Model Test Paper - 2 33

MODEL TEST PAPER

Time : 3½ hours.
2
Maximum Marks : 200

PHYSICS anticlockwise). The magnetic induction at the

centre of the loops is half due to I1 alone. If
1. Two drops of equal radius coalesce to form a r2 = 2r1, the value of I2/I1 is
bigger drop. What is ratio of surface energy of (a) 2 (b) 1/2 (c) 1/4 (d) 1
bigger drop to smaller one?
(a) 21/2 : 1 (b) 1 : 1 (c) 22/3 : 1 (d) 1 : 21/3 7. A magnetic flux of 500 mWb passing through a
200 turns coil is reversed in 20 × 10–3 s. The
2. 1 g of water at atmospheric pressure has volume average e.m.f. induced in the coil is
of 1 cm3 and when boiled it becomes 1681 cm3 (a) 2.5 V (b) 5.0 V (c) 7.5 V (d) 10.0 V
of steam. The heat of vaporisation of water is
540 cal g–1. Then the change in its internal 8. A particle covers 4 m, 5 m, 6 m and 7 m in
energy in this process is 3rd, 4th, 5th and 6th second respectively. The
(a) 540 cal (b) 500 cal particles start
(c) 1681 cal (d) 480 cal (a) with an initial non-zero velocity and moves
3. A horizontal platform with an object placed on with uniform acceleration.
it is executing S.H.M. in the vertical direction. (b) from rest and moves with uniform velocity.
The amplitude of oscillation is 3.92 × 10–3 m. (c) with an initial velocity and moves with
What must be the least period of these uniform velocity.
oscillations, so that the object is not detached (d) from rest and moves with uniform
from the platform? acceleration.
(a) 0.1256 s (b) 0.1356 s 9. A block of mass 5 kg, resting on a horizontal
(c) 0.1456 s (d) 0.1556 s surface, is connected by a chord, passing over
4. A 4 mF capacitor is charged by a 200 V supply. a light frictionless pulley to a hanging block of
It is then disconnected from the supply and mass 5 kg. The coefficient of kinetic friction
is connected to another uncharged 2 mF between the block and the surface is 0.5.
capacitor. The energy lost in the process is Tension in the chord is (Take g = 9.8 m s–2)
(a) 3 × 10–2 J (b) 3 × 102 J (a) 49 N (b) 36 N
(c) 2.6 × 10 J–2
(d) 2.8 × 102 J (c) 36.75 N (d) 2.45 N
5. A wire of length 15 cm and radius 0.25 mm 10. A spring of spring constant 5 × 103 N m–1 is
connected in the left gap of a meter bridge stretched initially by 5 cm from the unstretched
balances a 10 W resistance in the right gap at a position. Then the work required to stretch it
point which divides the bridge wire in the further by another 5 cm is
ratio 3 : 2. The specific resistance of the wire is (a) 12.50 N m (b) 18.75 N m
(a) 2.0 × 10–7 W m (b) 2.0 × 10–8 W m (c) 25.00 N m (d) 6.25 N m
(c) 2.0 × 10–6 W m (d) 2.0 × 10–5 W m 11. An isolated particle of mass m is moving in
6. Two concentric coplanar circular loops of radii a horizontal plane (x-y) along the x-axis, at a
r1 and r2 carry currents I1 and I2 respectively in certain height above the ground. It suddenly
opposite directions (one clockwise and other explodes into two fragments of masses m/4 and
34 AIIMS EXPLORER

3m/4. An instant later, the smaller fragment V V

0
is at y = +15 cm. the larger fragment at this (a) V P0 (b) V P0
0
instant is at 2 2
(a) y = –5 cm (b) y = +20 cm V  V0 
(c)  V  P0 (d)  V  P0
(c) y = +5 cm (d) y = –20 cm  0  
12. If a spring extends by x on loading, then the 17. The distance between the circular plates of a
energy stored in the spring is (if T is the tension parallel plate condenser 40 mm in diameter,
and k is the force constant of the spring) in order to have same capacity as a sphere of
T2 T2 2T 2
radius 1 m is
2k
(a) 2 x (b) 2 k (c) (d) (a) 0.01 mm (b) 0.1 mm
T2 k
(c) 1.0 mm (d) 10 mm
13. A stick is thrown in the air and lands on the 18. A metal rod of length 2 m is rotating with
ground at some distance from the thrower. The an angular velocity of 100 rad s–1 in a plane
centre of mass of the stick will move along a perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of
parabolic path 0.3 T. the potential difference between the ends
(a) in all cases of the rod is
(b) only if the stick is uniform (a) 30 V (b) 40 V (c) 60 V (d) 600 V
(c) only if the stick has linear motion but no
19. Current through an AC series L-C-R circuit is
rotational motion 2 A if operated at resonant frequency and 1 A if
(d) only if the stick has a shape such that its operated at 50% less than resonant frequency.
centre of mass is located at some point on it The current (in A) if the frequency is 100 %
and not outside it more than the resonant frequency is
14. A particle of mass m is tied to a light string (a) 2 (b) 1
and rotated with a speed v along a circular
(c) 3 (d) Data insufficient
path of radius r. If T = tension in the string and
mg = gravitational force on the particle then 20. A plano-convex lens of curvature of 30 cm
the actual forces acting on the particle are and refractive index 1.5 produces a real image
(a) mg and T only of an object kept 90 cm from it. What is the
(b) mg, T and an additional force of mv2/r magnification?
directed inwards (a) 4 (b) 0.5 (c) 1.5 (d) 2
(c) mg, T and an additional force of mv2/r 21. A Ge specimen is doped with Al. The
directed outwards concentration of acceptor atoms is 1021 atoms
(d) only a force mv2/r directed outwards m–3. Given that the intrinsic concentration of
electron-hole pair is equivalent to 1019 m–3, the
15. A U-tube containing a liquid moves with a concentration of electrons in the specimen is
horizontal acceleration a along a direction (a) 1017 m–3 (b) 1015 m–3
joining the two vertical limbs. The separation 4
(c) 10 m –3
(d) 102 m–3
between these limbs is d. The difference in
their liquid levels is 22. The torque required to hold a small circular
(a) ad/g (b) 2da/g coil of 10 turns, 2 × 10–4 m2 area and carrying
0.5 A current in the middle of a long solenoid of
(c) da/2g (d) dtan(a/g)
103 turns m–1 carrying 3 A current, with its axis
16. An electric bulb is designed to draw P0 power perpendicular to the axis of the solenoid, is
at V0 voltage. If the voltage is V, it draws P (a) 12p × 10–7 N m (b) 6p × 10–7 N m
power. Then r is given by (c) 4p × 10–7 N m (d) 2p × 10–7 N m
Model Test Paper - 2 35

