1.

The level of investigation that involves the collection of facts about observed events
that can be quantified, classified, and examined for possible relations with other
known facts, and often suggests hypotheses or questions for additional research is:
a. Prediction
b. Experimentation
c. Description
d. Control

2. The level of investigation that demonstrates correlation between events and is based
on repeated observations is:
a. Prediction
b. Experimentation
c. Description
d. Control

3. The level of investigation in which functional relations can be derived is:

a. Prediction
b. Experimentation
c. Description
d. Control

4. The overall goal of _______ is to achieve a thorough understanding of the

phenomenon under study.
a. Behavior Analysis
b. Science
c. Experimentation
d. Functional Relations

5. A functional relation means that:

a. Specific change in the independent variable can reliably be produced by specific
manipulations in the dependent variable, and the change in the independent
variable was unlikely to be the result of confounding variables.
b. Specific change in the dependent variable can reliably be produced by specific
manipulations in the independent variable, and the change in the independent
variable was unlikely to be the result of confounding variables.
c. Specific change in the dependent variable can reliably be produced by specific
manipulations in the independent variable, and the change in the dependent
variable was unlikely to be the result of confounding variables.
d. Specific change in the dependent variable can reliably be produced by specific
manipulations in the confounding variable, and the change in the dependent
variable was unlikely to be the result of the independent variable.

6. This is the assumption upon which science is predicated, the idea that the universe is
a lawful and orderly place in which all phenomena occur as the result of other
events.
a. Mentalism
b. Determinism
c. Empiricism
d. Philosophic Doubt
7. This is the idea that simple, logical explanations must be ruled out, experimentally
or conceptually, before more complex or abstract explanations are considered.
a. Philosophic Doubt
b. Experimentation
c. Replication
d. Parsimony

8. This is the branch of behavior analysis that focuses on basic research:

a. Applied behavior analysis
b. Behaviorism
c. Experimental analysis of behavior
d. Radical behaviorism

9. The S-R-S model of psychology is also known as:

a. Three-term contingency
b. Watsonian psychology
c. Respondent behavior model
d. Reflexive behavior model

10. This person is considered to be the founder of experimental analysis of behavior.

a. John B. Watson
b. B.F. Skinner
c. Ivan Pavlov
d. Don Baer

11. This is the approach to understanding behavior that assumes that a mental or
"inner" dimension exists that differs from a behavioral dimension and that
phenomena in this dimension either directly cause or at least mediate some forms of
behavior.
a. Radical behaviorism
b. Methodological behaviorism
c. Structuralism
d. Mentalism

12. These events marked the formal beginning of contemporary applied behavior
analysis.
a. "Some Current Dimensions of Applied Behavior Analysis," by Baer, Wolf, and
Risley, was published and "The Psychiatric Nurse as a Behavioral Engineer," by
Ayllon and Michael, was published.
b. "The Psychiatric Nurse as a Behavioral Engineer," by Ayllon and Michael, was
published and Fuller conducted a study in which human application of operant
behavior occurred
c. The Journal of Applied Behavior Analysis began publication and "Some Current
Dimensions of Applied Behavior Analysis," by Baer, Wolf, and Risley, was
published.
d. The Journal of Applied Behavior Analysis began publication and "The Psychiatric
Nurse as a Behavioral Engineer," by Ayllon and Michael, was published.
13. This is the defining characteristic of behavior analysis that focuses on investigating
socially significant behaviors with immediate importance to the participant(s).
a. Effective
b. Applied
c. Behavioral
d. Analytic

14. This is the defining characteristic of applied behavior analysis that demonstrates
experimental control over the occurrence and non-occurrence of the behavior.
a. Effective
b. Analytic
c. Applied
d. Experimentation
 Answers
1. C. Description.
2. A. Prediction
3. D. Control
4. B. Science
5. C. Specific change in the dependent variable can reliably be produced by specific
manipulations in the independent variable, and the change in the dependent
variable was unlikely to be the result of confounding variables.
6. B. Determinism
7. D. Parsimony
8. C. Experimental Analysis of Behavior
9. A. Three-Term Contingency
10. B. B.F. Skinner
11. D. Mentalism
12. C. The Journal of Applied Behavior Analysis began publication and "Some
Current Dimensions of Applied Behavior Analysis," by Baer, Wolf, and Risley,
was published.
13. B Applied
14. B. Analytic
 Cooper Chapter 2 Practice Test

1. The controlling variables of primary importance in applied behavior analysis are located
in:
a. Environment
b. Consequences
c. The Mental State
d. Reinforcement

2. Two functionally distinct types of behavior important to behavior analysis include

a. Learned and operant behavior
b. Reflexive and respondent behavior
c. Respondent and operant behavior
d. Operant and conditioned behavior

3. Which of the following is considered a property of behavior amenable to measurement?

a. Temporal Weight
b. Temporal Locus
c. Temporal Displacement
d. Temporal Size

4. A _____ denotes a set or collection of knowledge and skills a person has learned that are
relevant to particular settings or tasks.
a. Repertoire
b. Behavior
c. Skill
d. Response

5. Behavior is affected by stimulus changes that occur prior to and immediately after the
behavior. The term _____ refers to environmental conditions or stimulus changes that
exist or occur prior to the behavior of interest.
a. Consequence
b. Stimulus
c. Event
d. Antecedent

6. A behavior that is elicited by antecedent stimuli and is "brought about" by a stimulus that
precedes it is:
a. Operant
b. Learned
c. Respondent
d. New
7. A response is followed by a stimulus change, the effect of which is an increase in the
future frequency of behavior. Which type of stimulus-change operation most likely
occurred?
a. Reinforcement
b. Punishment
c. Extinction
d. Positive punishment

8. A response is followed by a stimulus change, the effect of which is a decrease in the

future frequency of behavior. Which type of stimulus-change operation most likely
occurred?
a. Reinforcement
b. Punishment
c. Negative Reinforcement
d. Positive Reinforcement

9. Water is an example of a ______ reinforcer, while money is an example of a _______

reinforcer.
a. Conditioned, Unconditioned
b. Secondary, Primary
c. Unconditioned, Conditioned
d. Powerful, Ineffective

10. Answering the door when you hear the door bell and not when it is silent is an example of
behavior being under:
a. Simultaneous Prompting
b. Equivalence
c. Stimulus Control
d. Premack Principle

11. A behavior that occurs more frequently under some antecedent conditions than it does in
others is called a(n):
a. Stimulus Control
b. Operant Behavior
c. Discriminative Stimulus
d. Discriminated Operant

12. Food deprivation may alter the momentary effectiveness of food as a reinforcer. Food
deprivation is an example of a(n):
a. Satiation Trial
b. Motivating Operation
c. Operant Behavior
d. Experimental control
13. The three-term contingency is made of these three terms:
a. Attitude, Behavior, Reinforcement
b. Antecedent, reinforcement, punishment
c. Antecedent, behavior, consequence
d. Antecedent, Stimulus, Control

14. The term "contingent" as used in behavior analysis refers to the dependent relationship of
a particular consequence on the occurrence of behavior and is also used in reference to
the _________ contiguity of behavior and its consequences.
a. Temporal
b. Independent
c. Dependent
d. False

15. _______ behavior is elicited by antecedent stimuli.

a. Operant
b. Temporal
c. Respondent
d. All

16. Conditioned _______ are the product of respondent conditioning

a. Antecedents
b. Stimuli
c. Punishers
d. Reflexes

17. Operant behavior is selected by its:

a. Consequences
b. Antecedents
c. Conditioners
d. Respondent

18. Operant conditioning encompasses:

a. Time and Stimuli
b. Antecedents and phylogeny
c. Conditioned and unconditioned
d. Reinforcement and punishment
 Answers

1. A. Environment
2. C. Respondent and operant behavior
3. B. Temporal Locus
4. A. Repertoire
5. D. Antecedent
6. C. Respondent
7. A Reinforcement
8. B. Punishment
9. C. Unconditioned/Conditioned
10. C. Stimulus Control
11. D. Discriminated Operant
12. B. Motivating Operation
13. C. Antecedent, Behavior, Consequence
14. A. Temporal
15. C. Respondent
16. D. Reflexes
17. A. Consequences
18. D. Reinforcement and Punishment
 Chapter 3 Quiz
1. All of the following are assessment methods used in ABA except:
a. Direct Observation
b. Interview
c. Medical Evaluations
d. Checklists

2. Behavior Assessment seeks to determine the __________ of a behavior.

a. Function
b. Replacement
c. Importance
d. Structure

3. All of the following are competencies of a behavior analyst except:

a. Knowledge of socially important behavior
b. Technical Skills
c. Ability to conduct statistical analyses of data
d. Ability to match assessment data with intervention strategies

4. Potential target behaviors should not be selected if the primary reason for
selection is the:
a. Benefit of Others
b. Safety of the person
c. Safety of family members
d. Potential to increase independence

5. Interview questions should avoid "why" questions because these tend to

encourage _______ explanations of behavior.
a. Defensive
b. Mentalistic
c. Lengthy
d. Direct

6. A descriptive and temporally sequenced account of behavior in the natural

environment is called a(n):
a. Anecdotal Observation
b. Behavioral Assessment
c. Ecological Assessment
d. Real Time Observation
7. The ________ of behavior rule states that a target behavior should only be
selected when it can be determined that the behavior will produce natural
reinforcement.
a. Functionality
b. Validity
c. Relevance
d. Importance

8. The principle of ________ determines the degree to which a person's behavior

repertoire maximizes short and long term reinforcers for that individual and for
others, and minimizes short and long term punishers.
a. Normalization
b. Habilitation
c. Functionality
d. Justification

9. Behavior that exposes an individual to new contingencies, reinforcers, and

stimulus controls is called:
a. Pivotal Behavior
b. Access Behavior
c. Behavior Cusp
d. Contingent Behavior

10. When a problem behavior has been targeted for reduction or elimination, the
behavior analyst must always include a(n) ________ in the intervention plan.
a. Replacement Behavior
b. Appropriate Response
c. Pivotal Behavior
d. Performance

11. Juan is a six-year-old boy with a developmental disability who attends an

integrated kindergarten class. Assessments have identified four target behaviors.
Which behavior should be the first target for intervention?
a. Flicking his fingers in front of his eyes
b. Bolting from the playground
c. Toilet Training
d. Humming loudly during group activities

12. In determining the likelihood of success in changing a behavior, all of the

following should be considered except:
a. Research on changing this behavior
b. Experience of the behavior analyst
c. Social validity of the behavior
d. Available resources
13. Explicit behavior definitions are important in research of applied behavior
analysis for all of the following except:
a. Replication by other scientists
b. Accurate and reliable measurement of behavior
c. Comparison of data across studies
d. Agreement between assessment and intervention data

14. A(n) ________ definition designates responses in terms of their effect on the
environment.
a. Observable
b. Function-based
c. Topography-Based
d. Ecological

15. Behaviors have ________ if they affect a person's life in a positive and
meaningful manner.
a. Social Validity
b. Functional Application
c. Observable Benefit
d. Normalized Outcomes

16. Outcome criteria should be established before intervention commences for all of
the following reasons except:
a. To ensure the target performance level
b. To know when to terminate intervention
c. To ensure accurate data collection
d. To ensure agreement on outcomes among stakeholders
Answer Key:
1. C. Medical Evaluations
2. A. Function
3. B. Technical Skills
4. A Benefits of Others
5. B. Mentalistic
6. A. Anecdotal Observation
7. C. Relevance
8. B. Habilitation
9. C. Behavior cusp
10. A. Replacement behavior
11. B. Bolting from the playground
12. C. Social validity of the behavior
13. D. Agreement between assessment and intervention data
14. B. Function-based
15. A. Social Validity
16. C. To ensure accurate data collection
 Cooper Chapter 4 Quiz
1. In order to be understood by everyone, measurement units must be:
a. Analysis
b. Subjective
c. Labeled
d. Unambiguous

2. Practitioners need measurement in order to do all of the following except

a. Operationalized Empiricism
b. Identify current behavior levels
c. Evaluate Treatment
d. Make Accurate decisions

3. The dimensional quantity of duration is described as:

a. Temporal locus
b. Repeatability
c. Temporal Extent
d. Count

4. _________ is obtained by combining observation time with a tally of the number

of occurrences of behavior.
a. Response Latency
b. Rate
c. Celeration
d. Whole Interval

5. All of the following are procedures for measuring behavior except

a. Event recording
b. Timing
c. Time Sampling
d. Observation

6. Devices such as wrist counters, masking tape, buttons, and calculators are all
useful when using ________ recording procedures.
a. Event
b. Timing
c. Rate
d. Duration

7. The procedure that measures behavior after it has occurred by measuring its effect
on the environment is called:
a. Measurement Artifact
b. Planned Activity Check
c. Permanent Product
d. Time Sampling
8. Which of the following is a reason not to use permanent product measurement?
a. Moment-to-moment decisions must be made
b. The behavior has a direct effect on the environment
c. The product can only be produced by the target behavior
d. Each behavior occurrence results in the same product

9. One advantage of using computer-based observation and measurement systems is

a. Many practitioners are familiar with it
b. Data can be clustered and analyzed easily
c. It is less expensive
d. It is less intrusive than traditional methods

10. Computer-assisted measurement of behavior allows the observer to do all of the

following except:
a. Collect permanent products
b. Record multiple behaviors simultaneously
c. Aggregate data easily
d. Analyze data from different perspectives

11. You are preparing to observe Jennifer, a second grade student who has difficulty
following teacher direction and frequently wanders around the classroom. The
target behavior for Jennifer is being out of her seat. What is the most appropriate
method for measuring this target behavior?
a. Event recording
b. Interresponse time
c. Duration
d. Planned Activity check

12. Marco is learning to assemble computer components as part of his new job at a
factory. Speed and accuracy are critical skills for him to learn in assembling his
component. What is the most appropriate method for measuring his behavior?
a. Whole interval recording
b. Duration
c. Permanent Product
d. Response Latency
 Answer Key
1. D. Unambiguous
2. A. Operationalize empiricism
3. C. Temporal extent
4. B. Rate
5. D. Observation
6. A. Event
7. C. Permanent product
8. A. Moment-to-moment decisions must be made
9. B. Data can be clustered and analyzed easily
10. A. Collect permanent products
11. C. Duration
12. C. Permanent Product
Cooper Chapter 5

1. A(n) _______ measure of the actual behavior of interest will always

possess more validity than a(n) _______ measure.
a. Indirect, direct
b. Direct, indirect
c. Discontinuous, continuous
d. Reliable, accurate

2. ________ measurement is consistent measurement.

a. Reliable
b. Valid
c. Accurate
d. Discontinuous

3. When data give an unwarranted or misleading picture of the behavior

because of the way measurement was conducted, the data are called a(n):
a. Bias
b. Artifact
c. Drift
d. Variable

