Problem Set - Day 2 Chemical Engineering Principles

OCT 2023 CHEMICAL ENGINEER REVIEW 1
CHEMICAL ENGINEERING PRINCIPLES
CHEMICAL ENGINEERING PRINCIPLES PROBLEM SET
1. What is the pressure at the other end of an open-end mercury manometer? (differential height 35 mm)
A. 795 mmHg (a) C. 35 mmHg (a)
B. 795 mmHg (g) D. 35 nmHg (g)
For numbers 2-3:

A farmer has a 7-year rotation of corn, soybeans, and wheat and 4 years of alfalfa. Manure will be applied
before corn and wheat and before seeding to alfalfa. The initial soil test results indicate total phosphorus
level of 48 kg P per hectare. Manure is to be surface-applied in mid-March and disk-incorporated within 2
days of application. One-third of the organic nitrogen and 50% of the nitrogen from NH4 is available to the
corn crop. To obtain the desired yield of corn, the local extension agent has told the farmer to apply 100 kg
of nitrogen per hectare. The manure analysis is as follows.
 Total N = 12 g N · (kg manure)−1
 Organic N = 6 g N · (kg manure)−1
 NH4 = 6 g N · (kg manure)−1
 Total P2O5 = 5 g P · (kg manure)−1
 Total K2O = 4 g K · (kg manure)−1
2. Calculate the available nitrogen per kg of manure that must be applied to meet the corn’s nitrogen
needs.
A. 2 g C. 4 g
B. 3 g D. 5 g
3. Calculate the kg of manure per hectare that must be applied to meet the corn’s nitrogen needs.
A. 10,000 C. 30,000
B. 20,000 D. 40,000
4. Convert Cp [Btu/lbmol·ºF] = 20.869 + 5.293x10-2T [ºF] into cal/mol·K and K units.

A. 20.869 + 0.0294T C. 20.869 + 0.0953T
B. -3.447 + 0.0953T D. -3.447 + 0.0294T
For numbers 5-8:

Perchloric acid can be prepared from the reaction of barium perchlorate and sulfuric acid (supplied in 20%
excess). If 17,400 lb of perchloric acid leaves the separator and the recycle of barium perchlorate is 6,125
lb, calculate the following.
5. What is the overall conversion of barium perchlorate if the only streams that leave the separator and
the entire system are sulfuric acid, perchloric acid, and barium sulfate?
A. 10% B. 40% C. 70% D. 100%
6. The lb of perchloric acid leaving the separator per lb of barium perchlorate fed.
A. 0.43 B. 0.51 C. 0.64 D. 0.77
7. The lb sulfuric acid entering the reactor.

A. 10,700 B. 11,000 C. 11,400 D. 11,600
8. The per pass conversion of barium perchlorate.

A. 0.60 B. 0.70 C. 0.80 D. 0.90
For numbers 9-10:

Pure propane is catalytically dehydrogenated in a continuous process to obtain propylene. All hydrogen
formed is separated from the reactor exit gas with no loss of hydrocarbon. The mixture is then fractionated
to give a product stream containing 88% propylene and the balance propane. The other stream, which is
70% propane and the balance propylene, is recycled back. The one-pass conversion is 25% and 1000 kg
of propane per hour is fed.
9. What is the kg of product stream per hour?

A. 930 B. 960 C. 990 D. 1200
10. What is the kg of recycle stream per hour?

A. 2840 B. 3190 C. 3520 D. 3930
11. A 2 kg object weighs 1.8 kgf on a spring balance. The value of 'g' at that location in m/s 2 is
A. 8.82 B. 9.81 C. 10.88 D. 0.95
12. The most commonly used material for sewers for carrying sewage in the normal situation is
A. Asbestos cement C. Stoneware
B. Stainiess steel D. Cast iron
13. Ammonia gas can be dried by

A. PCl₅ C. CaCl₂
B. Quick lime D. H₂SO₄
14. With increase in carbon percentage in steel, its

A. Yield stress decreases C. Tensile strength increases
B. Elongation percent increases D. Impact strength increases
15. First empirical temperature scale conceived is the _________ temperature scale.
A. Absolute C. Fahrenheit
B. Reaumer D. Celsius
16. Black smoke coming out of the chimney of a furnace is an indication of the use of __________ in the
furnace.
A. Low amount of excess combustion air C. Hydrocarbon fuel
B. Large quantity of excess combustion air D. Pulverized coal as fuel
17. Use of preheated air for combustion of fuel in the furnace, increases the
A. Scale losses of the furnace stock C. Flame temperature
B. Calorific value of the fuel D. None of these
18. Low and high temperature carbonization of coal takes place at about ___ and ___ ºC, respectively.
A. 300 and 800 C. 700 and 1100
B. 1400 and 2000 D. 150 and 700
19. Which of the following can be made into briquettes without the use of a binder?
A. Lignite C. Anthracite coal
B. Bituminous coal D. None of these
20. Carburettor in a spark ignition engine is used to
A. Mix air-fuel in the desired ratio
B. Maintain a constant speed at varying loads
C. Adjust the stroke length
D. Increase the compression ratio
For numbers 21-22:

A natural gas analyzes 80% methane and 20% nitrogen. It is burned and most of the CO 2 is scrubbed out
of the flue gas for the production of dry ice. The exit gas has 1.2% CO 2 and 4.9% O2.
21. What is the percentage of CO2 absorbed?

A. 83.1 B. 87.6 C. 92.5 D. 98.8
22. What is the percent excess air?

A. 18 B. 21 C. 25 D. 28
For numbers 22-25:

Fuel oil is composed of 87.2% C, 8.6% H, and 4.2% S. It is burned using 30% excess air. If 5% of C is
turned to CO, determine the following:
23. Percentage of CO2 in wet basis.

A. 8.91 B. 11.25 C. 12.12 D. 14.01
24. Percentage CO2 in Orsat Analysis if prior to the analysis, PbO adsorbent was used.
A. 8.91 B. 11.25 C. 12.12 D. 14.01
25. A flue gas is analyzed in an Orsat analyzer. It contains 11.3% CO 2, 1.2% CO, 7.7% O2, and N2. What
is the percent excess air?
A. 35 B. 40 C. 45 D. 50
26. In an adiabatic system, if work is done, the temperature must __________.

A. increase C. remain constant
B. decrease D. increase first, then decrease back
27. Heat capacity may be defined as C = dQ/dT. What is the difficulty about the relationship of Q to C,
which is supposedly a state function?
A. Because it becomes a process-dependent quantity
B. Because it becomes applicable only to isochoric processes
C. Because it becomes applicable only to isothermal processes
D. Because it becomes a function that only depends on the initial and final state of the system
28. For a constant volume process _________ by the system is used only to increase the internal energy.
A. Heat absorbed C. Both A & B
B. Work done D. Neither A nor B
29. The work done in isothermal compression compared to that in adiabatic compression will be
A. Less C. Same
B. More D. Depends on the extent of work done
30. Which of the following processes cannot be made reversible even under ideal condition of operation?
A. Free expansion of a gas C. Expansion of steam in a turbine
B. Compression of air in a compressor D. All of the above
31. A 1-m³ of an ideal gas at 500 K and 1000 kPa expands reversibly to 5 times its initial volume in an
insulated container. If the specific heat capacity at constant pressure of the gas is 21 J/mol·K, the final
temperature will be
A. 35 K B. 174 K C. 274 K D. 154 K
32. A 2-mol sample of an ideal gas is isothermally and irreversibly expanded from 10 to 1 atm. The external
pressure is 1 atm at 300 K. Calculate the work done.
A. -4482 J B. 44820 J C. -4980 J D. 49800 J
For numbers 33-35:

Two pounds of ideal gas undergoes an isentropic process from 93.5 psig and 0.65 ft3 to 4.6 ft3. Find the
following if Cp and Cv are 0.124 and 0.093 BTU/lb·°R, respectively.
33. Final pressure (psia)

A. 4.967 B. 6.749 C. 7.964 D. 9.467
34. Change in enthalpy (BTU)

A. -24.95 B. -42.59 C. -59.42 D. -92.45
35. Change in internal energy (BTU)

A. -18.72 B. -28.71 C. -71.28 D. -82.17
For numbers 36-37:

A 1-kg copper bar is heated at atmospheric pressure from 20 to 50ºC.
36. What is the work associated with the process (J)?

A. -0.017 B. -0.131 C. -0.221 D. -0.312
37. What is the change in internal energy (kJ)?

A. 11.63 B. 16.31 C. 31.16 D. 36.11
38. Which is not accompanied by an increase in entropy of the system?

A. discharging a battery
B. boiling of water at atmospheric temperature
C. very slow expansion of gas into an evacuated flask
D. rapid expansion of gas and recompression to its original state
39. Which of the following has the highest entropy at a certain temperature and pressure?
A. dichloromethane C. ice
B. moist air D. dry ice
40. The expression for entropy change given by, ΔS = nR ln (V₂/V₁) + nCv ln (T₂/T₁) is valid for
A. Reversible isothermal volume change
B. Heating of a substance
C. Cooling of a substance
D. Simultaneous heating and expansion of an ideal gas
41. What is the change in entropy associated with the phase change (kJ/K) if a kilogram of ice at -15ºC
was melted to ambient temperature?
A. 0.5 B. 0.9 C. 1.3 D. 1.7
42. What is the COP of the heat pump that operates at a winter temperature -5ºC in order to maintain the
room temperature of 20ºC?
A. 4 B. 8 C. 12 D. 16
For numbers 43-44:

A 100 g of ice is put in 500 g of water at 293 K.
43. What will be the final temperature of the system?