23. A convex lens forms an image of an object 30. For what value of R will the current in
placed 20 cm away from it at a distance of galvanometer be zero?
20 cm on the other side of the lens. If the object (a) 1 W
is moved 5 cm towards the lens, the image will (b) 2 W
move (c) 5 W
(a) 5 cm towards the lens (d) 7 W
(b) 5 cm away from the lens
31. A small object placed on a rotating horizontal
(c) 10 cm towards the lens
turn table just slips when it is placed at a
(d) 10 cm away from the lens
distance of 4 cm from the axis of rotation. If the
24. A sample of an element weighs 10.38 g. If half- angular velocity of the turn-table is doubled
life of element is 3.8 days, then after 19 days, the object slips when its distance from the axis
how much quantity of element will remain? of rotation is
(a) 0.151 g (b) 0.32 g (a) 1 cm (b) 2 cm (c) 4 cm (d) 8 cm
(c) 1.51 g (d) 0.16 g 32. Circular loop of a wire and a long straight wire
25. The work done in increasing the size of carry currents Ic and Ie respectively as shown
a rectangular soap film with dimensions in figure. Assuming that these are placed in the
8 cm × 3.75 cm to 10 cm × 6 cm is 2 × 10–4 J. same plane, the magnetic fields will be zero at
The surface tension of the film in N m–1 is the centre of the loop when separation H is
(a) 1.65 × 10–2 (b) 3.3 × 10–2 Circular wire
–2
(c) 6.6 × 10 (d) 8.25 × 10–2 R
Ic
26. If the heat 110 J is added to a gaseous system O
and it acquires internal energy of 40 J, then the
amount of internal work done is
H
(a) 40 J (b) 70 J (c) 150 J (d) 110 J
l
27. The dimensions of is
KA Straight wire Ie
(Here, l is the length of rod, K is the thermal Ie R Ic R πI e πIc
conductivity of rod and A is area of cross- (a) (b) (c) (d)
Ic π Ie π Ic R Ie R
section of rod)
(a) [ML2T–3K–1] (b) [M–1L–2T3K] 33. A rod of length 1.4 m and negligible mass has
2 –3 –2 two masses of 0.3 kg and 0.7 kg tied to its two
(c) [ML T K ] (d) [MLT–3K–1]
ends. Find the location of the point on this
28. A body starting from rest moves with constant rod, where the rotational energy is minimum,
acceleration. The ratio of distance covered by when the rod is rotated about the point.
the body during the 5th s to that covered in 5 s (a) 0.98 m from 0.3 kg
is (b) 0.98 m from 0.7 kg
3 25 1 (c) 0.7 m from 0.3 kg
(a) 9 (b) (c) (d)
25 25 9 25 (d) 0.7 m from 0.7 kg
29. Same force acts on two bodies of different masses 34. A charged cloud system produces an electric
3 kg and 5 kg initially at rest. The ratio of times field in the air near the earth’s surface. A
required to acquire same final velocity is particle of charge –2 × 10–9 C is acted on by
(a) 5 : 3 (b) 25 : 9 a downward electrostatic force of 3 × 10–6 N
(c) 9 : 25 (d) 3 : 5 when placed in this field. The gravitational and
36 AIIMS EXPLORER

electrostatic force, respectively, exerted on a Directions : In the following questions (41-60), a

