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MASSEY UNIVERSITY
MANAWATU CAMPUS

EXAMINATION FOR
158.337 DATABASE DEVELOPMENT

Semester One June - 2010

Time allowed: THREE (3) hours

There are 170 questions: ALL questions should be attempted

This examination contributes 40 % to the final marks

Questions are of equal value

YOU MAY NOT TAKE ANY BOOKS OR OTHER MATERIALS INTO THE
EXAM

Calculators, Dictionaries or any type of electronic assistants ARE NOT

ALLOWED.

INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES

Scantron Cards
Ensure that your name and identification number are entered on your Scantron card.
Record your answer on your Scantron card by putting a solid horizontal pencil line
through the character representing the ‘best’ answer to the question with a blunt 2B
or 3B pencil, please. The Scantron card will not read properly if you do not follow
these instructions. At the conclusion of the examination hand in the Scantron Card
separately.

NSB – No Script Book Required

A blue answer book is not required for this question paper.

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SECTION A (TOTAL MARKS = 125)
Attempt all the following questions. There is one (1) correct answer.
Record the answer that applies best on your Scantron card
The Scantron Card has five options. Ignore the fifth option (e)

1. A FOREIGN KEY constraint is added to which table in a one-to-many

relationship?
a. The table representing the one side.
b. The table representing the many side.
c. On both the tables representing the one and many sides.
d. All of the above are TRUE.
2. In the context of a database table, the statement “A __________ B” indicates
that if you know the value of attribute A, you can look up the value of attribute
B.
a. contains
b. is related to
c. owns
d. determines
3. What command should be issued to delete a table that is referenced by a foreign
key constraint in another table?
a. DROP TABLE table_name DISABLE CONSTRAINTS
b. DROP TABLE table_name CASCADE CONSTRAINTS
c. DROP TABLE table_name DROP CONSTRAINTS
d. DROP TABLE table_name BREAK CONSTRAINTS
4. The relational model provides a ________________ approach.
a. declarative
b. navigational
c. transitional
d. declarative, navigational and transitional
5. In a PL/SQL block, which is/are the mandatory section(s)?
a. DECLARE
b. BEGIN
c. EXCEPTION
d. DECLARE and BEGIN
6. Structural independence exists when ___________________________.
a. the database can support many users simultaneously
b. unstructured data is formatted for the access speed
c. data is extracted more efficiently in terms of the storage capacity
d. a change in the database schema does not affect the data access

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Questions 7 – 9 are based on the given four tables – CUSTOMER, RENTAL,
RENT_LINE and TAPE.

7. The __________ table is a weak entity.

a. CUSTOMER
b. RENTAL
c. RENT_LINE
d. TAPE
8. Which of the relationship(s) between the following tables are identifying?
a. CUSTOMER and RENTAL
b. RENTAL and RENT_LINE
c. RENT_LINE and TAPE
d. All of the above
9. The _________ table(s) are on the many side of relationships in the ERD.
a. RENTAL
b. RENT_LINE
c. RENTAL and RENT_LINE
d. TAPE, RENTAL and RENT_LINE
10. Codd’s rule of __________ states:
Application programs and ad hoc facilities are logically unaffected when
changes are made to the table structures that preserve the original table values
(e.g. changing the order of column or inserting columns).
a. Comprehensive Data Sublanguage
b. Integrity Independence
c. Logical Data Independence
d. Nonsubversion
11. The Oracle string concatenation function is ________.
a. ::
b. ||
c. ++
d. &&

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12. Consider a table called PRODUCT with following attributes:

Prod_Code Prod_Description Prod_Price

The SQL query - SELECT DISTINCT Prod_Price FROM Product - is an

example of ____________ operation(s).
a. Cartesian
b. Intersection
c. Projection
d. Cartesian, Intersection and Projection
13. When we say that the only allowed values for the Stud_Category attribute are
Domestic and International, then we are referring to the attribute's _________.
a. atomicity
b. cardinality
c. degree
d. domain
14. What will be the value of the variable first_variable after execution of the
following PL/SQL block?
DECLARE
first_variable NUMBER;
BEGIN
first_variable:= power(first_variable * 3);
END;

a. 1
b. 3
c. 9
d. NULL
15. Which of the following CANNOT be executed in a PL/SQL program block?
a. DDL
b. DML
c. SELECT
d. FUNCTION
16. Which of the following refers to a READ ONLY argument in a list of arguments
passed to a PL/SQL stored procedure?
a. IN
b. IN OUT
c. OUT
d. REF
17. In ANSI/SPARC model architecture which of these levels represents a view
used by the application program?
a. Conceptual
b. External
c. Internal
d. Physical

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18. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a. A weak entity produces a strong relationship.
b. A strong entity can have either identifying or non identifying
relationships.
c. A strong relationship between two entities implies that one entity must
have a composite primary key.
d. A weak relationship between two entities implies that both entities do
not contain any foreign key.
19. Consider the following three tables -ENROLL, STUDENT and COURSE.
Which table represents a bridge entity?

a. CLASS
b. ENROLL
c. STUDENT
d. None of the above.
20. Which of the following is NOT an example of denormalization?
a. Converting from 3NF to 2NF
b. Converting from 2NF to 1 NF
c. Converting from 3NF to 1NF
d. Converting from 3NF to BCNF
21. Which of the following is true?
Prod_Code Prod_Description Prod_Price Prod_Quantity
a. Prod_Code  Prod_Description
b. Prod_Description  Prod_Price
c. Prod_Price  Prod_Quantity
d. Prod_Quantity  Prod_Code
22. Which of the following syntax is used for queries within a PL/SQL block?
a. SELECT <column_list> FROM <table_name>
INTO <declared_variables> WHERE <condition>

b. SELECT <column_list> INTO <declared_variables>

FROM <table_name> WHERE <condition>

c. SELECT <column_list> FROM <table_name>

WHERE <condition> INTO <declared_variables>

d. SELECT <column_list> INTO <declared_variables>

FROM <table_name> WHERE_BY <condition>

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23. When we use a surrogate key as the primary key of an entity, we say that the
entity is _____________.
a. strong
b. weak
c. moderate
d. typed
24. Transitive dependency is a dependency of
a. one non prime attribute dependent on another prime attribute.
b. one non prime attribute dependent on another non prime attribute.
c. one prime attribute dependent on another prime attribute.
d. one prime attribute dependent on another non prime attribute.
25. You can use the _____________ clause to create a search condition in a query
that contains a grouping condition.
a. GROUP BY
b. IN
c. SEARCH BY
d. HAVING
26. An outer join retrieves all of the records in the ________ table, and only the
matching records in the ___________ table.
a. inner, outer
b. outer, inner
c. parent, child
d. child, parent
27. A query that uses the ___________ set operator suppresses the duplicate values.
a. CARTESIAN
b. INTERSECT
c. MINUS
d. UNION
28. A parameter with the ___________ mode is a write-only value that can appear
only on the left side of an assignment.
a. IN
b. OUT
c. IN OUT
d. WRITE
29. An atomic attribute______________.
a. cannot exist in a relational table
b. is always chosen to be a foreign key
c. cannot be subdivided
d. displays multiplicity

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30. The ___________ SQL command modifies an attribute’s values in one or more
rows in a table.
a. INSERT
b. UPDATE
c. COMMIT
d. SELECT
31. Which SQL statement will compile with no errors and display the correct result?
a. SELECT * FROM staff WHERE (st_position = 'Manager' OR
st_position = 'Supervisor') AND st_birthdate IS NULL
b. SELECT * FROM staff WHERE (st_position IS 'Manager' OR
st_position IS 'Supervisor') AND st_birthdate IS NULL
c. SELECT * FROM staff WHERE (st_position = 'Manager' OR
st_position = 'Supervisor') AND st_birthdate = NULL
d. SELECT * FROM staff WHERE (st_position = 'Manager' OR
st_position = 'Supervisor') AND st_birthdate = ‘’
32. A table is said to be in 1NF if __________________.
a. all attributes are dependent on the primary key
b. it has multiple candidate keys
c. there are repeating groups in the table
d. multi-valued attributes are listed in composite form
33. A table is said to be in 2NF if it is in INF and has no ______________
dependencies.
a. assignment
b. conversion
c. partial
d. transitive
34. A table is said to be in 3NF if it is in 2NF and has no ______________
dependencies.
a. assignment
b. conversion
c. partial
d. transitive
35. An explicit cursor is NOT required if a SELECT statement in a PL/SQL block
returns _________ in the resulting set.
a. less than 10% of the total records
b. a single row
c. an indexed column
d. a dynamic function value