A. 273 K B. 276.3 K C. 281.7 K D. 294.1 K
44. What will be the change in entropy (J/K)?

A. 4.2 B. 5.0 C. 6.1 D. 6.9
45. Argon at 35ºC and 1 atm in a container of volume 400 cm3, is expanded to 800 cm3 and is
simultaneously heated to 115ºC. What is the entropy change (J/mol·K)?
A. 4.84 B. 4.23 C. 8.64 D. 2.45
46. Which of the following is TRUE about the Third Law of Thermodynamics?
A. It implies that the sign of the entropy above absolute zero is always positive.
B. It states that the entropy of a perfect crystalline structure is zero at absolute zero.
C. It provides a reference point that allows measurement of absolute entropy at any temperature.
D. All of the above.
47. Superheated vapor behaves

A. Exactly as gas C. As ordinary vapour
B. As steam D. Approximately as a gas
48. In a turbine, the fluid expands almost

A. Isothermally C. Adiabatically
B. Isobarically D. None of these
For numbers 49-51:

Consider a Diesel cycle that is operated using air initially at 40ºC and 0.1 MPa. The heat added to the cycle
is 1.675 MJ/kg and the compression ratio is 15. Calculate the following:
49. Maximum temperature (K)

A. 2590 B. 2780 C. 2910 D. 3120
50. Thermal efficiency

A. 0.43 B. 0.49 C. 0.57 D. 0.61
51. Mean Effective Pressure (kPa)

A. 1080 B. 1130 C. 1190 D. 1240
52. What is the change in internal energy of water when it is vaporized at 100ºC and 101.325 kPa?
A. 2088 B. 2133 C. 2179 D. 2243
53. A gas is confined in a cylinder by a piston. The initial pressure is 7 bar and the volume is 0.10 m 3. The
piston is held in place by latches in the cylinder wall. The whole apparatus is placed in a total vacuum.
What is the energy change of the apparatus if the restraining latches are removed so that the gas
suddenly expands to double its initial volume, the piston striking the other latches at the end of the
process?
A. 0 B. 70 kJ C. 140 kJ D. 200 kJ
For numbers 54-55:

Water at 45ºC and 10 kPa enters an adiabatic pump and is discharged at a pressure of 8,600 kPa. Assume
the pump efficiency is 0.75. Calculate the following:
54. Work of the pump (kJ/kg)

A. 11.57 B. 15.71 C. 17.51 D. 51.17
55. Entropy change of the water (kJ/kg-K)

A. 0.006 B. 0.007 C. 0.008 D. 0.009
56. Consider the reaction A + 2B → 3C. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. The reaction is elementary. C. The reaction is termolecular.
B. The reaction is bimolecular. D. The reaction is trisubstrate.
57. If the elementary step A → B has a reaction enthalpy of -75 kJ and an activation energy of 25 kJ, what
is the activation energy for the reverse step?
A. -25 kJ B. -50 kJ C. 50 kJ D. 100 kJ
58. The partial pressures of the reactants of a gaseous PX (torr) PY (torr) Initial Rate (torr/s)
reaction system is given, as well as the initial rates. 160 320 0.58
Which rate law best satisfies the reaction? 320 160 1.16
A. rate = kPX 320 320 2.32
B. rate = kPY
C. rate = kPX2PY
D. rate = kPY2PX
59. The table below shows an experiment of rate law determination using the method of initial rates.
Trial Initial [A] (M) Initial [B] (M) Initial [C] (M) Initial Rate (M/s)
1 0.025 0.040 0.035 0.0320
2 0.035 0.040 0.035 0.0672
3 0.025 0.100 0.035 0.0506
4 0.025 0.040 0.161 0.1470
5 0.020 0.050 0.080
Determine the unknown rate (M/s) of the fifth trial.

A. 0.0311 B. 0.0409 C. 0.0523 D. 0.0676
60. In a first order reaction, the time required for half of an initial amount to decompose is 3 min. If initially,
there is 1 M of A, how long will it take (min) to reduce the concentration of A to 0.25 M?
A. 4.5 B. 6.0 C. 6.6 D. 12.0
61. The concentration of a chemical degrades in water according to first-order decay (k = 0.2/day). If the
initial concentration is 100.0mg/L, how many days are required to reach 0.14 mg/L concentration?
A. 11 B. 22 C. 33 D. 44
62. The rate of reaction is equal to the rate constant. This pertains to which reaction order?
A. Zero B. First C. Second D. None of these
63. If the initial concentration of A increases, the half-life of the reaction decreases. This pertains to which
reaction order?
A. Zero B. First C. Second D. None of these
64. It takes about 3.2 minutes to cook a hard-boiled egg in Southern Luzon, but at the higher altitude of
Northern Luzon, where water boils at 92ºC, the cooking time is 4.8 minutes. Estimate the activation
energy (kJ/mol) for the coagulation of egg albumin protein.
A. 57.3 B. 67.3 C. 77.3 D. 87.3
65. In the mechanism below, the rate of formation of product if steady-state approximation is
𝑑[𝑃] 𝑘 𝑘 [𝐴][𝑀] 𝑑[𝑃] 𝑘 𝑘 [𝑀]
𝐴 + 𝑀 ↔𝐴∗ + 𝑀 A. = C. =
𝑑𝑡 𝑘 [𝑀] + 𝑘 𝑑𝑡 𝑘 [𝐴][𝑀] + 𝑘
𝑑[𝑃] 𝑘 [𝑀] 𝑑[𝑃] 𝑘 [𝐴]
𝐴∗ →𝑃 B. = D. =
𝑑𝑡 𝑘 [𝑀] + 𝑘 𝑑𝑡 𝑘 [𝑀] + 𝑘
66. A batch reactor is suitable for

A. Achieving cent percent conversion of reactants into products
B. Large scale gaseous phase reactions

C. Liquid phase reactions
D. Obtaining uniform polymerisation products in highly exothermic reactions
67. Recycling back of outlet stream to the reactor from an ideal CSTR carrying out a first order liquid
phase reaction will result in __________ in conversion.
A. Decrease C. No change
B. Increase D. Depends on the type of reaction
68. Two CSTRs in series will be used for a first order reaction. What is the relative size of the second to
the first reactor if there is 40% conversion in the first reactor to get 80% overall conversion?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
For numbers 69-70:

A 4-L CSTR is in series with a PFR which is four times larger. The reaction A → B + C is found to be first
order. The initial concentration of A is 0.01 M and it has been determined that the concentration of B going
out of the CSTR is 0.002 M.
69. What is the concentration of A (M) of the PFR inlet?

A. 0.005 B. 0.006 C. 0.007 D. 0.008
70. What is the overall conversion of A?

A. 50.77% B. 57.70% C. 70.57% D. 77.50%
For numbers 71-73:

Water at 60ºF (62.37 lb/ft3; 1.129 cP) is pumped from a reservoir to the top of a mountain through a 6” Sch
120 pipe at an average velocity of 12 ft/s. The pipe discharges into the atmosphere at a level 3000 ft above
the level in the reservoir. The pipeline itself is 4500 ft long. If the overall efficiency of the pump and the
motor driving it is 70%, and the cost of electric energy to the motor is 4 cents per kWh, solve for the following.
71. What is the Reynolds Number?

A. 2.54x105 B. 5.42x105 C. 2.45x105 D. 4.52x105
72. What is the amount of friction losses (ft·lbf/lbm) inside the pipe?
A. 306.6 B. 603.6 C. 360.6 D. 663.0
73. Determine the theoretical energy requirement (kWh) required for pumping water in one hour.
A. 563.01 B. 625.47 C. 742.65 D. 476.52
For numbers 74-76: Consider air that enters a nozzle at a pressure of 0.2 MPa, temperature of 350 K, and
a velocity of 150 m/s. Assuming isentropic flow, solve for the following.
74. What is the pressure of air (MPa) at the location where the air velocity equals the speed of sound?
A. 0.118 B. 0.811 C. 0.181 D. 1.018
75. What is the temperature of air (K) at the location where the air velocity equals the speed of sound?
A. 130 B. 310 C. 301 D. 103
76. What is the inlet Mach number?

A. 0.20 B. 0.40 C. 0.60 D. 0.80
77. A 0.10-inch spherical particle (1.92 kg/L) is suddenly dropped into a 3-inch cylindrical container
containing 1 L of stagnant viscous fluid (9,420 cP, 1.33 kg/L). How long does it take the particle to
reach the bottom of the container?
A. 13.2 min B. 14.4 min C. 15.9 min D. 16.6 min
78. What is the viscosity (lbm/ft-hr) of a fluid with a shear stress of 0.692 dyne/cm2 and shear rate of 10
cm/cm-s?
A. 0.0692 B. 69.2 C. 0.0465 D. 16.7
For numbers 79-81:

Water is flowing at a rate of 1.67 m/s in a 3.0-inch diameter horizontal pipe at a pressure of 68.9 kPa. It
then passes to a pipe having an internal diameter of 2.0 inches.
79. What would be the corresponding velocity in the 2.0-inch pipe?

