Test-35/Test-26 Solution

Q1. Answer: A
Explanation:

• Statement 1 is not correct: NTDs are a group of infections that are most common among marginalized communities
in the developing regions of Africa, Asia and the Americas.

• Statement 2 is correct: They are caused by variety of pathogens - viruses, bacteria, protozoa, and parasitic worms
(helminths).

• Statement 3 is not correct: Neglected tropical disease day is observed every year on 30th January. It was declared in
the 74th World Health Assembly (2021). The proposal to recognize the day was floated by the United Arab Emirates.
Hence, Option A is correct.

Q2. Answer: C
Explanation:
• Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs) are a group of infections that are most common among marginalized
communities in the developing regions of Africa, Asia and the Americas.
• They are caused by a variety of pathogens such as viruses, bacteria, protozoa and parasitic worms.

• NTDs are especially common in tropical areas where people do not have access to clean water or safe ways to dispose
of human waste.

• These diseases generally receive less funding for research and treatment than malaises like tuberculosis, HIV-AIDS
and malaria.
• HIV-AIDS is not an NTD.

• Examples of NTDs are: Snakebite envenomation, scabies, yaws, Trachoma, Leishmaniasis, Lymphatic filariasis and
Chagas disease etc.
Hence, Option C is correct.

Q3. Answer: C
Explanation:
• Statement 1 and 2 is correct: Noma is a rapidly progressing severe gangrenous disease of the mouth and the face. It
mostly affects children aged 2–6 years suffering from malnutrition, affected by infectious diseases, living in extreme
poverty with poor oral health or with weakened immune systems. It can also occur among immunocompromised
adults due to HIV, Leukaemia and other diseases.
• Statement 3 is correct: The disease is also called as Cancrum oris or gangrenous stomatitis, is mostly found in sub-
Saharan Africa, although cases have also been reported in Latin America, Asia and other regions. Noma starts as a

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 soft tissue lesion (a sore) of the gums. It is generally considered an opportunistic and non-contagious disease. There
is no documented evidence to support direct transmission from person to person.

• Statement 4 is not correct: WHO officially recognizes Noma as a Neglected Tropical Disease. Rare disease (Orphan
disease) is a medical condition that affects a small number of individuals in the population.
Hence, Option C is correct.

Q4. Answer: D
Explanation:

• The WHO’s AWaRe (Access, Watch, Reserve) Strategy provides concise, evidence-based guidance on the choice
of antibiotic, dose, route of administration, and duration of treatment for more than 30 of the most common
clinical infections in children and adults in both primary health care and hospital settings.

• It classifies antibiotics into three groups:

o Access: Antibiotics used to treat the most common and serious infections.
o Watch: Antibiotics available at all times in the healthcare system.
o Reserve: Antibiotics to be used sparingly or preserved and used only as a last resort.

• By classifying antibiotics into three distinct groups, and advising on when to use them, AWaRe makes it easier
for policy-makers, prescribers and health workers to select the right antibiotic at the right time.
Hence, Option D is correct.

Q5. Answer: B
Explanation:
• The Government has launched National Policy for Rare Diseases (NPRD), 2021 for the treatment of rare disease
patients.
• The rare diseases have been identified and categorized into 3 groups namely Group 1, Group 2 and Group 3.
o Group 1: Disorders amenable to one-time curative treatment.
o Group 2: Diseases requiring long term/lifelong treatment having relatively lower cost of treatment and
benefit has been documented in literature and annual or more frequent surveillance is required.
o Group 3: Diseases for which definitive treatment is available but challenges are to make optimal patient
selection for benefit, very high cost and lifelong therapy.
• Statement 1 is correct: It aims to lower the high cost of treatment for rare diseases with increased focus on
indigenous research with the help of a National Consortium to be set up by Department of Health Research.

• Statement 2 is correct: The policy aims to strengthen tertiary health care facilities for prevention and treatment of
rare diseases through designating 8 health facilities as Centre of Excellence and they will be provided one-time
financial support of upto Rs 5 crores for upgradation of diagnostic facilities.

• Statement 3 is not correct: The policy was amended in May 2022. It now provides a financial assistance of upto Rs 50
lakh for treatment of rare diseases of all categories.
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• Statement 4 is not correct: “Nidan Kendras” has been set up for genetic testing and counselling services.
Hence, Option B is correct.

Q6. Answer: A
Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: Sickle Cell Anemia is a genetic blood disease. It is a serious health challenge in India’s tribal
population.

• Statement 2 is not correct: It affects shape of the red blood cells which carry oxygen to all parts of the body. Some of
the RBCs are shaped like sickle and also become rigid and sticky. This slows or blocks blood flow.