4. In general, artifacts can be limited by scheduling ________ observations.

a. Indirect
b. Infrequent
c. Frequent
d. Mini

5. Cumbersome and difficult to use measurement ________ can lead to

inaccurate and unreliable measurements.
a. Agreement
b. Instruments
c. Observers
d. Rulers

6. Which of the following is not a suggested training method for potential

observers?
a. Select observers carefully
b. Train observers to an objective standard of competency
c. Use a systematic approach to training
d. Explicit feedback about data collection as it relates to the hypothesis

7. Reliable data are not necessarily _______ data.

a. Complete
b. Direct
 c. Accurate
d. Real

8. Which of the following is not a requisite for obtaining valid IOA measures?
a. Use the same observation code and measurement system
b. Observe and measure the same participant(s) and events
c. Observe and record the behavior independent of any influence from one another
d. Score all IOA while sitting side-by-side with another observer

9. Which of the following is a limitation of total count IOA?

a. Provides no assurance that the two observers recorded the same instances of behavior
b. Useful for event recording
c. Is expressed as percentage of agreement
d. Is calculated by dividing the smaller of the counts by the larger count and multiplying
by 100

10. Which of the following is the most stringent method for calculating IOA for
behaviors that occur at relatively high rates and obtained by interval
recording?
a. Total Count IOA
b. Unscored-interval IOA
c. Scored-interval IOA
d. Mean Count-per-Interval IOA
Answers

1. B - Direct, indirect
2. A - reliable
3. B - artifact
4. C - frequent
5. B - instruments
6. D - explicit feedback about data collection as it relates to the hypothesis
7. C - accurate
8. D - score all IOA while sitting side-by-side with another observer
9. A - Provides no assurance that the two observers recorded the same instances of behavior
10. B - Unscored-interval IOA
Cooper chapter 06

1. Visual analysis is considered a(n) ________ method for determining the

social significance of behavior change.
a. Subjective
b. Conservative
c. Obsolete
d. Over-utilized

2. Graphic displays of behavioral data are considered simple formats for

visually displaying ________ among and between a series of measurements
and relevant variables.
a. Time series
b. Arrangements
c. Relationships
d. Peaks

3. This type of graph is also known as a histogram and is useful in

summarizing behavioral data allowing for a quick comparison of
performance across participants and/or conditions.
a. Line graph
b. Scatterplot
c. Cumulative Record
d. Bar graph

4. This is the most commonly used graph in applied behavior analysis.

a. Line graph
b. Scatterplot
c. Cumulative Record
d. Bar graph

5. You are interested in the total number of sight words accurately read since
your data collection began last week. Which graphing convention allows you
to most efficiently answer your inquiry?
a. Line graph
b. Scatterplot
c. Cumulative Record
d. Bar graph

6. You are interested in displaying the mean score for both your baseline and
experimental condition. For this summary, you are willing to sacrifice the
presentation and detection of variability and trends.
a. Line graph
b. Scatterplot
 c. Cumulative Record
d. Bar graph
7. A ________ is depicted on a line graph by an open spot in the axis with a
squiggly line at each end.
a. Condition line
b. Data set
c. Scale break
d. Horizontal axis

8. This part of a line graph is printed below the graph and gives a concise but
complete description of the figure.
a. Figure caption
b. Data set
c. Scale break
d. Condition label

9. Logarithmic scales are an appropriate graphing format when _______

change is of particular interest.
a. Cumulative
b. Rate
c. Rapid
d. Proportional

10. A ________ chart is a type of semilogarithmic chart useful for charting

accelerating and decelerating performances over time.
a. Cumulative time
b. Standard celeration
c. Scatter plot
d. Bar graph

11. In order to produce a visual representation of an overall rate on a

cumulative graph, the first and last data points of a given series of
observations should be:
a. Plotted bilaterally
b. Plotted using different symbols
c. Drawn simultaneously
d. Connected with a straight line

12. The _______ of each data path on a cumulative record represents the
different rates of acquisition.
a. Position
b. Slope
c. Scatter
d. Slant
13. A scatterplot shows the _________ distribution of individual measures in a
data set with respect to the variables depicted by the both the x- and y-
axes.
a. Exact
b. Scattered
c. Relative
d. Standard

14. Scatterplots are useful when applied behavior analysts are interested in
finding out the ________ distribution of the target behavior. In other
words, a scatterplot illustrates whether the behavior's occurrence is
typically associated with certain time periods.
a. Temporal
b. Amount of
c. Standard
d. Simple

15. Which part of the line graph is the arrow pointed at?

a. X-axis
b. Condition change line
c. Y-axis
d. Data Path
16. The type of graph illustrated in this example has disconnected data points
and is used primarily to depict temporal distributions and reveal
correlations between variables depicted on the y-axis with variables
depicted on the x-axis.

a. Cumulative record
b. Line graph
c. Bar graph
d. Scatterplot

17. You are interested in beginning a self-management program to help you

save money for a new car. Which type of graph would provide the most
appropriate feedback and display your progress toward your goal?
a. Cumulative record
b. Line graph
c. Bar graph
d. Scatterplot

18. You are interested in comparing the effects of two different interventions on
a single target behavior. You have decided to present each of the
interventions in an alternating fashion and measure the changes in the
value of your dependent variable. You would like to plot the results of both
interventions on one graph. Which would be the best format to display your
results?
a. Cumulative record
b. Line graph
c. Bar graph
d. Scatterplot
19. Which of the following best describes the direction, degree, and variability
of the data path depicted in this graph?

a. Rapidly increasing, variable trend

b. Zero trend
c. Gradually decreasing, variable trend
d. Rapidly decreasing, stable trend

20. Which of the following best describes the direction, degree, and variability
of the data path depicted in this graph?

a. Rapidly increasing, variable trend

b. Zero trend
c. Gradually decreasing, variable trend
d. Rapidly decreasing, stable trend
e. Cannot be determined
Answers

1. B - Conservative
2. C - Relationships
3. D - Bar graph
4. A - Line graph
5. C - Cumulative Record
6. D - Bar graph
7. C - Scale break
8. A - Figure caption
9. D - Proportional
10. B - Standard celeration
11. D - Connected with a straight line
12. B - slope
13. C - relative
14. A - temporal
15. C – y-axis
16. d - scatterplot
17. a – Cumulative record
18. b – line graph
19. d – rapid decreasing, stable trend
20. e – cannot be determined
Cooper Chapter 07

1. Which of the following is not an assumption underlying the analysis of

behavior?
a. Determinism
b. Empiricism
c. Philosophic doubt
d. Pseudoscience

2. The assumption that the universe is a lawful and orderly place and that
natural phenomena occur in relation to other events describes which
assumption underlying the analysis of behavior?
a. Empiricism
b. Determinism
c. Parsimony
d. Philosophic doubt

3. The three levels of scientific understanding include:

a. Empiricism, determinism, and philosophic doubt
b. Verification, prediction, and replication
c. Group designs, single-subject designs, and correlations
d. Description, prediction, control

4. ____ science yields a collection of facts about the observed events-facts

that can be quantified and classified.
a. Replicated
b. Experimental
c. Predictive
d. Descriptive

5. The highest level of scientific understanding results from establishing:

a. Experimental control
b. Prediction
c. Replication
d. Analysis

6. An ________ of behavior has been achieved when a reliable functional

relation between the behavior and the independent variable has been
demonstrated convincingly.
a. Application
b. Investigation
c. Analysis
d. Experimental design
7. ________ refers to the degree to which a study's results are generalizable
to other subjects, settings, and/or behaviors.
a. Internal validity
b. External validity
c. Experimental control
d. Prediction

8. An experiment has a high degree of _______ when the experiment shows

convincingly that changes in behavior are a function of the independent
variable and not the result of uncontrolled or unknown variables.
a. Internal validity
b. External validity
c. Replication
d. Prediction

9. ________ are variables known or suspected to exert an uncontrolled

influence on the dependent variable.
a. Independent variables
b. Investigated variables
c. Confounding variables
d. Specified variables

10. Behavior analysts believe behavioral variability is ________ to the

organism.
a. Internal
b. External
c. Inevitable
d. Confined

11. _________ is the "hallmark of applied behavior analysis."

a. Internal and external validity
b. Replication, prediction, and control
c. Single-measurement
d. Systematic repeated measurement of behavior

12. _________ is the interaction between an organism and its environment

a. Measurement
b. Independent variable
c. Behavior
d. Science
13. Which of the following is not considered to be an essential component of
experiments in applied behavior analysis?
a. At least one subject
b. At least one setting
c. At least one large group for statistical comparisons
d. At least one independent variable

14. A well-planned experiment begins with

a. A research question
b. Selection of participants
c. Selection of a setting
d. Selection of an experimental design

15. As a general rule the independent variable should be introduced when

________ baseline responding has been achieved.
a. Variable
b. Replicable
c. Stable
d. Complete

16. When the data show no evidence of an upward or downward trend and all
the measures fall within a small range of values, the data pattern is referred
to as
a. Ascending
b. Descending
c. Level
d. Stable

17. The three elements of baseline logic include the following:

a. Prediction, verification, and replication
b. Ascending, descending, and stable
c. Internal validity, external validity, and reliability
d. Dependent variable, independent variable, baseline
Answers

1. D - Pseudoscience
2. B - Determinism
3. D - Description, prediction, control
4. D - Descriptive
5. A - Experimental control
6. C - Analysis
7. B - External validity
8. A - Internal validity
9. C - Confounding variables
10. B – External
11. D - Systematic repeated measurement of behavior
12. C - Behavior
13. C - At least one large group for statistical comparisons
14. A - A research question
15. C - Stable
16. D - stable
17. A - Prediction, verification, and replication
Cooper Chapter 08

1. All things being equal, an experiment that incorporates ________

reversal(s) presents a more convincing and compelling demonstration of
experimental control than an experiment with _______ reversal(s).
a. Multiple, one
b. One, four
c. Several, multiple
d. Five, seven

2. Which of the following is considered to be a reason for using a B-A-B design

instead of an A-B-A-B design?
a. Irreversibility
b. Unlimited time in which to demonstrate practical and social significance
c. Sequence effects
d. When treatment is already in place

3. This design is considered the most "straightforward" and generally most

powerful within-subject design for demonstrating a functional relationship.
a. Alternating treatments design
b. Multiple baseline design
c. AB design
d. A-B-A-B reversal design

4. For most investigations it is suggested that you only change _______

variable(s) at a time.
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four

5. _________ control conditions might be used as a variation of the reversal

design when it is not possible or when it is deemed inappropriate to
completely eliminate an event or activity as a reinforcer.
a. Difference
b. Noncontingent reinforcement
c. Sequenced
d. Temporal

6. This experimental tactic entails repeated measures of behavior in a given

setting that require at least three consecutive phases: baseline, introduction
of the independent variable, and a return to baseline.
a. Alternating treatments design
b. Multiple baseline design
 c. Repeated multiple measures design
d. ABA reversal design
7. ________ means that a level of behavior observed in an earlier phase
cannot be reproduced even though experimental conditions return to
preintervention conditions.
a. Sequence effects
b. Irreversibility
c. Order effects
d. Reliability

8. This design is predicated on the behavioral principle of stimulus

discrimination and allows for the comparison of two or more different
treatments.
a. Multiple baseline design
b. Alternating treatments design
c. A-B-A-B reversal design
d. Single-subject design

9. An investigator who ________ turns the target behavior on and off by

presenting and withdrawing a specific variable makes a clear and
convincing demonstration of experimental control.
a. Conditionally
b. Haphazardly
c. Covertly
d. Reliably

10. This term is used to describe the effects on a subject's behavior in a given
condition that may be a result of the subject's experience with a prior
condition.
a. Sequence
b. Irreversible
c. Temporal
d. Variable
Answers

1. A - Multiple, one
2. D - When treatment is already in place
3. D - A-B-A-B reversal design
4. A - one
5. B - Noncontingent reinforcement
6. D – ABA reversal design
7. B - Irreversibility
8. B - Alternating treatments design
9. D - Reliably
10. A - Sequence
Cooper Chapter 09

1. Simultaneous measurement of two or more behaviors of a single participant

describes which type of experimental design?
a. Multiple baseline across behaviors
b. Multiple baseline across settings
c. Multiple baseline across subjects
d. Multiple baseline across probes

2. In a multiple baseline design, the functional relationship between the

independent variable and the change in the subject's behavior is determined
by:
a. Systematic introduction and withdrawal across phases
b. Observation of unchanged behaviors in other tiers
c. Observation of behavior change in the treated tier
d. Replication of behavior change with each new criterion

3. Which experimental design is most appropriate for evaluating the effect of

video modeling on the acquisition of the skills for preparing a meal by adults
with developmental disabilities?
a. Multiple baseline across behaviors
b. Changing criterion
c. Multiple probe
d. Delayed multiple baseline

4. All of the following are appropriate situations to use a delayed multiple

baseline except:
a. A planned reversal design is no longer possible
b. The researcher has limited resources to conduct data collection
c. A reversal design is too challenging to implement
d. Additional subjects become available after the start of the study

5. All of the following are advantages of the multiple baseline design except:
a. Easy to conceptualize
b. Lack of treatment withdrawal
c. Mimics common practice of practitioners
d. Takes less time to implement

6. All of the following are limitations of the multiple baseline design except
a. It may not reveal the functional relationship, even if one exists
b. Verification of predicted behavior change must be inferred from other behaviors.
c. The behavior under study must be within the subject's repertoire already
d. It is weaker than the reversal design
7. When an intervention that is known to be effective is withheld from a
subject for the purposes of achieving a multiple baseline design, this
presents a(n) ________ challenge for researchers.
a. Practical
b. Ethical
c. Experimental
d. Logical

8. One method of addressing the practical concern of costly measurement

when using a multiple baseline design across settings is to:
a. Include only one setting in the study
b. Reduce the number of baseline data points
c. Use intermittent probes during baseline
d. Use a changing criterion design instead of the multiple baseline

9. When a subject's behavior changes each time a new criterion is introduced,

this is an example of
a. Prediction
b. Function
c. Replication
d. Systematic manipulation

10. Which of the following is not a design factor to be considered when using a
changing criterion design?
a. Length of phase
b. Magnitude of behavior change
c. Number of criterion changes
d. Verification of behavior change
Answers

1. A - Multiple baseline across behaviors

2. B - Observation of unchanged behaviors in other tiers
3. C - Multiple probe
4. C - A reversal design is too challenging to implement
5. D - Takes less time to implement
6. C - The behavior under study must be within the subject's repertoire already
7. B - Ethical
8. C - Use intermittent probes during baseline
9. C - Replication
10. D - Verification of behavior change
Cooper Chapter 10

1. The most useful level to understand the effect of a treatment is the:

a. Group level
b. Individual level
c. Procedural level
d. Implementation level

2. Applied behavior analysis research has identified effective interventions for

socially significant behavior by focusing on the
a. Behavior of individuals with cognitive delays
b. Common behavior of groups of individuals
c. Behavior of individual subjects
d. Behavior of professionals

3. Combining analytic tactics in an experimental design is a good idea when

a. It allows for a more convincing demonstration of experimental effect
b. The research question is too broad for a single design
c. The procedures are quite complex
d. None of these is a justification for combining tactics

4. The research tactic for examining two or more elements of a treatment

package is called a(n)
a. Alternating treatment design
b. Multiple baseline across interventions
c. Multiple treatments
d. Component analysis

5. Experiments that demonstrate a clear functional relationship between the

independent variable and the observed behavior are said to have a high
degree of
a. Internal validity
b. External validity
c. Social validity
d. Reliability

6. An uncontrolled factor that is known or suspected to have exerted influence

on the dependent variable is called a(n)
a. Extraneous factor
b. Confounding variable
c. Behavioral control
d. Maintaining event
7. All of the following are methods for assessing the social validity of
outcomes except:
a. Comparing participants' performance to the performance of a normative sample
b. Using standardized assessment instruments
c. Asking consumers to rate the social validity of participant outcomes
d. Asking the researchers to rate the social validity of participant outcomes

8. The ultimate purpose of social validity assessment is to

a. Guide behavior change program development and application
b. Improve researchers' chances of publication
c. Improve the relationship between researchers and clients
d. Increase the magnitude of behavior change.