A. 6.357 m/s B. 3.756 m/s C. 5.673 m/s D. 5.367 m/s
80. Assuming no friction losses in the pipe, what would be the new pressure in the 2.0-inch pipe?
A. 63.24 kPa B. 46.32 kPa C. 24.36 kPa D. 34.62 kPa
81. If the pipes were re-arranged vertically where the pressure tap on the 2.0-inch pipe is 0.50 m above
the pressure tap on the 3.0-inch pipe, what would be the new pressure in the 2.0-inch pipe?
A. 8.46 psi B. 6.84 psi C. 4.86 psi D. 6.48 psi
For numbers 82-84:

A pipeline laid between two distant pumping stations carries oil (770 kg/m3) at the rate of 800 m3/day. The
pressure of the oil leaving Station 1 is 1800 kPa gauge, while the pressure is 870 kPa gauge at the inlet to
Station 2. The second station is situated 18 m higher than the first station.
82. What is the corresponding potential energy between the two pumping stations?
A. 157.6 J/kg B. 165.7 J/kg C. 176.5 J/kg D. 167.5 J/kg
83. Determine the corresponding pressure loss between the two pumping stations?
A. 1082 J/kg B. 1802 J/kg C. 1208 J/kg D. 2081 J/kg
84. Calculate for the lost work due to friction between the two pumping stations.
A. 1103 J/kg B. 1130 J/kg C. 1013 J/kg D. 1031 J/kg
For numbers 85-87:

Water (997.5 kg/m3) is stored in an elevated reservoir. To generate power, water flows at a rate of 0.905
m3/s from this reservoir down through a large conduit to a turbine and then through a similar-sized conduit.
At a point in the conduit 95.5 m above the turbine, the pressure is 175 kPa and at a level 8 m below the
turbine, the pressure is 90 kPa. The shaft of the turbine has an output of 680 kW. If the efficiency of the
turbine is 84%, determine the amount of friction losses in the turbine.
85. What is the mass flow rate (in kg/s) of water?

A. 905.0 B. 792.0 C. 720.9 D. 902.7
86. Determine the theoretical work output of the turbine (in J/kg).
A. 876.9 B. 896.7 C. 897.6 D. 867.9
87. Determine the amount of friction losses in the turbine (in J/kg).
A. 432.0 B. 342.0 C. 203.4 D. 403.2
For numbers 88-90:

A pump draws a solution (SG = 1.84) from a storage tank through a 3.0-in Sch 40 pipe. The efficiency of
the pump is 60%. The velocity in the suction line is 3 ft/s. The pump discharges through a 2.0-in Sch 40
pipe to an overhead tank. The end of the discharge pipe is 50 ft above the level of the solution in the feed
tank. Friction losses in the entire piping system are 10 ft·lbf/lbm.
88. Determine the velocity of the solution at the outlet above the overhead tank.
A. 1.66 ft/s B. 6.16 ft/s C. 6.61 ft/s D. 1.61 ft/s
89. What is the pressure developed by the pump?

A. 94.7 psi B. 74.4 psi C. 79.4 psi D. 47.9 psi
90. Calculate the actual power of the pump.

A. 3.25 hp B. 2.42 hp C. 5.32 hp D. 4.22 hp
For numbers 91-92:

Air flows down a pipe with a diameter of 0.15 m. At the inlet to the pipe, the Mach number is 0.10, the
pressure is 70 kPa, and the temperature is 35°C. The flow is assumed to be adiabatic and behaves ideally,
and the mean friction factor is 0.005.
91. Determine the pressure at the exit to the pipe?

92. What is the temperature at the exit to the pipe?

A. 327.4 K B. 234.7 K C. 347.2 K D. 273.4 K
For numbers 93-98:

A centrifugal fan is used to take 10,000 standard ft3/min flue gas at rest and at a pressure of 29.0 inHg and
a temperature of 200ºF and discharge it at a pressure of 30.1 inHg and a velocity of 150 ft/s. The efficiency
of the fan is 65%, and the molecular weight of the gas is 31.3. The common gas standard is known at a
pressure of 30 inHg and a temperature of 60ºF that corresponds to a molal volume of 378.7 ft 3/lbmol.
93. Determine the actual suction density (in lbm/ft3).

A. 0.0629 B. 0.0962 C. 0.0296 D. 0.2069
94. Determine the actual discharge density (in lbm/ft3).

A. 0.0365 B. 0.0653 C. 0.0635 D. 0.3560
95. What is the developed pressure in the fan (in ft·lbf/lbm)?

A. 4112 B. 1422 C. 1214 D. 2114
96. Calculate for the theoretical work requirement of the pump (in ft·lbf/lbm).
A. 6240 B. 4602 C. 2406 D. 4062
97. Determine the mass flow rate of the flue gas (in lbm/s).
A. 17.38 B. 13.78 C. 18.37 D. 18.73
98. What is the actual power requirement of the fan (in hp)?
A. 45.0 B. 54.0 C. 60.3 D. 36.0
99. A 50-cm x 30-cm x 20-cm block weighting 150 N is to be moved at a constant velocity of 0.8 m/s on an
inclined surface with a friction coefficient of 0.27. If a 0.4-mm thick oil film with a dynamic viscosity of
0.012 Pa-s is applied between the block and inclined surface, determine the required horizontal force
to move the block.
A. 177.0 N B. 160.5 N C. 105.5 N D. 57.2 N
For numbers 101-102:

A thin 20-cm x 20-cm flat plate is pulled to the right at 1 m/s through a 3.6-mm thick oil layer placed in
between two plates, one is stationary, and the other is moving at a constant velocity of 0.3 m/s to the left.
The flat plate lies 1.0-mm below the stationary plate, and 2.6-mm above the moving plate. The dynamic
viscosity of the oil is 0.027 Pa·s.
100. Determine the shear force (N) near the stationary plate.
A. 0.54 B. 0.39 C. 1.62 D. 1.08
101. Determine the shear force (N) on the side of the moving plate.
A. 0.54 B. 0.39 C. 1.62 D. 1.08
102. Determine the pulling force (N) needed to maintain the motion.
A. 0.54 B. 0.39 C. 1.62 D. 1.08
103. A 6.0-kg block of a slides down a 15º inclined plane while lubricated by a 1-mm thick film of SAE 30 oil
at 20ºC (0.29 kg/m·s) with a 35-cm2 film contact area. Find the terminal velocity (zero-acceleration) of
the block.
A. 10 m/s B. 20 m/s C. 15 m/s D. 5 m/s

Calculate the heat transfer coefficient for a fluid with the properties listed below, flowing through a tube 20
ft long and of 0.62 in inside diameter. The bulk fluid temperature is 212ºF and the tube surface temperature
is 122ºF.
Physical Properties of the fluid:

c = specific heat = 0.65 Btu/lb·ºF μw = viscosity at 122°F = 4.0 lb/ft·h
k = thermal conductivity = 0.085 Btu/h·ft·ºF μb = viscosity at 212°F = 1.95 lb/ft·h
104. Calculate the heat-transfer coefficient (Btu/h·ft2·ºF) if the fluid is flowing at a rate of 2000 lb/h.
A. 10 B. 124 C. 280 D. 356
105. Calculate the heat-transfer coefficient if the flow rate is reduced to 100 lb/h.
A. 10 B. 124 C. 280 D. 356

Consider a distant face of a brick wall, of thermal diffusivity, DH = 0.0042 cm2/s and thickness l = 0.45 m,
initially at 290 K, to rise to 470 K if the near face is suddenly raised to a temperature of T’ = 870 K and
maintained at that temperature. Assume that all the heat flow is perpendicular to the face of the wall and
that the distant face is perfectly insulated.
106. Calculate the time for the distant face to reach 470 K.
A. 23.4 hr B. 28.6 hr C. 30.9 hr D. 33.5 hr
107. Calculate the time for the distant face to reach 470 K under the same conditions as the previous
problem, except that the distant face is not perfectly lagged but a very large thickness of material of the
same thermal properties as the brickwork is stacked against it.
A. 10.6 hr B. 30.9 hr C. 57.8 hr D. 62.8 hr

A piece of aluminum (ρ = 2705 kg/m3, k = 216 W/m·K, cp = 896 J/kg·K) having a mass of 4.78 kg and initially
at temperature of 290ºC is suddenly immersed in a fluid at 15ºC. The convective heat transfer coefficient is
54 W/m2·K. Taking the aluminum as a sphere having the same mass as that given,
108. Determine the Biot number of the system.

A. 0.00717 B. 0.00625 C. 0.00927 D. 0.00868
109. Estimate the time required to cool the aluminum to 90ºC in seconds.
A. 1458 B. 1664 C. 1078 D. 1421
110. Find the total heat transferred during this period.

