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VITEE 2024 (2)

The VITEEE 2024 question paper consists of 125 multiple choice questions divided into five parts: Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics, Aptitude Test, and English. Each correct answer awards 1 mark, with no negative marking for incorrect responses, and the total duration of the test is 2 hours and 30 minutes. The document includes various questions from each subject area, covering fundamental concepts and applications.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
64 views37 pages

VITEE 2024 (2)

The VITEEE 2024 question paper consists of 125 multiple choice questions divided into five parts: Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics, Aptitude Test, and English. Each correct answer awards 1 mark, with no negative marking for incorrect responses, and the total duration of the test is 2 hours and 30 minutes. The document includes various questions from each subject area, covering fundamental concepts and applications.

Uploaded by

xddghfdfgg
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 37

VITEEE 2024 Question Paper

Time Allowed :2 Hour 30 mins Maximum Marks :125 Total Questions :125

General Instructions
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them:

1. This question paper contains total 125 questions divided into four parts :

2. Part I : Physics Q. No - 1 to 35

3. Part II : Chemistry Q. No - 36 to 70

4. Part III : Mathematics Q. No - 71 to 110

5. Part IV : Aptitude Test Q. No - 111 to 120

6. Part V : English Q. No - 121 to 125

7. All questions are multiple choice questions with four options, only one of them is
correct.

8. For each correct response, the candidate will get 1 mark.

9. There is no negative marking for the wrong answer.

10. The test is of 2 12 hours duration.

Part I: Physics

1. Force between two point charges q1 and q2 placed in vacuum at r cm apart is F . Force
between them when placed in a medium having dielectric K = 5 at r/5 cm apart will be:

F
(a) 25

(b) 5F
F
(c) 5

1
(d) 25F

2. A parallel plate capacitor has 1 µF capacitance. One of its two plates is given +2µC
charge and the other plate, +4µC charge. The potential difference developed across the
capacitor is:

(a) 3 V
(b) 1 V
(c) 5 V
(d) 2 V

3. A body of mass M at rest explodes into three pieces, in the ratio of masses 1:1:2. Two
smaller pieces fly off perpendicular to each other with velocities of 30 m/s and 40 m/s
respectively. The velocity of the third piece will be:

(a) 15 m/s
(b) 25 m/s
(c) 35 m/s
(d) 50 m/s

4. A charge particle moving in magnetic field B , has components of velocity along B as


well as perpendicular to B . The path of the charge particle will be:

(a) Helical path with the axis perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field B
(b) Straight along the direction of magnetic field B
(c) Helical path with the axis along magnetic field B
(d) Circular path

5. In meter bridge or Wheatstone bridge for measurement of resistance, the known and
the unknown resistance are interchanged. The error so removed is:

2
(a) End error
(b) Index error
(c) Due to temperature effect
(d) Random error

6. Spherical insulating ball and a spherical metallic ball of same size and mass are
dropped from the same height. Choose the correct statement out of the following
(Assume negligible air friction):

(a) Time taken by them to reach the earth’s surface will be independent of the properties of
their materials
(b) Insulating ball will reach the earth’s surface earlier than the metal ball
(c) Both will reach the earth’s surface simultaneously
(d) Metal ball will reach the earth’s surface earlier than the insulating ball

7. Two objects A and B are placed at 15 cm and 25 cm from the pole in front of a
concave mirror having radius of curvature 40 cm. The distance between images formed
by the mirror is:

(a) 60 cm
(b) 40 cm
(c) 160 cm
(d) 100 cm

8. A bob of mass m is suspended by a light string of length L. It is imparted a minimum


horizontal velocity at the lowest point A such that it just completes half a circle,
K.E. K.E.
 
reaching the topmost position B. The ratio of kinetic energies K.E. A
to K.E. B is:

(a) 3:2
(b) 5:1
(c) 2:5

3
(d) 1:5

9. For a group of positive charges, which of the following statements is correct?

(a) Net potential of the system cannot be zero at a point, but net electric field can be zero at
that point.
(b) Net potential of the system at a point can be zero, but net electric field can’t be zero at
that point.
(c) Both the net potential and the net electric field can be zero at a point.
(d) Both the net potential and the net electric field cannot be zero at a point.