proton placed in this field are statement of assertion is followed by a statement of
(a) 1.64 × 10–26 N, 2.4 × 10–16 N reason. Mark the correct choice as
(b) 1.64 × 10–26 N, 1.5 × 103 N (a) If both assertion and reason are true
(c) 1.56 × 10–18 N, 2.4 × 10–16 N and reason is the correct explanation of
(d) 1.5 × 103 N, 2.4 × 10–16 N
assertion.
35. An inductor of inductance 10 H connected in (b) If both assertion and reason are true but
series with a resistance R = 6 W. A 12 V battery reason is not the correct explanation of
is connected for a long time. When the circuit assertion.
is switched off, the induced emf in inductor, if (c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
current reduces to zero in 10 ms, is
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
(a) 1000 V (b) 2000 V
(c) 3000 V (d) 4000 V 41. Assertion : If a pendulum falls freely, then its
36. If 2 moles of an ideal monoatomic gas at time period becomes infinite.
temperature T0 is mixed with 4 moles of Reason : A freely falling body has acceleration
another ideal monoatomic gas at temperature equal to g.
2T0, then the temperature of the mixture is 42. Assertion : When charges are shared between
(a) (5/3)T0 (b) (3/2)T0
two bodies, there occurs no loss of charge.
(c) (4/3)T0 (d) (5/4)T0
However, there is a loss in electrical energy.
37. The displacement of a particle is represented
Reason : Electrostatic potential energy does
π 
by the equation : y = 3 cos  − 2ωt  . not come under the preview of the conservation
4 
law of energy.
The motion of the particle is
(a) simple harmonic with period 2p/w 43. Assertion : It is easier to pull a heavy object
(b) simple harmonic with period p/w than to push it on a level ground.
(c) periodic but not simple harmonic Reason : The magnitude of frictional force
(d) non-periodic depends on the nature of the two surfaces in
38. An engine has an efficiency of 1/6. When the contact.
temperature of the sink is reduced by 62°C, its 44. Assertion : If polar ice melts, days will be
efficiency is doubled. The temperature of the longer.
source is
Reason : Moment of inertia decreases and thus
(a) 37°C (b) 62°C (c) 99°C (d) 124°C
angular velocity increases.
39. The retarding potential necessary to stop the
45. Assertion : Two particles moving in the same
emission of photoelectron, when a target
material of work function 1.24 eV is irradiated direction do not lose all their energy in a
with light of wavelength 4.36 × 10–7 m is completely inelastic collision.
(a) 0.36 V (b) 1.60 V Reason : Principle of conservation of
(c) 2.84 V (d) 4.08 V momentum holds true for all kinds of collision.
40. The transfer ratio b of a transistor is 50. The 46. Assertion : In a simple battery circuit the
input resistance of the transistor when used point of lowest potential is positive terminal of
in the common emitter configuration is 1 kW. the battery.
The peak value of the collector AC current for Reason : The current flows towards the point of
a peak value of AC input voltage of 0.01 V is
the higher potential as it flows in such a circuit
(a) 100 mA (b) 0.01 mA
(c) 0.25 mA (d) 500 mA from the negative to the positive terminal.
Model Test Paper - 2 37

47. Assertion : When a magnet is brought near 55. Assertion : At a fixed temperature, silicon will
iron nails, only translatory force acts on it. have a minimum conductivity when it has a
Reason : The field due to a magnet is generally smaller acceptor doping.
uniform. Reason : The conductivity of an intrinsic
semiconductor is slightly higher than that of a
48. Assertion : The presence of large magnetic lightly doped p-type.
flux through a coil maintains a current in the
coil, if the circuit is continuous. 56. Assertion : The ratio of time taken for light
Reason : Only a change in magnetic flux will emission from an atom to that for release of
maintain an induced current in the coil. nuclear energy in fission is 1 : 100.
Reason : Time taken of the light emission from
49. Assertion : Bigger drops of liquid resist an atom is of the order of 10–8 s.
deforming forces better than the smaller drops.
57. Assertion : The de Broglie equation
Reason : Excess pressure inside the drop is
has significance for any microscopic or
directly proportional to its radius. sub-microscopic particle.
50. Assertion : The internal energy of a real gas is Reason : The de Broglie wavelength is
a function of both, temperature and volume. inversely proportional to the mass of the object
Reason : Internal K.E. depends on temperature if velocity is constant.
and internal P.E. depends on volume. 58. Assertion : In front of a concave mirror a point
51. Assertion : If a hole were drilled through the object is placed between focus and centre of
centre of earth and a ball dropped into the hole curvature. If a glass slab is placed between
at one end, it will not get out of other end of object and mirror then image from mirror
may become virtual.
the hole.
Reason : Glass slab always makes a virtual
Reason : It should come out of the other end image of a real object.
normally.
59. Assertion : In Young’s double slit experiment
52. Assertion : A particle is projected at an angle I
q (< 90°) to horizontal, with a velocity u. When ratio max is infinite.
I min
particle strikes the ground its speed is again u.
Reason : Velocity along horizontal direction Reason : If width of any one of the slits is
remains same but velocity along vertical slightly increased, then this ratio will decrease.
direction is changed. When particle strikes 60. Assertion : If high pressure is applied on a
the ground then magnitude of final vertical radioactive substance rate of radioactivity does
velocity is equal to magnitude of initial vertical not change.
velocity. Reason : Radioactivity is a nuclear process.

53. Assertion : A man who falls from a height on CHEMISTRY

a cement floor receives more injury than when 61. Which of the following represents nucleophilic
he falls from the same height on a heap of sand. aromatic substitution reaction?
Reason : The impulse applied by a cement (a) Reaction of benzene with Cl2 in sunlight.
floor is less than the impulse by a sand floor. (b) Hydrolysis of benzyl bromide.
54. Assertion : According to the law of (c) Reaction of NaOH with dinitrofluorobenzene.
conservation of mechanical energy change in (d) Sulphonation of benzene.
potential energy is equal and opposite to the 62. If two different gases are in the molar ratio n1 : n2,
change in kinetic energy. then which of the following need not be in the
Reason : Mechanical energy is not a conserved ratio n1 : n2?
quantity. (a) Their volume ratio at same P and T
38 AIIMS EXPLORER

