M. Marks : 720 Test–5 (RE-NEET Test Series) Time : 3.00 Hrs.

For XII & XII Passed

Topics covered in various subjects:

Physics : Electric Chagres & Fields, Electrostatics Potential and Capacitance

Chemistry : Solution, Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics
Biology : Plant Growth & Development, Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants, Chemical
Coordination and Integration, Human Reproduction
Important Instructions:
I. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for marking response.
II. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
III. Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
IV. Use of white-fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
V. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
VI. Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.
VII. There are two sections in each subject i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions
from Section-A & only 10 questions out of 15 from Section-B.

Section - A (Physics) (c) along OC (d) none of these

1. Three charge +4q, Q and q are placed in a straight
A –q B
3q
line of length  such that +q & +4q are on the ends of
line & Q is at the mid-point of line. What should be the –2q –2q
F C
value of Q in order to make the net force on q to be
q 2q
E D
zero ?

(a) – q (b) –2 q 3. A proton and an electron are placed in a same

uniform electric field.
(c) –q/2 (d) 4q
(a) The electric forces acting on them will be equal
2. Six charges are placed at the corner of a regular
hexagon as shown. If an electron is placed at its (b) The magnitudes of the forces will be equal

centre O, force on it will be –

(c) Their accelerations will be equal

(a) zero (b) along OF

(d) The magnitudes of acceleration will be equal

Space for Rough Work (1/28)

4. Two small spheres each having the charge +Q are ^ ^
(a) + 100 i – 200 j V/m
suspended by insulating threads of length L from a
hook. This arrangement is taken in space where there ^ ^
(b) – 100 i + 200 j V/m
is no gravitational effect, then the angle between the
two suspensions and the tension in each will be ^ ^
(c) + 200 i + 100 j V/m

1 Q2
(a) 180 o , ^ ^
4 0 (2L) 2 (d) – 200 i – 100 j V/m

1 Q2 7. 4 charges are placed each at a distance ‘a’ from

(b) 90o ,
40 L2 origin. The dipole moment of configuration is-

y
1 Q2
(c) 180o , 3q
40 2L2 0, 0 x
–2q –2q
q
1 Q2
(d) 180o ,
40 L2
(a) 2qajˆ (b) 3qajˆ
5. 12 J of work has to be done against an existing
electric field to take a charge of 0.01 C. from A to B. (c) 2aq [iˆ  ˆj] (d) None of these
How much is the potential difference VB – VA?
8. Point P lies on the axis of a dipole. If the dipole is
(a) 1200 V (b) – 120 V rotated by 90o anti clock wise, the electric field vector

(c) 1250 V (d) – 1200 V E at P will rotate by -

6. Figure below shows two equipotential lines in xy- (a) 90o clock wise (b) 180o clock wise

plane for an electric field. The scales are marked.

(c) 90o anti clock wise (d) none of these
Electric field in the space between these
equipotential lines are respectively - 9. A and B are two points on the axis and the
perpendicular bisector respectively of an electric
olt dipole. A and B are far away from the dipole and at
2v
3 
olt equal distance from it. The field at A and B are E A
2 4v
y (in cm) 
1
and E B .
0 2 4 6 8
   
x (in cm) (a) E A = E B (b) E A = 2 E B
Space for Rough Work (2/28)
  
(c) E A = – 2 E B (c) Directed away from the gap, inversely
3
proportional to R
 1   
(d) | E B | = | E A | and E B is perpendicular to E A (d) Directed away from the gap, inversely
2
proportional to R2
10. Charged particle having some mass is resting in
13. A uniform electric field having a magnitude E0 and
equilibrium at a height H above the centre of a
direction along the positive X - axis exists. If the
uniformly charged non-conducting horizontal ring of
potential V is zero at x = 0, then its value at X = + x will
radius R. The force of gravity acts downwards. The
be
equilibrium of the particle will be stable.
(a) V(x) = +xE0 (b) Vx = –xE0
R
(a) For all values of H (b) Only if H >
2 (c) Vx = + x2E0 (d) Vx = –x2E0

R R 14. Charge q is uniformly distributed over a thin half

(c) Only if H < (d) Only if H =
2 2 ring of radius R. The electric field at the centre of the
ring is -
11. Which of the following is correct about a SHM,
along a straight line? q q
(a) (b)
2  0 R 2
2
4  0 R 2
2

(a) Ratio of acceleration to velocity is constant

q q
(b) Ratio of acceleration to potential energy is (c) (d)
40R 2 20R 2
constant
15. In a certain charge distribution, all points having zero
(c) Ratio of acceleration to displacement from the
potential can be joined by a circle S. Points inside S have
mean position is constant
positive potential, and points outside S have negative
(d) Ratio of acceleration to kinetic energy is constant potential. A positive charge, Which is free to move, is
placed inside S.
12. Non conducting ring of radius R has uniformly
distributed positive charge Q. A small part of the ring, (a) It will remain in equilibrium
of length d, is removed (d << R). The electric field at
(b) It can move inside S but it cannot cross S
the centre of the ring will now be -
(c) It must cross S at some time
(a) Directed towards the gap, inversely proportional to R3
(d) It may move, but will ultimately return to its
2
(b) Directed towards the gap, inversely proportional to R starting point

Space for Rough Work (3/28)

16. A charge q is placed at O in the cavity in spherical  o (A1  A 2 )  o A1A 2
(c) (d)
uncharged conductor. Point S is outside the 2d d

conductor. If q is displaced from O towards S slightly 19. The locus of the points (in the xy-plane) where
inside the cavity the: the electric field due to a dipole (dipole axis is along
x-axis and its equatorial is along y-axis) is
perpendicular to its axis is:

(a) Straight line perpendicular to the axis

(b) Circle (c) Parabola

(a) Electric field at S will increase
(d) Straight line having inclination   tan 1 2 with
(b) Electric field at S will decrease
due axis
(c) Electric field at S will first increase and then
20. In the circuit shown in the figure C = 6 F . The
decrease
charge stored in capacitor of capacity C is
(d) Electric field at S will no change

