ 2 +1
= + + = =1 potential difference of 50 V.
R 2 3 6 6 Ans. Given q = 96000 C, V = 50 V, t = 1 h
R = 1Ω
H = I2Rt = VIt = Vq = 50 × 96000 = 48 × 105 J
5. What is (a) the highest (b) the lowest total resistance
that can be secured by combination of four coils 3. An electric iron of resistance 20 Ω takes a current
of resistances 4 Ω, 8 Ω, 12 Ω, 24 Ω? of 5 A. Calculate the heat developed in 30 s.
Ans. (a) The highest resistance is secured by combining Ans. Given R = 20 Ω, I = 5 A, t = 30 s
all four coils of resistance in series. H = I2Rt = (5)2 × 20 × 30 = 15000 J = 1.5 × 104 J
Rs = 4 Ω + 8 Ω + 12 Ω + 24 Ω = 48 Ω Page 192
(b) The lowest resistance is secured by combining 1. What determines the rate at which energy is
all four coils of resistance in parallel. delivered by a current?
1 1 1 1 1
= + + + Ans. Electric power determines the rate at which energy
RP 4 8 12 24 is delivered by a current.
6 + 3 + 2 + 1 12
= = 2. An electric motor takes 5 A from a 220 V line.
24 24
RP = 2 Ω Determine the power of the motor and the energy
Page 190 consumed in 2 h.
Ans. Given I = 5 A, V = 220 V, t = 2 h
1. Why does the cord of an electric heater not glow Power, P = VI = 220 × 5
while the heating element does? = 1100 W
Ans. The cord of an electric heater is made up of metallic Energy consumed,
wire such as copper or aluminium which has low E = P × t = 1100 × 2 × 60 × 60
resistance while the heating element is made up of an = 1100 × 7200
alloy which has more resistance than its constituent = 7.92 × 106 J
metals. Also heat produced ‘H’ is
NCERT EXERCISES
1. A piece of wire of resistance R is cut into five equal 3. An electric bulb is rated 220 V and 100 W. When
parts. These parts are then connected in parallel. it is operated on 110 V, the power consumed will
If the equivalent resistance of this combination is be
R′, then the ratio R/R′ is (a) 100 W (b) 75 W
1 1 (c) 50 W (d) 25 W
(a) (b) (c) 5 (d) 25
25 5 220 2
Ans. (d) On cutting, there will be 5 equal resistors of Ans. (d) R of bulb = .
100
R
Ω each. When they are connected in parallel V2 110 2
5 Power consumed at 110 V = =
the equivalent value will be R R
1 1 1 1 1 1 110 2
= + + + + = × 100 = 25 W.
Rl R/5 R/5 R/5 R/5 R/5 220 2
25 4. Two conducting wires of the same material and of
=
R equal lengths and diameters are first connected in
R R R series and then parallel in a circuit across the same
i.e. R′ = Ω. ⇒ = = 25.
25 Rl R/25 potential difference. The ratio of heat produced
2. Which of the following terms does not represent in series and parallel combinations would be
electrical power in a circuit? (a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1
(a) I2R (b) IR2 (c) VI (d) V2/R Ans. (c) Resistors are equal. So, power in series
V2 V2
Ans. (b) P = = I2R = VI. Hence, option (b) does not (Ps) = ...... (Rs = R + R = 2R)
R 2R
represent electrical power.
Electricity 345
V2 2V 2 Ans. 13 B
Power in parallel (PP) = = ......
(R/2) R 12
11
1 1 1 2
> = + = ` R P = R/2H 10
Rp R R R 9
8
1
So, PS : PP = : 2 = 1 : 4. 7
V (volt)
2 6
5. How is a voltmeter connected in the circuit to 5
measure the potential difference between two 4
3
points? A
2
Ans. A voltmeter is connected in parallel to a circuit with C
1
its +ve terminal to the point at higher potential and
–ve terminal to the point at lower potential. 0
0.5 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5 3.0 3.5 4.0
6. A copper wire has diameter 0.5 mm and resistivity I (ampere)
of 1.6 × 10–8 Ωm. What will be the length of this The slope of V-I graph is resistance.
wire to make its resistance 10 Ω? How much Change in V BC
So, resistance, R = =
does the resistance change if the diameter is Change in I AC
doubled? 13.2 – 1.6
0.5 =
Ans. d = 0.5 mm, r = × 10–3 m, 4 − 0.5
2 11.6
ρ = 1.6 × 10–8 Ω m, R = 10 Ω = = 3.314 Ω.
3.5
ρl
Using R= , 8. When a 12 V battery is connected across an
A
unknown resistor, there is a current of 2.5 mA in
Rπr 2 the circuit. Find the value of the resistance of the
we get l= ..... (A = pr2)
ρ resistor.
0.5 2 V
×c × 10 –3m
10 # 3.14
= Ans. V = IR ⇒ R =
1.6 # 10 – 8 2 I
= 122.6 m ≈ 123 m. 12
⇒ R= = 4800 Ω = 4.8 kΩ.
If the diameter is doubled radius of copper wire is 2.5 × 10 –3
also doubled. 9. A battery of 9 V is connected in series with resistors
A1 πr2 1 of 0.2 Ω, 0.3 Ω, 0.4 Ω, 0.5 Ω and 12 Ω, respectively.
\ = =
A2 π (2r) 2 4 How much current would flow through the 12 Ω
So, A2 = 4A1 resistor?
For the same length and same material wire, Ans. Rs = 0.2 + 0.3 + 0.4 + 0.5 + 12 = 13.4 Ω, V = 9 V,
1 V 9
R∝ Current drawn, I = = A = 0.67 A.
A R 13.4
R2 A Since all the resistors are in series, the same current,
we get, = 1 i.e. 0.67 A flows through the 12 Ω resistor.
R1 A2
A 1 10. How many 176 Ω resistors (in parallel) are
= 1 = required to carry 5 A on a 220 V line?
4A1 4
Ans. When N resistors each R Ω are in parallel,
1 R
\ R2 = R1 RP = .
4 N
Hence, the resistance becomes one-fourth of the Current drawn from cell,
original one. V VN
I= =
7. The values of the current I flowing in a given RP R
resistor for the corresponding values of potential IR 5 × 176
∴ N = = = 4.
difference V across the resistor are given below: V 220
I (amperes) 0.5 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0 11. Show how you would connect three resistors, each
V (volts) 1.6 3.4 6.7 10.2 13.2 of resistance 6 Ω, so that the combination has a
Plot a graph between V and I and calculate the
resistance of
resistance of that resistor. (i) 9 Ω, (ii) 4 Ω.
Ans. (i) When two 6 Ω resistances are in parallel and 6
the third is in series combination to this, the Ans. (i) I = =2A
1+ 2
equivalent resistance will be 9 Ω. Since current flowing is same in both resistors,
6W
power used in 2 Ω resistor
6W P1 = I2R = (2)2 × 2 = 8 W.
A B
6W
(ii) Since both 12 Ω and 2 Ω are in parallel to the
4 V source,
(ii) When two 6 Ω resistances are in series and the Power used in 2 Ω resistor
third is in parallel to them, then it will be 4 Ω. V2 4 2 16
6W 6W P2 = = = = 8 W.
R 2 2
Comparison between the power used in both
P 8W
A 6W B cases = 1 = = 1.
P2 8 W
12. Several electric bulbs designed to be used on a 220 15. Two lamps, one rated 100 W at 220 V, and the
V electric supply line, are rated 10 W. How many other 60 W at 220 V, are connected in parallel to
lamps can be connected in parallel with each other electric mains supply. What current is drawn from
across the two wires of 220 V line if the maximum the line if the supply voltage is 220 V?
allowable current is 5 A? 220 2 220 2
Ans. N bulbs of power P each connected in parallel will Ans. R100 = , R60 = .
100 60
make the total power of NP, therefore, using 220 100
NP Current drawn by 100 W bulb = = A
I= R100 220
V
Current drawn, = 0.45 A.
220
Current drawn by 60 W bulb =
N # 10 R60
I = 5=
220 60
5 # 220 = A = 0.27 A.

∴ N= = 110 220
10
Total current drawn from the line
13. A hot plate of an electric oven connected to a = 0.45 A + 0.27 A = 0.72 A.
220 V line has two resistance coils A and B, each 16. Which uses more energy, a 250 W TV set in 1 hr, or
of 24 Ω resistance, which may be used separately, a 1200 W toaster in 10 minutes?
in series, or in parallel. What are the currents in Ans. Energy consumed by 250 W TV set in 1 h
the three cases? = 250 × 1 = 250 Wh.
Ans. When used individually, Energy consumed by 1200 W toaster in 10 min
220 10
I= = 9.16 A in both of them. = 1200 × = 200 Wh.
24 60
When used in series, ∴ Energy consumed by TV set is more than the
Rs = 24 + 24 = 48 Ω, energy consumed by toaster in the given timings.
220
⇒ Is = A = 4.58 A 17. An electric heater of resistance 8 Ω draws 15 A
48
from the service mains 2 hours. Calculate the rate
When used in parallel,
at which heat is developed in the heater.
24 × 24
RP = = 12 Ω Ans. R = 8 Ω, I = 15 A, t = 2h
48
H I 2 Rt
220 Rate of heat developed = = = 152 × 8
⇒ IP = A = 18.3 A. t t
12
= 225 × 8 = 1800 Js–1.
14. Compare the power used in the 2 Ω resistor in 18. Explain the following.
each of the following circuits. (a) Why is the tungsten used almost exclusively
(i) a 6 V battery in series with 1 Ω and 2 Ω for filament of electric lamps?
resistors, and (b) Why are the conductors of electric heating
(ii) a 4 V battery in parallel with 12 Ω and 2 Ω devices, such as bread-toasters and electric
resistors. irons, made of an alloy rather than a pure metal?
Electricity 347
(c) Why is the series arrangement not used for (b) It has more resistivity and less temperature
domestic circuits? coefficient of resistance.
(d) How does the resistance of a wire vary with (c) (i) All appliances do not get same potential in
its area of cross-section? series arrangement.
(e) Why are copper and aluminium wires usually (ii) All appliances cannot be individually
employed for electricity transmission? operated.
Ans. (a) It has high melting point and emits light at a high 1
(d) R ∝
temperature. Area of cross - section
(e) They are very good conductors of electricity.

1. A cell, a resistor, a key and an ammeter are 4. A student carries out an experiment and plots the
arranged as shown in the circuit diagrams. The V-I graph of three samples of nichrome wire with
current recorded in the ammeter will be resistances R1, R2 and R3 respectively. Which of
(a) maximum in (i) (b) maximum in (ii) the following is true?
(c) maximum in (iii) (d) same in all the cases
(i)
(a) R1 = R2 = R3 (b) R1 > R2 > R3
(c) R3 > R2 > R1 (d) R2 > R3 > R1
Ans. (c) Current is inversely proportional to the resistance
for the same potential. So higher resistance
would allow less current to pass through its
(ii) (iii) which is shown by R3, as I3 < I2 < I1.
Ans. (d) Ammeter is always connected in series with in \ R3 > R2 > R1
the circuit. The reading is independent from its 5. If the current I through a resistor is increased
location. by 100 % (assume that temperature remains
2. A current of 1 A is drawn by a filament of an unchanged), the increase in power dissipated will be
electric bulb. Number of electrons passing through (a) 100 % (b) 200 %
a cross-section of the filament in 16 seconds would (c) 300 % (d) 400 %
be roughly Ans. (c) Since, P ∝ I 2
P I2 2 2I 2
(a) 1020 (b) 1016 (c) 1018 (d) 1023 So 2 = e o = c m = 4
Ans. (a) Q = ne and Q = It P1 I1 I
\ ne = It ⇒ P2 = 4 P1
It 1 × 16 P – P1
or n= = = 1020 electrons \ % increase in power = 2 × 100
e 1.6 × 10 –19 P1
3. A cylindrical conductor of length l and uniform 4P – P
area of cross-section A has resistance R. Another = × 100 = 300%
P
conductor of length 2l and resistance R of the same
material has area of cross-section 6. The resistivity does not change if
(a) A/2 (b) 3A/2 (a) the material is changed
(c) 2A (d) 3A (b) the temperature is changed
l R l A (c) the shape of the resistor is changed
Ans. (c) Since R ∝ So, 1 = 1 . 2 (d) both material and temperature are changed
A R2 l2 A1
Ans. (c) The resistivity does not change if the shape of
l A R resistor is changed because nature of material
⇒ × 2= =1
2l A R will remain same.
⇒ A2 = 2A
7. In an electrical circuit two resistors of 2 W and IB R 2
4 W respectively are connected in series to a 6 V or = C = =1
IC RB 2
battery. The heat dissipated by the 4 W resistor in
5 s will be
⇒ IB = IC

(a) 5 J (b) 10 J But I B + IC = I = 3 A
3
(c) 20 J (d) 30 J
∴ 2IB = 3 or IB = = 1.5 A
Ans. (c) Total resistance of the combination 2
Rs = 2 + 4 = 6 W and IB = IC = 1.5 A.
V 6 12. Should the resistance of an ammeter be low or
Current, I = = =1
Rs 6 high? Give reason.
Heat dissipation in 4 W resistor, Ans. The resistance of an ammeter should be low so that
H = I 2Rt = 12 × 4 × 5 = 20 J it will not disturb the magnitude of current of the
circuit when connected in series in a circuit.
8. Electrical resistivity of a given metallic wire
depends upon 13. How does use of a fuse wire protect electrical
(a) its length (b) its thickness appliances?
(c) its shape (d) nature of the material Ans. The fuse wire is always connected in series with the
Ans. (d) live wire or electrical devices. If the flow of current
exceeds the specified preset value due to some reason,
9. What is the minimum resistance which can be
the heat produced melts it and disconnects the circuit
made using five resistors each of 1/5 W?
or the device from the mains. In this way, fuse wire
(a) 1/5 W (b) 1/25 W
protects the electrical appliances.
(c) 1/10 W (d) 25 W
Ans. (b) 14. What is electrical resistivity? In a series electrical
circuit comprising a resistor made up of a metallic
10. In an electrical circuit three incandescent bulbs
wire, the ammeter reads 5 A. The reading of the
A, B and C of rating 40 W, 60 W and 100 W
ammeter decreases to half when the length of the
respectively are connected in parallel to an electric
wire is doubled. Why?
source. Which of the following is likely to happen
Ans. The resistance offered by a metallic wire of unit
regarding their brightness?
length and unit cross-sectional area is called electrical
(a) Brightness of all the bulbs will be the same
resistivity.
(b) Brightness of bulb A will the maximum
We know that
(c) Brightness of bulb B will be more than that of A l
(d) Brightness of bulb C will be less than that of B R = ρ and V = IR
A
Ans. (c) 1
So, R ∝ l and I ∝ , (V is constant)
11. Three 2 Ω resistors, A, B and C are connected as R
shown in figure. Each of them dissipates energy Hence, when the length of wire is doubled the resistance
and can withstand a maximum power of 18 W becomes double and current decreases to half.
without melting. Find the maximum current that
15. B1, B2 and B3 are three identical bulbs connected
can flow through the three resistors.
2W as shown in figure. When all the three bulbs glow,
a current of 3A is recorded by the ammeter A.
2W B B1
I
A1
A C
B2
2W A2
Ans. Here, P = 18 W
B3
Since A is in series with the parallel combination of A3
B and C. So, it carries maximum current.
Using P = I2R, we get + – A
P 18
I2 = = =9 4.5 V
R 2 (a) What happens to the glow of the other two
⇒ I = 3 A. bulbs when the bulb B1 gets fused?
Let IB and IC be the current flowing through B and (b) What happens to the reading of A1, A2, A3 and
C respectively. As they are in parallel, potential A when the bulb B2 gets fused?
difference across them will be same so (c) How much power is dissipated in the circuit
IBRB = ICRC when all the three bulbs glow together?
Electricity 349
Ans. (a) Since B1, B2 and B3 are in parallel, the potential (c) In parallel, total power consumed
difference across each of them will remain same. Peq = P1 + P2 + P3
So when the bulb B1 gets fused, B2 and B3 have So, when all the three bulbs glow together
the same potential and continues with the same Peq = P + P + P
energy dissipated per second, i.e. they will glow (As P1 = P2 = P3 = P)
as they were glowing before. = 3P = 3 × V × I
(b) Resistance of the parallel combination when all = 3 × 4.5 × 1 = 13.5 W.
the three bulbs are glowing (Current through each bulb = 1 A)
1 1 1 1 3
= + + = 16. Find out the following in the electric circuit given
RP R R R R in figure:
R 4W
RP = B + –
3 A A1 C
Ammeter ‘A’ reads 3 A current +
So, V = IRP 8V –
8W 8W
R
4.5 = 3 × ⇒ R = 4.5 Ω
3
– + D
So, resistance of each bulb = 4.5 Ω. A2
Now when bulb B2 gets fused, the equivalent (a) Effective resistance of two 8 Ω resistors in the
resistance of parallel combination of B1 and B3 combination,
is (b) Current flowing through 4 Ω resistor,
1 1 1 (c) Potential difference across 4 Ω resistance,
As = +
RPl R R (d) Power dissipated in 4 Ω resistor, and
2 (e) Difference in ammeter readings, if any.
= (Bulbs are identical)
R Ans. (a) Effective resistance, the two 8 Ω resistors are in
R parallel,
∴ RP′ = 8×8
2 RP = =4Ω
∴ Ammeter ‘A’ reads now, 8+8
V (b) Req = 4 + RP = 8 Ω
I′ = V 8
RlP So current through 4 Ω = I = = =1A
4.5 R 8
I′ = (c) Potential difference across resistance
R/2 4 Ω = V1 = IR = 1 × 4 = 4 V
4.5 # 2 (d) Power dissipated = I2R = 12 × 4 = 4 W
= = 2 A.
4.5 (e) No difference, since the ammeters are connected
Since resistance of each arm is same and p.d. is in series and same current will pass through
also same, current divides them equally. So 1 A them, so reading of both ammeters would be
current will pass through each bulb B1 and B3. same.
Therefore, ammeter A1 and A3 reads 1 A current
while A2 will read zero and A read 2 A current.
1. Electric current originates from which part of a (a) Conductors (i) 10–6 Wm
conductor? (b) Alloys (ii) 1012 to 1017 Wm
(a) Nucleus (c) Insulators (iii) 10–6 to 10–8 Wm
(b) Positively charged protons 10. Nichrome wire of length ‘l’ and radius ‘r’ has resistance
(c) Negatively charged electrons of 10 W. How would the resistance of wire change when
(d) All atoms of a conductor (i) only the diameter is doubled?
2. Ohm’s law states which relationship between electrical (ii) only length of wire is doubled?
quantities? 11. (a) Consider a conductor of resistance ‘R’, length
(a) Potential difference = current times resistance ‘l’, thickness ‘d’ and resistivity. ‘r’. Now this
(b) Potential difference = current divides resistance conductor is cut into four equal parts. What will
(c) Potential difference = charge divides time be the new resistivity of each of these parts? Why?
(d) Potential different = charge times current (b) Find the resistance if all of these parts are connected
3. The resistance of wire varies inversely as in (i) parallel (ii) series
(a) length (b) resistivity (c) Out of the combinations of resistors mentioned
(c) temperature (d) area of cross-section above in the previous part, for a given voltage
4. How much energy is consumed when a current of which combination will consume more power and
5 A flows through the filament of a room heater having why?
resistance of 10 W for 2 hours. Express it in joules. (d) An electric iron consumes energy at the rate of
(a) 18 × 105 J (b) 1.8 × 106 J 420 W when heating is at maximum rate and
7
(c) 1.8 × 10 J (d) 3.6 × 106 J 180 W when heating is at minimum. The voltage
Direction: In the following Questions, the Assertion and is 220 V. What is the current and resistance in each
Reason have been put forward. Read the statements carefully case?
and choose the correct alternative from the following: 12. Study the following circuit diagram:
4 W
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason –
A
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
+
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false. + –
is true. K E
5. Assertion: The Ohm’s law equation does not apply to It is observed that when key is open, the potential
non-Ohmic conducting devices. difference across the terminals of the electrical source is
Reason: For Ohmic conducting devices, the value of R found to be 12 volts. The electrolyte inside the voltage
is independent of the value of ‘V’. source offered 2 W resistance to the flow of electric
6. Assertion: When a wire is stretched such that its area current through it.
of cross-section is halved, its resistance would become Now answer the following questions.
16 times. (a) Calculate the ammeter reading when key is closed.
Reason: Resistance is inversely proportional to the (b) Calculate the potential difference across the
fourth power of area of cross-section of the wire. terminals of the electrical source when it is in use.
7. How do we connect voltmeter and ammeter in an electric (c) The potential difference applied across a given
circuit? What is likely to happen if the position of these resistor is altered so that heat produced per second
instruments are interchanged? increases by a factor of 9. By what factor does the
8. A bulb cannot be used in place of resistor to verify applied potential difference change?
Ohm’s law. Justify this statement with reasons. Or
9. Define resistance. Write the SI unit of resistance and (c) Why do the ‘free electrons’ in a wire flowing by
define it. Match the correct range of resistivity with the themselves not cause any current flow in the wire?
materials given.
Scan to get Answers

Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 351
12
CHAPTER
Magnetic Effects of
Electric Current
MIND MAP
To be continued on next page
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current
Oersted’s experiment
Electricity and Magnetism are linked with each other
To be continued
Magnetic effect of Electric effect of on next page
Bar Magnet
moving charge moving magnet
has a is
Exert a force on a current carrying
Magnetic field in Visualised by conductor placed in it
surrounding region magnetic field lines
depends on
• It has both magnitude and direction.

Inside (S→N) • current (F ∝ l)
• formed continuous closed curve • length of conductor in magnetic field (F ∝ l)
Outside (N→ S)
• magnetic field strength (F ∝ B)
• Crowded field lines represents strong field
• Never intersect with each other • angle between conductor and magnetic field
(F ∝ sin q)
• Tangent at a point gives the direction of magnetic field at that point.
Magnetic field (B) due to used in has a direction given by

current carrying Electric motor
Fleming’s Left –
Hand Rule
Straight conductor Circular loop Solenoid nio
Mot
Field
• In the form of concentric • Behave like a bar magnet
• Circular and concentric
Current
circles around it with • Uniform magnetic field inside it
centre on wire field near the coil
• Near the centre field lines has a depends on
has a depends on are straight and parallel Can be used to form
• At the centre, field is Polarity of • Number of turns per units
Direction • Magnitude of perpendicular to the plane length (B ∝ N)
its end
current (B ∝ I) of the coil. • Current (B ∝ I)
given by • Distance from depends on • Nature of core material Permanent
1 inside it
wire (B ∝ ) magnet
r has a • Current (B ∝ I) (Steel core)
• Number of turns
Right-Hand Thumb Rule (B ∝ N)
Direction • Radius of coil Electromagnet depends on (Soft iron core)
• Magnitude of current flowing through solenoid as B ∝ I
given by • Closeness of the turns
Current determined by using • Number of turns in the solenoid as B ∝ N
Clock Face Rule 1
• Length of the coil as B ∝
l
M ag
netic
Field
Continued From previous page
Alternating Current Direct Current
• Periodically change its direction • Continuously flows in

• In India, it is at 220 V and 50 Hz same direction
V or I
V or I d.c.
t t
A.C.
used in
Flows in
• Electronic system
• Charging of battery, etc.
Domestic circuits
have a
have a
Safety device
Lightning circuit of Power circuit of

current rating 5A current rating 15A
Earth wire Fuse wire
Both have
Connected between
• Work on heating effect of
• Live wire, red insulation at 220 V
current (H = I 2Rt)
• Neutral wire, black or blue insulation at zero volt Ground and • Low melting point
• Earth wire, green or yellow insulation metallic body of an • High resistivity
appliances
connected in
User gets Maintained the Series with live wire

Electric shock metallic body at
Protected from
Protected from
zero potential
• Short circuit
• Overloading of the circuit
TOPICS COVERED
Magnetic Field and Field Lines
(a) magnetic north at the point of earth surface.
Multiple Choice (b) magnetic south at the point of earth surface.
Questions 1 Mark (c) east.
1. Magnetic effect of current was discovered by (d) west.
(a) Oersted (b) Faraday 4. A compass needle is a/an
(c) Bohr (d) Ampere (a) iron piece (b) small magnet
2. By which instrument, the presence of magnetic (c) steel bar (d) powerful bar magnet
field be determined? 5. The behaviour of compass needle in a magnetic
(a) Magnetic Needle field is
(b) Ammeter (a) to assure a position of magnetic field line.
(c) Galvanometer (b) to assure the perpendicular magnetic field line.
(d) Voltmeter (c) to rotate and stops in any direction.
3. The needle of magnetic compass indicates the (d) both (b) and (c)
direction of
6. Magnetic field is a quantity that has I. Symmetrical magnetic field lines pattern is
(a) magnitude only obtained on both the sides of bar magnet.
(b) direction only II. The field lines around the bar magnet follow
(c) both direction and magnitude the pattern of iron filling around the magnet.
(d) none of the above III. Deflection increases as the needle is moved
7. Relative strength of magnetic field at a point in towards the pole of a bar magnet.
the space surrounding the magnet is shown by the IV. At the poles of a bar magnet, opposite poles
(a) length of magnet of a compass needle comes to rest.
(b) thickness of magnet Choose which of the following would be correct
(c) degree of closeness of the field. statement(s).
(d) resistance offered by the surroundings (a) only III and IV
(b) I, III and IV
8. Which of the following statement is not correct
(c) I, II and III
about the magnetic field?
(d) All four statements
(a) Magnetic field lines form a continuous closed
curve. 14. Equidistance parallel magnetic field lines indicate:
(b) Magnetic field line do not interest each other. (a) Uniform magnetic field.
(c) Direction of tangent drawn at any point on the (b) Non-uniform magnetic field.
magnetic field line curve gives the direction of (c) Both (a) and (b).
magnetic field at that point. (d) Uniform electric field.
(d) Outside the magnet, magnetic field lines go from 15. How can you find the direction of magnetic field
South to North pole of the magnet. from a magnetic field line?
9. Magnetic needle is/an [CBSE 2021(C)] (a) Perpendicular to the tangent drawn at that point.
(a) isolated north pole pivoted at its centre of mass. (b) Along the tangent at any point of the field line.
(b) isolated south pole pivoted at its centre of mass. (c) Along parallel to the field line.
(c) ordinary needle made of soft iron and pivoted at (d) Using Right Hand Thumb rule.
its centre of mass. 16. A piece of material that has both attractive and
(d) small bar magnet pivoted at its centre of mass. directive properties is called __________.
10. A freely suspended magnet always rests in (a) magnet (b) iron fillings
geographically north and south direction because (c) resistor (d) coil (inductor)
[CBSE 2021(C)] 17. A bar magnet is cut into two pieces along its length.
(a) the Earth has two poles. Which of the following statement is true?
(b) the Earth behaves as a huge magnet. (a) Two new bar magnets are created with half of
(c) the magnetic north pole of the Earth magnet is pole strength.
located very close to its south pole. (b) Two new bar magnets are created with double
(d) the magnetic south pole of the Earth magnet is pole strength.
located very close to its south pole. (c) Bar magnet is demagnetized.
11. The crowding of iron fillings at the end of a bar (d) The one part created magnetic field while other
magnet indicates created electric field.
(a) strong magnetic field at the ends of magnet. 18. Which of the following diagram indicating an
(b) strong magnetic field at the centre of a magnet. uniform magnetic field?
(c) weak magnetic field around the region of bar (a) (b)
magnet.
(d) all of the above.
12. No two field lines are found to intersect each other.
If they intersect, then at the point of intersection,
the compass needle would point (c) (d) All of the these
(a) in two different directions which is possible.
(b) in two different directions which is not possible.
(c) in a particular direction.
(d) nowhere
13. After drawing the magnetic field lines around the
bar magnet with the help of a compass needle, a
student writes the following statements:
19. Right hand thumb rule is used to determine the Ans. We observe the following two facts about the magnetic
(a) direction of magnetic field. field lines of a bar magnet which proves the required
(b) strength of magnetic field. statement. These are:
(c) direction of magnetic force. (i) Field lines emerge from the north pole and
(d) direction of induced current. merge at south pole. The deflection in the north
20. Which of the following process will produce new pole of compass needle shows that inside the
magnetic poles? magnet field lines move from south pole to
(a) Cutting a bar magnet in two pieces. north pole of the bar magnet.
(b) Current through a solenoid. (ii) The relative strength of the magnetic field is
(c) Placing an iron needle in contact with a magnet. shown by the degree of closeness of the field lines.
(d) All of the above. Crowded are the field lines, stronger is the field.
23. The given magnet is divided into three parts A, B
Answers and C.
A B C
1. (a) Oersted showed that electricity and magnetism
were related phenomena. Name the parts where the strength of the magnetic
2. (a) With the help of magnetic needle, one can find field is : (i) maximum, and (ii) minimum.
the presence of magnetic field in a region by How will density of magnetic field lines differ at
observing its deflection. these parts?
3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (c) Ans. Strength of magnetic field is (i) maximum at poles
7. (c) The force acting on the pole of another magnet of a magnet, i.e. A and C and (ii) minimum at B.
by the crowded magnetic field lines is greater. The density of field lines will be more i.e., the field
8. (d) Outside the magnet, magnetic field line emerges lines where they are crowded are A and C while at
from North-pole and moves towards south-pole. B, they are spread out away from them.
9. (d) 10. (c) 11. (a) 12. (b) 24. (a) Two magnets are lying side by side as shown
13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (a) below. Draw magnetic field lines between poles
17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (d) P and Q.
N S S N
V S A Very Short Answer P Q
(b) What does the degree of closeness of magnetic
21. (a) Name the poles P, Q, R and S of the magnets field lines near the poles signify?
in the following figures ‘a’ and ‘b’.
Ans. (a) S N S N
P Q R S
P Q
‘a’ ‘b’ (b) The degree of closeness of magnetic field lines

(b) State the inference drawn about the direction near the poles signify that field is stronger, i.e.
of magnetic field lines on the basis of these the pole of another magnet when placed in the
diagrams. [CBSE 2022] magnetic field experiences a greater force in the
Ans. (a) In figure ‘a’ : P–North pole; Q–South pole region where the field lines are crowded.
In figure ‘b’ : R–North pole; S–South pole 25. Magnetic field lines of two magnets are shown in
(b) The magnetic field lines emerge from the north fig. (a) and (b).
pole and merge to south pole outside the magnet.
(Inside the magnet, the direction is from south
pole to north pole).
Alternative answer: Closed curves which

emerges from north pole and merge at the south
(a)
pole.
22. “Magnetic field is a physical quantity that has both
direction and magnitude”. How can this statement
be proved with the help of a magnetic field lines
of a bar magnet? [CBSE 2022]
(b)
Select the figure that represent the correct pattern attract or repel each other? Justify your answer
of field lines. Give reason for your answer. Also by describing how you interpret the field lines.
name the poles of the magnet facing each other. [CFPQ, CBSE]
Ans. Figure (b) represents the correct pattern of field lines. Ans. They will repel each other.
In figure (a), field lines cross each other which is not The right end of magnet X and the left end of magnet
possible because at the point of intersection, there Y are both north poles since field lines start from there.
will be two directions of field lines.
In figure (b), field lines are emerging in nature, so A Short Answer
poles of magnet facing each other are north poles
while opposite faces will have south polarity. 29. Define magnetic field. What are magnetic field
26. The diagram shows a piece of iron 3 cm long placed lines? Justify the following statements
near the S-pole of a magnet as shown below. (a) Two magnetic field lines never intersect each
N S Iron other. [CBSE 2014]
(b) Magnetic field lines are closed curves.
Draw the magnetic field pattern for the same.
[CBSE 2015]
Ans. The face of iron piece towards the S-pole of the
Ans. Magnetic field: It is the region around a magnetic
magnet will act as a N-pole and its opposite face
material such as bar magnet or moving electric charge
will act as S-pole. Accordingly magnetic field pattern
within which the magnetic force acts.
between them is shown below.
Magnetic field lines: It is defined as the path along
N S N iron S
which the unit North pole (imaginary) tends to move
in a magnetic field if free to do so.
By drawing a tangent at that point on the magnetic
27. Magnetic field lines are shown in the given diagram. field lines one can find the direction of magnetic field
A student makes a statement that magnetic field at that point.
at X is stronger than at Y. Justify this statement. (a) The magnetic lines of force do not intersect (or
Also redraw the diagram and mark the direction cross) one another. If they do so then at the point
of magnetic field lines. of intersection, two drawn tangents at that point
Y
indicate that there will be two different directions
of the same magnetic field, i.e. the compass
needle points in two different directions which
X
is not possible.
N S (b) Magnetic field lines are closed continuous curves.
They emerge out from the north pole of a bar
Ans. The statement is correct because at X magnetic field
magnet and go into its south pole. Inside the
lines are closer near the poles of a magnet, indicating
magnet they move from south pole to north pole.
strong magnetic field. At point Y, magnetic field lines
are widely separated indicating a weak magnetic 30. A student dipped a bar magnet in a heap of iron
field. fillings and pulled it out. He found that iron fillings
Y got stuck to the magnet.
Magnetic (a) Which regions of the magnet have more iron
field lines
fillings sticking to it? What are these regions
called?
X
N S
(b) What conclusion would you like to draw from
the amount of iron fillings clinging to these
28. The figure shows two magnets X and Y kept near regions? [CBSE 2015]
each other. Their poles are not marked, but the Ans. (a) • The ends of the magnet have more amount
magnetic field lines are shown in the figure. of iron fillings sticking to it as compared to
X moved middle part of the bar magnet. It is because the
towards Y
magnetic strength is maximum at the end and
X Y minimum at the middle of the magnet.
• These regions are called pole of the bar magnet.
(b) Equal magnetic strength of each pole is indicated
If magnet X is moved towards magnet Y as by the equal amount of iron fillings clinging to
indicated by the arrow, will the two magnets them.
31. A student fixes a white sheet of paper on a drawing Ans. (a) When iron filings are placed in a magnetic
board. He places a bar magnet in the centre and field around a bar magnet, they behave like tiny
sprinkles some iron filings uniformly around the magnets. The magnetic force experienced by
bar magnet. Then he taps gently and observes these tiny magnets make them rotate and align
that iron filings arrange themselves in a certain themselves along the direction of field lines.
pattern. (1 Mark)
(a) Why do iron filings arrange themselves in a (b) The physical property indicated by this
particular pattern? arrangement is the magnetic field produced by
(b) Which physical quantity is indicated by the the bar magnet. (1 Mark)
pattern of field lines around the bar magnet? (c) Magnetic field lines never intersect, magnetic
(c) State any two properties of magnetic field field lines are closed curves. (1 Mark)
lines. [CBSE Sample Paper 2023] [CBSE Marking Scheme]
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Choose the incorrect statement from the following (a) magnetic field (b) electric current
regarding magnetic lines of field (c) magnetic force (d) motion of the conductor
(a) The direction of magnetic field at a point is taken 4. (a) In a pattern of magnetic field lines due to a bar
to be the direction in which the north pole of a magnet, how can the regions of relative strength
magnetic compass needle points. be identified?
(b) Magnetic field lines are closed curves. (b) Compare the strength of field near the poles and
(c) If magnetic field lines are parallel and equidistant, middle of a bar magnet.
they represent zero field strength.
5. “Magnetic field is a physical quantity that has both
(d) Relative strength of magnetic field is shown by
direction and magnitude.” How can this statement
the degree of closeness of the field lines.
be proved with the help of a magnetic field lines of
2. The SI unit of magnetic field intensity is a bar magnet? [CBSE 2022]
(a) Gauss (b) Torr
6. When a compass needle near the north pole of a
(c) Tesla (d) Newton
magnet is placed, how does it behave?
3. According to Right-hand thumb rule, the thumb
7. Give three uses of magnetic compass needle.
indicates the direction of
TOPIC COVERED
Magnetic Field due to a Current Carrying Conductor
Something was done to the current because of which
Multiple Choice
the magnetic field lines changed as shown below.
Questions 1 Mark
1. The diagram below shows the magnetic field lines
due to a current in a straight conductor.
What was done to the current? [CFPQ, CBSE]

(a) Its magnitude was increased and its direction
reversed.
(b) Its magnitude was decreased and its direction
reversed.
(c) Its magnitude was increased.
(d) Its magnitude was decreased.
2. When a current flows through a straight conductor, 9. Suppose a horseshoe magnet is held vertically
a magnetic field is produced around it. Consider upwards with the North Pole is on left. A wire
the following statements about this field: passing between the poles carries a direct current
I. The direction of the magnetic field of a current directed away from you. In what direction is the
carrying straight conductor is determined by magnetic force exert on the wire?
right-hand thumb rule. (a) Downward (b) Upward
II. A charged body placed in this field experiences (c) Towards East (d) Towards South
a force whose direction is given by Fleming’s 10. The resultant magnetic field at point ‘P’ situated
left hand rule. midway between two parallel wires (placed
III. The magnetic field lines around a current horizontally) each carrying a steady current I is
carrying straight conductor are in the form [CBSE 2023]
of concentric circles with the conductor as the A B
centre.
The correct statement(s) is/are: [CBSE 2021(C)]
P
(a) I only (b) III only
(c) I and II (d) I and III
3. The strength of magnetic field around a current C D
carrying conductor is (a) in the same direction as the current in the wires.
(a) inversely proportional to the current but directly (b) in the vertically upward direction.
proportional to the square of the distance from (c) zero
wire. (d) in the vertically downward direction.
(b) directly proportional to the current and inversely
proportional to the distance from wire. Answers
(c) directly proportional to the distance and inversely
1. (d)
proportional to the current.
2. (d)
(d) directly proportional to the current but inversely
3. (b) • magnetic field strength increases on increasing
proportional the square of the distance from wire.
the current through the wire.
4. A current through a horizontal power line flows • m agnetic field strength decreases as the
from south to North direction. The direction of distance from the wire increases.
magnetic field line 0.5 m above it is towards 4. (d) Apply right-hand thumb rule. It is from West to
(a) North (b) South East.
(c) West (d) East 5. (d)
5. Who has stated the Right hand Thumb Rule? 6. (b)
(a) Orsted 7. (b)
(b) Fleming 8. (a)
(c) Einstein 9. (a)
(d) Maxwell 10. (c) Use Right Hand Thumb rule.
6. The magnetic field at a point due to current
carrying conductor is directly proportional to
(a) resistance of the conductor.
(b) current flowing through the conductor.
(c) voltage applied across the conductor. 11. The magnetic field associated with a current
(d) distance of the point from the conductor. carrying straight conductor is in anticlockwise
direction.
7. Oersted experiment prove that when an electric
If the conductor was held along the east-west
current is passed through a conducting wire, a
_________ is produced around it. direction, what will be the direction of current
through it? Name and state the rule applied to
(a) Electric field (b) Magnetic field
determine the direction of current.
(c) Heat (d) Light
Ans. Direction of current – east to west is determined by
8. Right hand thumb rule is used to determine the Right-hand thumb rule.
(a) direction of magnetic field. Right-Hand Thumb Rule : If we hold a current
(b) strength of magnetic field. carrying conductor by right hand in such a way that
(c) direction of magnetic force. the stretched thumb is along the direction of current,
(d) direction of induced current.
then the curly fingers around the conductor represents the strength of current in the conductor or
the direction of field lines of magnetic field. vice versa.
12. A compass needle is placed near a current-carrying (b) The direction of magnetic field around a straight
wire. State your observation for the following current carrying conductor gets reversed if the
cases, and give reason for the same in each case - direction of current through that conductor is
(a) Magnitude of electric current in the wire is reversed.
increased. 15. (a) A compass needle gets deflected when brought
(b) The compass needle is displaced away from near a current carrying conductor. Why?
the wire. [CBSE 2019] (b) What happens to the deflection of the needle
Ans. (a) Observation: Deflection of the needle increases when current in the conductor is increased?
Reason: Magnetic field strength due to current Ans. (a) The current carrying conductor produces a
carrying wire increases as current in the wire magnetic field around it. This magnetic field
increases, i.e. B ∝ I. exerts a force on the magnetic needle of compass.
(b) Observation: The deflection in the compass As a result, compass needle gets deflected.
needle decreases as its displacement from the (b) When the current in the conductor increases, the
current - carrying wire increases. magnitude of magnetic field produced around it
Reason: Strength of magnetic field reduces increases and consequently, the deflection in the
with the increase in distance from the wire as compass needle increases.
1
B∝ .
r A Short Answer
13. A student performs an experiment to study the
magnetic effect of current around a current 16. (a) List two factors on which the magnitude of
carrying straight conductor. He reports that magnetic field produced by a current carrying
(a) for a given battery, the degree of deflection of straight conductor depends.
a N-pole decreases when the compass is kept (b) State the rule which determines the direction
at a point farther away from the conductor. of magnetic field in the above case.
(b) the direction of deflection of the north pole of a (c) Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines
compass needle kept at a given point near the produced in this case. [CBSE 2023]
conductor remains unaffected even when the Ans. (a) The factors on which magnitude of magnetic field
terminals of the same battery sending current (B) produced by a current (I) carrying conductor
in the wire are interchanged. depends
Which of the above observations of the student (i) current flowing in the conductor as B ∝ I.
appears to be wrong and why? [HOTS] 1
Ans. (a) The first observation is correct because the (ii) distance (r) from the wire as B ∝
r
strength of magnetic field decreases with the (b) Right hand thumb rule: It state that it we hold
increase in distance. As a result, degree of the current carrying conductor in the right hand in
deflection of a N-pole of a compass needle such a way that the thumb is stretched along the
decreases. direction of current, then the curly finger around
(b) Second observation is incorrect because if the the conductor represent the direction of magnetic
direction of current is reversed, the direction of field around the conductor produced by it.
field lines will also be reversed. So, north pole (c) Pattern of magnetic field around current
of the magnetic compass needle will be directed carrying straight conductor is similar is
in the opposite direction. concentric circles whose centre lie on the
14. How is the strength of magnetic field near a conductor as shown below:
straight current-conductor I
(a) related to the strength of current in the
conductor? [CBSE 2014]
(b) is affected by changing the direction of flow
of current in the conductor?
Ans. (a) The strength of magnetic field around a straight
I
current conductor increases on increasing
A Long Answer (ii) Field at S > Field at P

L Type Question 5 Marks Magnetic field strength for a straight current
carrying conductor is inversely proportional to
17. PQ is a current carrying conductor in the plane the distance from the wire. (2 Marks)
of the paper as shown in the figure below. (iii) The current will be going from top to bottom
P
in the wire shown and the magnetic field lines
r1 R
are now in the clockwise direction on the plane
which is perpendicular to the wire carrying
S current. (1 Mark)
r2
Current
Q
(i) Find the directions of the magnetic fields
produced by it at points R and S.
(ii) Given r1> r2, where will the strength of the
magnetic field be larger? Give reasons.
(iii) If the polarity of the battery connected to the Horizontal
board
wire is reversed, how would the direction of Magnetic
the magnetic field be changed? field lines
(iv) Explain the rule that is used to find the (iv) Right hand thumb rule. The thumb is aligned
direction of the magnetic field for a straight to the direction of the current and the direction
current carrying conductor. in which the fingers are wrapped around the
[CBSE Sample Paper 2021] wire will give the direction of the magnetic
Ans. (i) The magnetic field lines produced is into the field. (1 Mark) [CBSE Marking Scheme]
plane of the paper at R and out of it at S.
(1 Mark)
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. According to Right-hand thumb rule, the thumb 5. A student performs an experiment to study the
indicates the direction of magnetic effect of current around a current carrying
(a) magnetic field straight conductor with the help of a magnetic
(b) electric current compass. He reports that
(c) magnetic force I. The degree of deflection of the magnetic compass
(d) motion of the conductor increases when the compass is moved away from
2. The pattern of the magnetic field produced by the the conductor.
straight current carrying conducting wire is II. The degree of deflection of the magnetic compass
(a) in the direction opposite to the current increases when the current through the conductor
(b) in the direction parallel to the wire is increased.
(c) circular around the wire Which of the above two observations of the
student appears to be wrong and why?
(d) in the same direction of current
6. State and represent the direction of magnetic field
3. Draw the magnetic field lines around a straight current
produced by the current carrying conductors at point
carrying conductor. [CBSE Sample Paper 2021]
‘P’ and ‘Q’ in the following cases.
4. How can you show that the magnetic field produced
by a given electric current in the wire decreases as P2 P3
the distance from the wire increases? (a) P1 Q1 (b) (c)
Q2 Q3
TOPIC COVERED
Magnetic Field due to a Current Carrying Circular Loop
(a) straight conductor
Multiple Choice (b) a solenoid
Questions 1 Mark (c) a circular coil
1. The nature of magnetic field line passing through (d) all of these
the centre of current carrying circular loop is 8. If the current is flowing anti-clockwise in a circular
(a) circular (b) ellipse loop then the direction of magnetic field inside
(c) parabolic (d) straight line the loop is correctly represent by which of the
2. Every section of the current carrying circular loop following figure?
contributes to the magnetic field lines within the
loop is in the
(a) same direction
(b) opposite direction (a)
(c) into the page
(d) out of the page
3. If the radius of a current carrying circular loop
is doubled keeping all other factors remain same,
then the magnetic field at the centre of the loop
becomes
(a) remains same
(b) twice the original (b)
(c) half the original
(d) thrice the original
4. Current flows in a circular loop appears to be
anticlockwise, the magnetic polarity of that face
is
(a) East (b) West
(c) North (d) South
(c)
5. Which of the following correctly describes the
magnetic field lines within the current carrying
circular loop?
(a) Outwards magnetic field.
(b) Converging magnetic field lines as we move
away from the centre of the loop.
(c) Diverging magnetic field lines as we move away
from the centre of the loop. (d)
(d) All of the above.
6. Magnetic field produced by a current carrying
circular wire at its centre is
(a) directly proportional to the current flowing
through it. Answers
(b) directly proportional to the number of turns of
the coil. 1. (d) Magnetic field line at the centre of current
(c) inversely proportional to radius of the coil. carrying loop appears as a straight line.
(d) all of the above. 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (c)
6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (a)
7. The figure shows the magnetic field caused by a
current carrying conductor which is
A Short Answer (c) Horizontally and observer looking at it

S Type Questions 3 Marks from below sees current to flow in clockwise
direction. [CBSE 2016]
9. For the circular coil carrying current shown, draw Ans. Direction of magnetic field can be found by using
the magnetic field lines. Decide which of its face Right hand thumb rule
behaves as north pole and which face as south N
pole. Give reason to justify your answer.
Observer in East
B
(a)
W E
B
(Direction of
magnetic field)
S
Direction of magnetic field = West to East
(Face of the coil towards observer – North pole)
Ans. According to the clock face rule, on looking the front N
face of circular coil, the current flows in the loop in
anticlockwise direction. So front face will behave
as north pole and back face as south pole because of
current in clockwise direction. The magnetic field
lines will emerge out from the front face and enter
into the coil from the back face as shown below: (b) W E
B B
(Direction of
magnetic field) S
Observer in South
Direction of magnetic field = North to South

(Face of the coil towards observer – North pole)
B
Vertically upward
magnetic field lines
10. How will the magnetic field produced at a point due
to a current carrying circular coil change if we:
(a) increase the current flowing through the coil? Horizontal current
(b) reverse direction of current through the coil? (c) carrying coil
(c) increase the number of turns in the coil?
Ans. Magnetic field (B) at the centre of the circular coil
(a) increases if the current is increased as B ∝ I
(b) reverses on reversing the current. Observer from below
(c) increases if the number of turns in the coil
increases as field is directly proportional to the Direction of magnetic field = Vertically upwards
number of turns. (Face of the coil towards observer – South pole)
11. Find the direction of magnetic field due to current
A Long Answer
carrying circular coil held: L Type Question 5 Marks
(a) Vertically in North-South plane and an
observer looking it from east sees the current 12. Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines through
to flow in anticlockwise direction. and around a current carrying loop of wire.
(b) Vertically in East-West plane and an observer Mark the direction of
looking it from south sees the current to flow (i) electric current in the loop
in anti-clockwise direction. (ii) magnetic field lines.
How would the strength of magnetic field due to
current, carrying loop be affected if-
(a) radius of the loop is reduced to half its original 1
value? B∝
r
(b) strength of current through the loop is k k
doubled? ⇒ B1 = and B2 =
r1 r2
Ans. The direction of electric current in the loop and
magnetic field lines is shown in figure given below. Where k is proportionality constant.
1
given, r2 = r
2 1
B2 r
\ = 1
B1 r2
r
= 1 =2
1
r
2 1
⇒ B2 = 2B1
Hence, strength of magnetic field double if the
radius of loop is reduced to half its original value.
(b) Strength of magnetic field increases to twice its
+ –
original value as B ∝ I.
(a) Magnetic field strength (B) produced is inversely
proportional to the radius of current carrying loop
of wire, i.e.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. There is a current carrying circular coil having n turns. 3. Explain with a reason whether the field will be
The field produced at its centre is __________ times stronger at the centre of current carrying loop or near
as that produced by a single turn. the circumference of the loop.
(a) n/2 (b) 2n (c) n (d) n2 4. The flow of current in a circular loop of wire creates
2. The ratio of the strength of the magnetic field due to a magnetic field at its centre. How may existence of
current carrying loop if the magnitude of the current this field be detected? State the rule which helps to
through the loop is doubled is predict the direction of this magnetic field.
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 4
TOPIC COVERED
Magnetic Field due to a Current in a Solenoid
(c) Electrical to Mechanical
Multiple Choice (d) Magnetic to Mechanical
Questions 1 Mark 3. What will happen if a soft iron bar is placed inside
1. The strength of magnetic field of a current carrying the solenoid?
solenoid is [CBSE 2021C] (a) The bar will be electrocuted resulting in short
(a) minimum at its ends circuit.
(b) uniform inside it at all points (b) The bar will be magnetised as long as there is
(c) maximum at its centre current in the circuit.
(d) zero at its centre (c) The bar will be magnetised permanently.
2. What type of energy conversion is observed in a (d) The bar will not be affected by any means.
current carrying linear solenoid? [CBSE Sample Paper 2021]
[CBSE Sample Paper 2021] 4. The magnetic field lines produced inside the
(a) Mechanical to Magnetic solenoid are similar to that of _________
(b) Electrical to Magnetic [CBSE Sample Paper 2021]
(a) a bar magnet
(b) a straight current carrying conductor
(c) a circular current carrying loop
(d) electromagnet of any shape 12. What does the divergence of magnetic field lines
near the ends of a current carrying straight
5. Polarity of a current carrying solenoid can be
solenoid indicate?
determined by
Ans. The divergence of magnetic field lines near the
(a) use of compass needle
ends of a current carrying straight solenoid indicate
(b) Right hand thumb rule
the decrease in strength of magnetic field near and
(c) Fleming left hand rule
beyond the ends of the solenoid.
(d) either (a) or (b)
13. What is the purpose of the soft iron core used in
6. The factors on which one magnetic field strength
making an electromagnet? How is it different from
produced by current carrying solenoids depends are
the permanent magnet?
(a) magnitude of current
Ans. The purpose of soft iron core used in making an
(b) number of turns
electromagnet that
(c) nature of core material
• It loses all its magnetic property, i.e. magnetism
immediately when current in the solenoid is
7. A soft iron bar is introduced inside the current switched off.
carrying solenoid. The magnetic field inside the • It increases the magnetic field strength of an
solenoid electromagnet.
(a) will decrease (b) will remains same It is different from the permanent magnet in the
(c) will increase (d) will become zero following way:
8. If the direction of current in a solenoid, when (i) Electromagnet can be demagnetised by stopping
viewed from a particular end, is clockwise, then the current flowing through the solenoid while
this end of the solenoid will be: permanent magnet cannot be demagnetised easily.
(a) North pole (b) East pole (ii) Strength of magnetic field produced by
(c) West pole (d) South pole electromagnet can be changed by changing
9. The front face towards the observer of a current the magnitude of electric current through the
carrying solenoid behaves like a north pole. The solenoid while strength of magnetic field of a
direction of current in this face is permanent magnet cannot be changed.
(a) clockwise (b) anticlockwise (iii) The polarities of the electromagnet can be
(c) upwards (d) downwards interchanged by reversing the direction of
current through the solenoid while the polarities
10. The pattern of magnetic field lines around a
of permanent magnet cannot be interchanged.
current carrying solenoids resemble with the
(iv) An electromagnet can easily be made more
pattern of magnetic field lines
powerful then the permanent magnet. (any one)
(a) around current carrying straight conductor.
(b) around a bar magnet. 14. (a) What is a solenoid?
(c) by a current carrying circular coil. (b) Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines of the
(d) between two magnets facing like poles one-another. magnetic field produced by a solenoid through
which a steady current flows. [CBSE 2022]
11. The important features(s) of magnetic field inside
Ans. (a) Solenoid: A coil of many circular turns of copper
the current carrying solenoid is/are
wire wrapped closely in the shape of cylinder is
(a) highly uniform.
called a solenoid.
(b) same in strength at all points.
(c) in the same direction at all points.
Answers
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a)
5. (d) both (a) and (b) can be use to determine the (b) S N
polarity of solenoid.
6. (d) Factors given in (a), (b) and (c). + –
7. (c) Soft iron inside the current carrying solenoid act
as an electromagnet.
8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (b) 11. (d)
A Short Answer 18. (a) Name the material which can be used to make-
S Type Questions 3 Marks (i) Permanent magnet
(ii) Temporary magnet
15. How does the strength of the magnetic field
produced by a current carrying solenoid increased? (b) State two ways by which the strength of an
Ans. Strength of the magnetic field can be increased by: electromagnet can be increased.
(i) increasing the current in the coil Ans. (a) Material which can be used to make
(ii) increasing the number of coils in the solenoid; and (i) Permanent magnet – steel, alloys (Alnico
(iii) using a soft iron core within the solenoid. and Nipermag)
(ii) Temporary magnet – soft iron
16. Diagram shows the lengthwise section of a current
(b) Strength of electromagnet can be increased by
carrying solenoid. indicates current entering
(i) increasing the number of turns per unit
into the page, indicates current emerging out
length of the solenoid and
of the page. Decide which end of the solenoid A or
(ii) increasing the magnitude of the current
B, will behave as north pole. Give reason for your
answer. Also draw field lines inside the solenoid. through the solenoid.
19. Can a freely suspended current carrying solenoid
stay in any direction? Justify your answer. What
will happen when the direction of current in the
A B solenoid is reversed?
Ans. • No, the freely suspended current carrying solenoid
always stay only in geographical North and South
Ans. ‘A’ end of the given solenoid will behave as north direction, because it behaves like a bar magnet.
pole because at this end direction of current appears The one end of a solenoid behave as a magnetic
anticlockwise (By using clock face rule) North pole while the other behave as a South pole.
• If the direction of current in a freely suspended
solenoid is reversed, then the polarity of its end
N A B S will be interchanged and the solenoid will rotate
through an angle of 180°.
20. State the various advantages and applications of
electromagnet.
17. For the current carrying solenoid as shown below, Ans. Advantages of an electromagnet
draw magnetic field lines and giving reason explain 1. It produces very strong magnetic field.
that out of the three points A, B and C at which 2. Its magnetism lasts as long as current flows
point the field strength is maximum and at which through it So, it is a temporary magnet.
point it is minimum? [CBSE 2023, 15] 3. The strength of electromagnet can be controlled by
B
varying either the number of turns or the current
A flowing through it.
C
4. Polarity of electromagnet can be interchanged by
I I changing the direction of current flowing through
Ans. Outside the solenoid magnetic field is minimum. the solenoid.
At the ends of solenoid, magnetic field strength Applications of electromagnets
is half that of inside it. So Minimum – at point 1. Electromagnets are used to separate magnetic
B; Maximum – at point A substances from non-magnetic substances.
2. Electric cranes use the electromagnets to lift and
shift heavy iron loads for loading and unloading
purpose.
3. They are also used in electric bells, telephones
receivers, microphones, loudspeakers, electric
S N relay, television, etc.
4. Hospitals use electromagnets to extract iron or
+ – steel bullets from the human body.
A Long Answer (b) Solenoid

L Type Question 5 Marks
21. (a) What is an electromagnet? List any two uses.
Soft iron
(b) Draw a labelled diagram to show how an core
electromagnet is made. +
K
A – +
(c) State the purpose of soft iron core used in –
making an electromagnet.
(d) List two ways of increasing the strength (c) (i) S
oft iron core makes the magnetic field
of an electromagnet if the material of the stronger because it becomes a magnet
electromagnet is fixed. [CBSE 2020] itself.
Ans. (a) Electromagnet: It is a device consisting of an (ii) Soft iron loses its magnetism as soon as the
iron or steel core that is magnetised by the strong current stops flowing. So, it is a temporary
magnetic field produced by electric current magnet.
passing through the coil that surrounds it i.e. (d) Two ways of increasing the strength of an
solenoid. electromagnet:
Uses of electromagnet: (i) By increasing the current magnitude
(i) It is used to separate magnetic substance passing through the solenoid.
from non-magnetic substance. (ii) By increasing the number of turns in
(ii) It is used in electric bells, telephone solenoid.
receivers, microphones, loudspeakers,
television etc.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. The magnetic field lines inside a current carrying
solenoid is:
(a) along the axis and parallel to each other Solenoid
(b) perpendicular to the axis of a solenoid
(c) non-uniform
(d) circular and do not intersect each other
Magnetic
2. A soft iron core is inserted inside a current-carrying field line
solenoid. The magnetic field inside the solenoid will
(a) increase
(b) decrease (a) State how the magnetic field pattern indicates
(c) remain same regions where the magnetic field is stronger.
(d) becomes zero (b) What happens to the magnetic field when the
3. A long solenoid carrying a current produces a magnetic current in the circuit is reversed?
field B along its axis. If the number of turns per cm [CBSE Sample Question Paper 2022]
is halved, then new value of the magnetic field is 6. What is meant by solenoid? How does a current
(a) B (b) 2B carrying solenoid behave? Give its main use.
B [CBSE 2015]
(c) (d) 4B 7. (a) Draw circuit diagram of solenoid to prepare an
2 electromagnet.
4. Give reason: There is either a convergence or a (b) Can we control the strength of electromagnet?
divergence of magnetic field lines near the ends of If yes, then how?
a current carrying straight solenoid. 8. How does a solenoid behave like a magnet? Can
5. A circuit contains a battery, a variable resistor and a you determine the north and south poles of a current
solenoid. The figure below shows the magnetic field carrying solenoid with the help of a magnetic compass
pattern produced by the current in the solenoid. needle or a bar magnet?
TOPIC COVERED
Force on a Current-Carrying Conductor in a Magnetic Field
(a) west (b) north
Multiple Choice (c) south (d) east
Questions 1 Mark 7. The force acting on conductor is directly
1. Which one of the following would not experience proportional to
a force while moving perpendicular to a uniform (a) strength of external field
magnetic field? (b) strength of electric current
(a) A neutron (b) An alpha particle (c) length of conductor
(c) An electron (d) A proton (d) all of these
2. The direction of force acting on current carrying 8. The maximum force is exerted on the conductor
conductor in external magnetic field is given by when angle between its direction and that of
(a) right hand thumb rule magnetic field is
(b) Fleming’s left hand rule (a) 0° (b) 45° (c) 90° (d) 180°
(c) Fleming’s right hand rule 9. A device based on principle of force acting on a
(d) Maxwell’s cork screw rule current carrying conductor in external magnetic
3. A copper wire is held between the poles of a field is
magnet. (a) electric motor (b) electric generator
(c) fuse wire (d) earth wire
Magnet 10. A current carrying wire has no tendency to rotate
in a magnetic field what does it mean?
(a) wire is parallel to direction of magnetic field.
(b) wire is perpendicular to direction of magnetic
N S
field.
N W E
Wire
(c) wire is having very strong current flowing
through it.
S
(d) magnetic field is very strong.
The current in the wire can be reversed. The pole
of the magnet can also be changed over. In how 11. Based on the diagram, choose the direction
many of the four directions shown can the force of force that act on the current carrying
conductor AB: A I
act on the wire? [CBSE Sample Paper 2023]
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (a) upwards
(b) downwards +
4. When current is parallel to magnetic field, then N S
(c) towards east –
force experience by the current carrying conductor
(d) towards south
placed in uniform magnetic field is
B
(a) twice to that when angle is 60° 12. An alpha particle enters a uniform magnetic field
(b) thrice to that when angle is 60° as shown. The direction of force experienced by
(c) zero the alpha particle is: [CBSE 2023]
(d) infinite
5. Which of the following factors affect the strength
of force experience by a current carrying conduct Magnetic
Field
in a uniform magnetic field?
(a) Magnetic field strength
(b) Magnitude of current in a conductor
(c) Length of the conductor within magnetic field a-particle
(d) All of above. (a) towards right (b) towards left
(c) into the page (d) out of the page
6. A positive charge is moving upwards in a magnetic
field directed towards north. The particle will be 13. A positron enters a uniform magnetic field at
deflected towards right angles to it as shown. The direction of force
experienced by the positron will be
Positron
Magnetic
Field
S B
A
(a) to the right (b) to the left N
(c) into the page (d) out of the page – +

K
Answers State giving reason:

(a) What is observed when a current is passed
1. (a) 2. (b)
through the aluminium rod from end B to
3. (b) 2 (Either North or South)
end A?
4. (c) If the current direction is parallel to the magnetic
(b) What change is observed in a situation in
field, then there will no force on the conductor
which the axis of the rod ‘AB’ is moved
exerted by the magnetic field.
and aligned parallel to the magnetic field
5. (d) All the factors affect the strength of magnetic
and current is passed in the rod in the same
force.
direction? [CBSE 2022]
6. (a) Apply Fleming’s left hand rule
Ans. (a) Rod AB get displaced (½ Marks)
7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (a)
Reason: When a current carrying conductor
11. (a) 12. (d) out of the page
is placed in an external magnetic field
13. (c) into the page
perpendicularly, it experiences a maximum
force. (½ Mark)
V S A Very Short Answer (b) As current and magnetic field are parallel, there
Type Questions 2 Marks will be no force experienced by the conductor.
14. (a) An alpha particle while passing through Hence, no displacement in rod. (1 Mark)
a magnetic field gets projected towards [CBSE Marking Scheme]
north. In which direction will an electron 17. What are the factors which govern the force
project when it passes through the same experienced by a current carrying conductor
magnetic field? placed in a uniform magnetic field depends?
(b) Name the rule to determine the direction Ans. The factors which govern the force experienced by
of magnetic field and direction of motion of conductor which is placed in a uniform magnetic field
electron. are:
Ans. (a) South (a) strength of the magnetic field in which conductor
(b) In both cases it is Fleming’s Left Hand rule. is placed.
15. When is the force experienced by a current- (b) strength of current flowing through the conductor.
carrying straight conductor placed in uniform (c) length of conductor.
magnetic field 18. Why and when does a current carrying conductor
(a) Maximum; (b) Minimum [CBSE 2022] kept in a magnetic field experience force? List the
Ans. (a) Maximum: When the direction of current in a factors on which direction of this force depends?
current carrying conductor is perpendicular to [CBSE 2014]
the direction of magnetic field. Ans. The drifting of free electrons of a conductor in a
(b) Minimum: (Zero) When the direction of current definite direction causes the current to flow through
in a current carrying conductor is parallel/anti- it. When such conductor is placed in a uniform
parallel/along the direction of magnetic field. magnetic field, each drifted electron of a conductor
16. As shown in the diagram an aluminium rod experience a magnetic force. This force is collectively
‘AB’ is suspended horizontally between the two experience by a conductor as a whole. Hence a
poles of a strong horse shoe magnet in such a current carrying conductor kept in a magnetic field
way that the axis of rod is horizontal and the experience a force.
direction of the magnetic field is vertically The direction of magnetic force depends on
upward. The rod is connected in series with a (i) direction of current through the conductor, and
battery and a key. (ii) direction of magnetic field.
19. State the direction of magnetic field in the case as Ans. (a) Fleming’s Left-Hand Rule: Stretch the thumb,
shown. forefinger and middle finger of the left hand
(i) Force (ii) mutually perpendicular to each other such that
Force on the
Conductor
the forefinger point towards the direction of
magnetic field, the middle finger points in the
Current
direction of current, then the thumb will indicate
e– the direction of motion or force experienced by
the conductor. It is to be applied only when the
Ans.
(i) In given situation, according to Fleming’s Left-
current and magnetic fields both are perpendicular
Hand Rule, Force is along y-axis.
to each other.
Current is along x-axis.
Then magnetic field is along z-axis.
n
Motio
F
Y
Magnetic Field
–
e I
–X X
Current
Z B
(ii) Perpendicular to plane of paper in the outward
(b) (1) Force on the electron will be maximum in
direction by using Fleming’s Left-Hand Rule.
the case of figure (i) because the direction of
motion of electron and magnetic field both
A Short Answer
S are perpendicular to each other.
(2) Force on the electron will be minimum in
20. What happens to the force acting on current the case of figure (iii) because the electron is
carrying conductor placed in magnetic field when: moving along the direction of magnetic field.
(a) Direction of magnetic field is reversed without
changing the direction of current. A Long Answer
(b) Direction of the current is reversed without L Type Questions 5 Marks
changing the direction of magnetic field.
22. (a) Mention the factors on which the direction
(c) Direction of both the current and the magnetic
of force experienced by a current carrying
field is reversed.
conductor placed in a magnetic field depend.
Ans. Force acting on a current carrying conductor placed
(b) A proton beam is moving along the direction
in a magnetic field will
of magnetic field. What force acting on proton
(a) act in opposite direction to that of previous
beam?
direction.
(c) The diagram shows a beam of electrons about
(b) act in opposite direction to that of previous
to enter a magnetic field. The direction of the
direction.
field is into the page. [HOTS]
(c) remain in the same direction.
X X X X
21. (a) State the rule used to find the force acting → X X X X Magnetic field
on a current carrying conductor placed in a
Electron beam X X X X into page
magnetic field.
X X X X
(b) Given below are three diagrams showing entry
What will be the direction of deflection, if any,
of an electron in a magnetic field. Identify the
as the beam passes through the field?
case in which the force will be
Ans. (a) The direction of force experienced by a current
(1) maximum and (2) minimum respectively.
carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field
Give reason for your answer. [CBSE 2023]
Electron
depends on
Electron (i) direction of current in a conductor, and
Magnetic Magnetic (ii) direction of magnetic field.
field field (iii) angle between the direction of current and
(i) (ii) direction of magnetic field and
(iv) length of the conductor which is placed in
Electron
Magnetic magnetic field.
field (b) The parallel or anti-parallel magnetic field does
(iii) not exert any force on the charge particle which
moves along the direction of magnetic field. is into the page. So, according to Fleming’s left
Hence, the proton beam does not experience any hand rule, force is perpendicular to the flow of
force. current and in its left side. So, electron beam
(c) Direction of current is from right to left as electron deflects towards bottom of the page.
beam enters from left to right and magnetic field
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Magnitude of the magnetic force experienced by a 4. (a) State one application of Fleming’s left hand rule.
current carrying conductor in a uniform magnetic (b) An electron enters a magnetic field at right
field is maximum when the magnetic field and current angles to it, as shown in figure. What will be the
direction are direction of force acting on the electron?
(a) mutually perpendicular to each other Electron
(b) at angle of 60°
(c) at angle of 120° Magnetic
(d) at angle of 180° field
2. The current in the wire is directed towards east and
wire is placed in a magnetic field towards north, the
force on the wire is 5. State whether an alpha particle will experience
(a) due east any force in a magnetic field if (alpha particles are
(b) due west positively charged particles)
(c) vertically downwards (a) it is placed in the field at rest.
(d) vertically upwards (b) it moves in the magnetic field parallel to field lines.
3. Name two devices that uses the current carrying (c) it moves in a magnetic field perpendicular to field
conductors and magnetic field. lines.
Justify your answer in each case. [CBSE 2016]
TOPIC COVERED
Domestic Electric Circuits
(a) High conductivity
Multiple Choice (b) Low melting point
Questions 1 Mark (c) Do not burn due to oxidation
1. At the time of short circuit, the electric current in (d) All of the above
the circuit [CBSE 2020] 5. Overloading is due to
(a) vary continuously (a) Insulation of wire is damaged
(b) does not change (b) Fault in the appliances
(c) reduces substantially (c) Accidental hike in supply voltage
(d) increases heavily (d) All of the above
2. The most important safety method used for 6. The metallic body of electrical appliances are
protecting home appliances from short circuiting connected to the earth wire. For the current, this
or overloading is will provide
(a) earthing (b) use of fuse [KVS] (a) a low-resistance conducting path.
(c) use of stabilizers (d) use of electric meter (b) a high-resistance insulating path.
3. Earth wire carries (c) a medium resistance conducting path.
(a) current (b) voltage (d) a closed zero resistance insulating path.
(c) no current (d) heat 7. The potential difference between the live wire and
4. Which among of these are the main characteristics neutral wire in our country is
of fuse element? (a) 110 V (b) 220 V
(c) 300 V (d) 50 V
8. The user of electrical appliances may not get a 12. Explain, why fuse wire is made of a tin-lead alloy
severe electric shock due to and not copper?
(a) touching the appliances with bare foot Ans. Tin-lead alloy has a low melting point so wire made
(b) absence of fuse wire of this alloy melt easily whereas copper has a high
(c) earthing of appliances melting point due to which fuse made of copper wire
(d) short circuit will not melt easily when a short circuit takes place.
9. Which type of current rating supply is required 13. Explain any two situations that can cause electrical
in our country for the electrical devices such as hazards in domestic circuits. [CBSE 2013]
geysers, air conditioners, room heaters etc? Ans. (i) Connecting too many electrical devices to a
(a) 220 V, 5 A (b) 110 V, 5 A single socket or in the extension cord for any
(c) 220 V, 15 A (d) 110 V, 15 A length of time draws high current from the
10. In domestic electric circuits the wiring with mains that will exceed the current rating of
15 A current rating is for the electric devices which connecting wires. The wires cannot withstand
have [CBSE 2023] such a high current and melt and may cause fire.
(a) higher power ratings such as geyser. (ii) Most electrical hazards in domestic circuits
(b) lower power ratings such as fan. are caused by the faulty electrical outlets, old
(c) metallic bodies and low power ratings. and out-dated appliances. The chances of short
(d) non-metallic bodies and low power ratings. circuit, i.e. contact of live wire and neutral
wires with each other due to damage in their
insulation or some fault in the appliances are
Answers very high. It may result spark at the contact
1. (d) point which may even cause fire.
2. (b) It is most important method for protecting 14. (a) Electrical switches should not be operated
the electrical devices from short circuiting or with wet hand.
overloading by stopping the flow of any large (b) In domestic electric circuit, with which wire
electric current exceeds from its rating. we connect a fuse?
3. (c) Earth wire carries no current. Ans. (a) Switches should not be operated with wet hand:
4. (d) Fuse wire must have all the characteristic to Water is a good conductor of electricity as it
prevent from a possible damage. contains salt and impurities. When we touch the
5. (d) All are the causes to occur overloading switch with wet hand, it is possible that electric
6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (c) current will pass through our body and we get a
10. (a) severe shock.
(b) Fuse is always connected in series with live wire.
V S A Very Short Answer 15. Earth wire has zero voltage just like the neutral
Type Questions 2 Marks wire, then what is the difference between these
11. Give scientific reasons. two wires?
(a) Wires carrying electricity should not be Ans. Earth wire provides a good grounding connection
touched when bare-footed. between the metallic case of an electrical appliance
(b) We must not use many electrical appliances and the ground, which helps to save the user from
simultaneously. getting a severe electric shock in case of any leakage
Ans. (a) When we touch the live wire bare-footed, our of current, while neutral wire provides a return path
body is directly in contact with the earth. So, for the current.
current passes through the body to the earth. As 16. Cable of a microwave oven has three wires inside
our body is good conductor of electricity, we get it which have insulation of different colours black,
a severe shock. Hence, we should not handle live green and red. Mention the significance of the
wires bare footed.
three colours and potential difference between
(b) When many high power rating appliances are
switched on simultaneously, a large amount red and black one. [DoE]
of current flows through the main circuit and Ans. Significance of insulation colour:
current may exceed the bearing capacity of (i) Red colour insulation wire – Live wire
the connecting wires. This causes overloading, (ii) Black colour insulation wire – Neutral wire
which may cause fire. Hence, we must not use (iii) Green colour insulation wire – Earth wire
many electrical simultaneously. Live wire is at higher potential of 220 V while
neutral wire is at zero potential. So, potential
difference between red and black insulation breaks the circuit there by stopping the flow of
wire is 220 V. current in the circuit.
17. (a) Why switches are connected in live wire not Thus, electric fuse prevent the electric circuit
in neutral wire? and appliances from a possible damage due to
(b) Can we use the same kind of fuse for both short circuiting or overloading.
power and lightning circuits? 19. State the consequences that can lead to a short
Ans. (a) Switch is always connected in the live wire circuit.
because Or
(i) the appliances must be put to the high One of the major cause of fire in office building
potential terminal. is short circuiting. List three factors which may
(ii) in OFF position, circuit is incomplete, i.e. lead to the short circuit. [CBSE 2014]
the circuit will becomes an open circuit. Ans. It occurs as a consequence of
Therefore, no current reaches to appliances. • failure of electrical insulations due to which live wire
But if we connect the switch in neutral wire, the comes in direct contact with neutral or earth wire.
appliance remain connected with live wire which • presence of external conducting material (such
is dangerous for the user. as water) that is introduced accidently into the
(b) No, for power circuit, the fuse rating is 15 A circuit.
while for lightning circuit, fuse rating is 5 A. • electrical appliances are forced to operate when
its moving parts are jammed.
A Short Answer • connection of current carrying parts of electrical
S Type Questions 3 Marks equipment’s to one another due to human or
18. (i) Why is an alternating current (A.C.) consid- natural cause or
ered to be advantageous over direct current • use of less rating wires.
(D.C.) for the long distance transmission of When this happens, there is a flow of an excessive
electric power? electric current which can damage the circuit and
(ii) How is the type of current used in household may also cause electrical fires.
supply different from the one given by a 20. Explain the meaning of overloading of an ·electrical
battery of dry cells? circuit. List two possible causes due to which
(iii) How does an electric fuse prevent the overloading may occur in household circuits.
electric circuit and the appliances from a Write one preventive measure that should be
possible damage due to short circuiting or taken to avoid overloading of domestic circuits.
overloading? [CBSE 2023] [CBSE 2023]
Ans. (i) AC is preferred over DC because it can be Ans. • Overloading: If the current drawn by the many
transmitted over long distance without much electrical appliances connected to a single socket
loss of energy. exceeds the current rating of the wire, the entire
(ii) • In household supply, alternating current (AC) circuit or part of circuit gets heated and can even
is used. The source of AC is AC generator. cause fire. This is known as overloading.
• The current given by a battery of dry cell is • It might be due to
direct current (DC). (i) accidental hike in supplied voltage or
• (a) The alternating current (AC) reverses (ii) connecting too many appliances to a single
its direction periodically whereas the socket or
direct current (DC) always flow in one (iii) damage in the insulation of wires or
direction. (iv) some fault in the appliances or
(b) The frequency of AC is 50 Hz while that (v) direct contact between a live wire and a neutral
for DC is zero. wire.
(iii) Fuse wire, an alloy of copper, aluminium, tin, • Preventive measure to avoid overloading are:
lead, etc. having low melting point. When (i) An excess number of electrical device should
excessive amount of current larger than the not be connected to the same single socket.
specified value due to short circuiting or (ii) One should not use too many appliances having
overloading flows through the circuit, the high power device at the same time.
temperature of fuse wire increases. The heating (any one)
effect of current causes the fuse wire to melt and
21. Observe Madhu’s and Rahul’s circuits shown 23. (a) An electric fuse of rating 3 A is connected in
below. [CFPQ, CBSE] a circuit in which an electric iron of power
Madhu’s circuit Rahul’s circuit 1.5 kW is connected which operates at 220 V.
Bulb Bulb What would happen? Explain. [CBSE 2015]
(b) Which effect of electric current is utilised in
the working of an electrical fuse?
Switch Switch
(c) Name two safety measures taken in domestic
circuits.
Ans. (a) Power, P = V I
P 1.5 kW
⇒ I= =
Neutral Live Neutral Live V 220 V
wire wire wire wire 1500 W
= = 6.8 A
AC supply AC supply 220 V
220 V 220 V
Thus, current drawn by the electric iron is much
(a) In which circuit will the bulb glow when the more greater than the fuse rating 3 A. So, fuse
switch is closed? Explain why. will be blown.
(b) Both Madhu and Rahul open the switches in (b) Heating effect of electric current.
their circuits to change the bulbs. For whom (c) Earthing and fuse.
will changing the bulb be safe and for whom
will it be dangerous? Explain why. 24. (a) State two point difference between short
Ans. (a) • The bulb will glow in both the circuits. circuit and overloading.
• The circuits will be closed/complete. (b) An electric sandwich maker of 1.0 kW is
(b) • Changing the bulb will be dangerous for operated in a domestic circuit (220 V) that
Madhu. has a current rating of 5 A. What result do
• Changing the bulb will be safe for Rahul. you expect in this case? Explain.
• In Madhu’s circuit, the bulb point is still Ans. (a) Short circuit Overloading
connected to the live wire and can give an 1. It occurs when 1. It occurs by
electric shock even when the switch is in the live wire comes connecting too
open position. in direct contact many appliances
• In Rahul’s circuit, the bulb point is no longer with neutral to a single socket
connected to the live wire when the switch is wire. and turned on
in the open position. simultaneously.
22. (a) In the circuit below, in case of an overload, 2. Current in the 2. Less amount of
will the fuse protect the electric oven from circuit abruptly current flows
damage? Justify your answer. increases. as compared to
Oven
short circuit.
3. Voltage drops to 3. Voltage becomes
zero. low but cannot
Switch
be zero.
(b) Current drawn by electric oven,
P 1.0 kW 1000 W
I = = = = 4.54 A
Fuse V 220 V 220 V
Neutral wire Live wire which is less than the current rating 5 A. So
AC supply fuse will not blow off and oven will work
220 V continuously.
(b) If the oven has a rating of 13 A, what should 25. (a) Why the current abruptly increases during
be the minimum rating of the fuse? short circuit? Explain.
[CFPQ, CBSE] (b) When you connect the live wire to the neutral
Ans. (a) • No wire through an electric bulb a short circuit
• The fuse will blow only after current has passed does not occur. Why?
through the oven and damaged it. Ans. (a) During the short circuit, at the point of contact,
(b) A little above 13 A, i.e., 14 A, 15 A. the resistance becomes zero. So as per Ohm’s
law,
V V (iii) The magnitude of AC can be controlled by using
I== = (infinite)
R 0 inductor (coil) without any appreciable loss of
Hence, infinite or maximum current will flow energy.
from that path which is called short circuit. (iv) AC can easily be converted into DC with the
(b) The filament of an electric bulb has some help of rectifiers.
resistance. When a current passes through it, (v) AC can be transmitted over a long distance
there is some potential drop across the resistance. without much loss of energy as compared to a
This will limit the flow of current and ensure that DC transmission.
a short circuit does not occur. (vi) AC devices are highly efficient, more durable,
less expensive and are simple in their functions.
A Long Answer Disadvantages of AC.
L Type Questions 5 Marks (i) It is dangerous to use due to its high peak value.
26. (a) Explain why there are two separate circuits Therefore, good insulation of wire is required.
one for high power rating appliances and (ii) As AC is transmitted near the surface of a
other for low power rating appliances. conductor, it needs several strands of thin wire
insulated from each other.
(b) A domestic circuit has 5 A fuse. How many
(iii) Any electrical equipment which need DC cannot
bulbs of rating 100 W, 220 V can be safely
run on AC.
used in this circuit? Justify your answer. (iv) At higher voltage of AC, more safety measures
[CBSE 2014] are required.
Ans. (a) Two separate circuits are formed in the domestic (v) AC attracts a person who touches it unlike DC
wiring, one for high power rating appliances which gives a repelling shock.
called power circuit and other for low power 28. Although electric kettle and electric toaster were used
rating called lightning circuit. simultaneously in the kitchen to prepare breakfast
Power circuit: The circuit which draw heavy for the family, yet the two devices could work
current (15 A) from mains and used for high efficiently due to ‘fuse’ used in the electric circuit.
power rating devices such as microwave, oven, (i) What is a fuse? Write the material used in
air conditioners, geysers, washing machine, etc. fuse wires. How is a fuse connected in an
is known as power circuit. electric circuit?
Lightning circuit: The circuit which draw small (ii) State the ratings of fuse used in electric
amount of current from the mains and used for circuits.
low power rating devices such as bulb, tube light, (iii) What is the function of a fuse? How does it
fans, T.V., Computer, etc. having a current rating perform its function?
of 5A is known as lightning circuit. (iv) A device uses 1 kW electric power when
(b) Power rating of bulb = 100 W, 220 V operated at 220 V. Calculate the rating of
Electric current flowing in the circuit is given by the fuse to be used. [CBSE 2021(C)]
P Ans. (i) • A fuse is a safety device / used in domestic
I= electric circuits to prevent damages from
V
short circuiting or overloading. (½ Mark)
Hence, I = 5 A, V = 220 V and P = n × 100 W
• A n alloy / metal of appropriate (lower)
Where, n = number of bulbs
melting point / aluminium / copper / iron /
n × 100
\ 5= lead etc. (½ Mark)
220 • In series (½ Mark)
5 × 220 1100 (ii) 1A, 2A, 3A, 5A, 10A (any other appropriate
\ n= = = 11
100 100 value) (½ Mark)
So, 11 bulbs of 100 W can be used in the domestic (iii) • To protect the circuits and appliances by
circuit having potential difference of 220 V. stopping the flow of unduly high electric
27. State the various advantages and disadvantages current. (½ Mark)
of AC over DC. • If current larger than the specified / rated value
Ans. Advantages of AC over DC. flows through the circuit, the temperature of
(i) The generation of AC is cheaper than that of DC. the fuse wire increases, this melts the fuse
(ii) AC voltage can be stepped up or stepped down wire and breaks the circuit. (½ Mark)
with the help of transformers.
(iv) Power = 1 kW; V = 220 V; I = ? (a) Name the type of current in two cases.
Formula used (b) Identify any one source for each type of these
• P = VI (½ Mark) currents.
P 1000 (c) What is the frequency of current in case II in
⇒ I= = (½ Mark)
V 220 India?
= 4.54 A (½ Mark) (d) Use above graphs to write two differences
Rating of fuse will be 5A and above(½ Mark) between the current in two cases.
[CBSE Marking Scheme] (e) After what interval of time current in the case
29. You are given following current-time graphs from II changes its direction?
two different sources: Ans. (a) DC in case I and AC in the case II.
(b) Cell or a battery – Source of DC.
Current Generator – Source of AC.
(c) Frequency of AC is 50 Hz in India while DC has
zero frequency.
(d) In case I, current remains constant and
frequency is zero whereas in case II, current
1
Time varies periodically with a frequency of
I = 50 Hz. in India. 0.02 sec
(e) From graph, the time interval after which AC
Current current changes its direction is 0.01 second.
0 0.01 0.02 0.03
Time
II
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Overloading is due to
(a) direct contact between live wire and neutral wire.
(b) accidental hike in supply voltage.
(c) connecting too any appliances to a single socket.
2. A fuse is normally a
(a) current rating device
(b) voltage rating device
(c) power rating device
3. (a) Give one difference between the wires used in the element of an electric heater and in a fuse.
(b) A domestic circuit is shown in figure. Analyse it and find out any four mistakes and their corrections.
Earth wire (E)
S1
Live wire (L)
Main
switch
board
B1 B2
Neutral wire (N) Fuse S2
M
Earthing

1. The instrument that use to detect electric current in 2. State and explain the rule to determine the direction
the circuit is known as (1 Mark) of a
(a) electric motor (a) magnetic field produced around a straight
(b) A.C generator conductor-carrying current.
(c) galvanometer (b) force experienced by a current-carrying straight
(d) none of these conductor placed in a magnetic field that is
perpendicular to it. [DoE 2023] (3 Marks)

In the following Questions, the Assertion and Reason is inversely proportional to the current through the
have been put forward. Read the statements carefully solenoid.
and choose the correct alternative from the following: Reason: The magnitude of the magnetic field at a
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the point on the axis of a current carrying solenoid is
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. directly proportional to the number of turns per unit
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the length of a solenoid. [DoE 2023]
Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. 7. Assertion: On freely suspending a current – carrying
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false. solenoid, it comes to rest in Geographical N-S
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason direction.
is true. Reason: One end of current carrying straight solenoid
1. Assertion: At high temperature, metal wires have a behaves as a North pole and the other end as a South
greater chance of short circuiting. pole, just like a bar magnet.
Reason: Both resistance and resistivity of material
8. Assertion: A current carrying straight conductor
vary with temperature.
experience a force when placed perpendicular to the
2. Assertion: A stationary charged particle placed in a direction of magnetic field.
magnetic field experiences a force. Reason: The net charge on a current carrying
Reason: A stationary charged particle does not conductor is always zero. [CBSE 2023]
produce a magnetic field.
9. Assertion: When the direction of velocity of moving
3. Assertion: It is easier to bring North pole of a magnet charge is perpendicular to the magnetic field, it
to South pole of other magnet. experience a maximum force.
Reason: There is a force of attraction between unlike Reason: Force on the moving charge does not
poles of magnet. depends on the direction magnetic field in which it
4. Assertion: A compass needle gets deflected when moves.
electric current is passed through the metallic 10. Assertion: It is fatal to touch a live electric wire as
conductor. the person gets a severe electric shock. In some cases,
Reason: Current carrying conductor produces electric shock can even kill a person.
magnetic field which exerts the force on the compass Reason: The electric current passes through the body
needle. to the earth forming a circuit and burns the blood.
5. Assertion: The magnetic field inside a solenoid is 11. Assertion: Fuse is a safety device which is installed
uniform. to prevent electrical circuits and possible fires.
Reason: The magnetic field lines inside a solenoid Reason: Fuse consist of tin-plated copper wire having
are parallel. [KVS] low melting point, which melts and breaks the circuit
6. Assertion: The magnitude of the magnetic field at if the current exceeds a safe value.
a point on the axis of a current carrying solenoid
12. Assertion: When a battery is short circuited, the 14. Assertion: The strength of the magnetic field
terminal voltage is zero. produced at the centre of a current carrying circular
Reason: In short circuit, the current is zero. coil increases on increasing the number of turns in
13. Assertion: Magnetic field lines do not intersect each it.
other. Reason: The current in each circular turn has the
Reason: Magnetic field lines are imaginary lines, the same direction and the magnetic field due to each
tangent to which any point gives the direction of the turn then just adds up. [CBSE 2023]
field at that point. [CBSE 2023]
The following questions are source-based/case-based
questions. Read the case carefully and answer the
questions that follow.
1. A student fixes a sheet of white paper on a drawing
board using some adhesive materials. She places a S B
bar magnet in the centre of it and sprinkles some iron
A
filings uniformly around the bar magnet using a salt-
N
sprinkler. On tapping the board gently, she observes
– +
that the iron filings have arranged themselves in a
K
particular pattern. [CBSE 2022]
(a) Draw a diagram to show this pattern of iron (a) Why does the rod get displaced on passing
filings. current through it ?
(b) Draw the magnetic field lines of a bar magnet (b) State the rule that determines the direction of the
showing the poles of the bar magnet as well as force on the conductor AB.
the direction of the magnetic field lines. (c) (i) In the above experimented set up, when
(c) (i) How is the direction of magnetic field at current is passed through the rod, it gets
a point determined using the field lines ? displaced towards the left. What will
Why do two magnetic field lines not cross happen to the displacement if the polarity
each other ? of the magnet and the direction of current
Or both are reversed ?
(ii) H ow are the magnetic field lines of a (ii) Name any two devices that use current
bar magnet drawn using a small compass carrying conductors and magnetic field.
needle ? Draw one magnetic field line each Or
on both sides of the magnet. (c) Draw the patten of magnetic field lines produced
[CBSE 2022] around a current carrying straight conductor held
vertically on a horizontal cardboard.
2. A student was asked to perform an experiment to Indicate the direction of the field lines as well as the
study the force on a current carrying conductor in a direction of current flowing through the conductor.
magnetic field. He took a small aluminum rod AB, a
strong horse shoe magnet, some connecting wires, a 3. A solenoid is a long helical coil of wire through which
a current is run in order to create a magnetic field. The
battery and a switch and connected them as shown.
magnetic field of the solenoid is the superposition of
He observed that on passing current, the rod gets
the fields due to the current through each coil. It is
displaced. On reversing the direction of current, the
nearly uniform inside the solenoid and close to zero
direction of displacement also gets reversed. On the
outside and is similar to the field of a bar magnet
basis of your understanding of this phenomenon,
having a north pole at one end and a south pole at
answer the following questions : [CBSE 2022]
the other depending upon the direction of current
flow. The magnetic field produced in the solenoid is 5. Michael Faraday was an experimental physicist. He
dependent on a few factors such as, the current in the introduces the concept of the magnetic line of force
coil, number of turns per unit length etc. to represent a magnetic field visually. According to
The following graph is obtained by a researcher his experiment, when bar magnet is surrounded by
while doing an experiment to see the variation of little bits of iron filings, each a little magnet of its
the magnetic field with respect to the current in the own. By tapping the surface, the iron filings arrange
solenoid. themselves in a particular pattern. They respond to
The unit of magnetic field as given in the graph an unseen presence—what Faraday called it “lines
attached is in milli-Tesla (mT) and the current is of force.” The following sketch shows the lines of
given in Ampere. force due to a bar magnet on the accumulated action
18 on little iron filings.
16
Magnetic field B (mT)
14
12
10
8
6
4
2
0
0.0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1.0 1.2
(a) What do the lines along which the iron fillings
Current (A)
align themselves represents?
(a) What will happen if a soft iron bar is placed inside (b) Why do iron fillings arrange themselves in a
the solenoid? particular pattern?
(b) What conclusion would you like to draw after (c) (i) W hat changes in the deflection of the
analysing the graph? compass needle would you observe as it
(c) (i) From the graph deduce the magnitude moves along the field lines?
of magnetic field inside the solenoid if it Or
carries a current of 0.8 A. (ii) State your observation about the sticking
Or of iron fillings at the middle and end of a
(ii) List the two distinguishing features between bar magnet. What does this observation
the magnetic field of a current carrying represent?
solenoid and a bar magnet. 6. Hans Christian Oersted (1777–1851) observed that
4. Shivani had to replace the electric plug of her clothes a compass needle suffers a deflection when placed
iron. She bought a three-pin plug as shown below: near a current carrying metallic conductor. Consider
two straight current carrying conductors R and S
carrying equal amount of current (I) in a direction
P perpendicular to the plane of paper outwards. Let
P be the mid point of the line joining R and S. The
Q following figure shows the magnetic field lines
around the wires without their directions.
R
When she removed the old plug, she saw that there
were three wires coloured red, black and green.
R P S
(a) To which pin of the plug should she connect the
green wire? To which part of the clothes iron is
the green wire connected?
(b) State one function of the green wire. (a) Redraw the figure and mark the direction of
(c) (i) Direct contact between which of the three magnetic field lines for both the wires.
coloured wires will result in a short circuit? (b) If the current in the wire is increased, how will
Or the strength of magnetic field around both the
(ii) State what happens to the current in the wires change? Represent this change by drawing
circuit in the case of a short circuit. Give the magnetic field lines around both the wires.
a reason for your answer.
(c) (i) W hat will be the strength of magnetic field Table B
at the midpoint P due to both the wires R
and S respectively? Give a reason for your Sr. Length of No. of turns Magnetic
answer. Name the rule that helped you to No. solenoid per metre Field
draw this conclusion. (m) (m–1) (x 10–4 T)
Or 1 0.5 200 2.51
(ii) Suppose B is the magnetic field at the 2 1.0 250 3.14
mid point P due to the current carrying
conductor R and let the direction of current 3 1.5 300 3.77
in wire S is reversed, what will be the 4 2.0 350 4.39
magnetic field at point P now? Give reason (a) From the table, what relationship would you
for your answer. observe between the (i) magnetic field and
7. A coil of many circular turns of insulated copper wire current, and (ii) magnetic field and number of
wound on a cylindrical insulating body (i.e. cardboard turns per metre of a solenoid?
etc.) such that its length is greater than its diameter (b) Why magnetic field inside the solenoid is
is called solenoid. When current is flowing through uniform?
the solenoid, the magnetic field is present inside the (c) (i) For same current flowing through a solenoid
solenoid. These current carrying solenoids are used and a straight conductor, the magnetic field
in electronic circuit and to form an electromagnet. By produced by a solenoid is much stronger
inserting the magnetic field sensor between the coils than the magnetic field produced by a
of a solenoid, one can measure the magnetic field straight current carrying conductor. State
inside the solenoid and determine the relationship one reason to justify this statement.
between the (i) magnetic field and current, and Or
(ii) magnetic field and number of turns per metre in (ii) State the direction of magnetic field lines
a solenoid. On performing the experiment with the for the following magnetic field pattern
help of suitable apparatus, the following observations produced by the current in the solenoid at
were noted. its end A and B. Give reason.
Table A
Sr. No. Current in Magnetic Field
solenoid (A) (x 10-4 T)
+ B
1 0.5 2.51
2 1.0 3.14 – A
3 1.5 3.77
4 2.0 4.39

NCERT ZONE
Page 196 Page 200

1. Why does a compass needle get deflected when 1. Draw magnetic field lines around a bar magnet.
brought near a bar magnet? Ans. Magnetic lines of force can be drawn by placing a
Ans. Compass needle is also a tiny pivoted magnet and compass needle near the north pole of the magnet
experience a force exerted by a magnetic field set and marking the position of north and south pole of
up due to a bar magnet. Due to this magnetic force, the compass needle. Repeat this process till we reach
compass needle gets deflected when brought near a near the south pole of the magnet. In this way, we
bar magnet. find the magnetic lines of force around a bar magnet
as shown below.
So, the direction of magnetic field can be considered
as the direction of total magnetic field due to circular
coil as current through all the elements will contribute
to the magnetic field in the same direction.
S N
2. The magnetic field in a given region is uniform.
Draw a diagram to represent it.
Ans. The uniform magnetic field is represented by
equidistant parallel lines. It is shown below.
Field lines of a bar magnet coming out
of North and getting into South
2. List the properties of magnetic field lines.
Ans. (i) Magnetic field lines have both direction and
magnitude. The direction of the magnetic field 3. Choose the correct option.
is indicated by the tangent drawn at any point The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid-
on the curve. carrying current
(ii) The field lines emerge from the North pole and (a) is zero.
merge at the South pole while inside the magnet, (b) decreases as we move towards its end.
they move from south to north. So they from a (c) increases as we move towards its end.
continuous closed curve or loop. (d) is the same at all points.
(iii) The strength of magnetic field is indicated by Ans. (d) It is the same at all points.
the closeness of the field lines. Closer the lines, Page 203
more will be the strength and farther the lines, 1. Which of the following property of a proton can
lesser will be the field strength. change while it moves freely in a magnetic field?
(iv) No two field lines intersect each other. (There may be more than one correct answer).
3. Why don’t two magnetic field lines intersect each (a) mass (b) speed
other? (c) velocity (d) momentum
Ans. The two magnetic field lines do not intersect each Ans. (c) and (d) because when charged particle enter in
other. If they intersect at the point of intersection, the magnetic field, then it moves in a circular path so
then there will be two different directions of magnetic velocity is changing at every point due to change in
field, which is impossible. its direction and hence momentum is also changed.
Page 201 2. In Activity 12.7, how do we think the displacement
1. Consider a circular loop of wire lying in the plane of rod AB will be affected if (i) current in rod AB
of the table. Let the current pass through the loop is increased; (ii) a stronger horse-shoe magnet is
clockwise. Apply the right-hand rule to find out the used; and (iii) length of the rod AB is increased?
direction of the magnetic field inside and outside Ans. In this case, the displacement is directly proportional
the loop. to the strength of current, strength of magnetic field
Ans. Consider a circular loop of wire of radius r with centre and length of the conductor. Hence, the displacement
O lying in the plane of the paper. Let the current I of conductor will increase in all the three cases.
pass through the loop clockwise. According to right 3. A positively-charged particle (alpha-particle)
hand thumb rule, direction of magnetic field due to projected towards west is deflected towards north
any portion of small current-carrying length of the by a magnetic field. The direction of magnetic field
coil is: is
I
(a) towards south
(b) towards east
I (c) downward
r O (d) upward
Ans. (d) According to the Fleming’s left-hand rule,
I I the thumb is in the direction of force,middle
finger is in the direction of current (direction
Direction of magnetic field inside the loop of motion of positively charged particle) then
— Perpendicular to the plane of paper inwards forefinger indicates the direction of magnetic
and field that is perpendicularly upwards to the
Direction of magnetic field outside the loop plane of paper.
— Perpendicular to the plane of paper outwards.
N 2. An electric oven of 2 kW power rating is operated
in a domestic electric circuit (220 V) that has a
current rating of 5 A. What result do you expect?
Force Explain.
W E Ans. P = 2 kW = 2000 W, V = 220 V
P 2000
a-particle I= = ;9A
V 220
The current rating of the circuit is 5 A and the current
S flowing is 9 A so the fuse melts. The circuit is broken
and the electric oven is saved from damaging.
Page 205
1. Name two safety measures commonly used in 3. What precaution should be taken to avoid the
electric circuits and appliances. overloading of domestic electric currents?
Ans. Fuse: For protecting circuits due to short circuit or Ans. We should not connect the number of appliances with
overloading of the circuit. a single socket to avoid overloading.
Earthing: For protecting us from a severe electric
shock if there is any leakage of current in metallic
body appliance.
NCERT EXERCISES
1. Which of the following correctly describes the 5. When is the force experienced by a current-
magnetic field near a long straight wire? carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field
(a) The field consists of straight lines perpendicular largest?
to the wire. Ans. When the length of the conductor and magnetic field
(b) The field consists of straight lines parallel to the are perpendicular to each other, the force experienced
wire. is maximum.
(c) The field consists of radial lines originating from 6. Imagine that you are sitting in a chamber with
the wire. your back to one wall. An electron beam, moving
(d) The field consists of concentric circles centred horizontally from back wall towards the front
on the wire. wall, is deflected by a strong magnetic field to your
Ans. (d) Right-hand thumb rule confirms the presence of right side. What is the direction of magnetic field?
this type of field. Ans. Electron beam
e–
2. At the time of short circuit, the current in the circuit Current (I)
(a) reduces substantially. Back wall Front wall
(b) does not change.

(Right side)
(c) increases heavily.
(d) vary continuously. F
Ans. (c) Increases heavily as the resistance becomes From the above figure, it is clear that by applying
almost zero at the time of short circuit. Fleming’s left hand rule, the direction of magnetic
3. State whether the following statements are true field inside the chamber is in downward direction.
or false. 7. State the rule to determine the direction of a
(a) The field at the centre of a long circular coil (i) magnetic field produced around a straight
carrying current will be parallel straight conductor-carrying current.
lines. (ii) force experienced by a current-carrying
(b) A wire with a green insulation is usually the straight conductor placed in a magnetic field
live wire of an electric supply. which is perpendicular to it, and
Ans. (a) True: The magnetic field at the centre of the coil (iii) current induced in a coil due to its rotation
can be taken to be uniform. in a magnetic field.
(b) False: Green wire is used as earth wire. Ans. (i) Right-Hand Thumb Rule: Hold the wire
4. List two methods of producing magnetic fields. carrying current in your right hand, such that the
Ans. Bar Magnet, straight wire carrying current and thumb indicates the direction of current, then
circular coil carrying current. (any two) the folded fingers will indicate the presence of
magnetic field (lines) surrounding the wire.
direction of the motion of a conductor then,
Current the middle finger will give the direction of the
induced current.
Movement
Ma
Field
gnet
of conductor
c
i Magnetic field
(ii) Fleming’s Left-Hand Rule: Stretch the Current

thumb, forfinger and middle finger of the left induced in
hand mutually perpendicular to each other such conductor
that the forefinger point towards the direction
of magnetic field, the middle finger points in [Fleming’s Right-Hand rule is not in syllabus for
the direction of current, then the thumb will 2023-24]
indicate the direction of force experienced 8. When does an electric short circuit occur?
by the conductor. It is to be applied only Ans. When live wire touches the neutral wire, circuit offers
when the current and magnetic fields both are very low resistance to the flow of current due to which
perpendicular to each other. current increases heavily in the circuit, electric short
circuit occurs.
n
Motio
9. What is the function of an earth wire? Why is it

Field necessary to earth metallic appliances?
Ans. Earth wire offers low resistance path to the current
and ensure that the body of the electrical appliance is
Current
at the same potential (electric) as that of earth (zero).

Any leakage of current in an electrical appliances to
their metallic body is immediately transferred to the
(iii) Fleming’s Right-Hand Rule: Stretch the earth through the earth wire and user gets protected
thumb, forefinger and middle finger of the from possible and dangerous electrical shock. Hence,
right hand mutually perpendicular to each other it is necessary to ground the metallic appliances
such that the forefinger gives the direction of through the earth wire which acts as a safety measure.
magnetic field and the thumb points in the
1. If the key in the given arrangement is taken out Therefore, at point O, due to presence of earth’s
(the circuit is made open) and magnetic field lines magnetic field, the magnetic field lines will be
are drawn over the horizontal plane ABCD, the straight and parallel to each other.
lines are 2. For a current in a long straight solenoid N-pole
and S-pole are created at the two ends. Among the
following statements, the incorrect statement is
(a) The field lines inside the solenoid are in the form
of straight lines which indicates that the magnetic
field is the same at all points inside the solenoid.
(b) The strong magnetic field produced inside the
solenoid can be used to magnetise a piece of
magnetic material like soft iron, when placed
inside the coil.
(a) concentric circles (c) The pattern of the magnetic field associated with
(b) elliptical in shape the solenoid is different from the pattern of the
(c) straight lines parallel to each other magnetic field around a bar magnet.
(d) concentric circles near the point O but of elliptical (d) The N-pole and S-pole exchange position when
shapes as we go away from it. the direction of current through the solenoid is
Ans. (c) If key is taken out, current will not flow through reversed.
the conductor and no magnetic field exist.
Ans. (c) A solenoid behaves like a bar magnet. Hence the and the source battery. Current in the coil enters
pattern of magnetic field associated with solenoid from the source battery through one conducting
and around the bar magnet is same. brush and flows back to the battery through another
3. A circular loop placed in a plane perpendicular brush.
to the plane of paper carries a current when the 6. A magnetic compass needle is placed in the plane
key is on. The current as seen from points A and B of paper near point A as shown in figure. In which
(in the plane of paper and on the axis of the coil) plane should a straight current carrying conductor
is anticlockwise and clockwise respectively. The be placed so that it passes through A and there is
magnetic field lines point from B to A. The N-pole no change in the deflection of the compass? Under
of the resultant magnet is on the face close to what condition is the deflection maximum and
why? [HOTS]
S
Ans. In the given situation, a straight current carrying
conductor should be placed in the plane of paper.
The field produced by it is perpendicular to the plane
of paper and parallel to the vertical axis of compass
(a) A needle. As a result there will be no change in the
(b) B deflection of compass needle.
(c) A if the current is small, and B if the current is The deflection is maximum when the conductor
large through the point A is perpendicular to the plane of
(d) B if current is small and A if the current is large paper so that field due to it is parallel to the plane of
Ans. (a) paper.
4. A uniform magnetic field exists in the plane of 7. It is established that an electric current through
paper pointing from left to right as shown in a metallic conductor produces a magnetic field
figure. In the field an electron and a proton move around it. Is there a similar magnetic field
as shown. The electron and the proton experience produced around a thin beam of moving (i) alpha
particles, (ii) neutrons?
Justify your answer. [HOTS]
Ans. (i) Yes, similar magnetic field produced around a
thin beam of moving alpha-particle, a-particle
being positively charged constitutes a current
in the direction of beam motion.
(ii) No, as neutron being electrically neutral and
does not constitute a current.
8. Meena draws magnetic field lines of field close to
the axis of a current carrying circular loop. As she
(a) forces both pointing into the plane of paper moves away from the centre of the circular loop,
(b) forces both pointing out the plane of paper she observes that the lines keep on diverging. How
(c) forces pointing into the plane of paper and out will you explain her observation?
of the plane of paper, respectively Ans. Strength of magnetic field at a point decreases as the
1
distance increases c B ? m Therefore as she moves
(d) forces pointing opposite and along the direction
of the uniform magnetic field respectively r
Ans. (a) away from the centre of circular coil, magnetic field
5. What is the role of the two conducting stationary decreases. This is indicated by the decrease in degree
brushes in a simple electric motor? of closeness of the field lines and appears diverging
Ans. The two stationary conducting brushes make the in nature.
contact in between the two halves of the split rings
9. Draw an appropriate schematic diagram showing common domestic circuits and discuss the importance of
fuse. Why is it that a burnt out fuse should be replaced by another fuse of identical rating?
Ans. A schematic diagram for common domestic circuit.
5A
S1
Earth wire (Green) S2 S3
P1
Live wire (Red) Fuse B
P2
Neutral wire (Blue)
Electric metre (Neutral wire)
Distribution box
containing main 15A
switch and fuses
for each circuit.
Power Plug
Importance of fuse : It is the most important safety device, used for protecting the circuit from short circuiting or

overloading.
• Burnt fuse in the live wire acts as an open circuit. So, to maintain the flow of current in the circuit and to prevent

the circuit from damage due to some fault, burn-out fuse should be replaced by another fuse of identical rating.
1. Inside the magnet, the field line moves: 8. State the two factors on which the magnitude of magnetic
(a) from north to south (b) from south to north field due to current carrying solenoid depends.
(c) towards south pole (d) away from north pole
9. What is the role of fuse, used in series with any electrical
2. A magnetic field directed in north direction act on an appliance?
electron in east direction. The magnetic force on the
10. How is the magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil
electron will act:
affected if
(a) vertically upwards (b) towards east
(c) vertically downwards (a) radius of the coil is increased.
(d) towards north (b) t he amount of current flowing in the coil is
3. At the time of short circuit, the current in the circuit increased.
(a) reduces substantially (b) remains same (c) number of turns in the circular coil increases.
(c) increases heavily (d) vary continuously 11. A current carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic
4. The purpose of the Fleming’s left hand rule is used for field. Now answer the following:
finding the direction of the (i) List the factors on which the magnitude of a force
(a) electric current (b) magnetic field experienced by conductor depends.
(c) motion of conductor (d) all of these (ii) When is the magnitude of this force maximum?
Direction: In the following Questions, the Assertion and (iii) If initially this force was acting from right to left,
Reason have been put forward. Read the statements carefully how will the direction of force change, if:
and choose the correct alternative from the following: (a) direction of magnetic field is reversed?
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the (b) direction of current is reversed?
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. 12. Many electrical appliances of daily uses like electric
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason press, heater, geyser, toaster, electric fan, T.V etc have
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. a metallic body. If the insulation in the circuit of any of
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false. these appliances damages and makes contact with the
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason metallic body, the person touching it is likely to receive
is true. a severe electric shock. This is due to the reason that the
5. Assertion: A compass needle is placed near a current metallic body will be at the same potential as the applied
carrying wire. The deflection of the compass needle one. Obviously the electric current will flow through
decreases when it is displaced away from the wire. the body of the person who touches the appliance body.
Reason: Strength of magnetic field decreases as one Now answer the following questions:
move away from a current carrying straight conductor. (a) How to avoid such serious accidents given in the
6. Assertion: All electrical devices with metallic body case?
have three pins excluding electric bulb which has two (b) It is dangerous to touch the live wire of the main
pin connection. supply rather than neutral wire. Why?
Reason: Three pin socket increases its cost of (c) List three characteristic features of electric current
manufacturing. used in our homes.
Or
7. State the rule to determine the direction of a
(c) Draw a schematic diagram of a common domestic
(a) magnetic field produced around a straight conductor circuit showing provision of
carrying current and (i) two commonly used safety measures.
(b) force experienced by a current carrying straight (ii) electric meter and (iii) distribution box
conductor placed in a magnetic field which is
perpendicular as to it.
Scan to get Answers

13
Our Environment 385
Our Environment
CHAPTER
MIND MAP
ENVIRONMENT
Sum total of all external conditions and influences that affect life and
development of an organism
Ecosystem
Structural and functional unit of
Biotic component Abiotic component biosphere, comprising of all interacting
Living organisms of the envi- Non-living part of the environ- organisms and non-living constituents
ronment, e.g. plants, animals ment, e.g. air, water, soils of an area
Natural Ecosystem Artificial Ecosystem

e.g. forest, desert, pond e.g. crop field, garden,
aquarium
Biodegradable Substances Non-biodegradable Substances

Which are broken down into simple, Which cannot be broken into simpler
harmless substances in nature by the harmless substances in nature
action of micro-organism
Decomposers
Producers Consumers
Microorganisms that obtain energy from chem-
Organisms which produce food by Organisms which depend upon pro-
icals derived by breaking-down of dead organic
photosynthesis, e.g. green plants ducers for food, e.g. row tiger
matter, e.g. bacteria and fungi
Carnivores Omnivores
Herbivores
Animals that eat meat Animals that eat both
Animals that consume
of other animals, e.g. plants and animals, e.g.
plants, e.g. cows
wolves, tiger human, cockroaches
Food Web
Network of various food chains which are interconnected at various trophic levels
Food Chain
Sequence of organisms through which energy is transferred in the form of food by the
process of one organism consuming the other
Trophic Levels
Steps in the food chain where transfer of food or energy take place
Producers Primary consumers Secondary consumers Tertiary consumers

e.g. green plants e.g. herbivores e.g. carnivores e.g. carnivores
Flow of energy (10% law)

Flow of energy through various steps in the food chain is unidirectional
1. Green plants consume 1% of energy of sunlight that falls on their leaves.
2. When green plants are eaten by primary consumers 10% of food eaten is turned into body.
3. 10% is the average amount of organic matter at each step that reaches the next level of consumers.
Energy Flow
Light Biotic Heat

Energy Community Energy
Abiotic Community
Biological Magnification Progressive Decline in the Amount of Energy

The process of increase in concentration of a toxic
chemical with increasing trophic level in a food chain.
Ozone (O3)
UV rays
O2 O+O
O2 + O O3
Ozone Layer
Layer of the earth’s atmosphere in which most
of the atmospheric ozone is concentrated.
Depletion of Ozone Layer

Harmful chemicals like CFCs reacts with ozone
resulting in reduction in thickness of the ozone layer.
Effect of Depletion of Ozone layer

Due to depletion of ozone layer more UV rays reach earth and
cause skin cancer, immune deficiency, reduces crop yield reduce
population of phytoplanktons and zooplanktons.
Our Environment 387
TOPIC COVERED
Eco-System – What are its Components?
(a) Food webs include two or more food chains.
Multiple Choice (b) All organisms that are not producers are
Questions 1 Mark consumers.
(c) A single organism can feed at several trophic
1. levels.
(d) Detritivores feed at all trophic levels except the
producer level.
7. Which of the following is a logical sequence of food
chain?
(a) Producer → consumer → decomposer
(b) Producer → decomposer → consumer
(c) Consumer → producer → decomposer
(d) Decomposer → producer → consumer
An ecosystem is represented in the figure given 8. Which of the following is an autotroph?
above. This ecosystem will be self-sustaining if (a) Lion (b) Insect (c) Tree (d) Mushroom
(a) the type of organisms represented by B are 9. In the garden ecosystem, which of the following
eliminated. are producers?
(b) materials cycle between the organisms labelled (a) Insects (b) Snakes
A and the organisms labelled B. (c) Grasses (d) Rabbits
(c) the organisms labelled A outnumber the organisms
10. In an ecosystem 10% of energy available for
labelled B.
transfer from one trophic level to the next is in
(d) the organisms labelled A are equal in number to
the form of: [CBSE 2020]
the organisms labelled B.
(a) heat energy
2. In an ecosystem, herbivores represent (b) chemical energy
(a) producers (c) mechanical energy
(b) primary consumers (d) light energy
(c) secondary consumers 11. Soil fertility is determined by its ability to:
(d) decomposers [CBSE 2020]
3. Trophic level in an ecosystem represents (a) Decay organic matter
(a) oxygen level (b) water level (b) Hold organic matter
(c) energy level (d) salt level (c) Hold water
4. A food chain comprises of birds, green plants, fish (d) Support life
and man. 12. Which statement shows interaction of an abiotic
The concentration of harmful chemical entering component with a biotic component in an
the food chain will be maximum in ecosystem? [CBSE T.E.R.M.*]
(a) green plants (b) man (a) A grasshopper feeding on a leaf.
(c) birds (d) fish (b) Rainwater running down into a lake.
5. First link in any food chain is usually green plants (c) An earthworm making a burrow in the soil.
because (d) A mouse fighting with another mouse for food.
(a) they are widely distributed
(b) they are fixed at one place in the soil Answers
(c) they alone have the capacity to synthesise food 1. (b)
using sunlight 2. (b) Herbivores are primary consumers.
(d) there are more herbivores than carnivores 3. (c)
6. Which of the following statements about food chain 4. (b) It is due to biological magnification.
and energy flow through ecosystem is false? 5. (c)
6. (d) activities depend upon the abiotic component
7. (a) comprising of physical factors like temperature,
8. (c) Green plants are autotrophs. rainfall, wind, soil and minerals. Therefore, we can
9. (c) Grasses are the producers. say that a garden is an ecosystem.
10. (b) The autotrophs capture the energy present in 16. In the following food chain, only 2 J of energy was
sunlight and convert it into chemical energy. Only available to the peacocks. How much energy would
10% of this energy is passed on to next trophic have been present in grass? Justify your answer.
level. GRASS → GRASS HOPPER → FROG → SNAKE
11. (d) → PEACOCK [CBSE 2022]
12. (c) Ans. In the given food chain
GRASS → GRASS HOPPER → FROG → SNAKE
V S A Very Short Answer → PEACOCK
2 J of energy was available. In a food chain, there is
13. What is an ecosystem? Give one example each of a loss of energy and only 10 percent of the energy
(i) natural, and (ii) man-made ecosystem. available at each trophic level is passed on to the next
[CBSE 2021 (C)] trophic level.
Ans. All organisms such as plants, animals, microorganisms Let energy present in Grass (first trophic level) = A J
and human beings as well as the physical surroundings Energy present in Grasshopper (second trophic level)
interact with each other and maintain a balance in 10 A
=A× = J
nature. 100 10
All the interacting organisms together with the Energy present in Frog (third trophic level)
non-living constituents of the environment form as A 10 A
= × = J
ecosystem. 10 100 100
Examples of– Energy present in Snake (fourth trophic level)
(i) Natural ecosystem — Pond, forest A 10 A
= × = J
(ii) Artificial or man-made ecosystem — Crop field, 100 100 1000
aquarium. Energy present in Peacock (fifth trophic level)
14. DDT was sprayed in a lake to regulate breeding A 10 A
= × = J
of mosquitoes. How would it affect the trophic 1000 100 10, 000
levels in the following food chain associated with a A
2J =
lake? Justify your answer. [CBSE Sample Paper 2022] 10, 000
HAWK
\ A = 20,000 J
Energy present in grass is 20,000 J
LARGE FISH
17. (a) List two natural ecosystems.
SMALL FISH
(b) List two biotic components of a biosphere.
PLANKTON [Delhi 2016]
AQUATIC ENVIRONMENT Ans. (a) Two natural ecosystems are forest and river.
(b) Two biotic components of a biosphere are plants
Ans. • DDT being a non- biodegradable pesticide will and animals.
enter the food chain from the first trophic level i.e
18. (a) When plants are eaten by primary consumers,
Plankton. (½ Mark)
a great deal of energy is lost as heat to the
• Non – biodegradable pesticides accumulate
environment and some amount goes in carrying
progressively at each trophic level. This phenomenon
out various life processes. State the average
is known as biological magnification. (1 Mark)
percentage of energy lost in this manner. [HOTS]
• HAWK will have the highest level of pesticide.
(b) What happens to Sun’s energy that fall on
(½ Mark) [CBSE Marking Scheme]
green plants?
15. With the help of an example explain that a garden Ans. (a) The average percentage of energy lost when plants
is an ecosystem. are eaten by primary consumers is 90 %.
Ans. A garden comprises of different kind of flora and (b) Green plants absorb 1% of Sun’s energy that falls
fauna such as grasses, flowering and non-flowering on their leaves.
plants, trees, frogs, insects, birds, etc. All these living
19. (a) What will be the amount of energy available
organisms depend and interact with each other and
to the organism of the 2nd trophic level of a
their growth, reproduction and other vital biological
food chain, if the energy available at the first
trophic level is 10,000 Joules?
Our Environment 389
(b) The first trophic level in a food chain is always An aquarium is an artificial and incomplete ecosystem
a green plant. Why? [AI 2015] compared to ponds or lakes which are natural, self-
Ans. (a) 1,000 Joules of energy will be available to the sustaining and complete ecosystems where there is a
organism of the 2nd trophic level. perfect recycling of materials. An aquarium therefore
(b) Only green plants can make their own food from needs regular cleaning.
sunlight. Green plants therefore, always occupy 23. “Energy flow in food chains is always unidirectional.”
the 1st trophic level in a food chain. Justify this statement. Explain how the pesticides
20. (a) Which of the following are always at the second enter a food chain and subsequently get into our
trophic level of the food chains? [AI 2015] body. [Foreign 2015]
Carnivores, Autotrophs, Herbivores Ans. The energy flow through different steps in the food
(b) The following organisms form a food chain is unidirectional. The energy captured by
chain. Which of these will have the highest autotrophs does not revert back to the solar input and
concentration of non-biodegradable chemicals? it passes to the herbivores, i.e. it moves progressively
Name the phenomenon associated with it. through various trophic levels. Thus energy flow
[Foreign 2015] from sun through producers to omnivores is in single
Insects, Hawk, Grass, Snake, Frog. direction only.
Ans. (a) Herbivores are always at the 2nd trophic level. Pesticides are sprayed to kill pests on food plants. The
(b) Hawk will have highest concentration of non- food plants are eaten by herbivores and alongwith
biodegradable chemicals. The phenomenon is the food, pesticides are also eaten by the herbivores.
called biological magnification. Herbivores are eaten by carnivores and alongwith the
herbivore animal, pesticide also enters the body of
A Short Answer the carnivore. Man eat both plants and animals and
S Type Question 3 Marks pesticide alongwith food enters the body of human.
21. What are consumers? Name the four categories Concentration of pesticides increases as we move
under which the consumers are further classified. upward in the food chain and the process is called
[CBSE 2021 (C)] biological magnification.
Ans. The organisms which cannot manufacture their own 24. What is meant by food chain? “The number of
food and depend on plants and other animals for their trophic levels in a food chain is limited.” Give
food. reason to justify this statement. [Foreign 2014]
There are four categories under which the consumers Ans. The series of organisms that take part at various biotic
are further classified are: levels form a food chain.
(i) Herbivores (ii) Carnivores At each trophic level in a food chain, a large portion of
(iii) Omnivores (iv) Decomposers the energy is utilised for the maintenance of organisms
22. What is an ecosystem? List its two main components. which occur at that trophic level and energy is lost
We do not clean natural ponds or lakes but an as heat. As a result of this, organisms in each trophic
aquarium needs to be cleaned regularly. Why is level pass on less energy to the next trophic levels,
it so? Explain. [AI 2015] than they receive. The longer the food chain, the less
Ans. Ecosystem: It is the structural and functional unit of is the energy available to the final member of the food
biosphere, comprising of all the interacting organisms chain, which will be insufficient for their survival.
in an area together with the non-living constituents
of the environment. Thus, an ecosystem is a self-
sustaining system where energy and matter are
exchanged between living and non-living components.
Main components of ecosystem:
Biotic Component: It means the living organisms
of the environment–plants, animals, human beings
and microorganisms like bacteria and fungi, which
are distinguished on the basis of their nutritional
relationship.
Abiotic Component: It means the non-living part
of the environment–air, water, soil and minerals.
The climatic or physical factors such as sunlight,
temperature, rainfall, humidity, pressure and wind are
a part of the abiotic environment.
25. Your mother always thought that fruit juices are Since an organism can occupy position in more than
very healthy for everyone. One day she read in the one food chain, in a food web it occupies more than
newspaper that some brands of fruit juices in the one trophic level.
market have been found to contain certain level of Example. Grass may be eaten by grasshopper as well