9. The degree to which a functional relationship can be demonstrated in

circumstances that are different from the experimental conditions is called:
a. Internal validity
b. Treatment acceptability
c. Replication
d. External validity

10. Which of the following research designs have contributed the least in terms
of effective technology for behavior change?
a. Group comparison designs
b. Multiple baseline across settings
c. Reversal designs
d. Component analyses

11. Which of the following is a factor not to consider when determining whether
or not a functional relation has been demonstrated in an experiment?
a. The degree to which the researcher controlled potential confounds
b. An examination of the measurement system
c. Visual analysis and interpretation of the data
d. Systematic replication of effects

12. Which of the following is not a reason that applied behavior analysts favor
visual analysis of data over statistical methods?
a. Statistical significance is not the target outcome for behavior analysts.
b. Visual analysis is well suited for demonstrating strong effects.
c. Highly variable data may not be statistically significant.
d. Predetermined criteria of statistical tests offer less flexibility in experimental design.
Answers

1. B - Individual level
2. C - Behavior of individual subjects
3. A - It allows for a more convincing demonstration of experimental effect
4. D - Component analysis
5. A - Internal validity
6. B - Confounding variable
7. D - Asking the researchers to rate the social validity of participant outcomes
8. A - Guide behavior change program development and application
9. D - External validity
10. A - Group comparison designs
11. D - Systematic replication of effects
12. C - Highly variable data may not be statistically significant.
Copper Chapter 11

1. A teacher wants to deliver a sticker to Johnny every time he says “Please.”

This would be considered positive reinforcement if:
a. The behavior of saying "Please" increases over time.
b. The behavior of saying "Please" decreases over time.
c. The behavior of saying "Please" does not change over time.
d. The behavior of sticker giving decreases over time.

2. The qualifications to be considered when utilizing positive reinforcement

are:
a. Delay between response and consequence
b. Stimulus conditions when response was emitted
c. Strength of motivation
d. All of these

3. An example of unconditioned reinforcer(s) is:

a. Food
b. Water
c. Oxygen
d. Warmth
e. Sexual stimulation
f. All of these

4. A neutral stimulus can be made into a reinforcer by:

a. Pairing it with an unconditioned stimulus
b. Pairing it with an unconditioned response
c. Presenting it individually after a response multiple times
d. A neutral stimulus cannot be utilized as a reinforcer

5. Heather hears a phone ring, then picks up the phone. Her husband talks
with her over the phone. What is the behavior in this three-term
contingency?
a. Husband talking
b. Heather picks up the phone
c. Phone ringing
d. None of these

6. An example of a motivating operation is:

a. Hunger
b. Hay fever
c. Argument with significant other
d. All of these
e. None of these
7. Which of the following is not an appropriate way to identify potential
reinforcers?
a. Pick a stimulus that is reinforcing for someone else
b. Ask the person or significant other what is reinforcing
c. Observe the person
d. Measure the person's responses to trial-based tests

8. Stimulus preference assessment refers to a variety of procedures to

determine:
a. The stimulus a person prefers
b. The relative preference values of those stimuli
c. The conditions under which those preference values hold
d. All of these

9. What information does a concurrent schedule reinforcer assessment

provide?
a. A rank order of preference for a variety of stimuli.
b. How often children will select one stimulus versus another to indicate preference
c. Whether or not a stimulus functions as a reinforcer and how effective that stimulus is
as a reinforcer compared to other stimuli
d. All of these
e. None of these

10. When two or more contingencies of reinforcement operate independently

and simultaneously for two or more behaviors, what schedule of
reinforcement is in effect?
a. Multiple
b. Mixed
c. Progressive-Ratio
d. Concurrent
e. All of these
f. None of these

11. Which schedule reinforcer assessment consists of two or more component

schedules of reinforcement for a single response with only one component
schedule in effect at any given time?
a. Progressive-Ratio
b. Multiple
c. Mixed
d. Concurrent
e. All of these
f. None of these
12. The model for predicting whether (a) access to one behavior will function as
reinforcement for another behavior based on the relative baseline rates at
which each behavior occurs and (b) whether contingent access to one of the
behaviors represents a restriction compared to the baseline level of
engagement is known as the:
a. Response-satiation hypothesis
b. Response-contingency hypothesis
c. The Premack Principle
d. Response-deprivation hypothesis
e. None of these

13. The response-deprivation hypothesis was built on whose concept?

a. Premack
b. Skinner
c. Watson
d. Pavlov
e. None of these

14. Experimental control when evaluating positive reinforcement is

demonstrated by comparing:
a. Response rates in the presence of a contingency
b. Response rates in the absence of a contingency
c. Fixed time reinforcement to differential reinforcement
d. Differential reinforcement of other behavior to another reinforcement schedule, such
as differential reinforcement of alternate behavior
e. All of these
f. None of these

15. The presentation of a potential reinforcer on a fixed or variable schedule

independent of the occurrence of the target behavior is also referred to as:
a. Contingent reinforcement
b. Noncontingent reinforcement
c. Contingent punishment
d. Noncontingent punishment
e. None of these
f. All of these

16. Which could be used as a control condition when evaluating the effects of a
reinforcement-based procedure?
a. Noncontingent reinforcement
b. Differential reinforcement of other behavior
c. Differential reinforcement of alternative behavior
d. All of these
e. None of these
Answers

1. A - The behavior of saying "Please" increases over time.

2. D - All of these
3. F - All of these
4. A - Pairing it with an unconditioned stimulus
5. B - Heather picks up the phone
6. D - All of these
7. A - Pick a stimulus that is reinforcing for someone else
8. D – all of these
9. C - Whether or not a stimulus functions as a reinforcer and how effective that stimulus is as a
reinforcer compared to other stimuli
10. D - Concurrent
11. B - Multiple
12. D - Response-deprivation hypothesis
13. A - Premack
14. E – All of these
15. B - Noncontingent reinforcement
16. D – all of these
Copper Chapter 12

1. Negative reinforcement can be defined as: Stimulus _______________,

contingent upon a response, which _______________ the future probability
of that response.
a. Presented, increases
b. Presented, decreases
c. Removed, increases
d. Removed, decreases

2. Which of the following is an example of a negative reinforcement

contingency?
a. Jo is sitting near a window at Starbucks having a cup of coffee. The sun is streaming
in the window, and it is too warm for Jo-she is beginning to perspire. Jo moves to
another chair away from the window, where it is shady. The next time Jo goes to
Starbucks, she sees the sun shining in the window again and sits in the chair in the
shade instead.
b. Frank often goes to Starbucks for coffee as well. After receiving his coffee, he sits
down in his seat. It is 9:00 am, and Starbucks is very busy. Most of the tables are full.
As a result, a smart woman approaches Frank and asks if she can share his table.
Frank agrees, and the woman sits down and has coffee with Frank. Frank decides he
will come to Starbucks at 9:00 am for coffee more often in the future.
c. Cheryl loves coffee. She orders a coffee at Starbucks but burns her mouth on it
because it is too hot. After a couple of occurrences of this, Cheryl stops coming to
Starbucks for coffee.
d. Sam was walking to Starbucks for coffee. On his way, he lost his wallet to a
pickpocket. Sam no longer walks to that Starbucks for coffee.

3. Mary Jo decides to implement a negative reinforcement intervention with

one of her students, Anjali, to increase the amount of work Anjali
completes. Mary Jo tells Anjali, if you complete 15 math problems today
(Monday), you don't have to do your math worksheet on Friday. What is one
problem that might arise with this intervention?
a. Reinforcement is available for a competing behavior.
b. There is little difference in the stimulus conditions before the response (completing
work) occurs and after the response occurs.
c. The stimulus change following the occurrence of target behavior is not immediate.
d. Mary Jo is being inconsistent in her delivery of reinforcement.

4. Unlike assessments for identifying positive reinforcers, assessments for

negative reinforcers must place equal emphasis on _______________ as
well as the consequence events for target behavior.
a. The EO or antecedent event
b. The future occurrence of the target behavior
c. The stimulus
d. Punishment
5. The key difference between an escape contingency and an avoidance
contingency is:
a. In an escape contingency the future probability of the target behavior increases, while
the future probability of the target behavior decreases with an avoidance contingency.
b. In an escape contingency the EO is present prior to the occurrence of the target
behavior, while in an avoidance contingency, the EO is not present prior to the
occurrence of the target behavior.
c. In an escape contingency the EO is not present prior to the occurrence of the target
behavior, while in an avoidance contingency, the EO is present prior to the occurrence
of the target behavior.
d. In an escape contingency, there is a warning stimulus that signals an aversive
stimulus is imminent, while in an avoidance contingency there is no such warning
stimulus.

6. Which of the following is an example of free-operant avoidance?

a. Jackie crosses the street when she sees Donna come around the corner on the next
block so that she doesn't have to talk to her.
b. Lavonda puts on a bicycle helmet when she rides her bike so that she doesn't hurt her
head in the event that she falls off her bike.
c. Nathaniel puts down the hurricane shutters on his Florida home when he hears that a
tropical storm is approaching so that his windows do not get broken.
d. All of these

7. Which of the following behaviors could be maintained by negative

reinforcement?
a. Completing school work.
b. Cleaning a bedroom
c. Tantrums
d. All of these

8. An unconditioned negative reinforcer:

a. Is one that began as a neutral stimulus.
b. Acquired its aversive qualities by being paired with another aversive stimulus.
c. Is one that strengthens behavior in the absence of prior learning.
d. Can be thought of as an inherited negative reinforcer.
e. Third and fourth choices .
9. The textbook describes a study by Ahearn and colleagues (1996), in which
negative reinforcement was used to increase food acceptance in children. In
this example, during baseline, bite acceptances produced access to toys and
bite refusals produced removal of the spoon (negative reinforcement).
During the intervention, bite refusals no longer produced removal of the
spoon. Instead, the spoon was only removed if a bite was accepted. As soon
as a bite was accepted and every time a bite was accepted, the spoon was
briefly removed. Which factors that are important to consider for effectively
changing behavior with negative reinforcement are illustrated in this
example?
a. The stimulus change following the occurrence of the target behavior was immediate.
b. The difference in stimulation prior to and after the response occurred was large.
c. The occurrence of the target response consistently produced escape.
d. Reinforcement was unavailable for competing responses.
e. All of these
f. None of these

10. The study by Rodgers and Iwata (1991) that analyzed the effects of positive
reinforcement, error correction procedures, and an avoidance procedure
demonstrated that:
a. Error correction procedures may produce learning, at least in part, due to an
avoidance contingency.
b. Positive reinforcement was the most effective procedure for producing correct
performance.
c. Error correction procedures and avoidance procedures produced the most correct
responding.
d. All of these
e. None of these

11. Ethical concerns about the use of negative reinforcement stem from:
a. Having to deprive the individual of positive reinforcement for an extended period of
time.
b. The presence of antecedent aversive stimuli in the individual's environment.
c. The potential for creating a context that generates undesired behaviors.
d. The presentation of aversive stimuli contingent upon a target behavior displayed by an
individual.
e. Second and third choices.

12. The potential negative side effects (e.g., crying, running away) of negative
reinforcement are similar to the side effects associated with:
a. Positive Reinforcement
b. Punishment
c. Stimulus Control
d. All of these
e. None of these
Answers

1. C - Removed, increases
2. A - Jo is sitting near a window at Starbucks having a cup of coffee. The sun is streaming in the
window, and it is too warm for Jo-she is beginning to perspire. Jo moves to another chair away
from the window, where it is shady. The next time Jo goes to Starbucks, she sees the sun
shining in the window again and sits in the chair in the shade instead.
3. C - The stimulus change following the occurrence of target behavior is not immediate.
4. A - The EO or antecedent event
5. B - In an escape contingency the EO is present prior to the occurrence of the target behavior,
while in an avoidance contingency, the EO is not present prior to the occurrence of the target
behavior.
6. D – all of these
7. D – all of these
8. E - Third and fourth choices
9. E -all of these
10. A - Error correction procedures may produce learning, at least in part, due to an avoidance
contingency.
11. E - Second and third choices.
12. B - punishment
Copper Chapter 13

1. Every time Baxter raised his hand in class, Mrs. Tulley called on him. What
schedule of reinforcement is Baxter's hand raising on?
a. Intermittent reinforcement
b. Fixed-interval
c. Continuous reinforcement
d. Fixed-ratio 2

2. Timmy has just recently begun clearing his plate after he finishes his meal.
Timmy's mother really likes this new behavior and would like to see more of
it. Which schedule of reinforcement should Timmy's mother use to
strengthen Timmy's new behavior of clearing his plate?
a. Variable-ratio 8
b. Intermittent reinforcement
c. Fixed-ratio 10
d. Continuous reinforcement

3. Which schedule of reinforcement occurs when two or more contingencies of

reinforcement operate independently and simultaneously for two or more
behaviors?
a. Variable-ratio schedules of reinforcement
b. Concurrent schedules of reinforcement
c. Fixed-interval schedules of reinforcement
d. Multiple schedules of reinforcement

4. Which schedule of reinforcement presents two or more basic schedules of

reinforcement in an alternating (usually random) sequence usually
occurring successively and independently with no correlated discriminative
stimuli?
a. Multiple schedules of reinforcement
b. Alternative schedules of reinforcement
c. Variable-interval schedules of reinforcement
d. Mixed schedules of reinforcement

5. Which schedule of reinforcement produces a post-reinforcement pause?

a. Fixed ratio
b. Continuous reinforcement schedule
c. Tandem schedules of reinforcement
d. Variable-interval schedules of reinforcement

6. To gradually reduce a high-frequency behavior, which schedule of

reinforcement is the most appropriate?
a. Differential reinforcement of high rates of responding
 b. Differential reinforcement of low rates of responding
c. Fixed-ratio schedules of reinforcement
d. Concurrent schedules of reinforcement
7. Schedule thinning refers to:
a. Gradually decreasing the response ratio or the duration of the time interval
b. Quickly increasing the response ratio or the duration of the time interval
c. Gradually increasing the response ratio or the duration of the time interval
d. Moving gradually from an intermittent schedule to a continuous reinforcement
schedule.