17. Electric potential at any point in a region is given

as
(a) Zero (b) 90 F
V = –5x + 3y + 15 z.
(c) 40 F (d) 60 F
In this region the magnitude of the electric field as:
21. A capacitor is charged by using a battery, which is
(a) 3 2 (b) 4 2 then disconnected. A dielectric slab is then inserted
between the plates, which results in:
(c) 5 2 (d) 7
(a) Reduction of charge on the plates and in crease of
18. The capacitance of capacitor of plate areas A1 and
potential difference across the plates
A2 (A1 < A2) at a distance d is
(b) Increase in the potential difference across the
plates, reduction in stored energy, but no change in
the charge on the plates

(c) Decrease in the potential difference across the

plates, reduction in stored energy, but no change in

 o A1 oA2 the charge on the plates

(a) (b)
d d
(d) None of the above
Space for Rough Work (4/28)
22. In the figure shown, the plates of a parallel plate (c) Potential difference between outer plates
capacitor have unequal charges. Its capacitance is C terminals is 2 V
and P is a point outside the capacitor as shown in
(d) The energy stored in the system is doubled
figure. The distance between the plates is d. Select
the incorrect statement: 24. 64 drops each having the capacity C and potential
V are combined to form a big drop. If the charge on
the small drop is q, then the charge on the big drop
will be

(a) 2q (b) 4q

(a) A point charge at point P will experience and (c) 16q (d) 64q
electric force due to capacitor
25. A parallel plate air capacitor is connected to a
(b) The potential difference between the plates will battery. After charging fully, the battery is
be 3 Q/2C disconnected and the plates are pulled apart to
increase their separation. Which of the following
(c) The energy stored in the electric field in the region
statement is correct?
9Q 2
between the plates is
8C (a) The electric field between the plates of capacitor
decreases
(d) The force on one plate due to the other plate is
Q2 (b) The electric field between the plates of capacitor
2 0 d 2 increases

23. Two identical capacitors are joined in parallel and (c) The electric field between the plates of capacitor
charged to a potential V. They are then disconnected remains same
from the battery and connected to each other in
(d) Potential difference between the plates remains
series. The positive plate of one being connected to
the same
the negative of the other and two outer plates
terminals are left open. Which of the following 26. A dielectric slab of thickness d is inserted in the
statement is correct? parallel plate capacitor. The capacitor is given some
charge such that it’s negative plate is at x = 0 and
(a) Charge on the plates connected to each other is
positive plate is at x = 3d. The slab is equidistant from
reduced to zero
the plates. As one moves from x = 0 to x = 3d:
(b) Charge on the outer plates is doubled
Space for Rough Work (5/28)
(a) Electric potential remains the same (c) Remains unchanged

(b) Electric potential decreases continuously (d) Nothing can be predicted as information is
insufficient
(c) Electric potential increases continuously
31. A body can be negatively charged by
(d) Electric potential increase first, then decreases
and again increases (a) Giving excess of electrons to it

27. There are two charges +1 microcoulombs and +5 (b) Removing some electrons from it
microcoulombs. The ratio of the forces acting on
(c) Giving some protons to it
them will be
(d) Removing some neutrons from it
(a) 1 : 5 (b) 1 : 1
32. A total charge Q is broken in two parts Q1 and Q2
(c) 5 : 1 (d) 1 : 25
and they are placed at a distance R from each other.
28. Fg and Fe represents gravitational and The maximum force of repulsion between them will
electrostatic force respectively between electrons occur, when
situated at a distance 10 cm. The ratio of Fg / Fe is of
(a) Q 2  Q , Q1  Q  Q
the order of R R

Q 2Q
(a) 10 42 (b) 10 (b) Q2  , Q1  Q 
4 3

(c) 1 (d) 10 43

(c) Q 2  Q , Q1  3 Q
4 4
29. The ratio of the forces between two small spheres
with constant charge (a) in air (b) in a medium of (d) Q1  Q , Q 2  Q
2 2
dielectric constant K is
33. Three charges 4 q, Q and q are in a straight line in
(a) 1 : K (b) K : 1
the position of 0, l / 2 and l respectively. The
(c) 1 : K 2 (d) K 2 : 1 resultant force on q will be zero, if Q 

30. A soap bubble is given a negative charge, then its (a) – q (b)  2q

radius
(c)  q
2
(a) Decreases

(d) 4 q
(b) Increases
Space for Rough Work (6/28)
34. Two small spheres each having the charge Q are (a) 9  10 9 NC 2 / m 2

suspended by insulating threads of length L from a

(b) 8 . 85  10 12 Nm 2 / C 2 sec
hook. This arrangement is taken in space where there
is no gravitational effect, then the angle between the (c) 8 . 85  10 12 C 2 / Nm 2
(d) 9  10 9 C 2 / Nm 2

two suspensions and the tension in each will be

39. Two small spheres each carrying a charge q are
Q2 Q2 placed r metre apart. If one of the spheres is taken
(a) 180 o , 1 2
(b) 90 o , 1
4  0 (2 L) 4  0 L2
around the other one in a circular path of radius r ,

1 Q2 1 Q2
the work done will be equal to
(c) 180 o , (d) 180 o ,
4  0 2 L2 4  0 L2
(a) Force between them  r
35. 2C and 6 C two charges are repelling each
(b) Force between them  2 r
other with a force of 12 N . If each charge is given

2C of charge, then the value of the force will be (c) Force between them / 2r

(a) 4 N (Attractive) (b) 4 N (Repulsive) (d) Zero

(c) 8 N (Repulsive) (d) Zero 40. The electric charge in uniform motion produces

Section-B (a) An electric field only

36. Two charges q 1 and q 2 are placed in vacuum at a
(b) A magnetic field only
distance d and the force acting between them is F .
If a medium of dielectric constant 4 is introduced (c) Both electric and magnetic field
around them, the force now will be
(d) Neither electric nor magnetic field
(a) 4 F (b) 2 F
41. Two charged spheres of radii 10 cm and 15 cm are

(c) F (d) F connected by a thin wire. No current will flow, if they

2 4
have

37. When 10 14 electrons are removed from a neutral

(a) The same charge on each
metal sphere, the charge on the sphere becomes
(b) The same potential
(a) 16  C (b)  16  C

(c) The same energy

(c) 32  C (d)  32  C
(d) The same field on their surfaces
38. The value of electric permittivity of free space is

Space for Rough Work (7/28)

42. ABC is an equilateral triangle. Charges  q are (a) Insulator (b) Conductor
placed at each corner. The electric intensity at O will
(c) Semiconductor (d) Dielectric
be
+q
A 46. In a region of space, the electric field is given by
1 q
(a)  ^ ^ ^
4  0 r 2
E  8i  4 j 3k . The electric flux through a surface
r