(b) Their ratio in terms of number of molecules (c) The +4 oxidation state of cerium is not
(c) Their partial pressures in a mixture known in solutions.
(d) Their densities at same P and T (d) Cerium (IV) acts as an oxidising agent.
63. Which of the following has maximum number 70. Heating a particular ether with HBr yielded a
of isotopes? single organic product. Which of the following
(a) Ga (b) H (c) C (d) Sn conclusions may be reached?
64. Chloropicrin is (a) The reactant was ethyl methyl ether.
(a) CCl3(NO2)2 (b) CCl2HNO2 (b) The reactant was a symmetric ether.
(c) CClH2NO2 (d) CCl3NO2 (c) The reactant was a cyclic ether.
65. 0.1 M NaCl and 0.05 M BaCl2 solutions are (d) Both (b) and (c) may be correct.
separated by a semipermeable membrane in a 71. The ratio of the difference in energy between
container. For this system, choose the correct the first and the second Bohr orbit to that
answer. between the second and the third Bohr orbit is
(a) There is no movement of any solution 1 1 4 27
across the membrane. (a) (b) (c) (d)
2 3 9 5
(b) Water flows from BaCl2 solution towards
NaCl solution. 72. Electron gain enthalpy is positive, when
(c) Water flows from NaCl solution towards (a) O changes into O–
BaCl2 solution. (b) O– changes into O2–
(d) Osmotic pressure of 0.1 M NaCl is lower (c) O changes into O+
than the osmotic pressure of 0.05 M BaCl2 (d) electron gain enthalpy is always negative.
(Assume complete dissociation). 73. Arrange the given compounds in order of
66. What is the volume of “20 volume H2O2” increasing acidic character.
required to get 5000 cm3 of oxygen at STP?
(a) 250 cm3 (b) 20 cm3 (I) (II)
3
(c) 100 cm (d) 125 cm3
67. Which of the following compounds
decolourises cold alkaline KMnO4 but cannot
give a red precipitate with ammoniacal Cu2Cl2? (III) (IV)
(a) CH3C CH (b) CH3CH CH2
(a) III > II > I > IV (b) III > IV > II > I
(c) (d) CH3CH2CH3 (c) III > I > II > IV (d) I > III > II > IV
68. Which of the following is isostructural to I3– ? 74. Consider the following cell reaction :
(a) ICl2–, XeF2, N3– 2+ 2+
Mg(s) + Cu(aq) Cu(s) + Mg(aq)
(b) NO2–, XeF2, N3–
(c) NH2–, NO2–, ICl2– If the standard reduction potentials of Mg2+/Mg
(d) BH3, CO2, ICl2– and Cu2+/Cu are – 2.37 V and + 0.34 V respectively,
69. Cerium (Z = 58) is an important member of E° for the cell is
lanthanides. Which of the following statements (a) –2.71 V (b) +2.71 V
about cerium is incorrect? (c) –2.03 V (d) +2.03 V
(a) The common oxidation states of cerium are 75. The decomposition temperature is maximum
+3 and +4. for
(b) The +3 oxidation state of cerium is more (a) MgCO3 (b) CaCO3
stable than the +4 oxidation state. (c) BaCO3 (d) SrCO3
Model Test Paper - 2 39

76. Nucleophilic attack on carbonyl carbon (i) Methylamine (ii) Phosgene

changes its hybridisation from (iii) Phosphine (iv) Dimethylamine
(a) sp to sp2 (b) sp2 to sp3 (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (iii) and (iv)
3 2
(c) sp to sp (d) sp to sp3 (c) (i) and (ii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
6000
− 83. In the following reaction :
77. For the reactions, A B; k1 = 10 e
8 8.34T
1
−
8000 Mx+ + MnO4– MO–3 + Mn2+ + O2,
and P Q; k2 = 1010 e 8.34T 2
The temperature at which k1 = k2 is if one mole of MnO–4 oxidises 2.5 moles of Mx+,
(a) 386 K (b) 221 K (c) 26 K (d) 52 K then the value of x is
(a) 5 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 2
78. Boric acid is used in carrom board for smooth
gliding of pawnpucks because 84. Which of the following oxyacids does not
(a) its low density makes it fluffy exist?
(b) it can be powdered to a very small grain size (a) H3SbO3 (b) HBiO3
(c) it is chemically inert with the plywood (c) H3AsO4 (d) H3BiO4
(d) H-bonding in H3BO3 gives it a layered 85. Among the following which one can have a
structure. meso form?
79. o-Toluic acid on reaction with Br2 and Fe gives (a) CH3CH(OH)CH(Cl)C2H5
(b) CH3CH(OH)CH(OH)CH3
(a) (b) (c) C2H5CH(OH)CH(OH)CH3
(d) HOCH2CH(Cl)CH3
86. Which among the following statements are
correct with respect to adsorption of gases on
(c) (d) a solid?
(i) The extent of adsorption is equal to kpn
according to Freundlich isotherm.
80. If the equilibrium pressure for the reaction : (ii) The extent of adsorption is equal to kp1/n
Co(H2O)4Cl3⋅2H2O(s) [Co(H2O)4Cl2]Cl(s) according to Freundlich isotherm.
+ 2H2O(g) (iii) The extent of adsorption is equal to
π (1 + bp)/ap according to Langmuir isotherm.
at 500 K is atm. So, the Kp for the given
2 (iv) The extent of adsorption is equal to
reaction is
ap/(1 + bp) according to Langmuir iso-
π2 therm.
(a) atm2 (b) p2atm2
2 (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iv)
π2
(c) 4p2atm2 (d) atm2 (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
4
81. Identify B in the following reaction. 87. Increase in volume of a gas from a given
decrease of pressure is more in an isothermal
H4SiO4 A B + CO
process than in an adiabatic expansion because
(a) Corundum (b) Quartz (a) in isothermal and adiabatic expansion, the
(c) Silica (d) Carborundum internal energy of systems remains same
82. Which of the following chemicals are used to (b) in isothermal expansion, temperature
manufacture methyl isocyanate that caused remains same whereas in adiabatic
“Bhopal Gas Tragedy”? expansion, temperature decreases
40 AIIMS EXPLORER