pesticides in them. She got worried as pesticides as rabbit or cattle and each of these herbivores may be
are injurious to our health. eaten by many carnivores such as frog, bird or tiger
(a) How would you explain to your mother depending on their food habits.
about fruit juices getting contaminated with
pesticides? A Long Answer
(b) It is said that when these harmful pesticides
enter our body as well as in the bodies of other 28. Write a note on the producers, consumers and
organisms they get accumulated and beyond a decomposers of the biotic environment with
limit cause harm and damage to our organs. examples of each.
Name the phenomenon and write about it. Ans. Producers: Those organisms which produce food by
[Foreign 2017]
photosynthesis, i.e. organisms which can make organic
Ans. (a) • Pesticides are the chemicals used to protect
compounds like sugar and starch from inorganic
our crops from diseases and pests.
substances using the radiant energy of the sun in
• Pesticides stick to the surface of the point
the presence of chlorophyll. Producers, therefore are
and in juice are made without proper washing
considered as a source of energy for those above it
pesticide will also go into the juice.
• These pesticides also get anded down to in a food chain.
underground water and are absorbed by plants. Examples: All green plants and certain blue-green
The pesticides than inter into the system of the algae are called autotrophs.
plants including the points when juice are made Consumers: Those organisms which depend upon
from sick fruits to juice also contains pesticides. the producers for food, either directly or indirectly
(b) • The phenomenon is called biological by feeding on other consumers for their sustenance.
magnification. It is the phenomenon in which Consumers, therefore, feed upon those below it in a
certain harmful chemicals enter the food food chain and are called heterotrophs. These can
chain and get accumulated and increase in be classified into primary consumers or herbivores,
concentration at successive trophic levels. secondary consumers or small carnivores, omnivores
• It is because they are not degradable. and parasites, e.g. cows, humans.
• The maximum concentration of these chemicals
is found in the top level consumers.
26. Why are bacteria and fungi called decomposers?
List any two advantages of decomposers to the
environment.
Ans. Bacteria and fungi breakdown the dead remains and
waste products of organisms. These microorganisms
are called the decomposers as they breakdown the
complex organic substances into simple inorganic
substances that go into the soil and are used up again
by the plants.
Two advantages of decomposers to the environment
are as follows :
(i) Decomposers feed on the dead bodies of plants
and animals. They return the simple components
to soil and help in maintaining the steady state
Examples of consumers:
of ecosystem by cycling of nutrients. They
Herbivores are the animals that consume or eat
therefore, create a balance in the environment.
vegetation or plants, e.g. cows, horses. Carnivores
(ii) They also act as scavengers or cleansing agents
are the animals that eat flesh of other animals, e.g.
of the atmosphere.
tigers, wolves. Omnivores are the animals that eat
27. What is food web? Explain with example. [DoE] both plants and animals, e.g. humans, cockroaches.
Ans. Food Web. It is the network of various food chains Parasites are those organisms that live on (ectoparasites)
which are interconnected at various trophic levels. or in (endoparasites), the body of another organism, i.e.
Our Environment 391
host from which it obtains its nutrients, e.g. parasites the maximum concentration of harmful chemicals in
of man includes fleas and lice (ectoparasites), various a food chain.
protozoans and tapeworms. (endoparasites) 30. (a) What is biodiversity? What will happen if
Decomposers: They are those microorganisms biodiversity of an area is not preserved?
that obtain energy from the chemical breakdown Mention one effect of it. [AI 2015]
of dead organisms or animal or plant wastes. (b) With the help of an example explain that a
These microorganisms are the decomposers as they garden is an ecosystem.
breakdown the complex organic substances into simple (c) Why only 10% energy is transferred to the
inorganic substances that enter into the soil and are next trophic level? [DoE]
again used up by the plants. Ans. (a) Biodiversity is the existence of a wide variety of
Examples: Bacteria and fungi. species of plants, animals and microorganisms in
29. Explain how harmful chemicals enter our body. a natural habitat within a particular environment
[DoE] or existence of genetic variation within a species.
Ans. Harmful and toxic chemicals enter our bodies when Biodiversity of an area is the number of species or
they are added to the soil and water. Pesticides are range of different life forms found there. Forests
used to protect the food crops from diseases, and pests. are ‘biodiversity hotspots’.
Chemical wastes of factories are dumped in open or Every living being is dependent on another
disposed off into rivers. These chemicals are washed living being. It is a chain. If biodiversity is not
down into the soil and ultimately to the water table or maintained, the links of the chain go missing. If
get absorbed or taken up from the soil by the plants one organism goes missing, this will affect all the
along with water and minerals. In this way harmful living beings who are dependent on it.
chemicals enter the food chain. The quantity of these (b) A garden comprises of different kind of flora and
chemicals increase with increase in trophic levels fauna such as grasses, flowering and nonflowering
of the food chain because these substances are not plants, trees, frogs, insects, birds, etc. All these
degradable and man is at the top of the food chain, living organisms depend and interact with
so concentration is maximum in human beings. Thus, each other and their growth, reproduction and
accumulation of DDT has been maximum in man as other vital biological activities depend upon
DDT is used to destroy pests. DDT is accumulated the abiotic component comprising of physical
in the following way in the given food chain – factors like temperature, rainfall, wind, soil and
Water → Phytoplankton → Fish → Bird minerals. Therefore, we can say that a garden is
0.02 ppm 5.0 ppm 240 ppm 1600 ppm an ecosystem.
This is the reason why our food grains such as wheat (c) Only 10% energy is transferred to the next trophic
and rice, vegetable and fruits and even meat contain level because other 90 per cent is used for things
varying amounts of pesticides residues. So, the highest like respiration, digestion, running away from
trophic level at the extreme right of food chain has predators.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. What will happen if deer is missing in the given food (a) secondary consumers
chain? [KVS] (b) decomposers
Grass → Deer → Tiger (c) top carnivores
(a) The population of tiger decreases and the (d) secondary and tertiary consumers
population of grass increases. 4. A correct food chain is:
(b) The population of grass decreases. (a) Producers → Carnivores → Herbivores
(c) Tiger will start eating grass. (b) Producers → Herbivores → Carnivores
(d) The population of tiger increases. (c) Herbivores → Producers → Carnivores
2. The percentage of solar radiation absorbed by all the (d) Herbivores → Carnivores → Producers
green plants for the process of photosynthesis is about: 5. The transfer of energy through a terrestrial ecosystem
[KVS] is depicted by energy pyramids. Which of the following
(a) 1 % (b) 8 % statements is true?
(c) 5 % (d) 10 % (a) About 10% of the energy from one trophic level
3. An ecosystem comprising of producers, herbivores and is incorporated into biomass of the next level.
carnivores is an incomplete ecosystem if it does not (b) Only 25% of the energy in one trophic level is
include: passed onto the next level.
(c) The energy lost as heat or in cellular respiration is 8. (a) Name the organisms belonging to the second and
10% of the available energy of each trophic level. fourth trophic levels in the food chain comprising
(d) Ecological efficiency is highest for top consumers. the following :
6. DDT was accidently added to the water of a lake. All Frogs, Plants, Snakes, Hawks, Insects.
the organisms in it would be affected by DDT. Which (b) DDT has entered food chain. Which food habit is
of the organisms would be affected the most? safer- vegetarian or non-vegetarian? [KVS]
(a) Man 9. With the knowledge of energy transfer in the food
(b) Birds living near the lake chain, man can place himself at an advantageous
(c) Fish living in the lake position in the food chain. Explain.
(d) Aquatic plants living in the lake 10. Describe with a diagram how energy flows through
7. Write the aquatic organisms in order of who eats whom different trophic levels. Describe how transfer and
starting from producer and form a chain of at least circulation of material takes place in nature, and the
three steps. What name is given to such a chain in role of decomposers in the process. State how recycling
an ecosystem and what name is given to each stage? of materials benefits living organisms. [HOTS]
[HOTS]
TOPIC COVERED
How do Our Activities Affect the Environment?
(b) This will help convert the CFCs into ozone
Multiple Choice molecules.
Questions 1 Mark (c) This will reduce the production CFCs from oxygen
molecules.
1. Which of the following is biodegradable? (d) This will reduce the release of CFCs that reacts
(a) Plastic mugs (b) Leather belts with ozone molecules.
(c) Silver foil (d) Iron nails 7. The table lists some waste products
2. Which of the following is non-biodegradable?
• Grass cutting
(a) Wool (b) Nylon
(c) Animal bones (d) Tea leaves • Polythene bags
• Plastic toys
3. Which one of the following will undergo fastest
bio-degradation? • Used tea bags
(a) Mango seed (b) Wood • Paper straw
(c) Mango peel (d) Mango pulp • Old clothes
4. Which rays strike on earth due to depletion of Which group of waste materials can be classified
ozone layer? as non-biodegradable? [CBSE T.E.R.M.*]
(a) Visible light (b) Microwaves (a) Plant waste, tea bags
(c) Infrared (d) Ultraviolet (b) Polythene bags, plastic toys
5. Nowadays, which type of cups are being generally (c) Used tea bags, paper straw
used in trains for serving tea, coffee, soup, etc. on (d) Old clothes, broken footwear
daily basis?
(a) Disposable cups made of clay Answers
(b) Washable plastic cups
1. (b) Leather belts are made from animal skin. They
(c) Washable glass cups
are biodegradable.
(d) Disposable paper cups
2. (b) Nylon is synthetic polymer. It is non-biodegradable.
6. The manufacturing of chlorofluorocarbons free 3. (d)
refrigerators is mandatory throughout the world. 4. (d) Ozone layer protects us from harmful ultraviolet
How does this help prevent ozone depletion? radiations.
[CBSE T.E.R.M.*] 5. (d)
(a) This will help convert oxygen molecules into 6. (d)
ozone. 7. (b)
Our Environment 393
12. State two problems caused by the non-biodegradable
V S A Very Short Answer waste that we generate in our daily life. [DoE, HOTS]
Ans. Two problems caused by non-biodegradable waste
8. We often observe domestic waste decomposing in that we generate in our daily life are:
the bylanes of residential colonies. Suggest ways (i) Waste like plastic, cans etc., if falls on drains
to make people realize that the improper disposal causes clogging of drains. Clogged drains causes
of waste is harmful to the environment. artificial flood in cities.
[Foreign 2014, Delhi 2013] (ii) Non-biodegradable waste like polythene when
Ans. (i) Residents Welfare Associations should hold gets buried in soil increases soil temperature
meetings regarding the ill-effects of decomposing making the soil unfit for agriculture.
domestic waste in the bylanes of colonies.
13. Mention three harmful effects of using polythene
(ii) Slogans could be written down or posters could
bags on the environment. Suggest an effective
be put at the places where people generally throw
alternative to these bags. [Foreign 2017]
their domestic waste.
Ans. Harmful effects:
9. Suppose you find a heap of domestic waste, in a (a) They are non-biodegradable and persist in the
nearby park, which is decomposing. What would environment for long periods.
you do to make the people of the surrounding area (b) Burning them produces poisonous gases that
realise that such type of disposal of domestic waste pollute the air.
is harmful to the environment? [Foreign 2014] (c) When ingested by the animals, it cannot be
Ans. (i) By writing slogans or putting posters at the places digested and the animals suffer from in digestion
where people generally throw their domestic waste. and some may die.
(ii) By motivating the people about proper Alternatives: Jute bags/cloth bags.
disposal of waste which prevents pollution that 14. How can we help in reducing the problem of waste
could otherwise endanger human health and disposal? Give any two methods. [DoE]
environment. Ans. Problem of waste disposal can be solved by following
(iii) Banners and signboards educating people about methods:
the ill-effects of improper disposal of wastes can (i) b y d i s p o s i n g b i o d e g r a d a b l e a n d n o n -
be erected/ hanged in residential colonies. biodegradable waster separately.
(iv) Street plays highlighting the ill effects of (ii) by reusing materials as much as possible.
improper disposal of wastes can be organized.
15. Mention the basis of classifying substances as
10. “To discard the household waste we should have biodegradable and non-biodegradable. Give two
two separate dustbins, one for the biodegradable examples of each.
waste and the other for the non-biodegradable Ans. Substances which can be broken down into simpler
waste.” Justify this statement suggesting the harmless substances in nature by the action of
proper way of disposal of these wastes. [Foreign 2014] microorganisms are called biodegradable substances.
Ans. Biodegradable waste can be recycled for future use. Non-biodegradable substances cannot be broken down
If we discard biodegradable and non-biodegradable into simpler harmless substances in nature.
waste in the same dustbin, then biodegradable waste Examples.
will become unfit for recycling. The proper way of (i) Biodegradable: Agricultural waste and cloth.
disposal of these wastes are: (ii) Non-biodegradable: DDT and polythene bags.
(i) Biodegradable waste can be converted into
compost which can be used as manure. 16. We can get electric energy from coal. Does human
(ii) Non-biodegradable waste should first be treated being get energy from eating coal? Give reason.
and then disposed. [HOTS]
Ans. Enzymes are specific in their action. Specific enzymes
11. Government of India is imposing ban on the use of are needed for break down of a particular substance.
polythene bags for shopping. List four advantages Human body does not contain the enzyme which can
of using cloth or jute bags over polythene bags. break coal to get energy. Hence, we do not get any
[Foreign 2013] energy if we try to eat coal.
Ans. Advantages of jute and cloth bags are:
17. (a) What is meant by garbage? List two classes
(i) They are re-usable.
into which garbage is classified.
(ii) They are biodegradable.
(b) What do we actually mean when we say that
(iii) They are stronger than polythene bags and can
the “enzymes are specific in their action”?
carry more load.
[CBSE 2022]
(iv) They can be repaired at home if torn.
Ans. (a) Garbage: A waste or rubbish produced from a (a) Chemical like BHC and DDT are carcinogenic
household is known as garbage. It includes spoilt in nature, i.e. cancer causing and induce
food, vegetable peels, leaves, paper, cattle dung, tumors.
etc. (b) Handling of waste materials may cause skin,
Two classes in which garbage is classified as: respiratory and intestinal infections.
(i) Biodegradable garbage (c) Non-biodegradable substances do not
(ii) Non-biodegradable garbage decompose easily so it produces land and
(b) All enzymes are specific for the type of chemical water pollution. (any two)
reaction they catalyse. Specific enzymes are 20. Gas A, found in the upper layers of the atmosphere,
needed for the break down of a particular is a deadly poison but is essential for all living
substance. Biodegradable substances are broken beings. The amount of this gas started declining
down by biological processes. Microorganisms sharply in the 1980s.
such as fungi and bacteria break down all living (a) Identify Gas A. How is it formed at higher
things whereas non-biodegradable substances do levels of the atmosphere?
not break down by biological processes or by the (b) Why is it essential for all living beings? State
action of enzymes. the cause for the depletion of this gas.
18. A lot of waste is generated in neighborhood. [CBSE Sample Paper 2022]
However, almost all of it is biodegradable. What Ans. (a) Gas A is Ozone. (½ Mark)
impact will it have on the environment or human Ozone at the higher levels of the atmosphere
health? [CBSE Sample Paper 2023] is a product of UV radiation acting on oxygen
Ans. Excess generation of biodegradable wastes can be (O2) molecule. The higher energy UV radiations
harmful as split apart some molecular oxygen (O2) into free
Its decomposition is a slow process leading to oxygen (O) atoms. These atoms then combine
production of foul smell and gases. (1 Mark) with molecular oxygen to form ozone.(1 Mark)
It can be the breeding ground for germs that create UV
O2 → O + O
unhygienic conditions. (1 Mark) [CBSE Marking Scheme]
O + O2 → O3
A Short Answer (b) Ozone shields the surface of the earth / protects
S Type Questions 3 Marks living organisms from ultraviolet (UV) radiation
released by the sun. (½ Mark)
19. Write one difference between biodegradable and Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) (½ Mark)
non-biodegradable wastes. List two impacts of each which are used as refrigerants / in fire extinguishers
type of the accumulated waste on environment if (½ Mark)
not disposed off properly. [CBSE 2023] lead to depletion of ozone layer.
Ans. Differences: [CBSE Marking Scheme]
Biodegradable wastes Non-Biodegradable 21. State in brief two ways in which non-biodegradable
wastes substances would affect the environment. List two
– These wastes can be – These wastes cannot methods of safe disposal of the non-biodegradable
broken down into simpler be broken down into waste. [AI 2013]
harmless substances in simpler harmless Ans. (i) Non-biodegradable waste may accumulate in the
nature by the action of substances in nature. environment and concentrate in the food chain,
microorganisms. thereby can harm organisms.
– Two ways in which biodegradable substances affect (ii) Non-biodegradable substances may pollute the
the environment are: soil and increase soil temperature.
• Biodegradable substances on decomposing Two methods of safe disposal of non-biodegradable
provides a breeding ground for flies, cockroaches waste are:
and other insects. These insects carry germs and (i) Recycling: The wastes are treated and some
spread various diseases like cholera, diarrhoea, etc. value materials are extracted for reuse.
• During decomposition process of biodegradable (ii) Incineration: Medical and toxic wastes are burnt
substances foul smell and some harmful gases at high temperature in incinerators. Incinerators
are released which make problem for the nearby transform the waste into ashes.
living people. 22. (a) What is ‘environmental pollution’?
– Two ways in which non-biodegradable substances (b) Distinguish between biodegradable and non-
affect the environment are: biodegradable pollutants.
Our Environment 395
(c) Choose the biodegradable pollutants from the 24. You have been selected to talk on “ozone layer
list given below: and its protection” in the school assembly on
Sewage, DDT, radioactive waste, agricultural ‘Environment Day.’
waste. (a) Why should ozone layer be protected to save
Ans. (a) Environmental pollution is an undesirable the environment?
change in the physical, chemical or biological (b) List any two ways that you would stress in your
characteristics of the natural environment, brought talk to bring in awareness amongst your fellow
about by man’s activities. This pollution may friends that would also help in protection of ozone
affect the soil, rivers, seas or the atmosphere. layer as well as the environment. [Delhi 2017]
(b) Differences between: Ans. (a) Ozone layer at the higher levels of the atmosphere,
acts as a shield to protect earth from the harmful
Biodegradable Non-Biodegradable
effects of the ultraviolet (UV) radiations; hence,
pollutants pollutants
it should be protected.
(i) These pollutants (i) These pollut- (b) (i) Urging the people not to buy aerosol products
can be bro- ants cannot be with CFC that are available in the market.
ken-down into broken-down into (ii) Conducting poster making competition or
non-poisonous non-poisonous street plays presenting the importance of
substances in na- substances by ozone layer on earth.
ture by the action microorganisms. 25. Why is damage to the ozone layer a cause for
of micro-organ- concern? What are its causes and what steps are
isms. being taken to limit this damage?
(ii) They get recycled (ii) They cannot be [CBSE Sample Paper 2023]
thus, do not need recycled thus, Ans. Damage to the ozone layer is a cause for concern
any dumping require dumping because the ozone layer shields the surface of earth
sites. sites. from harmful UV radiations from the sun which cause
(iii) These are (iii) These are skin cancer in human beings.
obtained from obtained from Synthetic chemicals like chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
living things. non-living things. which are used as refrigerants and in the fire -
(iv) They cause min- (iv) They cause extinguishers are the main reason for the depletion
imum environ- environmental of the ozone layer.
mental pollution. pollution. Steps taken to limit this damage - Many developing
(c) Biodegradable pollutants are sewage and and developed countries have signed and are obeying
agricultural waste. the directions of UNEP (United Nations Environment
Programme) to freeze or limit the production and
23. What is ozone? How and where is it formed in the usage of CFCs at 1986 levels. (1×3=3 Marks)
atmosphere? Explain how does it affect ecosystem. [CBSE Marking Scheme]
[Foreign 2015]
Ans. Ozone is an isotope of oxygen, i.e. it is a molecule A Long Answer
formed by 3 atoms of oxygen. L Type Questions 5 Marks
O2 → O + O
O2 + O → O3 (Ozone) 26. (a) How can we help in reducing the problem of
Ozone exists in the ozone layer of stratosphere. At waste disposal? Suggest any three methods.
higher level of atmosphere, O2 molecule breaks down [Delhi 2019]
to 2 oxygen atom. The oxygen atom then combines (b) Distinguish between biodegradable and non-
with the oxygen molecule to form ozone. biodegradable wastes.
Ozone layer in the atmosphere prevents UV rays from Ans. (a) The three methods for reducing the problem of
reaching earth. Exposure to excess UV rays causes skin waste disposal are:
cancer, cataract and damages eye and immune system. (i) Recycling: solid, wastes like paper, plastics,
It also decreases crop yield and reduces population metals can be sent to processing factories
of phytoplankton, zooplankton and certain fish larvae where they are remoulded or reprocessed
which are an important constituent of aquatic food to new materials.
chain. It also disturbs rainfall, causing ecological (ii) Production of compost: Biodegradable
disturbance and reduces global food production. Thus, wastes like fruit and vegetable peels, plant
it affect the ecosystem. products, left over food, grass clippings,
human and animal waste can be converted skin cancer, cataract and damages eyes and immune
into compost by burying this waste into system. It also decreases crop yield and reduces
ground and can be used as manure. population of phyto and zoo planktons and certain
(iii) Incineration: Burning down many fish larvae, which are important constituent of aquatic
household waste, chemical waste and food chain. It also disturbs rainfall causing ecological
biological waste into ash is known as disturbance and reducing global food production.
incineration. A large amount of waste can 28. (a) We often observe domestic waste decomposing
be easily converted into ash which can be in the bylanes of residential colonies. Suggest
disposed off in landfill. ways to make people realize that the
(b) Differences between: improper disposal of waste is harmful to the
Biodegradable Non-Biodegradable environment. [Foreign 2014, Delhi 2013]
wastes wastes (b) Suppose you find a heap of domestic waste,
in a nearby park, which is decomposing.
(i) These wastes can (i) These wastes What would you do to make the people of
be broken-down cannot be the surrounding area realise that such type of
into non-poison- broken-down into disposal of domestic waste is harmful to the
ous substances non-poisonous environment? [Foreign 2014]
in nature by the substances by Ans. (a) (i) Residents Welfare Associations should
action of micro- microorganisms. hold meetings regarding the illeffects of
organisms. decomposing domestic waste in the bylanes
(ii) They get recycled (ii) They cannot be
of colonies.
thus, do not need recycled thus,
(ii) Slogans could be written down or posters
any dumping require dumping
sites. sites. could be put at the places where people
generally throw their domestic waste.
27. What are chlorofluorocarbons? How are they (b) (i) By writing slogans or putting posters at the
responsible for causing ozone hole in atmosphere? places where people generally throw their
What will be the consequences of ozone hole? domestic waste.
Ans. Carbon compounds which contain chlorine and fluorine (ii) By motivating the people about proper
are called CFCs (Chlorofluorocarbons). For example, disposal of waste which prevents pollution
CCl2F2 (Dichlorodifluoromethane). CFCs are available that could otherwise endanger human health
in aerosol sprays. and environment.
They lead to depletion of ozone layer causing ozone (iii) Banners and signboards educating people
hole. CFCs (Chlorofluorocarbons) react with ozone about the ill-effects of improper disposal of
in stratosphere and deplete ozone. wastes can be erected/ hanged in residential
Consequences of ozone hole: colonies.
Ozone layer in the atmosphere prevents UV rays from (iv) Street plays highlighting the ill effects
reaching earth. Due to occurence of ozone hole, UV of improper disposal of wastes can be
rays reach earth. Exposure to excess UV rays cause organized.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. (a) Using ‘Kulhads’ as disposable cups to serve tea 2. How will accumulation of biodegradable waste effect
in trains, proved to be a bad idea. Why? our environment? [KVS]
(b) Why is plastic not degraded by bacteria? [KVS]

1. (a) Explain ‘biological magnification’ with the help 2. (a) State two problems caused by the non-
of an example. biodegradable waste that we generate in our
(b) Construct an aquatic food chain showing four daily life. [DoE, HOTS]
trophic levels. (b) What is meant by biodiversity? List two
(c) What are the advantages of disposable paper cups advantages of conserving forests and wildlife.
over disposable plastic cups? (5 Marks) (c) Draw an energy pyramid showing different trophic
level. [DoE] (5 Marks)
Our Environment 397

Direction: In the following Questions, the Assertion and 3. Assertion: Ozone layer is getting depleted at upper
Reason have been put forward. Read the statements atmosphere which is a cause of concern.
carefully and choose the correct alternative from the Reason: CFC reacts with ozone and breaks it.
following: 4. Assertion: Autotrophs can produce food on its own.
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason: Green plants can absorb 1% energy of sunlight
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. that fall on the leaves.
5. Assertion: Biodegradable waste and non-biodegradable
waste should be discarded separately.
Reason: Biodegradable waste are not harmful.
is true. 6. Assertion: Decomposers act as cleaning agents of
environment.
1. Assertion: Vegetarian food habit is more beneficial
Reason: The decomposers recycle waste material in
to organisms.
hydrosphere. [KVS]
Reason: Only 10% energy is available as food from
one trophic level to next. 7. Assertion: Garden is an artificial ecosystem.
Reason: Biotic and abiotic components are manipulated
2. Assertion: Accumulation of harmful chemicals is
by humans. [KVS]
maximum in case of organisms at higher trophic level.
Reason: Food chain normally do not go beyond 3 or
4 trophic level.
The following questions are case-based questions with Or
2-3 short sub-parts. (c) Justify the statement; ‘All the flesh of a carnivore
1. Every living thing plays a role in the food chain and is grass’.
Earth’s ecosystems, and the extinction of certain 2. There are more than 1000 pesticides used around the
species, whether predators or prey, can leave behind world to ensure food is not damaged or destroyed
significant impacts. Since the origin of life on Earth, by pests. Each pesticide has different properties and
it’s fair to say that more species have gone extinct toxicological effects. Many of the older, cheaper
than are currently alive now. Extinction itself is part pesticides can remain for years in soil and water. These
of the normal course of evolution. The effect of a chemicals have been banned by countries who signed
species would have if it were to fade from existence the 2001 Stockholm Convention – an international
depends largely on its role in the ecosystem. Predators, treaty that aims to eliminate or restrict the production
for example, are often the first to be threatened by and use of persistent organic pollutants. The toxicity of
hunting or competition with people and resources. a pesticide depends on its function and other factors.
When a predator goes extinct, all of its prey are released None of the pesticides that are authorized for use
from that predation pressure, and they may have big on food in international trade today are genotoxic.
impacts on ecosystems. The loss of a predator can Adverse effects from these pesticides occur only above
result in what is called a trophic cascade, which is a certain safe level of exposure. When people come
an ecological phenomenon triggered by a predator’s into contact with large quantities of pesticide, this
extinction that can also impact populations of prey, may cause acute poisoning or long-term health effects,
which can cause dramatic ecosystem and food web including cancer and adverse effects on reproduction.
changes. If there are too many deer, for example, (a) Name the pesticides banned by Stockholm
they can really change the ecosystem because they Convention.
can destroy forests, and they also carry disease. (b) What is biological magnification?
(a) What is an ecosystem? (c) Why is DDT is termed as a non-biodegradable
(b) List two man-made ecosystems. substance?
(c) What will be the impact if all the organisms of Or
one trophic level die? Give any one effect. (c) Which level of food chain will have the maximum
biological magnification? Will the levels of this (a) If 10,000J of solar energy falls on green plants in
magnification be different at different levels of a terrestrial ecosystem, what percentage of solar
the ecosystem? energy will be converted into food energy?
3. Human body is made up of five important components (b) In which trophic level, do rats fall in this food chain?
of which water is the main component. Food as well (c) If 10J of energy is available to snake, how much
as potable water are essential for every human being. energy will be available from snake to owl?
The food is obtained from plants through agriculture. Or
Pesticides are being used extensively for a high yield in (c) Why do the number of trophic levels is limited to
the fields. These pesticides are absorbed by the plants 3 or 4?
from the soil along with water and minerals and from 5. The stratosphere is very dry and rarely allows clouds to
the water bodies, these pesticides are taken up by the form. In the extreme cold of the polar winter, however,
aquatic animals and plants. As these chemicals are not stratospheric clouds of different types may form. These
biodegradable, they get accumulated progressively at clouds are called Polar Stratospheric Clouds (PSCs).
each trophic level. The maximum concentration of Scientists recently discovered that polar stratospheric
these chemicals gets accumulated in our bodies and clouds, long known to play an important role in
greatly affects the health of our mind and body. Antarctic ozone destruction, are occurring with
(a) Why is the maximum concentration of pesticides increasing frequency in the Arctic. These high-
found in human beings? altitude clouds form only at very low temperatures
(b) Give one method which could be applied to help destroy ozone in two ways: (1) They provide a
reduce our intake of pesticides through food to surface which converts benign forms of chlorine into
some extent. reactive, ozone-destroying forms, and (2) they remove
(c) Write an aquatic food chain with 4 trophic levels. nitrogen compounds that moderate the destructive
Or impact of chlorine. In recent years, the atmosphere
(c) Give two examples to illustrate that indiscriminate above the Arctic has been colder than usual, and polar
use of pesticides may result in the degradation of stratospheric clouds have lasted into the spring. As a
the environment. result, ozone levels have been decreasing.
4. Food chains are very important for the survival of (Information credit: NASA) [CFPQ, CBSE]
most species. (a) How is ozone formed in the outer atmosphere?
Food Webs (b) Ozone is being continuously destroyed due to
Secondary extreme low temperatures. However, ozone
cornivores formation is also a continuous process. Why is
there a depletion in the ozone layer still?
(c) What can be a positive effect of global warming
on the depletion of the ozone layer?
Or
(c) How does ozone layer depletion impact human
Primary health?
cornivores
Herbivores
Our Environment 399
NCERT ZONE
Page 212
1. What are trophic levels? Give an example of a food chain and state the different trophic levels in it.
Ans. The various steps in a food chain at which the transfer of food takes place are called trophic level. The given
example shows the trophic levels in a food chain:
Bird (5th Trophic level)
↑
Tertiary Snake (4th Trophic level)
consumers ↑
Secondary Frog (3rd Trophic level)
consumers ↑
Grasshopper (2nd Trophic level)
Primary consumers ↑
Producers Grass (1st Trophic level)
Trophic Levels in a food chain Food chain in grassland
2. What is the role of decomposers in the ecosystem? are released which make problem for the nearby
Ans. Decomposers decompose dead remains of plants living people.
and animals. By doing so, they serve two purposes. 3. Give any two ways in which non-biodegradable
Firstly, they reduce the burden on the environment substances would affect the environment. [DoE]
by clearing dead remains. Secondly, they channelize Ans. Two ways in which non-biodegradable substances
the raw materials back to the environment. affect the environment are:
Page 214 (a) Chemical like BHC and DDT are carcinogenic
1. Why are some substances biodegradable and some in nature, i.e. cancer causing and induce tumors.
non-biodegradable? (b) Handling of waste materials may cause skin,
Ans. Those substances which are of organic origin are respiratory and intestinal infections.
biodegradable, while those of inorganic origin are (c) Non-biodegradable substances do not decompose
non-biodegradable. Decomposers such as bacteria easily so it produces land and water pollution.
and saprophytes breakdown the natural substances (any two)
such as dead remains of animals and their waste Page 216
products and utilise organic substances as their 1. What is ozone and how does it affect any ecosystem?
food, while other substances cannot be utilised by Ans. Ozone (O3) is a form of oxygen. It is a triatomic
decomposers as food. Due to this reason, some molecule. It forms the ozone layer in our atmosphere.
substances are biodegradable while some others are It plays an important role in the ecosystem. The ozone
non-biodegradable. Examples: layer absorbs the harmful ultraviolet radiations from
Biodegradable: Agricultural waste and cloth. the sun and thus, protects us.
Non-Biodegradable: DDT and polythene bags
2. How can you help in reducing the problem of waste
2. Give any two ways in which biodegradable disposal? Give any two methods.
substances would affect the environment. Ans. The problem of waste disposal can be reduced by
Ans. Two ways in which biodegradable substances affect different methods. Two methods are given below:
the environment are: (a) By using more biodegradable substances
(a) Biodegradable substances on decomposing and reducing the use of non-biodegradable
provides a breeding ground for flies, cockroaches substances. For example: instead of plastic
and other insects. These insects carry germs and bags, we should use jute bags or cloth bags for
spread various diseases like cholera, diarrhoea, etc. shopping.
(b) During decomposition process of biodegradable (b) By proper segregation of waste before disposing
substances foul smell and some harmful gases them.
NCERT EXERCISES
1. Which of the following groups contain only to remove any organism in any trophic level without
biodegradable items? causing damage to the ecosystem.
(a) Grass, flowers and leather 6. What is biological magnification? Will the levels
(b) Grass, wood and plastic of this magnification be different at different levels
(c) Fruit-peels, cake and lime-juice of the ecosystem?
(d) Cake, wood and grass Ans. The process by which harmful chemicals enter a
Ans. (a), (c) and (d) groups contain only biodegradable food chain and get accumulated progressively at each
items. trophic level is called biological magnification.
2. Which of the following constitute a food-chain? Yes, level of biological magnification will be different
(a) Grass, wheat and mango at different levels of the ecosystem. The organisms
(b) Grass, goat and human at second trophic level will consume organisms of
(c) Goat, cow and elephant first trophic level resulting in higher concentration
(d) Grass, fish and goat of chemicals than that present in first trophic level.
Ans. (b) Grass → Goat → Human, constitutes a food Organisms at third trophic level will consume many
chain. organisms of second trophic levels resulting in higher
3. Which of the following are environment-friendly concentration of chemical in third trophic level as
practices? compared to second trophic level. Similarly, fourth
(a) Carrying cloth-bags to put purchases in while trophic level will have more concentration than third
shopping. trophic level.
(b) Switching off unnecessary lights and fans. 7. What are the problems caused by the non-
(c) Walking to school instead of getting your mother biodegradable wastes that we generate?
to drop you on her scooter. Ans. The problems caused by the non-biodegradable
(d) All of the above. wastes that we generate are as follows:
Ans. (d) A ll statements are environment–friendly (i) They cause water pollution and so water
practices. becomes unfit for drinking.
4. What will happen if we kill all the organisms in (ii) They cause land pollution, leading to loss of soil
one trophic level? fertility.
Ans. If we kill all the organisms in one trophic level, the (iii) They cause stoppage of flow of water in drains.
following effects will take place: (iv) They also cause air pollution and make the air
(i) The population of organisms in the previous poisonous when burnt.
trophic level will increase. 8. If all the waste we generate is biodegradable, will
(ii) The organisms in next trophic level will not this have no impact on the environment?
be able to get the food, so they will migrate to Ans. Biodegradable wastes are decomposed by
some other ecosystem or die due to starvation. microorganisms into simpler substances themselves
(iii) It will cause an ecological imbalance in the food and provide raw materials for producers, but they
chain. also have adverse effects on the environment.
5. Will the impact of removing all the organisms in (a) By increasing the burden on the environment
a trophic level be different for different trophic because they would accumulate.
levels? Can the organisms of any trophic level (b) By producing foul gases, when they are
be removed without causing any damage to the decomposing.
ecosystem? (c) Increase in the number of microorganisms in
Ans. Yes, the impact of removing all the organisms in a aquatic medium which cause oxygen deficiency
trophic level will be different for different trophic in water bodies.
levels. If all the producers are killed, it will cause 9. Why is damage to the ozone layer a cause for
death or migration of the primary consumers in the concern? What steps are being taken to limit this
ecosystem. In the absence of producers, subsequent damage?
level of consumers will also be affected. But if Ans. Ozone layer prevents the harmful ultraviolet radiations
primary consumers are removed, organisms of higher from entering the atmosphere and reaching the earth’s
trophic level will die, while those of lower level surface. So, depletion of ozone layer has become a
show exponential growth much beyond the carrying concern because UV rays can cause harmful effects on
capacity of the environment. It will not be possible human body and other organisms of the environment.
Our Environment 401
Fatal diseases like skin cancer, mutation in genetic (ii) Control over large scale nuclear explosions and
material (DNA), eye damage, etc. are some harmful limited use of supersonic planes.
effects caused by the depletion of ozone layer. (iii) Several developed as well as developing
Two steps to limit this damage are as follows: nations of the world have agreed to sign and
(i) Reduce the use of aerosol spray, propellants obey the directions of UNEP (United Nations
such as fluorocarbons and chlorofluorocarbons Environment Programme) to freeze the
which cause depletion or hole in ozone layer. production of CFCs or to limit their production
to some extent.
SELECT EXEMPLAR PROBLEMS

1. Which one of the following is an artificial ecosystem? 7. Write the common food chain of a pond ecosystem.
(a) Pond (b) Crop field Ans. Phytoplanktons and aquatic plants → Zooplanktons,
(c) Lake (d) Forest small aquatic animals, larvae, insects, etc. → Fish
Ans. (b) → Bird.
2. An ecosystem includes 8. What are the advantages of cloth bags over plastic
(a) all living organisms bags during shopping?
(b) non-living objects Ans. Advantages of cloth bags are as follows—
(c) both living organisms and non-living objects (i) They are strong and more durable than plastic
(d) sometimes living organisms and sometimes bags.
nonliving objects (ii) They are capable of carrying more things.
Ans. (c) (iii) They are washable.
3. Excessive exposure of humans to UV-rays results (iv) They are made of biodegradable material and
in do not pollute the environment.
(i) damage to immune system (v) They can be recycled.
(ii) damage to lungs (vi) They can be reused.
(iii) skin cancer (iv) peptic ulcer 9. Why are crop fields known as artificial ecosystems?
(a) (i) and (ii) Ans. Crop fields are known as artificial ecosystems because
(b) (ii) and (iv) they are man-made and some biotic and abiotic
(c) (i) and (iii) components are maintained, nourished and reaped
(d) (iii) and (iv) by human beings.
Ans. (c) 10. Suggest one word for each of the following
4. Which group of organisms are not constituents of statements/definitions:
a food chain? (a) The physical and biological world where we
(a) Grass, lion, rabbit live in.
(b) Plankton, man, fish, grasshopper (b) Each level of food chain where transfer of
(c) Wolf, grass, snake, tiger energy takes place.
(d) Frog, snake, eagle, grass, grasshopper (c) The physical factors like temperature, rainfall,
Ans. (c) wind and soil of an ecosystem.
5. If a grasshopper is eaten by a frog, then the energy (d) Organisms which depend on the producers
transfer will be from either directly or indirectly for food.
(a) producer to decomposer Ans. (a) Environment or biosphere.
(b) producer to primary consumer (b) Trophic level.
(c) primary consumer to secondary consumer (c) Abiotic factors.
(d) secondary consumer to primary consumer (d) Consumers or heterotrophs.
Ans. (c) 11. Select the mis-matched pair in the following and
6. Why is improper disposal of waste a curse to correct it.
environment ? (a) Biomagnification —
Ans. Improper disposal of waste is a curse to environment Accumulation of chemicals at the successive
and its components because it pollutes the trophic levels of a food chain
environment- air, water, soil and cause harmful (b) E c o s y s t e m — B i o t i c c o m p o n e n t s o f
effects on living organisms. For example, passage environment
of sewage into water body cause eutrophication, (c) Aquarium — A man-made ecosystem
killing of animals and acts as a source of water borne (d) Parasites — Organisms which obtain food
pathogens. from other living organisms.
Ans. (b) Ecosystem — Both biotic and abiotic 13. Suggest any four activities in daily life which are
components of the environment. eco-friendly.
12. We do not clean ponds or lakes, but an aquarium Ans. (i) Use of cloth bags instead of plastic bags for
needs to be cleaned. Why? [Delhi 2013] shopping.
Ans. An aquarium is an artificial and incomplete ecosystem (ii) Gardening.
compared to ponds or lakes which are natural, self- (iii) Harvesting of rainwater and preventing wastage
sustaining and complete ecosystems where there is of resources.
a perfect recycling of materials. Therefore cleaning (iv) Use of compost.
of aquarium is required.
14. Give two differences between food chain and food web. [AI 2015]
Ans. Difference:
Food Chain Food Web
(i) It follows a single pathway through which food ener- (i) It is an interconnection between food chain through
gy travels in the ecosystem. which energy is passed into the ecosystem.
(ii) Organisms present at higher trophic level feeds on (ii) Organisms has varied food sources.
single type of organisms.
(iii) A food chain have 4 to 5 trophic levels with only (iii) It has numerous population of different species.
population of few different species.
(any two)
15. Name the wastes which are generated in your (v) By using treated water to irrigate plants in the
house daily. What measures would you take for green belt area.
their disposal? 17. What are the by-products of fertiliser industries?
Ans. The wastes generated daily are kitchen wastes, paper How do they affect the environment?
wastes (like newspaper, bags, envelopes), plastic bags, Ans. The by-products of fertiliser industries are oxides of
vegetable and fruit peels, dust and empty cartons, etc. nitrogen and sulphur, i.e. gases such as SO2 and NO.
Measures for disposal They pass into the atmosphere and cause extensive
(i) Separation of biodegradable and non- air pollution, and are responsible for acid rain, which
biodegradable, recyclable and non-recyclable is harmful to living beings. Acid rain pollutes the soil
wastes. and harm crop production. It also affects the buildings
(ii) Safe disposal of plastic bags. and monuments.
(iii) Preparation of compost from kitchen wastes
18. Explain some harmful effects of agricultural
for home garden or given to waste collector for
practices on the environment.
disposal.
(iv) Paper waste can be given for recycling.
Ans. Some harmful effects of agricultural practices on the
environment are as follows:
16. Suggest suitable mechanism (s) for waste (i) Use of fertilisers change the chemistry of soil
management in fertiliser industries. and kills useful microbes.
Ans. Fertiliser industries produce mainly two types (ii) Use of non-biodegradable pesticides leads to
of wastes—gaseous and effluents which can be bio-magnification.
minimised as follows: (iii) Extensive cropping causes loss of soil fertility.
(i) Gaseous wastes are passed through wet (iv) Use of ground water for agriculture has resulted
scrubbers to dissolve the pollutant gases. in lowering water table.
(ii) Effluents should be treated before discharge (v) Natural ecosystems and habitat have
into surrounding environment. been damaged during clearing of land for
(iii) By having a unit to recover sulphur. agriculture.
(iv) By recycling the water to minimise discharge
of effluents.
Our Environment 403
1. Select the incorrect food chain. 5. Assertion: Biodegradable waste and non-
(a) Grass → Frog → Vulture biodegradable waste should be discarded separately.
(b) Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake Reason: Biodegradable wastes are not harmful.
→ Eagle
6. Assertion: Pond is a natural ecosystem.
(c) Grass → Deer → Lion
(d) Phytoplankton → Zooplankton → Small Fish Reason: Ponds are formed naturally.
→ Large Fish → Man 7. What are the advantages of using cloth or jute bags
2. Ecosystem includes: over polythene bags?
(a) All biotic and abiotic factors 8. In a food chain consisting of grass, deer and lion, 100 J
(b) All plants and animal species of energy is available to lion. How much energy was
(c) Plants found in land only available to grass from Sun?
(d) Both (a) and (b) 9. ‘All flesh of carnivore are grass’. Justify the statement.
3. Flow of energy in a ecosystem is always ________ 10. Make an aquatic food chain and state the trophic level
whereas flow of minerals is ________. at which concentration of pesticide is maximum and
(a) Unidirectional, cyclic why?
(b) Bidirectional, unidirectional
11. How is ozone formed in the upper atmosphere? How
(c) Multidirectional, bidirectional
is the ozone hole formed? What are the consequences
(d) No specific direction for both.
of ozone hole and how could we control the damage?
4. Accumulation of non biodegradable substances in
12. Food we eat acts as a fuel to provide us energy to do
the food chain in increasing amount at each higher
work. The interaction among various components of
trophic level is known as
the environment involves flow of energy from one
(a) Eutrophication
component of the system to another. The autotrophs
(b) Pollution
capture the energy present in sunlight and convert it
(c) Biological magnification
into chemical energy. This energy supports all the
(d) Accumulation
activities of the living world.
Direction: In the following Questions, the Assertion and
(a) What is 10% law?
(b) Why do not food chains normally go beyond 4
or 5 trophic levels?
following:
(c) What is a food web?
Or
(c) Why is vegetarian food chain more preferable
than the non vegetarian food chain?
is true.
Scan to get Answers

Answers to Unsolved Questions

 Practice
 Integrated (Mixed)
 Assertion and Reason
 Case-Based
Chapter 1—Chemical Reactions and Equations
Chemical Equations and Types of Chemical Reactions
1. (a) Fe is displacing copper from CuSO4. Fe gets oxidised to Fe2+ and Cu2+ get reduced to Cu.
2. (a) It is oxidation reaction because CH4 is getting oxidised to CO2 and H2O.
3. (d) All of these indicate chemical change.
4. (a) turns blue, and grey substance is deposited on copper coin.
5. (b) 3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g) → Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g)
6. (c) Combination reaction
7. (c) To verify law of conservation of mass.
8. (a) endothermic, exothermic
9. Examples of double displacement reactions
Na2SO4(aq) + BaCl2(aq) → BaSO4↓ + 2NaCl(aq)
Sodium sulphate Barium chloride Barium sulphate Sodium chloride
(White ppt)
AgNO3(aq) + NaBr(aq) → AgBr↓ + NaNO3(aq)
Silver nitrate Sodium bromide Yellow ppt. of Sodium nitrate
Silver bromide
10. (a) ‘X’ is Na2SO4 and Y is BaSO4.
(b) Na2SO4(aq) + BaCl2(aq) → BaSO4(s) + 2NaCl(aq)
(White ppt.)
The reaction is precipitation reaction. It is also called double displacement reaction.
11. The colour of salt will change from white to grey.
Sunlight
2AgCl(s) → 2Ag(s) + Cl2(g)
It is a photochemical decomposition reaction.
12. (a) Brown coloured fumes of NO2 gas are evolved and yellowish brown residue is formed.
(b) Decomposition reaction has taken place as,
heat
2Pb(NO3)2(s) → 2PbO(s) + 4NO2(g) + O2(g)
13. (a) C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O
(b) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O
(c) 2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2
(d) CO + 2H2 → CH3OH
(e) CuSO4 + 2NaOH → Cu(OH)2 + Na2SO4
(f) 3Fe + 4H2O → Fe3O4 + 4H2
14. (a) N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
Nitrogen Hydrogen Ammonia
(b) 2Mg(s) + O2(g) → 2MgO(s)
Magnesium Oxygen Magnesium oxide
(c) BaCl2(aq) + CuSO4(aq) → BaSO4(s) + CuCl2(aq)
Barium chloride Copper sulphate Barium sulphate Copper chloride
15. (a) (i) Metal displacement reaction occurs, blue colour changes to colourless and magnesium sulphate is
formed and reddish brown copper metal gets deposited.
Mg(s) + CuSO4(aq) → MgSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
(ii) No reaction takes place because copper is less reactive than iron so it is unable to displace it from its
solution.
Cu(s) + FeSO4(aq) → No reaction
Burning
(b) (i) 2H2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2H2O (l)
Physical state of reactants and products must be mentioned in chemical equation.
(ii) Condition in which reaction takes place are written above and below the arrow head.
16. CaCO3 →heat CaO(s) + CO (g) is thermal decomposition reaction.

2
Sunlight
2AgCl(s) → 2Ag(s) + Cl2(g)
It is photochemical decomposition.
Redox Reactions, Corrosion and Rancidity

1. (a) It is due to formation of Ag2S.
2. (b) Copper reacts with moisture in presence of O2 to form Cu(OH)2 which reacts with CO2 to form CuCO3.
Cu(OH)2.
3. Those reactions in which oxidation as well as reduction takes place simultaneously e.g.
PbO2 + 4HCl → PbCl2 + Cl2 + 2H2O
4. Metals can lose electrons easily, therefore, are good reducing agents.
Non-metals can gain electrons easily, therefore, are good oxidising agents.
5. (a) Oxidation is process in which O2 is added or H2 is removed or loss of electrons takes place.
(b) (i) MnO2 is oxidising agent, Al is reducing agent.
(ii) Pb3O4 is oxidising agent, HCl is reducing agent.
Integrated (Mixed)
1. (a) (i) Copper oxide (CuO) is oxidising agent. e.g. butylated hydroxy anisole is added to
(ii) Hydrogen (H2) is reducing agent. butter as antioxidant.
(iii) Hydrogen (H2) is getting oxidised to H2O. (ii) It can also be prevented by packaging fat
(iv) Copper (II) oxide (CuO) is getting reduced and oil containing foods in nitrogen gas.
to Cu. (b) (i) Molten NaCl is electrolytically decom-
(b) (i) Displacement reaction because ‘X’ is posed to form sodium metal.
displacing ‘Y’ from YZ. (ii) Aluminium metal is obtained by electric
(ii) Combination reaction because ‘X’ decomposition of bauxite ore mixed with
combines with ‘Y’ to form ‘Z’. cryolite.
2. (a) (i) Combustion reaction and oxidation (iii) Carbonate ores are thermally decomposed
reaction. to give metal oxide which on reduction
(ii) Double displacement and precipitation gives metal.
reaction. 5. (a) Displacement reaction and redox reaction
(iii) Combination reaction. (b) Neutralisation reaction.
(iv) Displacement reaction. (c) Decomposition reaction
(v) Decomposition reaction. (d) Combustion reaction (Exothermic reaction)
(vi) Displacement reaction. (e) Combination reaction and redox reaction.
(b) ‘Al’ is reducing agent. 6. (a) Double Displacement Reaction/Precipitation
‘Al’ is more reactive than Mn. Reaction
Q ‘Al’ displaces Mn from its oxide. BaCl2(aq) + CuSO4(aq) → CuCl2(aq)
3. (a) In the absence of light, the oxidation of fats and + BaSO4(s)
oils present in food is slowed down and hence (b) Oxidation Reaction. Combination Reaction.
rancidity is retarded. heat
2Cu(s) + O2(g) → 2CuO(s)
(b) When we eat different kinds of food, then the
starch, carbohydrates, proteins and fats present (c) Decomposition Reaction.
heat
in them decomposes to give glucose, amino 2FeSO4(s) → Fe2O3(s) + SO2(g) + SO3(g)
acids, fatty acids and glycerol. (d) Displacement Reaction.
(c) (i) P4(s) + 10Cl2(g) → 4PCl5(s) Fe(s) + CuSO4(aq) → FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
(ii) CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)
(e) Combination Reaction.
+ Heat energy
CaO(s) + H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2(aq) + heat
(iii) C6H12O6(aq) + 6O2(q) → 6CO2(aq) +
+ hissing sound
6H2O (l) + Heat energy
It is exothermic reaction because a large amount
4. (a) (i) Rancidity can be prevented by adding
of heat is evolved.
antioxidants to food containing fat and oil,
Answers 407
Assertion and Reason

1. (d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the 7. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct
Reason is true. and the Reason is the correct explanation of
2. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct the Assertion.
and the Reason is the correct explanation of 8. (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but
the Assertion. the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
3. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct Assertion.
and the Reason is the correct explanation of 9. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct
the Assertion. and the Reason is the correct explanation of
4. (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Assertion.
the Reason is not the correct explanation of the 10. (c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
Assertion. 11. (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but
5. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
and the Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
the Assertion. 12. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct
6. (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but and the Reason is the correct explanation of
the Reason is not the correct explanation of the the Assertion.
Assertion. 13. (c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
Case-Based
1. (a) It is redox reaction. 2Cu + O2 → 2CuO
heat
(b) Dry Ca(OH)2 (slaked lime) Brown Black
(c) (i) MnO2 is oxidising agent
4. (a) Fe2O3 is oxidising agent, CO is reducing agent.
(ii) HCl is reducing agent
(iii) HCl is getting oxidised (b) H2S is getting oxidised to S and Cl2 is getting
(iv) MnO2 is getting reduced reduced to HCl.
Or (c) It is because Mg is losing 2 electrons to form
Mg2+ and 2H+ are gaining 2 electrons to form
(c) Reaction will not take place because MnO2 solid
H2(g).
will not react with HCl gas. MnO2 is black in
colour. Or
2. (a) Up to 30 seconds reaction was fastest because (c) (i) It is redox as well as displacement reaction.
reactants were in large amount. (ii) 4H2-oxidation, Fe3O4-reduction.
(b) H2(g) 5. (a) CO2 and H2O
(c) The colour of universal indicator will be violet. (b) Oxidation and exothermic reaction.
2Na + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2 (c) II and III because energy is given out.
Or Or
(c) (i) Pink
(c) (i) It is due to incomplete combustion of fuel.
(ii) OH– are responsible for basic nature of
NaOH. (ii) It is because N2 is inert gas and needs high
energy to break triple bond.
3. (a) CaCO3 (Calcium carbonate)
(b) AgBr 6. (a) Rusting occurs in both A and B so there is an
(c) KOH(aq) and H2 gas are formed and potassium increase in mass.
catches fire. As the surface area of B is more, extent of rusting
2K(s) + 2H2O(l) → 2KOH(aq) + H2 is more
Or (b) Galvanization
(c) (i) Ferric chloride is formed Oiling/greasing/painting/alloying/chromium
plating or any other
2Fe + 3Cl2 → 2FeCl3
Or
because Cl2 is strong oxidising agent. (b) C - Iron hinges on a gate -
(ii) Black copper oxide is formed Iron is in contact with both atmospheric oxygen
and moisture/water vapour.
Chapter 2—Acids, Bases and Salts
Properties and Strength of Acids and Bases
1. (c) 15. Ca(OH)2 + CO2 ——→ CaCO3(s) + H2O

2. (b) It contains HCl(conc.) and HNO3(conc.) in ratio CaCO3(s) + CO2(g) + H2O(l) ——→ Ca(HCO3)2
of 3 : 1. Lime water turns milky due to the formation of calcium
3. (b) Lower the pH, higher will be hydronium ion carbonate. It becomes colourless when excess of CO2
concentration. is passed due to formation of Ca(HCO3)2 which is
4. (b) Milk of magnesia Mg(OH)2 is basic (pH = 10) soluble in water.
5. (a) Oxalic acid (b) Acetic acid 16. (a) (i) The pH value will be greater than 7.
6. (i) Turmeric and red cabbage (Natural indicators) (ii) The pH value will be equal to 7.
(ii) Phenolphthalein and methyl orange (Synthetic (b) (i) The acid is to be added slowly in water to
indicators) prevent the mixture to be splashed. The
7. (a) Lime water turns milky due to formation of reaction is highly exothermic, therefore,
calcium carbonate. constant cooling should be done.
(b) Ca(OH)2(aq) + CO2(g) → CaCO3(s) (ii) The process is called dilution.
+ H2O(l) (c) (i) Sulphurous acid is formed.
8. When an acid reacts with metal oxide, then salt and SO2 + H2O → H2SO3
(Sulphurous acid)
water are formed.
(ii) SO2 + Ca(OH)2 → CaSO3 + H2O
Metal oxide + Acid → Salt + water
e.g. (i) Na2O + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + H2O Lime water Calcium sulphite
(ii) CaO + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2O Lime water turned milky due to formation of
calcium sulphite.
9. (a) Methyl orange is pink in acidic, yellow in basic
solution. 17. (a) (i) Lime, (CaO) can be added to neutralize
(b) Phenolphthalein is colourless in acidic, pink in acidity.
basic solution. (ii) Chalk, (CaCO3) can also be added to
10. (a) Soluble bases are called alkalies, e.g. sodium neutralise acidity.
hydroxide (NaOH). It is because CaO and CaCO3 are basic in nature
(b) Baking soda, which is a mild base. It gives which neutralize acid present in soil.
relief by neutralising the effect of formic acid. (b) The nature of gas is basic because it turns
11. (a) The taste will be slightly sour as it is weakly phenolphthalein pink. The following reaction
acidic. takes place in aqueous solution, e.g.
(b) Baking soda solution because it will neutralise NH3 + H2O → NH4+ + OH–
excess of acid. 18. (a) (i) CaCO3 + 2HCl→CaCl2 + H2O + CO2
12. (a) Those compounds which neutralise excess of (ii) NaHCO3+HCl → NaCl + H2O + CO2
acid in stomach, e.g. NaHCO3. (iii) Al2O3 + 6HCl → 2AlCl3 + 3H2O
(b) The main purpose for which litmus is used in (b) ‘A’ has maximum [H3O+] equal 10–2 mol L–1.
laboratories is to check whether a solution is ‘A’, acidic whereas ‘B’ and ‘C’ are basic in
acidic or basic. nature.
13. (a) Soluble bases are called alkalies, e.g. sodium 19. (a) ‘X’ is CaCO3 (calcium carbonate). The gas
hydroxide is an alkali. evolved is CO2.
(b) HCl, HNO 3 ionise in aqueous solution, CaCO3 + H2SO4(dil) → CaSO4 + H2O + CO2
whereas alcohol and glucose do not show Calcium
acidic characters because they do not ionise in sulphate
aqueous solution. (b) (i) NaHCO3 is antacid. It neutralises excess
14. Sodium hydrogencarbonate is a salt of sodium of acid formed in the stomach.
hydroxide (strong base) and carbonic acid (weak acid). (ii) The soil is acidic in nature. Farmer adds
NaOH + H2CO3 → NaHCO3 + H2O quick lime to make it neutral which is
The compound is basic in nature. pH of sodium good for crops.
hydrogen carbonate ranges from 8 to 9.
Answers 409
More about Salts

1. (b) NaHCO3 (baking soda) does not have water of crystallisation.
2. (c) Sodium carbonate deca-hydrate is washing soda.
3. (c) HCl is strong acid and NH4OH is weak base.
4. (a) NaHCO3 + HCl → NaCl + H2O + CO2
5. (b) Bleaching powder does not have water of crystallisation.
6. Uses:
(i) It is used for making baking powder.
(ii) It is used in fire extinguishers.
(iii) It is used as an ingredient of antacids.
(iv) It is used in making biscuits, bread, crispy pakora.
7. (a) Calcium sulphate hemihydrate commonly known as Plaster of Paris.
1
CaSO4 . H2O
2
1 3
(b) CaSO4 . H2O + H2O → CaSO4 . 2H2O
2 2
Plaster of Paris Gypsum
8. ‘X’ is chlorine; ‘Y’ is bleaching powder.
Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 → CaOCl2 + H2O
(lime water) ‘X’ ‘Y’
9. (a) Plaster of Paris.
373 K 1 3
(b) CaSO4 · 2H2O CaSO4· H2O + H2O
2 2
Gypsum Plaster of Paris Water
(Calcium sulphate
hemihydrate)
(c) It is used for plastering fractured bones.
10. Chlorine gas, hydrogen gas and sodium hydroxide are products formed in chlor-alkali process.
electrolysis
2NaCl(aq) + 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + H2(g) + Cl2(g)
Uses :
• Chlorine gas is used as disinfectant.
• Hydrogen gas is used in preparation of vegetable ghee from vegetable oil.
• Sodium hydroxide is used for manufacture of soap. (any one)
11. (a) CuSO4·5H2O is blue crystalline solid. It becomes dirty white on heating due to loss of water molecules and
it becomes amorphous.
Heat
CuSO4·5H2O CuSO4 + 5H2O
Copper sulphate Anhydrous
pentahydrate copper sulphate
(Blue) (Dirty white)
It regains its colour by absorbing water from atmosphere and becomes blue in colour.
CuSO4 + 5H2O → CuSO4·5H2O
Blue
(b) Na2CO3·10H2O. It is called sodium carbonate decahydrate or washing soda. It is prepared by passing CO2
gas through saturated solution of ammonical brine to get NaHCO3 which on heating gives Na2CO3. On
crystallisation, we get Na2CO3.10H2O, washing soda
NH3 + H2O + CO2 + NaCl → NaHCO3 + NH4Cl
Ammonia Water Carbon Sodium Sodium Ammonium
dioxide chloride bicarbonate chloride
Heat
2NaHCO3 Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2
Na2CO3 + 10H2O → Na2CO3·10H2O
Washing soda
Uses:
(i) It is used in production of washing powder. (ii) It is used for manufacture of glass.
Integrated (Mixed)
1. (a) Pink (b) Chlorine (c) Universal indicator
2. (a) Both ionise in aqueous solution
e.g., HCl(aq) → H+ + Cl–; NaOH(aq) → Na+ + OH –
1
(b) CaSO4 . H2O (Plaster of Paris)
2
1 373 K 1 3
CaSO4 . H2O → CaSO4 . H2O + H2O
2 2 2
(Gypsum) (Plaster of Paris)
3. (a) pH = 7 for NaCl.
(b) NH4NO3 will be acidic salt, it will give orange colour with universal indicator.
(c) K2CO3 will basic salt, blue litmus will remain blue.
4. (a) (i) Lemon juice pH = 2.0 (ii) Distilled water pH = 7.0
(iii) 1 M NaOH pH = 14.0 (iv) Tomato juice pH = 4.0
(b) (i) Bacteria present in the mouth produce acids which degrade the mouth and cause cavities. Toothpastes
are basic in nature. Using toothpaste neutralise the excess acid and prevent tooth decay.
(ii) On heating baking soda, NaHCO3 it decomposes to sodium carbonate above 100°C.
Heat
2NaHCO3 → Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2
Sodium Sodium Water Carbon
bicarbonate carbonate dioxide
Washing soda is obtained by recrystallisation of sodium carbonate. Sodium carbonate is recrystallised by
dissolving in water.
Na2CO3 + 10H2O → Na2CO3 . 10H2O
Sodium carbonate Washing soda
5. (a) Chlor-alkali Process: In this process, chlorine gas, H2 gas and sodium hydroxide are produced industrially
by the electrolysis of sodium chloride (NaCl).
2NaCl(aq) + 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + Cl2(g) + H2(g)
(b) (i) It is used as oxidising agent, chlorinating agent and disinfectant.
(ii) It is used for manufacture of chloroform.
(c) (i) Reaction between acid and bases
NaOH(aq) + HCl(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(l)
Base Acid Salt Water
(ii) Reaction between acid and hydrogen carbonates
2NaHCO3 + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + CO2↑ + H2O
Sodium Sulphuric Sodium Carbon Water
hydrogen acid sulphate dioxide
carbonate
6. (a) HCl is acid and NaOH is base whose combination forms the common salt.
Its formula is NaCl (Sodium chloride).
It is obtained from sea water.
(b) Rock salt is the common name for the mineral “halite”. Its chemical formula is NaCl.
It may be white or light blue or yellow depending upon impurities present in it.
Electrolysis
(c) 2NaCl + 2H2O 2NaOH + H2 + Cl2

1. (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but 4. (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but
the Reason is not the correct explanation of the the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion. Assertion.
2. (c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false. 5. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct
3. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the
and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
Assertion.
Answers 411
6. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct 11. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct
and the Reason is the correct explanation of the and the Reason is the correct explanation of the
7. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct 12. (b) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct
8. (c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false. 13. (d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the
9. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct Reason is true.
and the Reason is the correct explanation of the 14. (c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false. It is
Assertion. plaster of paris.
10. (b) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct 15. (d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the
and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Reason is true.
Assertion.
Case-Based
1. (a) CaCO3 (b) CO2, SO2, NO2(Any two) Ca(OH)2 + CO2(g) → CaCO3(s) + H2O(l)
(c) CO2 gas is formed ‘Z’ ‘P’ white ppt
CaCO3 + H2SO4 → CaSO4 + H2O + CO2 6. (a) Acetic acid
CaCO3 + 2HNO3 → Ca(NO3)2 + H2O + CO2 (b) Acetic acid, carbonic acid, citric acid (Any two)
Or (c) It is acidic in nature due to secretion of HCl. Its
(c) Ca(OH)2 and H2CO3. pH is close to 2.
It is basic salt because Ca(OH)2 is strong base, Or
H2CO3 is weak acid. (c) Sodium hydrogencarbonate is an antacid.
1 Its pH = 8.4
2. (a) CaSO4 . H2O
2 7. (a) Blue
(b) NaHCO3 and tartaric acid. (b) Na2CO3.10H2O
(c) MgSO4 and water are formed. heat
(c) CuSO4.5H2O → CuSO4 + 5H2O
Mg(OH)2 + H2SO4 → MgSO4 + 2H2O
(Blue) (dirty white)
Or
It becomes dirty white after losing water of
(c) (i) Clove oil
crystalisation.
(ii) It is used as disinfectant.
Or
3. (a) It is basic in nature. (c) The salt will become blue again.
(b) Slaked lime. CuSO4(s) + 5H2O → CuSO4.5H2O
(c) (NH4)2SO4 + 2NaOH → Na2SO4 + H2O
8. (a) (i) Group A and B will have pH < 7.
+ 2NH3
(ii) Group C will have pH 7 and > 7.
Ammonia gas is basic will turn red litmus blue.
(b) (i) Add universal indicator (2 drops) in solution
Or
of given substance. Observe the colour
(c) A is basic, B is neutral, C is acidic, D is strongly
change and match with colour chart to find
basic.
pH.
4. (a) When concentration of H3O+ decreases, pH of
(ii) Add few drops of solution of given substance
solution increases.
– on pH paper. Observe the change in colour
(b) Base also have H3O+ but OH are more than
+ and match with colour chart to find pH.
H3O . Therefore, they are basic.
(c) Copper vessels get tarnished due to formation of
(c) pH = – log[H3O+] ⇒ log[H3O+] = – 2
basic copper carbonate [Cu(OH)2 . CuCO3] which
log[H3O+] = log 10–2 ⇒ [H3O+] = 10–2 mol L–1
can be removed by lemon juice containing acid
Or
(citric acid and ascorbic acid).
(c) ‘A’ is strongly acidic, therefore, pH is lowest
Or
‘B’ is strongly basic, therefore, pH is highest
(c) (i) Our stomach produces HCl which helps
5. (a) dil HCl in digestion of food without harming the
(b) ‘X’ is CaCO3, ‘Y’ is CaO stomach. Change in pH leads to indigestion
heat
(c) CaCO3 → CaO(s) + CO2(g) and hyper acidity.
‘X’ ‘Y’ ‘P’ (ii) pH change causes tooth decay in our mouth
Or if it is less than 5.5. Tooth enamel made up
(c) CaO(s) + H2O(l) → Ca(OH) of basic calcium phosphate gets corroded in
‘Y’ ‘Z’ acidic pH.
Chapter 3—Metals and Non-metals
Physical and Chemical Properties of Metals and Non-metals, Formation and Properties of
Ionic compounds
1. (a) Lithium has lowest density. 22. (a) (i) It is because it is acidic as well as basic.
2. (b) 3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g) → Fe3O4 + 4H2(g) ‘Al’ is less electropositive metal.
3. (b) because it is least reactive. So, it forms amphoteric oxide which can
4. (c) HNO3 is oxidising agent: gets reduced to NO2. react with acid as well as base.
5. (d) Lead displaces copper from CuCl2(aq). Al2O3 + 2NaOH → 2NaAlO2 + H2O
6. (b) The process is exothermic [CBSE 2023]
7. (d) Copper is less reactive. Al2O3 + 6HCl → 2AlCl3 + 3H2O
8. (a) Hydrogen is most abundant in universe because (ii) Ionic compounds can conduct electricity
it is present in Sun and stars. in molten state because ions become free
9. (c) HCl is covalent compound. to move in molten state.
(b) (i) Mercury, sodium and potassium also have
10. (b) Hydrogen, Zn + dil. H2SO4 → ZnSO4(aq)
low melting points.
+ H2(g)
(ii) Mercury
11. (d) Zinc, Zn + 2HCl (dil.) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)
(iii) Aluminium
12. (b) Zn + 2NaOH → Na2ZnO2 + H2
(iv) Potassium
13. (b) Mg reacts with dil. HCl to produce H2 gas which 23. Reactive metals react with dilute acids to form salt
helps in floating. and hydrogen gas. e.g.
14. (b) I and IV, because they form ions in aqueous Zn(s) + 2HCl(dil.) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2↑
solution. Mg(s) + H2SO4(dil.) → MgSO4(aq) + H2↑
15. (a) Potassium is a very reactive metal and combines 24. (a) Acidic oxides—(i) SO2 (ii) CO2
explosively with air at room temperature. Hence, (b) Basic oxides—(i) Na2O (ii) MgO
it catches fire if kept in open. Therefore, to
prevent accidental fires and accidents, potassium 25. (a) Ionic compounds are held by strong electrostatic
is kept immersed in Kerosene. forces of attraction so they are very tightly packed
(b) Diamond, Graphite and Fullerenes are the with each other and very hard to breakdown, that
allotropes of carbon. is why they are generally hard in nature.
(b) Ionic compounds are soluble in water because
16. (a) Iron; 3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g) → Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g) they form ions in aqueous solution.
(b) K > Na > Cu > Ag (c) It is because it consists of ions which can move
17. (a) ‘X’ is carbon, ‘Y’ is diamond as it is the hardest freely in an aqueous solution and carry current.
natural substance and ‘Z’ is graphite as it is good 26. X → X2+ + 2e–
conductor of electricity. 2Y + 2e– –→ 2Y–
(b) Copper because it is less reactive than hydrogen. (X2+) ( Y )2
18. HNO3 is good oxidising agent, therefore, it oxidises It is ionic compound. It has high melting point. It
H2 to H2O and itself gets reduced to N2O, NO and will conduct electricity in aqueous solution because
NO2 depending upon concentration of acids. ions become free to move but in solid state it will
19. (a) Magnesium reacts with water only on boiling. not conduct electricity because ions are not free to
(b) Copper does not react even with steam. move. It will be soluble in water.
2+ –
20. Metal in liquid state is mercury, non-metal in liquid 27. Mg → Mg + 2e
state is bromine. 2, 8, 2 2, 8
Gallium (Ga) and Cesium (Cs) have melting point
[Cl + e– → Cl–] × 2
below 310 K. 2, 8, 7 2, 8, 8
21. (a) Because gold and silver are highly lustrous Cl
Mg –
metals which are resistant to corrosion. Also, → (Mg2+) ( Cl )2
they are highly malleable and ductile so that they Cl
can be transformed into any shape or design. 28. (a) Zn(s) + CuSO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
(b) Because only few metals are good conductors Blue coloured solution changes to colourless
of heat due to which we can cook faster. and reddish brown copper metal is deposited.
Answers 413
(b) Al2O3 and hydrogen gas are formed. Na Cl
–
Na+ ( Cl )
D
2Al(s) + 3H2O(g) → Al2O3(s) + 3H2(s) The three general properties of ionic compounds
(c) It catches fire forming NaOH and H2 gas. are:
2Na + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2 (i) They are solids having high melting point.
29. (a) Na 2– (ii) They are soluble in water.
O (Na+)2 ( O )
Na (iii) They conduct electricity in molten state as
(b) It is due to strong force of attraction between well as in aqueous solution.
oppositely charged ions. 32. (a) B is the most reactive metal because it could
(c) In solid state, ions are not free to move whereas displace iron from iron sulphate solution which
in molten state ions are free to move, therefore, no other metal could.
they conduct electricity in molten state. (b) B will displace copper from copper sulphate
30. (a) Copper will not displace hydrogen from dil. solution because it is more reactive than copper.
HCl. Reddish brown copper metal will get deposited
(b) Iron will react only with steam to liberate H2(g). and the blue colour of solution will change.
3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g) → Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g) (c) D < C < A < B is increasing order of reactivity.
(c) Manganese will react with 5%. HNO3 to give (d) Container of metal D could be used for storing
hydrogen. zinc sulphate and silver nitrate solution because
Mn(s) + 2HNO3(5%) → Mn(NO3)2(aq) + H2(g) ‘D’ is least reactive.
(e) Zinc sulphate solution can be stored easily in a
31. Ionic compounds are formed by transfer of electrons
container made up of any of these metals because
from metal to non-metals.
these metals are less reactive than zinc.
e.g. Na → Na+ + e–,

Cl + e– → Cl–
Occurrence and Extraction of Metals, Corrosion, Alloys

1. (d) Copper and tin are present in Bronze. (b) ‘B’ can be obtained by electrolytic reduction.
2. (b) (c) ‘C’ can be reduced by reducing agent like ‘Al’.
3. (a) Nickel and Chromium (b) Gold and Platinum 8. (a) It is because ‘Mg’ is stronger reducing agent
4. Black Coating: Silver Sulphide (Ag2S). than carbon.
Green Coating: Basic copper carbonate (b) Sodium is obtained from molten NaCl by
[CuCO3.Cu(OH)2]
electrolysis.
By the action of electrolysis
(i) H 2 S or sulphur compounds present in the 2NaCl → 2Na(s) + Cl2(g)
(Molten)
atmosphere.
(ii) Carbon dioxide, oxygen and water vapours (c) Copper ore is concentrated by froth-floatation
present in the atmosphere. process.
5. (a) Ca S Roasting: 2Cu2S + 3O2 → 2Cu2O + 2SO2
(2, 8, 8, 2) (2, 8, 6) Bassemerisation: Copper oxide reacts with Cu2S
(b) Ca → Ca2+ + e– on heating to form Blister copper and SO2.
S + 2e– → S2– Cu2S + 2Cu2O → 6Cu + SO2
→
Ca × × 2+ 2– Blister Copper is purified by electrolytic refining.
→ S or (Ca ) ( S )
9. (a) It is a process in which a metal reacts with
(c) Ca and S2– ions are present in CaS.
2+
substancespresentinairtoformsurfacecompounds.
6. (a) Ca → Ca2+ + 2e–
(b) Rusting.
2, 8, 8, 2 2, 8, 8
(c) Black layer on its surface due to formation of
O + 2e– → O2–
2, 6 2, 8 Ag2S.
2–
(Ca2+) ( O ) (d) It makes the metal weak and brittle, which is
(b) Bronze is made up of copper and tin. serious problem.
7. (a) ‘A’ can be obtained by chemical reduction by (e) Oiling,painting,greasing,galvanisation,alloying
using carbon or carbon monoxide as reducing can prevent iron from corrosion.
agent.
Integrated (Mixed)
1. Yes, sodium reacts explosively even with cold water, (b) Mg(12) = 2, 8, 2 Mg → Mg2+ + 2e–
it is most reactive. Magnesium reacts with hot water, 2, 8, 2 2, 8
it is less reactive than Na. Iron reacts only with steam O(8) = 2, 6 O + 2e– → O2–
which shows it is least reactive. 2–
2, 6 2, 8
2+
2. (a) Solution of metal oxides in water is called alkali (Mg ) ( O )
(soluble base), e.g. sodium hydroxide (NaOH), 5. (a) Mg(12) = 2, 8, 2
potassium hydroxide (KOH).
(b) This layer is oxide layer. It makes the metal
less reactive (passive) and makes it more useful
because it cannot get corroded and remains as K L M K = 2, L = 8, M = 2
it is.
(c) It is because these metals are very soft, e.g.
sodium metal can be cut with a knife.
3. (a) (i) Metals are malleable, therefore, they can O(8) = 2, 6
be given different shapes. They have strong
metallic bonds.
(ii) It is because dil HNO3 is oxidising agent, K L K = 2, L = 6
that is hydrogen is not formed rather NO
is formed
3Cu(s) + 8HNO3(dil) → 3Cu(NO3) 2–
+ 2NO + 2H2O Mg O (Mg2+) ( O )
(b) ZnO + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2O (b) (i) Coating with tin can protect copper from
ZnO + 2NaOH → Na2ZnO2 + H2O corrosion.
4. (a) (i) Sodium, carbon (diamond) (ii) • Cinnabar • Zinc Blende
(ii) Mercury is liquid metal, bromine is liquid
non-metal.