10. The work function of a substance is 4.0 eV. The longest wavelength of light that can
cause photoelectron emission from this substance is approximately:

(a) 310 nm
(b) 400 nm
(c) 540 nm
(d) 220 nm

11. Magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil of radius r, through which a current I
flows is:

(a) directly proportional to r


(b) inversely proportional to I
(c) directly proportional to I
(d) directly proportional to I 2

12. The refractive index µ of the material of a prism is given by:

A+δm

sin 2
µ=
sin A2


4
where A is the apex angle of the prism and δm is the angle of minimum deviation.

(a) δm = π − 4A
(b) δm = π − 3A
(c) δm = π − 2A
(d) δm = π − A

13. If A = 4î + 3ĵ and B = 3î + 4ĵ , then the cosine of the angle between A and A + B is:

9 2
(a) 5
7
(b) √
5√ 2
5 2
(c) 49

5 2
(d) 28

14. Two light beams of intensities in the ratio of 9:4 are allowed to interfere. The ratio
of the intensity of maxima and minima will be:

(a) 2:3
(b) 16:81
(c) 25:169
(d) 25:1

15. A heavy box of mass 50 kg is moving on a horizontal surface. If the coefficient of


kinetic friction between the box and the horizontal surface is 0.3, then the force of
kinetic friction is:

(a) 14.7 N
(b) 147 N
(c) 1.47 N
(d) 1470 N

5
16. When unpolarized light is incident at an angle of 60° on a transparent medium from
air, the reflected ray is completely polarized. The angle of refraction in the medium is:

(a) 30°
(b) 60°
(c) 90°
(d) 45°

17. The waves emitted when a metal target is bombarded with high energy electrons
are:

(a) Microwaves
(b) X rays
(c) Infrared rays
(d) Radio waves

18. Two bodies of mass 4 g and 25 g are moving with equal kinetic energies. The ratio
of magnitude of their linear momentum is:

(a) 3 : 5
(b) 5 : 4
(c) 2 : 5
(d) 4 : 5

19. The net electric flux through a closed surface enclosing charges q, −2q, and +5q is
given by:
5q
(a) ϵ0
4q
(b) ϵ0
3q
(c) ϵ0
q
(d) ϵ0

6
20. Mass numbers of two nuclei are in the ratio of 4:3. Their nuclear densities will be in
the ratio of:

(a) 4 : 3
1/3
(b) 43
(c) 1 : 1
1/3
(d) 34

21. Under the same load, wire A having length 5.0 m and cross-section 2.5 × 10−5 m2
stretches uniformly by the same amount as another wire B of length 6.0 m and a
cross-section 3.0 × 10−5 m2 stretches. The ratio of the Young’s modulus of wire A to that
of wire B will be:

(a) 1:4
(b) 1:1
(c) 1:10
(d) 1:2

22. A current of 10 A exists in a wire of cross


sectional area of 5 × 10−6 m2 with a drift velocity of 2 × 10−3 m/s. The number of free
electrons in each cubic meter of the wire is:

(a) 2 × 1025
(b) 2 × 1023
(c) 625 × 1025
(d) 2 × 106

23. A long straight wire of circular cross


section (radius a) is carrying a steady current I . The current I is uniformly distributed
across this cross

7
(A) F− < I− < Br− < Cl−
(B) Cl− < Br− < I− < F−
(C) I− < Br− < Cl− < F−
(D) F− < Cl− < Br− < I−

38. The statement that is not correct for periodic classification of elements is:
(A) The properties of elements are periodic function of their atomic numbers.
(B) Non-metallic elements are less in number than metallic elements.
(C) For transition elements, the 3d-orbitals are filled with electrons after 3p-orbitals and
before 4s-orbitals.
(D) The first ionisation enthalpies of elements generally increase with increase in atomic
number as we go along a period.