8. Common behavioral characteristics associated with ________ include

avoidance, aggression, and unpredictable pauses in responding.
a. Ratio strain
b. Post-reinforcement pause
c. Scallop effect
d. Fixed interval

9. Which schedule of reinforcement is identical to the chained schedule except

it does not use discriminative stimuli with the elements in the chain?
a. Mixed schedule of reinforcement
b. Fixed-ratio schedule of reinforcement
c. Tandem schedule of reinforcement
d. Chained schedule of reinforcement

10. When the frequency of a time-filling behavior increases as a side effect of

other behavior maintained by a schedule of reinforcement, this is referred
to as:
a. Ratio strain
b. Post-reinforcement pause
c. Schedule induced
d. Schedule thinning
Answers

1. C - Continuous reinforcement
2. D - Continuous reinforcement
3. B - Concurrent schedules of reinforcement
4. D - Mixed schedules of reinforcement
5. A – fixed ratio
6. B - Differential reinforcement of low rates of responding
7. A - Gradually decreasing the response ratio or the duration of the time interval
8. A - Ratio strain
9. C - Tandem schedule of reinforcement
10. C - Schedule induced
Copper Chapter 14
1. Which of the following statements describes the definition of positive punishment?
a. The presentation of a stimulus that increases the rate of occurrence of the target
behavior
b. The presentation of a stimulus that decreases the rate of occurrence of the target
behavior
c. The removal of a stimulus that decreases the rate of occurrence of the target
behavior
d. The removal of a stimulus that increases the rate of occurrence of the target
behavior

2. Which of the following statements describes the definition of negative punishment?

a. The presentation of a stimulus that increases the rate of occurrence of the target
behavior
b. The presentation of a stimulus that decreases the rate of occurrence of the target
behavior
c. The removal of a stimulus that decreases the rate of occurrence of the target
behavior
d. The removal of a stimulus that increases the rate of occurrence of the target
behavior

3. Which statement best describes recovery from punishment?

a. After punishment is discontinued, sometimes the behavior that experienced the
punishment contingency will recover.
b. When the punishment contingency is implemented, the behavior of interest may
initially increase in rate, followed by a rapid decline in frequency.
c. After punishment is discontinued, the behavior of interest may gradually reappear,
only to disappear on its own, regardless of existing environmental contingencies.
d. The period of time the implementer of the punishment contingency requires to
"recover" from the emotional side effects of using punishment.
4. Which of the following is not a factor that influences the effectiveness of punishment
listed in the chapter?
a. Immediacy
b. Intensity
c. Variation
d. Schedule

5. The use of a punishment procedure may cause unwanted side effects to appear. The
chapter presents several side effects associated with the use of punishment. Which of
the following is not a side effect listed in the chapter?
a. Undesirable emotional responses
b. Avoidance and escape
c. Increased rate of problem behavior
d. Decreased self-esteem

6. Little Peter was walking along the fence of his uncle's dairy farm. Peter reached up
and grabbed the wire along the fence, not realizing it was electrified. After
recovering from the pain caused by the shock, Peter never again touched the fence
wires. Which statement best describes the shock stimulus felt by Peter?
a. Negative Reinforcement
b. Negative Punishment
c. Bad Judgment
d. Positive Punishment

7. Which statement best describes positive punishment?

a. The delivery of a stimulus, following a behavior, which increases the likelihood
that the behavior will occur again
b. The delivery of a stimulus, following a behavior, which decreases the likelihood
that the behavior will occur again
c. A stimulus delivered with good intentions
d. The removal of a stimulus, following a behavior, which decreases the likelihood
that the behavior will occur again
8. Which statement best describes the procedure of response blocking?
a. Blocking the occurrence of the antecedent stimulus associated with the occurrence
of the problem behavior
b. Delivering a wood block to the student prior to the occurrence of a behavioral
response
c. Physically intervening as soon as the student begins to emit a problem behavior to
prevent the completion of the response
d. The interventionist closing his or her eyes to deny the student pleasure after
engaging in the problem behavior

9. Punishment should be thought of as an "eye-for-an-eye" procedure.

a. True
b. False

10. Which statement is not recommended as a guideline for the use of punishment?
a. Test punisher on your pet prior to implementing it with your student
b. Conduct punisher assessment
c. Use the least intensity of punishment that is effective
d. Deliver the punisher immediately

11. Carr and Lovaas (1983) recommended that practitioners experience any punisher
personally before the treatment begins for what reason?
a. It reminds the practitioner that it is a sadistic procedure
b. It reminds the practitioner that the technique produces physical discomfort.
c. It reminds the practitioner that the technique is designed to increase the
appropriate behavior of the student.
d. It allows the practitioner to determine a baseline of discomfort which he/she then
increases rapidly as it is administered to the student.
12. Which of the following is not listed in the chapter as an ethical consideration
regarding the use of punishment?
a. Right to safe and humane treatment
b. Least restrictive alternative
c. Right to effective treatment
d. Most restrictive alternative

13. Sean was responsible for designing an intervention for a fifth grade student who
engaged in severe problem behavior consisting of throwing chairs at the teacher
when an assignment was given. Sean decided to utilize a contingent physical
restraint every time the child threw a chair. Sean is violating the ethical
consideration of:
a. Right to safe and humane treatment
b. Least restrictive alternative
c. Right to effective treatment
d. Sean is not violating any ethical considerations

14. Which statement regarding the strength of applied behavior analysis

is not supported in the punishment chapter?
a. Recognize and appreciate punishment's natural role and contributions to survival
and learning
b. Increase the use of punishment procedures over the use of reinforcement-based
interventions.
c. Increase basic and applied research on punishment.
d. View treatments featuring positive punishment as default technologies

15. Many of the recommendations for punishment are derived from basic research
conducted more than _____ years ago.
a. 5
b. 20
c. 10
d. 40
 Answer Key
1. B. The Presentation of a stimulus that decreases the of the occurrence of the target
behavior.
2. C. The Removal of a stimulus that decreases the rate of occurrence of the target behavior
3. A. punishment is discontinued, sometimes the behavior that experienced the punishment
contingency will recover.
4. C. Variation
5. D. Decreased self-esteem
6. D. Positive Punishment
7. B. The delivery of a stimulus, following a behavior, which decreases the likelihood that
the behavior will occur again
8. C. Physically intervening as soon as the student begins to emit a problem behavior to
prevent the completion of the response
9. B. False
10. A. Test punisher on your pet prior to implementing it with your student
11. B. It reminds the practitioner that the technique produces physical discomfort.
12. D. Most restrictive environment
13. B. Least restrictive alternative.
14. B. Increase the use of punishment procedures over the use of reinforcement-based
interventions
15. D. 40
Cooper Quiz 15

1. During a math game every time a student shouted out an answer before
being called on that student was placed in the penalty box and not allowed
to participate for two questions. This is an example of which time-out
procedure?
a. Hallway time-out
b. Contingent observation
c. Planned ignoring
d. Bonus response cost
e. Time-out ribbon

2. Mr. Hendry uses a time-out ribbon for any students who are not in their
seats before the bell rings. They have to wear the ribbon for two minutes,
during which time they cannot earn extra-credit points. What is wrong with
Mr. Hendry's application of the time-out ribbon?
a. The fine should be longer.
b. The time-out ribbon should not be used for social behaviors.
c. Students should have free access to recess.
d. The time-out ribbon should be paired with the opportunity to earn reinforcement.

3. A punishment procedure has been put in place for Carlos. Whenever he

swears in class his teacher says, "Carlos, swearing is not allowed in this
classroom," and he is escorted to the time-out room where he has to stay
for at least five minutes. His teacher has used the procedure for three
weeks and his swearing has not decreased at all. What is the problem in this
example?
a. The time-out room is not functioning as punishment.
b. Carlos should be placed in the time-out room for a longer period of time.
c. His teacher needs to explain to him why he is being placed in time-out.
d. His teacher has not done enough to reinforce the time-in setting.

4. Before implementing a contingent observation program for cutting in line at

the drinking fountain, Mrs. Salkey made sure to send a note home to
guardians telling them about the program and asking the guardians to
contact her if there were any objections. In addition she checked with her
principal to make sure she was following the schoolwide behavior
management program. Which part of using time-out effectively does this
example best exemplify?
a. Reinforce and enrich the time-in environment.
b. Define the behaviors leading to time-out.
c. Define the procedures for the duration of time-out.
d. Explain the time-out rules.
e. Evaluate effectiveness.
f. Obtain permission.
5. When implementing a contingent observation program for cutting in line at
the drinking fountain, Mrs. Salkey made sure to provide lots of tokens for
students who waited their turn. Which part of using time-out effectively
does this example best exemplify?
a. Reinforce and enrich the time-in environment.
b. Define the behaviors leading to time-out.
c. Define the procedures for the duration of time-out.
d. Explain the time-out rules.
e. Evaluate effectiveness.
f. Obtain permission.

6. When implementing the contingent observation program, Mrs. Salkey kept a

record of each student who cut in line every day for one week. By Friday
there were no students who cut in line. Which part of using time-out
effectively does this example best exemplify?
a. Reinforce and enrich the time-in environment.
b. Define the behaviors leading to time-out.
c. Define the procedures for the duration of time-out.
d. Explain the time-out rules.
e. Evaluate effectiveness
f. Obtain permission

7. Mrs. Salkey used tokens for waiting along with a contingent observation
program. This approach best exemplifies:
a. Rapid suppression of behavior
b. Combined approaches
c. Ease of application
d. Acceptability

8. Mr. Marley docks the class one minute of extra recess time every time he
has to say, "people quiet down please." This best exemplifies which
response cost method?
a. Direct fines
b. Bonus response cost
c. Using a response cost with a group
d. Combining with positive reinforcement

9. In addition to using a response cost with an entire group Mr. Marley is also
using which procedure?
a. Direct fines
b. Bonus response cost
c. Using a response cost with a group
d. Combining with positive reinforcement
10. Mrs. Webb uses a response-cost procedure in which a student loses all
points toward participation in a monthly pizza party any time he or she says
"shut up" to another student. As a result, whenever students lose their
points, they say "shut up" more often. What is the problem?
a. The magnitude of the fine is too great.
b. The points weren't functioning as reinforcers.
c. The students became more aggressive.
d. The fine should have been larger.
 Answer Key

1. B. Contingent Observation
2. B. The time-out ribbon should not be used for social behaviors.
3. A. The time-out room is not functioning as a punishment.
4. F. Obtain Permission
5. A. Reinforce and enrich the time-in environment
6. E. Evaluate effectiveness
7. B. Combined Approaches
8. C. Using response cost on a group
9. B. Bonus response cost
10. A. The magnitude of the fine is too great.
 Cooper Chapter 16
1. _________ alters the effectiveness of some object or event as a reinforcer and the
current frequency of all behavior that has been reinforced by that stimulus, object,
or event.
a. Discriminative stimulus
b. Establishing operation
c. Behavior-altering effects
d. Value-altering effects

2. The term _________ has been suggested to replace the term establishing
operation (EO).
a. Motivating operation
b. Evocative effect
c. Abative effect
d. Abolishing operation

3. The effect that can produce either an increase or decrease in the reinforcing
effectiveness of some stimulus, object, or event is the:
a. Behavior-altering effect
b. Abative effect
c. Evocative effect
d. Value-altering effect

4. The effect that can produce either an increase or decrease in the current frequency
of behavior that has been reinforced by some stimulus, object, or event is the:
a. Behavior-altering effect
b. Abative effect
c. Evocative effect
d. Value-altering effect

5. Motivating operations (MOs) and SDs are both

a. Antecedent variables that alter the future frequency of some behavior
b. Consequent variables that alter the current frequency of some behavior
c. Antecedent variables that alter the current frequency of some behavior
d. Consequent variables that alter the future frequency of some behavior

6. _________ control(s) a type of behavior because it has been related to the

differential availability or an effective reinforcer for that type of behavior.
a. Motivating operations (MOs)
b. Unconditioned motivating operations (UMOs)
c. Conditioned motivating operations (CMOs)
d. Discriminative stimulus (SD)
7. _________ is (are) related to the differential reinforcing effectiveness of a particular
type of environmental event.
a. Motivating operations
b. Discriminative stimulus
c. Motivating variables
d. Discriminative operations

8. This type of motivating operation has value-altering effects that are not learned.
a. Conditioned motivating operation
b. Unconditioned motivating operations
c. Surrogate motivating operations
d. Reflexive motivating operations

9. Which of the following is an example of a UMO as it relates to humans?

a. Getting paid for a job every 2 weeks
b. Putting on a sweater to go outside
c. Sleeping after a week of not getting any sleep
d. Playing with your children after they have been in school all day

10. The type of motivating operation that accomplishes what the original motivating
operation it was paired with did is a
a. Surrogate CMO
b. Transitive CMO
c. Reflexive CMO
d. Substantive CMO

11. This type of motivating operation alters a relation to itself by acquiring MO

effectiveness by preceding a worsening or improvement.
a. Surrogate CMO
b. Transitive CMO
c. Reflexive CMO
d. Substantive CMO

12. This type of motivating operation makes something else effective as a reinforcer
because of its relation or association with an unconditioned reinforcer.
a. Surrogate CMO
b. Transitive CMO
c. Reflexive CMO
d. Substantive CMO
13. This type of motivating operation has particular implications for the training of
language in individuals with little or no speech.
a. Surrogate CMO
b. Transitive CMO
c. Reflexive CMO
d. Substantive CMO

14. The continued study of motivating operations is most important to understanding in

what field of applied behavior analysis?
a. The three-term contingency
b. How people learn
c. Why people learn
d. How to best refine the terminology
 Answer Key
1. B. Establishing Operation
2. A Motivating Operation
3. D. Value-Altering Effect
4. A. Behavior-Altering
5. C. Antecedent variables that alter the current frequency of some behavior
6. D. Discriminative Stimulus
7. A. Motivating Operations
8. B. Unconditioned Motivating operations
9. C. Sleeping after a week of not getting any sleep
10. A. Surrogate CMO
11. C. Reflexive CMO
12. B. Transitive CMO
13. B. Transitive CMO
14. A, The Three-Term contingency
Chapter 17

1. When a group of stimuli all evoke the same response (for example, when
one sees a picture of a Border collie, a Doberman pinscher, and a Labrador
retriever, one says "that's a dog"), the group of stimuli is referred to as:
a. A response class
b. A stimulus class
c. An arbitrary class
d. A response class

2. Which of the following is an example of an arbitrary stimulus class?

a. The following women's restroom signs: the word woman, a pictogram of a woman,
and a painting of a mermaid
b. A picture of a brick house, a stick built house, and a log cabin
c. A picture of a chair with no arms, a chair with arms, and a rocking chair
d. A picture of a bus, a car, and a motorcycle

3. Which of the following illustrates an example of stimulus control?

a. Joanne occasionally runs the stop sign near her house because there are rarely any
cars at the intersection
b. Frank flaps his hands almost constantly all day long.
c. Joe hits his teacher every time and only when she asks him to wash his hands.
d. Molly uses a Kleenex to wipe her nose when it is running and often when it is not
running. It is a bad habit she has.