• Statement 3 is not correct: The government is committed to eliminate the disease before India celebrates its Amrit
Kaal in 2047. In Budget 2023-24, a Mission to Eliminate Sickle Cell Anemia by 2047 was announced.
Hence, Option A is correct.

Q7. Answer: A
Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: It is the first licensed therapy in the world based on gene editing technology CRISPR-CAS9.
This therapy edits the faulty gene that leads to these blood disorder, potentially curing person for life.
• Statement 2 is not correct: Side effects from the treatment are similar to other stem cell transplants, including nausea,
fatigue, fever and increased risk of infection.
• Statement 3 is not correct: The therapy uses the patient's own blood stem cells, which are precisely edited using
Crispr-Cas9. A gene called BCL11A, which is crucial for switching from foetal to adult is targeted in the therapy.
Hence, Option A is correct.

Q8. Answer: C
Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: There is no universally accepted or standard definition of rare diseases. WHO defines rare
disease as often debilitating lifelong disease or disorder with a prevalence of 1 or less, per 1000 population. However,
different countries have their own definitions to suit their specific requirements and in context of their own
population, health care system and resources.

• Statement 2 is correct: They generally include genetic diseases, rare cancers, infectious tropical diseases,
degenerative diseases etc.
• Statement 3 is correct: It is a health condition of low prevalence that affects a small number of people compared
with other prevalent diseases in general population.

• Statement 4 is not correct: They do not have well-established and common treatments. Less than 5% have therapies
available to treat them and about 95% have no approved treatment and less than 1 in 10 patients receive disease-
specific treatment. This is one of the major challenges in fighting rare disease.
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Hence, Option C is correct.

Q9. Answer: C
Explanation:

• National Action Plan for AMR focusing on One Health approach was launched in 2017 with the aim of involving various
stakeholder ministries/departments. Delhi Declaration on AMR- an inter-ministerial consensus was signed by the
ministers of the concerned ministries pledging their support in AMR containment.
• Antibiotic Stewardship Program: ICMR has initiated this program on a pilot project basis in 20 tertiary care hospitals
across India. It aims to control the misuse and overuse of antibiotics in hospital wards and ICUs.

• Red Line Campaign: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare launched Red Line awareness campaign on
Antimicrobials Resistance, urging people not to use medicines marked with a red vertical line, including antibiotics,
without a doctor’s prescription.

• World AMR Awareness week: It is a global campaign by WHO to raise awareness and understanding of AMR and
promote best practices among One Health stakeholders to reduce the emergence and spread of drug-resistant
infections. WAAW is celebrated from 18-24 November every year.
• AMR Surveillance Network: ICMR has established AMR surveillance and research network (AMRSN) in 2013, to
generate evidence and capture trends and patterns of drug resistant infections in the country.

• Ban on the use of colistin as growth promoter in animal feed: ICMR worked in collaboration with Indian Council of
Agriculture Research and the DCGI to ban use of Colistin as growth promoter in animal feed in poultry.
Hence, Option C is correct.

Q10. Answer: C
Explanation:
Currently, Nuclear energy makes up about 3% of India’s energy sources.
Advantages of Nuclear Energy:

• Statement 1 is correct: Less carbon footprint as nuclear plant produces electricity with minimal greenhouse gas
emissions.
• Statement 2 is correct: Quantity of waste generated is very less.

• Statement 3 is not correct: It has high energy density, meaning that a small amount of nuclear fuel can produce
a large amount of electricity.
• Statement 4 is correct: It reduces dependence on imported fossil fuels, helping to enhance energy independence.

• Statement 5 is correct: They have long operational lifespans, providing a stable source of electricity over several
decades.
Hence, option C is correct.

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Q11. Answer: A
Explanation:

• Non-Sugar Sweeteners (NSS) or Non-Nutritive Sweeteners (NNS) are substances used in place of sweeteners that
have sugar (sucrose) or sugar alcohols. They are used as table top sweeteners as well as in food items marked as 'Sugar
Free', 'Diet' etc.
• Advantame, Neotame, Aspartame, Saccharine, Acesulfame-potassium, Sucralose are artificial non-sugar sweeteners
as they are prepared in laboratories.

• Stavia, Thaumatin and Monk Fruit are natural non-sugar sweeteners as they are extracted from plants.
Hence, option A is correct.

Q12. Answer: D
Explanation:
90:90:90 Strategy: It is a HIV treatment narrative of UNAIDS program which has set targets of
• 90% of all people living with HIV will know their HIV status (90% diagnosed)

• 90% of all people with diagnosed HIV infection will receive sustained antiretroviral therapy (90% on HIV
treatment)

• 90% of all people receiving antiretroviral therapy will have viral suppression (90% suppressed).
Hence, option D is correct.

