Ministero dell'Università e della Ricerca

CALL FOR APPLICATIONS FOR ADMISSION TO THE NATIONAL

RESTRICTED ACCESS SINGLE-CYCLE DEGREE PROGRAMMES IN
MEDICINE AND SURGERY AND IN DENTISTRY AND DENTAL
PROSTHODONTICS

Academic Year 2023/2024

Reading skills and knowledge acquired during studies

1. Preliminary global average temperatures taken so far in June are nearly 1C

(1.8F) above levels previously recorded for the same month, going back to 1979.
While the month is not yet complete and may not set a new June record, climate
scientists say it follows a pattern of strengthening global heating that could see
this year named the hottest ever recorded, topping 2016.

The long - term warming conditions caused by the burning of fossil fuels will
likely receive a further pulse of heat via El Niño, a naturally reoccurring
phenomenon where sections of the Pacific Ocean heat up, typically causing
temperatures to spike across the world.

According to the text, which one of the following is true?

A) The El Niño phenomenon limits the effects of burning fossil fuels.

B) This year, June will be the hottest month on record since 1979.

C) Temperatures in June are not related to the El Niño phenomenon.

D) June 1979 was the hottest month to date.

E) The June temperature this year is consistent with an observed trend.

2. Which of the following pairs of character/book is wrong?

A) Gregor Samsa - The Metamorphosis

B) Leopold Bloom - Ulysses

C) Edmond Dantès - The Count of Monte Cristo

D) Elizabeth Bennet - Little Women

E) Florentino Ariza - Love in the Time of Cholera

3. The work known as De Bello Gallico is

A) a sculpture by Auguste Rodin.

B) a painting by Eugène Delacroix.

C) Julius Caesar's account of the Gallic war.

D) an opera by Richard Wagner.

E) a collection of poems on the Gallic war by Horace.

4. In a parliamentary system of government, the President of the Republic is

A) Head of State but not Head of Government.

B) neither Head of State nor Head of Government.

C) Head of Government and Head of the High Council of the Judiciary.

D) Head of Government but not Head of State.

E) Head of State and Head of the High Council of the Judiciary.

Logical reasoning and problem-solving

5. You have 1 pair of new - born rabbits (one male and one female) that can breed
when they reach maturity. You also have 3 pairs of mature rabbits (3 males and
3 females) that can start breeding immediately. They follow these rules:

 Each mature pair of rabbits produces one new pair of offspring (one male
and one female) at the end of each month
 Each offspring pair takes one month to mature

How many rabbits do you have at the end of the 3rd month?

A) 14

B) 36
C) 18

D) 28

E) 42

6. The half-life of a radioactive element is the time needed for half of the material
to decay. You have a certain quantity of a mineral containing two radioactive
elements X and Y, whose half - lives are 2 and 3 years, respectively. Also, no
physical process can produce elements X or Y.

If today the ratio X:Y (mass/mass) is 8:1, what will it be after 6 years?

A) 1:1

B) 4:1

C) 2:1

D) 16:1

E) 32/1

7. You want to buy a sandwich from your favourite store but are on a strict diet,
so the sandwich must satisfy these requirements:

 protein content: at least 20 g

 fat content: less than 10 g energy: at least 1,300 kJ

These are the types of sandwich available:

type Energy (kJ) Proteins (g) Fats (g) Salt equiv (g) Price (€)
Tuna 1579 18 14 1.4 7.20
Beef 1320 22 9 1.5 6.90
Chicken 1337 23 5 1.1 6.80
Vegetables 1198 9 15 1.2 6.50
Salmon 1620 22 12 2.1 7.10
Ham 1164 19 8 1.9 6.60
Turkey 1210 20 4 1.7 6.70
What is the minimum that you can spend for your sandwich?

A) 7.10 €

B) 6.70 €

C) 6.90 €

D) 6.60 €

E) 6.80 €

8. Copernicus is the European Earth Observation Program me which was

established in 1998 to monitor the many ecosystems of our planet. It uses a
constellation of 6 'Sentinel' satellites as well as dozens of third-party satellites to
protect us from natural and manmade disasters. It collects and makes available
accurate environmental data to address climate change, pollution, and
deforestation, aiding evidence-based decision-making. Copernicus fuels
scientific research and plays a pivotal role in tracing disease outbreaks, tracking
marine pollution, determining the quality of air and water, studying ocean levels
and evaluating the melting of the arctic polar ice cap. The Copernicus European
Observation Program me provides enormous social, environmental and scientific
benefits, and it should continue to be funded.