39. PCl5 is dissociating 50% at 250°C at a total pressure of P atm. If the equilibrium
constant is Kp , then which of the following relation is numerically correct?
(A) Kp = 3P
(B) P = 3Kp
2Kp
(C) P = 3
2P
(D) Kp = 3

40. Which of the following statements is false?


(A) Cannizzaro reaction is given by aldehydes in presence of alkali.
(B) Aldol condensation is given by aldehydes in presence of alkali.
(C) Aldol condensation is given by aldehydes and ketones in presence of acids.
(D) None of the above.

41. How many electrons are involved in the following redox reaction?

Cr2 O2−
7 + Fe
2+
+ C2 O2−
4 → Cr
3+
+ Fe3+ + CO2 (Unbalanced)

(A) 3
(B) 2

13
(b) Er
(c) Ce
(d) Lu

62. Oxidation number of H in NaH, CaH2 , and LiH, respectively is:


(a) +1, +1, -1
(b) -1, +1, +1
(c) +1, +1, +1
(d) -1, -1, -1

63. Product of the following reaction is:

64. Which of the following alkyl halides will undergo SN 1 reaction most readily?
(a) (CH3 )3 C F
(b) (CH3 )3 C Cl

19

x≤0



 sin x,



x2 + a, 0 < x < 1

f (x) =
bx + 3, 1≤x≤3







3,

x>3

(a) 0
(b) 2
(c) -2
(d) 3

75. Let f (x) be defined as:





 3 − x, x < −3


f (x) = 6, −3 ≤ x ≤ 3




3 + x, x>3

Let α be the number of points of discontinuity of f (x) and β be the number of points
where f (x) is not differentiable. Then, α + β is:

[(a)]6 3 2 0

  
76. The derivative of sin 2
cot−1 √1+x
1−x
with respect to x is equal to:
1
[(a)]0 2 − 21 −1

77. The number of students who take both the subjects mathematics and chemistry is
30. This represents 10% of the enrolment in mathematics and 12% of the enrolment in
chemistry. How many students take at least one of these two subjects?

[(a)]520 490 560 480

23
(c) 33 × 6! × 5!
(d) 7 × 7! × 5!

98. The coefficient of x50 in (1 + x)101 (1 − x + x2 )100 is:

(a) 1
(b) -1
(c) 0
(d) 2

1 1 1
99. If q+r , r+p , p+q are in A.P., then:

(a) p, q, r are in A.P.


(b) p2 , q 2 , r2 are in A.P.
(c) p1 , 1q , 1r are in A.P.
(d) p + q + r are in A.P.

100. The coordinates of the foot of perpendicular from the point (2, 3) on the line y =
3x + 4 is given by:

37 −1

(a) 10 , 10
−1 37

(b) 10 , 10
10

(c) 37 , − 10
2 −1

(d) 2, 3

101. The circle touching the y axis at a distance 4 units from the origin and cutting off
an intercept 6 from the x axis is:
(A) x2 + y 2 ± 10x − 8y + 16 = 0
(B) x2 + y 2 ± 5x − 8y + 16 = 0
(C) x2 + y 2 ± 5x − 2y − 8 = 0

29
121. The phrase ”on tenterhooks” means:

(a) in a state of thoughtfulness


(b) in a state of anxiety
(c) in a state of sadness
(d) in a state of forgetfulness

122. It is true that:

(a) money alone can give happiness


(b) money always gives happiness
(c) money seldom gives happiness
(d) money alone cannot give happiness

123. A rich man’s life may become miserable if he:

(a) has evil son, bad health and business worries


(b) does not enjoy good health
(c) has business worries
(d) has business worries and his only son has taken to evil ways

124. Which of the following is the most appropriate title to the passage?

(a) Poverty, a great evil


(b) The key of happiness
(c) Contentment, the key of happiness
(d) Money and contentment

36
Solution:

125. Which of the following statement is true?

(a) Only a poor but contented man can be happy


(b) A poor but contented man can never be happy
(c) A poor but contented man can be happy
(d) A poor but contented man is always happy

37

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