Q13. Answer: D
Explanation:

• It is the first licensed therapy in the world based on gene editing technology CRISPR-CAS9.
• The therapy uses the patient's own blood stem cells, which are precisely edited using Crispr Cas9. A gene called
BCL11A, which is crucial for switching from foetal to adult is targeted in the therapy.

• Foetal haemoglobin, which is naturally present in everyone at birth, doesn't carry the same abnormalities as adult
haemoglobin. The therapy uses the body's own mechanisms to start producing more of this foetal haemoglobin,
alleviating the symptoms of the two conditions.

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 • In this, doctor has to first collect blood stem cells from the bone marrow using a process called apheresis. The
cells are then sent to the manufacturing site where it takes about six months for them to be edited and tested.
Then the edited cells are transplanted. It is made sure that the edited cells take up the residence in bone marrow
and start making RBCs with normal haemoglobin.

Hence, option D is correct.

Q14. Answer: D
Explanation:
Following functions performed by Web browsers:
• Statement 1, 2 and 5 are correct.
o URL Handling: Browsers handle Uniform Resource Locators (URLs), allowing users to enter web addresses and
navigate to specific websites or pages.
o Tabbed Browsing: It allows users to open multiple web pages in a single browser window, making it easier to
switch between different sites or pages.
o Cookie and history management: It handle cookies, small pieces of data stored by websites, and maintain a
browsing history that allows users to revisit recently viewed pages.
o Search Engine Integration: Browsers often come with a default search engine, enabling users to perform web
searches directly from the browser's address bar.

• Statement 3, 4 and 6 are not correct.

o Web browsers can handle basic calculations and data manipulation using JavaScript, they're not optimized
for heavy-duty computations or data analysis.

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 o Limited offline functionality: Most web browsers require an internet connection to function fully. While some
offer limited offline capabilities for cached content or certain web apps, they're not designed for extensive
offline use like desktop software.
o Can store small amount of data: Browsers use local storage and cookies to store small amounts of data for
websites, but they're not designed for long-term or large-scale data storage.
Hence, option D is correct.

Q15. Answer: B
Explanation:

• Statement 1 is not correct: Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojna (PMBJP) was launched by Department of
Pharmaceuticals under the Ministry of Chemical and Fertilizers. It aims to make quality generic medicines available
to all at affordable prices through Jan Aushadhi Stores (JAS) opened in each district of the states. First Jan Aushadhi
Store (JAS) was opened at Amritsar Civil Hospital in 2008.

• Statement 2 is correct: Janaushadhi Kendras can be set up by doctors, pharmacists, entrepreneurs, Self Help Groups
(SHGs), NGOs, charitable societies, etc. at any suitable place or outside the hospital premises.

• An incentive of Rs 5,00,000 is provided to the Jan Aushadhi Kendras as financial assistance and one-time additional
incentive of Rs 1 lakh (as reimbursement for IT and infra expenditure) is provided to Jan Aushadhi Kendra opened in
North-Eastern India, Himalayan state, island territories, and backward areas identified by NITI Aayog as aspirational
districts or if opened by women entrepreneurship, Ex-Serviceman, Divyangs, SCs and STs.
Hence, option B is correct.

Q16. Answer: B

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is not correct: CD4 is a type of white blood cell in the body’s immune system. These cells move around
the body detecting anomalies and infections in cells.
• Statement 2 is correct: Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) multiplies itself on entering human body and destroys
CD4 cells, thus severely damaging the human immune system. It reduces person’s ability to fight off secondary
infections.
• CD4 count of a person infected with HIV reduces significantly. In a healthy body, CD4 count is between 500- 1600,
but in an infected body, it can go as low as 200.
• Statement 3 is correct: CD4 cells are also known as helper T cells and the primary function of these cells is to
coordinate the immune response by recognizing foreign antigens and activating other immune cells, such as B cells
and cytotoxic T cells. They are essential for both the adaptive and innate immune systems, serving as a bridge
between them.

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Hence, option B is correct.

Q17. Answer: B

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is not correct: Project Insight is an initiative launched by the Income Tax Department of India under
the Ministry of Finance to leverage technology for effective tax administration and compliance.
• The primary objective is to enhance the department's ability to track and analyze financial transactions, identify
tax evasion, and ensure compliance with tax laws.
• Statement 2 is correct: The project involves the use of advanced data analytics, machine learning, and artificial
intelligence to process and analyze vast amounts of financial data.
• Statement 3 is correct: It aims to enhance transparency and fairness in the tax system, optimize resource allocation
and streamline tax administration processes.

Hence, option B is correct.