1. (d) Assertion is false but Reason is true. 9. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct
2. (b) T
he Assertion and the Reason are correct but and the Reason is the correct explanation of
the Reason is not the correct explanation of the the Assertion.
4. (c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false. and the Reason is the correct explanation of
and the Reason is the correct explanation of 12. (c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
6. (d) Assertion is false but Reason is true. and the Reason is the correct explanation of
7. (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Assertion.
the Reason is not the correct explanation of the 14. (d) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
Assertion.
15. (d) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
8. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct
and the Reason is the correct explanation of
the Assertion.
Case-Based
1. (a) Boron (5), Silicon (14) are metalloids. Or
(b) XY2 (c) The solution becomes colourless and greyish
D
(c) ZnCO 3 → ZnO + CO 2 . It is called black. Iron metal is deposited.
calcination. Zn(s) + FeSO4(aq) → ZnSO4 (aq) + Fe(s)
Answers 415
2. (a) It contains iron, carbon, nickel and chromium. (b) Those oxides which react with acids as well as
(b) Copper. bases are called amphoteric oxides e.g. Al2O3,
(c) Alloy of metal with mercury is called amalgam ZnO.
e.g. sodium amalgam. (c) (i) Na2O(s) + H2O(l) → 2NaOH(aq)
Or (ii) Al2O3(s) + 2NaOH(aq) → 2NaAlO2(aq)
22 + H2O(l)
(c) % of gold = × 100 = 91.6%
24 Or
3. (a) Mg because it reacted with hot water and started (c) (i) S(s) + O2(g) → SO2(g)
floating (ii) Sulphur dioxide
(b) P (Al) because it reacts only with steam and form (iii) Acidic
amphoteric Al2O3. (iv) No effect.
(c) S < P < Q < R 7. (a) Highly reactive metals are reduced by electrolysis
It is because ‘R’ is most reactive as it reacts with of their molten ores.
cold water violently. (b) It is because carbon is weaker reducing agent
‘Q’ is second most reactive as it reacts with hot than aluminium, therefore, cannot reduce Al2O3.
water. (c) Cinnabar is roasted in presence of oxygen to get
‘P’ is third most reactive as it reacts with steam. HgO which reacts with HgO to form Hg and SO2.
‘S’ is least reactive because it does not react with 2HgS + 3O2 → 2HgO + 2SO2
H2O at all. HgS + 2HgO →3Hg + SO2
Or Or
(c) ‘R’ is kept in kerosene oil because it is most
(c) Roasting Calcination
reactive and will catch fire in presence of
moisture. (i) In this process, (i) In this process,
ore is heated ore is heated
4. (a) No reaction will take place because Ag is less
in presence of in absence of
reactive then Cu.
oxygen to convert oxygen.
(b) Au exists in free state because it is less reactive.
sulphide ores into
(c) Yes, because copper is less reactive then Mg.
oxides.
Or
(c) K, Na, Ca do not occur in free state. (ii) 2ZnS + 3O2 → Heat
(ii) ZnCO3(s) →
These are extracted by electrolytic reduction of 2ZnO + 2SO2
ZnO(s) + CO2(g)
their molten ores.
Cl –
5. (a) These are refined by distilliation because they 8. (a) Mg → Mg2+ Cl
2
have low boiling point. Cl
(b) Cu and Zn (b) (i) They are soluble in water.
(c) Pure copper-Cathode, Impure copper-Anode (ii) They conduct electricity in aqueous solu-
Acidified CusO4 is used as electrolyte tion and in molten state.
Or (c) Na(2,8,1) loses one electron to form Na+(2,8),
(c) It decreases melting point of Al2O3 and stable configuration.
increases electrical conductivity. Or
6. (a) 2Cu(s) + O2(g) → CuO(s) (i) It is because ions are not free move in solid state
Black coloured copper oxide is formed. (ii) At cathode: 2H+ + 2e– → H2(g)
Chapter 4—Carbon and its Compounds
Bonding in Carbon, Covalent compounds, Nomenclature, Homologous Series, Properties of
Compounds of Carbon
1. (c) HC CH, ethyne has triple bond. H H H H H O
2. (a) Both are esters. (b) H—C—C—C—C—C—C—H
3. (b) C6H12 is cyclohexane
CH2 H H H H H
Hexanal (C5H11CHO)
CH2 CH2
or 12. The compound is saturated because it has higher
CH2 CH2
percentage of hydrogen, therefore burns with blue
CH2 flame.
4. there is single bond between carbon atoms 13. Carbon cannot lose four electrons easily because very
5. It is a property due to which an element can exist in high energy is required. It cannot gain four electrons
more than one form which differ in physical properties easily because six protons cannot hold 10 electrons.
but have similar chemical properties, e.g., carbon, It can easily share four electrons forming covalent
sulphur, phosphorus, oxygen show allotropy. Graphite bonds.
and diamond are allotropes of carbon. 14. It is ethanol, its molecular formula is C2H6O and
6. (a) Ethanol (b) Ethanal structural formula is CH3CH2OH.
Ethanol forms ethene, when heated with conc. H2SO4.
7. (a) CnH2n, Ethene, CH2==CH2 Conc. H 2 SO 4
CH3CH2OH CH2==CH2 + H2O
H H H H heat
Ethanol Ethene
(b) 13, H—C—C—C—C—H 15. (i) (C), (ii) (B), (iii) (D), (iv) (A)
H H H H 16. Alkane with twenty carbon atoms — C20H42
O Alkene with twenty carbon atoms — C20H40
17. (a) Alkenes: C6H12, C2H4 , C4H8
8. (a) CH3—C—CH3 , Propanone Alkynes: C3H4, C5H8
(b) C6H6, 3 double bonds
H 18. (a) But-1-ene (b) Ethanal
19. (a) 2-Butanone or butan-2-one
C (b) 2-Propanol or propan-2-ol
H C C H (c) Methanoic acid
(d) Methyl ethanoate
H C C H 20. Conc. H2SO4 acts as dehydrating agent. It removes
C water formed in the reaction to form ethene from
ethanol.
H 21. (a) Ethanol; C2H5OH
9. HCOOH — Methanoic acid H H
CH3COOH — Ethanoic acid
H C C O H
10. But-1-ene, C4H8
H H H H H H
CH2==CH—CH2—CH3 or H—C==C—C—C—H Ethanol
(b) CH 3OH and C 3H 7OH are homologues of
H H ethanol
H O H H
22. • Vegetable oil undergoes hydrogenation to form
11. (a) H—C—C—C—C—H saturated product known as vegetable ghee
or vanaspati ghee. This reaction is known as
H H H hydrogenation of oils.
Butanone • Vegetable oil is liquid at room temperature whereas
vegetable ghee is solid at room temperature.
Answers 417
• N
ickel act as catalyst and form saturated Conc. H2 SO4
CH3CH2OH CH2==CH2 + H2O
hydrocarbons. Ethanol
443 K
Ethene
23. (a) It is atom or group of atoms or reactive part conc. H2SO4 acts as dehydrating agent.
of compound which largely determine the 28. ‘P’ is C2H5OH, Ethanol
chemical properties of compound. 2 2 7 K Cr O
(i) Aldehyde (ii) Carboxylic acid CH3CH2OH + 2[O] →
Conc. H2SO4
KMnO4/KOH ‘P’
(b) CH3CH2OH + 2[O] → CH3COOH + H2O
CH3COOH + H2O ‘Q’
Alkaline KMnO4 acts as oxidising agent. Ethanoic acid
24. ‘X’ (C4H8) will show addition reaction because it is ‘Q’ is Ethanoic acid
unsaturated, i.e. it has a double bond e.g. 2CH3COOH + 2Na → 2CH3COONa + H2
Ni Sodium
CH2==CH—CH2—CH3 + H2 heat ‘Q’ ‘R’
Butene CH3—CH2—CH2—CH3 ethanoate (Hydrogen gas)
Butane ‘R’ is hydrogen gas which burns with ‘pop’ sound.
When a molecule is added to unsaturated compound 29. (a) Ethyne (b) 1-Propanol (c) Ethanal
to form saturated compound, this reaction is called 30. (a) 5% solution of KMnO4 is prepared by dissolving
addition reaction. 5g of KMnO4 in 95g of water so that total mass
25. (a) Carbon compounds are covalent in nature and do of solution is 100.
not dissociate and form ions because of which (b) Alkaline potassium permanganate acts as oxidis-
they are poor conductor of electricity. ing agent. If excess of alkaline KMnO4 is used,
(b) Cyclohexane is the saturated compound in which acetic acid will be formed.
the carbon atoms are arranged in a ring. Alkaline KMnO4
H H (c) CH3CH2OH + 2[O] →
Warm
CH3COOH + H2O
C
H H 31. (a) CH3COOH + NaOH → CH3COONa + H2O
C C H H
H H R R Ni
H H (b) C==C + H2 →
Heat R—C——C—R
C C R R
R R
H H O
Cyclohexane C
873 − 923 K
H H (c) 2CH3OH + O2 MoO 3
2H— C —H
Structural formula + 2H2O
It has 18 single bonds. (d) CH2==CH2 + Br2 → CH2—CH2
26. (a) Ethane (C2H6) Br Br
H H H H (e) CH3COOC2H5 + NaOH → CH3COONa
+ C2H5OH
:
:
H—C—C—H H : C : C :H H 2 SO 4
(f) CH2==CH2 + H2O CH3CH2OH
:
H H H H 32. (a) It reduces pollution.

(b) Ethene (C2H4) (b) It is used in cough syrups and tonics.
H H (c) It acts as preservative.
H : C :: C : H 33. (a) 1-Propanol or propan-1-ol
H—C==C—H (b) 2-Butanone or butan-2-one or butanone
:
H H (c) Propanoic acid

(c) Ethyne (C2H2) 34. (a) Characteristics:
H—C≡≡C—H H : C C : H (i) It has same general formula, from which,
...
...
all members can be derived.

27. CH3—CH2OH is structural formula (ii) They have similar chemical properties
Physical properties: due to same functional groups.
(i) It is liquid with specific smell. (b) (i) Aldehyde, —CHO
(ii) It is soluble in water. (ii) Aldehyde, —CHO
When ethanol is heated with conc. H2SO4 at 443 K, (iii) Carboxylic acid, —COOH
ethene is formed. (iv) Alcohol, —OH
35. (a) C2H5OH, ethanol C2H6(g) + 7 O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 3H2O(l)
(b) C2H5CHO, propanal 2
Ethane Oxygen Carbon dioxide Water
(c) C2H5COOH, propanoic acid
conc H 2SO 4 37. ‘A’ is CH3COOH (Ethanoic acid) [CBSE 2023]
36. CH3CH2OH CH2==CH2 + H2O
‘X’
heat, 443 K
‘Y’
‘B’ is CH3COONa (Sodium ethanoate)
Ethanol Ethene ‘C’ is CH3CH2OH, Ethanol
CH2==CH2 + H2
Ni
CH3—CH3 ‘D’ is CH3COOC2H5 Ethyl ethanoate
‘Y’ ‘Z’ 2CH3COOH + 2Na → 2CH3COONa + H2(g)
Ethanol, on dehydration with conc. H2SO4 gives ‘A’ ‘B’
ethene. Ethene, on addition with H2 in presence of
CH3COOH + C2H5OH → CH3COOC2H5 + H2O
Ni as catalyst as undergoes hydrogenation to form ‘C’ ‘D’
ethane.
CH3COOC2H5 + NaOH → CH3COONa + C2H5OH
One molecule of Ethane on combustion gives 2
‘B’ ‘C’
molecules of CO2 and 3 molecules of H2O.
conc. H 2 SO 4
38. (a) (i) C2H5OH(l) + CH3CH2COOH(l) CH3CH2COOC2H5(l) + H2O(l)
Ethanol Propanoic acid Ethyl propanoate
‘A’
(ii) CH3COOC2H5 + NaOH → CH3COONa + C2H5OH
Ethyl ethanoate Sodium hydroxide Sodium ethanoate Ethanol
‘B’
heat
(iii) CH3COONa + NaOH(CaO) → CH4 + Na2CO3
Soda lime Methane
‘C’
(b) X’ is benzene. Its structural formula is as follows :
H
C
H—C C—H
H—C C—H
C
H
Benzene
It will not decolourise bromine water because position of double bonds is not fixed. The bonds are not
purely double bonds. It burns with sooty flame due to presence of more percentage of carbon and less
percentage of hydrogen.
39. (a) Compound is CH3COOH 40. (i) CH3—CH2—CH2—CH3, CH3—CH3—CH3
(b) Carbon dioxide Butane CH3
(c) Pass the gas through lime water. It will turn milky. 2-methyl propane
(d) 2CH3COOH + Na2CO3 → 2CH3COONa O
+ H2O + CO2
CH3COOH + NaHCO3 → CH3COONa (ii) CH3—CH2—CH2OH, CH3—C—CH3
+ H2O + CO2 (iii) Propanol, Propanal
(e) • It is used as preservative. (iv) (a) Benzene
• It is used in chinese meals for sour taste as (b) Propene
a vinegar.
Soaps and Detergents and their Cleaning Action

1. (a) Refer to diagram given in Ans. 5, Page 112. 2.
(a) Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of higher
(b) (1) ‘Y’ will have more foam because detergents fatty acids e.g. sodium stearate. For cleaning
work well even with hard water. action, refer to Ans. 5, Page 112.
(2) ‘X’ will have curdy solid because Ca2+ and (b) Detergents are more effective than soaps. They
Mg2+ present in hard water form insoluble can work well even with hard water.
calcium and magnesium salts of higher fatty
acids by reacting with soap solution.
Answers 419
Integrated (Mixed)
1. (a) Soaps Detergents

(i) Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of (i) Detergents are sodium or potassium salts of
higher fatty acids. sulphonic acids of long-chain hydrocarbons.
(ii) Soaps have —COONa group. (ii) Detergents have —SO3Na or —SO4Na.
(iii) Soaps do not work well in hard water due (iii) Detergents can work well in hard water.
to formation of scum.
(b) (i) It is used for making vinegar.
(ii) Is is used in making pickles as a preservative.
(c) Sodium ethoxide and hydrogen gas are formed.
2C2H5OH + 2Na → 2C2H5ONa + H2 ↑
Ethanol Sodium Sodium ethoxide Hydrogen
2. (a) Those compounds which have same molecular formula but different structural formula are called isomers.
O O
CH3—CH2—C—H (Propanal), CH3—C—CH3 (Propanone)
(b) Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of fatty acids.
Soaps contain —COONa group with alkyl group where as detergents contain —SO3Na or —SO4Na attached
with alkyl group.
Soaps do not work effectively in hard water because Ca2+ and Mg2+ present in hard water react with soap
to form scum and soap goes waste.
3. (a) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O
KMnO4/KOH
(b) CH3CH2OH → CH3COOH
Ni
(c) CH2==CH2 + H2 → CH3—CH3
heat
conc H SO
(d) CH3COOH + C2H5OH →
2 4
CH3COOC2H5 + H2O
(e) CH3COOC2H5 + NaOH → CH3COONa + C2H5OH

1. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct 9. (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but
and the Reason is the correct explanation of the the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
2. (d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the 10. (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but
Reason is true. the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Correct Assertion: NH3 is covalent compound Assertion.
formed by sharing of electrons. 11. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct
3. (c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false. and the Reason is the correct explanation of the
4. (c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false. Assertion.
5. (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but 12. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct
the Reason is not the correct explanation of the and the Reason is the correct explanation of the
and the Reason is the correct explanation of the
7. (c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
Assertion.
8. (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but 14. (d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the
Assertion. Reason is true.
Case-Based
1. (a) ‘X’ is unsaturated. Or
(b) Unsaturated fatty acids. (c) (i) Sodium lauryl sulphate
(c) (i) They have low melting and boiling point. (ii) Sodium dodecyl benzene sulphonate
(ii) They are poor conductors of electricity. 6. (a) They are called allotropes. Fullerene is purest
Or allotrope of carbon because it does not have
(c) Sodium propoxide and H2 gas are fomred edges therefore, impurities cannot enter.
2CH3CH2CH2OH + 2Na —→ 2CH3CH2CH2ONa (b) In diamond, each carbon is bonded to four other
+ H2 other carbon atoms having a rigid three dimen-
2. (a) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2OH sional octahedral structure.
1-pentanol (c) Diamonds are synthesised from graphite at high
conc H2SO4 temperature and pressure. They do not conduct
(b) CH3CH2CH2OH → D CH3—CH==CH2
electricity due to absence of free electrons.
1-propanol Propene
+ H2O Or

Propene is formed (c) In graphite, each carbon atom is bonded to
conc H2SO4 three other carbon atoms in same plane giving
(c) CH3COOH + CH3CH2CH2OH → hexagonal array. One of these bonds is a double
CH3COOCH2—CH2—CH3 + H2O bond and thus the valency of carbon is satisfied.
The reaction is called esterification. These hexagonal layers are held by weak forces
Or of attraction due to which it is soft and slippery.
(c) CH3COOC2H5 + NaOH → CH3COONa 7. (a) Helium.
+ C2H5OH
The reaction is called saponification. (b) N N , N≡≡N
3. (a) Ethane has lowest boiling point due to weak
intermolecular forces of attraction. (c) H N H , H—N—H
(b) C6H12
O H H
(c) CnH2n+1—C—CnH2n+1 It does not conduct electricity because no charged

O particles are formed as electrons are shared.
Or
CH3—C—CH2—CH3
(c) H O H , H—O—H
Or
(c) CnH2n + 1—, NaCl has higher boiling point than H2O because
CH3—CH2—CH2—CH2—CH2— or C5H11 Na+ and Cl– have strong forces of attraction as
is n-pentyl group compared to intermolecular forces of attraction
4. (a) It is because acids have stronger forces of between water molecules.
attraction than alcohols. 8. (a) When atoms of gaseous substance are formed
(b) C2H5OH has higher molar mass, more van der on heating a flame is produced. If gaseous sub-
Waals’ forces of attraction than CH3OH. stances are not produced, flame is not observed.
(c) (i) 5 to 8% solution of acetic acid in water is called (b) Saturated hydrocarbons burn with blue flame
vinegar. because they contain higher percentage of
(ii) Pure acetic acid is called glacial acetic acid. hydrogen which is highly combustible.
Or (c) Coal < LPG < ethanol < hydrogen.
(i) Butanoic acid (Butyric acid). Coal produces maximum pollution. LPG
Alkaline produces slightly more pollution than ethanol.
(ii) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH → Hydrogen does not create pollution.
KMnO4
CH3CH2CH2COOH Or
Butanoic acid is formed. (c) (i) Bluish green flame is observed.
(ii) Golden yellow flame is produced.
5. (a) –SO3Na, –SO4Na Every element absorbs different colour from
(b) Glycerol flame when heated and radiates complementary
(c) (i) Sodium stearate, (ii) Sodium palmitate colour.
Chapter 5—Life Processes
Nutrition
1. (b) 2. (b) absorbed CO2 and perform photosynthesis with
3. A pigment etiolin is developed in plants instead of the help of chlorophyll and sunlight.
chlorophyll in absence of light. Thus, the leaves 8. The main organs of human digestive system in the
become yellow and the plants of this condition are order they participate in the process of digestion of
said to have become etiolated. food, i.e. starting from mouth are as follows :
4. Bile juice has no enzymes, but bile salts are important Mouth → Oesophagus → Stomach → Small
for digestion and absorption of fats. The bile salts intestine (consisting of duodenum, jejunum and
reduce the surface tension of fat droplets, causing ileum) → Large intestine (consisting of caecum,
their breakdown into smaller ones. Thus, a fine colon and rectum).
emulsion is formed, which increases area for lipase There are three digestive glands associated with the
action. Bile salts are also needed for absorption of alimentary canal. These are salivary glands, pancreas
products of fat digestion from the intestinal lumen. and liver.
Carbohydrate digestion begins in the buccal cavity
5. The two proteases present in pancreatic juice are:
as human saliva contains an enzyme ptyalin or
(i) Trypsin: It acts upon peptones and converts
salivary amylase which hydrolyses starch into the
them into peptides.
disaccharides, maltose and isomaltose and small
(ii) Carboxypeptidase: It converts peptides into
dextrins called ‘limit’ dextrin.
smaller peptides and amino acids.
Pancreatic amylase digests starch into maltose,
6. (a) The enzyme gastric pepsin initiates the digestion isomaltose and ‘limit’ dextrins in the intestine in
of proteins. alkaline medium. Enzyme maltose present in the
The other enzyme produced by the stomach is intestinal juice hydrolyses maltose into glucose.
gastric lipase. Protein Digestion: Enzymes hydrolysing proteins
(b) Digestion of proteins is completed in the are called proteases or peptidases. Their actions are
small intestine by the pancreatic enzymes as follows:
trypsin, chymotrypsin and carboxypeptidase, (a) Proteolytic enzymes present in gastric juice
If there is a blockade of the pancreatic duct (i) Pepsin: It acts on proteins and forms
these enzymes will not be secreted and peptones. It hydrolyses soluble casein, a
complete digestion of proteins will not occur. milk protein into paracasein.
Enzyme pancreatic amylase from the pancreas (ii) Renin: It is present in calf gastric juice
helps in the digestion of starch, it breaks the and hydrolyses casein into paracasein
polysaccharide into disaccharides. The pancreas leading to milk coagulation.
also secretes enzymes lactase, sucrase and (b) Proteolytic enzymes present in the pancreatic
maltase which breakdown the disaccharides into juice
monosaccharides. So, blockade of the pancreatic (i) Trypsin: Hydrolyses basic proteins into
duct will also cause disruption of the digestion peptides. It also hydrolyses fibrinogen to
of carbohydrates by preventing their breakdown fibrin in case of blood sucking animals.
into monosaccharides. (ii) C hymotrypsin is milk coagulating
7. (a) Carbon dioxide enzyme and hydrolyses casein to
(b) KOH (Potassium hydroxide). It absorbs CO2 to paracasein which then coagulates into
create an atmosphere which is devoid of CO2. calcium paracaseinate.
Sunlight (c) Proteolytic enzymes present in the intestinal
(c) 6CO2 + 12H2O Chlorophyll C6H12O6 + 6O2
+ 6H2O juice completes the digestion of proteins in the

(d) Desert plants take up CO2 in night. And in small intestine by forming amino acids.
day time when stomata is closed, they use the
Respiration
1. (c) 3. (b)
2. (c)
4.
Human Respiratory System

Process of Respiration: The inhalation and exhalation of the air take place continuously in the respiratory
system.
• Inspiration or inhalation is concerned with the taking in of atmospheric air or oxygen into the thoracic
cavity. It is possible only when the volume of the thoracic cavity increases and the pressure of the contained
air in the thoracic cavity decreases.
• Expiration or exhalation is concerned with the expelling of carbon dioxide from lungs. It takes place
when the volume of the thoracic cavity decreases and the pressure of the contained air in the thoracic cavity
increases.
5. Differences between:
Left Lung of Humans Right Lung of Humans
(i) It consists of two lobes. (i) It consists of three lobes.
(ii) It is lighter in weight, smaller and narrower. (ii) It is heavier in weight, larger and broader.
(iii) Cardiac notch is present along lining of inner border. (iii) Cardiac notch is absent.
6. (a) Mechanism of breathing in human beings: (b) (i) Under normal conditions, the rate of
Breathing is a complex mechanical process breathing is 12 to 18 times per minute.
involving muscular movement that alters the (ii) The rate of breathing during vigorous
volume of the thoracic cavity and thereby that exercise increases by about 20 to 25 times
of the lungs. per minute. It is because, during vigorous
• Breathing occurs involuntarily but its rate is exercise, the demand for oxygen increases.
controlled by the respiratory centre of brain. Breathing occurs involuntarily but its rate
• The space of thoracic cavity increases or is controlled by the respiratory centre of
decreases by outward and inward movements the brain.
of the ribs caused by external intercostal and 7. Inhalation or inspiration is the process by which
internal intercostal muscles. air is brought into the lungs during breathing in
• This action is also assisted by the contraction human beings. It involves the following steps:
and expansion of the diaphragm.
• The floor of the thoracic cavity is completely
closed by diaphragm. It is a thin muscular
septum separating the abdominal and thoracic
cavities.
• Inspiration or inhalation is concerned with
the taking in of atmospheric air or oxygen
into the thoracic cavity.
• Expiration or exhalation is concerned with
the expelling of carbon dioxide from lungs. It
takes place when the volume of the thoracic Thoracic cavity enlarged
cavity decreases and the pressure of the
contained air in the thoracic cavity increases. (i) The external intercostal muscles contract causing
ribs to pull out and chest cavity to expand.
Answers 423
(ii) Diaphragm contracts and is brought down a
little. This also expands the chest cavity.
(iii) There is a contraction of the abdominal muscles.
The expansion of chest cavity creates a partial
vacuum and atmospheric air rushes inside the
lungs.
8. (a) Ethanol, Carbon dioxide and energy.
(b) Lactic acid and energy.
(c) Carbon dioxide, water and energy.
9. Exchange of respiratory gases, i.e. oxygen and carbon
dioxide occurs between the blood and tissues.
In tissues, oxygen is used up for their activities
and carbon dioxide is released. The blood from
lungs has high concentration of oxygen and low
concentration of carbon dioxide. Due to this
difference in concentration of oxygen and carbon
dioxide, the exchange of gases takes place between
tissues and blood.

Schematic representation of the exchange of gases in tissues
Transportation
1. (d) 2. (d) 6. (a) The pulmonary artery brings deoxygenated
3. blood to the human heart.
(b) The right auricle of human heart receives
deoxygenated blood.
(c) (i) Right auricle pours deoxygenated blood
into right ventricle.
(ii) From right ventricle deoxygenated blood
flows to the lungs through pulmonary artery
for oxygenation.
Absorption of water through root hair 7. (a)
4. Differences between:
Lymphatic Capillaries Blood Capillaries
(i) They are colourless. (i) They are red in
colour.
(ii) They carry lymph. (ii) They carry blood.
(iii) They are wider than (iii) They are narrower
blood capillaries. than lymphatic
capillaries.
5. Phloem parenchyma
Sieve plates
A schematic representation of transport
Sieve tubes and exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide
during transportation of blood in human beings
Companion cell (b) It is necessary to separate oxygenated and
deoxygenated blood in mammals and birds,
because they need high energy and large amount
Sieve tubes that conduct prepared food of oxygen. The separation of oxygenated and
The dead element of phloem is the phloem fibre.
deoxygenated blood provides high oxygen
supply to the organs.
Excretion
1. (b) (b) The formation of urine in human body can be
2. Differences between ureter and urethra summarised as follows:
(i) Kidneys are the basic functional unit of
Ureter Urethra
excretory system in human body, as the
(i) U r e t e r s a r e t u b e (i) It is a membranous nitrogenous waste (urea or uric acid) is
like structures that tube that arises from removed from blood in the kidneys.
conduct urine from the neck of urinary (ii) Each capillary cluster in the kidney is
the kidneys to the bladder and conducts associated with the cup shaped end of a tube
bladder. urine to the exterior. that collects the filtered urine. Nephrons are
(ii) They become closed (ii) T h e y a r e c l o s e d the large number of filtration units in each
due to compression by the urethral kidney.
by the contracting sphincters. (iii) Some substances (glucose, amino acid,
bladder muscles. salt, water etc.) in the initial filtrate are
selectively reabsorbed as the urine flows
3. (a) The main organs that form the excretory system
along the filtration tube.
in human beings are: a pair of kidneys, a pair
(iv) The urine formed in each kidney enters in
of ureters, urinary bladder and a urethra.
the ureter which connects the kidneys with
the urinary bladder.
Integrated (Mixed)
1. (a) During each heartbeat, the muscles of the heart concentration in water is always higher than in the
contract causing a wave of pressure which cytoplasm. The oxygen used is not obtained from
force blood through the arteries. This wave of the water molecule. It is free oxygen dissolved in
pressure is known as pulse. water from atmosphere or produced as a by-product
(b) Paramoecium is a unicellular organism which during the process of photosynthesis by the aquatic
has a definite shape and the food is taken in at a plants. Carbon dioxide diffuses out as it is always in
definite spot known as mouth. The food particle a higher concentration within the body of Amoeba
is moved into the mouth by the movement of than in the surrounding water.
thin hair like structure known as cilia which
covers the whole surface of Paramoecium cell.
2. (a) Even though the breathing cycle is rhythmic,
the lungs always contain a residual volume of
air so that absorption of O2 and release of CO2
becomes continuous.
(b) The circulatory system will become inefficient
if it develops a leak.
This could be avoided by maintaining a normal
blood pressure.
(c) High blood pressure is known as hypertension. Respiration in Amoeba
The main cause of hypertension is constriction 4. In case of single celled organism, the entire surface of
of very small arteries which results in resistance the organism is in contact with the environment and
of blood flow. hence no specific organ for taking in food, exchange
High blood pressure can lead to rupture of an of gases or removal of waste may be needed. In
artery and internal bleeding. multicellular organisms, only the cells of skin are
3. Gaseous exchange in Amoeba: Amoeba has no in direct contact with the environment. Diffusion is
special respiratory pigment. But there is a free a very slow process and it will take very long time
exchange of gases that takes place by diffusion or to reach all the cells of the body parts. Diffusion is
osmosis through the general body surface, which is therefore insufficient to meet oxygen requirement
permeable to the respiratory gases dissolved in water. of all the cells of multicellular organisms.
Oxygen constantly diffuses in the cytoplasm for its
Answers 425
5. Differences between photosynthesis and respiration depend on the temperature of the environment.
Photosynthesis Respiration These animals do not require much energy as
they do not maintain their body temperature.
(i) It is an anabolic (i) It is a catabolic So, if there is mixing of the oxygenated and
process in which process in which deoxygenated blood take place, then the energy
food substances food substances produced by the cell is less, which is fine for
are synthesised. are broken down. animals like amphibians and many reptiles.
(ii) I t u s e s c a r b o n (ii) It uses oxygen to (b) The walls of ventricles are thicker than the
dioxide to oxidise the food auricles because ventricles have to pump the
synthesise the s ub stan ces an d blood to all the parts of the body during their
food and releases releases carbon contraction. To counteract the backward pressure
oxygen. dioxide and energy. exerted by the blood, the walls of the ventricles
(iii) It occurs only in (iii) It occurs at all have to be thicker otherwise it may lead to
the presence of times of day and bursting of heart.
light. night. (c) The two sources from which plants obtain
nitrogen for the synthesis of proteins and other
(iv) It occurs only in (iv) It occurs in all compounds are—
chlorophyllous living cells. (i) Inorganic nitrates or nitrites.
cells. (ii) Organic compounds prepared by bacteria
6. No photosynthesis will occur so no glucose will from atmospheric nitrogen.
be made. Also no respiration will take place as no 9. (a) Inhalation Exhalation
oxygen will be taken in. (1 Mark)
(a) T he diaphragm (a) T h e d i a p h r a g m
No transpiration will occur so there would be no
contracts and is relaxes and is
upward movement of water or minerals from the
soil as there will be no transpirational pull. pulled down and pushed back to its
(1 Mark) flattened. original position
Temperature regulation of leaf surface will be (b) V o l u m e o f t h e (b) volume of the thorax
affected. (1 Mark) [CBSE Marking Scheme] thorax increases. decreases.
7. (a) It refers to a nitrogenous compound, Adenosine (b) Liver: It secretes bile juice which breaks down
Tri-Phosphate. The energy released during fats into fat globules.
cellular respiration is immediately used to Pancreas: It secretes pancreatic juice which
synthesise a molecule called ATP from ADP contains protein digesting and starch digesting
and inorganic phosphate. enzymes.
ATP is used to fuel all other activities in the cell. (c) The organ which performs the following
Therefore, it is said to be the energy currency functions in humans are as follows:
for most cellular processes. (i) Absorption of digested food – Ileum of
(b) Small hair like structures, called cilia are small intestine.
available on the upper part of the respiratory (ii) Absorption of water – Large intestine.
tract. The function of cilia is to remove germs, 10. (a) The functions of lungs are as follows:
dust and other harmful particles that enter our (i) They intake oxygen from the air packed
body through inhaled air. Smoking destroys inside the lungs and give out carbon
cilia due to which germs, dust, smoke and other dioxide.
harmful chemicals enter our lungs and cause (ii) They purify the blood by supplying oxygen
various infections and cough. Smoking is one to it and removing carbon dioxide from
of the main causes for lung cancer. blood.
(c) Fish have two chambered heart comprises of one (b) The functions of the following components of
atrium and one ventricle. In place of lungs, fish the transport system are :
has gills to oxygenate blood. The heart pumps (i) Blood:
deoxygenated blood to the gills. Oxygenation • Oxygen is transported to the tissues of the
of blood takes place in the gills and oxygenated body for the purpose of respiration.
blood from the gills is supplied to the rest of the • Carbon dioxide is transported to the lungs
body. by the blood plasma.
8. (a) Animals such as amphibians and reptiles are • The digested and absorbed nutrients are
cold blooded animals whose body temperature transported to the tissues.
• Nitrogenous wastes are transported to the 11. (a) Exchange of respiratory gases, i.e. oxygen and
kidneys. carbon dioxide occurs between the blood and
• The blood regulates the body temperature. tissues.
• It maintains the pH of the body tissues. In tissues, oxygen is used up for their activities
• It transports various hormones from one and carbon dioxide is released. The blood from
region to another and bring about the lungs has high concentration of oxygen and
coordination. low concentration of carbon dioxide. Due to
• It maintains water balance to constant level. this, difference in concentration of oxygen and
• The lymphocytes produce antibodies carbon dioxide, the exchange of gases takes
against the invading antigens and protects place between tissue and blood.
from diseases. (b) Blood Clotting: It is the mechanism that prevents
• Blood helps in rapid healing of wounds the loss of blood at the site of an injury or wound
by forming a clot at the site of injury. by forming a ‘blood clot’. The blood has platelet
(ii) Lymph: cells which circulate around the body and plug
• It carries digested and absorbed fat from these leaks by helping to clot the blood at these
intestine and drains excess fluid from points of injury to prevent it from excessive
extracellular space back into the blood. bleeding.
• It protects the body by killing the germs (c) (i) Aquatic plants take up carbon dioxide
drained out of the body tissues with the dissolved in water.
help of lymphocytes contained in the (ii) Terrestrial plants use carbon dioxide present
lymph nodes. in air.

2. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct 10. (c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
and the Reason is the correct explanation of the 11. (c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
3. (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
4. (d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the 14. (d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the
Reason is true. Reason is true.
5. (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but 15. (d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the
the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Reason is true.
Assertion. 16. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct
6. (d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the and the Reason is the correct explanation of the
Reason is true. Assertion.
Case-Based
1. (a) Large intestine absorbs water from the undigested Or
food material. (c) Pancreatic juice contains enzyme trypsin for
(b) Anal sphincter controls exit of waste material. digesting proteins and lipase for breaking down
(c) The inner lining of small intestine has numerous emulsified fats.
finger like projections called villi which increases
the surface area for absorption.
Answers 427
2. (a) Reabsorption of liquid takes place in kidney but Sunlight
no reabsorption takes place in artificial kidney. 6CO2 + 12H2O → Chlorophyll C6H12O6 + 6H2O
(b) Urine produced in the kidneys is passed through + 6O2
the ureters into the urinary bladder. Or
(c) An artificial kidney is a device to remove (c) Desert plants open up their stomata during night
nitrogenous waste products from the blood and take in CO2. Stomata remains close during
through dialysis. the day time to prevent the loss of water by
Or transpiration. They store the CO2 in their cells
(c) Waste products from blood pass into dialysing until the sun comes out and they can carry on
fluid by diffusion. with photosynthesis during the day time.
3. (a) 6. (a) The process by which water absorbed by the
Respiration in Respiration in
roots is conducted to the upper part of the plant.
plants animals (b) Xylem conducts water and phloem translocates
Plants do not have Animals have food.
respiratory system. respiratory system. (c) Transpiration Translocation
(b) These are the tiny hair like structures on cells – It is the loss of – It is the trans-portation
in linings of many parts of respiratory system water in the form of food materials
which removes dust, microbes and other harmful of vapour. within the plant body.
effluents from inhaled air.
(c) In human being, to maximize the area for – It occurs through – It occurs through
exchange of gases, inner surface of lungs has stomata. vascular tissues,
smaller tubes that terminate into balloon like i.e. xylem and
structures called alveoli. The walls of alveoli phloem.
have extensive network of blood vessels. Or
Or (c) The opening and closing of the stomata is a
(c) Even though the breathing cycle is rhythmic, function of the guard cells. The guard cells
the lungs always contain a residual volume of swell when water flows into them, causing the
air so that absorption of oxygen and release of stomata to open. Similarly, the stomata closes
carbon dioxide becomes continuous. if the guard cells shrink.
4. (a) Pericardium. 7. (a) A – Pyruvic acid
(b) Valves help in the unidirectional flow of blood. B – Lactic acid
Thus, prevents the backflow of blood. (b) In both aerobic and anaerobic respiration, the
(c) Left ventricle has to pump blood to longer chemical used is glucose.
distances with high pressure, so the left ventricle (c) Anaerobic respiration is the incomplete
has thicker walls. The right ventricle has to breakdown of glucose and produces less energy,
pump blood upto the lungs, so it has thinner so it is less efficient.
walls. Or
Or (c) Respiration uses O2 and releases CO2 but in
(c) Auricles Ventricles photosynthesis, CO2 is used and O2 is released.
– These are – These are the 8. (a) The processes which may be hampered due to
the receiving distributing the dust and smoke are:
chambers. chambers. – Photosynthesis
– Respiration
– Walls are thin. – Walls are thick. – Transpiration
– These are the upper – These are the lower Chlorophyll
6CO2 + 12H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2
chambers of the chambers of the Sunlight
+ 6H2O
heart. heart. (any two) (b) Transportation of organic solutes from leaves
5. (a) The raw materials required for photosynthesis to other parts of plants is called translocation.
are carbon dioxide and water in presence of It occurs through phloem. It takes place in the
sunlight and chlorophyll. sieve tubes with the help of adjacent companion
(b) In plants, photosynthesis takes place in cells both in upward and downward directions.
chloroplasts present in the leaf. Translocation in phloem is achieved by utilizing
(c) Photosynthesis can be represented using a energy from ATP. This increases the osmotic
chemical equation. pressure of tissue causing water to move into it.
This pressure moves the material in the phloem and the soil. Water therefore, moves into the
to tissue which has less pressure. This allows root from the soil to eliminate this difference
the phloem to move material according to the thus, there is steady movement of water into
plant’s needs. For example, in the spring, sugar root xylem, creating a column of water that is
stored in root or stem tissue would be transported steadily pushed upwards. This pressure is not
to the buds which need energy to grow. enough to move water over the heights. If the
Or amount of water is in enough amount, the water
(b) The elements of xylem which transport water and is lost through the stomata which is replaced by
minerals in the upward direction are vessels and water from the xylem vessels in the leaf. This
tracheids. In xylem tissue, vessels and tracheids loss of water i.e., evaporation of water molecules
of roots, stems and leaves are interconnected to from the cells of a leaf creates a suction which
form a continuous system of water conducting pulls water from the xylem cells of roots. At
channels reaching all parts of the plant. At the night, the effect of root pressure in transport of
roots, cells in contact with the soil actively water is more important. During the day when
take up ions. This creates a difference in the the stomata are open, the transpiration becomes
concentration of these ions between the root the major driving force in the movement of water
in the xylem.
Chapter 6—Control and Coordination
Animals – Nervous System
1. (b) Cerebrum is part of fore-brain 6.

Cerebrum
Cranium(skull)
2. (c)
3. (a) Synapse
4. Voluntary actions: These actions governed by our Fore-brain
somatic nervous system in which, person has full Mid-brain
control over it. It is also responsible for our reflexes,
which do not require brain input.
5. Involuntary action: Involuntary action is the set of Hypothalamus
Pituitary
muscle movement which does not require thinking. gland Pons Spinal cord
These actions are controlled by brain. Example of Hind-brain Medulla
Cerebellum
involuntary actions are beating of heart, breathing, etc.
Involuntary actions are concerned with the functioning Functions of Cerebellum
of the internal body parts. • It coordinates in movements maintaining posture
and balance of the body.
• It coordinates muscular activity.
Functions of Pons
• It helps in regulation of respiration.
• It controls involuntary actions.
Coordination in Plants
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (b) the part which is in contact with the support
4. (c) Rapid cell divisions in tendrillar cells that are causing the tendril to curl around the support.
away from the support. 8. The plant growth hormone which is synthesized at
5. Stem and root show unilateral growth towards light the shoot tip is auxin.
and gravity of earth respectively due to unequal When the growing parts of a plant detect sunlight,
concentration of auxins (hormones) in both sides of auxin is synthesised at the shoot tip which helps the
stem and root apices. cells to grow longer and auxin diffuses towards the
In stems, auxins concentrate more on the stem away shady side of the shoot. The concentration of auxin
from light causing bending towards light. stimulates the cells on the side of the plant shoot
In roots, auxins concentrate more on the lower side which is away from light. Thus, the plant appears to
of root tip, inhibiting growth, so it grows downwards bend towards light during its growth.
towards gravity.
6. Auxins are the group of plant hormones which occur
naturally in the plant body. They are synthesised from
the root and shoot-tips of the plant body.
7. (a) Tropism: The movement of the plant organ in
the direction of an external stimulus such as light,
touch, gravitational forces etc. is called tropism.
(b) Auxin synthesised at the shoot tip diffuses from
the tip to the region that is away from the support.
The part containing more auxin grows faster than
Hormones in Animals
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) (b) Progesterone: Corpus luteum of ovary. It brings
4. (a) Parathormone: Parathyroid. It increases the about most of the pregnancy changes such
concentration of Ca++ in blood plasma. as uterine growth, implantation, formation of
placenta, etc.
5. We will take the example of adrenal glands to show run away very fast from the dog to save ourselves. In
how the endocrine system coordinates our body this way, adrenaline hormone prepares our body to run
activities. There are two adrenal glands in our body, away very fast from a frightening object. Similarly, it
one on top of each kidney. The adrenal glands make is the adrenaline hormone which prepares our body
adrenaline hormone. The adrenaline hormone prepares to fight an enemy by providing us a lot of energy in
our body to function at maximum efficiency during a very short time.
emergency situations like danger, anger, excitement, 6. (a) It is important to have iodised salt in our diet as
etc. This happens as follows: iodine is necessary for the thyroid gland to make
When we are faced with a dangerous situation then thyroxine hormone.
our nervous system stimulates the adrenal glands to (b) The disease which is caused by the deficiency of
secure more adrenaline hormone into our blood. This iodine is goitre.
adrenaline hormone increases our heart beat, breathing (c) Symptoms of disease goitre
rate, blood flow into muscles and causes liver to put • Swollen neck
more stored glucose into our body. All these actions • Dizziness
of adrenaline hormone produce a lot of energy in our • Coughing and difficulty in breathing.
body very, very quickly. And this energy helps us to
Integrated (Mixed)
1. (a) Abscisic acid (ABA) is also known as stress (ii) Geotropism: The upward and downward
hormone. growth of shoots and roots in response to
(b) Plant hormones enter into animal bodies through gravity is called geotropism.
food. (iii) Chemotropism: It is the movement of a
2. (a) Auxin control directional growth in plants. part of a plant in response to a chemical
(b) Animal growth hormones cannot promote growth stimuli, e.g. growth of pollen tube towards
under the influence of external stimuli like light, a chemical produced by ovule.
gravity etc. while plant growth regulators do. (b) The brain and spinal cord are protected by a
skeleton - brain by cranium and spinal cord by
3. Amoeba moves towards food and tends to aggregate
vertebral column.
in moderate warm water. Amoeba and other protozoa
(c) The master gland present in brain is called pituitary
avoid mechanical obstacles. Thus, unicellular
gland.
organisms respond to stimuli. Roots of plants move
downward in response to gravitational force and shoots 6. Chemical communication is better than electrical
of plants move towards light. This shows that plants impulses as a means of communication between cells
respond to stimuli. in a multicellular organism because:
(i) Chemical communication can reach every part of
4. (a) Three directional movements in plants are:
the body while electrical impulses cannot reach
(i) Phototropism: It is the movement of a part
each and every cell, it can reach only those cells
of a plant towards light, e.g. movement of
which are connected by nervous tissue.
stem towards light.
(ii) Once the electrical impulse is generated in a
(ii) Geotropism: The upward and downward
cell and transmitted, it takes time to reset the
growth of shoots and roots in response to
mechanism before it can create and transmit a
gravity is called geotropism.
new impulse, while chemical communication is
(iii) Chemotropism: It is the movement of a
steady and a constant response.
part of a plant in response to a chemical
stimuli, e.g. growth of pollen tube towards 7. (a) In plants, control and coordination is brought
a chemical produced by ovule. about by means of chemical substances called
(b) The brain and spinal cord are protected by a phytohormones. In addition, environmental
skeleton - brain by cranium and spinal cord by factors like water, temperature and light, controls
vertebral column. growth and development.
(c) The master gland present in brain is called pituitary (b) Cerebrum Spinal cord
gland. (i) It contains (i) It contains axons
5. (a) Three directional movements in plants are: cell bodies of outside and cell
(i) Phototropism: It is the movement of a part neurons outside bodies inside.
of a plant towards light, e.g. movement of and axons of the
stem towards light. neurons inside.
Answers 431
(ii) It is the region (ii) It controls the (c) (i) Phototropism

for memory, reflex actions. (ii) Hydrotropism
speech, (iii) Chemotropism
(iv) Geotropism.
reasoning, etc.

1. (c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false. 5. (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but
Assertion.
4. (d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the
Reason is true.
Assertion.
Case-Based
1. (a) Cerebellum in hind-brain controls the posture and plants is controlled by certain chemical substances
balance of the body. known as plant hormones or phytohormones.
(b) Brain and spinal cord 4. (a) It is an example of thigmotropism.
(c) The function of adrenaline hormone is to (b) Growth of pollen tubes towards ovary is an
regulate blood pressure, heartbeat, breathing rate, example of chemotropism.
carbohydrate metabolism and mineral balance in (c) When a tendril such as pea plant touches a support,
the body. the growth hormone moves opposite to the support
Or and therefore the opposite side grows faster. Due
(c) Reflex action enables the animal to respond to differential elongation, the tendril coils around
quickly and relieves the brain from excess work. the support.
2. (a) (i) Gravity (ii) Chemicals Or
(b) Hypothalamus regulates secretion of hormones (c) Four different types of tropisms shown by plants
from pituitary gland. are phototropism, geotropism, chemotropism and
(c) Brain and spinal cord controls all the activities hydrotropism.
of the body by cranial nerves and spinal nerves.
5. (a) Auxin is synthesised at shoot tip of plants.
Or
(b) Reflex action enables the animal to respond
(c) Glucagon is secreted in the alpha cells of the
quickly
islets of Langerhans in pancreas. The function of
(c) Endocrine glands are structures or group of cells
glucagon is to increase the blood glucose level.
which manufacture hormones and secretes them
3. (a) Reflex arc is the pathway taken by the nerve directly into the bloodstream to act at distant sites
impulses in a reflex action from receptor to spinal in the body known as target cells.
cord to effector organ. Or
(b) Spinal cord is enclosed in a bony cage called (c) Hypothalamus gland produces ‘releasing
vertebral column which protects the spinal cord hormone’. It regulates secretion of hormones from
from injury. pituitary gland.
(c) The information acquired at the dendrite tip of a
neuron creates an electric impulse which travels 6. (a) Abscisic acid is an example of a plant hormone
from the dendrite to the cyton along the axon to which inhibits growth.
its end. At the end of axon, the electric impulse (b) Auxins are synthesised when growing plants
releases some chemicals which cross the synapse detect light. It is synthesised at the shoot tip.
and start a similar electrical impulse in the dendrite (c) – Cytokinins promote cell division.
of the next neuron. – Cytokinins also regulate axillary bud growth.
Or Or
(c) Plants do not have nerve cells. Plants respond (c) – Gibberellins help in the elongation of stem.
to various stimulus. Growth and movement of – They also promote seed germination.
7. (a) Rohit’s sister suffered from goitre. The doctor has contraction of muscles around small arteries in
advised her to eat iodised salt as iodine present these organs.
in iodised salt is needed to produce thyroxine This diverts the blood to our skeletal muscles.
hormone by thyroid gland. Thyroxine regulates The breathing rate also increases because of the
carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism in our contractions of the diaphragm and rib muscles.
body and provide the best balance for growth. All these responses together enable the animal
In case iodine is deficient in our diet, there is a body to be ready to deal with the situation.
possibility that we may suffer from goitre. Or
(b) Adrenaline hormone is known as emergency (b) Insulin hormone is secreted by pancreas. Pancreas
hormone or stress hormone. Whenever a person secretes hormones as well as enzymes. Insulin
is under stress, a hormone called adrenaline is hormone helps in regulating the metabolism of
secreted from adrenal glands directly into the sugar. When pancreas does not produce and secrete
blood and carried to different parts of the body. sufficient amount of insulin into blood, then the
The target organ on which it acts is heart. As a sugar level in the blood rises. Therefore, the patient
result, the heart beats faster, resulting in supply excretes sugar in urine. The people having severe
of more oxygen to our muscles. The blood to diabetes are treated by giving injections of insulin.
the digestive system and skin is reduced due to
Chapter 7—How do Organisms Reproduce?
Modes of Reproduction Used by Single Organisms
1. (a) Yeast reproduces by budding. (b) When a filament of Spirogyra attains considerable
2. (c) Plasmodium divide into many daughter cells length on maturation, it breaks into smaller
simultaneously by multiple fission. fragments and each fragment then grows into
3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c) a new plant. This mode of reproduction is
called fragmentation.
6. In Bryophyllum, plantlets develop along the margins
of leaves, get detached and develop into independent
plants. Rose leaves do not have adventitious buds
Nucleus
along the leaf margin and hence, plantlets do not
grow along their leaf margins.
Septa
7. Grafting is a method of asexual reproduction in
Spiral
which two closely related varieties are joined together chloroplast
so that they live as one plant. The plant of which
roots remain in the soil is called ‘stock’ and the other
plant of which stem is grafted is called ‘scion’.
When scion and stock make a contact with each other
the fruit is obtained with superior quality because the 11. Tissue culture is the production or propagation of
scion which is taken is having the desired characters. new plants from isolated plant cells or small pieces
The stock is the only supporter and provides basic of plant tissue in a synthetic medium of culture
requirements to the developing fruits. So, it gives solution. Tissue culture for producing new plants
better and positive results. is done as follows:
l Plants are grown by removing tissues or separating
8. Tissue culture technique is used for propagation of cells from the growing tip of the plant and put
ornamental plants like orchids, Dahlia, etc. in an artificial medium.
Ornamental plant Vegetative l The plant tissue divide to form small group of cells
propagation methods or callus.
(i) Jasmine Layering l T he callus is transferred to another medium
(ii) Rose Cutting containing hormones for growth and differentiation,
(iii) Bougainvillea Layering that forms plantlets.
(iv) Hibiscus Layering l The plantlets produced are transplanted into pots
9. The stock and scion join up due to cambium activity. or soil where they can grow to form mature plants.
Stock is the portion on which grafting is done and l This technique is also known as micropropagation
it provides the roots. Scion is the portion of the in vitro because it takes place outside the body of
plant, which is grafted onto the other plant and it the parent plant in a test-tube using an artificial
contributes the stem. environment.
The plant contributing stock should have an efficient Micropropagation technique is being used for the
absorbing system. The plant contributing scion production of ornamental plants like orchids,
should have good quality fruits or flowers. Dahlia and carnation.
10. (a) Binary fission Multiple fission 12. Asexual reproduction is uniparental i.e. the offsprings
arise from a single parent.
(i) It is the division (i) It is the division The different methods of asexual reproduction seen
of the parent into of the parent in animals are fission, budding, fragmentation and
two nearly equal into many regeneration.
sized daughter small daughter Fission: The fission process involves the splitting of
individuals. individuals. a parent cell into two or more than two separate
(ii) Nucleus divides (ii) Nucleus of the
daughter cells. Fission can be further divided into
into two parts with parent cell divides
two types (a) binary fission and (b) multiple fission.
equal distribution to form a number
of all the material of small nuclei and
(a) Binary fission: In binary fission, a unicellular
to form two new develop into many organism splits into two small but identical
individuals. new individuals. daughter organisms.
Binary fission in Amoeba: When the
(i) Fragmentation: The breaking up of the body of a
Amoeba cell has reached its maximum simple multicellular organism into two or more
size of growth, first the nucleus of Amoeba pieces on maturing, each of which grows to
enlarges and divides into two parts and the form a complete new organism. Sea anemones
process is called karyokinesis. After that can reproduce by this method.
the cytoplasm of Amoeba divides and the Budding: In budding, a small part of the body of
process is called cytokinesis. In this way, the organism grows out as a bud which then
parent Amoeba divides into two daughter detaches and becomes a new organism.
amoebae. For example, Hydra.
In Hydra, a bud develops as an outgrowth due to
repeated cell division at one specific site. These
buds develop into tiny individuals and when
fully mature, detach from the parent body and
become new independent individuals.
Tentacles
Binary Fission in Amoeba
(ii) Transverse binary fission in Paramecium:
In Paramecium, binary fission occurs
along the transverse axis. A fully grown
Paramecium divides into two daughter Bud
paramecia.