(c) in isothermal expansion, q = w while in 93. XeF6 on complete hydrolysis produces

adiabatic expansion, DU = w (a) XeOF4 (b) XeO2F2
(d) in isothermal expansion, work is done by (c) XeO3 (d) XeO2
the system while in adiabatic, work is done 94. Aromatic nitriles (ArCN) are not prepared by
on the system. which of the following reaction?
(a) ArX + KCN (b) ArN2 +Cl– + CuCN
88. Which is not classified as thermoplastics?
(c) ArCONH2 + P2O5 (d) ArCONH2 + SOCl2
(a) Polyethylene (b) Polystyrene
95. The equivalent weight of phosphoric acid
(c) Bakelite (d) Neoprene
(H3PO4) in the reaction :
89. Which is not the correct statement for ionic NaOH + H3PO4 → NaH2PO4 + H2O is
solids in which positive and negative ions are (a) 25 (b) 49 (c) 59 (d) 98
held by strong electrostatic attractive forces?
96. The stability of complexes of Cu2+, Ni2+, Co2+
(a) The radius r+/r– increases as coordination
and Fe2+ varies in the order
number increases. (a) Cu2+ > Ni2+ > Co2+ > Fe2+
(b) As the difference in size of ions increases, (b) Cu2+ > Fe2+ > Ni2+ > Co2+
coordination number increases. (c) Ni2+ > Co2+ > Fe2+ > Cu2+
(c) When coordination number is eight, the (d) Cu2+ < Ni2+ < Co2+ < Fe2+
r+/r– ratio lies between 0.225 to 0.414. 97. Lassaigne’s test for the detection of nitrogen
(d) In ionic solid of the type AX (ZnS, Wurtzite), fails in
the coordination number of Zn2+ and S2– (a) H2N CO NHNH2⋅HCl
respectively are 4 and 4. (b) NH2 NH2⋅HCl
(c) C6H5 NH NH2⋅HCl
90. Which of the following is not the correct (d) C6H5CONH2
process. 98. Which of the following statements is not
(a) Leaching : Ag correct?
(b) Zone refining : Sn (a) CO is the main air pollutant.
(c) Liquation : Sn (b) All pollutants are not wastes.
(d) van Arkel : Zr (c) Water is polluted if B.O.D. is less.
(d) Lichens are pollution indicators.
91. Which one of the following is a non-steroidal
99. Formation of coloured ions by transition
hormone?
metals signifies
(a) Estradiol (b) Prostaglandin (a) absorption of light from UV range
(c) Progesterone (d) Estrone (b) emission of light
92. Equimolar solutions in the same solvent have (c) presence of unpaired electrons in s and p
(a) different boiling and different freezing orbitals
(d) complementary colours to the absorbed
points
light.
(b) same boiling and same freezing points
100. If xy is molecular plane, then dp-pp bonding
(c) same freezing point but different boiling
that is possible in SO2 molecule can be
point represented as
(d) same boiling point but different freezing (a) 3dz2 – 2pz (b) 3dxy – 2pz
point. (c) 3dz2 – 2px (d) 3dxz – 2pz
Model Test Paper - 2 41

Directions : In the following questions (101-120), 106. Assertion : The molecularity of the reaction,
a statement of assertion is followed by a statement H2 + Br2 2HBr is two.
of reason. Mark the correct choice as : Reason : The order of this reaction is 3/2.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true 107. Assertion : When KI solution is added to
and reason is the correct explanation of AgNO3 solution, negatively charged sol results.
assertion. Reason : When KI solution is added to AgNO3
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but solution, negative charge of sol is due to
reason is not the correct explanation of preferential adsorption of iodide ions from the
assertion. dispersion medium.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
108. Assertion : White P reacts with caustic soda,
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
the products are PH3 and NaH2PO2. This
101. Assertion : Lowering in vapour pressure is reaction is an example of disproportionation
directly proportional to the osmotic pressure reaction.
of the solution. Reason : In disproportionation reaction,
Reason : Osmotic pressure is a colligative same substance may act simultaneously as an
property. oxidising agent and as a reducing agent.
109. Assertion : For an isothermal reversible process
102. Assertion : In van der Waals’ equation
q = –w i.e. work done by the system equals the
 a 
 P + 2  (V – b) = RT heat absorbed by the system.
V Reason : Enthalpy change (DH) is zero for
 a  isothermal process.
pressure correction,  , is due to force of
 V 2  110. Assertion : SN1 mechanism is facilitated by
attraction between molecules. polar protic solvents like water, alcohol etc.
Reason : Due to force of attraction, volume of Reason : C6H5CH(C6H5)Br is less reactive
molecules cannot be neglected. than C6H5CH(CH3)Br in SN1 reactions.
103. Assertion : In SO2, the bond angle is 119° 111. Assertion : H2O2 has higher boiling point than
whereas in SO3, the bond angle is 120°. water.
Reason : S atom in both SO2 and SO3 is sp2- Reason : H2O2 has stronger dipole-dipole
hybridized. interactions than that shown by water.
112. Assertion : BeSO4 is soluble in water while
104. Assertion : In electrolysis, the quantity of
BaSO4 is not.
electricity needed for depositing 1 mole of
Reason : Lattice energy of BaSO4 exceeds its
silver is different from that required for 1 mole
hydration energy.
of copper.
113. Assertion : Aqueous solution of phenol is
Reason : The molecular weights of silver and
called as carbonic acid.
copper are different. Reason : Increasing order of acidity of
105. Assertion : Na+ and Al3+ are isoelectronic but phenols is m-nitrophenol > o-nitrophenol >
the magnitude of ionic radius of Al3+ is less p-nitrophenol.
than that of Na+. 114. Assertion : White phosphorus is more reactive
Reason : The magnitude of effective nuclear than red phosphorus.
charge of the outershell electrons in Al3+ is Reason : White phosphorus readily catches
greater than that in Na+. fire in air to give dense white fumes of P4O10.
42 AIIMS EXPLORER