A. 745.6 B. 542.7 C. 659.8 D. 856.6
111. A solid cube of side 30 cm at an initial temperature of 1000 K is kept in vacuum at absolute zero
temperature. Calculate the time required to cool it to 500 K in seconds. The material has the following
properties:
 Density = 2700 kg/m3
 Specific heat = 0.9 kJ/kg·K
 Emissivity = 0.1
 Stefan-Boltzmann constant = 5.67x10-8 W/m2·K4
A. 50000 B. 45000 C. 55000 D. 40000
112. What would be the Earth’s atmospheric temperature if the magnitude of the greenhouse effect is
increased by 10%? Assume the average temperature of the Earth as 288 K and albedo is 0.3
A. 291.3 B. 290.7 C. 288.2 D. 287.5
113. In a counter-current heat exchanger, an oil stream is cooled from 450 K to 410 K by water inlet and
outlet temperatures of 300 K and 350 K respectively. The exchanger consists a number of tubes of 1
m length each. It is now desired to cool the oil to 390 K (instead of 410 K) while maintaining the flow
rate of oil, flow rate of water, inlet temperature of oil and water, and the number of tubes at the same
values as before. Calculate the length of each tube required for this purpose. Assume that the physical
properties remain unchanged.
A. 1.275 m B. 1.332 m C. 1.912 m D. 1.673 m
114. Which of the following is NOT a basic mechanism of heat transfer?

A. Heat is transferred through space by means of electromagnetic waves.
B. Heat is conducted by the transfer of the energy of motion between adjacent molecules.
C. Heat is transferred by the bulk transport and mixing of macroscopic elements of warmer portions
with cooler portions of a fluid.
D. None of the above.
115. Water flows at 2 m/s through a 2.5-m length of a 25-mm diameter tube. If the tube is at 320 K and the
water enters and leaves at 293 and 295 K, respectively, what is the value of the heat transfer coefficient
in kW/m2·K?
A. 1.6 B. 2.3 C. 7.4 D. 9.0
116. Which of the following is FALSE?

A. Orifice baffles are never used in a shell and tube heat exchanger
B. Pressure drop on the shell side of a heat exchanger depends upon tube pitch also
C. In a horizontal tube evaporator, surface blanketing by air is avoided
D. Split ring type and pull through type floating heads are two commonly used floating heads is heat
exchangers
117. When vaporization takes place directly at the heating surface, it is called
A. Film boiling C. Vapor binding
B. Nucleate boiling D. None of these
118. Which of the following is FALSE?

A. The condensing film co-efficient is about 3 times lower for vertical condenser as compared to the
equivalent horizontal condenser for identical situation
B. Film co-efficient for vaporization decreases as a result of vapor binding
C. In industrial practice, sub-cooling of condensate is required, when the condensate is a volatile liquid
and is to be transferred for storage
D. Overall heat transfer co-efficient in a heat exchanger is controlled by the value of the film co-
efficient, which is higher
119. Choose the correct equation.

A. Nu = (Re)(Pr)(Gz) C. Nu = (Re)(Pr)
B. Nu = (Re)(Pr)(St) D. Nu = (Pr)(St)
120. Ammonia gas is diffusing at a constant rate through a layer of stagnant air 1 mm thick. Conditions are
fixed so that the gas contains 50% by volume of ammonia at one boundary of the stagnant layer. The
ammonia diffusing to the other boundary is quickly absorbed and the concentration is negligible at that
plane. The temperature is 295 K and the pressure atmospheric, and under these conditions the
diffusivity of ammonia in air is 0.18 cm2/s. Calculate the rate of diffusion of ammonia through the layer
in mol/m2·s.
A. 0.515 B. 0.655 C. 0.707 D. 0.789
121. In a packed column, operating at approximately atmospheric pressure and 295 K, a 10% ammonia-air
mixture is scrubbed with water and the concentration is reduced to 0.1%. The whole of the resistance
to mass transfer may be regarded as lying within a thin laminar film on the gas side of the gas-liquid
interface. At some intermediate point where the ammonia concentration in the gas phase has been
reduced to 5%, the partial pressure of ammonia in equilibrium with the aqueous solution is 660 N/m2
and the transfer rate is 103 kmol/m2·s. What is the thickness of the hypothetical gas film if the diffusivity
of ammonia in air is 0.24 cm2/s?
A. 0.032 mm B. 0.035 mm C. 0.039 mm D. 0.043 mm

Ammonia gas and nitrogen gas are diffusing in counterdiffusion through a straight glass tube 2.0 ft long
with an inside diameter of 0.080 ft at 298 K and 101.32 kPa. Both ends of the tube are connected to a large
mixed chambers at 101.32 kPa. The partial pressure of ammonia in one chamber is constant at 20.0 kPa
and 6.666 kPa in the other chamber. The diffusivity at 298 K and 101.32 kPa is 2.30x10 -5 m2/s.
122. Calculate the diffusion of NH3 in lbmol/h.

A. 7.52x10-7 B. 9.48x10-11 C. 8.23x10-7 D. 5.02x10-11
123. Calculate the partial pressure of ammonia at a point 1 ft in the tube.

124. What is the mass transfer coefficient (m/s) of air that is flowing through a wetted wall column?
Re = 106, Sc = 2.5 and vave = 4.0 m/s
A. 8.9x10-3 B. 1.9x10-3 C. 5.3x10-3 D. 3.0x10-3
125. An open bowl with 0.3-m diameter, contains water at 350 K evaporating into the atmosphere. If the air
currents are sufficiently strong to remove the water vapor as it is formed and if the resistance to its
mass transfer in air is equivalent to that of a 1-mm layer for conditions of molecular diffusion, what will
be the rate of cooling due to evaporation? The water can be considered as well mixed and the water
equivalent of the system is equal to 10 kg. The diffusivity of water vapor in air may be taken as 0.20
cm2/s and the kilogram molecular volume at NTP as 22.4 m 3.
A. 2.6 deg K/s C. 0.026 deg K/s
B. 0.18 deg K/s D. 0.0018 deg K/s
126. Which of the following is a valid type of diffusion?

A. Only one component of the mixture is transferred to and from the interface and the total flow is the
same as the flow of that particular component.
B. The diffusion of one component in a mixture is balanced by an equal and opposite molar flow of
another component, thus, there is no net molar flow.
C. Two components diffuse in different directions but the molar flows are unequal.
127. Carbon dioxide is diffusing through Nitrogen in one direction at atmospheric pressure and 0ºC. The
mole fraction of CO2 at point A is 0.2, at point B, 3 m away, in the direction of diffusion, it is 0.02. The
concentration gradient is constant over this distance. Diffusivity Dv is 0.144 cm2/s. The gas phase as a
whole is stationary, i.e. Nitrogen is diffusing at the same rate as Carbon dioxide, but in the opposite
direction. What is the molal flux of Carbon dioxide, in kg·mol/m2·hr?
A. 1.4x10-4 B. 2.4x10-4 C. 5.7x10-4 D. 7.3x 10-4
128. A centrifuge with a phosphor bronze basket, 380 mm in diameter, is to be run at 67 Hz with a 75 mm
layer of liquid of density 1200 kg/m3 in the basket. The density of phosphor bronze is 8900 kg/m3 and
the maximum safe stress for phosphor bronze is 87.6 MN/m2. What thickness of walls is required in the
basket?
A. 8.76 mm B. 15.1 mm C. 17.2 mm D. 23.5 mm

An aqueous solution consisting of particles of density 2500 kg/m3 in the size range 1-10 µm is introduced
into a centrifuge with a basket 450 mm diameter rotating at 80 Hz. If the suspension forms a layer 75 mm
thick in the basket,
129. Determine the Reynolds number.

A. 0.12 B. 0.99 C. 0.46 D. 0.35
130. Determine the time it takes for the smallest particle to settle out.
A. 19.3 s B. 26.9 s C. 13.7 s D. 20.8 s
131. In which of the following areas is centrifuge extensively used?

A. For drying of solids, and, in particular, crystals.
B. For breaking down of emulsions and colloidal suspensions.
C. For separation of gases.

In a test on a centrifuge, all particles of a mineral of density 2800 kg/m3 and of size 5 µm, equivalent
spherical diameter, were separated from suspension in water fed at a volumetric throughput rate of 0.25
m3/s.
132. Calculate the value of the capacity factor, Ʃ.