Which one of the following, if true, would most strengthen the argument
above?

A) The economic benefits derived from the Copernicus program me outweigh its
costs.

B) Some of Copernicus' benefits can be provided by other means.

C) The Copernicus project requires international cooperation to be effective.

D) There are a number of similar projects run by other international agencies.

E) Social and scientific advances are of equal importance.

9. There is a commonly held belief, known as the 'Matthew effect, that students
who start with poor academic attainment early in school make less progress over
time than their higher-achieving peers. But recent research has shed new light on
this topic. A study examined patterns of growth in literacy and numeracy among
more than 150,000 young people in Australia. Researchers tested pupils regularly
between year 3 and year 9. They found that students who began with high
achievement in reading and numeracy tests in year 3 were not making the amount
of progress to year 9 of which they were capable. On the other hand, students
starting with below average test scores made more progress from year 3 to year 9
than students starting above average. This compensatory growth pattern was seen
in both reading and numeracy but was especially significant in reading.

Which one of the following can be drawn as a conclusion from the above
passage?

A) Rates of improvement from a low base will always be more rapid than progress
from a higher base.

B) Numerical skills are harder to improve than language skills.

C) Early promise does not guarantee high achievement in the long-term.

D) The 'Matthew effect' is the result of low expectations by teachers.

E) It is easier to teach brighter students than those who are below average.

Biology

10. Glucose can feed into the biochemical pathways noted in the options below.
Each pathway generates a net yield of ATP molecules per molecule of glucose
feeding into the pathway. Rank the reactions listed below in order of the total
number of net ATP molecules produced, ranked from largest to smallest?

1. Ethyl alcohol fermentation of four molecules of glucose

2. Lactic acid fermentation of six molecules of glucose

3. The electron transport chain stage of cellular respiration following

The metabolism of a single molecule of glucose through the glycolytic and citric
acid cycle stages.
4. Glycolysis of seven glucose molecules

A) 4 - 2 - 3 - 1

B) 4 - 2 - 1 - 3

C) 3 - 4 - 1 - 2

D) 3 - 4 - 2 - 1

E) 2 - 1 - 4 - 3

11. Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) is a genetic condition marked by the

gradual deterioration of muscle tissue. Recent studies have revealed that DMD
arises from specific changes in a vital protein called dystrophin, responsible for
maintaining the integrity of muscle cells. The gene responsible for producing this
protein follows an inheritance pattern known as X- linked recessive.

Which of the following statements is wrong according to the above?

A) DMD is a sex - linked inherited disease.

B) Women are more likely to suffer from DMD than men.

C) The rate at which the mutated allele spreads is influenced by the rate at which
the associated X chromosome spreads within the population.

D) To develop the condition, a woman must inherit two recessive alleles of this
gene.

E) To develop the condition, a man must inherit one of the recessive alleles of
this gene.

12. In the table below, you can find the minimum, maximum and optimum pH
values that are required for enzymes X, Y, Z, W, and Q to function.

Enzymes pH value
Minimum Optimum Maximum
X 6.4 7.1 8.2
Y 3.9 5.3 7.2
Z 4.0 6.2 8.5
 W 8.0 9.1 12.1
Q 1.3 5.4 9.5

Which of the pairs of enzymes listed below cannot function together in the
same environment?

A) Y and W

B) W and Q

C) X and Y

D) Y and Z

E) X and Z

13. Which of the following is absent from the genome of a virus that utilizes
DNA as its primary molecule?

A) Thymine

B) Deoxyribose

C) Adenine

D) Guanine

E) Uracil

14. In which of the following events do hormones secreted by the adrenal

gland and pancreas play a role together?