4. Which of the following statements is true?

a. When a dog has been trained to salivate when a bell rings by repeatedly pairing meat
powder and a bell, this is an example of stimulus control.
b. When an individual has been trained to say the word "red" when he is shown a card
that says RED (but not when he has been shown a card that says GREEN), this is an
example of stimulus control.
c. Antecedent stimuli rarely acquire control over human behavior.
d. The first two statements are true.

5. A teacher makes a request of a student. The student emits aggressive

behavior immediately following the request. The teacher removes the
request in order to avoid getting hit. The teacher's request:
a. Was clearly inappropriate
b. Is a discriminative stimulus for the problem behavior
c. Is a motivating operation for the problem behavior
d. Is a stimulus delta for problem behavior

6. Motivating operations and discriminative stimuli:

a. Have similar evocative effects on behavior
b. Are considered synonymous
c. Occur after the behavior of interest
 d. All of these

7. Amanda, a typically developing two-year-old girl, has a father who is in the

Marines. The last time her father was home, he was in uniform. Now, every
time she sees a man in uniform, she says, "Daddy!" This is an example of:
a. Stimulus control
b. Stimulus equivalence
c. A response class
d. Stimulus generalization

8. Stimulus generalization is more likely to occur:

a. When stimuli share more similar properties than when stimuli are very different from
one another.
b. When the practitioner tightly controls the training procedures and stimuli used during
training (i.e., using few different stimuli during training).
c. If time delay is used as part of the training procedure.
d. If reflexivity is observed.

9. Stimulus discrimination is acquired by:

a. Reinforcing responses in the presence of a stimulus delta and withholding
reinforcement in the presence of the discriminative stimulus.
b. Reinforcing responses in the presence of both discriminative stimuli and stimulus
deltas.
c. Reinforcing responses in the presence of the discriminative stimulus and withholding
reinforcement in the presence of the stimulus deltas.
d. Thinning reinforcement so that no reinforcement is required for any antecedent
stimuli.

10. Stimulus discrimination involves the behavioral principles of:

a. Prompts and extinction
b. Reinforcement and extinction
c. Form and function of behavior
d. Concepts and stimulus equivalence

11. In order to form the concept of "vehicles," an individual must be able to:
a. Have an IQ of at least 100
b. Have a strong grasp of concrete operations first
c. Discriminate vehicles from nonvehicles and generalize across all motorized methods of
transporting people
d. Discriminate vehicles from nonvehicles

12. Which of the following is a concept that can be taught using stimulus
discrimination and generalization procedures?
a. Fruit
b. Under
c. Integrity
 d. All of these

13. The difference between a response prompt and a stimulus prompt is:
a. A response prompt operates directly on the response, while a stimulus prompt
operates on the antecedent task stimuli.
b. Stimulus prompts are easier to fade than response prompts.
c. A response prompt involves changing the required response, while a stimulus prompt
requires changing the antecedent task stimuli.
d. Response prompts are verbal, while stimulus prompts are nonverbal.

14. Rahul keeps forgetting to push the Total button on the cash register at his
place of employment. His job coach wants to insert a prompt to help him
remember to total customers' orders. She wants to use a stimulus prompt.
Which of the following is an example of a stimulus prompt?
a. When Rahul reaches the end of the order, the job coach gives him a nudge on the
elbow to get his hand moving toward the Total button.
b. When Rahul reaches the end of the order, the job coach says, "Don't forget to push
Total."
c. The job coach places a sign on the cash register that says "Don't forget to push Total."
d. The job coach places a bright pink sticker on the total button.

15. Stimulus and response prompt fading is used to:

a. Transfer stimulus control from the prompt to the natural antecedent cue.
b. Thin the reinforcement schedule for responding correctly.
c. Establish stimulus equivalence.
d. Promote stimulus generalization.

16. Most-to-least prompt fading involves:

a. Gradually decreasing the time between the presence of the antecedent cue to the
prompt from most time to least time.
b. Gradually changing the form or intensity of the prompt from most intense to least
intense.
c. Gradually decreasing exaggerated dimensions of the stimulus prompt.
d. Gradually changing the shape of the prompt to look more like the natural antecedent
cue
.
17. Transitivity is demonstrated when:
a. In the absence of training and reinforcement a learner will select a stimulus that is
matched to itself.
b. The sample stimulus and comparison stimulus can be reversed.
c. An untrained stimulus-stimulus relation emerges as a product of training two other
stimulus-stimulus relations.
d. An individual can match to sample.

18. Stimulus equivalence

a. Is a theoretical construct and not studied much in behavior analysis.
b. Provides a methodology for efficient teaching-expanding learners' skills far beyond
what is directly taught.
c. Describes the emergence of accurate responding to stimulus-response relations that
have not been trained.
d. Establishes feature stimulus classes.
 Answer Key

1. B. Stimulus Class
2. A. The following women’s room signs: the word woman, a pictogram or a woman, and a
painting of a mermaid.
3. C. Joe hits his teacher every time and only when she asks him to wash his hands.
4. D. The first two statements are true.
5. C. IS a motivating operation for the problem behavior. - The request is not a
discriminative stimulus because there are no times when the same response from the
child (hitting) produces the same response (escape). In fact, unless the request is present
(i.e., a demand is present), then escape cannot occur. Thus, it makes no sense to view the
request as a discriminative stimulus. Instead, the request should be viewed as a
motivating operation that makes aggression a more probable response.
6. A. Have similar evocative effects on behavior.
7. D. Stimulus generalization
8. A. When stimuli share more similar properties than when stimuli are very different from one
another.
9. C. Reinforcing responses in the presence of the discriminative stimulus and withholding
reinforcement in the presence of the stimulus deltas.
10. B. Reinforcement and extinction
11. C. Discriminate vehicles from non-vehicles and generalize across all motorized methods of
transporting people
12. D. All of these
13. A, A response prompt operates directly on the response, while a stimulus prompt operates on
the antecedent task stimuli.
14. D. The job coach places a bright pink sticker on the total button.
15. A. Transfer stimulus control from the prompt to the natural antecedent cue.
16. B. Gradually changing the form or intensity of the prompt from most intense to lest intense.
17. C. An untrained stimulus-stimulus relation emerges as a product of training two other stimulus-
stimulus relations.
18. B. Provides a methodology for efficient teaching-expanding learners’ skills far beyond what is
directly taught.
 Chapter 18

1. With an understanding of the imitation process, applied behavior analysts

can use imitation as an intervention to:
a. Eliminate old behaviors
b. Evoke new behaviors
c. Create teaching sequences
d. Reinforce appropriate behaviors

2. The controlling variable for an imitative behavior is:

a. An operative behavior
b. An imitative response chain
c. A model
d. A pre-task

3. Learning to purchase a soda from a vending machine by first watching

someone else purchase a soda would be an example of:
a. Planned echoic stimuli
b. Unplanned echoic stimuli
c. Planned models
d. Unplanned models

4. When a child picks up a fork immediately after observing her father pick up
a fork, this imitative behavior has:
a. Planned similarity
b. Unplanned similarity
c. Formal similarity
d. Informal similarity

5. Regardless of the behavior modeled, the objective of imitation training is for

the learner to do what?
a. What the model does
b. What the trainer asked or commanded
c. What behavior best fits the situation
d. What behavior will receive reinforcement

6. Potential learners cannot imitate if they do not have this prerequisite skill:
a. The behavior in their repertoire
b. Attending to the model
c. Decrease in problem behavior
d. Ability to define the behavior
 Answer Key

1. B. Evoke new behaviors.

2. C. A model
3. D. Unplanned Models
4. C. Formal Similarity
5. A. What the model does
6. B. Attending to the model
 Chapter 19
1. Shaping involves:
a. Reinforcing successive approximations to a terminal behavior
b. Creating response differentiation between responses that are closer to the terminal
behavior and those that are not
c. Placing responses that are not a closer approximation of the terminal behavior on
extinction
d. All of these

2. Which of the following is an example of shaping an individual to swing a golf club

correctly (i.e., take the appropriate backswing, swing the club down to the ball, and
follow through with the swing)?
a. Stand behind the person and physically help make the correct golf swing. Over
time, slowly provide less physical assistance until the individual makes a correct
swing independently.
b. Start with verbal prompts to do each step. If this is not effective, provide a model.
If this is not effective, provide some physical assistance. If this is not effective,
stand behind the person and help the person make the correct golf swing.
c. Provide positive reinforcement for any swing that resembles a golf swing. Then,
provide reinforcement for closer and closer approximations of a correct golf
swing and withhold reinforcement for poorer approximations of a correct golf
swing.
d. None of these is an example of shaping.

3. Response differentiation involves what two components?

a. Differential reinforcement and changing the criterion for reinforcement
b. Punishment and extinction
c. Prompting and differential reinforcement
d. Extinction and changing the criterion for reinforcement

4. Ms. Anita Response wants to increase the number of words Sophie writes in her
stories during creative writing time. She uses shaping to do so. What dimension of
behavior is she shaping?
a. Amplitude
b. Frequency
c. Duration
d. Latency
5. An example of shaping within a response topography is:
a. Increasing the number of math problems an individual needs to complete during
math class
b. Increasing the duration of in-seat behavior during seatwork time
c. Increasing the force of a tennis swing
d. All of these are examples of shaping within a response topography
6. The text gives an example of shaping gum chewing, where first lip movement
received reinforcement, then lip movements with sound, then saying the word
"gum," and finally, saying "Gum please." This is an example of:
a. Shaping within a response topography.
b. Shaping across different response topographies.
c. Shaping the magnitude of a response.
d. Shaping the duration of a response

7. Shaping can be a slow, time-consuming process. What is one way to effectively speed
up the process?
a. Add a punishment contingency for incorrect responses.
b. Each time you increase the criteria for reinforcement, do so by larger increments.
c. Model the desired response for the individual.
d. All of these are effective ways to make shaping more efficient.

8. When is adding a prompt to the shaping process something to consider?

a. When the individual is progressing through the shaping procedure quickly.
b. When the individual has mastered the terminal behavior.
c. When the individual's repertoire is weak and the likelihood of making a
successive approximation is low.
d. When you have limited staff and resources to implement the shaping procedure.

9. What is meant by the statement that progress in shaping is rarely linear and often
erratic?
a. Most individuals are unsuccessful in shaping new responses.
b. The amount of time it may take to shape a behavior is often unpredictable.
c. Sometimes individuals may exceed your criteria for reinforcement, making closer
approximations than you had expected.
d. Sometimes individuals may get "stuck" on a response and have to "back up" to a
previously-learned approximation before making process. This can slow the
process down more than expected.
e. All of these
f. None of these
10. One of the guidelines for effective shaping is to carefully define the terminal
behavior and the criteria for successfully engaging in the terminal behavior.
Effective ways for deciding what the criteria for success are:
a. Read the research literature to see if there are published norms and guidelines
available for the behavior you are trying to shape.
b. Observe competent peers to see how well they perform the task, and set your
criteria according to their performance level.
c. Both of these are ways to determine the criteria for success.
d. Neither of these are appropriate ways to determine criteria for success.
 Answer Key
1. D. All of these
2. C. Provide positive reinforcement for any swing that resembles a golf swing. Then,
provide reinforcement for closer and closer approximations of a correct golf swing and
withhold reinforcement for poorer approximations of a correct golf swing.
3. A. Differential reinforcement and changing the criterion for reinforcement.
4. B. Frequency
5. D. All of these are examples of shaping within a response topography
6. B. Shaping across different response topographies
7. C. Model the desired response for the individual.
8. C. when the individual’s repertoire is weak and the likelihood of making a successive
approximation is low.
9. E. All of these.
10. Both of these are ways to determine the criteria for success.
 Chapter 20

1. Each of the following is an example of a behavior except:

a. Mowing the lawn
b. Brushing your teeth
c. Blinking your eye
d. Writing your name

2. A behavior chain with a limited hold means:

a. The number of steps in the chain is limited.
b. The learner must "hold" his/her responses for a specified period of time.
c. The entire chain or steps within the chain must be completed in a given period of
time.
d. Accuracy of the performance of steps is not important.

3. Behavior chains and chaining procedures are important because:

a. There are many behaviors that are considered behavior chains, and these
behaviors lead to more independence in life.
b. Chaining can be combined with many other teaching procedures so that behaviors
can be taught in a variety of contexts.
c. Chaining is an efficient training procedure-it can be used to combine already
existing repertoires of behavior into new behaviors.
d. All of these

4. How are forward and backward chaining different?

a. Forward chaining means the learner learns the steps to the skill in the correct
order and backward chaining means the learner learns the steps in the reverse
order.
b. Forward chaining means the learner learns the first step first in the sequence and
backward chaining means the learner learns the last behavior in the sequence first
(but the steps are still learned in the correct sequence).
c. Forward chaining is a much quicker way to learn a task than backward chaining.
d. None of these answer choices accurately differentiates between forward and
backward chaining.