1 q r r of area of 100 units in x-y plane is

(b) O
4  0 r
+q +q
B C (a) 800 units (b) 300 units
(c) Zero
(c) 400 units (d) 1500 units
1 3q
(d)
4  0 r 2 47. A dipole is placed parallel to an electric field. If W
is work done in rotating the dipole by 60 o, then work
43. A charge particle is free to move in an electric
done in rotating it by 180o is
field. It will travel
(a) 2 W (b) 3 W
(a) Always along a line of force
(c) 4 W (d) W/2
(b) Along a line of force, if its initial velocity is zero
48. A hollow cylinder has a charge q coulomb within
(c) Along a line of force, if it has some initial velocity
it, figure. If  is electric flux in units of volt-meter
in the direction of an acute angle with the line of
associated with the curved surface B, the flux linked
force
with the plane surface A is units of volt-meter will be
(d) None of the above

44. If an insulated non-conducting sphere of radius R

has charge density  . The electric field at a distance
r from the centre of sphere (r  R) will be
q 
(a) (b)
R r 2 0 3
(a) (b)
3 0 0

r 3 R
 q 
(c) (d) (c)   
3 0 0  0 

45. Electric potential of earth is taken to be zero

1 q 
because earth is a good
(d)   
2  0 

Space for Rough Work (8/28)

49. If the electric flux entering and leaving an reaction is 42 kJ mol–1. The activation energy for the
enclosed surface respectively is 1 and 2 the reaction B 
 A would be

electric charge inside the surface will be

(a) 23 kJ mol–1 (b) 107 kJ mol–1

(a)  1  2  0 (b)   2  1   0 (c) 65 kJ mol–1 (d) 42 kJ mol–1

53. The gaseous reaction A(g) 

 2B(g) + C(g) is
(c)  1  2  / 0 (d)   2  1  /  0
found to be first order. If the reaction is started with
50. A charge q is distributed over two spheres of radii pA = 90 mmHg, the total pressure after 10 min is

R and r such that their surface densities are equal. found to be 180 mmHg. The rate constant of the
reaction is
What is the ratio of charges on the spheres of radii r
and R? (a) 1.15 × 10–3 s–1 (b) 2.30 × 10–3 s–1

(c) 3.45 × 10–3 s–1 (d) 4.60 × 10–3 s–1

r r2
(a) (b) 2
R R 54. The terms rate of reaction and rate of appearance
(or disappearance) of reactant (or product)
r3 r4
(c) 3 (d) 4
R R (a) Represent one and the same physical quantity

Section - A (Chemistry) (b) Differ by a constant factor

51. For the decomposition of N 2O5(g), it is give that (c) Are positive parameters and have same value

2N2O5(g) 
 4NO2(g) + O2(g) (d) May or may not have same value depending upon
the stoichiometric coefficient of reactant (or product)
activation energy Ea in the balanced chemical equation

1 55. The reaction

N2O5(g) 
 2NO2(g) + O2(g)
2
2A + B 
 D + E involves the following mechanism
'
activation energy E then
a
A 
 B (fast) B 
 C (slow)
' '
(a) Ea = E a (b) Ea > E a
A + C 
 D+E
' '
(c) Ea < E a (d) Ea = 2 E a
The rate expression would be

52. For an exothermic reaction A 

 B, the (a) k[A]2[B] (b) k[B]
–1
activation energy is 65 kJ mol and enthalpy of
(c) k[A] (d) k[A] [B]

Space for Rough Work (9/28)

56. The activation energy of a reaction is 65.8 kJ mol– rate = k[A]n [B]m
1
, on changing the temperature from 2oC to 27oC, its
One doubling the concentration of A and reducing
rate constant changes by
the concentration of B to half, the ratio of the new
(a) Two times (b) Five times rate to the earlier rate of the reaction will be as

(c) Eight times (d) Eleven times (a) 2(n – m) (b) 1/2(m + n)

57. The logarithm of rate constant of a reaction (log (c) (m + n) (d) (n – m)

k)
61. The following mechanism has been proposed for
(a) Increases linearly with increase in inverse of the reaction of NO with Br2 to form NOBr.
temperature (1/t)
NO(g) + Br2(g) NOBr2(g)
(b) Decreases linearly with increase in inverse of
NOBr2(g) + NO(g) 2NOBr(g)
temperature (1/t)
If the second step is the rate determining step, the
(c) Increase linearly with increase in temperature (t)
order of the reaction with respect to NO(g) is
(d) Decreases linearly with increase in temperature(t)
(a) 2 (b) 1
58. Substance A reacts according to a first order rate
(c) 0 (d) 3
law with k = 5.0 × 10–5 s–1. The rate of the reaction
after 3.85 h when the reaction is started with 1.0 M 62. A first order reaction is 75% completed in 100
of A will be minutes. How long time will it take for it’s 87.5%
completion?
(a) 4.0 × 10–5 mol dm–3 s–1
(a) 125 min (b) 150 min
(b) 3.0 × 10–5 mol dm–3 s–1
(c) 175 min (d) 200 min
(c) 2.5 × 10–5 mol dm–3 s–1
63. Higher order (> 3) reactions are rare due to:
(d) 2.0 × 10–5 mol dm–3 s–1
(a) Low probability of simultaneous collision of all the
59. The half-life of a radioisotope is four hours. If the
reacting species
initial mass of the isotope was 200 g, the mass
remaining after 24 hours undecayed is (b) Increase in entropy and activation energy as more
molecules are involved
(a) 1.042 g (b) 2.084 g
(c) Shifting of equilibrium towards reactants due to
(c) 3.125 g (d) 4.167 g
elastic collisions
60. The rate law for a reaction between the
(d) Loss of active species on collisions
substances A and B is given by

Space for Rough Work (10/28)

64. The rate law for the reaction below is given by the (c) 15.1 kJ mol–1 (d) 342 kJ mol–1
expression k[A] [B]
68. For the two gaseous reactions, following data are
A + B 
 Product given