115. Assertion : NF3 is a weaker ligand than (b) baldness – X linked dominance
N(CH3)3. (c) colour blindness – X linked recessive
Reason : NF3 ionizes to give F– ions in aqueous (d) antler in deer – sex limited.
solution. 124. Following is needed in the ionic form during
116. Assertion : Direct attachment of groups such non-cyclic photophosphorylation but not
as phenyl or vinyl to the carboxylic acid, during cyclic photophosphorylations in higher
increases the acidity of the carboxylic acid. plants.
Reason : Resonance effect always increases the (a) copper (b) iron
acidity of carboxylic acids. (c) manganese (d) zinc.
117. Assertion : The solubility of AgCl in water 125. Which of the following statements is not
decreases if NaCl is added to it. correct for sickle cell anaemia?
Reason : NaCl is highly soluble in water (a) sixth amino acid (from NH2 terminus) of
whereas AgCl is sparingly soluble. beta chain is glutamic acid
118. Assertion : b-hydrogen atom of carbonyl (b) erythrocytes elongates and form sickle
compounds is acidic in nature. shaped cells
Reason : b-hydrogen is directly attached to (c) individual homozygous for haemoglobin S
carbon next to carbonyl carbon. allele are HbSB/HbSB
119. Assertion : On heating a solid for a longer (d) beta chain of haemoglobin S contains
time, radiations become white and then blue valine
as the temperature becomes very high. 126. An organism which has been used as a weapon
Reason : Radiations emitted go from a in biological war causes which of the following
lower frequency to higher frequency as the disease?
temperature increases. (a) malaria (b) common cold
120. Assertion : Frenkel defect is also called (c) influenza (d) anthrax.
dislocation defect. 127. Transpiration is very important for plants
Reason : Frenkel defect is shown by ionic because it helps in
substances in which cation and anion are of (a) the absorption of water from soil
almost similar sizes. (b) the cooling of leaves at high temperature
(c) the movement of water and minerals
BIOLOGY absorbed by roots to various parts of the plant
121. The step in which organic matter is oxidized (d) all of the above.
with the help of micro-organisms in the 128. Sacred forests are those that
effluent treatment plants (ETPs) is (a) have rich growth of plants used for worship
(a) primary treatment by the people in the region
(b) secondary treatment (b) are protected by tribal communities due to
(c) tertiary treatment religious sanctity accorded to them
(d) none of these. (c) have not been discovered humans
122. The aquatic plant Limnophila has leaves (d) none of the above.
of more than one shape. The condition is 129. Study of fossils is called
described as (a) ecology (b) angiology
(a) polyphylly (b) amphiphyly (c) exobiology (d) none of these.
(c) heterophylly (d) biphylly. 130. Vernalization is the process of
123. Which pair is incorrect? (a) flower induction by high temperature
(a) haemophilia – X linked recessive treatment
Model Test Paper - 2 43

(b) inhabitation of flowering by low 139. Parthenocarpy in grapes is induced by

temperature treatment (a) cytokinins
(c) flower induction by light treatment (b) gibberellins
(d) acceleration of the ability of a plant to (c) topoisomerases
produce flowers by chilling treatment. (d) primase.
131. Commensalism is an association of two species 140. A pure breeding pea plant with the dominant
in which phenotype of character A and recessive
(a) one live attached to the other without phenotype of character B was crossed with
harming it another pure breeding plant with the recessive
(b) both organisms derive benefit from each other phenotype of character A and dominant
(c) one derives its nutrition from the other phenotype of character B. Offspring of this
(d) none of the above. cross was crossed with a homozygous recessive
for both the characters A and B. The following
132. The kingdom protista does not include
results were obtained.
(a) photosynthetic organisms
22 were phenotypically dominant of A and
(b) flagellate organisms
recessive for B.
(c) parasitic organisms
4 were phenotypically dominant for both A
(d) bacteria.
and B.
133. If a chloroplast of plant is isolated and studied 4 were phenotypically recessive for both A and B.
in a test tube the investigation is described as 22 were phenotypically recessive for A and
(a) in vivo (b) in vitro dominant for B.
(c) in situ (d) none of these. The results show that
134. The process by which most of the cartilaginous (a) genes A and B are linked
tissue is transformed into bones is (b) independent segregation of genes A and B
(a) endochondrial ossification (c) Mendelian dihybrid inheritance
(b) intermembranous ossification (d) polygenic inheritance.
(c) calcification 141. The quiescent centre of growing angiospermic
(d) none of the above. roots comprises of
135. A lichen that grows by branching is described as (a) slow dividing cells (b) fast dividing cells
(a) fruticose (b) crustose (c) non-dividing cells (d) dead cells.
(c) foliose (d) dichotose. 142. During winter a person died during sleep, the
room was closed and a container with burnt
136. The most primitive among the living vascular
charcoal was found in the room. What may be
plants are the
the possible reason of his death?
(a) ferns (b) brown algae
(a) non-availability of oxygen
(c) mosses (d) cycads.
(b) Hb has more affinity to combine with
137. Which of the following factor is known as carbon monoxide
Christmas factor? (c) Hb has more affinity to combine with
(a) factor VIII (b) factor XII nitrogen
(c) factor IV (d) factor IX. (d) combined effect of (a) and (b).
138. The name of the Indian scientist associated 143. The fruiting bodies of Agaricus are also known
with Green Revolution in India is as
(a) H.G. Khorana (b) M.S.Swaminathan (a) cleistothecium (b) fairy rings
(c) Homi Bhaba (d) C.N.R. Rao. (c) basidium (d) ascocarp.
44 AIIMS EXPLORER