A. 1.02x104 m2 C. 1.02x105 m2
B. 2.01x104 m2 D. 2.01x105 m2
133. What will be the corresponding size cut for a suspension of coal particles in oil fed at the rate of 0.04
m3/s? The density of the coal is 1300 kg/m3 and the density of the oil is 850 kg/m3 and its viscosity is
0.01 Ns/m2.
A. 2 µm B. 4 µm C. 6 µm D. 8 µm
134. It is a region in gas-fluidized systems characterized by a high proportion of the gas passing through the
bed as gas pockets which cause rapid mixing in the dense particulate phase.
A. Bubbling C. Particulate
B. Turbulent D. Fast fluidization
135. Spherical particles having density of 1600 kg/m3 and particle size of 1.5 mm are fluidized by water in a
tube having a diameter of 10 mm. With the assumption that Carman-Kozeny equation is applicable,
calculate the minimum fluidizing velocity (m/s). εM = 0.45
A. 0.0311 B. 0.0133 C. 0.0113 D. 0.0331
136. A bed consists of uniform spherical particles of diameter 3 mm and density 4200 kg/m 3. What will be
the minimum fluidizing velocity in a liquid of viscosity 3 mNs/m2 and density 1100 kg/m3?
A. 85.9 mm/s B. 36.4 mm/s C. 64.3 mm/s D. 59.8 mm/s
137. Glass spheres are fluidized by water at a velocity equal to one half of their terminal falling velocities.
Calculate the density of the fluidized bed. The particles are 2 mm in diameter and have a density of
2500 kg/m3. The density and viscosity of water are 1000 kg/m3 and 1 mNs/m2, respectively.
A. 2483 kg/m3 B. 3556 kg/m3 C. 998 kg/m3 D. 1367 kg/m3
138. Find the pressure gradient in the bed attributable to the presence of the particles in the previous
question.
A. 3605 Pa/m B. 2650 Pa/m C. 6350 Pa/m D. 3360 Pa/m
139. What is the mode of filtration operation when high pressures are applied, causing the solids to rapidly
form resistance?
A. CRF-CPF B. Gravity C. CPF D. CRF
140. Which type of filter is operated inside a horizontal tank filled with several units that can filter at relatively
high pressures?
A. Rotary Vacuum Filter C. Plate and Frame
B. Leaf Filter D. Tubular Filter
141. Which type of filter is tightly combined into a series of modules to form an assembly?
A. Rotary Vacuum Filter C. Plate and Frame
B. Leaf Filter D. Tubular Filter
142. Simplest type of filter mainly used when there is relatively small amounts of solids to be removed from
large amounts of water.
A. Leaf Filters C. Bed Filters
B. Rotary Vacuum Filters D. Plate-and-Frame Filters
143. A rotary vacuum filter with a diameter and length of 1 m and 0.75 m, respectively, is submerged such
that 30% of its total area is in contact with the slurry as it rotates. If the filtrate production is 0.5 m 3/min,
what is the filtrate production per unit area (m/min)?
A. 0.163 B. 0.212 C. 0.424 D. 0.707

A slurry containing 100 kg of whiting of density 3000 kg/m3 per m3 of water is filtered in a plate and frame
press, which takes 900 s to dismantle, clean, and re-assemble.
144. If the cake is incompressible and has a voidage of 0.4, what is the optimum thickness of cake for a
filtration pressure drop of 1000 kN/m2? The density of the whiting is 3000 kg/m3. The resistance of the
filter medium may be neglected and the viscosity of water is 1 mNs/m 2. In an experiment, a pressure
difference of 165 kN/m2 produced a flow of water of 0.02 cm3/s through a centimeter cube of filter cake.
A. 60 mm B. 70 mm C. 80 mm D. 90 mm
145. If the cake in previous problem is washed at 500 kN/m2 and the total volume of wash water employed
is 25 per cent of that of the filtrate, how is the optimum thickness of the cake affected?
A. 60 mm B. 70 mm C. 80 mm D. 90 mm
146. Total filtrate volume of 3.37 m3 is collected in 269.7 s. The cake is to be washed through washing in
the plate-and-frame press using a volume of wash water equal to 10% of the filtrate volume. Calculate
the total filter cycle time if cleaning the filter takes 20 mins.
A. 24.58 min B. 36.87 min C. 31.69 min D. 27.73 min
147. Which among the following membrane separation techniques completely prevents the passage of
bacteria, fat, and proteins?
I. Ultrafiltration A. II and IV
II. Nanofiltration B. I and III
III. Microfiltration C. I, II, and IV
IV. Reverse Osmosis D. All of these
148. Flat Sheet : Annular membrane discs :: __________ : Central collection tubes
A. Hollow Fiber C. Spiral Wound
B. Tubular D. Fabric Cloth

Components A and B of a gaseous mixture are separated using a membrane (t = 24 μm). The feed flow
rate is 8.0x103 cm3/s and the feed composition is 55%. The pressure on the feed and permeate sides are
63 cmHg and 17 cmHg, respectively. The desired reject composition is 38%. The permeabilities of A and
B are 2.3x10-9 in/s and 9.8x10-10 cm/s, respectively.
149. The permselectivity of the membrane for the mixture of A and B is

A. 5.96 B. 2.35 C. 0.43 D. 0.17
150. The total membrane area required for the separation is

A. 21,060 m2 B. 16,020 m2 C. 12,600 m2 D. 10,206 m2
For numbers 151-153.

A hollow fiber permeator with outer diameter = 300 μm and inner diameter = 200 μm gives a water flux of
10 gal/day-ft2 with 0.1 M NaCl solution at 20°C and the salt rejection is 97%. Feed solution flows normal to
the fibers at an average superficial velocity of 0.5 cm/s.
151. Find the concentration polarization.

A. 0.086 B. 0.068 C. 1.068 D. 1.086
152. Estimate the exit velocity if the fiber length is 3 m.

A. 0.823 m/s B. 0.614 m/s C. 0.425 m/s D. 0.571 m/s
153. What is the pressure drop if the fibers are open at both ends?
A. 2.061 atm B. 6.201 atm C. 1.260 atm D. 0.612 atm
154. What type of particles comprise the gangue?

A. Dense B. Hydrophilic C. Hydrophobic D. Porous
155. Which flotation cell purifies the rougher overflow?

A. Conditioner B. Rougher C. Cleaner D. Scavenger
156. Frother is added in the froth flotation cell used in ore concentration to stabilize the air bubbles, which
will hold the ore particles but does not affect the floatability of minerals. Which of the following is NOT
used as a frother?
A. Cresylic acid C. Pine oil
B. Xanthates D. All of these
157. The best unit operation in the benefaction treatment of sulfide ores is
A. Classification C. Jiggling
B. Tabling D. Froth flotation
158. Gold ore concentration is mostly done by using

A. Jiggling C. Froth flotation
B. Tabling D. Elutriation

Consider 25 tons of ore that is being treated per hour. The ore contains 9% PbS and 91% SiO 2. Laboratory
experiments show that L/S = 5 and the contact time is 6 min in the scavenger, and L/S = 2 for 19 min in the
rougher. Concentrate: PbS = 81%, SiO2 = 19%; rougher tailings: PbS = 7%, SiO2 = 93%; scavenger
concentrate: PbS = 9%, SiO2 = 91%; final tailings: PbS = 1%, SiO2 = 99%. Note: ρPbS = 7.5 g/cm3, ρSiO2 =
2.65 g/cm3
159. What is the required rougher volume in ft3?

A. 5035 B. 1590 C. 700 D. 2215
160. What is the required scavenger volume in ft3?

A. 1550 B. 2160 C. 680 D. 4905
161. What is the yield of PbS in the concentrate?

A. 80% B. 85% C. 90% D. 95%
162. Which of the following combinations CANNOT indicate the rest of the air properties using the
psychrometric chart?
A. dry bulb temperature and wet bulb temperature
B. dew point temperature and absolute humidity
C. wet bulb temperature and relative humidity
D. absolute humidity and humid volume
163. Which of the following is an advantage of using forced draft cooling towers?
A. Can be installed in confined spaces C. Recirculation of humid vapor is avoided
B. Lower power requirement D. None of the above
164. Induced draft fans provided in large thermal power plant boilers have
A. forward curved blades C. double curved blades
B. backward curved blades D. radial or straight blades
165. A compressor delivers air at a total pressure of 40 psia and a temperature of 150°F. If this air is
saturated with water vapor, what is the humidity of the air?
A. 0.1010 C. 0.1521
B. 0.0636 D. 0.0111
166. At certain temperature and 1 atm total pressure, the partial pressure of water in air is 20 mmHg. What
is the humidity of the air?
A. 0.1120 C. 0.0053
B. 0.0211 D. 0.0168

A mixture of a vapor and inert gas has a dry bulb temperature of 158ºF and wet bulb temperature of 95ºF
at standard atmospheric pressure. Specific heats of the vapor and inert gas are 0.33 and 0.45 BTU/lb·ºF,
respectively. Latent heat of evaporation of the vapor is 17,650 BTU/lb·mol. Diffusivity of the vapor in the
gas is 0.52 ft2/h. Vapor pressures of the pure vapor are 50.2 mmHg at 95ºF and 246 mmHg at 158ºF.
Consider µ = 0.022 cP, hg/ky=0.457 BTU/lb·ºF, Mvapor = 55, Mgas = 23.
167. What is the humid heat of the mixture (BTU/lb·°F)?

A. 0.1587 B. 0.2687 C. 0.3364 D. 0.4762
168. What is the humid volume of the mixture (ft3/lb dry air)?
A. 18.46 B. 20.27 C. 23.59 D. 26.77
169. Determine the percent relative saturation.

A. 9.93 B. 11.58 C. 12.91 D. 16.83
170. Determine the percent saturation.

A. 6.11 B. 6.94 C. 8.24 D. 9.52
171. What is the Schmidt number?

A. 0.88 B. 1.49 C. 2.07 D. 4.13
172. The wet bulb absolute saturation (lb water/lb dry air) is equal to _____.
A. 0.1691 B. 0.2074 C. 0.2588 D. 0.3176
173. A 30,000 m3 of cool gas (measured at 289 K and 101.3 kN/m2 saturated with water vapor) is
compressed to 340 kN/m2 pressure, cooled to 289 K and the condensed water is drained off.
Subsequently the pressure is reduced to 170 kN/m2 and the gas is distributed at this pressure and 289
K. What is the percentage humidity after this treatment? The vapor pressure of water at 289 K is 1.8
kN/m2.
A. 39.74% B. 37.94% C. 49.73% D. 43.97%

A hydrogen stream at 300 K and atmospheric pressure has a dew point of 275 K. It is to be further humidified
by adding to it (through a nozzle) saturated steam at 240 kN/m2 at the rate of 1 kg steam: 30 kg of hydrogen
feed.
174. What will be the resulting temperature?