If the concentration of B is increased from 0.1 to 0.3  B; k1  1010 e20,000/T

A 
mole, keeping the value of A at 0.1 mole, the rate  D;k 2  1012 e24,606/T
C 
constant will be
the temperature at which k1 becomes equal to k2 is
(a) 3 k (b) 9 k
(a) 400 K (b) 1000 K
(c) k/3 (d) k
(c) 800 K (d) 1500 K
65. Decomposition of H2O2 follows a first order
reaction. In fifty minutes, the concentration of H 2O2 69. In the presence of a catalyst, activation energy of

decreases from 0.5 M to 0.125 M in one such a reaction lowered by 2 kcal at 27oC. Hence, rate will

composition. When the concentration of H 2O2 be

reached 0.05 M, the rate of formation of O2 will be (a) 20 times (b) 28 times

(a) 6.93 × 10–4 mol L–1 min–1 (c) 14 times (d) Remain the same

(b) 2.66 L min–1 at STP 70. The value of rate constant of a pseudo first order

(c) 1.34 × 10–2 mol L–1 min–1 reaction

(d) 6.93 × 10–2 mol L–1 min–1 (a) Depends on the concentration of reactants
present in small amount
66. The activation energy of a reaction is 9 kcal/mol.
The increase in the rate constant when its (b) Depends on the concentration of reactants

temperature is raised from 295 to 300 K is present in excess

approximately (c) Is independent of the concentration of reactants

(a) 10% (b) 50% (d) Depends only on temperature

(c) 100% (d) 29% 71. The vapour pressure of two pure liquids A and B

67. What is the activation energy for a reaction if its are 50 and 40 torr respectively. If 8 moles of A is

rate doubles when temperature is raised from 20oC mixed with x moles of B, then vapour pressure of

to 35oC? (R = 8.314 J–1 K–1) solution obtained is 48 torr. What is the value of x.

(a) 269 kJ mol–1 (b) 34.7 kJ mol–1 (a) 3 (b) 2

(c) 5 (d) 7
Space for Rough Work (11/28)
72. When acetone and chloroform are mixed 76. When 1.04 g of BaCl2 is present in 105 g of
together, which of the following observation is solution the concentration of solution is
correct?
(a) 0.104 ppm (b) 10.4 ppm

(c) 0.0104 ppm (d) 104 ppm

77. What is the molarity of a solution containing 10 g

of NaOH in 500 mL of solution?
(a) A – A and B – B interactions are stronger than A –
(a) 0.25 mol L–1 (b) 0.75 mol L–1
B interaction
(c) 0.5 mol L–1 (d) 1.25 mol L–1
(b) A – A and B – B interactions are weaker than
A – B interaction 78. How many grams of NaOH are present in 250 mL
of 0.5 M NaOH solution?
(c) A – A, B – B and A – B interactions are equal
(a) 7.32 g (b) 3.8 g
(d) The liquids form separate layers and are
immiscible (c) 5 g (d) 0.5 g

73. What is the mass percentage of carbon 79. Partial pressure of a solution component is
tetrachloride if 22 g of benzene is dissolved in 122 g directly proportional to its mole fraction. This is
of carbon tetrachloride? known as

(a) 84.2% (b) 15.28% (a) Henry’s law (b) Raoult’s law

(c) 50% (d) 44% (c) Distribution law (d) Ostwald’s dilution law

74. What is the mole fraction of glucose in 10% w/W 80. 3 moles of P and 2 moles of Q are mixed, what
glucose solution? will be their total vapour pressure in the solution if
their partial pressure are 80 and 60 torr respectively?
(a) 0.01 (b) 0.02
(a) 80 torr (b) 140 torr
(c) 0.03 (d) 0.04
(c) 72 torr (d) 70 torr
75. A solution is obtained by mixing 200 g of 30 % and
300 g of 20% solution by weight. What is the 81. X, Y and Z in the above graph are
percentage of solute in the final solution?

(a) 50% (b) 28%

(c) 64% (d) 24%

Space for Rough Work (12/28)

(a) X = p1 + p2, Y = 1, Z = 0 85. For an ideal solution with PA > PB, which of the
following is true?
(b) X = p1 + p2, Y = 0, Z = 1
(a) (xA)liquid = (xA)vapour (b) (xA)liquid > (xA)vapour
(c) X = p1 × p2, Y = 0, Z = 1
(c) (xA)liquid < (xA)vapour
(d) X = p1 – p2, Y = 1, Z = 0
(d) (xA)liquid and (xA)vapour do not bear any relationship
Tb
82. Ratio of of 10 g AB2 and 14 g A2B per 100 g with each other.
Kb
of solvent in their respective, solution (AB2 and A2B Section - B (Chemistry)
both are non-electrolytes) is 1 mol/kg in both cases.
86. Which are the conditions for an ideal solution
Hence, atomic wt. of A and B are respectively.
which obeys Raoult’s law over the entire range of
(a) 100, 40 (b) 60, 20 concentration?

(c) 20, 60 (d) None of these (a) mix H  0,  mix V  0,PTotal  poA x A  poB x B

83. An aqueous solution boils at 101oC. What is the

(b) mix H   ve,  mix V  0,PTotal  poA x A  poB x B
freezing point of the same solution?
(c)  mix H  0,  mix V   ve,PTotal  poA x A  poB x B
(Given : Kf = 1.86oC/m and Kb = 0.51oC/m)

(a) 3.647oC (b) –3.647oC (d) mix H  0,  mix V  0, PTotal  poBx B

(c) –0.364oC (d) None of these 87. Intermolecular force between n-hexane and n-
heptane are nearly same as between hexane and
84. The given graph shows the vapour pressure- heptane individually. When these two are mixed,
temperature curves for some liquids. which of the following is not true about the solution
formed?

(a) It obeys Raoult’s law i.e., PA = xAP oA and PB = xBP oA

(b)  Hmixing is zero (c)  Vmixing is zero

Liquids A, B, C and D respectively are (d) It forms minimum boiling azeotrope

(a) Diethyl ether, acetone, ethyl alcohol, water 88. Which of the following solutions shows positive
deviation from Raoult’s law?
(b) Acetone, ethyl alcohol, diethyl ether, water
(a) Acetone + Aniline (b) Acetone + Ethanol
(c) Water, ethyl alcohol, acetone, diethyl ether
(c) Water + Nitric acid (d) Chloroform + Benzene
(d) Ethyl alcohol, acetone, diethyl ether, water
Space for Rough Work (13/28)
89. Standard electrode potential for Sn4+|Sn2+ couple (a) A – B interactions are stronger than A – A and B –
3+
is +0.15 V and that for the Cr |Cr couple is –0.74. B interactions
These two couples in their standard state are
(b) A – B interactions are and weaker than A – A and
connected to make a cell. The cell potential will be
B – B interactions
(a) + 0.89 V (b) + 0.18 V
(c) Vapour pressure of solution it more than the pure
(c) + 1.83 V (d) + 1.99 V components

90. For the following cell with hydrogen electrodes at (d) Vapour pressure of solution is less since only one
two different pressures p1 and p2. component vaporizes.