144. Checking of re-radiating heat by atmospheric (c) intermediate filaments

CO2, methane, ozone, dust is known as (d) all of the above.
(a) green house effect (b) radioactive effect 153. Phytochromes play a role in
(c) ozone layer (d) solar effect. (a) seed germination
145. The foreign gene in a transgenic plant may be (b) flowering
derived from (c) photomorphogenesis
(a) an insect (b) an animal (d) photosynthesis.
(c) a bacteria (d) all of these.
154. Production of NADPH in a chloroplast takes
146. An organelle present in plant cells but absent place during
from those of animals is (a) cyclic photophosphorylation
(a) vacuole (b) peroxisome (b) non-cyclic photophosphorylation
(c) glyoxisomes (d) all of these. (c) series photophosphorylation
147. Hot spots are priority areas for in situ (d) substrate level photophosphorylation.
conservation. The key criteria for determining
155. In E. coli cell, according to Operon theory, an
a hot spot is/are
operator gene combines with
(a) location in developed/undeveloped country
(a) inducer gene to ‘switch on’ structural gene
(b) vicinity to the sea
transcription
(c) number of endemic species and degree of
(b) repressor protein to ‘switch off ’ structural
threat
gene transcription
(d) all of the above.
(c) regulator gene to ‘switch on’ structural gene
148. Fungi imperfecti constitute a group that transcription
(a) are obligatory parasites (d) repressor protein to ‘switch on’ structural
(b) reproduce only asexually gene transcription.
(c) do not cause disease in humans
156. The photoautotrophic organisms that do not
(d) resemble bacteria in some respects.
split water to obtain reducing power are
149. The ‘devonian period’ is considered to be as (a) purple bacteria (b) cyanobacteria
(a) age of fishes (b) age of amphibians (c) green plants (d) none of these.
(c) age of reptiles (d) age of mammals. 157. Study the given figure showing various
150. DNA has deoxyribose as the constituent sugar. human endocrine glands. Select the correct
The position where the sugar lacks oxygen is statement(s) regarding these.
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4.
151. The linkage that joins two adjacent nucleotides
in RNA is
(a) phosphate ester (b) phosphodiester
(c) phosphate anhydride
(d) N-glycoside.
152. The drug colchicines, used to obtain polyploidy
cells, acts on the cytoskeletal structures of the
plant cells called (i) Gland P is stimulated to secrete its
(a) microtubules hormones by thyrotropin secreted by
(b) actin filaments anterior lobe of pituitary gland.
Model Test Paper - 2 45

(ii) Gland R is associated with the secretion of (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
hormones corticosteroids, epinephrine and Reason is not a correct explanation of the
norepinephrine. Assertion.
(iii) Glands T and U represent the sex glands, (c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
which are derived from the mesoderm of
embryo. 161. Assertion : Drosophila melanogaster is widely
(iv) Gland Q is derived from mesoderm of used in genetic research.
the embryo and its increased size results in Reason : Drosophila melanogaster is readily
ageing. available insect.
(v) Gland S secretes the hormone glucagon 162. Assertion : Genetic drift accentuates speciation.
which stimulates the lever to convert Reason : Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium seems
to retard speciation.
glucose into glycogen.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iv) 163. Assertion : Acetylcholine participates in the
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) All are correct nerve impulse transmission across a synapse.
Reason : Acetylcholine is secreted by
158. Identify the different parts of a A
B adrenergic fibres.
typical dicot embryo labelled as
A, B and C and select the correct 164. Assertion : The final reabsorption of water
C
option. from urine into blood occurs through the
A B C collecting duct of a mammalian nephron,
(a) Plumule Cotyledons Radicle resulting in the production of hyperosmotic
(b) Radicle Cotyledons Plumule urine.
(c) Cotyledons Plumule Radicle Reason : The loop of Henle is responsible for
(d) Cotyledons Radicle Plumule the formation of a sodium gradient across
159. Fascicular cambium separates the xylem and the depth of the cortical intersitium of a
phloem in mammalian kidney.
(a) only dicots (b) only monocots 165. Assertion : A correct concentration of auxin
(c) both dicots and monocots and cytokinin is required for the development
(d) none of the above. of root and shoot in a callus.
160. Name the hormone associated with the Reason : When the ratio of kinetin to auxin is
metabolism of phosphorus and calcium? high, then only shoots develop. But when the
(a) glucocorticoids (b) mineralocorticoids ratio is low then only roots develop.
(c) calcitonin (d) glucagon. 166. Assertion : Generally, a woman does not
Directions for questions 161-180 : These conceive during the lactation period.
questions consist of two statements each, printed Reason : The hormone ‘prolactin’ initiates and
as Assertion and Reason. While answering these maintains lactation in a postpartum woman.
questions you are required to choose any one of 167. Assertion : Virus-free plants can be produced
the following four responses. from virus infected plants by means of
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true meristem tissue culture.
and the Reason is a correct explanation of Reason : The virus fails to grow during the
the Assertion. growth of host tissue in the artificial medium.
46 AIIMS EXPLORER