Longitudinal binary fission in
(iii)
Budding in Hydra
Leishmania: Leishmania causes Kala-azar
Regeneration: The process of producing a full
which has a whip like flagellum at one end
organism from its body part is called
of the cell. Its body divides by longitudinal
regeneration. Hydra and Planaria show the
binary fission. It occurs in definite
process of regeneration. If the individual is
orientation in relation to these structures.
somehow cut or broken up into many pieces, each
of these pieces grow into separate individuals.
Regeneration is carried out by specialised cells.
These cells proliferate and make large number
of cells. From this mass of cells, different cells
undergo changes to become various cell types
and tissues and these changes take place in an
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f)
organised sequence.
Binary fission in Leishmania
(b) Multiple fission: In multiple fission, parent
nucleus of the parent cell divides several times
into many daughter nuclei. Each daughter
nucleus gets surrounded with a bit of cytoplasm
and a large number of daughter individuals are
formed. During the process, the organism also
secretes a protective covering, the cyst around
the cell. During the favourable conditions,
the cyst ruptures and single called daughter
organisms are set free and each grows into a
complete organism.
Regeneration in Planaria
13. (a) Leishmania and Plasmodium reproduce by
fission (asexual mode of reproduction).
(b) (i) Leishmania reproduce by binary fission in
which the parent organism splits to form
Multiple fission in Plasmodium two new organisms.
Answers 435
(ii) Plasmodium reproduce by multiple fission (ii) A large number of plants can be produced
in which the parent organism splits to form by the method of vegetative propagation.
many new organisms at the same time. (iii) The plants grown by vegetative propagation
(c) The method of producing new plants from usually need less attention in their early
the different vegetative parts of the plant like years than the plants grown from seeds.
root, stem, leaves, etc. is called vegetative (iv) Seedless plants can also be grown from
propagation. this method.
(d) (i) Plants grown by vegetative propagation
grow much faster than those grown from
seeds.
DNA Copying and Sexual Reproduction

1. (d) 2. (a) AIDS is caused by HIV. (ii) Changes Different in Boys and Girls.
3. (a) 4. (b) In Girls
l Breast size begins to increase.
5. ‘DNA copies generated will be similar, but may not l Darkening of nipple skin.
be identical to the original as some variations are so l Start of menstruation.
drastic that new DNA copy cannot work with the In Boys
cellular apparatus it inherits. Such a new born cell l Thick facial hair growth.
will simply die. Therefore, there could be many other l Voice begins to crack.
variations in the DNA copies that would not lead to l P enis occasionally begins to become
such a drastic outcome. Thus, the surviving cells are enlarged and erect.
similar but slightly different from each other. This 9. The embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s blood
tendency of variation during reproduction is the basis with the help of a special tissue called placenta.
for evolution. Placenta is a disc which is embedded in the uterine
6. A seed is the reproductive unit of a plant which can wall and contains villi on the embryo’s side of the
be used to grow a new plant. It contains a baby plant tissue. Blood spaces are present on mother’s side
or embryo and food for the baby plant. The baby which surround the villi. Placenta carries following
plant present in a seed is in the dormant or inactive functions:
state. When the seeds get suitable conditions of water, l It provides a large surface area for absorption of
warmth, air and light, then new plants grow out of glucose and oxygen to the foetus from mother’s
these seeds. In this way, the parent plant reproduces blood.
more plants like itself by forming seeds through l The waste substances generated by the developing
flowers. embryo are removed by transferring them into

mother’s blood through the placenta.
7. The site of fertilisation in humans is the junction
10. Two bacterial diseases which are sexually transmitted
between ampulla and isthmus of the fallopian tube.
are syphilis and gonorrhoea.
Thus, for fertilisation, it is necessary that the ovum
Syphilis is caused by bacterium Treponema
be present at this site. As the release of ovum from
pallidium.
the ovaries takes place between 11th to 16th day of Symptoms:
menstrual cycle, the chances of ovum being present in It affects the mucus membrane in genital, rectal and
fallopian tube at that time is high. Hence, fertilisation oral region and causes lesions.
is possible when ovulation occurs, in the middle of Prevention:
menstrual cycles. Intercourse with the diseased person should be
8. Sexual Maturity in Human beings. Various changes avoided.
take place in human body at the time of sexual Gonorrhoea is caused by bacterium Neisseria
maturity or puberty. gonorrhoeae.
(i) Changes Common to both Boys and Girls. Symptoms:
l Thick hair growth in armpits and genital (i) Inflammation of mucus membrane in
area between the thighs. urinogenital tract.
l Thinner hair on legs, arms and face. (ii) Burning sensation during urination.
l Oily skin and appearance of pimples. Prevention:
(i) By avoiding prostitution.
(ii) By avoiding homosexuality.
11. (a) If the niche were drastically altered, the • It contains villi on the embryo’s side of the
population could be wiped out. However, if tissue. On the mother’s side are blood spaces,
some variations were to be present in a few which surround the villi. (½ Mark)
individuals in these populations, there would • This provides a large surface area for glucose
be some chance for them to survive. Variation and oxygen to pass from the mother to
is thus useful for the survival of species over the embryo. The developing embryo will
time. (2 Marks) also generate waste substances which can
(b) • The lining of the uterus thickens and is richly be removed by transferring them into the
supplied with blood to nourish the growing mother’s blood through the placenta. (1 Mark)
embryo. (½ Mark) • The child is born as a result of rhythmic
• The embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s contractions of the muscles in the uterus.
blood with the help of placenta. It is embedded (½ Mark)
in the uterine wall. (½ Mark) [CBSE Marking Scheme]
Integrated (Mixed)
1. (a) Bud of Hydra Bud of Bryophyllum

Hydra has special regenerative cells that gives rise Bryophyllum reproduces through vegetative propagation.
to small bud on its body surface that later develops Buds produced in the notches along the leaf margin of
into a new individual after detachment. Bryollphyllum fall on the soil and develop into new plants.
(b) Fragmentation Regeneration
It is a mode of asexual reproduction in which body It is a mode of asexual reproduction in which some
of a simple multicellular organism breaks up into organisms can grow small cut parts of their body to
two pieces on maturing, each of which subsequently form a whole new organisms in all respects.
grows to form a complete new organism.
(c) Fertilization Germination
It is defined as the fusion of a male gamete (sperm) It is the initial stages in the growth of a seed to
with a female gamete (an ovum or egg) to form a develop into a seedling under appropriate conditions.
zygote during sexual reproduction.
2. Reproduction: It is the process of producing new 4. Differences between asexual and sexual mode of
individuals of the same species from existing reproduction.
organisms of a species, i.e. parents. Asexual reproduction Sexual reproduction
Reproduction helps in providing stability to the
(i) A single parent is (i) Two parents (a male
population of species because reproduction is
involved. and a female) are
a process by which organisms increase their involved.
populations. The rate of birth and death in a given (ii) There is no (ii) There is formation
population determine its size. formation or and fusion of
3. (a) Reproduction is necessary to maintain the fusion of gametes. gametes.
continuity of species. (iii) There is genetic (iii) There is genetic
(b) Reproduction is linked to the stability of variation in the variation in the
populations of species, which occupy well- progeny. (any one) progeny. (any one)
defined places called niches in the ecosystems. – The species reproducing sexually will have better
(c) The variations created during reproduction are chances of survival because genetic variation is
responsible for survival of a species in case created during sexual reproduction; in case of
of an adverse change in the environment and an adverse environmental change, atleast some
evolution. variants will survive and continue the race.
Answers 437
5. (a) The two main types of reproduction in living (b) Sexual maturation of reproductive tissues is a
organisms are – Asexual reproduction and necessary link for reproduction because of the
sexual reproduction. need for specialised cell called germ-cells to
(b) Asexual reproduction: Amoeba, yeast participate in sexual reproduction. The body of
Sexual reproduction: Frog, earthworm the individual organism has to grow to its adult
6. (a) Meristematic tissue size, the rate of general body growth begins to
(b) The characteristics will remain same. It is slow down, reproductive tissues begin to mature.
because regeneration is an asexual method of A whole new set of changes in the appearance
reproduction and it does not involve mixing of the body takes place like change in body
of gametes. proportions, new features appear. This period
during adolescence is called puberty. (1½ Marks)
7. (a) The reason is that many multi-cellular organisms
There are also changes taking place that are
are not simply a random collection of cells.
different between boys and girls. In girls, breast
Specialised cells are organised as tissues, and
size begins to increase, with darkening of the
tissues are organised into organs, which then
skin of the nipples at the tips of the breasts.
have to be placed at definite positions in the
Also, girls begin to menstruate at around this
body. Therefore, cell-by-cell division would be
time. Boys begin to have new thick hair growth
impractical. (2 Marks)
on the face and their voices begin to crack.
(1½ Marks) [CBSE Marking Scheme]

1. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct 5. (c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
and the Reason is the correct explanation of 6. (d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the
the Assertion. Reason is true.
2. (d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the 7. (c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
Reason is true. 8. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct
3. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of
the Assertion.
4. (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but
the Reason is not the correct explanation of
the Assertion.
Case-Based
1. (a) Testes 3. (a) Asexual reproduction is simple and fast.
(b) testosterone hormone brings about changes in (b) Fission, Fragmentation Regeneration, Budding.
the appearance of boys at the time of puberty. (any two)
(c) Scrotum protects the testis. It also regulates (c) (i) It increases population of a species.
the temperature of the testis. Sperms need a (ii) It allows perpetuation of a species.
temperature less than the body temperature for Or
their production and development. (c) Variation enables a species to survive even in
Or adverse conditions. It leads to development of
(c) Testis are located in a scrotal sacs outside the a new species which can survive in the changed
abdominal cavity. So, testis are called extra conditions.
abdominal. 4. (a) (i) Thick hair development in underarm and
2. (a) No genital area.
(b) Gonorrhoea (ii) Deepening of voice.
(c) The person’s immune mechanism become weak (b) (i) Birth rate (ii) Death rate
thereby making him susceptible to any disease. (c) It has led to various problems in population
Or balance and it reduces the number of female
(c) (i) Through sexual contact with an infected child per male child, which is not a good sign
person. of a healthy population in a particular area.
(ii) Through infected needles used for injection.
Or (b) Root, stem and leaves.
(c) The chemical contraceptive methods such as (c) (i) No genetic variation is created.
oral pills and vaginal pills change the hormonal (ii) Continued vegetative propagation can lead
balance of the body. to loss of vigour.
5. (a) Adventitious buds that arise from the notches in Or
the leaf margins of Bryophyllum. (c) (i) Layering (ii) Cutting
6. (a) Figure (A) shows self-pollination and figures (A) and (B) show cross-pollination.
Differences between self-pollination and cross-pollination
Self-pollination Cross-pollination
– Pollen is transferred from the anther – Pollen is transferred from the anther of
to the stigma of the same flower or one flower to the stigma of another flower
another flower on the same plant. of different plant of the same species.
– It occur in flowers where the stamens – It occurs mostly in flowers where
and carpel mature at the same time. stamens and carpel mature at different
times.
– Plants with less generic diversity are – Plants with more genetic diversity are
formed. formed. (any one)
Similarity between Self-pollination and Cross-pollination
These are essential processes in sexual reproduction of plants. In both processes, pollen transfer from anthers
to the stigma of flowers take place.
(b) (i) Disadvantages of self-pollination:
– new plant varieties cannot be introduced.
– immunity of offspring decreases as new characteristic are not introduced.
Disadvantages of cross-pollination:
– pollen grains are wasted in huge quantities.
– pollination may fail due to the distance barrier.
– it has the potential to introduce undesirable traits.
(ii) Plumule
(future shoot)
Radicle
(future root)
Germination of seed Or
(b) Once the pollen lands on a suitable stigma, it forms a pollen tube. The pollen tube grows out of pollen grain and
travels through the style to reach the ovary. The male gamete fuses with female gamete cell in an embryo sac
and this process is called fertilization. After fertilization, the zygote divides several times to form an embryo
within the ovule. The ovary grows rapidly and ripens to form a fruit. The sepals, petals, stamens, style and
stigma shrivel and fall off. The ovule grows rapidly and ripens to form a seed.
7. (a) The baby is carried in mother’s womb for (b) – Breasts develop and nipples become darker.
9 months or 280 days. – The body shape change.
– Menstruation starts taking place.
Or
(b) – An embryo gets nutrition and oxygen from
Uterus the mother’s blood with the help of placenta.
– T he waste substances generated by the
embryo are also removed by transferring
them into the mother’s blood through the
placenta.
Chapter 8—Heredity
Accumulation of Variation During Reproduction
1. (a) Genetics
(b) Heredity
(c) Variation
(d) Character or trait
Heredity
1. (a) 2. (b) 9. There are 23 pairs of chromosomes present in
3. (b) In F1 generation, the dominant traits appear. human beings. Out of these 23 pairs, one pair is
Here Round and Yellow are dominant traits. of sex chromosomes. There are two types of sex
4. (d) F1 Tt × Tt chromosomes found in human beings, X and Y. A
Gametes T, t T, t female has two X chromosomes and a male has one
F2 TT Tt Tt tt X and one Y chromosome.
1 : 2 : 1
5. (a)
6. Genes and chromosomes are present in pairs.
Both segregate during meiotic cell division to
form gametes in which they remain unpaired.
After fertilisation, the paired feature is restored in
zygote which develops into the offspring. Thus, it is
justified that genes and chromosomes have similar
behaviours.
7. Mendel’s experiment with peas on inheritance of traits Determination of Sex in Humans
considering only two visible contrasting characters Sex of a child depends on what happens during
are as follows : fertilization:
• Mendel took pea plants with two different (i) The female gamete, ova always contributes an X
characteristics such as a tall plant with round chromosome during fertilization.
seeds and a short plant with wrinkled seeds. (ii) The male gamete, sperm contributes either X or Y
• F1 progeny were all tall with round seeds. Thus, chromosome during fertilization. But whether
tallness and round seeds are dominant traits. sperm will contribute the X chromosome or
• F2 progeny were tall plants with round seeds and Y chromosome is a matter of chance and the
some short plants with wrinkled seeds. man do not have any control over it.
• But some F2 progeny showed new mixtures like (iii) If a sperm carrying X chromosome fertilizes an
tall having wrinkled seeds and short having ova which always carries an X chromosome,
round seeds. then the child born will be a girl. But if a
• Therefore, tall/short trait and round/wrinkled seed sperm carrying Y chromosome fertilizes an
trait are independently inherited. egg which always carries X chromosome,
8. then the child born will be a boy.
(iv) Thus, sex of a newborn child is a matter of chance
and none of the parents may be considered
responsible for it.
10. Sex Determination. Different species use different
strategies for sex determination.
• Sex determination is the process by which sex of
a newborn individual can be determined.
• Human beings have 23 pairs of chromosomes out
of which one pair is of sex chromosomes which
is not a perfect pair.
A couple has 50% probability of having a son or • A male has one X chromosome and one Y
daughter. chromosome, i.e. half of the male gametes or
sperms will have X chromosome and the other Mendel’s Monohybrid cross
half will have Y chromosome. Pure tall pea plant × Pure dwarf pea plant
• A female has two X chromosomes, i.e. all the female TT tt
gametes or ova will have only X chromosomes.
• Sex of a child depends on what happens during
fertilisation. Gametes T T t t
(i) If a sperm carrying X chromosome fertilises
an ovum which carries X chromosome,
then the child born will be a girl.
(ii) If a sperm carrying Y chromosome fertilises
an ovum which carries X chromosome, F1 generation Tt Tt Tt Tt
then the child born will be a boy. All tall pea plants
• Thus, father determines the sex of the child. Tt × Tt
11. (a) No, it is not true that a wrestler’s son should Self pollination
also have heavy muscles. The muscles are
developed by the wrestler after rigorous training. Gametes T t T t
(b) It is acquired character.
(c) The values shown by Sameer’s friends are
inadequate knowledge, insensitive and apathy.
12. When a tall plant is crossed with a dwarf plant, all
the plants will be tall in F1 generation. However, F2 generation T T Tt Tt tt
in F2 generation, tall plants and dwarf plants will Tall Dwarf
be produced in 3 : 1 ratio. 3:1
Integrated (Mixed)
1. (a) Variation refers to the differences in the species, if there were some individuals with
characteristics among the individuals of a suitable variation, in the population of that
species. species, they would survive and continue the
– Variation is created in a population by species, e.g. If the temperature of temperate
(i) Errors in DNA copying water increases, due to global warming, the
(ii) Recombination during reproduction bacteria living in such water would not be
– In case of a drastic change in the environment of able to live there, but if there were some
the niche of the population, atleast some variants, resistant to heat, they would survive
variants would have chances of survival. and continue further and their extinction will
(b) – There are special lineages of cells in be prevented.
specialised organs in multicellular organisms. (b)
Male 1 Female 2
– Such cells undergo a special type of cell
division, called meiosis, and the germ cells
(gametes) formed have only half the amount
of chromosomes as the parent cell. X Y 3 X X 4
– When two such germ cells (with half the
number of chromosomes) fuse, a zygote/new
individual is formed with the re-establishment
of the number of chromosomes as in parent
organism. XX XX XY XY
2. (a) Variations arise due to
5 6 7 8
(i) Errors in DNA copying
(ii) Sexual reproduction, as it combines DNA 1. Male 2. Female
from two different individuals. 3. X and Y 4. X and X
Variation is useful for the survival of species 5. XX 6. XX
If an adverse change occurs in the habitat of a 7. XY 8. XY
Answers 441

1. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct 6. (d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the
and the Reason is the correct explanation of Reason is true.
2. (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but and the Reason is the correct explanation of
the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
and the Reason is the correct explanation of 9. (d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the
the Assertion. Reason is true.
and the Reason is the correct explanation of
the Assertion.
Case-Based
1. (a) The F1 progeny of tall plants with round seeds As we get phenotypic ratio as 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 and
and short plants with wrinkled seeds are all the total plants are 1600.
tall plants with round seeds. Tall plants with round seeds 9,
The genetic makeup of tall plants with round seeds 9
i.e. × 1600 = 900
is TTRR and the genetic makeup of short plants 16
with wrinkled seeds ttrr. When TTRR and ttrr Tall plants with wrinkled seeds 3,
are cross bred by cross pollination, we get all 3
i.e. × 1600 = 300
tall plants with round seeds. 16
Parents : TTRR × ttrr Short plants with round seeds 3,
Cross pollination 3
i.e. × 1600 = 300
16
Gametes : TR TR tr tr Short plants with wrinkled seeds 1,
1
TR TR i.e. × 1600 = 100
16
F1 Progeny : tr TtRr TtRr
Therefore,
tr TtRr TtRr
(i) Tall with round seeds : 900
All tall plants with round seeds are obtained as (ii) Short with wrinkled seeds : 300
tallness and round shape are both dominant
traits. The conclusion of this experiment:
(b) The recessive traits in the above case are: Dihybrid cross led Gregor Mendel to develop
Shortness and wrinkled shape. his law of independent assortment. It can be
(c) When F1 progeny (TtRr) is self pollinated, concluded when two pairs of traits are combined
four types of progenies are obtained in F 2 in a hybrid, one pair of characters segregates
generation: independent of the other pair of character, e.g.
• Progeny with tall plants and round seeds – 9 tallness trait was seen along with wrinkled seeds.
• Progeny with tall plants and wrinkled This experiment also explains law of dominance.
seeds – 3 Only dominant traits are seen in F1 generation.
• Progeny with short plants and round seeds – 3 For example, all plants produced were tall
• Progeny with short plants and wrinkled plants with round seeds.
seeds – 1 2. (a) During sexual reproduction, similar copy of
Out of these four types of progeny, two types will DNA is generated and the process is called
have traits like parents and the other two will DNA copying. DNA copying is not perfectly
have combination of traits. Thus, the phenotypic accurate and the resultant errors are a source
ratio in F2 generation will be 9 : 3 : 3 : 1. of variations in population of organisms. That
Or is why, an offspring of human being is not a
(c) In a dihybrid cross, Mendel considered two true copy of his parents.
traits simultaneously for the inheritance pattern.
(b) F 1 generation is the generation of hybrids 4. (a) Round seeds (Dominant Trait) and wrinkled
produced from a cross between the genetically seeds (Recessive trait) will appear in 3 : 1 ratio
different individuals called parents. i.e., 9315 : 3105 in total number of offsprings
F2 generation is the generation produced by the produced.
offspring to F1 generation, i.e., first generation (b) For F2 generation, F1 plants are self-pollinated.
as parent. (c) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 = Phenotypic ratio.
(c) (i) Variation refers to the differences in the Shape : Colour
characters or traits among the individuals 9 – Round : Yellow
of a species. 3 – Wrinkled : Yellow
Variation is beneficial to the species because: 3 – Round : Green
• It enable the organisms to adapt themselves 1 – Wrinkled : Green
in changing environment. Or
• It forms the basis of heredity. (c) Gregor Johann Mendel is known as father of
• It forms the raw materials for evolution genetics. He discovered the fundamental laws
and development of new species. of inheritance through his work on pea plants.
Or He also recognized the mathematical patterns of
(ii) New combinations were round green and inheritance from one generation to the next.
wrinkled yellow. 5. (a) Yes, green eye colour is recessive (½ Mark)
If two or more traits are involved, their genes as it will express only in homozygous condition
assort independently, irrespective of the (½ Mark)
combinations present in the parents. So, (b) BB, Bb (1 Mark)
new combination of genes appear in the (c) bb × Bb (½ Mark)
offspring leading to new traits. B b
3. (a) Monohybrid cross b Bb bb
(b) Parents TT × tt b Bb bb
Tall plants Dwarf plants Genetic cross (1 Mark)
50% of the offsprings can have green eye colour.
(½ Mark)
Gametes T t Or
(c) Brother is heterozygous(Bb) and wife is
green(bb). (1 Mark)
bb × Bb
Wife Brother
F1 generation Tt
Self pollination B b
Tt × Tt
of F1 gametes b Bb bb
b Bb bb
T t
F2 generation T TT Tt 50% of the offsprings can have green eye colour
Tall Tall as per the cross shown. (1 Mark)
t Tt tt [CBSE Marking Scheme]
Tall Dwarf 6. (a) The chromosomes which are associated with sex
(c) Genotype of determination are called sex chromosomes. A
(i) Parents TT × tt sperm and an ovum have 23 chromosomes each.
(ii) F2 generation TT : Tt : tt (b) Women have a perfect pair of sex chromosomes
1 : 2 : 1 XX whereas men have XY chromosomes. Since
Or women have only XX chromosomes so all the
(c) Phenotypic ratio of F1 generation – All round gametes formed will have X chromosomes so all
Genotypic ratio of F1 generation – Rr the children whether a boy or a girl will inherit
Phenotypic ratio of F2 generation – an X chromosome from the mother.
3 round : 1 wrinkled (c) The total number of chromosomes in human beings
Genotypic ratio of F2 generation – is 23 pairs or 46 chromosomes-2n (diploid). Out
1 : 2 : 1 of 23 pairs, 22 pairs are said to be autosomes and
RR : Rr : rr one pair is sex chromosomes. During the time
Answers 443
of gamete formation, a cell division–meiosis Or
takes place and the number of chromosomes is
(c) A woman has a perfect pair of sex chromosomes
halved – n (haploid). So the gametes - sperms i.e. XX. Men have mismatched pair XY in which
or ovum has 23 chromosomes. During the time X is normal sized and Y is a short one. All
of fertilization, the ovum having n chromosomes children will inherit an X chromosome from their
fuses with sperm cell with n chromosomes, a mother. A child who inherits an X chromosome
zygote is formed having 2n chromosomes. A from her father will be a girl and the one who
zygote is diploid which contains 23 pairs of inherits a Y chromosome from him will be a
chromosomes from mother and 23 from father. boy. A woman has only daughters, so in this case
In this way, an equal genetic contribution of male every-time the male’s X chromosome fuses with
and female parents is ensured. the female X chromosome and results in XX
combination. XX combination is present only
in girls.
Chapter 9—Light—Reflection and Refraction
Reflection of Light
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (b) same source of light in a particular direction.
4. (a) Ray is a line defining the path of light whereas (b) Since ∠i = 0, it means ∠r = 0.
beam is a bundle of rays originating from the
Spherical Mirrors
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (d) 5. (a) The distance between pole and focal point (focus)
4. (a) The principal focus of spherical mirror lies midway of a spherical mirror is called its focal length.
between the pole and centre of curvature. (b) To determine the approximate value of the focal
(b) Given Rconcave = 2Rconvex length of a given concave mirror, we should focus
2f the image of a distant object such as sun formed
⇒ concave = 2 × 2fconvex
fconcave by the mirror on a screen and measure the distance
2 between screen and mirror. This because, the light
\ = =2:1
fconvex 1 rays coming from the distant object are parallel
and get focused at the focus of a concave mirror.
Image Formation by Concave Mirror

1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (c) the mirror and is virtual, erect and enlarged as shown
4. M in figure given below:
R′
A
i
r
B
C F R
object Image
C F Q P Q′
5. When the object is placed between the focus (F) and
the pole (P) of the mirror, the image is formed behind A
Image Formation by Convex Mirror

1. (c) When object is placed at the centre of curvature 4. The required spherical mirror is convex mirror because
of a concave mirror, the image formed by it is at the image formed by a convex mirror for all position
its centre of curvature and of the same size but of the object placed in front of it is always erect and
inverted. So m = –1. diminished.
2. Convex mirror always forms virtual, erect and a (i) Object between pole and infinity
diminished (very small image) and that too behind
M
the mirror. Such image can’t be formed on the screen. A
3. The required ray diagram is as follows:
A′
B P B′ F C
N
Answers 445
(ii) At infinity 6. Given, f = +15 cm
So R = 2f
A = 2 × 15
= 30 cm
⇒ Object distance = 30 cm
P F C
B
B
B′

A P A′ F C
5. The required ray diagram is as follows:
The image is virtual, erect, diminished and formed

behind the mirror.
Sign convention for Reflection by Spherical Mirror

1. (b) 3. (a) For real image height – Negative
2. Concave mirror can form the images either in front of (b) For virtual image height – Positive.
it (real images) or behind the mirror (Virtual images) Reason: According to New Cartesian Sign convention:
depending upon the position of object. Therefore, – Distance measured perpendicular to and below
according to New Sign convention system the sign for the principal axis are taken as negative.
(i) Real image distance – Negative and – Distance measured perpendicular to and above
(ii) Virtual image distance – Positive the principal axis are taken as positive.
Mirror Formula and Magnification

1. (a) When object is placed at the centre of curvature 4. Given: f = – 20 cm, hi = 3ho
of a concave mirror, the image formed by it is v
For a real image: m = − u = – 3 ⇒ v = 3u
at its centre of curvature and of the same size as
the object and inverted. So m = –1. Using mirror formula,
2. (b) 1 1 1
= v+u
1 f
3. (i) Since the magnification is – , the image is
5 1 1 1 –80
⇒ = + ⇒ u= cm
real and inverted, so the spherical mirror is a –20 3u u 3
concave mirror. v
For a virtual image: m = – u = + 3 ⇒ v = –3u
hi 1 ho
(ii) m = = – ⇒ hi = – Using mirror formula,
ho 5 5
1 1 1
Therefore, the image formed is of smaller size = v+u
f
than the object placed in front of the mirror.
The object should be placed beyond C to get
1 1 1
⇒ = +
1 –20 –3u u
the magnification of – . – 40
5 ⇒ u = cm
3
5. Given: u = –2f, f = f, v = ?
From mirror formula,
1 1 1 1 1 1
= + ⇒ = +
f v u f v –2f
1 1 1 3 2 1 1 1 1 1 2−1 1

⇒ = + = ⇒ v= 3 = − = − = =
v f 2f 2f f v f u − 15 − 30 − 30 − 30
v 2f/3 1
⇒ v = –30 cm
Now, magnification, m = – = – =
u –2f 3 So, the screen should be placed at a distance of
6. Given: v = –(u + 10), f = –12 cm and u = –u 30 cm on the same side of the object in order to obtain
Using mirror formula, a sharp image.
1 1 1 Since |v| = |u| = 2f, it means that the object is placed
= v+u at the centre of curvature (C) of a concave mirror, the
f
1 1 1 image formed is at the centre of curvature. It is real,
⇒ = + inverted and of the same size as the object.
–12 – (u + 10) –u
1 1 1 2u + 10
⇒ = + =
12 u + 10 u u (u + 10)
⇒ u2 + 10u = 24u + 120
2
⇒ u – 14u – 120 = 0
⇒ u2 – 20u + 6u – 120 = 0
⇒ u(u – 20) + 6(u – 20) = 0 8. (i) According to mirror formula,
⇒ (u + 6) (u – 20) = 0 1 1 1 1 1 1
= + ⇒ = +
⇒ Either u + 6 = 0 or u – 20 = 0 f v u –12 v –18
⇒ u = –6 or u = 20 ⇒ v = –36 cm
We consider u = 20 cm as real image is formed by
concave mirror. The image will be formed at a distance of 36
Hence, object distance, u = –20 cm cm from the pole of a concave mirror on the
So, image distance, v = –(u + 10) = –(20 + 10) same side of the object.
⇒ v = – 30 cm (ii) The magnification of the mirror is given by
Then, magnification, v h
m = – = i
v –30 3 u ho
m = – = –e o = – = –1.5 –36 hi
u –20 2 ⇒ – =
7. Given: f = –15 cm, ho = 2 cm, u = –30 cm –18 3
Using mirror formula, ⇒ hi = –6 cm
1 1 1 \ Height of image is 6 cm.
= + , we get
f v u
Uses of Spherical Mirrors

1. (c) Concave mirrors as a reflector are commonly used 3. Concave mirror is used in design of solar furnaces. High
in torches, search light and vehicles light to get temperature achieved by this device is by focussing
the powerful parallel beams of light by placing the sunlight incident on a concave mirror at its focal
the source of light very near to its focus. point.
2. (a) The large-size image of the face is obtained only
when the face lies between the pole and the focus
of a concave mirror.
Refraction of Light
1. (a) Refraction of light.
2. (c) The speed of light in different medium is different i Air
due to difference in its refractive index.
3. The angle of refraction in medium I is less than in
medium II for the same angle of incidence. Hence, r
medium I is more denser than medium II. Water
4. Light bends toward normal because water is optically
denser than air.
Reason: The speed of light decreases when it travels
from air to water.
Answers 447
Refraction Through a Rectangular Glass Slab

1. (b) The ray incident normally at the point of incidence P
‘O’, so, ∠i = 0.
2. The extent of bending of the ray of light at the opposite i
parallel faces, i.e. medium-glass interface and glass- Q
medium interface of rectangular glass slab is equal
r
and opposite. Hence, emergent ray is parallel to the
incident ray.
R
e L
In
B
cid
ent
Em
ra
er
y
ge
nt
ra
y
Refractive Index
1. (d) In medium 2, light rays bends towards normal.
⇒ sin i = sin r
Therefore, medium 2 is denser than medium 1.
⇒ i =r
The light rays bends away from the normal in This shows that there will be no refraction at the
medium 3, so medium 2 is denser than medium 3. boundary of two media of equal refractive indices as
Finally, in medium 1, light ray does not bend at shown in the figure given below.
all. This indicates that 1 and 3 are essentially the
same medium. ∠i
n1 = n
2. (c) The speed of light in the medium is inversely
proportional to the refractive index of the medium, ∠r
therefore, vair > vwater > vglass =∠i
3. (d) n2 = n
4. When the refractive index of medium 1 is equal to
the refractive index of medium 2, i.e. n1 = n2, then
according to Snell’s law, 5. Given: airnice = 1.31, airnrock = 1.54
sin i n
= 2 =1 air n rock 1.54
sin r n1
icenrock = = = 1.18
air nice 1.31
Refraction by Spherical Lenses and Formation of Images

1. (b) Diverging ray shows XX′ is a concave lens. It 5. Thick lens has more converging power as compared
forms a virtual image on the same side of object to thin lens made of the same material. So thick lens
between O and Y. has less focal length. Hence, thick convex lens bends
2. (c) more light after refraction through it.
3. • The focal length of a lens depends on the radius of 6. (a) Position of object from the optical centre of the
curvature of each surface. The more highly curved lens.
the surfaces, the shorter the focal length. (b) It will emerge parallel to the principal axis after
• Therefore, a thick lens has shorter focal length than refraction.
a thin lens. (c) Law of refraction.
4. The radius of curvature of both the surfaces of biconvex 7. (a) Since power is zero so the focal length is infinity.
lens are equal and therefore, have the same focal length (b) (i) L1 – Convex lens
whereas for a convex lens the curvature may not be (ii) L2 – Concave lens
equal. (iii) L3 – Convex lens
Sign Convention for Spherical Lenses, Lens Formula and Magnification

1. (d) Given: m = –3, v = +80 cm 1 1 –2 + 3
v 80 80 = – + =
\ m = ⇒ –3 = ⇒ u= – cm 30 20 60
u u 3 1 1
2. For concave lens, Given: f = – 20 cm, ho = 5 cm,
⇒ = ⇒ v = +60 cm
v 60
v = – 15 cm
Hence, the image is formed at a distance of 60 cm on
Using lens formula,
1 1 1 the right side of the lens.
= − , we get h v 60
f v u Now, m = i = = = –2
1 1 1 1 1 ho u –30
= − = − hi 2
u v f − 15 − 20 \ =
1 − 20 + 15 5 ho 1
= =− Required ratio = hi : ho = 2 : 1
u 300 300
u = – 60 cm Size of image, hi = 2ho = 2 × 4 = 8 cm
h v 4. (a) According to question, the image of an object
Q m = i = , we get
ho u formed by a lens is of same size but inverted.
v (− 15) 5 This shows that
hi = × ho = × 5 = = 1.25 cm • real image is formed by the lens so lens is
u (− 60) 4
convex.
The image is diminished and virtual.
• when object is at 2F, the same size image is
3. Ray diagram: Optical centre ‘O’ and principal focus
formed by the convex lens at 2F on the other side.
F are shown in figure.
Thus, | u | = | v | = 30 cm
(i) The distance between the object and its
4 cm F2(F) 2F2
A′ image
2F1 F1(F) O = | u + v | = 30 + 30 = 60 cm
4 cm (ii) Given u = – 30 cm = –2f
B′ ⇒ 2f = 30 ⇒ f = +15 cm
20 cm
30 cm \ Focal length of the lens = 15 cm
20 cm (b) Ray diagram:
Using lens formula,
1 1 1
= –
f v u
1 1 1 1 1
⇒ = + = +
v u f –30 + 20

Combination, Power and Uses of Spherical Lens
1. (b) P = P1 + P2 = 2D – 1D = 1D (b) Negative sign in the combined power of lenses
1 shows that this combination of lenses will behave
⇒ = 1 ⇒ f = +1 m = +100 cm as diverging.
f
2. (c) Focal length of converging lens = 20 cm 4. Power of concave lens, P1 = –2D
100 Power of convex lens, P2 = +4D
\ P = = +5D \ Power of combination,
f (cm)
P = P1 + P2 = –2D + 4D ⇒ P = 2D
3. (a) For convex lens,
1 100 100 Hence, the combination will be have as a convex lens.
P1 = = = = +4D The focal length of the combination
f1(m) f1(m) 25 1 1
f= = = 0.5 m = 50 cm
For concave lens, P 2
1 100 100 Since, the parallel beam of light after refraction through
P2 = = = = –5D
f2 (m) f2 (m) –20 the convex lens will focus at its focal point. Hence
Therefore, power of combination the parallel beam of light will focus after refracted
P = P1 + P2 = +4D + (–5D) = –1.0D through combination at a distance of 50 cm.
Nature of image: Real inverted and highly diminished.
Answers 449
5. (a) Use of convex lens (b) Use of concave lens
(i) Magnifying glasses (i) Spy hole in doors
(ii) Microscope (ii) Flashlights
(iii) Eyeglasses to correct the far-sightedness (iii) Eyeglasses to correct myopia
Integrated (Mixed)
1. A convex mirror always forms a virtual image, which there is a change in the direction of propagation
is erect and irrespective of the position of the object, of light due to refraction. So, the ray of light
while a concave mirror forms a real or virtual, or erect, appears to come from a point different from that
inverted image based on the position of the object. of the actual point. Therefore, the lemon in water
2. When a ray falls normally on a plane mirror, the appears to be bigger than its actual size, when
incident angle is zero. Since the reflected and the viewed from the sides of the glass tumbler.
incident angles are equal, the reflection angle is also 5. (a) A convex lens of focal length ‘f ’ can form:
zero. So, it retraces its path. (i) a magnified and erect image only, when the
3. The refractive index of the lens and liquid is same object is placed between the focus and the
and equal to 1.5. Therefore, when lens is immersed optical centre of the lens.
in that liquid, the light rays do not undergo refraction (ii) an inverted image, when the object is placed
as they pass from the liquid to the lens and then lens beyond the focus of the lens.
to liquid again as shown. (b) Given: f = 25 cm (convex), f = –10 (concave)
Power of the combination = P = P1 + P2
100 100
= + = 4 – 10 = – 6 D
25 –10
Liquid medium 6. Q Power of lens = + 5 D
nl = 1.5 1 1
\ f= = = +0.2 m = + 20 cm
P +5
(a) We would get a magnified image only when
Liquid medium the object is kept at a distance of 18 cm,
nl = 1.5
22 cm and 30 cm respectively.
Glass (b) The object at the positions of 22 cm and
ng = 1.5 30 cm will produce a magnified, real image on
(nl = ng = 1.5) a screen.
4. (a) Difference between reflection and refraction Reason:
(i) A magnified virtual image is formed by a convex
Reflection Refraction
lens when the object lies between the focus and
(i) The phenomenon (i) When a ray of the optical centre of the lens.
of change in the light enters from (ii) A magnified real image is formed by a convex
path of light rays one medium lens when the object is at F or between F and 2F.
in a particular into another
direction into the obliquely, the 7. (a) Keep the lens close to the printed page of the book
same medium direction of and observe the image of the printed letters through
again is called propagation of the lens. If the printed letters appear enlarged, then
reflection. the light in the the lens is convex and if they appears diminished,
second medium then the lens is concave.
changes. This (b) Given: P1 = + 3.5 D, P2 = – 2.5 D
is called the Total Power = P = P1 + P2
refraction of = 3.5 – 2.5 = 1 dioptre = + 1 D
light.
Focal length of combination,
(ii) The reflecting (ii) The refracting 1 100
surfaces of all surfaces obey f = = cm = 100 cm
P P 1
types, obey the the laws of
laws of reflection. refraction.
\ f = 100 cm
8. (a) Converging lens
(b) As the ray of light comes into air from the different (b) (i) Simple microscope (ii) Magnifying glass
points on the surface of a lemon kept in water in a (c) The image will be formed behind the mirror, it
glass tumbler, it bends away from the normal, i.e. is enlarged, virtual and erect.
9. (a) The object has to be placed at a distance between (b) Given: For concave mirror
0 - 40 cm. This is because image is virtual, erect ho = +4 cm, u = –25 cm, f = –15 cm, v = ?, hi = ?
and magnified when the object is placed between Using mirror formula,
F and P. (1 Mark) 1 1 1
A′
= +
(b) f v u
E
1 1 1 1 1 –2
A
D
⇒ = – = – =
v f u –15 –25 75
75
F B P B′ ⇒ v = – = –37.5 cm
C 2
Hence, the screen should be placed at a distance
of 37.5 cm in front of the concave mirror in order
(1 Mark) to get the sharp image of object.
(c) Used as shaving mirror or used by dentists to get h v
Again, magnification m = i = –
enlarged image of teeth (any one) (1 Mark) ho u
[CBSE Marking Scheme)] v –75/2
⇒ hi = – × ho = – × 4 = – 6 cm
10. (a) A real, inverted and same size image as that of u –25
the object formed by the concave mirror will form The nature of image is real and inverted. The size
an image of magnification –1. It is possible only of image = 6 cm.
when the object is placed at C(R = 2f). Hence (c) Uses of concave mirror: Concave mirror is used
for the object distances of 20 cm and 30 cm, the in
concave mirrors ‘A’ and ‘B’ will form the real, (i) as a shaving mirror
inverted and same size image as that of the object. (ii) reflector in torch, head light of automobiles
Therefore, the concave mirrors ‘A’ and ‘B’ will (iii) solar furnance
form an image of magnification –1. (iv) by a dentist to see the cavity in teeth.
(b) The concave mirror ‘C’ of focal length 20 cm (any two)
will be preferred to be used for shaving purposes/ 12. When the object is placed:
make-up. This is because when we bring our face (a) Between optical centre and principal forcus of a
within its focal length, it forms a virtual, erect convex lens:
and enlarged image of our face. B′
(c) Ray diagram for image formation by mirror B
(i) For object distance 10 cm
B
2F2
A′ 2F1 F1 A O F2 C2
C1

(ii) For object distances 20 cm (b) Anywhere in front of a concave lens

11. (a)
(c) AT 2F of a convex lens
B
A 2F
2F F F A′
B′
Answers 451
Sign and value of Magnification will be: (c) Given, m = –1
Positive, in case (i) as virtual, erect and magnified Negative magnification indicates that the lens is
image is formed. Therefore, absolute value of convex.
magnification will be greater than one. v
Now, m = + = –1
Positive, in case (ii) as virtual, erect and diminished u
image is formed. Therefore, absolute value of ⇒ v =–u …(i)
magnification will be less than one. Using lens formula
1 1 1
13. (a) Ray diagram to show the formation of image by = –
f v u
a concave lens. 1 1 2
= – = –
–u u u
A ⇒ u = –2f …(ii)
Therefore, object is kept at a distance of ‘2f’ on
A′ left side of a convex lens.
From (i) and (ii), we have,
B F1 B′ O F2
–v v = 2f …(iii)
–u But v = 40 (given)
\ 2f = 40 ⇒ f = 20 cm = 0.2 m
(b) Relation between u, v and f for concave lens is \ Power of lens,
1 1 1 1 1
= – P = = = +5D
f v u f 0.2

6. (c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
3. (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but 8. (c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
4. (d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the and the Reason is the correct explanation of the
Reason is true. Assertion.
Case-Based
1. (a) The Lens formula gives the relationship between
(c) Ray diagram for the observation at S.No. 2 :
object distance (u), image-distance (v) and the Given: u = – 60 cm; v = +20 cm; f = +15 cm
focal length (f ) is given by A
1 1 1
− =
v u f F B′ 2F
(b) Observation at S.No. 6 is not correct. B 2F F O
The value, u = – 10 cm, indicates that the object 60 cm A′
is in between the optical centre and the focus 20 cm
(i.e., less than the focal length) of the lens and
hence, the image should be on the same side as Or
the object. Accordingly, the image distance should
(c) When the refractive index of a lens is equal to the
be negative and cannot be positive (+100 cm) as refractive index of a liquid in which it is immersed,
shown in table. then the focal length of a lens becomes infinite
and hence it acts as a plane glass sheet.
2. (a) Convex Lens (1 Mark) From Snell’s law of refraction
(b) Negativeastheimageisrealandinverted. sin i
n=
(1 Mark) sin r
1 1 1 sin i sin 48.6 0.75 1
(c) = – ⇒ sin r = = = = 0.5 =
f v u n 1.5 1.5 2
1 1 1 1
= – ⇒ sin r = sin 30° (sin 30° = )
20 v –21 2
1 1 1 1 1
⇒ = + = – ⇒ r = 30°
v 20 –21 20 21 Hence, angle of refraction = 30°.
21 – 20 1 (c) She observed that the lateral shift of the rays
= =
420 420 would have been less.
v = 420 cm (2 Marks) Or
Or (c)
(c) ay
A nt r S
O e rge
B′ Em y1
C e Ra
2F B F F 2F r R
ray
cted
A′
Q r Refra
i
ay
(2 Mark) [CBSE Marking Scheme] d e nt r 1
i
Inc Ra
y
3. (a) Advantage of convex mirror: It provides a wide P
field of view of the traffic behind the vehicle. 6. (a) Both L1 and L2 are convex lenses.
Disadvantage of convex mirror: It does not give (b) Since L1 from real and magnified image. Hence,
the correct distance of the approaching vehicle the value of magnification is more than 1. As
at the rear. the image is inverted, the magnification will be
(b) Concave mirror negative.
(c) (i) Virtual image is obtained when the object (c) Given: Power eye piece L2 = 5D
is at 10 cm from the mirror, i.e. less then 1 1
focal length. \ f = = = 0.2 m = 20 cm
P 5
(ii) An image of same size is obtained when and image distance, v = –80 cm
the position of object is at C, i.e. at 30 cm. Using lens formula,
Or 1 1 1 1 1 1
= – ⇒ = –
(c) Negative sign in the value of magnification f v u u v f
produced by a mirror indicates that image is real. 1 1 1
⇒ = –
4. (a) Lowest optical density : Air u –80 20
Highest optical density : Diamond 1+ 4 5 1
(b) Dense flint glass as it has highest refractive index = – = – = –
80 80 16
among the given media
\ u = –16 cm
(c) Absolute refractive index
Speed of light in vacuum c So, object should be at a distance of 16 cm to the
= ⇒ n= left of lens L2.
Speed of light in medium v Or
Or 1 1
(c) (c) For lens L1, fL = = = 0.25 m = 25 cm
Water, nw = 1.33 (rarer)
1 PL1 4
1 1
i For lens L2, fL = = = 1 m = 100 cm
2 PL2 1
So, fL : fL = 25 : 100 = 1 : 4
1 2
r Alcohol, nal = 1.36 (Denser) sin i
7. (a) n =
sin r
(b) The coin appear slightly raised above its actual
5. (a) The material ‘X’ placed inside the box – a parallel position due to refraction of light.
sided glass block (c) Observation: The coin will appear to be raised
(b) Given: n = 1.5, ∠i = 48.6° more in new medium having refractive index 1.5.
sin 48.6° = 0.75
Answers 453
Reason: Higher the refractive index, more bending 3 × 10 8
of the light rays after refraction. Thus, the light 2.42 =
v
rays will bend more in new medium (nm = 1.5)
v = 1.24 × 108 ms–1
as compared to water (nw = 1.33)
(b) From Snell’s law,
Or sin θ
(c) We can distinguish between them on the basis of n =
sin r
(i) Refractive index of the medium: Medium sin θ
of high refractive index has an optically \ sin r =
n
denser medium.
(ii) Speed of light in rarer medium is faster Since, sin q is constant
1
than in denser medium. \ sin r ∝
n
(iii) Bending of light in the medium: When
light bends towards the normal then it is an Since the value of n is least for water and maximum
optically denser medium and when it bends for carbon disulphide, hence, the increasing order
away from the normal then it is an optically of the angle of refraction in these media will be
rarer medium. Carbon disulphide < Glass < Water
(c) (i) Refractive index of glass
8. (a) Two applications of concave mirror Speed of light in vaccum c
(i) Shaving mirror ng = =
Speed of light in medium 2 × 10 8
(ii) Head mirror used by dentist and in
Refractive index of water
opthalmoscope c
(iii) Astronomical telescope nw =
2.25 × 10 8
(iv) Reflector in head lights of vehicles. Clearly refractive index of glass is greater
(Any two) than that of water. Hence, glass is optically
(b) R = 2f = 2 × 15 = 30 cm denser than water.
(c) (ii) The ray of light which is incident normally
at the water-glass interface passes without
any deviation when it enters a thick glass
container filled with water. It is because here
the angle of incidence is 0° and the angle
of refraction and hence angle of emergence
Or is also 0°.
(c) Given: The image is formed at the same point
where the object is located. It means object is
placed at the centre of curvature of the concave
mirror. Image is also formed at the centre of
curvature Incident ray ∠r = 0 Emergent ray
i.e., R = –100 cm … as (u = –100 cm) (∠i = 0°) (∠e = 0°)
⇒ 2f = –100 cm ⇒ f = –50 cm
(i) Hence, focal length of concave mirror Or
= 50 cm (c) (i) Absolute refractive index of glass is given
v
(ii) Magnification, m = – by
u Speed of light in vacuum (c)
(Here, u = –100 cm and v = –100 cm) ng =
–100 Speed of light in glass (v g)
\ m = –e o = –1 3 c
–100 =
2 2 × 10 8
Therefore, sign of magnification as per
⇒ c = 3 × 108 ms–1
Cartesian Sign Convention = Negative.
(ii) Absolute refractive index of water is given
The negative sign shows that the image
by
formed by the concave mirror at the centre Speed of light in vaccum (c)
of curvature is real and inverted. nw =
Speed of light in water (vw)
9. (a) The absolute refractive index of diamond is given
by 4 3 × 10 8
=
Speed of light in vaccum 3 vw
n =
Speed of light in diamond vw = 2.25 × 108 ms–1
Chapter 10—The Human Eye and the Colourful World
The Human Eye and Power of Accommodation
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (d) Cornea: It contributes to the refractive power
4. (i) Pupil controls the amount of light entering of the eye by refracting the light entering the
the eye. eye.
(ii) Ciliary muscles help in accommodation power (b) Least distance of distinct vision for a normal
of eye lens. eye is 25 cm.
∴ Maximum power of accommodation
5. (a) Iris: It controls the amount of light entering 1 100
the eye by changing the size of pupil. P= = = 4D
f 25
Defects of Vision and their Correction

1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (b) (ii) Correction of hypermetropia
4. (i) Myopia A convex lens forms a virtual image of the object
(ii) Presbyopia (lying at normal near point N) at the near point
N′ of the defective eye. It helps the eye to
5. (a) When a student has difficulty in reading the
form the image on the retina.
blackboard while sitting in the last row of the
class, the student is considered to be myopic.
(b) When a student has difficulty in reading the book,
the student is considered to be hypermetropic.
6. (i) Concave lens shifts the image back onto the
retina by diverging the rays.
(ii) It forms a virtual image of distant object at
8. The diagram for distant objects that cannot be seen
far point (F) of the myopic eye.
distinctly by a myopic eye is as shown below. The
In myopia, light rays are focused in front of the
image in this case forms infront of the retina.
retina so that diverging lens is needed to diverge
the rays but by using convex lens, the image cannot
be formed on the retina as it further converge the
rays.
7. The defect of vision is hypermetropia or long-
sightedness. Myopic Eye
This defect can be corrected by using a convex lens The myopia may arise due to:
of suitable power. (i) eye lens becomes more thicker so that its focal
(i) Defect of vision length decreases, i.e. excessive curvature of
In a hypermetropic eye, the image of nearby eye lens.
object lying at normal near point N (at 25 cm) (ii) elongation of eyeball.
is formed behind the retina. Concave lens of suitable power to correct the myopic
defect of the eye.
L
F I
Refraction and Dispersion of White Light through a Prism

1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (c)
Answers 455
7.
Sunligh
t (i) Dispersion
has maximum speed in the glass prism. So, it
is least deviated, while the violet colour has
R
minimum speed so its deviation is maximum.
V (ii) L
ight reflects
Raindrop R internally Thus, the ray of each colour emerges along the
(Internal different path and becomes distinct.
Red V reflection)
10. Dispersion: The splitting of white light into its
Violet component colour is called dispersion.
A
Human eye Screen
8. (a) Splitting of white light into its component colours
after refracting through the glass prism is called
dispersion. Q
ite R
A wh O
Screen y of
Ra t Y
h G
P lig B
C I
Q B Prism V
e R
hit
fw O
yo Y Recombination: The component colours of white

Ra t
P ligh
G light can be recombined by placing a second
B
C I identical prism in an inverted position with respect
B Prism V to the first prism as shown in the figure given
below:
(b) ‘B’ has higher speed.
9. (a) At X : Violet
At Y : Red
(b) From Snell’s law of refraction, the angle of
refraction of light in a prism depends on the
refractive index of the prism material. Moreover,
the refractive index of the material varies with
the speed of light. The different constituent The second inverted prism recombines the
colours of white light have different speeds in component colours incident on it and a beam of
transparent material of the prism. Hence, for white light emerges from the other side of the
each colour/wavelength, the refractive index of second prism.
the prism material is different. Spectrum: The band of coloured components of
Therefore, each colour bends (refracted) through a white light beam is called spectrum.
a different angle with respect to the incident ray • The various colour of spectrum of white light
as it passes through the prism. The red colour are Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green Yellow, Orange
and Red.
Atmospheric Refraction and Scattering of Light

1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (c) 6. No, light from the star under undergoes
5. The clear sky appears blue. atmospheric refraction in the medium of changing
Reason: The earth’s atmosphere contains a large refractive index which is increasing as light
number of gaseous molecules and other fine moves towards the earth surface and continuous
particles. When sunlight falls on those particles bending towards the normal before reaching
whose size is smaller than the wavelength of eye of the observer. Hence, we see the apparent
visible light, they scatter the blue colour of position of star.
sunlight more strongly than the other colours 7. The gradual change in the refractive index of
of the spectrum as blue colour has shorter different layers of earth’s atmosphere by the
wavelength. This scattered blue light enters varying physical condition of it is the basic cause
into our eyes. Hence the colour of sky appears of atmospheric refraction.
blue to us during daytime.
8. (a) Scattering of light (b) Without an atmosphere, scattering of light is
(b) Atmospheric refraction not possible and therefore, the given statement
(c) Scattering of light is correct.
9. (a) In space, we have no atmosphere, there would (c) It is incorrect because in the absence of
have been no atmospheric refraction and atmospheric refraction, the length of the day
consequently, the given statement is incorrect. in space is four minutes shorter than that on
the earth.
Integrated (Mixed)
1. (a) Retina contains large number of light sensitive (ii) A prism splits the incident thin narrow beam
cells known as rods and cones. of white light into a band of seven colours
(b) Hypermetropia or far-sightedness. In this defect which are violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow,
person is unable to see nearby objects clearly orange and red. These coloured rays emerge
due to increase in focal length of eye lens. out through the prism along different
2. For dispersion, the two refracting surfaces should direction and become distinct, hence the
not be parallel. When they are parallel, the light incident white light beam gets dispersed.
will undergo only lateral displacement and emerge (iii) T he emergent beam from the second
parallel to the incident ray. This is due to the fact identical inverted prism is again a beam
that a rectangular glass slab can be considered as of white light and emerges parallel to the
equivalent of two identical prisms in inverted position incident beam and shifted sideward slightly.
placed with respect to each other. The deviation and (b) The similarity between the emergent beam in
dispersion produced by the second inverted prism cases (i) and (iii) is the same as in both the cases,
are equal and opposite to that produced by the first the emergent beam is emerges from the opposite
prism. parallel faces and parallel to the incident ray.
Therefore, the second inverted prism recombines the 5. The difference between glass slab and glass prism
colours to give a white light parallel to the incident is that the opposite faces of a rectangular glass
ray again and will go only lateral displacement. slab is parallel while the opposite faces of prism
3. (a) According to question, the nearest image seen
is not parallel to each other and are inclined at an
by the person is 150 cm away from him but he
angle.
want to see an object placed 25 cm away. To
(a) A Monochromatic Light Passes Through
do this, virtual image need to be formed at 150
(i) Glass slab: the emergent beam is parallel
cm. Accordingly, eye defect is hypermetropia.
to incident beam and is shifted sideward’s
By putting u = – 25 cm, v = – 150 cm in the
slightly.
lens formula,
1 1 1 (ii) Glass prism: the emergent beam is not
= – , we get parallel to incident beam and bends
f v u
1 1 1 1 1 −1 + 6 towards the base of the prism.
= − =− + = (b) White Light Passes Through
f − 150 − 25 150 25 150 (i) Glass slab: the emergent beam is parallel
5 1
= + = + to incident beam and is shifted sideward’s
150 30 slightly. No dispersion occurs.
⇒ f = + 30 cm (ii) G lass prism: Dispersion occurs. The
Now, power, different colour of white light having
1 100 100 different wavelengths deviates through
P = = =+ = + 3.3 D
f (m) f (cm) 30 different angles on passing through the
(b) The ability of eye lens to adjust its focal length prism and becomes distinct.
with the help of ciliary muscles, it is possible for 6. (a) (i) Myopia or short-sightedness is caused
the eye to form focussed images from the objects due to excessive curvature of the eye lens
that are located at varying distances from the or elongation of the eyeball. The image
eye. This mechanism is called accommodation. forms in fornt of the retina. So, a concave
4. (a) (i) The emergent beam, refracted through a lens is used to correct it.
rectangular glass slab, emerges parallel (ii) Bifocal lens: It is used to correct
to the incident ray and is shifted sideward presbyopic eye. The upper portion of
slightly. Therefore, no dispersion occurs. a bifocal lens is concave and its lower
Answers 457
portion is convex. The concave lens is
used for viewing long distant objects
and the convex lens is used for reading
purposes. This problem arises with age.
(iii) Far-sightedness or hypermetropia is (Black board is away
caused due to greater focal length of eye from the eye) Myopic eye
lens and/or eyeball becomes smaller. The (ii) Ray diagram when student is seated at
image forms beyond the retina and can front seat.
be corrected by using a convex lens.
(b) The least distance of distinct vision for normal
eye is 25 cm. The focal length of the eye lens
cannot be further decreased by ciliary muscles
Far point of this eye
to form an image on the retina for the objects
(Black board is near the eye)
nearer than 25 cm. Therefore, the normal eye
is unable to focus on an object placed within Two possible causes for myopia
10 cm from the eye. (i) Excessive curvature of eye lens
7. (a) The fully relaxed ciliary muscles enable us to (ii) Elongation of eye ball.
see the distant object clearly. In this case, the Correction of Myopia: By using concave lens
far point of the normal eye is at infinity, i.e. (diverging lens) of suitable power that shifts the
u = ∞ and the image is formed on the retina so image back to the retina instead of in front of
v = 2.3 cm. it by diverging the rays further as shown in the
\ Using lens formula, figure below:
1 1 1 1 1 1
= − = − =
f v u 2.3 3 2.3
\ f = 2.3 cm
100 100
\ P= = = 43.48 D
f (cm) 2.3
(3 Marks) [CBSE Marking Scheme]
(b) The maximum contract position of the ciliary
muscles enables us to see the nearby object 9. (a) (i) Scattering of Light: The phenomenon in
placed at the least distance of distinct vision. which light rays are directed in different
In this case, u = –25 cm and v = 2.3 cm. direction when it interacts with the large
Using lens formula again, number of molecules, such as smoke, tiny
1 1 1 1 1 water droplets, suspended particles of dust
= − = − and molecules of air present in the earth’s
f v u 2.3 − 25
10 1 273 atmosphere, is called scattering of light.
= + = (ii) The colour of the scattered light perceived
23 25 575
575 by us depends on the size of the particles,
\ f= cm i.e.
273 • Very fine particles scatter mainly blue
100
\ P = colour.
f (cm) • Large-sized particles scatter the light of
100 100 × 273 longer wavelengths.
= =
575/273 575 • Enough larger particles scatter the light
= 47.48 D which may appear white.
(c) Maximum variation of the power (b) Shorter wavelength is scattered more easily
= 47.48 D – 43.48 D = 4 D than longer wavelength as scattering of sunlight
8. (a) Power of accommodation: It is the ability of is inversely proportional to fourth power of
the eye lens to adjust its focal length. Ciliary wavelength.
muscles of eye are responsible for change in its (c) Presbyopia occurs when the natural lens in the
focal length. (2 Marks) eye loses its flexibility with aging while far-
(b) Defect of vision: Myopia sightedness and near-sightedness are related to
(i) Ray diagram when student is seated at the the change in shape of the eyeball and are caused
back seat by the genetic and the environmental factors.

and the Reason is the correct explanation of 7. (c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
4. (d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the and the Reason is the correct explanation of
Reason is true. the Assertion.
the Reason is not the correct explanation of
the Assertion.
Case-Based
1. (a) Presbyopia 4. (a) Dispersion of light.
(b) Bifocal lens (b) Among the seven colour components of white
(c) Decreasing flexibility of eye lens with age. light, the red light has a higher wavelength
Or and violet has the smaller wavelength. Again,
1
(c) (i) f1 = = − 1 m = − 100 = – 16.66 cm angle of minimum deviation (D) is directly
P1 6 6 proportional to the refractive index (n), which,
1 1 100 in turn, inversely proportional to the wavelength
(ii) f2 = = m= + = + 50.0 cm
P2 +2 2 (l) of light, i.e.
2. (a) The phenomenon of change in the direction of D∝n∝ 1
propagation of light rays in the second medium λ
when it enters obliquely from one transparent Accordingly deviation will decrease if the
medium to another is called refraction of light. incident violet light is replaced by red light.
(b) Necessary conditions for the formation of a (c) A
rainbow. 30°
(i) The presence of water droplets in the Q
atmosphere, and 90°
(ii) The sun must be at the back of the observer, P
i r
i.e. the observer must stand with his back
towards the sun.
(c) Rainbow is an arc at a constant angle from the
shadow of your head. So the shape of rainbow B C
is an arc along the circumference of a circle. Here, ∠A = 30°, n = 2 , r
Or From Snell’s law
(c) Red has the longest wavelength among the visible sin i
= n21
colours. So it tends to bend the least and the angle sin r
between the incident light and our line of sight sin i
⇒ = 2
for red is approximate 42 degrees. As a result, sin (90° − 60°)
red appears on the top of the rainbow. [Q ∠P = 180° – (∠P + ∠Q)]
3. (a) Atmospheric refraction. ⇒ sin i = 2 × sin 30°
(b) The refraction of light caused by the earth’s ⇒ sin i = 2 × 1 = 1 = sin 45°
atmosphere due to gradual change in the refractive 2 2
indices of its different layers by the varying \ i = 45°
conditions of it, is called atmospheric refraction. Or
(c) (i) Twinkling of star (c) The angle of emergence is almost equal to the
(ii) Apparant position of star angle of incidence.
Or 5. (a) Myopia
(c) The refractive index of earth’s atmosphere (b) Power of lens = – 0.5D
decreases with increase in height above the Negative sign in the power of lens shows that
earth’s surface. it is a concave lens.
Answers 459
(c) Light rays coming from the blackboard to the Or
back bench of the class like a rays coming from (c) For person B right eye
infinity and they are converged by the defective Power of lens = +1D
eye lens much before retina due to increasing Nature of corrective lens – Convex
converging power of the lens. Hence, words Focal length, f = 1 = 1 = 1 m = 100 cm
written on the blackboard looks blurred. P 1
Or 7. (a) Dispersion.
(c) Retina: It is a delicate membrane. It acts like a (b) Red colour is monochromatic, i.e. red colour has
screen on which a real, inverted and diminished single wavelength.
image of the object, is formed by the crystalline (c) Rainbow
lens of the eye. It contains enormous number of Or
light sensitive cells. These light receptors are (c) Reason: Different wavelengths travel at different
known as rod and cone cells which generate speeds in the glass prism.
electrical signals upon illumination. These 8. (a) Refraction, dispersion and reflection.
electrical impulses are sent to the brain via optic (b) ∠1 = angle of incidence
nerves for further processing. ∠2 = angle of emergence
6. (a) The number represents power of corrective (c) The blue colour has shorter wavelength than the
lenses. other colours in sunlight. So it is scattered more
(b) From myopia — Person A strongly by the large number of fine particles in
From hypermetropia — Person B the earth’s atmosphere in every direction. The
(c) The defect in the vision is not a disease. It is a other wavelengths stick together as a group, and
refractive error, that makes the eye hard to see therefore remain white. Hence, due to scattering
clearly. This happens when the shape of eye of blue light, sky appears blue to us.
changes the way the light rays bend and focus Or
on the retina. (c) II and III statements are the correct statements.
Chapter 11—Electricity
Electric Current and Circuit

1.
(a) Charge on one electron = 1.6 × 10–19 C
2.
(b) (a) Using, Q = ne
3.
Using, Q = It = 2 × 1 h = 2 × 3600 = 7200 C = 5.40 × 1021 × 1.6 × 10–19
Here, Q = 900 C, I = 15 Cs–1
4. = 8.64 × 102 = 864 C
Q 900 (b) We know,

\ t = = = 60 s
t 15 Q 864
Electric current, I = = = 4.8 A
5. Here, n = 5.40 × 1021 electrons, t 180
t = 3 min = 3 × 60 = 180 s
Electric Potential and Potential Difference

1. (b) The work done in transferring the charge depends 4. The potential difference between two points,
only on the potential difference between two V2 – V1 = 50 V – 30 V = 20 V
points and not on the path through which it moves. Now, work done,
2. (d) W = (V2 – V1) × Q
⇒ W = 20 × 2 = 40 J
3. (a) Electric potential: It is defined as the work done
5. We know that,
in bringing a unit positive charge from infinity to
Work done = Potential difference × Charge
a given point in an electric field. It is given by
W or W =V×Q
V = = 24 × 1 (V = 24 V, Q = 1 C)
q
= 24 J
(b) The voltmeter is always connected in parallel So, 24 J of energy has to expand by the battery to
across the points between which the potential move each coulomb of charge in the circuit.
difference is to be measured.
Circuit and Circuit Diagram

1. (b) 3. These are
2. (a) Connecting wires help in transmission of current. (i) conducting path
(b) Switch or key helps in regulating the flow of (ii) source of electrical power
current either by making the circuit closed or (iii) for operation of electrical power, a ‘load’ such
open. as lamp is needed.
Ohm’s law and Factors on which the Resistance of a Conductor Depends

1. (c) 1.7 × 10 –8 × l
2. (d) 34 =
3.14 × (0.1 × 10 –2) 2
3. (a) Resistivity of the material depends only on the
nature of material not dimensions. 4
34 0.0314 × 10 –6
4. (d) All are the limitations of Ohm’s law. l = ×
1.7 × 10 –8 4
5. Resistivity (r) = 1.7 × 10–8 W m
17 31.4 × 10 –9
Diameter (d) = 0.1 mm = 0.1 × 10–3 m = ×
Resistance (R) = 34 W 1.7 × 10 –8 2
πd 2 31.4
Area of cross section (A) = = = 15.7 m
4 2
3.14 × (0.1 × 10 –2) 2 Therefore, the required length of copper wire is 15.7 m.
A =
4 6. (a) • Set up A is correct.
l • Ammeter should be connected in series
Now, R = ρ whereas voltmeter should be connected in
A
Answers 461
parallel to the resistor across which potential This causes a resistive effect inside the conductor
difference is to be measured. and hence, the motion of electrons through the
• Positive of voltmeter and ammeter should be conductor is retarded.
connected to the positive of the supply voltage. (b) Conductor: The substance which allows
(b) Resistance: It is the property of a conductor to the current to pass through it easily is called
resist the flow of charges through it. conductor.
(c) Unit of resistance: Ohm (W). Resistor: A conductor having some appreciable
7. (a) The resistance of a conductor is due to the resistance is called a resistor.
collisions of free electrons with each other, Resistance: It is the property of a conductor to
positive ions and other atoms of the conductor. resist the flow of charges through it.
Resistance of a System of Resistors

1. (c) 7. The slope of V – I graph gives the resistance of
2. (a) the resistor used in the experiment. Slope will be
more for greater resistance. Slope for R1 is more in
3. (d) In series, Rs = 32 W; In parallel, Rp = 2 W
diagram-1 as compared to diagram-2. Hence, for
Rs 32 R1 > R2, diagram-1 correctly represents the situation
\ = = 16
Rp 2 on the plotted curves.
4. A resistance is cut into three equal parts. Therefore, 8.
the new resistance of each part becomes
9
R = R1 = R2 = R3 = = 3 W
3
The new arrangement is in parallel,
1 1 1 1
\ = + +
R R1 R2 R3
1 1 1
= + + (R1 = R2 = R3 = 3 W)
3 3 3
3 R1 and R2 are in series,
= = 1 W RS1 = R1 + R2 = 3 + 3 = 6 Ω
3
5. All resistors are connected in series, therefore, RS1 and R3 are in parallel,
Rs = R1 + R2 + R3 1 1 1 1 1 1
= + = + =
= 1 + 3 + 2 = 6 W RP RS1 R3 6 3 2
So, current in the circuit RP = 2 Ω
V 3 1 R4, RP and R5 are in series,
I = = = = 0.5 A
Rs 6 2 RS = R4 + RP + R5 = 0.5 + 2 + 0.5
\ Potential difference between B and C = 3 Ω
VBC = IRBC = 0.5 × 3 = 1.5 V V 3
Current; I = = =1A
6. (a) R1 = 5 W RS 3
I1 9. Equivalent resistance of series combination is equal
to the sum of their individual resistance and slope
of V-I graph gives the resistance. So, slope of V-I
R2 = 10 W graph is more for equivalent resistance and less for
I2
individual resistance. Hence, graph ‘C’ represents for
I I2 series combination of the other two.
10. (a) Parallel combination.
+ – (b) Effective resistance of the given combination is
given by
V volt K 1 1 1
(b) In parallel combination of resistance, the potential = +
RP R1 R2
difference across each resistor is same and equal 1 1 2 +1 1
to the applied voltage. Hence = + = =
V1 : V2 = 1 : 1 3 6 6 2
\ RP = 2 W
11. (a) 12. (a) For minimum resistance all resistors must be
connected in parallal
1 1 1 1 1
= + + +
R R1 R2 R3 R4
1 1 1 1
= + + +
20 20 20 20
4 1
= =
20 5
RAC and RED are in parallel, their equivalent
\ R = 5W
resistance is
1 1 1 1 1 1 (b) (i) Effective resistance of the circuit
= + = + = Rs = R3 + R4
R P1 R AC R ED 30 30 15
= 4 W + 6 W =10 W
∴ R P1 = 15 Ω
1 1 1
Now, R P1 and RBC are in series, their equivalent = +
Rp R s R2
resistance is
1 1 2 1
RS1 = R P1 + R BC = 15 + 15 = 30 Ω = + = =
10 Ω 10 Ω 10 Ω 5Ω
Again, RAB and RS1 are in parallel, so effective
Rp = 5 W [½ Mark]
resistance of the circuit is Total resistance of the circuit
1 1 1 1 1 1 = R1 + Rp + R5
= + = + =
R P2 R AB RS1 15 30 10 = 5 + 5 + 10 = 20 W [½ Mark]
∴ R P2 = 10 Ω (ii) Current drawn from the battery
So, current flowing through the circuit is V = 20 V, R = 20 W
V 3 V 20 V
I = = = 0.3 A I = = [½ Mark]
R P2 10 R 20 Ω
I = 1 A [½ Mark]
(b) Two 8 Ω resistors are connected in parallel. Two (iii) Reading in voltmeter connected across 5 W
such parallel combinations must be connected Resistance
in series to get effective resistance of 8 Ω. Such V = I R
combination is shown in figure. I = 1 A [½ Mark]
R = 5 W
V = 1 A × 5 W = 5 V [½ Mark]
Heating Effect of Electric Current

V2t 6. (a) Working Principle of an electric fuse: It works
1. (c) H = 2. (c) on the heating effect of electric current. When a
R
current more than the rated amount passes through
3. (i) During the transmission of electric current a part
a fuse, excessive heat is produced due to its high
of it is transformed to heat and this is a waste
resistance. This melts the fuse wire and breaks
of energy.
the circuit. Therefore, current stops flowing.
(ii) The heat produced can damage the insulation
(b) For the lightning circuit, we prefer 5 A rating
of connecting wires and other electrical
fuse.
components.
(c) (i) They prolong the life of filament as inactive
4. Using, H = I 2Rt or noble gases such as nitrogen and argon
V2t 220 × 220 × (10 × 60) do not react with metal even at high
= =
R 6 temperature.
⇒ H = 4840000 J = 4.84 × 106 J (ii) Fuse wire is always placed in series with
5. Using, H = I 2Rt the device to be protected from excessive
H current so that when the fuse blows it will
\ R =
I2t open the entire circuit and stop the current
90 flowing in the circuit.
= =1W
3 × 3 × 10
Answers 463
Electric Power and Energy