Pt(H 2 ) | H  (aq) | Pt(H 2 ) , emf is given by 93. For the cell reaction, Cu(s) + 2Ag+(aq) 
 Cu2+
p1 1M p2

(aq) + 2Ag(s), E ocell is 0.46 V. The equilibrium constant

RT p RT p of the reaction is
(a) log e 1 (b) log e 1
F p2 2F p2
(a) 3.92 × 1012 (b) 3.92 × 1015
RT p RT p
(c) log e 2 (d) log e 2
F p1 2F p1 (c) 8.92 × 107 (d) 8.92 × 1010

91. Match the column I with column II and mark the 94. The equilibrium constant of the reaction,
appropriate choice.
Cu(s) + 2Ag+(aq) 
 Cu2+(aq) + 2Ag(s)

Eo = 0.46 V at 298 K is

(a) 2.4 × 1010 (b) 2.0 × 1010

(c) 4.0 × 1010

(d) 4.0 × 1015

(a) A  (i), B  (iii), C  (ii), D  (iv) 95. In an electrochemical cell, the reaction will be
feasible when
(b) A  (iii), B  (i), C  (iv), D  (ii)
(a)  G = –ve, E = +ve
(c) A  (ii), B  (iii), C  (iv), D  (i)
(b)  G = +ve, E = –ve
(d) A  (iii), B  (ii), C  (i), D  (iv)
(c)  G = 0, E = –ve
92. Two liquids HNO3(A) and water (B) form a
maximum boiling azeotrope when mixed in the ratio (d)  G = 0, E = 0

of 68% and 32% respectively. It means

Space for Rough Work (14/28)
96. The specific conductance of a solution is 0.03568 Section - A (Biology : Botany)
–1 –1
ohm cm and when placed in a cell, the
101. Which is incorrect statement?
conductance is 0.0268 ohm–1. The cell constant is
I. Each cell of sporogenous tissue in anther is capable
(a) 0.0751 cm–1 (b) 0.330 cm–1 of giving rise to microspore tetrad

(c) 0.3836 cm–1 (d) 1.331 cm–1 II. The pollen grain represent male gametophyte

97. The number of Faradays (F) required to produce III. Pollen grains are usually triangular and 10-15  m
20 g of calcium from molten CaCl2 in diameter

IV. Sporopollenin is one of the most resistance

(Atomic mass of Ca = 40 g mol –1) is:
organic material which can be destroyed only by
(a) 2 (b) 3 strong acids and alkali

(c) 4 (d) 1 (a) I, II are incorrect but III, IV are correct

(b) III, IV are incorrect but I, II are correct

98. Products of electrolysis of an aqueous solution of
AgNO3 using silver electrode will be (Given E oAg /Ag = (c) I, III are incorrect but II, IV are correct

0.80 V) (d) II, IV are correct but I, III are correct

(a) Ag at cathode, O2 at anode 102. Which statement is incorrect?

(b) H2 at cathode, O2 at anode (a) Intine is the inner wall of pollen grain and exhibit
fascinating array of patterns and designs
(c) Ag at cathode, dissolution of Ag from anode
(b) The mature pollen grains has two cells, the bigger
(d) H2 at cathode, dissolution of Ag from anode is vegetative cell and the smaller is generative cell
which floats in cytoplasm of vegetative cell
99. From the solution of an electrolyte, one mole of
electrons will deposit at cathode (c) Size of pollen grain is generally spherical

(a) 63.5 gm of Cu (b) 24 gm of Mg (d) Gametophytic has T-celled & Nucelated Structure

(c) 11.5 gm of Na (d) 9.0 gm of Al 103. In papaya male and female flowers are present
on different plants. It permits
100. On passing 3 A electricity for 50 min, 1.8 g metal
deposits. The equivalent mass of metal is (a) Autogamy

(b) Geitonogamy
(a) 9.3 (b) 19.3
(c) Both autogamy and geitonogamy
(c) 38.3
(d) Xenogamy
(d) 39.9
Space for Rough Work (15/28)
104. Coconut water from a tender coconut is: (a) Some reptiles have also been reported as
pollinators in some plant species
(a) Degenerated nucellus
(b) Pollen grains of many species can germinate on
(b) Immature embryo
the stigma of a flower, but only one pollen tube of
(c) Free nuclear endosperm the same species grows into the style

(d) Innermost layers of the seed coat (c) Insects that consume pollen or nectar without
brining about pollination are called pollen/nectar
105. Pollination in water hyacinth and water lily is
robbers
brought about by the agency of
(d) Pollen germination and pollen tube growth are
(a) Water (b) Insects or wind
regulated by chemical components of pollen
(c) Birds (d) Bats interacting with those of the pistil

106. The ovule of an angiosperm is technically 110. The plant parts which consist of two generations
equivalent to – one within the other

A. Pollen grains inside the anther

(a) Megasporangium (b) Megasporophyll
B. Germinated pollen grain with two male gametes
(c) Megaspore mother cell
C. Seed inside the fruit
(d) Megaspore
D. Embryo sac inside the ovule
107. Which one of the following statements is not
(a) A, B and C (b) C and D
true?
(c) A and D (d) A only
(a) Stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be used in the
crop breeding programmes 111. The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle
at
(b) Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther
(a) Micropyle (b) Nucellus
(c) Exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin
(c) Chalaza (d) Hilum
(d) Pollen grains of many species cause severe
112. Which one of the following statements regarding
allergies
post-fertilization development in flowering plants is
108. Proximal end of the filament of stamen is incorrect?
attached to the
(a) Ovary develops into fruit
(a) Thalamus or petal (b) Anther
(b) Zygote develops into embryo
(c) Connective (d) Placenta (c) Central cell develops into endosperm
109. Which of the following statement is not correct? (d) Ovules develop into embryo sac