168. Assertion : Indiscriminate exploitation of Reason : Stomata are not present in submerged
economically important wild plants may lead plants.
to their extinction. 177. Assertion : Thick cuticle is mostly present in
Reason : Non-conservation of their germplasm disease resistance plants.
is responsible for this. Reason : Disease causing agents cannot grow
169. Assertion : Alpine forests consist of dwarf on cuticle and cannot invade the cuticle.
shrubs mainly of junipers, silver firs and 178. Assertion : Amber codon is a termination
rhododendrons. codon.
Reason : Alpine forests occur in the Himalayas Reason : If in m-RNA, a termination codon is
above the altitude of 3500 metres. present, the protein synthesis stops abruptly
whether the protein synthesis is completed or
170. Assertion : Azolla pinnata is used as a
not.
biofertilizer in rice cultivation.
179. Assertion : Plasmids are single-stranded
Reason : Azolla performs nitrogen fixation with
extra-chromosomal DNA.
the help of symbiotic bacterium Bacillus sp.
Reason : Plasmids are possessed by eukaryotic
171. Assertion : In alcoholic drink, the alcohol is cells.
converted into glucose in the liver.
180. Assertion : In apomixis, the plants of new
Reason : Liver cells are able to produce glucose genetic sequence are produced.
from alcohol by back fermentation. Reason : In apomixis, two individuals of same
172. Assertion : After ovariectomy, menstrual cycle genetic sequence meet.
in woman may be stopped.
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE AND
Reason : Ovarian hormones induce menstrual
APTITUDE & LOGICAL THINKING
cycle.
181. Who among the following is a Bharatnatyam
173. Assertion : Cold-blooded animals have no fat
dancer?
layer.
(a) Kaushalya Reddy (b) Navtej Singh Johar
Reason : Cold-blooded animals use their fat
(c) Sunil Mehra (d) Rajeev Lochan
for metabolic process during hibernation.
182. The maximum limit of sound beyond which a
174. Assertion : In morula stage, the cells divide
person can become deaf is
without any increase in size. (a) 55 dB (b) 65 dB
Reason : Zona pellucida remains undivided (c) 75 dB (d) 85 dB.
till cleavage is complete.
183. Which country has recently launched world’s
175. Assertion : In the descending limb of loops largest amphibious aircraft?
of Henle, the urine is hypertonic, while in (a) Japan (b) Russia
ascending limb of loops of Henle, the urine is (c) Maldives (d) China
hypotonic. 184. Which one of the following is the longest river
Reason : Descending limb is impermeable to dam in India?
Na+, while ascending limb is impermeable to (a) Bhakra Nangal Dam
H2O. (b) Hirakud Dam
176. Assertion: Submerged plants get CO2 in the (c) Sardar Sarovar Dam
form of carbonates and bicarbonates. (d) Nagarjun Sagar Dam
Model Test Paper - 2 47

185. Most of the Ajanta paintings were completed

during the rule of the (a) (b)
(a) Vardhanas (b) Sakas
(c) Satavahanas (d) Guptas.
186. Which bank in India first introduced the
(c) (d)
Credit Card system?
(a) Andhra Bank (b) Central Bank
(c) Canara Bank (d) State Bank of India 192. Arrange the following in a logical sequence
187. The Association of South East Asian Nations from small to big.
(ASEAN) has its headquarters at 1. Bungalow 2. Flat
(a) Manila (b) Jakarta 3. House 4. Palace
(c) Kuala Lumpur (d) Bangkok. 5. Mansion
(a) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5 (b) 3, 2, 4, 1, 5
188. Which Amendment of the Constitution gave
(c) 2, 3, 1, 5, 4 (d) 5, 4, 1, 2, 3
constitutional status to the Rural Local bodies?
(a) 42nd Amendment (b) 44th Amendment 193. Choose out the odd one.
(c) 56th Amendment (d) 73rd Amendment (a) Frost (b) Dew
(c) Fog (d) Monsoon
189. Which nationalist leader from among the
following has been described as being 194. Find the missing number, if same rule is
radical in politics but conservative on social followed in all the three figures.
issues?
(a) Madan Mohan Malaviya 3 5 1
(b) Lala Lajpat Rai
6 12 2 15 60 8 4 12 18
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale 4 6 ?

190. Nag is the name of the indigenously developed (a) 1 (b) 2

(a) medium range missile (c) 6 (d) 10
(b) anti–tank missile
195. The post office is to the east of the school while
(c) torpedo
my house is to the south of the school. The
(d) submarine.
market is to the north of the post office. If the
191. A set of three figures X, Y and Z showing a distance of the market from the post office is
sequence of folding of a piece of paper is shown. equal to the distance of my house from the
Fig. (Z) shows the manner in which the folded school, then in which direction is the market
paper has been cut. Select the option which with respect to my school?
shows the unfolded form of Fig.(Z). (a) North (b) East
(c) North-east (d) South-west
196. Select a figure from the options which will
continue the same series as established by the
X Y Z Problem Figures.
48 AIIMS EXPLORER

Problem Figures speaking and rectangle for German - speaking

people.
In the above diagram, which one of the
following statements is true?
(a) All French-speaking people speak German
(a) (b) (b) All French-speaking people speak English
(c) All German-speaking people speak English
and Hindi
(d) All French-speaking people speak Hindi also
(c) (d)
199. Select a figure from the options which will
197. The maximum number of students among complete the given figure pattern in Fig(X).
them 1001 pens and 910 pencils can be
distributed in such a way that each student gets
the same number of pens and same number of
pencils is :
(a) 91 (b) 910 Fig. (X)
(c) 1001 (d) 1911
198. The question is based on the following diagram. (a) (b)

(c) (d)

200. If ENGLAND is written as 1234526 and

FRANCE is written as 785291, how is GREECE
coded?
The triangle stands for Hindi-speaking people, (a) 381171 (b) 381191
circle for French-speaking, square for English - (c) 832252 (d) 835545