1. Balancing the amount of calcium in the bone and blood.

2. Accelerating sodium absorption in the renal tubules.

3. Balancing the glucose level in the blood.

A) 1 and 2

B) 1

C) 3 only
D) 1, 2 , and 3

E) 2 and 3

15. Which of the following examples represent conditions regulated by

homeostasis in the body?
1. Blood glucose concentration
2. Body temperature
3. Water levels
4. Body weight
A) 1 and 4
B) 1 only
C) 1 and 2
D) 1, 2 and 3
E) 4 only
16. Which of the following structures in a plant cell are surrounded by a
double membrane?
A) Golgi Apparatus, Ribosome, Mitochondria
B) Plastid, Mitochondria, Nucleus
C) Plastid, Endoplasmic Reticulum, Vacuole
D) Nucleus, Plastid, Golgi Apparatus
E) Mitochondria, Vacuole, Golgi Apparatus
17. Listed below are three different families with genotypes related to colour
blindness which is an X-linked recessive disorder.
Family Mother Father

1 XRXr XRY

2 XrXr XRY

3 XRXr XrY
Among the families, which ones can have a colour - blind daughter?
A) 3
B) 1
C) 2
D) 1 and 2
E) 2 and 3
18. Which of the following conditions is necessary for a mutation to play a
role in the process of evolution?
A) Formation by the effect of X - rays
B) Having a dominant mutation
C) Occurrence in body cells
D) Having a recessive mutation
E) Occurrence in germ cells
19. Redox reactions play a vital role in many cellular processes. Which of the
following statements and examples best describes redox reactions in living
things?

A) Redox reactions involve the transfer of electrons, where the molecule that
gains electrons is reduced, and the molecule that loses electrons is oxidized.

B) Redox reactions involve the destruction of molecules, where the molecule that
gains fragments is reduced, and the molecule that loses fragments is oxidized.

C) Redox reactions involve the formation of covalent bonds, where the molecule
that gains bonds is reduced, and the molecule that loses bonds is oxidized.

D) Redox reactions involve the absorption of energy, where the molecule that
gains energy is reduced, and the molecule that loses energy is oxidized.

E) Redox reactions involve the absorption of light, where the molecule that gains
light is reduced, and the molecule that loses light is oxidized.
20. Study the following table which shows the genotypes of individuals in a
population for a specific genetic trait. The trait is determined by a single gene
with two alleles, A and a.

Individual Genotype
1 AA
2 Aa
3 Aa
4 aa
5 AA

Based on the given data, what is the frequency of the A allele in this
population?

A) 0.8

B) 0.2

C) 0.4

D) 0.6

E) 1.0

21. Which of the following anatomical structures is responsible for

regulating the circadian rhythm?

A) Corpus callosum

B) Thalamus

C) Pineal gland

D) Amygdala

E) Hippocampus

22. Photosynthesis is a vital process in which plants and some other organisms
convert light energy into chemical energy. Which of the following represents the
balanced equation for the overall reaction of photosynthesis?
A) C6H12O6 + 6CO2 + energy → 6CO2 + 6H2O

B) C6H12O6 + 6CO2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + energy

C) 6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6CO2 + energy

D) 6CO2 + 6H2O + energy → C6H12O6 + 6O2

E) C6H12O6 + 6CO2 + energy→ 12CO2 + 6H2O

23. What is the correct order of the following events that occur immediately after
acetylcholine binds to postsynaptic receptors of a muscle fibre, causing the
muscle to contract?

1. Ca2+ ions diffuse into the sarcoplasm.

2. The muscle fibre membrane is depolarised.

3. The myosin binding site on the actin filament is uncovered.

A) 2 - 3 - 1

B) 2 - 1 - 3

C) 1 - 2 - 3

D) 1 - 3 - 2

E) 3 - 2 - 1

24. What percentage of the three base codons that can be made using the
standard genetic code are stop codons?

A) 18.8%

B) 7.8%

C) 9.4%

D) 14.1%

E) 4.7%
25. Which of the following statements accurately describes prokaryotic
DNA?

A) Prokaryotic DNA consists of circular chromosomes located within the

cytoplasm.

B) Prokaryotic DNA is linear, with multiple chromosomes contained within a

nuclear membrane.

C) Prokaryotic DNA is highly condensed and organized into chromatin fibers.

D) Prokaryotic DNA is associated with histone proteins and undergoes meiotic

cell division during replication.

E) Prokaryotic DNA contains introns and exons within its coding regions.

26. A fragment of double-stranded DNA molecule contains 12 phosphates

and 2 adenines. Given this information, what is the total number of purine
bases, deoxyribose sugars and hydrogen bonds respectively, present in the
described DNA molecule?

A) 6, 12, 16

B) 12, 24, 28

C) 4, 12, 12

D) 6, 16, 12

E) 6, 12, 20

27. Which of the following statements accurately describes the surface area-to-
volume ratio and cell growth?

A) The surface area-to-volume ratio increases as the cell grows larger.