Q18. Answer: C

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: Artificial Neural Network is a computational model that mimics the way nerve cells work in
the human brain. It is designed to simulate the way the human brain analyzes and processes information.
• Statement 2 is correct: ANNs are fed massive volumes of data in the beginning phases. In most cases, training is done
by providing input and informing the network about what should be the output.
• Statement 3 is not correct: A neural network that consists of more than three layers which would be inclusive of the
inputs and output, can be considered a deep learning algorithm. A neural network that only has two or three layers
is just a basic neural network.
• Statement 4 is correct: They are a subset of machine learning. They have the ability to fine-tune the responses but
they do not have access to the specific decision-making process.

Hence, option C is correct.

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Q19. Answer : A
Explanation:

Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI):

• Statement 1 is correct: GPAI is an international and multi-stakeholder initiative to guide the responsible
development and use of AI, grounded in human rights, inclusion, diversity, innovation, and economic growth.
• Statement 2 is not correct: India has recently joined the league of leading economies including USA, UK, EU,
Australia, Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, Mexico, New Zealand, Republic of Korea, Singapore to launch
the GPAI. However, China is not a member of GPAI.
• This is also a first initiative of its type for evolving better understanding of the challenges and opportunities around
AI using the experience and diversity of participating countries.
• In order to achieve this goal, the initiative will look to bridge the gap between theory and practice on AI by
supporting cutting-edge research and applied activities on AI-related priorities.
• By joining GPAI as a founding member, India will actively participate in the global development of Artificial
Intelligence, leveraging upon its experience around use of digital technologies for inclusive growth.
• Statement 3 is correct: GPAI will be supported by a Secretariat, to be hosted by Organization for Economic
Cooperation and Development (OECD) in Paris, as well as by two Centers of Expertise- one each in Montreal and
Paris.
Hence, option A is correct.

Q20. Answer: B
Explanation:
Five Key Sector identified by NITI Aayog to focus its efforts towards implementation of artificial intelligence (AI) to serve
societal needs:
1. Healthcare: increased access and affordability of quality healthcare
2. Agriculture: enhanced farmers income, increased farm productivity and reduction of wastage
3. Education: Improved access and quality of education
4. Smart Cities and infrastructure
5. Transportation
Hence, option B is correct.

Q21. Answer: D
Explanation:
• Option A is correct: Under Article 159, every Governor and every person discharging the functions of the Governor
shall, before entering upon his office, make and subscribe in the presence of the Chief Justice of the High Court
exercising jurisdiction in relation to the State, or, in his absence, the seniormost Judge of that Court available.

• Option B is correct: Article 158 (4) provides that salaries of governor shall not be diminished during term of his
office.

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 • Option C is correct: A Governor shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon
his office however his tenure is dependent upon the pleasure of the president.

• Option D is not correct: Under Article 158 (3A) Where the same person is appointed as Governor of two or more
States, the emoluments and allowances payable to the Governor shall be allocated among the States in such
proportion as the President may by order determine.
Hence, option D is correct.

Q22. Answer: A
Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: The Governor is empowered to organize and reorganize the autonomous districts. Thus,
he can increase or decrease their areas or change their names or define their boundaries and so on.

• Statement 2 is correct: The Governor is empowered to divide the autonomous district into several autonomous
regions, if different tribes are present in the autonomous district.
• Statement 3 is not correct: The power to declare an area to be scheduled area lies with the President and not the
Governor.

• Statement 4 is correct: The Governor is empowered to appoint a commission to examine and report on any matter
relating to the administration of the autonomous districts or regions. He may also dissolve a district or regional
council on recommendation of the commission.
Hence, option A is correct.

Q23. Answer: B
Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 indeed lays out the procedural details for removal of
Supreme Court judges, including initiating the motion, forming an inquiry committee, conducting investigations,
and presenting the report to Parliament.
• Statement 2 is not correct: A judge of Supreme Court of India may be removed from office through a motion
adopted by Parliament on grounds of ‘proven misbehaviour or incapacity’. However, the Constitution of India
does not define or provide any details of what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’.

• Statement 3 is not correct: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha or Chairman of the Rajya Sabha may admit the motion
or refuse to admit it if they find it frivolous, not supported by substantial evidence, or not falling under the
definition of "proved misbehaviour or incapacity". However, their decision can be challenged in the Supreme
Court.

• Statement 4 is correct: As per Article 124(4), for the removal of a Supreme Court judge, both Houses of Parliament
must pass the motion by a special majority – a majority of the total membership of each House and at least two-
thirds of the members present and voting.
Hence, option B is correct.

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Q24. Answer: D
Explanation:

• Statement 1 is not correct: Judicial Review: The phrase 'judicial review' is not explicitly provided in the
Constitution. However, the judiciary draws the power of judicial review from various provisions of the Constitution
(e.g., Articles 13, 32, 131, etc.).

• Statement 2 is not correct: The Constitutional Amendments are also subject to judicial review. The Supreme
Court overturned the 99th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2014 which provided for the National Judicial
Appointments Commission.
Hence, option D is correct.

