XII-NEET Biology M-1 Final Booklets

Vedantu’s
Vedantu’s Tatva
Vedantu’s Tatva Practice
TatvaPractice
Practice Book | Book
Book| Biology
Physics - Vol.
- Vol. 2 !
Biology
Genetics
Evolution
and
Volume 1 Class 12 NEET
Class 11 JEE
SCAN
SCAN CODE
CODE
to
to know how
know how to
to
use
use this
this Book
Book
Published by
Vedantu Innovations Pvt. Ltd.
D. No. 1081, 3rd Floor, Vistar Arcade,
14th Main Rd, Sector 3, HSR Layout
Bangalore, Karnataka, India 560 102
www.vedantu.com
All rights reserved. No part of this book may be reproduced or utilized in any form or by any
means, electronic or mechanical, including photocopying, recording, or by any information
storage and retrieval system, without permission in writing from the publishers.
Notice: Vedantu is committed to serving students with the best resources and knowledge.
Bearing that in mind, we have obtained all the information in this book from sources regarded
as reliable, and taken utmost care in editing and printing this book. However, as authors and
publishers, we are not to be held responsible for unintentional mistakes that might have crept
in. Having stated that, errors (if any) brought to our notice shall be gratefully acknowledged
and rectiﬁed in upcoming editions.
Printed by
LASERPRINTS
Quality - Ethics - Service
H-4 (a), Electronic Complex, Road No.1 IPIA, Kota
(Rajasthan) INDIA
Phones : 0744-2436941Mobile : 9829037941
*Mail ID : laserpr@gmail.com, laser1prints@gmail.com
MASTER INDEX
VOLUME 1:
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Human Reproduction
Reproductive Health
VOLUME 2:
Principles of Inheritance and Variation
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Evolution
VOLUME 3:
Human Health and Disease
Microbes in Human Welfare
VOLUME 4:
Biotechnology: Principles and Processes
Biotechnology and its Applications
VOLUME 5:
Organisms and Populations
Ecosystem
Biodiversity and Conservation
4
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Theory .................................................................................................................................................. 6
Exercise - 1 : Basic Objective Questions.................................................................................................. 63
Exercise - 2 : Previous Year Questions ..................................................................................................... 76
Exercise - 3 : Achiever’s Section ............................................................................................................ 79
Answer Key ......................................................................................................................................... 193
Human Reproduction
Theory ................................................................................................................................................... 84
Exercise - 1 : Basic Objective Questions................................................................................................... 127
Exercise - 2 : Previous Year Questions ...................................................................................................... 141
Exercise - 3 : Achiever’s Section ............................................................................................................. 146
Answer Key .......................................................................................................................................... 195
Reproductive Health
Theory ................................................................................................................................................... 153
Exercise - 1 : Basic Objective Questions................................................................................................... 172
Exercise - 2 : Previous Year Questions ...................................................................................................... 183
Exercise - 3 : Achiever’s Section ............................................................................................................. 187
Answer Key .......................................................................................................................................... 197

SEXUAL REPRODUCTION
IN FLOWERING PLANTS
6 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS
Chapter 01
Are We not Lucky that Plants Reproduce Sexually?
Fig 1.1: Human beings have had an intimate relationship with flowers since time immemorial
Flowers are objects of aesthetic, ornamental, social, religious, and cultural value – they have always been used as symbols for
conveying important human feelings such as love, affection, happiness, grief, mourning, etc.
1. Flower – A Fascinating Organ of Angiosperms

● Sexual reproduction involves the fusion of male and female gametes to produce a diploid organism.
Fig 1.2: Sexual Reproduction
● The diploid progeny shows variation as it inherits characters from both parents.
● It provides variation to the progeny that helps in better survival and helps it to gain its own uniqueness within the species.
● The flowers of a plant bear the reproductive organs and hence they are the site of sexual reproduction.
● Flowering is a major phase in the life cycle of a plant.
● It takes place when conditions are favourable for pollination and formation of seeds.
● Flowers take part in the formation of male and female gametes, transfer of male gametes to the female reproductive structure,
fertilisation of male and female gametes, formation of seeds and fruits.
SCAN CODE
SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS 7
1.1 Whorls of a Flower

