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Multiple-Choice Questions
1. The key deficit suffered by Jeremiah (the boy described in the chapter opening vignette) was
_______________ caused by _____________.
2. To improve his deficit after experiencing a stroke, Jeremiah (the boy described in the chapter
opening vignette) had his non-affected limb constrained, forcing him to use the affected limb.
This approach to therapy is called
a. constraint-applied therapy.
b. constraint-induced movement therapy.
c. restraint therapy.
d. restraint-applied therapy.
e. forced movement therapy.
4. Most neuroscientists have long assumed that neurons could not be created past a certain age.
Recent research, however, suggests that _______________ is less limited than previously
thought.
a. neurogenesis
b. brain grafting
c. connectionism
d. collateral sprouting
e. neural migration
5. The author of the first psychology textbook was ________ and the text was entitled ________.
a. integrate sensations.
b. form memories.
c. control movement.
d. engage in logical reasoning.
e. regulate internal biological processes.
a. Generalization
b. Falsification
c. Verificationism
d. Syllogism
e. Rationalization
a. identifying general rules that govern behavior across multiple organisms; identifying
simple causes of complex behaviors
b. identifying simple causes of complex behaviors; identifying general rules that govern
behavior across multiple organisms
c. organizing data in terms of general rules; identifying the smallest components of a
neuron
d. identifying the smallest components of a neuron; organizing data in terms of general
rules
e. ignoring data that don’t fit with previous explanations; identifying general rules that
govern behavior across specific organisms
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10. Jerry dons a suede jacket before going out with his friends. “Ah, you must be cold,” says his
roommate. “Nope,” Jerry replied, “I just want to look hip in front of my friends.” Which
explanatory principle does this scenario best represent?
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11. Dr. Sardonicus proposes that mating behavior across species follows the same pattern, guided
by evolutionary forces. Her explanation for this behavior is consistent with the __________
approach.
a. generalization
b. reduction
c. separatist
d. functionalist
e. validity.
12. Ranjan has such an overly strong fear of dogs that she refuses to leave her house for fear of
encountering a dog. A learning theorist attributes her fear to past classical conditioning, in which
the sight and sound of a dog became associated with some aversive experience. This type of
explanation would involve the process of
a. rationalization.
b. pseudoscience.
c. reduction.
d. generalization.
e. dualism.
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a. rationalization.
b. falsification.
c. generalization.
d. deduction.
e. reduction.
14. Otto notices that his roommate has difficulty sleeping after consuming caffeinated drinks.
Otto knows that caffeine can stimulate neurons that produce arousal, and that such arousal
disturbs sleep. Otto tells his roommate that insomnia reflects the action of caffeine on brain
function, thereby offering an explanation based on
a. reduction.
b. superordinate causality.
c. generalization.
d. induction.
e. falsification.
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16. A scientist who holds a monistic philosophy would endorse which of the following
statements?
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17. ________ refers to the belief that the mind and body are separate entities.
a. Contralateral neglect
b. Monism
c. Blindsight
d. Dualism
e. Animism
18. Which statement is consistent with the monistic view of the mind-body question?
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20. Ancient Egyptian, Chinese, and Indian cultures considered the ________ to be the seat of
thought and emotion.
a. gut
b. heart
c. brain
d. pineal gland
e. eyes
21. The ancient Greek scholar ________ attributed thought and emotion to the brain, whereas
________ considered the function of the brain as important for cooling the excitement of the
heart.
a. Aristotle; Plato
b. Anaximander; Aristotle
c. Hippocrates; Aristotle
d. Parmenides; Galen
e. Heraclitus; Plato
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22. Which comment on brain function would be most likely to be made by Aristotle?
a. “The mind acts through the pineal body to control the body.”
b. ‘The brain serves to cool the passions of the heart.”
c. “The brain is the seat of emotion, but not thought.”
d. “The brain routes sensory information to the heart.”
e. “Injury to the brain alters emotion and thought.”
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24. The French philosopher René Descartes, who first described and studied reflexes, was a
a. monist.
b. reductionist.
c. pluralist.
d. dualist.
e. functionalist.
25. René Descartes argued that the mind was the same thing as the
a. brain.
b. body.
c. environment.
d. soul.
e. will.
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28. According to Descartes, the ________ was the point of interaction in the brain where the
mind controlled the physical body.
a. hypothalamus
b. corpus callosum
c. amygdala
d. hippocampus
e. pineal body
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29. Luigi Galvani demonstrated that __________, thereby providing a challenge to Descartes’s
view of the mind and body.
a. the mind controls the body through the action of the hippocampus
b. electrical stimulation of a dissected nerve was sufficient to cause muscle contraction
c. placing nerve fibers in a chemical solution caused the fibers to regenerate themselves
d. applying mechanical pressure to a rat’s leg caused the animal’s mouth to open
e. monism is the basis for modern conceptions of dualism
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31. Which statement is consistent with Descartes’s explanation of the mind-body question?
32. ________ was a physiologist who proposed the doctrine of specific nerve energies.
a. Johannes Müller
b. Paul Broca
c. Pierre Flourens
d. Hermann von Helmholtz
e. Wilhelm Wundt
33. Which statement is consistent with the doctrine of specific nerve energies?
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34. Which scientist was among the first to advocate supplementing observational techniques with
experimental procedures in the study of physiology?
a. Paul Broca
b. Gustav Fritsch
c. Luigi Galvani
d. Johannes Müller
e. Pierre Flourens
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a. for his use of the experimental ablation technique to examine brain function.
b. as the father of modern philosophy.
c. for proposing an early formulation of the theory of evolution.
d. for his study of language abilities in stroke victims.
e. as a dualist philosopher.
a. Eduard Hitzig.
b. Hermann von Helmholtz.
c. Pierre Flourens.
d. Johannes Müller.
e. Jan Purkinje.
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39. Paul Broca performed an autopsy of the brain of a patient who had been unable to speak after
suffering a stroke. Broca concluded that
40. _________ conducted experimental ablation in animals, whereas ________ applied the
general concept of functional disruption to humans.
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41. In 1870, Gustav Fritsch and Eduard Hitzig reported that electrical stimulation of the
________ in dogs resulted in muscle contractions of ________.
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43. In his studies of nerve conduction speed, Hermann von Helmholtz noted that
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45. Hermann von Helmholtz estimated that nerve conduction speed is about
a. 2.7 meters/second.
b. 27 meters/second.
c. 270 meters/second.
d. 2700 meters/second.
e. 27,000 meters/second.
46. ___________ discovered neurons that terminated on cardiac cells that were responsible for
controlling contractions of the heart.
a. Jan Purkinje
b. Hermann von Helmholtz
c. Luigi Galvani
d. Santiago Ramón y Cajal
e. Pierre Flourens
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47. Purkinje cells can be found in the __________ of the human brain.
a. medulla
b. cerebral cortex
c. corpus callosum
d. cerebellum
e. amygdala
48. Neurons that terminate on cardiac cells that are responsible for controlling contractions of the
heart are known as
a. cardiac cells.
b. neurofibrillary cells.
c. Purkinje fibers.
d. myocardium fibers.
e. cardiac fibers.
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49. ____________ used the Golgi staining technique to examine the structure of individual
neurons in the brain.
a. Camillo Golgi
b. Jan Purkinje
c. Hermann von Helmholtz
d. Luigi Galvani
e. Santiago Ramón y Cajal
50. ______________ won a Nobel Prize in 1906 for his work describing the structure of the
nervous system.
a. Paul Broca
b. Santiago Ramón y Cajal
c. Edvard Moser
d. Camillo Golgi
e. Hermann von Helmholtz
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51. John O’Keefe, May-Britt Moser, and Edvard Moser were awarded the 2014 Nobel Prize for
their accomplishments in
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a. Darwinism
b. Natural selection
c. Artificial selection
d. Mutation
e. Selective advantage
54. The principle that the natural characteristics of an organism exert useful effects is known as
a. reduction.
b. positivism.
c. functionalism.
d. consolidation.
e. adaptation.
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56. The physiological mechanisms of an organism that give rise to certain behaviors
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57. The principle of natural selection proposes that certain characteristics that ________ will
become more prevalent in a species.
58. Over successive generations, moths develop spots that resemble eyes on their wings; the
spots scare off predators. This characteristic is a
a. selective advantage.
b. genetic susceptibility.
c. general advantage.
d. selective disadvantage.
e. genetic abnormality.
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59. Praying mantises are typically green or brown in color to allow them to blend into their
surroundings. If a group of praying mantises were born a different color, they would be at a
disadvantage in their environment. This change, although not advantageous for the mantis, could
happen naturally through the process of
a. mutation.
b. gene splicing.
c. genetic alteration.
d. natural selection.
e. genetic predisposition.
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a. are beneficial.
b. are unobservable.
c. are physical.
d. exert direct actions on behavior.
e. mostly involve psychological functions.
65. ________ is thought to be an advantage associated with the development of color vision in
primates.
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66. The evolution of perception that allowed for color differentiation was a functional
development in primates; not all animals have this ability. What made it functional?
67. Which key characteristic of early humans allowed them to effectively out-compete other
species?
a. Color vision allowed for the detection of ripe fruit and edible game.
b. Mastery of fire allowed for provision of warmth in shelters.
c. Agile hands allowed for the creation and use of tools.
d. Mastery of fire allowed food to be cooked.
e. A larger brain allowed for more complicated behaviors to be enacted.
68. Humans and chimpanzees share approximately _________ of their DNA in common.
a. 99 percent
b. 90 percent
c. 75 percent
d. 50 percent
e. 10 percent
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a. Human brains contain more neurons per gram compared to the brains of other
mammals.
b. Human brains are larger than elephant brains in terms of absolute size.
c. The human brain comprises more than 5 percent of total body weight.
d. Chimpanzee brains and human brains contain about the same number of neurons
overall.
e. Density of brain neurons per gram is a constant function across body size.
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71. In terms of brain size and neuron density, which evolutionary attribute contributes the most
to intellectual ability?
a. having a large number of neurons not dedicated to specific functions, such as walking
or digestion
b. the ratio of neurons at the rear of the brain to those at the front of the brain
c. being born with a fully developed brain
d. having a larger body size in comparison to brain size
e. establishing connections between neurons early in life, that remain stable and do not
change over the course of development
72. ________ refers to the concept that human brain maturation takes a long time relative to that
of other species.
a. Adaptation
b. Mutational drift
c. Synchrony
d. Neoteny
e. Conductive trend
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73. An adult human brain is approximately _______ the weight of a newborn brain.
a. two times
b. four times
c. half
d. six times
e. eight times
a. adolescence.
b. infancy.
c. early childhood.
d. middle childhood.
e. old age.
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75. Which conclusion regarding the use of animals by humans is correctly stated?
76. Animal rights activists tend to show a disproportionate amount of concern with
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77. Which statement would LEAST likely be made by an animal rights activist?
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80. Why are computer simulations insufficient to address the needs of neuroscience researchers?
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83. Reggie was asked to take part in a study investigating the effects of a pain reliever on muscle
tears. In order to test the drug, he will need to engage in physical activity that results in small
tears in the muscles of his forearm. Reggie should know beforehand that all studies involving
human participants must include
84. A statement in which a researcher informs any potential participant about the nature of the
study, how the data will be collected and stored, and what the anticipated benefits and costs will
be for participating is called
a. right to withdraw.
b. tacit cooperation.
c. research agreement.
d. informed consent.
e. educated agreement.
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85. A research participant should not sign an informed consent form if it is missing
86. A board of scientists and laypeople who review studies with human participants to determine
if they protect human rights is called the
a. recording whether men make remarks to a woman who is walking down the street
b. watching people at a shopping mall to see if they smile when passing each other
c. providing an untested depression medication to hospital inpatients
d. unobtrusively timing how long it takes preschool children to count to 10
e. observing whether individuals hold open a door for others
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88. In 2010, a case of vague and incomplete informed consent led to legal and financial
consequences for the research group who conducted the study. What was the case?
89. In a case of vague informed consent, Havasupai Tribe members gave blood samples for the
purposes of research on ______________ but the blood samples were actually used for contested
research involving factors related to
a. diabetes; syphilis.
b. syphilis; diabetes.
c. diabetes; schizophrenia.
d. schizophrenia; diabetes.
e. syphilis; schizophrenia.
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a. neuromorality
b. bioethics
c. biological integrity
d. neuroethics
e. morals for behavioral neuroscience
a. ensuring that individuals over 18 years of age have parental consent to participate in
research
b. maintaining the privacy of brain imaging information
c. inspecting informed consent statements that include detailed information on the
hypothesis being tested
d. ensuring that research participation does not last longer than one hour
e. ensuring that all neuroscience studies include some form of medical imaging
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92. ________ is the original name for the field that involves the study of the physiology of
behavior.
a. Behavioral neuroscience
b. Biopsychology
c. Psychobiology
d. Physiological psychology
e. Biological pseudoscience
93. ________ is the common name used today for the discipline that involves the study of the
physiology of behavior.
a. Behavioral neuroscience
b. Biopsychology
c. Psychobiology
d. Physiological psychology
e. Biological pseudoscience
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94. ________ are physicians trained to diagnose and to treat central nervous system diseases.
a. Psychologists
b. Neurologists
c. Anatomists
d. Behavioral neuroscientists
e. Experimental neuropsychologists
a. Ph.D. degree.
b. master’s degree.
c. technical degree.
d. bachelor’s degree.
e. high school diploma.
a. biology
b. biology or psychology
c. chemistry or psychology
d. biology, psychology, or chemistry
e. biology, psychology, chemistry, or computer science
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97. Research on the effectiveness of study habits consistently reveals that the best approach to
studying is to
a. master all the content right before an assessment takes place, to maximize recall.
b. highlight every other word in a sentence, rather than the entire sentence itself.
c. spread out study sessions rather than cramming information in one sitting.
d. read silently and contemplate the meaning of information, almost in a meditative
state.
e. learn material while engaged in another activity, to activate both the left and right
hemispheres.
Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
98. The key deficit suffered by Jeremiah in the chapter opening vignette was impaired ________.
99. ________ is the philosophical belief that mind and body are separate entities.
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101. ________ was a physiologist who proposed the doctrine of specific nerve energies.
102. _____________ is known for his use of the experimental ablation technique to examine
brain function.
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104. ________ involves the use of simple processes to explain a more complex phenomenon.
105. __________ argued that the function of the brain was to cool the passions of the heart.
106. _____________ performed an autopsy of the brain of a patient who had been unable to
speak after suffering a stroke, thereby identifying an important brain region related to speech.
107. Stimulation of the ________ cortex results in muscle contraction on the opposite side of the
body.
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108. ________ involves the measurement of changes in behavior following intentional damage
to portions of an animal’s brain.
110. ________ are accidental changes in the chromosomal structure of sperm or eggs.
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112. The surviving members of the ________ family include humans, gorillas, chimpanzees, and
orangutans.
114. ________ has the potential to produce greater animal suffering than does research.
115. The neurological disorder involving bleeding in the brain is known as a ________.
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116. ________ is the original name for the field of study now known as behavioral neuroscience.
117. __________ are physicians trained to diagnose and treat central nervous system diseases.
Essay Questions
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119. Discuss the early beliefs the Greeks had regarding the distinction between the brain and the
heart. Who were prominent thinkers in this argument and what did they believe?
120. Discuss the difference between generalization and reduction as explanatory systems.
Provide an example of each.
121. Describe the research technique of experimental ablation and identify the researcher who
was responsible for its initial use.
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122. Identify two early key contributors to the development of physiology and discuss the
implications that their work had for behavioral neuroscience.
123. Discuss the implications of Galvani’s research for Descartes’s view of how nerves control
muscle activity.
124. Give examples of structural and behavioral characteristics that might confer selective
advantages to an organism.
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125. Discuss the role that mutations play in the process of natural selection.
127. Discuss the use of animals in research and the ethical issues associated with such use. Make
an argument a) FOR and b) AGAINST such use.
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Revel Quizzes
The following questions appear at the end of each module and at the end of the chapter in Revel
for Physiology of Behavior, 13th Edition.
EOM Q1.1.2
Question: With respect to research in behavioral neuroscience, reductionism is:
a. neither necessary nor sufficient.
b. necessary, but not sufficient.
c. sufficient, but not necessary.
d. both necessary and sufficient.
Answer: B
Consider This: It is not enough to correlate behaviors with physiological events; LO 1.1:
Compare the roles of generalization and reduction in behavioral neuroscience research
Learning Objective: 1.1: Compare the roles of generalization and reduction in behavioral
neuroscience research.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
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EOM Q1.1.3
Question: The idea that the mind and body are separate and made up of different matter is
called:
Option
a. dualism.
b. monism.
c. separatism.
d. unity.
Answer: A
Consider This: This theory poses that the mind and body are working together as a duo; LO 1.2:
Summarize historical and contemporary contributions to behavioral neuroscience from various
scientific disciplines.
Learning Objective: 1.2 Summarize historical and contemporary contributions to behavioral
neuroscience from various scientific disciplines.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q1.1.4
Question: Experimental ablations were first performed by:
a. Flourens.
b. Broca.
c. Aristotle.
d. Galen.
Answer: A
Consider This: Experimental ablations began in the nineteenth century and were first performed
in animals; LO 1.2: Summarize historical and contemporary contributions to behavioral
neuroscience from various scientific disciplines.
Learning Objective: 1.2: Summarize historical and contemporary contributions to behavioral
neuroscience from various scientific disciplines.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q1.1.5
Question: Which individual is matched with the correct historical contribution to behavioral
neuroscience?
a. Cajal—examined individual neurons of the brain
b. Galvani—was the first to measure the speed of neural conduction
c. Purkinje—found that electrically stimulating a frog’s nerve contracted the muscle to
which it was attached
d. Von Helmholtz—discovered neurons responsible for controlling contractions of the heart
Answer: A
Consider This: By the late nineteenth century, it became clear that the nervous system was
composed of discrete cells; LO 1.2: Summarize historical and contemporary contributions to
behavioral neuroscience from various scientific disciplines.
Learning Objective: LO 1.2: Summarize historical and contemporary contributions to behavioral
neuroscience from various scientific disciplines.
Skill: Remember the Facts
Difficulty: Moderate
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EOM Q1.2.2
Question: _____________ refers to a situation in which a particular characteristic allows an
organism to be more successful reproductively, causing the characteristic to become more
prevalent.
a. Natural selection
b. Darwinism
c. Artificial selection
d. Mutation
Answer: A
Consider This: This process allows species to naturally adapt to their changing environments.;
LO 1.3: Describe the role of natural selection in the evolution of behavioral traits.
Learning Objective:1.3: Describe the role of natural selection in the evolution of behavioral
traits.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q1.2.3
Question: Mutations:
a. are accidental changes in chromosomes of sperm or eggs that result in new
characteristics.
b. are the ultimate cause of a species dying out.
c. are never found in nature.
d. always involve negative changes.
Answer: A
Consider This: Natural selection occurs due to spontaneous mutations; LO 1.3: Describe the role
of natural selection in the evolution of behavioral traits.
Learning Objective: 1.3: Describe the role of natural selection in the evolution of behavioral
traits.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOM Q1.2.4
Question: Neoteny refers to:
a. slow brain maturation after birth, making the young of the species in question dependent
on others to some extent.
b. small brains.
c. brains that are large compared to body size.
d. animals that are able to walk and fend for themselves after birth.
Answer: A
Consider This: The term “neoteny” means to stretch something out for a longer duration; LO 1.4:
Identify factors involved in the evolution of human brains.
Learning Objective: 1.4: Identify factors involved in the evolution of human brains.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q1.2.5
Question: In humans, the brain reaches adult size by:
a. adolescence.
b. infancy.
c. early childhood.
d. old age.
Answer: A
Consider This: The brain has to nearly quadruple in size from the time an individual is born; LO
1.4: Identify factors involved in the evolution of human brains
Learning Objective: 1.4: Identify factors involved in the evolution of human brains.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
Assignment: Quiz: Ethical Issues in Research with Humans and Other Animals
EOM Q1.3.1
Question: Which statement is FALSE with respect to the use of animals in research?
a. Animal research is potentially exploitative.
b. Animal research is well-regulated.
c. Animal research can be replaced by tissue cultures or computer simulations.
d. Animal research fuels progress in the treatment of disease.
Answer: C
Consider This: Some research questions must be tested using complex, living organisms; LO 1.5:
Outline reasons for the use of animals in behavioral neuroscience research.
Learning Objective: 1.5: Outline reasons for the use of animals in behavioral neuroscience
research.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM Q1.3.2
Question: With respect to its oversight, research with animals is:
a. highly regulated.
b. largely unregulated because animals are not viewed as having rights.
c. only partially regulated, with chimpanzees having the greatest protections.
d. only partially regulated, with marine life having the greatest protections.
Answer: A
Consider This: Any institution that uses animals in research needs to have an Institutional
Animal Care and Use Committee; LO 1.6: Identify mechanisms for oversight of animal research.
Learning Objective: 1.6: Identify mechanisms for oversight of animal research.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q1.3.3
Question: Which researcher’s project would require IACUC review?
a. Dr. Jackson proposes testing birds for West Nile virus.
b. Dr. Jiminez plans to observe rats’ mating rituals.
c. Dr. Nguyen’s project involves observing monkeys unobtrusively in the wild.
d. Dr. Diamond collects duck feces from a local pond and analyzes its bacteria.
Answer: A
Consider This: Any activity that alters or disturbs the activity of the animals needs IACUC
approval; LO 1.6: Identify mechanisms for oversight of animal research.
Learning Objective: 1.6: Identify mechanisms for oversight of animal research.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM Q1.3.4
Question: A research participant should NOT sign an informed consent form if it is missing:
the researcher’s hypothesis.
background literature about the study.
risks and benefits.
the researcher’s opinions about the literature.
Answer: C
Consider This: Which option would be necessary for a participant to decide whether he/she
wanted to be part of the study?; LO 1.7: Discuss ethical considerations in research with human
participants.
Learning Objective: 1.7: Discuss ethical considerations in research with human participants.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
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EOM Q1.3.5
Question: IRB review is mandatory for a study that:
a. compares drug effects in mice.
b. consists of reviewing research literature.
c. will provide depression medication to a group of patients.
d. entails teaching sign language to a group of gorillas.
Answer: C
Consider This: Any activity that alters or disturbs the activity of the individual needs IRB
approval; LO 1.8: Identify mechanisms for oversight of human research.
Learning Objective: LO 1.8 Identify mechanisms for oversight of human research.
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Assignment: Quiz: The Future of Neuroscience: Careers and Strategies for Learning
EOM Q1.4.1
Question: Being a neuroscientist typically requires a _____ degree.
a. Ph.D.
b. master’s
c. technical
d. bachelor’s
Answer: A
Consider This: Most neuroscientists work in universities or hospitals that require advanced
degrees; LO 1.9: Identify careers in behavioral neuroscience.
Learning Objective: 1.9: Identify careers in behavioral neuroscience.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q1.4.2
Question: Professionals in neuroscience are LEAST likely to have a background in:
a. biology.
b. psychology.
c. chemistry.
d. anthropology.
Answer: D
Consider This: Although neuroscience is a diverse field, it focuses on the nervous system and
behavior of individual organisms; LO 1.9: Identify careers in behavioral neuroscience.
Learning Objective: 1.9: Identify careers in behavioral neuroscience.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM Q1.4.3
Question: Graduate students in neuroscience:
a. conduct independent research.
b. write literature reviews without conducting independent research.
c. serve as a research assistant, never conducting independent research.
d. work with patients to prescribe appropriate medications.
Answer: A
Consider This: Graduate students are often required to think independently and are given greater
responsibility at this level, LO 1.9: Identify careers in behavioral neuroscience.
Learning Objective: LO 1.9: Identify careers in behavioral neuroscience.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q1.4.4
Question: Which would be the BEST study technique to learn material in this course?
a. Reading the chapter
b. Highlighting important information as you read the chapter
c. Underlining important information as you read the chapter
d. Taking notes that organize the important information as you read the chapter
Answer: D
Consider This: Study methods that require you to generate your own material or organize your
thoughts are superior when it comes to recall; LO 1.10: Describe effective learning strategies for
studying behavioral neuroscience.
Learning Objective: 1.10: Describe effective learning strategies for studying behavioral
neuroscience.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM Q1.4.5
Question: When studying for a test in this course, it would be BEST to study:
a. in a single session one hour prior to the exam.
b. in a single session the night before the exam.
c. in several sessions during the weeks preceding the exam.
d. right before going to sleep.
Answer: C
Consider This: Our brains more effectively recall information that is presented repeatedly rather
than a single time; LO 1.10: Describe effective learning strategies for studying behavioral
neuroscience.
Learning Objective: 1.10: Describe effective learning strategies for studying behavioral
neuroscience.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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EOC Q1.2
Question: A researcher explains aspects of posttraumatic stress disorder as an example of broad
principles that apply to all people. This situation BEST illustrates:
a. reductionism.
b. generalization.
c. reflexes.
d. functionalism.
Answer: B
Consider This: The term “general” typically means widespread; LO 1.1: Compare the roles of
generalization and reduction in behavioral neuroscience research.
Learning Objective: 1.1: Compare the roles of generalization and reduction in behavioral
neuroscience research.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q1.3
Question: Neuroscientists focus on ____________ in their research.
a. generalization, but not reductionism
b. reductionism, but not generalization
c. both reductionism and generalization
d. neither reductionism nor generalization
Answer: C
Consider This: Researchers typically want to find specific causes and ensure they apply to the
majority of situations; LO 1.1: Compare the roles of generalization and reduction in behavioral
neuroscience research.
Learning Objective: 1.1: Compare the roles of generalization and reduction in behavioral
neuroscience research.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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EOC Q1.4
Question: Descartes, who first described and studied reflexes, is BEST described as a:
a. monist.
b. dualist.
c. separatist.
d. revolutionary.
Answer: B
Consider This: Descartes believed each person possessed a mind that was not subject to the laws
of the universe; LO 1.2: Summarize historical and contemporary contributions to behavioral
neuroscience from various scientific disciplines.
Learning Objective: 1.2: Summarize historical and contemporary contributions to behavioral
neuroscience from various scientific disciplines.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC 1.5
Question: _________ conducted experimental ablation in animals whereas ________ applied
the concept of experimental ablation to humans.
a. Flourens; Broca
b. Broca; Flourens
c. Müller; Flourens
d. Müller; Broca
Answer: A
Consider This: Müller was responsible for the doctrine of specific energies; LO 1.2: Summarize
historical and contemporary contributions to behavioral neuroscience from various scientific
disciplines.
Learning Objective: 1.2: Summarize historical and contemporary contributions to behavioral
neuroscience from various scientific disciplines.
Skill Level: Analyze It
Difficulty Level: Moderate
EOC Q1.6
Question: ___________ developed the doctrine of specific nerve energies.
a. Pierre Flourens
b. Johannes Müller
c. Paul Broca
d. Luigi Galvani
Answer: B
Consider This: The developer is considered one of the most important figures in the development
of experimental physiology; LO 1.2: Summarize historical and contemporary contributions to
behavioral neuroscience from various scientific disciplines.
Learning Objective: 1.2: Summarize historical and contemporary contributions to behavioral
neuroscience from various scientific disciplines.
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
Difficulty Level: Easy
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EOC Q1.7
Question: Over successive generations, moths develop spots that resemble eyes on their wings;
the spots scare off predators. This characteristic is a:
a. selective advantage.
b. genetic susceptibility.
c. general advantage
d. selective disadvantage.
Answer: A
Consider This: Moths with this adaptation would live to reproduce; LO 1.3: Describe the role of
natural selection in the evolution of behavioral traits.
Learning Objective: 1.3: Describe the role of natural selection in the evolution of behavioral
traits.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q1.8
Question: Praying mantises are typically green or brown in color to allow them to blend into
their surroundings. If a group of praying mantises were born a different color, they would be at a
disadvantage. This change, although not advantageous for the mantis, could happen naturally
through:
a. mutation.
b. gene splicing.
c. genetic alteration
d. bad luck.
Answer: A
Consider This: Natural changes in characteristics can happen at the level of the egg and sperm;
LO 1.3: Describe the role of natural selection in the evolution of behavioral traits.
Learning Objective: 1.3: Describe the role of natural selection in the evolution of behavioral
traits.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q1.09
Question: Mutations are:
a. either favorable or unfavorable immediately, resulting in automatic advantage or
disadvantage.
b. always favorable.
c. always unfavorable.
d. sometimes favorable or unfavorable immediately, ultimately not affecting the species as a
whole.
Answer: D
Consider This: Members of different species often have a tremendous amount of diversity – just
look at humans; LO 1.3: Describe the role of natural selection in the evolution of behavioral
traits.
Learning Objective: 1.3: Describe the role of natural selection in the evolution of behavioral
traits.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOC Q1.10
Question: The development of perception allowing for color differentiation was a functional
development; not all animals have this ability. What made it functional?
a. It allows for night vision.
b. It allows for differentiation of ripe fruits.
c. It enabled bipedalism.
d. It allows for contrast detection.
Answer: B
Consider This: Functionalism means that the development serves a purpose for humans. Which
would be a benefit to humans that depends on color vision?; LO 1.4: Identify factors involved in
the evolution of human brains.
Learning Objective: 1.4: Identify factors involved in the evolution of human brains.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q1.11
Question: Recent research has shown that intelligence is dictated by:
a. the number of neurons not dedicated to set functions, like walking.
b. the number of neurons dedicated to movement and other set functions.
c. a larger ratio of brain to body size.
d. a smaller ratio of brain to body size.
Answer: A
Consider This: More “free” neurons would allow for more complex behaviors; LO 1.4: Identify
factors involved in the evolution of human brains.
Learning Objective: 1.4: Identify factors involved in the evolution of human brains.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOC Q1.12
Question: Research with monkeys in the 1990s indicated that damaged nerves could be
regenerated over time. This finding supports the concept of brain:
a. flexibility.
b. rigidity.
c. plasticity.
d. stasis.
Answer: C
Consider This: The brain is capable of change over time; LO 1.5: Outline reasons for the use of
animals in behavioral neuroscience research.
Learning Objective: 1.5: Outline reasons for the use of animals in behavioral neuroscience
research.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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EOC Q1.13
Question: A friend of yours was asked to be a research participant for a study investigating the
effect of a pain reliever on muscle tears. In order to test the effectiveness of the drug, your friend
will need to engage in physical activity that results in small tears in the muscles of the forearm.
You caution that all studies involving human subjects must include:
a. freedom from risks.
b. monetary benefits for participants.
c. informed consent.
d. parental consent even if over the age of 18 years.
Answer: C
Consider This: What would need to be in place for your friend to fully understand what is being
asked of him or her?; LO 1.8: Identify mechanisms for oversight of human research.
Learning Objective: 1.8: Identify mechanisms for oversight of human research.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOC Q1.14
Question: In addition to the nervous system, behavioral neuroscientists are especially interested
in the _____ system.
a. digestive
b. circulatory
c. respiratory
d. endocrine
Answer: D
Consider This: Behavior is controlled not only by neurotransmitters, but also by hormones; LO
1.9: Identify careers in behavioral neuroscience.
Learning Objective: 1.9: Identify careers in behavioral neuroscience.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOC Q1.15
Question: All else being equal, which student is LEAST likely to master the material in this
course?
a. Deon, who teaches a friend the material
b. Kim, who takes organized notes as she reads the chapter
c. Carlito, who uses mnemonics
d. Dana, who highlights key information in the textbook
Answer: D
Consider This: Engaging with the material rather than passively reading will result in better
recall of information; LO 1.10: Describe effective learning strategies for studying behavioral
neuroscience.
Learning Objective: 1.10: Describe effective learning strategies for studying behavioral
neuroscience.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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Topic Question Remember the Facts Understand the Apply What You
Type Concepts Know
Fill-In
Essay
Fill-In 110-117
Essay 130-131
Fill-In 122-129
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Multiple-Choice Questions
1. The primary symptom shown by Kathryn (the woman described in the chapter opening
vignette) was
a. severe nausea.
b. inability to sleep.
c. muscle weakness.
d. distortions of memory.
e. difficulty in recognizing human faces.
2. The official diagnosis that Kathryn (the woman described in the chapter opening vignette)
received was
a. lupus.
b. multiple sclerosis.
c. myasthenia gravis.
d. muscular dystrophy.
e. organic pathogenesis.
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3. _______ neurons gather information from the environment related to light, odors, and contact
of our skin with objects.
a. Sensory
b. Motor
c. Inter-
d. Relay inter-
e. Local inter-
a. Sensory
b. Motor
c. Inter-
d. Relay
e. Local
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a. Sensory
b. Motor
c. Relay interneurons
d. Projection neurons
e. Schwann cells
6. Rollo was considering an update to his wardrobe. As he felt the various fabrics in the suit
store, the clerk (who was well-versed in neuroscience) commented, “Ah, the cells registering the
feeling of those textures must be firing rapidly.” “Yes,” Rollo replied. “There’s heightened
activity in my __________ nervous system because of it.”
a. central
b. peripheral
c. autonomic
d. parasympathetic
e. sympathetic
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7. Trixie’s stomach begins to rumble, reminding her that she skipped breakfast this morning.
This hunger signal is sent to Trixie’s brain, which is part of her __________ nervous system.
a. peripheral
b. central
c. enteric
d. human
e. local circuit
8. The _______ system is that portion of the nervous system that lies outside of the brain and
spinal cord.
a. extraspinal
b. central nervous
c. enteric nervous
d. human nervous
e. peripheral nervous
a. soma.
b. axon.
c. axon terminals.
d. dendrites.
e. mitochondria.
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10. The portion of a neuron that carries information toward its cell body is called the
a. dendrite.
b. axon terminal.
c. presynaptic membrane.
d. soma.
e. glial membrane.
11. When an impulse enters a neuron, it is received by the _________ and passed to the next cell
via the ____________.
a. dendrite; axon
b. axon; dendrite
c. soma; axon
d. soma; dendrite
e. axon; soma
Topic: Neurons
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
Learning Objective: 2.2 Distinguish among the structures of a neuron.
Answer: A
APA Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in
psychology.
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12. When substances are transported from the terminal buttons at the end of an axon back to the
soma, this process is referred to as
13. When substances are transported from the soma to the terminal buttons at the end of an axon,
this process is referred to as
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14. In order to cross the synapse between two neurons, a substance called ___________ is
released from the first cell (presynapse) to activate or inhibit the second cell (postsynapse).
a. neurotransmitter
b. protein
c. kinesin
d. dynein
e. mitochondria
a. protein molecules.
b. vesicle remnants.
c. a double layer of lipid molecules.
d. cytoplasm.
e. a single layer of lipid molecules interlaced with a layer of protein molecules.
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a. glial cell.
b. dendrite.
c. axon terminal buttons.
d. dendritic apposition.
e. soma.
17. A key function of specialized lipid molecules located in the nerve cell is to
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18. Which pairing has a cell structure correctly matched with the function most closely
associated with that structure?
a. vesicles
b. ribosomes
c. genes
d. myelin
e. the nucleolus
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20. Which pairing represents a correct match between a neuronal organelle and its function?
21. Which pairing represents a correct match between a neuronal organelle and its function?
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22. The semiliquid substance that fills the space surrounded by the cell membrane of a neuron is
called
a. the cytoskeleton.
b. messenger ribonucleic acid.
c. cytoplasm.
d. .a dendritic spine
e. the myelin sheath.
23. The cell nucleus of a neuron contains __________, which are long strands of
deoxyribonucleic acid.
a. mitochondria
b. microtubules
c. chromosomes
d. cytoplasm
e. adenosine
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24. What is the correct sequence of structures and processes leading from gene activation to
protein synthesis?
a. Dendrograde transport involves moving substances from the dendrites to the soma.
b. Retrograde transport involves moving substances from the soma to the axon
terminals.
c. The kinesin molecule is involved in anterograde transport.
d. Retrograde transport is twice as fast as anterograde transport.
e. The dynein molecule is involved in anterograde transport.
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27. Movement of cargo from one end of an axon to the other involves _______ along the
_______.
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29. Neurons in the central nervous system are provided nutrients, oxygen, and physical support
by _______ cells.
a. Schwann
b. glial
c. microtubule
d. stem
e. Purkinje
a. Leydig cells
b. Astrocytes
c. Microglia
d. Oligodendrocytes
e. Microtubules
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31. ___________ are star-shaped glial cells that participate in phagocytosis and structurally
support neurons in the brain.
a. Microglia
b. Astrocytes
c. Master cells
d. Microtubules
e. Oligodendrocytes
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33. Neurons make up about __________ of the volume of the central nervous system.
a. three-quarters
b. half
c. one-quarter
d. one-third
e. one-tenth
34. The _______ are a kind of “neuron glue” that play a role in providing nourishment for
neurons.
a. phagocytes
b. Schwann cells
c. dendrocytes
d. astrocytes
e. microtubules
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35. A drug that specifically killed _______ cells would be expected to alter the physical and
nutritional support of brain cells.
a. phagocyte
b. Schwann
c. microglia
d. astrocyte
e. microtubule
37. The scar tissue generated in the brain by the natural action of _______ acts to impede the
regrowth of nerve cells.
a. astrocytes
b. microglia
c. Schwann cells
d. axon terminals
e. dendrites
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a. oligodendrocytes.
b. microglia.
c. astrocytes.
d. neurocytes.
e. the blood-brain barrier.
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40. _______ are support cells that serve as part of the immune system in the brain.
a. Schwann cells
b. Teracytes
c. Dendrocytes
d. Astrocytes
e. Microglia
a. Schwann cells provide myelin for cells in the peripheral nervous system.
b. Schwann cells are found within the brain.
c. Schwann cells are found within the central nervous system.
d. Schwann cells cluster in bundles of 25 or more to myelinate a dendrite.
e. Schwann cells remove the cellular debris left by dead neurons in brain.
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42. Regrowth of a damaged axon can occur more readily in the peripheral nervous system than in
the brain because
43. A medical scan shows that a particular substance has spread throughout a patient’s body via
the bloodstream but has not entered the patient’s brain. This finding demonstrates the existence
of
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45. Activation of cells within the _______ by a poison in the blood would be predicted to
produce _______.
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47. Xiao Ling takes a big gulp of her coffee and the heat sears her mouth. Although the pain is so
great that her reflex is to spit out the coffee, she does not do so. The reflex to spit out the coffee
is inhibited at the
a. sensory neuron.
b. interneuron.
c. motor neuron.
d. glial cell.
e. astrocyte.
48. Arne was studying for his neuroscience exam when he felt a tickle on his arm. Seeing a large
spider creeping toward his elbow, Arne jerked his arm automatically. What might be the neural
path for this action?
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50. Very small sensors called __________ measure the changes in electrical activity that take
place across an axon membrane.
a. microelectrodes
b. voltmeters
c. micrometers
d. voltametric sensors
e. microdiodes
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a. has the same ionic concentrations as the environment outside the neuron.
b. is at the same voltage potential as the environment outside the neuron.
c. has a higher sodium concentration than the environment outside the neuron.
d. is negatively charged relative to the environment outside the neuron.
e. has a lower potassium concentration than the environment outside the neuron.
52. Any difference in electrical charge across the axon membrane is defined as the _______
potential.
a. membrane
b. local
c. glial
d. action
e. axon
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53. The _______ potential is defined as the difference in electrical charge between the inside and
the outside of an undisturbed axon membrane.
a. resting
b. local
c. resting
d. action
e. axon
54. An electrical change in the inside of an axon from -70 mV to -90 mV would be classified as
a. depolarization.
b. threshold potential.
c. action potential.
d. hyperpolarization.
e. excitatory local potential.
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55. When the inside of an axon becomes more positive relative to the environment outside the
neuron, __________ has taken place.
a. depolarization
b. a resting potential
c. an action potential
d. hyperpolarization
e. an inhibitory local potential
56. If the inner voltage of a neuron is -70 mV and application of stimulation results in a -95 mV
charge, the stimulation had a ____________ effect. On the other hand, a resultant charge of +40
mV would be a ___________ effect.
a. hyperpolarizing; depolarizing
b. depolarizing; hyperpolarizing
c. repolarizing; depolarizing
d. repolarizing; hyperpolarizing
e. hyperpolarizing; repolarizing
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57. A(n) _______ will be recorded from a nerve cell whose membrane potential rises above the
threshold of excitation.
a. action potential
b. local potential
c. downward shift of the threshold of excitation
d. upward shift of the membrane threshold
e. long-term change in the membrane potential
58. The _______ is the voltage level at which an action potential is triggered in a patch of axon
membrane.
a. resting potential
b. hyperpolarization level
c. threshold of excitation
d. rate level
e. refractory period
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59. A cup of sugar is poured into a gallon of hot water and allowed to sit undisturbed. After a
few days, we would expect that the process of _______ will ensure that the sugar molecules are
evenly distributed throughout the water.
a. retrograde transport
b. diffusion
c. anterograde transport
d. electrostatic pressure
e. salinity
60. A substance that forms oppositely charged particles when dissolved in water is known as a(n)
a. ion.
b. molecule.
c. electrolyte.
d. cation.
e. anion.
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61. _______ are charged particles formed when an electrolyte dissolves in water.
a. Ions
b. Solvents
c. Neurotransmitters
d. Electrons
e. Solutes
a. another cation.
b. an anion.
c. a sodium ion.
d. a potassium ion.
e. a calcium ion.
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a. Transmitters
b. Solvents
c. Electrolytes
d. Cations
e. Anions
64. The process by which similarly charged particles repel each other and are thus moved within
a medium is called
a. diffusion.
b. carrier-mediated transport.
c. refraction.
d. electrostatic pressure.
e. diffraction.
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65. Which statement is true regarding ion distribution across the axon membrane?
66. Movement of _______ ions _______ the axon would be induced by the force of diffusion.
a. chloride; out of
b. sodium; into
c. potassium; into
d. organic; into
e. sodium; out of
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69. The Na+/K+ pump removes ______ Na+ ions and adds _______ K+ ions.
a. 3; 2
b. 2; 3
c. 3; 4
d. 2; 4
e. 4; 3
70. When students enter a classroom, they tend to spread themselves out (provided there are
enough desks to do so). In biological terms, this effect would be similar to
a. electrostatic pressure.
b. ionic movement.
c. diffusion.
d. derealization.
e. ionic static.
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72. The specialized protein molecules located in an axon membrane that can open or close are
known as
a. receptors.
b. voltage transporters.
c. autoreceptors.
d. ion channels.
e. sodium-potassium transporters.
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a. More sodium channels are opened at a lower voltage level than are potassium
channels.
b. The action potential requires 10 msec for completion.
c. The action potential requires the activity of the sodium-potassium transporters during
the rising phase.
d. More potassium channels are opened at a lower voltage than are sodium channels.
e. Diffusion is due to a prolonged change in sodium conductance.
74. Sodium ions will be pushed into a resting neuron by the forces of __________ and
__________.
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75. Which ion channel action is correctly matched with its resulting change in membrane
potential?
76. Which of the following events restores the membrane potential from the peak of the action
potential back to the resting level?
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a. The action potential will diminish to near 0 mV when transmitted down a long axon.
b. The action potential fires at the same rate regardless of the inputs to the neuron.
c. The action potential is conducted more rapidly down the axon as it reaches the axon
terminal.
d. The action potential is produced whenever the membrane potential reaches the
threshold of excitation.
e. The action potential travels only in one direction.
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79. The nervous system accounts for variation in the intensity of incoming sensory stimulation
by means of variations in the _______ of a neuron.
a. repolarization rate
b. resting potential
c. speed of conduction of action potentials
d. total amplitude of the action potential
e. firing rate
80. If a bowling ball fell on your foot, the action potentials triggered by that event would differ
from a feather falling on your foot. The action potentials for the bowling ball would be
81. In a myelinated axon, ions can enter and leave the axonal membrane only at
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a. More sodium ions have to be pumped out of the cell after an action potential.
b. Myelin allows the nerve cell to recycle neurotransmitter molecules.
c. Less neurotransmitter is required to send a message across the synapse.
d. Myelin speeds up the velocity at which an axon can conduct an action potential.
e. Myelin requires that nerve cell axons be larger in order to conduct a signal rapidly.
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85. The junction between the terminal button at the end of an axonal branch of one neuron and
the membrane of another neuron is called the
a. synapse.
b. conduction area.
c. vesicle.
d. ligand.
e. release zone.
86. Small synaptic vesicles contain ___________, whereas large synaptic vesicles contain
__________.
a. neurotransmitters; peptides
b. peptides; neurotransmitters
c. proteins; peptides
d. peptides; proteins
e. neurotransmitters; proteins
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89. The largest number of small vesicles would be expected to be located within the _______ of
a neuron.
a. dendritic spines
b. soma
c. postsynaptic membrane
d. release zone
e. axon hillock
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90. __________ fill synaptic vesicles with neurotransmitter, whereas __________ contribute to
the release of neurotransmitters.
a. neuron soma.
b. dendrites.
c. glial cells.
d. neuron lysosomes.
e. astrocytes.
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a. the soma.
b. terminal buttons.
c. intracellular fluid.
d. synaptic clefts.
e. extracellular fluid.
93. Placing neurons and their synaptic contacts into a medium containing no calcium ions would
be expected to
a. decrease the time required to move sodium ions out of the axon terminal.
b. enhance the voltage changes associated with the action potential.
c. increase the number of neurotransmitter molecules released from the axon terminal.
d. prolong the refractory period of the action potential.
e. prevent the release of neurotransmitter into the synapse.
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97. After a vesicle fuses with the presynaptic membrane and releases its contents into the
synaptic cleft, the membrane is
a. destroyed by astrocytes.
b. incorporated into the postsynaptic membrane.
c. recycled to form new vesicles.
d. degraded and the debris removed from the axon terminal.
e. incorporated into the mitochondria.
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98. Which pair correctly matches a receptor type with the effect it produces?
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100. With regard to the release of neurotransmitters in the brain, kiss and run refers to a situation
in which the vesicle
a. releases most of its contents into the cleft and then remains attached to the
presynaptic membrane.
b. closes before releasing any molecules and then moves to the cell interior.
c. remains open until the next action potential is triggered.
d. releases most of its contents into the cleft, after which it breaks away from the
presynaptic membrane and is refilled.
e. merges completely with the presynaptic membrane.
101. Which receptor type is correctly paired with the effect it produces?
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102. An influx of ____ or _____ ions across a cell membrane results in EPSPs.
a. Na+; Ca2+
b. Cl-; Na+
c. Ca2+; Cl-
d. Cl-; K+
e. A-; K+
103. Inhibiting __________ neurons makes a behavior more likely to occur, whereas
__________ inhibitory neurons makes a behavior less likely to occur.
a. excitatory; inhibiting
b. sodium; magnesium
c. inhibitory; exciting
d. inhibitory; inhibiting
e. excitatory; exciting
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a. ionotropic inhibitors.
b. presynaptic membrane.
c. endoplasmic reticulum.
d. postsynaptic membrane.
e. mitochondria.
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107. When the activity of an axoaxonic synapse increases the release of a neurotransmitter, the
process is called
a. presynaptic facilitation.
b. postsynaptic inhibition.
c. gap release.
d. postsynaptic facilitation.
e. presynaptic inhibition.
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109. Most _______ are secreted into the extracellular fluid from endocrine glands or tissues.
a. neurotransmitters
b. neuropeptides
c. modulators
d. hormones
e. pheromones
Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
111. The central nervous system consists of the ________ and the ________.
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112. When substances are transported from the terminal buttons at the end of an axon back to the
soma, this process is referred to as ____________.
114. ________ are bead-like structures that extract energy from nutrients.
115. The myelin sheath surrounding axons in the central nervous system is formed by ________.
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116. Some chemicals are excluded from entering the brain due to selective permeability of the
________ barrier.
117. The _____________ is a part of the brain that controls vomiting. The blood–brain barrier is
much weaker there, permitting neurons in this region to detect the presence of toxic substances in
the blood.
118. In a neuron at rest, the interior of the cell is more ________ charged than is the exterior of
the cell.
119. The process of ________ ensures that ions will distribute themselves evenly through a
solvent.
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120. The pressure on a cation to enter into the cell, where there is a negative charge, is referred to
as __________________.
121. In a myelinated axon, ions enter or leave the axon membrane only at the ________.
122. Synaptic vesicles are found in the greatest numbers around the part of a presynaptic
membrane that faces __________.
123. ____________ fill vesicles with neurotransmitter, and ______________ are involved in the
release of neurotransmitters and recycling of the vesicles.
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124. The ion ________ is required for the release of neurotransmitter from the presynaptic
terminal.
125. ________ receptors involve the direct opening of an ion channel, whereas __________
receptors involve the action of second-messenger molecules inside the postsynaptic cell.
126. An action potential either occurs or it does not. This is known as __________.
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128. ________ are metabotropic receptors located in the presynaptic membrane that provide
negative feedback onto neurotransmitter release.
129. ______________ refers to the process of EPSPs and IPSPs interacting to have either an end
result of excitation or inhibition.
Essay Questions
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131. Compare the general functions of the three types of glial cell in the brain.
132. Explain how changes in ion movements can result in an action potential.
133. What property of the neuron membrane produces the all-or-none law?
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135. Explain how the presence of myelin on an axon speeds up conduction velocity.
137. What would you expect to happen if the enzyme AChE were to be disabled in your body?
Answer: The acetylcholine (Ach) activity in your body would greatly increase, because AChE
normally serves to degrade ACh. Later, this would lead to overstimulation of cholinergic
receptors.
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Revel Quizzes
The following questions appear at the end of each module and at the end of the chapter in Revel
for Physiology of Behavior, 13th Edition.
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EOM Q2.1.2
Question: A neuron first receives a message in a(n) _______. The message is then passed along
a thin, long portion of the cell called the _____.
a. dendrite; axon
b. soma; axon
c. axon; dendrite
d. dendrite; soma
Answer: A
Consider This: Each part of a neuron has a specific function, with the “trees” generally receiving
information; LO 2.2: Distinguish among the structures of a neuron.
Learning Objective: 2.2: Distinguish among the structures of a neuron.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q2.1.3
Question: ____________ are supporting cells that can provide myelination to multiple axons at
once.
a. Microglia
b. Astrocytes
c. Oligodendrocytes
d. Schwann cells
Answer: C
Consider This: Myelination to multiple axons only occurs in the central nervous system; LO 2.3:
Compare supporting cells in the central and peripheral nervous systems.
Learning Objective: 2.3: Compare supporting cells in the central and peripheral nervous systems.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q2.1.4
Question: ___________ are glial cells that participate in phagocytosis, provide lactate for cells,
and structurally support neurons in the brain.
a. Microglia
b. Astrocytes
c. Oligodendrocytes
d. Schwann cells
Answer: B
Consider This: The name of the correct type of glial cell denotes its shape; LO 2.3: Compare
supporting cells in the central and peripheral nervous systems.
Learning Objective: 2.3: Compare supporting cells in the central and peripheral nervous systems.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOM Q2.1.5
Question: The purpose of the blood-brain barrier is to:
a. protect the brain from accidental impacts.
b. block the entrance of some substances into the brain.
c. block neurotransmitters from being released.
d. provide a cushion for the brain.
Answer: B
Consider This: It may be harmful if every substance introduced into our bloodstream could enter
the brain; LO 2.4: Assess the function of the blood-brain barrier.
Learning Objective: 2.4: Assess the function of the blood-brain barrier.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q2.2.2
Question: The resting membrane potential is:
a. -70 mV.
b. -80 mV.
c. 10 mV.
d. 55 mV.
Answer: A
Consider This: The inside of the cell is negatively charged; LO 2.6: Describe membrane
potential, resting potential, hyperpolarization, depolarization, and the action potential.
Learning Objective: 2.6: Describe membrane potential, resting potential, hyperpolarization,
depolarization, and the action potential.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOM Q2.2.3
Question: When students enter a classroom, they tend to spread themselves out, provided that
there are enough desks to do so. In biological terms, this effect would be called:
a. electrostatic pressure.
b. ionic movement.
c. diffusion.
d. antisocialism.
Answer: C
Consider This: Other words that mean the same thing include disperse, spread out, or
disseminate; LO 2.7: Summarize how diffusion, electrostatic pressure, and the sodium-potassium
pump help establish membrane potential.
Learning Objective: 2.7: Summarize how diffusion, electrostatic pressure, and the sodium-
potassium pump help establish membrane potential.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM Q2.2.4
Question: For Na+ ions, _______________ push(es) them into a cell.
a. electrostatic pressure
b. diffusion
c. neither electrostatic pressure nor diffusion
d. both electrostatic pressure and diffusion
Answer: D
Consider This: There is tremendous pressure on Na+ to enter the cell; LO 2.7: Summarize how
diffusion, electrostatic pressure, and the sodium-potassium pump help establish membrane
potential.
Learning Objective: 2.7: Summarize how diffusion, electrostatic pressure, and the sodium-
potassium pump help establish membrane potential.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q2.2.5
Question: Which statement is true with respect to saltatory conduction?
a. The word “saltatory” means “to crawl.”
b. Saltatory conduction occurs only along myelinated axons.
c. Saltatory conduction does not occur at the nodes of Ranvier.
d. Saltatory conduction slows down action potentials.
Answer: B
Consider This: Saltatory conduction is advantageous; LO 2.9 Describe conduction of the action
potential.
Learning Objective: 2.9: Describe conduction of the action potential.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM Q2.3.2
Question: If a cell fires at an extremely high rate, the cell will release neurotransmitter from the:
a. release-ready, recycling pool, and reserve pool vesicles.
b. release-ready vesicles only.
c. recycling pool vesicles only.
d. reserve pool vesicles only.
Answer: A
Consider This: Release-ready and recycling pool vesicles make up about 11-16% of the total
number of vesicles available; LO 2.11: Describe the process of neurotransmitter release.
Learning Objective: 2.11: Describe the process of neurotransmitter release.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Skill Level: Analyze It
EOM Q2.3.3
Question: In comparison to ionotropic receptors, metabotropic receptors:
a. have effects that begin more quickly.
b. have effects that last longer.
c. have effects that last for a briefer duration.
d. act directly on ion channels.
Answer: B
Consider This: Metabotropic receptors have to act via a G protein; LO 2.12: Contrast ionotropic
and metabotropic receptors.
Learning Objective: 2.12: Contrast ionotropic and metabotropic receptors.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Skill Level: Analyze It
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EOM Q2.3.4
Question: Influx of ____ or _____ ions result in EPSPs.
a. Na+; Ca2+
b. Cl-; Na+
c. Ca2+; Cl-
d. Ca+; K+
Answer: A
Consider This: Cations result in excitatory effects; LO 2.13: Compare the functions of EPSPs
and IPSPs in postsynaptic cells.
Learning Objective: 2.13: Compare EPSPs and IPSPs in postsynaptic cells.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q2.3.5
Question: After release of the neurotransmitter serotonin, the neurotransmitter is transported
back into the cell to be reused. This process is called:
a. degradation.
b. reuptake.
c. exocytosis.
d. release-ready.
Answer: B
Consider This: This method largely results in the neurotransmitter being recycled, not destroyed;
LO 2.15: Explain how postsynaptic potentials are terminated.
Learning Objective: 2.15: Explain how postsynaptic potentials are terminated.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
Assignment: Chapter Quiz: Structure and Functions of Cells of the Nervous System
EOC Q2.1
Question: Sally’s stomach begins to rumble, reminding her that she skipped breakfast this
morning. This hunger signal is sent to the brain, which is part of the __________ nervous
system.
a. peripheral
b. central
c. autonomic
d. sympathetic
Answer: B
Consider This: The brain is encased in bone; LO 2.1: Contrast features of the central and
peripheral nervous systems.
Learning Objective: 2.1: Contrast features of the central and peripheral nervous systems.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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EOC Q2.2
Question: When substances are transported from the terminal buttons at the end of the axon
back to the soma, this process is called _____ axoplasmic transport.
a. retrograde
b. systemic
c. anterograde
d. peripheral
Answer: A
Consider This: The substance would be returning to the source, or moving backwards; LO 2.2:
Distinguish among the structures of a neuron.
Learning Objective: 2.2: Distinguish among the structures of a neuron.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q2.3
Question: In order to cross the synapse between two cells, a substance called a ___________ is
released from the presynaptic cell to activate or inhibit the postsynaptic cell.
a. neurotransmitter
b. protein
c. kinesin
d. dynein
Answer: A
Consider This: Some of these substances include serotonin or dopamine; LO 2.2: Distinguish
among the structures of a neuron.
Learning Objective: 2.2: Distinguish among the structures of a neuron.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q2.4
Question: Experiences such as feeling hungry or seeing color in the environment are made
possible by the:
a. sensory neurons.
b. interneurons.
c. motor neurons.
d. glial cells.
Answer: A
Consider This: These cells would also be responsible for tactile experiences, smells, or tastes;
LO 2.1: Contrast features of the central and peripheral nervous systems.
Learning Objective: 2.1: Contrast features of the central and peripheral nervous systems
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understanding the Concepts
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EOC Q2.5
Question: A scan shows that a particular substance has spread throughout the body via the
bloodstream but has not entered the brain. This finding demonstrates the existence of:
a. the blood-brain barrier.
b. the doctrine of specific nerve energies.
c. blood efficacy.
d. medicine effects.
Answer: A
Consider This: Certain substances are unable to enter into the brain due to their size, lipid
insolubility, or charge; LO 2.4: Assess the function of the blood-brain barrier.
Learning Objective: 2.4: Assess the function of the blood-brain barrier.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q2.6
Question: Susie takes a huge drink of her coffee, assuming that the temperature is tolerable, and
the heat sears her mouth. Although the pain is so great that her reflex is to spit out the coffee, she
does not do so. The reflex to spit out the coffee is inhibited at the:
a. sensory neuron.
b. interneuron.
c. motor neuron.
d. glial cell.
Answer: C
Consider This: Inhibition of the reaction would not result in Susie not feeling the coffee burn;
LO 2.5: Explain the process of neural communication in a reflex.
Learning Objective: 2.5: Explain the process of neural communication in a reflex.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOC Q2.7
Question: If the inner voltage of a cell is -70 mV and application of stimulation results in a -95
mV charge, the stimulation had a ____________ effect. On the other hand, a resultant charge of
+40 mV would reflect a ___________ effect.
a. hyperpolarizing; depolarizing
b. depolarizing; hyperpolarizing
c. repolarizing; depolarizing
d. repolarizing; hyperpolarizing
Answer: A
Consider This: “Hyper-” refers to becoming more of that characteristic, whereas “de-” means to
move toward the opposite of that characteristic; LO 2.6: Describe membrane potential, resting
potential, hyperpolarization, depolarization, and the action potential.
Learning Objective: 2.6: Describe membrane potential, resting potential, hyperpolarization,
depolarization, and the action potential.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
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EOC Q2.8
Question: A cation would be attracted to:
a. another cation.
b. an anion.
c. a sodium ion.
d. a potassium ion.
Answer: B
Consider This: The attraction principles of ions are similar to those of magnets; LO 2.7:
Summarize how diffusion, electrostatic pressure, and the sodium–potassium pump help establish
membrane potential.
Learning Objective: 2.7: Summarize how diffusion, electrostatic pressure, and the sodium–
potassium pump help establish membrane potential.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q2.9
Question: The Na+/K+ pump removes ______ Na+ ions and adds _______ K+ ions.
a. 3; 2
b. 2; 3
c. 3; 4
d. 2; 4
Answer: A
Consider This: It is important to remove more Na+ because of its possible cell toxicity in high
concentrations; LO 2.7: Summarize how diffusion, electrostatic pressure, and the sodium–
potassium pump help establish membrane potential.
Learning Objective: 2.7: Summarize how diffusion, electrostatic pressure, and the sodium–
potassium pump help establish membrane potential.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q2.10
Question: If a bowling ball fell on your foot, the action potentials would differ from a feather
falling on your foot. The action potentials for the bowling ball would be:
a. larger in size and faster in occurrence.
b. the same size as for the feather, but they would be slower in occurrence.
c. the same size as for the feather, but they would be faster in occurrence.
d. larger in size and slower in occurrence.
Answer: C
Consider This: Action potentials always involve the same process of ionic movements regardless
of the experienced sensation; LO 2.9: Describe conduction of the action potential.
Learning Objective: 2.9: Describe conduction of the action potential.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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EOC Q2.11
Question: Which choice correctly orders the three pools of synaptic vesicles, from MOST
common to LEAST common?
a. recycling, reserve, release-ready
b. release-ready, recycling, reserve
c. reserve, recycling, release-ready
d. release-ready, reserve, recycling
Answer: C
Consider This: The least common pool uses a kiss and run process; LO 2.11: Describe the
process of neurotransmitter release.
Learning Objective: 2.11: Describe the process of neurotransmitter release.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q2.12
Question: With respect to the four main types of neurotransmitter-dependent ion channels in the
postsynaptic membrane, _____ channels are to EPSPs as ______ channels are to IPSPs.
a. sodium; calcium
b. calcium; sodium
c. sodium; potassium
d. potassium; sodium
Answer: C
Consider This: Depolarization occurs when sodium channels open. LO 2.13: Compare EPSPs
and IPSPs in postsynaptic cells.
Learning Objective: 2.13: Compare EPSPs and IPSPs in postsynaptic cells.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Skill Level: Analyze It
EOC Q2.13
Question: Autoreceptors are located on the:
a. postsynaptic cell
b. golgi apparatus
c. endoplasmic reticulum
d. presynaptic cell
Answer: D
Consider This: Autoreceptors are responsible for monitoring the level of neurotransmitter in the
cleft in order to upregulate or downregulate production; LO 2.16: Distinguish autoreceptors from
postsynaptic receptors.
Learning Objective: 2.16: Distinguish autoreceptors from postsynaptic receptors.
Difficulty Leve: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOC Q2.14
Question: ______________ is the process whereby EPSPs and IPSPs interact to yield a net
result of either excitation or inhibition.
a. Immigration
b. Innervation
c. Importation
d. Integration
Answer: D
Consider This: The correct term means to combine together; LO 2.14: Summarize neural
integration of EPSPs and IPSPs.
Learning Objective: 2.14: Summarize neural integration of EPSPs and IPSPs.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q2.15
Question: Hormones and neuromodulators differ from neurotransmitters in that:
a. they are chemicals and neurotransmitters are not.
b. they disperse less widely than neurotransmitters.
c. they disperse more widely than neurotransmitters.
d. they are fast acting compared to neurotransmitters.
Answer: C
Consider This: Hormones contribute to lasting and slow changes in the body; LO 2.18: Describe
examples of nonsynaptic communication.
Learning Objective: 2.18: Describe examples of nonsynaptic communication.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
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Introduction Multiple 1
Choice
Fill-In
Essay
Structure Multiple 32-45, 47, 49-54, 56, 46, 55, 57, 58, 62, 63, 48, 60, 65-67, 69, 76,
and Choice 59, 61, 64, 70, 71, 73, 68, 72, 74, 77, 78, 80, 79, 83, 88, 95
Function of 75, 81, 86, 90, 91, 94 82, 84, 85, 87, 89, 92,
the Central 93
Nervous
System Fill-In 116-124
(CNS)
Essay 132, 134-138 133
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Multiple-Choice Questions
1. In the opening vignette, Ryan undergoes neurosurgery to remove a portion of his brain in
order to treat his worsening
a. tremors.
b. memory loss.
c. seizures.
d. blackouts.
e. vertigo.
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a. rostral; caudal
b. caudal; rostral
c. dorsal; ventral
d. ventral; dorsal
e. medial; lateral
a. ventral
b. dorsal
c. anterior
d. lateral
e. posterior
7. The term _______ refers to anatomical structures that are found on the same side of the body.
a. contralateral
b. contramedial
c. ipsilateral
d. bilateral
e. parasagittal
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a. superior
b. lateral
c. medial
d. contralateral
e. inferior
9. The right half of a human’s brain controls the left half of the body. In order words, motor
control is
a. contralateral.
b. transverse.
c. ipsilateral.
d. bilateral.
e. parasagittal.
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10. A brain region that is anterior and dorsal to the thalamus could also be described as _______
and _______ to the thalamus.
a. caudal; inferior
b. lateral; medial
c. ipsilateral; contralateral
d. rostral; superior
e. caudal; superior
11. Ingo got a summer job working in a neuroanatomy laboratory. “I want you first to divide this
brain into front and back halves,” his supervisor told him, “and then create frontal sections of the
back half.” “Right on,” Ingo replied, as he began to correctly make __________ slices to the
brain.
a. coronal
b. sagittal
c. rostral
d. ventral
e. midsagittal
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12. Cross sections that resemble slices of bread in a loaf and are perpendicular to the neuraxis are
produced by a _______ section of the human brain.
a. transverse
b. horizontal
c. sagittal
d. midsagittal
e. parasagittal
13. In which view of the brain would one be able to note the presence of a specific structure in
both hemispheres?
a. cross-medial
b. frontal
c. sagittal
d. parasagittal
e. ipsilateral
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14. A _______ section is made through the human brain and is parallel to the ground, and a
_______ section through the spinal cord is parallel to the ground.
a. transverse; horizontal
b. horizontal; transverse
c. sagittal; midsagittal
d. frontal; coronal
e. parasagittal; midsagittal
15. A neuroscientist cuts a brain in left and right halves, along the division between the
hemispheres. This procedure is referred to as a _____________ cut.
a. parasagittal
b. horizontal
c. midsagittal
d. frontal
e. transverse
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16. The order of the meningeal layers from the surface of the brain outward is
17. Outside of the central nervous system, the __________ form a fused sheath that covers the
spinal and cranial nerves.
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18. Compared to the others, the ___________ layer of the meninges is the thickest and toughest.
a. dura mater
b. pia mater
c. dorsa mater
d. subarachnoid membrane
e. midsagittal sinus
19. The _______ can be found between the pia mater and the arachnoid membrane in the central
nervous system.
a. dura mater
b. cerebral aqueduct
c. lateral ventricles
d. subarachnoid space
e. midsagittal sinus
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a. dura mater
b. pia mater
c. dorsa mater
d. arachnoid membrane
e. midsagittal sinus
a. coronal-sagittal-frontal
b. Council on Standardizing Facilities
c. cerebrospinal fluid
d. “close subspaces first”
e. corrosion/sepsis/fungus
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22. The brain floats within _______ fluid, which is contained within the
23. The four hollow and interconnected spaces within the brain form the
a. choroid plexi.
b. supra-arachnoid spaces.
c. ventricles.
d. meninges.
e. spinal aqueducts.
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a. choroid plexus.
b. subarachnoid villi.
c. neurons of the hypothalamus.
d. meninges.
e. spinal aqueducts.
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26. Cerebrospinal fluid flows from the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle via the
a. choroid plexi.
b. subarachnoid spaces.
c. massa intermedia.
d. arachnoid granulations.
e. cerebral aqueduct.
27. Cerebrospinal fluid is reabsorbed into the blood supply by means of the
a. arachnoid granulations.
b. choroid plexus.
c. foramen of Magendie.
d. nodes of Ranvier.
e. dura mater.
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29. Cerebrospinal fluid is produced within the ____________ and reabsorbed into the blood by
the
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30. Interruption of the flow of cerebrospinal fluid through the brain ventricles results in
a. anencephalus.
b. ischemic stroke.
c. Parkinson’s disease.
d. myasthenia gravis.
e. hydrocephalus.
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32. What are the major anatomical divisions of the human brain?
33. The human forebrain is divided into the __________ and the __________.
a. telencephalon; diencephalon
b. midbrain; hindbrain
c. mesencephalon; metencephalon
d. lateral forebrain; medial forebrain
e. metencephalon; myelencephalon
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34. The human hindbrain is divided into the __________ and the __________.
a. mesencephalon; diencephalon
b. telencephalon; metencephalon
c. metencephalon; myelencephalon
d. mesencephalon; metencephalon
e. telencephalon; diencephalon
35. The human forebrain is located near the __________ and __________ ventricles.
a. third; fourth
b. lateral; third
c. first; third
d. first; fourth
e. lateral; fourth
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36. Which major anatomical division of the human brain is associated with the cerebral
aqueduct?
a. telencephalon
b. forebrain
c. hindbrain
d. midbrain
e. myelencephalon
37. Which major anatomical division of the human brain is associated with the fourth ventricle?
a. midbrain
b. diencephalon
c. hindbrain
d. telencephalon
e. forebrain
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38. Which pair correctly matches an anatomical brain subdivision with a principal structure
contained in it?
a. medulla oblongata
b. limbic system
c. thalamus
d. hypothalamus
e. tegmentum
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a. pons
b. basal ganglia
c. cerebellum
d. lateral ventricle
e. tectum
a. hypothalamus
b. cerebral cortex
c. pons
d. cerebellum
e. thalamus
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a. forebrain.
b. myelencephalon.
c. diencephalon.
d. midbrain.
e. metencephalon.
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45. The majority of the area of the cerebral hemispheres is found in the
a. diencephalon.
b. hindbrain.
c. mesencephalon.
d. midbrain.
e. telencephalon.
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46. The net effect of having fissures, sulci, and gyri in the human cerebral cortex is that
47. The convolutions found in the human brain __________ the area of the cerebral cortex.
a. halve
b. triple
c. reduce
d. quadruple
e. double
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48. What benefit results from having many convolutions in the cerebral cortex?
a. 3 mm
b. 6 mm
c. 9 mm
d. 1 in
e. 3 in
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50. What is the approximate total surface area of the human cerebral cortex?
a. 7.5 ft2
b. 5.3 ft2
c. 4.0 ft2
d. 3.8 ft2
e. 2.5 ft2
51. Gray matter in the human brain appears that way because of __________, whereas white
matter in the human brain appears that way because of __________.
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52. A _______ is a large groove found in the surface of the human cortex.
a. fissure
b. gyrus
c. cerebral aqueduct
d. ventricle
e. sulcus
53. A _______ refers to a bulge of tissue located between adjacent grooves in the surface of the
human cortex.
a. fissure
b. gyrus
c. foramen
d. ventricle
e. sulcus
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54. A _______ refers to a small groove on the surface of the human cortex.
a. fissure
b. gyrus
c. foramen
d. ventricle
e. sulcus
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a. spinal cord
b. lateral fissure
c. limbic system
d. dura mater
e. parietal cortex
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58. Which pair correctly matches a brain region with its associated function?
59. The _______ lobe of the cortex contains the primary auditory cortex.
a. occipital
b. frontal
c. temporal
d. insular
e. parietal
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60. Which outcome would be expected following damage to the cortex that lies just in front of
the central sulcus?
a. intense hypersexuality
b. visual hallucinations
c. inability to discriminate tones as low intensities
d. difficulty in reading and writing
e. difficulty in controlling the muscles of the body
a. telencephalon.
b. diencephalon.
c. metencephalon.
d. mesencephalon.
e. myelencephalon.
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62. The central sulcus is a kind of dividing line between the _________ and the __________
portions of the human brain.
a. dorsal; caudal
b. ventral; rostral
c. transverse; sagittal
d. rostral; caudal
e. sagittal; coronal
63. In which sensory system does sensory information from the left side of the body travel to the
left hemisphere?
a. vision
b. audition
c. pain
d. olfaction
e. somatosensation
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64. The _______ region of cortex lies buried within a fissure between the _______ and the
_______ lobes.
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65. Which outcome would be expected as a result of damage to the somatosensory association
cortex?
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67. The most likely consequence of damage positioned at the junction of the visual, auditory, and
somatosensory association cortexes would be
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69. Damage to the left parietal lobe could produce a persistent difficulty in
70. The planning and execution of movements is a function performed by the association cortex
within the _______ cortical lobe.
a. occipital
b. frontal
c. parietal
d. insular
e. temporal
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72. Which statement regarding the functions performed by the left and right hemispheres is
correct?
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73. The association regions of the left and right hemispheres are interconnected via axons that
travel within the
a. stria terminalis.
b. cingulate projections.
c. corpus callosum.
d. medial commissure.
e. fornix.
74. Which statement most accurately describes the general functions performed by the left and
right hemispheres?
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a. “border.”
b. “breast-shaped.”
c. “sea horse.”
d. “almond.”
e. “inner chamber.”
a. caudal
b. dorsal
c. posterior
d. inferior
e. rostral
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a. hippocampus
b. cerebellum
c. caudate nucleus
d. amygdala
e. hypothalamus
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81. Which pair correctly matches a thalamic nucleus with its projection to the cortex?
a. Pain reactivity
b. Drug addiction
c. Eating
d. Memory
e. Language
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83. Half of the axons in the optic nerve (coming from the eyes) cross from one side of the brain
to the other at the
a. hypothalamus.
b. optic chasm.
c. thalamus.
d. posterior pituitary gland.
e. pituitary stalk.