5. If you want to create a task analysis for a behavior you have no idea how to do
yourself, how could you construct it?
a. You could find people who are good at the behavior and ask them how to do it.
b. You could watch people who know how to do the task and observe what they do.
c. You could go to the literature to see if there are any published task analyses of the
behavior.
d. All of these.
6. What is a risk of choosing the single-opportunity method of assessment for assessing
mastery of a task analysis?
a. You may underestimate the learner's abilities.
b. You may inadvertently be teaching the individual the behavior during assessment.
c. You may frustrate the learner because of the time consuming nature of this form
of assessment.
d. All of these.
7. Breaking down longer chains into smaller chains and/or skill clusters, teaching each
skill cluster, and then chaining each skill cluster is a variation of which form of
behavior chaining?
a. Forward chaining
b. Backward chaining
c. Total task chaining
d. Backward chaining with leap aheads

8. Peer models have been used to teach children with disabilities to perform complex
tasks using which form of chaining?
a. Forward chaining
b. Backward chaining
c. Total task chaining
d. Backward chaining with leap aheads

9. The behavior chain interruption strategy (BCIS) can be used to:

a. Teach a complex new behavior chain.
b. Increase speech, picture communication, and microswitch activation.
c. Replace the initial SDs in a chain.
d. All of these.
10. Kara has been learning to board a public bus, put money in the slot, and sit in her
seat, waiting for her stop. Then, she pushes the button to indicate when she wants to
get off. She has practiced this skill in her small hometown, where there are rarely
more than 5 people on the bus. She traveled to Chicago with her parents to visit her
aunt. She rode the bus with her parents in Chicago and was unable to do many steps
in the chain. For example, she wasn't able to put her money in the slot, and she had
difficulty choosing a seat. Her parents noticed that she was very distracted by all the
people on the bus, as compared to the few people who are on the bus at home.
Which of the following is the most likely reason that Kara wasn't able to perform
steps in the chain she had learned so well at home?
a. The SDs on the bus were too similar to SDs on the bus at home, and so they
triggered different responses.
b. The steps of the task were different on this bus than on the one at home.
c. There were novel stimuli present in Chicago that weren't present at home and that
interfered with Kara's chain.
d. All of these are reasonable explanations for Kara's trouble.
 Chapter 20
1. A. Blinking your eye
2. C. The entire chain or steps within the chain must be completed in a given period of
time.
3. D. All of the Above
4. B. Forward chaining means the learner learns the first step first in the sequence and
backward chaining means the learner learns the last behavior in the sequence first (but the
steps are still learned in the correct sequence).
5. D. All of these
6. A. You may underestimate the learner’s abilities.
7. A. Forward Chaining
8. C. Total Task Chaining
9. B. Increase speech, picture communication, and microswitch activation
10. C. There were novel stimuli present in Chicago that weren't present at home and that
interfered with Kara's chain.
 Chapter 21
1. A procedure in which reinforcement of a previously reinforced behavior is discontinued
and as a result, occurrences of that behavior decrease in the future is:
a. Punishment
b. Extinction
c. Reinforcement
d. Establishing Operation

2. What is the probability of reinforcement when utilizing an extinction procedure?

a. 0%
b. 15%
c. 50%
d. Variable

3. What form of extinction is used when the reinforcer (or reinforcers) maintaining a
behavior is withheld?
a. Procedural
b. Functional
c. Standard
d. Respondent

4. What are the common misuses of the term extinction?

a. Confusing forgetting and extinction
b. Confusing response blocking and sensory extinction
c. Confusing noncontingent reinforcement and extinction
d. All of these

5. Delivering a stimulus with known reinforcing properties to an individual on a fixed time

or variable time schedule independently of responding is known as which procedure?
a. Extinction
b. Noncontingent reinforcement (NCR)
c. Differential reinforcement
d. Punishment

6. What is the main effect of an extinction procedure?

a. Increase in behavior
b. No change in behavior
c. Behavior decreases and/or stops entirely
d. The effects are unknown
7. An immediate increase in frequency and/or amplitude of the response after the removal
of the maintaining reinforcer is called
a. Extinction burst
b. Reinforcement
c. Noncontingent reinforcement
d. Punishment

8. The reappearance of a behavior after it has diminished to its pre-reinforced level and/or
stopped entirely is called:
a. Extinction burst
b. Spontaneous recovery
c. Differential reinforcement
d. Procedural extinction

9. Continued responding during the extinction process is known as:

a. Resistance to extinction
b. Extinction burst
c. Reinforcement
d. Spontaneous recovery

10. Resistance to extinction is greater when carried out under:

a. Low motivation
b. High motivation
c. No motivation
d. None of these

11. What suggestions did the authors give for assuring the effectiveness of extinction?
a. Increasing the number of extinction trials
b. Withholding all reinforcers maintaining the problem behavior
c. Withholding reinforcement consistently
d. Using instruction
e. All of these

12. When is it not appropriate to utilize an extinction procedure?

a. When inappropriate behaviors are likely to be imitated by others
b. When behaviors are harmful to self or others
c. Both of these
d. None of these
 Key
1. B. Extinction
2. A. 0%
3. C. Standard
4. D. All of these
5. B. Noncontingent reinforcement (NCR)
6. C. Behavior decreases and/or stop entirely.
7. A. Extinction burst.
8. B. Spontaneous Recovery
9. A. Resistance to extinction
10. B. High Motivation
11. E. All of these
12. C. Both of these.
 Chapter 22
1. Joni works in a group home with a group of men with
disabilities. She has a good relationship with each of the men,
but one of the residents continues to make sexually-
inappropriate comments to her. Joni typically replies, "Frank,
stop calling me that! You know I don't like it and it's not
appropriate," as she turns red in the face. An informal
functional behavior assessment indicates this behavior is
maintained by Joni's attention. The group home staff decides to
implement a DRA intervention. Which of the following would be
an appropriate example of DRA in this case?
a. Providing enthusiastic attention whenever Frank says anything
appropriate to Joni, while ignoring him if he makes inappropriate
remarks
b. Providing enthusiastic attention whenever Frank makes an
appropriate greeting to Joni (such as "You look nice today,
Joni."), while ignoring Frank if he uses inappropriate greetings
c. Providing increased enthusiastic attention to Frank throughout
the day.
d. Ignoring all of Frank's inappropriate verbalizations.

2. Differential reinforcement always includes what two principles

of behavior?
a. Reinforcement and punishment
b. Reinforcement and stimulus control
c. Reinforcement and extinction
d. Positive and negative reinforcement

3. In DRA, a practitioner:
a. Reinforces a desirable alternative to the problem behavior
b. Places the problem behavior on extinction
c. May choose to reinforce a behavior that is incompatible with the
problem behavior
d. All of these are correct

4. The behavior selected as an alternative behavior in a DRA:

a. Should already be in the learner's repertoire.
b. Should require more effort than the problem behavior.
c. Should be emitted at a very low rate prior to intervention.
 d. Should require extensive training for practitioners to learn how
to reinforce it.

5. DRO interventions:
a. Provide reinforcement for a specific alternative behavior.
b. Provide reinforcement for slowly increasing occurrences of a
behavior.
c. Provide reinforcement for incompatible behaviors.
d. Provide reinforcement for not responding.

6. A limitation of DRO is:

a. Other inappropriate behaviors may be reinforced accidentally.
b. One may accidentally punish all responding in the individual.
c. It often produces an extinction burst effect.
d. The effects have been shown to be slow and gradual.

7. A DRL intervention is useful when the practitioner wants to:

a. Get rid of a target behavior all together
b. Teach a new response to replace the problem behavior
c. Decrease the overall rate of a problem behavior, but not get rid
of it all together
d. Increase the overall rate of a target behavior

8. If the mean interresponse time (IRT) of a target problem

behavior is 12 responses per hour, and you are implementing a
DRL procedure, what should the initial DRL criterion be?
a. More than 12 responses per hour
b. No more than 11 responses per hour
c. No more than 1 response per hour
d. No more than 4 responses per hour
 Answer Key
1. B. Providing enthusiastic attention whenever Frank makes an appropriate greeting to Joni
(such as "You look nice today, Joni."), while ignoring Frank if he uses inappropriate
greetings.
2. C. Reinforcement and extinction
3. D. All of these are correct
4. A. Should already be in the learner’s repertoire.
5. D. Provide reinforcement for not responding.
6. A. Other inappropriate behaviors may be reinforced accidently.
7. C. Decrease the overall rate of a problem behavior, but not get rid of it all together.
8. B. No more than 11 responses per hour.
 Chapter 23

1. Functional communication training is considered to be:

a. Consequent intervention
b. Punishment strategy
c. Antecedent intervention
d. Behavioral momentum technique

2. Behaviors selected for a high-p request sequence should:

a. Be a part of the learner's current repertoire
b. Be new behavior(s) the learner has to acquire
c. Have a very long duration of occurrence
d. Be those behaviors with which the learner is not compliant

3. To effectively implement a high-p request sequence, it is important to:

a. Select behaviors not in the learner's current behavior repertoire
b. Not acknowledge compliance
c. Use reinforcers with limited reinforcing value
d. Present requests in a rapid sequence

4. Noncontingent reinforcement involves the presentation of:

a. Stimuli with unknown reinforcing properties that are delivered on a fixed-time or
variable time schedule independent of the learner's behavior
b. Stimuli with known reinforcing properties that are delivered on a fixed-time or
variable-time schedule independent of the learner's behavior
c. Stimuli with known reinforcing properties that are delivered on a fixed-ratio or
variable-ratio schedule independent of the learner's behavior
d. Stimuli with known reinforcing properties that are delivered on a fixed-time or
variable-time schedule dependent on the learner's behavior

5. Noncontingent reinforcement may effectively decrease problem behavior

because:
a. Reinforcers that maintain the problem behavior are available freely and frequently.
b. Reinforcers that maintain the problem behavior are withheld and made contingent
upon the occurrence of alternative behaviors.
c. Reinforcers that maintain the problem behavior are presented only when the problem
behavior occurs.
d. Reinforcers do not maintain the problem behavior presented regardless of the
behaviors.

6. Functional communication training:

a. Develops alternative behaviors that are sensitive to abolishing operations
b. Develops alternative behaviors that create changes in motivating operations
c. Develops alternative behaviors that are sensitive to establishing operations
d. Develops alternative behaviors that produce punishing effects
7. Antecedent interventions are also known as:
a. Antecedent procedures
b. Antecedent control
c. Antecedent manipulations
d. All of these
 Answer Key

1. C. Antecedent Intervention
2. A. Be a part of the learner’s current repertoire
3. D. Present request in a rapid sequence
4. B. Stimuli with known reinforcing properties that are delivered on a fixed-time or variable-time
schedule independent of the learner's behavior
5. A. Reinforcers that maintain the problem behavior are available freely and frequently.
6. C. Develops alternative behaviors that are sensitive to establishing operations.
7. D. All of these.
 Chapter 24 Quiz
1. Devonia hits her head with a closed fist when her one-on-one teaching assistant leaves her
side to interact with another student. Usually, when Devonia does this, her teaching assistant
returns to her side, asks her to stop hitting herself, and soothes her. She rarely engages in
head hitting when her assistant works directly with her. What is the most likely function of
Devonia's problem behavior?
a. Escape
b. Attention
c. Automatic reinforcement
d. Tangible
e. Escape and/or tangible

2. Charles spits on his teacher when he prompts him to complete a toothbrushing task. For
obvious reasons, this behavior really grosses out the teacher, who refuses to work with him
when he behaves like this. When Charles spits on him, the teacher walks away and allows
Charles to leave the toothbrushing task and go to the computer to calm down. As long as he is
playing on the computer, he rarely spits on his teacher. What is the most likely function of
Charles' behavior?
a. Escape
b. Automatic reinforcement
c. Tangible
d. Escape and/or tangible
e. Escape and or attention

3. On a practical level, FBA is important for prevention of and intervention for problem behavior
because:
a. When the cause-and-effect relation between environmental effects and behavior can
be determined, that relation can be altered to improve behavior.
b. It meets the federal guidelines for best practices in treating problem behavior.
c. It will tell a teacher exactly what to do for intervention.
d. None of these

4. Devonia's one-on-one assistant (see Question 1) decides that he will no longer leave Devonia's
side to interact with other children as an intervention for her problem behavior. This is an
example of what form of intervention?
a. Altering antecedent variables
b. Altering consequent variables
c. Teaching alternative behaviors
d. All of these

5. There are at least three forms of FBA. They are:

a. Functional analysis, standardized assessment, and descriptive assessment
b. Indirect assessment, descriptive assessment, and behavioral observation
c. Functional analysis, descriptive assessment, and indirect assessment
d. Behavioral observation, standardized assessment, and curriculum-based assessment
6. Which methods of FBA allow you to confirm hypotheses regarding the function of problem
behavior?
a. Functional analysis
b. Descriptive assessment
c. Indirect assessment
d. All of these

7. Which of the following describes a descriptive functional behavior assessment?

a. An analog analysis in which consequences representing those in the natural routine
are systematically arranged.
b. Direct observation of behavior made under naturally occurring conditions
c. Structured checklists that caregivers fill out to identify events that correlate with
problem behavior
d. Behavior rating scales that caregivers fill out to identify events that correlate with
problem behavior

8. A limitation of descriptive assessment is:

a. It may be misleading in that it can identify environmental variables that occur in close
proximity to the problem behavior but that are not causally related to the problem
behavior.
b. It may not be a very reliable measure of problem behavior and environmental events.
c. It is extremely difficult and time-consuming to perform.
d. The first two answer choices are correct.

9. Ms. Frieder, who teaches fifth grade at Franklin Elementary School, decides to conduct a
descriptive FBA for Amelia. Amelia has been refusing to do her schoolwork lately and has
been ripping up her worksheets on a daily basis. Ms. Frieder creates a form on which she will
mark specific antecedents and consequences that precede and follow Amelia's work refusals.
For antecedents, she will mark one of the following: Math work given, reading work given,
spelling work given, error correction given, work that requires writing given. For
consequences, she will mark one of the following: verbal reprimand, another worksheet
(same worksheet) provided, another worksheet (different worksheet) provided, time out,
ignore. She will record these environmental events, whether or not a problem behavior
occurs. What kind of descriptive assessment is Ms. Frieder conducting?
a. Scatterplot recording
b. ABC continuous recording
c. ABC narrative recording
d. Conditional probability recording
10. Mr. Peterson has been struggling with Arnold, a boy with severe disabilities who hums and
rocks back and forth intermittently throughout the day. Mr. Peterson wants to see if these
behaviors are associated with any specific activities during the school day so that he can then
more closely analyze what occurs during those time periods. Which descriptive assessment
method would be the best choice for what he wants to accomplish?
a. Scatterplot recording
b. ABC continuous recording
c. ABC narrative recording
d. Functional analysis

11. Ms. Carmichael is conducting a FBA for Jamal, a boy in her class who runs away from
activities and teachers. Ms. Carmichael began by interviewing her teaching assistants and by
participating in the conversation with them to define the target behavior and to determine
what antecedents and consequences she would watch for during her ABC assessment. Ms.
Carmichael completes her ABC assessment and finds that running away from tasks and
materials occurs most frequently when difficult tasks are presented and that the most
common consequence for this behavior is a teacher chasing after him and returning him to
the classroom. Sometimes he is required to return to the task and sometimes he is allowed
to do a different activity when he comes back to the classroom. What can be concluded from
this descriptive assessment?
a. The problem behavior most likely occurs to get attention from teachers
b. The problem behavior most likely occurs to escape from nonpreferred tasks.
c. The problem behavior most likely occurs to get access to more preferred activities.
d. The function of the problem behavior remains unclear.