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113. What is the fats of the male gametes discharge (a) Egg cell (b) Polar nuclei
in the synergid?
(c) Central cell
(a) One fuses with the egg, other degenerate in the
(d) Synergid cell
synergid
118. Advantage of celistogamy is
(b) All fuse with the egg
(a) No dependence on pollinators
(c) One fuses with the egg, other fuse with synergid
nucleus (b) Assure Seed Formation

(d) One fuses with the egg and other fuses with (c) Both (a) & (b)
central cell nuclei
(d) More strong offspring
114. Seed formation without fertilization in flowering
119. What is the function of germ pore?
plants involves the process of:
(a) Emergence of radicle
(a) Somatic hybridization
(b) Absorption of water for seed germination
(b) Apomixis
(c) Initiation of pollen tube
(c) Sporulation
(d) Release of male gametes
(d) Budding
120. Match column I with column II and select the
115. A dioecious flowering plant prevents both:
correct option from the given codes.
(a) Autogamy and geitonogamy
Column-I Column-II
(b) Geitonogamy and xenogamy
A. Ovary (i) Groundnut, mustard
(c) Cleistogamy and xenogamy
B. Ovule (ii) Guava, orange, mango
(d) Autogamy and xenogamy
C. Wall of ovary (iii) Pericarp
116. Which one of the following pairs of plant
D. Fleshy fruits (iv) Seed
structures had haploid number of chromosomes?
E. Dry fruits (v) Fruit
(a) Egg nucleus and secondary nucleus
(a) A-(v), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii), E-(i)
(b) Megaspore mother cell and antipodal cells
(b) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv), E-(v)
(c) Egg cell and antipodal cells
(c) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(iv), E-(v)
(d) Nucellus and antipodal cells
(d) A-(v), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii), E-(iii)
117. Largest cell in embryo sac is

Space for Rough Work (17/28)

121. Match the columns – 124. Select the option with correct ‘ploidy’ in
anigosperms.
Column-I Column-II
Zygote Primary Endosperm cell
A. Albuminous seeds 1. Pea
(a) 2n 4n
B. Non-albuminous seds 2. Wheat
(b) N 3n
3. Maize
(c) 2n 2n
4. Groundnut
(d) 2n 3n
5. Castor
125. Emasculation
(a) A  1, 4; B  2, 3, 5
(a) Prevent self-pollination in female parent
(b) A  1, 5; B  2, 3, 4
(b) Prevent cross-pollination in female parent
(c) A  2, 3, 5; B  1, 4
(c) Prevent self-pollination in male parent
(d) A  2, 3; B  1, 4, 5
(d) Prevent cross pollination in male parent
122. Select the option which is correct about a typical
dicot embryo – 126. Pollen grains are generally __________ in
outline measuring _________ micrometers in
Embryonal axis Cotyledons
diameter.
(a) One One
(a) Spherical, 25-50  m
(b) One Two
(b) Oblong, 25-50  m
(c) Two One
(c) Oval, 10-25  m (d) Spherical, 75-100  m
(d) Two Two
127. The vegetative cell is
123. Select the correct order of endosperm types.
(a) Small, has large irregularly shaped nucleus

(b) Large, has large irregularly shaped nucleus

(c) Large with spindle shaped nucleus

(a) Cellular, helobial, free nuclear (d) Small, spindle shaped nucleus

(b) Cellular, free nuclear, helobial 128. Cryopreservation means storing of products in

(c) Helobial, free nuclear, cellular (a) Liquid nitrogen (b) Liquid oxygen

(d) Free nuclear, cellular, helobial (c) Liquid hydrogen (d) Liquid helium

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129. Choose the odd w.r.t. gynoecium 134. Coconut water from a tender coconut is

(a) Gynoecium represents the female reproductive (a) Immature embryo

part of flower
(b) Free nuclear endosperm
(b) The gynoecium may be syncarpous or apocarpous
(c) Innermost layers of the speed coat
(c) The number of ovules in papaya and mango is one
(d) Degenerated nucellus
(d) The ovules are attached to placenta
135. Which of the following structures shown
130. The number of mitotic division required to form unlimited growth in plants?
a mature embryo sac in most of the flowering plants
(a) leaves (b) Flowers
is
(c) Fruits (d) Roots
(a) One (b) Two
Section - B (Biology : Botany)
(c) Three (d) Four
136. Which phase of a sigmoid curve explains the
131. Feathery stigma and exposed anthers are initial phase of growth when growth rate is very
characteristic of slow?

(a) Wind pollinated flowers (a) Log phase (b) Lag phase

(b) Insect pollinated flowers (c) Stationary phase (d) maturation phase

(c) Water pollinated flowers 137. Which type of phytohormone is made of

indole compounds?
(d) Bat pollinated flowers
(a) Zeatin (b) ABA
132. Hydrophily is limited to 30 genera specially in
(c) Auxin (d) Gibberellins
(a) Gymnosperms (b) Monocots
138. Match the following (Column – I with Column- II)
(c) Dicots
Column – I Column – II
(d) More than one option is correct
a. Ethephon (i) GA
133. Pollen pistil interaction is
b. Terpene (ii) Ethylene
(a) Chemically mediated process
c. Zeatin (iii) Natural auxin
(b) Dynamic process
d. lAA (iv) Natural Cytokinine
(c) Genetically controlled process
(a) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (b) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(d) More than one option is correct
(c) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (d) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
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139. Two synthetic auxins are matched?

(a) lAA and lBA (b) 2, 4-D and NAA (a) Gibberellic acid – Leaf fall

(c) lAA and NAA (d) 2, 4-D and lBA (b) Cytokinin – Cell division

140. Which auxins are used in diluted form to (c) lAA – Cell wall elongation
produce parthenocarpic fruits?
(d) Abscissic acid – Stomatal closure
(a) lAA (b) lBA
146. Which one of the following acids is a derivative
(c) 2, 4-D (d) NAA of Photyosynthetic pigment?