84. The hypothalamus produces hormones that control the majority of the
a. auditory system.
b. urinary tract.
c. hindbrain.
d. endocrine system.
e. visual system.
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85. Most of the hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary gland control
86. The subdivision of the brain that surrounds the cerebral aqueduct is the
a. mesencephalon.
b. telencephalon.
c. myelencephalon.
d. diencephalon.
e. metencephalon.
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89. After a motor vehicle accident, Sara has difficulty walking. She feels unbalanced and her
movements are poorly coordinated. She likely sustained damage to the
a. pons.
b. hypothalamus.
c. reticular formation.
d. medulla oblongata.
e. cerebellum.
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92. The _______ is the most caudal portion of the brain stem.
a. spinal cord
b. pons
c. cerebellum
d. medulla oblongata
e. metencephalon
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a. superior colliculi.
b. cerebellum.
c. reticular formation.
d. medulla oblongata.
e. caudate nucleus.
95. An anesthetic drug injected adjacent to the cauda equina would be expected to deaden pain
sensations in the
a. tongue.
b. fingers.
c. pelvic region.
d. forehead.
e. neck and upper chest.
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a. olfaction.
b. eye movements.
c. hearing and balance.
d. tongue movements.
e. facial muscles.
97. The _______ system is the only sensory system for which some of the cell bodies of the
incoming axons are located inside the central nervous system.
a. visual
b. auditory
c. pain
d. kinesthestic
e. taste
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a. The cell bodies of efferent axons lie in the spinal cord gray matter.
b. Incoming sensory signals arrive via the ventral roots of the spinal cord.
c. Outgoing motor signals travel via the dorsal roots of the spinal cord.
d. The cell bodies of efferent axons lie in the spinal cord white matter.
e. The cell bodies of outgoing motor neurons reside in the dorsal root ganglia.
a. Afferent
b. Efferent
c. Projection
d. Somatic
e. Callosal
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a. Afferent
b. Efferent
c. Projection
d. Somatic
e. Dorsal root
101. The _______ nerve is named for its wandering course in the thoracic and abdominal body
cavities.
a. trigeminal
b. facial
c. trochlear
d. vagus
e. hypoglossal
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102. The behavior of writing down notes during a class lecture is regulated by the
_____________ nervous system.
a. autonomic
b. sympathetic
c. parasympathetic
d. somatic
e. enteric
103. A key function of the autonomic nervous system includes the regulation of
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104. Salivation, secretion of digestive juices, and blood flow to the gastrointestinal tract are
governed by the ___________ nervous system.
a. autonomic
b. sympathetic
c. parasympathetic
d. somatic
e. enteric
105. The motor neurons of the sympathetic nervous system project from the _______ to the
_______.
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106. Axons that leave the spinal cord through the ventral route originate in
a. postganglionic neurons.
b. the dura mater.
c. the vagus nerve.
d. the red nucleus.
e. preganglionic neurons.
107. The key function(s) of the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system relate
to
Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
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109. The term _______ refers to structures that are found on the same side of the body.
110. In the _______ view of the brain, the brain is sliced like a vertical loaf of bread.
111. The _______ comprise three layers that encase the central nervous system.
112. The ____________ layer of the meninges is the thickest and is closest to the skull.
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113. In the _______ nervous system, the dura mater and pia mater fuse together to form a single
sheath.
115. Cerebrospinal fluid flows from the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle via the _______.
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118. The major anatomical divisions of the human brain are the forebrain, midbrain, and
__________.
119. The pituitary gland is attached to the base of the __________ by means of the pituitary
stalk.
120. A _______ refers to a bulge of tissue located between adjacent grooves on the
surface of the human cortex.
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122. Persons who have damage to their _______ association cortex would have difficulty in
recognizing objects by sight.
123. The _______ system contains the amygdala, hippocampus, and anterior thalamus.
124. The two halves of the cerebral cortex are connected by the _______.
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125. The ___________ nerves serve sensory and motor functions of eye muscles, the nose and
tongue, and muscles of chewing.
126. A fly is buzzing around Paco’s face. He swats at it. The message to move his hand was sent
from the brain via ___________ axons.
127. The _______ nervous system is responsible for coordinating a fight, flight, or freeze
response to a stressor.
128. The sympathetic division and the parasympathetic division are the two components of the
_____________.
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Essay Questions
129. Describe the three major planes used to section the human brain.
130. Describe two anatomical features that function to protect the brain from external injury.
131. Describe the production, circulation, and reabsorption of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
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132. Identify the four lobes of the cerebral cortex, and briefly describe the major functions
associated with each one.
134. Explain the distinction between the primary motor cortex, the sensory cortex, and the
association cortex.
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135. Describe the primary functions performed by the left and right hemispheres and give an
example of each function.
136. Describe the structures that comprise the limbic system and briefly discuss the functions of
this system.
137. Describe the structures that comprise the basal ganglia and explain the significance of this
system for motor function.
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139. Compare and contrast the anatomy and function of the sympathetic and parasympathetic
divisions of the autonomic nervous system (ANS).
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Revel Quizzes
The following questions appear at the end of each module and at the end of the chapter in Revel
for Physiology of Behavior, 13th Edition.
EOM Q3.1.2
Question: In anatomical terms, the parietal lobe is considered ____________ to the temporal
lobe.
a. caudal
b. posterior
c. ventral
d. dorsal
Answer: D
Consider This: The parietal lobe is located above the temporal lobe; LO 3.1: Apply anatomical
terms to the nervous system.
Learning Objective: 3.1: Apply anatomical terms to the nervous system.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM Q3.1.3
Question: A neuroscientist cuts a brain in half, along the division between the hemispheres. This
cut is called a _____________ cut.
a. midsagittal
b. coronal
c. transverse
d. horizontal
Answer: A
Consider This: This cut would be made along the mid-line of the brain; LO 3.1: Apply
anatomical terms to the nervous system.
Learning Objective: 3.1: Apply anatomical terms to the nervous system.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q3.1.4
Question: The order of the meningeal layers from the surface of the brain outward is:
a. pia, arachnoid, dura.
b. arachnoid, dura, pia.
c. dura, arachnoid, pia.
d. dura, pia, arachnoid.
Answer: A
Consider This: The meninges serve as a P.A.D. (mnemonic device) on the brain with the dura
mater being the most durable; LO 3.2: Compare the locations and functions of the meninges and
ventricular system.
Learning Objective: 3.2: Compare the locations and functions of the meninges and ventricular
system.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q3.1.5
Question: Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) does NOT serve to:
a. reduce the weight of the brain.
b. provide cushioning.
c. clear waste products.
d. circulate chemical messengers throughout the brain.
Answer: D
Consider This: Information processing is not a CSF function; LO 3.2: Compare the locations and
functions of the meninges and ventricular system.
Learning Objective: 3.2: Compare the locations and functions of the meninges and ventricular
system.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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Assignment: Quiz: Structure and Function of the Central Nervous System (CNS)
EOM Q3.2.1
Question: The limbic system does NOT include the:
a. cerebellum.
b. amygdala.
c. hippocampus.
d. fornix.
Answer: A
Consider This: The limbic system is located in the telencephalon; LO 3.3: Identify the locations
and functions of the structures of the telencephalon.
Learning Objective: 3.3: Identify the locations and functions of the structures of the
telencephalon.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q3.2.2
Question: With respect to its location, the telencephalon is ____________ to the diencephalon.
a. caudal
b. dorsal
c. posterior
d. inferior
Answer: B
Consider This: The telencephalon is above the diencephalon; LO 3.3: Identify the locations and
functions of the structures of the telencephalon.
Learning Objective: 3.3: Identify the locations and functions of the structures of the
telencephalon
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM Q3.2.3
Question: The division of the brain that surrounds the cerebral aqueduct is the:
a. mesencephalon.
b. telencephalon.
c. diencephalon.
d. metencephalon.
Answer: A
Consider This: The cerebral aqueduct is located lower in the brain; LO 3.5: Identify the locations
and functions of the structures of the mesencephalon.
Learning Objective: 3.5: Identify the locations and functions of the structures of the
mesencephalon.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOM Q3.2.4
Question: After a motor vehicle accident, Alex has difficulty walking. He feels unbalanced and
his movements are poorly coordinated. He MOST likely sustained damage to the:
a. pons.
b. hypothalamus.
c. medulla oblongata.
d. cerebellum.
Answer: D
Consider This: A structure hanging off the back of the brain is largely responsible for balance
and gait; LO 3.6: Contrast the locations and functions of the structures of the metencephalon and
myelencephalon.
Learning Objective: 3.6: Contrast the locations and functions of the structures of the
metencephalon and myelencephalon.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM Q3.2.5
Question: With respect to the regions of the vertebral column, chest is to neck as ______ is to
_____.
a. thoracic; cervical
b. cervical; thoracic
c. thoracic; lumbar
d. lumbar; cervical
Answer: A
Consider This: Of the vertebral regions, the thoracic region contains the most individual
vertebrae; LO 3.7: Describe the structure and functions of the spinal cord.
Learning Objective: 3.7: Describe the structure and functions of the spinal cord.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
Assignment: Quiz: Structure and Function of the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)
EOM Q3.3.1
Question: Information from the fingertips is sent to the spinal cord via ___________ axons.
a. afferent
b. efferent
c. cranial
d. peripheral
Answer: A
Consider This: One of these terms means “conducted inward”; LO 3.9: Differentiate of afferent
and efferent axons of the spinal nerves.
Learning Objective: 3.9: Differentiate the afferent and efferent axons of the spinal nerves.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM Q3.3.2
Question: Austin has a terrible fear of public speaking. When he gets up to speak, his heart
races. Afterwards, he calms down quickly. These contrasting reactions are regulated by the
_____________ nervous system.
a. autonomic
b. somatic
c. central
d. parasympathetic
Answer: A
Consider This: A racing heart is an involuntary response; LO 3.10: Compare the sympathetic and
parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system.
Learning Objective: 3.10: Compare the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the
autonomic nervous system.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM Q3.3.3
Question: John has a severe snake phobia. He experiences a fight, flight, or freeze response
when he sees one. This reaction is caused by the ____________ nervous system.
a. sympathetic
b. central
c. somatic
d. parasympathetic
Answer: A
Consider This: One division is specifically responsible for the involuntary fight, flight, or freeze
response; LO 3.10: Compare the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic
nervous system.
Learning Objective: 3.10: Compare the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the
autonomic nervous system.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM Q3.3.4
Question: The cell bodies of sympathetic motor neurons are located in the gray matter of the
_____ regions of the spinal cord.
a. thoracic and lumbar
b. cervical and sacral
c. thoracic and sacral
d. sacral and coccygeal
Answer: A
Consider This: The cell bodies are located in adjacent regions of the spinal cord; LO 3.10:
Compare the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system.
Learning Objective: 3.10: Compare the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the
autonomic nervous system.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOM Q3.3.5
Question: With respect to the peripheral nervous system, several cranial nerves contain the cell
bodies for the preganglionic neurons of:
a. the somatic but not the autonomic nervous system.
b. the parasympathetic nervous system, but not the sympathetic nervous system.
c. both the parasympathetic nervous system and the sympathetic nervous system.
d. both the somatic and autonomic nervous systems.
Answer: B
Consider This: The correct part of the nervous system is sometimes called the craniosacral
system; LO 3.10: Compare the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic
nervous system.
Learning Objective: 3.10: Compare the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the
autonomic nervous system.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Skill Level: Analyze It
EOC Q3.2
Question: The ___________ layer(s) is/are missing from the meninges in the peripheral nervous
system.
a. pia
b. arachnoid
c. dura
d. pia, arachnoid, and dura
Answer: B
Consider This: The peripheral nervous system does not have as much space as the central
nervous system, so the meningeal layer that takes up the most room is missing; LO 3.2: Compare
the locations and functions of the meninges and ventricular system.
Learning Objective: 3.2: Compare the locations and functions of the meninges and ventricular
system.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOC Q3.3
Question: The largest ventricle(s) is/are:
a. the lateral ventricles.
b. the third ventricle.
c. the fourth ventricle.
d. the cerebral aqueduct.
Answer: A
Consider This: The largest ventricle(s) should be located in the cerebral cortex to assist with
buoyancy; LO 3.2: Compare the locations and functions of the meninges and ventricular system.
Learning Objective 3.2: Compare the locations and functions of the meninges and ventricular
system.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q3.4
Question: Which lobe is responsible for your ability to see objects in the world?
a. temporal
b. frontal
c. occipital
d. parietal
Answer: C
Consider This: The one at the back of the brain is responsible for vision; LO 3.3: Identify the
locations and functions of the structures of the telencephalon.
Learning Objective: 3.3: Identify the locations and functions of the structures of the
telencephalon.
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
Difficulty Level: Easy
EOC Q3.5
Question: Parkinson’s disease results from the degeneration of midbrain neurons that send axons
to a collection of nuclei in the forebrain called the:
a. limbic system.
b. cingulate gyrus.
c. basal ganglia.
d. amygdala.
Answer: C
Consider This: Consider This: The correct choice contains the caudate nucleus, the putamen, and
the globus pallidus; LO 3.3: Identify the locations and functions of the structures of the
telencephalon.
Learning Objective: 3.3: Identify the locations and functions of the structures of the
telencephalon.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOC Q3.6
Question: The thalamus and hypothalamus belong to the:
a. telencephalon.
b. diencephalon.
c. mesencephalon.
d. metencephalon.
Answer: B
Consider This: These two structures make up the primary structures in this brain area; LO 3.4:
Identify the locations and functions of the structures of the diencephalon.
Learning Objective: LO 3.4: Identify the locations and functions of the structures of the
diencephalon.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q3.7
Question: The __________ governs visual reflexes, reactions to moving stimuli, sleep and
arousal, and attention.
a. telencephalon
b. diencephalon
c. mesencephalon
d. metencephalon
Answer: C
Consider This: This brain region contains the tectum and tegmentum; LO 3.5: Identify the
locations and functions of the structures of the mesencephalon.
Learning Objective: LO 3.5: Identify the locations and functions of the structures of the
mesencephalon.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q3.8
Question: The hindbrain is to the ______ as the midbrain is to the _____.
a. telencephalon; myencephalon
b. myencephalon; metencephalon
c. mesencephalon; metencephalon
d. metencephalon; mesencephalon
Answer: C
Consider This: The midbrain contains the tectum and tegmentum; LO 3.6: Contrast the locations
and functions of the structures of the metencephalon and myelencephalon.
Learning Objective: 3.6: Contrast the locations and functions of the structures of the
metencephalon and myelencephalon.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Skill Level: Analyze It
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EOC Q3.9
Question: The _____ is part of the myelencephalon.
a. medulla oblongata
b. pons
c. cerebellum
d. reticular formation
Answer: A
Consider This: This brain area regulates the cardiovascular system, respiration, and skeletal
muscle tonus; LO 3.6: Contrast the locations and functions of the structures of the
metencephalon and myelencephalon.
Learning Objective: 3.6: Contrast the locations and functions of the structures of the
metencephalon and myelencephalon.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q3.10
Question: The primary functions of the ______ are to distribute motor fibers to the glands and to
collect somatosensory information.
a. spinal cord
b. limbic system
c. basal ganglia
d. corpus callosum
Answer: A
Consider This: The correct choice can function independently in some reflexes; LO 3.7: Describe
the structure and functions of the spinal cord.
Learning Objective: 3.7: Describe the structure and functions of the spinal cord.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q3.11
Question: The ___________ nerves serve sensory and motor functions of the eye muscles, the
nose and tongue, and the muscles of mastication.
a. peripheral
b. sympathetic
c. cranial
d. afferent
Answer: C
Consider This: There are 12 of these nerves; LO 3.8: Identify the functions of the cranial nerves.
Learning Objective: 3.8: Identify the functions of the cranial nerves.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOC Q3.12
Question: A fly is buzzing around Jack’s face. He swats at it. The message to move his hand
was sent from the brain via ___________ axons.
a. afferent
b. peripheral
c. efferent
d. cranial
Answer: C
Consider This: These axons move away from the brain; LO 3.9: Differentiate the afferent and
efferent axons of the spinal nerves.
Learning Objective: 3.9: Differentiate the afferent and efferent axons of the spinal nerves.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOC Q3.13
Question: With respect to the spinal nerves, afferent is to efferent as _____ is to _____.
a. ventral; dorsal
b. motor; sensory
c. incoming; outgoing
d. outgoing; incoming
Answer: C
Consider This: The axons that leave the spinal cord through the ventral roots control the muscles;
LO 3.9: Differentiate the afferent and efferent axons of the spinal nerves.
Learning Objective: 3.9: Differentiate the afferent and efferent axons of the spinal nerves.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Skill Level: Analyze It
EOC Q3.14
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EOC Q3.15
Question: Salivation, secretion of digestive juices, and blood flow to the gastrointestinal tract
are governed by the ___________ nervous system.
a. autonomic
b. sympathetic
c. parasympathetic
d. somatic
Answer: C
Consider This: These are involuntary movements that are not related to fight, flight, or freeze;
LO 3.10: Compare the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous
system.
Learning Objective: 3.10: Compare the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the
autonomic nervous system.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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Introduction Multiple 1
Choice
Fill-In 110
Essay
Fill-In 111-118
Fill-In 119-121
Fill-In 122-129
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Multiple-Choice Questions
1. ________ refers to the study of the effects of drugs on the nervous system and
behavior.
a. Endocrinology
b. Neuropharmacology
c. Psychoimmunology
d. Neurochemistry
e. Psychopharmacology
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3. The __________ of codeine, morphine, and other opiates include decreased sensitivity
to pain, slowing of the digestive system, sedation, muscular relaxation, constriction of the
pupils, and at high doses, euphoria.
a. sites of action
b. drug effects
c. exogenous substances
d. endogenous substances
e. drugs
4. ________ refers to the process by which drugs are absorbed, distributed within the
body, metabolized, and then excreted from the body.
a. Pharmacotherapy
b. Pharmacokinetics
c. Drug metabolism
d. Pharmacodynamics
e. Neurotoxicity
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5. Dr. Acula is conducting a research study in which she examines whether a drug effect
is different depending on whether the drug is administered orally or rectally. The doctor is
doing a study investigating
a. drug tolerance.
b. intracerebral administration.
c. inhalation.
d. pharmacokinetics.
e. excretion.
6. Madelaine receives a Depo-Provera shot in her buttocks every three months to prevent
pregnancy. This injection would be
a. oral.
b. topical.
c. intravenous.
d. intramuscular.
e. intraperitoneal.
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a. oral
b. topical
c. intravenous
d. intramuscular
e. intraperitoneal
8. The ________ route of drug administration is commonly used for small laboratory
animals, such as the rat.
a. intraperitoneal
b. oral
c. intravascular
d. topical
e. intranasal
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9. The ________ route of drug administration is most commonly used for humans.
a. intraperitoneal
b. oral
c. intravascular
d. topical
e. intranasal
10. Dee Dee snorts a small amount of cocaine into his nose using a cocktail straw. The
formal term for this route of drug administration is
a. inhalation.
b. insufflation.
c. intravenous ingestion.
d. intrarectal administration.
e. sublingual introduction.
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11. Regarding drugs that affect behavior, most of their sites of action are located
a. in the liver.
b. in the peripheral nervous system.
c. along the smooth muscle linings.
d. in the central nervous system.
e. in the intraperitoneal cavity.
12. Miguel has accidentally ingested a toxic chemical, which has rendered him
unconscious and will soon kill him. Which route of administration would emergency
physicians most likely use to provide an antidote for the toxin?
a. intravenous
b. oral
c. topical
d. rectal
e. nasal
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13. The ________ route of drug administration has the advantage of bypassing the blood–
brain barrier.
a. intraperitoneal
b. oral
c. intravascular
d. topical
e. intracerebroventricular
14. An increase in ________ for a drug would cause that drug to more rapidly reach the
brain.
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15. The primary route of excretion of drugs from the body is via the
a. liver.
b. lung.
c. mucosa.
d. kidneys.
e. skin.
a. liver.
b. lungs.
c. mucosa.
d. kidneys.
e. skin.
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20. Differences in effectiveness between two drugs that share the same site of action
would be expected to result from their different
a. adverse effects.
b. sensitization profiles.
c. dynamic capacities.
d. affinities for the site of action.
e. binding capacities within blood.
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21. The therapeutic index of a particular drug is calculated by determining the ratio of the
dose that produces __________ in 50 percent of individuals divided by _____________.
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23. With repeated drug administration, the body begins to compensate for drug use by
causing symptoms opposite of what the drug causes. This phenomenon is called
a. withdrawal.
b. sensitization.
c. inactivation.
d. tolerance.
e. binding capacity.
24. ________ refers to an increased behavioral effect of a drug noted with repeated
administration.
a. Dynamic capacity
b. Sensitization
c. Inactivation
d. Tolerance
e. Binding capacity
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25. Two years into the habit, Giancarlo needs to smoke more cigarettes to achieve the
same feelings he had when he first started smoking. This need to increase dosage is due to
a. dynamic capacity.
b. sensitization.
c. inactivation.
d. tolerance.
e. binding capacity.
26. One mechanism leading to tolerance produced by repeated drug administration is a(n)
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28. Keith has been a long-time heroin addict. When he finally decided to kick the drug, he
knew there would be withdrawal symptoms. Which symptom should Keith anticipate
experiencing?
a. increased hunger
b. constipation
c. euphoria
d. dysphoria
e. feelings of stupor
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29. A researcher enlists people to participate in an experiment that causes arm muscle
strain. The participants are instructed to use a provided muscle ointment after the activity.
To maintain careful control over the experimental procedures, one group should get an
ointment with active ingredients to reduce pain, whereas the other group should get a(n)
____________ containing no active ingredients.
a. placebo
b. pseudotransmitter
c. drug
d. agonist
e. ligand
a. protagonists.
b. ligands.
c. synergists.
d. antagonists.
e. agonists.
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a. blocking a precursor.
b. promoting a precursor.
c. blocking neurotransmitter release.
d. promoting neurotransmitter release.
e. blocking the autoreceptor.
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33. A drug would be classified as a(n) ________ if that drug acted to block the capacity
of vesicles to be filled with neurotransmitter molecules.
a. agonist
b. facilitator
c. antagonist
d. autoreceptor agonist
e. indirect agonist
34. A drug that binds with a postsynaptic receptor, but does not open ion channels, would
be termed a(n)
a. direct agonist.
b. ligand.
c. direct synergist.
d. direct antagonist.
e. indirect antagonist
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35. A drug that binds at a postsynaptic site different from that of the neurotransmitter and
facilitates the opening of ion channels would be termed a(n)
a. indirect antagonist.
b. ligand.
c. direct synergist.
d. indirect agonist.
e. inducer.
36. Ketamine binds to an alternate binding site for the NMDA glutamate receptor, causing
less neurotransmitter action. This binding action makes ketamine a(n)
a. indirect antagonist.
b. ligand.
c. direct synergist.
d. direct antagonist.
e. neurohormone.
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a. vesicle transporter.
b. direct agonist.
c. receptor promoter.
d. direct antagonist.
e. stimulating autoreceptor.
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42. Termination of the postsynaptic potential would be expected from a drug or process
that acts to
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43. The major excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain is a(n) ____________ called
_______________.
44. Which pair presents an incorrect match between a neurotransmitter and its effects?
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45. Which neurotransmitters are the primary excitatory and inhibitory (respectively)
neurotransmitters in the brain?
46. Which reason correctly summarizes why it is difficult to prove that amino acids can
function as neurotransmitters?
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47. Glutamate, GABA, and glycine are important because they are
a. Activation of the NMDA receptor allows sodium and calcium ions to flow into
the nerve cell.
b. NMDA receptors are metabotropic.
c. NMDA receptors are the most common glutamate receptor.
d. The activity of the NMDA receptor is not dependent on magnesium ions.
e. The NMDA receptor produces IPSPs.
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49. Alcohol withdrawal can lead to seizures because of the effect of alcohol on
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a. polyamines.
b. butyric acid.
c. glutamic acid.
d. glycine.
e. lysergic acid.
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a. ionotropic; chloride
b. ionotropic; potassium
c. metabotropic; chloride
d. metabotropic; potassium
e. ionotropic; sodium
54. Which pair correctly matches a drug and its effect on GABA function?
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55. The GABAA antagonist ________ can induce motor convulsions in high doses.
a. muscimol
b. glutamate
c. diazepam
d. baclofen
e. picrotoxin
a. glutamate
b. GABA
c. glycine
d. serotonin
e. dopamine
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57. ________ is the primary neurotransmitter secreted by motor axons of the central
nervous system.
a. Dopamine
b. Norepinephrine
c. Acetylcholine
d. Serotonin
e. GABA
58. Which neurotransmitter induces muscle movement and is the primary neurotransmitter
secreted by efferent axons of the central nervous system?
a. acetylcholine
b. GABA
c. serotonin
d. glycine
e. glutamate
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59. Which pair correctly matches a neurotransmitter with the appropriate behavioral role
or action of that neurotransmitter?
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a. Most central nervous system circuits that use ACh are inhibitory for learning.
b. Cholinergic neurons in the dorsolateral pons are involved in the control of the
electrical rhythms of the hippocampus.
c. Cholinergic neurons in the medial septum are involved in the control of the
electrical rhythms of the hippocampus.
d. Cholinergic neurons in the basal forebrain are involved in the control of REM
sleep.
e. Cholinergic neurons in the medial septum facilitate learning.
62. Damage to the ________ cholinergic system would be expected to impair learning.
a. dorsolateral pons
b. hypothalamocortical
c. basal forebrain
d. medial septal
e. corticospinal
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63. Muscle contractions often need to happen quickly so they are controlled via
_____________ receptors.
a. ionotropic
b. metabotropic
c. serotonergic
d. dopaminergic
e. synthetic
64. Hemicholinium-3 blocks the choline transporter, preventing recycling of choline. This
drug would therefore be a(n)
a. agonist.
b. promotor.
c. stimulator.
d. antagonist.
e. precursor.
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65. Which pair of drugs is known to facilitate and inhibit (respectively) the release of
acetylcholine?
66. Atropine is a drug that acts on the acetylcholine system, producing the effect of
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72. Nicotinic receptors are found in ________ in the periphery and in ________ in the
brain.
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a. cholinergic; adrenergic
b. muscarinic; adrenergic
c. alpha-cholinergic; beta-cholinergic
d. nicotinic; muscarinic
e. beta-cholinergic; delta-cholinergic
74. Which drugs are antagonists for the muscarinic and nicotinic (respectively) receptors?
75. Because curare blocks nicotinic receptors, it makes sense that this drug is often used to
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76. The drug ________ causes pupil dilation by blocking ________ receptors.
a. cocaine; dopaminergic
b. atropine; muscarinic
c. curare; muscarinic
d. belladona; adrenergic
e. muscarine; nicotinic
a. GABAergic neurons.
b. glutamatergic neurons.
c. acetyl cholinergic neurons.
d. serotonergic neurons.
e. glycinergic neurons.
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a. glycine
b. serotonin
c. dopamine
d. acetylcholine
e. norepinephrine
a. serotonin.
b. dopamine.
c. glutamate.
d. acetylcholine.
e. glycine.
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80. Degeneration of neurons within the ________ dopamine system leads to Parkinson’s
disease.
a. nigrostriatal
b. mesocortical
c. hypothalamocortical
d. mesolimbic
e. retinal-suprachiasmatic
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a. nigrostriatal
b. hypothalamocortical
c. mesocortical
d. mesolimbic
e. corticospinal
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84. The ________ dopamine system plays a key role in the control of ________.
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a. indolamine
b. ethylamine
c. catecholamine
d. amino acid
e. neuropeptide
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88. A drug that causes the transporters for dopamine to run in reverse would
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a. degradation.
b. enzymes.
c. transporters.
d. recycling.
e. no process; they remain in the cleft.
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92. The final synthesis step for norepinephrine occurs in the ________ and requires the
presence of ________.
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94. The drug AMPT blocks the production of both __________ and
a. norepinephrine; dopamine.
b. chlorpromazine; reserpine.
c. acetylcholine; norepinephrine.
d. curare; muscarine.
e. acetylcholine; dopamine.
95. Drugs that block monoamine oxidase A (MAO-A) are ________ agonists, whereas
monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) blockers are ________.
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a. enzymes.
b. degradation.
c. transporters.
d. synthesizers.
e. diffusion.
a. tyrosine.
b. tyramine.
c. tryptophan.
d. blood platelets.
e. glutamate.
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98. Drugs that block the reuptake of serotonin or that cause the release of serotonin are
used therapeutically to treat
a. anorexia nervosa.
b. depression.
c. mania.
d. psychosis.
e. bipolar disorder.
a. 5-HT1
b. 5-HT5
c. 5-HT3
d. 5-HT9
e. 5-HT27
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100. Most of the cell bodies of serotonin neurons are located within the
a. substantia nigra.
b. basal forebrain.
c. ventral tegmental area.
d. spinal cord.
e. raphe nuclei.
a. Parkinson’s disease.
b. delusions.
c. drowsiness.
d. REM sleep.
e. arousal.
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a. destroyed by enzymes.
b. taken back up into the presynaptic cell via transporters.
c. recycled and reused.
d. allowed to remain in the synaptic cleft indefinitely.
e. synthesized into dopamine.
a. enzymes.
b. polypeptides.
c. vesicles.
d. precursor molecules.
e. postcursor molecules.
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domains.
a. neurotransmitters.
b. monoamines.
c. amino acids.
d. analgesics.
e. neuromodulators.
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a. opioid molecules.
b. narcotic antagonists.
c. endogenous opioids.
d. synthetic opioids.
e. enkephalins.
a. stimulates appetite.
b. occurs when a person smokes marijuana.
c. results in analgesia.
d. reduces nausea and vomiting.
e. produces nausea and vomiting.
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Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
110. ________ is the study of the effects of drugs on the nervous system and behavior.
111. ________ refers to the process by which drugs are absorbed, distributed, and excreted
from the body.
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113. The fastest route for getting drugs into the body is through ________.
114. The primary route of excretion of drugs from the body is via the ________.
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116. ________ demonstrate the effect of a particular drug dose until the maximum effect is
reached.
117. ________ refers to a diminished drug effect with repeated injection of a constant drug
dose.
118. Withdrawal symptoms usually take the form of __________ of the effects produced
by the drug itself.
119. A drug that mimics the effects of a neurotransmitter would be labeled as a direct
______.
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126. Hallucinogenic drugs such as LSD are ______ for the 5-HT2A receptor.
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128. Memory impairment results from the effects of THC on CB1 receptors located in the
________.
129. ________ is a cannabinoid receptor agonist that increases appetite and produces
analgesia.
Essay Questions
130. Compare and contrast two routes of administration of drugs. What are benefits and
drawbacks of each?
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133. Draw a diagram that represents a terminal button and postsynaptic neuron. Indicate
in this diagram at least five ways that drugs can affect synaptic transmission and give an
example of each.
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134. Describe the function of agonists and antagonists, giving an example of each and
how they produce their effects.
135. Contrast the location and function of autoreceptors with postsynaptic receptors.
136. What is the advantage of reuptake over enzymatic degradation in the termination of
neurotransmitter postsynaptic effects?
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138. Describe the biosynthesis of acetylcholine (ACh). List three different means that
would act to alter the release of acetylcholine.
139. Compare and contrast the locations and synaptic functions of the two types of
acetylcholine receptors. Give an example of a drug that would antagonize each receptor
type.
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140. Explain the importance of drugs that inhibit serotonin reuptake for the treatment of
mental disorders.
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Revel Quizzes
The following questions appear at the end of each module and at the end of the chapter in
Revel for Physiology of Behavior, 13th Edition.
EOM Q4.1.2
Question: The steps of pharmacokinetics do NOT include:
a. absorption.
b. metabolism.
c. excretion.
d. reuptake.
Answer: D
Consider This: Pharmacokinetics refers to the life cycle of drugs; LO 4.2: Describe the
steps of pharmacokinetics.
Learning Objective: 4.2: Describe the steps of pharmacokinetics.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM Q4.1.3
Question: The ________ route of drug administration has the advantage of bypassing the
blood-brain barrier.
a. oral
b. intramuscular
c. topical
d. intracerebroventricular
Answer: D
Consider This: The blood–brain barrier is a barrier only for water-soluble molecules; LO
4.2: Describe the steps of pharmacokinetics.
Learning Objective: 4.2: Describe the steps of pharmacokinetics.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q4.1.4
Question: If the therapeutic index of Drug X is low, then:
a. physicians should take more care in prescribing it due to an increased chance of
risks.
b. physicians can take less care in prescribing it due to a decreased chance of risks.
c. physicians should not prescribe it because it is too dangerous.
d. physicians should not prescribe it because it is not effective.
Answer: A
Consider This: A low therapeutic index indicates a small distance between an effective
dose and a dangerous dose; LO 4.3: Identify why drugs vary in effectiveness and how
these differences can be measured.
Learning Objective: LO 4.3: Identify why drugs vary in effectiveness and how these
differences can be measured.
Skill: Understand the Concepts
Difficulty: Moderate
EOM Q4.1.5
Question: With repeated drug administration, the body begins to compensate for drug use
by causing symptoms opposite of what the drug causes. This phenomenon is called:
a. tolerance.
b. addiction.
c. withdrawal.
d. dependence.
Answer: C
Consider This: These opposing symptoms often reinforce the desire to take the drug; LO
4.4: Differentiate between tolerance, sensitization, and withdrawal effects following
repeated use of a drug.
Learning Objective: 4.4: Differentiate between tolerance, sensitization, and withdrawal
effects following repeated use of a drug.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOM Q4.2.2
Question: A drug prevents neurotransmitter release by deactivating docking proteins.
This drug would be considered a(n):
a. antagonist.
b. agonist.
c. promotor.
d. orchestrator.
Answer: A
Consider This: The “bad guy” in literature shares the same title; LO 4.7: Explain the
effects of drugs on neurotransmitter storage and release.
Learning Objective: 4.7: Explain the effects of drugs on neurotransmitter storage and
release.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q4.2.3
Question: PCP binds to an alternate binding site for the NMDA glutamate receptor,
causing less neurotransmitter action. This binding action makes PCP a(n):
a. indirect antagonist.
b. direct antagonist.
c. indirect agonist.
d. direct agonist.
Answer: A
Consider This: “Alternate binding site” indicates that there may still be sites for the
NMDA receptor to receive normal activation; LO 4.8: Summarize the effects of drugs at
the receptor.
Learning Objective: 4.8: Summarize the effects of drugs at the receptor.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Skill Level: Analyze It
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EOM Q4.2.4
Question: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are:
a. antagonists.
b. agonists.
c. promoters.
d. villains.
Answer: B
Consider This: Blocking the reuptake mechanism would do what to neurotransmitter
levels in the cleft?; LO 4.9: Describe the effects of drugs on neurotransmitter reuptake and
deactivation.
Learning Objective: 4.9: Describe the effects of drugs on neurotransmitter reuptake and
deactivation.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q4.2.5
Question: Substances that block deactivation of neurotransmitters are:
a. antagonists.
b. agonists.
c. promoters.
d. villains.
Answer: B
Consider This: If a neurotransmitter is not broken down, what does that mean?; LO 4.9:
Describe the effects of drugs on neurotransmitter reuptake and deactivation.
Learning Objective: 4.9: Describe the effects of drugs on neurotransmitter reuptake and
deactivation.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM Q4.3.2
Question: Because muscle contractions often need to happen quickly, they are controlled
via _____________ receptors.
a. ionotropic
b. metabotropic
c. serotonergic
d. dopaminergic
Answer: A
Consider This: One type of receptor acts more immediately than another, with quick
access to ion channels; LO 4.11: Summarize the features of the acetylcholine system.
Learning Objective: LO 4.11: Summarize the features of the acetylcholine system.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM Q4.3.3
Question: Monoaminergic neurons include ______ neurons.
a. GABAergic
b. glutamatergic
c. serotonergic
d. acetylcholinergic
Answer: C
Consider This: The monoamine class is made up of neurotransmitters that consist of a
single amino acid; LO 4.12: Summarize the key features of the monoamine systems.
Learning Objective: 4.12: Summarize the key features of the monoamine systems.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q4.3.4
Question: L-DOPA is given to patients with Parkinson’s disease because:
a. dopamine cannot cross the blood–brain barrier.
b. serotonin cannot cross the blood–brain barrier.
c. L-DOPA is converted to norepinephrine.
d. L-DOPA is converted to epinephrine.
Answer: A
Consider This: L-DOPA can cross the blood–brain barrier via specific transporters; LO
4.12: Summarize the key features of the monoamine systems.
Learning Objective: 4.12: Summarize the key features of the monoamine systems
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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EOM Q4.3.5
Question: Unlike neurotransmitters, peptides are always:
a. destroyed by enzymes.
b. taken back up into the presynaptic cell via transporters.
c. recycled and reused.
d. allowed to remain in the cleft indefinitely.
Answer: A
Consider This: Many monoamines are recycled and reused; LO 4.13: Contrast the features
of peptide neurotransmitters with classical neurotransmitters.
Learning Objective: 4.13: Contrast the features of peptide neurotransmitters with classical
neurotransmitters.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q4.2
Question: Kathy receives a Depo-Provera shot in her buttocks every three months to
prevent pregnancy. This shot is a(n) _____ injection.
a. intravenous
b. intraperitoneal
c. intramuscular
d. subcutaneous
Answer: C
Consider This: The buttocks would not be considered a vein or abdominal wall area; LO
4.2: Describe the steps of pharmacokinetics.
Learning Objective: 4.2: Describe the steps of pharmacokinetics.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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EOC Q4.3
Question: Dose response curves:
a. indicate if a physician should prescribe the drug.
b. indicate the therapeutic index of a drug.
c. demonstrate the effect of a particular dose until the maximum effect is reached.
d. indicate if a physician should prescribe the drug, demonstrate the effect of a
particular dose, and indicate the therapeutic index.
Answer: C
Consider This: Dose response curves are used to determine the amount of dose to achieve
a desired effect; LO 4.3: Identify why drugs vary in effectiveness and how these
differences can be measured.
Learning Objective: LO 4.3: Identify why drugs vary in effectiveness and how these
differences can be measured.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q4.4
Question: An effective drug would have:
a. high affinity.
b. high affinity and acts at sites of action that produce therapeutic effects.
c. low affinity and acts at sites of action that produce therapeutic effects.
d. low affinity.
Answer: B
Consider This: Affinity refers to the degree to which the drug binds effectively; LO 4.3:
Identify why drugs vary in effectiveness and how these differences can be measured.
Learning Objective: 4.3: Identify why drugs vary in effectiveness and how these
differences can be measured.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOC Q4.5
Question: After two years, Sam needs to smoke more cigarettes to achieve the same
feelings as he had when he first started smoking. This need to increase dosage is due to:
a. tolerance.
b. sensitization.
c. withdrawal.
d. dependence.
Answer: A
Consider This: This effect occurs because the body is adapting to the continuous usage of
the drug; LO 4.4: Differentiate between tolerance, sensitization, and withdrawal effects
following repeated use of a drug.
Learning Objective: 4.4: Differentiate between tolerance, sensitization, and withdrawal
effects following repeated use of a drug.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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EOC Q4.6
Question: A researcher asks individuals to participate in an experiment that causes arm
muscle strain. The participants are instructed to use a provided muscle rub after the
activity. One group gets a rub with active ingredients to reduce pain whereas the other
group gets a ____________ without active ingredients.
a. exogenous ointment
b. endogenous ointment
c. treatment
d. placebo
Answer: D
Consider This: The participants are being treated the same with the exception of the
ointment lacking active ingredients; LO 4.5: Describe a placebo and the placebo effect.
Learning Objective: 4.5: Describe a placebo and the placebo effect.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOC Q4.7
Question: If a drug increases the neurotransmitter precursor, then it is considered a(n):
a. antagonist.
b. agonist.
c. promotor.
d. orchestrator.
Answer: B
Consider This: Increasing the precursor would result in more neurotransmitter; LO 4.6:
Summarize how drugs can affect neurotransmitter synthesis.
Learning Objective: 4.6: Summarize how drugs can affect neurotransmitter synthesis.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q4.8
Question: A certain drug blocks vesicle transporters. This drug would be considered a(n):
a. antagonist.
b. agonist.
c. promotor.
d. orchestrator.
Answer: A
Consider This: The “bad guy” in literature shares the same title; LO 4.7: Explain the
effects of drugs on neurotransmitter storage and release.
Learning Objective: 4.7: Explain the effects of drugs on neurotransmitter storage and
release.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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EOC Q4.9
Question: Nicotine is a(n) ___________ because it mimics acetylcholine at the nicotinic
acetylcholine receptor.
a. direct agonist
b. direct antagonist
c. indirect agonist
d. indirect antagonist
Answer: A
Consider This: Nicotine would promote the action of acetylcholine; LO 4.8: Summarize
the effects of drugs at the receptor.
Learning Objective: 4.8: Summarize the effects of drugs at the receptor.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Skill Level: Analyze It
EOC Q4.10
Question: A particular drug blocks the receptor, preventing activation by the usual
neurotransmitter that activates that receptor. This drug would be considered a(n):
a. competitive agonist.
b. non-competitive agonist.
c. non-competitive antagonist.
d. competitive antagonist.
Answer: D
Consider This: The binding site is taken up by the drug, not allowing the regular
neurotransmitter to bind at all; LO 4.8: Summarize the effects of drugs at the receptor.
Learning Objective: 4.8: Summarize the effects of drugs at the receptor.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOC Q4.11
Question: The major excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain is a(n) ____________ called
_______________.
a. amino acid; glycine
b. amino acid; glutamate
c. monoamine; serotonin
d. monoamine; dopamine
Answer: B
Consider This: This large neurotransmitter is responsible for widespread neuronal
activation during a seizure; LO 4.10: Compare the features of the amino acid
neurotransmitter systems.
Learning Objective: 4.10: Compare the features of the amino acid neurotransmitter
systems.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOC Q4.12
Question: Glutamate and GABA are removed from the cleft via:
a. degradation.
b. enzymes.
c. transporters.
d. recycling.
Answer: C
Consider This: These substances are ultimately broken down but first they must be
removed from the cleft; LO 4.10: Compare the features of the amino acid neurotransmitter
systems.
Learning Objective: 4.10: Compare the features of the amino acid neurotransmitter
systems.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q4.13
Question: Hemicholnium-3 blocks the choline transporter, preventing recycling of
choline. This drug is a(n):
a. antagonist.
b. agonist.
c. promotor.
d. orchestrator.
Answer: A
Consider This: The “bad guy” in literature shares the same title; LO 4.11: Summarize the
features of the acetylcholine system.
Learning Objective: 4.11: Summarize the features of the acetylcholine system.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOC Q4.14
Question: Dopamine belongs to the __________ class of monoamines.
a. indolamines
b. ethylamines
c. catecholamines
d. amino acids
Answer: C
Consider This: Dopamine belongs to the class that has several neurotransmitters; LO 4.12:
Summarize the key features of the monoamine systems.
Learning Objective: 4.12: Summarize the key features of the monoamine systems.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOC Q4.15
Question: With respect to the broad classes of neurotransmitters reviewed in the text,
endocannabinoids are to ______ as endogenous opioids are to ______.
a. amino acid; peptide
b. lipid; monoamine
c. lipid; peptide
d. peptide; lipid.
Answer: C
Consider This: Endocannabinoids are not stored in vesicles; LO 4.14: Summarize the
features of the lipid neurotransmitter systems.
Learning Objective: 4.14: Summarize the features of the lipid neurotransmitter systems.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
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Fill-In 96-100
Recording and Multiple Choice 62-65, 67, 68, 59-61,69—71,73, 66, 72,77,81
Stimulating 74-76, 78, 82 79,80
Neural Activity
Fill-In 101-111
Essay 117-121
Fill-In 112
Essay 122
Essay 123
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Multiple-Choice Questions
a. immunocytochemistry.
b. stereotaxic surgery.
c. autoradiography.
d. experimental ablation.
e. twin-study methods.
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3. Brain lesions
a. The change in behavior that follows a particular brain lesion can provide
important clues about the function of that brain area.
b. Lesions are easily made within the brain but are difficult to produce in the
peripheral nervous system.
c. Different types of brain lesions are specific to different types of receptor cells.
d. Brain lesions reliably produce marked changes in behaviors.
e. Introducing brain lesions into a living organism’s brain allows for activation of
behavioral circuits.
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a. independent behaviors.
b. a single behavior that is functional for the organism.
c. reflexes that can be excitatory or inhibitory.
d. a function that contributes to a behavior.
e. organized as “centers” that control behaviors.
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7. Researchers use electric current to destroy Brain Region A and conclude that the
absence of a certain behavior is due to Brain Region A. However, Brain Region A is not
actually involved. Rather, a different brain area that was traversed on the way to Region A
was involved in the circuit of interest. How could the researchers control for this erroneous
finding?
8. Infusion of ________ into the brain will destroy cell bodies through the process of
overstimulation.
a. heroin
b. GABA
c. lidocaine
d. muscimol
e. kainic acid
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9. Imagine that feeding behavior was eliminated when a radio-frequency lesion was used
to damage the lateral hypothalamus of a rat, which suggested that cells within this region
initiate feeding. If a subsequent study failed to observe a change in feeding after injection
of kainic acid into the lateral hypothalamus, what conclusion would be appropriate?
a. Glial cells within the lateral hypothalamus are responsible for the control of
eating.
b. The changes in eating noted in the first study are due to fibers that are passing
through the lateral hypothalamus.
c. The changes in eating are due to damage to cell bodies within the lateral
hypothalamus, and these act to initiate eating.
d. The lateral hypothalamus functions to inhibit eating.
e. The investigator should have chosen a different inhibitory amino acid.
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12. A key advantage of ________ lesions is that they affect only neural cell bodies and do
not damage axons passing through the region.
a. hypoxic
b. aspiration
c. 6-hydroxydopamine
d. radio-frequency
e. excitotoxic
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13. Molecular biologists have tagged toxins to specific ________ that in turn will kill
specific types of neurons.
a. antigens
b. receptors
c. kainic acids
d. antibodies
e. autoreceptors
14. A(n) ________ allows an experimenter to determine whether a lesion in a rat brain
produced a specific behavioral effect.
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16. Which chemical can be used to create a reversible lesion in brain tissue?
a. saline
b. muscimol
c. glutamate
d. flurogold
e. drencrom
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a. saline.
b. lidocaine.
c. flurogold.
d. kainic acid.
e. formalin.
25. ________ refers to a histological procedure in which blood is drained and replaced by
another fluid, such as a salt solution.
a. Microdialysis
b. Perfusion
c. Fixation
d. Staining
e. Desanguination
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27. To determine the location of a lesion after the sacrifice of an animal, brain slices
created with a ___________ are stained to visualize the brain areas.
a. microtome
b. stereotaxic apparatus
c. cryocoil
d. cannula
e. oscilloscope
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a. cell fragment
b. brain cut
c. section
d. horizontal view
e. tissue segment
29. The fine details of neuron structure in a brain slice or section are revealed by
a. albumin fixation.
b. stains.
c. immersion in xylene.
d. cyanoacrylate glue.
e. visual examination of raw brain slices using MRI.
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a. dendrites.
b. axons.
c. synapses.
d. cell bodies.
e. terminal buttons.
31. Compared to the others, which structure can be seen with a light microscope?
a. a cell nucleus
b. synaptic vesicles
c. neurotransmitter receptors
d. microtubules
e. microfilaments
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32. The RNA, DNA, and associated proteins in cell bodies are collectively referred to as
a. cytoplasm.
b. amino acids.
c. Nissl substance.
d. gangliosides.
e. nucleotides.
33. Which technique can reveal the three-dimensional detail of the cells within a brain
section?
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35. Hugo wants to find out which brain region comes after brain region C. To discover
this, Hugo can trace ________ axons using ________ labeling.
a. afferent; retrograde
b. efferent; retrograde
c. afferent; anterograde
d. anterograde; retrograde
e. efferent; anterograde
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36. Marco want to find out which brain region precedes brain region C. To discover this,
Marco can trace ________ axons using ________ labeling.
a. afferent; retrograde
b. efferent; retrograde
c. afferent; anterograde
d. anterograde; retrograde
e. efferent; anterograde
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38. The ________ technique would be used to trace efferent axons from a brain region.
a. antigen
b. retrograde
c. antibody
d. anterograde
e. axoplasmic transport
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a. PHA-L.
b. cresyl violet.
c. methylene blue.
d. iodinated glutamate.
e. formalin.
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42. ________ are produced by some white blood cells and act to destroy invading
microorganisms in the body.
a. Antibodies
b. Autogens
c. Antigens
d. Receptors
e. Astrocytes
43. The key use of PHA-L (a protein found in kidney beans) in neuroscience is to
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a. antigen
b. retrograde
c. antibody
d. anterograde
e. axoplasmic transport
45. The ________ labeling method uses chemicals that are taken up by dendrites and then
transported through axons toward terminal buttons.
a. retrograde
b. axoplasmic
c. anterograde
d. heterosynaptic
e. homosynaptic
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46. The ________ technique could be used to trace axons that are afferent to the injected
region.
a. retrograde labeling
b. electrolytic lesion
c. anterograde labeling
d. microdialysis
e. axoplasmic transport
47. The ________ method can be used to identify the neural inputs to a brain region.
a. retrograde labeling
b. electrolytic lesion
c. anterograde labeling
d. microdialysis
e. transdialysis
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48. Imagine that prior research has indicated that neurons from the paraventricular nucleus
(PVN) project to the prefrontal cortex (PFC) to control eating behavior. To confirm this
observation, researchers might inject PHA-L into the ________ and confirm its transport to
the ________.
49. The chemical ________ can be used to trace the paths of afferent axons.
a. 6-hydroxydopamine
b. cresyl violet
c. methylene blue
d. fluorogold
e. PHA-L
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51. The ________ is used to identify a series of interconnected neurons in the brain in a
retrograde fashion.
a. 6-hydroxydopamine wash
b. pseudorabies virus
c. methylene blue stain
d. fluorogold injection
e. PHA-L technique
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52. A key advantage of the method using pseudorabies virus compared to that of
anterograde and retrograde labeling techniques is that
53. Which scan could be used to find the location of a lesion in a living brain?
a. computerized tomography
b. diffusion tensor imaging
c. confocal laser scanning microscopy
d. electroencephalogram
e. electron microscopy
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54. In the past, studying the function of the human brain was difficult because
55. Which technique would be used to find the location of fiber bundles in the living
human brain?
a. computerized tomography
b. diffusion tensor imaging
c. magnetic resonance imaging
d. microdialysis
e. PET scanning
56. The ________ technique uses a radio frequency wave to excite hydrogen atoms in the
brain to create an image of the living human brain.
a. computerized tomography
b. microdialysis
c. magnetic resonance imaging
d. retrograde tracing
e. PET scan
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Answer: C
APA Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in
psychology.
57. The ________ technique is used to visualize details of cells in thick sections of tissue.
a. computerized tomography
b. diffusion tensor imaging
c. magnetic resonance imaging
d. confocal scanning microscope
e. PET scan
58. A scientist wishing to locate small bundles of axons in the human brain would be
advised to use the _______ technique.
a. transneuronal tracing
b. PET scan
c. fMRI
d. diffuser tension imaging
e. computerized tomography
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59. The ________ technique can be used to visualize differences between white matter and
gray matter in a living subject.
60. To record the neural activity of a brain region, researchers would use
a. computerized tomography.
b. magnets.
c. microelectodes.
d. cannulas.
e. macroelectrodes.
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63. The term ________ is a common name for a device used to display the changes in
voltage recorded from the scalp over time.
a. tricorder
b. autoradiograph
c. polygraph
d. CT scanner
e. X:1 recorder
a. is clearer.
b. is more detailed.
c. has excellent spatial resolution.
d. can record fast-moving events.
e. can record slow-moving events.
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66. In the vignette involving a patient identified as “Mrs. F.,” how did neurosurgeons
detect the fact that clamping off her left common carotid artery produced insufficient blood
flow to her brain?
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67. The ________ is a device that takes advantage of the tiny magnetic fields that are
produced by the electrical activity of the brain to produce a record of neural activity in the
brain during waking states.
a. micromyograph
b. PET scanner
c. electroencephalograph
d. microelectrode
e. neuromagnetometer
68. Sabrina injects 2-DG into a rat and then exposes it to a new food. After the animal has
been sacrificed, its brain is sliced and prepared for ____________ to determine what areas
of the brain were activated.
a. autoradiography
b. microdialysis
c. functional imaging
d. positron emission tomography
e. immunocytochemistry
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69. The brain imaging method with the best spatial resolution is
a. CT.
b. PET.
c. MRI.
d. fMRI.
e. electroencephalograph.
70. Compared to the others, which method cannot reveal the metabolic activity in regions
of a rat brain?
a. PET scan
b. fMRI scan
c. 2-DG autoradiography
d. measurement of Fos protein
e. injection of kainic acid
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71. A useful attribute of immediate early genes for neuron visualization techniques is that
a. fMRI
b. MRI
c. CT
d. PET
e. TMS
73. Which advantage applies to the functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
technique?
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74. The functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) technique measures changes in
________ to image brain metabolic activity.
a. GABA
b. X-ray diffraction
c. blood oxygen level
d. magnetic waves
e. glucose levels
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a. infusion of oxygen.
b. radio frequency stimulation.
c. ablation.
d. chemical stimulation.
e. aspiration.
a. GABA
b. glycine
c. lidocaine
d. glutamate
e. 6-hydroxydopamine
78. The major advantage of chemical stimulation using glutamate infusion is that
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80. The ________ technique takes advantage of the fact that a particular ________ can open
voltage-gated ion channels in neurons.
a. excitotoxicity; GABA
b. phototoxicity; intensity of light
c. optogenetic; wavelength of light
d. TMS; pulsing pattern of light
e. photostimulation; magnetic waves
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81. A brain region that has been infected with a virus that contains the photoprotein NpHR
will exhibit ________ when illuminated with ________ light.
82. The ________ procedure uses magnetic waves to alter brain neural activity.
a. magnetic cytochemistry
b. microiontophoresis
c. endocytotic
d. in situ hybridization
e. transcranial magnetic stimulation
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a. immunocytochemistry.
b. microiontophoresis.
c. in situ hybridization.
d. high-performance liquid chromatography.
e. microelectrodes.
a. reversing immunocytochemistry.
b. detecting the enzyme that produces acetylcholine.
c. applying macroelectrodes to the skull.
d. optimizing the polarity of microelectrodes.
e. using optogenetic tracing.
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86. Compared to the others, which technique can be used to detect the location of
acetylcholine in brain tissue?
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a. the prohibitively high cost of the procedure has led most granting agencies to
refuse to fund such research.
b. of the difficulty in obtaining human volunteers for this procedure.
c. technical problems related to the surgical implantation of probes in the human
brain cannot be overcome.
d. of ethical problems, given that the procedure is invasive.
e. the levels of transmitters within the human brain are below the threshold of
detection for this technique.
88. If one twin has Omega Syndrome and the other twin is no more likely to have it than
the average non-related individual, then Omega Syndrome is
a. concordant.
b. discordant.
c. dissimilar.
d. similar.
e. dizygotic.
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89. If one twin has Omega Syndrome and the other is more likely to have it than the
average non-related individual, then Omega Syndrome is
a. concordant.
b. discordant.
c. dissimilar.
d. similar.
e. dizygotic.
90. If a child has a characteristic that is largely determined by genetics, she or he would be
most similar to
a. biological parents.
b. adoptive parents.
c. cousins.
d. brothers.
e. strangers.
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91. Which argument presents the strongest evidence for an environmental contribution to a
behavior?
92. Mom contributes a blue eye gene, whereas Dad contributes a brown eye gene. The pair
is called
a. chromosomes.
b. an allele.
c. a genome.
d. a linkage.
e. genes.
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93. The Doogie mouse was genetically engineered to have NMDA receptors that become
more efficient with age. This animal would be considered an example of a
a. knock in.
b. wildtype.
c. knockout.
d. conditional knockout.
e. conditional knock in.
94. In the ________ technique, a modified strand of RNA or DNA binds with specific
molecules of mRNA, thereby preventing the protein encoded by the mRNA from being
produced.
a. autoradiography
b. knockout
c. immediate early gene
d. antisense oligonucleotide
e. optogenetic protein
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Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
97. ________ refers to a histological procedure in which blood is drained and replaced by
another fluid, such as a salt solution.
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98. ________ is the most common stain used to visualize cell bodies in brain tissue.
99. Produced by some white blood cells, ________ are used by neuroscientists to bind
specific proteins in the nervous system.
100. ________ is a common drug that can be used in retrograde tracing procedures.
101. ________ scans can differentiate white matter from gray matter in the living human
brain, but cannot be used to identify small bundles of axons.
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102. ________ scans can be used to classify small collections of axon bundles.
103. _____________ are used in single-cell recording because they can record the
electrical activity of individual neurons.
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106. __________ is a protein that is produced when immediate early genes are turned on.
107. The scanning technique that has the best spatial and temporal resolution is ________.
109. The photoprotein NpHR controls a ________ channel and is sensitive to yellow light.
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110. The technique of ________ takes advantage of the fact that light can alter voltage-
gated channels in neurons.
111. Transcranial magnetic stimulation is used to temporarily ________ local regions of the
cerebral cortex.
112. The ________ method uses an antibody linked to a radioactive molecule to bind to a
peptide or an enzyme in brain tissue.
113. Twins that share a particular trait are ________ for that trait.
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Essay Questions
115. What is the rationale for using the experimental ablation method?
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117. Explain how the activity of a brain region can be temporarily inactivated.
118. Explain how and why the brain is preserved during the histology process.
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120. Explain how the activity of brain cells is measured using autoradiography.
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123. Compare the twin method with the adoption method for the purposes of assessing the
contribution of genes versus environment to traits and behaviors.
Revel Quizzes
The following questions appear at the end of each module and at the end of the chapter in
Revel for Physiology of Behavior, 13th Edition.
EOM Q5.1.2
Question: Researchers use electric current to destroy Brain Area A and conclude that the
resulting absence of a certain behavior reflects Brain Area A’s control of the behavior.
However, Brain Area A is not actually involved in the behavior; instead, the behavior
reflects a different brain area through which the current passed. The researchers could
_____ to control for this erroneous conclusion.
a. use sham lesions
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EOM Q5.1.3
Question: Leslie suffers from severe obsessive-compulsive disorder. A psychiatrist
recommends that Leslie undergo a procedure involving a stereotaxic apparatus. The
psychiatrist MOST likely recommended:
a. functional magnetic resonance imaging.
b. electroconvulsive therapy.
c. computerized axial tomography.
d. deep brain stimulation.
Answer: D
Consider This: During this procedure, an electrode is implanted in a person’s head; LO
5.3: Describe the process of stereotaxic surgery.
Learning Objective: 5.3: Describe the process of stereotaxic surgery.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM Q5.1.4
Question: Researchers want to find out which brain region sends axons to a particular
group of brain cells they are investigating. To discover this, researchers can trace
________ axons using ________ labeling.
a. afferent; retrograde
b. efferent; retrograde
c. afferent; anterograde
d. efferent; anterograde
Answer: A
Consider This: “Retro” means in the past; LO 5.5: Compare techniques for tracing efferent
and afferent axons.
Learning Objective: 5.5: Compare techniques for tracing efferent and afferent axons.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM Q5.1.5
Question: Which scan could be used to find the location of a lesion in a living brain?
a. computerized tomography
b. diffusion tensor imaging
c. confocal laser scanning microscopy
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d. electroencephalogram
Answer: A
Consider This: These scans provide an image similar to an X-ray; LO 5.6: Contrast
methods to study the structure of the living human brain..
Learning Objective: LO 5.6: Contrast methods to study the structure of the living human
brain.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q5.2.2
Question: To record the neural activity of a brain region, researchers would use:
a. computerized tomography.
b. magnets.
c. microelectrodes.
d. macroelectrodes.
Answer: D
Consider This: Consider the size of the area researchers are trying to record; LO 5.7:
Compare methods of recording neural activity.
Learning Objective: 5.7: Compare methods of recording neural activity.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q5.2.3
Question: An experimenter injects 2-DG into an animal and then exposes it to a new food.
After the animal has been euthanized, the brain is sliced and prepared for ____________ to
determine which areas of the brain were activated.
a. autoradiography
b. immunocytochemistry
c. functional imaging
d. positron emission tomography
Answer: A
Consider This: 2-DG is a radioactive substance; LO 5.8: Compare methods for assessing
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EOM Q5.2.4
Question: Researchers CANNOT stimulate the brain using:
a. electrical current.
b. kainic acid.
c. glutamic acid.
d. experimental ablation.
Answer: D
Consider This: You cannot stimulate something by destroying it; LO 5.9: Compare
methods of neural stimulation.
Learning Objective: 5.9: Compare methods of neural stimulation.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q5.2.5
Question: Effects of chemical stimulation are ____________ than effects of electrical
stimulation.
a. more widespread
b. more localized
c. less effective
d. more effective
Answer: B
Consider This: Chemical stimulation affects individual cells rather than cells and all
projections in an area; LO 5.9: Compare methods of neural stimulation.
Learning Objective: 5.9: Compare methods of neural stimulation.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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EOM Q5.3.2
Question: If researchers expose slices of brain tissue to the appropriate antibody (labeled
with a fluorescent dye) and then look at the slices with a microscope under light of a
particular wavelength, they are using:
a. immunocytochemistry.
b. autoradiography.
c. functional imaging.
d. anterograde labeling.
Answer: A
Consider This: Antibodies are used in immune system functioning; LO 5.11: Compare
methods to localize particular receptors.
Learning Objective: 5.11: Compare methods to localize particular receptors.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q5.3.3
Question: The first step in microdialysis is _____, whereas the last step is _____.
a. placing tubing in the brain; analyzing the fluid
b. pumping solution in; placing tubing in the brain
c. placing tubing in the brain; collecting molecules from extracellular fluid
d. collecting molecules from extracellular fluid; pumping solution in
Answer: A
Consider This: The whole purpose of this procedure is to analyze the amount of
neurotransmitter in a certain location; LO 5.12: Compare methods used to examine
chemicals secreted in the brain.
Learning Objective: 5.12: Compare methods used to examine chemicals secreted in the
brain.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
EOM Q5.3.4
Question: Microdialysis indicates that the neurotransmitter _______________ is present
after sexual behavior in female rats.
a. norepinephrine
b. serotonin
c. dopamine
d. glutamate
Answer: A
Consider This: This neurotransmitter is typically involved in the stress response; LO 5.12:
Compare methods used to examine chemicals secreted in the brain.
Learning Objective: 5.12: Compare methods used to examine chemicals secreted in the
brain.
Difficulty Level: Easy
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EOM Q5.3.5
Question: Microdialysis is used to measure secretions by:
a. synthesizing enzymes.
b. postsynaptic cells.
c. presynaptic cells.
d. glial cells.
Answer: C
Consider This: Where are neurotransmitters released from?; LO 5.12: Compare methods
used to examine chemicals secreted in the brain.
Learning Objective: 5.12: Compare methods used to examine chemicals secreted in the
brain.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q5.4.2
Question: If a child has a characteristic that is largely determined by the environment, they
would be most similar to:
a. biological parents.
b. adoptive parents.
c. cousins.
d. no one.
Answer: B
Consider This: Nurture would be determined by the environment whereas nature would be
genetics or biological factors; LO 5.14: Evaluate the role of adoption studies in assessing
genetic contributions to a behavior.
Learning Objective: 5.14: Evaluate the role of adoption studies in assessing genetic
contributions to a behavior.
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EOM Q5.4.3
Question: Researchers create a mouse that develops normally, but a gene turns off when
the animal is given a certain drug. This animal is an example of a:
a. knock-in.
b. knockout.
c. conditional knockout.
d. conditional knock-in.
Answer: C
Consider This: The removal of the gene only happens under certain conditions; LO 5.16:
Summarize how targeted mutations can be used to reveal genetic contributions to behavior.
Learning Objective: 5.16: Summarize how targeted mutations can be used to reveal genetic
contributions to a behavior.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q5.4.4
Question: Antisense oligonucleotides:
a. are used to block production of proteins.
b. introduce new genes into species.
c. localize receptors.
d. localize neurotransmitters.
Answer: A
Consider This: The most common type are modified strands of RNA or DNA that will bind
with specific molecules of messenger RNA; LO 5.17: Describe how antisense
oligonucleotides function to change behavior.
Learning Objective: 5.17: Describe how antisense oligonucleotides function to change
behavior.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q5.4.5
Question: CRISPR-Cas methods have been used to study the role of genes in behavior in:
a. invertebrates only.
b. invertebrates and mammals.
c. higher primates and humans only.
d. humans only.
Answer: B
Consider This: The text states that the methods have been used in a range of species; LO
5.18: Summarize the uses of CRISPR-Cas methods in neuroscience research.
Learning Objective: 5.18: Summarize the uses of CRISPR-Cas methods in neuroscience
research.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOC Q5.2
Question: Killing neurons through overstimulation may be caused by:
a. electric current via wire.
b. anesthesia.
c. excitatory amino acids.
d. sucking away brain tissue.
Answer: C
Consider This: What would cause neurons to fire repeatedly?; LO 5.2: Compare methods
of producing brain lesions.
Learning Objective: 5.2: Compare methods of producing brain lesions.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q5.3
Question: Using a stereotaxic atlas for surgery:
a. provides a ballpark estimation of the location of brain areas.
b. provides an exact location of brain areas.
c. is rare.
d. is only possible for animals, not humans.
Answer: A
Consider This: The nature of plasticity can be seen as synonymous with variation; LO 5.3:
Describe the process of stereotaxic surgery.
Learning Objective: 5.3: Describe the process of stereotaxic surgery.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q5.4
Question: To determine the location of a lesion after the sacrifice of an animal, brain
slices created with a ___________ are stained to visualize the brain areas.
a. cannula
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b. microtome
c. oscilloscope
d. stimulator
Answer: B
Consider This: This machine slices brain tissue into thin slices; LO 5.4: Summarize the
steps of histological methods.
Learning Objective: 5.4: Summarize the steps of histological methods.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q5.5
Question: A team of vision scientists has isolated a group of cells that seem involved in
motion perception. “The next step is to find out where these cells send their axons,” the
lead investigator remarks. The team can do this by tracing ________ axons using
________ labeling.
a. afferent; retrograde
b. efferent; retrograde
c. afferent; anterograde
d. efferent; anterograde
Answer: D
Consider This: “Retro” means in the past; LO 5.5: Compare techniques for tracing efferent
and afferent axons.
Learning Objective: 5.5: Compare techniques for tracing efferent and afferent axons.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Skill Level: Apply What You Know.
EOC Q5.6
Question: Compared to fMRI, magnetoencephalography:
a. is clearer.
b. is more detailed.
c. has excellent spatial resolution.
d. can record fast-moving events.
Answer: D
Consider This: fMRI does not have good temporal resolution; LO 5.7: Compare methods
of recording neural activity.
Learning Objective: 5.7: Compare methods of recording neural activity.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
EOC Q5.7
Question: The brain imaging method with the BEST spatial resolution is:
a. fMRI
b. CT
c. PET
d. MRI
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Answer: A
Consider This: This imaging method measures brain activity by detecting levels of oxygen
in the brain’s blood vessels; LO 5.8: Compare methods for assessing metabolic and
synaptic activity.
Learning Objective: 5.8: Compare methods for assessing metabolic and synaptic activity.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q5.8
Question: Optogenetic methods involve:
a. introducing photosensitive proteins via viruses to stimulate or inhibit brain regions.
b. introducing new receptors into the brain.
c. removing genes from the genome.
d. imaging brain regions.
Answer: A
Consider This: “Opto” refers to vision; LO 5.9: Compare methods of neural stimulation.
Learning Objective: 5.9: Compare methods of neural stimulation.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q5.9
Question: In _________________, slices of brain are exposed to antibodies for the
peptides researchers wish to localize and then linked to a dye.
a. immunocytochemistry
b. autoradiography
c. functional imaging
d. anterograde labeling
Answer: A
Consider This: Antibodies are used in immune system functioning; LO 5.10: Describe
methods to identify neurons that produce a particular neurochemical.
Learning Objective: 5.10: Describe methods to identify neurons that produce a particular
neurochemical.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q5.10
Question: In ____________, a researcher exposes slices of brain tissue to a solution
containing a radioactive ligand for a particular receptor.
a. autoradiography
b. functional imaging
c. anterograde labeling
d. immunocytochemistry
Answer: A
Consider This: The ligand is radioactive; LO 5.11: Compare methods to localize particular
receptors.
Learning Objective: 5.11: Compare methods to localize particular receptors.
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EOC Q5.11
Question: Which imaging technique can be used to localize dopamine?
a. MRI
b. CT
c. fMRI
d. PET
Answer: D
Consider This: This scan can be used to localize any radioactive substance that emits
positrons and radioactive L-DOPA can be injected; LO 5.12: Compare methods used to
examine chemicals secreted in the brain.
Learning Objective: 5.12: Compare methods used to examine chemicals secreted in the
brain.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q5.12
Question: Kylie and Rylie are twins. If Kylie has Syndrome B and Rylie is no more likely
to have it than the average person who is not related to Kylie, then Syndrome B is:
a. concordant.
b. contagious.
c. nonconcordant.
d. noncontagious.
Answer: C
Consider This: Concordance rates are the degree to which an illness or disease is genetic;
LO 5.13: Describe how twin concordance rates can be used to assess genetic contributions
to a behavior.
Learning Objective: 5.13: Describe how twin concordance rates can be used to assess
genetic contributions to a behavior.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOC Q5.13
Question: If a child has a characteristic that is largely determined by genetics, then they
would be most similar to:
a. biological parents.
b. adoptive parents.
c. cousins.
d. no one.
Answer: A
Consider This: Nurture would be determined by the environment whereas nature would be
genetics or biological factors; LO 5.14: Evaluate the role of adoption studies in assessing
genetic contributions to a behavior.
Learning Objective: 5.14: Evaluate the role of adoption studies in assessing genetic
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contributions to a behavior.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q5.14
Question: Mom contributes a blue eye gene whereas Dad contributes a brown eye gene.
These differing variants of the eye color gene are called:
a. alleles.
b. markers.
c. genomes.
d. antisenses.
Answer: A
Consider This: The term means “combining to one another”; LO 5.15: Identify genomic
techniques used to study physical and behavioral traits.
Learning Objective: 5.15: Identify genomic techniques used to study physical and
behavioral traits.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q5.15
Question: The Doogie mouse was genetically engineered to have NMDA receptors that
become more efficient with age. This mouse is an example of a:
a. knock-in.
b. knockout.
c. conditional knockout.
d. conditional knock-in.
Answer: A
Consider This: Researchers added receptors to these animals; LO 5.16: Summarize how
targeted mutations can be used to study genetic contributions to behavior.
Learning Objective: 5.16: Summarize how targeted mutations can be used to study genetic
contributions to behavior.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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Chapter 6: Vision
Topic Question Type Remember the Understand the Apply What You
Facts Concepts Know
The Eye Multiple Choice 4-7,9,11,13-16, 3,8,10,12,17,23,25, 1,2,19
18,20-22,24,26, 27,35-37,39,41
28-34,38,40,42,43
Fill-In 101-108 109
Essay 121 122-124
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Multiple-Choice Questions
1. Darren looks around the room and his visual receptor cells detect edges, colors, and contrasts.
This visual experience is best classified as
a. perception.
b. stimulation.
c. innervation.
d. excitation.
e. sensation.
2. Darren looks around a crowded room and identifies Samantha from the favorite red shirt she’s
wearing. This visual experience is best classified as
a. perception.
b. stimulation.
c. innervation.
d. excitation.
e. sensation.
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3. Seeing splotches of color is an act of __________, whereas seeing a painting of a tree would
be an act of ____________.
a. sensation; perception
b. sensation; stimulation
c. stimulation; sensation
d. perception; stimulation
e. perception; sensation
a. infrared radiation.
b. electromagnetic radiation between wavelengths of 380 and 760 nm.
c. ultraviolet radiation.
d. gamma rays.
e. electrical charges associated with light particles.
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5. The perceptual attribute of ________ is determined by the wavelength of light being detected.
a. saturation
b. brightness
c. hue
d. threshold
e. contrast
a. brightness
b. saturation
c. hue
d. color
e. threshold
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7. Variation in the ________ of a light will result in variation in the perception of ________.
a. wavelength; brightness
b. saturation; brightness
c. wavelength; saturation
d. intensity; purity
e. wavelength; hue
a. saturation; rods
b. receptor; transduction
c. hue; light intensity
d. brightness; hue
e. saturation; hue
a. saturation
b. brightness
c. hue
d. threshold
e. contrast
10. If a light stimulus that contains an equal number of all wavelengths is presented to a human,
that person will report a perception of
a. a black color.
b. a rainbow of colors.
c. mostly purple.
d. white.
e. a fuzzy set of alternating black and white bars.