12. After you complete a descriptive assessment, you should write hypothesis statements that
reflect your interpretation of the data. Which of the following is a hypothesis statement that
contains all of the important elements?
a. Gain peer attention: When Valerie is playing alone on the playground, she bear hugs
her peers.
b. Gain peer attention: Valerie bear hugs her peers, which is followed by attention in the
form of teasing from her peers.
c. When Valerie is playing alone on the playground, she bear hugs her peers, which is
followed by attention in the form of teasing from her peers.
d. Gain peer attention: When Valerie is playing alone on the playground, she bear hugs
her peers, which is followed by attention in the form of teasing from her peers.

13. The primary reason for conducting a functional analysis is:

a. To test hypotheses generated via indirect and descriptive assessments.
b. To generate hypotheses that can be further evaluated via indirect and descriptive
assessments.
c. To observe problem behavior within the naturally occurring routine.
d. To identify any temporal patterns in problem behavior.
14. Characteristics of functional analysis include:
a. They are conducted within naturally occurring routines.
b. They are conducted within analog conditions that represent naturally occurring
routines.
c. They utilize interviews and rating scales rather than direct observation of problem
behavior.
d. They are conducted in clinical settings only.

15. In addition to a control condition, a functional analysis typically consists of what test
conditions?
a. Contingent attention
b. Contingent escape
c. Alone
d. All of these

16. Mr. Moon is conducting a functional analysis with Ira, who kicks his teachers frequently. Mr.
Moon is implementing a contingent escape condition. He prompts Ira to engage in a difficult
task. Ira kicks Mr. Moon in the shin. How should Mr. Moon respond if he is to implement the
contingent escape condition correctly?
a. He should continue prompting Ira to do the task, but he should provide a mild
reprimand, such as, "Ira, don't kick me. That hurts. Come on, it's time to work."
b. He should remove the task materials and turn away from Ira for a short period of
time.
c. He should ignore Ira's kicking and continue with the task.
d. He should provide Ira with a more preferred activity for a short period of time.
17. Look at the following graph from a functional analysis of Elsa's tantrums. What would you
conclude is the function of Elsa's tantrums?

a. Escape
b. Attention
c. Both escape and attention
d. The pattern of behavior is undifferentiated; therefore the analysis is inconclusive.
18. Look at the following graph from a functional analysis of Walter's skin picking. What would you
conclude is the function of Walter's skin picking?

a. Escape
b. Attention
c. automatic
d. The pattern of behavior is undifferentiated; therefore the analysis is inconclusive.
 Answer Key
1. B. Attention
2. D. Escape / Tangible
3. A. When the cause-and-effect relation between environmental effects and behavior can be
determined, that relation can be altered to improve behavior.
4. A. Altering antecedent variables
5. C. Functional analysis, descriptive assessment, and indirect assessment
6. D. All of these
7. B. Direct observation of behavior made under naturally occurring conditions
8. D. The First two answer choices are correct.
9. B. ABC Continuous Recording
10. A. Scatterplot recording
11. D. The function of the problem remains unclear
12. D. Gain peer attention: When Valerie is playing alone on the playground, she bear hugs her
peers, which is followed by attention in the form of teasing from her peers.
13. A. To test hypotheses generated via indirect and descriptive assessments.
14. B. They are conducted within analog conditions that represent naturally occurring routines.
15. D. All of these
16. B. He should remove the task materials and turn away from Ira for a short period of time.
17. C. Both escape and attention
18. D. The pattern of behavior is undifferentiated; therefore, the analysis is inconclusive.
Chapter 25

1. The formal properties of language involve the:

a. Cause of the verbal response
b. Topography of the verbal response
c. Unseen forces of verbal language
d. Language properties are not formal

2. The functional properties of language involve:

a. Causes of the verbal response
b. Topography of the verbal response
c. Language properties do not have functional components.
d. Unobservable psychic antecedents.

3. Which statement is not a reason for the slow appreciation of Skinner's

work Verbal Behavior?
a. It was met with immediate challenges from the field of linguistics and psycholinguistics
b. Skinner not responding to Noam Chomsky's negative review
c. Lack of research and data supporting his theory
d. Disinterest and negative reactions from the field of behavior analysis
e. All of these were reasons for the slow appreciation of Verbal Analysis

4. A mand is a type of verbal operant in which a speaker:

a. Differentially responds to the verbal behavior of others
b. Asks for (or states, demands, implies, etc.) what he or she needs or wants
c. Repeats the verbal behavior of another speaker
d. Names things and actions that the speaker has direct contact with through any of the
sense modes

5. An intraverbal response is a type of verbal operant in which a speaker:

a. Differentially responds to the verbal behavior of others
b. Asks for (or states, demands, implies, etc.) what he needs or wants
c. Repeats the verbal behavior of another speaker
d. Names things and actions that the speaker has direct contact with through any of the
sense modes

6. A tact is a type of verbal operant in which a speaker:

a. Differentially responds to the verbal behavior of others
b. Asks for (or states, demands, implies, etc.) what he needs or wants
c. Repeats the verbal behavior of another speaker
d. Names things and actions that the speaker has direct contact with through any of the
sense modes

7. Public accompaniment occurs when:

 a. A stimulus property that is only indirectly related to the tact relation avoids
substandard verbal behavior
b. An observable stimulus accompanies a private stimulus
c. A stimulus that follows the behavior of interest decreases its rate of occurrence
d. Two people move together in sync

8. A textual operant has

a. Point-to-point correspondence but not formal similarity
b. Point-to-point correspondence and formal similarity
c. No point-to-point correspondence and no formal similarity
d. None of these

9. Transcription consists of
a. A discriminative stimulus evoked by a verbal response that does not have point-to-
point correspondence
b. Reading without any implications that the reader understands what is being read.
c. Writing and spelling words that are spoken
d. None of these
 Answer Key

1. B. Topography of the verbal response.

2. A. Causes of the verbal response.
3. E. All of those were reasons for the slow appreciation of verbal analysis.
4. B. Asks for (or states, demands, implies, etc.) what he or she needs or wants
5. A. Differentially responds to the verbal behavior of others.
6. D. Names things and actions that the speaker has direct contact with through any of
the sense modes.
7. B. An observable stimulus accompanies a private stimulus.
8. A. Point to point correspondence but not formal similarity.
9. C. Writing and Spelling words that are spoken.
Chapter 26

1. A description of the task should include which of the following when writing
a contingency contract?
a. A description of the reward
b. A description of when the reward will be delivered
c. A method of tracking progress
d. A description of when the task should be performed

2. A contingency contract:
a. Is a verbal agreement among two individuals
b. Specifies how two people will behave toward each other
c. Often causes scapegoating among learners and peers
d. Depends largely on the use of punishment for its effectiveness

3. Reinforcers in a token economy might include:

a. Naturally occurring activities such as classroom jobs, games, etc.
b. Privileges
c. Tangible items, such as candy, pencils, etc.
d. All of these

4. The primary reason one might consider using a level system with a token
system is that:
a. Doing so can foster self-management
b. Doing so makes it easier to withdraw the token economy
c. Level systems are more preferred for all learners
d. Level systems are easier to manage

5. Token economies often need to be:

a. Complex
b. Individualized
c. Maintained forever
d. All of these

6. When selecting backup reinforcers:

a. Consider ethical and legal issues
b. It is a good idea to use basic need items (e.g., lunch) as a reinforcer
c. Keep the pool of backup reinforcers small
d. Never use edibles

7. A teacher says to his class: "Melissa is working on remembering to follow

instructions when I give them. Melissa is going to keep track of whether or
not she follows my instructions. If she follows 90% of my instructions today
(or better), our whole class will watch a movie at the end of the day." What
type of group contingency is this?
 a. Independent
b. Dependent
c. Interdependent
d. None of these

8. Group contingencies can:

a. Lighten the workload for the practitioner
b. Save time
c. Create problems with learners
d. All of these

9. How could a learner sabotage a group contingency?

a. By purposefully not meeting the performance criterion so that no one gets the
reinforcer
b. By not showing up for school on a given day
c. By urging peers to participate in the program
d. By congratulating peers who are meeting the criterion

10. An interdependent group contingency is most useful if:

a. One wants to change the behavior of one person or a small group of individuals
b. One wants to differentially reinforce individuals for appropriate behavior
c. One wants to change everyone's performance
d. All of these
 Answer Key

1. D. A description of when the task should be preformed

2. B. Specifies how two people will behave toward each other
3. D. All of these
4. A. Doing so can foster self-management
5. B. Individualized
6. A. Consider ethical and legal issues
7. B. Dependent
8. D. All of these
9. A. By purposefully not meeting the performance criterion so that no one gets the reinforcer
10. C. One wants to change everyone’s performance
Chapter 27

1. The personal application of behavior change tactics that produces a desired change
in behavior is:
a. Self-management
b. Managing behaviors
c. Behavior management
d. Behavior modification

2. Self-management can help individuals to:

a. Break bad habits and replace with good ones
b. Accomplish difficult tasks
c. Achieve personal goals
d. All of these

3. Limiting an undesired behavior to restructure stimulus conditions is

a. A consequent self-management tactic
b. An antecedent-based self-management tactic
c. Always used when possible to produce an effective self-management program
d. None of these

4. Self-monitoring is best defined as:

a. A procedure whereby persons observe their own behavior and record only the
occurrence of the target behavior
b. A procedure whereby persons observe the behavior of someone else and
systematically record the occurrence or nonoccurrence of the target behavior
c. A procedure whereby persons observe their behavior systematically and record the
occurrence or nonoccurrence of the target behavior
d. A procedure whereby persons observe their behavior and someone else systematically
records the occurrence or nonoccurrence of the target behavior.

5. Suggested guidelines for effective and efficient self-monitoring include:

a. Make materials cumbersome and sophisticated
b. Never provide supplementary cues or prompts; this will make the individual become
dependent on the prompts or cues rather than the target behavior
c. self-monitor the most important dimension of the target behavior
d. Do not reinforce accurate self-monitoring

6. Self-administered consequences that increase desired behavior include:

a. Self-management analogs of positive reinforcement
b. Self-management analogs of positive punishment
c. Self-management analogs of negative punishment
d. None of these

7. If you wanted to decrease a desired behavior, what type of self-

administered consequence would be most useful?
 a. Self-management analogs of positive reinforcement
b. Self-management analogs of negative reinforcement
c. Self-management analogs of positive punishment
d. None of these

8. A type of self-management tactic that typically involves the use of self-

awareness training, competing response training, and motivation
techniques is:
a. Self-Instruction
b. Habit Reversal
c. Massed Practice
d. None of these

9. This type of self-management tactic involves self-generated verbal

responses, covert or overt, that function as response prompts for a desired
behavior.
a. Self-instruction
b. Self-directed systematic desensitization
c. Habit reversal
d. None of these

10. The first step in conducting an effective self-management program is:

a. Begin self-monitoring the behavior
b. Contrive contingencies that will compete with natural contingencies
c. Continually evaluate your self-management program and redesign it as necessary
d. Specify a goal and define the behavior to be changed
 Answer Key

1. A. Self-management
2. D. All of the above
3. B. An antecedent based self-management tactic
4. C. A procedure whereby persons observe their behavior systematically and record the
occurrence or nonoccurrence of the target behavior
5. C. Self monitor the most important dimension of the target behavior
6. A. Self management analogs of positive reinforcement
7. C. Self management analogs of positive punishment
8. B. Habit Reversal
9. Self-Instruction
10. D. Specify a goal and define the behavior to be changed.
 Chapter 28
1. This is the extent to which a learner emits the target behavior in a setting or
stimulus situation that is different from the instructional setting.
a. Setting/situation maintenance
b. Response generalization
c. Setting/situation generalization
d. Response maintenance

2. This is the extent to which a learner emits untrained responses that are functionally
equivalent to the trained target behavior
a. Setting/situation maintenance
b. Response generalization
c. Setting/situation generalization
d. Response maintenance

3. A learner's untrained but functionally equivalent responses result in poor

performance. This would be an example of:
a. Overgeneralization
b. Faulty stimulus control
c. Undesirable outcome of setting/situation generalization
d. Undesirable outcome of response generalization

4. When a target behavior comes under the restricted control of an irrelevant

antecedent stimulus, it is an example of:
a. Overgeneralization
b. Faulty stimulus control
c. Undesirable outcome of response maintenance
d. Undesirable outcome of response generalization

5. A contingency that operates without social mediation is referred to as:

a. Natural contingency
b. Contrived contingency
c. Unplanned contingency
d. Generalized contingency

6. Choosing only those behaviors to change that will produce reinforcers in the post-
intervention environment is referred to as:
a. Teaching loosely
b. Contrived contingency planning
c. Programming common stimuli
d. Relevance-of-behavior rule

7. The actual amount of examples needed to be taught when teaching sufficient

stimulus examples to a learner will depend on:
a. The learner's opportunities to emit the target behavior under various conditions
b. Naturally existing contingencies of reinforcement
c. The learner's history of reinforcement for generalized responding
d. All of these
8. When using multiple exemplar training,
a. Only stimulus variations should be used
b. Only response variations should be used
c. Both stimulus and response variations should be used
d. Neither stimulus nor response variations should be used

9. Including typical features of the generalization setting into the instructional setting
is referred to as:
a. Teaching loosely
b. Teaching negative examples
c. General case analysis
d. Programming common stimuli

10. Shifting from intervention to post-intervention conditions can be accomplished by

modifying:
a. Antecedents, prompts, or cue-related stimuli
b. Task requirements and criteria
c. Consequences or reinforcement variables
d. All of these

11. A guiding principle for promoting generalized behavior change includes:

a. Involving significant others whenever possible
b. Promoting generalization with the least intrusive, least costly tactics possible
c. Contriving intervention tactics as needed to achieve important generalized outcomes
d. All of these
 Answer Key
1. C. Setting / situation generalization
2. B. Response Generalization
3. D. Undesirable outcome of response generalization
4. B. Faulty Stimulus control
5. A. Natural Contingency
6. D. Relevance-of-behavior rule
7. D. All of these
8. C. Both stimulus and response variations should be used.
9. D. Programming common stimuli
10. D. All of these
11. D. All of these
 Chapter 29
1. When trying to determine the right thing to do in a given situation, which factors
should you consider?
a. Your own personal history in similar circumstances
b. Your professional training and experience
c. The rules of the local setting
d. Ethical guidelines published by your professional organization
e. All of these