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36. The following index was created:

CREATE INDEX crse_cost_i ON course (cost)
Determine which of the following queries takes advantage of the index.
a. SELECT cost
FROM course
WHERE cost >= 11.2304
b. SELECT cost, course_no
FROM cost
WHERE cost <> 1200
c. SELECT cost, course_no
FROM cost
WHERE NVL(cost, 0) = 1200
d. SELECT cost, course_no
FROM cost
WHERE cost IS NULL
37. A single user database system automatically ensures _____________ of the
database, because only one transaction is executed at a time.
a. atomicity and serializability
b. atomicity and isolation
c. serializability and durability
d. serializability and isolation
38. The transaction property of serializability means that
a. all parts of a transaction series must be completed or the transaction is
aborted.
b. the data required by an executing transaction cannot be accessed by
any other transaction until the first transaction finishes.
c. once a series of transactions are done, they cannot be undone.
d. series of concurrent transactions will yield the same result as if they
were executed one after another.
39. Two-phase locking schema for ensuring serializability of schedules involves the
_________ phase and the __________ phase.
a. growing, throwing
b. throwing, shrinking
c. growing shrinking
d. shrinking, throwing
40. ___________locks are currently the most frequently used of the multi-user
DBMS system such as Accounting Systems where data sharing is a crucial
component.
a. Table
b. Page
c. Row
d. Field

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41. ____________ is the highest level of transparency. The end user or programmer
does not need to know that a database is partitioned.
a. Performance
b. Local Mapping
c. Location
d. Fragmentation
42. The Crow’s foot symbol with two parallel lines indicates _________ cardinality.
a. (0, N)
b. (1, N)
c. (1,1)
d. (0, 1)
43. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of fragmented data in DDBMS?
a. Enhances availability of data
b. Reduces response time
c. Reduces communication costs
d. Reduces processing overheads
44. The two-phase commit protocol requires a ________ protocol and a
__________ protocol.
a. Do-Undo-Redo, Read Ahead
b. Do-Undo_Redo, Write Ahead
c. Do-Undo, Do-Redo
d. Read Ahead, Write Ahead
45. Which of the following statement is FALSE for describing a fully distributed
database based upon C.J. Date’ twelve rules?
a. Each site is responsible for security, backup and concurrency control.
b. The database fragments are managed transparently without the user
being aware of them.
c. Distributed queries run on one central site and associated nodes
containing distributed databases.
d. Node failures do not affect the continuous operation of the distributed
database system.
46. Dependencies based on only part of a composite primary key are called
___________ dependencies.
a. primary
b. partial
c. incomplete
d. composite

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47. The information stored in the ____________ is issued by the DBMS for a
recovery requirement triggered by a ROLLBACK statement, a program’s
abnormal termination, or a system failure such as a network discrepancy or a
disk crash.
a. data dictionary
b. metadata
c. rollback manager
d. transaction log
48. In the __________ model, the basic logical structure is represented by an
upside-down tree.
a. hierarchal
b. network
c. relational
d. entity relationship
49. When a SQL statement calls a PL/SQL function, then the PL/SQL function can
return one value through the keyword(s)
a. IN OUT in the parameter list of the function.
b. OUT in the parameter list of the function.
c. RETURN statement within the function block.
d. IN OUT and OUT in the parameter list and the RETURN statement
within the function block.
50. In a subquery, the __________________ query is executed first.
a. innermost
b. outermost
c. leftmost
d. rightmost
51. In ORACLE, the _________________ function converts a date to a character
string.
a. CONVERT( )
b. TO_CHAR( )
c. TO_DATESTRING( )
d. TO_STRING( )
52. A trigger is a(n) ______________________.
a. anonymous PL/SQL function
b. anonymous PL/SQL procedure
c. stored PL/SQL function
d. stored PL/SQL procedure
53. A triggering event will NOT be fired by the ______________ statement.
a. DELETE
b. INSERT
c. SELECT
d. UPDATE