1. (c) P = I 2R 7. P1 = 1000 W = 1 kW ; t = 5 h : September has
2. (c) 30 days \ n = Number of days = 30
400 2
3. The energy consumed by the light bulb P2 = 400 W = kW = kW; t = 10 h
= 60 W = 60 Js–1 1000 5
The energy transform in the form of light = 7.5 Js–1 So E1 = P1 × t1 × n = 1 × 5 × 30 = 150 kWh
2
\ Percentage of energy transform into light and E2 = P2 × t2 × h = × 10 × 30 = 120 kWh
7.5 × 100 5
= = 12.5% \ Total energy =150 + 120 = 270 kWh = 270 units
60
4. Given: I = 5 A, V = 220 V, t = 2 h \ Total cost of electrical energy consumed
• Power of motor, P = VI = 220 × 5 = 1100 W = ` 270 × 6 = ` 1620.00
• Energy consumed, 8. Case I:
E = P × t = 1100 W × 2 h (i) P = 40 W, V = 220 V
= 2200 Wh = 2.2 kWh Now, P = VI1
P 40 W
5. (i) • Electric energy: The work done or energy ⇒ I1 = = = 0.18 A
supplied by the source in maintaining the flow V 220 V
of electric current is called electric energy. V2 220 × 220
(ii) R1 = = = 1210 W
• Electrical energy appears in the form of heat. P 40
(ii) Kilowatt is the unit of electric power and kilowatt Case II:
hour is the unit of electric energy. P 25 W
(iii) I2 = = = 0.113 A
6. (a) Using E = P × t V 220 V
(i) E = 2 kW × 2 h = 4 kWh V2 220 × 220
(iv) R2 = = = 1936 W
(ii) E = 4 kWh = 4 × 3.6 × 106 joules P 25
= 14.4 × 106 J (v) Yes, there is a change in the value of current
⇒ E = 1.44 × 107 J and resistance.
(b) According to Joule’s law of heating, H = I 2Rt • Change in current = I1 – I2
For the same current and time, H ∝ R = 0.18 – 0.113 = 0.067 A
Hence, by increasing the resistance four times, • Change in resistance = R2 – R1
we can increase the heat produced to four times. = 1936 – 1210 = 726 W
Integrated (Mixed)
1. (c) Work done in transferring the charge 5. (b) Total power used in home,
W = qV = qIR ..... (V = IR) P = P1 + P2 = 1500 + 500 = 2000 W
W 4000 \ Current drawn from the supply,
⇒ I = = = 8A
qR 10 × 50 P 2000
I = = = 10 A
2. (c) In parallel combination, the equivalent resistance V 200
is smaller than the least resistance used in the 6. When R1 and R2 are in parallel, current taken = 10 A
circuit. So, total input power drawn = V × I
3. (b) Equivalent resistance in parallel combination is = 100 × 10 = 1000 W
1 1 1 R1R2 (i) Let power dissipation in R1 be 600 W (given)
= + ⇒ RP = \ Power dissipation in R2 = 1000 – 600 = 400 W
R P R1 R2 R1 + R2
V2 100 × 100
For the same length and area of cross-section, (ii) R1 = = = 16.67 W
l l P1 600
R1 = ρ1 , R2 = ρ 2
A A V2 100 × 100
R2 = = = 25 W
l 2 P2 400
ρ1ρ 2 e o
A l 2ρ1ρ 2 1
RP = =ρ or r = 7. (i) In parallel combination, P ∝ (V = constant)
l 2A ρ1 + ρ 2 R
(ρ1 + ρ 2) \ Power dissipation in 3 W will be maximum.
A
(ii) In series combination, same current will flow
4. (b) Same current will flow in series. through each resistor
Using, P = I 2R ⇒ P ∝ R (I = constant) 11. (a) For identical bulbs in series – same current,
\ Power dissipation in 9 W will be maximum same potential difference.
in series. (b) For identical bulbs in parallel – same potential
8. Circuit diagram: difference, same current (current is equally
I1 100W, 220V I1 shared).
(c) For unidentical bulbs in series – same current,
different potential difference.
I2 60W, 220V I2 (d) For unidentical bulbs in parallel – different
I I
current, same potential difference.
+ – 12. (a) As current is inversely proportional to resistance
220V for the same voltage. So, to get maximum current,
Both the bulbs are connected in parallel. The resistance the equivalent resistance of the circuit has to be
of each bulb is less. This means the resistors must be connected
220 2 in parallel.
R100 = ,
100 To get minimum current, the equivalent resistance of
220 2 V2
R60 = . =a P = G 1
the circuit has to be greater as I ∝ . This means
60 R R
Current drawn by 100 W bulb the resistors must be connected in series.
220 100 (b) For parallel combination
= = A = 0.45 A
R100 220 1 1 1 2+1
= + =
Current drawn by 60 W bulb RP 5 10 10
220 60 V
= = A = 0.27 A <a I = F ⇒ RP =
10
Ω
R60 220 R 3
Total current drawn from the line V 6 18
= 0.45 A + 0.27 A = 0.72 A ∴ Imax = = = = 1.8 A
R P 10 10
9. Difference between ammeter and voltmeter 3
Ammeter Voltmeter For series combination, RS = R1 + R2
(a) It measures electric (a) I t m e a s u r e s t h e = 10 + 5 = 15 Ω
current in a circuit potential difference V 6 2
∴ Imin = = = = 0.4 A
between two points in RS 15 5
a circuit.
13. (a) Given: Q = 10 mC = 10 × 10–6 C = 10–5 C
(b) It is connected in (b) It is connected in
W = 10 mJ = 10 × 10–3 J = 10–2 J
series in a circuit. parallel across the two
At infinity potential is zero
points in a circuit. W
Using,VA – VB =
(c) It is a low resistance (c) It is high resistance Q
device. device. W
⇒ V – V∞ = (let VA = V, VB = V∞)
10. 3 Ω and 6 Ω are in parallel. Q
1 1 1 1 1 1
= + = + = 10 –2
RP R1 R2 3 6 2 ⇒ V–0 =
10 –5
∴ RP = 2 Ω
⇒ V = 10–2+5 = 103 = 1000 V
RP and 10 Ω are connected in Series. So,
(b) Circuit diagram
RS = RP + R3 = 2 + 10 = 12 Ω
Total current in the circuit,
V 12
I = = =1A
RS 12
P.d across RP = IRP = 1 × 2 = 2 V
So, p.d. across 3 Ω = 2 V
Current through 3 Ω,
V 2
I1 = = = 0.67 A
R1 3
Answers 465
14. (a) Resistances in series Resistances in parallel

(i) The effective resistance is always equal to the (i) The reciprocal of the equivalent resistance is equal
sum of individual resistances i.e., to the sum of reciprocal of the individual resistance.
RS = R1 + R2 + R3 i.e.
1 1 1 1
= + +
R P R1 R2 R3
(ii) The current flowing through each resistance is (ii) The current divides among the resistance i.e.,
same i.e. single path for the flow of current. multiple paths are available for the flow of current.
(iii) The potential difference is different across (iii) The potential difference is same across different
different resistances. resistances.
(b) In series combination,
RS = X = R + R + R + ...... n resistance
⇒ X = nR...(i)
In parallel combination,
1 1 1 1
= + + ....... n times
RP R R R
1 n R
⇒ = ⇒ RP = = Y...(ii)
RP R n
X nR
∴ = = n2
Y R/n
15. (a) Electric line wires offer extremely low resistance Circuit Diagram
to the flow of current, so they do not glow because
negligible heat is produced in it. A = Ammeter
The filament of bulb glows because it becomes V = Voltmeter
red hot due to large amount of heat produced,
R = Resistor
as it offers high resistance to the flow of current
through it. B = Battery
(b) The filament of bulb when it glows at 2700 °C K = Key
does not gets burnt because the tungsten metal
of filament has Rh = Rheostat
(i) a very high melting point (of 3380 °C) and
(ii) a high resistivity. (b) An ammeter is connected in series in a circuit so
as to measure the whole current that pass through
(c) Given : I = 0.25 A, t = 4 h = 4 × 60 × 60 sec.
it. The small resistance of an ammeter does not
So, amount of charge flowing the filament of
practically change the current in the circuit as
electric lamp
total resistance of the circuit practically remains
q = It = 0.25 × 4 × 60 × 60 = 3600 C uneffected.
(d) Given P = 2 kW = 2000 W If the ammeter has high resistance, the resistance
V = 220 V of circuit increases causing the measured value
Using, P = VI of current to be lower than the actual value.
2000 = 220 × I Hence resistance of ammeter should be very low
2000 as compared to the resistance of the circuit.
⇒ I = = 9.09 A
220 (c) For a given graph,
So, the capacity of the fuse that should be used B
for the electric iron is 10 A.
16. (a) The relationship between electric current and the
potential difference is given by Ohm’s law. The I
A
mathematical form of Ohm’s law is V = IR where
V = potential difference, I = electric current and
R = resistance of the conductor. V
1 the source energy continually get dissipated
Resistance = entirely in the form of heat. This known as heating
Slope of the graph
Change in circuit (I) effect of electric current.
but slope of graph = (c) Heat produced in a resistor: Consider a wire
Change in voltage (V) AB having a resistance ‘R’ connected across
Hence, for the same voltage , lesser is the slope, the terminals of a cell. Let V be the potential
greater will be its resistance. difference applied by cell across the ends of a wire.
Also, Rseries > RParallel
A B
In the given graph, A has lesser slope then B.
So ‘A’ represents more resistance then ‘B’.
I I
Accordingly, ‘A’ represents for series combination
and ‘B’ represents for parallel combination of
two resistors. V K
17. (a) Case I: Let W be the work done in carrying the charge
Using, P = VI, we get q across the conductor, then
P 880 W
I = = =4A V = or W = V × q …(i)
V 220 q
V2 (220) 2 but q =I×t
and P = ⇒ R= = 55 W So, W = V × It …(ii)
R 880
This work done will appear in the form of heat
Case II:
P 330 produced in the wire, i.e.
• I = = = 1.5 A H = VIt …(iii)
V 220 Using Ohm’s law, V = IR
V2 (220) 2 So, H = (IR) It = I 2Rt
• R = = = 146.67 W
R 330 This is the expression for the heat produced in
(b) When an electric current passes through a purely the wire. This is called Joule’s law of heating.
resistive circuit (like very high resistance wire),

3. (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but Assertion.
the Reason is not the correct explanation of the 8. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct
Assertion. and the Reason is the correct explanation of the
4. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct Assertion.
and the Reason is the correct explanation of the 9. (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but
Assertion. the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
5. (d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Assertion.
Reason is true. 10. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct
Assertion.
Case-Based
1. (a) Equivalent resistance of arm C is (c) Equivalent resistance of arm A
RC = 10 + 20 + 30 (Series connection) RA = 5 + 15 + 20(Series connection)
= 60 W = 40 W
1 1 1 Now RA and RBC are in series
(b) = + (Parallel connection)
R BC R B RC \ RS = RA + RBC
1 1 = 40 + 20 = 60 W
= + \ Ammeter reading,
5 + 10 + 15 10 + 20 + 30
1 1 3 1 V 6
= + = = I = = = 0.1 A
30 60 60 20 RS 60
\ RBC = 20 W
Answers 467
Or 4. (a) Conductor < alloy < semiconductor < insulator
(c) If the arm B is withdrawn, equivalent resistance (b) Best conductor – X
of the circuit Best insulator – Z
RS = RA + RC = 40 + 60 = 100 W (c) Resistance of the conductor is directly proportional
\ Ammeter reading, to its temperature, i.e. R ∝ T.
V 6 Graphical representation:
I = = = 0.06 A
RS 100
2. (a) Both ammeters, A1 and A3 shows same reading
R (Resistance)
because both are connected in series with the
equivalent resistance of the given combination.
\ A1 = A3 = 1 A
(b) Total current will pass through an ammeter A3
while the divided current will pass through an Temperature (T)
ammeter A2 i.e. the current through A2 is smaller Or
than A3. Hence (c) Given: r = 1.62 × 10–8 Wm, l = 1 m,
Reading of an ammeter A2 < R e a d i n g o f a n A = 1 m2, R = ?
ammeter A3 l 1
(c) The equivalent resistance of resistors connected Using, R = ρ = 1.62 × 10–8 ×
A 1
in parallel across the voltmeter V1 is = 1.62 × 10 W –8
R1R2 3× 3
Rp = = 5. (a) Resistance = Slope of line AB
1 R1 + R2 3+3
BD 5–3 1
9 3 = = = W
= = = 1.5 W AD 10 – 6 2
6 2 (b) Voltmeter and ammeter reading increases.
From Ohm’s law (c) (i) Conductor A is used as resistance.
V1 = IRp = 1 × 1.5 = 1.5 V (ii) Conductor D is used as connecting wires.
1
Or Or
(c) • Equivalent resistance across voltmeter, (c) Given I = 0.5 A, V = 60 V
3 From Ohm’s law
V1 = 1.5 W = W = R1
2 V = IR
• Equivalent resistance across voltmeter, ⇒ 60 = 0.5 × R
V2 = 1 W = R2 60 600
⇒ R = = = 120 W
• Equivalent resistance in IIIrd combination 0.5 5
3 6. (a) The use of variable resistor in the circuit is to
= Ω = R3
4 adjust the magnitude of current and resistance of
Now all are connected in series the circuit.
\ Net resistance of the entire circuit (b) For minimum current in the circuit, maximum
Rs = R1 + R2 + R3 circuit resistance is required. This is possible
3 3 13 only when the variable resistor is at its maximum
= + 1 + = = 3.25 W
2 4 4 value.
3. (a) Parallel combination Equivalent resistance of the series circuit is
(b) Copper and aluminium are most frequently used Rs = R1 + R2 + R3
as the electrical conductors in electrical cables = 400 + 200 + 200 = 800 W
due to their low resistance/resistivity and excellent So, minimum current,
V 12
conductivity. I = = = 0.015 A
(c) The equation relating power to voltage and Rs 800
current, for an electrical resistance is given by (c) (i) The smallest reading of voltmeter is only
P = VI. Energy dissipated by an electrical when the circuit has minimum value of
resistance is usually in the form of heat (H = I 2Rt), current.
although sometimes it is also in the form of light. So, Vmin = Imin R = 0.015 × 200 = 3 V
Or (ii) When the current in the circuit has a
(c) The effective resistance between A and B is 4 W maximum value, the reading of the voltmeter
as 6 W resistor is shorted. across 200 W will be maximum.
\ Vmax = Imax R = 0.03 × 200 = 6 V
Or Or
(c) When variable resistor is at minimum value, the (c) Equivalent series resistance, R = R1 + R2
maximum current will flow through the circuit =2+4=6W
and hence, power dissipation, according to V 6
Current through the circuit, I = = =1A
P = I 2R will be maximum across 200 W resistor. R 6
7. (a) Student ‘B’ measured the wrong equivalent \ Heat dissipated in 4 W resistor in 5 seconds.
resistance of the given circuit-II. H = I 2Rt = 12 × 4 × 5 = 20 J
Reason: 4 ohm and 1 ohm are in series. 8. (a) Ist combination of R1 and R2 represents a series
Therefore, R = 4 + 1 = 5 ohm combination while IInd combination represents
R and 6 ohm are in parallel. parallel combination of resistors.
1 1 1 (b) The slope of each plot of V vs I has the same
= +
Rp 5 6 value of resistance of the resistor R as shown in
^6 + 5h 11 table.
= = (c) The large current will pass through the lower
30 30
30 resistor R1 because low resistance making it easier
Therefore, Rp = = 2.7ohm for the current to flow through easily. This can
11
also be supported mathematically through Ohm’s
Now, 3.6 ohm, 2.7 ohm and 3 ohm are in series.
Law, as V = IR.
Req = 3.6 + 2.7 + 3.0 = 9.3 ohm which is not
Or
equal to 3.4 ohm.
(c) In a series circuit, the voltage is distributed among
(b) Potential difference will remain same in parallel
all of the bulbs whereas in parallel circuit the
combination.
voltage for each bulb is the same as the applied
(c) By connecting an ammeter in series with the
voltage in the circuit. So, the bulbs in parallel
given circuit with correct polarity.
are brighter than bulbs in series.
Chapter 12—Magnetic Effects of Electric Current
Magnetic Field and Field Lines
1.
(c) Or diagrammatic expression.
2.
(c)
3.
(b)
4.
(a) The relative strength of the magnetic field due
S N
to a bar magnet can be identified by the degree
of closeness of the field lines.
• Crowded field lines – stronger magnetic field.
(b) Near the pole magnetic field lines are more
crowded, i.e. more closer as compared to middle [CBSE Marking Scheme]
of the bar magnet. So magnetic strength is more 6. The south pole of the compass needle points towards
near the poles than the middle of a bar magnet. the north pole of the magnet and north pole of the
5. • Field lines emerge from the north pole and merge compass needle is directed away from the north
at south pole/the direction in which a north pole pole of the magnet.
of the compass needle moves inside it. (1 Mark) 7. It is used
• The relative strength of the magnetic field is (i) in navigation to find the direction.
shown by the degree of closeness of the field (ii) to detect the magnetic field.
lines. Crowded are the field lines, stronger is the (iii) to test the nature of substance whether it is
field. (1 Mark) magnetic or not.
Magnetic Field due to a Current Carrying Conductor

1. (b) 5. Student’s first statement is wrong because the
2. (c) Magnetic field line around a current carrying strength of magnetic field decreases on increasing
straight conductor is represented by concentric the distance from the current carrying wire. So
circles. deflection in the compass must be decreased not
increased as reported by student.
3.
Current
P2
6. (a) P1 Q1 (b)
Q2
P3
(c) Q3
Horizontal
board Magnetic
field lines Here, the represents the magnetic field lines are
directed upwards and perpendicular to plane of
4. It can be shown with the help of a magnetic compass. paper. The represents the magnetic field lines
When it is brought away from the current carrying are directed inwards and into the plane of paper
wire, its deflection gradually decreases which shows normally.
that magnetic field decreases as distance from the
current carrying wire increases.
Magnetic Field due to a Current Carrying Circular Loop

1. (c) 4. • The existence of magnetic field at the centre of
2. (b) current carrying circular loop can be detected by
using a magnetic compass needle where it will
3. The line of force near the wire are almost concentric
align itself along the axis of the loop.
circles. At the centre of the current carrying circular
• The rule that helps to predict the direction of
loop, all the magnetic field lines due to each segment
magnetic field is the Maxwell’s Right-hand thumb
of the loop, by applying right hand thumb rule, are
rule.
found to be in the same direction within the loop.
Note: For circular loop, this law can be modified
So magnetic field gets added up, due to which
as below:
strength of magnetic field increases. The magnetic
“Imagine that curled fingers of right hand wrap
field decreases as we go away from the centre, on
around the circular coil in the direction of current,
either side of the loop.
then the thumb will point in the direction of outwards
Thus, at the centre of a current carrying loop magnetic
magnetic field.”
field will be stronger.
Magnetic Field due to a Current in a Solenoid

1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (c) Solenoid
4. The current carrying solenoid behaves similar to that

of a bar magnet. Both have similar magnetic field 7. (a)
lines patterns. Therefore, the end of the solenoid Soft iron
core
where field lines are converging acts as a south +
K
pole and other end of the solenoid where the field –
A – +
lines are diverging acts a north pole.
5. (a) Relative closeness of field lines indicates the (b) Yes, we can control the strength of electromagnet
strength of magnetic field. Since field lines are by changing the (i) number of turns of the
crowded around the ends of the solenoid, hence solenoid or (ii) magnitude of current flowing
these are the regions of strongest magnetism. through the solenoid.
(b) The direction of the field will also be reversed. 8. • Solenoid behaves like a magnet in the following
6. Solenoid: A coil of many circular turns of insulated ways:
copper wire wound on a cylindrical insulating body (i) The pattern of the magnetic field lines around
(i.e. cardboard etc.) such that its length is greater a current carrying solenoid is similar to the
than its diameter is called solenoid. magnetic field around a bar magnet.
Insulating body
cylinder
(ii) The freely suspended current carrying
solenoid interacts with the earth magnetic
Conducting wire
field and align itself along the north-south
direction.
When current is flowing through the solenoid, the
• To determine the polarity of a current carrying
magnetic field line pattern resemble exactly with
solenoid, bring a north pole of a bar magnet or
those of a bar magnet with the fixed polarity North
and South pole at its ends and it acquires the directive magnetic needle, towards one end of the solenoid.
and attractive properties similar to bar magnet. Hence – If the magnet is repelled, then this end of
the current carrying solenoid behaves a bar magnet. solenoid will be north pole.

Use of current carrying solenoid: It is used to – If the magnet is attracted, the end will be south
form a temporary magnet called electromagnet as pole.
well as permanent magnet.
Answers 471
Force on a Current-Carrying Conductor in a Magnetic Field

1. (a) according to the Fleming’s left hand rule,
2. (d) direction of force acting on the electron will
be out of page.
3. (i) Electric motor (ii) Electric generator
5. (a) No, because, at rest there will not be any
(iii) Loudspeakers (iv) Microphone
interaction between alpha particle and magnetic
(v) Measuring instrument (any two)
field.
4. (a) It is used to determine the direction of force (b) No, because, the angle between direction of
experienced by a current carrying straight motion of alpha particle and magnetic field is
conductor placed in a magnetic field acting zero.
perpendicularly to it. (c) Yes, because, the force is maximum when motion
(b) The direction of current is taken opposite to of the charge particle is at right angle to the
the direction of motion of electrons. Hence, direction of magnetic field.
Domestic Electric Circuits

1. (d) (ii) switch S1 is connected in earth wire. It must
2. (a) be connected in live wire.
3. (a) The element of electric heater possesses high (iii) switch S2 is connected in neutral wire. It
melting point and high resistance but fuse wire must be connected in live wire.
has low melting point and high resistance. (iv) Bulb B2 is connected between live wire and
(b) Four mistakes in the given circuit are: earth wire. It must be connected between
(i) fuse wire is connected in neutral wire. It the live wire and neutral wire.
must be connected in live wire.
Integrated (Mixed)
1. (a) A galvanometer is an instrument that can direct direction of current, then the thumb will indicate
the presence of current in a circuit. the direction of motion or force experienced
2. (a) Right-Hand Thumb Rule : If we hold a current by the conductor. It is to be applied only
carrying conductor by right hand in such a way when the current and magnetic fields both are
that the stretched thumb is along the direction perpendicular to each other.
of current, then the curly fingers around the
n
Motio
conductor represents the direction of field lines

of magnetic field. Magnetic Field
(b) Fleming’s Left-Hand Rule: Stretch the thumb,
forfinger and middle finger of the left hand
Current
mutually perpendicular to each other such that

the forefinger point towards the direction of
magnetic field, the middle finger points in the

1. (b) T
he Assertion and the Reason are correct but 5. (a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct
2. (d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the 6. (d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the
Reason is true. Reason is true.
9. (c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false. 12. (c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
Case-Based
1. (a) (1 Mark) marked to get a field line. Similarly draw
one more field line on the other side of
the magnet. (½ Mark)
•
N S
(½ Mark)
(b) [CBSE Marking Scheme]

2. (a) When a current carrying conductor is placed
perpendicular to the magnetic field, it experiences
S N a force. (1 Mark)
(b) Fleming’s left-hand rule: Stretch the thumb,
forefinger and middle finger of your left-hand
such that they are mutually perpendicular. If the
(1 Mark) first finger points to the direction of magnetic
(c) (i) • By placing a compass needle on magnetic field and the second finger in the direction of
field lines, direction of north pole will give current, then the thumb will point in the direction
direction of magnetic field. (1 Mark) of motion or the force acting on the conductor.
• If they cross or intersect , it means that (1 Mark)
at the point of intersection the compass (c) (i) No change in the direction of displacement
needle would point into two directions, (1 Mark)
which is not possible. (1 Mark) (ii) E lectric motor/ electric generator/
If they cross or intersect, it means that loudspeakers/ microphones/electrical
at the point of intersection there will be measuring instruments
direction of two resultant fields which is (½ Mark + ½ Mark) (any two)
not possible. Or
Or (c) Variable
(c) (ii) • Take a small bar magnet, place it in the resistance
centre of the drawing sheet fixed on a – +
X A
drawing board and mark its boundary.
es Current
(½ Mark) lin
ld
• Place a small compass needle near the Fie +
north pole of the magnet, south pole of the P
compass needle points towards the north Q –
pole. (½ Mark)
• Mark the position of two ends of the
needle. Now move the needle to a new Y
position such that the south pole of needle K (1 Mark)
occupies the position previously occupied Direction of current-downward (½ Mark)
by the north pole and again mark the new Direction of field lines-clockwise. (½ Mark)
position of the north pole. In this way Alternatively if the direction of current is marked
proceed step by step till you reach the upwards then direction of field lines will be anti-
south pole of the magnet. Join the points clockwise. [CBSE Marking Scheme]
Answers 473
3. (a) The soft iron bar will be magnetised as long as 6. (a) Direction of magnetic field due to both the
there is current in the circuit. current carrying wire is shown below:
(b) The magnetic field produced by the current
carrying solenoid is directly proportional to the
current flowing through it.
R P S
(c) (i) From the graph, for a current of 0.8 A,
the magnetic field is 13 mT.
Or (b) The strength of magnetic field increases with
(ii) Distinguishing features are increase in the current in wire R and S.
• The magnetic field outside the solenoid
is negligible as compared to the bar
magnet. P
• The magnetic field of a solenoid can R S
be changed by changing the magnitude
of current through it or by placing the
core inside the solenoid but magnetic More number of line indicates stronger magnetic
field around the bar magnet is fixed. field.
4. (a) Pin P. Green wire must be connected to the (c) (i) • Zero
R eason: The magnetic field at the
metallic body of the clothes iron.
mid point P due to wire A is equal
(b) It prevents the severe shock by providing a low
and opposite in direction. Hence, they
resistance path for any leakage of current to the
nullify each other.
metallic body of the iron. • Right hand thumb rule.
(c) (i) Direct contact of the red and the black wire Or
will result in a short circuit. (ii) On reversing the direction of current in the
Or wire S, the direction of magnetic field at
(ii) During short circuit, there will be drastic point P is also reversed. Thus, at point P,
increase in the current. the magnetic field produced by both the
5. (a) Magnetic field lines. wires is equal and in the same direction.
(b) Iron fillings are magnetic substance. They Therefore, the total magnetic field at P is 2B.
experience a magnetic force when placed in 7. (a) (i) The magnetic field depends directly on
the surrounding region of a bar magnet. The the current passing through it.
force experienced by these iron fillings make (ii) The magnetic field depends directly on the
them rotate and align themselves in a particular number of turns per metre of a solenoid.
pattern, i.e. in the direction of magnetic field (b) A solenoid is a long coil of wire wrapped in many
lines. turns. Each loop in the solenoid carries the same
(c) (i) • The north pole of the compass is directed amount of current in the same direction when
away from the north pole of the magnet connected to the battery. The field produced
whereas south pole of the needle points due to each turn just adds up along the axis of
towards the north pole of the magnet. a solenoid due to same direction and are in the
• Deflection increases as the needle is form of parallel straight lines. This indicates that
moved towards the pole. the magnetic field is uniform inside the solenoid.
(c) (i) E ach segment of current produces a
Or
magnetic field like that of a long straight
(ii) At the middle of a bar magnet, very few
wire, and the total field due to all loops
iron fillings are sticking to it, but at the
of a solenoid is the vector sum of the
end, iron fillings are more crowded. This fields due to each loop. Therefore, the
means that the magnetic field is weakest magnetic field produced by a solenoid
at the centre and strongest at the two poles is much stronger than the magnetic field
of the bar magnet. produced by a straight current carrying
conductor.
Or The end of the solenoid ‘A’ connected to
(ii) the negative terminal of the battery will
Solenoid act as a north pole because the current
appears in this end is anticlockwise. The
other end ‘B’ of the solenoid will be south
B
pole due to clockwise current.
• Thus as shown in the figure, the field
A
lines emerges from the end A and enter
into the solenoid from its end B.
Magnetic
field line
Chapter 13—Our Environment
Eco-System – What are its Components?
1. (a) The population of tiger decreases and the 10. Flow of energy through different trophic levels.
population of grass increases. (i) Plants convert light energy into chemical energy
2. (a) 1 % by the process of photosynthesis.
(ii) The chemical energy undergoes continuous
3. (b) Decomposers are part of an ecosystem.
transfer from one trophic level to another in the
4. (b) food chain.
5. (a) It is according to 10 per cent law. (iii) Large amount of energy is lost at every level.
6. (a) 90 per cent of energy is lost at every trophic
level to the environment and only 10 per cent
7. Phytoplankton → Zooplankton → Fish
is transferred to the next level.
– Aquatic food chain 100000 J as energy from Sun
– Producer, herbivore or primary consumer, carnivore
or secondary consumer.
8. (a) Insects belong to second trophic level and snakes Plants (Paddy)
belong to fourth trophic level.
(b) Vegetarian food habit is safer than non-vegetarian 1000 J
food habit. as food 900 J lost to environment
In the given two food chains Mice
Plant → Humans
Plants → Deer → Humans 100 J
as food 90 J lost
Humans of first food chain would have more Snake
energy as it has only two trophic levels and as
9 J lost
per ten percent law, 10% of energy is available 10 J
for vegetarians where as second food chain has as food
three trophic levels, so energy available will be Hawk
only 0.1% as flow of energy is unidirectional. 1J
• In the second food chain, humans would as food
have more amount of DDT due to biological The transfer and circulation of materials take place
magnification. through the living and nonliving components of
biosphere. Plants absorb the materials in the form of
9. When man places himself close to the producers,
nutrients from the soil and some of the elements from
he gets more calories. More is the distance from the
atmosphere.
producer level, lesser the amount of calories available.
These are transferred to animals as food.
This is due to the fact that at every trophic level 90
Death of organisms bring these organic compounds to
per cent of energy is lost to the environment, e.g.
the soil and water bodies where they are decomposed
(i) Two-step food chain:
to simpler substances.
Producers → Man
The decomposing microorganisms help in breaking
1000 J as food
down the dead organic matter into simpler substances
(ii) Three-step food chain:
900 J is lost and thus, they bring nutrients back to the nutrient pool
and helps in completing the circulation of materials.
Due to the recycling of materials the various nutrients
Plants Goat Man
1000 J 100 J needed by the living organisms become available in
as food as food the usable form.
How do Our Activities Affect the Environment?

1. (a) Using Kulhads as disposal cups to serve tea in (b) Plastic is not degraded by bacteria as they are
trains, proved to be a bad idea as making Kulhads made up of non biodegradable substances. It is
on a large scale would result in the loss of the long chain of carbon and hydrogen atoms and does
fertile top soil. not have any natural material in it, so it is not
broken down to simpler substances by bacteria.
2. Though biodegradable substances are decomposed by • The heap becomes a breeding ground for flies which
bacteria yet accumulation of these substances affect carry germs and spread diseases such as cholera and
our environment in these ways: diarrhoea.
• Decomposition of biodegradable waste produces
foul smell which spreads in the environment and
makes the life of people miserable.
Integrated (Mixed)
1. (a) Excessive pesticides used in crop field are washed 2. (a) Two problems caused by non-biodegradable waste
down to nearby water bodies. Phytoplankton that we generate in our daily life are:
consume these water and pesticides also enter (i) Waste like plastic, cans etc., if falls on drains
and accumulates in the bodies of phytoplankton. causes clogging of drains. Clogged drains
Zooplankton while consuming phytoplanktons, causes artificial flood in cities.
consume the pesticides and more pesticides (ii) Non-biodegradable waste like polythene
get accumulated in their bodies. Fish eat the when gets buried in soil increases soil
zooplankton and accumulation of pesticides temperature making the soil unfit for
increases in the bodies of fish. Men, while agriculture.
consuming fish, also consume the pesticide and (b) Biodiversity is the existence of a wide variety of
species of plants, animals and microorganisms in
larger quantity of pesticides get accumulated in
a natural habitat within a particular environment.
the bodies of men. Thus, with increase in trophic
Two reasons each of conserving:
level accumulation of pesticides multiplies, and
(i) Forest
this process of multiplication of harmful chemicals • It helps in retaining the sub-soil water.
with increase in trophic level is called biological • It checks flood.
magnification. (ii) Wildlife
(b) Food chain in an aquatic ecosystem: • To maintain ecological equilibrium.
Phytoplankton → Zooplankton → Crustacean • To protect the nature.
(Producer) (Herbivore) (Carnivore) (c)
→ Fish → Crane
(Carnivore) (Top Carnivore)
Tertiary Snake
(c) Advantages of disposable paper cups over
consumers ↑
disposable plastic cups are:
Secondary Frog
(i) Disposable paper cups are biodegradable,
consumers ↑
i.e. they can break down over time without
Grasshopper
causing any harm to the environment by the Primary consumers
↑
action of microorganisms. Producers Grass
(ii) Disposable paper cups are cheaper and
Trophic Levels Food chain
hygienic and can be recycled. in a food chain in grassland

2. (b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but 5. (c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
Assertion.
Answers 477
Case-Based
1. (a) It is the structural and functional unit of biosphere, (b) • The pesticides should be used judiciously.
comprising of all the interacting organisms in an • Use of organic and biological pesticides should
area together with the non-living constituents of be encouraged. (any one)
the environment. (c) Phytoplankton → Zooplankton → Small fish
(b) Aquarium, cropland, park. (any two) → Large fish
(c) If all the organisms of one trophic level die, then Or
the organisms in the next trophic level will not (c) Pesticides can degrade the environment in many
get their food and hence they will either die or ways:
migrate to a different food chain. (i) When pesticides are sprayed in the air, it
Or can cause air pollution.
(c) Carnivores depend on the flesh of herbivores. (ii) Sometimes, pesticides remain in the soil
Herbivores build up their tissues with the help for long periods of time and thus cause soil
of food for which they depend upon the plants. pollution.
This justifies the statement that all the flesh of a (iii) In many cases, the excess pesticides get
carnivore is grass. washed off and reach the water bodies.
2. (a) DDT and Lindane. Here they cause water pollution and affect
(b) The process of increase in the concentration of a aquatic life. (any two)
toxic chemical with increasing trophic level in a 4. (a) 1% of 10,000J = 100J
food chain is called biological magnification. (b) 2nd trophic level.
(c) DDT cannot be broken down into simple, harmless (c) 10% of 100J = 10J
substances in nature by the action of micro- Or
organisms. Hence, it is called non-biodegradable (c) During transfer of energy from one trophic level
substance. to another, a huge amount of energy is lost as heat
Or energy. There will not by any energy left after
(c) The highest trophic level of a food chain, mostly 3 or 4 trophic levels. Hence number of trophic
human beings will have the maximum amount of levels is limited to 3 or 4.
pesticides. 5. (a) At higher levels of atmosphere, O2 molecule
The concentration of harmful chemicals will breaks down to 2 oxygen atoms due to the higher
be different at different trophic levels as energy UV radiations. The oxygen atom then
these chemicals are not degradable, these get combines with the oxygen molecule to form
accumulated progressively at each trophic level. ozone.
3. (a) Non-biodegradable substances enter the food (b) Because the rate of destruction of ozone is higher
chain at the level of producers by absorption than the rate of its formation.
along with water and minerals. From producers (c) Formation of Polar Stratospheric Clouds (PSCs)
the chemicals enter herbivores(second trophic might be restricted due to rise in polar temperature,
level) and from herbivores into carnivores(third thus, reducing the depletion of ozone layer.
trophic level). As they move in the food chain, Or
they become more and more concentrated at each (c) Removal of ozone layer allows harmful UV
trophic level. Human beings at the top in the food radiations to enter and cause diseases like skin
chain, accumulate maximum concentration of cancer.
pesticides in the body.
Part II
 LATEST CBSE SAMPLE PAPER, 2023-24
 PRACTICE PAPERS 1–2 (Solved)
 PRACTICE PAPERS 3–10 (Unsolved – Answers available at gowebrachnasagar.com)
LATEST CBSE SAMPLE PAPER, 2023-24
Time Allowed: 3 Hours] [Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
Read the following instructions carefully.
(i) This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.
(ii) All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is
expected to attempt only one of these questions.
(iii) Section A consists of 20 Objective type questions carrying 1 mark each.
(iv) Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should in
the range of 30 to 50 words.
(v) Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions
should in the range of 50 to 80 words.
(vi) Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answer to these questions
should be in the range of 80 to 120 words.
(vii) Section E consists of 3 Source-based/Case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.
SECTION – A
(Select and write one most appropriate option out of the four options given for each of the questions 1 – 20)
1.
Test tube containing

solution of sodium
sulphate

solution of barium
chloride
Identify the product which represents the solid state in the above reaction. 1
(a) Barium chloride (b) Barium sulphate (c) Sodium chloride (d) Sodium sulphate
2. The colour of the solution observed after 30 minutes of placing zinc metal to copper sulphate solution is 1
(a) Blue (b) Colourless (c) Dirty green (d) Reddish Brown
3. Mild non-corrosive basic salt is 1
(a) Ca(OH)2 (b) NaCl (c) NaOH (d) NaHCO3
4. On adding dilute sulphuric acid to a test tube containing a metal ‘X’, a colourless gas is produced when a burning
match stick is brought near it. Which of the following correctly represents metal ‘X’? 1
(a) Sodium (b) Zinc (c) Copper (d) Silver
5. Which one of the following correctly represents Sodium oxide? 1
2– 2– – 2–
(a) Na2+ 2 O (b) 2Na+ O (c) 2Na+ 2 O (d) Na+ O
6. An element with atomic number __________ will form a basic oxide. 1
(a) 7 (2, 5) (b) 17 (2, 8, 7) (c) 14 (2, 8, 4) (d) 11 (2, 8, 1)
7. An element ‘M’ has 50% of the electrons filled in the 3rd shell as in the 2nd shell. The atomic number of ‘M’
is:1
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 14 (d) 18
8. Generally food is broken and absorbed within the body of organisms. In which of the following organisms is it
done outside the body? 1
(a) Amoeba (b) Mushroom (c) Paramoecium (d) Lice
9. Receptors are usually located in sense organs. Gustatory receptors are present in 1
(a) tongue (b) nose (c) eye (d) ear
10. A farmer wants to grow banana plants genetically similar enough to the plants already available in his field.
Which one of the following methods would you suggest for this purpose? 1
(a) Regeneration (b) Budding
(c) Vegetative propagation (d) Sexual reproduction
11. Height of a plant is regulated by: 1
(a) DNA which is directly influenced by growth hormone.
(b) Genes which regulate the proteins directly.
(c) Growth hormones under the influence of the enzymes coded by a gene.
(d) Growth hormones directly under the influence a gene.
12. A sportsman, after a long break of his routine exercise, suffered muscular cramps during a heavy exercise session.
This happened due to: 1
(a) lack of carbon dioxide and formation of pyruvate.
(b) presence of oxygen and formation of ethanol.
(c) lack of oxygen and formation of lactic acid.
(d) lack of oxygen and formation of carbon dioxide.
13. An object is placed in front of a convex mirror. Its image is formed : 1
(a) at a distance equal to the object distance in front of the mirror.
(b) at twice the distance of the object in front of the mirror.
(c) half the distance of the object in front of the mirror.
(d) behind the mirror and it’s position varies according to the object distance.
14. When light enters the atmosphere it strikes on extremely fine particles, which deflect the rays of light in all
possible directions, This is due to: 1
(a) reflection of light (b) atmospheric refraction
(c) scattering of light (d) dispersion of light
15. In 1987, an agreement was formulated by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) to freeze the
production of “X” to prevent depletion of “Y”. “X” and “Y” respectively referred here are: 1
(a) Ozone; CFCs (b) CFCs; rays UV
(c) CFCs; Ozone (d) UV rays; Diatomic oxygen
16. Which of the following features relates to biodegradable substances? 1
(a) Broken down by biological processes (b) Remain inert
(c) Persist in environment for long time (d) May harm the ecosystem
Q. no 17 to 20 are Assertion – Reasoning based questions.
These consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate
option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is False but R is true
17. Assertion: Rusting of Iron is endothermic in nature. 1
Reason: As the reaction is slow, the release of heat is barely evident.
Latest CBSE Sample Paper 481
18. Assertion: Probability of survival of an organism produced through sexual reproduction is more than that of
organism produced through asexual mode. 1
Reason: Variations provide advantages to individuals for survival.
19. Assertion: A compass needle is placed near a current carrying wire. The deflection of the compass needle
decreases when the magnitude of the current in the wire is increased. 1
Reason: The strength of a magnetic field at a point near the conductor increases on increasing the current.
20. Assertion: Biodegradable substances result in the formation of compost and natural replenishment. 1
Reason: It is due to breakdown of complex inorganic substances into simple organic substances.
SECTION – B
(Q. no. 21 to 26 are Very Short answer questions.)
21. “Dil. HCl is added to Zn granules.” How will you prove that chemical change has taken place here? Support
your response with two arguments. 2
22. State the post-fertilisation changes that lead to fruit formation in plants. 2
23. What is the purpose of making urine in the human body? Name the organs that stores and releases the urine.2
Or
Why do arteries have thick and elastic walls whereas veins have valves?
24. The refractive indices of three media are given below: 2
Medium Refractive Index
A 1.6
B 1.8
C 1.5
A ray of light is travelling from A to B and another ray is travelling from B to C.
(a) In which of the two cases the refracted ray bends towards the normal?
(b) In which case does the speed of light increase in the second medium?
Give reasons for your answer.
25. A piece of wire of resistance R is cut into three equal parts. These parts are then connected in parallel. If the
equivalent resistance of this parallel combination is R1, what is the value of the ratio R1 : R?2
Or
Refer to the image below and state how the magnetic field pattern indicates regions where the magnetic field is
stronger outside the magnet? What happens to the magnetic field when the current in the circuit is reversed?
Solenoid
Magnetic field line
26. Study the food chain given below and answer the questions that follow: 2

Leaf Caterpillar Chameleon Snake Mangoose
(a) If the amount of energy available at the third trophic level is 100 joules, then how much energy will be
available at the producer level? Justify your answer.
(b) Is it possible to have 2 more trophic levels in this food chain just before the fourth trophic level? Justify
your answer.
SECTION – C
(Q.no. 27 to 33 are Short answer questions.)
27. The given reaction shows one of the processes to extract the metals like Iron and Manganese. 3
MnO2(s) + Al(s) → Mn(l) + Al2O3(s) + Heat
(a) Give reason why the above reaction is known as a thermite reaction.
(b) Identify the substance oxidised and reduced in the above reaction.
(c) Give a reason why Aluminium is preferably used in thermite reactions.
28. An element ‘M’ with electronic configuration 2 8 3 combines separately with Cl–, SO42– anions. Write the chemical
formulae of the compounds formed. Predict with the suitable reason the nature of the bond formed by element
‘M’ in general. How will the electrical conductivity of the compounds formed vary with respect to ‘M’? 3
Or
A reddish-brown metal ‘X’, when heated in air, gives a black compound ‘Y’, which when heated in presence of
H2 gas gives ‘X’ back. ‘X’ is refined by the process of electrolysis; this refined form of ‘X’ is used in electrical
wiring. Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’. Draw a well-labeled diagram to represent the process of refining ‘X’.
29. We are advised to take iodised salt in our diet by doctors. Justify it’s importance in our body. 3
30. What is the probability of a girl or a boy being born in a family? Justify your answer. 3
31. (i) Explain why the refractive index of any material with respect to air is always greater 1. 1+1+1
(ii) In the figure below a light ray travels from air into the semi-circular plastic block. Give a reason why the
ray does not deviate at the semi-circular boundary of the plastic block.
Normal
Plastic block
40°
light ray
(iii) Complete the ray diagram of the above scenario when the light ray comes out of the plastic block from
the top flat end.
32. (i) State the law that explains the heating effect of current with respect to the measurable properties in an
electrical circuit. 2+1
(ii) List the factors on which the resistance of a conductor depends.
33. Anannya responded to the question: Why do electrical appliances with metallic bodies are connected to the mains
through a three pin plug, whereas an electric bulb can be connected with a two pin plug? 2+1
She wrote: Three pin connections reduce heating of connecting wires.
(i) Is her answer correct or incorrect? Justify.
(ii) What is the function of a fuse in a domestic circuit?
SECTION – D
(Q.no. 34 to 36 are Long answer questions.)
34. (a) Rehmat classified the reaction between Methane and Chlorine in presence of sunlight as a substitution
reaction. Support Rehmat’s view with suitable justification and illustrate the reaction with the help of a
balanced chemical equation. 5
(b) Chlorine gas was prepared using electrolysis of brine solution. Write the chemical equation to represent the
change. Identify the other products formed in the process and give one application of each.
Or
Raina while doing certain reactions observed that heating of substance ‘X’ with vinegar like smell with a
substance ‘Y’ (which is used as an industrial solvent) in presence of conc. Sulphuric acid on a water bath gives
a sweet-smelling liquid ‘Z’ having molecular formula C4H8O2. When heated with caustic soda (NaOH), ‘Z’ gives
back the sodium salt of and the compound ‘Y’. Identify ‘X’, ‘Y’, and ‘Z’. Illustrate the changes with the help
of suitable chemical equations.
35. Given below are certain situations. Analyze and describe its possible impact on a person: 5
(a) Testes of a male boy are not able to descend into scrotum during his embryonic development.
(b) Vas deferens of a man is plugged.
Latest CBSE Sample Paper 483
(c) Prostate and seminal vesicles are not functional.

(d) Egg is not fertilised in a human female.
(e) Placenta does not attach to the uterus optimally. 3+2
Or
(a) A doctor has advised Sameer to reduce sugar intake in his diet and do regular exercise after checking his
blood test reports. Which disease do you think Sameer is suffering from? Name the hormone responsible
for this disease and the organ producing the hormone.
(b) Which hormone is present in the areas of rapid cell division in a plant and which hormone inhibits the
growth?
36. 5
F2 F1
The above image shows a thin lens of focal length 5 m. 1+2+2
(i) What is the kind of lens shown in the above figure?
(ii) If a real inverted image is to be formed by this lens at a distance of 7 m from the pole, then show with
calculation where should the object be placed?
(iii) Draw a neatly labelled diagram of the image formation mentioned in (ii)
Or
A 10 cm long pencil is placed 5 cm in front of a concave mirror having a radius of curvature of 40 cm.
(i) Determine the position of the image formed by this mirror.
(ii) What is the size of the image?
(iii) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of the image as mentioned in the part (i). 2+1+2
SECTION – E
(Q.no. 37 to 39 are Case-based/Data-based questions with 2 to 3 short sub-parts. Internal choice is
provided in one of these sub-parts.)
37. The table given below shows the hints given by the quiz master in a quiz. 4
S.No. Hint
(i) Substance ‘C’ is used as a preservative.
‘C’ has two carbon atoms; ‘C’ is obtained by the reaction of ‘A’ in presence of alkaline
(ii)
Potassium permanganate followed by acidification.
(iii) Misuse of ‘A’ in industries is prevented by adding Methanol, Benzene, and pyridine to ‘A’.
(iv) ‘F’ is formed on heating ‘A’ in presence of conc Sulphuric acid.
(v) ‘F’ reacts with Hydrogen gas in presence of Nickel and Palladium catalyst.
Based on the above hints answer the following questions
(a) Give the IUPAC names of A and F
(b) Illustrate with the help of chemical equations the changes taking place. (A → C and A → F)
Or
Name the chemical reactions which occur in steps 2 and 5. Identify the compounds formed in these steps if ‘A’
is replaced with its next homologue.
38. Figures (a) to (d) given below represent the type of ear lobes present in a family consisting of 2 children – Rahul,
Nisha and their parents. 4
(a) Rahul’s Father (b) Rahul (c) Rahul’s Mother (d) Rahul’s sister Nisha
(e) (f)
Type of ear lobes
Excited by his observation of different types of ear lobes present in his family, Rahul conducted a survey of the
type of ear lobes found [Figure (e) and (f)] in his classmates. He found two types of ear lobes in his classmates
as per the frequency given below:
Sex Free Attached
Male 36 14
Female 31 19
On the basis of above data answer the following questions.
(a) Which of the two characteristics - ‘free ear lobe’ or ‘attached ear lobe’ appears to be dominant in this case?
Why?
(b) Is the inheritance of the free ear lobe linked with sex of the individual? Give reason for your answer.
(c) What type of ear lobe is present in father, mother, Rahul and his sister Nisha? Write the genetic constitution
of each of these family members which explains the inheritance of this character in this family?
(Gene for Free ear lobe is represented by F and gene for attached ear lobe is represented by f for writing
the genetic constitution).
Or
(c) Suresh’s parents have attached ear lobes. What type of ear lobe can be seen in Suresh and his sister Siya?
Explain by giving the genetic composition of all.
39. A
1
2
3
12 V 4.0 W 4.0 W 12 W 12 W
Vinita and Ahmed demonstrated a circuit that operates the two headlights and the two sidelights of a car, in their
school exhibition. Based on their demonstrated circuit, answer the following questions. 1+1+2
(a) State what happens when switch A is connected to
(i) Position 2 (ii) Position 3
(b) Find the potential difference across each lamp when lit.
(c) Calculate the current
(i) in each 12 Ω lamp when lit. (ii) In each 4 Ω lamp when lit.
Or
(c) Show, with calculations, which type of lamp, 4.0 Ω or 12 Ω, has the higher power.
Scan to get Answers

Answers to this Practice Paper are also available at gowebrachnasagar.com
Practice Papers 485
1 PRACTICE PAPER
[Time Allowed: 3 Hours] [Maximum Marks: 80]
General Instructions:
(i) This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.
(ii) All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected
to attempt only one of these questions.
(iii) Section A consists of 20 Objective type questions carrying 1 mark each.
(iv) Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should in
the range of 30 to 50 words.
(v) Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions should
in the range of 50 to 80 words
(vi) Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answer to these questions should
be in the range of 80 to 120 words.
(vii) Section E consists of 3 Source-based/Case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.
SECTION – A 5. Identify in which of the following, reaction will take

Select and write one most appropriate option out of the place.
four options given for each of the questions 1–20. There (a) Zn
(b)
is no negative mark for incorrect response. Fe
1. Which of the following is/are natural indicator(s)?

(a) Hydrangea (b) Petunia
(c) Geranium (d) All of these
CuSO4 CaSO4
2. Consider the following reactions I and II
I. Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2 (c) (d)
II. NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O Cu Cu
The correct statement about these equations is
(a) I is displacement reaction, II is decomposition
reaction.
(b) I is displacement reaction, II is double displace- ZnSO4 FeSO4
ment reaction. 6. If a person is suffering from acidity after overeating,
(c) Both I and II are displacement reactions. you should suggest him/her to take:
(d) Both I and II are double displacement reactions. (a) lemon-juice
3. Which of the following is oxidation reaction? (b) vinegar
(a) Zn → Zn2+ + 2e– (b) Zn2+ + 2e– → Zn(s) (c) baking soda solution
(c) Fe3+ + e– → Fe2+ (d) Ag+ + e– → Ag(s) (d) All of these
4. A solution turns the colour of turmeric to reddish 7. While cooking, if the bottom of the vessel is getting
brown. If the same solution is poured on universal blackened on the outside, it means that
indicator, the colour would change to (a) the food is not cooked completely
(a) violet (b) blue (b) the fuel is not burning completely
(c) red (d) green (c) the fuel is wet
(d) the fuel is burning completely
8. Which features make alveoli suitable for the exchange
of gases?
Alveoli
Respiratory

bronchioles III IV
The diagrams showing correct path of the ray after
(a) They have a very thin wall refraction from the convex lens are
(b) They form a very large surface area (a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV
(c) They are covered with blood capillaries (c) III, IV and I (d) I, II and IV
(d) All of these 14. Which of the following diagram indicating an uniform
9. Identify correctly the labelled parts Q, R and S in magnetic field?
figure given below: (a) (b)
(c) (d) All of these

Q
S 15. The resistance whose V – I graph is given below is
9
V (volt)
(a) Q-Bronchus, R-Bronchiole, S-Trachea 6

(b) Q-Bronchiole, R-Trachea, S-Bronchus
(c) Q-Trachea, R-Bronchus, S-Alveolus 3
(d) Q-Trachea, R-Bronchus, S-Bronchiole
0 5 10 15 20
10. Differences shown by the individuals of a species I (ampere)
forms basis of
(a) heredity (b) variation 5 3 5 2
(a) W (b) W (c) W (d) W
(c) mutation (d) crossing over 3 5 2 5
11. The leaves of Mimosa are sensitive to 16. Overloading is due to
(a) light (b) smell (a) Insulation of wire is damaged
(c) touch (d) heat (b) fault in the appliances
12. (c) accidental hike in supply voltage
(d) All of the above
A
Q. no 17 to 20 are Assertion – Reasoning based questions.
These consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the
Identify part A from given options. appropriate option given below:
(a) Anther of stamen (b) Style (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
(c) Ovule (d) Ovary of A.
13. Study the following diagrams: (b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct
explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is False but R is true.
17. Assertion (A): A white coloured powder is used by
doctors for supporting fractured bone. It is called as
plaster of paris.
I II
Reason (R): It is also called as gypsum.
Practice Papers 487
18. Assertion (A): Acquired trait cannot be passed on 6W

from one generation to next generation. 3W
Reason (R): Inaccuracy during DNA copying of 6W
acquired trait is minimum.
19. Assertion (A): Human heart does not allow mixing
of oxygen rich blood with carbon dioxide rich blood.
Reason (R): Human heart has different chambers – +
A
+ –
20. Assertion (A): In an open circuit, the current passes 6V
from one terminal of the electric cell to another. 26. (a) In the following food chain, 100 J of energy
Reason (R): Generally, the metal disc of a cell acts is available to the lion. How much energy was
as a positive terminal. available to the producer?
SECTION – B
Q. no. 21 to 26 are very short answer questions. → →
21. Identify the type of chemical reaction and write
balanced chemical equation for each of the following: Plants Deer Lion
(a) On heating green ferrous sulphate crystals, (b) In the following food chain, plants provide
reddish brown solid is left and gases have smell 500 J of energy to rats. How much energy will
of burning sulphur. be available to hawks from snakes?
(b) Iron nails when dipped in blue copper sulphate
solution, becomes brownish in colour and blue Plants → Rats → Snakes → Hawks
colour of copper sulphate turns to light green.
SECTION – C
Or
A white salt on heating decomposes to give brown Q.no. 27 to 33 are Short answer questions.
fumes and a residue is left behind. 27. On adding a few drops of universal indicator to three
(a) Name the salt. unknown colourless solutions (P), (Q) and (R) taken
(b) Write the equation for the decomposition separately in three test tubes shown in the following
reaction. diagram, a student observed the changes in colour
22. (a) Explain any three directional movements in as green in (P), red in (Q) and violet in (R).
plants.
(b) How brain and spinal cord are protected in
human?
23. (a) How do organisms create an exact copy of
themselves?
(b) What is importance of chromosomal difference
between sperms and egg of human beings? (P) (Q) (R)
24. Write the name and one function of each of the parts Green Red Violet
A and B shown in the following diagram.
(a) Write the decreasing order of their pH.
B (b) In which of the test tube solution is acidic in
A nature?
28. Write balanced equations for the reaction of:
(a) aluminium when heated in air. Write the name
of the product.
(b) iron with steam. Name the product obtained.
(c) calcium with water. Why does calcium start
25. A piece of wire of resistance 25 W is drawn out so floating in water?
that its length is increased to twice of its original 29. Draw a diagram of human excretory system and label
length. Calculate the resistance and ratio of resistivity kidney, ureter, aorta, vena cava, urethra and urinary
of the old wire and new stretched wire . bladder on it.
Or
In the given circuit, find: 30. (a) Draw diagrams of convex mirror and concave
(a) Total resistance of the network of resistors mirror showing Principal Axis, Pole, Focus,
(b) Current through ammeter A Centre of curvature, Radius of curvature.
(b) Explain with the help of a diagram, why a pencil Or
partly immersed in water appears to be bent at (a) Write the functions of each of the following
the water surface. parts in a human female reproductive system:
31. (a) What is cornea? (i) Ovary (ii) Uterus
(b) What part of eye controls the amount of light (iii) Fallopian tube
entering the eye? (b) Write the structure and functions of placenta in
(c) Why does the sky appear dark instead of blue a human female.
to an astronaut? 36. (a) A student suffering from myopia is not able to
32. (a) On what factors does the magnetic field produced see distinctly the objects placed beyond 5 m. List
by a current–carrying circular coil (or wire) two possible reasons due to which this defect
depend? of vision may have arisen. With the help of ray
(b) A magnetic needle deflects when it’s brought diagrams, explain:
near a current carrying conductor. Why? (i) why the student is unable to see distinctly
(c) A magnet is hung using a string. How will you the objects placed beyond 5 m from his
identify the poles? eyes.
(ii) the type of the corrective lens used to
33. (a) In the given food chain, which trophic level will
restore proper vision and how this defect
have the maximum concentration of chemicals?
is corrected by the use of this lens.
Name the phenomenon involved in it and explain
(b) If, in this case, the numerical value of the focal
it.
length of the corrective lens is 5 m, find the
Carnivores
power of the lens as per the New Cartesian Sign
Convention.
Herbivores Or
Producers (a) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of
image by a convex lens when an object is placed
(b) Which chemicals are responsible to reduce the in front of the lens between its optical centre
amount of ozone in the atmosphere and where and principal focus.
are they used? Give example. (b) In the above ray diagram mark the objectdistance
Or (u) and the image-distance (v) with their proper
What is meant by food chain? “The number of trophic signs (+ve or –ve as per the New Cartesian Sign
levels in a food chain is limited.” Give reason to Convention) and state how these distances are
justify this statement. related to the focal length (f) of the convex lens
SECTION – D in this case.
(c) Find power of a convex lens which forms a real,
Q.no. 34 to 36 are Long answer questions. and inverted image of magnification –1 of an
34. (a) State any two reasons for carbon forming a large object placed at a distance of 20 cm from its
number of compounds. Why does carbon form optical centre.
compounds mainly by covalent bonding? SECTION – E
(b) Identify the compound which contains aldehyde Q.no. 37 to 39 are case-based/data-based questions with
as its functional group and write its structural 2 to 3 short sub-parts. Internal choice is provided in one
formulae. of these sub-parts.
C3H7OH, C3H7Cl, C2H5CHO, CH3COCH3
37. Taj Mahal, the great wonder of the world, is made
Or of white marble which is composed of calcium
(a) Define the term isomer. carbonate. About 60 years ago it was discovered that
(b) Two compounds have same molecular formula this monument is being eaten away by acid rain. The
C3H6O. Write the names of the functional group Archeological survey of India, that looks after this
and their formulae. building of historical importance is of the opinion
(c) Write the structural formula of Benzene. that the atmospheric pollution due to vehicular traffic
35. (a) Differentiate between the following: and industries, mainly Mathura Refinery may be a
(i) Pollen tube and style major cause of acid rain in and around the monument.
(ii) Fission in Amoeba and Plasmodium Normal rain is slightly acidic because it absorbs some
(iii) Fragmentation and regeneration CO2 from the atmospheric air. Acid rain is more acidic
(b) Mention two reasons for the appearance of than normal rain because it also has absorbed oxides
variations among the progeny formed by sexual of nitrogen and sulphur.
reproduction.
Practice Papers 489
(a) What happens when marble is heated? Write the 39. An insulated copper wire wound on a cylindrical
chemical reaction. What type of reaction is it. cardboard tube such that its length is greater than its
Name the product formed in this reaction which diameter is called a solenoid. When an electric current
is used in the manufacture of cement. How will is passed through the solenoid, it produces a magnetic
you test the gas evolved in this reaction. field around it. The magnetic field produced by a
(b) (i) Write down observations which help us current-carrying solenoid is similar to the magnetic
to determine whether a chemical reaction field produced by a bar magnet. The field lines inside
has taken place or not. the solenoid are in the form of parallel straight lines.
(ii) Which gases are spoiling Taj Mahal in The strong magnetic field produced inside a current-
Agra? What is the major source of this gas? carrying solenoid can be used to magnetise a piece
Or of magnetic material like soft iron, when placed
(b) A solution of a substance ‘X’ is used for white inside the solenoid. The strength of magnetic field
washing. produced by a current carrying solenoid is directly
(i) Name the substance ‘X’ and write its proportional to the number of turns and strength of
formula. current in the solenoid.
(ii) Write the reaction of substance ‘X’ with (a) What do the field lines inside the solenoid
water. indicate?
(iii) Write the reaction of product formed in (b) Which rule is used to determine the north-south
reaction (ii) with CO2. polarities of an electromagnet?
38. The original organism at the top will give rise to (c) The pattern of magnetic field lines around a
two individuals, similar body design, but with subtle current-carrying solenoid and a bar magnet is
difference. Each of them, in turn, will give rise to two shown below. Observe them carefully, compare
individuals in the next generation. Each of the four and find out if there is any similarity and
individuals at the bottom row will be different from dissimilarities between them.
each other. While some of these differences will be
unique, other will be inherited from there respective
parents, who were different from each other. It means
diversity is created over succeeding generations.
S N
+ –
(a) If a trait ‘A’ exists in 20% of a population of

an asexually reproducing species and a trait ‘B’
exists in 70% of the same population. Which
trait is likely to have arise earlier?
(b) What name is given to the structures of cell
which are called hereditary vehicles?
(c) In the above figure, you can see only minor
variations, what is the cause of these variations?
How does the creation of variations in a species
promote survival?
Or Or
(c) What are variations? Write its importance also. (c) Distinguish between an electromagnet and a
permanent magnet.
ANSWERS
1.(d) 2. (b) 24. A–Ovary
3.(a) Loss of electrons takes place in oxidation. B–Oviduct or fallopian tube
Functions :
4.(b) 5. (a)
A – • O vary produces an egg or gamete for
6.(c) Baking soda solution neutralises the excess acid fertilisation.
formed in stomach. • It also produces reproductive hormones namely
7. (b) This means that the fuel is not burning completely oestrogen and progesterone.
and unburnt carbon particles get deposited on the B – • Oviduct is the site of fertilization.
bottom of the vessel, making it black. • Initial stage of development of fertilized egg
8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (b) 11. (c) takes place in the oviduct. (any one)
12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (d) 25. R = 25 W,
15. (b) Resistance = slope line of V-I graph ρl ρl
R= or 25 W = ...(i)
9−0 9 3 A A
= = = W.
15 − 0 15 5 When the length is increased two times, the cross-
16. (d)
All are the causes to occur overloading sectional area becomes A/2
ρ2l ρl
17. (c)
A is true but R is false R′ = = 4 ; E...(ii)
A/2 A
18. (c)
A is true but the R is false.
From (i) and (ii), R′ = 4 × 25 = 100 W
19. (a)
Both A and R are true and R is the correct
The new resistance becomes 100 W.
explanation of A.
Resistivity of the wire is independent from its
20. (d) A is false but R is true. dimensions but depends only on the nature of the
heat material.
21. (a) 2FeSO4 → Fe2O3+ SO3 + SO2
(Decomposition reaction.) \ Required ratio = 1 : 1
(b) Fe + CuSO4 → FeSO4 + Cu Or
(Displacement reaction.) (a) Both 6 W resistors are in parallel
Or Their equivalent resistance is
1 1 1
(a) Lead nitrate is the white salt. = + (R2 = R3 = 6 W)
heat RP R2 R3
(b) 2Pb(NO3)2(s) → 2PbO(s) + 4NO2(g) + O2(g)
1 1 2 1
22. (a) The three directional movements in plants are: = + = =
6 6 6 3
Phototropism: movement of plant towards or \ RP = 3 W
away from the light. Now, R 1 = 3 W and R P = 3 W are in series
Geotropism: movement of plant parts towards the combination. Their equivalent resistance is
earth or away from it. RS = R1 + RP = 3 + 3 = 6 W
Hydrotropism: movement of plant parts towards Hence, total resistance of the given network of
or away from any source of water. the resistor = 6 W
(b) Brain is protected by a bony box in the skull V 6
called cranium. Spinal cord is protected by a (b) Current through ammeter, I = = = 1.0 A
RS 6
bony cage called vertebral column. 26. (a) 10,000 J of energy was available to the producers.
23. (a) The hereditary material DNA, creates an exact (b) 0.5 J of energy, will be available to the hawk.
copy of itself and the same copy of their genetic 27. (a) ‘R’ is violet, basic i.e. higher pH.
material is passed to their offsprings. That is how ‘P’ is green, neutral i.e. pH = 7
they create exact copy of themselves. ‘Q’ is red, acidic, i.e. pH < 7
(b) Human egg or ovum contains only X chromosome \R>P>Q
whereas sperms contain either X or Y chromosome. (b) Solution ‘Q’ is acidic in nature.
During the fertilization, zygote may have XX heat
28. (a) 4Al + 3O2 → 2Al2O3.
chromosomes or XY chromosomes. The zygote
The product formed is aluminium trioxide.
having XX chromosome develop into a girl child
(b) 3Fe + 4H2O (steam) → Fe3O4 + 4H2
and XY into a boy.
The product obtained is iron(II) iron (III) oxide.
Practice Papers 491
(c) Ca + 2H2O → Ca(OH)2 + H2 (c) This is because at this height there is no