● Floral whorls: A typical angiospermic flower consists of four whorls of floral appendages attached on the receptacle
or thalamus.
● Receptacle or Thalamus: It is the terminal swollen part of the pedicel of a flower. It supplies nutrients to flowers and acts as
an attachment platform on which floral parts of a flower are arranged in a ring-like arrangement called whorls.
● Pedicel: It is a small stalk bearing an individual flower in an inflorescence.
Fig 1.3: Whorls of a flower
Description of Floral Whorls
Whorls of a flower Description
Calyx ● Calyx is the most anterior whorl.

● It refers to a collection of sepals.
● It is usually green in color.
● It forms a whorl around the petals in the flower.
● It protects the flower at the bud stage.
Corolla ● Corolla is anterior to stamen but posterior to calyx.

● It is a collection of petals.
● It is often brightly coloured or unusually shaped to attract pollinators.
SCAN CODE
Androecium ● Androecium is anterior to gynoecium but posterior to calyx and corolla.

● It represents the male reproductive structure of a flower.
● It is composed of stamens.
● Each stamen represents the male reproductive organ of a flower.
Gynoecium ● Gynoecium is the most posterior whorl.

● It represents the female reproductive structure of a flower.
● It is made up of one or more carpels.
● Each carpel represents the female reproductive organ of a flower.
● The distal end of each whorl generally lies free in open flowers.
● On the other hand, the proximal end of each whorl either does adhesion with other whorls or gets attached to the
thalamus/receptacle.
2. Pre-Fertilisation: Structures and Events

● Much before the actual flower is seen on a plant, the decision that the plant is going to flower has taken place.
● Several hormonal and structural changes are initiated which lead to the differentiation and further development of the
floral primordium.
● Inflorescences are formed which bear the floral buds and then the flowers.
● In the flower, the male and female reproductive structures, the androecium and the gynoecium differentiate and develop.
3. The Male Gametophyte

● The male gametophyte is a structure that bears the male gametes.
● The male gametophyte occurs in the microsporangium.
● The microsporangia are present in the anther.
● The anther is a part of the stamen which represents the male reproductive organ of the flower.
3.1 Stamen: Male Reproductive Organ

● A typical stamen consists of two parts:
● Anther: It is a terminal bilobed structure.
● Filament: It is a long and slender stalk, the proximal end of which is attached to the thalamus or the petal of the flower.
● The number and lengths of stamens are variable in flowers of different species.
Fig 1.4: Stamen: Male Reproductive Organ
SCAN CODE
3.1.1 Structure of a Typical Anther

● A typical angiosperm anther is bilobed with each lobe having two theca, i.e., they are dithecous. Often a longitudinal groove
runs lengthwise separating the theca.
Fig 1.5: Bilobed, dithecous anther
● The anther is a four-sided (tetragonal) structure consisting of four microsporangia located at the corners, two in each lobe. Hence,
a mature anther is tetrasporangiate.
● Each microsporangium develops further and becomes the pollen sac.
● The microsporangia (pollen sacs) extend longitudinally all through the length of an anther and are packed with pollen grains.
Fig 1.6: (a) A typical stamen

(b) Three-dimensional cut section of an anther
3.1.2 Structure of Microsporangium

● In a transverse section, a typical microsporangium appears near circular in outline.
● It is generally surrounded by four wall layers: the epidermis, endothecium, middle layers, and the tapetum.
SCAN CODE
Fig 1.7: T.S. of a young anther (left) and an enlarged view of one microsporangium
showing wall layers (right)
● The outer three wall layers perform the function of protection and help in the dehiscence of anther to release the pollen.
● The innermost wall layer is the tapetum. It nourishes the developing pollen grains.
● The two anthers are separated in the anterior region by a deep groove but are attached to each other on the back side by a sterile
parenchymatous tissue called connective tissue. It possesses a vascular strand.
● When the anther is young, a group of compactly arranged homogenous cells called the sporogenous tissue occupies the centre
of each microsporangium.
Anther Wall Layers