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a. axon terminal.
b. neuron.
c. motor cell.
d. muscle fiber.
e. skin cell.
14. The ________ is the membrane that prevents a contact lens from slipping into the space
behind the eyeball.
a. iris
b. cornea
c. conjunctiva
d. vitreous humor
e. sclera
Answer: C
APA Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in
psychology.
15. The term ________ refers to the bony skull cavities that house our eyes.
a. orbit
b. optic disk
c. optic sinus
d. conjunctiva
e. optic ossicle
16. The area of the eye that contains the sensory receptors is the
a. retina.
b. optic nerve.
c. fovea.
d. cornea.
e. lens.
18. The correct order in which light comes into the eye from the external world is
19. Damage to the muscles that connect the orbits with the sclera would be expected to
20. The amount of light entering the eye is regulated by the size of the
a. optic orbits.
b. lens.
c. sclera.
d. pupil.
e. optic nerve.
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21. The rods and cones in the human eye are collectively referred to as
a. photoreceptors.
b. the hemiretina.
c. the fovea.
d. ganglion cells.
e. vitreous humor.
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a. a region within the retina that has the best visual acuity.
b. where the rods are most densely packed.
c. where the cones are most densely packed.
d. where axons leave the eye and join the optic nerve.
e. where visual signals begin to diverge laterally.
27. The explanation for the “blind spot” in our visual field is that
a. the lens cannot focus all of the visual field onto the retina.
b. blood vessels collect together and enter the eye at the blind spot.
c. rods are less sensitive to light than are cones.
d. retinal cells die with age and overuse, resulting in blind spots.
e. there are no photoreceptors in the retina where the axons exit the eye.
28. Axons that arise from the ________ cells form the optic nerve.
a. horizontal
b. bipolar
c. ganglion
d. amacrine
e. photoreceptor
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29. The ________ cells receive information from the photoreceptors and pass it to the ganglion
cells.
a. amacrine
b. horizontal
c. bipolar
d. cones
e. photopigment
30. Which neuron type transmits information in a plane parallel to the surface of the retina?
a. amacrine
b. multipolar
c. bipolar
d. unipolar
e. nociceptor
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a. lamellae of photoreceptors.
b. inner membrane of bipolar cells.
c. ganglion cells.
d. amacrine cells.
e. outer membrane of horizontal cells.
32. Photopigments are molecules found in rods and cones that consist of
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a. light avoiders.
b. miniature cameras.
c. constantly depolarized.
d. clumps of seaweed.
e. darkness detectors.
a. In the dark, the photoreceptor releases a neurotransmitter that inhibits the bipolar cell.
b. Light depolarizes the photoreceptor.
c. Action potentials are recorded from bipolar cells after light exposure.
d. Action potentials are recorded from the photoreceptors after light exposure.
e. In the dark, the photoreceptor releases a neurotransmitter that excites the bipolar cell.
37. When light strikes a molecule of photopigment, the membrane potential undergoes a(n)
________, which in turn ________.
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38. Giuseppe’s gaze shifts abruptly from one point to another as he reads through his phlebotomy
textbook. This movement, which occurs outside of Giuseppe’s conscious control, is called
a. saccadic movement.
b. vergence movement.
c. pursuit movement.
d. erratic movement.
e. smooth movement.
39. Which statement correctly explains the higher acuity of the visual system at the fovea,
relative to the periphery, of the retina?
a. A foveal ganglion cell may receive information from a single photoreceptor, whereas
a peripheral ganglion cell may receive information from multiple photoreceptors.
b. The fovea contains only rods, which are directly connected to the ganglion cells.
c. Peripheral photoreceptors are more likely to be damaged by prolonged light exposure.
d. The foveal photoreceptor cells contain more photopigment per cell.
e. Peripheral photoreceptors are more isolated from bipolar cells and thus require
greater activation in order to provoke a visual response.
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40. Visual information from the retina is carried by ________ to the ________.
41. Which statement is true regarding the manner in which visual information is carried from the
retina to the cortex?
a. Information from the temporal ganglion cells projects to the opposite hemisphere.
b. Information from the nasal ganglion cells projects to the ipsilateral hemisphere.
c. Information from one side of the visual field is transmitted to the opposite
hemisphere.
d. Visual information remains on the same side of the brain as it moves from retina to
cortex.
e. The left hemisphere receives information from the left half of the visual field.
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42. When cortical regions involved in conscious visual processing are damaged, but other visual
pathways involved in that same perceptual process are not, the result is called
a. blindsight.
b. contralateral neglect.
c. visual acuity.
d. ciliary decay.
e. blindness.
a. visuospatial cortex.
b. striate cortex.
c. optic cortex.
d. calcarine cortex.
e. superior viaduct cortex.
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44. Which statement regarding the thalamic dorsal lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) is correct?
45. The parvocellular and magnocellular layers of the dorsal lateral geniculate nucleus
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46. The two inner layers of the lateral geniculate nucleus are ____________ and the four outer
layers are _____________.
a. magnocellular; parvocellular
b. parvocellular; magnocellular
c. koniocellular; parvocellular
d. magnocellular; koniocellular
e. cellular; magnocellular
47. David Hubel and Torsten Wiesel demonstrated that neurons in the visual cortex respond to
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48. Neurons in the interblob area project to ______________ and send information about
________________.
49. Cytochrome oxidase blobs are predominantly found in layers __________ of the striate
cortex.
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 4 and 5
e. 5 and 6
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50. The neurons from the parvocellular and magnocellular layers of the primate lateral geniculate
send their information to layer(s) ________ of the striate cortex.
a. 1
b. 2A
c. 3B
d. 4C
e. 5-6
51. A column of neurons that lie within the blob region of striate cortex modules can be
selectively destroyed by an intracolumn injection of a neurotoxin. The expected result is that
________ would be profoundly impaired by this toxin.
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52. Cells that lie within the blob regions of Area V1 project to
53. The dorsal visual stream terminates in the ________ and is involved in ________.
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54. The ventral visual stream terminates in the ________ and is involved in ________.
55. Tasks that involve identification of an object’s form would be expected to activate neurons in
________, whereas tasks that identify the location of an object would activate ________.
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56. In the extrastriate cortex, the ____________ stream is responsible for identifying an object.
a. dorsal
b. ventral
c. rostral
d. caudal
e. anterior
57. Omar is a baseball player. In order for him to catch a fly ball, his __________ stream must
analyze information related to where the ball is located in space.
a. dorsal
b. ventral
c. rostral
d. caudal
e. anterior
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58. A microelectrode is inserted into a neuron within the primate visual system. Various stimuli
are presented to the eyes, and changes in firing rate are recorded from this visual system neuron.
Those aspects of the visual field to which this neuron responds with a change in firing rate are
termed the
59. A microelectrode inserted into a cat retinal ganglion cell of the ON cell type would
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62. There are three different cones that process different wavelengths of light. These
wavelengths correspond to the colors
63. The trichromatic theory of color vision has difficulty explaining why
a. a mixture of yellow and blue lights will form the color green.
b. some people are color blind.
c. any color can be produced by the appropriate mixture of three colors.
d. color is a useful aspect of primate vision.
e. yellow is a primary color.
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66. Luisa has tritanopia. When she looks around at the world, she sees shades of red and green.
Her defect is caused by a lack of
a. red cones.
b. green cones.
c. yellow cones.
d. blue cones.
e. white cones.
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68. The fact that we experience visual negative afterimages supports the
69. ________ colors form white (or gray) when mixed together.
a. Pastel
b. Afterimage
c. Opponent-process
d. Neon
e. Complementary
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70. Color information from the “blue” cones is transmitted through the ________ system(s).
a. magnocellular
b. parvocellular
c. inter-blob
d. koniocellular
e. extrapyramidal
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72. Which pair correctly matches a visual system with a visual function?
73. Cells located within the “blobs” of striate cortex play a key role in
a. color vision.
b. depth perception.
c. line orientation.
d. analyzing retinal disparity.
e. pattern discrimination.
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74. Area ________ of the primate extrastriate cortex is critical for the analysis of ________.
a. V5; form
b. V4; form and color
c. V8; movement
d. V3; form
e. V8; form
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77. Imagine that you are looking at a bronze cast depicting the face of Mick Jagger and a second
cast showing the face of Casper the Friendly Ghost. Which statement would be true of the spatial
frequencies represented in these casts?
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78. The receptive fields of neurons of the primate inferior temporal cortex
79. Visual agnosia, the inability to visually recognize objects, is caused by damage to the
_____________ of the extrastriate cortex.
a. dorsal stream
b. ventral stream
c. rostral stream
d. caudal stream
e. posterior stream
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80. The lateral occipital complex is a portion of the ________ that responds to ________.
a. texture.
b. color.
c. movement.
d. objects.
e. spatial location.
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82. Rolando experiences a stroke and, in the aftermath, he is unable to visually recognize his
loved ones, although he can recognize them when they speak. It is likely he has ________ caused
by damage in the ___________.
83. Damage limited to the fusiform region of the ________ would be expected to impair the
recognition of ________.
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84. Neurons within the ________ play a key role in the analysis of ________.
85. Greater activation of the ________ occurs when a person views pictures of people from her
or his own race as opposed to pictures of people from other racial groups.
a. temporal cortex
b. corpus callosum
c. lateral nuclei of the amygdala
d. fusiform face area
e. dorsal-ventral extrastriate cortex
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87. The depth cue of ________ requires the combination of input from both eyes.
a. apparent movement
b. relative retinal size
c. atmospheric haze
d. stereopsis
e. perspective
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a. perspective
b. relative retinal size
c. loss of detail due to atmospheric haze
d. relative apparent movement of retinal images as we shift our heads
e. retinal disparity
89. When Richie looks at his raised finger, he can make it “jump” from one location by looking
at it with only his left eye and then with only his right eye. This perception that Richie’s finger is
in two different places (when it is not) is called
a. perspective.
b. relative retinal size.
c. perceptual constancy.
d. depth perception.
e. retinal disparity.
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90. Disparity-sensitive neurons in the ______________ stream respond to large, extended visual
surfaces.
a. rostral
b. caudal
c. ventral
d. dorsal
e. posterior
a. brightness sensitivity.
b. perception of negative afterimages.
c. relative retinal size.
d. stereopsis.
e. blue-yellow color vision.
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92. Which pair correctly matches a visual function with a subregion of the intraparietal sulcus
(IPS)?
93. Research by Melvyn Goodale and colleagues indicates that the primary function of the dorsal
stream of the visual cortex is to
a. LIP.
b. AIP.
c. CIP.
d. MIP.
e. VIP.
96. What brain region in monkeys is most important for perception of movement?
a. area MT.
b. auditory cortex.
c. basal amygdala.
d. superior colliculus.
e. area TEO.
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98. Damage to the medial superior temporal brain region would be expected to impair
99. Temporary inactivation of an area in the human cortex that is analogous to area V5 in the
primate brain would be expected to
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100. In an experiment conducted by Gunnar Johansson, actors dressed in all black wore lights at
key points on their bodies and then walked or moved. Participants could only see the
illumination of the lights, not the actors themselves. Participants were able to determine the sex
of the actors by the movements of the
a. heads.
b. head and shoulders.
c. shoulders and hips.
d. feet and hips.
e. head and hips.
Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
102. During ________, an external energy is converted into changes in receptor membrane
potential.
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103. The physical dimension of light intensity determines the psychological dimension of light
________.
104. The area of the eye that contains the sensory receptors is the __________.
105. The amount of light entering the eye is regulated by the size of the ________.
106. ________ refers to the process by which changes in lens shape help to focus images onto the
retina.
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108. ________ is the neurotransmitter released from the photoreceptors onto the bipolar cells of
the retina.
109. The aspect of the visual field that elicits a change in the firing rate of a given visual cell is
known as its ________.
110. The visual analysis of the “what” of an object is carried out by the ________ stream.
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111. The primate retina contains four possible combinations of retinal and protein that together
make four ________.
112. ________ is a rare color vision defect in the retina that is found equally in men and women.
114. The ________ system receives information from “red” and “green” cones.
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115. Difficulty in the perception of faces produced by damage to visual association cortex is
known as ________.
117. Area ________ in the extrastriate cortex in monkeys is most important for the perception of
movement.
118. Damage to region 5a (MST) would be expected to impair the perception of optic ________.
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119. Akinetopsia refers to the inability to sense ________ after brain damage.
120. Damage to area ________ produces a loss of color vision but no change in visual acuity.
Essay Questions
121. Describe how the physical dimensions of light correspond to the psychological dimensions
of light.
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123. Explain how the receptor potential produced in a photoreceptor by light generates action
potentials within the retina.
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125. Delineate the structures and functions of the magnocellular and parvocellular visual
systems.
126. Explain the organization of neurons into modules in the striate cortex.
127. Compare the anatomy and function of the dorsal and ventral streams.
128. Explain how information from retinal ganglion cells can be used by neurons in the striate
cortex that function as feature detectors.
129. Explain the concept of a receptive field in the visual system and provide an example of this
concept for a ganglion cell at work.
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Revel Quizzes
The following questions appear at the end of each module and at the end of the chapter in Revel
for Physiology of Behavior, 13th Edition.
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EOM Q6.1.2
Question: Sanjay recognizes his friend among the sea of faces in a crowded train station. This
example BEST illustrates the process called:
a. sensation.
b. perception.
c. stimulation.
d. innervation.
Answer: B
Consider This: This example is Sanjay’s interpretation of the events around him; LO 6.1:
Differentiate sensation and perception.
Learning Objective: 6.1: Differentiate sensation and perception.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM Q6.1.3
Question: The area of the eye that contains the sensory receptors is called the:
a. retina.
b. optic nerve.
c. fovea.
d. cornea.
Answer: A
Consider This: This area is the inner lining of the eye; LO 6.3: Organize the structures and
functions of the eye involved in visual processing.
Skill: Remember the Facts
Difficulty: Easy
Objective: LO 6.3: Organize the structures and functions of the eye involved in visual
processing.
EOM Q6.1.4
Question: Because it is a nocturnal creature, an owl MOST likely has:
a. more rods than cones.
b. more cones than rods.
c. more cones in the periphery.
d. equal numbers of rods and cones.
Answer: A
Consider This: Rods are responsible for vision in dim light, whereas cones are responsible for
vision in bright light; LO 6.4: Contrast the location and function of rods and cones.
Learning Objective: 6.4: Contrast the location and function of rods and cones.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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EOM Q6.1.5
Question: The visual pathway proceeds from:
a. the retina, to the LGN, to the striate cortex.
b. the retina, to the striate cortex, to the LGN.
c. the LGN, to the retina, to the striate cortex.
d. the LGN, to the striate cortex, to the retina.
Answer: A
Consider This: The pathway begins at the eye and ends in the higher brain areas; LO 6.7:
Describe the components of the visual pathway.
Learning Objective: 6.7: Describe the components of the visual pathway.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
EOM Q6.2.2
Question: The “special function” of striate cortex neurons inside the CO blobs is BEST
described as:
a. color sensitivity.
b. sensitivity to orientation.
c. binocularity.
d. sensitivity to movement.
Answer: A
Consider This: Cells inside the blobs receive input from the LGN’s parvo- and konicellular
layers; LO 6.10: Identify the functions and organization of the striate cortex.
Learning Objective: 6.10: Identify the functions and organization of the striate cortex.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM Q6.2.3
Question: Cytochrome oxidase blobs are predominantly found in layers ________ of the striate
cortex.
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 4 and 5
d. 5 and 6
Answer: B
Consider This: Although found in more areas, the concentration of blobs are greatest in these two
layers; LO 6.10: Identify the functions and organization of the striate cortex.
Learning Objective: 6.10: Identify the functions and organization of the striate cortex.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q6.2.4
Question: In the striate cortex, neurons in CO blobs project to _____________ stripes and send
information about ________________.
a. thin; color
b. thick; orientation
c. pale; spatial frequency
d. thin; orientation
Answer: A
Consider This: CO blobs are chromatic; LO 6.10: Identify the functions and organization of the
striate cortex.
Learning Objective: 6.10: Identify the functions and organization of the striate cortex.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q6.2.5
Question: In the extrastriate cortex, the ____________ stream is responsible for identifying an
object.
a. dorsal
b. ventral
c. rostral
d. caudal
Answer: B
Consider this: This stream goes from the back of the brain “toward the belly”; LO 6.11 Describe
the structures and functions of the pathways of the extrastriate cortex.
Learning Objective: 6.11: Describe the structures and functions of the pathways of the
extrastriate cortex.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOM Q6.3.2
Question: There are three different cones that process different wavelengths of light. These
wavelengths correspond to the colors:
a. blue, red, and green.
b. blue, red, and yellow.
c. red, green, and yellow.
d. blue, yellow, and red.
Answer: A
Consider This: Consider the types of color blindness that exist. Is there one color that is never
mentioned?; LO 6.13: Differentiate between the trichromatic and opponent-color system
theories.
Learning Objective: 6.13: Differentiate between the trichromatic and opponent-color system
theories.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOM Q6.3.3
Question: Emma has tritanopia. When she looks around at the world, she sees shades of red and
green. Her defect is caused by a lack of ____________ cones.
a. blue
b. red
c. green
d. yellow
Answer: A
Consider This: She is missing one of the three primary colors; LO 6.13: Differentiate between
the trichromatic and opponent-color system theories.
Learning Objective: 6.13: Differentiate between the trichromatic and opponent-color system
theories.
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
Difficulty Level: Moderate
EOM Q6.3.4
Question: A neuropsychologist examines a patient with damage to her extrastriate visual cortex.
The patient shows some deficits in color perception. Based on this information, the patient
MOST likely suffered damage to area V4 or to area:
a. V8.
b. V7.
c. V2.
d. V5.
Answer: A
Consider This: The correct area is adjacent to the fusiform face area; LO 6.14: Describe the role
of the striate and extrastriate cortex in color perception.
Learning Objective: 6.14: Describe the role of the striate and extrastriate cortex in color
perception.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM Q6.3.5
Question: The __________ system receives information from the red and green cones, whereas
the __________ system receives information from the blue cones.
a. parvocellular; koniocellular
b. magnocellular; parvocellular
c. parvocellular; magnocellular
d. koniocellular; parvocellular
Answer: A
Consider This: It was previously believed that the parvocellular system received all color
information, but we now know the information it receives is limited; LO 6.14: Describe the role
of the striate and extrastriate cortex in color perception.
Learning Objective: 6.14: Describe the role of the striate and extrastriate cortex in color
perception.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOM Q6.4.2
Question: Visual agnosia, the inability to visually recognize objects, is caused by damage to the
_____________ stream of the extrastriate cortex.
a. ventral
b. dorsal
c. rostral
d. caudal
Answer: A
Consider This: This pathway is “toward the belly”; LO 6.16: Describe the roles of the ventral
stream and fusiform face area in perceiving form.
Learning Objective: 6.16: Describe the roles of the ventral stream and fusiform face area in
perceiving form.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOM Q6.4.3
Question: Arlando experiences a stroke, and afterwards he is unable to visually recognize his
loved ones, although he can recognize them when they speak. It is likely he has ________ caused
by damage to his ____________.
a. prosopagnosia; fusiform face area
b. visual agnosia; fusiform face area
c. anomia; inferior temporal cortex
d. prosopagnosia; inferior temporal cortex
Answer: A
Consider This: This disorder is related to damage in the ventral stream; LO 6.16: Describe the
roles of the ventral stream and fusiform face area in perceiving form.
Learning Objective: 6.16: Describe the roles of the ventral stream and fusiform face area in
perceiving form.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM Q6.4.4
Question: The __________________ in the brain is specifically activated by photographs,
silhouettes, or stick drawings of human bodies or body parts.
a. extrastriate body area
b. fusiform face area
c. parahippocampal place area
d. inferior temporal cortex
Answer: A
Consider This: TMS disrupts this area, resulting in impaired ability to recognize photographs of
body parts, but not parts of faces or motorcycles; LO 6.16: Describe the roles of the ventral
stream and fusiform face area in perceiving form.
Learning Objective: 6.16: Describe the roles of the ventral stream and fusiform face area in
perceiving form.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q6.4.5
Question: The _________________ in the brain is activated by the sight of scenes and
backgrounds.
a. extrastriate body area
b. fusiform face area
c. parahippocampal place area
d. inferior temporal cortex
Answer: C
Consider This: This area is part of the limbic cortex; LO 6.16: Describe the roles of the ventral
stream and fusiform face area in perceiving form.
Learning Objective: 6.16: Describe the roles of the ventral stream and fusiform face area in
perceiving form.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOM Q6.5.2
Question: Disparity-sensitive neurons in the ____________ stream respond to large, extended
visual surfaces.
a. dorsal
b. ventral
c. rostral
d. caudal
Answer: A
Consider This: This system is the one that is responsible for spatial perception; LO 6.18:
Describe the role of the striate and extrastriate cortex in perceiving spatial location.
Learning Objective: 6.18: Describe the role of the striate and extrastriate cortex in perceiving
spatial location.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q6.5.3
Question: Disparity-sensitive neurons in the ____________ stream respond to contours of three-
dimensional objects.
a. dorsal
b. ventral
c. rostral
d. caudal
Answer: B
Consider This: This system is responsible for object perception; LO 6.18: Describe the role of
the striate and extrastriate cortex in perceiving spatial location.
Learning Objective: 6.18: Describe the role of the striate and extrastriate cortex in perceiving
spatial location.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOM Q6.5.4
Question: Perception of depth from stereopsis is controlled by the:
a. LIP.
b. AIP.
c. CIP.
d. MIP.
Answer: C
Consider This: This area is located in the caudal portion of the parietal cortex; LO 6.18: Describe
the role of the striate and extrastriate cortex in perceiving spatial location.
Learning Objective: 6.18: Describe the role of the striate and extrastriate cortex in perceiving
spatial location.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q6.5.5
Question: Saccadic eye movements are controlled by the:
a. LIP and VIP.
b. AIP and MIP.
c. CIP and MIP.
d. LIP and CIP.
Answer: A
Consider This: These areas are located in the ventral and lateral areas of the parietal cortex; LO
6.18: Describe the role of the striate and extrastriate cortex in perceiving spatial location.
Learning Objective: 6.18: Describe the role of the striate and extrastriate cortex in perceiving
spatial location.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOM Q6.6.2
Question: Neurons in the striate cortex are described as being sensitive to orientation. This
means that they respond to:
a. lines at one particular orientation: vertical, horizontal, or somewhere in between.
b. vertical lines only.
c. horizontal lines only.
d. stationary lines only.
Answer: A
Consider This: Hubel and Wiesel investigated these cells in cats in the 1950s; LO 6.19: Explain
the role of the striate cortex in perceiving orientation.
Learning Objective: 6.19: Explain the role of the striate cortex in perceiving orientation.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q6.6.3
Question: Area _____ of the extrastriate cortex responds to movement.
a. V2
b. V3
c. V4
d. V5
Answer: D
Consider This: This area is also known as MT (medial temporal); LO 6.20: Describe the role of
the extrastriate cortex in perceiving movement.
Learning Objective: 6.20: Describe the role of the extrastriate cortex in perceiving movement.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q6.6.4
Question: In a research experiment conducted by Johansson, actors dressed in all black and
wore lights at key points on their bodies and then walked or moved. Participants could only see
the illumination of the lights, not the actors themselves. Participants were able to determine the
sex of the actors solely by the movements of their:
a. heads.
b. head and shoulders.
c. shoulders and hips.
d. heads and hips.
Answer: C
Consider This: Men and women move differently in certain areas of their bodies; LO 6.20:
Describe the role of the extrastriate cortex in perceiving movement.
Learning Objective: 6.20: Describe the role of the extrastriate cortex in perceiving movement.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOM Q6.6.5
Question: As we move around the world, our eyes are constantly moving. Our brains, however,
compensate for this movement. If the junction between the _______________ lobes in the
extrastriate cortex is damaged, individuals lose this compensation.
a. temporal and parietal
b. parietal and frontal
c. occipital and parietal
d. temporal and frontal
Answer: A
Consider This: The extrastriate cortex is located “to the back”; LO 6.20: Describe the role of the
extrastriate cortex in perceiving movement.
Learning Objective: 6.20: Describe the role of the extrastriate cortex in perceiving movement.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q6.2
Question: In which order does light pass through the structures of the eye, from first to last?
a. pupil, lens, vitreous humor, retina
b. pupil, lens, retina, vitreous humor
c. lens, pupil, vitreous humor, retina
d. lens, pupil, retina, vitreous humor
Answer: A
Consider This: The light must enter the eye and travel to the back of the eye where it is analyzed;
LO 6.3: Organize the structures and functions of the eye involved in visual processing.
Learning Objective: 6.3: Organize the structures and functions of the eye involved in visual
processing.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
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EOC Q6.3
Question: When you shift your gaze abruptly from one point to another, this motion is called
_____ movement.
a. saccadic
b. vergence
c. pursuit
d. erratic
Answer: A
Consider This: These movements are often jerky rather than smooth; LO 6.6: Compare features
of the eye involved in central and peripheral vision.
Learning Objective: 6.6: Compare features of the eye involved in central and peripheral vision.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q6.4
Question: Neurons in the interblob areas project to ____________ stripes and send information
about ___________.
a. thick and pale; orientation and spatial frequency
b. thick; orientation
c. pale; spatial frequency
d. thin and pale; spatial frequency
Answer: A
Consider This: Interblob areas code for similar information as the dorsal pathway (posterior
parietal cortex); LO 6.10: Identify the functions and organization of the striate cortex.
Learning Objective: 6.10: Identify the functions and organization of the striate cortex.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q6.5
Question: Matt is a baseball player. In order for him to catch a fly ball, his __________ stream
must analyze information related to where the ball is located in space.
a. dorsal
b. ventral
c. rostral
d. caudal
Answer: A
Consider This: This stream is located “toward the back”; LO 6.11 Describe the structures and
functions of the pathways of the extrastriate cortex.
Learning Objective: 6.11 Describe the structures and functions of the pathways of the extrastriate
cortex.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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EOC Q6.6
Question: In an OFF cell with a receptive field that contains a center and surround, light would
cause excitation if it were shone:
a. in the center.
b. in the surround.
c. filling the surround.
d. in both the center and surround.
Answer: B
Consider This: Whether a cell is ON or OFF largely refers to innervation at the center of the
receptive field; LO 6.12: Compare the activity of retinal ganglion cells in perceiving light and
dark.
Learning Objective: 6.12: Compare the activity of retinal ganglion cells in perceiving light and
dark.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOC Q6.7
Question: If a blue-yellow ganglion cell is exposed to the color blue, it will fire in response to
blue. If it is exposed to yellow:
a. it will become inhibited and, upon release of exposure to yellow, cause an after-image of
blue.
b. it will become excited.
c. it will become inhibited and, upon release of exposure to yellow, cause an after-image of
red.
d. it will experience a depolarization.
Answer: A
Consider This: Blue-yellow ganglion cells either respond to either blue or yellow; LO 6.13:
Differentiate between the trichromatic and opponent-color system theories.
Learning Objective: 6.13: Differentiate between the trichromatic and opponent-color system
theories.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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EOC Q6.8
Question: When __________________ spatial frequency information is removed from a visual
scene, the images look fuzzy and out of focus.
a. low
b. high
c. medium
d. both low and high
Answer: B
Consider This: An image that is missing low- frequency information is difficult to make out at
all; LO 6.15: Outline the benefit of neural circuits that analyze spatial frequency in the striate
cortex.
Learning Objective: 6.15: Outline the benefit of neural circuits that analyze spatial frequency in
the striate cortex.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q6.9
Question: The ventral stream of the extrastriate cortex is responsible for:
a. face recognition.
b. body recognition.
c. recognition of a variety of objects and shapes.
d. face and body recognition as well as recognition of a variety of other objects and shapes.
Answer: D
Consider This: The ventral stream appears to be important to a variety of perception; LO 6.16:
Describe the roles of the ventral stream and fusiform face area in perceiving form.
Learning Objective: 6.16: Describe the roles of the ventral stream and fusiform face area in
perceiving form.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q6.10
Question: ______________ vision allows us to see relative size and relative motion.
a. Monocular
b. Binocular
c. Gestalt
d. Ocular
Answer: A
Consider This: How many eyes would be necessary to compare the size of two objects?; LO
6.17: Identify the retina’s contributions to perceiving spatial location.
Learning Objective: 6.17: Identify the retina’s contributions to perceiving spatial location.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Concepts
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EOC Q6.11
Question: The dorsal stream ends in the _______________ cortex.
a. parietal
b. temporal
c. frontal
d. occipital
Answer: A
Consider This: “Where” and “how” tasks require incorporating spatial perception and
somatosensation into visual processing; LO 6.18: Describe the role of the striate and extrastriate
cortex in perceiving spatial location.
Learning Objective: 6.18: Describe the role of the striate and extrastriate cortex in perceiving
spatial location.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q6.12
Question: Visual control of grasping is controlled by the:
a. AIP.
b. CIP.
c. MIP.
d. LIP.
Answer: A
Consider This: This system is in the anterior parietal cortex; LO 6.18: Describe the role of the
striate and extrastriate cortex in perceiving spatial location.
Learning Objective: LO 6.18: Describe the role of the striate and extrastriate cortex in perceiving
spatial location.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q6.13
Question: MST neurons are LEAST likely to respond to _____ motion.
a. spiral
b. radial
c. circular
d. linear
Answer: D
Consider This: MST neurons respond to complex movement; LO 6.20: Describe the role of the
extrastriate cortex in perceiving movement.
Learning Objective: 6.20: Describe the role of the extrastriate cortex in perceiving movement.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOC Q6.14
Question: The brain area responsible for the perception of optic flow is:
a. MT.
b. MST.
c. MSTd.
d. occipital lobe.
Answer: C
Consider This: This area is dorsal; LO 6.20: Describe the role of the extrastriate cortex in
perceiving movement.
Learning Objective: 6.20: Describe the role of the extrastriate cortex in perceiving movement.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q6.15
Question: When Annie looks around the world, she only sees still images. She is unable to
perceive her grandchildren running around or even her cat’s breathing patterns. It is likely that
Annie is suffering from:
a. amnesia.
b. akinetopsia.
c. anomia.
d. ageusia.
Answer: B
Consider This: This disorder results from damage to the V5 area; LO 6.20: Describe the role of
the extrastriate cortex in perceiving movement.
Learning Objective: 6.20: Describe the role of the extrastriate cortex in perceiving movement.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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Fill-In 116
Essay
Fill-In 117-124
Essay 131-133
Fill-In 125
Essay 134,135
Essay
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Multiple-Choice Questions
a. high pitch.
b. low pitch.
c. loudness.
d. softness.
e. timbre.
2. Humans can detect sound pressure waves that cycle between ________ and ________ times per
second.
a. 30; 700
b. 25; 4,000
c. 30; 20,000
d. 25; 9,000
e. 300; 45,000
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a. amplitude; pitch
b. complexity; pitch
c. purity; timbre
d. amplitude; loudness
e. hue; wavelength
a. vibration amplitude.
b. the distance between the sound source and the detector.
c. sound wave complexity.
d. frequency of vibration.
e. sound intensity.
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a. hue.
b. pitch.
c. loudness.
d. saturation.
e. timbre.
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a. timbre
b. pitch
c. amplitude
d. saturation
e. loudness
9. What is the correct order of the ossicles from the tympanic membrane to the cochlea?
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a. outer channel.
b. inner ear.
c. tectorial membrane.
d. tympanic membrane.
e. pinna.
a. outer membrane.
b. basilar membrane.
c. tectorial membrane.
d. tympanic membrane.
e. pinna.
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a. outer ear.
b. inner ear.
c. organ of Corti.
d. pinna.
e. middle ear.
a. outer ear.
b. inner ear.
c. organ of Corti.
d. pinna.
e. middle ear.
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16. During the process of hearing, the mechanical stimulus that induces movements of the hair
cells is the
a. hair-cell cilia
b. the basilar membrane
c. the tympanic membrane
d. the tectorial membrane
e. Deiters’s cells
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18. The hair-like appendages that extend from the ends of the auditory receptors are known as
a. cilia.
b. rods.
c. intrafusal fibers.
d. extrafusal fibers.
e. villi.
19. The ratio of inner to outer hair cells in the human cochlea is approximately
a. 1:1.
b. 8:1.
c. 1:4.
d. 1:8.
e. 2:7.
20. _______________ are necessary for hearing, as demonstrated by the mutant mice who lack
them and, subsequently, cannot hear at all.
a. Deiter’s cells
b. Glial cells
c. Outer hair cells
d. Inner hair cells
e. Cilia cells
21. Moving a bundle of cilia in the direction of the tallest cilium will
22. The force that causes the tips of the hair cells to bend in response to movement of the basilar
membrane arises from the
a. strands of actin.
b. the outer edges of the tectorial membrane.
c. tip links.
d. insertional plaques.
e. intrafusal fibers.
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24. The receptor potential of a hair cell is triggered by cilia movements that
25. Whether ion channels open or close within the hair cell cilia
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26. The conduit that sends auditory signals to the brain is called the
a. auditory lemniscus.
b. organ of Corti.
c. somatoacoustic nerve.
d. trigeminal nerve.
e. cochlear nerve.
27. Which statement regarding the neurons of the cochlear nerve is correct?
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28. The neurotransmitter at the afferent synapses of the auditory nerve is ________, whereas the
efferent terminal buttons secrete _______.
a. acetylcholine; GABA
b. GABA; glycine
c. glutamate; dopamine
d. glutamate; acetylcholine
e. acetylcholine; dopamine
29. The fact that adjacent regions of the basilar membrane and of the primary auditory cortex
appear to respond best to different sound ________ can be displayed in a ________ map.
a. frequencies; retinotopic
b. intensities; somatotopic
c. intensities; tonotopic
d. frequencies; tonotopic
e. timbres; tonotopic
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30. Identify the correct pathway by which auditory information flows to the brain.
a. auditory nerve –> superior olivary complex –> medial geniculate –>
superior colliculus –> auditory cortex
b. auditory nerve –> cochlear nuclei –> medial geniculate –> auditory cortex
c. auditory nerve –> cochlear nuclei –> superior olivary complex –> inferior colliculus
–> medial geniculate –> auditory cortex
d. auditory nerve –> cochlear nuclei –> superior olivary complex –> medial geniculate –
> auditory cortex
e. auditory nerve –> cochlear nuclei –> superior colliculus –> lateral geniculate –>
auditory cortex
31. The posterior auditory stream starts in the ________ and is involved in ________.
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a. analysis of timbre.
b. analysis of sound intensity.
c. analysis of musical tunes.
d. complex sound analysis.
e. sound localization.
33. The dorsal stream in the auditory cortex ends in the ___________ and is involved in the
____________.
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a. Most afferent axons form connections with the outer hair cells.
b. Damage to the inner hair cells impairs hearing.
c. Outer hair cells play a more important role in hearing than do inner hair cells.
d. Thin unmyelinated axons form connections with inner hair cells.
e. Thick myelinated axons form connections with outer hair cells.
35. A mutation that resulted in the loss of inner hair cells within the organ of Corti would be
expected to result in
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36. Place coding for pitch indicates that ____________ frequencies are caused by neurons of the
basilar membrane becoming activated. Specifically, these neurons are located __________ the
oval window.
a. higher; closer to
b. higher; further from
c. lower; closer to
d. lower; further from
e. middle; closer to
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38. Low-pitched sounds are detected by the use of ________ by the cochlea.
a. place coding
b. rate coding
c. phase coding
d. tonotopic codes
e. phase shifts
39. Which outcome strongly supports the notion that a place code is involved in detecting
medium to high-pitched sounds?
a. Antibiotics can kill hair cells in a basal to apical direction and produce corresponding
deficits in pitch perception.
b. Damage to the posterior temporal cortex impairs hearing.
c. Mutant mice that lack inner hair cells are unable to hear.
d. Overgrowth of bone over the round window impairs the hearing of high- but not low-
pitched sounds.
e. Antibiotics can degenerate hair cells in an apical to basal direction and produce
corresponding deficits in intensity perception.
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a. electrically stimulating the auditory nerve at greater than 500 pulses per second.
b. allowing pressure changes to occur within the cochlea.
c. opening a larger aperture within the round window.
d. electrically stimulating different regions of the basilar membrane.
e. changing the overall rate of firing of cochlear cells.
41. Axons of the ______________ inform the brain of the loudness of a stimulus by altering
their rate of firing of action potentials.
a. geniculate nerve
b. auditory nerve
c. cochlear nerve
d. trochlear nerve
e. trigeminal nerve
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43. The lowest and usually most intense frequency of a complex sound is its
a. attack phase.
b. decay phase.
c. overtone.
d. characteristic frequency.
e. fundamental frequency.
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44. When determining the location of a sound, we use ___________ for low frequencies and
___________ for high frequencies.
45. Neurons that use binaural differences in loudness as a cue to the source of a sound are
located within the
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46. The capacity to detect whether a high-frequency sound comes from the left or right of the
hearer reflects an analysis of
a. fundamental overtones.
b. a sonic shadow that reflects differences in loudness.
c. differences in arrival times at the eardrums.
d. differences in sound phase.
e. differences in movement of the tympanic membrane.
a. is a genetic trait.
b. involves the analysis of left-right phase arrival differences.
c. is a function of experience.
d. is better in blind than sighted people.
e. involves the analysis of right-left loudness differences.
49. The anterior stream of the human auditory system performs analyses of ________, whereas
the posterior stream provides analyses of ________.
50. In the human auditory system, the analysis of “what” corresponds to ________, whereas the
analysis of “where” corresponds to ________.
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51. Functional imaging studies of the human association cortex indicate that judgments of sound
________ activate the ________ of the auditory system.
a. induce deafness.
b. produce auditory hallucinations similar to those of schizophrenia.
c. impair the understanding of sound meaning but not impair hearing.
d. produce auditory-visual synesthesia.
e. alter the function of the vestibular system.
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53. Match the auditory system structure with the correct music analysis function.
54. A unique aspect of the loss of function shown by Patient I.R. after aneurysm surgery
involved her
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a. 0.1
b. 0.4
c. 2
d. 4
e. 8
a. no definable sensation.
b. a low humming sound.
c. dizziness.
d. nystagmus.
e. nausea.
a. Vestibular sacs
b. Semicircular canals
c. The ampulla
d. The cupulla
e. Circular canals
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a. middle ear.
b. cochlea.
c. vestibular sacs.
d. semicircular canals.
e. pain reactivity system.
59. The ________ sense sudden changes in the rotation of the head.
a. cochlear microphones
b. semicircular canals
c. organs of Corti
d. vestibular sacs
e. utricles
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a. semicircular canals.
b. utricle.
c. saccule.
d. semicircular canals and the utricle.
e. semicircular canals, the utricle, and the saccule.
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63. When Felix goes jogging, his eyes are bouncing yet the visual scene he perceives while
running seems relatively stable. The _____________ is responsible for this correction.
a. vestibulo-ocular reflex
b. oculo-vestibular reflex
c. visual reflex
d. motion reflex
e. visuo-ocular reflex
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a. second
b. fifth
c. eighth
d. tenth
e. twelfth
a. cardiac pressure.
b. blood flow to the muscles.
c. events that damage the skin.
d. brain temperature.
e. head movement.
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66. Cutaneous receptors signal information about stimuli that interact with
a. glabrous skin.
b. saccules.
c. kinesthetic covering.
d. Merkel’s corpuscles.
e. cutaneous skin.
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70. Skin receptors with small, sharp borders would most likely be
a. Ruffini corpuscles.
b. hair follicle endings.
c. Meissner’s corpuscles.
d. free nerve endings.
e. Pacinian corpuscles.
a. Ruffini corpuscles
b. Free nerve endings
c. Meissner’s corpuscles
d. Pacinian corpuscles
e. Dieter’s cells
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a. Ruffini corpuscles
b. Free nerve endings
c. Meissner’s corpuscles
d. Pacinian corpuscles
e. Dieter’s cells
a. Ruffini corpuscles
b. free nerve endings
c. Meissner’s corpuscles
d. Pacinian corpuscles
e. Dieter’s cells
a. edge contours.
b. cold.
c. heat.
d. texture.
e. harmful stimulation.
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75. Patient G.L. suffered damage to large-diameter myelinated axons that serve her face; we
would expect that she would have difficulty in detecting a(n)
a. TRPV1 receptors
b. TRPV3 receptors
c. Merkel’s disks
d. Pacinian corpuscles
e. Mechanoreceptors
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a. pain.
b. cold.
c. heat.
d. salt in a food.
e. the bitterness of a drink.
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80. The pain associated with bone cancer is partly caused by the activation of
81. The pathway for axons that convey precisely localized information, such as fine touch,
ascends through the
a. spinothalamic nucleus.
b. spinoreticular complex.
c. anterloateral thalamus.
d. spinomedullar bulbs.
e. dorsal column of the spinal cord.
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83. After damage to her somatosensory association cortex, Patient E.C. experience
a. visual agnosia.
b. a loss of tactile sensitivity.
c. a difficulty in differentiating objects by weight.
d. a difficulty in differentiating objects by texture cues.
e. a difficulty in recognizing common objects by touch.
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86. In an experiment comparing the perception of experienced pain to witnessing pain in a loved
one, the only area of the brain that was activated by the application of an actual noxious stimulus
was the
a. temporal cortex.
b. somatosensory cortex.
c. anterior cingulate cortex.
d. prefrontal cortex.
e. amygdala.
87. The long-term emotional component of chronic pain is mediated by pathways that
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88. Electrical stimulation of the ________ in humans produces painful burning and stinging
sensations.
a. prefrontal cortex
b. anterior cingulate cortex
c. dorsal hippocampus
d. ventromedial hypothalamus
e. insular cortex
89. Sara is suffering from a rare disorder that cannot be treated and that produces chronic pain.
Her doctors can do little to alleviate her suffering, but they are investigating an experimental
procedure that would minimize Sara’s long-term emotional response to her pain. Her doctors tell
her the technique involves brain surgery, specifically targeting the
a. parietal cortex.
b. prefrontal cortex.
c. primary somatosensory cortex.
d. dorsal lateral thalamus.
e. posterior cingulate cortex.
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90. Studies conducted with rats indicate that electrical stimulation of the ______________ is as
potent in producing analgesia as receiving a large dose of morphine.
91. The late Ronald Melzack argued that phantom limb sensation in an amputee occurs because Commented [AS1]: This looks like its misspelled in the chapter
as well.
a. spinal cord axons continue to spontaneously fire after being detached from a limb.
b. sensory neurons in the thalamus show spontaneous firing, which is interpreted by the
brain as a signal from the missing limb.
c. the parietal cortex is genetically programmed to perceive activity from each of four
limbs.
d. the frontal cortex is genetically programmed to perceive activity from each of four
limbs.
e. sensory neurons in the spinal cord show spontaneous activity.
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92. The most effective site for the induction of analgesia in rats using electrical stimulation is the
a. parietal cortex.
b. parabrachial nucleus.
c. prefrontal cortex.
d. periaqueductal gray matter.
e. posterior cingulate cortex.
93. By using hypnosis, experimenters were able to reduce the perceived intensity of pain. This
change in perception was correlated with a decrease in activation of the
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95. Imaging studies indicate that receiving a placebo “analgesic” skin cream led to
a. decreased activity within the prefrontal cortex and periaqueductal gray matter.
b. decreased activity within the somatosensory cortex.
c. increased activity within the prefrontal cortex and periaqueductal gray matter.
d. blockade of opiate receptors within the spinal cord.
e. the release of serotonin within the brain stem.
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96. Tigers and domestic cats are unable to sense which taste quality?
a. bitterness
b. sweetness
c. saltiness
d. sourness
e. umami
97. The taste sensation known as ________ allows us to detect glutamate in proteins.
a. saltiness
b. umami
c. sweetness
d. bitterness
e. sourness
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a. acids.
b. umami.
c. salts.
d. sugars.
e. toxic alkaloids.
99. There are approximately __________ taste buds along the tongue, palate, pharynx, and
larynx.
a. 100
b. 250
c. 1,300
d. 10,000
e. 100,000
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100. Gustatory information travels to the brain by way of the __________ cranial nerves.
101. Which pair represents a correct match between a taste receptor and the chemical sensed by
that receptor?
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102. The first relay station for gustatory information en route to the cortex is the
a. area postrema.
b. chorda tympani.
c. ventral posteromedial thalamic nucleus.
d. nucleus of the solitary tract.
e. insular cortex.
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a. turbinate bones.
b. olfactory epithelium.
c. otoconia.
d. chorda tympani.
e. olfactory operculum.
105. The protein __________ is able to activate an enzyme necessary for the process of
olfaction.
a. A-lateral
b. Gmrx
c. DE7
d. Golf
e. A-zeta
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106. How can humans use a relatively small number of receptors to detect so many different
odorants in the environment?
a. The seven basic smell types interact with thousands of taste sensations to produce
distinct odor profiles.
b. There are actually fewer unique odorants in the environment than originally thought.
c. A particular odorant binds to more than one receptor site.
d. Odor perception relies on overlapping waves of information, rather than individual
acts of olfaction.
e. Each odorant produces a single type of stimulation interpreted in the brain.
Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
107. The ________ of a sound provides information about the nature of the particular sound, such
as whether the tone comes from a piano or a harpsichord.
108. The ________ of a sound stimulus is related to the physical characteristic of frequency of
vibration.
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110. The hair-like appendages that extend from the ends of the auditory receptors are known as
________.
112. The primary auditory cortex in humans is said to be organized in a(n) ________ fashion.
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113. Hearing loss due to hair cell damage can be restored by a(n) ________ implant.
114. Determination of sound ________ is carried out by the posterior auditory stream.
115. ________ is the loss of the ability to perceive or produce melodic or rhythmic aspects of
music.
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120. The pain associated with bone cancer is partly caused by activation of ________ receptors.
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121. The axon pathway for registering precise touch travels through the __________ of the
spinal cord.
122. Imaging studies indicate that the activity of the ________ is related to the unpleasantness of
pain.
123. The long-term emotional component of chronic pain is mediated by pathways that project to
the ________ cortex.
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125. The first relay station for gustatory information heading toward the cortex is the ________.
Essay Questions
128. Describe how the organ of Corti transduces sound waves into electrical potentials.
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tectorial membrane. The cilia of a hair cell are interconnected by tip links and as these move, the
attachment points of the adjacent cilia open a channel to potassium (and calcium), which creates
a receptor potential.
129. Describe the neural pathways by which auditory signals reach the cortex.
130. Explain how the brain codes for the spatial location of sound.
131. Differentiate the receptors that have been identified as responding to pain stimuli.
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133. Describe the biological actions by which certain stimuli are able to lower reactivity to pain.
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135. Explain how a few hundred types of olfactory receptors can code for thousands of different
odorants.
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Revel Quizzes
The following questions appear at the end of each module and at the end of the chapter in Revel
for Physiology of Behavior, 13th Edition.
EOM Q7.1.2
Question: _______________ cells are necessary for hearing, as demonstrated by the mutant
mice who lack them and who, subsequently, cannot hear at all.
a. Inner hair
b. Outer hair
c. Deiter’s
d. Glial
Answer: A
Consider This: Cilia on these cells move back and forth in response to incoming sound; LO 7.3:
Contrast the location and function of hair cells in auditory transduction.
Learning Objective: 7.3: Contrast the location and function of hair cells in auditory transduction.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM Q7.1.3
Question: The dorsal stream in the auditory cortex ends in the _____________ cortex and is
involved in perception of a sound’s _____________.
a. parietal; location
b. parietal; form
c. inferior temporal; location
d. inferior temporal; form
Answer: A
Consider This: Dorsal means “top”; LO 7.4: Describe the components of the auditory pathway.
Learning Objective: 7.4: Describe the components of the auditory pathway.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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EOM Q7.1.4
Question: Place coding for pitch indicates that ____________ frequencies are perceived when
neurons of the basilar membrane become activated. Specifically, these neurons are located
__________ the oval window.
a. higher; closer to
b. higher; farther from
c. lower; closer to
d. lower; farther from
Answer: A
Consider This: Hearing loss typically happens to higher pitches first as they are more likely to be
damaged by loud sounds; LO 7.5: Contrast place and rate coding in pitch perception.
Learning Objective: 7.5: Contrast place and rate coding in pitch perception.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q7.1.5
Question: The perceived loudness of high-pitched sounds is determined by _________, and the
perceived loudness of low-pitched sounds is determined by _______________.
a. rate of firing; the number of axons active at a time
b. the number of axons active at a time; rate of firing
c. rate of firing; rate of firing
d. the number of axons active at a time; the number of axons active at a time
Answer: A
Consider This: Low-pitched sounds are generated by rate of firing, so loudness must be dictated
by something else; LO 7.6: Contrast how loudness in high- and low-frequency sounds is
represented.
Learning Objective: 7.6: Contrast how loudness in high- and low-frequency sounds is
represented.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
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EOM Q7.2.2
Question: TRPA1 receptor molecules are used by hair cells in all of these EXCEPT the:
a. semicircular canals.
b. utricle.
c. saccule.
d. basilar membrane.
Answer: D
Consider This: TRPA1 receptor molecules are widespread; LO 7.11: Summarize the structures
and functions of the vestibular apparatus.
Learning Objective: 7.11: Summarize the structures and functions of the vestibular apparatus.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q7.2.3
Question: The vestibular and cochlear nerves constitute the two branches of the ______ cranial
nerve.
a. second
b. fifth
c. eighth
d. twelfth
Answer: C
Consider This: The correct nerve is also called the auditory nerve; LO 7.12: Outline the
vestibular pathway.
Learning Objective: 7.12: Outline the vestibular pathway.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q7.2.4
Question: The vestibular pathway does NOT include projections to the:
a. basal ganglia.
b. pons.
c. cerebellum.
d. medulla.
Answer: A
Consider This: The correct structure is outside the hindbrain and midbrain. LO 7.12: Outline the
vestibular pathway.
Learning Objective: 7.12: Outline the vestibular pathway.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM Q7.2.5
Question: As you jog, your eyes are bouncing, yet the visual scene seems relatively stable. The
____________ reflex is to thank for this correction.
a. vestibulo-ocular
b. oculo-vestibular
c. visual
d. motion
Answer: A
Consider This: This correction would have to involve centers related to vision and movement;
LO 7.12: Outline the vestibular pathway.
Learning Objective: 7.12: Outline the vestibular pathway.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM Q7.3.2
Question: There are _______________ categories of free nerve ending thermal receptors.
a. two
b. three
c. four
d. five
Answer: A
Consider This: The number of types of free nerve endings correspond to the different types of
temperature that can be experienced; LO 7.15: Describe the perception of touch, temperature,
pain, and itch.
Learning Objective: 7.15: Describe the perception of touch, temperature, pain, and itch.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOM Q7.3.3
Question: The pathway for fine touch is the _____ pathway.
a. spinothalamic
b. spinoreticular
c. anterolateral
d. dorsal column medial lemniscus
Answer: D
Consider This: This pathway crosses from one side of the body to the other; LO 7.16: Describe
the components of the somatosensory pathways.
Learning Objective: 7.16: Describe the components of the somatosensory pathways.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q7.3.4
Question: By using hypnosis, experimenters were able to reduce the perceived intensity of pain.
This change in perception was correlated with a decrease in activation of the:
a. somatosensory cortex.
b. ACC.
c. insular cortex.
d. thalamus.
Answer: A
Consider This: This area of the brain is directly responsible for the feeling of pain; LO 7.17:
Describe why pain is experienced, the components of pain, and how pain perception can be
modified.
Learning Objective: 7.17: Describe why pain is experienced, the components of pain, and how
pain perception can be modified.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q7.3.5
Question: The _____________ is involved in the long-term emotional consequences of pain.
a. prefrontal cortex
b. anterior insular cortex
c. ACC
d. somatosensory cortex
Answer: A
Consider This: This area is also responsible for higher order processing; LO 7.17: Describe why
pain is experienced, the components of pain, and how pain perception can be modified.
Learning Objective: 7.17: Describe why pain is experienced, the components of pain, and how
pain perception can be modified.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOM Q7.4.2
Question: Members of the cat family cannot taste:
a. bitterness.
b. saltiness.
c. sweetness.
d. sourness.
Answer: C
Consider This: Cats are obligatory carnivores so their diets often do not consist of…; LO 7.18:
List the six qualities of taste stimuli.
Learning Objective: 7.18: List the six qualities of taste stimuli.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q7.4.3
Question: Consider gustatory reception. The _____ contain _____, which in turn contain _____.
a. buds; receptor cells; papillae
b. buds; papillae; receptor cells
c. papillae; receptor cells; buds
d. papillae; buds; receptor cells
Answer: D
Consider This: Some of the largest of these structures also contain receptors for touch, pain, and
temperature; LO 7.19: Identify the location and structure of taste receptor cells.
Learning Objective: 7.19: Identify the location and structure of taste receptor cells.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Skill Level: Analyze It
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EOM Q7.4.4
Question: Research suggests that the taste sensation of saltiness is largely caused by receptors
that are __________ channels.
a. calcium
b. chloride
c. potassium
d. sodium
Answer: D
Consider This: This word is often a synonym for the salt content of a food; LO 7.20: Summarize
the process of gustatory transduction.
Learning Objective: 7.20: Summarize the process of gustatory transduction.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q7.4.5
Question: Information from the anterior part of the tongue travels through the chorda tympani,
part of the ________ cranial nerve.
a. facial
b. glossopharyngeal
c. vagus
d. trigeminal
Answer: A
Consider This: The chorda tympani gets its name because it passes through the middle ear,
beneath the tympanic membrane; LO 7.21: Describe the components of the gustatory pathway.
Learning Objective: 7.21: Describe the components of the gustatory pathway.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM Q7.5.2
Question: The olfactory pathway:
a. goes from the receptor cells to the olfactory bulb to the mitral cells.
b. goes from the receptor cells to the mitral cells to the olfactory bulb.
c. goes from the mitral cells to the receptor cells to the olfactory bulb.
d. goes from the olfactory bulb to the receptor cells to the mitral cells.
Answer: A
Consider This: All senses begin with receptors; LO 7.22: Organize the structures and functions
of the olfactory apparatus involved in olfactory processing.
Learning Objective: 7.22: Organize the structures and functions of the olfactory apparatus
involved in olfactory processing.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q7.5.3
Question: Olfactory tract axons project to all of these EXCEPT:
a. the amygdala.
b. the entorhinal cortex.
c. the piriform cortex.
d. the thalamus.
Answer: D
Consider This: Olfactory tract axons project directly to a limbic system structure; LO 7.22:
Organize the structures and functions of the olfactory apparatus involved in olfactory processing.
Learning Objective: 7.22: Organize the structures and functions of the olfactory apparatus
involved in olfactory processing.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q7.5.4
Question: When an odorant binds to olfactory receptors:
a. a depolarization occurs.
b. sodium channels close.
c. potassium channels open.
d. a hyperpolarization occurs.
Answer: A
Consider This: Binding of an odorant to an olfactory receptor is excitatory; LO 7.23: Summarize
the process of olfactory transduction.
Learning Objective: 7.23: Summarize the process of olfactory transduction.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM Q7.5.5
Question: In order to identify the many smells in the world:
a. humans have a separate receptor for each smell.
b. humans have only one type of receptor that binds to all odorants, and then the higher
order processing in the brain determines the smell.
c. humans have different receptors that bind to different odorants, and the activity patterns
created by these bindings are what is interpreted as different smells.
d. humans have two receptor types, one for irritant odors and one for pleasant odors.
Answer: C
Consider This: The system is efficient and thrifty in how it recognizes and perceives odors; LO
7.24: Explain how receptors can detect specific odors.
Learning Objective: 7.24: Explain how receptors can detect specific odors.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
Assignment: Chapter Quiz: Audition, the Body Senses, and the Chemical Senses
EOC Q7.1
Question: What is the order of the ossicles from the tympanic membrane to the cochlea?
a. malleus, incus, stapes
b. stapes, incus, malleus
c. incus, malleus, stapes
d. malleus, stapes, incus
Answer: A
Consider This: The ossicles connect to the oval window, a relatively flat surface; LO 7.2:
Organize the structures and functions of the ear involved in auditory processing.
Learning Objective: 7.2: Organize the structures and functions of the ear involved in auditory
processing.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
EOC Q7.2
Question: A tip link connects two cilia. Movement of the cilia in the direction of the tallest cilia
will:
a. open an ion channel.
b. close an ion channel.
c. reduce the amount of neurotransmitter released.
d. cause a hyperpolarization.
Answer: A
Consider This: Movement toward the tallest cilia will cause the tip link to go taut; LO 7.3:
Contrast the location and function of hair cells in auditory transduction.
Learning Objective: 7.3: Contrast the location and function of hair cells in auditory transduction.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOC Q7.3
Question: When determining location of a sound, we use ___________ differences for low
frequencies and ___________ differences for high frequencies.
a. phase; intensity
b. intensity ; phase
c. loudness ; intensity
d. loudness ; phase
Answer: A
Consider This: Phase differences refer to the simultaneous arrival, at each ear, of different
portions (phases) of the oscillating sound wave; LO 7.8: Compare the processes used to perceive
spatial location.
Learning Objective: 7.8: Compare the processes used to perceive spatial location.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q7.4
Question: _______________ detect thermal and noxious stimuli.
a. Free nerve endings
b. Pacinian corpuscles
c. Meissner’s corpuscles
d. Merkel’s disks
Answer: A
Consider This: It is the only receptor that isn’t encapsulated; LO 7.14: Describe the anatomy and
somatosensory receptors of the skin.
Learning Objective: 7.14: Describe the anatomy and somatosensory receptors of the skin.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q7.5
Question: _______________ are free nerve endings that response to intense pressure.
a. High-threshold mechanoreceptors
b. TRPV1 receptors
c. Merkel’s disks
d. Pacinian corpuscles
Answer: A
Consider This: These would be responsible for feeling a pinch on the skin; LO 7.15: Describe the
perception of touch, temperature, pain, and itch.
Learning Objective: 7.15: Describe the perception of touch, temperature, pain, and itch.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOC Q7.6
Question: In an experiment comparing the perception of experienced pain to witnessing pain in
a loved one, the only area that was specific to feeling pain personally was the:
a. anterior insular cortex.
b. somatosensory cortex.
c. ACC.
d. thalamus.
Answer: B
Consider This: This area of the brain is directly responsible for the feeling of pain and other
sensations; LO 7.17: Describe why pain is experienced, the components of pain, and how pain
perception can be modified.
Learning Objective: 7.17: Describe why pain is experienced, the components of pain, and how
pain perception can be modified.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q7.7
Question: With respect to pain relief, electrical stimulation of the ___________ is as potent as a
large dose of morphine.
a. periaqueductal gray
b. medulla
c. somatosensory cortex
d. ACC
Answer: A
Consider This: This area is located in the tegmentum in the midbrain; LO 7.17: Describe why
pain is experienced, the components of pain, and how pain perception can be modified.
Learning Objective: 7.17: Describe why pain is experienced, the components of pain, and how
pain perception can be modified.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOC Q7.8
Question: When eating at an Asian restaurant, Sam’s umami receptors detect the presence of:
a. glutamate.
b. sodium.
c. potassium.
d. glycine.
Answer: A
Consider This: Umami refers to the taste of monosodium glutamate (MSG); LO 7.18: List the six
qualities of taste stimuli.
Learning Objective: 7.18: List the six qualities of taste stimuli.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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EOC Q7.9
Question: Taste receptor cells have a life span of:
a. 3 months.
b. 10 days.
c. 30 days.
d. 6 months.
Answer: B
Consider This: The turnover of taste receptors is very fast due to the hostility of the environment;
LO 7.19: Identify the location and structure of taste receptor cells.
Learning Objective: 7.19: Identify the location and structure of taste receptor cells.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q7.10
Question: Some foods can trigger sensations of both bitterness and sweetness simultaneously.
This phenomenon suggests that:
a. bitterness and sweetness receptors are co-localized.
b. bitterness and sweetness are picked up by the same receptors.
c. bitterness and sweetness receptors are similar.
d. bitterness and sweetness receptors are arranged in opponent pairs.
Answer: C
Consider This: The receptor structure or degree of responsiveness to substances may explain this
phenomenon; LO 7.20: Summarize the process of gustatory transduction.
Learning Objective: 7.20: Summarize the process of gustatory transduction.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q7.11
Question: The first relay station for taste is the nucleus of the solitary tract, located in the:
a. cerebellum.
b. reticular formation.
c. pons.
d. medulla.
Answer: D
Consider This: This brain area is located in the myelencephalon; LO 7.21: Describe the
components of the gustatory pathway.
Learning Objective: 7.21: Describe the components of the gustatory pathway.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOC Q7.12
Question: In humans, the olfactory system:
a. is not very sensitive.
b. is more sensitive if individuals get closer to the source of the smell.
c. allows individuals to detect 500 different odors.
d. allows individuals to detect 20 different odors.
Answer: B
Consider This: Research shows that humans can follow a scent trail of chocolate; LO 7.22:
Organize the structures and functions of the olfactory apparatus involved in olfactory processing.
Learning Objective: 7.22: Organize the structures and functions of the olfactory apparatus
involved in olfactory processing.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q7.13
Question: The ______________ receives both olfactory and gustatory information, suggesting
that it may be involved in the combining of this information.
a. orbitofrontal cortex
b. amygdala
c. hypothalamus
d. hippocampus
Answer: A
Consider This: In addition to sensory integration, this area is involved in decision making; LO
7.22: Organize the structures and functions of the olfactory apparatus involved in olfactory
processing.
Learning Objective: 7.22: Organize the structures and functions of the olfactory apparatus
involved in olfactory processing.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOC Q7.14
Question: If Rose smells two different lemony odorants, it is likely that:
a. the two different odorants will produce different activity patterns in the posterior piriform
cortex.
b. different areas of the brain will respond to each odorant.
c. the two different odorants will produce similar activity patterns in the posterior piriform
cortex.
d. the two different odorants will produce similar activity patterns in the anterior piriform
cortex.
Answer: C
Consider This: Odorants associated with particular objects are often perceived similarly; LO
7.24: Explain how receptors can detect specific odors.
Learning Objective: 7.24: Explain how receptors can detect specific odors.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Skill Level: Analyze It
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EOC Q7.15
Question: Cooks can use spices to hide the fact that meat is starting to go bad. This deception is
possible because:
a. the taste of the spices is stronger than the taste of the meat.
b. the application of spice sears the meat, removing the spoiled taste.
c. the glomeruli that respond to the spice odor inhibit those that respond to the smell of the
meat.
d. the glomeruli that respond to the smell of the meat excite those that respond to the spice
odor.
Answer: C
Consider This: Smell often influences taste to a great degree; LO 7.24: Explain how receptors
can detect specific odors.
Learning Objective: 7.24: Explain how receptors can detect specific odors.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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Fill-In 93,94,96-98 95
Essay 113,114
Essay
Fill-In 99-109
Essay 120
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Multiple-Choice Questions
1. Moving a limb toward the body is _________, whereas moving a limb away from the body is
______________.
a. flexion; extension
b. extension; flexion
c. contraction; extension
d. flexion; contraction
e. reduction; contraction
a. Contraction of skeletal muscle can alter blood flow through the heart.
b. Skeletal muscle contraction produces movements of the body.
c. Skeletal muscles pump blood throughout the body.
d. Flexion of a skeletal muscle causes limbs to move outward from the body.
e. Extensors are skeletal muscles that cause limbs to draw in toward the body.
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a. intrafusal
b. skeletal
c. cardiac
d. smooth
e. non-striated
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9. Flexion refers to
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11. The number of muscle fibers served by a single axon varies considerably. In muscles that
move the fingers, the ratio is small, whereas in muscles that move the legs, the ratio is large. This
difference in ratio depends upon the ______________ needed to move the muscle.
a. precision
b. strength
c. flexibility
d. speed
e. location
12. A ________ consists of an alpha motor neuron, its axon, and associated extrafusal fibers.
a. myofibril tangle
b. motor unit
c. extrafusal junction
d. intrafusal contact
e. muscle spindle
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13. Motor unit size can vary in the body. In the muscles that move the fingers, the motor unit size
is most likely
14. A motor unit size of one axon per 10 extrafusal fibers might be expected in the ________
muscles.
a. ankle
b. wrist
c. eye
d. leg
e. forearm
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a. dopamine
b. GABA
c. glutamate
d. glycine
e. acetylcholine
17. The ________ is formed by the synapse of an efferent nerve terminal onto a muscle fiber.
a. myofibril tangle
b. motor unit
c. neuromuscular junction
d. intrafusal contact
e. muscle spindle
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18. Muscle contraction occurs when the myosin cross bridges “row” along the length of the
______ filaments.
a. myosin
b. actin
c. intrafusal
d. extrafusal
e. myofibril
19. Myosin cross bridges attach to actin strands, bend, detach, and then attach lower. These
actions result in the __________ of the muscle fibers.
a. shortening
b. lengthening
c. activating
d. elongating
e. stretching
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20. The event that induces the contraction of a muscle fiber is the
21. Depolarization of the muscle fiber opens voltage-gated ______ channels, which trigger
contractions.
a. calcium
b. sodium
c. potassium
d. chlorine
e. magnesium
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22. The physical effects of a muscle twitch last longer than the action potential that triggered the
contraction because
23. Muscle tension is sensed by ________, whereas muscle fiber length is sensed by ________.
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26. Jerry is asked to slowly relax his arm, letting it lower at his side. This action would in turn
lead to a(n) ________ firing rate of the ________.
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27. Julie is asked to move her leg by bending it upward at the knee. Mia feels a spider crawling
on her foot and jerks her leg in response. Why is Mia’s action going to be faster than Julie’s
action?
a. Mia’s action is reflexive and does not need to be processed deeply to be performed.
b. Mia’s action is planned and requires deeper processing to be performed.
c. Mia’s action is unpredictable and requires deeper processing to be performed.
d. Mia’s action is reflexive and requires deeper processing to be performed.
e. Mia’s action is planned and does not need to be processed deeply to be performed.
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a. muscle spindle – spinal cord – alpha motor neuron – extrafusal muscle fibers
b. spinal cord – muscle spindle – alpha motor neuron – extrafusal muscle fibers
c. extrafusal muscle fibers – alpha motor neuron – spinal cord – muscle spindle
d. muscle spindle – spinal cord – extrafusal muscle fibers – alpha motor neuron
e. spinal cord – alpha motor neuron – extrafusal muscle fibers – muscle spindle
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33. Less sensitive afferent axons from the Golgi tendon organ trigger a reaction that results in
glycine release and
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34. A(n) ________ is a spatial representation of the specific cortical areas in the human brain that
control specific body movements.
a. motor homunculus
b. choreogram
c. somatogram
d. corticotopic map
e. audiogram
35. The vertical patch of cortex located rostral to the central sulcus is known as the
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36. Compared to the others, which area of the body shows the greatest representation in the
motor homunculus?
a. buttocks
b. shoulder
c. lips
d. forehead
e. legs
37. The commands initiated in the primary motor cortex are assisted and modified by inputs from
the
a. pons.
b. amygdala.
c. tertiary somatosensory cortex.
d. basal ganglia.
e. medulla oblongata.
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38. The disproportionate cortical representation in the primary motor cortex of the fingers and
mouth is due to the fact that
a. Damage to a part of the motor homunculus on one side of the brain would impair
motor function of the entire body on the same side as the damage.
b. The homunculus visually represents the specific body muscle groups that are
controlled by specific regions of the cortex.
c. The homunculus represents the specific body parts that send afferent signals to a
specific region of the cortex.
d. The depiction of the homunculus is consistent across all mammals.
e. The homunculus depicts cortical association areas in the primate brain.
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41. Damage to the ________________ resulted in monkeys being unable to perform a once
familiar response, specifically pushing in a lever and then turning it to the left. This result
suggests that this brain area is involved in executing well-learned sequences of motor responses.
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42. Imaging studies of humans indicate strong activation of the supplementary motor area (SMA)
during
a. automatic movements.
b. a visual sensation.
c. the urge to make a movement.
d. mild motor seizures.
e. suppression of motor function.
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45. Patterns of firing of neurons in the ________ precede by 10 seconds the decision to make a
motor response.
a. frontopolar cortex
b. premotor cortex
c. corpus callosum
d. cerebellum
e. secondary somatosensory cortex
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46. The ____________ are responsible for controlling the decision to move.
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48. Electrical stimulation of the mesencephalic region located ventral to the inferior colliculus in
a cat will
a. reticular formation.
b. pons.
c. cerebellum.
d. medulla.
e. cortex.
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a. sympathetic apraxia.
b. difficulty in arising from a sitting position.
c. jerky, uncoordinated movements.
d. improvements in posture.
e. tremor at rest.
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52. Damage to the flocculonodular lobe of the cerebellum would be expected to impair
a. muscle contractions.
b. postural reflexes.
c. composition of movements.
d. timing of ballistic movements.
e. planning of movements.
53. The cerebellar ________ receives somatosensory information and influences the
vestibulospinal and reticulospinal tracts.
a. dentate nucleus
b. pontine nucleus
c. vermis
d. flocculonodular node
e. intermediate and lateral zones
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54. Mr. P. (described in the chapter vignette) exhibited a problem in _______ due to _______.
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58. Parkinson’s disease results from loss of ________-secreting neurons of the ________.
59. The direct pathway between the basal ganglia and the motor cortex is ________ for motor
movement, whereas the overall effect of the indirect pathway is ________.
a. excitatory; inhibitory
b. inhibitory; excitatory
c. excitatory; excitatory
d. inhibitory; inhibitory
e. required; not required
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60. The net overall effect of the indirect pathway between the basal ganglia and the motor cortex
through ________ is ________ for motor movement.
a. GPi; excitatory
b. GPi; inhibitory
c. GPe; excitatory
d. the hypothalamus; excitatory
e. the substantia nigra; inhibitory
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63. The hyperdirect pathway involves excitatory input from the ________ that rapidly inhibits
motor behavior.
a. amygdala
b. pre-SMA
c. parietal cortex
d. globus pallidus
e. primary motor cortex
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a. akinesia.
b. dystonias.
c. tremor at rest.
d. difficulty initiating movement.
e. uncontrollable movements.
65. Degeneration of neurons within the ________ results in loss of ________ function and
Huntington’s disease.
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66. The corticospinal tract, the corticobulbar tract, and the rubrospinal tract make up the
______________ of descending tracts from the primary motor cortex.
a. lateral group
b. ventromedial group
c. caudal group
d. posteromedial group
e. rostral group
67. The ________ functions in the control of movements of the upper legs and the trunk.
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a. the arms.
b. the arms and hands.
c. the feet.
d. the arms, hands, and fingers.
e. the arms, hands, fingers, and feet.
69. The ________ controls the muscles of the limbs and fingers.
70. The ________ controls movements of the tongue, face, and some eye muscles.
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71. The ventral corticospinal tract is part of the ___________, given its location and function.
a. rubrospinal tract
b. ventromedial group of the primary motor cortex
c. spinothalamic tract
d. lateral group of the primary motor cortex
e. corticobulbar pathway
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73. In the two groups of descending tracts in the motor system, neurons of the ________ control
the movements of the body trunk, whereas neurons of the ________ control movements of the
hands and fingers.
74. Damage involving the ________ tract would be expected to impair a person’s ability to grasp
and manipulate objects with the fingers.
a. lateral corticospinal
b. vestibulospinal
c. tectospinal
d. reticulospinal
e. premotor-striatal
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75. Damage involving the ________ tract would be expected to impair walking, as well as
automatic functions such as breathing and sneezing.
a. lateral corticospinal
b. corticospinal
c. tectospinal
d. reticulospinal
e. premotor-striatal
76. Damage involving the ________ tract would be expected to impair posture.
a. lateral corticospinal
b. vestibulospinal
c. tectospinal
d. reticulospinal
e. premotor-striatal
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a. ventral
b. dorsal
c. saggital
d. caudal
e. posterior
78. Zhenya watches her mom putting on cosmetics. She picks up a tube of lip gloss as her mom
puts her own lipstick on. Zhenya imitates the movements, putting lip gloss on her own lips. It is
likely that Zhenya’s __________ are activated during this process.
a. imitative neurons
b. occipital neurons
c. fusiform face area neurons
d. decision neurons
e. mirror neurons
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79. The sound of a bag being ripped open is likely to trigger activation of the
a. mirror neurons.
b. audiovisual neurons.
c. occipital neurons.
d. imitative neurons.
e. fusiform face area neurons.