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54. A cursor is a ____________ an area of memory called the context area.

a. fragment of
b. delegate to
c. paging index to
d. pointer to
55. The hierarchical database model is based on a ____.
a. tree structure
b. lack of a parent segment
c. lack of a child segment
d. matrix
56. In the _________ model, the user perceives the database as a collection of
records in 1:M relationships, where each record can have more than one parent
a. hierarchical
b. network
c. object-orientated
d. entity relationship
57. ____ is the body of information and facts about a specific subject.
a. Data
b. Information
c. Knowledge
d. A database
58. Union-compatible means____.
a. The names of the relation attributes can be different, but the data types
must be identical.
b. The names of the relation attributes must be the same, but the data
types can be different.
c. The names of the relation attributes must be the same and their data
types must be identical.
d. The number of attributes must be the same, but the names and data
types can be different.
59. The primary objective of database design is ____.
a. To create the most efficient database possible
b. To create complete, normalized, nonredundant, and fully integrated
conceptual, logical, and physical database models
c. To create the fastest queries
d. To be able to add data quickly
60. ____ requires that all operations of a transaction be completed.
a. Specificity
b. Atomicity
c. Durability
d. Time stamping

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61. ____ means that data used during the execution of a transaction cannot be used
by a second transaction until the first one is completed.
a. Serializability
b. Atomicity
c. Isolation
d. Time stamping
62. A ____ lock allows concurrent transactions to access different rows of the same
table.
a. database-level
b. table-level
c. page-level
d. row-level
63. Normalization works through a series of stages called normal forms. Typically
____ stages are processed.
a. two
b. three
c. four
d. five
64. The data cache is where the data read from the database data files are stored
____ the data have been read or ____ the data are written to the database data
files.
a. after, before
b. after, after
c. before, before
d. before, after
65. Most DBMSs operate in one of two optimization modes: cost-based or rule-
based. Others automatically determine the ____ based on whether database
statistics are available.
a. data cache
b. SQL cache
c. sort cache
d. optimization mode
66. Analyzing decision support data to generate information is part of ____.
a. data warehousing
b. very large database systems
c. business intelligence
d. distributed processing
67. In a DDBMS, the ____ processor is the software component found in each
computer that requests data. It receives and processes the application’s data
requests.
a. database
b. transaction
c. data
d. network

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68. A server-side extension ____.
a. provides its services to the Web server in a way that is totally
transparent to the client browser
b. must be downloaded and installed in the client computer
c. is only available for servers running Windows 2000 or greater
d. is not required to access a database over the Internet
69. The DBA’s ____ role is focused on personnel management and on interactions
with the end-user community.
a. administrative
b. arbitration
c. technical
d. managerial
70. ____ security breaches include database access by computer viruses and by
hackers whose actions are designed to destroy or alter data.
a. Dangerous
b. Preserving
c. Corrupting
d. Authorized
71. Classifying users into ____, according to common access needs, facilitates the
DBA’s job of controlling and managing the access privileges of individual users.
a. authorization schemes
b. user groups
c. sections
d. policy definitions
72. ____ yields better performance.
a. Denormalization
b. Normalization
c. Atomization
d. Compression
73. When using a(n) ____ join, only rows that meet the given criteria are returned.
a. full
b. inner
c. outer
d. set
74. Another name for a production database is a ____ database.
a. development
b. warehousing
c. transactional
d. data-mining
75. A table is a matrix consisting of a series of row and column ____.
a. links
b. intersections
c. systems
d. models