141. If the growing plant is decapitated, then (a) Abscisic acid (b) Indole butyric acid

(a) Its growth stops (c) Indole-3-acetic acid (d) Gibberellic acid

(b) Leaves become yellow and fall down 147. Which of the following is formed after
dedifferentiation?
(c) Axillary buds are inactivated
(a) Secondary phloem
(d) Axillary buds are activated
(b) Secondary cortex
142. ABA is involved in
(c) Parenchyma
(a) Shoot elongation
(d) Interfascicular vascular
(b) Increased cell division
148. Which one of the following growth regulators is
(c) Dormancy of seeds (d) Root elongation
known as ‘stress hormone’?
143. Differentiation of shoot is controlled by
(a) Abscissic acid (b) Ethylene
(a) High auxin : cytokinin ratio
(c) GA3 (d) Indole acetic acid
(b) High cytokinin : auxin ratio
149. “Foolish seedling” disease of rice led to the
(c) High gibberellins : auxin ratio discovery of

(a) ABA (b) 2, 4-D

(d) High gibberellins : cytokinin ratio
(c) IAA (d) GA
144. Plants deficient of element zinc, show its effect
on the biosynthesis of plant growth hormone 150. An enzyme that can stimulate germination of
barley seeds is
(a) Auxin (b) Cytokinin
(a) Lipase (b) Protease
(c) Ethylene (d) Abscissic acid
(c) Invertase (d) a-amylase
145. Which one of the following pairs, is not correctly
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 Section - A (Biology : Zoology) (a) P – Neurohypophysis, R – ACTH, S – Adrenal
151. Select a pair of hormones having synergistic medulla, T – Aldosterone
effects
(b) P – Adenohypophysis, R – ACTH, S – Adrenal
(a) TCT and PTH
medulla, T – Adreno corticoids
(b) Glucagon and Insulin
(c) P – Hypothalamus, R – CRH, S – Adeno-hypophysis,
(c) Epinephrine and norepinephrine T – ACTH

(d) ANF and ADH

(d) P – Pars distalis, R – ACTH, S – Adrenal cortex, T –

152. After ovulation, the ruptured follicle is converted Adreno corticoids

to a structure called corpus luteum, which mainly
156. In a normal human pancreas only X
secretes
pancreatic tissue represents Y . Choose the option

(a) Estrogen (b) LH that correctly fill the blanks X and Y

(c) FSH (d) Progesterone (a) X – 98%, Y – Islets of Langerhans

153. Select the incorrect statement about pineal (b) X – 2%, Y – Acini

gland
(c) X – 2%, Y – Islets of Langerhans
(a) Regulation of a 24 hour (diurnal) rhythm of our
(d) X – 50%, Y – Acini
body
157. The hormone androgens
(b) Helps in maintaining body temperature
(a) Secreted from testis under the influence of FSH
(c) Influences metabolism
(b) Influence the male sexual behaviour
(d) Decreases blood Ca+2 level
(c) Produce anabolic effects on only protein
154. Which of the following is a second messenger
metabolism
for hormone FSH?
(d) Responsible for high pitch of voice in males
(a) cAMP (b) cGMP
158. How many trophic hormones are produced
(c) IP3 (d) DAG
by Pars nervosa?

155. An endocrine gland ‘P’ secretes a hormone

(a) Six (b) Five
‘R’ which acts on another endocrine gland ‘S’ to
stimulate the secretion of steroidal hormone ‘T’. (c) Four
Identify the P, R, S and T.
(d) Zero

Space for Rough Work (21/28)

159. Which of the following gland is present in 164. The hormones that initiate ejection of milk,
abdominal region? stimulates milk production and growth of ovarian
follicle, are respectively
(a) Pineal (b) Adrenal
(a) Prolactin, oxytocin, LH
(c) Thymus (d) Thyroid
(b) Oxytocin, prolactin, FSH
160. ADH, responsible for reabsorption of water
and reduction in urine volume is synthesised by (c) Oxytocin, prolactin, progesterone

(a) Posterior pituitary gland (d) Prolactin, oxytacin, FSH

(b) Juxta glomerular apparatus 165. Gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin (CCK) and
gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) are 4 major peptide
(c) Hypothalamic nuclei
hormone secreted by-
(d) Adenohypophysis
(a) Only stomach
161. Blood pressure lowering hormone is secreted
(b) Only small intestine
from an organ, present in
(c) Gastro-intestinal tract
(a) Thoracic cavity (b) Kidney
(d) Only pancreas
(c) Abdominal cavity (d) Hypothalamus
166. Which set includes hormones that are
162. ANF-
involved in carbohydrate metabolism?
(a) Decrease B.P.
(a) Insulin, glucagon, epinephrine, calcitonin
(b) Causes vasodilation
(b) Insulin, glucagon, epinephrine, cortisol
(c) Is secreted when B.P. increases
(c) Insulin, glucagon, cortisol, melanin
(d) All
(d) Insulin, glucagon, norepinephrine, vasopressin
163. All of the following organs produce hormones
167. Select an ovarian hormone, which requires
except
secondary messenger for their action.
(a) Liver (b) Kidneys
(a) Estrogen (b) Progesterone
(c) Lungs
(c) Relaxin
(d) Gastrointestinal tract
(d) Androgens

Space for Rough Work (22/28)

168. Which of the following hypothalamic hormones
is incorrectly matched with its function?

(a) TRH: Stimulates secretion of thyrotropin

(b) PIH: suppresses the secretion of prolactin

(c) GH-RH: stimulates secretion of growth hormone

(d) CRH: stimulates the release of prolactin 172. The first sign of the growing foetus may be
noticed by listening to the heart sound carefully
169. Which of the following hormone is secreted
through the stethoscope. Embryo’s heart is formed
by pars intermedia?
________.
(a) Prolactin
(a) By the end of the second month of pregnancy
(b) Thyroid-stimulating hormone
(b) By the end of first trimester
(c) Adrenocorticotrophic hormone
(c) After one month of pregnancy
(d) Melanocyte stimulating hormone
(d) During fifth month
170. Sella turcica is a depression in the sphenoid
173. Which of the following is not a correct
bone which lodges
statement about umbilical cord?
(a) Pineal gland (b) Hypophysis
(a) It connects the placenta to the embryo
(c) Epiphysis (d) Thyroid
(b) It helps in the transport of substances to and from
171. Identify the stages A and B; and what is the the embryo
correct labeling of C and D?
(c) It produces several hormones like hPL, estrogen
and progesterone

(d) If has 100% foetal blood

174. Sometimes the labour pains are less and

uterine contractions have to be induced. What do
Choose the correct option.
you think the doctors inject to facilitate delivery?