Q25. Answer: A
Explanation:
• Statement 3 is correct: Under Article 243-I of the Indian Constitution, the Governor of a state ensures the laying
of a State Finance Commission’s recommendations to the table of the State Legislature. It also includes a
Memorandum of Action Taken by the government on the Commission’s report.

• Statement 1 is correct: A State Finance Commission reviews the financial position of the Panchayats in a state
and makes recommendations to the Governor about the principles that should govern the distribution of the tax
proceeds – taxes, duties, levies, toll fee collected by the state, between the state and its Panchayati Raj
Institutions at all three levels – village level, block level and district level.

• It also recommends the following:

o Taxes, levies and fees levied or appropriated by the Panchayats themselves.
o Statement 2 is not correct: Grants-in-aid to the Panchayati Raj Institutions from the Consolidated Fund
of State (and not from Consolidated Fund of India)
o Ways to improve the financial position of the Panchayati Raj Institutions.
o Measures for the overall improvement of the Panchayat’s finances.
Hence, option A is correct.

Q26. Answer: C
Explanation:

• Statement 1 is not correct: The power of abolition and creation of the State legislative council is vested in
Parliament of India, The Resolution to create a legislative council needs to be passed in parliament by simple
majority.
• Statement 2 is not correct: When a legislative council is created or abolished, the Constitution of India is also
changed. However, still, such type of law is not considered a Constitution Amendment Bill under Article 368.

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 • Statement 3 is not correct: The resolution for abolition of the state legislative Council must be passed by
legislative assembly by special majority.
Hence, option C is correct.

Q27. Answer: C
Explanation:

• As per Article 236 (a) of the Constitution ‘District Judge’ includes judge of a Civil Court, Additional District Judge,
Joint District Judge, Assistant District Judge, Chief Judge of a Small Cause Court, Chief Presidency Magistrate,
Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate, Sessions Judge, Additional Session Judge and Assistant Session Judge.

• The district judge shall not include Tribunal Judge.

Hence, option C is correct.

Q28. Answer: B
Explanation:

• Statement 1 is not correct: The Chief Election Commissioner and other election commissioners in India enjoy
equal powers and receive equal salaries, allowances, and other perquisites.

• Statement 2 is correct: The Chief Election Commissioner is entitled to the same salary, allowances, and other
perquisites as a judge of the Supreme Court. This ensures financial independence and attracts qualified
individuals to the position.

• Statement 3 is correct: The Chief Election Commissioner can only be removed from office in the same manner
and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court. This safeguards their independence and protects
them from undue political influence.
• Statement 4 is not correct: The term of office of the Election Commissioner is 6 years from the date he assumes
his office or till the day he attains the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
Hence, option B is correct.

Q29. Answer: B
Explanation:
The Constitution empowers the Parliament to make laws on any matter enumerated in the State List under the following
5 extraordinary circumstances:

• Statement 1 is not correct: If the Rajya Sabha declares that it is necessary in the national interest that the
Parliament should make laws with respect to matter in the State List, then the Parliament becomes competent to
make laws on that matter. Such a resolution must be supported by two-thirds of the members present and voting.

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 • Statement 2 is not correct: The Parliament acquires the power to legislate with respect to matters in the State
List, while a Proclamation of National Emergency is in operation. Here, the power of a State Legislature to make
laws on the same matter is not restricted. But, in case of repugnancy between a State law and a Parliamentary
law, the latter is to prevail.

• Statement 3 is correct: When the legislatures of two or more States pass resolutions requesting the Parliament
to enact laws on a matter in the State List, then the Parliament can make laws for regulating that matter. A law
so enacted applies only to those States which have passed the resolutions. However, any other State may adopt it
afterwards by passing a resolution to that effect in its legislature. Such a law can be amended or repealed only by
the Parliament and not by the legislatures of the concerned States.

• The Parliament can make laws on any matter in the State List for implementing the international treaties,
agreements or conventions.
• Statement 4 is correct: When the President’s Rule is imposed in a State, the Parliament becomes empowered
to make laws with respect to any matter in the State List in relation to that State. A law made so by the Parliament
continues to be operative even after the President’s Rule.
Hence, option B is correct.

Q30. Answer: C
Explanation:
Joint Sittings of the Parliament:

• Statement 1 is correct: Joint Sittings have not been provided for resolving deadlock over a Bill in the State
Legislature.

• Statement 2 is not correct: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over a Joint Sitting of the two Houses and the
Deputy Speaker, in his absence. If the Deputy Speaker is also absent from a Joint Sitting, the Deputy Chairman of
the Rajya Sabha presides.