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76. Database models were developed to ____.
a. model real-world events or conditions
b. deposit data within a single file
c. keep data within multiple data repositories
d. allow DBMSs to maintain loose control over the database activities
77. What modern development has dramatically changed the direction database
technology was moving in?
a. Object-oriented programming
b. The Internet
c. Y2K
d. Mainframes
78. Nulls, if used improperly, can create problems because they can represent ____.
a. a default value
b. a known, but missing, attribute value
c. zero
d. an unsortable value
79. A ____ key is defined as a key that is used strictly for data retrieval purposes.
a. primary
b. foreign
c. secondary
d. data
80. An attribute (or combination of attributes) in one table whose values must either
match the primary key in another table or be null is called a ____ key.
a. foreign
b. candidate
c. primary
d. secondary
81. A relational operator that combines all rows from two tables is considered to be
a(n) ____.
a. UNION
b. INTERSECT
c. DIFFERENCE
d. PRODUCT
82. A relation is not in 1NF if:
a. it has multiple candidate keys
b. all of the key attributes are defined
c. there are repeating groups in the table
d. all attributes are dependent on the primary key
83. By its nature, a single-user database system automatically ensures ____ of the
database, because only one transaction is executed at a time.
a. serializability and durability
b. atomicity and isolation
c. serializability and isolation
d. atomicity and serializability

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84. What is the most restrictive lock granularity?
a. Database
b. Table
c. Page
d. Row
85. When creating a table using the SQL DDL, to ensure that no duplicate values are
added to a column, the key word ________ should be added to the column
definition.
a. DISTINCT
b. NO_DUPLICATES
c. UNIQUE
d. INDEX
86. The ____ data type is considered compatible with VARCHAR(35).
a. DATE
b. INT
c. TINYINT
d. CHAR(15)
87. A transaction is a ____ unit of work that must be either entirely completed or
aborted.
a. timed
b. practical
c. logical
d. physical
88. The implicit beginning of a transaction is ____.
a. When the database is started
b. When a table is accessed for the first time
c. When the first SQL statement is encountered
d. When the COMMIT command is issued
89. The information stored in the ____ is used by the DBMS for a recovery
requirement triggered by a ROLLBACK statement, a program’s abnormal
termination, or a system failure such as a network discrepancy or a disk crash.
a. data dictionary
b. metadata
c. rollback manager
d. transaction log
90. One of the three most common data integrity and consistency problems is ____.
a. Lost updates
b. Disk failures
c. User errors
d. Deadlocks

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91. As long as two transactions, T1 and T2, access ____ data, there is no conflict,
and the order of execution is irrelevant to the final outcome.
a. shared
b. common
c. unrelated
d. locked
92. A consistent database is ____.
a. One in which all tables have foreign keys
b. One in which all data integrity constraints are satisfied
c. One in which all tables are normalized
d. One in which all SQL statements only update one table at a time
93. A diskpage, or page, is the equivalent of a ____.
a. database table
b. disk sector
c. database schema
d. diskblock
94. A(n) ____ lock has only two stages (0 and 1).
a. shared
b. exclusive
c. binary
d. two-phase
95. A(n) ____ condition occurs when two or more transactions wait for each other to
unlock data.
a. deadlock
b. exclusive lock
c. binary lock
d. two-phase lock
96. ____________ are rules that applies to the two-phase locking protocol.
a. Two transactions cannot have conflicting locks.
b. No unlock operation can precede a lock operation in a different
transaction.
c. No data is affected until all locks are released.
d. No data is affected until the transaction is in its locked position.
97. A(n) ____ phase in a two-phase lock is when a transaction releases all locks and
cannot obtain any new lock.
a. growing
b. shrinking
c. locking
d. unlocking