B) The surface area-to-volume ratio remains constant during cell growth.

C) The surface area-to-volume ratio decreases as the cell grows larger.

D) The surface area-to-volume ratio varies randomly during cell growth.

E) The surface area-to-volume ratio is unrelated to cell growth.

28. Which of the following statements regarding the Golgi apparatus is
correct?

A) Lysosomes digest the vesicles released from the Golgi apparatus so the
proteins can be released from the cell.

B) The Golgi apparatus processes lipid molecules as they enter the cell.

C) Before exiting the cell, the proteins packaged in the Golgi apparatus are
transported to the nucleus for translation verification.

D) The Golgi apparatus processes and packages proteins to be exported from the
cell.

E) There is no Golgi apparatus in neuronal cells.

29. In which reactions of glycolysis are isomerase enzymes involved?

A) To convert fructose 1-6-diphosphate to glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and

dihydroxy acetone phosphate.

B) During the phosphorylation of both glucose and fructose-1-phosphate.

C) In the steps in which dehydrogenase enzymes are involved.

D) When four enzyme - catalysed reactions convert each triose phosphate

molecule to a molecule of pyruvate.

E) When glucose-6-phosphate is changed to fructose-6-phosphate.

30. Given the polynucleotide sequence AUGCCGC, can you tell which is the
5' end?

A) No, you cannot tell without the sequence of the complementary strand.

B) No, unless you know the position of the phosphate group, you cannot
differentiate the 3' end from the 5' end.

C) Yes, the 5' end begins with the start codon AUG.

D) There is no difference between the 5' and 3' ends of a single strand of DNA.
E) Counting the number of hydrogen bonds between the nitrogenous bases
provides sufficient information to determine the 5' end.

31. Which statement or set of statements about oxidative phosphorylation is

correct?

1. Complex I of the electron transport chain transfers electrons

from FADH2 to coenzyme Q.

2. ATP synthase utilises the energy of the proton gradient to

catalyze the conversion of ADP to ATP.

3. Oxygen serves as an electron acceptor in complex III.

4. Complex IV receives electrons from NADH.

A) 1 and 2

B) 2

C) 3

D) 2, 3 and 4

E) 4

Ministero dell'Università e della Ricerca

32. The 19th century monk Gregor Johann Mendel conducted simple
hybridisation experiments and established a series of laws of inheritance.
Which of the points listed below accurately reflect Mendel's laws?

1. Alternative forms of genetic characteristics can be inherited from parents.

2. Specific heritable factors or traits are inherited independently of other heritable

factors.

3. Gametes are created by random segregation.

4. If one allele is dominant over another allele, the phenotype reflects the
dominant allele.
5. Individuals with heritable traits more suited to the environment will have an
increased chance of survival.

A) All the statements are correct

B) 1, 2 and 3

C) 1, 2, 3 and 4

D) 4 and 5

E) 1 and 5

Chemistry

33. A simple ion of element A can be represented:

2𝑥+2 2+
𝑥𝐴

How many electrons are present in this ion?

A) x -2

B) x

C) x+2

D) 2x

E) 2x +4

34. A sample of n moles of an ideal gas is contained in a closed system of fixed

volume V m3 at pressure P Pa and temperature 27.0 °C.

If the gas is heated to 327.0 °C, what will be the pressure, in Pa, at this new
temperature? Assume absolute zero is at -273.0 °C

A) P
𝑃
B)
2

C) 2P
 327
D) 𝑃
27

27
E) 𝑃
327

35. A pH meter is used to test 0.1 mol L -1 aqueous solutions of the following
compounds:

1. CH3COOH

2. NaCl

3. H2SO4

4. Ba (OH)2

5. HNO3

Which of the following correctly lists these solutions in order of increasing

pH?

A) 5, 3, 1, 2, 4

B) 3, 4, 1, 5, 2

C) 4, 2, 1, 5, 3

D) 2, 1, 4, 5, 3

E) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4

36. Which of the following compounds are structural isomers of hexanoic

acid?

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 1 only
C) 3 only

D) 1, 2 and 3

E) 2 and 3 only

37. Consider the reaction:

H2SO4 + HNO3 → HSO -4 + H2NO+3

Which of the following terms describes the role of HNO3 in this reaction?