• Statement 3 is correct: The President can summon both the Houses to meet in a Joint Sitting for the purpose of
deliberating and voting on the Bill. It must be noted here that the provision of Joint Sitting is applicable to Ordinary
Bills or Financial Bills only, and not to Money Bills or Constitutional Amendment Bills. In the case of a Money Bill,
the Lok Sabha has overriding powers, while a Constitutional Amendment Bill must be passed by each House
separately.
Hence, option C is correct.

Q31. Answer: D
Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: Article 43B of Directive Principles of State Policy calls for Cooperative Societies:
Promotion of co-operative societies. The State shall endeavour to promote voluntary formation, functioning,
democratic autonomous control and professional management of co-operative societies.

• Statement 2 is not correct: Cooperative societies are part of State list as per the 7th schedule of the Constitution.
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 • Statement 3 is correct: Right to form cooperative societies was included as a Fundamental Right by insertion of
the words “cooperative societies” in Article 19(1)(c) in Part-III of the Constitution.
Hence, option D is correct.

Q32. Answer: B
Explanation:
The First Amendment Act, 1951 to the Indian constitution:
• Amended Article 15 so as to allow state to carry on special reservations in Public Employment for SC and STs.
• Introduction of Reasonable Restriction on Freedom of Speech and Expression.

• Introduction of restriction on freedom of trade and occupation by making it easier for nationalisation of any
industry and prescription of standards for occupation.
• Introduction of 9th schedule to save anti-zamindari legislations.

• Amendments for summoning of Parliament and State Legislatures.

Hence, option B is correct.

Q33. Answer: D
Explanation:
Estimates Committee:

• All the thirty members are from Lok Sabha only. These members are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from
amongst its members.

• A minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee. The chairman of the committee is appointed by
the Speaker from amongst its members and he is invariably from the ruling party.

• The function of the committee is to examine the estimates included in the budget and suggest ‘economies’ in
public expenditure. Hence, it has been described as a ‘continuous economy committee’.

• It is not incumbent on the committee to examine the entire estimates of any one year. The demands for grants
are finally voted despite the fact that the committee has made no report
Hence, option D is correct.

Q34. Answer: B
Explanation:
The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was set up in 1963 by a resolution of the Ministry of Home Affairs. The
establishment of the CBI was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–1964).

• Statement 1 is not correct: Later, it was transferred to the Ministry of Personnel and now it enjoys the status of
an attached office. The Special Police Establishment (which looked into vigilance cases) setup in 1941 was also

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 merged with the CBI. The CBI is not a statutory body. It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police
Establishment Act, 1946.

• Statement 2 is correct: The CBI is the main investigating agency of the Central Government. It plays an important
role in the prevention of corruption and maintaining integrity in administration. It also provides assistance to the
Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) and Lokpal. The CVC is empowered to give directions to the Delhi Special
Police Establishment (CBI) for superintendence insofar as it relates to the investigation of offences under the
Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.
Hence, option B is correct.

Q35. Answer: C
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: A member of UPSC (on ceasing to hold office) is eligible for appointment as the chairman
of UPSC or a State Public Service Commission (SPSC) but not for any other employment in the Government of
India or a state. When a member of UPSC is appointed as its chairman, he holds the new office for six years or
until the age of superannuation, whichever is earlier.
• Statement 2 is correct: Both the chairman and members of a SPSC can be removed only by the President.
Although the chairman and members of a SPSC are appointed by the Governor, they can be removed only by the
President (and not by the Governor). The President can remove them on the same grounds and in the same
manner as he can remove a chairman or a member of the UPSC. The Governor has no role to play in the removal
of the members of the SPSC.
• Statement 3 is correct: No educational qualifications are prescribed for the Commission’s membership except
that one-half of the members of the Commission should be such persons who have held office for at least ten
years either under the Government of India or under the government of a state. The Constitution also authorizes
the president to determine the conditions of service of the chairman and other members of the Commission.
Hence, option C is correct.

Q36. Answer: D
Explanation:
The Attorney General for India is the highest law officer in the country. The office of the Attorney General for India is a
constitutional position created under Article 76 of the constitution of India.

• Statement 1 is correct: He may be removed by the president at any time. It is because he holds office during the
pleasure of the president. The term of office of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution. Further, the Constitution
does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal. Conventionally, he resigns when the government
(council of ministers) resigns or is replaced, as he/she is appointed on its advice.

• Statement 2 is not correct: The remuneration of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution. He receives such
remuneration as the President (not Parliament) may determine.

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 • Statement 3 is not correct: It is nowhere mentioned that AG will appear on behalf of the Government of India
in all cases in International Court of Justice. He is the chief law officer of the Government of India. The president
has assigned the following duties to him:
o To appear on behalf of the Government of India in all cases in the Supreme Court in which the Government
of India is concerned.
o To represent the Government of India in any reference made by the president to the Supreme Court under
Article 143 of the Constitution.
o To appear (when required by the Government of India) in any high court in any case in which the
Government of India is concerned.