Wall layer Description Ploidy
Epidermis ● It is the outermost layer Diploid

● It is a single layer whose function is to protect the pollen sacs.
Endothecium ● It is present inner to the epidermis. Diploid

● Cells of this layer have α-cellulosic fibrous bands arising from
the inner tangential wall which help in the dehiscence of anther
due to their hygroscopic nature.
SCAN CODE
Middle Layer ● It is present inner to the endothecium. Diploid

● Cells of this layer are ephemeral (short-lived) and are
1-3 layered.
● It degenerates at maturity.
Tapetum ● It is the innermost layer of the anther wall that surrounds the Polyploid
sporogenous tissue.
● Tapetal cells nourish the developing pollen grains.
● Cells of the tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and generally have
more than one nucleus.
● The tapetal cells show an increase in their DNA content.
FUN FACT
● Tapetal cells are very large, comprising many nuclei.

● They help the pollen grains grow and develop.
● Tapetal cells undergo endomitosis where the nucleus in the nuclear membrane divides, but cytokinesis does not occur.
● Therefore they are bi/poly nucleate or polyploid.
● As tapetum has to synthesize many enzymes, more DNA is needed. This induces tapetum having polyploidy or
multiple nuclei.
3.1.3 Microsporogenesis
● As the anther develops, the cells of the sporogenous tissue undergo meiotic divisions to form microspore tetrads.
● Each cell is known as a potential mother cell or microsporocyte.
● The process of formation of microspores from a pollen mother cell or microsporocyte through meiosis is
called microsporogenesis.
Fig 1.8: Microsporogenesis
● Usually, the arrangement of microspores is tetrahedral.

● A callose (β-1,3 glucan) wall surrounds the microsporocytes while meiosis occurs.
● After the completion of meiosis, the callose wall is broken down by callase enzyme activity that is secreted by tapetum releasing
free microspores into the pollen sac.
● As the anthers mature and dehydrate, the microspores dissociate from each other and develop into pollen grains.
● Inside each microsporangium, several thousands of microspores or pollen grains are formed that are released with the dehiscence
of the anther.
SCAN CODE
Fig 1.9: Dissociation of microscopes from each other and maturation into pollen grains
FUN FACT
Callose
● Because of its structure, callose provides an isolation barrier sealing off one meiotic cell (pollen mother cell) from another.
This prevents cohesion and fusion of the products of meiosis.
● It also acts as a molecular filter isolating the developing microspores from the influence of the surrounding diploid tissue or
sister spores and transmits only signals that are indispensable for meiosis into the meiocytes.
● Callose accumulates in the walls of incompatible pollen grains and tubes, and in certain cases, in papillae of stigma
following rejection.
3.1.4 Dehiscence of Anther:

● The anther needs to mature before the dehiscence can take place.
● Maturation and dehiscence of anther take place through the following steps:
Fig 1.10: Maturation of anther
SCAN CODE
Fig 1.11: Dehiscence of anther
Fig 1.12: A mature dehisced anther with only two pollen sacs
3.1.5 Structure of a Pollen Grain

● The pollen grains represent the male gametophytes.
● A variety of architecture (sizes, shapes, colours, designs) are seen on the pollen grains from different species.
● Pollen grains are generally spherical, measuring about 25-50 micrometers in diameter.
Fig 1.13: Variety of architecture seen on pollen grains Fig 1.14: Diameter of pollen grains
from different species
● Pollen grain has a prominent two-layered wall known as sporoderm.