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98. During the ____ phase, a transaction scans the database, executes the needed
computations, and makes the updates to a private copy of the database values.
a. read
b. validation
c. write
d. shared
99. During the ____ phase, changes are permanently applied to the database.
a. read
b. validation
c. write
d. shared
100. ANSI defines four events that signal the end of a transaction. Of the following
events, ____ is defined by ANSI as being equivalent to a COMMIT.
a. Five SQL statements are executed.
b. The end of a program is successfully reached.
c. The program is abnormally terminated.
d. The database is shut down for maintenance.
101. ANSI defines four events that signal the end of a transaction. Of the following
events ____ is defined by ANSI as being equivalent to a ROLLBACK.
a. Five SQL statements are executed.
b. The end of a program is successfully reached.
c. The program is abnormally terminated.
d. The database is shut down for maintenance.
102. On the client side, the objective is to generate a SQL query that returns the
correct answer in the least amount of time, using the minimum amount of
resources at the server end. The activities required to achieve that goal are
commonly referred to as ____ tuning.
a. client and server
b. database
c. SQL performance
d. DBMS performance
103. All data in a database are stored in ____ files.
a. table
b. data
c. RAM
d. system
104. The data cache or ____ is a shared, reserved memory area that stores the most
recently accessed data blocks in RAM.
a. buffer cache
b. procedure cache
c. SQL cache
d. permanent storage

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105. To generate database object statistics manually, you could use the following
syntax:____.
a. ANALYZE <TABLE/INDEX> object_name;
b. CREATE <TABLE/INDEX> object_name;
c. ANALYZE <TABLE/INDEX> object_name COMPUTE
STATISTICS;
d. CREATE <TABLE/INDEX> object_name COMPUTE
STATISTICS;
106. The DBMS ____ the SQL query and chooses the most efficient access/execution
plan.
a. parses
b. executes
c. fetches
d. processes
107. If there is no index, the DBMS will perform a ____ scan.
a. loop
b. range
c. row ID table access
d. full table
108. One measure that determines the need for an index is the ____ of the column
you want to index. ____ refers to the number of different values a column could
possibly have.
a. Database statistics
b. Data sparsity
c. Primary keys
d. Query optimization
109. The ____ cache is used as a temporary storage area for ORDER BY or GROUP
BY operations, as well as for index-creation functions.
a. data
b. SQL
c. sort
d. optimizer
110. ____ table space is used for transaction-recovery purposes.
a. system
b. user data
c. temporary
d. rollback segment
111. A distributed database is composed of several parts known as database ____.
a. sections
b. fragments
c. partitions
d. parts

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112. Under the ____ scenario, multiple processes run on different computers sharing
a single data repository.
a. single-site processing, single-site data
b. multiple-site processing, single-site data
c. single-site processing, multiple-site data
d. multiple-site processing, multiple-site data
113. A ____ distributed database system will support different DBMSs that may even
support different models running under different computer systems.
a. fully heterogeneous
b. fully homogeneous
c. homogeneous
d. heterogeneous
114. ____ transparency allows a distributed database to be treated as a single logical
database.
a. Distribution
b. Transaction
c. Failure
d. Performance
115. ____ is the highest level of transparency. The end user or programmer does not
need to know that a database is partitioned.
a. Performance
b. Fragmentation
c. Location
d. Local mapping
116. ____ query optimization means that the DDBMS finds the most cost-effective
access path without user intervention.
a. Static
b. Dynamic
c. Automatic
d. Commit
117. ____ fragmentation refers to the division of a relation into subsets of tuples.
a. Vertical
b. Horizontal
c. Data
d. Mixed
118. A disadvantage of a client/server application is ____.
a. There are more people with PC skills than with mainframe skills in
the job market.
b. The PC is not well established in the workplace.
c. An increase in the number of users and processing sites often paves
the way for security problems.
d. There is a considerable cost disadvantage to offloading applications
development from the mainframe to powerful PCs.

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119. Data mining is part of the “____” section of the business intelligence
framework.
a. People
b. Management
c. Processes
d. Governance
120. Another name for a database server-side extension is ____.
a. Web server
b. Web application server
c. Web-to-database middleware
d. Database application server
121. Of the following,____ is the first step in the exchange between a Web browser
and a database.
a. The HTML output is displayed on the client computer’s Web browser.
b. The middleware receives the query result and creates the HTML-
formatted page.
c. The Web browser requests a page from a Web server.
d. The Web-to-database middleware uses ODBC to connect to the
database.
122. “All users must have passwords” is an example of a ____.
a. rule
b. policy
c. standard
d. procedure
123. The database __________ is responsible for ensuring the database security and
integrity.
a. programmer
b. analyst
c. administrator
d. security officer
124. ________ is a disadvantage of a DDBMS.
a. Processor independence
b. User-friendly interface
c. Security
d. Faster data access
125. All transactions must display ____.
a. atomicity, serializability, and durability
b. durability and isolation
c. serializability, durability, and isolation
d. atomicity, durability, serializability, and isolation