80. Our ability to mimic the motor actions of others depends on ________ neurons within area
________ of the premotor cortex.
a. mirror; V2
b. decision; V1
c. mirror; V5
d. mirror; F5
e. decision; F5
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82. Reaching involves activation of the ________ cortex, which in turn interacts with the
________ cortex.
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84. When people are about to make a pointing or reaching movement to a particular location, the
_______________ becomes active, indicating location of the target.
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85. The __________ is involved in controlling hand and finger movements when grasping a
target object.
a. Paralysis
b. Parkinsonism
c. Atonia
d. Akinesia
e. Apraxia
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a. motor paralysis.
b. an impairment in learning a new motor skill.
c. muscle weakness.
d. the inability to properly carry out a learned, skilled movement.
e. an impairment in motor coordination.
88. Chet is asked by his hospital physician to demonstrate the motions used when flipping a coin.
Chet takes his index finger and bends it slowly up and down in response. What diagnosis is his
physician likely to make?
a. oral apraxia
b. limb apraxia
c. callosal apraxia
d. cortical apraxia
e. agraphic apraxia
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89. The ________ is involved in the organization of how a person will moves their body in space
in response to a verbal command.
a. left hemisphere
b. ventral frontal cortex
c. right hemisphere
d. basal ganglia
e. cerebellum
90. Damage to the right parietal lobe results in ___________ apraxia, whereas damage to the left
parietal lobe results in ____________ apraxia.
a. constructional; limb
b. limb; constructional
c. ideomotor; limb
d. ideomotor; constructional
e. constructional; ideomotor
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92. Roger suffered damage to his corpus callosum, leading to difficulties in planning and
coordinating complex motor behaviors. Taffi has been diagnosed with anomalies to her mirror
neuron system and her ventral visual stream. Roger is likely to be diagnosed with __________
and Taffi is likely to be diagnosed with __________.
Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
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94. The function of the ________ motor neurons is to control the sensitivity of the muscle
spindle.
95. A ratio of ten muscle fibers to a single myelinated axon would be an indication that the motor
unit requires more ____________.
97. An alpha motor neuron, its axon, and associated extrafusal fibers comprise the ________.
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98. ________ muscle fibers sense muscle length but not muscle tension.
99. The ________ tract controls the distal part of the limbs.
100. The ________ tract controls movements of the tongue, face, and some eye muscles.
101. Damage to the ________ area impairs the execution of well-learned motor movements.
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102. The ________ cortex is activated prior to the decision to make a movement.
103. The ________ controls of the activity of the gamma motor system and thus regulates
muscle tone.
104. Electrical stimulation of the ________ can induce pacing movements in a cat.
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106. Lesions of the lateral zone of the cerebellar cortex impair the timing of rapid
_____________ movements.
107. Parkinson’s disease results from loss of dopamine-secreting neurons in the ________.
108. Muscle rigidity, slowness of movement, resting tremor, and postural instability are
symptoms of ________ disease.
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109. ________ disease is due to degeneration of neurons within the caudate and putamen that
result in loss of GABAergic and cholinergic function.
111. Limb apraxia, caused by damage to the ________________, causes problems with
movements of the arms, fingers, and hands.
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Essay Questions
113. Describe and give an example of (a) flexion and (b) extension of a limb produced by
muscles.
114. Diagram the elements that comprise skeletal muscle. Indicate the location and function of
(a) extrafusal muscle fibers, (b) alpha motor neurons, (c) the muscle spindle, (d) intrafusal
muscle fibers, and (e) the gamma motor neuron.
Answer: The extrafusal fibers should be labeled as being in parallel with the intrafusal fibers and
showing that their contraction performs the work of the muscle. The gamma motor neurons
should be shown as innervating the intrafusal fibers; their firing contracts the intrafusal fiber and
takes up the slack of that fiber. Golgi tendon organs are in series with the extrafusal fibers—their
activation inhibits the alpha motor neuron, thus preventing overcontraction of the muscle on a
joint.
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116. Name and describe the three motor tracts that comprise the lateral group of descending
fibers and explain their relative functions in motor control.
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117. Contrast the functions of the supplemental motor area with that of the premotor area.
119. Contrast the symptoms and etiology of Huntington’s disease with that of Parkinson’s
disease.
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Revel Quizzes
The following questions appear at the end of each module and at the end of the chapter in Revel
for Physiology of Behavior, 13th Edition.
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EOM Q8.1.2
Question: Alpha motor neurons send information to:
a. extrafusal muscle fibers.
b. intrafusal muscle fibers.
c. muscle spindles.
d. capsule fibers.
Answer: A
Consider This: These generate tension by contracting, thereby allowing for skeletal movement;
LO 8.1: Describe the structures of a skeletal muscle.
Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the structures of a skeletal muscle.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q8.1.3
Question: Depolarization of the muscle fiber opens voltage-dependent ______ channels that
trigger contractions.
a. calcium
b. sodium
c. potassium
d. chloride
Answer: A
Consider This: This ion acts as a cofactor that permits the myofibrils to extract energy from the
ATP that is present in the cytoplasm; LO 8.2: Organize the steps of neurotransmission at the
neuromuscular junction.
Learning Objective: 8.2: Organize the steps of neurotransmission at the neuromuscular junction.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q8.1.4
Question: Myosin cross bridges attach to actin strands, bend, detach, and then attach lower.
These actions result in the __________ of the muscle fibers.
a. shortening
b. lengthening
c. activating
d. stretching
Answer: A
Consider This: As this process occurs, the muscle fiber contracts; LO 8.2: Organize the steps of
neurotransmission at the neuromuscular junction.
Learning Objective: 8.2: Organize the steps of neurotransmission at the neuromuscular junction
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM Q8.1.5
Question: Intrafusal muscle fibers act as _____ detectors.
a. muscle length
b. stretch
c. tension
d. contraction
Answer: A
Consider This: Although the intrafusal muscle fibers have stretch receptors, they monitor
something else; LO 8.3: Contrast the roles of receptors for sensory feedback from muscles.
Learning Objective: 8.3: Contrast the roles of receptors for sensory feedback from muscles.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q8.2.2
Question: When ______________ are active, intrafusal muscle fibers become shorter and much
more sensitive to changes in muscle length.
a. gamma motor neurons
b. extrafusal muscle fibers
c. alpha motor neurons
d. intrafusal muscle fibers
Answer: A
Consider This: These also play a role in adjusting the sensitivity of muscle spindles; LO 8.5:
Explain the function of the gamma motor system.
Learning Objective: 8.5: Explain the function of the gamma motor system.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM Q8.2.3
Question: When the efferent axon of a single muscle spindle is completely silent, the spindle is:
a. completely relaxed and extended.
b. completely relaxed and contracted.
c. contracted.
d. extended.
Answer: A
Consider This: As the firing rate of the efferent axon increases, the spindle gets shorter and
shorter; LO 8.5: Explain the function of the gamma motor system.
Learning Objective: 8.5: Explain the function of the gamma motor system.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q8.2.4
Question: Reflex circuits:
a. typically involve thousands of neurons.
b. typically involve one chain of neurons
c. typically involve dozens of neurons.
d. always involve the brain.
Answer: A
Consider This: Each axon usually synapses on many neurons, and each neuron receives synapses
from many different axons; LO 8.6: Contrast polysynaptic and monosynaptic reflexes.
Learning Objective: 8.6: Contrast polysynaptic and monosynaptic reflexes.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q8.2.5
Question: With respect to spinal reflexes, monosynaptic is to _____ as polysynaptic is to _____.
a. the knee-jerk reflex; the startle reflex
b. the startle reflex; the knee-jerk reflex
c. reflexive limb withdrawal to pain; the knee-jerk reflex.
d. the startle reflex; reflexive limb withdrawal to pain
Answer: A
Consider This: he monosynaptic stretch reflex helps maintain posture; LO 8.6: Contrast
polysynaptic and monosynaptic reflexes.
Learning Objective: 8.6: Contrast polysynaptic and monosynaptic reflexes.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
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EOM Q8.3.2
Question: The primary motor cortex receives information from:
a. the supplementary motor area only.
b. the premotor cortex only.
c. both the prefrontal cortex and the supplementary motor area.
d. both the supplementary motor area and the premotor cortex.
Answer: D
Consider This: The correct answer receives information from the parietal and temporal lobes and
are adjacent to the primary motor cortex; LO 8.7: Describe how motor control information is
processed in the cortex.
Learning Objective: 8.7: Describe how motor control information is processed in the cortex.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Skill Level: Analyze It
EOM Q8.3.3
Question: The mesencephalic locomotor region of the _______________ causes a cat to make
pacing movements.
a. medulla
b. pons
c. cerebellum
d. reticular formation
Answer: D
Consider This: This area is also responsible for arousal, sleep/wake cycle, and control of
movement; LO 8.9: Describe the functions of subcortical regions involved in control of motor
behavior.
Learning Objective: 8.9: Describe the functions of subcortical regions involved in control of
motor behavior.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM Q8.3.4
Question: The corticospinal tract, the corticobulbar tract, and the rubrospinal tract make up the
______________ group of descending tracts from the primary motor cortex.
a. lateral
b. ventromedial
c. posteromedial
d. rostral
Answer: A
Consider This: This system is involved in control of independent limb movements; LO 8.10:
Describe the components of the descending pathways.
Learning Objective: 8.10: Describe the components of the descending pathways.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q8.3.5
Question: The lateral corticospinal tract helps to control all of these EXCEPT the:
a. arms.
b. hands.
c. feet and toes.
d. upper legs.
Answer: D
Consider This: This tract helps control the distal parts of the limbs; LO 8.10: Describe the
components of the descending pathways.
Learning Objective: 8.10: Describe the components of the descending pathways.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM Q8.4.2
Question: Emma watches her mom putting on cosmetics. She picks up a tube of lip gloss as her
mom puts her own lipstick on. Emma imitates the movements, putting lip gloss on her own lips.
It is likely that Emma’s __________ are activated during this process.
a. mirror neurons
b. imitative neurons
c. occipital neurons
d. fusiform face area neurons
Answer: A
Consider This: These neurons are activated by the performance of an action or the sight of
someone else performing that action; LO 8.11: Describe the location, components and functions
of the mirror neuron system.
Learning Objective: 8.11: Describe the location, components and functions of the mirror neuron
system.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM Q8.4.3
Question: When a person is about to make a pointing or reaching movement to a particular
location, the _______________ becomes active, indicating the location of the target.
a. parietal reach region
b. extrastriate body area
c. parahippocampal place area
d. anterior part of the intraparietal sulcus
Answer: A
Consider This: This brain area is located in the medial posterior parietal cortex; LO 8.12:
Summarize the contributions of the parietal cortex in reaching and grasping behavior.
Learning Objective: 8.12: Summarize the contributions of the parietal cortex in reaching and
grasping behavior.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q8.4.4
Question: The __________________ is involved in controlling the hand and finger movements
involved in grasping a target object.
a. anterior part of the intraparietal sulcus
b. parietal reach region
c. extrastriate body area
d. parahippocampal place area
Answer: A
Consider This: This brain area is located in the posterior parietal cortex; LO 8.12: Summarize the
contributions of the parietal cortex in reaching and grasping behavior.
Learning Objective: 8.12: Summarize the contributions of the parietal cortex in reaching and
grasping behavior.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM Q8.4.5
Question: Visual input to the parietal reach region and the anterior part of the intraparietal
sulcus comes from the _____________ stream of the visual pathway.
a. dorsal
b. ventral
c. rostral
d. caudal
Answer: A
Consider This: This pathway is responsible for information related to location of the object; LO
8.12: Summarize the contributions of the parietal cortex in reaching and grasping behavior.
Learning Objective: 8.12: Summarize the contributions of the parietal cortex in reaching and
grasping behavior.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q8.5.2
Question: Limb apraxia would be demonstrated by:
a. moving the wrong part of the limb.
b. incorrect movement.
c. incorrect sequence of movement.
d. moving the wrong part of the limb, incorrect movement, and incorrect sequence of
movement.
Answer: D
Consider This: Apraxia difficulties are usually demonstrated by asking a patient to imitate the
hand movements of the practitioner. What might those errors look like?; LO 8.13: Describe how
brain lesions can produce limb apraxia.
Learning Objective: 8.13: Describe how brain lesions can produce limb apraxia.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM Q8.5.3
Question: The facts that the right hemisphere is responsible for extrapersonal space and the left
hemisphere is responsible for the individual’s own body mean that:
a. damage to both hemispheres must be present for limb apraxia to occur.
b. damage to the left hemisphere causes apraxia in both hands.
c. damage to the right hemisphere causes apraxia in both hands.
d. damage to the left hemisphere causes contralateral apraxia.
Answer: B
Consider This: Damage affects both contralateral and ipsilateral control; LO 8.13: Describe how
brain lesions can produce limb apraxia.
Learning Objective: 8.13: Describe how brain lesions can produce limb apraxia.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q8.5.4
Question: The __________ lobe plays the most important role in determining the meanings of
hand gestures.
a. frontal
b. parietal
c. occipital
d. temporal
Answer: A
Consider This: Which lobe is responsible for higher order processing?; LO 8.13: Describe how
brain lesions can produce limb apraxia.
Learning Objective: 8.13: Describe how brain lesions can produce limb apraxia.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q8.5.5
Question: Pam can easily demonstrate how to use objects in the kitchen or pretend to cook.
However, when asked to draw a pot, pan, or spoon, she is unable to do so. It is MOST likely that
Pam suffers from:
a. constructional apraxia.
b. limb apraxia.
c. oculomotor apraxia.
d. ideomotor apraxia.
Answer: A
Consider This: This deficit is caused by lesions of the right hemisphere, particularly the right
parietal lobe; LO 8.14: Describe how brain lesions can produce constructional apraxia.
Learning Objective: 8.14: Describe how brain lesions can produce constructional apraxia.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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EOC Q8.2
Question: The synapse between the terminal button of an efferent neuron and the membrane of a
muscle fiber is called a(n):
a. neuromuscular junction.
b. motorendplate.
c. endplate potential
d. motor unit.
Answer: A
Consider This: Remember that a synapse is a connection; LO 8.2: Organize the steps of
neurotransmission at the neuromuscular junction.
Learning Objective: 8.2: Organize the steps of neurotransmission at the neuromuscular junction.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q8.3
Question: Stretch receptors are located in:
a. intrafusal muscle fibers.
b. golgi tendons.
c. extrafusal muscle fibers.
d. intrafusal muscle fibers and golgi tendons.
Answer: D
Consider This: Stretch receptors are located in several places; LO 8.3: Contrast the roles of
receptors for sensory feedback from muscles.
Learning Objective: 8.3 Contrast the roles of receptors for sensory feedback from muscles.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOC Q8.4
Question: In addition to the reflexive action, the monosynaptic stretch reflex also controls:
a. posture.
b. strength
c. flexibility.
d. precision.
Answer: A
Consider This: The monosynaptic stretch reflex helps counteract the pull of gravity; LO 8.4:
Explain the function of monosynaptic stretch reflexes.
Learning Objective: 8.4: Explain the function of monosynaptic stretch reflexes.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q8.5
Question: As Jim lifts his arms upward, Sally suddenly grabs them and pushes them down.
When Jim’s arms meet this resistance:
a. the intrafusal muscle fibers shorten more than the extrafusal muscle fibers.
b. the contraction is lessened.
c. the extrafusal muscle fibers shorten more than the extrafusal muscle fibers
d. the monosynaptic stretch reflex is inhibited.
Answer: A
Consider This: If there is little resistance, both the extrafusal and intrafusal muscle fibers will
contract at approximately the same rate; LO 8.5: Explain the function of the gamma motor
system.
Learning Objective: 8.5 Explain the function of the gamma motor system.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOC Q8.6
Question: Less sensitive afferent axons from the Golgi tendon organ trigger a reaction that
results in glycine release and:
a. the production of excitatory postsynaptic potentials.
b. the production of inhibitory postsynaptic potentials.
c. an increase in the likelihood that the next cell will fire.
d. an increase in neurotransmitter release.
Answer: B
Consider This: This system is responsible for decreasing the strength of muscular contraction
when there is danger of damage to the tendons or bones to which the muscles are attached; LO
8.6: Contrast polysynaptic and monosynaptic reflexes.
Learning Objective: 8.6: Contrast polysynaptic and monosynaptic reflexes.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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EOC Q8.7
Question: Damage to the ________________ resulted in monkeys being unable to perform a
once familiar response, specifically pushing in a lever and then turning it to the left. This result
suggests that this brain area is involved in executing well-learned sequences of motor responses.
a. supplementary motor area
b. premotor cortex
c. common integrative area
d. prefrontal lobe
Answer: A
Consider This: This area is located medially on the surface of the brain, rostral to the primary
motor cortex; LO 8.8: Explain the functions of the motor association cortex in planning and
initiating movement.
Learning Objective: 8.8: Explain the functions of the motor association cortex in planning and
initiating movement.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOC Q8.8
Question: The _____________ are responsible for the decision to move.
a. posterior parietal cortex and frontopolar cortex
b. pre-SMA and posterior parietal cortex
c. posterior SMA and posterior parietal cortex
d. pre-SMA and frontopolar cortex
Answer: A
Consider This: The SMA is responsible for planning sequences and for spontaneous movements;
LO 8.8: Explain the functions of the motor association cortex in planning and initiating
movement.
Learning Objective: 8.8: Explain the functions of the motor association cortex in planning and
initiating movement.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q8.9
Question: The pontine and dentate nuclei are located in the:
a. reticular formation.
b. pons.
c. cerebellum.
d. medulla.
Answer: C
Consider This: This area is responsible for balance and gait; LO 8.9: Describe the functions of
subcortical regions involved in control of motor behavior.
Learning Objective: 8.9: Describe the functions of subcortical regions involved in control of
motor behavior.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOC Q8.10
Question: The symptoms of Parkinson’s disease are caused by degeneration of dopamine-
secreting cells in the:
a. substantia nigra.
b. caudate.
c. putamen.
d. basal ganglia.
Answer: A
Consider This: This name of this area comes from the Latin for “black body” or “black
substance”; LO 8.9: Describe the functions of subcortical regions involved in control of motor
behavior.
Learning Objective: 8.9: Describe the functions of subcortical regions involved in control of
motor behavior.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q8.11
Question: The vestibulospinal tract, the tectospinal tract, the reticulospinal tract, and the ventral
corticospinal tract make up the ______________ group descending tracts from the primary
motor cortex.
a. lateral
b. ventromedial
c. posteromedial
d. rostral
Answer: B
Consider This: This system is involved in control of automatic movements; LO 8.10: Describe
the components of the descending pathways.
Learning Objective: 8.10: Describe the components of the descending pathways.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q8.12
Question: With respect to the major motor pathways, the vestibulospinal tract is to the
corticobulbar tract as ______ is to _____.
a. posture; walking
b. lateral group; ventromedial group
c. neck; tongue
d. trunk; face
Answer: D
Consider This: The vestibulospinal tract supports posture; LO 8.10: Describe the components of
the descending pathways.
Learning Objective: 8.10: Describe the components of the descending pathways.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Skill Level: Analyze It
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EOC Q8.13
Question: The sound of a bag being ripped open is likely to trigger activation of the ______
neurons.
a. mirror
b. imitative
c. occipital
d. audiovisual
Answer: D
Consider This: This set of neurons is a type of mirror neuron; LO 8.11: Describe the location,
components, and functions of the mirror neuron system.
Learning Objective: 8.11: Describe the location, components, and functions of the mirror neuron
system.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOC Q8.14
Question: Damage to the right parietal lobe results in ___________ apraxia, whereas damage to
the left parietal lobe results in ____________ apraxia.
a. constructional; limb
b. limb; constructional
c. ideomotor; limb
d. ideomotor; constructional
Answer: A
Consider This: The right parietal lobe is involved in the ability to perceive and imagine
geometrical relations; LO 8.14: Describe how brain lesions can produce constructional apraxia.
Learning Objective: 8.14: Describe how brain lesions can produce constructional apraxia.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOC Q8.15
Question: Approximately ______ percent of children may demonstrate _____, defined as
difficulties in planning, organizing, and coordinating complex motor behaviors.
a. 1 to 5; developmental apraxia
b. 5 to 10; developmental apraxia
c. 1 to 5; dyspraxia
d. 5 to 10; dyspraxia
Answer: D
Consider This: These children are not “without movement”; LO 8.15: Describe the biological
basis of dyspraxia.
Learning Objective: 8.15: Describe the biological basis of dyspraxia.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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Essay 124,125
Essay 126
Physiological Multiple 44-48,50,51,53,55, 52,54,60 49,57,59,62
Mechanisms Choice 56,58, 61,63-65
of Sleep and
Waking Fill-In 109-114
Essay 127 128,129
Disorders of Multiple 66,68,69,71,76- 67,70,74,75,80, 72,73,84,85,90
Sleep Choice 79,82,83,88,91-93,95 81,86,87,89,94
Fill-In 115-119, 121 120
Essay 130 131
Biological Multiple 96,97 99,101,102 98,100,103
Clocks Choice
Fill-In 122,123
Essay 132
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Multiple-Choice Questions
a. electroencephalogram
b. electromyogram
c. electro-oculogram
d. oximeter probe
e. electroencardiogram
2. During periods of wakefulness, brain waves oscillate between __________ and ____________
types of activity.
a. alpha; beta
b. delta; beta
c. alpha; delta
d. theta; delta
e. gamma; alpha
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4. The ________ is an instrument used to record electrical potentials from muscles during sleep.
a. myelogram
b. electroencephalogram
c. physiograph
d. electromyogram
e. retinogram
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a. blood pressure.
b. skin conductance.
c. heart rate.
d. electrical potentials within the brain.
e. eye movements.
6. The ________ pattern of EEG activity is characterized by irregular, mostly low-amplitude (13-
30 Hz) waves.
a. beta
b. alpha
c. theta
d. sleep spindles
e. delta
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7. The desynchrony of wave patterns observed during beta activity reflects the fact that
8. As Jenelle is falling asleep, she has a sensation of walking. Suddenly, her right leg “steps” into
a hole and her foot jerks in bed, seemingly simulating the fall she experienced in her sleeping
state. These muscle contractions are called
a. sleep spindles.
b. K complexes.
c. alpha wave activity.
d. spastic jerks.
e. hypnic jerks.
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9. The transition between wakefulness and sleep is marked by the appearance of ________ waves
in the sleep record.
a. alpha
b. delta
c. gamma
d. theta
e. beta
10. The theta brain wave pattern is characterized by changes in frequency of electrical activity of
a. 1-3 Hz.
b. 12-14 Hz.
c. 13-30 Hz.
d. less than 3.5 Hz.
e. 3.5-7.5 Hz.
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11. Dr. Singh is inspecting a person’s sleep record that contains 85 percent delta activity. Dr.
Singh feels confident that this person is
a. alpha
b. beta
c. delta
d. theta
e. gamma
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13. As Darius is sleeping, his dog begins to bark. As a result, his brain emits several sudden
sharp waveforms known as
a. hypnic jerks.
b. sleep spindles.
c. K complexes.
d. alpha wave activity.
e. delta wave activity.
a. When woken up in this stage, sleepers are often groggy and confused.
b. When in this stage, sleepers are often able to toss and turn on the bed, moving freely.
c. The sleeper experiences dreams.
d. The sleeper experiences vague sensations or feelings.
e. The sleeper’s eyes are still and focused.
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a. paradoxical
b. high-frequency
c. slow-wave
d. REM
e. rhythmic
16. Sleep stages 1 and 2 are termed ________, whereas stage 3 is referred to as ________.
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18. Which reason summarizes why stage 3 is considered to be the deepest sleep stage?
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a. dreaming in color
b. muscle paralysis
c. genital changes associated with arousal
d. various forms of slow-wave brain activity
e. rapid eye movements
a. 10 minutes.
b. 30-40 minutes.
c. 90 minutes.
d. 360 minutes.
e. 8 hours.
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22. During REM sleep, cerebral blood flow is __________ and cerebral oxygen consumption is
__________.
a. accelerated; decelerated
b. decelerated; suspended
c. accelerated; accelerated
d. accelerated; suspended
e. decelerated; accelerated
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23. Humans show which pattern of blood flow and mental activity during REM sleep?
a. Cortical blood flow is reduced during REM sleep as blood is shunted to the genitals.
b. Cerebral blood flow is low in the primary visual cortex.
c. Cerebral blood flow is very low during color dreaming.
d. Cerebral blood flow is high in the visual association cortex and low in the prefrontal
cortex.
e. Cerebral blood flow is low in the primary auditory cortex.
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25. ____________ refers to a sleeper’s awareness that she or he is dreaming and not awake.
26. Research with transcranial direct current stimulation (tDCS) suggests that the __________ is
involved in lucid dreaming.
a. prefrontal cortex
b. occipital cortex
c. hippocampus
d. medulla oblongata
e. anterior cingulate cortex
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27. During slow-wave sleep, activation of the visual and auditory cortexes is ______________,
whereas activation of the ________ and cerebellum is decreased.
a. increased; thalamus
b. decreased; thalamus
c. increased; prefrontal cortex
d. decreased; prefrontal cortex
e. increased; anterior cingulate cortex
28. During REM sleep, there is a high level of activity within the
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a. psychosis.
b. impaired physical exercise.
c. perceptual distortions.
d. secretion of stress hormones.
e. depression.
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a. squirrels
b. snakes
c. frogs
d. insects
e. fish
33. If you stay awake for 3 days and then fall asleep, you will likely not sleep for the 24 hours of
sleep that you missed. Instead, you might sleep 12 hours on the first night. Of the different stages
of sleep, you are most likely to make up hours from stage
a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. REM.
e. 1 and 3.
34. The brain expends __________ percent of the body’s energy during quiet wakefulness.
a. 2
b. .10
c. 20
d. 35
e. 50
35. After ________, a person should show greater slow-wave brain activity than during sleep.
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36. People suffering from fatal familial insomnia eventually experience only __________ during
a night’s sleep.
a. muscle paralysis
b. brief episodes of REM sleep
c. prolonged slow-wave sleep
d. beta activity
e. K spindles
37. Working on a task that demands high levels of mental activity during the day will
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38. Enforced bed rest for 6 weeks resulted in ________ in healthy research participants.
a. produce insomnia.
b. reduce the amplitude of delta activity in the frontal lobes.
c. increase the amount of time spent that night in slow-wave sleep.
d. increase the need for REM sleep.
e. increase the amount of time spent dreaming.
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40. Deprivation of REM sleep on one night results in an elevated amount of REM sleep on the
following night. This rebound phenomenon suggests that
41. The notion that REM sleep functions to promote brain development is supported by the
finding that
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42. Considerable research demonstrates that ________ sleep is important for the consolidation of
________ memory.
a. slow-wave; nondeclarative
b. REM; sensory
c. REM; declarative
d. slow-wave; sensory
e. REM; nondeclarative
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44. The notion that sleep or wakefulness is produced by a substance that circulates within the
blood is
45. The metabolism of glycogen within astrocytes produces ________, which in turn promotes
________.
a. adenosine; wakefulness
b. GABA; REM sleep
c. adenosine; slow-wave sleep
d. a benzodiazepine ligand; slow-wave sleep
e. GABA; slow-wave sleep
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46. Adenosine receptors are blocked by ________, which in turn promotes ________.
a. ethanol; euphoria
b. caffeine; wakefulness
c. nicotine; sleepiness
d. caffeine; sleepiness
e. glutamate; learning and memory
47. Electrical stimulation of neurons that release ________ produces cortical arousal.
a. glycine
b. GABA
c. serotonin
d. acetylcholine
e. adenosine
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48. Microdialysis studies demonstrate that the synaptic level of acetylcholine within the
________ is elevated during waking as well as during REM sleep.
a. hypothalamus
b. raphe nuclei
c. cerebral cortex
d. amygdala
e. ventral pons
49. The increased arousal and sleeplessness produced by amphetamine is related to the release of
a. norepinephrine.
b. serotonin.
c. acetylcholine.
d. dopamine.
e. GABA.
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a. nucleus accumbens.
b. hippocampus.
c. raphe nuclei.
d. striatum.
e. locus coeruleus.
52. The firing rates of noradrenergic cells within the locus coeruleus
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53. Most of the serotonin neurons in the brain are located within the
a. nucleus accumbens.
b. reticular formation.
c. raphe nuclei.
d. striatum.
e. locus coeruleus.
54. Which treatment in rats would be expected to increase locomotion and increase the amount
of cortical arousal evident in an EEG record?
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55. The sleep disorder ________ can be produced by degeneration of hypocretin (also called
orexin) neurons in the brain.
a. narcolepsy
b. iatrogenic insomnia
c. sleep apnea
d. night terrors
e. insomnia
56. Hypocretin neurons are more active during ________ but are less active during ________.
a. eating; drinking
b. normal waking; sleep
c. sexual behavior; feeding
d. reinforcement; punishment
e. slow-wave sleep; REM sleep
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58. Which statement is true regarding neurons within the ventrolateral preoptic area (vlPOA)?
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59. Which statement is true regarding neurons within the ventrolateral preoptic area (vlPOA)?
60. The capacity of circuits involving the vlPOA and the locus coeruleus, raphe nuclei, and
dorsal pons to show mutual inhibition may result in
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61. In the flip-flop circuit that controls sleep and arousal, the ___________ neurons are the
stabilizing force, pushing the circuit toward arousal.
a. orexinergic
b. serotonergic
c. noradrenergic
d. cholinergic
e. dopaminergic
a. An adenosine agonist
b. A histamine antagonist
c. Activation of hypocretin neurons
d. Stimulation of the ventrolateral preoptic area
e. Inactivation of histamine neurons
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63. The “on” portion of the flip-flop mechanism for REM sleep is located within the
a. dorsal pons.
b. occipital cortex.
c. suprachiasmatic nucleus.
d. globus pallidus.
e. preoptic area.
64. REM-ON neurons are located within the ________, whereas REM-OFF neurons are located
within the ________.
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65. ________ during REM sleep may be controlled by projections from the dorsal pons to the
________.
a. 8
b. 20
c. 30
d. 52
e. 68
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69. __________ is one of the few medical problems that physicians treat based on a patient’s
self-report of its existence.
a. Narcolepsy
b. Insomnia
c. Bipolar disorder
d. Diabetes
e. Hypertension
70. Leonardo has periods during the night when he stops breathing, causing carbon dioxide
levels in his blood to rise. After the levels get too high, he wakes up, gasping for breath.
Leonardo suffers from
a. insomnia.
b. sleep apnea.
c. narcolepsy.
d. night terrors.
e. sleeplessness.
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a. blocked airways.
b. obesity and diabetes.
c. psychosis.
d. mood disorder.
e. bipolar disorder.
72. Doris works a stressful job, has difficulty falling asleep, and often wakes up early. After
several weeks, she agrees to participate in a sleep study to determine whether she has insomnia.
It is likely that the results of her sleep study will show Doris
a. spends less time sleeping than people who do not complain of insomnia.
b. is lacking in the substances that promote and maintain sleep.
c. spends as much time sleeping as people who do not complain of insomnia.
d. has an excess of arousal-producing neurochemicals.
e. actually suffers from night terrors.
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74. A buildup of carbon dioxide in the blood is a characteristic of the sleep disorder known as
a. iatrogenic.
b. sleep apnea.
c. narcolepsy.
d. secondary insomnia.
e. cataplexy.
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a. impulsive drug-taking.
b. abnormal slow-wave sleep.
c. recurring nightmares.
d. an overwhelming urge to sleep at any time.
e. lucid dreaming.
77. A person who exhibits sudden paralysis but remains conscious may be experiencing
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78. ____________, a symptom of narcolepsy, occurs when a fully conscious person appears to
be paralyzed.
a. Sleep apnea
b. Sleep attacks
c. Insomnia
d. Cataplexy
e. Anoxia
79. ________ refers to the vivid dreams that may occur during sleep paralysis.
a. Sleep apnea
b. Hypnagogic hallucination
c. Cataplexy
d. Night terror
e. Somnambulism
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80. The hypothesis that narcolepsy involves faulty brain regulation of sleep is supported by the
observation that
a. insomnia
b. theta reversal
c. cataplexy
d. night terrors
e. enuresis
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84. The occurrence of sleep attacks in narcolepsy can be alleviated by drugs that
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85. Symptoms of narcolepsy involving REM sleep (such as cataplexy) are effectively treated by
drugs that
a. 1 in 200
b. 1 in 500
c. 1 in 800
d. 1 in 1,000
e. 1 in 2,000
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87. REM sleep behavior disorder is conceptually the opposite of narcolepsy in that
a. attacks of catalepsy.
b. a depressed mood upon awakening.
c. the occurrence of motor movements during slow-wave sleep.
d. a lack of paralysis during REM sleep.
e. the loss of dreams during REM sleep.
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89. The symptoms of REM sleep behavior disorder are opposite to those noted in
a. cataplexy.
b. secondary insomnia.
c. somnambulism.
d. nocturnal enuresis.
e. manic depression.
90. An effective treatment for REM sleep behavior disorder is the administration of
a. antidepressant drugs.
b. the drug clonazepam.
c. drugs that block serotonin receptors.
d. drugs that facilitate both serotonin and acetylcholine activity.
e. drugs that block hypocretin-gamma receptors.
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a. sleep attacks.
b. dreaming while awake.
c. sleepwalking.
d. cataplexy.
e. night terrors.
92. Which sleep disorder is observed more often in adults than in children?
a. insomnia
b. sleepwalking
c. bedwetting
d. night terrors
e. nightmares
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93. A person who experiences the sleep disorder symptom known as pavor nocturnus would be
said to be
a. anorexia nervosa.
b. somnabulimia.
c. sleep-related eating disorder.
d. hyperbulimia.
e. REM sleep behavior disorder.
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a. stress.
b. alcohol abuse.
c. the sleeping pill zolpidem.
d. weight loss.
e. eating.
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97. When an animal’s circadian rhythms are experimentally altered, often the animal will fall
into
98. Damage to a rat’s ________ would be expected to disrupt circadian rhythms related to sleep.
a. vlPOA
b. PAG
c. thalamus
d. SCN
e. TVOD
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100. Hamster A has a 24-hour rhythm. Hamster A has its SCN removed and replaced with the
SCN of Hamster B, which has an endogenous rhythm of 20 hours. What is the resultant rhythm
of Hamster A?
a. 20 hours
b. 22 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 26 hours
e. 27 hours
101. The “ticking” of a clock cell within the SCN appears to involve
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102. Seasonal rhythms are under the control of ________ secreted by cells within the ________.
103. Casey flew from Texas to Denmark on a non-stop flight. Upon arrival she found that she
was ready for her usual night’s sleep at 3:00 in the afternoon. Why did this occur?
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Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
104. Sleep stage 3 is characterized by the presence of ________ waves in the EEG record.
105. __________ is the stage of sleep in which sleep spindles and K complexes are likely to
occur.
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109. The ability of caffeine to reduce sleepiness is due to its ability to block the receptors for
________.
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112. Total insomnia is produced in rats after damage to their ________ area.
113. The _________________ preoptic area contains the majority of sleep neurons.
114. The eye movements that are observed during REM sleep appear to be controlled by fibers
within the dorsal pons that project to the ________.
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116. ________ refers to a form of insomnia in which a person cannot breathe while sleeping.
117. The primary symptom of the sleep disorder known as ________ is sleep attacks, in which
sleep occurs at any moment.
118. A person who exhibits sudden paralysis but remains conscious may be suffering from an
episode of ________.
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120. The symptoms of REM sleep behavior disorder are conceptually opposite to those noted in
________.
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Essay Questions
125. Compare the characteristics of non-REM sleep with those of REM sleep.
126. Evaluate the hypothesis that slow-wave sleep is required to rest the brain. Your answer
should include a discussion of the consequences of sleep deprivation and the effects of physical
and mental activity on slow-wave sleep.
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127. Explain why it is unlikely that the sleep-waking cycle is controlled by a blood-borne
chemical.
129. Contrast the neural systems and relevant transmitters that control slow-wave sleep.
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130. Explain the relationship between REM sleep, narcolepsy, and antidepressant medications.
131. Explain the process by which light acts on the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) to control the
circadian rhythm.
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Revel Quizzes
The following questions appear at the end of each module and at the end of the chapter in Revel
for Physiology of Behavior, 13th Edition.
EOM Q9.1.2
Question: During periods of wakefulness, brain waves oscillate between _____________ and
_____________ waves.
a. alpha; beta
b. delta; beta
c. alpha; delta
d. theta; delta
Answer: A
Consider This: These waves are generally low amplitude; LO 9.1: Describe the progression,
behaviors, and EEG characteristics of the stages of sleep.
Skill: Remember the Facts
Difficulty: Easy
Objective: LO 9.1: Describe the progression, behaviors, and EEG characteristics of the stages of
sleep.
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EOM Q9.1.3
Question: As Jenelle is falling asleep, she has a sensation of walking along a path. Suddenly, her
right leg steps into a hole and her foot jerks in bed, seemingly simulating the experienced fall in
her sleeping state. These muscle contractions are called:
a. hypnic jerks.
b. sleep spindles.
c. K complexes.
d. alpha waves.
Answer: A
Consider This: These occur during stage 1 of sleep; LO 9.1: Describe the progression, behaviors,
and EEG characteristics of the stages of sleep.
Learning Objective: 9.1: Describe the progression, behaviors, and EEG characteristics of the
stages of sleep.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM Q9.1.4
Question: As Darius is sleeping, his dog begins to bark. As a result, his brain emits several
sudden sharp waveforms known as:
a. hypnic jerks.
b. sleep spindles.
c. K complexes.
d. alpha wave activity.
Answer: C
Consider This: These occur only in Stage 2 of sleep; LO 9.1: Describe the progression,
behaviors, and EEG characteristics of the stages of sleep.
Learning Objective: 9.1: Describe the progression, behaviors, and EEG characteristics of the
stages of sleep.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM Q9.1.5
Question: Which statement is true regarding REM sleep?
a. When woken up in this stage, people are often groggy and confused.
b. When in this stage, people are often able to toss and turn on the bed, freely moving.
c. The person experiences dreams.
d. The person experiences vague sensations or feelings.
Answer: C
Consider This: Stage 3 is the deepest stage of sleep, which is the opposite of REM sleep in many
respects; LO 9.1: Describe the progression, behaviors, and EEG characteristics of the stages of
sleep.
Learning Objective: 9.1: Describe the progression, behaviors, and EEG characteristics of the
stages of sleep.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM Q9.2.2
Question: Sleep deprivation studies suggest that sleep is important for the:
a. performance of mental tasks.
b. rest and recuperation of the body.
c. ability to perform physically stressful duties.
d. performance of exercise.
Answer: A
Consider This: When you are really tired, is it hard to physically move or to think?; LO 9.3:
Suggest some possible general functions of sleep.
Learning Objective: 9.3: Suggest some possible general functions of sleep.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q9.2.3
Question: If you stay awake for 3 days and then fall asleep, you will likely not sleep for the 24
hours of sleep that you missed. Instead, you might sleep 12 hours on the first night. Of the
different stages of sleep, you are MOST likely to make up hours from stage:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. REM
Answer: C
Consider This: Slow-wave sleep is most important; LO 9.4: Suggest some possible functions of
slow-wave sleep.
Learning Objective: 9.4: Suggest some possible functions of slow-wave sleep.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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EOM Q9.2.4
Question: An inherited neurological disorder called fatal familial insomnia results in damage to
portions of the:
a. thalamus.
b. medulla.
c. pons.
d. reticular formation.
Answer: A
Consider This: This area is a large relay station in the brain; LO 9.4: Suggest some possible
functions of slow-wave sleep.
Learning Objective: 9.4: Suggest some possible functions of slow-wave sleep.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q9.2.5
Question: All else being equal, which individual spends the MOST time in REM?
a. Kami, an infant
b. Tori, a child
c. DeJuan, a teenager
d. Marcus, an adult
Answer: A
Consider This: The highest proportion of REM sleep is seen during the most active phase of
brain development; LO 9.5: Identify some possible functions of REM sleep.
Learning Objective: 9.5: Identify some possible functions of REM sleep.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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EOM Q9.3.2
Question: Falling levels of glycogen trigger an increase in ____________, which helps to
promote sleep.
a. adenosine
b. acetylcholine
c. aspartate
d. anandamide
Answer: A
Consider This: This is a nucleoside neuromodulator; LO 9.7: Explain how adenosine contributes
to regulating sleep.
Learning Objective: 9.7: Explain how adenosine contributes to regulating sleep.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q9.3.3
Question: Caffeine binds to adenosine receptors and blocks them. The end result is feeling
awake because adenosine is unable to activate its receptors to promote sleepiness. Caffeine is:
a. a direct antagonist.
b. an indirect antagonist.
c. a direct agonist.
d. an indirect antagonist.
Answer: A
Consider This: Caffeine affects adenosine in a straight-forward way; LO 9.7: Explain how
adenosine contributes to regulating sleep.
Learning Objective: 9.7: Explain how adenosine contributes to regulating sleep.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM Q9.3.4
Question: In times of increased brain activity ________ from _________ is converted into fuel
for neurons.
a. glycogen; astrocytes
b. glucose; astrocytes
c. glycogen; oligodendrocytes
d. glucose; microglia
Answer: A
Consider This: Only one of these glial cells can provide nourishment for neurons; LO 9.7:
Explain how adenosine contributes to regulating sleep.
Learning Objective: 9.7: Explain how adenosine contributes to regulating sleep.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOM Q9.3.5
Question: If acetylcholine activity is high, then:
a. the animal is likely feeling drowsy or beginning to sleep.
b. there is a decrease in EEG-measured cortical arousal.
c. brain waves are likely highly synchronized.
d. brain waves are likely desynchronized.
Answer: D
Consider This: Acetylcholine agonists increase arousal; LO 9.8: Describe how neurochemical
systems help regulate arousal.
Learning Objective: 9.8: Describe how neurochemical systems help regulate arousal.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q9.4.2
Question: John has periods during the night where he stops breathing, causing carbon dioxide
levels in his blood to rise. Once the levels get too high, he wakes up, gasping for breath. John
suffers from:
a. insomnia.
b. sleep apnea.
c. narcolepsy.
d. night terrors.
Answer: B
Consider This: The correct term means “asphyxia”; LO 9.11: Describe the symptoms, treatment,
and biological basis of insomnia.
Learning Objective: 9.11: Describe the symptoms, treatment, and biological basis of insomnia.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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EOM Q9.4.3
Question: ____________, a symptom of narcolepsy, occurs when a fully conscious person
appears to be paralyzed.
a. Cataplexy
b. Sleep apnea
c. A sleep attack
d. Insomnia
Answer: A
Consider This: This is a type of muscle weakness that occurs inappropriately (when the person is
awake); LO 9.12: Describe the symptoms, treatment, and biological basis of narcolepsy.
Learning Objective: 9.12: Describe the symptoms, treatment, and biological basis of narcolepsy.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q9.4.4
Question: REM sleep behavior disorder is the opposite of narcolepsy in that:
a. people have “awake attacks” rather than sleep attacks.
b. REM sleep behavior disorder is not linked to degenerative disorders.
c. REM sleep behavior disorder involves bouts of insomnia.
d. instead of muscle paralysis during waking hours, those with REM sleep behavior disorder
lack muscle paralysis during sleep.
Answer: D
Consider This: Those with this disorder often act out their dreams; LO 9.13: Describe the
symptoms, treatment, and biological basis of REM sleep behavior disorder.
Learning Objective: 9.13: Describe the symptoms, treatment, and biological basis of REM sleep
behavior disorder.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Skill Level: Analyze It
EOM Q9.4.5
Question: Which sleep disorder or disturbance is seen more often in adults than children?
a. insomnia
b. sleepwalking
c. bedwetting
d. night terrors
Answer: A
Consider This: Which one is someone less likely to “grow out of”?; LO 9.14: Describe the
symptoms, treatment, and biological basis of bedwetting, sleepwalking, and night terrors.
Learning Objective: 9.14: Describe the symptoms, treatment, and biological basis of bedwetting,
sleepwalking, and night terrors.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
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EOM Q9.5.2
Question: Hamster A has a 24-hour rhythm. Hamster A has its SCN removed and replaced with
the SCN of Hamster B, which has an endogenous rhythm of 20 hours. What is the resultant
rhythm of Hamster A?
a. 20 hours
b. 22 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 26 hours
Answer: A
Consider This: The SCN does not need to form connections to affect the system; LO 9.16:
Explain how the suprachiasmatic nucleus regulates circadian rhythms.
Learning Objective: 9.16: Explain how the suprachiasmatic nucleus regulates circadian rhythms.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM Q9.5.3
Question: The suprachiasmatic nucleus is found in the:
a. thalamus.
b. hypothalamus
c. medulla.
d. pons.
Answer: B
Consider This: This area controls food and water intake and sexual behavior, among many other
functions; LO 9.16: Explain how the suprachiasmatic nucleus regulates circadian rhythms.
Learning Objective: 9.16: Explain how the suprachiasmatic nucleus regulates circadian rhythms.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOM Q9.5.4
Question: Animals that are seasonal breeders will experience anti-gonadal function during
____________ due to ____________ melatonin levels.
a. winter; increased
b. winter; decreased
c. summer; increased
d. summer; decreased
Answer: A
Consider This: Long nights = more melatonin; LO 9.17: Describe the relationship between the
pineal gland and melatonin.
Learning Objective: 9.17: Describe the relationship between the pineal gland and melatonin.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q9.5.5
Question: Darnelle is totally blind and suffers from non-24-hour sleep-wake disorder. Her
circadian rhythm is longer than 24 hours, resulting in recurrent periods of daytime sleepiness and
nighttime insomnia. To synchronize her circadian rhythm, her doctor prescribes a low evening
dose of the hormone:
a. prolactin.
b. ghrelin.
c. oxytocin.
d. melatonin.
Answer: D
Consider This: The hormone is secreted by the pineal gland; LO 9.18: Suggest why shift work
and jet lag result in changes in circadian rhythms.
Learning Objective: 9.18: Suggest why shift work and jet lag result in changes in circadian
rhythms.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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EOC Q9.2
Question: John is sleeping when his mother calls his name. He does not respond. She calls his
name louder, telling him it is time to get up and get ready for school. Even when she gets close to
the bed, says his name, and puts her hand on his shoulder, he does not arouse. It is likely that he
is in the ____________ stage of sleep.
a. 1st
b. 2nd
c. 3rd
d. REM
Answer: C
Consider This: In the deepest stage of sleep, it is hard to arouse the sleeper; LO 9.1: Describe the
progression, behaviors, and EEG characteristics of the stages of sleep.
Learning Objective: 9.1: Describe the progression, behaviors, and EEG characteristics of the
stages of sleep.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOC Q9.3
Question: As the night progresses and the individual continues to sleep, they experience:
a. more Stage 4 sleep.
b. more Stage 3 sleep.
c. less Stage 2 sleep.
d. more REM sleep.
Answer: D
Consider This: Most slow-wave sleep occurs during the first half of night; LO 9.1: Describe the
progression, behaviors, and EEG characteristics of the stages of sleep.
Learning Objective: 9.1: Describe the progression, behaviors, and EEG characteristics of the
stages of sleep.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q9.4
Question: The ___________ level of activity in the ___________ cortex during REM sleep is
reflective of visual hallucinations that occur during dreaming.
a. high; extrastriate
b. high; striate
c. low; extrastriate
d. low; striate
Answer: A
Consider This: The eyes are not receiving any input during sleep; LO 9.2: Explain the patterns of
brain activity present in REM and slow-wave sleep.
Learning Objective: 9.2: Explain the patterns of brain activity present in REM and slow-wave
sleep.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOC Q9.5
Question: The nature of dreams, such as disorganization, scrambled events, and no clear passing
of time, suggests that the ___________ cortex has a ________ activity level during REM sleep.
a. prefrontal; low
b. prefrontal; high
c. extrastriate; low
d. extrastriate; high
Answer: A
Consider This: Which area of the brain would be responsible for planning and organization?; LO
9.2: Explain the patterns of brain activity present in REM and slow-wave sleep.
Learning Objective: 9.2: Explain the patterns of brain activity present in REM and slow-wave
sleep.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q9.6
Question: If you were sleeping and experienced stimulation to your dorsolateral
______________ cortex, it is more likely that you would report lucid dreaming, which is
realizing that you are dreaming and not actually awake.
a. prefrontal
b. occipital
c. parietal
d. temporal
Answer: A
Consider This: This brain area is usually inactive during REM sleep and allows the dreamer to
control his/her dreams; LO 9.2: Explain the patterns of brain activity present during REM and
slow-wave sleep.
Learning Objective: 9.2: Explain the patterns of brain activity present during REM and slow-
wave sleep.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q9.7
Question: Research suggests that eye movements during REM sleep:
a. are necessary to experience the visual hallucinations involved in dreaming.
b. are random occurrences.
c. are in response to the visual images that are being experienced.
d. are the same from person to person.
Answer: C
Consider This: To determine the function of these eye movements, researchers tracked eye
movements and then asked participants what they dreamed about; LO 9.2: Explain the patterns
of brain activity present during REM and slow-wave sleep.
Learning Objective: 9.2: Explain the patterns of brain activity present during REM and slow-
wave sleep.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOC Q9.8
Question: To encourage mental activity in a stress-free way, Horne and Minard (1985) treated
their participants to a fun day out, with visits to museums, amusement parks, galleries, and
shopping malls. That night, participants:
a. experienced more slow-wave sleep.
b. experienced insomnia.
c. slept longer than usual.
d. showed little or no REM sleep.
Answer: A
Consider This: Mental stimulation increases glucose metabolism in the brain, especially in the
frontal lobes; LO 9.4: Suggest some possible functions of slow-wave sleep.
Learning Objective: 9.4: Suggest some possible functions of slow-wave sleep.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q9.9
Question: Compared to slow-wave sleep, REM sleep strongly facilitates:
a. the consolidation of nondeclarative memory.
b. the consolidation of declarative memory.
c. the ability to perform a physical task.
d. remembering the events that took place over the course of the day.
Answer: A
Consider This: REM sleep appears to help things like recognizing a person’s face; LO 9.6:
Compare the roles of slow-wave and REM sleep in learning.
Learning Objective: 9.6: Compare the roles of slow-wave and REM sleep in learning.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
EOC Q9.10
Question: Joey, as a research participant, has to study a list of paired words. He is then allowed
to take a nap before testing. If he experiences ____________ sleep, he does better on the test.
a. stage 1
b. stage 2
c. stage 3
d. REM
Answer: C
Consider This: This type of memory would be something that Joey could talk about; LO 9.6:
Compare the roles of slow-wave and REM sleep in learning.
Learning Objective: 9.6: Compare the roles of slow-wave and REM sleep in learning.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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EOC Q9.11
Question: If norepinephrine levels are high, then:
a. the animal is likely feeling drowsy or beginning to sleep.
b. there is a decrease in EEG-measured cortical arousal.
c. the animal is dreaming.
d. the animal is awake.
Answer: D
Consider This: Norepinephrine agonists increase arousal; LO 9.8: Describe how neurochemical
systems help regulate arousal.
Learning Objective: 9.8: Describe how neurochemical systems help regulate arousal.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q9.12
Question: The textbook describes six different neurotransmitters involving in regulating arousal
and the sleep-wake cycle. Levels of only one of these chemicals—namely, _____ —are high
rather than low during REM sleep.
a. norepinephrine
b. serotonin
c. adenosine
d. acetylcholine
Answer: D
Consider This: During REM sleep, levels of the correct hormone increase in both the cortex and
the hippocampus; LO 9.8: Describe how neurochemical systems help regulate arousal.
Learning Objective: 9.8: Describe how neurochemical systems help regulate arousal.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q9.13
Question: In the flip-flop circuit that controls sleep and arousal, the ___________ neurons are
the stabilizing force, pushing the circuit toward arousal.
a. orexinergic
b. serotonergic
c. noradrenergic
d. cholinergic
Answer: A
Consider This: The cause of narcolepsy is degeneration of orexinergic neurons in humans; LO
9.10: Describe the role of flip-flop circuits controlling transitions to REM.
Learning Objective: 9.10: Describe the role of flip-flop circuits controlling transitions to REM.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOC Q9.14
Question: Doris works a stressful job, has difficulty falling asleep, and often wakes up early.
After several weeks, she agrees to participate in a sleep study to determine whether she has
insomnia. It is likely that the results of her sleep study show Doris:
a. spends less time sleeping as people who do not complain of insomnia.
b. is lacking in the substances that promote and maintain sleep.
c. spends as much time sleeping as people who do not complain of insomnia.
d. has an excess of arousal-producing neurochemicals.
Answer: C
Consider This: The most common treatment for insomnia includes changes to sleep hygiene; LO
9.11: Describe the symptoms, treatment, and biological basis of insomnia.
Learning Objective: 9.11: Describe the symptoms, treatment, and biological basis of insomnia.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOC Q9.15
Question: The response of the pupil and retina to the ambient level of light is controlled by:
a. rods, but not cones.
b. cones, but not rods
c. both rods and cones.
d. neither rods nor cones.
Answer: D
Consider This: The axons of melanopsin-sensitive photoreceptors terminate in the SCN and the
midbrain. LO 9.16 Explain how the suprachiasmatic nucleus regulates circadian rhythms.
Learning Objective: 9.16: Explain how the suprachiasmatic nucleus regulates circadian rhythms.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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Topic Question Remember the Facts Understand the Apply What You
Type Concepts Know
Sexual Multiple 1-5,9,13,15-17,23, 6-8,10,12,14,18-22, 11
Development Choice 26,28,32,33,35 24,25,27,29-31,34
Fill-In 107-116
Essay 127-130
Essay
Fill-In 126
Essay 133
Fill-In
Essay 134
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Multiple-Choice Questions
1. All cells of the human body, other than sperm or ova, contain 23
a. pairs of chromosomes.
b. chromosomes.
c. pairs of genes.
d. genes.
e. alleles.
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a. XX
b. X
c. Y
d. XY
e. XO
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a. XY chromosomes.
b. XX chromosomes.
c. XYY chromosomes.
d. XO chromosomes.
e. XXY chromosomes.
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a. ovaries
b. adrenal gland
c. pancreas
d. pituitary
e. thyroid
8. The factor that determines whether undifferentiated gonads develop into testes is the
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9. The protein that dictates the conversion of undifferentiated gonads into the testes is
initiated by the
a. ob/ob protein.
b. leptin protein.
c. gene Tny.
d. SRY gene.
e. X chromosome.
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11. A female rhesus monkey is exposed to testosterone in utero. As a result, the animal
displays some defeminized behaviors as an adult. In this case, the influence of the hormone
exposure had a(n) _______________ effect.
a. activational
b. organizational
c. instrumental
d. masculinizing
e. feminizing
12. The primary distinction between an organizational hormone effect and an activational
hormone effect is that
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15. Early in the course of human embryonic development, the internal sex organs are
16. The prenatal development of the internal reproductive structures of the male requires
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17. The prenatal development of the internal reproductive structures of the female
18. The hormone ________ exerts a defeminizing action during prenatal development.
a. testosterone
b. dihydrotestosterone
c. estradiol
d. ghrelin
e. anti-Müllerian hormone
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19. A hormone that prevents the prenatal development of the Müllerian system is said to have
a(n)
a. defeminizing effect.
b. activational effect.
c. masculinizing effect.
d. feminizing effect.
e. nonselective action on the undifferentiated gonads.
20. A hormone that promotes the prenatal development of the Wolffian system is said to have
a(n)
a. defeminizing effect.
b. activational effect.
c. masculinizing effect.
d. feminizing effect.
e. nonselective action on the undifferentiated gonads.
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21. A person who suffers from androgen insensitivity syndrome would be expected to
22. In which disorder would the external genitals of a female develop in conjunction with
testes?
a. adrenogenital syndrome
b. Turner syndrome
c. SRY syndrome
d. persistent Müllerian duct syndrome
e. androgen insensitivity syndrome
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a. tyrosine hydroxylase
b. 5α reductase
c. seminal hydroxylase
d. 3Ώ galactase
e. tryptophan hydroxylase
24. In ________, one might expect to observe both male and female internal reproductive
structures.
a. adrenogenital syndrome
b. Turner syndrome
c. SRY syndrome
d. persistent Müllerian duct syndrome in a genetic male
e. androgen insensitivity syndrome
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a. Willcox syndrome.
b. androgen insensitivity syndrome.
c. Turner syndrome.
d. persistent Müllerian duct syndrome.
e. 5α reductase deficiency.
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27. A genetic male has a hormone receptor deficiency that results in this person having a
penis and both sets of internal sex organs. The most likely explanation for this case is that the
person might
28. The prenatal development of the external male genitalia requires the presence of
a. alpha-feto protein.
b. melatonin.
c. estradiol.
d. dihydrotestosterone.
e. anti-Müllerian hormone.
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a. ovary development.
b. a deep voice.
c. development of a clitoris.
d. development of a vagina.
e. formation of a penis.
a. breast development.
b. growth of axillary hair in females.
c. differentiation of the Wolffian system into the fimbriae, Fallopian tubes, uterus,
and vagina.
d. maturation of the ovaries in a female.
e. alteration of the vocal cords to create a “deep” voice.
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a. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone
b. Follicle stimulating hormone
c. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone and testosterone
d. Testosterone
e. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, and testosterone
32. The event that starts sexual maturation at the onset of puberty is that
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a. leptin
b. LH
c. ghrelin
d. kisspeptin
e. cortisol
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a. development of a penis.
b. growth of pubic hair.
c. raising of the voice pitch.
d. growth of head hair.
e. suppression of the ovaries.
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37. The primary feature that distinguishes a menstrual cycle from an estrous cycle is that
a. females can engage in sexual behavior at any time during an estrous cycle.
b. females can only engage in sexual behavior around the time of ovulation in a
menstrual cycle.
c. there is no cycle of growth and loss of the uterine lining in an estrous cycle.
d. an estrous cycle does not involve the secretion of estrogens.
e. an estrous cycle is longer than a menstrual cycle.
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a. luteinizing hormone
b. estradiol
c. progesterone
d. follicle-stimulating hormone
e. testosterone
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42. After successfully mating, a male rat experiences __________ where he does not initiate
sexual behavior again.
a. a refractory period
b. sexual satiety
c. sexual inhibition
d. lordosis
e. the theta-H effect
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44. Which is hormone is released in both female and male rats at the time of orgasm?
a. testosterone
b. luteinizing hormone
c. oxytocin
d. uterone
e. estradiol
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45. What is the correct sequence of the phases of the rat estrous cycle?
46. A receptive female rat will exhibit ____________ when mounted by a male.
a. lordosis
b. lactation
c. darting
d. escaping
e. startle
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a. testosterone.
b. estrogen.
c. sensory factors.
d. adrenaline.
e. delta2 hormone.
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50. Sexual receptivity in a female rat is ________ after removal of the ________.
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52. Which sequence of hormone treatment is most likely to restore sexual receptivity in an
ovariectomized female rat?
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a. an ovariectomy.
b. targeted mutations of androgen receptors.
c. targeted deletions of aldosterone receptors.
d. damage to the medial preoptic hypothalamus.
e. damage to the prefrontal cortex.
54. The physiological and behavioral cues in a female rat to which a male rat will respond are
called
a. receptive behaviors.
b. attractiveness.
c. perceptive behaviors.
d. proceptivity behaviors.
e. refractory behaviors.
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a. receptivity
b. perceptivity
c. proceptivity
d. attractivity
e. reactivity
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57. A male rat is castrated immediately after birth and then given injections of estradiol and
progesterone in adulthood. This male rat would be expected to
58. If a female rat is ovariectomized and given testosterone at birth, she will not perform
lordosis for a male; instead, she will mount. In this case, the animal has experienced
a. behavioral defeminization.
b. behavioral masculinization.
c. the activational effects of estradiol and progesterone.
d. the organizational effects of estradiol and progesterone.
e. the organizational effects of testosterone.
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59. If a female rat is ovariectomized and given testosterone at birth, she will not perform
lordosis for a male even when given estradiol and progesterone. In this case, the animal has
experienced
a. behavioral defeminization.
b. behavioral masculinization.
c. activational effects of estradiol and progesterone.
d. organizational effects of estradiol and progesterone.
e. organizational effects of testosterone.
60. The principle that best describes an organizational effect of androgens during prenatal
development that enables an animal to engage in male sexual behavior as an adult is
a. feminization.
b. emasculinization.
c. behavioral masculinization.
d. aromatization.
e. behavioral defeminization.
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61. A brain that is exposed to androgen during prenatal development will not show female
sexual behavior in adulthood. This effect is referred to as
a. feminization.
b. emasculinization.
c. behavioral masculinization.
d. martinization.
e. behavioral defeminization.
62. An adult rodent that was not exposed to prenatal androgens is injected with estrogen and
progesterone as an adult. That rodent would be expected to display
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63. Women are more likely to initiate sex during _______________, suggesting an influence
of hormones on female sexual behavior.
a. ovulation
b. the luteal phase
c. menstruation
d. the follicular phase
e. the day
64. A human female is more likely to initiate sexual activity with her partner
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65. Research suggests that ______________ increases sexual activity and rate of orgasm for
women.
a. estradiol
b. progesterone
c. luteinizing hormone
d. follicular hormone
e. testosterone
66. Which conclusion regarding the role of androgens in female sexual activity represents the
current research consensus?
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68. Both women and men appear to show increased secretion of ________ in anticipation of
renewed sexual contact.
a. cortisol
b. kisspeptin
c. leptin
d. estradiol
e. testosterone
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69. Dr. Sardonicus has developed a new pheromone that induces males to approach females.
She created a fragrance laced with this pheromone, named it Yearning, and then began her
marketing plan. Which strategy should she take to introduce the pheromone-laced fragrance
to the market?
70. The ________ effect refers to a situation in which a group of female mice that are housed
together show a slowing down and then a termination of their estrous cycles.
a. Whitten
b. Bruce
c. Bruce-Lee
d. Lee-Boot
e. Vandenbergh
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71. When a recently impregnated female mouse encounters a male mouse other than the one
with which she mated, the pregnancy may spontaneously abort. This effect of pheromones is
called the ____________ effect.
a. Bruce
b. Lee-Boot
c. Whitten
d. Vandenbergh
e. Lifeson
72. The ________ effect refers to a situation in which the odor of a male rodent will accelerate
the onset of puberty in a female rodent.
a. Whitten
b. Bruce
c. Bruce-Lee
d. Lee-Boot
e. Vandenbergh
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73. The Whitten effect and the Vandenbergh effect are induced in a female rodent by
exposure to ________ from a(n) ________.
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75. Which set of abbreviations correctly belongs together in the context of human
pheromones?
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78. A larger sexually dimorphic nucleus of the medial preoptic area is the result of
________________ during fetal development.
a. excess progesterone
b. high levels of androgens
c. absence of androgens
d. high levels of gonadotropin-releasing hormone
e. high levels of luteinizing hormone
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79. A group of neurons in the __________ may be involved in the pleasurable experience of
orgasm.
80. The connections between the medial preoptic area and the spinal ejaculation generator
travel through which structure?
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81. Research indicates that the circuit for the ejaculation generator in the male rat is located
82. Damage to the cells in the lumbar region of the spinal cord would likely impair
a. erection.
b. ejaculation.
c. erection and ejaculation.
d. intromission.
e. the ability of a male to display lordosis.
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84. Electrical stimulation of the ________ would be predicted to enhance sexual behavior in
the ________.
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87. One region in the medial amygdala is about ___________ larger in male rats than in
female rats.
a. 10 percent
b. 25 percent
c. 50 percent
d. 70 percent
e. 85 percent
88. The ________ directly inhibits the spinal motor neurons that control male sexual reflexes.
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89. The MPA may provide excitatory input to the spinal cord sexual reflexes through the
________ and inhibitory input to the spinal cord through the ________.
90. Stimulation of the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus in female rats results in
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92. Which sequence accurately represents the neural pathways that control the muscles
responsible for lordosis in female rats?
a. nPGi –> medial preoptic area –> PAG –> ventral horn of the spinal cord
b. VMH –> PAG –> nPGi –> ventral horn motor neurons
c. VMH –> nucleus accumbens –> dorsal horn of the spinal cord
d. medial amygdala –> VMH –> medial preoptic area –> PAG –> nucleus
ambiguous
e. VMH –> amygdala –> nPGi
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93. Researchers studying voles have indicated that ___________ appears to be important for
males in pair bonding and _________ appears to be important for females in pair bonding.
a. vasopressin; oxytocin
b. oxytocin; vasopressin
c. testosterone; oxytocin
d. testosterone; vasopressin
e. vasopressin; testosterone
a. oxytocin
b. vasopressin
c. testosterone
d. estradiol
e. progesterone
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95. People with a 5α–reductase deficiency are often raised as girls, and the majority of them
have
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97. Individuals with cloacal exstrophy are genetic _____________ who are often sexually
attracted to ____________.
a. males; women
b. females; men
c. males; men
d. females; women
e. males or females; women
98. Postmortem studies of the brains of gay and heterosexual men and women have shown
differences in the size of the
a. suprachiasmatic nucleus.
b. corpus callosum.
c. cerebral cortex.
d. prefrontal cortex.
e. occipital lobe.
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99. The size of the bed nucleus of the stria terminalis is an indicator of
a. prenatal androgenization.
b. sexual orientation.
c. asexuality.
d. gender identity.
e. postnatal androgenization.
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104. Which outcome is associated with the action of a lactating mother rat licking the
anogenital region of her newly born offspring?
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a. progesterone.
b. estradiol.
c. oxytocin.
d. testosterone.
e. vasopressin.
106. Damage to the ________ will disrupt rodent nest-building and pup care, but not female
sexual behavior.
a. medial amygdala
b. stria terminalis
c. medial preoptic area
d. ventromedial hypothalamus
e. reticular formation
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107. The neural circuits for maternal behavior in rodents involves which set of brain regions?
a. nucleus accumbens, ventral tegmental area, medial preoptic area, ventral pallidum
b. medial amygdala, medial preoptic area, periaqueductal grey, ventromedial
hypothalamus
c. nucleus accumbens, periaqueductal grey, ventral pallidum, anterior hypothalamus
d. ventral tegmental area, corpus callosum, medial preoptic area, dorsal cerebellum
e. ventromedial hypothalamus, anterior hypothalamus, thalamus, medial amygdala
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Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
109. The ________ system contains the precursor tissue for the male internal reproductive
structures.
111. A hormone that prevents the prenatal development of the Müllerian system is said to
have a(n) ________ effect.
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113. ________ involves the presence of a single X chromosome and a missing sex
chromosome.
114. Development of the internal sex organs is an example of a(n) ________ characteristic.
115. High levels of ________ in the blood will accelerate the onset of puberty in girls.
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117. The 4-day cycle of sexual receptivity shown by a female rat is known as
the ________ cycle.
118. The __________ effect describes when estrous cycles stop in groups of female rodents
living together.
119. The hormone ________ is released in women and men at the onset of orgasm.
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120. ________ involves an arching of the back of the female rat that facilitates intromission by
the male rat.
122. Women dosed with an estradiol drug and a(n) ________ patch showed the largest
increases in sexual activity and rate of orgasm.
123. The ________ organ is the receptive organ for pheromones in rodents.
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124. Electrical stimulation of the ________ enhances sexual behavior in the male rat.
125. Neurons in the ________ portion of the spinal cord are critical for the circuits of
ejaculation but not erection.
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Essay Questions
127. Describe the events that transpired in the case of John/Joan/Bruce/Brenda/David and
explain how this case has been used to understand the relative contribution of socialization
versus biology to sexual identity.
128. Explain the differences between activational and organizational effects of hormones.
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129. Defend the proposition that “Nature’s impulse is to create a female,” used to describe the
developmental process of sex organs.
130. Contrast the hormonal basis for sexual maturity in a woman and in a man.
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131. Summarize the hormonal events that comprise the human female menstrual cycle.
132. Describe the effects of pheromones in the modulation of the rodent estrous cycle.
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133. Describe various lines of evidence that support a biological basis for same-sex sexual
orientation.
134. Describe the various stimuli that elicit maternal behavior in rodents, including the role of
hormones.
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Revel Quizzes
The following questions appear at the end of each module and at the end of the chapter in
Revel for Physiology of Behavior, 13th Edition.
EOM Q10.1.2
Question: A person’s genetic sex is determined by the _____, which can carry _____
chromosome(s).
a. sperm; either an X or a Y
b. egg; either an X or a Y
c. sperm; only an X
d. egg; only an X
Answer: A
Consider This: Men determine the sex of their children; LO 10.1: Describe gamete production
and fertilization.
Learning Objective: 10.1: Describe gamete production and fertilization.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM Q10.1.3
Question: If you were to see the developing gonads of a six-week-old male fetus, you would
see:
a. a clearly defined scrotum and penis.
b. a clearly defined Wolffian duct system.
c. gonads that are not differentiated for a male or female.
d. clearly defined ovaries.
Answer: C
Consider This: The Y chromosome triggers the bipotential gonad to develop into a male
system; LO 10.2: Explain how gonads, internal sex organs, and external genitalia develop.
Learning Objective: 10.2: Explain how gonads, internal sex organs, and external genitalia
develop.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q10.1.4
Question: If the SRY gene is present, but there are faulty receptors for testosterone, it is
MOST likely that:
a. the testes will not develop.
b. the testes will develop, but the penis will not develop.
c. ovaries will develop instead of testes.
d. both ovaries and testes will develop.
Answer: C
Consider This: This person would have AIS; LO 10.2: Explain how gonads, internal sex
organs, and external genitalia develop.
Learning Objective: 10.2: Explain how gonads, internal sex organs, and external genitalia
develop.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q10.1.5
Question: Primary sex characteristic is to secondary sex characteristic as ______ is to
______.
a. activational effects; organizational effects
b. facial and axillary hair; genitals
c. puberty; prenatal development
d. organizational effects; activational effects
Answer: D
Consider This: Primary sex characteristics are present at birth; LO 10.3: Compare
organizational and activational effects of hormones on primary and secondary sex
characteristics.
Learning Objective: 10.3: Compare organizational and activational effects of hormones on
primary and secondary sex characteristics.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
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EOM Q10.2.2
Question: After a successful mating, a male rat experiences a __________ in which he does
not initiate sexual behavior again.
a. rest period
b. refractory period
c. relative refractory period
d. Coolidge effect
Answer: B
Consider This: We have the same terminology when we discuss action potentials; LO 10.5:
Compare the roles of hormones in sexual behavior of male and female rodents.
Learning Objective: 10.5: Compare the roles of hormones in sexual behavior of male and
female rodents.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q10.2.3
Question: A receptive female rat will perform ______________ when mounted.
a. lordosis
b. ear wiggling
c. darting
d. escaping
Answer: A
Consider This: The behavior helps to promote copulation between the pair; LO 10.5:
Compare the roles of hormones in sexual behavior of male and female rodents.
Learning Objective: 10.5: Compare the roles of hormones in sexual behavior of male and
female rodents.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOM Q10.2.4
Question: If a female rat is ovariectomized and given testosterone at birth, she will not
perform lordosis for a male even when given estradiol and progesterone. In this case, the
animal has experienced:
a. behavioral defeminization.
b. behavioral masculinization.
c. activational effects of estradiol and progesterone.
d. activational effects of testosterone.
Answer: A
Consider This: The early exposure to T results in the animal not responding to the normal
effects of normal hormone exposure in adulthood; LO 10.6: Contrast behavioral
masculinization and defeminization in rodents.
Learning Objective: 10.6: Contrast behavioral masculinization and defeminization in rodents.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM Q10.2.5
Question: With respect to the menstrual cycle, women report heightened sexual interest
during _____________, suggesting an influence of hormones on female sexual behavior.
a. ovulation
b. the luteal phase
c. the follicular phase
d. menses
Answer: A
Consider This: When would a woman improve her chances of pregnancy?; LO 10.7: Compare
the activational effects of hormones on sexual behavior in men and women.
Learning Objective: 10.7: Compare the activational effects of hormones on sexual behavior in
men and women.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM Q10.3.2
Question: Lesioning of the medial preoptic area (MPA) in rats results in:
a. an increase in firing rate of neurons.
b. elimination of sexual behavior.
c. an increase of sexual behavior.
d. Fos expression.
Answer: B
Consider This: This region is critical for male sexual behavior; LO 10.9: Identify the role of
spinal and brain mechanisms in male sexual behavior.
Learning Objective: 10.9: Identify the role of spinal and brain mechanisms in male sexual
behavior.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q10.3.3
Question: Stimulation of the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus in female rats results
in:
a. a decrease in firing rate of neurons.
b. promotion of sexual behavior.
c. a decrease of sexual behavior.
d. Fos expression.