● The two layers are known as exine and intine.
SCAN CODE
Exine
● Exine is the hard, rough outer layer.
● It is made up of sporopollenin which is one of the most resistant organic materials known.
● No enzyme that degrades sporopollenin is so far known.
● Pollen grains are well-preserved as fossils because of the presence of sporopollenin.
● Pollen grain exine has prominent apertures called germ pores where sporopollenin is absent. Pollen tube germination occurs
through germ pores.
● It exhibits a fascinating array of patterns and designs.
● Exine can withstand high temperatures and strong acids and alkali.
Intine
● The inner wall of the pollen grain is called the intine.
● It is a thin, smooth, and continuous layer made up of cellulose and pectin.
● The cytoplasm of the pollen grain is surrounded by a plasma membrane.
Fig 1.15: Structure of a pollen grain
DID YOU KNOW?
Sporopollenin
● Studies have shown that sporopollenin is a complex biopolymer, mainly composed of long-chain fatty acids, phenolics,
phenylpropanoids, along with traces of carotenoids in a random copolymer.
● It is extraordinarily stable and has been found chemically intact in sedimentary rocks some 500 million years old.
● Tapetum secretes the precursors of sporopollenin which in turn forms sporopollenin.
3.1.6 Pre-Pollination Development

● When the pollen grain is mature it contains two cells: A vegetative cell and a generative cell.
● Vegetative cell (Non-reproductive cell): It is bigger in size, has abundant food reserves, and a large irregularly shaped nucleus.
It is vacuolated and haploid.
● Generative cell (Reproductive cell): The generative cell is small and floats in the cytoplasm of the vegetative cell. It is spindle-
shaped with dense cytoplasm and a nucleus. It is haploid.
● In over 60 percent of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at this 2-celled stage.
SCAN CODE
Fig 1.16: Stages of a microspore maturing into a two-celled pollen grain
● In the remaining species, the generative cell divides mitotically to give rise to the two male gametes before pollen grains are
shed (3-celled stage).
Fig 1.17: Stages of a microspore maturing into a three-celled pollen grain
3.1.7 Post-Pollination Development

● Further development of pollen grains (immature male gametophyte) takes place on the stigma of carpel after pollination.
● Pollen absorbs moisture and sugar content from the stigma.
● Due to this, the volume of internal contents of the cytoplasm is increased.
● It exerts pressure on the outer layers.
● Because of this pressure, intine comes out through any one germ pore in the form of a tube-like structure called a pollen tube.
● First of all, the vegetative nucleus enters into the pollen tube and assumes a terminal position.
● The spindle-shaped generative cell now enters into the pollen tube.
● Inside the pollen tube, the generative cell divides mitotically and forms two non-motile male gametes (n).
SCAN CODE
● Thus, the male gametophyte is a three celled structure in which one vegetative cell and two male gametes are present.
● It represents the mature male gametophyte of angiosperms.
Fig 1.18: Pollen germination on stigma
DID YOU KNOW?
Structure Alternative name Ploidy
Microsporophyll Equivalent to the stamen of angiosperms 2n
Microsporangia Pollen sacs It comprises microspore mother cells (2n) which

develop into microspores (n). The microspores
further develop into pollen grains (n).
Male gametophyte Pollen grain n
Immature male 2-celled pollen grain Since both the cells in the 2-celled pollen grain are
gametophyte haploid, the immature male gametophyte is said to
be a haploid (n) structure.
SCAN CODE
FUN FACT
● The hanging drop culture method is a method to study pollen germination.
● It involves suspending the pollen grains in a drop of nutrient medium (on a cover glass) hanging over a shallow depression.
The hanging drop culture is sealed suitably in order to prevent evaporation of the culture medium,
● Pollen of most species will germinate and grow a tube when placed in a nutrient solution of calcium, boron, and an
osmoticant (generally sucrose solution).
● Existence of boron and calcium in the nutrient medium are essential for germination and pollen tube growth.
● Calcium:
● Plays an important role in pollen tube growth and fertilisation.
● Pollen germination requires calcium, and its tube growth in pistil tissue depends on the presence of calcium.
● Plays a role in determining the direction of pollen tube growth.
● Boron:
● In natural conditions, boron is supplied by stigma and style.
● Facilitates sucrose uptake and plays an important role in production of proteins at pollen tube.
3.1.8 Pollen Allergies

● Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies and bronchial afflictions in some people often leading to chronic respiratory
disorders– asthma, bronchitis, etc. This is known as hay fever.
Fig 1.19: Sneezing due to pollen allergy
● Parthenium or carrot grass that came into India as a contaminant with imported wheat, has become ubiquitous in occurrence and
causes pollen allergy.
Fig 1.20: Parthenium causes pollen allergy
● Another example is Amaranthus whose pollen grains are known to be highly allergenic and a potential cause of respiratory
allergic diseases.
SCAN CODE
3.1.9 Pollen Products

● The vegetative cell of the pollen grain is laden with qualitative proteins and nutrients. This makes the pollen grains
rich in nutrients.
● It has become a fashion in recent years to use pollen tablets as food supplements.
● In western countries, a large number of pollen products in the form of tablets and syrups are available in the market.
● Pollen consumption has been claimed to increase the performance of athletes and racehorses.
Fig 1.21: Pollen products
3.1.10 Pollen Viability

● Once they are shed, pollen grains have to land on the stigma before they lose viability if they have to bring about fertilisation.
● The period for which pollen grains remain viable is highly variable and to some extent depends on the prevailing temperature
and humidity.
3.1.11 Pollen Banks

● It is possible to store pollen grains of a large number of species for years in liquid nitrogen (-196℃). This is
known as cryopreservation.
● Such stored pollen can be used as pollen banks, similar to seed banks, in crop breeding programmes.
SCAN CODE
Fig 1.22: Cryopreservation of pollen grains
4. The Female Gametophyte

● Female gametophyte is a structure that bears the female gamete.
● The female gametophyte occurs in the megasporangium.
● The megasporangia are present in the ovary.
● The ovary is a part of the pistil or carpel which represents the female reproductive organ of the flower.
4.1 Carpel: Female Reproductive Organ
Fig 1.23: Carpel: Female reproductive organ of the flower
● The gynoecium represents the female reproductive structure of the flower and is made up of one or more pistils.
SCAN CODE
Fig 1.24: Gynoecium of Michelia Fig 1.25: Gynoecium of Papaver & Hibiscus
● Each pistil has three parts, the stigma, style, and ovary.
Fig 1.26: Structure of a carpel
SCAN CODE
Fig 1.27: Location of ovules
● The number of ovules in an ovary may be one (wheat, paddy, mango) to many (papaya, watermelon, orchids).
● The ovules in the ovary further turn into seeds after fertilisation and maturation.
● So, the number of ovules in an ovary = number of seeds in that fruit.
4.1.1 The Megasporangium (Ovule)

Parts of an Unfertilised Megasporangium/Ovule
Type of Cell Description Ploidy
Funicle ● The stalk of the ovule by which it remains attached to the 2n

placenta.
● Vascular bundles pass through it for conduction.
Hilum ● It is the junction between the ovule and funicle or the point 2n
of attachment of the funicle to the body of the ovule.
Integument ● The one or more protective envelopes surrounding the body 2n

of the ovule.
Micropyle ● The pore or passage present at the tip of the ovule where the Since micropyle is a pore,
integument is absent. it does not have a ploidy.
● Pollen tube enters the ovule through a micropyle. However, micropylar end
● It facilitates the entry of oxygen and water into the seed
cells have a 2n ploidy.
during germination.
Chalaza ● Opposite to the micropylar end representing the basal part 2n

of the ovule.
Nucellus ● The parenchymatous mass of tissue enclosed within the 2n

integuments, and forms the body of the ovule.
● Cells of the nucellus have abundant reserve food materials.
Embryo sac ● It is also called the female gametophyte and is located in n