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SECTION B (TOTAL MARKS = 35)
Attempt all of the following questions.
Record your answers on your Scantron Card
The Scantron Card has five options: Use (a) for True and (b) for False.
Ignore the third, fourth & fifth options (c), (d) & (e)

State True or False

126. In SQL statements, the keywords DISTINCT and UNIQUE cannot be used
interchangeably.
a. True
b. False
127. You can test for null values by using an empty value shown below:
SELECT * FROM course WHERE prerequisite = ''.
a. True
b. False
128. A pseudocolumn such as ROWNUM is not stored in the database.
a. True
b. False
129. A Cartesian join yields all possible pairs of rows from two tables.
a. True
b. False
130. We do not specify the table name when creating sequences, and so the integers
generated by a sequence can be used in any table.
a. True
b. False
131. Flags or special codes indicating absence of some values can be used to avoid
NULLS.
a. True
b. False
132. Relationship participation and relationship strength refer to the same issue for
recursive relationships.
a. True
b. False
133. Columns with low selectivity (or columns with less number of distinct values)
are NOT considered good candidates upon which indexes can be made.
a. True
b. False
134. All aggregate functions ignore NULL values, with the exception of COUNT(*).
a. True
b. False

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135. The following two SQL statements are equivalent:

SELECT s.student_id, e.section_id, s.last_name
FROM student s, enrollment e
WHERE s.student_id = e.student_id
AND last_name = 'Torres'

SELECT s.student_id, section_id, last_name

FROM student s JOIN enrollment e
ON (s.student_id = e.student_id)
WHERE last_name = 'Torres'
a. True
b. False
136. You cannot order the result of a SET operation.
a. True
b. False
137. Triggers are automatically dropped when the corresponding table is deleted.
a. True
b. False
138. When you create a check constraint, an index is automatically built on the
column(s) referenced by the search condition.
a. True
b. False
139. Constraints always have a name.
a. True
b. False
140. Concurrency control is to ensure serializability of transactions in a single user
database system.
a. True
b. False
141. A derived attribute need not be physically stored within the database.
a. True
b. False
142. The mutual consistency rule requires that all copies of data fragments be
identical.
a. True
b. False
143. Static query optimization takes place at run time using the most up-to-date
information about the database.
a. True
b. False
144. Static query optimization takes place at run time using the most up-to-date
information about the database.
a. True
b. False

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145. Data processing can be as simple as organizing data to reveal patterns.
a. True
b. False
146. Data modeling starts with a very complex representation, and as knowledge of
the problem is gained, the model is simplified.
a. True
b. False
147. Database designers determine the data and information that yield the required
understanding of the entire business.
a. True
b. False
148. You can think of a table as a persistent representation of a logical relation.
a. True
b. False
149. The order of the rows and columns is important to the DBMS.
a. True
b. False
150. The ER diagram represents the conceptual database as viewed by the end user.
a. True
b. False
151. Attributes are types of entities.
a. True
b. False
152. Because a partial dependency can exist only if a table’s primary key is
composed of several attributes, a table whose primary key consists of only a
single attribute must automatically be in 2NF if it is in 1NF.
a. True
b. False
153. The entity subtype contains the common characteristics and the entity
supertypes contain the unique characteristics of each entity subtype.
a. True
b. False
154. Entity subtypes do not inherit the relationships in which the supertype entity
participates.
a. True
b. False
155. A database language enables the user to perform complex queries designed to
transform the raw data into useful information.
a. True
b. False