Answer: B
Consider This: This region is important to female sexual behavior; LO 10.10: Identify the role
of brain mechanisms in female sexual behavior.
Learning Objective: 10.10: Identify the role of brain mechanisms in female sexual behavior.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM Q10.3.4
Question: If a female rat is ovariectomized and researchers want to artificially reinstate
female sexual behavior, the researchers must administer:
a. estradiol.
b. progesterone.
c. progesterone, followed by estradiol.
d. estradiol, followed by progesterone.
Answer: D
Consider This: To reinstate sexual behavior, the hormonal administration must mirror that
which happens naturally; LO 10.10: Identify the role of brain mechanisms in female sexual
behavior.
Learning Objective: 10.10: Identify the role of brain mechanisms in female sexual behavior.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM Q10.3.5
Question: The hormone ___________ appears to be important for males in pair bonding, and
the hormone _________ appears to be important for females in pair bonding.
a. vasopressin; oxytocin
b. oxytocin; vasopressin
c. testosterone; oxytocin
d. testosterone; vasopressin
Answer: A
Consider This: Oxytocin is also important for birth and lactation; LO 10.11: Compare the
roles of oxytocin and vasopressin in pair bonding.
Learning Objective: 10.11: Compare the roles of oxytocin and vasopressin in pair bonding.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Analyze It
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EOM Q10.4.2
Question: If a female fetus is exposed to high levels of prenatal androgens, she:
a. will develop like a normal female.
b. will develop a penis and identify as a male.
c. may experience masculinization of her genitalia and has a higher likelihood of
identifying as lesbian or bisexual.
d. may experience masculinization of her genitalia but sexual orientation will not be
affected.
Answer: C
Consider This: The prenatal androgens would have organizational effects; LO 10.13 Describe
examples that indicate a role of prenatal hormone exposure in sexual orientation.
Learning Objective: 10.13 Describe examples that indicate a role of prenatal hormone
exposure in sexual orientation.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q10.4.3
Question: If an individual has XY chromosomes but has faulty androgen receptors, the
individual will experience:
a. androgen insensitivity syndrome.
b. congenital adrenal hyperplasia.
c. nonclassical congenital adrenal hyperplasia.
d. cloacal exstrophy.
Answer: A
Consider This: If the androgen receptors are faulty, what does this mean with regards to
development? What will the system begin to develop into?; LO 10.13 Describe examples that
indicate a role of prenatal hormone exposure in sexual orientation.
Learning Objective: 10.13 Describe examples that indicate a role of prenatal hormone
exposure in sexual orientation.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM Q10.4.4
Question: Individuals with cloacal exstrophy are genetic _________who are often sexually
attracted to ________.
a. males; females
b. females; males
c. males; males
d. females; females
Answer: A
Consider This: The story of Bruce/Brenda would mirror someone with cloacal exstrophy; LO
10.13 Describe examples that indicate a role of prenatal hormone exposure in sexual
orientation.
Learning Objective: 10.13 Describe examples that indicate a role of prenatal hormone
exposure in sexual orientation.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q10.4.5
Question: Research has shown sexual dimorphism in the human brain. One example of this is
that:
a. females have larger brains than males do.
b. males have less hemispheric lateralization than females do.
c. females have less hemispheric lateralization than males do.
d. males have larger brains than females do.
Answer: C
Consider This: If a woman experienced a stroke in the left hemisphere, her language would be
less affected than a similarly afflicted male; LO 10.14: Describe research on sexually
dimorphic brain structures and sexual orientation.
Learning Objective: 10.14: Describe research on sexually dimorphic brain structures and
sexual orientation.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM Q10.5.2
Question: If the birth canal of nonpregnant rats is stretched, the rats will:
a. demonstrate maternal behavior.
b. not demonstrate maternal behavior.
c. only show maternal behavior to their own pups, not ones introduced to them.
d. never demonstrate maternal behavior, even after having their own pups.
Answer: A
Consider This: The act of parturition triggers maternal behavior; LO 10.17: Describe
examples of rodent maternal behavior.
Learning Objective: 10.17: Describe examples of rodent maternal behavior.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q10.5.3
Question: Nest-building behavior is regulated by the hormone ______________ in pregnant
rats.
a. progesterone
b. estradiol
c. prolactin
d. oxytocin
Answer: A
Consider This: This hormone is also a pregnancy hormone; LO 10.18: Explain the role of
hormones in maternal behavior.
Learning Objective: 10.18: Explain the role of hormones in maternal behavior.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q10.5.4
Question: The hormone ____________ is involved in a rat mother’s maternal bond to her
pups.
a. progesterone
b. estradiol
c. prolactin
d. oxytocin
Answer: D
Consider This: This hormone is also involved in uterine contraction; LO 10.18: Explain the
role of hormones in maternal behavior.
Learning Objective: 10.18: Explain the role of hormones in maternal behavior.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOM Q10.5.5
Question: Rat mothers who ignore their babies MOST likely have:
increased activity in the MPA.
high metabolic activity of the MPA
low metabolic activity of the MPA.
excess progesterone.
Answer: C
Consider This: The MPA, though not important for female sexual behavior, is important for
maternal behavior; LO 10.19: Identify brain regions and neural pathways involved in
maternal behavior.
Learning Objective: 10.19: Identify brain regions and neural pathways involved in maternal
behavior.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOC Q10.2
Question: A female rhesus monkey is exposed to testosterone in utero. As a result, the animal
displays some defeminized behaviors as an adult. In this case, the influence of the hormone
exposure had a(n) _______________ effect.
a. activational
b. organizational
c. instrumental
d. masculinizing
Answer: B
Consider This: The behavior differences are a result of the brain being exposed to testosterone
in development; LO 10.2: Explain how gonads, internal sex organs, and external genitalia
develop.
Learning Objective: 10.2: Explain how gonads, internal sex organs, and external genitalia
develop.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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EOC Q10.3
Question: Individuals with a sex chromosome pair of X0 have _____ syndrome.
a. Klinefelter
b. androgen insensitivity
c. Turner
d. persistent Müllerian duct
Answer: C
Consider This: These individuals develop as biological females but have no gonads; LO 10.2:
Explain how gonads, internal sex organs, and external genitalia develop.
Learning Objective: 10.2: Explain how gonads, internal sex organs, and external genitalia
develop.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q10.4
Question: Which hormone causes ovulation?
a. LH
b. estradiol
c. progesterone
d. FSH
Answer: A
Consider This: One of these surges right before ovulation; LO 10.4: Summarize the roles of
hormones in phases of the menstrual cycle.
Learning Objective: 10.4: Summarize the roles of hormones in phases of the menstrual cycle.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q10.5
Question: If a female rat is ovariectomized and given T at birth, she will not perform lordosis
for a male. Instead, when given testosterone, she will mount. In this case, the animal has
experienced:
a. behavioral defeminization.
b. behavioral masculinization.
c. activational effects of estradiol and progesterone.
d. organizational effects of testosterone.
Answer: B
Consider This: The animal’s early hormone exposure makes her more responsive to later
adult exposure, allowing her to partake in normal male behaviors; LO 10.6: Contrast
behavioral masculinization and defeminization in rodents.
Learning Objective: 10.6: Contrast behavioral masculinization and defeminization in rodents.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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EOC Q10.6
Question: When a recently impregnated female mouse encounters a male mouse other than
the one with which she mated, the pregnancy may spontaneously abort. This effect of
pheromones is called the ____________ effect.
a. Bruce
b. Lee-Boot
c. Whitten
d. Vandenbergh
Answer: A
Consider This: Also called the pregnancy block, this effect was documented by Hilda M.
________; LO 10.8: Describe the roles of pheromones in reproductive behavior.
Learning Objective: 10.8: Describe the roles of pheromones in reproductive behavior.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q10.7
Question: A larger sexually dimorphic nucleus of the medial preoptic area of the
hypothalamus is the result of ____________________ in fetal development.
a. excess progesterone
b. high levels of androgens
c. the absence of androgens
d. high levels of gonadotropin releasing hormone
Answer: B
Consider This: The SDN is larger in males; LO 10.9: Identify the role of spinal and brain
mechanisms in male sexual behavior.
Learning Objective: 10.9: Identify the role of spinal and brain mechanisms in male sexual
behavior.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q10.8
Question: To reinstate female sexual behavior in an ovariectomized rat, E is given, followed
by P. How does estradiol prime sensitivity to progesterone?
a. Estradiol binds to progesterone receptors.
b. Estradiol promotes additional production of progesterone.
c. Estradiol does not impact the sensitivity to progesterone.
d. Estradiol increases production of progesterone receptors.
Answer: D
Consider This: Estradiol can affect genetic mechanisms; LO 10.10: Identify the role of brain
mechanisms in female sexual behavior.
Learning Objective: 10.10: Identify the role of brain mechanisms in female sexual behavior.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOC Q10.9
Question: The hormone _______________ increases an individual’s likelihood to trust
another person with their money.
a. oxytocin
b. vasopressin
c. testosterone
d. estradiol
Answer: A
Consider This: This substance also caused relaxation and a reduction of anxiety in human
subjects; LO 10.11: Compare the roles of oxytocin and vasopressin in pair bonding.
Learning Objective: 10.11: Compare the roles of oxytocin and vasopressin in pair bonding.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q10.10
Question: A similarity between CAH and NCAH includes:
a. higher likelihood of identifying as gay, lesbian, or bisexual.
b. masculinization of the genitalia.
c. elongation of the clitoris.
d. high levels of androgen secretion that begin at birth.
Answer: A
Consider This: NCAH means non-classical congenital adrenal hyperplasia, which is a milder
form of CAH; LO 10.13 Describe examples that indicate a role of prenatal hormone exposure
in sexual orientation.
Learning Objective: 10.13 Describe examples that indicate a role of prenatal hormone
exposure in sexual orientation.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
EOC Q10.11
Question: Studies of brains of gay and heterosexual men and women have shown differences
in the size of the:
a. suprachiasmatic nucleus.
b. corpus callosum.
c. cerebral cortex.
d. occipital lobe.
Answer: A
Consider This: This area is involved in the circadian rhythm; LO 10.14: Describe research on
sexually dimorphic brain structures and sexual orientation.
Learning Objective: 10.14: Describe research on sexually dimorphic brain structures and
sexual orientation.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOC Q10.12
Question: The size of the BNST is consistent with ___________, such that
__________________________________.
a. sexual orientation; a gay man will have a smaller BNST than a straight man
b. sexual orientation; a straight man will have a smaller BNST than a gay man
c. gender identity; a lesbian will have a smaller BNST than a gay man
d. gender identity; a straight man will have a smaller BNST than a straight woman
Answer: C
Consider This: Both heterosexual and homosexual females have similarly sized BNSTs; LO
10.14: Describe research on sexually dimorphic brain structures and sexual orientation.
Learning Objective: 10.14: Describe research on sexually dimorphic brain structures and
sexual orientation.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q10.13
Question: If given an antagonist for oxytocin, a female rat will:
a. act maternally toward her pups.
b. make new nests even though her current nest is perfectly fine.
c. ignore her pups.
d. lick the urogenital regions of the pups.
Answer: C
Consider This: Oxytocin is involved in maternal bonding; LO 10.18: Explain the role of
hormones in maternal behavior.
Learning Objective: 10.18: Explain the role of hormones in maternal behavior.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q10.14
Question: The hormone _____________ acts on receptors in the ____________ area of the
hypothalamus, influencing female maternal behavior in rats.
a. prolactin; medial preoptic
b. oxytocin; medial preoptic
c. prolactin; ventromedial
d. oxytocin; ventromedial
Answer: A
Consider This: This area is not responsible for female sexual behavior; LO 10.19: Identify
brain regions and neural pathways involved in maternal behavior.
Learning Objective: 10.19: Identify brain regions and neural pathways involved in maternal
behavior.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOC Q10.15
Question: Fathers with ____________ blood levels of the hormone _______ reported
stronger feelings of sympathy and activation when they heard the cries of infants.
a. higher; prolactin
b. higher; oxytocin
c. lower; prolactin
d. lower; oxytocin
Answer: A
Consider This: This hormone is responsible for milk production (not ejection) in females; LO
10.20: Identify brain regions and neural pathways involved in paternal behavior.
Learning Objective: 10.20: Identify brain regions and neural pathways involved in paternal
behavior.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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Fill-In 93-96,98 97
Essay 113-115
Fill-In 99-104
Essay 116
Fill-In 105,106
Essay 117
Essay 118,119
Essay 120
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Multiple-Choice Questions
1. A silverback gorilla beats on his chest in a dominance display when feeling threatened. This
act represents the __________ component of emotion.
a. behavioral
b. autonomic
c. somatic
d. hormonal
e. emotional
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4. Ginger is asked to read her poem aloud in her 6th grade class. As she stands before the class,
her heart starts to thump and her palms get sweaty. These occurrences represent the
____________ component of emotion.
a. behavioral
b. autonomic
c. somatic
d. hormonal
e. emotional
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7. The components that contribute to the experience of fear are integrated by neurons within the
a. amygdala.
b. medial hypothalamus.
c. orbitofrontal cortex.
d. thalamus.
e. reticular activating system.
8. Among the many regions of the amygdala, the basal nucleus receives information from the
a. lateral nucleus.
b. central nucleus.
c. lateral and central nuclei.
d. amygdaloid complex.
e. thalamus.
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a. occipital
b. parietal
c. temporal
d. frontal
e. prefrontal
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11. Activation of the ________ nucleus of the amygdala elicits an emotional response.
a. medial
b. lateral
c. cortical
d. central
e. postero-lateral
12. The ________ amygdaloid nucleus is the single most important part of the brain for enacting
emotional responses to aversive stimuli.
a. cortical
b. lateral
c. medial
d. central
e. postero-lateral
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13. If the central nucleus of the amygdala is stimulated in a research animal, a monkey will
14. Given the results of several empirical studies, which brain region would be a primary target
for pharmacological modification to provide relief for a person suffering from overly intense
emotional reactions?
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15. Following removal of the central nucleus of its amygdala, a research monkey is presented
with a snake, a natural threat in the monkey’s environment. What is the monkey most likely to
do?
16. In a laboratory setting, a rat has experienced shock each time it has been placed inside Red
Sector A. Over time, the rat shows a fear response as soon as it is placed in Red Sector A. After
the destruction of the ____________ of the amygdala, the animal no longer shows a fear
response when placed in Red Sector A.
a. central nucleus
b. lateral nucleus
c. basal nucleus
d. dorsal nucleus
e. medial nucleus
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17. A rat experiences a shock paired with the sound of a bell. The animal now experiences fear,
demonstrated by freezing behavior, when it hears a bell. The bell is the
a. unconditioned stimulus.
b. conditioned stimulus.
c. unconditioned response.
d. conditioned response.
e. neutral stimulus.
18. The central nucleus of the amygdala sends output to the locus coeruleus, which in turn leads
to
a. increased respiration.
b. increased vigilance.
c. behavioral arrest (freezing).
d. the formation of ulcers.
e. cortical activation.
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19. An intact ________ is required in order for a conditioned emotional response to alter blood
pressure.
a. orbitofrontal cortex
b. lateral hippocampus
c. lateral hypothalamus
d. medial nucleus of the amygdala
e. periaqueductal gray matter
a. a loud tone.
b. foot shock.
c. a food pellet.
d. a naturally occurring fear response.
e. behavioral arrest.
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21. Rats previously exposed to a tone followed by a brief intense electrical shock will show
________ when subsequently exposed to the tone (without shock).
a. reduced fear
b. an unconditional emotional response
c. reduced plasma levels of stress hormones
d. behavioral arrest (freezing)
e. grooming behavior
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a. lateral amygdala.
b. central nucleus of the amygdala.
c. lateral hypothalamus.
d. ventromedial prefrontal cortex.
e. dorsolateral accumbens.
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a. hypothalamus.
b. ventral tegmental area.
c. periaqueductal gray matter.
d. amygdala.
e. reticular activating system.
26. Some careers involve daily exposure to dangerous situations, which can lead to emotional
burnout. A person with damage to the amygdala would have a selective advantage for a career as
a
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27. People with Alzheimer’s disease who show degeneration of the ________ should be more
likely to forget emotionally traumatic historical events that they lived through.
a. basal ganglia
b. anterior forebrain
c. cingulum bundle
d. amygdala
e. substantia nigra
28. The neural pathway that leads to defensive behavior in cats is the
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29. The _______________ is involved in aggressive attack, predation, and regulation of pain.
a. inhibiting aggression.
b. facilitating aggressive attack.
c. promoting serotonin synthesis.
d. decreasing risk-taking behavior.
e. decreasing depression.
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a. promoting aggression.
b. reducing aggressive attack.
c. reducing serotonin synthesis.
d. increasing risk-taking behavior.
e. increasing depression.
32. Elevated brain levels of the neurotransmitter ________ function to inhibit aggression.
a. glutamate
b. GABA
c. dopamine
d. serotonin
e. acetylcholine
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33. Electrical stimulation of the ventral periaqueductal gray matter in a cat can produce
a. submissive behavior.
b. defensive behavior.
c. predatory behavior.
d. starvation.
e. threat displays.
34. Electrical stimulation of the dorsal periaqueductal gray matter in a cat produces
a. submissive behavior.
b. defensive rage behavior.
c. predatory behavior.
d. prey behavior.
e. threat behaviors.
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35. Dr. Hernandez tested all the students in her neuropsychology class to determine each
person’s level of the serotonin metabolite 5-HIAA in their cerebrospinal fluid. What should Dr.
Hernandez predict based on this information?
a. Male students with low 5-HIAA levels are likely to engage in profoundly risky
behaviors.
b. Low 5-HIAA levels should be associated with improved exam performance.
c. High 5-HIAA levels should be associated with poor sleep patterns in men.
d. Male students with high 5-HIAA levels will not be alive 10 years from now.
e. Those with low 5-HIAA levels will be the thinnest students in the class.
36. Drugs that act as __________ for ____________ might help to reduce aggressive behavior.
a. agonists; serotonin
b. antagonists; serotonin
c. agonists; dopamine
d. antagonists; dopamine
e. agonists; epinephrine
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37. Sebastian, who has a long criminal record of assault, arson, and manslaughter, would be
expected to show ________ levels of ________ in his cerebrospinal fluid.
a. elevated; GABA
b. reduced; GABA
c. elevated; 5-HIAA
d. reduced; 5-HIAA
e. elevated; opiates
a. feeding.
b. reproduction.
c. termination of pain.
d. pleasure.
e. anxiety.
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a. activational
b. defeminization
c. organizational
d. subcortical
e. biphasic
40. The capacity of early testosterone exposure to sensitize brain circuits for aggression is an
example of a(n) ________ hormone effect.
a. activational
b. feminization
c. organizational
d. subcortical
e. biphasic
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41. Intermale aggression will be reinstated in castrated male rats after implants of testosterone
into the
a. ventromedial hypothalamus.
b. substantia nigra.
c. medial preoptic area.
d. lateral geniculate nucleus.
e. spinal cord.
42. A male mouse housed alone in a home cage will readily attack another male mouse placed
into the home cage, but will not attack a female mouse. Which reason correctly summarizes how
the resident male mouse decides to attack?
a. Male mice are smaller than female mice (thus size is the primary variable).
b. The mouse uses ultrasound to distinguish male from female mice.
c. Female mice show a hop-dart movement that male mice do not.
d. The mouse must be able to detect male pheromones.
e. The coat color of a female mouse is lighter than that of a male mouse.
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a. monkeys.
b. all primates.
c. rats.
d. cats.
e. all species studied to date.
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45. A female mouse given daily injections of ________ for two weeks is more likely than a
placebo-treated female to fight with a strange female mouse.
a. estradiol
b. progesterone
c. prolactin
d. testosterone
e. leptin
46. A female mouse given daily injections of ________ for two weeks is NOT more likely than a
placebo-treated female to fight with a strange female mouse.
a. estradiol
b. progesterone
c. prolactin
d. testosterone
e. leptin
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a. 0M
b. 1M
c. 2M
d. 3M
e. 4M
48. Cindi, a female baboon studied in the wild by primatologists, is approaching the time of
ovulation. What behavior would the primatologists be likely to observe?
a. nest-building behavior
b. staggering
c. isolation from the troop
d. increased likelihood of engaging in fights
e. prolonged periods of staring intently at her offspring
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49. Female rhesus monkeys are more likely to engage in fights with other female monkeys
50. Which outcome correctly summarizes the impact of testosterone on aggressive behavior in
males?
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51. Given the complexity of research findings regarding hormones and aggression, it is safest to
conclude that the primary social effect of androgens on behavior is to enhance
a. aggressiveness.
b. sexual attractiveness.
c. dominance.
d. reproductive fitness.
e. cooperation.
52. Studies of hormone status and antisocial behavior in U.S. military veterans indicated that
higher levels of antisocial activity were present in
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54. Studies of primates indicate that consumption of alcohol promotes aggression, but only
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55. The ________ cortical region plays a central role in the analysis of appropriate emotional
responses to social situations.
a. occipital
b. parietal
c. ventromedial prefrontal
d. temporal
e. cingulate
56. In a fear inducing situation, individuals who show courage are likely experiencing activation
of the
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57. Phineas Gage, a railroad worker who was injured when a steel rod was accidentally driven
through his skull, exhibited capricious, emotional behavior (in part) as a result of widespread
damage to his
a. occipital cortex.
b. ventromedial prefrontal cortex.
c. cingulate cortex.
d. primary motor cortex.
e. primary sensory cortex.
58. Edgar, a 2-year-old child, yells all day. He yells if someone gets near him. He yells if his
train falls off the wooden track. He is angry, seemingly, all day. Given his developmental stage,
his continuous anger probably comes from a fully developed _________ and an underdeveloped
___________.
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59. The combination of inadequate activation of the ________ and enhanced activation of the
________ may result in excessive anger that results in harm to other persons.
60. The _____________ plays an important role in provoking anger and violent emotional
reactions, and the ____________ plays an important role in suppressing such behavior by
making us see its negative consequences.
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61. People with antisocial personality disorder have an 11 percent reduction in volume of the
gray matter of the
a. amygdala.
b. prefrontal cortex.
c. cingulate gyrus.
d. granular frontal cortex.
e. periaqueductal gray.
62. Research suggests that impulsive behavior is caused by decreased __________ activation in
the ____________ prefrontal cortex.
a. serotonergic; medial
b. serotonergic; lateral
c. dopaminergic; medial
d. dopaminergic; lateral
e. cholinergic; medial
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63. Research indicates that _____________ input to the prefrontal cortex activates this region.
a. serotonergic
b. cholinergic
c. dopaminergic
d. adrenergic
e. serotonergic and dopaminergic
64. Impulsive aggression may reflect ________, which can be treated with reuptake inhibitors
such as ________.
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65. Research suggests that emotions may play the most important role in the formation of
a. moral judgments.
b. feelings of empathy.
c. career decisions.
d. religious adherence.
e. gambling habits.
66. Functional imaging studies of the brain during decision making indicate that grappling with
moral dilemmas strongly activates the
a. hypothalamus.
b. hippocampus.
c. ventromedial prefrontal cortex.
d. amygdala.
e. nucleus accumbens.
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69. When presented with the moral dilemma of whether to physically push Person A onto a
trolley track to stop a trolley car from killing five other people, people with damage to the
____________ will choose to push Person A and stop the trolley, demonstrating no moral
dilemma with this choice.
70. The conclusion that facial expressions of basic emotions have an innate display is supported
by the observation that
a. blind children show different facial emotional expressions than do sighted persons.
b. facial expressions of basic emotions vary across cultural contexts.
c. the same facial expression for a given emotion is observed across a variety of
cultures.
d. facial expressions of emotion change over time within a given culture.
e. some facial emotional expressions are only expressed during adulthood.
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74. The ability to comprehend emotions expressed by others is most likely to be impaired after
damage to the
a. left hemisphere.
b. basal ganglia.
c. right hemisphere.
d. cerebellum.
e. dorsal horn of the spinal cord.
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75. PET studies indicate that the comprehension of emotion from tone of voice increased the
activity of the
a. left temporal
b. right orbitofrontal
c. left parietal
d. right temporal
e. right parietal
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77. The observation that a person with ________ cannot understand speech but can infer emotion
from ________ suggests that word recognition and emotional vocal recognition are independent
functions.
78. Which statement about the role of the amygdala in the recognition of emotion is correct?
a. Amygdala damage impairs the ability to use tone of voice cues during emotion
recognition.
b. Amygdala damage impairs the ability to decode facial expressions of emotion.
c. The amygdala receives input from the visual cortex via the hypothalamus.
d. Conscious awareness is required for producing facial expressions of emotion.
e. Activation of the amygdala increases the experience of positive mood.
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79. Because the amygdala receives input from cortical and subcortical sources, a person made
blind by cortical damage
80. Damage to the amygdala can impair recognition of ________ but not ________.
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81. Rapid recognition of facial emotional expression is mediated by signals carried by the
________ system.
a. koniocellular
b. magnocellular
c. retino-striatal
d. parvocellular
e. retino-tectal
a. hypothalamus.
b. left hemisphere.
c. insular cortex.
d. substantia nigra.
e. corpus callosum.
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84. Hidalgo is asked by his physician to raise the corners of his mouth, and he does so readily.
The physician then tells Hidalgo a joke, which causes him to laugh, but he only raises the left
side of his mouth in a smile. Hidalgo most likely suffers from
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86. The muscular movements that are involved in laughter are controlled by neurons within the
a. hypothalamus.
b. anterior cingulate cortex.
c. insular cortex.
d. substantia nigra.
e. corpus callosum.
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87. The unique aspect of Patient S.P. is that after removal of her right amygdala, she
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91. According to the James-Lange theory of emotion, which component is most important for the
subjective experience of an emotion?
Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
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94. The ________ nucleus of the amygdala is the most important region of the brain for the
expression of emotional responses provoked by aversive stimuli.
95. Outputs from the ________ mediate the increased vigilance noted during fear.
96. Lesions of the periaqueductal gray matter interfere with the ________ in rats.
97. Damage to the ________ cortex impairs the extinction of a conditioned emotional response.
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98. Feelings of fear in humans can be produced by electrical stimulation of the ________.
99. ________ is one type of behavior that serves to prevent an attack by another animal.
101. Low levels of ________ in the brain are correlated with the enactment of risky behavior in
males.
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102. ________ is a drug that can reduce symptoms of irritability and aggressiveness.
103. The fact that early androgen exposure in rats increases the likelihood of adult aggressive
behavior is an example of a(n) ________ hormone effect.
104. Aggression levels in both males and females are increased by exposure to ________.
105. Damage to the vmPFC caused by a railroad accident caused ________ to be childish,
irresponsible, and whimsical.
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106. Deciding whether to throw a person onto a railroad track to save others is an example of
a(n) ________ moral dilemma.
107. ________ argued that human emotional expression evolved from similar expressions in
other animals.
109. Individuals who have ________ have difficulty moving their facial muscles voluntarily.
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110. The ________ half of the face is more expressive than the other half.
111. The prominent physiologist ________ strongly criticized the James-Lange theory of
emotion.
112. Injections of ________ can inhibit facial muscle movement and facial emotional expression.
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Essay Questions
114. Describe evidence supporting the involvement of the amygdala in emotional behavior.
115. Describe the types of emotional stimuli that activate cells within the amygdala.
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116. Identify two species-typical forms of aggression and the hormones that modulate these
behaviors.
117. Describe the changes in personality in Phineas Gage that occurred after his brain injury.
118. Defend the proposition that facial expressions of basic emotions are innate.
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119. Describe the role of the right hemisphere in the recognition of emotions. Identify two
strategies that have been used to study this topic.
120. Discuss the James-Lange theory of emotion and cite evidence that supports this theory.
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Revel Quizzes
The following questions appear at the end of each module and at the end of the chapter in Revel
for Physiology of Behavior, 13th Edition.
EOM 11.1.2
Question: When it is your turn to read your poem aloud in class, your heart starts to thump in
your chest and your palms get sweaty. This act reflects the __________ component of emotion.
a. behavioral
b. autonomic
c. somatic
d. hormonal
Answer: B
Consider This: This component governs the fight, flight, or freeze reflex; 11.1: Describe the
three components of an emotional response
Learning Objective: 11.1: Describe the three components of an emotional response.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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EOM 11.1.3
Question: In the amygdala, the basal nucleus receives information from:
a. the lateral nucleus, but not the central nucleus.
b. the central nucleus, but not the lateral nucleus.
c. both the lateral and central nuclei.
d. neither the lateral nor the central nucleus.
Answer: A
Consider This: This area of the amygdala would be considered “to the side”; LO 11.2: Outline
evidence for the roles of the amygdala and ventromedial prefrontal cortex in animal models of
emotion.
Learning Objective: 11.2: Outline evidence for the roles of the amygdala and ventromedial
prefrontal cortex in animal models of emotion.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM 11.1.4
Question: If the central nucleus of the amygdala is stimulated, a monkey will:
a. show fear toward a snake.
b. show fear, regardless of the target.
c. not respond fearfully to a snake.
d. not show fear, regardless of the target.
Answer: B
Consider This: Activation through stimulation causes behavior that does not rely on an
environmental stimulus; LO 11.2: Outline evidence for the roles of the amygdala and
ventromedial prefrontal cortex in animal models of emotion.
Learning Objective: 11.2: Outline evidence for the roles of the amygdala and ventromedial
prefrontal cortex in animal models of emotion.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM 11.1.5
Question: A rat experiences a shock paired with the sound of a bell. The animal now
experiences fear, demonstrated by freezing behavior, when it hears a bell. In the terms of
classical conditioning, the sound of the bell is the:
a. conditioned stimulus.
b. unconditioned stimulus.
c. conditioned response.
d. unconditioned response.
Answer: A
Consider This: The term “conditioned” could be replaced with “learned”; LO 11.2: Outline
evidence for the roles of the amygdala and ventromedial prefrontal cortex in animal models of
emotion.
Learning Objective: 11.2: Outline evidence for the roles of the amygdala and ventromedial
prefrontal cortex in animal models of emotion.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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EOM 11.2.2
Question: A serotonin antagonist would:
a. inhibit aggression.
b. facilitate aggressive attack.
c. promote serotonin synthesis.
d. decrease risk-taking behavior.
Answer: B
Consider This: Serotonin is considered a mood regulator; LO 11.4: Distinguish the roles of
serotonin and neural circuitry in animal models of aggression and predation.
Learning Objective: 11.4: Distinguish the roles of serotonin and neural circuitry in animal
models of aggression and predation.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM 11.2.3
Question: Drugs that act as __________ for _________ might help to reduce aggressive
behavior.
a. agonists; serotonin
b. antagonists; serotonin
c. agonists; dopamine
d. antagonists; dopamine
Answer: A
Consider This: Serotonin is considered a mood regulator; LO 11.5: Evaluate the roles of heredity
and serotonin in human aggression.
Learning Objective: 11.5: Evaluate the roles of heredity and serotonin in human aggression.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM 11.2.4
Question: A _____ female mouse is ______ likely to exhibit interfemale aggression.
a. 1M; more
b. 1M; less
c. 2M; more
d. 2M; less
Answer: C
Consider This: The level of androgen exposure increases with proximity to more brothers; LO
11.6: Critique the role of hormones in aggression.
Learning Objective: 11.6: Critique the role of hormones in aggression.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM 11.2.5
Question: Prenatal androgenization increases aggressive behavior in:
a. most mammals, but not higher primates and humans.
b. higher primates and humans only.
c. humans only.
d. all species that have been studied.
Answer: D
Consider This: Prenatal androgens have an organizational effect; LO 11.6: LO 11.6: Critique the
role of hormones in aggression.
Learning Objective: 11.6: Critique the role of hormones in aggression.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM 11.3.2
Question: Research shows people with antisocial personality disorder have an 11 percent
reduction in volume of the gray matter of the:
a. amygdala.
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b. prefrontal cortex.
c. cingulate gyrus.
d. periaqueductal gray matter.
Answer: B
Consider This: This area of the brain controls impulsive behavior; LO 11.7: Describe the role of
the ventromedial prefrontal cortex in impulse control.
Learning Objective: 11.7: Describe the role of the ventromedial prefrontal cortex in impulse
control.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM 11.3.3
Question: The ______________ plays an important role in provoking anger and violent
emotional reactions, whereas the ___________ plays an important role in suppressing such
behavior by making us see its negative consequences.
a. amygdala; prefrontal cortex
b. prefrontal cortex; amygdala
c. amygdala; granular frontal cortex
d. granular frontal cortex; prefrontal cortex
Answer: A
Consider This: Which area would cause emotions and which would control it?; LO 11.8: Provide
evidence for a developmental factor in impulse control.
Learning Objective: 11.8: Provide evidence for a developmental factor in impulse control.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
EOM 11.3.4
Question: Research suggests impulsive behavior reflects decreased ___________ activation in
the _________ prefrontal cortex.
a. serotonergic; medial
b. serotonergic; lateral
c. dopaminergic; medial
d. dopaminergic; lateral
Answer: A
Consider This: This neurotransmitter is considered a mood regulator; LO 11.9: Explain the role
of serotonin in impulse control regulation.
Learning Objective: 11.9: Explain the role of serotonin in impulse control regulation.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM 11.3.5
Question: When presented with the moral dilemma of whether to physically push Person A onto
a trolley track to stop a trolley car from killing five other people, individuals with damage to the
____________ will choose to push Person A and stop the trolley, demonstrating no moral
dilemma with this choice.
a. ventromedial prefrontal cortex
b. amygdala
c. subgenual anterior cingulate cortex
d. orbitofrontal cortex
Answer: A
Consider This: This area would be considered lower and in the middle; LO 11.10: Describe the
brain regions involved in emotional aspects of moral decision making involving impulse control.
Learning Objective: 11.10: Describe the brain regions involved in emotional aspects of moral
decision making involving impulse control.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM 11.4.2
Question: If an individual born and raised in New Guinea overheard a conversation in which a
Westerner was crying, the New Guinean would assume the Westerner was feeling:
a. happiness.
b. surprise.
c. anger.
d. sadness.
Answer: D
Consider This: Emotions appear to be innate; LO 11.11: Describe evidence in support of
emotions as innate responses.
Learning Objective: 11.11: Describe evidence in support of emotions as innate responses.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM 11.4.3
Question: Jean suffered a stroke last year. Since the incident, she is unable to recognize a
person’s emotions from his or her tone of voice. It is MOST likely that her _____________
was/were damaged by the stroke.
a. right prefrontal cortex
b. left prefrontal cortex
c. left temporal cortex
d. right and left temporal lobes
Answer: A
Consider This: The left temporal cortex affects speech comprehension, not reading of emotional
tone; LO 11.12: Summarize the neural basis of emotional recognition, including laterality,
direction of gaze, imitation, and disgust.
Learning Objective: 11.12: Summarize the neural basis of emotional recognition, including
laterality, direction of gaze, imitation, and disgust.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM 11.4.4
Question: Bilateral lesion of the amygdala interferes with the ability to recognize facial
expressions of emotion. Individuals with this damage have an especially difficult time
recognizing:
a. happiness.
b. sadness.
c. fear.
d. disgust.
Answer: C
Consider This: Which of the listed emotions would be controlled by the amygdala?; LO 11.12:
Summarize the neural basis of emotional recognition, including laterality, direction of gaze,
imitation, and disgust.
Learning Objective: 11.12: Summarize the neural basis of emotional recognition, including
laterality, direction of gaze, imitation, and disgust.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOM 11.4.5
Question: Several studies have found that damage to the insular cortex and basal ganglia impairs
people’s ability to recognize facial expressions of a very specific emotion, namely:
a. sadness.
b. happiness.
c. anger.
d. disgust.
Answer: D
Consider This: The insula contains the primary gustatory cortex; LO 11.12: Summarize the
neural basis of emotional recognition, including laterality, direction of gaze, imitation, and
disgust.
Learning Objective: 11.12: Summarize the neural basis of emotional recognition, including
laterality, direction of gaze, imitation, and disgust.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM 11.5.2
Question: Interfering with the muscular movement associated with the expression of a particular
emotion ____________ people’s ability to experience that emotion.
a. decreases
b. increases
c. has no effect on
d. augments
Answer: A
Consider This: If people were unable to fully move their facial muscles, their moods reflected
this; LO 11.15: Critique evidence for the facial feedback hypothesis.
Learning Objective: 11.15: Critique evidence for the facial feedback hypothesis.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM 11.5.3
Question: Consistent with the James-Lange theory, investigators found that recalling emotions
activates the _____________ cortex, as well as the upper brain stem nuclei involved in the
control of internal organs and the detection of sensations received from them.
a. frontal
b. occipital
c. parietal
d. temporal
Answer: C
Consider This: Home of somatosensation; LO 11.15: Critique evidence for the facial feedback
hypothesis.
Learning Objective: 11.15: Critique evidence for the facial feedback hypothesis.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM 11.5.4
Question: Infants can imitate facial expressions:
a. at birth.
b. by the time they are 1 month old.
c. by the age of 3 months.
d. by the age of 6 months.
Answer: A
Consider This: Tendency to imitate expressions is innate; LO 11.15: Critique evidence for the
facial feedback hypothesis.
Learning Objective: 11.15: Critique evidence for the facial feedback hypothesis.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM 11.5.5
Question: Research has shown that the level of activation of the frontal mirror neuron system
was _______________ correlated with measures of empathetic behavior and interpersonal skills.
a. positively
b. negatively
c. not
d. inversely
Answer: A
Consider This: The feedback from our own expression helps to put us in the other person’s place
and makes us more likely to respond with solace or assistance; LO 11.15: Critique evidence for
the facial feedback hypothesis.
Learning Objective: 11.15: Critique evidence for the facial feedback hypothesis.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOC 11.2
Question: In a laboratory setting, a rat has experienced shock each time it is placed inside
Chamber A. Over time, the rat shows a fear response as soon as it is placed in the chamber. After
the destruction of the ______________ nucleus of the amygdala, the animal no longer shows a
fear response when placed in the chamber.
a. central
b. lateral
c. basal
d. dorsal
Answer: A
Consider This: This nucleus would be considered medial; LO 11.2: Outline evidence for the
roles of the amygdala and ventromedial prefrontal cortex in animal models of emotion.
Learning Objective: 11.2: Outline evidence for the roles of the amygdala and ventromedial
prefrontal cortex in animal models of emotion.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOC 11.3
Question: In humans, bilateral lesioning of the amygdala results in:
a. increased memory of the emotional aspects of a narrated story.
b. increased experiences of fear.
c. increased experiences of aggression.
d. decreased memory of the emotional aspects of a narrated story.
Answer: D
Consider This: Lesioning would remove the effect of the amygdala; LO 11.3: Describe the roles
of the amygdala and ventromedial prefrontal cortex in human emotion.
Learning Objective: 11.3: Describe the roles of the amygdala and ventromedial prefrontal cortex
in human emotion.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOC 11.4
Question: The pathway that leads to defensive behavior is:
a. basal nucleus to dorsal PAG.
b. central nucleus to ventral PAG.
c. lateral hypothalamus to ventral PAG.
d. basal nucleus to ventral PAG
Answer: A
Consider This: The connections from the amygdala enter the “toward the top” area of the PAG;
LO 11.4: Distinguish the roles of serotonin and neural circuitry in animal models of aggression
and predation.
Learning Objective: 11.4: Distinguish the roles of serotonin and neural circuitry in animal
models of aggression and predation.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC 11.5
Question: A serotonin agonist would:
a. promote aggression.
b. reduce aggressive attack.
c. reduce serotonin synthesis.
d. increase risk-taking behavior.
Answer: B
Consider This: Serotonin is considered a mood regulator; LO 11.4: Distinguish the roles of
serotonin and neural circuitry in animal models of aggression and predation.
Learning Objective: 11.4: Distinguish the roles of serotonin and neural circuitry in animal
models of aggression and predation.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOC 11.6
Question: Intermale aggression was ____________ in mice by cutting the ______________
nerve.
a. increased; vomeronasal
b. decreased; trigeminal
c. abolished; vomeronasal
d. increased; trigeminal
Answer: C
Consider This: Male aggression is largely driven by smell; LO 11.6: Critique the role of
hormones in aggression.
Learning Objective: 11.6: Critique the role of hormones in aggression.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOC 11.7
Question: Michael, a two-year-old, yells all day. He yells if someone gets near him. He yells if
his train falls off the wooden track. He is angry, seemingly, all day. Given his developmental
stage, his continuous anger probably comes from a fully developed _____________ and an
underdeveloped ______________.
a. amygdala; prefrontal cortex
b. prefrontal cortex; amygdala
c. amygdala; granular frontal cortex
d. granular frontal cortex; prefrontal cortex
Answer: A
Consider This: Which area would cause emotions and which would control it?; LO 11.8: Provide
evidence for a developmental factor in impulse control.
Learning Objective: 11.8: Provide evidence for a developmental factor in impulse control.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOC 11.8
Question: Research indicates that _______________ input activates the prefrontal cortex.
a. serotonergic
b. adrenergic
c. cholinergic
d. dopaminergic
Answer: A
Consider This: This neurotransmitter is involved in mood regulation; LO 11.9: Explain the role
of serotonin in impulse control regulation.
Learning Objective: 11.9: Explain the role of serotonin in impulse control regulation.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC 11.9
Question: Individuals with lesions to the vmPFC are:
a. less likely to feel strong emotional responses in moral judgments.
b. more likely to feel strong emotional responses in moral judgments.
c. less likely to pick sacrificing one person to save five.
d. more likely to find personally killing one individual to save five morally reprehensible.
Answer: A
Consider This: Without this area, judgements are made based on expected utility or outcome; LO
11.10: Describe the brain regions involved in emotional aspects of moral decision making
involving impulse control.
Learning Objective: 11.10: Describe the brain regions involved in emotional aspects of moral
decision making involving impulse control.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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EOC 11.10
Question: A child who is born blind will:
a. never learn how to smile.
b. have to be told how to move the facial features to elicit a smile.
c. learn to smile on a similar trajectory as sighted children.
d. will smile as sighted children do, but will have to be taught how to facially express
sadness.
Answer: C
Consider This: Emotions appear to be innate; LO 11.11: Describe evidence in support of
emotional expressions as innate responses.
Learning Objective: 11.11: Describe evidence in support of emotional expressions as innate
responses.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC 11.11
Question: The ____________, located in the visual association cortex, receives information
from the parvocellular system.
a. fusiform face area
b. amygdala
c. superior colliculus
d. pulvinar
Answer: A
Consider This: Which system would be based on more complex visual processing?; LO 11.12:
Summarize the neural basis of emotional recognition, including laterality, direction of gaze,
imitation, and disgust.
Learning Objective: 11.12: Summarize the neural basis of emotional recognition, including
laterality, direction of gaze, imitation, and disgust.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOC 11.12
Question: In ___________________ facial paresis, a patient cannot voluntarily move the facial
muscles but will express a genuine emotion with those muscles.
a. volitional
b. automatic
c. emotional
d. total
Answer: A
Consider This: The term means “facial paresis of voluntary movements”; LO 11.13: Summarize
the neural basis of emotional expression, including laterality, laughter, and humor.
Learning Objective: 11.13: Summarize the neural basis of emotional expression, including
laterality, laughter, and humor.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOC 11.13
Question: In ___________________ facial paresis, a patient can voluntarily move the facial
muscles but is unable to express a genuine emotion with those muscles.
a. volitional
b. automatic
c. emotional
d. total
Answer: C
Consider This: The term means “facial paresis of emotional movements”; LO 11.13: Summarize
the neural basis of emotional expression, including laterality, laughter, and humor.
Learning Objective: 11.13: Summarize the neural basis of emotional expression, including
laterality, laughter, and humor.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC 11.14
Question: The James-Lange theory of emotions states:
a. we have a physiological response that occurs prior to the experience of emotion.
b. we have a physiological response that occurs simultaneously with the experience of
emotion.
c. we have an experience of emotion prior to a physiological response.
d. we must cognitively label our physiological response in order to feel emotion.
Answer: A
Consider This: Where feelings of emotions are concerned, we are self-observers; LO 11.14:
Summarize the evidence for and against the James-Lange theory of emotion.
Learning Objective: 11.14: Summarize the evidence for and against the James-Lange theory of
emotion.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC 11.15
Question: The James-Lange theory of emotion is supported by the fact that people with spinal
cord injury _______ on the spine report ___________ intense experiences of emotion.
a. high; less
b. high; more
c. low; less
d. low; more
Answer: A
Consider This: The James-Lange theory says that physiological responses drive our emotional
ones; LO 11.14: Summarize the evidence for and against the James-Lange theory of emotion.
Learning Objective: 11.14: Summarize the evidence for and against the James-Lange theory of
emotion.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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Fill-In 119,120
Essay
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Multiple-Choice Questions
1. The process of ________ is involved in the regulation of the nutrient and water balance that
bathes our cells.
a. allostasis
b. homeostasis
c. hemostasis
d. negative feedback
e. hypovolemia
2. Casey feels warm in her room and prefers the temperature to be about 5 degrees cooler.
Casey’s ideal temperature would be her
a. system variable.
b. detector.
c. set point.
d. correctional mechanism.
e. homeostatic variable.
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3. The optimal value of the system variable in a homeostatic system is termed the
a. thermostat.
b. detector.
c. set point.
d. correctional mechanism.
e. homeostatic variable.
a. positive feedback.
b. negative feedback.
c. the correctional mechanism.
d. the system variable.
e. the set point.
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5. Which element best represents the system variable in a regulatory system such as a kitchen
oven?
a. that the regulatory system would work, but more slowly than usual.
b. that positive feedback would spin the system out of control.
c. no change in the system variable.
d. that the set point would increase.
e. that the system variable would not be constant.
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7. When depleted of water, individuals only drink a certain amount before stopping; they do not
drink until their cells have received the needed fluid. Satiety mechanisms monitor ___________
and stop the behavior in anticipation of replenishment to occur later.
8. Nearly two-thirds of the body’s water is contained within the ________ fluid.
a. interstitial
b. intracellular
c. extracellular
d. intravascular
e. transvascular
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a. interstitial; intracellular
b. intracellular; cerebrospinal
c. extracellular; intracellular
d. intravascular; intracellular
e. transvascular; interstitial
10. _____________ thirst is caused by loss of blood volume, whereas __________ thirst is
caused by loss of cellular fluids.
a. Volumetric; osmometric
b. Osmometric; volumetric
c. Volumetric; isometric
d. Isometric; osmometric
e. Isometric; volumetric
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a. interstitial fluid.
b. cell cytoplasm.
c. intravascular fluid.
d. cerebrospinal fluid.
e. extracellular fluid.
12. One important reason why the volume of blood must be regulated within certain limits is that
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14. To maintain proper fluid balance, the body contains two sets of receptors, one that measures
the volume of the ________ and the other that records the volume of the
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15. Thirsty people have continued activation of the lamina terminalis after drinking, but the
signals from the _____________ return to baseline levels.
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a. zone incerta.
b. area postrema.
c. amygdala
d. nucleus accumbens.
e. lamina terminalis.
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24. Imaging studies in humans given a hypertonic thirst indicate that the ________ is involved in
the unpleasantness of osmometric thirst, while the ________ detects the concentration of solutes
in the blood plasma.
25. Which occurrence would activate the volumetric thirst system without an action on
osmometric thirst?
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28. Angiotensin within the blood stimulates drinking by acting on cells within the
a. subfornical organ.
b. nucleus of the solitary tract.
c. lateral hypothalamus.
d. kidney.
e. atria of the heart.
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a. glucose; glycogen
b. glucagon; glucose
c. glucagon; glycogen
d. glucose; glucagon
e. glycogen; glucagon
32. A fall in glucose levels causes the secretion of glucagon, which converts ____________ into
_____________.
a. glucose; glycogen
b. glycogen; glucose
c. glucagon; glycogen
d. glucose; glucagon
e. glycogen; glucagon
33. The storage of glucose into glycogen in the short-term reservoir is stimulated by
a. glucagon.
b. glycine.
c. fatty acids.
d. insulin.
e. glycerol.
34. The carbohydrate reservoir in the liver is primarily reserved for use
35. The human body’s long-term fuel reservoir contains ________ and is located in ________.
36. The only bodily cells that do not require insulin in order to transport glucose across the cell
membranes are
a. liver cells.
b. cells of the brain.
c. muscle cells.
d. pancreatic cells.
e. adipose cells.
a. liver cells.
b. cells of the brain.
c. muscle cells.
d. pancreatic cells.
e. adipose cells.
a. liver cells.
b. cells of the brain.
c. muscle cells.
d. neither the brain nor the body.
e. both the brain and the body.
39. When a person continues to fast beyond the capacity of the short-term reservoir, the fat in the
long-term reservoir is broken down into glycerol and fatty acids. Fatty acids can be metabolized
by
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a. eating breakfast releases leptin, which is a necessary component for the activation of
brain cells.
b. fuel absorption is faster in the morning than in the afternoon.
c. the minerals eaten in a typical breakfast are important for energy metabolism.
d. the carbohydrate reserve of the liver can only be refilled during the first four hours
after waking.
e. the liver holds a limited amount of glucose for use by the brain, and this supply can
be depleted after an overnight fast.
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a. glucagon.
b. leptin.
c. cholecystokinin.
d. insulin.
e. glycerol.
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45. The primary hormone associated with the absorptive phase of metabolism is
a. glucagon.
b. cholecystokinin.
c. ghrelin.
d. insulin.
e. cortisol.
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46. How did the evolutionary history of humans contribute to a reliance on environmental factors
in the regulation of eating?
a. Biologically, the stomach is the organ that took the longest to evolve to its present
size and form.
b. The isolation of nomadic early humans meant that social cues to eating (such as the
presence of others) had little impact on eating behavior.
c. Harsh living conditions and the possibility of starvation compelled people to overeat
when food was plentiful in the environment.
d. Hunger pangs originating in the stomach conveyed a social message to others,
thereby establishing a system of communal eating.
e. Humans evolved to synchronize their biological clocks with the rhythm of eating
meals early and late in the day.
47. Plasma levels of ghrelin are highest _______ and lead to ________.
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48. If ghrelin levels remain high continuously, an individual would likely experience
49. One explanation for why it is hard to maintain a low-calorie diet is that
a. ghrelin; satiety
b. 2-DG; drinking
c. fenfluramine; conditioned satiety
d. insulin; eating
e. cholecystokinin; eating
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51. Which pair correctly matches a behavior with the condition that precedes it?
a. drinking; glucoprivation
b. drinking; insulin reduction
c. sexual behavior; insulin cessation
d. eating; glucoprivation
e. drinking; lipoprivation
52. Which statement regarding the role of the liver in the regulation of eating is correct?
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a. liver.
b. duodenum.
c. gut.
d. colon.
e. kidney.
54. Which chemical or combination of chemicals would be most likely to stimulate eating
behavior?
a. 2-DG
b. insulin and 2-DG
c. mercaptoacetate
d. 2-DG and glucagon
e. 2-DG and mercaptoacetate
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56. Ingo suffered damage to his hippocampus and amygdala, which in turn affected his short-
term memory. After finishing his lunch one day, he watched as his roommate sat down a little
later to enjoy her own lunch. What is Ingo most likely to say to his roommate?
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57. Which list contains ONLY environmental factors that influence satiety?
59. Jerry reported feelings of increased fullness and reduced hunger when a glucose solution was
infused into his
a. liver.
b. brain.
c. large intestine.
d. small intestine.
e. stomach.
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a. ghrelin
b. peptide YY3-36
c. cholecystokinin
d. leptin
e. melatonin
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63. The entry of ingested food into the duodenum can suppress further eating via
64. Experimental evidence confirms that reduced eating in a hungry rat occurred after
a. hunger signal.
b. indicator of the entry of fat into the duodenum.
c. indicator that the body is in the fasting e phase of metabolism.
d. satiety signal.
e. indicator that the stomach is full.
66. A targeted mutation was introduced in mice that prevented the production of insulin
receptors in the brain without affecting their production elsewhere in the body. This resulted in
mice that
a. experienced diabetes.
b. lost a great deal of weight.
c. showed behavior similar to posttraumatic stress disorder.
d. maintained body weight for an extended period of time.
e. became obese.
Topic: Insulin
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
Learning Objective: 12.17 Describe how insulin can function as a satiety signal.
Answer: E
APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains.
67. The ob mouse is obese because it lacks the gene that normally produces
a. cholecystokinin.
b. leptin.
c. insulin.
d. peptide YYZ.
e. glucagon.
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a. cholecystokinin
b. leptin
c. insulin
d. peptide Y2K
e. glucagon
a. the feeding circuits for chewing are contained within the forebrain.
b. cholecystokinin acts on the frontal cortex to stimulate eating.
c. the brain stem contains circuits that allow a rat to chew and to swallow.
d. decerebrate rats are unable to chew, swallow, or distinguish tastes.
e. the circuits controlling ingestion lie forward to the brain stem.
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a. orexin; hypocretin
b. insulin; glucagon
c. adrenaline; noradrenaline
d. NPY; CCK
e. satiety; hunger
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74. The peptides ________ and ________ act in the hypothalamus to increase eating in a rat.
a. insulin; cholecystokinin
b. serotonin; cholecystokinin
c. neuropeptide Y; leptin
d. orexin; melanin-concentrating hormone
e. cholecystokinin; ghrelin
75. The effects of neuropeptide Y on ________ are localized within the ________.
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76. There are many substances in the brain and body that trigger hunger. This substance,
however, triggers hunger even if giving into that hunger involves eating bitter foods or receiving
shocks to the mouth during eating.
a. melanin-concentrating hormone
b. orexin
c. ghrelin
d. peptide YY-3
e. neuropeptide Y
a. NPY; insulin
b. ghrelin; CART
c. CCK; ghrelin
d. CART; alpha-MSH
e. NPY; AGRP
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a. neuropeptide Y
b. angiotensin
c. MC4 receptors
d. leptin
e. agouti-related peptide
80. Habitual marijuana smokers often experience bouts of hunger cravings due to the THC in
marijuana being chemically related to
a. NPY.
b. CART.
c. endocannabinoids.
d. ghrelin.
e. leptin.
Topic: Hypothalamus
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
Learning Objective: 12.20 Identify functions of the hypothalamus involved in eating regulation.
Answer: C
APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content domains.
82. _____________ inhibit(s) NPY and AGRP which, in turn, results in lowered orexin and
MCH release.
a. Endocannabinoids
b. CART
c. Ghrelin
d. Peptide Y3α-Y
e. Leptin
83. The ability of leptin to inhibit eating can be viewed as a dual action in the brain that involves
the activation of ________ and the inhibition of ________.
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84. Which statement is true regarding the peptide cocaine- and amphetamine-regulated transcript
(CART)?
a. CCK; ghrelin
b. ghrelin; CART
c. NPY; insulin
d. CART; alpha-MSH
e. NPY; AGRP
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86. The increase in the incidence of obesity in the population over a few decades is unlikely to be
due to
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88. ___________ does not stimulate insulin secretion or enhance leptin production, so it is less
likely to trigger the body’s satiety mechanisms.
a. Fructose
b. Glucose
c. Galactose
d. Lactose
e. Actose
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a. Saccharin
b. Aspartame
c. Amphetamine
d. High-fructose corn syrup
e. Protein
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92. In what sense could a fall in leptin levels be considered as a hunger signal?
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95. Drugs such as fenfluramine that were used to treat obesity exerted an inhibition of appetite
by
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96. _________ chemicals tend to decrease metabolic rate, and _________ chemicals tend to
increase it.
a. Orexigenic; anorexigenic
b. Anorexigenic; orexigenic
c. Aerogenic; anorexigenic
d. Aerogenic; orexigenic
e. Orexigenic; aerogenic
97. Which drug regimen would be expected to be useful for the treatment of obesity?
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100. The obsession with food noted in anorexia nervosa may be related to
a. Administering drugs that increase appetite has shown significant promise in treating
anorexia.
b. Lisdexamfetamine (LDX) is the pharmacological treatment of choice for addressing
anorexia nervosa.
c. Eating more slowly is a simple behavioral intervention for reducing anorexic
behavior.
d. Bulimia nervosa has proven more difficult to treat successfully than anorexia nervosa.
e. Cognitive behavioral therapy has a success rate less than 50 percent.
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102. The serotonin agonist fluoxetine may be useful for the treatment of the eating disorder
known as
a. psychosis.
b. bulimia.
c. anorexia.
d. mania.
e. night-time-sleep eating.
Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
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105. Nearly two-thirds of the body’s water is contained within the ________.
106. ____________ thirst refers to an increase in pressure on intracellular fluid that occurs when
a cell is dehydrated.
107. ________ thirst refers to drinking provoked by the loss of blood plasma.
108. ________ change their firing rate in response to movement of water out of the neuron.
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110. The aversive aspects of osmometric thirst reflect activation of neurons within the ________
cortex.
111. Angiotensin within the blood stimulates drinking by acting on cells within the ________.
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113. During the absorptive phase of metabolism, blood glucose levels rise, which triggers the
release of ________ by the pancreas.
114. Detectors for glucose are located within the liver as well as the ________.
115. The suppression of blood ghrelin levels by food reflects an action of food on the ________.
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117. The ob mouse is obese because it lacks the gene that normally produces ________.
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Essay Questions
122. Describe the stimuli that produce osmometric thirst and cite evidence indicating the location
of osmoreceptors in the brain.
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124. Contrast the short- and long-term energy stores of the body.
Answer: Liver cells convert glucose to glycogen, which is then stored within the liver and the
muscles. This short-term store is used to fuel the brain and is rapidly depleted. Glucagon
secretion catalyzes the conversion of glycogen to glucose. The long-term energy store is within
fat cells and is composed of triglycerides. Glycerol is a major product of triglyceride metabolism
and is converted to glucose within the liver.
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125. Contrast the hormonal events that take place during the absorptive and fasting phases of
metabolism.
126. Describe the role of the stomach in food intake and its importance in producing hunger and
satiety.
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127. Contrast the roles of ghrelin and of cholecystokinin (CCK) for the control of eating.
128. Describe the general neural framework for the control of eating in terms of feeding-
facilitory and feeding-inhibitory circuits.
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129. Contrast the roles of the lateral hypothalamus (LH) and ventromedial hypothalamus (VMH)
for the modulation of eating.
130. Summarize evidence from studies of humans and rats that indicates that obesity is related to
the availability of high-energy foods.
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Revel Quizzes
The following questions appear at the end of each module and at the end of the chapter in Revel
for Physiology of Behavior, 13th Edition.
EOM 12.1.2
Question: When a neurotransmitter is released and then detected by an autoreceptor, the
autoreceptor triggers the cessation of neurotransmitter release. In terms of a regulatory system,
this process exemplifies:
a. positive feedback.
b. negative feedback.
c. the correctional mechanism.
d. the system variable.
Answer: B
Consider This: A process whereby the effect produced by an action serves to diminish or
terminate the action; LO 12.1: Explain the characteristics of a physiological regulatory
mechanism.
Learning Objective: 12.1 Explain the characteristics of a physiological regulatory mechanism.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM 12.1.3
Question: When depleted of water, individuals drink only a certain amount before stopping; they
do not drink until their cells have received the needed fluid. Satiety mechanisms monitor
____________ and stop the behavior in anticipation of replenishment to occur later.
a. the set point
b. the system variable
c. the activity of the correctional mechanism
d. the detector
Answer: C
Consider This: These mechanisms ensure that individuals do not overhydrate themselves when
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EOM 12.1.4
Question: Intracellular fluid includes:
a. interstitial fluid.
b. cell cytoplasm.
c. intravascular fluid.
d. cerebrospinal fluid.
Answer: B
Consider This: Intracellular refers to fluid within the cell itself; LO 12.2: Compare osmometric
and volumetric thirst.
Learning Objective: 12.2: Compare osmometric and volumetric thirst.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
EOM 12.1.5
Question: Research has shown that thirsty individuals have continued activation of the lamina
terminalis after drinking, but the signals from the _____________ cortex return to baseline
levels.
a. anterior cingulate
b. posterior cingulate
c. parietal
d. primary somatosensory
Answer: A
Consider This: Activity in this region is correlated with people’s perception of the
unpleasantness of painful stimuli; LO 12.2: Compare osmometric and volumetric thirst.
Learning Objective: LO 12.2: Compare osmometric and volumetric thirst.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM 12.2.2
Question: A fall in glucose levels causes the secretion of glucagon, which converts
___________ into _____________.
a. glucose; glycogen
b. glycogen; glucose
c. glucagon; glycogen
d. glucose; glucagon
Answer: B
Consider This: Glucagon has the opposite effect of insulin; LO 12.4: Describe the function,
location, and contents of the short-term reservoir.
Learning Objective: 12.4: Describe the function, location, and contents of the short-term
reservoir.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM 12.2.3
Question: When a person continues to fast beyond the short-term reservoir, the fat in the long-
term reservoir is broken down into glycerol and fatty acids. Fatty acids can be metabolized by:
a. the cells of the body, but not those of the brain.
b. the cells of the brain, but not those of the body.
c. neither brain cells nor body cells.
d. not only the cells of the body, but also those of the brain.
Answer: A
Consider This: Glucose is the only thing one of these can consume; LO 12.5: Describe the
function, location, and contents of the long-term reservoir.
Learning Objective: 12.5: Describe the function, location, and contents of the long-term
reservoir.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
EOM 12.2.4
Question: During the ________ phase, the pancreas secretes ____________ to ensure that only
the brain can use glucose.
a. fasting; glucagon
b. fasting; insulin
c. absorptive; glucagon
d. absorptive; insulin
Answer: A
Consider this: Cells of the body have glucose transporters that contain insulin receptors; LO
12.6: Compare pathways for using glucose, fat, and amino acids in the fasting phase.
Learning Objective: 12.6: Compare pathways for using glucose, fat, and amino acids in the
fasting phase.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOM 12.2.5
Question: During the ________ phase, the pancreas secretes ____________ to ensure that both
the body and the brain can utilize glucose.
a. fasting; glucagon
b. fasting; insulin
c. absorptive; glucagon
d. absorptive; insulin
Answer: D
Consider this: Cells of the body have glucose transporters that contain insulin receptors; LO
12.7: Compare pathways for using glucose, fat, and amino acids in the absorptive phase.
Learning Objective: 12.7: Compare pathways for using glucose, fat, and amino acids in the
absorptive phase.
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
Difficulty Level: Moderate
EOM 12.3.2
Question: Ghrelin is released from the:
a. hypothalamus.
b. pituitary.
c. stomach.
d. liver.
Answer: C
Consider This: This hormone monitors when the digestive tract is empty; LO 12.9: Describe
ghrelin’s role as a signal to start a meal.
Learning Objective: 12.9: Describe ghrelin’s role as a signal to start a meal.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM 12.3.3
Question: Which chemical or combination of chemicals would MOST stimulate eating
behavior?
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a. 2-DG
b. insulin and 2-DG
c. mercaptoacetate
d. 2-DG and mercaptoacetate
Answer: D
Consider This: The most severe hunger comes from depletion of both glucose and fatty acids;
LO 12.10: Describe how metabolic signals play a role in starting a meal.
Learning Objective: 12.10: Describe how metabolic signals play a role in starting a meal.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM 12.3.4
Question: Nutrient detectors in the brain are sensitive to:
a. an excess of fatty acids.
b. glucoprivation.
c. lipoprivation.
d. both glucoprivation and lipoprivation.
Answer: B
Consider This: The brain only monitors its primary food source; LO 12.10: Describe how
metabolic signals play a role in starting a meal.
Learning Objective: 12.10: Describe how metabolic signals play a role in starting a meal.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM 12.3.5
Question: The liver sends information about available glucose and fatty acids levels to the brain
via the ___________ nerve.
a. trigeminal
b. glossopharyngeal
c. vagus
d. hypoglossal
Answer: C
Consider This: This nerve is the 10th cranial nerve; LO 12.10: Describe how metabolic signals
play a role in starting a meal.
Learning Objective: 12.10: Describe how metabolic signals play a role in starting a meal.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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Answer: A
Consider This: These mechanisms ensure that individuals do not overeat when eating; LO 12.11:
Describe the function of short-term satiety signals.
Learning Objective: 12.11: Describe the function of short-term satiety signals.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM 12.4.2
Question: Research has shown that ___________________ can increase the amount of ingestion
at a single meal.
a. eating alone
b. being provided a smaller portion
c. eating earlier in the day
d. eating later in the day
Answer: D
Consider This: Satiety signals are often overridden by environmental factors; which would cause
you to eat more in a sitting?; LO 12.12: Identify examples of environmental factors that
contribute to satiety.
Learning Objective: 12.12: Identify examples of environmental factors that contribute to satiety.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM 12.4.3
Question: If rats, presented with a nutritive liquid, are allowed to eat until satiated and 5 ml of
the liquid is then removed via syringe and replaced with 5 ml of saline, the rats will:
a. not eat any more nutritive liquid.
b. eat continuously.
c. eat 5 ml of nutritive liquid.
d. eat 10ml of nutritive liquid.
Answer: C
Consider This: There are nutrient receptors in the stomach; LO 12.14: Explain how the stomach
can provide satiety signals.
Learning Objective: 12.14: Explain how the stomach can provide satiety signals.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM 12.4.4
Question: When food enters the duodenum _____________ increases and __________ eating
behavior.
a. CCK; suppresses
b. CCK; stimulates
c. ghrelin; suppresses
d. ghrelin; stimulates
Answer: A
Consider This: This substance causes the gallbladder to contract; LO 12.15: Describe how the
intestines can provide satiety signals.
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Learning Objective: 12.15: Describe how the intestines can provide satiety signals.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM 12.4.5
Question: The last stage of satiety signaling appears to originate in the:
a. stomach.
b. small intestine.
c. large intestine.
d. liver.
Answer: D
Consider This: This is the first organ to learn that food is finally being received from the
digestive tract; LO 12.16: Explain how the liver provides late-stage satiety signals.
Learning Objective: 12.16: Explain how the liver provides late-stage satiety signals.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM 12.5.2
Question: Early studies indicated that the _________ hypothalamus regulates hunger, whereas
the ______________ hypothalamus regulates satiety.
a. lateral; ventromedial
b. ventromedial; lateral
c. dorsomedial; ventromedial
d. ventromedial; dorsomedial
Answer: A
Consider This: The area that stimulates hunger is “toward the sides”; LO 12.20: Identify
functions of the hypothalamus involved in eating regulation.
Learning Objective: 12.20: Identify functions of the hypothalamus involved in eating regulation.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
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EOM 12.5.3
Question: ____________ stimulates hunger.
a. Leptin
b. CART
c. α-MSH
d. MCH
Answer: D
Consider This: This substance is secreted from the lateral hypothalamus; LO 12.20: Identify
functions of the hypothalamus involved in eating regulation.
Learning Objective: 12.20: Identify functions of the hypothalamus involved in eating regulation.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM 12.5.4
Question: ___________ suppresses hunger.
a. MCH
b. Orexin
c. NPY
d. CART
Answer: D
Consider This: Can be found in the arcuate nucleus; LO 12.20: Identify functions of the
hypothalamus involved in eating regulation.
Learning Objective: 12.20: Identify functions of the hypothalamus involved in eating regulation.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM 12.5.5
Question: _______________ inhibits NPY and AGRP, which, in turn, results in less orexin and
MCH release.
a. Endocannabinoids
b. CART
c. Leptin
d. Ghrelin
Answer: C
Consider This: This substance is secreted by adipose tissue; LO 12.20: Identify functions of the
hypothalamus involved in eating regulation.
Learning Objective: 12.20: Identify functions of the hypothalamus involved in eating regulation.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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c. Galactose
d. Lactose
Answer: A
Consider This: Found in many high-sugar processed foods and soft drinks; LO 12.21: Compare
the roles of environment, physical activity, and genetics in obesity.
Learning Objective: 12.21: Compare the roles of environment, physical activity, and genetics in
obesity.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM 12.6.2
Question: Jimmy has a high NEAT level. It is MOST likely that he:
a. is obese.
b. lives a predominantly sedentary lifestyle.
c. is relatively lean.
d. has low nonexercise activity thermogenesis.
Answer: C
Consider This: Amount of fat tissue is inversely related to a person’s NEAT level; LO 12.21:
Compare the roles of environment, physical activity, and genetics in obesity.
Learning Objective: 12.21: Compare the roles of environment, physical activity, and genetics in
obesity.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM 12.6.3
Question: Individuals who have a tendency to gain weight have a ___________ phenotype.
a. thrifty
b. spendthrift
c. greedy
d. frugal
Answer: A
Consider This: In terms of phenotypes, having additional calories to store is a benefit to survival;
LO 12.21: Compare the roles of environment, physical activity, and genetics in obesity.
Learning Objective: 12.21: Compare the roles of environment, physical activity, and genetics in
obesity.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM 12.6.4
Question: ___________________________ is involved in _____________ (in) both food
seeking and drug seeking.
a. Dopamine; relapse
b. Serotonin; relapse
c. Dopamine; avoiding
d. Serotonin; avoiding
Answer: A
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EOM 12.6.5
Question: The success of Roux-en-Y gastric bypass is that it disrupts:
a. MCH.
b. orexin.
c. ghrelin.
d. leptin.
Answer: C
Consider This: Which substance is secreted from the stomach?; LO 12.22: Evaluate the roles of
reinforcement, stress, surgery, pharmacology, and behavioral interventions in treating obesity.
Learning Objective: 12.22: Evaluate the roles of reinforcement, stress, surgery, pharmacology,
and behavioral interventions in treating obesity.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM 12.7.2
Question: The primary difference between anorexia and bulimia is that:
a. anorexia is less harmful to the body.
b. people with anorexia exert tremendous control over intake, whereas those with bulimia
lose control.
c. individuals with anorexia never purge.
d. people with anorexia take in more calories.
Answer: B
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Consider This: Purging calories can come in many forms, not just vomiting; LO 12.23: Compare
the roles of brain changes, starvation, excessive exercise, and genetic factors in eating disorders.
Learning Objective: 12.23: Compare the roles of brain changes, starvation, excessive exercise,
and genetic factors in eating disorders.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
EOM 12.7.3
Question: Blood levels of ___________ are ___________ in patients with anorexia. This
phenomenon may be responsible for increased activity levels in these individuals.
a. NPY; decreased
b. PYY; decreased
c. NPY; increased
d. PYY; increased
Answer: C
Consider This: This substance typically increases feeding behavior; LO 12.23: Compare the roles
of brain changes, starvation, excessive exercise, and genetic factors in eating disorders.
Learning Objective: 12.23: Compare the roles of brain changes, starvation, excessive exercise,
and genetic factors in eating disorders.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Concepts
EOM 12.7.4
Question: Anorexia appears to be largely determined by:
a. societal pressures to be thin.
b. genetic predisposition.
c. reinforcement parents used to ensure kids ate their dinners.
d. parental punishment for wasting food when growing up.
Answer: B
Consider This: Prevalence for twins is suggestive; LO 12.23: Compare the roles of brain
changes, starvation, excessive exercise, and genetic factors in eating disorders.
Learning Objective: 12.23: Compare the roles of brain changes, starvation, excessive exercise,
and genetic factors in eating disorders.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM 12.7.5
Question: Cognitive behavioral therapy, with a success rate of _____________ than 50 percent,
is considered the ______________ effective approach for treating anorexia.
a. less; most
b. less; least
c. more; most
d. more; least
Answer: A
Consider This: Researchers are still actively trying to find better means of treatment; LO 12.24:
List strategies used in eating disorder interventions.
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EOC 12.2
Question: The storage of glucose into glycogen in the short-term reservoir is stimulated by:
a. glucagon.
b. insulin.
c. glycine.
d. fatty acids.
Answer: B
Consider This: Lack of this substance causes a form of diabetes; LO 12.4: Describe the function,
location, and contents of the short-term reservoir.
Learning Objective: 12.4: Describe the function, location and contents of the short-term
reservoir.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC 12.3
Question: When insulin is present, glucose can be utilized by:
a. the cells of the body, but not those of the brain.
b. the cells of the brain, but not those of the body.
c. neither the cells of the body nor those of the brain.
d. both the cells of the body and those of the brain.
Answer: D
Consider This: Cells of the body have glucose transporters that contain insulin receptors; LO
12.5: Describe the function, location, and contents of the long-term reservoir.
Learning Objective: 12.5: Describe the function, location, and contents of the long-term
reservoir.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
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EOC 12.4
Question: If ghrelin levels remain high continuously, an individual would MOST likely
experience:
a. continuous eating behavior.
b. cessation of eating behavior.
c. normal eating behavior, neither too much nor too little intake.
d. binge eating followed by purging.