The bubbles of hydrogen stick to the surface of atmosphere which can scatter the white light.
metal that is why it floats. Therefore, the sky appears dark.
29. Excretory system in humans beings 32. (a) Factors on which magnetic field produced by
current - carrying circular coil depends are:
(i) Current flowing through the coil I
B ∝ I
(ii) Radius of circular coil r
Aorta 1
B ∝
r
(iii) Number of turns of wire in the circular
Vena cava
coil n
Urinary bladder B ∝ n
(b) Magnetic force exerted by the magnetic field
Urethra
produced by the straight current carrying
conductor causes the deflection in the needle.
(c) The north seeking pole is north pole and the
30. (a) (i) Concave mirror south seeking pole is south pole.
Light ray
33. (a) Carnivores will have the maximum concentration
of chemicals.
C F The phenomenon involved is biological
Principal P magnification. The progressive increase in
axis R the concentration of some non-biodegradable
chemicals such as DDT (which is banned in
India) through different trophic levels of a food
Concave chain is called biological magnification.
mirror (b) The use of synthetic chemicals like CFCs
(ii) Convex mirror (Chlorofluorocarbons) reduces the amount of
Light ray Concave ozone in the atmosphere. They are used as
mirror
refrigerants and in fire extinguishers.
Or
F The series of organisms that take part at various
P Principal axis C biotic levels form a food chain. At each trophic
level in a food chain, a large portion of the energy
is utilised for the maintenance of organisms which
R occur at that trophic level and energy is lost as heat.
In the above figures, the symbol represents As a result of this, organisms in each trophic level
as P → Pole; F → Principal focus; C → pass on less energy to the next trophic levels, than
Centre of curvature and R → Radius of they receive. The longer the food chain, the less is
curvature respectively. the energy available to the final member of the food
(b) Light from different points on the pencil, chain, which will be insufficient for their survival.
immersed in water refracts and appears to come
from a point A′ above the original position A.
Pencil N1
N2
Air
A′
N 1′ N 2′
A
Water
31. (a) Cornea: It is the transparent spherical membrane
covering the front of the eye and allows light to
enter into the eye.
(b) The pupil controls the amount of light entering
the eye.
34. (a) Carbon forms large number of compounds due O
to tetravalency and catenation.
Carbon cannot lose four electrons. As, high Functional group–Ketone —C—
O
energy is need ed. Carbon cannot gain 4 electrons.
As, 6 protons can’t hold 10 electrons. Carbon can CH3—C—H
share 4 electrons easily to form covalent bonds. O
H H O
Functional group–Aldehyde —C—H
(b) C2H5CHO ; H—C—C—C—H (c) H
H H C
Or
H—C C—H

(a) Those compounds which have same molecular
formula but different structural formula are called H—C C—H
isomers.
O C
(b) CH3—C—CH3 H
Benzene
35. (a) (i) Pollen tube Style

– It is the structure formed when pollen lands – It is middle elongated part of carpel.
on a suitable stigma.
– Pollen tube is formed from the pollen grain – Through it the pollen tube travels to reach the
and it travels down through style to reach the ovary.
ovary.
– It carries the gametes. – It has no role in pollination or in fertilisation.
(any one)
(ii) Fission in Amoeba Fission in Plasmodium
– Parent cell is divided into two small, nearly – Parent cell is divided into several small,
identical equal sized daughter cells. nearly equal sized daughter individuals.
– It shows binary fission. – It shows multiple fission.
(any one)
(iii) Fragmentation Regeneration
It is the mode of asexual reproduction in which It is the regeneration of lost body part and it is
the parent body splits into two or more fragments used as mode of reproduction in some organisms,
and each fragment develops into an organism e.g. Hydra and Planaria.
under favourable conditions, e.g., Spirogyra.
(b) (i) Two individuals as parents are involved to make the gametes which is the main reason for variation
development in the progeny.
(ii) During meiosis, the chromosomes on cross-over may combine differently leading to variation.
Or
(a) (i) Ovary
– It produces the female gametes or ova for reproduction.
– It also produces the female sex hormones.
(ii) Uterus
– Implantation of the embryo occurs in the lining of uterus and the complete development of foetus
occurs here.
– The contractions of the muscles of uterus help in child birth.
(iii) Fallopian tube
– It transports the ova from the ovary to uterus/womb.
– Fertilisation occurs in the fallopian tube.
Practice Papers 493
(b) Structure of placenta:

– Placenta is a disc-like structure embedded in the uterine wall.
– It contains villi on the embryo’s side and on the mother’s side there are blood spaces, which surround the
villi; this arrangement provides a large surface area for exchange of materials.
Functions of placenta:
– It transfers glucose and oxygen from the mother’s blood to the foetus.
– It also removes the wastes (CO2 and nitrogenous wastes) generated by the foetus to the mother’s blood.
36. (a) Two possible reasons are:
– excessive curvature of the eye lens.
– elongation of the eyeball.
(i) The image in this case, forms in front of the
retina, so the distant object looks blurred.
Parallel rays coming from Retina
distant object (at infinity)
I Image

(ii) The defect is corrected by using a concave
lens of suitable power placed in front of (c) Given: u = –20 cm, v = ?, m = –1
eye as shown below. It diverge the rays and For a spherical lens, linear magnification is given
forms a virtual image of distant object at by
far point of the myopic eye. These diverged v v
m= ⇒ –1 =
rays enter into the eye and form the image u − 20
on the retina. Thus, the concave lens shifts ⇒ v = + 20 cm
the image back onto the retina instead of Using lens formula,
in front of it and the defect is corrected. 1 1 1 1 1 1
= − = − =
Parallel rays from L Retina f v u 20 − 20 10
distant object (at infinity) ⇒ f = 10 cm
F I Image formed Therefore, the power of the given convex lens is
on retina calculated as
Virtual image
formed at F 1 100 cm
(Far point) Concave lens to P= = = + 10
correct the defect f (m) 10 cm
(b) f = – 5 m (since lens is concave) ⇒ P = + 10 D
1 1 37. (a) The chemical name and formula of marble
P = = = – 0.2 D is calcium carbonate CaCO3. When calcium
f (metre) –5
Or carbonate is heated, it decomposes to calcium
(a) The formation of image by a convex lens when oxide and carbon dioxide. The type of reaction
an object is placed in front of the lens between is thermal decomposition.
Heat
its optical centre and principal focus. CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)
Calcium oxide which is also called lime or quick
lime is used in the manufacture of cement. The
gas evolved is carbon dioxde. This can be tested
by freshly prepared lime water as CO2 turns
lime water milky.
(b) (i) The following observations help us to
determine whether a chemical reaction
has taken place or not:
• change in state
(b) According to the new cartesian sign convention, • change in temperature
the object distance ‘u’ and image distance ‘v’ • evolution of a gas
both are negative as they are measured opposite • formation of precipitate
to the direction of incident ray. The object (ii) SO 2, NO 2 are spoiling Taj Mahal. Air
distance (u), image- distance (v) and the focal pollution and oil refinery of Mathura are
length (f) of a convex lens is in the above case sources of these gases.
are related as given below.
Or to cope with new changes so variations help a
(b) (i) The substance ‘X’ is quick lime, CaO person to survive.
(ii) CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2 Or
‘X’ (c) Variations – Differences shown by individuals of
(iii) Ca(OH)2 aq + CO2(g) → CaCO3(s) a species and also by the offsprings of the same
+ H2O(l) parents, e.g. free ear lobes or attached earlobes.
38. (a) ‘B’ Importance of variations
(b) Chromosomes (i) Variations produce new traits in an
(c) The minor difference or variations are due to the organism.
inaccuracy in DNA copying. (ii) Variations help individuals to get better
Variations take place in response to changes in adapted to the changing environment.
the environment. Variations enable a species (iii) Variations can lead to evolution and form
basis of heredity.
39. (a) The field lines inside the solenoid are in the form of parallel straight lines. This indicates that the magnetic
field is same at all points inside the solenoid, that is the field is uniform inside the solenoid.
(b) Clock face rule is used to determine the north-south polarities of an electromagnet.
(c) Similarities
(i) Both have North pole and South pole.
(ii) The magnetic field produced by them are identical.
(iii) At the axial position, the magnetic field is same in both cases.
Dissimilarities
(i) The swapping of poles of a solenoid can be done by changing the direction of current but cannot be
done in case of a bar magnet.
(ii) A solenoid produces a magnetic field only in the presence of a flowing current while bar magnet has a
permanent magnetic field.
(iii) The magnetic field outside the solenoid is very weak almost zero but not outside a bar magnet.
(any two)

Or
(c) Electromagnet Permanent magnet
– It is a strong magnet. – It produces weak magnetic field.
– Strength of the magnetic field can be changed. – Strength of the magnetic field cannot be changed.
– Polarity of the magnet can be changed. – Polarity of the magnet cannot be changed.
e.g. soft iron core when placed inside the coil of e.g. bar magnet.
a solenoid becomes a magnet.
(any two)
Practice Papers 495
2 PRACTICE PAPER
General Instructions: Same as Practice Paper 1.
SECTION–A (iii) decomposition of chlorine gas from silver

Select and write one most appropriate option out of the chloride
four options given for each of the questions 1–20. There (iv) oxidation of silver chloride
is no negative mark for incorrect response. (a) (i) only (b) (i) and (iii)
1. Observe the graph drawn between concentration of (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iv) only
H3O+ Vs pH and answer the given question: 4. On putting a few drops of an unknown liquid on
the pH strip as shown here, the colour of pH strip
changed to violet. The liquid taken is likely to be
A
Unknown liquid
[H3O+]
pH strip
Violet colour
(a) dilute hydrochloric acid

pH (b) dilute sodium hydroxide
This graph shows (c) water
(a) Concentration of H3O+ increases, pH of solution (d) dilute acetic acid
does not change 5. Metal cubes of same size were dropped in each beaker
(b) Concentration of H3O+ decreases, pH of solution containing dil. HCl.
increases What are the possible identities of the metal cubes
(c) Concentration of H3O+ and pH both decrease in the beaker?
(d) Concentration of H3O+ and pH both increase
2. Which one of the following processes involve dil. HCl dil. HCl dil. HCl
chemical reactions? Metal
(a) Storing of oxygen gas under pressure in a gas Metal Metal
cube
cube cube
cylinder A B C
(b) Liquefaction of air ‘A’ ‘B’ ‘C’
(c) Keeping petrol in a china dish in the open (a) Mg Fe Cu
(d) Heating copper wire in presence of air at high (b) Ag K Pb
temperature (c) Au Mg Ag
3. Which among the following statement(s) is (are) (d) Cu Mg Au
true? 6. When a burning candle is brought near the mouth
Exposure of silver chloride to sunlight for a long of a test-tube containing a gas, the gas in it burns
duration turns grey due to rapidly making a ‘pop’ sound. The gas is
(i) the formation of silver by decomposition of (a) hydrogen (b) oxygen
silver chloride (c) nitrogen (d) sulphur dioxide
(ii) sublimation of silver chloride
7. Which of the following represents saponification 12. According to diagram, the process of photosynthesis
reaction? will occur in
CaO
(a) CH3COONa + NaOH → CH4 + Na2CO3 Bell jar
H2SO4
(b) CH3COOH + C2H5OH → CH3COOC2H5
+ H2O
(c) 2CH3COOH + 2Na → 2CH3COONa + H2
(d) CH3COOC2H5 + NaOH → CH3COONa
+ C2H5OH
8. According to diagram, which of the following
produces bile juice? Watch-glass
containing A B
potassium
hydroxide (KOH)
(a) Leaf of plant A (b) Leaf of plant B
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
13. Which of the following ray diagrams is correct for the
ray of light incident on a concave mirror as shown
Liver Small in figure?
intestine
Pancreas
P
C F
(a) Gall bladder (b) Liver
(c) Pancreas (d) Small intestine
Figure
9. Four students, A, B, C and D, made the observations
given below, for the parts marked ‘X’ and ‘Y’ in this
diagram.
Y P P
C F 2 F F
Fig. A Fig. B
X
P P
C F C F
Student X Y
A Stoma Guard cell Fig. C Fig. D
B Guard cell Stoma
(a) Fig. A (b) Fig. B
C Epidermal cell Stoma (c) Fig. C (d) Fig. D
D Stoma Epidermal cell 14. A concave mirror gives virtual, erect and enlarged
The correct record, out of these, is that of the student image of the object. The position of the object is
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (a) At infinity (b) Between F and C
10. A Mendelian experiment consisted of breeding tall (c) Between P and F (d) At F
pea plants bearing violet flowers with short pea 15. A convex mirror used for the rear view on an
plants bearing white flowers. In the progeny all bore automobile has a focal length of 2.5 m. A car is
violet flowers, but almost half of them are short. This located at a distance of 4 m from the mirror.
suggests that the genetic make-up of the tall parent In the above scenario the sign that should be assigned
can be depicted as to f and u is
(a) TTWW (b) TTww (a) u positive, f negative (b) f positive, u negative
(c) TtWW (d) TtWw (c) f and u are positive (d) f and u negative
11. The brain is responsible for 16. For the refraction of a ray of light through a glass
(a) thinking. prism, the path of ray of light is shown. The refracted
(b) regulating the heart beat. ray is represented by
(c) balancing the body.
(d) all of these
Practice Papers 497
(a) PQ (b) LM (c) RS (d) PM

Q. no 17 to 20 are Assertion – Reasoning based questions. (a) Identify the organisms and their mode of
These consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and reproduction.
Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the (b) Write one difference between the modes of
appropriate option given below: reproduction.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation Or
of A. Look at the given figure showing the formation of
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct new plants.
explanation of A. (a) Identify the plant and its mode of reproduction.
(c) A is true but R is false. (b) Explain this mode of reproduction.
17. Assertion (A): The HCl gas shows acidic behaviour
in the water.
Reason (R): The pH of dry HCl gas is 1.5.
18. Assertion (A): Bread tastes sweet on mastication.
Reason (R): Salivary amylase converts starch into 25. Name the kind of lens that can form:
sugar. (a) Real, inverted and diminished image.
19. Assertion (A): Amoeba reproduced by fission. (b) Real, inverted and enlarged image.
Reason (R): All unicellular organisms reproduced 26. DDT was sprayed in a lake to regulate breeding of
by asexual method. mosquitoes. How would it affect the trophic levels
20. Assertion (A): Conductors allow the current to flow in the following food chain associated with a lake?
through themselves. Justify your answer.
HAWK
Reason (R): Conductors have free charge carriers.
LARGE FISH
SECTION–B
SMALL FISH
Q. no. 21 to 26 are Very Short answer questions. PLANKTON
21. Carbon has four electrons in its valence shell. Which AQUATIC ENVIRONMENT
type of compounds can be formed by carbon atom
and why? Give any one example of such compounds.
Or
22. “The chromosomes number of the sexually In the following food chain, vertical arrows indicate
reproducing parents and their offspring is the same.” the energy lost to the environment and horizontal
Justify this statement. arrows indicate energy transferred to the next trophic
23. How is the equal genetic contribution of male and level. Which one of the three vertical arrows (A, C
female parents ensured in the progeny? and E) and which one of the two horizontal arrows
24. Look at the given figure showing reproduction. (B and D) will represent more energy transfer? Give
reason for your answer.
A C E
B D
Green Plants Deer Tiger

(Producers) (Herbivore) (Carnivore)
SECTION–C (ii) is a long tube which collects urine from
Q.no. 27 to 33 are Short answer questions. kidney.
27. Complete the following equations: (iii) store urine until it is passed out.
(a) CH4 + O2 → 1
30. A real image, th size of object is formed at a
(b) C2H5OH
Hot Conc. H 2 SO 4 5
(c) CH3COOH + NaOH → distance of 18 cm from a mirror. What is the nature
of mirror? Calculate its focal length.
28. Write balanced chemical equations for the reactions
of 31. (a) Give an example in nature which shows that
(a) iron with dil H2SO4. (b) calcium with dil. HCl. sunlight may be made of different colours.
(c) potassium with water. (b) Name the phenomena due to which we get light
from the sun before sunrise.
29. What is blood pressure? How it is measured? Give (c) Which component of white light is least scattered
one difference between systolic pressure and diastolic by fog or smoke?
pressure.
Or 32. For the current carrying solenoid as shown below,
(a) Define excretion. draw magnetic field lines and giving reason explain
(b) Name the basic filtration unit present in the that out of the three points A, B and C at which point
kidney. the field strength is maximum and at which point it
(c) Draw excretory system in human beings and is minimum.
B
label the following organs of the excretory
system which perform following functions: C A
(i) form urine.
I I
33. (a) ‘Improvements in our lifestyle have resulted in greater amounts of waste material generation’. Give two
examples to justify the given statement.
(b) Make a simple food chain from the following organisms:
Snake Rabbit Grass Hawk

SECTION–D (b) How is washing soda prepared from baking
Q.no. 34 to 36 are Long answer questions. soda? Give balanced chemical equations.
34. (a) What will be the pH of salt formed by a 35. (a) What is ATP? What is its use?
(i) weak acid and strong base? (b) How does smoking affect the health of a person?
(ii) strong acid and strong base? (c) Describe the circulatory system of a fish.
(b) 15 mL of water and 10 mL of H2SO4 are to be Or
mixed in a beaker. (a) Name the process and explain the type of
(i) Explain the method to be followed. nutrition found in green plants. List the raw
(ii) Name the process. materials required for this process. Give
(c) Write chemical equations when sulphur dioxide chemical equation for the mentioned process.
is passed through (b) Write three events that occur during this process.
(i) water (ii) lime water 36. When a high resistance voltmeter is connected
Or directly across a resistor its reading is 2 V. An electric
(a) Substances pH value cell is sending the current of 0.4 A, (measured by an
A 7.0 ammeter) in the electric circuit in which a rheostat
B 14.0 is also connected to vary the current.
C 4.0 (a) Draw an equivalent labelled circuit for the given
data.
D 2.0
(b) Find the resistance of the resistor.
Identify A, B, C and D from the following: (c) Name and state the law applicable in the given
lemon juice, distilled water, tomato juice, case. A graph is drawn between a set of values
concentrated NaOH solution of potential difference (V) across the resistor
Practice Papers 499
and current (I) flowing through it. Show nature (b) Define reducing agent.
of graph thus obtained. (c) Identify the oxidising agents in the following
Or reactions:
(a) Mention the effect of electric current on which (i) Pb3O4 + 8HCl → 3PbCl2 + Cl2
the working of an electrical fuse is based. + 4H2O
(b) Draw a schematic labelled diagram of a domestic (ii) 3MnO2 + 2Al → 3Mn + Al2O3
circuit which has a provision of a main fuse, Or
meter, one light bulb and a socket. (c) Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s)
(c) Explain the term overloading of an electric
Is it redox reaction? Which substance is getting
circuit.
(i) oxidised (ii) reduced?
(d) Cable of each electrical device has three wires
inside it, which have insulation of three different 38. Vegetative propagation refers to the development
colours. State the significance of each colour. of new plants from vegetative parts (roots, stem or
SECTION–E leaves) of an existing plant. It is generally preferred
for growing those plants which cannot produce their
Q.no. 37 to 39 are Case-based/Data-based questions
seeds or those which produce non-viable seeds (or
with 2 to 3 short sub-parts. Internal choice is provided
in one of these sub-parts. seeds with prolonged period of dormancy). It is
cheaper, easier and more rapid method of propagation
37. Redox reactions are reactions in which oxidation
in plants than growing plants from their seeds.
and reduction take place simultaneously. Oxidation
(a) Which parts become a new plant in vegetative
involves loss of electrons, addition of O2, removal of
H2. Reduction involves gain of electrons, removal of propagation?
O2, addition of hydrogen. Metals are good reducing (b) State the method used for growing jasmine plant.
agent where as non-metals are good oxidising agents. (c) State two disvantages of vegetative propagation.
Metals can lose electrons easily to form cations. Or
Non-metals gain electrons to form anions. (c) Name the most suitable method of raising a
(a) Out of Na, Fe, O2, Zn, which is good oxidising banana plant. Is the reproduction sexual or
agent? asexual?
39. Circuits consisting of just one battery and one load resistance are very simple to analyse, but they are not often
found in practical applications. Usually, we find circuits where more than two components are connected together
in different combinations. These combinations of resistors put the limit on the current that flow through the circuit.
After performing the experiments using two different types of circuit arrangements, the following observations
were made by them and find the resistance using Ohms law.
Number of Voltmeter reading in Ammeter reading V
Resistor Used R= (in ohm)
Observation Volt (V) in ampere (A) I
(a) 0.01 0.01 1.0
R1
(b) 0.02 0.02 1.0
(a) 0.06 0.03 2.0
R2
(b) 0.08 0.04 2.0
(a) 0.03 0.01 3.0
Ist combination of R1 and R2
(b) 0.06 0.02 3.0
(a) 0.03 0.045 0.66
IInd combination of R1 and R2
(b) 0.06 0.09 0.66
(a) From observation, which combination represents series and parallel combination of the resistor R1 and R2?
(b) You will plot V vs I for each of the four circuits on one graph. What value should each slope have?
(Note: I on X-axis and V on Y-axis)
(c) Do you think the bulbs in the parallel circuit or the series circuit will burn brighter? Given reason.
Or
(c) Three V-I graph are drawn individually for two resistors and their series combination C
is shown below. Which one represents the graph for series combination of the other
B
two? Give reason for your answer.
V A
I
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b) Or
5. (a) Q Mg is more reactive than Fe. Copper is less (a) The plant is Bryophyllum and the mode of
reactive than hydrogen. reproduction is vegetative propagation by leaf.
6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (a) (b) Bryophyllum bears buds in the notches present
along with the margin of their levels. These
10. (c) Genetic make-up of the tall plant can be depicted
buds develop into plantlets under favourable
as TtWW.
conditions. When leaves fall on the grounds,
11. (d) The brain is responsible for thinking, regulating plantlets and buds develop into new plants.
the heart beat and balancing the body as well.
25. (a) Convex lens (b) Convex lens
12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (b)
26. • DDT being a non- biodegradable pesticide will
16. (b)
enter the food chain from the first trophic level
17. (c) A is true but R is false. i.e Plankton.
18. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct • Non – biodegradable pesticides accumulate
explanation of A. progressively at each trophic level. This
19. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct phenomenon is known as biological magnification.
explanation of A. • HAWK will have the highest level of pesticide.
20. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct Or
explanation of A. A will represent more energy transfer as compared
21. Carbon cannot lose 4 electrons because very high to C and E.
energy is needed. Carbon can not gain 4 electrons B will represent more energy transfer as compared
because 6 protons cannot hold 10 electrons. Carbon to D.
can share four electrons to form covalent bonds. The When green plants are eaten by primary consumers, a
example of such type of compounds is methane(CH4). great deal of energy is lost as heat to the environment,
22. Chromosomes are the structures that bear the DNA some amount goes into digestion and in doing work
or genes; they carry the DNA or genes to the progeny and the rest goes towards growth and reproduction.
cells. An average of 10% of the food eaten is made available
– There are special lineages of cells in the sexually– for the next level of consumers. This loss of energy
reproducing organisms. takes place at every trophic level.
– These cells undergo a special type of cell division, (Alternatively accept: In accordance with 10% law
called meiosis; consequently, the germ cells formed of transfer of energy in a food chain only 10% of
have only half the number of chromosomes as the energy available at one trophic level is transferred
parent cell. to the next trophic level.)
– When two such germ cells (with half the number 27. (a) CH4(g) + 2O2 (g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)
of chromosomes) fuse, a zygote/new individual is Hot Conc. H SO
2 4
(b) C2H5OH CH2==CH2 + H2O
formed with the same number of chromosomes as
(c) CH3COOH + NaOH → CH3COONa + H2O
the parent organism.
28. (a) 3Fe(s) + H2SO4(dil.) → Fe3SO4(aq) + H2(g)
23. During sexual reproduction, a female gamete having
23 chromosomes fuses with a male gamete having (b) Ca(s) + 2HCl(dil.) → CaCl2(aq) + H2(g)
23 chromosomes to form zygote. Zygote is a diploid 29. Blood Pressure: It is the force that blood exerts
which contains 23 chromosomes from mother and against the wall of a vessel. This pressure is much
23 chromosomes from father. In this way an equal greater in arteries than in veins.
genetic contribution of male and female parents is It is measured by using an instrument called
ensured in the progeny. sphygmomanometer.
24. (a) Binary Fission in Amoeba. The pressure of blood inside artery during contraction
Binary Fission in Leishmania. or ventricular systole is called systolic pressure and
(b) In Amoeba, splitting of the parent cell during pressure in artery during relaxation or ventricular
cell division can take place in any plane. diastole is called diastolic pressure. The normal
In Leishmania, binary fission occurs in a definite systolic pressure is about 120 mm of Hg and diastolic
orientation in relation to the whip like structure pressure is 80 mm of Hg.
at one end of the cell.
Practice Papers 501
Or (b) (i) Acid must be added dropwise to the

(a) Excretion is the biological process of removal beaker containing water slowly with
of harmful metabolic wastes from the body. constant cooling.
(b) Nephrons. (ii) Dilution
(c) (i) Kidney (c) (i) SO2 + H2O → H2SO3
(ii) Ureter (ii) SO2 + Ca(OH)2 → CaSO3 + H2O
(iii) Urinary bladder (White ppt.)
Or
(a) A – Distilled water, pH = 7
Left Kidney B – Concentrated NaOH solution, pH = 14
Right Kidney
C – Tomato juice, pH = 4.0
Ureter D – Lemon juice, pH = 2.0
(b) When the reaction of baking soda NaHCO3 takes
place in the presence of heat, sodium carbonate,
Urinary bladder water and CO2 are produced.
D
2NaHCO3 → Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2
Baking soda
Na2CO3 + 10H2O → Na2CO3 . 10H2O
–1 –v – (–18) Washing soda
30. m = = = ⇒ u = –90 cm
5 u u 35. (a) ATP stands for Adenosine tri phosphate. It is a
1 1 1 1 1 form of energy in the cell.
= + = +
f v u –18 –90 Use of ATP: It is used as the main energy source
\ f = –15 cm for metabolic functions.
Negative (–) sign indicates, it is concave mirror. (b) During smoking, a person breathes in nicotine
which interferes with the metabolic processes in
31. (a) Formation of rainbow
our body thus leading to improper functioning
(b) Atmospheric refraction
and diseases of organs.
(c) Red colour
(c) Fish have a simple circulatory system, which
32. Magnetic field lines due to current carrying consists of a two – chambered heart, blood and
solenoid blood vessels. They have a single circulation of
blood.
Or
(a) – Photosynthesis is the process.
A B – Green plants show autotrophic nutrition.
– The raw materials required for photosynthesis
S N are carbon dioxide and water and energy in
the form of sunlight.
+ – – The equation is as follows:
Chlorophyll
6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6CO2
Sunlight
(b) The three events in photosynthesis are
(i) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll.
Outside the solenoid magnetic field is minimum. At (ii) Conversion of light energy to chemical
the ends of solenoid, magnetic field strength is half energy and splitting of water molecules
to that inside it. So into hydrogen and oxygen.
Minimum – at point B; Maximum – at point A (iii) Reduction of carbon dioxide to
33. (a) • Changes in attitudes, which result into more use carbohydrates.
of disposable items like paper plates, plastic 36. (a) 2V
containers, etc. +
V –
• Changes in packaging, which result into more
waste like plastic.
R
(b) Food chain
Grass → Rabbit → Snake → Hawk
34. (a) (i) pH will be more than 7 – basic salt – + + –
(ii) pH will be 7 – Neutral salt A
Cell Rh
0.4 A
(b) Resistance of resistor is (iii) Green colour insulation wire – Earth
V 2 20 wire
R= = = =5W
I 0.4 4 Live wire is at higher potential of 220 V
Ohm’s law: When the physical conditions
(c) while neutral wire is at zero potential.
such as temperature etc. remain unchanged, So, potential difference between red and
the current flowing through the conductor is black insulation wire is 220 V.
directly proportional to the potential difference 37. (a) O 2 is oxidising agent, because it can gain
applied across the ends of the conductor, i.e., electrons.
I ∝ V or V ∝ I (b) The substances which can lose electrons are
V
⇒ = constant reducing agents.
I (c) (i) Pb3O4 (ii) MnO2
⇒ V = IR Or
where R is constant of proportionality and is (c) Yes, it is redox reaction (i) Zn is getting oxidised
called resistance of the wire. to Zn2+ (ii) Cu2+ are getting reduced to Cu.
Since current varies linearly with potential
38. (a) Root, stem and leaves
difference, the graph between V and I will
(b) Artificial method of vegetative propagation like
be linear in nature as shown.
V layering is used for growing jasmine plant.
(c) (i) No genetic variation is created.
(ii) Continued vegetative propagation can
lead to loss of vigour.
Or
(c) The most suitable method of raising a banana
plant is vegetative propagation. This mode of
0 I reproduction is asexual.
Or
39. (a) Ist combination of R1 and R2 represents a series
(a) Heating effect of electric current. combination while IInd combination represents
(b) Domestic circuit wiring consists of a main parallel combination of resistors.
fuse, meter, one light bulb and a socket. (b) The slope of each plot of V vs I has the same
value of resistance of the resistor R as shown
in table.
(c) In a series circuit, the voltage is distributed
among all of the bulbs whereas in parallel
circuit the voltage for each bulb is the same as
the applied voltage in the circuit. So, the bulbs
(c)
The flow of large amount of current through in parallel are brighter than bulbs in series.
the circuit beyond its bearing capacity due to Or
use of many high power rating devices at the (c) In series, the resistance are added. Also, slope of
same time is called overloading. given V-I graph gives the resistance. More the
(d) Significance of insulation colour: slope of the line, more will be the resistance of
(i) Red colour insulation wire – Live wire the resistor. Hence graph ‘C’ represents series
(ii) Black colour insulation wire – Neutral combination of the other two.
wire
Practice Papers 503
3 PRACTICE PAPER
SECTION–A In the beaker A is placed a small piece of copper and

Select and write one most appropriate option out of the in the beaker B is placed a small piece of zinc. It is
four options given for each of the questions 1–20. There found that a grey deposit forms on the zinc but not
is no negative mark for incorrect response. on the copper. It is concluded that
1. Four student- ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’ and D measured pH (a) zinc is most reactive metal followed by iron and
value of water, lemon juice and sodium bicarbonate copper
solution. The student who has expressed correct pH (b) zinc is most reactive metal followed by copper
values in decreasing order. and then iron
(a) Water > lemon juice > Sod. bicarbonate solution (c) iron is most reactive metal followed by zinc and
(b) Lemon juice > Water > Sod. bicarbonate solution copper
(c) Sod. bicarbonate solution > water > lemon juice (d) iron is most reactive metal followed by copper
(d) Water > Sod. bicarbonate solution > lemon juice and then zinc
2. In these reactions 6. Which among the following is not a base?
ZnO + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2O, (a) NaOH (b) KOH
ZnO + 2NaOH → Na2ZnO2 + H2O (c) NH4OH (d) C2H5OH
zinc oxide behaves as 7. Ethanol reacts with Na to form
(a) acidic oxide (b) basic oxide (a) CH3ONa + H2 (b) C2H5ONa + H2
(c) neutral oxide (d) amphoteric oxide (c) CH 3 ONa + H 2 O (d) C2H6ONa + H2O
3. Which option correctly tell us about olfactory 8. The largest gland which is associated with the
indicators? alimentary canal of human beings is
(a) Substances whose odour changes only in acidic (a) Salivary glands (b) Liver
medium. (c) Pancreas (d) Thyroid
(b) Substances whose odour changes only in basic 9.
medium.
(c) Substances whose odour never changes in acidic
or in basic medium.
(d) Substances whose odour changes in acidic or
basic medium.
4. When red litmus solution is added to lime water,
then its colour is:
(a) red (b) green
(c) blue (d) yellow
5.
Identify the colour of A.
(a) Green (b) Bluish-black
FeSO4 FeSO4
(c) Yellow (d) Black
Copper Zinc
10. Mendel selected garden pea plant for hybridisation
(A) (B) experiments for which of the following reasons?
Two beakers A and B contain iron sulphate solution. I. Pea plants have short life cycle and are easy to
maintain.
II. Pea plants are cross pollinating plants. Q. no 17 to 20 are Assertion – Reasoning based questions.
III. The flowers of pea plants are unisexual. These consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and
IV. P ea plants have distinct, easily observable Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the
contrasting traits. appropriate option given below:
(a) I, II and IV (b) I, III and IV (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
(c) I and III (d) I and IV of A.
11. Swallowing, coughing, sneezing and vomiting is (b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct
explanation of A.
controlled by
(a) Reflex action (b) Fore brain
(c) Mid brain (d) Hind brain
17. Assertion (A): Ammonium hydroxide is weak base.
12. Which of the following is the part of female Reason (R): Phenolphthalein becomes pink in
reproductive system where the egg is fertilized? NH4OH but becomes colourless if kept for long time.
(a) Uterus (b) Vagina
18. Assertion (A): Acquired trait cannot be passed on
(c) Oviduct (d) Cervix
from one generation to next generation.
13. Reciprocal of focal length in metres is known as the Reason (R): Inaccuracy during DNA copying of
____________ of a lens. acquired trait is minimum.
(a) focus (b) power 19. Assertion (A): Brain is a delicate organ which is
(c) power of accommodation protected from injury
(d) far point Reason (R): Only the bony box protects the brain
14. The observation(s) that can be observed on the moon from any shock.
is 20. Assertion (A): The value of f in a concave mirror is
(a) sun appears dark taken as –ve and in a convex mirror, it is taken as +ve.
(b) sun appears pure white Reason (R): All distances measured to the right of the
(c) sky of moon look like that of earth origin are taken as +ve and those measured along the
(d) all of them left of the origin are taken as –ve.
15. When a person uses a convex lens as a simple SECTION–B
magnifying glass, the object must be placed at a distance.
Q. no. 21 to 26 are Very Short answer questions.
21. Name the type of chemical reaction represented by
O the following equation:
F1 F2 (a) CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2
heat
(b) 2Pb(NO3)2 → 2PbO + 4NO2 + O2
Or
(a) less than one focal length
What is meant by:
(b) more than one focal length (a) Oxidation reaction. (b) Reduction reaction.
(c) less than twice the focal length
Write balanced chemical equation for each reaction.
(d) more than twice the focal length
16. 22. Name two main parts of hind brain and state the
Screen functions of each.
23. Male tall pea plant was cross pollinated with female
short pea plant, all the plants of progeny were tall
1
2
plants, when 100 tall plants of F1 generation were self
3 pollinated, short plants also appeared in F2 generation.
4 How many short pea plants were produced? Explain
5
6 with suitable reason.
7
Which of the following statement is correct about
above diagram?
(a) The colour at position marked 5 is similar to
the colour of gold metal.
(b) The colour at position marked 2 has longer
wavelength than 1.
(c) The colour at position marked 7 is violet.
(d) The colour at position marked 1 in traffic signal Tall Plant × Short Plants All Tall Plants
indicates that vehicles must go. Parents F1 Progeny
Practice Papers 505
24. Draw the structure of a nephron and level the

following parts:
Glomerulus, Bowman’s capsule, Renal artery.
25. (a) Redraw the diagram given below in your answer
book and show the direction of the light ray after solution of sodium
reflection from the mirror. sulphate

solution of barium
chloride
(b) A convex lens of focal length 25 cm is placed in (B)

contact with concave lens of focal length 50 cm. (a) How will you differentiate between these
Calculate. reactions in the set up (A) and (B)?
(i) Power of the combination (b) Write one more example of each only in the
(ii) Focal length of the combination form of a chemical equation.
Or 28. What happens when ‘X’ reacts with H2 in presence of
(a) Why does a pencil appear bent and short when Ni or Pd to form ‘Y’? ‘Y’ on reaction with chlorine
immersed in water? in presence of sunlight gives ‘Z’. Identify X, Y and
(b) A convex lens produces a real and inverted image Z. What type of reaction is Y to ‘Z’?
2.0 times magnified at a distance of 20 cm from 29. Draw neat diagram of human brain and label on it
the lens. Calculate the focal length of the lens. the following parts:
26. (a) What do you call the functional unit of (a) Midbrain (b) Pituitary gland
environment which comprises both living and 30. (a) What will be the resistance between A and B in
non-living components? the given figure?
(b) What will be the impact on ecosystem A
20 W
if microorganisms are removed from the R4
environment? 10 W 10 W 20 W
R1 R2 R3
SECTION–C
B
Q.no. 27 to 33 are Short answer questions.
(b) The fuse used for domestic purposes are rated as
27. A student observes the reactions taking place in 1A, 2A, 3A, 5A, 10A etc. Calculate and select
(A) and (B). Among other changes, he observed the the fuse for operating 1 kW power at 220 V line.
change in colour in (A) and formation of insoluble (c) Why does the cord of an electric heater not glow
solid in (B) set up. while the heating element glows?
31. What is scattering of light? Why is the colour of the
clear sky blue? Explain.
Stand
32. (a) Describe activity with labelled diagram to show
that a current carrying conductor experience a
Test tube
force in a magnetic field.
Thread
(b) State the rule to determine the direction of force.
Copper sulphate Or
solution What is short circuiting? State one factor/condition
Iron nail that can lead to it. Name a device in the household
that acts as a safety measure for it. State the principle
of its working.
33. (a) What will happen to the dead plants, animals
and the garbage in the absence of decomposers?
(A) (b) Will the natural replenishment of the soil take
place even if micro-organisms are not there.
SECTION–D (b) Two electric circuits I and II are shown below
R1 R2 R3
Q.no. 34 to 36 are Long answer questions.
34. (a) Your mother prepared a cake for you but you
found that the cake was bitter in taste. Which
ingredient has she added which made the cake
bitter? Suggest what she would have added in + –
the dough of the cake. Give reason. Write one
V
more use of this compound. (I)
(b) A student observes that a young child while R1
playing on the swing is stung by a wasp. She R2
started crying. Her teacher immediately applied
some white paste on the stung area. Name the R3
white substance and why did her teacher apply
it on the affected area?
(c) Identify the acid and the base whose combination + –
forms the common salt that you use in your food.
V
Write its formula and chemical name. What will (II)
be the pH of this salt? (i) Which of the two circuits has more
Or resistance?
(a) Identify the substance that is used to prepare (ii) Through which circuit more current
false ceilings and used by doctors for setting passes? Give reason.
fractured bones. How is this substance prepared? (iii) In which circuit, the potential difference
What happens when it is mixed with water and across each resistor is same?
allowed to stand? (iv) If R1 > R2 > R3, in which circuit more
(b) Fresh milk has a pH of 6. How do you think heat will be produced in R1 as compared
the pH will change as it becomes sour? Explain. to other two resistors? Given reason.
Why sour substances should not be kept in brass Or
and copper vessels? Draw magnetic field lines produced around a current
(c) The colour of copper sulphate crystals changes carrying straight conductor passing through a
on heating. Explain why? cardboard. Name, state and apply the rule to mark the
35. (a) Draw a sectional view of human female direction of these field lines. How will the strength
reproductive system and label the parts where: of the magnetic field change when the point where
(i) eggs develop. magnetic field to be determined is moved away from
(ii) fertilization takes place the straight conductor? Give reason to justify your
(iii) fertilized egg gets implanted. answer.
(b) Describe, in brief, the changes that the uterus SECTION–E
undergoes:
(i) to receive the zygote Q.no. 37 to 39 are Case-based/Data-based questions
(ii) if zygote is not formed. with 2 to 3 short sub-parts. Internal choice is provided
Or in one of these sub-parts.
Answer the following: 37. The metal activity series lists metals according to
(a) Name any four asexual methods of reproduction. their reactivity. The more reactive metals are placed
(b) Explain the diagram by which an Amoeba at the top of the list. While the less reactive metals
reproduces. are placed near the bottom of the series. Less reactive
(c) Give one difference between fission and metals like silver, gold platinum occur in their native
fragmentation. form along with the earthy impurities. Element or
36. (a) Name an instrument that measures potential compounds which occur naturally in the earth’s
difference between two points in a circuit. Define crust are known as minerals. Minerals from which
the unit of potential difference in terms of SI unit metals can be extracted are known as ores. Different
of charge and work. Draw the circuit symbols techniques are used for obtaining metals falling in
for a (i) variable resistor, (ii) a plug key which metals of low reactivity, metals of medium reactivity
is closed one. and metals of high reactivity.
(a) Why is it necessary to remove the impurities
from ore before processing?
Practice Papers 507
(b) Name an ore of mercury and copper. people and cost 71–167 billion US dollars annually.
(c) Which reduction process is used to obtain Respiratory infections are ranked as the greatest
the following metals from their compounds? single contributor to the overall burden of disease
Explain. in the world.
(i) Metal X which is low in reactivity series (a) Write one difference between respiration in
(ii) Metal Y which is in the middle of plants and respiration in animals.
reactivity series (b) Define cilia.
(iii) Metal Z which is high in the reactivity (c) How are lungs designed to maximize exchange
series of gases?
Or Or
(c) During extraction of metals, electrolytic refining (c) ‘While breathing cycle is rhythmic, exchange
is used to obtain pure metals. Draw a well of gases is a continuous process.’ Justify.
labelled diagram to show electrolytic refining 39. A rainbow is one of the most spectacular natural light
of copper. Also write the reactions taking place shows observed in the sky. A number of scientist and
at cathode and anode. mathematician including Aristotle, Bacon, Theodoric,
38. Respiratory disease causes an immense worldwide Descartes, Newton, Young, Airy and Mie have
health burden. It is estimated that 235 million people worked on the explanation of various observations
suffer from asthma, more than 200 million people on rainbows.
have chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), To understand the formation of rainbow one should
65 million endure moderate-to-severe COPD, more actually study the refraction, internal reflection,
than 100 million adult population experience sleep dispersion and total deviation of white light by the
disordered breathing, 8.7 million people develop spherical water drop.
tuberculosis (TB) annually, millions live with A rainbow is produced when sunlight falls and gets
pulmonary hypertension and more than 50 million diverted to the eyes of the observer due to a large
people struggle with occupational lung diseases. At number of water droplets in the sky on a rainy day.
least 2 billion people are exposed to the toxic effects In addition to primary Rainbow there is a secondary
of biomass fuel consumption, 1 billion are exposed rainbow. It occurs in the same manner as the primary
to outdoor air pollution and 1 billion are exposed rainbow but due to two internal reflections. In nature
to tobacco smoke. Each year, 4 million people die we can observe only primary and secondary rainbows.
prematurely from chronic respiratory disease. Infants Higher order rainbows are never seen since they
and young children are particularly susceptible. Nine are weaker than (A) the background sky brightness
million children under 5 years of age die annually and (B) the light reflected from the outside surface of
lung diseases are the most common causes of these the drops and (C) the light transmitted through the
deaths. Pneumonia is the world’s leading killer of process with no internal reflections.
young children. Asthma is the most common chronic (a) What is refraction?
disease, affecting about 14% of children globally (b) What is the shape of a rainbow?
and is still rising. COPD is the fourth leading cause (c) List two essential conditions for observing a
of death worldwide and the numbers are growing. rainbow.
The most common lethal cancer in the world is lung Or
cancer, which kills more than 1.4 million people each (c) Why the red colour appears on the top of
year, and the numbers are growing. Respiratory tract rainbow?
infections caused by influenza kill 250000–500000
Scan to get Answers

4 PRACTICE PAPER
SECTION–A (b) Warning: Containers contains dilute acids and

Select and write one most appropriate option out of the bases.
four options given for each of the questions 1–20. There (c) Warning: Containers contains flammable
is no negative mark for incorrect response. substances.
(d) Warning: Containers contains explosive
1.
substances.
2. MnO2 + 4HCl → 2MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2
Identify the substance oxidized in the above equation.
(a) MnCl2 (b) HCl
(c) H2O (d) MnO2
3. When SO2 gas is passed through saturated solution
of H2S, which of the following reaction occurs?
What will be the basic information shown by given (a) SO2 + 2H2S → 2H2O + 3S
figure? (b) SO2 + 2H2S → H2O + 3S
(a) Warning: Containers contains concentrated acids (c) SO2 + H2S → H2O + S
and bases. (d) SO2 + H2O → SO3 + H2
4. From the given diagram choose the range of pH, which shows pH of acid rain correctly.
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
Range A Range B Range C

(a) Range A (b) Range B
(c) Range C (d) Range A and B both
5. Identify the test tube, in which displacement reaction occur.
NaCl MgCl FeSO4 AgNO3

solution solution solution solution
Copper metal Aluminium Silver Copper metal

Test tube (A) Test tube (B) Test tube (C) Test tube (D)
(a) Test tube (A) (b) Test tube (B) (c) Test tube (C) (d) Test tube (D)
6. When a drop of unknown solution X is placed on 7. Which of the following is correct electron dot
a strip of pH paper, a deep red colour is produced. structure for nitrogen molecule?
This sample is of (a) N N (b) N N
(a) NaOH
(b) HCl
(c) Water (c) N N (d) N N
(d) CH3COOH
Practice Papers 509
8. The diagram below represents 13. Calculate the current flows through the 10 W resistor
urinary system in human in the following circuit.
20 W
body.
Identify part A and part B
from given options. A 10 W
(a) A – Ureter, B – Urinary A B
bladder
(b) A – Ureter, B – Urethra 5W
(c) A – Urethra, B – Urinary B
bladder
(d) None of the above.
9. The diagram shows part of the human gas exchange ( )
6V
system
(a) 1.2 A (b) 0.6 A (c) 0.2 A (d) 2.0 A
14. Which of the following statement is not true?
(a) Soft iron core is used to make a permanent
W magnet.
X (b) The magnetic field inside a solenoid becomes
Y very strong when a soft iron core is inserted
Z
inside a current carrying solenoid.
(c) Soft iron core is used to make a temporary
magnet.
(d) Soft iron loses its magnetism easily.
15. While performing the experiment on tracing the path of
a ray of light passing through a glass slab as shown in
the given diagram, four students interpreted the results
What are W, X, Y and Z? as given below. Which one of the four interpretations
Bronchus Bronchiole Larynx Trachea is correct?
(a) W X Z Y
(b) X Z Y W
(c) Y W X Z
(d) Z Y W X
10. Mendel confirmed that the F2 generation have a (a) ∠r > ∠e (b) ∠r = ∠e
1 : 2 : 1 ratio of TT, Tt and tt trait combinations, (c) ∠i = ∠r (d) ∠i > ∠r
what would be the phenotypes of the parents at the 16. The magnitude of magnetic field produced by a
first place? straight wire carrying current at a point is
(a) TT and Tt (b) Tt and Tt (a) directly proportional to the current passing in
(c) TT and tt (d) Tt and tt the wire.
11. Which of the following acts as both endocrine and (b) inversely proportional to the current passing in
exocrine glands? the wire.
(a) Adrenal (b) Pituitary (c) directly proportional to the distance from the
(c) Ovaries (d) Pancreas wire.
12. Most of the multicellular organisms cannot divide cell (d) All of the above
by cell. They need a complex method of reproduction Q. no 17 to 20 are Assertion – Reasoning based questions.
as These consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and
(a) multicellular organisms have specialized cells. Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the
(b) specialised cells are organised as tissues. appropriate option given below:
(c) tissues are organised into organ systems which (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
are placed at definite positions in the body. of A.
(d) tissues are organised into organs which are placed (b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct
at definite positions in the body. explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false. X Y
V –
17. Assertion (A): Combustion reaction is also called +
exothermic oxidation reaction. –
Reason (R): In a combustion reaction O2 is added A
+
and heat is released.
18. Assertion (A): The sex of a new born individual is –
+
always genetically determined.
Reason (R): Snails can change their sex depending (a) In which combination both the resistors R1 and
on the temperature at which the fertilized eggs are R2 are connected?
kept. (b) What would be the average value of ratio V/I in
19. Assertion (A): The act of expelling the undigested the observation recorded in the above circuit?
food from the large intestine is called excretion. 26. We often observe domestic waste decomposing in
Reason (R): The exit of undigested food is controlled the bylanes of residential colonies. Suggest ways to
by anal sphincter. make people realize that the improper disposal of
20. Assertion (A): A magnet exerts force on a current waste is harmful to the environment.
carrying conductor kept in its field. Or
Reason (R): No Force acts on the magnet itself due to Government of India is imposing ban on the use of
polythene bags for shopping. List four advantages
the conductor as its field much stronger as compared
of using cloth or jute bags over polythene bags.
to that produced by current carrying conductor.
SECTION–B
21. Give differences between displacement and double
displacement reactions.
Or
What is observed when carbon dioxide is passed
through (a) water (b) lime water? Also write the
chemical equation for the reactions that take place.
22. Different parts of brain are associated with specific SECTION–C
functions. Name the part of human brain which
perform the following function:
(a) Sensation of feeling full 27. On adding dilute HCl to copper oxide powder, the
(b) Vomiting solution formed is blue-green.
(c) Picking up a pencil (a) Identify the compound formed which gives blue
(d) Riding a bicycle green colour to the solution.
(b) Write a balanced chemical equation.
23. What is lymph? How is composition of lymph (c) On the basis of above reaction, what should be
different from blood plasma? What is the direction the nature of copper oxide?
of its flow?
28. What are amphoteric oxides? Choose the amphoteric
24. List two functions of lymphatic system. oxides from amongst the following oxides:
25. The values of resistances marked on the two coils R1 Na2O, ZnO, Al2O3, CO2, H2O
and R2 are found to be correct. A student connects 29. Write three types of blood vessels. Give one important
the given resistors in the following manner : feature of each.
Or
List three characteristics of lungs which make it an
efficient respiratory surface.
30. Define the term absolute refractive index. The
absolute refractive index of diamond is 2.42. What
He then connects the terminals marked X and Y above is the meaning of this statement? Refractive indices
to the terminals marked X and Y in the circuit given of media A, B, C and D are given below:
below :
Practice Papers 511
Media Refractive index 36. (a) State the laws of refraction of light.
(b) The image of a candle flame placed at a distance
A 1.33
of 36 cm from a spherical lens is formed on a
B 1.44 screen placed at a distance of 72 cm from the
C 1.52 lens. Identify the type of lens and calculate is
D 1.65 focal length. If the height of flame is 2.5 cm,
In which of these four media is the speed of light find the height of the image.
(a) minimum and (b) maximum? Or
Find the refractive index of medium C with respect (a) Draw labelled ray diagrams for each of the
to medium B. following cases to show the position, nature
31. (a) Draw a ray diagram to explain the term angle and size of the image formed by a convex lens
of deviation. when the object is placed.
(b) Why does it take sometime to see the objects in (i) between its optical centre (O) and principal
dim light when you enter the room from bright focus (F)
sunlight outside? (ii) between F and 2 F
32. What is meant by solenoid? How does a current (b) How will the nature and size of the image formed
carrying solenoid behave? Give its main use. in the above two cases, (i) and (ii) change, if
33. How can we help in reducing the problem of waste the convex lens is replaced by a concave lens
disposal? Suggest any three methods. of same focal length?
(c) A concave lens of focal length 15 cm forms
SECTION–D an image 10 cm from the lens. How far is the
Q.no. 34 to 36 are Long answer questions. object placed from the lens?
34. A saturated organic compound ‘A’ belongs to the SECTION–E
homologous series of alcohols. On heating with conc.
H2SO4 at 443 K, it forms an unsaturated compound Q.no. 37 to 39 are Case-based/Data-based questions
‘B’ with molecular mass 28 u. The compound ‘B’ with 2 to 3 short sub-parts. Internal choice is provided
on addition of one mole of H2 in presence of Nickel in one of these sub-parts.
change to saturated hydrocarbon ‘C’. 37. The metal activity series lists metals according to
(a) Identify ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’. their reactivity. The more reactive metals are placed
(b) Write chemical equation for conversion of ‘A’to ‘B’. at the top of the list. While the less reactive metals
(c) What happens when ‘C’ undergoes combustion? are placed near the bottom of the series. Hydrogen
(d) Name one industrial application of hydrogenation (a non-metal) is inserted into the list as a reference
reaction. point. Metals, above hydrogen will react with dilute
(e) Name the products formed when compound ‘A’ acids to produce hydrogen while metals below
reacts with sodium. hydrogen will not. Metals carbonates and bicarbonates
Or react with dil. acids to liberate colourless, odourless
A carbon compound X turns blue litmus to red and gas with brisk effervescence which turns lime water
has a molecular formula C2H4O2. Identify X and milky. If excess of gas is passed through lime water,
draw its structure. Write chemical equation for the
milkyness disappears. Metallic oxides are basic in
reaction and name of the product formed in each
nature. Some metals form amphoteric oxides.
case when X reacts with
(a) Advitya observed if a small piece of calcium is
(a) ethanol in the presence of conc. H2SO4.
(b) sodium carbonate. added to water, it starts floating whereas metal
potassium added to water catches fire. What are
35. (a) Identify the asexual method of reproduction in the reasons for the above observations?
each of the following organisms:
(b) How are Na and K obtained from their ores?
(i) rose (ii) yeast (iii) planaria.
Name the process.
(b) What is fragmentation? Name a multicellular
(c) Give reasons
organism which reproduces by this method.
Or (i) Ionic compounds are solids and hard.
(a) Write the function of placenta in human females. (ii) Ionic compounds do not conduct
(b) List four ways of preventing pregnancy. State electricity in solid state, whereas they
two advantages of using such preventive conduct in molten state or in aqueous
methods. solution.
Or (b) Which condition is mainly required for F 2
(c) Give reasons generation?
(i) Metals like iron and aluminium are not (c) Mendel obtained four different combinations of
found in their native state in nature. shape and colour. Write those phenotypic ratio
(ii) Some metals do not displace hydrogen with its particular combination of shape and
from nitric acid. colour.
(iii) Give examples of two metals which evolve Or
hydrogen gas with dilute nitric acid. (c) Who is known as father of genetics and why?
38. Gregor Johann Mendel was an Austrian monk who 39. A compass needle gets deflected from its N–S
studied Science and Mathematics at the University of orientation when placed near a current carrying
Vienna. He conducted hybridisation experiments on conductor. The magnetic field produced around the
garden pea plant and arrived at laws of inheritance. conductor exerts a mechanical force on the needle and
On the other hand, Charles Darwin believed that sets it in motion. According to ampere, the magnet
organisms which can utilise natural resources better should also exert some force on the conductor which
than others have more chances of being successful is equal and opposite. The famous kicking wire
in the struggle for existence and better chances of experiment was performed which verified Ampere’s
survival. He could give a number of examples for assertion that when a current carrying conductor is
that but he could not explain why organisms become kept in external magnetic field, a force acts on it.
different. This would not have been the situation, if (a) The direction of force acting on current carrying
head seen the significance of Mendel’s experiments. conductor in external magnetic field is given by
But then, Mendel too did not notice Darwin’s work which rule?
as relevant to his. (b) Name the factors on which force acting on
(a) A scientist crossed the F1 generation of pure conductor depends.
breeding parents for round and wrinkled seeds (c) List two methods of producing magnetic fields.
and found the number of offsprings produced Or
is 12,420. Write the correct ratio of round seeds (c) Why do two magnetic field lines not intersect
and wrinkled seeds (As roundness of seeds is a each other?
dominant trait and wrinkled is recessive trait).
Scan to get Answers

Practice Papers 513
5 PRACTICE PAPER
SECTION–A
Select and write one most appropriate option out of the four options given for each of the questions 1–20. There
is no negative mark for incorrect response.
1. Four students used different ways of burning magnesium ribbon during an experiment as shown below. The
correct way has been followed by student:
Hand Test tube holder
(I) (II)
Bowl
Tongs
(III) (IV)
(a) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV
2. A student tests a sample drinking water and reports 4. A scientist in chemistry laboratory wants to make
its pH value as 6 at room temperature. Which one salt with pH = 5.5 using acid and base. The table
of the following might have been added in water? shows the acid and base present in laboratory.
(a) Calcium chloride 1 2 3 4 5
(b) Sodium chloride
HCl NaOH H2CO3 NH4OH CH3COOH
(c) Sodium bicarbonate
(d) Bleaching powder Which of the acid and base he shared use for the
reaction?
3. X + Y → Z (a) HCl and NaOH
In above reaction ‘X’ loses electrons ‘Y’ gains (b) H2CO3 and NaOH
electrons. Which of the following properties are not (c) HCl and NH4OH
shown by ‘Z’? (d) CH3COOH and NaOH
(a) Has high melting point 5. Four students were asked by their teacher to arrange
(b) Has low melting point the set up I-IV as given below and identify the gas
(c) Occurs as solid evolved in each case, if any.
(d) Conducts electricity in molten state
(a) Saprophytic nutrition (b) Parasitic nutrition
(c) Symbiotic nutrition (d) Autotrophic nutrition
9. Identify the gas that is evolved as gas bubbles in the
dilute HCl NaOH given diagram.
+
Na2CO3 Zinc
Gas bubbles
(I) (II)
Pond weed
dilute HCl NaOH Bright

+ sunlight
Zinc Na2CO3
Water
(III) (IV)
After observation, they arrived at the following (a) Carbon dioxide (b) Oxygen
inferences and recorded their observations in the (c) Nitrogen (d) Hydrogen
form of a table as given below: 10. Study carefully the given flow chart depicting cross
STUDENT I II III IV between plant having pink coloured flowers and white
coloured flowers.
A H2 No gas CO2 H2 Male plant with pink Female plant with
B CO2 H2 No gas CO2 coloured flowers white coloured
flowers
C CO2 H2 H2 No gas
D No gas CO2 CO2 H2 F1 generation A
Choose which student recorded the correct observation. Self pollination
(a) Student A (b) Student B
(c) Student C (d) Student D F2 generation B
6. Which vegetable is basic in nature? Which of the following is/are correct statement/s
(a) Tomato (b) Radish about ‘A’ and ‘B’?
(c) Carrot (d) Bitter gourd (a) ‘A’ depicts all plants with pink coloured
flowers.
7. When sodium hydrogen carbonate is added to
(b) ‘B’ depicts all plants with white coloured
ethanoic acid a gas evolves. Consider the following
flowers.
statements about the gas evolved?
(c) ‘A’ depicts plants with pink coloured
(A) It turns lime water milky.
flowers and white coloured flowers are in
(B) It is evolved with a brisk effervescence.
the ratio of 3 : 1.
(C) It has a smell of burning sulphur.
(d) ‘B’ depicts plants with pink coloured
(D) It is also by – product of respiration.
flowers and white coloured flowers are in
The correct statements are:
the ratio of 3 : 1
(a) (A) and (B) only (b) (B) and (D) only
(c) (A), (C) and (D) (d) (A), (B) and (D) 11. Look at the figure and observe the leaves of Mimosa,
which have been folded up. Which of the following
8. Choose the type of nutrition exhibited in given figure.
is true for the above statement?
(a) Phototropism (b) Photonasty

(c) Thigmotropism (d) Thigmonaty
Practice Papers 515
12.
A
(c) (d)
Identify A in the given diagram. 16. The path of a ray of light passing through a rectangular
(a) Pollen tube (b) Stigma glass slab was traced and angles were marked. Which
(c) Female germ cell (d) Style one out of the following is the correct representation
of an angle of incidence ‘i’, angle of refraction ‘r’ and
13. The image of a distant object is obtained on a screen angle of emergence ‘e’ as shown in the diagrams?
by using a concave mirror. The focal length of the
mirror can be determined by measuring the distance
between
(a) the object and the mirror
(b) the object and the screen
(c) the mirror and the screen
(I) (II)
(d) the mirror and the screen as well as that between
the object and the screen
14. A student showed the following traces of the path of
a ray of light passing through a glass prism.
(III) (IV)
(a) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV
(i) (ii) Q. no 17 to 20 are Assertion – Reasoning based questions.
appropriate option given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
(iii) (iv) of A.
The trace most likely to have been done correctly by (b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct
her, is: explanation of A.
(a) (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) (d) (iv) (c) A is true but R is false.
15. Parallel rays, from the top of a distant tree, incident (d) A is False but R is true.
on a concave mirror, form an image on the screen. 17. Assertion (A): Lead nitrate on thermal decomposition
Which of the given diagrams correctly shows the gives lead oxide, brown coloured nitrogen dioxide
formation of image of the tree? and oxygen gas.
Reason (R): Lead nitrate is soluble in water.
18. Assertion (A): In male reproductive system, transport
of sperm takes place in a fluid which also provide
nutrition.
Reason (R): Prostate glands and seminal vesicles
secret fluid in the vas deferens.
(a) (b)
19. Assertion (A): Aerobic respiration release less energy
as compared to anaerobic respiration.
Reason (R): Mitochondria is the power house of the
cell.
20. Assertion (A): The magnetic field inside a solenoid SECTION–C
is uniform. Q.no. 27 to 33 are Short answer questions.
Reason (R): The magnetic field lines inside a solenoid
are parallel. 27. (a) Write the chemical formula of washing soda.
What happens when crystals of washing soda
SECTION–B are exposed to air? Explain giving chemical
Q. no. 21 to 26 are Very Short answer questions. equation.
(b) Why is sodium carbonate called as washing
21. When you have mixed the solutions of lead(II) nitrate
soda?
and potassium iodide. What was the colour of the
precipitate formed and can you name the precipitate? 28. What is an oxidising agent? What happens when an
Write the chemical equation for the reaction. oxidising agent is added to propanol? Explain with
Or the help of a chemical equation.
On heating blue coloured powder of copper (II) 29. (a) Differentiate between Menarche and Menopause.
nitrate in a boiling tube, black copper oxide, O2 and (b) Write a short note on – Sexually Transmitted
a brown gas X is formed. Diseases.
(a) Identify the type of reaction and the gas ‘X’. 30. An object is kept at a distance of 18 cm, 20 cm,
(b) Write balanced chemical equation of the 22 cm and 30 cm respectively from a lens of power
reaction. + 5D.
22. Write one example each of the following tropic (a) In which case or cases would you get a
movements: magnified image?
(a) Positive phototropism (b) Which of the magnified image can be got on
(b) Negative phototropism a screen?
(c) Positive geotropism 31. A wire of resistance 5 W is bent in the form of a closed
(d) Negative geotropism circle. What is the effective resistance between the
23. Explain two types of respiration briefly. two points at the ends of any diameter of the circle?
24. Why did Mendel select pea plants for conducting his Or
experiments on inheritance? Two metallic wires A and B of same material are
connected in parallel. Wire A has length l and radius
25. How will the magnetic field produced at a point due
r, wire B has length 2l and radius 2r. Compute/
to a current carrying circular coil change if we:
Deduce the ratio of the total resistance of parallel
(a) increase the current flowing through the coil?
combination and the resistance of wire A.
(b) reverse direction of current through the coil?
Or 32.(a) How is the strength of magnetic field near a straight
State the function of ‘fuse’ in a circuit. How is it current-conductor
connected in the domestic electric circuit? (i) related to the strength of current in the
conductor?
26. Observe the picture of waste disposal given and write
(ii) is affected by changing the direction of
any two methods to reduce the problem of waste
flow of current in the conductor?
disposal.
(b) Why and when does a current carrying conductor
kept in a magnetic field experience force? List
the factors on which direction of this force
depends?
33. (a) What is ‘environmental pollution’?
(b) Distinguish between biodegradable and non-
biodegradable pollutants.
(c) Choose the biodegradable pollutants from the
list given below:
Sewage, DDT, radioactive waste, agricultural
waste.
Practice Papers 517
SECTION–D
34. In the following schematic diagram for the preparation of hydrogen gas as shown in the given figure, what would
happen if following changes are made?
(a) In place of zinc granules, same amount of zinc dust is taken in the test tube.
(b) Instead of dilute sulphuric acid, dilute hydrochloric acid is taken.
(c) In place of zinc, copper turnings are taken.
(d) Sodium hydroxide is taken in place of dilute sulphuric acid and the tube is heated.
Or
(a) What is chlor – alkali process? Give chemical equation of the reaction involved.
(b) Write any two uses of bleaching powder.
(c) Write equations to show the reaction between:
(i) acid and base
(ii) acid and hydrogen carbonates
35. (a) “Breathing cycle is rhythmic whereas exchange (a) Write the name and cause of the phenomenon
of gases is a continuous process.” Justify this observed.
statement. (b) Where else in nature is this phenomenon
observed?
(b) State the function of guard cells. What will (c) Based on this observation, state the conclusion
happen to guard cells and stomatal pore when which can be drawn about the constituents of
water flows to guard cells? white light.
(c) Where is blood oxygenated in fishes?
Or SECTION–E
(a) Explain the functioning of heart. Q.no. 37 to 39 are Case-based/Data-based questions
(b) What is the importance of double circulation? with 2 to 3 short sub-parts. Internal choice is provided
36. (a) Why is Tyndall effect shown by colloidal in one of these sub-parts.
particles? State four instances of observing the 37. Reactive metals displace hydrogen from dil. H2SO4
Tyndall effect. and dil. HCl but not dil. HNO3. Those metals which
(b) How is the eye defect of old person differing are less reactive than hydrogen do not displace
from myopia and hypermetropia? hydrogen from dilute acids. Conc. H 2SO 4 is an
Or oxidising agent. Dil. HNO3 is also an oxidising agent.
A narrow beam PQ of white light is passing through Copper does not react with dil. H2SO4 but it reacts
a glass prism ABC as shown in the diagram. with conc. H2SO4. Metals react with dil. HNO3 to
Trace it on your answer sheet and show the path of form NO and conc. HNO3 to give NO2, which is
the emergent beam as observed on the screen DE. acidic and brown in colour. Non-metals form acidic
A D
oxides.
(a) Generally, when metals are treated with mineral
Q acids, hydrogen gas is liberated but when metals
like manganese and magnesium are treated with
P nitric acid, hydrogen is not liberated. Why?
(b) Name one metal and one non-metal that exist
B C
E in liquid state at room temperature.
(c) Non-metals do not replace hydrogen from dilute Or
acids whereas metals replace hydrogen from (c) Which of the above contraceptive method are
dilute acids. Explain. used by males which also prevent sexually
Or transmitted diseases? Name two STDs caused
(c) Write equation for the reactions of: by the infection of bacteria.
(i) Al2O3 + 6HCl → 39. Electricity requires an electric path to flow and there
(ii) Fe + AgNO3 → are many conducting materials used for this purpose.
38. The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) targets There are non-conducting materials also which are
the immune system and weakens people’s defence used as insulation during working on live-lines.
systems against infections. As the virus destroys Permanent indoor wiring is responsible for bringing
and impairs the function of immune cells, infected electricity throughout your home. In house hold wiring,
individuals gradually become immunodeficient. switches, holders and sockets should be fixed on
Immunodeficiency results in increased susceptibility wooden/sunmica boards and blocks. Nowadays, there
to a wide range of infections, cancers and other are many semiconducting materials which are used
diseases that people with healthy immune systems to reduce the voltage and also drop the current flow.
can fight off. This will reduce our consumption of electrical energy.
The most advanced stage of HIV infection is acquired (a) In which combination household wiring is done?
immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), which can (b) What is the effective resistance between A and
take from 2 to 15 years to develop if not treated, B of the circuit given below?
A 4W 6W
depending on the individual. The symptoms of HIV
vary depending on the stage of infection. Though
people living with HIV tend to be most infectious
in the first few months after being infected, many
are unaware of their status until the later stages. In B
the first few weeks after initial infection people may (c) Write the equation relating power to voltage
experience no symptoms or an influenza-like illness and current, for an electrical resistance. Also,
including fever, headache, rash or sore throat. describe what physical form this dissipated
(a) Name one sexually transmitted disease caused energy usually takes.
by virus other than AIDS. Or
(b) What is contraception? (c) Calculate the energy consumed in kWh by
(c) Complete the given flow chart of methods of 1500 W electric geyser in 3 hrs in a day.
contraception.
Methods of Contraception
Mechanical Chemical IUCD D

barrier method
B
A Cervical cap Loop C Vasectomy Tubectomy
Scan to get Answers

Practice Papers 519
6 PRACTICE PAPER
SECTION–A I. II.
Select and write one most appropriate option out of the
four options given for each of the questions 1–20. There Vinegar Vinegar
1. Bleaching powder is used as a disinfectant for water
to: Na2CO3 Na2S
(a) Make water tastier
(b) Remove all the dirt from water III. IV.
(c) Make water germ-free
(d) Make water clear Vinegar Vinegar
2. On the basis of sequence of reactions, identify the
most and least reactive elements:
A + BX → AX + B …(i) NaOH NaHCO3
C + AY → CY + A …(ii)
(a) A, C (b) B, C (c) C, A (d) C, B
The matchstick will be extinguished in test tubes
3. A student added vinegar to test tubes I, II, III, IV (a) I and IV (b) II and III
and then introduced a burning matchstick, near the
(c) III and IV (d) I and II
mouth of the test tubes.
4. Four students performed reactions of zinc and sodium carbonate with dil. hydrochloric acid sodium hydroxide
and present their result as follows.
The (3) represent evolution of gas and ‘7’ represent no reaction.
Zn Na2CO3 Zn Na2CO3
A HCl 3 3 B HCl 3 7
NaOH 3 7 NaOH 3 3
Zn Na2CO3 Zn Na2CO3
C HCl 7 7 D HCl 3 3
NaOH 3 3 NaOH 7 7
The right set of observation is
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
5.
Which process is shown by given diagram?
(a) Removing water of crystallisation.
(b) Change copper sulphate crystals into liquid form.
(c) Hydrating copper sulphate crystals.
(d) None of the above
6. Iron fillings are added in four test tubes containing (b)
following aqueous solution :
ZnSO4, CuSO4, FeSO4 and Al2(SO4)3 respectively.
(A) (B)
ZnSO4 CuSO4
Fe Fe
(C) (D)
(c)
FeSO4 Al2(SO4)3
Fe Fe
Choose the test tube in which reaction will occour?
(a) Test tube (A) (b) Test tube (B)
(c) Test tube (C) (d) Test tube (D)
7. Vinegar is a solution of
(a) 50 % – 60 % acetic acid in alcohol
(b) 5 % – 8 % acetic acid in alcohol
(c) 5 % – 8 % acetic acid in water (d)
(d) 50 % – 60 % acetic acid in water
8. Adi drew the cross-section of a leaf but forgot to
label it fully. Help him to label it correctly.
A
10. In the list of organisms given below, those that

Air spaces
reproduce by the asexual method are
(i) banana (ii) dog (iii) yeast (iv) Amoeba
Guard cell (a) (ii) and (iv) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
C (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
11. Which of the following statement is true about sex
(a) A-Lower epidermis; B-Nucleus; C-Upper
of a child?
epidermis
(a) Type of chromosome received from father.
(b) A-Upper epidermis; B-Chloroplast; C-Lower
(b) Type of chromosome received from mother.
epidermis
(c) It depends on wish of the parents.
(c) A-Upper epidermis; B-Vacuole; C-Lower
(d) A boy has XX and girl has XY chromosome.
epidermis
(d) A-Lower epidermis; B-Chloroplast; C-Upper 12. Development of HIV infection to AIDS, if not treated,
epidermis takes
(a) 2 weeks to 4 weeks
9. Out of the four experimental set ups shown, which
(b) 1 year to 6 years
one will demonstrate that carbon dioxide is required
(c) 2 years to 15 years
for photosynthesis?
(d) 6 months to 18 months
(a)
13. Identify the correct ray diagram drawn by a student.
(a)
Practice Papers 521
(b) (c) A is true but R is false.