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156. The CHECK clause is used to define a condition for the values that the attribute
domain cannot have.
a. True
b. False
157. In a DBMS, stored procedural code is executed on the database client machine.
a. True
b. False
158. In a valid SQL statement, the HAVING clause may immediately follow the
WHERE clause or the GROUP BY clause.
a. True
b. False
159. In a valid SQL statement, a subquery may be included in the FROM clause.
a. True
b. False
160. In Oracle, the database developer must explicitly create an index for each
primary key.
a. True
b. False

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SECTION C (TOTAL MARKS = 20)
Attempt all questions.
Record your answers on your Scantron Card
The Scantron Card has five options: Use (a) for True and (b) for False.
Ignore the third, fourth & fifth options (c), (d) & (e)
State True or False
Case 1:
There is an academic review where all the professors of a certain Department
participate. Each professor x is reviewed by another professor y, which in turn is
assisted in the process by one or more other professors appointed by the same professor
y. Each professor can appoint one or more other professors to assist him/her in the
review of the work of a given professor. For a professor x a given professor y1 can be
appointed by x to assist him/her in the review of the work of a professor z1, and at the
same time y1 might not be appointed by x to assist him/her in the review of the work of
a different professor z2. The same professor can be appointed to assist different
professors in the review of the work of the same or different professors. Moreover, a
professor x can appoint a professor y to assist him/her in the review of the work of a
professor z and at the same time x can be appointed by z to assist him/her in the review
of the work of y, or a different professor.
Consider the following ER diagrams, and in each one indicate with T (true) or F (false)
whether or not the scenario is modelled by the given diagram.
161. One single entity set, called Professors, and two binary relationship sets: one is
called Partners-for-review and the other is called Reviews. Both relationship
sets are connected with their two links to Professors.
a. True
b. False
162. Three entity sets and two binary relationship sets. The three entity sets are called
Professors, Partners-for-review, and Professors-to-be-reviewed, respectively.
One relationship set is connected to Professors and to Partners-for-review, and
the other relationship set is connected to Professors and Professors-to-be-
reviewed.
a. True
b. False
163. Three entity sets and three binary relationship sets. The three entity sets are
called Professors, Partners-for-review, and Professors-to-be-reviewed,
respectively. One relationship set is connected to Professors and to Partners-for-
review, the second relationship set is connected to Professors and to Professors-
to-be-reviewed, and the third relationship set is connected to Professors-to-be-
reviewed and to Partners-for-review.
a. True
b. False
164. One single entity set, called Professors, and one ternary relationship set which is
connected with its three links to Professors.
a. True
b. False

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Case 2:
Consider the following ER diagram, and in each one of the different scenarios given
after it indicate with T (true) or F (false) whether or not that scenario is modelled by the
given diagram.
ERD: there are three entity sets, with the names Professors, Books, and Courses,
respectively. The three entity sets are connected to one ternary relationship set called
PBC.
Scenarios:
165. ach professor uses some books, and each book can be used by one or more
professors. Each book is used in one or more courses, and for each course one or
more books can be used.
a. True
b. False
166. Each professor uses some books to teach some courses. A given professor can
use the same or different books to teach different courses, and two professors
can use the same book to teach the same or different courses.
a. True
b. False
167. Each professor uses some books, and each book is used by one single professor.
For each course one or more books can be used, and no book can be used in
more than one course.
a. True
b. False
Case 3:
Consider a relational schema with the relations PREREQUISITE = (Paper-1, Paper-2),
and S = (Paper-2), among others. A pair of papers a, b is in an instance of relation
PREREQUISITE if paper b has to be approved by a student before he/she can enrol in
paper a. The relation is always antireflexive, that is, there is no paper x whose approval
is required for a student to be allowed to enrol in the same paper x.
In each candidate answer below indicate with T (true) or F (false) whether or not the
answer corresponds to the result of dividing PREREQUISITE by S.
168. The papers which have as prerequisites all the papers in S, but which might have
other papers not in S as prerequisites as well.
a. True
b. False
169. The papers which have as prerequisites all and only papers in S.
a. True
b. False
170. The papers which have as prerequisites all the papers in the database, except all
those papers in S.
a. True
b. False

++++++++

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