A. 271.4 K C. 300.5 K
B. 314.8 K D. 289.2 K
175. What is the humidity of the resultant stream?

A. 0.100 kg/kg C. 0.065 kg/kg
B. 0.035 kg/kg D. 0.135 kg/kg
176. The feed condition is usually dilute thus the viscosity is ____ and the convective heat transfer coefficient
is ____.
A. high, high C. low, low
B. high, low D. low, high

Consider an evaporator that is used to concentrate 9072 kg/h of 1% solution at 37.8ºC to a final
concentration of 1.5%. It is operated at 101 kPa, the steam is available at 143.3 kPa and the overall heat
transfer coefficient is 1704 W/m2K.
177. What is the amount of vapor formed (kg/h)?

A. 605 B. 3024 C. 6048 D. 8467
178. What is the steam economy?

A. 0.617 B. 0.736 C. 1.360 D. 1.840
179. The effective heat transfer area (m2) is

A. 150 B. 180 C. 210 D. 240

A liquid with no appreciable elevation of boiling-point is concentrated in a triple-effect evaporator. If the
temperature of the steam to the first effect is 395 K and vacuum is applied to the third effect so that the
boiling point is 325 K, what are the approximate boiling points in the first two effects? The overall transfer
coefficients may be taken as 3.1, 2.3, and 1.1 kW/m2·K in the three effects respectively.
180. First effect

A. 318.5 K B. 315.8 K C. 351.8 K D. 381.5 K
181. Second effect

A. 336.2 K B. 363.2 K C. 326.3 K D. 332.6 K

A forward-feed double-effect evaporator, having 10 m2 of heating surface in each effect, is used to
concentrate 0.4 kg/s of caustic soda solution from 10 to 50 percent by mass. During a particular run, when
the feed is at 328 K, the pressures in the two calandrias are 375 and 180 kN/m2 respectively, and the
condenser operates at 15 kN/m2. For these conditions, calculate the following.
182. load on the condenser

A. 0.48 kg/s B. 0.84 kg/s C. 0.15 kg/s D. 0.51 kg/s
183. steam economy

A. 1.57 B. 1.35 C. 1.62 D. 1.98
184. It is the equation relating the solubility of a substance to its particle size.
A. Ostwald C. ΔL Law
B. Nucleation Rate D. Kelvin
185. A 32.5% solution of MgSO 4 at 120ºF is cooled, without appreciable evaporation, to 70ºF in a batch
water-cooled crystallizer. How much heat (BTU) must be removed from the solution per ton of crystals?
1 ton = 2,000 lb
A. 285,000 B. 315,000 C. 490,000 D. 542,000

A tank holds 10,000 kg of a saturated solution of Na2CO3 at 30ºC. You want to crystallize from this solution
3,000 kg of Na2CO3·10H2O without any accompanying water.
186. How much water is in the initial solution?

A. 7,200 kg B. 6,120 kg C. 2,800 kg D. 3,880 kg
187. How much water is in the mother liquor?

A. 5,313 kg B. 1,687 kg C. 2,772 kg D. 4,228 kg
188. To what temperature must this solution be cooled?

A. 28°C B. 26°C C. 24°C D. 22°C
189. Air at 50ºF and a humidity of 0.0012 kg water/ kg dry air at 1 atm enters a drier. If the mass rate of dry
air is 50 kg/h, then the volumetric flowrate (ft3/h) of air is approximately equal to
A. 1692 B. 6319 C. 1414 D. 3191
190. The partial pressure of water vapor is 50 mmHg in a mixture of air and water vapor at 110ºF and 1 atm
pressure. How many BTU of heat energy must be added to 25 lb of this mixture to raise the temperature
to 115ºF?
A. 32.5 B. 43.9 C. 58.9 D. 97.4
191. A mixture of air and water vapor weighs 75 kg. If the water vapor weighs 1.38 kg, the humidity of air is
close to
A. 0.0173 B. 0.0176 C. 0.0187 D. 0.1610
192. What is the humid heat of air (kJ/K·kg DA) at 1 atm total pressure and unknown temperature? At this
temperature the partial pressure of water vapor is 90 mmHg.
A. 0.03 B. 2.87 C. 1.06 D. 1.16
193. A porous material dries in the open air at a rate approximately proportional to its moisture content. If a
sheet hang in the wind loses half its free moisture in the first hour, when will it have lost 85%? Weather
condition remaining the same.
A. 4.72 h B. 3.24 h C. 2.74 h D. 7.24 h
194. The feed to a binary distillation column is 30 mol% vapor and the balance liquid. The slope of the feed
line is ___.
A. -0.43 B. -2.33 C. 0.43 D. 2.33
195. Using the Antoine’s Equation, the vapor pressure of tetrahydrofuran at 80ºC is estimated to be ____
torr.
A. 2000 B. 1518 C. 1173 D. 2562

A mixture of water and ethyl alcohol containing 0.16 mol fraction alcohol is continuously distilled in a plate
fractionating column to give a product containing 0.77 mol fraction alcohol and a waste of 0.02 mol fraction
alcohol. It is proposed to withdraw 25 percent of the alcohol in the entering stream as a side stream
containing 0.50 mol fraction of alcohol. Suppose the feed is liquid at its boiling point with a flowrate of 100
kgmol/h and a reflux ratio of 2 is used.
196. What is the molar flow rate in kgmol/h of the distillate?

A. 78.45 B. 13.55 C. 79.85 D. none of these
197. What is the slope of the rectifying section operating line?

198. Assuming that the side-stream withdrawn is at its boiling point, what is the slope of the operating line
between the side-stream and the feed?

A 1000-lb mol/hr solute-free gas stream with 10% mol of solute enters an absorber. The recovery of the
solute is 85% and the saturated solute vapor pressure is 304 mmHg. Suppose that the atmospheric
pressure is 1 atm.
199. Calculate the minimum liquid flow rate (lbmol/hr).

A. 374.0 B. 340.0 C. 255.0 D. 304.7
200. Considering that the actual liquid flow rate is 40% greater than the minimum and using the absorption
factor equation, what is the theoretical number of plates needed for the separation?
A. 3.5 B. 1.2 C. 3.8 D. 4.1
201. The total weight of a 13-mm ceramic Rashig rings that can be contained in a cylindrical gas absorption
tower 5 m high and 0.55 m in diameter is approximately ____ kg.
A. 350 B. 940 C. 1045 D. 200

We wish to scrub acetone from air stream containing 0.020 mol fraction acetone.
The following data may be used.
 Gas rate is 700 ft3/h per square foot cross section at standard conditions
 Water rate is 1000 lb/h·ft2
 KGa is 1.75 lbmol/ft3·h mol fraction difference
 Henry’s law is valid and ye = 1.75xe (ye is the acetone vapor in equilibrium with the mol fraction of
acetone xe in the liquid)
If we used a countercurrent packed scrubber designed so that the exit gas does not exceed 0.0002 mol
fraction acetone,
202. What is the number of overall gas-phase transfer units?

A. 7.1 B. 6.3 C. 3.5 D. 4.8
203. What is the height of one transfer unit?

A. 1.1 ft B. 0.7 ft C. 2.5 ft D. 1.8 ft
204. What is the total height of packing used?

A. 5.3 ft B. 3.8 ft C. 7.1 ft D. 9.2 ft

A 150 kg solid containing 50% of a soluble material were treated with 250 kg of a solvent containing the
same solute at 3% concentration in a vessel under the constant agitation. After a long time, pressing
separated the solution and the solid. The solid analyzed 0.75 kg of solvent per kg of inert solid.
205. The amount of solute in final underflow is approximately equal to ____ kg.
A. 10.82 B. 8.54 C. 2.78 D. None of these
206. The amount of solvent in the extract is approximately equal to _____ kg.
A. 106.2 B. 205.0 C. 178.3 D. None of these
207. How much extract was collected?