(a) Progesterone and estrogen hormones

(b) Oxytocin/Pitocin

(c) FSH and LH (d) Relaxin

Space for Rough Work (23/28)
175. Which of the following is not the function of 179. Which of the following can be termed as milk
Sertoli cells (sustentacular cells)? ejecting hormone?

(a) Release of androgen binding protein (a) Prolactin (b) Oestrogen

(b) Release of antimullerian factor (c) Progesterone (d) Oxytocin

(c) Regulate spermatogenesis by releasing inhibin 180. Hormones secreted by the placenta to
maintain pregnancy are
(d) Secretion of testosterone
(a) hCG, hPL, progestognes, prolactin
176. If both ovaries are removed from pregnant
human female in first trimester of pregnancy then it (b) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
will lead to
(c) hCG, progestrogens, estrogens, glucocorticoids
(a) Abortion
(d) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens
(b) Normal development
181. Match the items given in Column I with those
(c) Irregular ovulation no fixed time interval in Column II and select the correct option given
below:
(d) Menarche
Column I Column II
177. Blood flowing in umbilical cord of mammalian
A. Proliferative Phase (i) Breakdown of endo-
embryo is
metrial lining
(a) 100% maternal
B. Secretory Phase (ii) Follicular Phase
(b) 50% maternal and 50% foetal
C. Menstruation (iii) Luteal Phase
(c) 100% foetal
(a) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i) (b) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii)
(d) 75% foetal and 25% maternal
(c) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii) (d) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i)
178. Home use kits for determining a women’s
182. A temporary endocrine gland in the human
fertile period depend on the detection of one
body is
hormone in the urine. This hormone is
(a) Pineal gland
(a) Progesterone (b) Estradiol
(b) Corpus cardiacum
(c) hCG
(c) Corpus luteum
(d) LH
(d) Corpus allatum

Space for Rough Work (24/28)

183. Which of the following depicts the correct Section - B (Biology : Zoology)
pathway of transport of sperms?
186. The Graafian follicle ruptures to release
(a) Rete testis  Efferent ductules  Epididymis  __________ from the ovary by the process called
Vas deferens ovulation.

(b) Rete testis  Epididymis  Efferent ductules  (a) Primary oocyte

Vas deferens
(b) Secondary oocyte after completing meiosis-II
(c) Rete testis  Vas deferens  Efferent ductules
(c) Secondary oocyte after completing meiosis-I and
 Epididymis
with the release of 1st polar body
(d) Efferent ductules  Rete testis  Vas deferens
(d) Mature ovum
 Epididymis
187. In humans, at the end of the first meiotic
184. Match Column-I with Column-II and select
division, the male germ cells form
the correct option using the codes given below:
(a) Spermatogonia
Column-I Column-II
A. Mons pubis (i) Embryo formation (b) Primary spermatocytes

B. Antrum (ii) Sperm (c) Secondary spermatocytes

C. Trophoectoderm (iii) Female external genitalia (d) Spermatids

D. Nebenkern (iv) Graafian follicle 188. Which one of the following statement is
correct about menstrual cycle?
(a) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
(a) The first menstruation begins at puberty and is
(b) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
called menarche
(c) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
(b) Lack of menstruation may also occur due to some
(d) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii) environmental factors like stress, poor health

185. Which of the following is last part of the (c) Corpus luteum secretes large amounts of
oviduct, which has narrow lumen and joins with the progesterone which is essential for maintenance of
uterus? endometrium

(a) Ampulla (b) Isthmus (d) In absence of fertilization, corpus luteum

degenerates in luteal phase and new follicles start
(c) Infundibulum
developing immediately
(d) Fimbriae
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189. In the fertile human female, approximately (d) Uterus : Birth canal
on which day of the menstrual cycle (32 days) does
194. Which of the following is the correct match
ovulation take place?
about the female external genitalia and their
(a) Day 18 (b) Day 14 functions?

(c) Day 1 (d) Day 8 (a) Mons pubis : Cushion of fatty tissue covered by
skin and pubic hair and surround the vaginal orifice
190. After ovulation Graafian follicle transform into
(b) Labia majora : Fleshy folds of tissue which extend
(a) Corpus luteum (b) Corpus albicans
down from the mons pubis and surround the vaginal
(c) Corpus callosum (d) Follicular atresia opening

191. Fertilisation in human beings occurs in (c) Labia minora : Paired folds of tissue under the
labia majora homologous to scrotum in males
(a) Isthmus
(d) Clitoris : A tiny figure like structure which lies at
(b) Ampullary-isthmic junction
the upper junction of the two labia minora above the
(c) Uterus (d) Infundibulum urethral opening. It is analogous to penis in males

192. Which of the following depicts the site of 195. Identify the correct statement on inhibin
impantation of blastocyst under normal condition?
(a) Is produced by nurse cells in testes and inhibits
the secretion of LH

(b) Inhibits the secretion of LH, FSH and Prolactin

(c) Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits

the secretion of FSH
(a) II (b) V
(d) Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and
(c) I (d) VI inhibits the secretion of LH

193. Which one of the following is incorrect match? 196. Which of the following events is not associated
with ovulation in human female?
(a) Myometrium : Exhibits strong contractions during
delivery of the baby (a) LH surge

(b) Endometrium : Undergoes cyclical changes during (b) Decrease in estradiol

menstrual cycle
(c) Full development of Graafian follicle
(c) Perimetrium : Serosa of uterus
(d) Release of secondary oocyte
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197. Which of the following layers in an antral follical (d) Providing more space for the growth of epdidymis
is acellular?
199. About which day in a normal human menstrual
(a) Zona pellucida (b) Granulosa cycle does rapid secretion of LH (Popularly called LH-
surge) normally occurs
(c) Theca interna (d) Stroma
(a) 5th day (b) 11th day
198. The testes in humans are situated outside the
abdominal cavity inside a pouch called scrotum. Then (c) 14th day (d) 20th day
purpose served is for
200. Vasa efferentia are the ductules leading from
(a) Providing a secondary sexual feature for exhibiting
(a) Epididymis to urethra
the male sex
(b) Testicular lobules to rete testis
(b) Maintaining the scrotal temperature lower than
the internal body temperature (c) Rete tests to vas deferens

(c) Escaping any possible compression by the visceral (d) Vas deferens to epididymis
organs

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