• Statement 4 is correct: However, the Attorney General is not a fulltime counsel for the Government. He does
not fall in the category of government servants. Further, he is not debarred from private legal practice.
Hence, option D is correct.

Q37. Answer: C
Explanation:
The National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) was first time constituted by the Central Govt as statutory body
under The National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993. And so far, 7 NCBC has been constituted 7 times up to
2016.
• Statement 1 is not correct: The 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act 2019 was related to reservation for the
Economically Weaker Section (EWS) of the society. Whereas, it was the 102nd Amendment Act of 2018 conferred
a constitutional status on the Commission. For this purpose, the amendment inserted a new Article 338-B in the
constitution. Hence, the Commission ceased to be a statutory body and became a constitutional body.

• Statement 2 is correct: The Commission consists of a chairperson, a vice-chairperson and three other members.
They are appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. Their conditions of service and tenure
of office are also determined by the President.

• Statement 3 is correct: The Commission is vested with the power to regulate its own procedure. It means The
Commission shall not be bound by the procedure laid down by any law or rules. It can make its own rules for
regulations.
Hence, option C is correct.

Q38. Answer: A
Explanation:
Point of Order:
A Point of Order is raised by a member when the proceedings of the House do not follow the normal rules of procedure.
It should relate to the interpretation or enforcement of the Rules of the House or such articles of the Constitution that
regulate the business of the House and should raise a question that is within the cognizance of the Speaker.

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It is usually raised by an opposition member in order to control the government. It is an extraordinary device as it
suspends the proceedings before the House. No debate is allowed on a point of order.
Hence, option A is correct.

Q39. Answer: C
Explanation:
The chairperson and members are appointed by the president on the recommendations of a 6-member committee
consisting of:
1. Prime Minister
2. Union Home Minister
3. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
4. Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
5. Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha
6. Leader of the Opposition in the Rajya Sabha
Hence, option C is correct.

Q40. Answer: B
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: The 10th Schedule was inserted into the Indian Constitution in 1985 through the 52nd
Amendment Act. It's commonly known as the Anti-Defection Law.

• Statement 2 is not correct: The decision of the Speaker on a disqualification question is not final and can be
challenged in court under judicial review (Kihoto Hollohan case of 1993). The Court has the power to overturn
the Speaker's decision if it finds it to be unconstitutional or unreasonable.

• Statement 3 is correct: The Anti-Defection Law aims to provide stability to the government by discouraging
legislators from switching political parties mid-term. This helps prevent situations where governments fall due
to party defections, leading to political instability and uncertainty.
Hence, option B is correct.

Q41. Answer: B

Explanation:
• Statement 1 is not correct: The presidential proclamation imposing President’s Rule is subject to judicial review.
The satisfaction of the President must be based on relevant material. The action of the president can be struck
down by the court if it is based on irrelevant or extraneous grounds or if it was found to be malafide or perverse.

• Statement 2 is correct: Secularism is one of the ‘basic features’ of the Constitution. Hence, a state government
pursuing anti-secular politics is liable to action under Article 356.

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Hence, option B is correct.

Q42. Answer: D
Explanation:

• Statement 1 is not correct: Originally, the Constitution of India did not make any provision with respect to the
Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
o Later, the States Reorganisation Commission (1953–55) made a recommendation in this regard.
Accordingly, the Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 inserted a new Article 350- B in Part-
XVII of the Constitution.

• Statement 2 is not correct: There should be a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. He is to be appointed by
the President of India.

• It must be noted here that the Constitution does not specify the qualifications, tenure, salaries and allowances,
service conditions and procedure for the removal of the Special Officer Minorities.
Hence, option D is correct.

Q43. Answer: B
Explanation:

• Statement 1 is not correct: The Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) and the Information Commissioners (ICs)
are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee, consisting of the Prime Minister as the
Chairperson, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the
Prime Minister.
• They should be persons of eminence in public life with wide knowledge and experience in law, science and
technology, social service, management, journalism, mass media or administration and governance.

• They should not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory.

• They should not hold any other office of profit or connected with any political party or carrying on any business
or pursuing any profession.
• Statement 2 is not correct: The RTI Act, 2005, provides that the CIC and an IC shall hold office for such term as
prescribed by the Central Government or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.

• They are not eligible for re appointment.

• Statement 3 is correct: The RTI Act, 2005, provides that the salaries and allowances payable to, and other terms
and conditions of service of the CIC shall be the same as that of the Commissioner.
Hence, option B is correct.

Q44. Answer: B
Explanation:
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Second Schedule Provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of:
• The President of India
• The Governors of States

• The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

• The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

• The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly in the states

• The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Legislative Council in the states

• The Judges of the Supreme Court

• The Judges of the High Courts

• The Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

Hence, option B is correct.