Answer: A
Consider This: This hormone is released in the fasting phase; LO 12.9: Describe ghrelin’s role as
a signal to start a meal.
Learning Objective: 12.9: Describe ghrelin’s role as a signal to start a meal.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOC 12.5
Question: Nutrient detectors in the liver are sensitive to:
a. neither glucoprivation nor lipoprivation.
b. glucoprivation, but not lipoprivation.
c. lipoprivation, but not glucoprivation.
d. both glucoprivation and lipoprivation.
Answer: D
Consider This: The liver monitors fuel sources for both body and brain; LO 12.10: Describe how
metabolic signals play a role in starting a meal.
Learning Objective: 12.10: Describe how metabolic signals play a role in starting a meal.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC 12.6
Question: With respect to sensory factors, satiety is influenced by:
a. texture.
b. taste.
c. Temperature.
d. both temperature and taste.
Answer: B
Consider This: Which of these factors might influence you to feel more full?; LO 12.13: Identify
sensory factors that contribute to satiety.
Learning Objective: 12.13: Identify sensory factors that contribute to satiety.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC 12.7
Question: Participants had an infusion of a glucose solution. Participants reported increased
fullness and reduced hunger when the solution was infused into the:
a. stomach.
b. large intestine.
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c. small intestine.
d. liver.
Answer: A
Consider This: This infusion would cause the release of ghrelin, which is released from…; LO
12.14: Explain how the stomach can provide satiety signals.
Learning Objective: 12.14: Explain how the stomach can provide satiety signals.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC 12.8
Question: Which of these substances triggers hunger?
a. ghrelin
b. PYY
c. CCK
d. leptin
Answer: A
Consider This: This substance is released from the stomach; LO 12.15: Describe how the
intestines can provide satiety signals.
Learning Objective: 12.15: Describe how the intestines can provide satiety signals.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC 12.9
Question: A targeted mutation in mice that prevented the production of insulin receptors in the
brain without affecting their production elsewhere in the body resulted in mice that:
a. experienced diabetes.
b. became obese.
c. lost a great deal of weight.
d. showed behavior similar to posttraumatic stress disorder.
Answer: B
Consider This: The theory is that insulin serves as a satiety signal; LO 12.17: Describe how
insulin can function as a satiety signal.
Learning Objective: 12.17: Describe how insulin can function as a satiety signal.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC 12.10
Question: Which satiety signal do Ob mice lack?
a. CCK
b. leptin
c. PYY
d. ghrelin
Answer: B
Consider This: This substance is normally secreted by well-nourished fat cells; LO 12.18:
Contrast the function of satiety signals from adipose tissue with short-term satiety signals.
Learning Objective: 12.18: Contrast the function of satiety signals from adipose tissue with
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EOC 12.11
Question: There are many substances in the brain and body that trigger hunger. This substance,
however, triggers hunger even if giving into that hunger involves eating bitter foods or receiving
shocks to the mouth during eating.
a. MCH
b. Orexin
c. Ghrelin
d. NPY
Answer: A
Consider This: Can be found in the arcuate nucleus; LO 12.20: Identify functions of the
hypothalamus involved in eating regulation.
Learning Objective: 12.20: Identify functions of the hypothalamus involved in eating regulation.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC 12.12
Question: Habitual marijuana smokers often experience “the munchies” due to THC being an
agonist for:
a. NPY.
b. CART.
c. endocannabinoids.
d. ghrelin.
Answer: C
Consider This: This substance stimulates MCH and orexin to cause eating behavior; LO 12.20:
Identify functions of the hypothalamus involved in eating regulation.
Learning Objective: 12.20: Identify functions of the hypothalamus involved in eating regulation.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC 12.13
Question: Providing obese individuals with leptin:
a. will return these individuals to a leaner stature.
b. will return these individuals to a leaner stature for a limited duration.
c. will not reduce obesity because these individuals likely have high levels of leptin already.
d. will not reduce obesity initially but will begin to reduce fat accumulation with continued
treatment.
Answer: C
Consider This: If leptin worked in humans as it does in mice, we would have no issue with
obesity; LO 12.21: Compare the roles of environment, physical activity, and genetics in obesity.
Learning Objective: 12.21: Compare the roles of environment, physical activity, and genetics in
obesity.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
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EOC 12.14
Question: ______________ chemicals tend to decrease metabolic rate, whereas _____________
chemicals tend to increase it.
a. Orexigenic; anorexigenic
b. Anorexigenic; orexigenic
c. Aerobigenic; anorexigenic
d. Anorexigenic; aerobigenic
Answer: A
Consider This: What is the role of orexin?; LO 12.22: Evaluate the roles of reinforcement, stress,
surgery, pharmacology, and behavioral interventions in treating obesity.
Learning Objective: 12.22: Evaluate the roles of reinforcement, stress, surgery, pharmacology,
and behavioral interventions in treating obesity.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
EOC 12.15
Question: Individuals with anorexia often experience damage to the brain, including:
a. enlarged ventricles.
b. excitotoxic lesions in the hippocampus.
c. enlarged cortices.
d. excitotoxic lesions in the hypothalamus.
Answer: A
Consider This: They experience a shrinkage of tissue; LO 12.23: Compare the roles of brain
changes, starvation, excessive exercise, and genetic factors in eating disorders.
Learning Objective: 12.23: Compare the roles of brain changes, starvation, excessive exercise,
and genetic factors in eating disorders.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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Essay 117
Stimulus- Multiple Choice 20,22-24,29, 21,25,30,33,38 26-28,31
Response 32,34-37,39,40
Learning Fill-In 103-105
Essay 118
Motor Learning Multiple Choice 41,44 42,43
Fill-In
Essay
Perceptual Multiple Choice 46,50,53,55,56 45,48,49, 47,51,58
Learning 52,54,57
Fill-In 106-107
Essay
Essay
Fill-In 108,109
Essay 119-123
Essay 124,125
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Multiple-Choice Questions
1. New drivers learn to stop when they see a traffic light changing from yellow to red.
This form of learning is best characterized as ___________ learning.
a. stimulus-response
b. motor
c. perceptual
d. relational
e. conditioned
2. The nurse says, “This won’t hurt a bit!” before jabbing Dee Dee with a needle for his
vaccinations. Now, whenever someone says, “This won’t hurt a bit!” Dee Dee cringes in
fear. The initial jab with the needle in this example would be an
a. unconditioned response.
b. unconditioned stimulus.
c. conditioned response.
d. conditioned stimulus.
e. neutral stimulus.
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3. As a mother nurses her infant, she gently strokes the side of his head. Over time, gently
stroking the side of his head, in the absence of nursing, causes the baby to calm down
when upset. In this case, the stroking of the side of the head in the absence of nursing is
the
a. unconditioned response.
b. unconditioned stimulus.
c. conditioned response.
d. conditioned stimulus.
e. neutral stimulus.
4. Stanislaus was shown a collection of photographs last month, and was then shown a
larger collection of photographs yesterday. He was able to identify the photos in the
current group that he had seen a month previously. This type of learning is an example of
a. extinction.
b. stimulus-response learning.
c. classical conditioning.
d. intermodal learning.
e. perceptual learning.
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6. Boris is played the opening notes of “In a Gadda Da Vida” and is able to correctly
name that tune based on the snippet of sounds. Boris’s response is an example of
________ that likely involves the ________.
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9. Assunta is listening to music while doing her homework. “Are You Experienced?”
happens to be playing when Assunta’s mother telephones to say that their family just won
a free weekend stay at a resort, which makes Assunta feel very happy. Three months later
Assunta hears “Are You Experienced?” again and spontaneously breaks into a smile. In
this example, the unconditioned response is
a. perceptual learning.
b. operant learning.
c. stimulus-response learning.
d. intra-modal learning.
e. relational learning.
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a. Spatial learning
b. Learning to swing a golf club
c. Episodic learning
d. Observational learning
e. Perceptual learning
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17. Echoic memory, the ability to “hear” what was just said for a second after it was
actually said, is part of
a. iconic memory.
b. sensory memory.
c. short-term memory.
d. long-term memory.
e. semantic memory.
18. The ability to recall a series of events that were witnessed is an example of
a. serial memory.
b. spatial learning.
c. perceptual learning.
d. episodic learning.
e. observational learning.
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19. Jules experiences a stroke that affects his ability to remember information about his
family and friends. However, he still remembers how to play the piano although he has no
memory of ever learning how to play. It appears that Jules’s ___________ memory is still
intact.
a. serial
b. declarative
c. episodic
d. semantic
e. implicit
a. serotonin
b. NMDA and AMPA
c. acetylcholine
d. dopamine
e. GABA
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22. In a conditioned emotional response (CER) study, a tone is paired with a foot shock
for a rat. After several trials, the tone alone is a conditioned stimulus that can elicit fear
emotional responses. Which conclusion is correct regarding the anatomy of this fear
response?
a. The central nucleus of the amygdala integrates the pairing of the tone and the
shock information.
b. Tone information is relayed directly to the central nucleus of the amygdala.
c. The lateral nucleus of the amygdala integrates the pairing of the tone and the
shock information.
d. Damage to the lateral nucleus of the amygdala impairs perceptual learning, but
not CER learning.
e. Damage to the central nucleus of the amygdala impairs perceptual learning,
but not CER learning.
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23. In a conditioned emotional response (CER) study, a tone is paired with a foot shock
for a rat. After several trials, the tone alone is a conditioned stimulus that can elicit fear
emotional responses. Which conclusion is true regarding the physiology of this fear
response?
24. The conclusion that learning a conditioned emotional response (CER) to a tone
involves long-term potentiation is supported by evidence that
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26. Alan has been playing the drums for over 50 years, and no longer has to think about
which tom, cymbal, or snare to hit with which arm or foot. Which neural pathway is
involved in this behavior?
a. retinogeniculostriatal pathway
b. transcortical pathway
c. spinothalamic pathway
d. basal ganglia pathway
e. spinoreticular pathway
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27. When Marcello was first learning to play the drums, he was likely to use which neural
pathway?
a. retinogeniculostriatal pathway
b. transcortical pathway
c. spinothalamic pathway
d. basal ganglia pathway
e. spinoreticular pathway
28. Damage to the ________ would be expected to impair operant learning in rats.
a. amygdala
b. hypothalamus
c. frontal cortex
d. basal ganglia
e. nucleus accumbens
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30. The flow of information into and from the basal ganglia is
a. sensory signals –> primary motor cortex –> premotor cortex –> basal ganglia
b. sensory signals –> globus pallidus –> caudate nucleus/putamen –> primary
motor cortex
c. sensory signals –> caudate nucleus/putamen –> globus pallidus –>primary
motor cortex
d. sensory signals –> lateral amygdala –> primary motor cortex
e. sensory signals –> central amygdala –> caudate nucleus/putamen –> primary
motor cortex
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33. A rat learns to press a lever when it receives a reinforcing item, such as a food pellet,
after each press. To learn the connection between the lever press and the receipt of the
food pellet, the neurotransmitter ___________ is involved.
a. serotonin
b. norepinephrine
c. dopamine
d. acetylcholine
e. epinephrine
a. expects; inactive
b. expects; active
c. does not expect; inactive
d. does not expect; active
e. does not expect; depressed
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35. James Olds and Peter Milner reported that electrical stimulation of the rat brain
36. Which outcome is related to the discovery by James Olds and Peter Milner of the
effects of stimulating the reticular formation in the brain?
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37. The ________ pathway connects the ventral tegmental area with the nucleus
accumbens.
a. mesocortical
b. medial forebrain bundle
c. nigrostriatal
d. corticofugal
e. spinothalamic
38. Reinforcing effects of electrical brain stimulation and of drugs such as amphetamine
reflect an action on ________ projections of the ________.
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a. cocaine.
b. amphetamine.
c. dopamine.
d. GABA.
e. food for a hungry rat.
40. Studies by Wolfram Schultz and colleagues indicate that release of dopamine within
the nucleus accumbens
a. does not occur for an expected reinforcing stimulus (such as fruit juice).
b. is automatically produced during stimulus delivery.
c. is greatest when ingesting ketamine.
d. is greatest for natural reinforcers.
e. can occur when a stimulus is aversive.
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41. The __________________ controls the behaviors of walking, writing, and dancing.
This area is also organized such that areas of the body that require greater innervation are
represented to a greater extent cortically.
42. Renaldo has been playing the piano since he was five years old. When asked to play a
relatively easy piece, like “Chopsticks,” he does so with very little effort. During this
performance, Renaldo’s _____________would be active.
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43. Video gamers often find that they are able to beat difficult stages that require accurate
timing of button pushes after taking a break from the game. This phenomenon supports
the observation that
44. The _____________ deficits that accompany Parkinson’s disease result in impairment
of learning a visually cued operant conditioning task.
a. substantia nigra
b. globus pallidus
c. basal ganglia
d. hypothalamus
e. cerebellum
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46. When looking at an automobile, the ability to label it as a car is the responsibility of
the __________ stream, which terminates in the inferior temporal cortex.
a. dorsal
b. ventral
c. rostral
d. caudal
e. anterior
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47. When looking at pictures of her daughter playing soccer, Martha’s ___________ is
active, indicating that Martha has memory of the motions that went along with the
photographs.
a. fusiform gyrus
b. MT/MST
c. posterior parietal cortex
d. inferior temporal cortex
e. anterior cingulate cortex
48. Jhang was in a car accident and suffered damage to his posterior parietal cortex. When
tested across numerous trials, he is able to identify objects but is unable to locate them in
space. Jhang most likely suffered damage to his _________ stream of perceptual learning.
a. dorsal
b. ventral
c. rostral
d. caudal
e. anterior
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49. Lionel Standing conducted a landmark study in which participants were shown 10,000
slides and then tested for recognition at various times thereafter. The major finding of this
research was that
50. The ventral stream of the visual association cortex continues into the ________ and
carries information relating to ________.
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51. Damage to the human visual association cortex would be expected to impair the
ability to
52. In a delayed matching-to-sample task, participants were shown a face and then were
asked to identify which face had been seen previously. In this case, the ____________
was activated in order to choose the correct face.
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53. Memories for a stimulus or an event can be retained in ________, which lasts for
________.
54. Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) can disrupt neural circuits in awake humans.
The notion that short-term memory (STM) for a visual stimulus involves continued
activation of the appropriate visual association cortex is supported by studies in which
a. TMS applied to the ventral stream disrupted STM for a visual location.
b. TMS can be used to elicit perceptual memories.
c. TMS applied to the ventral stream disrupted STM for a visual pattern.
d. persistent amnesia is noted after chronic TMS application in depressed people.
e. TMS of the motor cortex disrupts visual STM.
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55. The ________ plays a central role in short-term memory for all sensory systems.
56. Stroke patients with damage to the _____________ had difficulty filtering irrelevant
information, and patients with damage to the _______________ had difficulty retaining
more than a few pieces of information in short-term memory.
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a. learning a new person’s face and then recognizing it later when you see her
again.
b. recognizing a friend’s face and remembering that she is still in the room when
not directly in the visual field.
c. recognizing a friend’s face.
d. recognizing a friend’s face and recognizing it later.
e. learning a new person’s face, recognizing it later, and remembering that she is
still in the room when not directly in the visual field.
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59. The conclusion that perceptual memories are distinct from semantic memories is
supported by studies in which
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61. The _____________ of the neocortex appears to be where semantic memories are
stored.
62. Neurogenesis is stimulated within the ______ for tasks that involve relational
learning.
a. amygdala
b. medial forebrain bundle
c. hypothalamus
d. nucleus accumbens
e. hippocampus
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63. The Morris water maze can be viewed as a test of ________ when rats are _______.
a. semantic learning; released from the same point in the maze on each trial
b. relational learning; released from the same point in the maze on each trial
c. relational learning; released from a different point of the maze on each trial
d. nonrelational learning; released from a different point of the maze on each trial
e. perceptual memory; placed directly onto the platform
64. Patient R.B., who sustained brain damage while in cardiac arrest, exhibited profound
anterograde amnesia. Which region of his brain was injured?
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66. Based on the study of Patient H.M., it has been concluded that
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67. Based on the study of Patient H.M., it has been concluded that the hippocampus is
68. ________ is the process by which immediate memories are transformed into long-
term memories.
a. Synaptogenesis
b. Confabulation
c. Consolidation
d. Potentiation
e. Hebbian reverberation
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69. Patient H.M. was able to perform all of the following tasks quite well EXCEPT
a. mirror drawing.
b. recognizing broken drawings.
c. recalling childhood events that occurred prior to the age of 9 years.
d. consolidating information from short-term memory to long-term memory
using rehearsal.
e. making a classically-conditioned eyeblink response.
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71. During a PET scan, a seasoned London taxi driver is asked to describe the route she
would take from Chalk Farm to Knightsbridge. Her description would be associated with
72. In which case would you expect to observe an enlarged hippocampal formation?
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74. Intense electrical stimulation of axons within the hippocampal formation results in
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77. In a typical long-term potentiation (LTP) study, a stimulating electrode is inserted into
the perforant path, while a recording electrode is inserted into the dentate gyrus. LTP is
produced by delivering a(n) ________ via the stimulating electrode.
78. Associative long-term potentiation requires ________ occur about the same time as
________.
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a. Ca2+; R1β
b. neurotransmitter; hormone
c. voltage; neurotransmitter
d. Na+; Mg2+
e. ligand; ion
80. The NMDA receptor controls ________ and is normally blocked by ________.
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82. The pyramidal cells of hippocampal field CA1 are unique in that
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83. An action potential that occurs in a dendritic branch after an action potential in a
pyramidal cell is termed
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85. Which factor normally prevents the calcium channel of the NMDA receptor from
opening in response to only glutamate?
86. The increase in synaptic strength that occurs in long-term potentiation is due to a
modification of the cell that includes
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87. Long-term potentiation is associated with the movement of ________ to the _______.
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90. Long-term potentiation may involve the formation of ________ within the postsynaptic
dendrite.
a. nitric oxide
b. nitrous oxide synthase
c. aspartate
d. glycine
e. new NMDA receptors
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91. ________ is a strong candidate to act as a retrograde messenger from the dendrite to
the terminal button.
a. Norepinephrine
b. Nitric oxide
c. Nitrous oxide
d. Glutamate
e. NMDA
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94. The formation of long-term potentiation requires the production of the protein
a. PKA.
b. PK-C.
c. PKM-zeta.
d. C-AMP.
e. PKN-alpha.
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Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
97. Your cat has associated getting on the counter with getting sprayed by a water bottle.
This form of learning is an example of _____________ conditioning.
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98. Your ability to recognize a series of photos that you looked at a month ago is an
example of ________.
99. ________ learning involves the ability to exhibit a specific behavior in the presence of
a specific stimulus.
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102. ________ memory refers to a person’s ability to recall a series of events she or he has
witnessed.
104. The caudate nucleus and the putamen form the ________.
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106. ________ cortex neurons play a central role in short-term memory for all sensory
systems.
109. Functional-imaging studies have shown that the ________ hippocampal formation
becomes active when a person is remembering or performing a navigational task.
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110. The ________ pathway interconnects the entorhinal cortex with the granule cells of
the dentate gyrus.
112. The chemical ________ blocks NMDA receptors and the formation of LTP.
113. ________ are action potentials that occur along the dendrites of a pyramidal cell in
the hippocampus.
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114. Long-term potentiation is associated with the movement of ________ receptors along
a dendrite.
115. Nitric oxide is produced following the activity of an enzyme known as __________.
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Essay Questions
117. Describe the four basic forms of learning: (a) perceptual learning, (b) stimulus-
response learning, (c) motor learning, and (d) relational learning. Provide a brief example
of each type.
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119. Compare the memory problems that occur in anterograde amnesia with those in
retrograde amnesia.
120. Describe the major memory deficits experienced by Patient H.M. following bilateral
temporal lobectomy. Describe two specific abilities that were retained by Patient H.M.
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121. Describe learning tasks that assess the capacity for perceptual learning, motor
learning, and stimulus-response learning.
122. Explain how relational learning is distinct from other forms of learning, and explain
the role of the hippocampus in relational learning.
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123. Explain what is meant by a place cell and discuss the role of these cells in spatial
memory.
124. Describe the typical experimental setup and procedure that would be used to produce
long-term potentiation (LTP), and explain how LTP would be assessed using this
procedure.
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125. Describe the changes that occur in the synapses of the hippocampus that may provide
a physiological basis for long-term potentiation (LTP).
Revel Quizzes
The following questions appear at the end of each module and at the end of the chapter in
Revel for Physiology of Behavior, 13th Edition.
EOM 13.1.2
Question: The nurse says, “This won’t hurt a bit!” before jabbing Joey with a needle for
his vaccinations. Now, whenever someone says, “This won’t hurt a bit!” Joey cringes in
fear. In the terms of classical conditioning, the initial jab with the needle is the:
a. unconditioned stimulus.
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b. unconditioned response.
c. conditioned stimulus.
d. conditioned response.
Answer: A
Consider This: This aspect does not have to be learned; LO 13.1: Compare characteristics
of stimulus-response, motor, perceptual, and relational learning.
Learning Objective: 13.1: Compare characteristics of stimulus-response, motor,
perceptual, and relational learning.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM 13.1.3
Question: In contrast to operant conditioning, classical conditioning:
a. involves brand new behaviors that have been learned.
b. involves an association between a stimulus and a response.
c. involves an association between two stimuli.
d. was discovered only recently.
Answer: C
Consider This: CC is a form of learning in which an unimportant stimulus acquires the
properties of an important one; LO 13.1: Compare characteristics of stimulus-response,
motor, perceptual, and relational learning.
Learning Objective: 13.1: Compare characteristics of stimulus-response, motor,
perceptual, and relational learning.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
EOM 13.1.4
Question: _____ memory includes echoic memory, the ability to “hear” what was just
said for a second after it was actually said.
a. Iconic
b. Sensory
c. Short-term
d. Long-term
Answer: B
Consider This: How long is the duration of this experience?; LO 13.2: Contrast
characteristics of sensory, short-term, and long-term memory.
Learning Objective: 13.2: Contrast characteristics of sensory, short-term, and long-term
memory.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
EOM 13.1.5
Question: Jules experiences a stroke that affects his ability to remember his family and
friends. However, he still remembers how to play the piano, although he has no memory
of ever learning how to play. It appears that Jules’s _________ memory is still intact.
a. declarative
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b. episodic
c. semantic
d. implicit
Answer: D
Consider This: Playing the piano would be considered a skill; LO 13.2: Contrast
characteristics of sensory, short-term, and long-term memory.
Learning Objective: 13.2: Contrast characteristics of sensory, short-term, and long-term
memory.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM 13.2.2
Question: During the acquisition of a classically conditioned response, the
______________ nucleus of the amygdala receives information about the CS and US.
a. lateral
b. central
c. medial
d. posterior
Answer: A
Consider This:“To the side”; LO 13.3: Describe the roles of the amygdala, AMPA
receptors, and NMDA receptors in classical conditioning..
Learning Objective: 13.3: Describe the roles of the amygdala, AMPA receptors, and
NMDA receptors in classical conditioning.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM 13.2.3
Question: If LTP is experienced in a fear conditioning situation, it is likely that:
a. additional NMDA receptors have been inserted into the postsynaptic cell.
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b. additional AMPA receptors have been inserted into the postsynaptic cell.
c. there are increased IPSPs in the postsynaptic cell.
d. the animal will not display fear conditioning.
Answer: B
Consider This: LTP is the neural basis for learning; LO 13.3: Describe the roles of the
amygdala, AMPA receptors, and NMDA receptors in classical conditioning.
Learning Objective: 13.3: Describe the roles of the amygdala, AMPA receptors, and
NMDA receptors in classical conditioning.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM 13.2.4
Question: When one first learns how to drive a manual transmission vehicle, one is
MOST likely relying on the _____ pathway.
a. retinogeniculostriatal
b. transcortical
c. basal ganglion
d. spinothalamic
Answer: B
Consider This: Driving a stick shift involves a lot of unfamiliar procedural steps; LO 13.4:
Outline the neural mechanisms of operant conditioning.
Learning Objective: 13.4: Outline the neural mechanisms of operant conditioning.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM 13.2.5
Question: A rat learns to press a lever when it receives a reinforcing item, such as a food
pellet, after each press. The neurotransmitter _______ is involved in learning the
connection between the lever press and receiving the food pellet.
a. serotonin
b. norepinephrine
c. dopamine
d. epinephrine
Answer: C
Consider This: L-DOPA has been shown to improve learning of words; LO 13.4: Outline
the neural mechanisms of operant conditioning.
Learning Objective: 13.4: Outline the neural mechanisms of operant conditioning.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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EOM 13.3.2
Question: Eriko has been playing the piano since she was five years old. When she is
asked to play a relatively easy piece, like “Chopsticks,” she does so with very little effort.
During such a performance, Eriko’s _____________ is active.
a. supplementary motor area
b. premotor cortex
c. ventral premotor cortex
d. dorsal premotor cortex
Answer: A
Consider This: This area is responsible for performing previously learned, automatic
behaviors; LO 13.5: List the contributions of various cortical regions to motor learning.
Learning Objective: 13.5: List the contributions of various cortical regions to motor
learning.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM 13.3.3
Question: Enhanced motor learning and long-term potentiation are associated with
______ sleep.
a. Stage 1
b. only REM
c. both REM and slow-wave
d. only slow-wave
Answer: C
Consider This: Consolidating motor memories is important for motor learning; LO 13.5:
List the contributions of various cortical regions to motor learning.
Learning Objective: 13.5: List the contributions of various cortical regions to motor
learning.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
EOM 13.3.4
Question: The ________________ deficits in Parkinson’s disease result in impaired
learning in a visually cued operant conditioning task.
a. substantia nigra
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b. globus pallidus
c. basal ganglia
d. hypothalamus
Answer: C
Consider This: This area plays an important role in stimulus-response and motor learning;
LO 13.6: Explain the role of the basal ganglia in motor learning.
Learning Objective: 13.6: Explain the role of the basal ganglia in motor learning.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM 13.3.5
Question: The degeneration of which brain area is involved in both Parkinson’s disease
and Huntington’s disease?
a. substantia nigra
b. globus pallidus
c. basal ganglia
d. hypothalamus
Answer: C
Consider This: This area plays an important role in stimulus-response and motor learning;
LO 13.6: Explain the role of the basal ganglia in motor learning.
Learning Objective: 13.6: Explain the role of the basal ganglia in motor learning.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
EOM 13.4.2
Question: When one looks at an automobile, one’s ability to label it as a car is the
responsibility of the __________ stream in one’s brain, which is made up of the inferior
temporal cortex.
a. dorsal
b. ventral
c. rostral
d. caudal
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Answer: B
Consider This: Where is the inferior temporal cortex located?; LO 13.7: Explain the roles
of cortical regions in perceptual learning.
Learning Objective: 13.7: Explain the roles of cortical regions in perceptual learning.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM 13.4.3
Question: Peter was in a car accident and suffered from damage to his posterior parietal
cortex. In numerous trials, he is able to identify objects, but unable to locate them in
space. Peter probably suffered damage to his brain’s _________ stream.
a. dorsal
b. ventral
c. rostral
d. caudal
Answer: A
Consider This: Where is the posterior parietal cortex located?; LO 13.7: Explain the roles
of cortical regions in perceptual learning.
Learning Objective: 13.7: Explain the roles of cortical regions in perceptual learning.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM 13.4.4
Question: In a delayed matching-to-sample task, participants are shown a face and later
asked to identify which face they had seen previously. Participants’ success at this task
depends on activation of the brain’s:
a. parahippocampal place area.
b. fusiform face area.
c. inferior temporal cortex.
d. posterior parietal cortex.
Answer: B
Consider This: This area is in the ventral stream and is involved in recognition of faces;
LO 13.8: Contrast the roles of cortical regions in retaining perceptual information in
short-term memory.
Learning Objective: 13.8: Contrast the roles of cortical regions in retaining perceptual
information in short-term memory.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM 13.4.5
Question: Stroke patients with damage to the _____________ basal ganglia have
difficulty filtering out irrelevant information, whereas patients with damage to the
_______________ prefrontal cortex have difficulty retaining more than a few pieces of
information in short-term memory.
a. left; right
b. right; right
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c. left; left
d. right; left
Answer: A
Consider This: The role of the prefrontal cortex is to manipulate and organize to-be-
remembered information; LO 13.8: Contrast the roles of cortical regions in retaining
perceptual information in short-term memory.
Learning Objective: 13.8: Contrast the roles of cortical regions in retaining perceptual
information in short-term memory.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
EOM 13.5.2
Question: ______________ dementia is caused by degeneration of the neocortex of the
anterolateral temporal lobe.
a. Semantic
b. Vascular
c. Frontotemporal
d. Mixed
Answer: A
Consider This: This is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects verbal and
nonverbal memory; LO 13.9: Describe the role of the hippocampus in relational learning.
Learning Objective: 13.9: Describe the role of the hippocampus in relational learning.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM 13.5.3
Question: As we experience events in life, we often have to revise our memories of
people, places, or things. For example, if your neighbor paints his house bright yellow,
you essentially have to change your memory of what his house looks like in order to have
an accurate representation of your neighborhood. This process is called:
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a. memory revision.
b. reconsolidation.
c. alteration.
d. adaptation.
Answer: B
Consider This: The initial memory trace is consolidated; LO 13.9: Describe the role of the
hippocampus in relational learning.
Learning Objective: 13.9: Describe the role of the hippocampus in relational learning.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM 13.5.4
Question: The Morris water maze is a test of _____________ learning in which rats are
placed in _______________________ area(s) of the maze on each trial.
a. relational; different
b. relational; the same
c. semantic; different
d. perceptual; different
Answer: A
Consider This: Rats would have to use landmarks to solve the maze in this case; LO 13.9:
Describe the role of the hippocampus in relational learning.
Learning Objective: 13.9: Describe the role of the hippocampus in relational learning.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM 13.5.5
Question: The _____________ of the neocortex appears to be where semantic memories
are stored.
a. anterolateral temporal lobe
b. posterolateral temporal lobe
c. ventromedial temporal lobe
d. hippocampus
Answer: A
Consider This: “Toward the front”; LO 13.10: Describe the role of the cortex in semantic
memory.
Learning Objective: 13.10: Describe the role of the cortex in semantic memory.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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Answer: C
Consider This: H.M. was able to remember his childhood, hold a conversation, and think
about new information in the moment; LO 13.11: Compare the role of the hippocampus in
memory consolidation and retrieval.
Learning Objective: 13.11: Compare the role of the hippocampus in memory
consolidation and retrieval.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM 13.6.2
Question: The fact that the CA1 region of the hippocampus has many ______________
receptors is both a blessing and a curse. These receptors allow LTP and the ability to learn
quickly, but they also can allow too much calcium into cells when activated by excess
glutamate.
a. NMDA
b. AMPA
c. MGluR
d. serotonin
Answer: A
Consider This: This receptor is both voltage gated and chemically gated; LO 13.11:
Compare the role of the hippocampus in consolidation and retrieval of memories.
Learning Objective: 13.11: Compare the role of the hippocampus in consolidation and
retrieval of memories.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM 13.6.3
Question: Functional imaging of the brain indicates that recollection of older memories
activates the _____________, whereas recollection of newer memories activates the
________________.
a. hippocampus; frontal cortex
b. frontal cortex; hippocampus
c. hippocampus; temporal cortex
d. temporal cortex; hippocampus
Answer: B
Consider This: Removal of the hippocampus does not abolish all long-term memories; LO
13.11: Compare the role of the hippocampus in consolidation and retrieval of memories.
Learning Objective: 13.11: Compare the role of the hippocampus in consolidation and
retrieval of memories.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
EOM 13.6.4
Question: Further experiments with H.M. indicated that he still had the ability to learn
new information, although this information was limited. Specifically, H.M. was able to
experience:
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a. eyeblink conditioning.
b. relational learning.
c. perceptual learning.
d. stimulus-response and perceptual learning.
Answer: D
Consider This: Even when H.M. did learn new aspects, he could not remember the
experience of having learned them; LO 13.15: Describe the role of the hippocampus in
relational learning.
Learning Objective: 13.15: Describe the role of the hippocampus in relational learning.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM 13.6.5
Question: Imaging studies of London taxi drivers reveal that these individuals, who
undergo intense training regarding London streets, have larger __________ than nontaxi
drivers.
a. right hippocampal formations
b. left hippocampal formations
c. parietal lobes
d. temporal lobes
Answer: A
Consider This: In brain lateralization, which hemisphere is responsible for spatial ability?;
LO 13.15: Describe the role of the hippocampus in relational learning.
Learning Objective: 13.15: Describe the role of the hippocampus in relational learning.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM 13.7.2
Question: Evidence that long-term potentiation has occurred is obtained by periodically
delivering single pulses to the perforant path and recording the response in the dentate
gyrus. If the response is _____________ what it was before the burst of pulses was
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EOM 13.7.3
Question: __________________ has/have to happen for long-term potentiation.
a. Activation of synapses
b. Depolarization of the postsynaptic neuron
c. Binding of a neurotransmitter
d. Both activation of synapses and depolarization of the postsynaptic neuron
Answer: D
Consider This: LTP serves as a coincidence detector; LO 13.17: Compare the relationship
between NMDA and AMPA receptors in LTP.
Learning Objective: 13.17: Compare the relationship between NMDA and AMPA
receptors in LTP.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Skill Level: Analyze It
EOM 13.7.4
Question: NMDA receptors:
a. are neither neurotransmitter- nor voltage-dependent.
b. are a type of dopamine receptor.
c. control a calcium ion channel.
d. are found in the hippocampal formation.
Answer: D
Consider This: The entry of ions through the channels controlled by NMDA receptors is
an essential step in long-term potentiation. LO 13.17: Compare the relationship between
NMDA and AMPA receptors in LTP.
Learning Objective: 13.17: Compare the relationship between NMDA and AMPA
receptors in LTP.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM 13.7.5
Question: Presynaptic changes due to LTP include:
a. insertion of AMPA receptors into the membrane.
b. enlargement of dendritic spines.
c. growth of new dendritic spines.
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EOC 13.2
Question: Over time, an infant learns to recognize its mother’s face. The type of learning
that this example BEST fits is _______ learning.
a. stimulus-response
b. motor
c. perceptual
d. relational
Answer: C
Consider This: This example refers specifically to a visual experience; LO 13.1: Compare
characteristics of stimulus-response, motor, perceptual, and relational learning.
Learning Objective: 13.1: Compare characteristics of stimulus-response, motor,
perceptual, and relational learning.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOC 13.3
Question: If LTP is prevented or blocked:
a. additional NMDA receptors have been inserted into the postsynaptic cell.
b. additional AMPA receptors have been inserted into the postsynaptic cell.
c. there are increased EPSPs in the postsynaptic cell.
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EOC 13.4
Question: You have been driving a manual transmission vehicle for five years and no
longer need to think about what you are doing in order to drive. Your driving in this
example reflects the operation of the brain’s ________ pathway.
a. retinogeniculostriatal
b. transcortical
c. basal ganglia
d. spinothalamic
Answer: C
Consider This: This task is now routine and automatic; LO 13.4: Outline the neural
mechanisms of operant conditioning.
Learning Objective: 13.4: Outline the neural mechanisms of operant conditioning.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOC 13.5
Question: When an individual _________ to receive reinforcement, such as money,
neurons in the VTA are _____________.
a. expects; inactive
b. expects; active
c. does not expect; inactive
d. does not expect; firing at a rate similar to baseline
Answer: B
Consider This: The VTA appears to be involved in learning about reinforcement; LO
13.4: Outline the neural mechanisms of operant conditioning.
Learning Objective: 13.4: Outline the neural mechanisms of operant conditioning.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC 13.6
Question: When looking at pictures of her daughter playing soccer, Martha’s
___________ is active, indicating that Martha has memory of the motions that went along
with the photographs.
a. fusiform gyrus
b. MT/MST
c. posterior parietal cortex
d. inferior temporal cortex
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Answer: B
Consider This: This area plays an essential role in perception of movement; LO 13.7:
Explain the roles of cortical regions in perceptual learning.
Learning Objective: 13.7: Explain the roles of cortical regions in perceptual learning.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOC 13.7
Question: In a delayed matching-to-sample task, participants were shown an image of a
famous landmark and were then asked to choose from various landmarks which one had
been seen previously. In this case, the _______________ was activated in order to choose
the correct landmark.
a. parahippocampal place area
b. fusiform face area
c. inferior temporal cortex
d. posterior parietal cortex
Answer: A
Consider This: This area is in the ventral stream and is involved in recognition of places;
LO 13.8: Contrast the roles of cortical regions in retaining perceptual information in
short-term memory.
Learning Objective: 13.8: Contrast the roles of cortical regions in retaining perceptual
information in short-term memory.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC 13.8
Question: Activation of the fusiform face area is involved in:
a. recognizing a friend’s face.
b. learning a new person’s face and then recognizing it later when you see her again.
c. recognizing a friend’s face and remembering that she is still in the room when not
directly in the visual field.
d. learning a new person’s face, recognizing it later, and remembering that she is still
in the room when not directly in the visual field.
Answer: D
Consider This: The perceptual learning changes are involved in multiple aspects of this
process; LO 13.8: Contrast the roles of cortical regions in retaining perceptual information
in short-term memory.
Learning Objective: 13.8: Contrast the roles of cortical regions in retaining perceptual
information in short-term memory.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOC 13.9
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EOC 13.10
Question: When rats were required to use __________ learning through the use of
landmarks to solve the Morris water maze, they had ___________ neurogenesis in the
dentate gyrus.
a. stimulus-response; more
b. relational; more
c. relational; less
d. perceptual; more
Answer: B
Consider This: Neurogenesis occurred when the hippocampus was required to solve the
task; LO 13.9: Describe the role of the hippocampus in relational learning.
Learning Objective: 13.9: Describe the role of the hippocampus in relational learning.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC 13.11
Question: Lou-Ellen sustained brain damage in a car accident. Since the time of the
accident, she has been unable to learn any new information. She has _____________
amnesia.
a. retrograde
b. anterograde
c. dissociative
d. transient global
Answer: B
Consider This: The patient has “forward moving” amnesia; LO 13.11: Compare the role
of the hippocampus in memory consolidation and retrieval.
Learning Objective: 13.11: Compare the role of the hippocampus in memory
consolidation and retrieval.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOC 13.12
Question: The fact that retrograde amnesia from hippocampal damage usually affects a
limited duration of time rather than an entire childhood suggests:
a. the hippocampus is responsible for all long-term memories.
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b. hippocampal damage affects memory consolidation and older memories are more
likely to have completed that process at the time of damage.
c. the hippocampus is responsible for all short-term and long-term memories.
d. hippocampal damage severs the bridge between old memories and the current
ability to verbalize them.
Answer: B
Consider This: H.M had severe anterograde amnesia and 2 years of retrograde amnesia
after his hippocampus was removed; LO 13.11: Compare the role of the hippocampus in
memory consolidation and retrieval.
Learning Objective: 13.11: Compare the role of the hippocampus in memory
consolidation and retrieval.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC 13.13
Question: Grid, head direction, and border cells are ALL found in the region of the
brain’s:
a. cerebellum.
b. hippocampus.
c. amygdala.
d. thalamus.
Answer: B
Consider This: These cells underlie performance in spatial tasks; LO 13.15: Describe the
role of the hippocampus in relational learning.
Learning Objective: 13.15: Describe the role of the hippocampus in relational learning.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC 13.14
Question: ________________ receptors are unique in that they have a Mg 2+ plug that
prevents calcium ions from entering the cell.
a. AMPA
b. MGluR
c. NMDA
d. Kainate
Answer: C
Consider This: These receptors are involved in LTP; LO 13.17: Compare the relationship
between NMDA and AMPA receptors in LTP.
Learning Objective: 13.17: Compare the relationship between NMDA and AMPA
receptors in LTP.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC 13.15
Question: After long-term potentiation, the strengthening of an individual synapse is
caused by:
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Fill-In 92-97
Fill-In 98-107
Fill-In 108-111
Essay 118-121
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Multiple-Choice Questions
1. To determine the relationship between handedness and speech lateralization while performing
a verbal task, hemispheric dominance can be determined by
2. If a left-handed person who had a stroke had a resulting language impairment, it is most likely
that the ____________ was damaged.
a. left hemisphere
b. right hemisphere
c. corpus callosum
d. left frontal lobe
e. right frontal lobe
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3. When we tell a story and organize the flow of information with specific patterns and
sentences, we are using our ___________ to accomplish this task.
a. left hemisphere
b. right hemisphere
c. corpus callosum
d. left frontal lobe
e. right frontal lobe
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a. electrical stimulation of the left hemisphere has less of an effect on language than
does similar stimulation of the right hemisphere.
b. language problems are more likely to be noted after damage to the left rather than the
right hemisphere.
c. right-handed people are more likely to have their language center located within the
right hemisphere.
d. most language problems are noted after damage to the right rather than the left
hemisphere.
e. the right hemisphere is most active during speech production, listening, and
comprehension.
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8. Damage to the right hemisphere would most likely impair our capacity to
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a. prosody.
b. aural intonation.
c. circumlocution.
d. syntax.
e. grammatical flow.
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11. Damage to the right hemisphere would most likely result in problems in
12. Ingo is telling his friends a story about last year’s holiday gathering, when his grandmother
nearly burned the house down when she attempted to deep-fry a turkey. As he retells this story, it
is likely that Ingo’s _____________ is/are activated.
a. occipital lobe
b. temporal lobes
c. parietal lobe
d. occipital and temporal lobes
e. occipital, temporal, and parietal lobes
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13. The brain regions that allow us to talk about our current or past perceptions are located
14. Aesop’s fable “The Tortoise and the Hare” has a moral that working slowly but steadily can
benefit a person. The ____________ would be primarily involved in the ability to understand
this moral.
a. left hemisphere
b. right hemisphere
c. corpus callosum
d. left frontal lobe
e. right frontal lobe
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15. Making judgments about the meaning of a phrase such as “time flies like the wind, but fruit
flies like bananas” activates the neurons of
16. Wernicke’s area and the association cortex in the left temporal lobe are responsible for
a. comprehension of speech.
b. comprehension of tone.
c. understanding prosody.
d. comprehension of metaphors.
e. understanding emotions.
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18. Meaningful components of speech primarily activate the __________________, and the
prosodic components of speech primarily activate the __________________.
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19. When answering the question as to whether the man or the woman went to the grocery store,
Stanley says, “The man went to the grocery store” with extra emphasis on the word “the.” This
disruption in prosody would most likely be due to damage to the
a. left hemisphere.
b. right hemisphere.
c. left frontal lobe.
d. right frontal lobe.
e. corpus callosum.
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23. Damage to the right hemisphere impairs the production of prosody because
a. Prosopagnosia
b. Broca’s aphasia
c. Phonagnosia
d. Wernicke’s aphasia
e. Visual agnosia
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a. arcuate fasciculus.
b. left posterior cerebral cortex.
c. inferior occipital lobe.
d. dorsal portions of the planum temporale.
e. frontal lobe.
a. understanding speech.
b. spelling simple words.
c. saying content words.
d. producing speech.
e. recognizing the emotional content of speech.
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28. ________ are examples of function words, whereas ________ are examples of content words.
29. A person with Broca’s aphasia would have the most difficulty in
30. A ________ word is important for grammar, whereas ________ words convey meaning.
a. contextual; function
b. function; content
c. content; phonological
d. content; function
e. phonological; function
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31. The hypothesis that aphasia involves structures other than Broca’s area comes from studies in
which
32. Kate Watkins and her colleagues studied language patterns among three generations of a
family and found that _______________ caused severe speech and language disorders.
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34. Damage to the left frontal association cortex, just anterior to the “face” region of the primary
motor cortex, would produce
a. averbia.
b. pure word deafness.
c. difficulty in spelling.
d. Wernicke’s aphasia.
e. Broca’s aphasia.
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37. A difficulty in the use of word order, use of function words, and selection of appropriate
word endings is termed
a. apraxia.
b. anosmia.
c. agrammatism.
d. articulation disorder.
e. anomia.
38. The speech deficit of ________ is a common feature of all forms of aphasia.
a. agrammatism
b. alexia
c. averbia
d. anomia
e. pure word deafness
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39. When Rudy speaks, his speech pattern is stilted and stalled. He pauses for long periods of
time to find the word that he wants to use, sometimes generating nothing. Which language
disruption is Rudy exhibiting?
a. agrammatism
b. anomia
c. articulation difficulties
d. anosmia
e. aguesia
40. Carefully mapping the lesions of patients with and without apraxia of speech identified that
difficulty of speech articulation involves damage to the
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41. Damage to the left precentral gyrus of the insula would be expected to result in
42. Imaging studies indicate that word pronunciation induces activation of the
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43. Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) of the ________ caused research participants to
________.
44. The tip-of-the-tongue (TOT) phenomenon is most likely to occur in a person with reduced
volume of
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45. A person with Broca’s aphasia would be less likely to use which word?
a. right
b. quickly
c. about
d. apple
e. drove
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a. Broca’s aphasia
b. ortho-apraxia
c. alexia
d. Wernicke’s aphasia
e. dysgraphia
a. understand speech.
b. read lips.
c. speak.
d. understand nonspeech sounds.
e. hear.
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a. hippocampus; averbia
b. right temporal lobe; pure word deafness
c. amygdala; alexia
d. left temporal lobe; pure word deafness
e. hippocampus; alexia
52. The area of the brain posited to contain the memories of the sequences of sounds that
constitute words is
a. Broca’s area.
b. the transcortical area.
c. Wernicke’s area.
d. the auditory association area.
e. the arcuate fasciculus.
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53. Speech ________ is facilitated by mirror neurons that are activated by the sounds of words.
a. articulation
b. comprehension
c. prosody
d. production
e. grammar
54. “I can hear you talking, I just can’t understand what you’re saying.” This statement was
likely made by someone who has
a. Wernicke’s aphasia.
b. anomia.
c. transcortical sensory aphasia.
d. pure word deafness.
e. damage to the right insular cortex.
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a. Broca’s area.
b. Wernicke’s area.
c. the primary auditory cortex.
d. the posterior language area.
e. the prefrontal cortex.
56. An ability that is retained among people with transcortical sensory aphasia is the capacity to
a. understand speech.
b. repeat back words heard from others.
c. produce one’s own spontaneous speech.
d. answer questions.
e. follow verbal commands.
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57. Consider this exchange between a hospital intern and an admitted patient:
a. Wernicke’s aphasia
b. anomia
c. transcortical sensory aphasia
d. pure word deafness
e. damage to the right insular cortex.
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59. The anecdotal case of speech deficits induced in a woman by carbon monoxide poisoning
from a faulty water heater suggests that
a. the right hemisphere can take over language function after damage to the left
hemisphere.
b. she could understand speech but was not able to repeat words.
c. speech comprehension and speech recognition involve different circuits.
d. the left hemisphere can take over language function after damage to the right
hemisphere.
e. speech comprehension and speech recognition share a common circuit.
60. One way to think about Wernicke’s aphasia is that this syndrome is
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61. One way to think about transcortical aphasia is that this syndrome is
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64. The ________ forms a direct neural connection between Broca’s area and Wernicke’s area.
a. corpus callosum
b. anterior commissure
c. fornix
d. stria terminalis
e. arcuate fasciculus
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65. A person who is able to repeat “automobile” and “passenger train” but is unable to repeat
“sompninge” and “frungbyl” likely has which deficit?
a. conduction aphasia
b. anomia
c. transcortical sensory aphasia
d. pure word deafness
e. Broca’s aphasia
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67. A person who sustains damage to the ________ will be unable to ________.
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69. Studies of patients with conduction aphasia have led to which conclusion about the neural
control of language?
70. Damage to the direct pathway between ________ and Broca’s area conveys information about
________.
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a. speech comprehension.
b. producing fluent speech.
c. repeating words.
d. choosing the correct words to express an idea.
e. repeating nonwords.
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73. Which sequence correctly represents the flow of information for speech comprehension?
a. Wernicke’s area –> posterior language area –> sensory and motor association cortex
b. posterior language area –> sensory memory cortex
c. sensory and motor association cortex –> posterior language area –> Broca’s area
d. sensory memory cortex –> Broca’s area
e. Broca’s area –> sensory motor cortex
74. Which sequence correctly represents the flow of information for speech production?
a. Wernicke’s area –> posterior language area –> sensory and motor association cortex
b. posterior language area –> sensory memory cortex
c. sensory and motor association cortex –> posterior language area –> Broca’s area
d. sensory memory cortex –> Broca’s area
e. Broca’s area –> sensory motor cortex
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75. ________ is activated when a person observes or imitates the finger movements of another
person.
a. Wernicke’s area
b. The arcuate fasciculus
c. Broca’s area
d. The anterior cingulated cortex
e. The primary motor cortex
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77. As Maria, who is deaf, watches an interpreter translate speech into ASL, Maria’s
____________ becomes activated.
a. Wernicke’s area
b. the arcuate fasciculus
c. Broca’s area
d. the posterior language area
e. the transcortical area
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79. People who stutter have been found to have __________ of Broca’s area and ____________
of auditory regions of the temporal lobe.
a. overactivation; underactivation
b. underactivation; overactivation
c. overactivation; overactivation
d. underactivation; underactivation
e. no activation; overactivation
80. When it comes to repeating words, individuals with ____________ will perform the best.
a. conduction aphasia
b. Wernicke’s aphasia
c. pure word deafness
d. transcortical sensory aphasia
e. Broca’s aphasia
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81. When it comes to comprehending speech, a patient with ___________ would perform the
best.
a. conduction aphasia
b. Wernicke’s aphasia
c. pure word deafness
d. transcortical sensory aphasia
e. Broca’s aphasia
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a. difficulties in spelling.
b. the inability to visually perceive words.
c. word deafness.
d. the inability to write.
e. pure word blindness.
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85. Pure alexia is produced by damage to pathways that carry ________ information to ________.
a. word blindness.
b. poor penmanship.
c. an inability to communicate via sign language.
d. faulty reading.
e. a speech impediment.
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a. reading aloud.
b. in silent reading.
c. reading unfamiliar words.
d. reading for comprehension.
e. in using whole word reading, but can sound out familiar words.
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a. dysgraphia.
b. dystypia.
c. orthographia.
d. dyslexia.
e. alexia.
Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
92. The circuits involved in language comprehension and production are primarily located in the
__________ hemisphere.
93. The vast majority of the population shows ________-hemisphere dominance for speech.
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95. ________ involves those aspects of speech (such as tone of voice) that communicate emotion.
97. ________ refers to a syndrome in which a person cannot recognize a familiar voice.
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98. ________, a deficit characterized by slow, nonfluent speech, involves damage localized
within the frontal lobe.
99. A function word is important for grammar, whereas ________ words convey meaning.
100. A difficulty in the use of word order, use of function words, and selection of appropriate
word endings is termed ________.
101. The speech deficit of ________ is a common feature of all forms of aphasia.
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102. _______ involves an impairment of the ability to program tongue, lip, and throat
movements to produce speech sounds.
103. ________ involves a difficulty in choosing the right words to express an idea.
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106. ________ aphasia can be thought of as Wernicke’s aphasia without the characteristics that
define pure word deafness.
109. ________ would help a person to figure out words that have never been encountered before.
110. A person who has difficulty in sounding out a word would suffer from ________ dyslexia.
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Learning Objective: 14.12 Describe the biological basis of acquired and developmental dyslexia.
Answer: phonological
APA Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in
psychology.
Essay Questions
112. What sources of information have formed the basis of our understanding of the physiology
of language?
113. Explain why verbal behavior is considered to be lateralized within the brain.
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114. Define the elements of prosody and provide evidence that suggests that prosody is a
function of the right hemisphere.
115. Define aphasia and explain why anomia is a key symptom of all forms of aphasia.
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116. Contrast the symptoms noted in Broca’s aphasia and Wernicke’s aphasia.
117. Describe the symptoms of pure word deafness and transcortical sensory aphasia. How are
they related to Wernicke’s aphasia?
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118. Define what is meant by pure alexia and explain how this syndrome relates to pure word
deafness.
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121. Compare the difficulties in writing that appear in persons with phonological dysgraphia
versus orthographic dysgraphia.
Revel Quizzes
The following questions appear at the end of each module and at the end of the chapter in Revel
for Physiology of Behavior, 13th Edition.
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EOM Q14.1.2
Question: If a left-handed individual has a stroke that results in language impairment, it is
MOST likely that the _____________ was damaged in the incident.
a. left hemisphere
b. right hemisphere
c. left frontal lobe
d. right frontal lobe
Answer: A
Consider This: Handedness does not seem to dictate lateralization of language; LO 14.1 Contrast
language-related functions of the left and right hemispheres.
Learning Objective: 14.1 Contrast language-related functions of the left and right hemispheres.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM Q14.1.3
Question: The right superior ______ lobe(s) contribute(s) critically to our understanding of
novel metaphors.
a. occipital
b. temporal
c. parietal
d. occipital, temporal, and parietal
Answer: D
Consider This: Recall the results of the studies using metaphors like “green lung of the city” and
“conscience storm”; LO 14.2: Identify brain regions involved in language production and
comprehension.
Learning Objective: 14.2: Identify brain regions involved in language production and
comprehension.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Understand the Facts
EOM Q14.1.4
Question: Aesop’s “The Tortoise and the Hare” suggests that working slowly but steadily can
benefit the individual. The ________________ is involved in the ability to understand this
moral.
a. left hemisphere
b. right hemisphere
c. left frontal lobe
d. right frontal lobe
Answer: B
Consider This: The ability to understand the words and the message are separate in the brain; LO
14.2: Identify brain regions involved in language production and comprehension.
Learning Objective: 14.2: Identify brain regions involved in language production and
comprehension.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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EOM Q14.1.5
Question: Meaningful components of speech primarily activate the __________________
hemisphere, whereas the prosodic components primarily activate the __________________
hemisphere.
a. left; right
b. right; left
c. right; right
d. left; left
Answer: A
Consider This: The ability to understand the meaning of the words and the inflection of the words
are separate in the brain; LO 14.4: Identify brain structures and functions involved in prosody.
Learning Objective: 14.4: Identify brain structures and functions involved in prosody.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
EOM Q14.2.2
Question: When Thomas speaks, his speech pattern is lilting and stalled. He pauses for long
periods of time to find the word that he wants to use, sometimes coming up empty. Thomas
displays symptoms of:
a. agrammatism.
b. anomia.
c. articulation difficulties.
d. anosmia.
Answer: B
Consider This: This is a primary symptom of all forms of aphasia; LO 14.6: Describe the
symptoms and biological basis of Broca’s aphasia.
Learning Objective: 14.6: Describe the symptoms and biological basis of Broca’s aphasia.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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EOM Q14.2.3
Question: “I can hear you talking, I just can’t understand what you’re saying.” This statement
was MOST likely made by someone who has:
a. Wernicke’s aphasia.
b. anomia,
c. transcortical sensory aphasia.
d. pure word deafness.
Answer: D
Consider This: These individuals perceive speech but cannot understand the words; LO 14.7:
Describe the symptoms and biological basis of Wernicke’s aphasia.
Learning Objective: 14.7: Describe the symptoms and biological basis of Wernicke’s aphasia.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM Q14.2.4
Question: The arcuate fasciculus is the connection between:
a. Wernicke’s area and the posterior language area.
b. posterior language area and Broca’s area.
c. superior temporal cortex and Broca’s area.
d. Wernicke’s area and Broca’s area.
Answer: D
Consider This: Damage to the arcuate fasciculus results in the inability to repeat unfamiliar
words; LO 14.8: Describe the symptoms and biological basis of conduction aphasia.
Learning Objective: 14.8: Describe the symptoms and biological basis of conduction aphasia.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q14.2.5
Question: A functional-imaging study found that _________ was activated when people
observed and imitated finger movements.
a. Wernicke’s area
b. the arcuate fasciculus
c. Broca’s area
d. the posterior language area
Answer: C
Consider This: Located in the frontal lobe; LO 14.9: Describe the symptoms and biological basis
of aphasia in people who are deaf.
Learning Objective: 14.9: Describe the symptoms and biological basis of aphasia in people who
are deaf.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOM Q14.3.2
Question: In a case of “sign blindness,” a woman is able to sign coherently in ASL but is now
unable to comprehend the signs from someone else. In this instance, the woman suffers from a
deficit similar to:
a. pure alexia.
b. transcortical sensory aphasia.
c. Broca’s aphasia.
d. Wernicke’s aphasia.
Answer: A
Consider This: This would be similar to pure word blindness; LO 14.11: Identify the symptoms
and biological basis of pure alexia.
Learning Objective: 14.11: Identify the symptoms and biological basis of pure alexia.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM Q14.3.3
Question: Individuals with surface dyslexia have an impairment of _____ reading.
a. whole-word
b. phonetic
c. meaning
d. experiential
Answer: A
Consider This: Individuals with this deficit have no issue reading pronounceable nonwords; LO
14.12: Describe the biological basis of acquired and developmental dyslexia.
Learning Objective: 14.12: Describe the biological basis of acquired and developmental
dyslexia.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOM Q14.3.4
Question: Individuals with phonological dyslexia have an impairment of _______________
reading.
a. whole-word
b. phonetic
c. meaning
d. experiential
Answer: B
Consider This: Individuals with this deficit have no issue reading words they are familiar with;
LO 14.12: Describe the biological basis of acquired and developmental dyslexia.
Learning Objective: 14.12: Describe the biological basis of acquired and developmental
dyslexia.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q14.3.5
Question: ______ is to dyslexia as ______ is to dysgraphia.
a. Writing; speaking
b. Speaking; spelling
c. Reading; writing
d. Writing; reading
Answer: C
Consider This: Dystypia and dystextia are specific forms of dysgraphia; LO 14.13: Explain the
biological basis of phonological and orthographic dysgraphia.
Learning Objective: 14.13 Explain the biological basis of phonological and orthographic
dysgraphia.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Skill Level: Analyze It
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EOC Q14.2
Question: When we tell a story and construct sentences with specific word order patterns, we
use our _______________ to accomplish the task.
a. left hemisphere
b. right hemisphere
c. left frontal lobe
d. right frontal lobe
Answer: B
Consider This: Which part of the brain is more responsible for sequencing? LO 14.1: Contrast
language-related functions of the left and right hemispheres.
Learning Objective: 14.1: Contrast language-related functions of the left and right hemispheres.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOC Q14.3
Question: Wernicke’s area and the association cortex in the left temporal lobe are responsible
for:
a. comprehension of speech.
b. comprehension of tone.
c. understanding prosody.
d. comprehension of metaphors.
Answer: A
Consider This: Those with this type of aphasia are unable to understand that they are not
speaking meaningfully; LO 14.2: Identify brain regions involved in language production and
comprehension.
Learning Objective: 14.2: Identify brain regions involved in language production and
comprehension.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q14.4
Question: Imaging studies have shown that the density of the_________________ cortex among
bilingual individuals is higher than that among monolingual individuals.
a. right parietal
b. left parietal
c. right frontal
d. left frontal
Answer: B
Consider This: This area of the brain deals with bodily sensations in addition to this aspect of
language; LO 14.3: Compare common and language-specific brain regions for bilingual language
processing.
Learning Objective: 14.3: Compare common and language-specific brain regions for bilingual
language processing.
Difficulty: Moderate
Skill: Understand the Concepts
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EOC Q14.5
Question: When answering a question as to whether a man or a woman went to the grocery
store, Stanley says, “The man went to the grocery store” with extra emphasis on the word “the.”
This disruption in prosody is due to damage to the:
a. left hemisphere.
b. right hemisphere.
c. left frontal lobe.
d. right frontal lobe.
Answer: B
Consider This: This area of the brain is also responsible for word order and sequencing; LO 14.4:
Identify brain structures and functions involved in prosody.
Learning Objective: 14.4: Identify brain structures and functions involved in prosody.
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOC Q14.6
Question: Lucio has Broca’s aphasia. Often, it seems as if Lucio is looking for a word he cannot
find. In these instances, Lucio will utter phrases such as “um . . . er . . . em . . .” and look as if
he is concentrating intensely. Lucio’s example BEST illustrates:
a. apraxia of speech.
b. anomia.
c. agrammatism.
d. pure alexia.
Answer: B
Consider This: Words can be thought of as the names for things. LO 14.6: Describe the
symptoms and biological basis of Broca’s aphasia.
Learning Objective: 14.6: Describe the symptoms and biological basis of Broca’s aphasia.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOC Q14.7
Question: In the brain, _____ area is posited to contain the memories of the sequences of sounds
that constitute words.
a. Broca’s
b. the transcortical
c. Wernicke’s
d. the auditory association
Answer: C
Consider This: Individuals with this deficit have difficulty with comprehension of language; LO
14.7: Describe the symptoms and biological basis of Wernicke’s aphasia.
Learning Objective: 14.7: Describe the symptoms and biological basis of Wernicke’s aphasia.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOC Q14.8
Question: Observer: Can you lick your lips?
Patient: Can you lick your lips? Lick, like, fahkt.
Observer: Don’t repeat what I say, do what I’m asking. Can you lick your lips?
The patient likely has which deficit?
a. Wernicke’s aphasia
b. anomia
c. transcortical sensory aphasia
d. pure word deafness
Answer: C
Consider This: This deficit is caused by damage to the posterior language area; LO 14.7:
Describe the symptoms and biological basis of Wernicke’s aphasia.
Learning Objective: 14.7: Describe the symptoms and biological basis of Wernicke’s aphasia.
Skill: Apply What You Know
Difficulty: Difficult
Objective: 14.7: Describe the symptoms and biological basis of Wernicke’s aphasia.
EOC Q14.9
Question: A person who is able to repeat “automobile” and “passenger train” but unable to
repeat “synagull” and “chopinhos” likely has which deficit?
a. conduction aphasia
b. anomia
c. transcortical sensory aphasia
d. pure word deafness
Answer: A
Consider This: This deficit is caused by a damaged arcuate fasciculus; LO 14.8: Describe the
symptoms and biological basis of conduction aphasia.
Learning Objective: 14.8: Describe the symptoms and biological basis of conduction aphasia.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOC Q14.10
Question: Individuals who stutter have been found to have __________ of Broca’s area and
______________ of auditory regions of the temporal lobe.
a. overactivation; underactivation
b. underactivation; overactivation
c. overactivation; overactivation
d. underactivation; underactivation
Answer: A
Consider This: Stuttering is caused by issues with planning and initiation of speech and seems to
involve faulty auditory feedback; LO 14.10: Describe the biological basis of and treatment
strategies for stuttering.
Learning Objective: 14.10: Describe the biological basis of and treatment strategies for
stuttering.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
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EOC Q14.11
Question: When it comes to repeating words, individuals with ____________ will perform the
BEST.
a. conduction aphasia
b. Wernicke’s aphasia
c. pure word deafness
d. transcortical sensory aphasia
Answer: D
Consider This: This deficit is caused by damage to the posterior language area; LO 14.10:
Describe the biological basis of and treatment strategies for stuttering.
Learning Objective: 14.10: Describe the biological basis of and treatment strategies for
stuttering.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q14.12
Question: A patient with ___________ would perform the BEST at comprehending speech.
a. conduction aphasia
b. transcortical sensory aphasia
c. Wernicke’s aphasia
d. pure word deafness
Answer: A
Consider This: This deficit is caused by a damaged arcuate fasciculus; LO 14.10: Describe the
biological basis of and treatment strategies for stuttering.
Learning Objective: 14.10: Describe the biological basis of and treatment strategies for
stuttering.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q14.13
Question: Pure alexia demonstrates:
a. reading and writing are so intertwined that one cannot exist without the other.
b. reading and writing are controlled by different brain areas.
c. deficits of reading only apply to writing by others, not the self.
d. deficits of writing only affect printing, not cursive writing.
Answer: B
Consider This: This deficit is also referred to as pure word blindness; LO 14.11: Identify the
symptoms and biological basis of pure alexia.
Learning Objective: 14.11: Identify the symptoms and biological basis of pure alexia.
Skill: Analyze It
Difficulty: Moderate
Objective: 14.11: Identify the symptoms and biological basis of pure alexia.
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EOC Q14.14
Question: Patients with ______________ are able to read aloud even though they cannot
understand the words they are saying.
a. surface dyslexia
b. pure alexia
c. direct dyslexia
d. phonological dyslexia
Answer: C
Consider This: This deficit resembles transcortical sensory aphasia, except that the words in
question are written, not spoken; LO 14.12: Describe the biological basis of acquired and
developmental dyslexia.
Learning Objective: 14.12: Describe the biological basis of acquired and developmental
dyslexia.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q14.15
Question: Most studies that investigate the nature of impairments in developmental dyslexia
demonstrate that ____________ impairments are MOST common.
a. auditory
b. motor
c. visual
d. phonological
Answer: D
Consider This: The ability to process the sounds of language seems to be at the root of dyslexia;
LO 14.12: Describe the biological basis of acquired and developmental dyslexia.
Learning Objective: 14.12: Describe the biological basis of acquired and developmental
dyslexia.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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Development of the Multiple Choice 1-9, 13, 14, 16- 10-12, 15, 19, 25, 32, 33, 35
Nervous System 18, 20-24, 26, 27-29, 31, 34, 38,
30, 36, 37, 39, 41-44
40
Fill-In 96-102
Essay 117 116
Disorders of Multiple Choice 45-47, 49-54, 48, 63-66, 74 55, 56
Development 57-62, 67-73,
75, 76
Fill-In 103-109
Essay 119 118
Autism Spectrum Multiple Choice 77-80,85 81,82,84,86 83
Disorder Fill-In 110-113
Essay 120
Attention- Multiple Choice 88,90,94,95 87,89,91 92,93
Deficit/Hyperactivity Fill-In 114-115
Disorder Essay 121
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Multiple-Choice Questions
1. The human nervous system begins to develop approximately _____ days after conception.
a. 7
b. 10
c. 18
d. 21
e. 28
2. Which term is used to describe the outer layer of the back of a developing human embryo?
a. neural tube
b. endoderm
c. mesoderm
d. ectoderm
e. telencephalon
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3. Between 18 and 21 days after conception, ridges along the ectoderm plate fuse to form
which structure?
a. endoderm
b. neural tube
c. ventricles
d. spinal cord
e. mesoderm
4. During the course of prenatal development, the neural tube will eventually form the
a. brain
b. heart and lungs
c. spinal cord
d. heart
e. brain and spinal cord
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5. The rostral end of the neural tube at 28 days will eventually form three interconnected
channels known as the
a. telencephalon.
b. cerebral cortex.
c. mesencephalon.
d. myelencephalon.
e. ventricles.
6. During prenatal development, the tissues that surround the three interconnected chambers
of the neural tube eventually develop into
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a. telencephalon
b. diencephalon
c. mesencephalon
d. myelencephalon
e. metencephalon
8. What name is given to the region of tissue that develops around the third ventricle?
a. telencephalon
b. diencephalon
c. mesencephalon
d. myelencephalon
e. metencephalon
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a. telencephalon.
b. diencephalon.
c. mesencephalon.
d. myelencephalon.
e. metencephalon.
a. Regions that form the spinal cord and future ganglia of the autonomic nervous
system are present.
b. The neural fold has just begun to form at the 24-day mark.
c. Identifiable structures in the brain, such as the amygdala and hippocampus, have
already formed.
d. The ectoderm begins to thicken.
e. The neural crest has just emerged from the embryonic ridge.
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13. Stem cells that give rise to the cells of the brain are known as
a. ectoderm.
b. progenitor cells.
c. neurons.
d. pia mater.
e. origin cells.
14. The _______ is the origin of the cells that form the central nervous system.
a. basal plate
b. ventricular zone
c. cerebral cortex
d. mesoderm
e. arachnoid layer
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15. How does symmetrical division differ from asymmetrical division during the process of
prenatal development of the cerebral cortex?
16. ___________ allow(s) newly formed neurons to migrate from the ventricular zone to
their final locations.
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a. 1 week
b. 3 weeks
c. 1 month
d. 3 months
e. 6 months
18. Approximately __________ neurons migrate along radial glial fibers on any given day
during prenatal development of the cerebral cortex.
a. 4 million
b. 500 million
c. 1 billion
d. 12 billion
e. 50 billion
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a. radial glia.
b. dendrites.
c. growth cones.
d. terminal buttons.
e. astrocytes.
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21. After apoptosis has taken place, radial glial cells involved in new neuron formation are
transformed into
a. progenitor cells.
b. oligodendroglia.
c. microglial cells.
d. visual sensory neurons.
e. astrocytes.
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24. Human brains are about three times larger than chimpanzee brains when corrected for
a. birth order.
b. age.
c. body size.
d. number of nerve cells.
e. gender.
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26. The human brain contains __________ any other large animal, when corrected for body
size.
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29. What benefit results from having a convoluted surface of the brain?
30. For approximately how long does the human brain continue to develop after birth?
a. 5 years
b. 10 years
c. 20 years
d. 40 years
e. 60 years
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31. Which line of evidence best supports the observation that brain development can be
modified by experiences?
a. The motor cortex of a blind person is enlarged relative to that of a sighted person.
b. The somatosensory cortex in the cortical regions devoted to control of the fingers
is smaller in expert guitar players relative to novice players.
c. The visual cortex is larger in blind persons.
d. Apoptosis trims the number of dendritic branches in the brain.
e. The development of the neural circuits for depth perception requires input from
both eyes during a critical period.
32. If a cat is raised in an environment consisting solely of vertical lines, its brain will
develop without the capacity to process horizontal lines. This development illustrates the
role of __________ in postnatal development.
a. genetics
b. individuation
c. experience
d. mutagenesis
e. neurogenesis
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33. Manolo was born with crossed eyes that were eventually corrected when he was 12 years
old. Manolo’s __________ was likely to be affected before the correction, and his
__________ is likely to be impaired after the correction.
a. myelination
b. synapse formation
c. neural tube development
d. neural migration
e. neural proliferation
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35. Jethro has been playing the guitar since he was a child. We’d expect his cortical region
associated with __________ to be __________ compared to non-guitar players.
a. broad apoptosis
b. synapse formation
c. neural migration
d. myelination
e. neural tube development
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37. Which aspect of brain development tends to subside around the time of adolescence?
a. broad apoptosis
b. synapse formation
c. neural migration
d. myelination
e. neural tube development
38. Rockne is showing signs of asymmetric division in his brain development. Rockne is
most likely to be
a. in the uterus.
b. 2 years old
c. 7 years old
d. 12 years old
e. 43 years old
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a. apoptosis
b. neurogenesis
c. mitogenesis
d. mutagenesis
e. killer gene activation
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42. Based on our current understanding of neurogenesis, what conclusion can correctly be
reached?
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43. Different regions of the cerebral cortex perform specialized functions, and these
functions can be expressed and enhanced postnatally. What factors control this pattern of
development?
44. How does exposure to new odors affect the olfactory bulb?
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45. A chemical or toxin that detrimentally impacts the development of an embryo is called
a(n)
a. detractor.
b. teratogen.
c. emulsifier.
d. prenatal influencer.
e. embryogen.
46. Brain development in a fetus whose mother is infected by rubella (German measles)
early in her pregnancy is impaired because the rubella virus
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47. The Zika virus is a relatively new threat to fetal development, yet researchers already
have identified that __________ can occur as a result of prenatal exposure.
a. deafness
b. seal limb
c. blindness
d. microcephaly
e. club foot
48. A diagnostic indicator that a child born to a mother who consumed alcohol during the
pregnancy suffers from fetal alcohol syndrome involves
a. brain swelling.
b. an immature immune system.
c. abnormal facial development.
d. deficient muscle development.
e. an enlarged skull in the affected infant.
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51. Maternal consumption of alcohol can be especially harmful to the developing embryo
during the __________ of pregnancy.
52. A primary pathway through which alcohol disrupts normal prenatal brain development is
by interfering with
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a. synaptic pruning.
b. inherited mutations in the synthesis of some enzymes.
c. neurofibrillary tangles.
d. fetal alcohol syndrome.
e. neurogenesis.
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a. albinism.
b. porphyria.
c. phenylketonuria.
d. fetal alcohol syndrome.
e. Gaucher disease.
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55. Lisle has phenylketonuria. Which statement about his condition would be most accurate?
a. Lisle must be on a restricted diet low in phenylalanine for the remainder of his
life.
b. Phenylalanine in Lisle’s diet helps to myelinate axons.
c. Lisle can introduce phenylalanine into his diet as an adult.
d. Phenylketonuria results from a missing protein.
e. He will need a complete blood transfusion every seven years.
a. the mother must follow a strict diet to safeguard her own brain, but the fetus will
be unaffected.
b. the mother must follow a strict diet for the brain development of herself and for
the fetus.
c. the mother must follow a strict diet for the fetus to be unaffected, but eating
phenylalanine will not likely affect her.
d. the pregnancy will not go to term.
e. neurofibrillary tangles will develop at about 4 years of age.