A) A base

B) An acid

C) An oxidising agent

D) A reducing agent

E) A catalyst

38. Which one of the following is a gaseous compound (at room temperature
and pressure) that exists as linear molecules and reacts with water to form
an acidic solution?

A) Silicon dioxide

B) Carbon dioxide

C) Nitrogen dioxide

D) Sulfur dioxide

E) Sulfur trioxide

39. Which of the following statements about 1Kg of water is correct?

A) Ice has a greater volume than liquid water as the particles are further apart

B) Liquid water has a greater volume than ice as the particles are further apart

C) Liquid water has a greater volume than ice as the particles have more kinetic
energy.
D) Liquid water and ice have the same volume, which explains why ice partially
floats in water.

E) Ice has a greater volume than liquid water as the particles have more kinetic
energy.

40. At a given temperature, the 𝑲𝒄 , value of a gaseous exothermic reaction is

equal to 𝟕 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟓 𝒅𝒎𝟔 𝒎𝒐𝒍−𝟐 .

Which one of the following statements is correct?

A) An increase in pressure will increase the time taken to reach equilibrium

B) The position of equilibrium lies over to the right-hand side

C) There are more moles on the right-hand side of the equilibrium equation

D) At a lower temperature the value of 𝐾𝑐 , will increase

E) Addition of a suitable catalyst will increase the equilibrium yield obtained

41. The structure of paracetamol is shown below:

Which one of the following functional groups is present in paracetamol?

A) Aldehyde

B) Amine

C) Carboxylic acid

D) Amide

E) Ketone

42. The formulae of the five most abundant substances in air are shown:
N2 O2 Ar CO2 H2O

How many of these five substances are elements and how many of these five
substances are made of molecules?

A) Elements = 5 , molecules = 4

B) Elements = 1 , molecules = 4

C) Elements = 1 , molecules = 2

D) Elements = 3 , molecules = 2

E) Elements = 3 , molecules = 4

43. Which of these elements has the highest first ionisation energy?

A) Sodium (Z = 11)

B) Lithium (Z = 3)

C) Neon (Z = 10)

D) Argon (Z = 18)

E) Potassium (Z = 19)

44. Which of these molecules has an overall dipole moment?

A) BeF2

B) PF3

C) CF4

D) PF5

E) SF6

45. This reaction is used in the extraction of titanium from its ore.

TiO2 + 2Cl2 + 2C → TiCl4 + 2CO

Which substances is/are the reducing agent(s) in this reaction?

A) C
B) TiO2

C) Cl2

D) C and Cl2

E) none of these substances - it is not a redox reaction

46. Iron is made by reduction of iron oxide using carbon monoxide.

Fe2O3 + 3CO→ 2Fe + 3CO2

50 g of iron is made in a reaction from 80 g of iron oxide.

What is the percentage yield of iron in this reaction? (M r Fe2O3 = 160 , Ar Fe =

56)
25
A) × 100
80

50
B) × 100
80

50
C) × 100
56

50⁄56
D) × 100
80⁄160

25⁄112
E) × 100
80⁄160

47. Which of these is a weak, diprotic acid?

 Physics and Mathematics

48. Consider this function, defined for every x >1 (where "In" indicates the
natural logarithm): f(x) =2ln (x) -2ln (x-1). Which of these is an expression for
its inverse function 𝑓 −1 (𝑦)?
1
A) , 𝑦 ≠0
𝑒 𝑦⁄2 −1

𝑒 𝑦⁄2
B) , 𝑦>1
𝑒 𝑦⁄2 −1

1
C) , 𝑦>0
𝑒 𝑦⁄2 −1

1
D) , 𝑦>1
𝑒 𝑦⁄2 −1

𝑒 𝑦⁄2
E) , 𝑦>0
𝑒 𝑦⁄2 −1

49. Find the set of real solutions of this inequation:

2x2 - 6x +5 > 0

A) 𝜙

B) ℝ

C) ( -∞ , 1) U (2, + ∞)

D) (1, 2)

E) {1, 2}

50. The ratio of sugar to flour in a mixture is 1:5. After 1kg of sugar and 2kg
of flour are added to the mixture, the ratio has changed to 2:5.

A further 1kg of sugar and 2kg of flour are added to the mixture.

What is the new ratio of sugar to flour?

A) 4:7

B) 3:5
C) 3:7

D) 11:25

E) 14:25

51. Two standard six-sided dice numbered 1 to 6 are rolled. What is the
probability that the product of the two numbers obtained is the square of a
prime?