2. “Ethics” encompasses:
a. The primary goal is of furthering the welfare of the client
b. Behaviors and decisions that revolve around the "right thing to do"
c. Following the rules of professional codes and standards
d. What is morally right
e. All of these

3. Which of the following organizations does not have ethical guidelines, standards, or
position statements that behavior analysts should follow, according to your text?
a. American Psychological Association
b. Association for Behavior Analysis
c. Association for Direct Instruction
d. Behavior Analyst Certification Board

4. Which of the following is not a right to effective education, as delineated by the

Association for Behavior Analysis in 1990?
a. social and physical school environments that encourage and maintain academic
achievement and progress
b. Curriculum and objectives based on empirically validated hierarchies or sequences of
instructional objectives
c. Financial consequences for the school and its performance are based on subjective
measures by the school board
d. Specific mastery criteria that include both the accuracy and speed dimensions of fluent
performance

5. Which of these does not help individuals gain professional competence in their field?
a. Formal coursework
b. Supervised practica
c. Mentored professional experience
d. Attending nonaccredited workshops and training
e. Successfully completing accredited university training programs

6. What should you do if you are in a situation where the demands of the situation
exceed your training?
a. Reassure the clients that you are a qualified behavior analyst and continue with the
intervention you have in place
b. Tell the clients that you are not qualified to provide treatment and walk away
c. Seek additional training in the area of competence so as to improve your skills
d. Make a referral to another behavior analyst or consultant.
e. The third and fourth answer choices are correct.
7. Joan is a behavior analyst providing services to a child with autism. She has been
having a difficult time with the child's family. She is out for coffee one day, when her
cell phone rings. It is her mother, who asks how things are going. She tells her
mother about her woes with this family, explaining that the intervention she has
implemented doesn't seem to be working and that she is having trouble with the
parents, who seem to be questioning her skills. Her mother, who is a retired teacher
(not a behavior analyst), asks, "Is this the same family that you had trouble with
last year?" Joan replies, "No, this is a different family. This is the Jacksons. They are
very wealthy and live on the upper side of town. You remember them. You met them
at a school board meeting once." Consider Joan's behavior relative to issues of
confidentiality. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Joan committed a breach of confidentiality unintentionally, so this breech of
confidentiality is not of concern.
b. Joan committed a breach of confidentiality intentionally, and this is of great concern.
c. Joan committed a breach of confidentiality intentionally, but it is not of great concern
because her goal was to serve the greater good and avoid future problems for this
child.
d. No breach of confidentiality occurred because Joan did not give out any personally
identifiable information.

8. Michael is a behavior analyst working at an adult day treatment program, where the
staff always involves their clients in planning their day programs. Today, Michael is
holding a meeting with one of his clients, Dan, who has moderate mental disabilities
and has been having trouble with his behavior during work periods. Dan has been
getting up partway through the day and running out of the room, screaming. While
he is out of the room, he often tears papers off the wall and destroys the agency's
property. The team is meeting with Dan today to determine how his intervention will
be revised. Michael is proposing that a response cost intervention be imposed,
where Dan will lose some of the money he has earned for every minute he is out of
the room. Dan is opposed to this intervention because he doesn't want to be fined.
Michael and the team say to Dan, "But this intervention is trying to help you. I guess
if you don't want to do this, we will have to revise your intervention so that you
don't earn as much money. We need to pay for all the damage you have caused."
After discussing some other options that the team didn't feel would be as effective,
Dan says he'd like to think about it, but his bus just pulled up and he needs to leave
for the day. The team tells him this needs to be decided today, or he cannot return to
the facility tomorrow. What ethical issue has the team violated?
a. They have implemented intervention and assessment without Dan's consent.
b. They are attempting to coerce Dan into the intervention, interfering with his right to
voluntarily participate in the intervention.
c. They have breeched confidentiality by sharing this information with Dan and staff.
d. Michael has not shared all of the relevant treatment information with Dan so that he
can make an informed decision.

9. Which of these are important considerations in deciding whether or not an

intervention is likely to be successful?
a. Is the client willing to participate?
b. Has the behavior been successfully treated in the research literature?
c. Is public support likely?
d. Will those involved in the treatment have control over the critical contingencies?
e. All of these
10. What is a conflict of interest?
a. When a behavior analyst, either alone or in tandem with a client, family, friends or
associates of the client has a vested interest in the outcome of the interaction.
b. When all members of a team have a similar treatment goal for an individual.
c. When one member of a team has a negative history with the behavior analyst and the
two do not get along well.
d. When parents hire a behavior analyst to consult with their child and to provide
recommendations to a local school.

Chapter 29
1. When trying to determine the right thing to do in a given situation, which factors
should you consider?
a. Your own personal history in similar circumstances
b. Your professional training and experience
c. The rules of the local setting
d. Ethical guidelines published by your professional organization
e. All of these

2. “Ethics” encompasses:
a. The primary goal is of furthering the welfare of the client
b. Behaviors and decisions that revolve around the "right thing to do"
c. Following the rules of professional codes and standards
d. What is morally right
e. All of these

3. Which of the following organizations does not have ethical guidelines, standards, or
position statements that behavior analysts should follow, according to your text?
a. American Psychological Association
b. Association for Behavior Analysis
c. Association for Direct Instruction
d. Behavior Analyst Certification Board

4. Which of the following is not a right to effective education, as delineated by the

Association for Behavior Analysis in 1990?
a. social and physical school environments that encourage and maintain academic
achievement and progress
b. Curriculum and objectives based on empirically validated hierarchies or sequences of
instructional objectives
c. Financial consequences for the school and its performance are based on subjective
measures by the school board
d. Specific mastery criteria that include both the accuracy and speed dimensions of fluent
performance

5. Which of these does not help individuals gain professional competence in their field?
a. Formal coursework
b. Supervised practica
c. Mentored professional experience
d. Attending nonaccredited workshops and training
e. Successfully completing accredited university training programs
6. What should you do if you are in a situation where the demands of the situation
exceed your training?
a. Reassure the clients that you are a qualified behavior analyst and continue with the
intervention you have in place
b. Tell the clients that you are not qualified to provide treatment and walk away
c. Seek additional training in the area of competence so as to improve your skills
d. Make a referral to another behavior analyst or consultant.
e. The third and fourth answer choices are correct.
7. Joan is a behavior analyst providing services to a child with autism. She has been
having a difficult time with the child's family. She is out for coffee one day, when her
cell phone rings. It is her mother, who asks how things are going. She tells her
mother about her woes with this family, explaining that the intervention she has
implemented doesn't seem to be working and that she is having trouble with the
parents, who seem to be questioning her skills. Her mother, who is a retired teacher
(not a behavior analyst), asks, "Is this the same family that you had trouble with
last year?" Joan replies, "No, this is a different family. This is the Jacksons. They are
very wealthy and live on the upper side of town. You remember them. You met them
at a school board meeting once." Consider Joan's behavior relative to issues of
confidentiality. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Joan committed a breach of confidentiality unintentionally, so this breech of
confidentiality is not of concern.
b. Joan committed a breach of confidentiality intentionally, and this is of great concern.
c. Joan committed a breach of confidentiality intentionally, but it is not of great concern
because her goal was to serve the greater good and avoid future problems for this
child.
d. No breach of confidentiality occurred because Joan did not give out any personally
identifiable information.

8. Michael is a behavior analyst working at an adult day treatment program, where the
staff always involves their clients in planning their day programs. Today, Michael is
holding a meeting with one of his clients, Dan, who has moderate mental disabilities
and has been having trouble with his behavior during work periods. Dan has been
getting up partway through the day and running out of the room, screaming. While
he is out of the room, he often tears papers off the wall and destroys the agency's
property. The team is meeting with Dan today to determine how his intervention will
be revised. Michael is proposing that a response cost intervention be imposed,
where Dan will lose some of the money he has earned for every minute he is out of
the room. Dan is opposed to this intervention because he doesn't want to be fined.
Michael and the team say to Dan, "But this intervention is trying to help you. I guess
if you don't want to do this, we will have to revise your intervention so that you
don't earn as much money. We need to pay for all the damage you have caused."
After discussing some other options that the team didn't feel would be as effective,
Dan says he'd like to think about it, but his bus just pulled up and he needs to leave
for the day. The team tells him this needs to be decided today, or he cannot return to
the facility tomorrow. What ethical issue has the team violated?
a. They have implemented intervention and assessment without Dan's consent.
b. They are attempting to coerce Dan into the intervention, interfering with his right to
voluntarily participate in the intervention.
c. They have breeched confidentiality by sharing this information with Dan and staff.
d. Michael has not shared all of the relevant treatment information with Dan so that he
can make an informed decision.

9. Which of these are important considerations in deciding whether or not an

intervention is likely to be successful?
a. Is the client willing to participate?
b. Has the behavior been successfully treated in the research literature?
c. Is public support likely?
d. Will those involved in the treatment have control over the critical contingencies?
e. All of these
10. What is a conflict of interest?
a. When a behavior analyst, either alone or in tandem with a client, family, friends or
associates of the client has a vested interest in the outcome of the interaction.
b. When all members of a team have a similar treatment goal for an individual.
c. When one member of a team has a negative history with the behavior analyst and the
two do not get along well.
d. When parents hire a behavior analyst to consult with their child and to provide
recommendations to a local school.

Chapter 29
11. When trying to determine the right thing to do in a given situation, which factors
should you consider?
a. Your own personal history in similar circumstances
b. Your professional training and experience
c. The rules of the local setting
d. Ethical guidelines published by your professional organization
e. All of these

12. “Ethics” encompasses:

a. The primary goal is of furthering the welfare of the client
b. Behaviors and decisions that revolve around the "right thing to do"
c. Following the rules of professional codes and standards
d. What is morally right
e. All of these

13. Which of the following organizations does not have ethical guidelines, standards, or
position statements that behavior analysts should follow, according to your text?
a. American Psychological Association
b. Association for Behavior Analysis
c. Association for Direct Instruction
d. Behavior Analyst Certification Board

14. Which of the following is not a right to effective education, as delineated by the
Association for Behavior Analysis in 1990?
a. social and physical school environments that encourage and maintain academic
achievement and progress
b. Curriculum and objectives based on empirically validated hierarchies or sequences of
instructional objectives
c. Financial consequences for the school and its performance are based on subjective
measures by the school board
d. Specific mastery criteria that include both the accuracy and speed dimensions of fluent
performance

15. Which of these does not help individuals gain professional competence in their field?
a. Formal coursework
b. Supervised practica
c. Mentored professional experience
d. Attending nonaccredited workshops and training
e. Successfully completing accredited university training programs
16. What should you do if you are in a situation where the demands of the situation
exceed your training?
a. Reassure the clients that you are a qualified behavior analyst and continue with the
intervention you have in place
b. Tell the clients that you are not qualified to provide treatment and walk away
c. Seek additional training in the area of competence so as to improve your skills
d. Make a referral to another behavior analyst or consultant.
e. The third and fourth answer choices are correct.
17. Joan is a behavior analyst providing services to a child with autism. She has been
having a difficult time with the child's family. She is out for coffee one day, when her
cell phone rings. It is her mother, who asks how things are going. She tells her
mother about her woes with this family, explaining that the intervention she has
implemented doesn't seem to be working and that she is having trouble with the
parents, who seem to be questioning her skills. Her mother, who is a retired teacher
(not a behavior analyst), asks, "Is this the same family that you had trouble with
last year?" Joan replies, "No, this is a different family. This is the Jacksons. They are
very wealthy and live on the upper side of town. You remember them. You met them
at a school board meeting once." Consider Joan's behavior relative to issues of
confidentiality. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Joan committed a breach of confidentiality unintentionally, so this breech of
confidentiality is not of concern.
b. Joan committed a breach of confidentiality intentionally, and this is of great concern.
c. Joan committed a breach of confidentiality intentionally, but it is not of great concern
because her goal was to serve the greater good and avoid future problems for this
child.
d. No breach of confidentiality occurred because Joan did not give out any personally
identifiable information.

18. Michael is a behavior analyst working at an adult day treatment program, where the
staff always involves their clients in planning their day programs. Today, Michael is
holding a meeting with one of his clients, Dan, who has moderate mental disabilities
and has been having trouble with his behavior during work periods. Dan has been
getting up partway through the day and running out of the room, screaming. While
he is out of the room, he often tears papers off the wall and destroys the agency's
property. The team is meeting with Dan today to determine how his intervention will
be revised. Michael is proposing that a response cost intervention be imposed,
where Dan will lose some of the money he has earned for every minute he is out of
the room. Dan is opposed to this intervention because he doesn't want to be fined.
Michael and the team say to Dan, "But this intervention is trying to help you. I guess
if you don't want to do this, we will have to revise your intervention so that you
don't earn as much money. We need to pay for all the damage you have caused."
After discussing some other options that the team didn't feel would be as effective,
Dan says he'd like to think about it, but his bus just pulled up and he needs to leave
for the day. The team tells him this needs to be decided today, or he cannot return to
the facility tomorrow. What ethical issue has the team violated?
a. They have implemented intervention and assessment without Dan's consent.
b. They are attempting to coerce Dan into the intervention, interfering with his right to
voluntarily participate in the intervention.
c. They have breeched confidentiality by sharing this information with Dan and staff.
d. Michael has not shared all of the relevant treatment information with Dan so that he
can make an informed decision.

19. Which of these are important considerations in deciding whether or not an

intervention is likely to be successful?
a. Is the client willing to participate?
b. Has the behavior been successfully treated in the research literature?
c. Is public support likely?
d. Will those involved in the treatment have control over the critical contingencies?
e. All of these
20. What is a conflict of interest?
a. When a behavior analyst, either alone or in tandem with a client, family, friends or
associates of the client has a vested interest in the outcome of the interaction.
b. When all members of a team have a similar treatment goal for an individual.
c. When one member of a team has a negative history with the behavior analyst and the
two do not get along well.
d. When parents hire a behavior analyst to consult with their child and to provide
recommendations to a local school.
 Answer Key
1. E. All of these
2. E. All of these
3. C. Association for Direct Instruction
4. C. Financial consequences for the school and its performance are based on subjective
measures by the school board
5. D. Attending nonaccredited workshops and training
6. E The 3rd and 4th choices are correct
7. B. Joan committed a breach of confidentiality intentionally, and this is of great concern.
8. B. They are attempting to coerce Dan into the intervention, interfering with his right to
voluntarily participate in the intervention.
9. E. all of these
10. A. When a behavior analyst, either alone or in tandem with a client, family, friends or
associates of the client has a vested interest in the outcome of the interaction.