Q45. Answer: A
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is not correct: Delimitation is the act of redrawing boundaries of Lok Sabha (and not Rajya Sabha)
and state assembly seats to represent changes in population. In this process, the number of seats allocated to
different states in Lok Sabha and the total number seats in a Legislative Assembly may also change.
• Statement 2 is correct: Under Article 82, the Parliament enacts a Delimitation Act after every Census. Once the
Act is in force, the Union government sets up a Delimitation Commission made up of a retired Supreme Court
judge, the Chief Election Commissioner and the respective State Election Commissioners.

• Statement 3 is correct: Th e main objective of delimitation is to provide equal representation to equal segments
of a population. Th e Commission is supposed to determine the number and boundaries of constituencies in a
way that the population of all seats, so far as practicable, is the same.
Hence, option A is correct.

Q46. Answer: C
Explanation:

• Option (a) is correct: Inner Line permit (ILP) is a document required by non- natives to visit or stay in a state that
is protected under the ILP system. Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur and Nagaland are covered under it.

• Option (b) is correct: An Inner Line Permit is a document that allows an Indian citizen to visit or stay in a state
that is protected under the ILP system. No Indian citizen can visit any of these states unless he or she belongs to
that state, nor can he or she overstay beyond the period specified in the ILP.

• Option (c) is not correct: An ILP is issued by the state government concerned. It can be obtained after applying
either online or physically. It states the dates of travel and also specifies the particular areas in the state which the
ILP holder can travel to.

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 • Option (d) is correct: The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019, relaxes eligibility criteria for certain categories of
migrants from three countries seeking Indian citizenship. However, it exempts certain categories of areas,
including those protected by the Inner Line system from its applicability.
Hence, option C is correct.

Q47. Answer: A
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: A candidate would not be eligible to contest from more than two Parliamentary or
assembly constituencies at a general election or at the by-elections which are held simultaneously. Similar
restrictions are imposed for biennial elections and by-elections to the Rajya Sabha and the state legislative
councils.
• Statement 2 is not correct: Earlier, in case of death of a contesting candidate before the actual polling, the election
used to be countermanded. Consequently, the election process had to start all over again in the concerned
constituency. But now, the election would not be countermanded on the death of a contesting candidate before
the actual polling. However, if the deceased candidate belonged to a recognised political party, the party
concerned would be given an option to propose another candidate within seven days.

• Statement 3 is not correct: A person who is convicted for the following offences under the Prevention of Insults
to National Honour Act of 1971 is disqualified to contest in the elections to the Parliament and state legislature
for 6 years.
o The offence of insulting the National Flag.
o Offence of insulting the Constitution of India.
o Offence of preventing the singing of National Anthem.
Hence, option A is correct.

Q48. Answer: C
Explanation:
Central Vigilance Commission (CVC):

• The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is the main agency for preventing corruption in the Central Government.
It was established in 1964 by an executive resolution of the Central Government.

• Statement 1 is correct: Its establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of
Corruption (1962–64). Thus, originally the CVC was neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body. Later, in
2003, the Parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the CVC.

• Statement 2 is correct: The CVC conducts its proceedings at its headquarters (New Delhi). It is vested with the
power to regulate its own procedure. It has all the powers of a civil court and its proceedings have a judicial
character.
• It may call for information or report from the Central Government or its authorities, so as to enable it to exercise
general supervision over the vigilance and anti-corruption work in them.
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Hence, option C is correct.

Q49. Answer: D
Explanation:

• Statement 2 is not correct: The 69th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1991 provided a special status to the
Union Territory of Delhi and re designated it the National Capital Territory of Delhi. It also designated the
administrator as the Lieutenant Governor of Delhi.
• Statement 1 is not correct: The Chief Minister of Delhi is appointed by the President. The other ministers are
appointed by the President on the advice of the Chief Minister. The ministers hold office during the pleasure of
the President. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Assembly.

• In the case of difference of opinion between the Governor and the ministers, the Lieutenant Governor is to refer
the matter to the President for decision and act accordingly.
Hence, option D is correct.

Q50. Answer: A
Explanation:
• The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was set up in 1985 with the principal bench at Delhi and additional
benches in different states. The CAT exercises original jurisdiction in relation to recruitment and all service
matters of public servants covered by it.

• Statement 1 is correct: Its jurisdiction extends to the All-India Services, the Central Civil Services, civil posts
under the Centre and civilian employees of the defence services.

• Statement 2, 3 and 4 are not correct: The members of the defence forces, officers and servants of the Supreme
Court and the secretarial staff of the Parliament are not covered by it.
Hence, option A is correct.

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