A) 5/36

B) 3/36

C) 4/36

D) 6/36

E) 7/36

52. How many solutions are there in the range 0° ≤ x ≤ 360° to the equation
𝑥+90° 1
𝑠𝑖𝑛4 ( ) = 16 ?
10

A) 40

B) 2

C) 4

D) 20

E) 1

53. What is the complete set of values of x for which 100 - 99 x ≤ 98 - 97x and
96 + 95 x > 94 + 93x ?

A) x ≤ -1 or x > 1

B) x > -1

C) x > 1

D) x ≥ 1
E) -1 < x < 1

54. What is the minimum distance of the circle given by the equation 𝒙𝟐 −
𝟏𝟎𝒙 + 𝒚𝟐 + 𝟏𝟐𝒚 + 𝟓𝟕 = 𝟎 from the coordinate axes?

A) 1

B) 3

C) 2

D) 4

E) 5

𝟏𝟔𝒙+ 𝟖𝒙
55. The expression √ simplifies to which of the following?
𝟒𝒙 + 𝟐𝒙

𝑥
A) (√2)

B) 2

C) 2𝑥

D) √2𝑥

E) 22𝑥

56. A point mass A with mass m moves at a constant speed v on a horizontal

frictionless plane and collides with another point mass B with mass 2m that is at
rest. The collision is elastic. After the collision, point mass A is moving with a
speed 𝑉𝐴 and point mass B with a speed 𝑉𝐵 .

What are 𝑉𝐴 and 𝑉𝐵 , in terms of V?

1 2
A) 𝑉𝐴 = 𝑉 , 𝑉𝐵 = 𝑉
3 3

2 1
B) 𝑉𝐴 = 𝑉 , 𝑉𝐵 = 𝑉
3 3

1 1
C) 𝑉𝐴 = 𝑉 , 𝑉𝐵 = 𝑉
2 3
 1 1
D) 𝑉𝐴 = 𝑉 , 𝑉𝐵 = 𝑉
3 2

1 1
E) 𝑉𝐴 = 𝑉 , 𝑉𝐵 = 𝑉
2 2

57. An ideal gas is trapped in a metal cylinder by a free-moving piston and is at

equilibrium in a room at 25°C.

The piston is pulled slowly to the right so that the volume of the trapped gas
increases isothermally. The piston is now fixed in position.

The metal cylinder is then placed in a location where thermal energy is transferred
from the trapped gas until the pressure of the gas is halved.

To the nearest degree Celsius, what is the final temperature of the gas?

A) 13 °C

B) -149 °C

C) 25 °C

D) 50 °C

E) - 124 °C

58. A metal jug of negligible thermal capacity contains a mass M of water at a

temperature T1. A dry block of ice (specific latent heat of fusion = Lf) of mass m
at 0 °C is dropped into the water (specific heat capacity = c) and begins to melt.
At thermal equilibrium, there is no ice in the jug and the temperature of all the
water is T2.

There is no thermal energy transfer between the atmosphere and the water or
between the atmosphere and the ice.

Which expression is used to calculate m?

𝑀𝑐 (𝑇1 − 𝑇2 )
A)
𝐿𝑓 + 𝐶𝑇2

𝑀𝑐 (𝑇1 − 𝑇2 )
B)
𝐿𝑓
 𝑀𝑐 𝑇1
C)
𝐿𝑓 + 𝐶𝑇2

𝑀𝑐 𝑇1
D)
𝐿𝑓

𝑀𝑐 (𝑇1 − 𝑇2 )
E)
𝐿𝑓 + 𝐶𝑇1

59. A vehicle travels east for 6km, then south for 8km without stopping. If
the trip takes 15 minutes, what is the magnitude of the average velocity in
km/h?

A) 8

B) 20

C) 40

D) 14

E) 56

60. Two perfectly insulating spheres charged respectively with Q1 and Q2

and with a respective radius of R1 and R2 are placed in contact.

What will the charge on the sphere of radius R1 now be?

A) Q2

B) Q1
𝑄1 𝑅1 +𝑄2 𝑅2
C)
𝑅1 + 𝑅2

𝑄1 𝑅12 +𝑄2 𝑅22

D)
𝑅12 + 𝑅22

E) 0

* * * * * * * * * * FINE DELLE DOMANDE * * * * * * * * * *

The correct answer is option A for each question