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57. What is the primary deficit for a child if phenylketonuria is left untreated?
a. blindness
b. impaired memory formation in the hippocampus
c. paralysis
d. progressive hearing loss
e. severe intellectual disability
58. Untreated ___________ results in damage to cerebral white matter, the thalamus, and the
cerebellum.
a. pyridoxine dependency
b. Down syndrome
c. galactosemia
d. phenylketonuria
e. Tay-Sachs disease
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a. Parkinson’s disease
b. Tay-Sachs disease
c. Phenylketonuria
d. Pyridoxine dependency
e. Huntington’s chorea
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a. Italians.
b. children of Eastern European Jewish descent.
c. adults who have unsuccessfully been treated for phenylketonuria.
d. adults who were not vaccinated against polio as children.
e. children of Nordic descent.
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69. Compared to the others, which expectant mother statistically has the greatest risk of
delivering a baby with Down syndrome?
a. Connie, age 15
b. Zhenya, age 19
c. Luisa, age 24
d. Violet, age 30
e. Sara, age 42
a. 1726
b. 1745
c. 1866
d. 1882
e. 1901
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71. What is the approximate frequency of Down syndrome births in the United States?
a. 1 in 300
b. 1 in 700
c. 1 in 1,000
d. 1 in 4,000
e. 1 in 10,000
72. The __________ of a person with Down syndrome are typically smaller compared to
someone without Down syndrome.
a. frontal lobes
b. occipital lobes
c. amygdala
d. pareital lobes
e. temporal lobes
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73. As a person with Down syndrome begins to age, her or his brain starts to resemble that of
someone with
a. Parkinson’s disease.
b. Tay-Sachs disease.
c. multiple sclerosis.
d. Alzheimer’s disease.
e. Huntington’s disease.
74. Mouse models of Down syndrome suggest that __________ of ____________ may
impair hippocampal synaptic plasticity and associated learning and memory.
a. overactivity; glutamate
b. overactivity; GABA
c. underactivity; glutamate
d. underactivity; GABA
e. overactivity; dopamine
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a. The brains of Down syndrome people are approximately 10 percent lighter than
those of other people.
b. A person with Down syndrome may be exceptionally talented in a particular area
in spite of pervasive intellectual impairment.
c. People with Down syndrome have no distinguishing physical characteristics.
d. People with Down syndrome often fail to learn to talk.
e. The incidence of Down syndrome is 1 in 1,000 in the United States.
76. The brain of a person with Down syndrome would be expected to differ from that of the
brain of a typically developing person in that
a. the superior temporal gyrus is larger in the left hemisphere of the Down
syndrome brain.
b. the frontal lobes are larger in the Down syndrome brain.
c. the Down syndrome brain is 10 percent heavier than the normal brain.
d. the Down syndrome brain has simpler and smaller gyri and sulci.
e. the superior temporal gyrus is larger in the right hemisphere of the Down
syndrome brain.
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77. Prevalence of autism spectrum disorders is approximately _______ in the United States
and in other countries.
a. 1 percent
b. 2 percent
c. 3 percent
d. 5 percent
e. 8 percent
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79. _______ is a genetic neurological syndrome present only in girls, and shares some
features with autism spectrum disorder.
a. Tay-Sachs disease
b. Asperger syndrome
c. Guzik’s disease
d. Rett syndrome
e. Cronenburg’s syndrome
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81. Which observation provides the strongest support for a genetic influence on autism
spectrum disorder?
a. The concordance rate for autism spectrum disorder is 70–90 percent in dizygotic
twins and 0 percent in monozygotic twins.
b. The concordance rate for autism is 5–10 percent in dizygotic twins and 70–90
percent in monozygotic twins.
c. Siblings of children with autism spectrum disorder are less likely to develop
autism than are children in the general population.
d. Parents of children with autism spectrum disorder are usually themselves
diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder.
e. Autism spectrum disorder is effectively treated using serotonin agonist drugs.
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83. A novel treatment for addressing some of the social deficits associated with autism
spectrum disorder involves
a. behavior therapy.
b. antidepressant drugs.
c. benzodiazepine agonists.
d. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
e. administration of the hormone oxytocin.
84. The relatively poor ability of people with autism spectrum disorder to understand the
emotional facial expressions of other persons is likely due to
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86. The social deficits that individuals with autism spectrum disorder experience suggests
____________ activation of the ______________.
a. decreased; amygdala
b. decreased; fusiform face area
c. increased; amygdala
d. increased; fusiform face area
e. increased; thalamus
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89. Assume that the delay of reinforcement gradient is steeper in children with attention-
deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Which statement best explains the symptoms of
ADHD?
a. administration of methylphenidate.
b. administration of cocaine.
c. administration of Prozac.
d. ablation of the cingulum bundle.
e. drugs that are dopamine antagonists.
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93. The symptoms of ADHD, such as impulsivity and poor planning, resemble those noted
after damage to the
a. substantia nigra.
b. caudate nucleus.
c. nucleus accumbens.
d. central amygdala.
e. prefrontal cortex.
94. Methylphenidates stimulate release of dopamine and ________ in the prefrontal cortex to
ameliorate the symptoms of ADHD.
a. glycine
b. norepinephrine
c. acetylcholine
d. serotonin
e. GABA
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Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
97. The ridges of the ectoderm fuse together to form the neural tube by the __________ day
after conception.
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98. The adult human brain weighs approximately _________ grams, or about 3 pounds.
99. __________ cell division occurs when a progenitor cell produces two new progenitor
cells.
101. During the first phase of development, progenitor cells in the ____________, located
just outside the wall of the neural tube, divide, making new progenitor cells.
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102. In the context of pregnancy, rubella, alcohol, Zika virus, radiation, and cocaine are all
examples of __________, due to their effects on the developing fetus.
104. ________ is caused by an inherited lack of an enzyme that helps convert an amino acid
into tyrosine.
105. _____________ is an inherited metabolic disorder that, left untreated, affects cerebral
white matter, the thalamus, and the cerebellum.
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109. The likelihood of a chromosomal error resulting in Down syndrome increases in women
over the age of __________.
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110. Children with autism spectrum disorder may exhibit _________, such as flapping a
hand or rocking back and forth.
111. The concordance rate for autism spectrum disorder is especially high among
__________ twins.
112. Children with autism spectrum disorder may have difficulty in interpreting the ________
of another person because of diminished function within their fusiform facial area.
113. By four years of age, the ____________ is larger in children with autism spectrum
disorder, although it is the same size as typically developing people in adulthood.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
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Essay Questions
116. Describe the cell division processes that produce cortical neurons during embryonic
development.
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117. Explain the significance of the process of apoptosis for brain development.
118. Explain the deficits that result if phenylketonuria (PKU), pyridoxine dependency,
galactosemia, and Tay-Sachs disease are left untreated.
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120. Describe the symptoms that comprise autism spectrum disorder and assess the potential
for treatment of this disorder.
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121. Explain how sensitivity to delay of reward may offer an explanation for attention-
deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).
Revel Quizzes
The following questions appear at the end of each module and at the end of the chapter in
Revel for Physiology of Behavior, 13th Edition.
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EOM Q15.1.2
Question: ______________ allow newly formed neurons to migrate from the ventricular
zone to their final resting place.
a. Progenitor cells
b. Stem cells
c. Radial glia
d. Astrocytes
Answer: C
Consider This: Migrating neurons need a path by which to migrate; LO 15.2: Explain how
prenatal development contributes to the development of complex human brains.
Learning Objective: 15.2: Explain how prenatal development contributes to complex human
brains.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q15.1.3
Question: Seven weeks after conception, a period of symmetrical division takes place
during the prenatal development of the nervous system. During this period,
_______________ are produced.
a. two new progenitor cells
b. a progenitor cell and a brain cell
c. three new progenitor cells
d. two progenitor cells and a brain cell
Answer: A
Consider This: Symmetrical means “exactly similar parts”; LO 15.2: Explain how prenatal
development contributes to the development of complex human brains.
Learning Objective: 15.2: Explain how prenatal development contributes to complex human
brains.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q15.1.4
Question: The human brain continues developing until:
a. shortly after birth.
b. early childhood.
c. the beginning of puberty.
d. early adulthood, at least.
Answer: D
Consider This: Recall what we have learned about neurogenesis in the hippocampus; LO
15.3: Provide examples of how genetic change, personal experience, and neurogenesis can
influence postnatal brain development.
Learning Objective: 15.3: Provide examples of how genetic change, personal experience,
and neurogenesis can influence postnatal brain development.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM Q15.1.5
Question: If a cat is raised in an environment consisting of vertical lines, its brain will
develop without the ability to process horizontal lines. This development shows the role of
____________ in postnatal brain development.
a. experience
b. individuation
c. genetics
d. neurogenesis
Answer: A
Consider This: These changes would only occur based on what the animal has witnessed
since birth; LO 15.3: Provide examples of how genetic change, personal experience, and
neurogenesis can influence postnatal brain development.
Learning Objective: 15.3: Provide examples of how genetic change, personal experience,
and neurogenesis can influence postnatal brain development
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
Difficulty Level: Moderate
EOM Q15.2.2
Question: Which statement is MOST accurate regarding the effects of alcohol on nervous
system development.
a. Fetal alcohol syndrome only occurs with repeated drinking binges.
b. Fetal alcohol syndrome results in impaired brain development.
c. Alcohol causes ectopic pregnancies.
d. Babies with fetal alcohol syndrome are typically born early.
Answer: B
Consider This: Brains of individuals with FAS have experienced excessive apoptosis; LO
15.4: Describe the effects of alcohol on nervous system development.
Learning Objective: 15.4: Describe the effects of alcohol on nervous system development.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM Q15.2.3
Question: ______ is the MOST common inherited metabolic disorder potentially affecting
brain development. It is treated by _____.
a. Galactosemia; a low-phenyalanine diet
b. Galactosemia; use of a milk substitute
c. Phenylketonuria; a low-phenyalanine diet
d. Phenylketonuria; large doses of vitamin B6
Answer: C
Consider This: The most common of these disorders could result in an IQ of about 20 at age
6; LO 15.5: Contrast the symptoms, causes, and treatments of inherited metabolic disorders.
Learning Objective: 15.5: Contrast the symptoms, causes and treatments of inherited
metabolic disorders.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understanding the Concepts
EOM Q15.2.4
Question: _______________ results from a missing enzyme that results in certain waste
products not being destroyed by lysosomes. As a result, lysosomes get larger, eventually
causing the brain to swell.
a. Pyridoxine dependency
b. Galactosemia
c. Phenylketonuria
d. Tay-Sachs disease
Answer: D
Consider This: Usually found in children of Eastern European Jewish descent; LO 15.5:
Contrast the symptoms, causes, and treatments of inherited metabolic disorders.
Learning Objective: 15.5: Contrast the symptoms, causes, and treatments of inherited
metabolic disorders.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q15.2.5
Question: Trisomy 21 is commonly known as ______ syndrome.
a. Down
b. Edward
c. Patau
d. Warkany
Answer: A
Consider This: Resulting from a third copy of the 21st chromosome, this syndrome likely
comes from mothers of advanced ages; LO 15.6: Identify the symptoms, interventions, and
cause of Down syndrome.
Learning Objective: 15.6: Identify the symptoms, interventions, and cause of Down
syndrome.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOM Q15.3.2
Question: For autism spectrum disorder, the first symptoms to emerge typically include:
a. delayed language.
b. avoidance of eye contact.
c. echolalia.
d. rocking back and forth.
Answer: B
Consider This: Given the developmental trajectory of babies, which deficit would appear
first?; LO 15.7: List the symptoms of ASD.
Learning Objective: 15.7: List the symptoms of ASD.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q15.3.3
Question: Deontay has been diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder. He exhibits a
restricted, repetitive pattern of behavior when he:
a. has trouble forming friendships.
b. avoids eye contact.
c. fails to smile when he sees others.
d. rocks back and forth.
Answer: D
Consider This: The two categories of symptoms are repetitive patterns and social deficits;
LO 15.7: List the symptoms of ASD.
Learning Objective: 15.7: List the symptoms of ASD.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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EOM Q15.3.4
Question: The concordance rate for ASD in monozygotic twins is ___________ percent,
whereas the concordance rate for dizygotic twins is ____________ percent.
a. 70; 5
b. 5; 70
c. 25; 75
d. 75; 25
Answer: A
Consider This: The concordance rates suggest a genetic origin; LO 15.8: Describe the roles
of genetic and environmental factors in ASD.
Learning Objective: 15.8: Describe the roles of genetic and environmental factors in ASD.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
EOM Q15.3.5
Question: Which statement is MOST accurate when considering brain changes in those with
autism spectrum disorder?
a. Individuals with ASD experience rapid brain growth in the first few years of life.
b. Individuals with ASD experience rapid brain growth that lasts into adolescence.
c. The amygdala of individuals with ASD is smaller compared to children without
ASD.
d. Growth of the frontal cortex and temporal cortex are delayed compared to typically-
developing brains.
Answer: A
Consider This: Some of the early developmental differences stabilize with age; LO 15.9:
Describe differences in the brain associated with ASD.
Learning Objective: 15.9: Describe differences in the brain associated with ASD.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM Q15.4.2
Question: Research suggests that the heritability of ADHD is _____________, ranging from
_______________ percent.
a. high; 75 to 90
b. low; 5 to 15
c. moderate; 35 to 50
d. non-existent; 0 to 0.5
Answer: A
Consider This: Two different variants of the gene for an enzyme that affects dopamine levels
in the brain seem to be the culprit; LO 15.11: Describe the roles of genetic and
environmental factors in ADHD.
Learning Objective: 15.11: Describe the roles of genetic and environmental factors in
ADHD.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q15.4.3
Question: The symptoms of ADHD are similar to those caused by damage to the
_____________________, specifically distractibility, forgetfulness, impulsivity, and poor
planning.
a. prefrontal cortex
b. cingulate cortex
c. ventromedial hypothalamus
d. amygdala
Answer: A
Consider This: What area of the brain is responsible for higher-order processing?; LO 15.12:
Describe differences in the brain associated with ADHD.
Learning Objective: 15.12: Describe differences in the brain associated with ADHD.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q15.4.4
Question: Which statement is MOST accurate with respect to ADHD?
a. Methylphenidate promotes the reuptake of dopamine.
b. Amphetamine increases the symptoms of ADHD.
c. ADHD symptoms are likely caused by underactive dopamine neurons.
d. The best treatment for ADHD is dopamine antagonists.
Answer: C
Consider This: Normal functioning of the prefrontal cortex is impaired by low levels of
dopamine receptor stimulation; LO 15.12: Describe differences in the brain associated with
ADHD.
Learning Objective: 15.12: Describe differences in the brain associated with ADHD.
Difficulty Level: Moderate.
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM Q15.4.5
Question: The MOST common treatment for ADHD is:
a. cognitive therapy.
b. administration of amphetamine.
c. administration of methylphenidate.
d. administration of dopamine antagonists.
Answer: C
Consider This: Normal functioning of the prefrontal cortex is impaired by low levels of
dopamine receptor stimulation; LO 15.12: Describe differences in the brain associated with
ADHD.
Learning Objective: 15.12: Describe differences in the brain associated with ADHD.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q15.2
Question: If the axon of a newly developed neuron is unable to find a vacant postsynaptic
cell, it will experience:
a. apoptosis.
b. a life-sustaining signal.
c. nothing.
d. an opportunity to reroute.
Answer: A
Consider This: If an axon has no connections, what good is it? LO 15.2: Explain how
prenatal development contributes to the development of complex human brains.
Learning Objective: 15.2: Explain how prenatal development contributes to complex human
brains.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOC Q15.3
Question: The ____________ layers of the cerebral cortex are formed last.
a. outer
b. inner
c. middle
d. All the layers form at the same time.
Answer: A
Consider This: The brain develops from the inside out; LO 15.2: Explain how prenatal
development contributes to the development of complex human brains.
Learning Objective: 15.2: Explain how prenatal development contributes to complex human
brains.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q15.4
Question: Research has shown that neurogenesis:
a. occurs only in the adult brain.
b. occurs only in the prenatal brain.
c. occurs throughout the adult brain.
d. occurs in the hippocampus and olfactory bulb of the adult brain.
Answer: D
Consider This: Current research indicates limited neurogenesis in the adult brain; LO 15.3:
Provide examples of how genetic change, personal experience, and neurogenesis can
influence postnatal brain development.
Learning Objective: 15.3: Provide examples of how genetic change, personal experience,
and neurogenesis can influence postnatal brain development.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q15.5
Question: Prenatal exposure to alcohol:
a. causes neurons to create multiple connections with other neurons during brain
development.
b. results in extensive long-term potentiation in the hippocampus.
c. promotes the development of neuronal stem cells.
d. results in a smaller degree of long-term potentiation.
Answer: D
Consider This: Which would result in lower intellectual functioning? LO 15.4: Describe the
effects of alcohol on nervous system development.
Learning Objective: 15.4: Describe the effects of alcohol on nervous system development.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOC Q15.6
Question: Tyra has phenylketonuria. Which statement is MOST accurate?
a. Tyra must be on a restricted diet low in phenylalanine for the remainder of her life.
b. Phenylalanine in Tyra’s diet helps to myelinate axons.
c. Tyra can begin to introduce phenylalanine into her diet as an adult.
d. Phenylketonuria results from a missing protein.
Answer: D
Consider This: Phenylketonuria interferes with brain development; LO 15.5: Contrast the
symptoms, causes, and treatments of inherited metabolic disorders.
Learning Objective: 15.5: Contrast the symptoms, causes, and treatments of inherited
metabolic disorders.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOC Q15.7
Question: Untreated __________________ results in damage to cerebral white matter, the
thalamus, and the cerebellum.
a. pyridoxine dependency
b. galactosemia
c. phenylketonuria
d. Tay-Sachs disease
Answer: A
Consider This: Treatment includes large doses of vitamin B 6; LO 15.5: Contrast the
symptoms, causes, and treatments of inherited metabolic disorders.
Learning Objective: 15.5: Contrast the symptoms, causes, and treatments of inherited
metabolic disorders.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q15.8
Question: Mouse models of Down syndrome suggest that _____________ of ____________
may impair hippocampal synaptic plasticity and associated learning and memory.
a. overactivity; glutamate
b. overactivity; GABA
c. underactivity; glutamate
d. underactivity; GABA
Answer: B
Consider This: Depressed/slowed thought processes would likely result from…? LO 15.6:
Identify the symptoms, interventions, and cause of Down syndrome.
Learning Objective: 15.6: Identify the symptoms, interventions, and cause of Down
syndrome.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOC Q15.9
Question: Prevalence of autism spectrum disorders is approximately _______ percent in the
United States.
a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 8
Answer: A
Consider This: The most recent data indicates 1 out of 68 children is diagnosed with autism;
LO 15.7: List the symptoms of ASD.
Learning Objective: 15.7: List the symptoms of ASD.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q15.10
Question: Recent research suggests that the prevalence of autism spectrum disorder is
______ related to socioeconomic status.
a. not
b. positively
c. negatively
d. modestly
Answer: A
Consider This: Recent work contradicts older beliefs; LO 15.7: List the symptoms of ASD.
Learning Objective: 15.7: List the symptoms of ASD.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q15.11
Question: The social deficits that individuals with autism spectrum disorder experience
suggest_____________ activation of the ________________.
a. decreased; amygdala
b. decreased; fusiform face area
c. increased; amygdala
d. increased; fusiform face area
Answer: B
Consider This: This area responds to faces; LO 15.9: Describe differences in the brain
associated with ASD.
Learning Objective: 15.9: Describe differences in the brain associated with ASD.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOC Q15.12
Question: It takes nine-year-old Carlito nearly two hours to complete a 30-minute
homework assignment because he is so easily distracted. In class, he blurts out responses to
the teacher’s question without raising his hand, and he has trouble waiting his turn in games
and other activities. He will often jump up and leave his seat. Carlito is MOST likely to be
diagnosed with ______ disorder.
a. developmental bipolar
b. oppositional defiant
c. attention-deficit/hyperactivity
d. autism spectrum
Answer: C
Consider This: Carlito’s disorder is the most common one to appear in childhood; LO 15.10:
List the symptoms of ADHD.
Learning Objective: 15.10: List the symptoms of ADHD.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOC Q15.13
Question: Which statement is true regarding the prevalence, diagnosis, or symptoms of
attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder?
a. The prevalence is approximately 10 percent of children.
b. Girls are more likely to be diagnosed as children.
c. Over half of children with ADHD show symptoms into adulthood.
d. ADHD must include both inattention and hyperactivity.
Answer: C
Consider This: While individuals can outgrow ADHD, it still affects many people; LO
15.10: List the symptoms of ADHD.
Learning Objective: 15.10: List the symptoms of ADHD.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q15.14
Question: The delay of reinforcement gradient is ______ among children with ADHD than
it is among their unaffected peers, suggesting that children with ADHD are _____
susceptible to the lure of instant gratification than are their peers.
a. shallower; less
b. shallower; more
c. steeper; less
d. steeper; more
Answer: D
Consider This: The effect of delaying reinforcement is greater among children with ADHD
than it is among other children; LO 15.10: List the symptoms of ADHD.
Learning Objective: 15.10: List the symptoms of ADHD.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOC Q15.15
Question: Hardy is 10. He has been diagnosed with ADHD. Based on the textbook’s
discussion, which statement is MOST likely true with respect to Hardy’s brain?
a. The cortical thickness of Hardy’s brain is similar to that of an unaffected child three
years younger; ultimately, though, the growth of Hardy’s brain will catch up to that
of children without ADHD.
b. The cortical thickness of Hardy’s brain is similar to that of an unaffected child three
years younger, and it is unlikely that the growth of Hardy’s brain will ever catch up
to that of children without ADHD.
c. The cortical thickness of Hardy’s brain exceeds that of unaffected children his age.
d. The cortical thickness of Hardy’s brain is similar to that of unaffected children his
age.
Answer: A
Consider This: Castellanos et al. (2002) reported decreased total brain volume among
children with ADHD compared to typically developing peers.; LO 15.12: Describe
differences in the brain associated with ADHD.
Learning Objective: 15.12: Describe differences in the brain associated with ADHD.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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Essay 124,125
Degenerative Multiple Choice 43-45, 49, 50,52, 46, 47, 57, 63, 78 48, 51, 56, 58, 66,
Disorders 55, 59, 60-62, 70, 75, 76, 83, 92
64, 65, 67-69,
71-74, 77, 79-82,
84-91, 93-95
Fill-In 114-120
Essay 128-130
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Multiple-Choice Questions
1. The case of Mrs. R., the person described in the chapter opening vignette, involved _______
provoked by a tumor located between her frontal lobes.
a. seizures
b. partial paralysis
c. mutism
d. a stroke
e. a speech disorder
2. A(n) ________ is a mass of cells whose growth is uncontrolled and that serves no useful
function in the body.
a. polyp
b. tumor
c. cyst
d. nodule
e. aneurism
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a. malignant tumors mostly appear within structures that are adjacent to large blood
vessels.
b. a benign tumor is encapsulated by a distinct border.
c. benign tumors are always larger than malignant tumors.
d. malignant tumors arise from neurons rather than glial cells.
e. benign tumors induce apoptosis, but malignant tumors do not.
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a. observation that tumors use up oxygen and glucose, thereby starving brain cells of
energy substrates.
b. ability of tumor cells to stimulate the growth and division of adjacent nerve cells.
c. toxic action of oversecretion of the transmitter GABA from tumor cells.
d. ability of brain tumors to compress brain tissue, leading to cell death.
e. fact that tumors arising from neurons grow very rapidly, thus producing tissue
compression.
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a. Astrocytes
b. Oligodendrocytes
c. Glial cells
d. Nerve cells
e. Cells of the meninges
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a. astrocytes.
b. ependymal cells from the ventricles.
c. Schwann cells.
d. neurons.
e. cells of the meninges.
12. A(n) ________ is an example of a malignant tumor derived from glial cells.
a. meningioma
b. pinealoma
c. angioma
d. metastatic oligodendrocytoma
e. astrocytoma
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a. radiation
b. chemotherapy
c. dietary treatment
d. drug therapies
e. surgery
14. The drug ________ can be used to treat rapidly growing tumors by inhibiting angiogenesis.
a. carbachol
b. fluoxetine
c. vellocet
d. lithium
e. bevacizumab
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a. Parkinson’s disease
b. Seizure disorder
c. Tay-Sachs disease
d. Alzheimer’s disease
e. Encephalitis
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a. autonomic
b. absence
c. psychic
d. motor
e. localized motor
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a. a loss of consciousness.
b. alteration (but not loss) of consciousness.
c. a definite focus.
d. most of the brain.
e. scarred brain tissue.
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22. During the ________ of a grand mal seizure, the person experiences a(n) _______.
Topic: Seizures
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
Learning Objective: 16.2 Describe the symptoms and causes of and treatments for seizures.
Answer: A
APA Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in
psychology.
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23. The ________ seizure disorder is often seen in children and is characterized by a spell of
absence.
a. complex
b. petit mal
c. simple partial
d. atonic
e. dystonic
Topic: Seizures
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
Learning Objective: 16.2 Describe the symptoms and causes of and treatments for seizures.
Answer: B
APA Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in
psychology.
24. An aura characterized by feelings of fear or dread would most likely reflect seizure
activity within the
a. occipital lobes.
b. parietal association cortex.
c. temporal lobes.
d. primary motor cortex.
e. primary auditory cortex.
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25. During a grand mal seizure, convulsions occur during the ___________ phase.
a. absence
b. tonic
c. clonic
d. aura
e. petit mal
26. A seizure that starts within the parietal lobe would be expected to produce an aura that
involves
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29. Davey has a long history of high blood pressure. He takes medications to regulate his
blood pressure, but he often forgets to take them and doesn’t follow the diet suggested by his
doctor. These facts make it more likely that he will suffer from a(n) _____________ stroke.
a. ischemic (thrombus)
b. ischemic (embolus)
c. transient
d. hemorrhagic
e. permanent
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a. vasodilation
b. bleeding
c. an embolus
d. a thrombus
e. obstruction of blood flow
32. Prolonged interruption of the blood supply to a region of the brain results in
a. hemorrhage.
b. hyperglycemia.
c. ischemia.
d. galactosemia.
e. vasodilation.
a. vasodilation
b. bleeding
c. shearing of blood vessels
d. an infection of glial cells
e. obstruction of blood flow
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34. A thrombus
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36. Which sequence correctly describes the order of toxic events that occur in the brain during
a stroke?
a. increased blood flow –> activation of sodium potassium transporters –> membrane
hyperpolarization –> GABA release –> excessive accumulation of extracellular
calcium
b. reduced blood flow –> inactivation of sodium potassium transporters –>
membrane depolarization –> glutamate release –> excessive accumulation of
intracellular calcium
c. reduced blood flow –> activation of sodium potassium transporters –> membrane
hyperpolarization –> dopamine release –> excessive accumulation of intracellular
chloride
d. reduced blood flow –> inactivation of sodium potassium transporters –>
membrane hyperpolarization –> GABA release –> excessive accumulation of
intracellular calcium
e. increased blood flow –> reduced accumulation of extracellular calcium –>
membrane hyperpolarization –> GABA release
37. A 50-year-old man has experienced a major stroke caused by a thrombus that occluded
brain blood vessels. To prevent the occurrence of another stroke, his physicians would most
likely
a. administer an anticoagulant.
b. administer drugs that lower blood pressure.
c. cut out the embolus using invasive surgery.
d. use deep brain stimulation to facilitate neuron regrowth.
e. administer massive doses of antibiotics.
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38. In the context of treating a stroke, _____________ helps prevent clotting and does not
increase excitotoxicity.
a. DMSO
b. 2-DG
c. MP
d. desmoteplase
e. phenobarbital
39. One surgical treatment for stroke, _______________, is associated with an increased
number of future strokes and the death rate following implantation is high.
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40. Which therapy for ischemic stroke is effective, but only if given soon after the onset of
symptoms?
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43. When the skull meets with blunt force trauma to the front right side, the brain tissue will
experience trauma as it impacts the skull. This blow to the brain is known as
a. the coup.
b. the contrecoup.
c. a closed-head injury.
d. an open-head injury.
e. punch drunk syndrome.
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44. This type of traumatic brain injury is a neurodegenerative injury resulting from repeated
brain trauma, and is often seen in athletes who engage in contact sports.
a. coup injury
b. coup-contrecoup injury
c. chronic traumatic encephalopathy
d. mild traumatic brain injury
e. contusion
45. Since the year 2000, approximately how many instances of traumatic brain injury (TBI)
have been reported among U.S. military personnel?
a. 1,400,000
b. 820,000
c. 680,000
d. 300,000
e. 170,000
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46. While working at the sewage treatment plant, Walter had the misfortune of standing
underneath a crane as it accidentally dropped a used lard bucket that smacked Walter on the
top of his head, fracturing his skull. What injury can Walter correctly be said to have
experienced?
47. The primary distinction between a closed-head injury and an open-head injury is
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48. Reggie and his friends have been participating in the TikTok “skullbreaker challenge,”
where two friends kick the legs out from under a third person, causing that person’s skull to
collide violently with the ground. This pastime is most likely to result in __________ for
Reggie.
a. a coup-d’etat
b. a closed head injury
c. a contrecoup
d. an open-head injury
e. paralysis
49. People who have sustained chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE) show accumulations
of __________ in their cerebral cortexes.
a. GABA
b. beta-stanine-3
c. abnormal tau protein
d. epinephrine
e. acetylcholine
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50. People who have sustained chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE) often show deficits
similar to people who suffer from
a. Prader-Willi syndrome.
b. Huntington’s disease.
c. Parkinson’s disease.
d. Alzheimer’s disease.
e. Moebius syndrome.
51. Rhonda was hard at work at her factory job when, unexpectedly, a bolt came off a
machine and penetrated her skull, piercing her occipital lobe. What injury can Rhonda
specifically be said to have experienced?
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52. Lyle suffers from chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE). Which region of his brain is
especially likely to show damage?
a. thalamus
b. basal ganglia
c. medulla oblongata
d. corpus callosum
e. amygdala
53. After suffering in silence for many years, Diego finally consults a physician about the
problems he’s been experiencing. The physician notes that Diego has reduced brain volume,
enlarged ventricles, difficulties in executive control and mood regulation, and deterioration of
the corpus callosum. Accordingly, Diego’s physician makes a diagnosis of
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a. administration of glutamate.
b. restoring memory capacity.
c. establishing motor control.
d. reducing swelling in the brain.
e. constructing a rehabilitation plan.
a. GABA; dopamine
b. serotonin; dopamine
c. acetylcholine; glutamate
d. serotonin; adenosine
e. adenosine; glutamate
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56. Compared to the others, which person has the highest likelihood of developing
Alzheimer’s disease?
57. How does glutamate affect adenosine in cases of traumatic brain injury?
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58. Emily has a degenerative disorder that has largely left her motor behavior unaffected, but
has led to serious declines in cognition. Her physician has ruled out prion infection as a cause,
and has narrowed the diagnosis to this reasonable option:
a. Huntington’s disease
b. multiple sclerosis
c. Parkinson’s disease
d. transmissible spongiform encephalopathy
e. Korsakoff’s syndrome
a. Huntington’s disease
b. Alzheimer’s disease
c. Parkinson’s disease
d. multiple sclerosis
e. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
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a. Kuru
b. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
c. Scrapie
d. Fatal familial insomnia
e. Chronic wasting disease
a. releasing glycine.
b. inducing apoptosis.
c. increasing calcium levels in neurons.
d. decreasing glutamate release.
e. compressing nerve cells.
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a. Encephalitis
b. Parkinson’s disease
c. Kuru
d. Multiple sclerosis
e. Acute anterior poliomyelitis
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66. Loss of dopaminergic neurons and the associated decreased activation of the
supplementary motor area result in
a. akinesia.
b. akinetopsia.
c. anomia.
d. ageusia.
e. atonia.
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68. A genetic disorder caused by a mutation that produces a protein with toxic consequences
would be classified as
69. A genetic disorder caused by a mutation that fails to produce a protein that is required for
normal health would be classified as
a. gain of function.
b. recessive.
c. loss of function.
d. congenital.
e. degenerative.
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71. The standard drug treatment for Parkinson’s disease is the daily administration of
a. d-amphetamine.
b. L-DOPA.
c. atropine.
d. haloperidol.
e. apomorphine.
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72. A therapy for Parkinson’s disease that alters the activity of the enzyme MAO-B in nerve
cells involves administration of
a. deprenyl.
b. paraquat.
c. haloperidol.
d. L-DOPA.
e. pimozide.
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74. The principal output of the basal ganglia comes from the
75. Surgical removal of the ________ can alleviate the symptoms of Parkinson’s disease.
a. thalamus
b. putamen
c. basal ganglia
d. globus pallidus
e. brain stem
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76. Deep brain stimulation (DBS) of the ________ can alleviate the symptoms of Parkinson’s
disease.
a. thalamus
b. putamen
c. basal ganglia
d. subthalamic nucleus
e. primary motor cortex
a. symptoms can be cured with drug treatment or surgery; symptoms can be treated
with drugs
b. usually occurs in the twenties and thirties; almost always occurs in the fifties and
sixties
c. is characterized by a poverty of movement; is characterized by uncontrollable
movements
d. is a hereditary disorder; does not usually have genetic origins
e. symptoms cannot be treated; symptoms can be cured with drug treatment or
surgery
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78. Which treatment has demonstrated the most utility for Huntington’s disease?
a. Moebius syndrome
b. Kuru
c. Meissner’s syndrome
d. Huntington’s disease
e. Parkinson’s disease
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80. The specific cause for Huntington’s disease may involve _______ that kill(s) neurons.
a. inclusion bodies
b. elongated stretches of glutamine
c. suppression of apoptosis
d. excessive release of glutamate
e. loss of L-DOPA function
a. riluzole
b. deprenyl
c. L-DOPA
d. interferon β
e. interferon Ώ
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a. known to be hereditary.
b. classified as sporadic.
c. due to excessive production of dopamine in brain.
d. cured using anticholinergic drugs.
e. treated using drugs that increase brain glutamate activity.
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84. An autoimmune reaction that damages ________ is the cause of multiple sclerosis.
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a. administration of interferon A.
b. drugs that block acetylcholinesterase.
c. administration of glatiramer acetate.
d. administration of interferon ß.
e. drugs that block glutamate receptor activity.
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90. The primary cognitive deficit associated with Alzheimer’s disease involves
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93. Alzheimer’s disease appears to be caused by excessive levels of ________ in the brain.
a. glutamate
b. the tau protein
c. glycine
d. serotonin
e. the long form of the Aβ protein
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94. Pharmacological treatment of Alzheimer’s patients with ________ can improve cognitive
performance relative to that of control patients.
a. inflammatory cytokines
b. antihistamines
c. bee pollen
d. acetylcholinesterase inhibitor drugs
e. paraquat
a. hippocampus; anterograde
b. hippocampus; retrograde
c. mammillary bodies; anterograde
d. mammillary bodies; retrograde
e. thalamus; retrograde
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96. The most common infectious diseases that cause neurological disorders are ________ and
________.
a. encephalitis; meningitis
b. poliomyelitis; AIDS
c. multiple sclerosis; Alzheimer’s disease
d. rabies; herpes simplex
e. poliomyelitis; dementia
a. autoimmune disorder.
b. viral encephalitis.
c. degenerative disorder related to matrix proteins.
d. bacterial infection.
e. sporadic degenerative disease.
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a. a difficulty swallowing.
b. an impairment in coordination.
c. the experience of a stiff neck.
d. difficulty in the articulation of words.
e. excessive movement of the arms and legs.
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100. Meningitis leads to damage of the brain because this disease produces
Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
101. A ________ is a mass of cells whose growth is uncontrolled and that serves no useful
function in the body.
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104. A seizure that involves the primary motor cortex would produce a(n) ________.
106. ________ seizure disorder is often seen in children and is characterized by a spell of
absence.
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108. Prolonged interruption of the blood supply to a region of the brain results in ________.
109. A(n) ________ is a piece of material that forms in one part of the vascular system, breaks
off, and is carried through the bloodstream until it reaches an artery too small to pass through.
110. Administration of ________ to dissolve blood clots is a therapy for ischemic stroke, but
only if given soon after the onset of symptoms.
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111. Blows to the head early in life can increase the risk of developing ________ disease later
in life.
112. __________ do not involve penetration of the brain, but are still a form of traumatic
brain injury.
113. As a blow to the head ricochets the brain to one side and then the other, the resulting
blows are known as __________ and __________.
114. A(n) ________ is a form of a three-dimensional protein that can damage nerve cells.
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117. Surgical removal of the ________ can alleviate the symptoms of Parkinson’s disease.
118. Roughly 10 percent of cases of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis are ________ in origin.
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120. Alzheimer’s disease and Korsakoff’s syndrome each induce a memory disorder known
as ________ amnesia.
121. ________ is an infectious disease induced by a virus or bacteria that initially manifests
itself with a stiff neck.
Essay Questions
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Answer: A tumor is a mass of cells that grows in an uncontrolled manner and that serves no
useful function in the body. A benign tumor is usually encapsulated and has a distinct border.
In contrast, a malignant tumor grows by infiltrating surrounding tissue. As a malignant tumor
sheds its cells, they can give rise to new tumors in different parts of the body.
123. Describe the common causes of and treatment for seizure disorders.
124. Explain the differences between hemorrhagic and obstructive cerebrovascular accidents.
What are common causes of each?
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125. Describe the risk factors for stroke and explain why lifestyle changes can reduce a
person’s risk for stroke.
126. Explain the chemical changes in the brain that result from experiencing a traumatic brain
injury (TBI).
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127. Contrast the characteristics of closed-head and open-head traumatic brain injuries.
128. Name three forms of transmissible spongiform encephalopathies and explain what they
all have in common.
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129. Describe the etiology and symptoms of Huntington’s disease and of Parkinson’s disease.
How do these diseases of the basal ganglia differ from one another?
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Revel Quizzes
The following questions appear at the end of each module and at the end of the chapter in
Revel for Physiology of Behavior, 13th Edition.
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EOM Q16.1.2
Question: A benign tumor:
a. cannot damage the brain.
b. may metastasize.
c. is separated from the surrounding tissue by a distinct border.
d. infiltrates the brain tissue surrounding it.
Answer: C
Consider This: Even a benign tumor takes up space; LO 16.1: Describe the symptoms and
causes of and treatments for brain tumors.
Learning Objective: 16.1: Describe the symptoms and causes of and treatments for brain
tumors.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q16.1.3
Question: In the treatment of tumors, ________________ is usually attempted first.
a. surgery
b. radiation
c. chemotherapy
d. drug therapy
Answer: A
Consider This: Sometimes this option is not possible due to location of tumors; LO 16.1:
Describe the symptoms and causes of and treatments for brain tumors.
Learning Objective: LO 16.1: Describe the symptoms and causes of and treatments for brain
tumors.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q16.1.4
Question: An example of a generalized seizure is a(n) _______________ seizure.
a. autonomic
b. absence
c. psychic
d. motor
Answer: B
Consider This: A generalized seizure has no apparent local onset point; LO 16.2: Describe the
symptoms and causes of and treatments for seizures.
Learning Objective: LO 16.2: Describe the symptoms and causes of and treatments for
seizures.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
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EOM Q16.1.5
Question: During a grand mal seizure, convulsions occur during the ___________ phase.
a. absence
b. tonic
c. clonic
d. aura
Answer: C
Consider This: This phase occurs later in the seizure; LO 16.2: Describe the symptoms and
causes of and treatments for seizures.
Learning Objective: LO 16.2: Describe the symptoms and causes of and treatments for
seizures.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
EOM Q16.2.2
Question: In an ischemic stroke, neurons die because:
a. they lose their glucose supply.
b. they lose their supply of oxygen.
c. excess glutamate causes an excitotoxic lesion.
d. the blood clot infiltrates the tissue.
Answer: C
Consider This: When oxygen and glucose are depleted, sodium potassium transporters stop
working, causing cell depolarizations; LO 16.3: Explain how cerebrovascular accidents can
occur.
Learning Objective: LO 16.3: Explain how cerebrovascular accidents can occur.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM Q16.2.3
Question: When it comes to treatment for stroke, ______________ helps prevent clotting and
does not increase excitotoxicity.
a. desmoteplase
b. tPA
c. 2-DG
d. phenobarbital
Answer: A
Consider This: This enzyme comes from vampire bat saliva; LO 16.4: Explain how short- and
long-term symptoms of cerebrovascular accidents are treated.
Learning Objective: LO 16.4: Explain how short- and long-term symptoms of cerebrovascular
accidents are treated.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q16.2.4
Question: One surgical treatment for stroke, _______________________, is associated with
an increased number of future strokes, and the death rate following implantation is high.
a. use of carotid stents
b. carotid endarterectomy
c. atherosclerosis
d. angioplasty
Answer: A
Consider This: This method uses a piece of mesh inside the artery; LO 16.4: Explain how
short- and long-term symptoms of cerebrovascular accidents are treated.
Learning Objective: LO 16.4: Explain how short- and long-term symptoms of cerebrovascular
accidents are treated.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q16.2.5
Question: In constraint-induced therapy, stroke patients:
a. used their unaffected limbs to accomplish physical tasks.
b. experienced long-term improvement in their ability to use their impaired arms.
c. did not improve in their ability to use the impaired limb.
d. experienced a weakening in the constrained arms over time.
Answer: B
Consider This: The treatment caused an expansion of the motor cortex; LO 16.4: Explain how
short- and long-term symptoms of cerebrovascular accidents are treated.
Learning Objective: LO 16.4: Explain how short- and long-term symptoms of cerebrovascular
accidents are treated.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOM Q16.3.2
Question: This type of TBI is a neurodegenerative injury from repeated brain trauma, often
seen in athletes.
a. contusion
b. chronic traumatic encephalopathy
c. mild traumatic brain injury
d. coup-contrecoup injury
Answer: B
Consider This: Formerly known as “punch drunk syndrome”; LO 16.5: Identify some causes
of traumatic brain injury.
Learning Objective: LO 16.5: Identify some causes of traumatic brain injury.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q16.3.3
Question: Symptoms of TBI:
a. always occur immediately.
b. often do not drastically impair the individual’s daily functioning.
c. can manifest years after the initial injury.
d. include decreased levels of adenosine and glutamate.
Answer: C
Consider This: Age can cause issues with TBI; LO 16.6: Describe treatments for traumatic
brain injuries.
Learning Objective: LO 16.6: Describe treatments for traumatic brain injuries.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM Q16.3.4
Question: The likelihood of Alzheimer’s disease in later adulthood is _____ related to
receiving blows to the head earlier in life.
a. negatively
b. not
c. only weakly
d. positively
Answer: D
Consider This: Traumatic brain injury is associated with symptoms that develop later on; LO
16.6: Describe treatments for traumatic brain injuries.
Learning Objective: 16.6: Describe treatments for traumatic brain injuries.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q16.3.5
Question: TBI can cause an increase in levels of glutamate and adenosine. This can be a
problem because the increased levels:
a. can ultimately cause additional swelling.
b. can leave patients prone to stroke.
c. deprive surrounding cells of oxygen.
d. may ultimately prompt loss of feeling in the lower extremities.
Answer: A
Consider This: TBI can have a complex array of symptoms that develop after the initial
injury; LO 16.6: Describe treatments for traumatic brain injuries.
Learning Objective: LO 16.6: Describe treatments for traumatic brain injuries
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM Q16.4.2
Question: The primary symptoms of _________________ are muscular rigidity, slowness of
movement, a resting tremor, and postural instability.
a. Parkinson’s disease
b. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
c. Korsakoff’s syndrome
d. transmissible spongiform encephalopathy
Answer: A
Consider This: Caused by degeneration of the nigrostriatal system; LO 16.8: Describe the
symptoms and causes of and treatments for Parkinson’s disease.
Learning Objective: LO 16.8: Describe the symptoms and causes of and treatments for
Parkinson’s disease.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q16.4.3
Question: A genetic origin of Parkinson’s disease has been located on chromosome 4.
Specifically, a protein known as ______________ produces effects toxic to the cell.
a. α-synuclein
b. Lewy body
c. neurofilament
d. synaptic vesicle protein
Answer: A
Consider This: Normally found in the presynaptic terminals and is thought to be involved in
synaptic transmission in dopaminergic neurons; LO 16.8: Describe the symptoms and causes
of and treatments for Parkinson’s disease.
Learning Objective: LO 16.8: Describe the symptoms and causes of and treatments for
Parkinson’s disease.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q16.4.4
Question: Which treatment currently has the BEST utility for Parkinson’s disease?
a. L-DOPA administration
b. implantation of fetal substantia nigra cells
c. deep brain stimulation implants
d. lesioning of the globus pallidus
Answer: C
Consider This: Kickstart the subthalamic nucleus; LO 16.8: Describe the symptoms and
causes of and treatments for Parkinson’s disease.
Learning Objective: LO 16.8: Describe the symptoms and causes of and treatments for
Parkinson’s disease.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM Q16.4.5
Question: In Huntington’s disease, damage to _________ neurons in the putamen removes
some inhibitory control exerted on the premotor and supplementary motor areas of the frontal
cortex, leading to involuntary movements.
a. glutamatergic
b. GABAergic
c. cholinergic
d. dopaminergic
Answer: B
Consider This: A major inhibitory neurotransmitter; LO 16.9: Describe the symptoms and
causes of and treatments for Huntington’s disease.
Learning Objective: LO 16.9: Describe the symptoms and causes of and treatments for
Huntington’s disease.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOM Q16.5.2
Question: Which statement is accurate concerning rabies?
a. After being bitten by a rabid animal, individuals become sick immediately.
b. If an individual develops rabies, he or she typically dies within a few hours of
contracting it.
c. The rabies virus is transmissible through touch.
d. If bitten by a rabid animal, an individual can be vaccinated against rabies during the
incubation period.
Answer: D
Consider This: The virus must climb through the peripheral nerves before manifestation; LO
16.14: Identify the symptoms and causes of and treatments for encephalitis.
Learning Objective: LO 16.14: Identify the symptoms and causes of and treatments for
encephalitis.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q16.5.3
Question: Records of autopsies have revealed that at least _____ percent of people who died
of AIDS show evidence of brain damage.
a. 10
b. 25
c. 50
d. 75
Answer: D
Consider This: HIV can cause a wide variety of damage as well as affect different brain areas;
LO 16.14: Identify the symptoms and causes of and treatments for encephalitis.
Learning Objective: LO 16.14: Identify the symptoms and causes of and treatments for
encephalitis.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q16.5.4
Question: Of the symptoms of meningitis, the MOST important is:
a. stiff neck.
b. headache.
c. convulsions.
d. confusion.
Answer: A
Consider This: Which symptom would be important to diagnose meningitis? LO 16.15:
Identify the symptoms and causes of and treatments for meningitis.
Learning Objective: LO 16.15: Identify the symptoms and causes of and treatments for
meningitis.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM Q16.5.5
Question: Which statement is accurate with respect to meningitis?
a. Middle-ear infections can cause viral meningitis.
b. Viral meningitis causes significant brain damage.
c. Bacterial meningitis can be treated with antibiotics.
d. The best approach with meningitis is a “wait-and-see” approach.
Answer: C
Consider This: Viral and bacterial meningitis differ in their cause, severity, and treatment,
with bacterial being the worse of the two; LO 16.15: Identify the symptoms and causes of and
treatments for meningitis.
Learning Objective: LO 16.15: Identify the symptoms and causes of and treatments for
meningitis.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q16.2
Question: A neurinoma is formed from:
a. astrocytes.
b. ependymal cells from the ventricles.
c. cells of the meninges.
d. Schwann cells.
Answer: D
Consider This: This type of tumor is named after the connective tissue covering cranial
nerves; LO 16.1: Describe the symptoms and causes of and treatments for brain tumors.
Learning Objective: LO 16.1: Describe the symptoms and causes of and treatments for brain
tumors.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOC Q16.3
Question: An example of a partial seizure is a(n) ___________ seizure.
a. grand mal
b. atonic
c. absence
d. sensory
Answer: D
Consider This: Partial seizures have a focus point; LO 16.2: Describe the symptoms and
causes of and treatments for seizures.
Learning Objective: LO 16.2: Describe the symptoms and causes of and treatments for
seizures.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
EOC Q16.4
Question: With respect to cerebrovascular accidents, thrombi and emboli:
a. are unrelated to either hemorrhagic or ischemic strokes.
b. cause hemorrhagic but not ischemic strokes.
c. cause both ischemic and hemorrhagic strokes.
d. cause ischemic but not hemorrhagic strokes.
Answer: D
Consider This: Thrombi and emboli obstruct blood flow; LO 16.3 Explain how
cerebrovascular accidents can occur.
Learning Objective: LO 16.3: Explain how cerebrovascular accidents can occur.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
EOC Q16.5
Question: Lizette has been scheduled for a surgical procedure called a carotid
endarterectomy. This procedure is MOST likely intended to prevent a(n):
a. status epilepticus.
b. traumatic brain injury.
c. hemorrhagic stroke.
d. ischemic stroke.
Answer: D
Consider This: Thrombi and emboli obstruct blood flow; LO 16.4 Explain how short- and
long-term symptoms of cerebrovascular accidents are treated.
Learning Objective: LO 16.4 Explain how short- and long-term symptoms of cerebrovascular
accidents are treated.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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EOC Q16.6
Question: Chronic traumatic encephalopathy may be considered a _____ form of ______.
a. mild; encephalitis
b. mild; traumatic brain injury
c. severe; encephalitis
d. severe; traumatic brain injury
Answer: D
Consider This: “Chronic” indicates that the problem is repeated; LO 16.5 Identify some
causes of traumatic brain injury.
Learning Objective: 16.5 Identify some causes of traumatic brain injury.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
EOC Q16.7
Question: The textbook’s discussion suggests that treating traumatic brain injury (TBI) is
BEST approached using a ______ perspective.
a. spiritual
b. medical
c. psychoanalytic
d. biopsychosocial
Answer: D
Consider This: Behavioral interventions tackle the long-term effects of TBI; LO 16.6:
Describe treatments for traumatic brain injuries.
Learning Objective: 16.6: Describe treatments for traumatic brain injuries.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q16.8
Question: _________________ is a fatal contagious brain disease whose degenerative
process gives the brain a Swiss cheese–like appearance.
a. Parkinson’s disease
b. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
c. Korsakoff’s syndrome
d. transmissible spongiform encephalopathy
Answer: D
Consider This: The root of the “mad cow disease” problem of the 1980s; LO 16.7: Describe
how transmissible spongiform encephalopathies cause brain damage.
Learning Objective: LO 16.7: Describe how transmissible spongiform encephalopathies cause
brain damage
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOC Q16.9
Question: In Parkinson’s disease, loss of dopaminergic neurons and the associated decreased
activation of the supplementary motor area result in:
a. akinesia.
b. akinetopsia.
c. anomia.
d. ageusia.
Answer: A
Consider This: Difficulty initiating movements; LO 16.8: Describe the symptoms and causes
of and treatments for Parkinson’s disease.
Learning Objective: LO 16.8: Describe the symptoms and causes of and treatments for
Parkinson’s disease.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q16.10
Question: Which statement about Parkinson’s disease is accurate?
a. All dopamine neurons are affected in Parkinson’s disease.
b. Dopamine neurons in the mesolimbic system are affected by Parkinson’s disease.
c. If calcium is involved in regulating the spontaneous activity of dopamine cells, these
cells are more affected by Parkinson’s disease
d. Parkinson’s disease is reversible.
Answer: C
Consider This: One system of dopamine neurons is affected in Parkinson’s disease; LO 16.8:
Describe the symptoms and causes of and treatments for Parkinson’s disease.
Learning Objective: LO 16.8: Describe the symptoms and causes of and treatments for
Parkinson’s disease.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q16.11
Question: _______________ disease causes uncontrollable movements, especially jerky limb
movements.
a. Parkinson’s
b. Huntington’s
c. Dyskinesia
d. Hypokinesia
Answer: B
Consider This: This disease is caused by degeneration of the caudate nucleus and putamen;
LO 16.9: Describe the symptoms and causes of and treatments for Huntington’s disease.
Learning Objective: LO 16.9: Describe the symptoms and causes of and treatments for
Huntington’s disease.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOC Q16.12
Question: ______ Parkinson’s disease, Huntington’s disease _____ be treated.
a. Like; can
b. Like; cannot
c. Unlike; can
d. Unlike; cannot
Answer: D
Consider This: Research on Huntington’s disease is still underway; LO 16.9: Describe the
symptoms and causes of and treatments for Huntington’s disease.
Learning Objective: LO 16.9: Describe the symptoms and causes of and treatments for
Huntington’s disease.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
EOC Q16.13
Question: _____________ is the current psychopharmacological treatment for amyotrophic
lateral sclerosis.
a. Riluzole
b. Deprenyl
c. L-DOPA
d. Interferon β
Answer: A
Consider This: This drug reduces glutamate-induced excitotoxicity; LO 16.10: Describe the
symptoms and causes of and treatments for amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.
Learning Objective: LO 16.10: Describe the symptoms and causes of and treatments for
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q16.14
Question: Which statement is accurate regarding Alzheimer’s disease?
a. Amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles are unique to Alzheimer’s disease.
b. Amyloid plaques are dying neurons that contain intracellular accumulations of tau
protein.
c. Acetylcholinergic neurons in the basal forebrain are among the first cells to be
affected in Alzheimer’s disease.
d. Neurofibrillary tangles are extracellular deposits that consist of a dense core
surrounded by degenerating axons and dendrites.
Answer: C
Consider This: One of the approved treatments for AD is acetylcholinesterase inhibitors; LO
16.12: Describe the symptoms and causes of and treatments for Alzheimer’s disease.
Learning Objective: 16.12: Describe the symptoms and causes of and treatments for
Alzheimer’s disease.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOC Q16.15
Question: Damage to the _______________ produce(s) ____________ amnesia in
Korsakoff’s syndrome.
a. hippocampus; anterograde
b. hippocampus; retrograde
c. mammillary bodies; anterograde
d. mammillary bodies; retrograde
Answer: C
Consider This: Part of the hypothalamus; LO 16.13: Describe the symptoms and causes of
Korsakoff’s syndrome.
Learning Objective: 16.13: Describe the symptoms and causes of Korsakoff’s syndrome
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
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Multiple-Choice Questions
a. 0.1
b. 1
c. 5
d. 12
e. 15
a. Symptoms of schizophrenia have been recognized as a disorder only within the past
hundred years.
b. Schizophrenia is a serious disorder only in adults.
c. Schizophrenia affects about 10 percent of the world population.
d. The term means “split mind.”
e. The term is synonymous with bipolar disorder.
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a. hallucinations.
b. flattened emotional responding.
c. anhedonia.
d. social withdrawal.
e. severe depression.
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a. visual
b. tactile
c. kinesthetic
d. auditory
e. olfactory
8. A person who believes that others are plotting against them is most likely suffering from a
delusion of
a. control.
b. persecution.
c. grandeur.
d. perception.
e. fallacy.
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9. A person who believes that she or he is President of the World is most likely suffering from a
delusion of
a. control.
b. persecution.
c. grandeur.
d. perception.
e. sensation.
10. Delusions
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11. The majority of cases of schizophrenia will develop between the ages of
a. 12–14.
b. 20–24.
c. 30–34.
d. 40–44.
e. 55–59.
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15. If Person A has schizophrenia, Person A’s ____________ would be the most likely to also
have schizophrenia.
a. older sibling
b. fraternal twin
c. parents
d. identical twin
e. daughter
16. The fact that the odds that a child born to two schizophrenic parents will become
schizophrenic is less than 50 percent suggests that
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17. Individuals seeking to reduce the risk of their offspring developing schizophrenia would do
well to seek a sperm donor who
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20. Identical twins who are mirror images in terms of their ________ are more likely to be
________.
a. fingerprints; monochorionic
b. ventricular size; dichorionic
c. hair color; dichorionic
d. handedness; dichorionic
e. facial features; trichorionic
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21. In some cases, identical twins are disconcordant for schizophrenia. Although environmental
factors may be the cause of this difference, prenatal factors may also play a part because
____________ twins would have greater concordance.
a. monochorionic
b. dichorionic
c. monozygotic
d. dizygotic
e. trichorionic
a. with schizophrenia are more likely to demonstrate symptoms during the hotter
months of the year.
b. are more likely to develop schizophrenia if they are born between February and May.
c. are more likely to be diagnosed with schizophrenia between February and May.
d. with schizophrenia are more likely to demonstrate symptoms during winter months.
e. with schizophrenia are more likely to demonstrate symptoms during summer months.
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a. birthing during the winter represents a stressor that impairs dopamine function.
b. a fetus born during the late summer is more likely to have experienced a viral
infection during the second trimester.
c. immune function is generally enhanced during the winter months.
d. a fetus born in late winter may be exposed to a viral infection during the second
trimester.
e. people are more likely to be outdoors during the early fall leading to greater risk of
viral infection.
a. children born a few months after an outbreak of influenza are more likely to develop
schizophrenia.
b. mothers taking antibiotics should be unlikely to bear children who develop
schizophrenia.
c. children born a few months before an outbreak of influenza are more likely to
develop schizophrenia.
d. exposure of the fetus to a virus during the third trimester is most likely to induce
schizophrenia.
e. widespread administration of antiviral drugs has increased the worldwide incidence of
schizophrenia.
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a. children born a few months before an outbreak of influenza are more likely to
develop schizophrenia.
b. mothers taking antibiotics are unlikely to bear children who develop schizophrenia.
c. analysis of stored blood serum from mothers whose children later developed
schizophrenia showed evidence of maternal infection.
d. exposure of the fetus to a virus during the third trimester is most likely to induce
schizophrenia.
e. obstetrical complications can predispose a newborn baby to later development of
schizophrenia.
26. Research suggests that a deficiency of _______ may contribute to the development of
schizophrenia.
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B complex
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin D
e. Vitamin E
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28. Statistically, the risk of a person developing schizophrenia is higher for a person
29. Complications of prenatal development and delivery are more likely to result in
a. depression.
b. anxiety disorder.
c. obsessive-compulsive disorder.
d. an increased risk for schizophrenia.
e. agoraphobia.
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a. paternal age.
b. genetic mutations.
c. maternal age.
d. parental use of tobacco during pregnancy.
e. heritability.
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33. Relative to same-age control subjects, people with schizophrenia show a more rapid loss of
gray matter in the
a. spinal cord.
b. medulla.
c. amygdala.
d. hypothalamus.
e. cerebral cortex.
34. Which observation supports the contention that schizophrenia is associated with brain
damage?
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36. Analyses of the childhood behavior of people with schizophrenia have found that these
children show ________ than do their typical siblings or typical peers.
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37. When looking at the behavior of children who would later develop schizophrenia, these
children were
a. narrow-set eyes
b. curved fourth finger
c. head circumference outside of the normal range
d. high-seated ears
e. symmetrical ears
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39. In MRI studies of brain anatomy in monozygotic twins discordant for schizophrenia, the twin
diagnosed with schizophrenia usually
40. The likelihood of developing schizophrenia increases from about 12 percent to almost 31
percent for a person with ________ and ________.
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a. People with schizophrenia show rapid neuron loss in early childhood, with little
subsequent loss during adulthood.
b. People with schizophrenia show rapid neuron loss that occurs in early adulthood, but
not continuous neuron loss.
c. Schizophrenia shows the same degenerative pattern as is noted in Alzheimer’s
disease.
d. Schizophrenia shows the same degenerative pattern as is noted in Parkinson’s disease.
e. Schizophrenia involves the creation of new, but abnormal, neurons.
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45. Chlorpromazine was initially developed to prevent surgical shock, but was later found to be
an effective treatment for
a. phobias.
b. schizophrenia.
c. mania.
d. depression.
e. neuroses.
46. The positive symptoms of schizophrenia are reversed by drugs that are
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47. Richie, a 68-year-old man, has been taking L-DOPA to treat his Parkinson’s disease.
However, he has recently begun to exhibit positive symptoms of schizophrenia (such as
hallucinations and delusions), even though his physician has made it clear that Richie doesn’t
meet the criteria for a diagnosis of schizophrenia. What’s at work here?
a. Drugs such as L-DOPA stimulate the synthesis of dopamine, which in turn can
produce positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
b. Parkinson’s disease shares the same neurological basis as schizophrenia, so
“symptom blurring” is occurring.
c. Richie has schizophrenia and his physician is incorrect in her diagnosis, as
schizophrenia usually manifests itself in men later in life.
d. Richie is actively trying to get more attention from his physician in the hope of
receiving an experimental treatment for Parkinson’s disease.
e. Drugs such as L-DOPA stimulate the synthesis of epinephrine, which can produce
positive symptoms of schizophrenia when present in excess.
48. The dopamine hypothesis of the causes of schizophrenia is supported by the finding that
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49. Administration of high doses of drugs such as ________ would be expected to produce the
positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
a. GABA
b. glycine
c. barbiturates
d. amphetamine
e. chlorpromazine
50. Rollo has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and has shown improvement in lessening his
positive symptoms while taking chlorpromazine. One would expect his positive schizophrenia
symptoms to rapidly return if Rollo
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51. One intriguing hypothesis suggests that paranoid delusions seen in schizophrenia might be
caused by
a. inactivity of the amygdala and hippocampus.
b. hyperactivity of the prefrontal cortex.
c. increased activity of the dopaminergic input to the amygdala.
d. depletion of dopamine receptors in the thalamus.
e. increased serotonin release in the basal ganglia.
52. The mesolimbic pathway projects from the ________ to the ________.
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53. PET studies indicate that schizophrenic patients treated with amphetamine show ________
from the striatum and a corresponding ________.
54. Which issue poses a serious problem for the use of antipsychotic drugs in the treatment of
schizophrenia?
a. These drugs reverse the negative but not the positive symptoms.
b. These drugs may reverse the positive but not the negative symptoms.
c. These drugs block D4 receptors in the striatum, which results in motor side effects.
d. Long-term administration of these drugs can induce depression as a side effect.
e. The drugs exaggerate both positive and negative symptoms.
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55. A pharmaceutical company seeking to market a new drug to treat schizophrenia would want
to develop a substance that reverses both positive and negative symptoms but that avoids the
blockage of ________ receptors within the ________ of the schizophrenic brain.
56. Patients with _____________ are unable to stop moving. This condition is common among
people who take antipsychotic medications.
a. Parkinson’s disease
b. Huntington’s disease
c. tardive dyskinesia
d. paroxysmal dyskinesia
e. athetosis
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57. The capacity of a drug to produce tardive dyskinesia may result from
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59. The negative symptoms of schizophrenia, such as social withdrawal, are caused by
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a. positive
b. concordant
c. cognitive
d. negative
e. mood
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63. Which observation supports the proposal that impairment of the prefrontal cortex is related to
the negative symptoms of schizophrenia?
a. MRI studies indicate abnormalities within the temporal cortex of people with
schizophrenia.
b. People with schizophrenia show greater activity of the frontal cortex than do people
not diagnosed with schizophrenia.
c. People with schizophrenia do poorly on neuropsychological tests that are sensitive to
damage of the prefrontal cortex.
d. MRI studies indicate abnormalities within the parietal cortex of people with
schizophrenia.
e. People with schizophrenia show a greater number of neurons within the gray matter
of the frontal cortex.
64. Positive and negative schizophrenia symptoms are shown by humans after ingestion of
a. alcohol.
b. haloperidol.
c. phencyclidine.
d. chlordiazepoxide.
e. a low dose of cocaine.
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a. agonist; NMDA
b. antagonist; dopamine
c. agonist; acetylcholine
d. indirect antagonist; NMDA
e. antagonist; GABA
66. The atypical antipsychotic clozapine produces a(n) ________ activity within the ________.
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a. PKC
b. DISC1
c. CD4
d. YYZ
e. OSE
68. Aripiprazole acts as a(n) ______________ in the mesolimbic system and as a(n)
____________ in the prefrontal cortex.
a. agonist; antagonist
b. antagonist; agonist
c. agonist; agonist
d. antagonist; antagonist
e. partial agonist; partial antagonist
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69. A drug that binds with high affinity to a receptor, but has less efficacy than the endogenous
transmitter, would be termed a(n)
a. pseudo-agonist.
b. antagonist.
c. partial agonist.
d. autoreceptor agonist.
e. autoreceptor antagonist.
70. Laurel cries for several hours a day. She is having difficulty going to work and maintaining
her GPA. The death of her father two weeks ago is hitting her hard. In this case, Laurel’s
depression is
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a. suicidal thoughts.
b. extreme sadness.
c. crying spells.
d. strong feelings of guilt.
e. intense euphoria.
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73. Ranjan is taking the maximum number of college classes allowed in a semester, has joined
three different volunteer groups, talks excessively, and is full of energy. After a month, she
lapses into a severe state of depression lasting a few weeks before bouncing back to her highly
energized self. This description best fits a diagnosis of
a. bipolar disorder.
b. severe depression.
c. severe mania.
d. major depressive disorder.
e. schizoaffective disorder.
a. slow movements
b. periods of intense crying
c. increased appetite for sex
d. decreased appetite for food
e. sleep disturbances
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75. People diagnosed with major depressive disorder have a suicide rate of approximately
a. 2 percent.
b. 11 percent.
c. 16 percent.
d. 28 percent.
e. 33 percent.
76. What statement is true about the biological aspects of affective disorders?
a. Monozygotic twins are less likely to develop affective disorders than are dizygotic
twins.
b. Relatives are three times more likely to develop affective disorders.
c. There appears to be a link between circadian rhythm and depression.
d. Sleep and affective disorders are not associated.
e. Monozygotic twins are 100 percent concordant for affective disorders.
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78. Compared to the others, which treatment for affective disorders has the fewest side effects?
a. tricyclics
b. drugs that inhibit MAO
c. lithium
d. SSRIs
e. electroconvulsive shock therapy
a. lithium.
b. drugs that inhibit MAO.
c. drugs that block the reuptake of serotonin or norepinephrine.
d. sleep deprivation.
e. electroconvulsive shock therapy.
a. depression; mania
b. bipolar disorder; major depressive disorder
c. anxiety disorder; delusions
d. major depressive disorder; hallucinations
e. delusions; hallucinations
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81. The best evidence that there is a difference between bipolar disorder and major depressive
disorder is that
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84. The capacity of tricyclic antidepressant drugs to ________ is why these drugs function as
monoamine agonists.
a. block the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin into the synaptic terminals
b. block the reuptake of dopamine into the synaptic terminals
c. speed the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin into the synaptic terminals
d. block NMDA receptors
e. stimulate the release of glycine within the limbic system
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85. The ability of fluoxetine (Prozac) to function as an effective treatment for ________ is related
to its capacity to ________.
86. Which class of antidepressant agents has the effect of increasing activity in both serotonin
and norepinephrine synapses?
a. cocaine-related stimulants
b. lithium salts
c. SSRIs
d. SNRIs
e. MAOIs
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87. What is the benefit of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) for treating affective disorders?
88. When comparing transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) and electroconvulsive therapy
(ECT), which statement is most accurate?
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89. An alternative to electroconvulsive shock for the treatment of bipolar disorder is the use of
a. anticonvulsant drugs.
b. MAO inhibitors.
c. transcranial magnetic stimulation.
d. chlordiazepoxide.
e. fluoxetine.
90. An alternative to lithium for the treatment of bipolar disorder is the use of
a. anticonvulsant drugs.
b. MAO inhibitors.
c. cocaine or amphetamine.
d. chlordiazepoxide.
e. ketamine.
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91. A major problem for the use of lithium in treating affective disorders is that
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94. Which statement provides evidence in favor of the monoamine hypothesis for affective
disorders?
95. Some people may have a(n) ____________ risk of depression with one or two copies of
____________ alleles for the promotor region of the 5-HT transporter.
a. increased; short
b. increased; long
c. decreased; short
d. decreased; long
e. increased; medium
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96. Studies of laboratory animals indicate that stressful experiences that produce symptoms of
depression can suppress neurogenesis in the
a. frontal cortex.
b. basal ganglia.
c. pons.
d. hippocampus.
e. left parietal lobe.
97. Evidence from animal and human studies shows that most antidepressant drugs
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a. suggests that sleep causes the destruction of an endogenous substance that promotes
depression.
b. develops slowly.
c. is sufficiently large enough to justify this as an effective way to treat depression.
d. is relatively long lasting.
e. is immediate.
99. The only treatment(s) that produce(s) an immediate lifting of depression is (are)
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Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
101. The incidence of schizophrenia in the world population is approximately ________ percent.
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105. A person who believes that she or he is The Most Exalted Potentate of Love is most likely
suffering from a delusion of ________.
106. After depression, the ________ symptoms of schizophrenia are the first to appear in the
course of the disorder.
107. Adoption and twin studies indicate that schizophrenia is a(n) ________ trait.
108. Mothers who ________ during pregnancy show an increased risk of having a child who will
develop schizophrenia.
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109. Negative symptoms of schizophrenia are related to decreased activity of the dorsolateral
_______.
111. Earlier antipsychotic drugs, such as chlorpromazine, can produce a type of motor disorder
known as ________.
112. ________ of the frontal cortex contributes to the positive symptoms of schizophrenia by
increasing the release of dopamine within the nucleus accumbens.
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113. The positive symptoms of schizophrenia are reversed by drugs that are ________ receptor
antagonists.
114. Studies suggest that schizophrenia may be associated with an increased number of ________
receptors within the brain.
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119. __________ offers immediate relief of depression; unfortunately, administering large daily
doses of this drug would be impractical.
120. The mood disorder characterized by depression, lethargy, sleep disturbances, craving for
carbohydrates, and weight gain is called ________.
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Essay Questions
121. Describe the types of evidence that support the proposition that alteration of prenatal
development can contribute to the causation of schizophrenia.
122. What does the seasonality effect suggest about the causation of schizophrenia?
123. Discuss at least three environmental risk factors for the development of schizophrenia. How
could these risk factors be prevented or lessened?
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124. Contrast positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia and explain why these are
thought to involve distinct mechanisms.
125. Explain why research involving PCP may offer important clues as to the causes of positive
and negative symptoms of schizophrenia.
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126. Explain why major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder are distinct conditions.
127. Summarize the major treatments used to diminish the symptoms of depression.
128 Describe the monoamine hypothesis of depression and discuss evidence that supports this
hypothesis.
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Revel Quizzes
The following questions appear at the end of each module and at the end of the chapter in Revel
for Physiology of Behavior, 13th Edition.
EOM Q17.1.2
Question: If Damon has schizophrenia, _____________ would be the most likely to also have
schizophrenia.
a. Damon’s older sister
b. Damon’s fraternal twin
c. Damon’s mother
d. Damon’s identical twin
Answer: D
Consider This: Who would share the greatest genetic similarity? 17.2: Describe the role of
genetic factors in schizophrenia.
Learning Objective: 17.2: Describe the role of genetic factors in schizophrenia.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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EOM Q17.1.3
Question: Research suggests that a deficiency of Vitamin ___________ may contribute to the
development of schizophrenia.
a. B complex
b. C
c. D
d. E
Answer: C
Consider This: Affects those with decreased absorption of ultraviolet radiation by the skin; 17.3:
Describe the role of environmental factors in schizophrenia.
Learning Objective: 17.3: Describe the role of environmental factors in schizophrenia.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q17.1.4
Question: When researchers examined the behavior of children who would later develop
schizophrenia, the children were:
a. more likely to have colic.
b. likely to show deficits in facial expressions and abnormal movements.
c. no different from those children that would not later develop schizophrenia.
d. more likely to have high sociability.
Answer: B
Consider This: Early brain development is altered, resulting in some behavioral differences;
17.4: Describe the behavioral, physical, and brain anomalies associated with schizophrenia.
Learning Objective: 17.4: Describe the behavioral, physical, and brain anomalies associated with
schizophrenia.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q17.1.5
Question: The positive symptoms of schizophrenia are caused by _____ of the _____ pathway.
a. underactivity; mesolimbic
b. underactivity; mesocortical
c. overactivity; mesolimbic
d. overactivity; mesocortical
Answer: C
Consider This: Excessive dopamine release from this system; 17.5: Explain the role of the
mesolimbic dopamine pathway in the positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
Learning Objective: 17.5: Explain the role of the mesolimbic dopamine pathway in the positive
symptoms of schizophrenia.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
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EOM Q17.2.2
Question: Which statement is true about affective disorders?
a. Monozygotic twins are less likely to develop affective disorders than dizygotic twins.
b. Relatives are three times more likely to develop affective disorders.
c. There appears to be a link between circadian rhythm and depression.
d. Sleep and affective disorders are not associated.