17. Assertion (A): Pure water is neutral.
Reason (R): The pH of solution is inversely
proportional to conc. of [H3O]+.
18. Assertion (A): Insulin regulates blood sugar level.
(c)
Reason (R): Insufficient secretion of insulin will
cause diabetes.
19. Assertion (A): When air is blown through lime water,
lime water turns milky.
Reason (R): Air contains 78% nitrogen and 21%
oxygen.
(d) All are correct. 20. Assertion (A): The rainbow is an example of the
14. The magnetic field at a point due to current carrying dispersion of sunlight by the water droplets present
conductor is directly proportional to in the atmosphere.
(a) resistance of the conductor. Reason (R): No other phenomenon of light occurs
(b) current flowing through the conductor. during the formation of rainbow.
(c) voltage applied across the conductor. SECTION–B
(d) distance of the point from the conductor.
15. Figure shows a ray of light as it travels from medium
A to medium B. Refractive index of the medium B 21. Write balanced chemical equations for the following
relative to medium A is reactions.
(a) Silver bromide on exposure to sunlight
45°
decomposes into silver and bromine.
45° Medium B (b) Sodium metal reacts with water to form sodium
30° hydroxide and hydrogen gas.
60°
Medium A Or
Name the reducing agent in the following reaction:
3 2 1 3MnO2 + 4Al → 3Mn + 2Al2O3
(a) (b) (c) (d) 2 State which is more reactive, Mn or Al and why?
2 3 2
22. State how concentration of auxin stimulates the cells
16. While performing the experiment on tracing the
path of a ray of light passing through a glass slab as to grow longer on the side of the shoot which is away
shown in the given diagram, four students interpreted from light?
the results as given below. Which one of the four 23. “The chromosomal number of the sexually producing
interpretations is correct? parents and their offspring is the same.” Justify this
statement.
24. How is the amount of urine produced in human
regulated?
Or
What are the methods used by the plants to get rid
of excretory products? Give any two methods.
(a) ∠r > ∠e (b) ∠r = ∠e 25. “A convex lens of focal length ‘f ’ can form a
(c) ∠i = ∠r (d) ∠i = ∠e magnified erect as well as inverted image.” Justify
Q. no 17 to 20 are Assertion – Reasoning based questions. this statement stating the position of the object with
These consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and respect to the lens in each case for obtaining these
Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the images.
appropriate option given below: 26. List two environment friendly practices or habits
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation which need to be followed by every member of
of A. family/ community. Explain how these practices will
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct support the “Save the Environment” mission.
explanation of A.
SECTION–C screen be placed, so that a sharp focused image
can be obtained? Find the size and nature of the
image.
27. (a) Observe the diagram and answer the following
31. What is a rainbow? Draw a labelled diagram to show
questions.
Glass-wool the formation of a rainbow.
soaked in 32. (a) What is overloading? State the causes of
Stand
water
Hydrogen gas overloading.
(b) State one way to reduce the overloading in your
Stand
domestic circuit.
Metal sample
Burner Delivery Water 33. You have been selected to talk on “ozone layer and its
tube protection” in the school assembly on ‘Environment
Day.’
(a) Why should ozone layer be protected to save
(i) Why glass wool soaked in water is taken the environment?
in the hard glass tube? (b) List any two ways that you would stress in your
(ii) What metal sample would have been taken talk to bring in awareness amongst your fellow
in the test tube? friends that would also help in protection of
(iii) Metal + Water → Metal hydroxide ozone layer as well as the environment.
+ Hydrogen + Heat SECTION–D
Does this chemical reaction hold good for
all metals? If no, why? Q.no. 34 to 36 are Long answer questions.
(b) Why is sodium metal kept immersed in kerosene 34. (a) Write the chemical name of the coating that
oil? forms on silver and copper articles when these
28. Tooth enamel is the hardest substance in our body. are left exposed to moist air.
(a) Name the compound it is made up of. (b) Explain what is galvanisation. What purpose is
served by it?
(b) At what pH of the mouth does it gets corroded?
(c) Define an alloy. How are alloys prepared? How
(c) State the role of bacteria in the mouth. Suggest
do the properties of iron change when:
a method to prevent tooth decay.
(i) small quantity of carbon,
29. (a) Label any four parts in the given diagram. (ii) nickel and chromium are mixed with it.
(b) What are the two functions represented in this Or
diagram? Translate the following statements into chemical
equations and then balance them.
(a) Hydrogen gas combine with nitrogen gas to
form ammonia gas.
(b) Hydrogen sulphide gas burns in air to give water
and sulphur dioxide gas.
(c) Barium chloride reacts with aluminium sulphate
to give aluminium chloride and a precipitate of
barium sulphate.
(d) Potassium metal reacts with water to give
potassium hydroxide and hydrogen gas.
(e) Manganese dioxide reacts with aluminium to
form aluminium trioxide and manganese metal.
Or 35. (a) Name the causative agent of the disease “Kala-
(a) Make a flow chart for the break down of glucose azar”. Show its mode of reproduction by a neat
by various pathways. diagram.
(b) Why do we get cramps after sudden activity? (b) Draw a diagram of human male reproductive
30. (a) A ray passing through the centre of curvature system and label the parts which:
of a concave mirror after reflection, is refracted (i) produce male germ cells.
back along the same path. Explain. (ii) transfers the sperms from testis to urethra.
(b) An object of size 3.0 cm is placed at 25 cm in (c) What name is given to the connecting chord
front of a concave mirror of focal length 15 between the developing embryo and the mother?
cm. At what distance from the mirror should a Write its two functions.
Practice Papers 523
Or 6. Ethanoic acid 118°C

(a) Which is the most basic event in reproduction?
7. Propanoic acid 141°C
How does it happen?
(b) What is vegetative propagation? List the two 8. Butanoic acid 164°C
advantages. Name the vegetative part by which (a) Why do acids have higher boiling points than
the following plants propagate. alcohol?
Rose, Jasmine, Bryophyllum (b) Why does ethanol have higher boiling point than
(c) What happens when pollen grains land on the CH3OH?
compatible stigma of a flower. Draw well labelled (c) What happens when 5% alkaline solution of
diagram of germination of pollen on stigma. KMnO4 is added to ethanol?
Or
36. (a) A student places a bar magnet on a sheet of white (c) How are esters formed? Give One of their use.
paper and sprinkles some iron filings uniformaly
around it. After tapping the board gently, it was 38. If we cross-bred tall (dominant) pea plant with pure-
observed that the iron filings arrange themselves bred dwarf (recessive) pea plant, we will get plants of
in a particular pattern. F1 generation. If we now self-cross the pea plant of
(i) Why do the iron filings arrange in a F1 generation, we obtain pea plants of F2 generation.
particular pattern? (a) What name is given to such type of cross?
(ii) Why do iron filings crowd at the ends of (b) Make a flow diagram cross between the parents
the magnet? showing F1 and F2 generation.
(iii) What do the lines along which the iron (c) Write the genotype of (i) parents (ii) F 2
filings align represent? generation.
(b) Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines through Or
and around a current carrying solenoid. What (c) If we take round and wrinkled seeds, what will
does the magnetic field pattern inside the be the phenotypic ratio and genotype ratio of
solenoid indicate? State two ways by which F1 and F2 generation?
strength of electromagnet can be increased. 39. In the figure given below Resistors R1, R2, R3, R4 and
Or R5 are connected in combination as shown. A 12 V
(a) Explain why there are two separate circuits one battery is connected to the arrangement.
for high power rating appliances and other for R1 = 10 W
low power rating appliances.
(b) A domestic circuit has 5 A fuse. How many bulbs + R2 = 40 W
of rating 100 W, 220 V can be safely used in 12 V +
this circuit? Justify your answer. – A
–
SECTION–E R3 = 30 W
Q.no. 37 to 39 are Case-based/Data-based questions R4 = 20 W

with 2 to 3 short sub-parts. Internal choice is provided R5 = 60 W
in one of these sub-parts.
(a) If current through R1 and R2 combination is IA
37. Observe the table of boiling points of alcohols and and current through R3, R4 and R5 combination
carboxylic acids. Study this table and answer the is IB, then, what will be the relation between IA
questions related to studied concepts. and IB?
Compound Boiling point (b) When resistors are connected in parallel, then
1. Methanol 64°C what will be the changes in overall resistance?
2. Ethanol 78°C (c) Define electric circuit. If R1 = 10 W, R2 = 40 W, then
calculate the equivalent resistance of R1 and R2.
3. Propanol 97°C
Or
4. Butanol 117°C (c) If R3 = 30 W, R4 = 20 W, R5 = 60 W, then calculate
5. Methanoic acid 101°C the equivalent overall circuit resistance.
Scan to get Answers

7 PRACTICE PAPER
SECTION–A
four options given for each of the questions 1–20. There
Cork
1. Which of the following statements is correct about
an aqueous solution of an acid and of a base? Glass tube
(i) Higher the pH, stronger the acid
(ii) Higher the pH, weaker the acid A
(iii) Lower the pH, stronger the base
(iv) Lower the pH, weaker the base Conical flask
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv) Dilute sulphuric acid
(d) (ii) and (iv) Zinc granules
2. When calcium hydroxide aqueous reacts with carbon (a) CO2 (b) H2
dioxide gas gives X and water. Here X refers to (c) CO (d) H2S
(a) CaO Heated
6. Limestone → X + CO2
(b) CaCO3
→
(c) CaOCl2 + H2O

(d) CaCl2 Y
3. Which of the following reaction represents redox Identify the correct option from below.
reaction? (a) X = CaO , Y = Ca(OH)2
Heat (b) X = Ca(OH)2 , Y = CaO
(a) CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)
(b) C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) (c) X = CaCO3 , Y = CaO
(c) CaO(s) + H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2(aq) (d) X = CaO , Y = CaCO3
(d) All of the above 7. Ethanol, on heating at 443 K with conc H2SO4 gives
4. Which one of the following is correct about acids? (a) CH2==CH2 (b) HC CH
(c) CH4 (d) C2H6
(a) Acids are sour in taste and changes red litmus
to blue. 8. Identify A and B from the given figure.
(b) Acids are bitter in taste and changes red litmus A
to blue.
(c) Acids are sour in taste and changes blue litmus B
to red.
(d) Acids are bitter in taste and changes blue litmus
to red.
5. In given diagram gas A is produced when zinc (a) A - Bronchi, B - Bronchioles
granules are placed into dilute sulphuric acid? Identify (b) A - Pharynx, B - larynx
gas A. (c) A - Alveoli, B - Bronchioles
(d) A - Bronchi, B - Alveoli
Practice Papers 525
9. Given figure below shows a schematic plan of blood (a) The device P is a concave lens of focal length
circulation in humans with labels. P, Q, R and S. 10 cm.
Identify correct label. (b) The device P is a convex mirror of focal length
10 cm.
(c) The device P is a convex lens of focal length
P
Q R 5 cm.
(d) The device P is a convex lens of focal length
10 cm.
14. If the key in the given arrangement is taken out (the
S circuit is made open) and magnetic field lines are
drawn over the horizontal plane ABCD, the lines are
Variable resistance
– +
A
+
A B
Long straight –
O conductor
D C
(a) P - Pulmonary vein, Q - Pulmonary artery
R - Lung capillaries, S - Aorta
(b) P - Aorta, Q - Pulmonary artery
R - Lung capillaries, S - Pulmonary vein K
(c) P - Pulmonary artery, Q - Lung capillaries (a) concentric circles
R - Pulmonary vein, S - Aorta (b) elliptical in shape
(d) P - Pulmonary vein, Q - Lung capillaries (c) straight lines parallel to each other
R - Aorta, S - Pulmonary artery (d) concentric circles near the point O but of
elliptical shapes as we go away from it
10. What marks the beginning of the reproductive life
of a woman? 15. The image formed by convex mirror, of a Milton
(a) Menopause (b) Menarche bottle which is placed in front of it, at
(c) Fertilisation (d) Ovulation (a) Half the distance of the object in front of mirror.
(b) Twice the distance of the object in front of mirror.
11. Abscisic acid controls
(c) Behind the mirror.
(a) cell elongation and cell wall formation
(d) None of the above.
(b) shoot elongation
(c) cell division 16. Corrective lens used to correct the myopic defect of
(d) leaf fall and dormancy eye forms a virtual image of distant object at
(a) Near point of myopic eye
12. The fertilisation of human egg by the sperm takes
(b) Far point of myopic eye
place in
(c) Least distance of distinct vision
(a) vagina (b) uterus (c) ovary (d) oviduct
(d) Any where between near point and far point of
13. Rahul is a student of class X. He used a device (P) the eye.
to obtain/focus the image of a distant building on a Q. no 17 to 20 are Assertion – Reasoning based questions.
screen as shown alongside in diagram. Identify the
device (P).
P appropriate option given below:
S of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct
explanation of A.
D
17. Assertion (A): ZnCO3(s) → ZnO(s) + CO2(g)
is endothermic reaction.
Reason (R): Heat is absorbed in endothermic
reaction.
10 cm
18. Assertion (A): Ovary releases one egg every month. Or
Reason (R): The lining of uterus is always thick and Two students perform the experiments on series and
spongy. parallel combinations of two given resistors R1 and
19. Assertion (A): Energy is required to carry out R2 and plot the following V-I graphs. Which of the
different life processes. graphs is/are correctly labelled? Justify your answer.
Reason (R): Energy is obtained in the form of ATP
Series Parallel
in the mitochondria.
V V
20. Assertion (A): Sky appears dark to passengers in
flight, at high altitudes. Parallel Series
Reason (R): Scattering of light is not prominent at
high altitudes.
I I
SECTION–B I II
Q. no. 21 to 26 are Very Short answer questions. 26. (a) What are the various steps in a food chain called?
21. Give reasons for the following: (b) What is the significance of food chain?
(a) Tungsten metal is selected for making filaments
SECTION–C
of incandescent lamps/bulbs.
(b) Copper is used to make hot water tanks and not Q.no. 27 to 33 are Short answer questions.
steel. 27. On adding a drop of barium chloride solution to an
Or aqueous solution of sodium sulphite, white precipitate
Write balanced chemical equations for the following
are obtained.
reactions:
(a) Write a balanced chemical equation for the
(a) Dilute sulphuric acid reacts with aluminium
reaction involved.
powder.
(b) Dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with sodium (b) What other name can be given to this precipitation
carbonate. reaction?
(c) On adding dilute HCl to the reaction mixture,
22. Name the two main organs of our central nervous
white precipitate disappears. Why?
system. Which one of them plays a major role in
sending command to muscles to act without involving 28. What is baking soda chemically? Give reaction
thinking process? Name the phenomenon involved. involved in its preparation. Write one of its uses.
23. A brown haired man marries a red haired woman and 29. State the role of the following in human digestive
all the children are brown haired. Explain genetically system:
by taking B for brown and b for red hair. (a) Digestive enzymes (b) Hydrochloric acid (c) Villi
24. Name the two parts A and B of the flower shown in 30. A concave lens of focal length 15 cm forms an image
the following diagram and state one function of each. 10 cm from the lens. At what distance should the
object be placed from the lens? Draw ray diagram
to illustrate your answer.
A 31. (a) An electric lamp of 100 W, a toaster of resistance
50 W and an aquaguard of resistance 500 W are
B connected in parallel to a 220 V source. Find
the resistance of electric iron connected to the
same source which draws as much current as
25. A circuit is shown in the diagram given below. equal to all three appliances.
(b) Find the current flowing through electric iron.
32. What is a solenoid ? Draw the pattern of magnetic
field lines due to a current carrying solenoid. What
does the field pattern inside the solenoid indicate ?
State one use of this field.
Or
(a) What will the polarity be of one end of a solenoid
(a) Find the value of R.
(b) Find the reading of the ammeter. if the current appears to be flowing anticlockwise
in it?
Practice Papers 527
(b) What type of core should be used inside a (c) Copper reacts with moist gas ‘A’ in the air and
solenoid to make an electromagnet? slowly loses its shiny surface. It turns green.
(c) Draw a neat diagram to show the magnetic field Identify ‘A’ and the substance of green coating
lines around a bar magnet. formed on the surface of copper.
33. Distinguish between biodegradable and non- Or
biodegradable substances with suitable examples. (c) What is an alloy? How is an alloy made? How
are the properties of alloy different from those
SECTION–D of constituent metals?
Q.no. 34 to 36 are Long answer questions. 38. Advitya prepared a list of students of his class having
34. Write the chemical equations to show what happens free or attached ear lobes. He found that the vast
when majority of the students of his class have free ear
(a) an ester reacts with a base? lobes. Only 4 out of total 50 students have attached
(b) methane is treated with chlorine in the presence ear lobes and then calculated the percentage of free
of sunlight? ear lobe and attached ear lobe.
(c) ethanol reacts with ethanoic acid in the presence 46
Free ear lobes = × 100 = 92%
of sulphuric acid? 50
Or 4
Attached ear lobes = × 100 = 8%
What is the difference between the chemical 50
composition of soaps and detergents? State in brief
the action of soaps in removing an oily spot from
a shirt. Why are soaps not considered suitable for
washing where water is hard?
35. Name the digestive glands found in human beings.
Mention the role of digestive juices secreted by them
and enzymes present in them.
Or (a) Free earlobes (b) Attached earlobes
Trace the changes that takes place in a flower from (a) What does the percentage suggest about the free
gamete formation to fruit formation. ear lobes and attached ear lobes?
36. (a) What do you understand by the term ‘dispersion (b) Attached ear lobe or free ear lobe is an inherited
of white light’? Draw a ray diagram to show the trait. What are inherited traits? Suggest two more
dispersion of white light by a glass prism. Why examples of inherited traits.
do we get different colours of light? (c) A man with free ear lobes marries a woman
(b) Where do we see (i) concave and (ii) convex with attached ear lobes and their daughter has
lens in bifocal lenses? attached ear lobes. What will be the set of genes
Or present in the daughter. Explain.
Draw a labelled diagram of human eye and describe Or
briefly the working of human eye. (c) Given below is a cross between a male having
free ear lobes and a female having attached
SECTION–E
ear lobes. Taking ‘L’ as a factor for free ear
Q.no. 37 to 39 are Case-based/Data-based questions lobes and l as factor of attached ear lobes,
with 2 to 3 short sub-parts. Internal choice is provided diagramatically explain what will happen in F1
in one of these sub-parts. and F2 generation?
37. The statue of Liberty is one of the seven wonders. It Male × Female
is present on Liberty island in New York harbour in (Free ear lobes) (Attached ear lobes)
United States. It is the gift from the people of France LL × ll
to the people of the United States. It is totally made 39. Hans Christian Oersted (1777–1851) observed that
up of metal. Over a period of time, the metal’s colour a compass needle suffers a deflection when placed
has changed and the statue gives greenish look. near a metal wire carrying an electric current. This
(a) What is corrosion? Name any two metals which discovery gave the first evidence of a connection
do not corrode easily. between electric and magnetic phenomena. Andre
(b) How can a layer of aluminium oxide on an Ampere (1777–1836) grasped the significance of
aluminium object be made thicker? What is this Oersted’s discovery. He carried out a large series
process called? of experiments to explore the relationship between
current electricity and magnetism. On the basis (c) When a current flow through a straight conductor
of experiments, he hypothesised that all magnetic a magnetic field is produced around it.
phenomena are due to circulated electric currents. (i) Name the rule that determine the direction
Later on many devices such as electromagnets, of magnetic field.
electric motors, microphones, electric generators, etc. (ii) What is the pattern of this magnetic field?
were developed on the basis of magnetic phenomena. Or
(a) What is magnetic needle? (c) How can the strength of magnetic field produced
(b) A freely suspended magnet always rests in by a current carrying straight conductor be
geographically North and South direction. Why? changed?
Scan to get Answers

Practice Papers 529
8 PRACTICE PAPER
SECTION–A the colour of solution in beaker ‘P’ changes while

no change is observed in beaker ‘Q’. Which option
is correct?
four options given for each of the questions 1–20. There Zn Ag
1. The image shows the pH values of the solution on
a pH scale
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
A B C D
CuSO4 CuSO4
Which solution/s are acidic in nature?
(a) B and C (b) A and B Beaker ‘P’ Beaker ‘Q’
(c) C and D (d) A and D (a) Ag < Zn < Cu (b) Zn < Cu < Ag
2. In which of the following chemical equations, (c) Ag < Cu < Zn (d) Cu < Ag < Zn
the abbreviation represent the correct states of
6. The salt formed when conc. H2SO4 reacts with KNO3
the reactants and products involved at reaction
above 200°C:
temperature?
(a) 2H2(l) + O2(l) → 2H2O(g) (a) K2SO4 (b) K2SO3
(b) 2H2(g) + O2(l) → 2H2O(l) (c) KHSO4 (d) KHSO3
(c) 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(l) 7. Structural formula of ethyne is
(d) 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(g) (a) H—C C—H (b) H3C—C C—H
H
H
H
H
3. What is observed when a solution of potassium iodide
is added to silver nitrate solution? (c) C==C (d) H—C—C—H
H
H
H
H
(a) No reaction takes place
(b) White precipitate of silver iodide is formed 8. Identify the process shown in given diagram
(c) Yellow precipitate of AgI is formed Stomatal pore
(d) AgI is soluble in water.
4. Equal volumes of hydrochloric acid and ammonium
hydroxide solutions of same concentration are mixed
and the pH of the resulting solution is checked with a
pH paper. What would be the colour obtained? (You
may use colour guide given in figure)
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
Green
Blue
Red

(a) Red (b) Yellowish orange
(c) Yellowish green (d) Blue (a) Movement of water during transpiration in a
5. Given figure shows, a student adds an equal amount tree.
of CuSO4(aq) in two beakers. He added zinc in beaker (b) Movement of minerals during transpiration in
‘P’ and Ag in beaker ‘Q’. The student observes that a tree.
(c) Movement of carbon dioxide during transpiration (a) 50 cm (b) 16.66 cm
in a tree. (c) 6.66 cm (d) 10 cm
(d) None of the above. 14. Which of the following ray diagrams is showing the
9. Reflex arc is formed by correct path of the ray after refraction for the convex
(a) muscle → brain → receptor lens for the incident ray as shown below?
(b) muscle → spinal cord → receptor
(c) receptor → brain → muscles
(d) receptor → spinal cord → muscle
F O F
10. Mendel selected garden pea plant for hybridisation
experiments for which of the following reasons?
(i) Pea plants have short life cycle and are easy to
maintain.
(ii) Pea plants are cross pollinating plants.
(iii) The flowers of pea plants are unisexual. (a) O
F F
(iv) Pea plants have distinct, easily observable
contrasting traits.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv)
11. Tropism is a growth movement of a plant part in
(b) O
response to an external stimulus in which the direction F F
of stimulus determines the direction of response.
From the given table select the incorrect row/rows.
Stimulus Type of Tropism
(i) Water Thigmotropism
(c) O
(ii) Chemical Chemotropism F F
(iii) Light Hydrotropism

(iv) Gravity Geotropism
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii)
(d) O
12. In the following figure, different stages in nutrition F F
of Amoeba are depicted which are not in the proper
sequence.
15. While performing the experiment to trace the path
(i) of a ray of light passing through a glass prism, four
students marked the incident ray and the emergent
ray in their diagrams in the manner shown below:
(ii)

(iii) (I) (II)
(iv)
The correct sequence is:

(a) (i), (ii), (iv) and (iii) (b) (i), (iii), (ii) and (iv) (III) (IV)
(c) (iv), (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (iv), (ii) and (iii) The correct figure is given in
13. An object is placed 25 cm from a convex lens (a) I (b) II
whose focal length is 10 cm. The image distance is (c) III (d) IV
__________ cm.
Practice Papers 531
16. If the current varies periodically from zero to a A

maximum value, back to zero and then reverses its
direction, the current is B
(a) direct (b) alternating
(c) pulsating (d) none of the above
Q. no 17 to 20 are Assertion – Reasoning based questions. C
25. A concave mirror produces three times magnified
real image of an object placed at 10 cm in front of
it. Where is the image located?
of A. 26. Observe the given image and write any two ways in
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct which non-biodegradable substances would affect the
explanation of A. environment.
17. Assertion (A): Brain is a delicate organ which is
protected from injury
Reason (R): Only the bony box protects the brain
from any shock.
Or
18. Assertion (A): MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + Cl2
Consider the food chain:
+ 2H2O is a redox reaction.
Reason (R): MnO 2 oxides HCl to Cl2 and gets
reduced to MnCl2.
19. Assertion (A): All proteins in our food are digested
in small intestine only.
Reason (R): The protein digesting enzymes are What will happen if lion is removed from the above
released into small intestine and stomach. food chain?
20. Assertion (A): When a pencil is partly immersed in SECTION–C
water and held obliquely to the surface, the pencil
appears to bend at the water surface. Q.no. 27 to 33 are Short answer questions.
Reason (R): The apparent bending of the pencil is due 27. (a) Why does carbon show catenation to maximum
to the refraction of light when it passes from water to extent? List two reasons.
air. (b) Draw electron dot structures of (i) ethane, and
(ii) ethene.
SECTION–B Or
Q. no. 21 to 26 are Very Short answer questions. (a) In an organic compound, which part largely
21. “We need to balance a skeletal chemical equation.” determine the chemical properties ?
Give reason to justify the statement. (b) The molecular formula of two hydrocarbons is
Or C5H10 and C5H12 . Which one of them is more
Consider the following chemical reaction reactive and why?
X + Barium chloride → Y + Sodium chloride 28. What are covalent compounds? Why are they different
(White ppt)
from ionic compounds? List their three characteristic
(a) Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’ properties.
(b) The type of reaction
29. (a) In a germ cell, there is a haploid number of
22. Name the part of neuron: chromosomes. How is this chromosome number
(a) where information is acquired restored in the zygote?
(b) through which information travels as an electrical (b) Inherited traits are capable of directing evolution.
impulse. Explain.
23. What are blood capillaries? How are these structurally 30. (a) Find the absolute refractive index of a
different from arteries? medium in which light travels with a speed of
24. Identify the parts shown in the diagram and write 1.4 × 108 m/s.
the function of part ‘B’. (b) How do we distinguish a medium to be rarer or
denser? Give two reasons.
31. How will you use two identical prisms so that a (b) Explain chlor-alkali process with chemical
narrow beam of white light incident on one prism equation. Name the products of cathode and
emerges out of the second prism as white light? Draw anode.
the diagram. (c) Explain any two uses of washing soda.
32. V-I graph for two wires A and B is shown in the 35. (a) Give three advantages and three disadvantages
figure. If both wires are of same length and same of vegetative propagation in plants.
thickness, which of the two is made of a material of (b) Write the steps involved in micropropagation in
high resistivity? Give justification for your answer. plants.
A (c) Give two advantages of tissue culture in plants.
Or
B (a) List three points of difference between nervous
V and hormonal mechanisms for control and
coordination in animals.
(b) How are auxins related with the bending of plant
shoot towards unidirectional light? Explain.
I
36. (a) Define current. What is its SI unit?
33. (a) Food web increases the stability of an ecosystem. (b) Calculate the total resistance of the circuit given
Explain. alongside and current through each resistor.
(b) Forests are known as natural ecosystems. R2 = 4 W
Comment. R1 R4
SECTION–D 2W 2W
R3 = 4 W
34. (a) What is the difference between efflorescence
and deliquescence? – +
(b) What is the pH scale? How can you know, if the A
given sample is acidic, basic or neutral from its 6V
pH value? Or
(c) Give chemical name, formula and one use of How can three resistors of resistances 2 W, 3 W
Plaster of Paris. and 6 W be connected to give a total resistance of
Or (a) 4 W (b) 1 W? Draw the well labelled circuit
(a) Write the chemical equation for production of diagrams in each case. Also, give expressions for
washing soda from soda ash. the total resistance in each case.
SECTION–E
Q.no. 37 to 39 are Case-based/Data-based questions with 2 to 3 short sub-parts. Internal choice is provided in
one of these sub-parts.
37. The table given below, in which samples of four metals A, B, C and D were taken and added to the following
solutions one by one. The results obtained have been tabulated as follows.
Metal Iron(II) sulphate Copper(II) sulphate Zinc sulphate Silver nitrate
A No reaction Displacement reaction
B Displacement reaction No reaction
C No reaction No reaction No reaction Displacement reaction
(a) Study the table carefully and select the most reactive metal. Give reason to justify your selection.
(b) What would you observe when B is added to a solution of copper (II) sulphate?
(c) Arrange the metals A,B,C and D in the order of decreasing reactivity. Give reason.
Or
(c) Name two metals which will displace hydrogen from dilute acids and two metals which will not.
Practice Papers 533
38. Within minutes of a baby’s birth, people start to his experiment, when a bar magnet is surrounded
remarking about who this new baby resembles. ‘Oh, by little bits of iron filings, each of iron filings
he has his daddy’s chin!’ or ‘She’s got her mother’s becomes a little magnet of its own. By tapping
eyes!’. But from where exactly do these similarities the surface, the iron filings arrange themselves in
arise? Every individual has 46 chromosomes, 23 a particular pattern. They respond to an unseen
chromosomes from each parent. The chromosomes presence— what Faraday called it “lines of force.”
are composed of deoxyribonucleic acid or DNA that The following sketch shows the lines of force due
is tightly bundled. Now, certain segments of the to a bar magnet on the accumulated action on little
DNA which are responsible for different traits in iron filings.
an individual are termed genes. Each chromosome
contains over 20,000 genes. There is a lot of copying
that has to take place to pass all these genes on
from parents to a child. Understandably sometimes
mistakes are made in the copying process.
(a) Newly formed DNA copies may not be identical
at times. Give reason.
(b) Why no two individuals are absolutely similar
in a population? (a) What is magnet?
(c) What is the importance of variation? (b) What happens if a bar magnet is cut into two
Or pieces along its length?
(c) What is the function of cellular DNA? Explain (c) Draw a diagram indicating uniform magnetic
by taking an example. field.
39. Michael Faraday was an experimental physicist. Or
He introduced the concept of the magnetic line of (c) Why don’t two magnetic field lines intersect
force to represent a magnetic field visually. According each other?
Scan to get Answers

9 PRACTICE PAPER
SECTION–A (iii) Evolution of H2 gas in the reaction.

(iv) Formation of precipitate.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
four options given for each of the questions 1–20. There
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv)
4. Chemical properties of acids are given in a tabular
1. Ria added 10 ml of hydrochloric acid and 10 ml of
form. Which one of the options is not true?
sodium hydroxide solution in two separate beakers
labelled I and II respectively. She added aluminium (a) Acid + Metal Salt + Hydrogen gas
metal strip in both the beakers and made some
observations. Which of the following observation (b) Acid + Metal carbonate Salt + Carbon dioxide
is correct? + Water
(c) Acid + Base Salt + Water
HCl NaOH
(d) Acid + Metal oxide Salt + Hydrogen gas
Aluminium
5. Select the incorrect statement.
I Metal II
(a) Silver articles become black due to formation
(a) H2 gas is evolved in beaker I but not in beaker II. of silver sulphide.
(b) H2 gas is evolved in beaker II but not in beaker I. (b) Iron forms brown flaky substance called rust on
(c) H2 gas is not evolved in either of the two beakers. its surface.
(d) H2 gas is evolved in both the beakers. (c) Copper forms a brown coating due to formation
of basic copper carbonate.
2. PbO2 + 4HCl → PbCl2 + Cl2 + 2H2O
(d) Corrosion causes damage to car bodies, bridges,
Which one of the following is the reducing agents?
iron railings, ships etc.
(a) Pb (b) HCl (c) Cl2 (d) PbO2
6. Meenu found out the pH of aqueous solutions of HCl,
3. Observe the given figure carefully and select the
CH3COOH, NH4OH and NaOH. Then she arranged
incorrect options.
these solutions in the order of increasing pH. Which
one of the following is correct?
(a) HCl < CH3COOH < NH4OH < NaOH
Cork
(b) CH3COOH < HCl < NH4OH < NaOH
(c) HCl < CH3COOH < NaOH < NH4OH
Glass tube
(d) NH4OH < NaOH < HCl < CH3COOH
A 7. Which of the following is a cyclic unsaturated
hydrocarbon called Benzene?
Conical flask H H H
H C H C
Dilute sulphuric acid
C C H C C H
Zinc granules (a) H H (b)
(i) The colour of solution changes to green due to H C C H H C C H
formation of ZnSO4. C
(ii) The flask will be warm due to release of heat. H H
H
Practice Papers 535
H H 9. Observe the experimental set up shown below. In

C which of the test tube/test tubes, the lime water will
H H H H
get milky faster?
C C C
H H H H
Pichkari
(c) H H (d) C C
C C H H
H C H
H H Rubber Tube
tube
8. In the given diagram, identify the vascular bundle.
i Test tube
iii Lime
water containing
ii lime water
(A) (B)
(a) Test tube A
iv
v (b) Test tube B
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (v) (c) Both test tubes will take same time.
(c) (iv) and (v) (d) only (iii) (d) Milkiness won’t appear in test tube A
10. If a round seed pea plant is crossed with a wrinkled seed pea plant, then the phenotypic and genotypic ratio will
be:
Phenotypic Ratio Genotypic Ratio
(a) 3 : 1 (3 round : 1 wrinkled) 1 : 3 (1 round : 3 wrinkled)
(b) 3 : 1 (3 round : 1 wrinkled) RR : Rr : rr
1:2:1
1 : 2 : 1
(c) RR : Rr : rr 1 : 3 (1 round : 3 dwarf)
1:2:1
1 : 2 : 1
(d) RR : Rr : rr 3 : 1 (3 round : 1 wrinkled)
1:2:1
1 : 2 : 1
11. Study the given diagram carefully and identify the (c) both are connected in parallel
part through which information travels as an electrical (d) parallel and series respectively
impulse. 13. The diagram shown below depicts budding in
B A
Hydra. Which type of cells are used by Hydra for
reproduction in the process of budding?
Tentacles
C
D
Bud
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
12. In an electric circuit ammeter and voltmeter are
(a) Stem cells
connected in
(b) Regenerative cells
(a) series and parallel respectively
(c) Endothetial cells
(b) both are connected in series
(d) Nerve cells
14. The given diagram shows the field lines around a Q. no 17 to 20 are Assertion – Reasoning based questions.
bar magnet. These consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and
of A.
S N
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct
explanation of A.

The properties of magnetic field lines are given below. 17. Assertion (A): When CO (g) and H2(g) react at
Select the correct options: 340 atm, CH3OH(l) is formed.
(i) Magnetic field lines emerge from the south pole Reason (R): Chemical reaction changes the physical
and enter the north pole. and chemical state of substance.
(ii) Magnetic field lines don’t intersect each other. 18. Assertion (A): In human beings, there are 23 pairs
(iii) Magnetic field lines have only magnitude and of chromosomes.
are scalar in nature. Reason (R): All the children inherit an X chromosome
(iv) Magnetic field lines form closed and continuous from their father whether they are boys or girls.
curve. 19. Assertion (A): Paramaecium is a unicellular
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) organism.
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv) Reason (R): Paramaecium takes in food at a specific
15. The given diagram is a V–I graph for nichrome wire. spot which is moved there by cilia.
Which of the following statement/s verify/verifies 20. Assertion (A): The direction of flow of electric
Ohm’s law? current is same as the direction of flow of electrons.
2.0
Reason (R): Electric current can flow through a
closed circuit only.
1.6 SECTION–B
Potential difference (V)
1.2 Q. no. 21 to 26 are Very Short answer questions.

21. Ferrous sulphate decomposes with the evolution of a
0.8
gas having a characteristic odour of burning sulphur.
0.4 What type of a chemical reaction is it? Support your
answer with a chemical equation and observation.
0
Or
0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6 Akshaya added zinc granules to four salt solutions
Current (A) add recorded his observations as shown in the table
(i) V is diretly proportional to the I given below:
(ii) As I increases through a wire, V increases Metal + Salt Displacement Reaction
linearly solution
(iii) R is directly proportional to I (a) Zn + CuSO4 Blue colour to colourless
(iv) R always remains constant
(b) Zn + FeSO4 Pale green to colourless
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) only (i) (c) Zn + MgSO4 Yes
16. A current through a horizontal power line flows in (d) Zn + Al2(SO4)3 Yes
east to west direction. What will be the direction of Select the correct observation (s) and give chemical
magnetic field at a point directly below it and at a equation(s) of the reaction involved.
point directly above it? 22. How is the movement of leaves of Chhui-mui plant
(a) Below the wire – South to North different from the movement of a shoot towards light?
Above the wire – North to South 23. Give reasons
(b) Below the wire – North to South (a) Blood circulation in human heart is called double
Above the wire – South to North circulation.
(c) South to North in both the cases (b) Small intestine in herbivores is longer than
(d) North to South in both the cases carnivores.
Practice Papers 537
24. (a) How does water enter continuously into the root 29. Various events take place during the process of
xylem? photosynthesis. Do these events take place one after
(b) Why do fish die when taken out of waster? the other immediately? Write the events which occur
25. during this process.
30. (a) What is the basic cause of refraction of light?
(b) State two situations where no refraction occurs.
(c) Draw a diagram showing two refractions through
a rectangular glass slab.
31. (a) Priya is unable to read the letters written in
doctor’s room beyond 80 cm. What is the reason
for this?
(b) What is nature and power of the lens required
Explain the phenomena observed in the above to correct the problem?
diagram. 32. (a) A coil of many circular turns of insulated
Or copper wire wrapped loosely in the shape of a
Why do stars twinkle? Explain with the help of a cylinder is called a solenoid. Draw the pattern
diagram. of magnetic field around a current carrying
26. What is a food chain? ‘Flow of energy in a food solenoid and compare the pattern of the field
chain is unidirectional’ Justify the statement. with the magnetic field around a bar magnet.
(b) How can you say that the magnetic field is same
SECTION–C at all points inside the solenoid?
Q.no. 27 to 33 are Short answer questions. Or
27. Adi took solid quick lime in a beaker and added How will the magnetic field produced at a point due
water to it. to a current carrying circular coil change if we:
(a) increase the current flowing through the coil?
Beaker (b) reverse direction of current through the coil?
(c) increase the number of turns in the coil?
33. What is biological magnification? Which level of
Water food chain will have the maximum magnification?
Will the levels of this magnification be different at
Calcium oxide different levels of the ecosystem?
(a) What type of sound would he hear? SECTION–D
(b) State the type of reaction it is and write the
chemical equation. Q.no. 34 to 36 are Long answer questions.
28. 34. Suman heated ethanoic acid with different subtances
and wants to find out the results. Let’s help her out.
(a) What happens when
(i) ethanoic acid reacts with sodium carbonate.
(ii) ethanoic acid reacts with sodium
bicarbonate.
Copper sulphate
nitrate (iii) ethanoic acid reacts with sodium hydroxide.
crystals One of the products formed in all the three
reactions is common. Name that product.
(b) Why ethanoic acid is also known as
(i) glacial acetic acid
(ii) vinegar?
Or
(a) What is homologous series of organic
(a) What is the colour of copper nitrate crystals compounds? State any two characteristics of
before heating and after heating? Write chemical homologous series.
reaction involved. (b) Write the preceeding and succeeding homolgue
(b) Identify the gases formed. of butane.
(c) Write the chemical name and chemical formula of (c) Write molecular, electron dot structure and
two salts which contain water of crystallisation. structural formula of propene.
35. (a) List three contraceptive methods that have been (i) where pollen grains land
developed to prevent pregnancy. State the basic (ii) which ripens and forms fruit.
principle involved in these methods. Which one (iii) which carries male gamete to the embryo
of the techniques is sac.
(i) not meant for males? (b) Differentiate between pollination and fertilization.
(ii) used to control sexually transmitted (c) Which type of tropism is it?—Growth of pollen
diseases? tube towards ovule?
(b) Name two STDs caused by bacteria.
Or
(a) Draw a longitudinal section of female reproductive
part of a flower showing germination of pollen
grain. Name and label on it the following:
36. Study the schematic diagram of one of the common domestic circuits given below:
5A
S1
Earth wire (Green) S2 S3
220 V P1
Live wire (Red) Fuse B
P2
Neutral wire (Blue)
Electric metre Distribution box
containing main 15 A
switch and fuses for
each circuit.
Power Plug
(a) What is the potential difference between live and neutral wire?
(b) The domestic appliances are connected across the line and neutral wires. These appliances are connected
parallel to each other. Explain.
(c) If an electric kettle connected to 5A switch consumes 2 kW when operated at 220 V, what will happen?
(d) Meenal uses the following electric appliances at home.
(i) Refrigerator of rating 400 W for 24 hours.
(ii) Two electric fans at rating 80 W each for 8 hours every day.
(iii) Three electric tubes of rating 18 W for 8 hours everyday.
Calculate the electricity bill of Meenal’s house for the month of September if the cost of electric energy per
unit is ` 4.
Or
(a) What happens to the force acting on current carrying conductor placed in magnetic field when:
(i) Direction of magnetic field is reversed without changing the direction of current.
(ii) Direction of the current is reversed without changing the direction of magnetic field.
(iii) Direction of both the current and the magnetic field is reversed.
(b) What does the divergence of magnetic field lines near the ends of a current carrying straight solenoid
indicate?
SECTION–E impurities. The extraction of metals from their ores
profitably is called metallurgy.
Q.no. 37 to 39 are Case-based/Data-based questions
(a) Anjali’s Chemistry teacher explained that during
with 2 to 3 short sub-parts. Internal choice is provided
extraction of metals, electrolytic refining is used
in one of these sub-parts.
to obtain pure metals. Name one metal refined
37. Anjali read that different metals are found in the by this method.
earth’s crust which are in impure form. Elements or (b) She wants to know which meterial is used as
compounds which occur naturally in the earth’s crust anode and cathode for refining of copper metal?
are known as minerals. Minerals from which metals Suggest her a suitable electrolyte also. In the
can be extracted profitably are called ores. electrolytic cell, where will she get pure copper
She also read that: Metals can be separated out in after passing electric current?
pure form using various techniques leaving behind
Practice Papers 539
(c) Draw a diagram showing electrolytic refining 39.

of copper.
Or
(c) Observe the figure showing thermite reaction.
What is thermite reaction? Where is it used?
The above images are of optical instruments. These

instruments use a combination of lenses which
increases the sharpness of the image. The image
produced by using a combination of lenses is also
free from many defects which otherwise occur while
using a single lens.
(a) Alankrita was not able to see clearly so she
went to an optician. The optician prescribes the
corrective lens +2.0 D and +2.5 D for the left
and right eye respectively. Find the focal length
of each lens. Are the prescribed lenses diverging
or converging?
38. Reetu knows that DNA is the carrier of the genetic (b) If the image formed by a lens for all positions of
information from one generation to generation. the object placed in front of it is always virtual,
Reetu studied that in sexual reproduction, male and erect and diminished, state the type of the lens.
female gametes fuse during fertilization to form When a convex lens of power + 5D is placed
a zygote. This zygote then develops into male or in contact with a concave lens of power –2D,
female offspring. But how the sex of the offspring is what is the power of combination?
determined. We know that both the parents contribute (c) At what distance from a concave lens of focal
equally to the DNA. length 30 cm, a 5 cm tall object be placed so
(a) “We cannot pass on to our progeny the as to obtain its image at 20 cm from the lens?
experiences and skills like dancing, singing Also calculate the size of the image formed.
etc. acquired during our life time.” Justify the Or
statement giving reason and example. (c) A converging lens can form a magnified inverted
(b) How do variations occur in an offspring? image of an object as well as magnified erect
(c) ‘Different species use different strategies to image of an object placed infront of it. Draw
determine sex of a newborn individual. It can be ray diagrams to justify this statement stating the
environmental cues or genetically determined’. position of the object with respect to the lens in
Explain the statement by giving examples for each case.
each strategy.
Or
(c) Transmission of genetic characteristic from one
generation to the next is termed as inheritance.
Give the basic features of mechanism of
inheritance.
Scan to get Answers

10 PRACTICE PAPER
SECTION–A (c) A—(iii), B—(iv), C—(i), D—(ii)

(d) A—(ii), B—(iv), C—(i), D—(iii)
four options given for each of the questions 1–20. There 5. A student added dilute HCl to Zn granules taken in
is no negative mark for incorrect response. a test tube. The correct observation would be
1. Equal volumes of hydrochloric acid and potassium
hydroxide solutions of same concentration are mixed
and the pH of the resulting solution is checked with a Dilute HCl
pH paper. What would be the colour obtained? (You
may use colour guide given in figure).
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
Green
Blue
Red

(a) Red (b) Yellowish orange
(c) Green (d) Blue
2. Sodium and chlorine react to form sodium chloride.
Which of the following is correct? Zinc granules
(a) Sodium is oxidising agent, Cl2 is reducing agent.
(b) Sodium is reducing agent, Cl2 is oxidising agent. (a) Zn granules turned green
(c) Both Na and Cl2 are oxidising agents. (b) formation of a precipitate
(d) Both Na and Cl2 are reducing agents. (c) evolution of gas
3. MnO2 + xHCl → MnCl2 + yH2O + zCl2, (d) no change
In order to balance the chemical equation x, y, z 6. What happens when a solution of an acid is mixed
respectively are with a solution of a base in a test tube?
(a) 6, 2, 2 (b) 4, 1, 2 (i) The temperature of the solution increases
(c) 4, 2, 1 (d) 2, 2, 1 (ii) The temperature of the solution decreases
4. Match the chemical substances given in Column (iii) The temperature of the solution remains the
(A) with their appropriate application given in same
Column (B). (iv) Salt formation takes place.
Column (A) Column (B) (a) (i) only
A. Bleaching (i) Preparation of glass (b) (i) and (iii)
powder (c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) and (iv)
B. Baking soda (ii) Production of H2 and Cl2
7. The percentage of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
C. Washing soda (iii) Disinfectant
is
D. Sodium chloride (iv) As an antacid
(a) 0.01% (b) 0.02%
(a) A—(ii), B—(i), C—(iv), D—(iii) (c) 0.03% (d) 0.3%
(b) A—(iii), B—(ii), C—(iv), D—(i)
Practice Papers 541
8. Four students made the diagram of stomata and tabulated the labellings as follows:
A
B
C
D
Student A B C D E
(P) Epidermal cell Guard cell Nucleus Cell wall Chloroplast
(Q) Guard cell Epidermal cell Nucleus Chloroplast Cell wall
(R) Cell wall Guard cell Nucleus Chloroplast Epidermal cell
(S) Epidermal cell Guard cell Nucleus Chloroplast Cell wall
The student who made the correct labelling is
(a) P (b) Q
(c) R (d) S
9. The xylem in plants are responsible for 14. The figure given below represents:
(a) transport of water
(b) transport of food
(c) transport of amino acids
(d) transport of oxygen
10. What do you find when you observe a sugarcane
field?
(i) Very little variations in various sugarcane plants.
(ii) A lot of variations in various sugarcane plants. (a) Flemming’s right-hand thumb rule
(iii) No variations in various sugarcane plants. (b) Maxwell’s left hand thumb rule
(iv) Sugarcane plants almost look alike. (c) Maxwell’s corkscrew rule
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iv) (d) Flemming’s left-hand rule
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) Only (ii)
15. The temperature of a conductor is increased. The
11. Which of the following is a plant hormone? graph best showing the variation of its resistance is
(a) Insulin (b) Thyroxine (a) (b)
(c) Oestrogen (d) Cytokinin
R R
12. Given below are the stages of binary fission in
Amoeba. Which one of the following would you
select as the correct sequence?
T T
(c) (d)
R R
(v)
(iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(a) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i), (v) T T
(b) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii), (v) 16. Magnetic effect of current was discovered by
(c) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i), (v) (a) Oersted (b) Faraday
(d) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i), (v) (c) Bohr (d) Ampere
13. A wire of length l, made of material with resistivity Q. no 17 to 20 are Assertion – Reasoning based questions.
r is cut into two equal parts. The resistivity of the These consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and
two parts are equal to Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the ap-
ρ propriate option given below:
(a) r (b)
2 (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
(c) 2r (d) 4r of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct SECTION–C
explanation of A.
(d) A is False but R is true. 27. Write down the balanced equations for the following
17. Assertion (A): Zinc reacts with sulphuric acid to form reactions and identify the type of reaction in each
zinc sulphate and hydrogen gas and it is displacement case:
reaction. (a) Nitrogen gas is treated with hydrogen gas to
Reason (R): Zinc reacts with oxygen to form zinc form ammonia gas.
oxide. (b) Lead nitrate is heated strongly to form lead
monoxide, nitrogen dioxide and oxygen.
18. Assertion (A): All proteins in our food are digested
(c) A copper wire is dipped in silver nitrate solution
in small intestine only.
Reason (R): The protein digesting enzymes are and shiny silver is produced.
released into small intestine and stomach. 28. Arrange the following as per the instructions given
19. Assertion (A): In human beings, males produce in brackets:
similar gametes. (a) Al, K, Mg, Ca (decreasing order of reactivity).
Reason (R): Males have a pair of sex chromosomes (b) N, Be, O, C (increasing order of non-metallic
XY and 22 pairs of autosomes. character).
20. Assertion (A): Steel core is used as an electromagnet. (c) P, Si, F, Be (decreasing order of valence
Reason (R): Steel gets permanently magnetised when electrons).
the current flows through the coil wound around. 29. Draw a diagram of the front view of human heart
and label any six parts including at least two, that
SECTION–B are concerned with arterial blood supply to the heart
Q. no. 21 to 26 are Very Short answer questions. muscles.
21. What is observed after about 1 hour of adding strips Or
of Cu and Al suspended in FeSO4 solution in two Draw the structure of a nephron and label the
beakers. Name the reaction and change observed. following parts:
Also write the chemical equation. Glomerulus, Bowman’s capsule, Renal artery.
Or 30. (a) In which of the following two cases the focal
What happens when NaCl solution reacts with AgNO3 length of the eye lens will be more–
solution? Name the two types of reaction to which (i) When ciliary muscles of a normal eye is
does it belong. most relaxed.
22. (a) Name one gustatory receptor and one olfactory (ii) When ciliary muscles of a normal eye is
receptor present in human beings. in most contracted state.
(b) Write a and b in the given flow chart of Explain with reason.
neuron through which information travels as an (b) Which part of the eye has delicate membrane
electrical impulse. and containing large number of light sensitive
Dendrite → a → b → End point of Neuron cells?
23. What is saliva? State its role in the digestion of food. 31. An object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis
24. What are stomata? What is their role in respiration? of a convex lens of focal length 20 cm. The distance
of the object from the lens is 30 cm. Find: (a) the
25. When we place a glass prism in the path of a narrow
position (b) the magnification and (c) the nature of
beam of white light, a spectrum is obtained. What
the image formed.
happens when a second identical prism is placed in
an inverted position with respect to the first prism. 32. State the rule to determine the direction of a
Draw a labelled ray diagram to illustrate it. (a) magnetic field produced around a straight
Or conductor carrying current,
Draw a ray diagram to show the refraction of light (b) force experienced` by a current-carrying straight
through a glass prism. Mark on it (a) the incident ray, conductor placed in a magnetic field which is
(b) the emergent ray and (c) the angle of deviation. perpendicular to it.
26. Mention the basis of classifying substances as 33. “Damage to the ozone layer is a cause for concern.”
biodegradable and non-biodegradable. Give two Justify this statement. Suggest any two steps to limit
examples of each. this damage.
Practice Papers 543
SECTION–D 36. A student fixes a sheet of white paper on a drawing

board. He place a bar magnet at the centre of it. He
sprinkles some iron filings uniformly around the bar
34. (a) How does carbon acquire stable electronic magnet. Then he taps the board gently and observes
configuration? Name simplest hydrocarbon. that the iron filings arrange themselves in a particular
(b) Draw electron dot structures of pattern.
(i) Ethane (ii) Ethene (iii) Ethanoic acid (a) Why do the iron filings arrange in a pattern?
Or (b) What is indicated by the crowding of iron filings
(a) State two properties of covalent compounds. at the end of the magnet?
(b) Why does micelle formation take place when (c) What do the lines along which the iron filings
soap is added to water? Why are micelles not align represent?
formed when soap is added to ethanol? (d) Draw a neat diagram to show the magnetic field
lines around a bar magnet.
35. Answer the following:
(e) Write any two properties of magnetic field lines.
(a) Name any four asexual methods of reproduction.
Or
(b) Explain the method of reproduction with diagram
Three bulbs each having power P are connected in
by which Leishmania reproduces. series in an electric circuit. In another circuit, another
(c) Give one difference between fission and set of three bulbs of same power are connected in
fragmentation. parallel to the same source.
Or (a) Will the bulbs in both the circuits glow with the
(a) Name an organism that reproduces by spores. List same brightness? Justify your answer.
two advantages of reproduction by sporulation. (b) Now let one bulb in each circuit get fused. Will
(b) Give one function of each part of embryo: the rest of the bulbs continue to glow in each
(i) plumule circuit? Give reason.
(ii) radicle (c) Representing each bulb by a resistor, draw circuit
(iii) cotyledons diagram for each case.
SECTION–E
Q.no. 37 to 39 are Case-based/Data-based questions with 2 to 3 short sub-parts. Internal choice is provided in
one of these sub-parts.
37. Lime is an alkaline substance. The figure shows some of the properties of a calcium compound ‘X’. The letters
are not chemical symbols of substances. Answer the questions that follow:
A colourless compound ‘X’
heat heat
strongly
Mix
White solid ‘Y’ Gas ‘P’ Lime water turns milky
with lime water
Dissolves in water CO2
Add universal
Colourless aqueous solution ‘Z’ Blue colour Milkyness dissappears
Indicator

‘Q’
(a) Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’.
(b) Write the chemical reaction and identify ‘P’.
(c) Identify ‘Z’ and write reaction of ‘Y’ to get ‘Z’.
Or
(c) (i) Name an acid which can liberate ‘P’ from ‘X’.
(ii) Write reaction of lime water with ‘P’ to form ‘Q’.
38. Mendel used a number of visible contrasting (a) Which genetic material is responsible for the
characters of garden pea like round/wrinkled seeds, inheritance of traits?
tall/short plants, white/violet flowers, etc. He made (b) In what ratio, both traits were obtained in F2
crosses between pea plants with different characters; progeny?
there were no halfway or intermediate characters. (c) What type of trait appeared and what type trait
Only one of the parental traits appeared in the F1 remained hidden in F1 generation?
generation. When the F1 plants were self-pollinated, Or
the F2 progeny consists of plants with both the traits. (c) What type of traits you observed in F2 progeny,
When a cross is made between a tall plant with round when F1 plants were self pollinated?
seeds, with a short plant with wrinkled seeds, the F1 39. Shyam participated in a group discussion in his
progeny plants were all tall with round plants. When interschool competition on the practical application
the F1 plants are self-pollinated, the F 2 progeny of light and was very happy to won the award for his
consisted of some tall plants with round seeds and school. On that very evening, his father celebrated
some short plants with wrinkled seeds; these two are the day with a family. At a particular moment, Shyam
the parental types of combinations of traits. observed in a curved plate, the image of a person’s
mobile sitting on his back side. Person’s mobile fell
RR yy rr YY off which the person didn’t know about it. Shyam
(round, green) (wrinkled, yellow
went to the person and informed him about this. The
person was thankful to Shyam.
Ry rY
(a) Name the type of mirror.
(i) Which always formes a virtual and
F1 diminished image?
Rr Yy (ii) Which has larger field of view?
(round, yellow)
(b) The angle between an incident ray and the mirror
is 30° as shown below:
Rr Yy Rr Yy
Normal
F1 F1
RY Ry rY ry
F2
RY
RRYY RRYy RrYY RrYy Incident ray Reflected ray
Ry
RRYy RRyy RrYy Rryy 315 round, yellow 9 30°
rY 108 round, green 3 Plane mirror

RrYY RrYy rrYY rrYy 101 wrinkled, yellow 3
What is the angle of incidence and angle of
reflection?
ry 32 wrinkled, green 1
(c) Explain why a ray of light passing through centre
RrYy Rryy rrYy rryy 556 seeds 16 of curvature of a concave mirror, gets reflected
Independent inheritance of two separate along the same path.
traits, shape and colour of seeds Or
There were also some new combinations like tall (c) The focal length of convex mirror is 12.5 cm.
plants with wrinkled seeds and short plants with How far its centre of curvature (i) from the pole
round seeds. (ii) from the focus?
Scan to get Answers


Together With Cbse Class 10 Science WWW - Examsakha.in

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Together With Cbse Class 10 Science WWW - Examsakha.in

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Together With Cbse Class 10 Science WWW - Examsakha.in

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

®

10 Scan this QR code

RACHNA SAGAR PVT. LTD.

PUBLISHED BY 4583 / 15, Daryaganj, New Delhi - 110 002

Features of each chapter:

AUGMENTED REALITY (FOR ANDROID USERS)

I Chemical Substances-Nature and Behaviour 25

III Natural Phenomena 12

Grand Total 100

Note for the Teachers:

RACHNA SAGAR PVT. LTD.

S. No. Chapters Page No.

1. Chemical Reactions and Equations .......................................................................................... 15 – 36

[CBSE Sample Paper, Practice Papers]

Chemical Reactions and Equations

Types of Chemical Reactions

Displacement reaction Double displacement reaction

Pictorial representation of reaction AgNO3 + KI → AgI + KNO3

Thermal decomposition Electrical decomposition

Oxidation and Reduction

Oxidation reaction Reduction reaction

Reaction in which both oxidation and reduction takes place

Oxidising agent Reducing agent

(c) The ratio of the mass produced of the two

(b)The jewellary comes in contact with air, moisture,

INTEGRATED (MIXED) QUESTIONS

ASSERTION AND REASON QUESTIONS

Page 6 (c) Sodium + Water → Sodium hydroxide

SELECT NCERT EXEMPLAR PROBLEMS

Scan to get Activities (Based on NCERT)

Scan to get Answers

Acids Bases Salt

Type Physical properties Chemical properties

Natural indicators Synthetic indicators

Colour of some indicators in acidic and basic medium

Odour Odour in ba-

Important Chemical name Chemical Preparation Uses

(a) <7 Metal

Time (b) <7 Non-metal

(d) >7 Non-Metal

pH Which option is correct?

5. Which of the following will be present in dilute

*Teacher Energised Resource Manuals

A pair of tongs A pair of tongs

(i) presence of acid (ii) presence of base

(a) Nitrogen (b) Hydrogen (c) Oxygen (d) Carbon dioxide

(d) H2SO4 CaSO4 Zinc granules

39. Define olfactory indicators. Name two substances

INTEGRATED (MIXED) QUESTIONS

ASSERTION AND REASON QUESTIONS

SELECT NCERT EXEMPLAR PROBLEMS

Scan to get Activities (Based on NCERT)

Scan to get Answers

Metals and Non-metals

Physical Properties Chemical Properties

Non-metal Chemical Properties

Activity series of Metals Relative Reactivities of Metals

Extraction and Purification of metals

Metals of high reactivity Metals of medium reactivity Metals of low reactivity

H H H H H H H Ethanoic acid EthanolCH3COOC2H5 + H2O