A. 201.68 kg B. 106.21 kg C. 274.74 kg D. None of these

In a salt recovery plant, rock salt is being leached to produce industrial salt in a continuous countercurrent
system consisting of 2 ideal stages using water as leaching medium. The average composition of the rock
salt is inerts = 70%, soluble salt = 25% and moisture = 5%, all percentage by weight. The underflow from
each stage contain 0.3 kg solution per kg of inert solid. The plant leaches 50 MT of rock salt per day using
50 MT of water.
208. The quantity of soluble salt recovered in MT/day is

A. 12.1 B. 13.1 C. 14 D. 11.2
209. The composition of salt in weight percent in the final underflow is

A. 0.89% B. 0.98% C. 0.78% D. 0.68%
210. Water containing nicotine (1.2% solution) is extracted with kerosene. Water and kerosene are
essentially insoluble. How much nicotine will remain in the solution if 50 kg of feed solution is extracted
with 70 kg of kerosene? The equilibrium equation Y = 0.91X applies where Y = kg nicotine/kg kerosene
and X = kg nicotine/kg water.
A. 0.2162 kg B. 0.1226 kg C. 0.1622 kg D. 0.2621 kg

The Merck Index gives the following data for the solubility for 1g of aspirin and 1g of salicylic acid.
Solvent Aspirin (Acetylsalicylic acid) Salicylic acid
Water 300 mL 460 mL
Chloroform 17 mL 42 mL
Diethyl ether 12 mL 3 mL
211. The partition constants, K(chloroform/water) and K(ether/H2O) for aspirin are
A. 18.7 and 25.3 B. 18.7 and 23.5 C. 17.8 and 23.5 D. 17.8 and 25.3
212. The partition constants, K(chloroform/H2O) and K(ether/H2O) for salicylic acid are
A. 10.8 and 125.3 B. 17.8 and 123.5 C. 10.8 and 151.5 D. 17.8 and 125.3

The solubility of benzoic acid in water is 3.4 g/L; in carbon tetrachloride it is 33.3 g/L. The pH of a saturated
solution of benzoic acid in water is 2.8.
213. The partition coefficient for benzoic acid in a water−CCl4 solvent pair is approximately equal to
A. 8.9 B. 9.1 C. 9.8 D. 11.9
214. What weight of benzoic acid would be transferred to an aqueous phase if 1g of benzoic acid were
dissolved in 100 mL of carbon tetrachloride and the solution were extracted with 100 mL of water?
A. 2.11 g B. 0.22 g C. 1.01 g D. 0.09 g
215. It has been found that a total of 3000 ft2 of settling area is required to clarify a certain wastewater. How
many 30-ft diameter tanks are practically required to meet the effluent requirement?
A. 4 B. 5 C. 9 D. 10

Particles of sphalerite (SG = 4) are settling under the force of gravity in CCl4 solution at 20ºC (SG = 1.594).
The diameter of sphalerite particles is 0.004 in; the volume fraction of sphalerite in CCl 4 is 0.20.
216. What law applies to the settling of sphalerite particles?

A. Stokes’ Law B. Newton’s Law C. Intermediate D. Turbulent
217. Determine the settling velocity (ft/s) of a free-settling sphalerite particle.

A. 0.017 B. 0.071 C. 0.034 D. 0.043
218. Determine the settling velocity (mm/s) of the sphalerite particles under hindered settling if n = 4.1
A. 3.3 B. 0.017 C. 5.2 D. 2.06
219. This is a screening equipment with rotating cylinder of perforated sheet material or wire screen; low
capacity and efficiency type.
A. Trammel C. Reels
B. Vibrating screen D. Oscillating screen

Consider in a stream of 1200 lbs/hr of Mixture X fed into a vibrating screen to get 48/65 mesh product; the
following results were obtained: 0.28 in feed, 0.04 in oversize, 0.49 in product, 0.37 in undersize. The ratio
of oversize to product to undersize is 2:1.5:1.
220. Find the flowrate (lbs/hr) of the undersize stream.

A. 533 B. 355 C. 267 D. 762

221. Find the total rate (lbs/hr) of the reject stream.
A. 200 B. 800 C. 100 D. 700
222. Determine the efficiency of the screening equipment.

A. 44.56% B. 64.54% C. 46.45% D. 56.44%
223. What is the power required to crush 100 tons/hr of limestone if 80% of the feed passes a 2-in screen
and 80% of the product a 1/8-in screen?
A. 155 kW B. 551 kW C. 515 kW D. 151 kW
224. A ball mill has a dimension of 6’ x 4’. The actual speed is 25 rpm which is 79% of the minimum
centrifuging rotation. What is the average diameter of the balls?
A. 0.61 in B. 0.16 in C. 6.1 in D. 1.6 in
225. A pair of rolls is to take a feed equivalent to spheres 1.5 in diameter and crush them to spheres having
a diameter of 0.5 in. If the coefficient of friction is 0.29, what should be the rolls diameter?
A. 27.37 in B. 72.73 in C. 23.77 in D. 32.77 in
226. Calculate the theoretical capacity of roll crusher with rolls of length 48 inches and distance between
rolls is 2 inches and peripheral speed is 36 inches per minute.
A. 1 cfm B. 2 cfm C. 3 cfm D. 4 cfm
227. Conveyor consist of endless belts, suitably supported and driven AND can travel for miles at speeds
up to 1000 ft/min and handle up to 5000 tons/hr.
A. belt conveyor B. screw conveyor C. bucket elevator D. vibrator

A 200-ft long and 20-in wide belt conveyor equipped with plain bearings is inclined (from horizontal) at 20º
to lift a 66-ton/hr anthracite coal from the coal yard to the boiler feeder/bin. The belt speed is 250 fpm.
Assume capacity peaking factor of 1.75.
228. Determine the power requirement to move the empty belt.

A. 2.27 hp B. 7.22 hp C. 5.44 hp D. 4.54 hp
229. Determine the total power requirement to move the material horizontally.
A. 0.5 hp B. 1.0 hp C. 1.5 hp D. 2.0 hp
230. Determine the power requirement to elevate the material at the given height.
A. 1.23 hp B. 2.34 hp C. 3.45 hp D. 4.56 hp
231. Alloys having more than 80% copper are generally more
A. Abrasion resistant C. Prone to season cracking
B. Corrosion resistant D. Machinable
232. Which is the most suitable lubricant for drawing mild steel wires?
A. Kerosene C. Sodium stearate
B. Water D. Lime water
233. Tempering of a material does not improve its
A. Machinability C. Internal stress level
B. Toughness D. Softness
234. Estimate the safe working pressure for a 4.0-in Sch 40 pipe, SA53 carbon steel that is butt-welded, and
has a working temperature of 100°C. The maximum allowable stress for butt-welded steel pipe up to
120ºC is 11700 psi.
A. 864 psi B. 3180 psi C. 1380 psi D. 468 psi

A 1.5-m diameter vessel, that is 2.0-m tall, is to operate at a pressure of 13 barg and temperature of 260ºC,
and will be fabricated using carbon steel (12,900 psi). All welds will be fully radiographed, and a corrosion
allowance of 2-mm should be used.
235. Estimate the wall thickness if the vessel is cylindrical.

A. 13.30 mm B. 25.80 mm C. 15.30 mm D. 27.80 mm
236. Estimate the thickness of an ellipsoidal head.

A. 15.18 mm B. 26.36 mm C. 13.18 mm D. 25.62 mm

A chemical process plant requires a reactor tank safely holding 250-m3 of working chemical mixture (790
kg/m3, 25 cP) per batch. The mixture needs to be agitated at 100 rpm for the components to blend well.
237. What would be the size of the impeller (m) to cater the batch process?
A. 2.28 B. 6.83 C. 0.76 D. 4.57
238. Estimate the actual power requirement (kW) of the tank, should it be evaluated to have 85% efficiency
during pilot testing with a Rushton impeller.
A. 1127 B. 1326 C. 958 D. 1751
239. Two or more systems operating in series whose behavior of any system is affected by any system/s
subsequent to it are said to be __________.
A. Interacting B. Cumulative C. Iterative D. Ideal
240. Which of the following processes uses the multiple-input/multiple-output (MIMO) system in controlling
their process parameters?
A. Extraction B. Evaporation C. Distillation D. Crushing
241. Who are the pioneers of the Six Sigma approach?

A. Toyota B. Azbil C. Motorola D. Caltex
242. Which of the following is not an actuator?

A. Batch B. Pneumatic C. Hydraulic D. Electric
243. The method used in ultrasonic flow meters.

A. Brown B. Doppler C. Pascal D. Coriolis
244. The difference between the measured value and the set point.
A. Offset B. Oscillation C. Disturbance D. Error
245. A term used to describe processes or process variables that are unstable, and create hazardous
situations.
A. Runaway B. Disturbance C. Integrating D. Down
246. The following are examples of paramagnetic gases EXCEPT?

A. O2 B. NO2 C. CO2 D. NO
247. A device used to extract a representative sample from a batch or main stream of material for analysis.
A. Gauge B. Sensor C. Port D. Probe
248. Who listed three categories of pressure measurement?