Answer: C
Consider This: RORA and RORB have been linked to affective disorders; 17.8: Describe the role
of genetic factors in affective disorders.
Learning Objective: 17.8: Describe the role of genetic factors in affective disorders.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q17.2.3
Question: Treatment for bipolar disorder MOST often includes:
a. ECT.
b. lithium.
c. sleep deprivation.
d. MAOIs.
Answer: B
Consider This: This treatment has a low therapeutic index; 17.9: Identify biological treatments
for affective disorders.
Learning Objective: 17.9: Identify biological treatments for affective disorders.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOM Q17.2.4
Question: Brain activity in depressed individuals shows an increase in the ______________
cortex.
a. subgenual anterior cingulate
b. ventromedial prefrontal
c. dorsolateral prefrontal
d. ventrolateral prefrontal
Answer: A
Consider This: This area is located below the “knee” at the front of the corpus callosum; 17.10:
Describe the role of the frontal cortex in depression.
Learning Objective: 17.10: Describe the role of the frontal cortex in depression.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q17.2.5
Question: Research on sleep patterns and depression indicates that individuals with depression:
a. are deep sleepers.
b. have decreased stage 1 sleep.
c. enter REM sleep earlier in the night.
d. experience the same amount of eye movements as non-depressed individuals.
Answer: C
Consider This: Depressed individuals do not cycle through the stages in the order that non-
depressed individuals do; 17.14: Summarize the role of circadian rhythms in affective disorders.
Learning Objective: 17.14: Summarize the role of circadian rhythms in affective disorders.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOC Q17.2
Question: One positive symptom of schizophrenia is:
a. hallucinations.
b. flattened emotional response.
c. anhedonia.
d. social withdrawal.
Answer: A
Consider This: Here, “positive” means “in addition” rather than “good”; 17.1: Provide examples
of positive, negative, and cognitive symptoms of schizophrenia.
Learning Objective: 17.1: Provide examples of positive, negative, and cognitive symptoms of
schizophrenia.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q17.3
Question: One negative symptom of schizophrenia is:
a. anhedonia.
b. hallucinations.
c. delusions.
d. irrational thinking.
Answer: A
Consider This: Here, “negative” means “subtraction” rather than “bad”; 17.1: Provide examples
of positive, negative, and cognitive symptoms of schizophrenia.
Learning Objective: 17.1: Provide examples of positive, negative, and cognitive symptoms of
schizophrenia.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q17.4
Question: In some cases, identical twins are not concordant for schizophrenia. Although
environmental factors may cause this difference, prenatal factors may also play a part because
_______________ twins would have greater concordance.
a. monochorionic
b. dichorionic
c. polygenetic
d. dizygotic
Answer: A
Consider This: Twin babies can either be in the same amniotic sac or in two different sacs; 17.2:
Describe the role of genetic factors in schizophrenia.
Learning Objective: 17.2: Describe the role of genetic factors in schizophrenia.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOC Q17.5
Question: The seasonality effect refers to the fact that individuals:
a. with schizophrenia are more likely to demonstrate symptoms during the hotter months of
the year.
b. are more likely to develop schizophrenia if they are born between February and May.
c. are more likely to be diagnosed with schizophrenia between February and May.
d. with schizophrenia are more likely to demonstrate symptoms during winter months.
Answer: B
Consider This: Mom’s exposure to the flu virus may impact the developing fetus; 17.3: Describe
the role of environmental factors in schizophrenia.
Learning Objective: 17.3: Describe the role of environmental factors in schizophrenia.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q17.6
Question: Which statement about the incidence of schizophrenia is MORE accurate?
a. The incidence is higher in urban settings.
b. The incidence is higher in rural settings.
c. Individuals with vitamin E deficiency are more susceptible.
d. The incidence is higher among people born in the autumn months.
Answer: A
Consider This: The seasonality effect suggests viruses can alter development—who would be
more likely to get viruses?; 17.3: Describe the role of environmental factors in schizophrenia.
Learning Objective: 17.3: Describe the role of environmental factors in schizophrenia.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q17.7
Question: Environmental risk factors for schizophrenia include:
a. paternal age.
b. genetic mutations.
c. maternal age.
d. parental use of tobacco during pregnancy.
Answer: D
Consider This: Environmental factors are not contributed genetically; 17.3: Describe the role of
environmental factors in schizophrenia.
Learning Objective: 17.3: Describe the role of environmental factors in schizophrenia.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOC Q17.8
Question: Which minor physical anomaly is associated with schizophrenia?
a. narrow-set eyes
b. curved fourth finger
c. head circumference outside normal range
d. high-seated ears
Answer: C
Consider This: Microencephaly has been correlated with schizophrenia; 17.4: Describe the
behavioral, physical, and brain anomalies associated with schizophrenia.
Learning Objective: 17.4: Describe the behavioral, physical, and brain anomalies associated with
schizophrenia.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q17.9
Question: The negative symptoms of schizophrenia are caused by ______ of the ______ system.
a. underactivity; mesolimbic
b. underactivity; mesocortical
c. overactivity; mesolimbic
d. overactivity; mesocortical
Answer: B
Consider This: The negative and cognitive symptoms of schizophrenia are similar to those
produced by brain damage caused by several different means; 17.6: Explain the role of the cortex
in the negative and cognitive symptoms of schizophrenia.
Learning Objective: 17.6: Explain the role of the cortex in the negative and cognitive symptoms
of schizophrenia.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
EOC Q17.10
Question: Tiana cries for several hours a day. She is having difficulty going to work and
maintaining her GPA. The death of her father two weeks ago is hitting her hard. In this case,
Tiana’s depression is:
a. abnormal because it has lasted too long.
b. normal because it has not been an extensive duration and has occurred in response to an
understandable cause.
c. abnormal because it has no explanation.
d. normal but it would be considered abnormal if her crying bouts lasted longer on a daily
basis.
Answer: B
Consider This: To be diagnosed as a disorder, it should be maladaptive and have no justifiable
cause; 17.7: Contrast the symptoms of major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder.
Learning Objective: 17.7: Contrast the symptoms of major depressive disorder and bipolar
disorder.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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EOC Q17.11
Question: With respect to affective disorders, which treatment option has the FEWEST side
effects?
a. tricyclics
b. MAOIs
c. lithium
d. SSRIs
Answer: D
Consider This: Includes drugs like Prozac; 17.9: Identify biological treatments for affective
disorders.
Learning Objective: 17.9: Identify biological treatments for affective disorders.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q17.12
Question: The benefit of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) for affective disorders is that it:
a. works quicker than pharmacological treatments.
b. reduces the likelihood of a recurrence of the disorder.
c. is not associated with any brain damage.
d. promotes an increase in brain activity.
Answer: A
Consider This: ECT can be used to help individuals with acute depression that may result in
suicide if not treated soon; 17.9: Identify biological treatments for affective disorders.
Learning Objective: 17.9: Identify biological treatments for affective disorders.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q17.13
Question: As compared to electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), transcranial magnetic stimulation
(TMS) has:
a. fewer side effects.
b. more side effects.
c. a greater relapse rate.
d. a much lower relapse rate.
Answer: A
Consider This: TMS would be preferred over ECT; 17.9: Identify biological treatments for
affective disorders.
Learning Objective: 17.9: Identify biological treatments for affective disorders.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
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EOC Q17.14
Question: Which statement demonstrates evidence in favor of the monoamine hypothesis for
affective disorders?
a. Reserpine does not cause depressive symptoms.
b. Tryptophan depletion causes depression in susceptible individuals.
c. L-DOPA results in depressive symptoms.
d. Dopamine agonists treat depression.
Answer: B
Consider This: The monoamine hypothesis refers to the roles of either serotonin or
norepinephrine in affective disorders; 17.11: Explain the monoamine theory of affective
disorders.
Learning Objective: 17.11: Explain the monoamine theory of affective disorders.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Facts
EOC Q17.15
Question: With more stressful life events some people cope better than others. One line of
research suggests that individuals have a(n) ____________ risk of depression with one or two
copies of ____________ alleles for the promotor region of the 5-HT transporter.
a. increased; short
b. increased; long
c. decreased; short
d. decreased; long
Answer: A
Consider This: Research suggests that long alleles result in higher serotonin transporter mRNA
transcription; 17.12: Critique the evidence for the role of allele polymorphism for the serotonin
transporter in affective disorders.
Learning Objective: 17.12: Critique the evidence for the role of allele polymorphism for the
serotonin transporter in affective disorders.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Skill Level: Analyze It
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Multiple-Choice Questions
a. a stressor.
b. a fight-or-flight response.
c. stressful.
d. an immune response.
e. stress.
2. The response to stress known as ____________ prepares the body for either attacking a
threat or running from it.
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6. The two pathways fundamentally involved in the physiological response to stress are
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a. central nucleus of the amygdala –> activates ACTH secretion from anterior
pituitary –> PVN activation –> glucocorticoid secretion from adrenal medulla
b. CRH secretion within the PVN –> activates ACTH release from anterior
pituitary –> glucocorticoid secretion from adrenal cortex
c. PVN activation –> CRH secretion in median eminence –> ACTH secretion from
anterior pituitary –> glucocorticoid secretion from adrenal cortex
d. ACTH secretion from the PVN –> CRH release from the posterior pituitary –>
glucocorticoid secretion from adrenal cortex
e. activation of the central nucleus of the amygdala –> sympathetic activation –>
adrenaline release –> glucocorticoid secretion from adrenal cortex
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9. The hypothalamus releases ___________, the pituitary gland releases __________, and
the adrenal glands release ____________ to complete the action in the HPA axis.
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12. Injection of corticotropin-releasing factor (CRF) into the ventricles of rats results in
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13. Injection of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) into the brain would be expected to
result in
a. insulin-releasing
b. glucagon-releasing
c. cortisol-releasing
d. estrogen-releasing
e. corticotropin-releasing
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15. If a rat’s adrenal glands are removed and the animal is then exposed to a stressful
situation, the most likely outcome is that
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17. A person who has been subjected to long-term stress at an early age
18. Hans Selye argued that ill health noted after stress exposure reflects
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20. The capacity of stress to suppress the immune response is mediated by the secretion of
a. immunoglobulins.
b. cytokines.
c. glucocorticoids.
d. norepinephrine.
e. B-lymphocytes.
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22. When a system regains and maintains homeostasis in response to a stimulus, it is often
referred to as
a. internal balance.
b. rejuvenation.
c. fight or flight.
d. allostasis.
e. an A-B-A effect.
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a. Couples who displayed high levels of hostile behavior had wounds that healed
more slowly than couples that displayed more friendly behaviors.
b. Caregivers of family members with Alzheimer’s disease had wounds that healed
quicker than non-caregivers.
c. Wounds heal faster during final exams as compared to summer vacation.
d. High HPA axis activity is linked to greater gains in healing.
e. Low HPA axis activity is linked to slower gains in healing.
24. Which person would be expected to take more time to heal from a cut on her or his hand?
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25. The deleterious effect of stress on memory involves the action of glucocorticoid release
to
26. Humans who have been exposed to the stress of ________ show evidence of brain
degeneration in CT scans.
a. radiation sickness
b. torture
c. adolescence
d. caregiving
e. parenting
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27. Older adults with elevated blood levels of _____________ learned a maze ________
than did those with normal levels when tested during an experiment.
a. early death, even though they were isolated from stressors for a period of years.
b. self-injurious behaviors, such as gnawing on their front paws and refusing food
when offered.
c. no lasting harm, indicating that stress must be prolonged in order to have a
harmful effect on an organism.
d. impaired learning and damage to their hippocampal regions.
e. mating difficulties.
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29. Monkeys who are low in a dominance hierarchy are often the object of stressful
situations, and the effects of these stresses are evident in
a. gastric ulcers.
b. enlarged amygdalas.
c. an inability to mate and form pair bonds.
d. shrunken adrenal glands.
e. deterioration of the parietal lobe.
30. Humans suffering from prolonged chronic pain would be likely to show which brain
feature?
a. an enlarged hippocampus
b. shrunken periaqueductal gray matter
c. a missing hypothalamic nucleus
d. neurogenesis of cells in the amygdala
e. a loss of gray matter in the cerebral cortex
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31. Prenatal stress can cause long-lasting deficits in learning and memory by interfering with
normal development of the
a. cerebral cortex.
b. hippocampus.
c. amygdala.
d. thalamus.
e. hypothalamus.
32. The presence of various protective hormones, such as ____________, can promote
resilience in the event of stress.
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33. Compared to the others, which factor contributes the least to stress resilience?
a. endocrine function
b. nation of birth
c. controlled exposure to stressors
d. protective hormones
e. early nurturing life experiences
34. ________ refers to the study of the interactions among the nervous system, the immune
system, and environmental stimuli.
a. Biopsychology
b. Environmental psychotoxicology
c. Psychoneuroimmunology
d. Autoimmunology
e. Immunopsychology
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a. interferon; antibodies
b. antigens; antibodies
c. antibodies; B-lymphocytes
d. antibodies; antigens
e. infections; antibodies
36. A(n) ________ is a component of the immune system that is developed within bone
marrow.
a. antigen
b. pathogen
c. B-lymphocyte
d. alpha-lymphocyte
e. T-lymphocyte
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37. The primary means by which the immune system defends against invading organisms is
to
38. A(n) ________ is an antibody released by B-lymphocytes that binds with antigens and
helps destroy invading microorganisms.
a. immunoglobulin
b. cytokine
c. T-lymphocyte
d. interleukin-1 cell
e. immunocyte
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a. glial cells
b. tumor cells
c. chains of protein
d. fat cells
e. bone marrow
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43. Chemically mediated immune reactions are produced by _____________ and cell-
mediated immune reactions are produced by ______________.
a. B-lymphocytes; T-lymphocytes
b. T-lymphocytes; B-lymphocytes
c. immunoglobulins; T-lymphocytes
d. B-lymphocytes; immunoglobulins
e. cytokines; immunoglobulins
a. a person who cares for a relative with Alzheimer’s disease produces more
antibodies in response to a bacterial agent.
b. fighter pilots show higher immune responses after completing successive
missions.
c. husbands whose wives died from breast cancer show reduced immune response.
d. antibody production is stimulated by release of glucocorticoids.
e. glucocorticoid release is inhibited by chronic stress.
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46. The first defense within the nose, mouth, throat, and lungs against infectious microbes is
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a. a natural disaster.
b. an unexpected stressor.
c. danger or violence from other people.
d. repeated exposure to mild stressors.
e. property damage.
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49. What is the approximate lifetime prevalence of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) in
the United States?
a. 9 percent
b. 12 percent
c. 17 percent
d. 22 percent
e. 31 percent
50. Which statement regarding symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is correct?
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a. Women exposed to traumatic events are more likely than men to develop PTSD.
b. PTSD is a problem noted almost exclusively after middle age.
c. Women are more likely than men to experience severe trauma.
d. PTSD is an environmental disorder with no genetic roots.
e. PTSD results in poor psychological functioning without accompanying
disruptions to physical health.
52. Ever since Lucius came home from combat, he has had a hard time concentrating on a
task for very long. He is always looking around him, afraid that something may happen or
that someone is plotting against him. Lucius is experiencing _________ as a facet of
posttraumatic stress disorder.
a. intrusive thoughts
b. suppressed emotional feelings
c. avoidant symptoms
d. negative alterations in cognitions
e. increased arousal and heightened reactions
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53. Rhoda was robbed at gunpoint while walking to her car after working late one night.
Ever since this happened, she refuses to park in the same lot. She experiences a crippling
level of anxiety even thinking about walking through that parking lot again. Rhoda is
experiencing __________ associated with posttraumatic stress disorder.
a. intrusive thoughts
b. suppressed emotional feelings
c. avoidant symptoms
d. negative alterations in cognitions
e. increased arousal and heightened reactions
54. Donald was in a serious automobile accident last year and developed posttraumatic
stress disorder as a result. He feels incredibly sad and guilty about the accident and clearly
blames himself for what happened, because he was driving the car. He has started to isolate
himself from his family and friends, and just spends his days alone in his room. Donald is
experiencing
a. intrusive thoughts.
b. difficulty concentrating.
c. flashbacks.
d. feelings of detachment from others.
e. heightened reactions to sudden noises.
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55. Compared to the others, which person is most likely to experience traumatic events and,
as a result, experience PTSD?
a. Joel, a Type-B personality who isn’t deadline driven and enjoys music
b. Ugo, an anxious and easily angered student
c. Peter, an irritable blue collar worker who enjoys driving fast
d. Tomaso, a quiet, mild-mannered manager whose idea of “risky” includes
swimming in the local lake
e. Mickey, an online video gamer who stays in nightly
56. A person with ________ who is exposed to a traumatic event is more likely to develop
posttraumatic stress disorder.
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57. The Vietnam veteran twin study documented that a person with a smaller ________ was
more likely to develop PTSD after a combat experience.
a. frontal cortex
b. caudate nucleus
c. amygdala
d. corpus callosum
e. hippocampus
58. People diagnosed with PTSD were shown photographs of faces posing fearful
expressions. In this study, the symptoms of the people with PTSD were _____________
correlated with the activation of the amygdala and ___________ correlated with the
activation of the medial prefrontal cortex.
a. positively; negatively
b. negatively; positively
c. positively; positively
d. positively; not
e. not; negatively
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a. Cognitive behavior therapy, group therapy, and antidepressants are the most
common treatments.
b. Transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) is largely ineffective.
c. Administration of SSRIs can worsen symptoms.
d. Psychotherapy increases amygdala activity and decreases prefrontal cortex
activity.
e. Re-exposure to the traumatic event helps patients overcome PTSD.
a. schizophrenia.
b. anxiety disorders.
c. mood disorder.
d. post-traumatic stress disorder.
e. obsessive compulsive disorder.
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a. 4 percent.
b. 9 percent.
c. 17 percent.
d. 28 percent.
e. 36 percent.
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a. Prevalence rates are higher in Latin American countries than in the United States.
b. Men are more likely to experience panic disorder than are women.
c. Panic attacks are often confused with heart attacks.
d. Prevalence in the United States is approximately 10 percent.
e. Panic disorder is typically diagnosed in childhood.
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65. An intense fear of being away from home or other protected places is known as
a. geophobia.
b. acrophobia.
c. spatial anxiety.
d. agoraphobia.
e. claustrophobia.
66. A person who experiences recurrent panic disorder may become even more anxious
because
a. of anticipatory anxiety.
b. of embarrassment associated with screaming while in public places.
c. of residual long-lasting anxiety from the previous panic attack.
d. anxiety symptoms show sensitization with repeated experiences.
e. anxiety causes the release of GABA in the brain.
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67. A biological basis for panic disorder is indicated by the finding that
a. monozygotic and dizygotic twins are equally likely to develop panic disorder.
b. panic disorder responds well to family psychotherapy.
c. people injected with lactic acid experience symptoms similar to those of a panic
attack.
d. haloperidol is an effective antidote for feelings of anxiety.
e. panic disorder can be precipitated by the use of alcohol combined with cocaine.
68. Functional imaging studies indicate that a panic attack is accompanied by activation of
the
a. hippocampus.
b. thalamus.
c. cingulated cortex.
d. amygdala.
e. corpus callosum.
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69. A person who cannot control her or his anxiety will exhibit
70. Panic disorder is currently treated using a combination of cognitive behavior therapy and
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71. A panic-prone person who ingests a(n) ________ would be expected to show increased
anxiety.
a. benzodiazepine agonist
b. tricyclic antidepressant
c. MAO inhibitor
d. combination of ethyl alcohol and barbiturate
e. benzodiazepine antagonist
72. The effectiveness of benzodiazepines for the treatment of anxiety disorders involves
a. 5HT3 receptors.
b. GABAA receptors.
c. nicotinic receptors.
d. 5HT1A receptors.
e. noradrenergic receptors.
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73. A problem with using benzodiazepine drugs as a long-term anxiety treatment is that
these drugs
a. induce seizures.
b. cause sedation.
c. make a person more prone to drink alcohol.
d. result in sensitization.
e. suppress REM sleep.
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76. Tierra is fearful of catching an illness. She envisions germs covering every surface when
she ventures outside of her immaculately kept apartment. She wears gloves and refuses to
touch other people or to allow them to touch her. Her preoccupation with germs would be
considered a(n)
a. compulsion.
b. obsession.
c. fixation.
d. mania.
e. psychosis.
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a. Compulsions are usually mild and do not interfere with daily life.
b. People with OCD do not realize they have irrational obsessions.
c. Obsessions are never comorbid with other disorders.
d. OCD is more similar to hoarding and trichotillomania than it is to anxiety
disorders.
e. Therapy is successful in all cases of OCD.
a. acral licking.
b. combing hair.
c. a mother using her teeth to move her infant to another room.
d. building a nest to house an infant.
e. ingesting food.
80. A person showing muscular and vocal tics, squatting, grunting, and vulgar speech is most
likely to have
a. Guillain-Barré syndrome.
b. Kluver-Bucy syndrome.
c. Tourette’s syndrome.
d. Moebius syndrome.
e. Korsakoff’s disease.
81. Both obsessive-compulsive disorder and Tourette’s syndrome may be caused by the
same underlying genotype, as evidenced from family studies. What factor predicts whether a
person with this genotype develops one disorder or the other?
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82. Both obsessive-compulsive disorder and Tourette’s syndrome are examples of which
broader class of disorders?
83. The symptoms of obsessive-compulsive disorder that occur after an infection are likely
to be the result of autoimmune-associated damage to the
a. hypothalamus.
b. basal ganglia.
c. cerebellum.
d. somatosensory cortex.
e. cingulate sulcus.
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84. Functional imaging studies consistently identify increased activity of which brain region
among patients with OCD?
a. occipital lobe
b. pons
c. temporal lobes
d. pituitary gland
e. caudate nucleus
85. OCD patients who received successful cognitive behavioral therapy showed
improvements in their symptoms that were
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86. Joey has been undergoing a successful combination of cognitive behavioral therapy and
drug treatments for his obsessive-compulsive disorder. A brain imaging follow-up revealed
reduced activity in his __________ and __________.
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88. Three drugs are regularly used to treat the symptoms of OCD: clomipramine, fluoxetine,
and fluvoxamine. These drugs are
a. dopamine agonists.
b. serotonin agonists.
c. norepinephrine antagonists.
d. dopamine antagonists.
e. serotonin antagonists.
89. Deep brain stimulation of the ________ is partially effective in treating ________.
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a. somatophagia
b. Kluver-Bucy syndrome
c. onychophagia
d. acral lick dermatitis
e. trichotillomania
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94. The specific compulsion known as ________ is seen in large breeds of dogs rather than in
humans.
a. somatophagia
b. Kluver-Bucy syndrome
c. onychophagia
d. acral lick dermatitis
e. trichotillomania
95. The ________ pathway from the basal ganglia to the cortex is ________ for motor
function.
a. indirect; excitatory
b. direct; inhibitory
c. corticofugal; excitatory
d. direct; excitatory
e. hyperdirect; excitatory
Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
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97. The release of _______________ stress hormones is under the control of the sympathetic
adrenal-medullary system.
98. The adrenal hormone ________ stimulates glucose metabolism and blood flow.
99. The capacity of stress to suppress the immune response is mediated by the secretion of
________.
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101. The primary role of ________ in immune function is to stimulate cell division.
102. The first defense within the nose, mouth, throat, and lungs against infectious microbes
is the immunoglobulin ________.
103. Intense feelings of fear, helplessness, or horror are defining symptoms of ________.
104. An intense fear of being away from home or other protected places is known as
________.
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106. A person who ingests a benzodiazepine antagonist would be expected to show ________
anxiety.
107. The behaviors of counting, avoidance, checking, and cleaning are categories of
________.
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109. A person showing muscular and vocal tics, squatting, grunting, and vulgar speech is
most likely to be diagnosed with ________ syndrome.
111. The symptoms of OCD can be treated using neurosurgery in which the ________ is
damaged.
112. __________ is the neurotransmitter that plays the most crucial role in obsessive-
compulsive disorder.
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113. The symptoms of obsessive-compulsive disorder may be the result of overactivity in the
__________ pathway of the basal ganglia.
Essay Questions
114. Describe and explain how the hormonal changes that accompany stress can affect
health.
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116. Contrast panic disorder with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) with regard to
symptoms, heritability, and brain activation.
117. Explain why it is believed that panic attacks are thought to have a biological basis.
118. Describe the environmental factors that can trigger panic attacks.
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119. Describe the symptoms noted in obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and explain why
these might reduce the chances of maintaining a long-term relationship with another person.
121. Discuss three effective drug treatments for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and
treatments that involve direct intervention in the brain.
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Revel Quizzes
The following questions appear at the end of each module and at the end of the chapter in
Revel for Physiology of Behavior, 13th Edition.
EOM Q18.1.2
Question: Candace is an emergency-room nurse. Recently, she suffered a nasty cut while
preparing a meal. She wonders whether she is healing more slowly than she once did. The
concept of ______ is MOST relevant to Candace’s experience.
a. allostatic load
b. homeostasis
c. a set point
d. posttraumatic stress
Answer: A
Consider This: Job stress may have exerted some wear and tear on Candace’s body; LO
18.2: Describe the negative health outcomes associated with chronic stress.
Learning Objective: 18.2: Describe the negative health outcomes associated with chronic
stress.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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EOM Q18.1.3
Question: Elderly people with elevated blood levels of _____________ learned a maze
more ________ than did those with normal levels.
a. glucocorticoids; slowly
b. glucocorticoids; quickly
c. thyroxine; slowly
d. thyroxine; quickly
Answer: A
Consider This: Stress = less cognitive function; LO 18.3: Compare the effects of long-term
glucocorticoid exposure and early nurturing experiences on the brain in response to stress.
Learning Objective: 18.3: Compare the effects of long-term glucocorticoid exposure and
early nurturing experiences on the brain in response to stress.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
EOM Q18.1.4
Question: Prenatal stress can cause long-lasting malfunctions in learning and memory by
interfering with normal development of the brain’s:
a. hippocampus.
b. cerebral cortex.
c. amygdala.
d. thalamus.
Answer: A
Consider This: Which area is largely responsible for learning?; LO 18.3: Compare the effects
of long-term glucocorticoid exposure and early nurturing experiences on the brain in
response to stress.
Learning Objective: 18.3: Compare the effects of long-term glucocorticoid exposure and
early nurturing experiences on the brain in response to stress.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOM Q18.1.5
Question: Chemically mediated immune reactions are produced by _______________,
whereas cell-mediated immune reactions are produced by _________________.
a. B-lymphocytes; T-lymphocytes
b. T-lymphocytes; B-lymphocytes
c. immunoglobulins; T-lymphocytes
d. B-lymphocytes; immunoglobulins
Answer: A
Consider This: “Chemically mediated” refers to antibodies released into circulation, whereas
“cell mediated” refers to antibodies that remain attached to the outside of the cell membrane;
LO 18.4: Summarize the relationship between the immune and nervous systems in response
to stress.
Learning Objective: 18.4: Summarize the relationship between the immune and nervous
systems in response to stress.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Skill Level: Analyze It
EOM Q18.2.2
Question: Regarding the development of PTSD:
a. genetics is responsible, as indicated by the presence of the COMT enzyme that
destroys catecholamines.
b. the environment produces individuals who are more likely to experience PTSD, as
evidenced by the fact that people who experience more traumatic events are more
likely to be affected.
c. there appears to be an interplay between genetics and environment.
d. the Val158Met polymorphism is responsible.
Answer: C
Consider This: A true nature and nurture combination; LO 18.6: Describe the roles of
genetic and environmental factors in PTSD.
Learning Objective: 18.6: Describe the roles of genetic and environmental factors in PTSD.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM Q18.2.3
Question: Which person is MOST likely to experience traumatic events and, as a result,
experience PTSD?
a. Joel, a Type-B personality who isn’t deadline driven and enjoys music
b. John, an anxious and easily angered student
c. Peter, an irritable blue- collar worker who enjoys driving fast
d. Thomas, a quiet, mild-mannered manager whose idea of “risky” includes swimming
in the local lake
Answer: C
Consider This: Who is more likely to invite assault or accident?; LO 18.6: Describe the roles
of genetic and environmental factors in PTSD.
Learning Objective: 18.6: Describe the roles of genetic and environmental factors in PTSD.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM Q18.2.4
Question: Individuals with PTSD were shown pictures of faces with fearful expressions. In
this study, the symptoms of the people with PTSD were_________________ correlated with
the activation of the amygdala and ____________ correlated with the activation of the
medial prefrontal cortex.
a. positively; negatively
b. negatively; positively
c. positively; not
d. not; negatively
Answer: A
Consider This: The amygdala would be responsible for emotional responses associated with
PTSD; LO 18.7: Describe changes in the brain associated with PTSD.
Learning Objective: 18.7: Describe changes in the brain associated with PTSD.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Skill Level: Analyze It
EOM Q18.2.5
Question: Which statement is MOST accurate regarding the treatment of PTSD?
a. Cognitive behavior therapy, group therapy, and antidepressants are the most common
treatments.
b. TMS is largely ineffective.
c. SSRIs can worsen symptoms.
d. Psychotherapy increases amygdala activity and decreases prefrontal cortex activity.
Answer: A
Consider This: Numerous treatments are possible and effective for PTSD; LO 18.8:
Summarize treatments for PTSD.
Learning Objective: 18.8: Summarize treatments for PTSD.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM Q18.3.2
Question: This disorder consists of excessive anxiety and worry with no legitimate cause.
a. panic disorder
b. agoraphobia
c. generalized anxiety disorder
d. social anxiety disorder
Answer: C
Consider This: Affects those of European descent more than others; LO 18.9: List the
symptoms of anxiety disorders.
Learning Objective: 18.9: List the symptoms of anxiety disorders.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q18.3.3
Question: Which statement is true about heritability of anxiety disorders?
a. Family studies indicate social anxiety disorder, generalized anxiety disorder, and
panic disorder have a hereditary component.
b. Genetic components result in enhanced extinction of conditioned fear responses in
those with anxiety disorders.
c. Individuals with the Val66Met allele have increased activity of the vmPFC during
extinction.
d. Individuals with the Val66Met allele have decreased activity of the vmPFC during
extinction.
Answer: A
Consider This: If someone has anxiety, would they experience extinction or not?; LO 18.10:
Describe the roles of genetic and environmental factors in anxiety disorders.
Learning Objective: 18.10: Describe the roles of genetic and environmental factors in
anxiety disorders.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM Q18.3.4
Question: A striking feature of the “brain signature” of anxiety disorders is heightened
activity in the:
a. prefrontal cortex.
b. pons.
c. Amygdala.
d. hippocampus.
Answer: C
Consider This: The brain signature is seen in generalized anxiety, social anxiety, and panic
disorder; LO 18.11: Describe changes in the brain associated with anxiety disorders.
Learning Objective: 18.11: Describe changes in the brain associated with anxiety disorders.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q18.3.5
Question: Anxiety disorders can be treated with:
a. GABA antagonists.
b. GABA agonists.
c. drugs that activate the amygdala.
d. serotonin antagonists.
Answer: B
Consider This: Which drug would calm the panic?; LO 18.12: Summarize treatments for
anxiety disorders.
Learning Objective: 18.12: Summarize treatments for anxiety disorders.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOM Q18.4.2
Question: Evidence suggests that OCD and ___________ overlap, with individuals often
demonstrating behaviors from both disorders.
a. schizophrenia
b. generalized anxiety disorder
c. posttraumatic stress disorder
d. Tourette’s syndrome
Answer: D
Consider This: Family association between OCD and tic disorders; LO 18.14: Describe the
roles of genetic and environmental factors in OCD.
Learning Objective: 18.14: Describe the roles of genetic and environmental factors in OCD.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q18.4.3
Question: Nongenetic OCD can result from damage to the brain. Specifically, damage to the
_____________ appears to be responsible for the symptoms of OCD.
a. basal ganglia
b. cingulate gyrus
c. prefrontal cortex
d. putamen
Answer: A
Consider This: This brain area is involved in the coordination of movement; LO 18.14:
Describe the roles of genetic and environmental factors in OCD.
Learning Objective: 18.14: Describe the roles of genetic and environmental factors in OCD.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q18.4.4
Question: Several imaging studies have demonstrated that OCD symptoms are associated
with _________________ of the ______________________.
a. overactivity; caudate nucleus and orbitofrontal cortex
b. underactivity; caudate nucleus
c. overactivity; orbitofrontal cortex
d. underactivity; caudate nucleus and orbitofrontal cortex
Answer: A
Consider This: The involvement of the basal ganglia in OCD implicates one of these areas;
LO 18.15: Describe changes in the brain associated with OCD.
Learning Objective: 18.15: Describe changes in the brain associated with OCD.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Skill Level: Analyze It
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EOM Q18.4.5
Question: Which statement is MOST accurate regarding treatment of OCD?
a. Only serotonin antagonists have been helpful in treating OCD.
b. Cingulotomy and capsulotomy are treatments for severe OCD.
c. D-cycloserine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, has been found effective for OCD
treatment.
d. Deep brain stimulation has been found to be ineffective in OCD treatment.
Answer: B
Consider This: Brain lesions cannot be undone; 18.16: Summarize treatments for OCD.
Learning Objective: LO 18.16: Summarize treatments for OCD.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q18.2
Question: The hypothalamus releases ___________, the pituitary releases __________, and
the adrenals release ___________________ to make up the steps of action in the HPA axis.
a. corticotropin-releasing hormone; adrenocorticotropic hormone; and glucocorticoids
b. glucocorticoids; corticotropin-releasing hormone; adrenocorticotropic hormone
c. adrenocorticotropic hormone; corticotropin-releasing hormone; glucocorticoids
d. corticotropin-releasing hormone; glucocorticoids; adrenocorticotropic hormone
Answer: A
Consider This: CRH before ACTH; LO 18.1: Compare the SAM system and HPA axis in
coordinating a stress response.
Learning Objective: 18.1: Compare the SAM system and HPA axis in coordinating a stress
response.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Skill Level: Analyze It
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EOC Q18.3
Question: The textbook notes that “air traffic controllers . . . show a greater incidence of
high blood pressure, which gets worse as they grow older (Cobb & Rose, 1973).” The
concept of _____ is most relevant to the notion that the negative health effects of stress
become more severe over time.
a. allostatic load
b. homeostasis
c. a set point
d. anticipatory anxiety
Answer: A
Consider This: Job stress exerts wear and tear on the air traffic controllers’ bodies; LO 18.2:
Describe the negative health outcomes associated with chronic stress.
Learning Objective: 18.2: Describe the negative health outcomes associated with chronic
stress.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q18.4
Question: The presence of various neuroprotective hormones, such as
__________________ can promote resilience in the event of stress.
a. DHEA and thyroxine
b. thyroxine and cortisol
c. DHEA and testosterone
d. neuropeptide Y and cortisol
Answer: C
Consider this: Sex hormones are often neuroprotective; LO 18.3: Compare the effects of
long-term glucocorticoid exposure and early nurturing experiences on the brain in response
to stress.
Learning Objective: 18.3: Compare the effects of long-term glucocorticoid exposure and
early nurturing experiences on the brain in response to stress.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q18.5
Question: Which statement regarding PTSD is MOST accurate?
a. Men are less likely to be exposed to traumatic events.
b. Women are more likely than men to experience PTSD after a traumatic event.
c. Lifetime prevalence of PTSD is less than 5 percent in the US.
d. Men are more likely to experience PTSD after a traumatic event than women are.
Answer: B
Consider This: Prevalence appears to be influenced by the same factors that influence
depression prevalence; LO 18.5: List the symptoms of PTSD.
Learning Objective: 18.5: List the symptoms of PTSD.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOC Q18.6
Question: Shared symptoms between depression and PTSD include:
a. memory impairments.
b. flashbacks of trauma.
c. avoidance of stimuli associated with trauma.
d. reduced interest or participation in significant activities.
Answer: D
Consider This: Most depression is not developed from a specific trauma; LO 18.5: List the
symptoms of PTSD.
Learning Objective: 18.5: List the symptoms of PTSD.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
EOC Q18.7
Question: Which statement is true regarding the heritability of PTSD?
a. Individuals with higher levels of COMT were more likely to develop PTSD.
b. Individuals with lower levels of COMT were more likely to develop PTSD
c. The Val158Met polymorphism was not responsible for PTSD.
d. Faster destruction of catecholamines is associated with PTSD.
Answer: B
Consider This: High levels of NE and E cause negative effects; LO 18.6: Describe the roles
of genetic and environmental factors in PTSD.
Learning Objective: 18.6: Describe the roles of genetic and environmental factors in PTSD.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q18.8
Question: Tourmaline is undergoing psychotherapy to treat PTSD. Based on the textbook’s
discussion, an investigation of Tourmaline’s brain should reveal _____ in activity in the
amygdala and ______ in activity in the prefrontal cortex.
a. a decrease; an increase
b. a decrease; no change
c. no change; an increase
d. no change; no change
Answer: B
Consider This: Psychotherapy is generally about as effective as drug therapy; LO 18.8:
Summarize treatments for PTSD.
Learning Objective: 18.8: Summarize treatments for PTSD.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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EOC Q18.9
Question: _____ disorders are the MOST common type of psychiatric disorder.
a. Psychotic
b. Anxiety
c. Affective or mood
d. Dissociative
Answer: B
Consider This: This type of disorder has a lifetime prevalence of 28 percent; LO 18.9: List
the symptoms of anxiety disorders.
Learning Objective: 18.9: List the symptoms of anxiety disorders.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q18.10
Question: Which statement is MOST accurate with regard to panic disorder?
a. Prevalence rates are higher in Latin American countries.
b. Men are more likely than women to experience panic disorder.
c. Panic attacks are often confused with heart attacks.
d. Prevalence in the US is approximately 10 percent.
Answer: C
Consider This: Panic attacks include many physical symptoms, such as shortness of breath,
clammy sweat, irregularities in heartbeat, dizziness, faintness, and feelings of unreality; LO
18.9: List the symptoms of anxiety disorders.
Learning Objective: 18.9: List the symptoms of anxiety disorders.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q18.11
Question: Which drug therapy is effective for treatment of anxiety?
a. GABA antagonists
b. NMDA receptor antagonists
c. fluoxetine combined with cognitive behavior therapy
d. serotonin antagonists
Answer: C
Consider This: Promoting serotonin or GABA would be beneficial; LO 18.12: Summarize
treatments for anxiety disorders.
Learning Objective: 18.12: Summarize treatments for anxiety disorders.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOC Q18.12
Question: Tierra is fearful of catching an illness. She envisions germs covering every
surface when she ventures outside of her immaculately kept apartment. She wears gloves and
refuses to touch other individuals or to allow them to touch her. Her preoccupation with
germs would be considered a(n):
a. compulsion.
b. obsession.
c. fixation.
d. mania.
Answer: B
Consider This: The definition of this term is “persistent and involuntary thoughts, images, or
urges that will not leave them”; LO 18.13: List the symptoms of OCD.
Learning Objective: 18.13: List the symptoms of OCD.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOC Q18.13
Question: Which statement is MOST accurate regarding obsessive-compulsive disorder?
a. Individuals with OCD do not realize they have irrational obsessions.
b. Compulsions are usually mild and do not interfere with daily life.
c. Obsessions are never comorbid with other disorders.
d. OCD is more similar to hoarding and trichotillomania than anxiety disorders.
Answer: D
Consider This: Predominant features of OCD are dysfunctional thoughts and repetitive
behaviors; LO 18.13: List the symptoms of OCD.
Learning Objective: 18.13: List the symptoms of OCD.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q18.14
Question: Successful brain therapy for OCD produces several changes in brain activity. As
compared to these effects, cognitive behavior therapy produces ______ changes in brain
activity.
a. no
b. similar
c. stronger
d. different
Answer: B
Consider This: The text states that very different procedures may bring about physiological
changes that alleviate OCD.; LO 18.15: Describe changes in the brain associated with OCD.
Learning Objective: 18.15: Describe changes in the brain associated with OCD.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
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EOC Q18.15
Question: Three drugs are regularly used to treat the symptoms of OCD: clomipramine,
fluoxetine, and fluvoxamine. These drugs are:
a. dopamine agonists.
b. serotonin agonists.
c. norepinephrine antagonists.
d. dopamine antagonists.
Answer: B
Consider This: This neurotransmitter has an inhibitory effect on species-typical behaviors, so
these drugs may alleviate the symptoms of obsessive-compulsive disorder by reducing the
strength of tendencies for counting, checking, cleaning, and avoidance behaviors; LO 18.16:
Summarize treatments for OCD.
Learning Objective: 18.16: Summarize treatments for OCD.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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Essay 124
Essay 128
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Multiple-Choice Questions
2. Compared to the others, which drug administration route would be least reinforcing?
a. oral administration
b. injection
c. smoking
d. snorting
e. None of these routes are reinforcing.
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a. alcohol
b. marijuana
c. LSD
d. cocaine
e. nicotine
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a. alcohol.
b. marijuana.
c. LSD.
d. cocaine.
e. nicotine.
a. alcohol
b. marijuana
c. LSD
d. cocaine
e. nicotine
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10. Which explanation correctly describes why drug abusers prefer heroin over morphine?
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12. All natural reinforcers that have been studied to date cause the release of ______________
in the nucleus accumbens.
a. dopamine
b. norepinephrine
c. serotonin
d. epinephrine
e. cortisol
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13. Microdialysis studies indicate that administration of ________ will enhance extracellular
dopamine levels in the nucleus accumbens.
a. Aversive stimuli do not increase dopamine levels within the nucleus accumbens.
b. Release of dopamine within the nucleus accumbens is a necessary condition for
reinforcement.
c. Damage to brain dopamine systems enhances the reinforcing properties of drugs of
abuse.
d. Release of dopamine within the nucleus accumbens is a sufficient condition for
reinforcement.
e. Drugs that increase dopamine by blocking reuptake are not addictive.
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15. Early changes in the brain during exposure to addictive drugs involve the insertion of
________ receptors into neuron membranes located within the ________.
a. GABA; hippocampus
b. D2; nucleus accumbens
c. AMPA; VTA
d. glycine; VTA
e. AMPA; amygdala
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17. Activation of neurons within the ________ during repeated drug injection appears to play
a central role in the compulsive nature of drug abuse.
a. hippocampus
b. nucleus accumbens
c. amygdala
d. dorsal striatum
e. hypothalamus
18. Activation of neurons within the ________ appears to play a central role in the early
reinforcing actions of drugs.
a. thalamus
b. nucleus accumbens
c. amygdala
d. dorsal striatum
e. hippocampus
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19. Evidence from imaging studies reveals that release of dopamine in the ________ is
increased by human exposure to drug-associated cues.
a. dorsal striatum
b. ventromedial prefrontal cortex (vmPFC)
c. hypothalamus
d. hippocampus
e. amygdala
20. With drug use, ___________ are seen in dopamine D1 receptors, which cause excitation
and facilitate behavior, and _________ are seen in dopamine D2 receptors, which cause
inhibition and suppress behavior.
a. increases; decreases
b. increases; increases
c. decreases; decreases
d. decreases; increases
e. fluctuations; increases
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21. Compared to the other age ranges, people in the ________ age group are MOST likely to
abuse drugs.
a. 10–14
b. 20–30
c. 55–75
d. 15–18
e. 31–54
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a. depression.
b. mania.
c. gambling disorder.
d. substance abuse disorder.
e. borderline personality disorder.
a. religious preference
b. smoking more than 10 cigarettes per day
c. prior military service
d. consuming at least 5 diet sodas per day
e. having a friend who has been diagnosed with schizophrenia
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25. Infusions of the neuropeptide ________ into the ________ reinstates drug taking that was
previously extinguished.
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28. When a drug user experiences withdrawal symptoms and takes the drug to alleviate those
symptoms, it represents the application of
a. negative punishment.
b. negative reinforcement.
c. positive punishment.
d. positive reinforcement.
e. punishment.
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a. Negative punishment
b. Negative reinforcement
c. Positive punishment
d. Positive reinforcement
e. Punishment
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a. Drug tolerance
b. Allostasis
c. Craving
d. Homeostasis
e. Withdrawal
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33. During abstinence, the activity of the ___________ prefrontal cortex of people who
abused cocaine is lower than that of non-cocaine-using people.
a. dorsal
b. ventromedial
c. dorsolateral
d. medial
e. rostral
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a. Rats do not demonstrate an increase in drug use based on stressful events, such as
being defeated by a dominant rat.
b. Administration of corticotropin-releasing hormone can reinstate drug-taking
behavior.
c. Administration of a corticotropin-releasing hormone antagonist can reinstate drug-
taking behavior.
d. Isolated baby rats do not readily take cocaine when given the opportunity to as
adults.
e. There is no relation between stress and drug use.
36. Compared to the others, which situation would be most likely to induce the greatest
craving in an alcoholic?
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a. intravenous self-administration
b. the homeostasis model
c. incentive salience conditioning
d. the reinstatement model
e. the rapid acquisition model
38. Imaging studies suggest that the amount of activation in the _______ is inversely
proportional to the amount of cocaine that users take each week.
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40. A rat is trained to self-administer cocaine. Saline is substituted for the cocaine solution,
which results in extinction of responding. In this situation, the capacity for a “free” shot of
cocaine to reinstate responding can be blocked by
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44. Among many possible explanations, susceptibility to alcohol abuse is most likely linked to
variability in
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45. Alcohol consumption is not distributed equally across the population; in the United States,
_____ percent of the people drink _____ percent of the alcohol.
a. 10; 50
b. 50; 10
c. 15; 25
d. 25; 50
e. 50; 25
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47. Nicotinic ACh receptors that contain the α5 subunit, found on neurons in the medial
habenula, play a role in ___________ the reinforcing effects of nicotine.
a. inhibiting
b. exciting
c. stabilizing
d. negating
e. stimulating
a. Dopamine agonists
b. Dopamine antagonists
c. Serotonin agonists
d. Sirtuin agonists
e. Sirtuin antagonists
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50. The analgesic effect of opiates is due to activation of neurons within the
a. cerebellum.
b. medulla.
c. periaqueductal gray matter.
d. preoptic area.
e. spinal cord.
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52. Administration of a drug that is an agonist at only mu receptors (μ) would be expected to
produce
a. hyperthermia.
b. arousal.
c. sedation.
d. reinforcement.
e. dysphoria.
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53. Which pairing correctly matches an opiate receptor and opiate effect?
a. mu (μ); sedating
b. delta (δ); aversive
c. kappa (κ); aversive
d. mu (μ); aversive
e. kappa (κ); reinforcing
a. Opiates stimulate the central nervous system, and thereby increase the risk of heart
attacks and strokes due to hyper-activation of neurons.
b. Opiates produce a variety of effects in the brain, including reinforcement,
analgesia, hypothermia, and sedation.
c. Reinforcement of an opiate’s effects is primarily a matter of environmental factors,
rather than physiological ones.
d. Intravenous drug use in the United States is increasing at the fastest rate among
people in the 12- to 15-year-old range.
e. Unlike most substances, opiate use levels out at a certain amount, rather than
inducing tolerance.
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55. Opiate receptors in the ________ are responsible for the analgesia caused by opiate drugs.
a. nucleus accumbens
b. preoptic area
c. periaqueductal gray matter
d. mesencephalic reticular formation
e. ventral segmental area
56. Opiate receptors are located in a variety of areas in the brain. Which brain area and the
resulting effect of opiates is correctly paired?
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57. Opiate receptors in the ________ are responsible for the sedation caused by opiate drugs.
a. nucleus accumbens
b. preoptic area
c. periaqueductal gray matter
d. mesencephalic reticular formation
e. ventral segmental area
Topic: Opiates
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
Learning Objective: 19.6 Describe the roles of reinforcement and physical dependence in
opiate abuse.
Answer: D
APA Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in
psychology.
58. Administration of an opiate drug that is an agonist at only kappa receptors (κ) would be
expected to produce
a. hypothermia.
b. analgesia.
c. sedation.
d. reinforcement.
e. an aversive state.
Topic: Opiates
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
Learning Objective: 19.6 Describe the roles of reinforcement and physical dependence in
opiate abuse.
Answer: E
APA Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology.
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59. Dr. Sardonicus injects an opiate drug into the ________ of a rat, in anticipation that the
drug will activate dopamine neurons in the nucleus accumbens.
Topic: Opiates
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
Learning Objective: 19.6 Describe the roles of reinforcement and physical dependence in
opiate abuse.
Answer: A
APA Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology.
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61. Research using antagonist-precipitated withdrawal indicates that the ________ plays a key
role in producing opiate withdrawal symptoms.
a. amygdala
b. orbitofrontal cortex
c. hypothalamus
d. locus coeruleus
e. reticular formation
62. Rats are made dependent on heroin and then given an injection of naloxone while housed
in a novel cage. These rats would be predicted to express
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a. Crack cocaine may be the most effective reinforcer of all available drugs.
b. Cocaine produces the same physical and behavioral effects as heroin.
c. Cocaine is classified as a hallucinogen.
d. Cocaine is the least addictive of the psychostimulant drugs.
e. Cocaine is a dopamine antagonist.
65. ___________ has effects that are so potent and rapid that it is probably the most effective
reinforcer of all available drugs.
a. Freebase cocaine
b. Ecstasy
c. Alcohol
d. Heroin
e. Ketamine
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67. Cocaine and amphetamine both increase dopamine action. Cocaine specifically
_______________ and amphetamine __________________.
Topic: Stimulants
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
Learning Objective: 19.7 Describe the role of reinforcement in stimulant abuse.
Answer: C
APA Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology.
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68. A person who is admitted to a hospital with symptoms of psychosis may actually be
suffering from
a. opiate abuse.
b. a chemical imbalance involving the dopamine system.
c. damage to the orbitofrontal cortex.
d. excessive use of caffeine.
e. excessive use of amphetamine or cocaine.
69. Chronic abuse of methamphetamine reduces the number of dopamine transporters in the
brain, which may explain why these addicts
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Topic: Nicotine
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
Learning Objective: 19.8 Describe the roles of reinforcement and physical dependence in
nicotine abuse.
Answer: A
APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content
domains.
73. Which explanation correctly summarizes why smokers obtain more pleasure from
smoking in the morning than late in the afternoon?
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Topic: Nicotine
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
Learning Objective: 19.8 Describe the roles of reinforcement and physical dependence in
nicotine abuse.
Answer: E
APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content
domains.
75. Infusion of an inhibitory drug into the ____________ would be expected to reduce
nicotine self-administration in rats.
Topic: Nicotine
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
Learning Objective: 19.8 Describe the roles of reinforcement and physical dependence in
nicotine abuse.
Answer: C
APA Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology.
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76. Evidence from people who suffered a stroke and easily quit smoking afterwards suggests
that the ____________ is involved in nicotine abuse.
Topic: Nicotine
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
Learning Objective: 19.8 Describe the roles of reinforcement and physical dependence in
nicotine abuse.
Answer: D
APA Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe key concepts, principles, and overarching themes in
psychology.
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78. The primary mode of action by which alcohol can produce apoptosis is as a(n)
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Topic: Alcohol
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
Learning Objective: 19.9 Describe the roles of reinforcement and physical dependence in
alcohol abuse
Answer: E
APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content
domains.
81. Alcohol ingestion causes mild euphoria, which would be classified as ____________.
When a person feels anxious or uncomfortable, alcohol ingestion provides an escape from
these feelings, which would be classified as ______________.
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82. Alcohol has two major sites of action in the nervous system, acting as a(n) ____________
at NMDA receptors and a(n) ______________ at GABAA receptors.
Topic: Alcohol
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
Learning Objective: 19.9 Describe the roles of reinforcement and physical dependence in
alcohol abuse.
Answer: C
APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content
domains.
83. The harmful effects of alcohol on learning and memory may reflect
Topic: Alcohol
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
Learning Objective: 19.9 Describe the roles of reinforcement and physical dependence in
alcohol abuse.
Answer: C
APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content
domains.
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84. Withdrawal from alcohol use leads to seizures, which may reflect
Topic: Alcohol
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
Learning Objective: 19.9 Describe the roles of reinforcement and physical dependence in
alcohol abuse.
Answer: C
APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content
domains.
Topic: Alcohol
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
Learning Objective: 19.9 Describe the roles of reinforcement and physical dependence in
alcohol abuse.
Answer: A
APA Learning Objective: 1.2 Develop a working knowledge of psychology’s content
domains.
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87. Dee Dee has ingested a drug (Ro15-4513) that prevents alcohol from binding to his
GABA receptors, and then joins his friends Tommy, Johnny, and Joey at the neighborhood
bar. What should be expected to happen to Dee Dee?
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89. If a new drug were developed that is a potent CB1 agonist, it would be expected to
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90. The release of endogenous cannabinoids facilitates the activity of CA1 pyramidal cells
and ____________ long-term potentiation, which ___________________.
Topic: Cannabis
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
Learning Objective: 19.10 Describe the role of reinforcement in cannabis abuse.
Answer: B
APA Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe applications of psychology.
91. If a new drug were developed that is a potent CB1 antagonist, it would be expected to
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92. A targeted mutation of CB1 receptors abolishes the reinforcing effects of __________ and
decreases the reinforcing effects of __________.
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94. The drug ________ is a mainstay of emergency rooms, used for the treatment of heroin
overdose.
a. heroin
b. demerol
c. naloxone
d. methadone
e. codeine
95. If administered orally, ____________ increases opiate levels in the brain, which prevents
a high from subsequent heroin administration.
a. methadone
b. demerol
c. buprenorphine
d. an SSRI
e. an SNRI
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96. A major difficulty for the treatment of opiate abuse is that antagonists for opiate receptors
97. A possible treatment for cocaine abuse involving the immune system would be to
administer
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98. ___________, a treatment for nicotine abuse, is a partial agonist for the nicotinic receptor.
a. Varenicline
b. Rimonabant
c. Naloxone
d. Drencrom
e. Loperamide
a. dextromethorphan
b. valium
c. ephedrine
d. pentobarbital
e. naltrexone
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100. Deep brain stimulation (DBS) has been applied to various brain regions in animal and
human experiments; of these, the most promising region for treating substance abuse in
humans is
a. TLC.
b. STN.
c. NAC.
d. PFC.
e. AOK.
Fill-in-the-Blank Questions
102. The common aspect of all-natural reinforcers relates to the release of ________ within the
nucleus accumbens.
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103 Drugs of abuse have the capacity to increase dopamine levels within the ________.
105. Long-term drug use can result in structural abnormalities of the ________ cortex.
106. Marjoe ingests an aspirin to rid himself of a strong headache. This would be an example
of ________.
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109. Neurons within the dorsal anterior cingulate cortex facilitate drug ________.
110. Infusion of the stress hormone ________ into the ventral tegmental area (VTA) can result
in drug relapse.
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111. Opiate receptors in the periaqueductal gray matter (PAG) are responsible for the
________ caused by opiate drugs.
112. The ________ plays a primary role in producing opiate withdrawal symptoms.
113. The most effective reinforcer of all available drugs of abuse is ________.
114. Rats that self-inject ________ are more likely to die from an overdose than rats that self-
inject ________.
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115. Approximately ________ percent of people who begin to smoke as adolescents and
continue through adulthood will die of a smoking-related disease.
116. The anxiolytic effects of alcohol may be due to increased sensitivity of ________
receptors.
117. The ability of THC in marijuana to produce a “high” seems to be related to activation of
the ________ receptor.
118. Methadone, buprenorphine, and ________ are useful for the treatment of opiate abuse.
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Essay Questions
119. Explain how drugs of abuse may act in the brain via the same substrate engaged by
natural reinforcers.
120. Describe the changes in neural mechanisms that modulate the early reinforcing effects of
drugs versus the later compulsive aspect of drug taking.
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123. Explain how the “reinstatement” procedure is used to model drug craving.
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124. Explain the basis for the proposal that drug abuse is genetic in origin.
125. Describe the role of the locus coeruleus in the development of opiate withdrawal
symptoms.
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127. Explain the concern that many effects of drug use mimic psychotic behavior.
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128. Describe the types of contemporary approaches that are being investigated to treat
substance abuse.
Revel Quizzes
The following questions appear at the end of each module and at the end of the chapter in
Revel for Physiology of Behavior, 13th Edition.
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EOM Q19.1.2
Question: Which drug administration route would be LEAST reinforcing?
a. oral administration
b. injection
c. smoking
d. snorting
Answer: A
Consider This: The quicker the effects, the more reinforcing; LO 19.1: Describe the neural
mechanisms of positive reinforcement that all drugs of abuse share..
Learning Objective: 19.1: Describe the neural mechanisms of positive reinforcement that all
drugs of abuse share.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q19.1.3
Question: Which statement regarding substance abuse is MOST accurate?
a. Drugs of abuse cause inhibition of synapses in the ventral tegmental area.
b. Drugs of abuse promote changes in the ventral tegmental area that result in the
insertion of AMPA receptors, which facilitate learning.
c. Drugs of abuse result in inhibition of the dorsal striatum.
d. Drug habits are difficult to form.
Answer: B
Consider This: Some drugs of abuse can result in addiction after a single use; LO 19.1:
Describe the neural mechanisms of positive reinforcement that all drugs of abuse share.
Learning Objective: 19.1: Describe the neural mechanisms of positive reinforcement that all
drugs of abuse share.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q19.1.4
Question: In drug use, ___________ are seen in dopamine D1 receptors, which cause
excitation and facilitate behavior, and _________ are seen in dopamine D2 receptors, which
cause inhibition and suppress behavior.
a. increases; decreases
b. increases; increases
c. decreases; decreases
d. decreases; increases
Answer: A
Consider This: Dopamine is involved in the reward pathway; LO 19.1: Describe the neural
mechanisms of positive reinforcement that all drugs of abuse share.
Learning Objective: 19.1: Describe the neural mechanisms of positive reinforcement that all
drugs of abuse share.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
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EOM Q19.1.5
Question: Drug users sometimes experience withdrawal symptoms and take their drug of
choice to alleviate those symptoms. This BEST illustrates:
a. negative punishment.
b. negative reinforcement.
c. positive punishment.
d. positive reinforcement.
Answer: B
Consider This: Reinforcement always increases behavior; punishment always decreases
behavior; LO 19.2: Explain how negative reinforcement can contribute to substance abuse
through physical dependence, craving, and relapse.
Learning Objective: 19.2: Explain how negative reinforcement can contribute to substance
abuse through physical dependence, craving, and relapse.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOM Q19.2.2
Question: Which statement regarding alcohol is MOST accurate?
a. Twin studies suggest that alcohol abuse is not genetic.
b. Alcohol is not used to reduce anxiety.
c. The gene that regulates production of alcohol dehydrogenase may contribute to
alcoholism susceptibility.
d. Alcoholism is purely genetic.
Answer: C
Consider This: Alcoholism likely results from environmental factors and genetic issues
related to metabolism; LO 19.3: Describe the role of genetic factors in alcohol abuse.
Learning Objective: 19.3: Describe the role of genetic factors in alcohol abuse.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM Q19.2.3
Question: Nicotinic ACh receptors that contain the α5 subunit, found on neurons in the
medial habenula, play a role in ______________ the reinforcing effects of nicotine.
a. inhibiting
b. exciting
c. stabilizing
d. having no effect on
Answer: A
Consider This: If these receptors are mutated, people are more likely to become addicted to
nicotine; LO 19.4: Describe the role of genetic factors in nicotine abuse.
Learning Objective: 19.4: Describe the role of genetic factors in nicotine abuse.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q19.2.4
Question: Research suggests that ______________ may be used to decrease the rewarding
effects of cocaine.
a. dopamine agonists
b. dopamine antagonists
c. sirtuin agonists
d. sirtuin antagonists
Answer: D
Consider This: These seem to be implicated in longevity; LO 19.5: Describe the role of
genetic factors in stimulant abuse.
Learning Objective: 19.5: Describe the role of genetic factors in stimulant abuse.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q19.2.5
Question: The text’s discussion suggests that _____ of the risk for cocaine abuse may be
explained by genetic factors.
a. little
b. some
c. most
d. almost all
Answer: C
Consider This: Recall the results of Renthal et al.’s (2009) genome-wide analysis of the
effects of cocaine on mouse DNA; LO 19.5: Describe the role of genetic factors in stimulant
abuse.
Learning Objective: 19.5: Describe the role of genetic factors in stimulant abuse.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM Q19.3.2
Question: In antagonist-precipitated withdrawal:
a. rats are allowed to self-administer the drug of abuse until death.
b. rats are administered a drug of abuse for a prolonged time and then given an
antagonist to block the effects of the drug.
c. rats are administered a drug of abuse for a few days, then given an antagonist to block
the effects of the drug.
d. rats are given an antagonist to block the effects of the drug before the animal is ever
introduced to the drug of abuse.
Answer: B
Consider This: This experimental paradigm is used to determine if antagonists effectively
block the drug of abuse after creating dependence; LO 19.6: Describe the roles of
reinforcement and physical dependence in opiate abuse.
Learning Objective: 19.6: Describe the roles of reinforcement and physical dependence in
opiate abuse.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOM Q19.3.3
Question: The fact that cocaine use increases dopamine activation means that cocaine usage
often results in symptoms that are similar to:
a. panic disorder.
b. depression
c. schizophrenia.
d. posttraumatic stress disorder.
Answer: C
Consider This: This psychiatric disorder is also caused by an excess of dopamine; LO 19.7
Describe the role of reinforcement in stimulant abuse.
Learning Objective: 19.7 Describe the role of reinforcement in stimulant abuse.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOM Q19.3.4
Question: Which statement regarding nicotine use is MOST accurate?
a. Approximately a quarter of the adult population of the world smokes.
b. Smoking by pregnant women is potentially worse for the fetus than cocaine usage.
c. Many smokers are able to smoke a few cigarettes a day.
d. The abuse potential of nicotine is low.
Answer: B
Consider This: Tobacco use is the leading cause of preventable death in developed countries;
LO 19.8: Describe the roles of reinforcement and physical dependence in nicotine abuse.
Learning Objective: 19.8: Describe the roles of reinforcement and physical dependence in
nicotine abuse.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q19.3.5
Question: Alcohol has two major sites of action in the nervous system, acting as a(n)
____________ at NMDA receptors and a(n) ______________ at GABAA receptors.
a. direct antagonist; direct agonist
b. direct agonist; direct antagonist
c. indirect agonist; direct antagonist
d. indirect antagonist; indirect agonist
Answer: D
Consider This: Alcohol use results in freedom from inhibitions and difficulty learning new
things; LO 19.9: Describe the roles of reinforcement and physical dependence in alcohol
abuse.
Learning Objective: 19.9: Describe the roles of reinforcement and physical dependence in
alcohol abuse.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
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EOM Q19.4.2
Question: Which statement regarding stimulant treatment is MOST accurate?
a. Blocking the effects of cocaine and other stimulants is an effective treatment.
b. Blocking the effects of cocaine and other stimulants produces dysphoria and
anhedonia.
c. Antibodies to cocaine cannot be used as an effective treatment for cocaine abuse.
d. There are no effective treatments for cocaine abuse.
Answer: B
Consider This: Counteracting the intense euphoria of cocaine can have aversive effects; LO
19.12: Summarize effective treatments for stimulant abuse.
Learning Objective: 19.12: Summarize effective treatments for stimulant abuse.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Concepts
EOM Q19.4.3
Question: _________________, a treatment for nicotine addiction, is a partial agonist for the
nicotinic receptor.
a. Varenicline
b. Rimonabant
c. Nicotine maintenance
d. Denicotinized cigarettes
Answer: A
Consider This: This drug maintains a moderate level of activation of nicotinic receptors but
prevents high levels of nicotine from providing excessive levels of stimulation; LO 19.13:
Summarize effective treatments for nicotine abuse.
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
Difficulty Level: Easy
Learning Objective: 19.13: Summarize effective treatments for nicotine abuse.
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EOM Q19.4.4
Question: ____________________ decrease the reinforcing value of alcohol in a variety of
species, including humans.
a. Opiate antagonists
b. Serotonin antagonists
c. Dopamine antagonists
d. Norepinephrine antagonists
Answer: A
Consider This: Alcohol reduces sensitivity to pain; LO 19.14: Summarize effective treatments
for alcohol abuse.
Learning Objective: 19.14: Summarize effective treatments for alcohol abuse.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOM Q19.4.5
Question: Experiments with deep brain stimulation for treatment of substance abuse indicate
that ________________ is the most promising target to date.
a. dorsal striatum
b. medial prefrontal cortex
c. subthalamic nucleus
d. nucleus accumbens
Answer: D
Consider This: This is a region in the basal forebrain rostral to the preoptic area of the
hypothalamus; LO 19.15: Describe the implications for brain stimulation treatments in
substance abuse.
Learning Objective: 19.15: Describe the implications for brain stimulation treatments in
substance abuse.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
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EOC Q19.2
Question: All natural reinforcers that have been studied so far cause the release of
_____________ in the nucleus accumbens.
a. serotonin
b. norepinephrine
c. epinephrine
d. dopamine
Answer: D
Consider This: This neurotransmitter seems to be required for positive reinforcement to occur;
LO 19.1: Describe the neural mechanisms of positive reinforcement that all drugs of abuse
share.
Learning Objective: 19.1: Describe the neural mechanisms of positive reinforcement that all
drugs of abuse share.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q19.3
Question: ______________________ occurs when an organism performs a behavior to avoid
a negative consequence. For example, a child may clean his or her room to avoid getting in
trouble with his or her mother.
a. Negative punishment
b. Negative reinforcement
c. Positive punishment
d. Positive reinforcement
Answer: B
Consider This: Reinforcement always increases behavior; punishment always decreases
behavior; LO 19.2: Explain how negative reinforcement can contribute to substance abuse
through physical dependence, craving, and relapse.
Learning Objective: 19.2: Explain how negative reinforcement can contribute to substance
abuse through physical dependence, craving, and relapse.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
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EOC Q19.4
Question: During abstinence, the activity of the ___________ prefrontal cortex of people
who abused cocaine was lower than that of participants who did not use cocaine.
a. dorsal
b. ventromedial
c. dorsolateral
d. medial
Answer: D
Consider This: Toward the middle; LO 19.2: Explain how negative reinforcement can
contribute to substance abuse through physical dependence, craving, and relapse.
Learning Objective: 19.2: Explain how negative reinforcement can contribute to substance
abuse through physical dependence, craving, and relapse.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q19.5
Question: Which statement is true regarding stress and substance abuse?
a. Rats did not demonstrate an increase in drug use based on stressful events, such as
being defeated by a dominant rat.
b. Administration of corticotropin-releasing hormone can reinstate drug-taking behavior.
c. Administration of corticotropin-releasing hormone antagonist can reinstate drug-
taking behavior.
d. Isolated baby rats did not readily take cocaine when given the opportunity to as adults.
Answer: B
Consider This: Stress often causes relapse; LO 19.2: Explain how negative reinforcement can
contribute to substance abuse through physical dependence, craving, and relapse.
Learning Objective: 19.2: Explain how negative reinforcement can contribute to substance
abuse through physical dependence, craving, and relapse.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q19.6
Question: Opiate receptors are located in a variety of areas in the brain. Which brain area is
matched with the correct opiate effect?
a. preoptic area; sedation
b. periaqueductal gray matter; analgesia
c. mesencephalic reticular formation; hypothermia
d. preoptic area; analgesia
Answer: B
Consider This: Opiate receptors in the preoptic area are responsible for hypothermia, and
those in the mesencephalic reticular formation are responsible for sedation; LO 19.6: Describe
the roles of reinforcement and physical dependence in opiate abuse.
Learning Objective: 19.6: Describe the roles of reinforcement and physical dependence in
opiate abuse.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Skill Level: Analyze It
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EOC Q19.7
Question: Cocaine and amphetamine both increase dopamine action. Cocaine specifically
___________________ and amphetamine _____________.
a. blocks the dopamine transporter; stimulates the autoreceptor
b. stimulates the release of dopamine; stimulates the autoreceptor
c. blocks the dopamine transporter; stimulates the release of dopamine
d. stimulates the release of dopamine; blocks the dopamine transporter
Answer: C
Consider This: The method of action must be an agonist for dopamine; LO 19.7: Describe the
role of reinforcement in stimulant abuse.
Learning Objective: 19.7: Describe the role of reinforcement in stimulant abuse.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
EOC Q19.8
Question: ___________________ has effects that are so potent and rapid that it is probably
the most effective reinforcer of all available drugs.
a. Crack cocaine
b. Ecstasy
c. Alcohol
d. Heroin
Answer: A
Consider This: This drug is smoked and enters the blood supply of the lungs and reaches the
brain very quickly; LO 19.7: Describe the role of reinforcement in stimulant abuse.
Learning Objective: 19.7: Describe the role of reinforcement in stimulant abuse.
Difficulty Level: Easy
Skill Level: Remember the Facts
EOC Q19.9
Question: The reinforcing effect of nicotine appears to be caused by _________ of nicotinic
receptors in the ______________.
a. activation; ventral tegmental area
b. activation; nucleus accumbens
c. inactivation; ventral tegmental area
d. inactivation; nucleus accumbens
Answer: A
Consider This: This area is the origin of the dopaminergic cell bodies of the
mesocorticolimbic dopamine system; LO 19.8: Describe the roles of reinforcement and
physical dependence in nicotine abuse
Learning Objective: 19.8: Describe the roles of reinforcement and physical dependence in
nicotine abuse.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Analyze It
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EOC Q19.10
Question: Evidence from individuals who suffered a stroke and easily quit smoking afterward
suggests that the ____________ is involved in nicotine addiction.
a. nucleus accumbens
b. insula
c. ventral tegmental area
d. frontal cortex
Answer: B
Consider This: This area is a portion of the cerebral cortex folded deep within the lateral
sulcus; LO 19.8: Describe the roles of reinforcement and physical dependence in nicotine
abuse.
Learning Objective: 19.8: Describe the roles of reinforcement and physical dependence in
nicotine abuse.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q19.11
Question: Alcohol causes mild euphoria, exemplifying ______________. When a person
feels anxious or uncomfortable, drinking provides an escape from these feelings, illustrating
____________________.
a. positive reinforcement; negative reinforcement
b. negative reinforcement; positive reinforcement
c. positive punishment; negative punishment
d. negative punishment; positive punishment
Answer: A
Consider This: Reinforcement always increases behavior whereas punishment decreases it;
LO 19.9: Describe the roles of reinforcement and physical dependence in alcohol abuse.
Learning Objective: 19.9: Describe the roles of reinforcement and physical dependence in
alcohol abuse.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOC Q19.12
Question: The release of endogenous cannabinoids facilitates the activity of CA1 pyramidal
cells and ____________ long-term potentiation, which ___________________.
a. facilitates; enhances memory
b. facilitates; produces memory deficits
c. inhibits; enhances memory
d. inhibits; produces memory deficits
Answer: B
Consider This: Excessive activation of CB1 receptors in field CA1 appears to interfere with
normal functioning of the hippocampal formation; LO 19.10: Describe the role of
reinforcement in cannabis abuse.
Learning Objective: 19.10: Describe the role of reinforcement in cannabis abuse.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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EOC Q19.13
Question: Research suggests that habitual use of cannabis in adolescence is correlated with
the development of:
a. panic disorder
b. depression
c. posttraumatic stress disorder
d. schizophrenia
Answer: D
Consider This: This disorder has been shown to be the result of excess dopamine; LO 19.10:
Describe the role of reinforcement in cannabis abuse.
Learning Objective: 19.10: Describe the role of reinforcement in cannabis abuse.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
EOC Q19.14
Question: A targeted mutation that blocks the production of CB1 receptors:
a. promotes the reinforcing effect of cannabinoids.
b. abolishes the reinforcing effect of morphine but not that of heroin.
c. promotes the reinforcing effect of heroin.
d. abolishes the reinforcing effect of cannabinoids, morphine, and heroin.
Answer: D
Consider This: CB1 receptors are involved in cannabis reward; LO 19.10: Describe the role of
reinforcement in cannabis abuse.
Learning Objective: 19.10: Describe the role of reinforcement in cannabis abuse.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Apply What You Know
EOC Q19.15
Question: _______________ is a partial agonist for the µ opiate receptor that blocks the
effects of opiates without producing a strong opiate effect.
a. Methadone
b. Buprenorphin
c. An SSRI
d. An SNRI
Answer: B
Consider This: This is a newer drug that does not have high value on the illicit drug market;
LO 19.11: Summarize effective treatments for opiate abuse.
Learning Objective: 19.11: Summarize effective treatments for opiate abuse.
Difficulty Level: Moderate
Skill Level: Understand the Concepts
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