A. Saunders B. Doebelin C. Seebeck D. Higham
249. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A. For a step input on a first-order system, the response stabilizes to the new steady-state value
after approximately 5 cycles or time periods.
B. For a step input on a second-order system, the response quickly reaches the new steady-state
value but takes time to stabilize due to overshoots.
C. Increasing the value of the damping coefficient on a second-order system will create greater
overshoots but will reach the new steady-state value faster.
D. Rectangular inputs are step changes that return to the original value after the defined pulse width.
250. He suggested that pressure sensors may be divided into four categories, namely, utility, general
industry, process control and precision, and test.
A. Pascal B. Torricelli C. Saunders D. Bourdon
251. This metal is relatively inexpensive and can be fabricated into complicated shapes and possesses fair
strength. Its chemical resistance against atmospheric moisture and oxygen is excellent. It resists alkali
and organic acids.
A. Zn B. Ag C. Cu D. Al
252. This metal has long been employed in the chemical industry. Used as one of the catalysts for the
contact sulfuric acid process and in the Ostwald process.
A. Zn B. Ni C. Pt D. Ta
253. Brass is an alloy of

A. Cu Sn B. Cu Zn C. Fe C D. Fe Ni
254. It consists of iron, chromium, and nickel, and other components. A typical formula is 18:8 containing
18% chromium and 8% nickel. It can resist organic acids and nitric acid of all concentrations.
A. steel C. bronze
B. brass D. stainless steel
255. These are microporous, aluminosilicate minerals commonly used as adsorbents and catalysts. They
also represent a variety of ion exchangers used in softening water.
A. calcite B. zeolite C. graphite D. kryptonite
256. These ions are commonly associated with the hardness of water.
A. Na+ and Ca2+ C. Cu2+ and Zn2+
B. Ca2+ and Mg2+ D. Fe3+ and Al3+
257. The correct formula for gypsum is

A. CaSO4 C. CaSO4·2H2O
B. CaSO4·H2O D. CaSO4·0.5H2O
258. Rochelle salt is a crystalline solid having a large piezoelectric effect (electric charge induced on its
surfaces by mechanical deformation due to pressure, twisting, or bending), making it useful in sensitive
acoustical and vibrational devices. Which of the following is the correct formula for Rochelle salt?
A. KHC8H4O4 C. KHC2O4·H2C2O4
B. K3[Co(NO2)6] D. KNaC4H4O6·4H2O
259. This chemical is employed as a disinfectant and deodorant in dairies, creameries, water supplies,
sewage disposal, and for household purposes. It is also used as a bleach in laundries.
A. NaCl B. CaCl2 C. NaOCl D. Ca(OCl)2
260. This type of coal is a valuable domestic fuel because of its clean-burning characteristics. It has highest
carbon content among different types of coal.
A. peat B. lignite C. bituminous D. anthracite
261. The product with the largest tonnage from the distillation of coal. It is a fuel with high carbon content
and few impurities. It is used in the preparation of producer gas.
A. coke C. coal gas
B. coal tar D. powdered coal
262. A mixture of many compounds, mostly aromatic, which vary widely in composition. It is a co-product of
the destructive distillation or pyrolysis of coal.
A. coke C. coal gas
B. coal tar D. powdered coal
263. It is a fuel mixture consisting primarily of CO, H2 and some CO2. It is a crucial intermediate resource for
the production of H2, NH3, CH3OH and synthetic hydrocarbon fuels.
A. water gas C. synthetic gas
B. natural gas D. semi-water gas
264. It was discovered in 2003 and since then it has gained the reputation of being a “wonder material”. It is
a million times thinner than a piece of paper, yet stronger than diamond, and 200 times stronger than
steel. It is also a flexible material, and conducts heat and electricity better than copper.
A. graphite C. industrial diamond
B. graphene D. buckminsterfullerene
265. It is the redox reaction of a chemical equilibrium mixture of carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide at a
given temperature. It is the disproportionation of carbon monoxide into carbon dioxide and graphite or
its reverse. It is an important process inside a blast furnace.
A. Maillard reaction C. Boudouard reaction
B. Cannizzaro reaction D. Le Chetalier reaction
266. This process is simply heating to high temperatures in air or oxygen. Its common application is the
decomposition of limestone to lime and carbon dioxide to create cement.
A. hydration C. calcination
B. oxidation D. vitrification
267. Among the rare gases, this gas is produced in the largest quantities. One of its interesting applications
is its use as an inert gas shield in arc welding.
A. neon C. xenon
B. argon D. helium
268. Amorphous carbon that has been treated with steam and heat until it has a very great affinity for
adsorbing many materials.
A. lampblack C. activated carbon
B. carbon black D. industrial diamond
269. It is the most stable form of carbon under standard conditions. Its high thermal stability, electrical and
thermal conductivities facilitate its widespread use as electrodes and refractories in high temperature
material processing applications.
A. graphite C. activated carbon
B. diamond D. industrial diamond
270. It is the molecular part of the dye that imparts color.

A. photophore C. chromophore
B. auxochrome D. chromatophore
CHEMICAL ENGINEERING PRINCIPLES PROBLEM SET

Answer Key
1 A 46 D 91 D 136 B 181 B 226 B

2 D 47 D 92 B 137 D 182 C 227 A
3 B 48 C 93 A 138 A 183 A 228 D
4 B 49 A 94 B 139 C 184 D 229 B
5 D 50 C 95 C 140 B 185 B 230 D
6 C 51 B 96 C 141 C 186 A 231 B
7 A 52 A 97 B 142 C 187 A 232 C
8 C 53 A 98 C 143 D 188 B 233 A
9 B 54 A 99 D 144 B 189 C 234 D
10 C 55 D 100 D 145 A 190 A 235 C
11 A 56 C 101 A 146 D 191 C 236 C
12 C 57 D 102 C 147 C 192 D 237 A
13 B 58 C 103 C 148 C 193 C 238 B
14 C 59 C 104 C 149 A 194 B 239 A
15 C 60 B 105 A 150 D 195 C 240 C
16 A 61 C 106 D 151 B 196 B 241 C
17 C 62 A 107 D 152 C 197 A 242 A
18 C 63 C 108 B 153 C 198 B 243 B
19 A 64 A 109 A 154 B 199 C 244 D
20 A 65 A 110 D 155 C 200 D 245 A
21 B 66 C 111 A 156 B 201 C 246 C
22 C 67 C 112 B 157 D 202 D 247 D
23 B 68 C 113 C 158 B 203 A 248 D
24 C 69 D 114 D 159 D 204 A 249 C
25 D 70 C 115 A 160 A 205 D 250 D
26 B 71 D 116 A 161 C 206 D 251 C
27 A 72 C 117 B 162 B 207 D 252 C
28 A 73 A 118 D 163 A 208 A 253 B
29 B 74 A 119 B 164 B 209 A 254 D
30 A 75 C 120 A 165 B 210 D 255 B
31 B 76 C 121 D 166 D 211 D 256 B
32 A 77 D 122 A 167 D 212 C 257 C
33 C 78 D 123 C 168 B 213 C 258 D
34 A 79 B 124 D 169 A 214 D 259 D
35 A 80 A 125 C 170 B 215 B 260 D
36 A 81 A 126 D 171 C 216 C 261 A
37 A 82 C 127 A 172 A 217 D 262 B
38 D 83 C 128 B 173 C 218 C 263 C
39 B 84 D 129 C 174 C 219 A 264 B
40 D 85 D 130 A 175 A 220 C 265 C
41 D 86 B 131 D 176 D 221 B 266 C
42 C 87 C 132 A 177 B 222 A 267 B
43 B 88 C 133 B 178 B 223 A 268 C
44 B 89 D 134 A 179 A 224 D 269 A
45 C 90 A 135 B 180 D 225 C 270 C

Problem Set - Day 2 Chemical Engineering Principles

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OCT 2023 CHEMICAL ENGINEER REVIEW 1

CHEMICAL ENGINEERING PRINCIPLES

CHEMICAL ENGINEERING PRINCIPLES PROBLEM SET

For numbers 2-3:

4. Convert Cp [Btu/lbmol·ºF] = 20.869 + 5.293x10-2T [ºF] into cal/mol·K and K units.

For numbers 5-8:

7. The lb sulfuric acid entering the reactor.

8. The per pass conversion of barium perchlorate.

For numbers 9-10:

9. What is the kg of product stream per hour?

10. What is the kg of recycle stream per hour?

13. Ammonia gas can be dried by

14. With increase in carbon percentage in steel, its

For numbers 21-22:

21. What is the percentage of CO2 absorbed?

22. What is the percent excess air?

For numbers 22-25:

23. Percentage of CO2 in wet basis.

26. In an adiabatic system, if work is done, the temperature must __________.

For numbers 33-35:

33. Final pressure (psia)

34. Change in enthalpy (BTU)

35. Change in internal energy (BTU)

For numbers 36-37:

36. What is the work associated with the process (J)?

37. What is the change in internal energy (kJ)?

38. Which is not accompanied by an increase in entropy of the system?

For numbers 43-44:

43. What will be the final temperature of the system?

44. What will be the change in entropy (J/K)?

47. Superheated vapor behaves

48. In a turbine, the fluid expands almost

For numbers 49-51:

49. Maximum temperature (K)

50. Thermal efficiency

51. Mean Effective Pressure (kPa)

For numbers 54-55:

54. Work of the pump (kJ/kg)

55. Entropy change of the water (kJ/kg-K)

Determine the unknown rate (M/s) of the fifth trial.

66. A batch reactor is suitable for

B. Large scale gaseous phase reactions

For numbers 69-70:

69. What is the concentration of A (M) of the PFR inlet?

70. What is the overall conversion of A?

For numbers 71-73:

71. What is the Reynolds Number?

76. What is the inlet Mach number?

For numbers 79-81:

79. What would be the corresponding velocity in the 2.0-inch pipe?

For numbers 82-84:

For numbers 85-87:

85. What is the mass flow rate (in kg/s) of water?

For numbers 88-90:

89. What is the pressure developed by the pump?

90. Calculate the actual power of the pump.

For numbers 91-92:

91. Determine the pressure at the exit to the pipe?

92. What is the temperature at the exit to the pipe?