the nucellus.
● An ovule generally has a single embryo sac formed from a
megaspore.
SCAN CODE
Fig 1.28: A typical anatropous ovule
4.1.2 Megasporogenesis
● The process of formation of megaspores from the megaspore mother cell is called megasporogenesis.
● Ovules generally differentiate a single megaspore mother cell (MMC) in the micropylar region of the nucellus.
● MMC is a large cell containing dense cytoplasm and a prominent nucleus.
● The MMC undergoes meiotic division.
● Meiosis results in the production of four megaspore
Fig 1.29: Parts of the ovule showing a large megaspore mother cell, a dyad, and a tetrad of megaspores female gametophyte
● In a majority of flowering plants, one of the megaspores is functional while the other three degenerate.
● Only the functional megaspore develops into the female gametophyte (embryo sac).
● This method of embryo sac formation from a single megaspore is termed monosporic development.
Cell Types and their Ploidy
Type of Cell Ploidy
Megaspore Mother Cell 2n
Functional megaspore n
Female gametophyte n
SCAN CODE
4.1.3 Development of Female Gametophyte (Embryo Sac)

● The nucleus of the functional megaspore divides mitotically to form two nuclei which move to the opposite poles, forming the
2-nucleate embryo sac.
● Two more sequential mitotic nuclear divisions result in the formation of the 4-nucleate and later the 8-nucleate stages of the
embryo sac.
● These mitotic divisions are strictly free nuclear, that is, nuclear divisions are not followed immediately by cell wall formation.
● After the 8-nucleate stage, cell walls are laid down leading to the organization of the typical female gametophyte or embryo sac.
● Six of the eight nuclei are surrounded by cell walls and organised into cells; the remaining two nuclei, called polar nuclei, are
situated below the egg apparatus in the large central cell.
Fig 1.30: Development of female gametophyte (embryo sac)
4.1.4 Organization of Embryo Sac

● Embryo sac is an oval multicellular structure that is embedded in the nucellus towards the micropylar half of the ovule.
Fig 1.31: Location of embryo sac
● There is a characteristic distribution of the cells within the embryo sac.

● Three cells are grouped together at the micropylar end and constitute the egg apparatus.
● The egg apparatus, in turn, consists of two synergids and one egg cell.
● The synergids have special cellular thickenings at the micropylar tip called filiform apparatus, which play an important role in
guiding the pollen tubes into the synergid.
● Three cells are at the chalazal end and are called the antipodals.
SCAN CODE
● The large central cell has two polar nuclei. It is the largest and the only diploid cell of the embryo sac
● Thus, a typical angiosperm embryo sac, at maturity, though 8-nucleate is 7-celled.
Fig 1.32: Organization of a mature embryo sac
Organization of Embryo Sac
Type of cell Description Ploidy
Egg ● It shows cytoplasmic polarity opposite to synergid. n

● Its wall is thicker at the micropylar end.
● Usually, the egg has a micropylar vacuole and a chalazal nucleus.
● Plasmodesmatal connection is present between egg and synergids.
Synergids ● They possess a micropylar nucleus and a chalazal vacuole. n

● They lack a cell wall on their chalazal side at maturity.
● They are characterized by the presence of a filiform apparatus at the
micropylar tip. It is in the form of finger-like projections, each
projection comprising a core of microfibrils enclosed in a sheath.
● Usually, one synergid starts to degenerate just with pollination.
● They perhaps secrete some chemotropic substance and thus direct the
pollen tube growth inside the embryo sac.
Central Cell ● It is the largest cell of the embryo sac. 2n

● It contains two polar nuclei which fuse just before fertilisation to form
a secondary nucleus or definitive nucleus (2n).
Antipodals ● These are the vegetative cells of the embryo sac. n

● In most plants, there are three antipodal cells.
SCAN CODE
DID YOU KNOW?
Structure Alternative name Ploidy
Megasporophyll Equivalent to the carpel of the angiosperms 2n
Unfertilised megasporangium Ovule 2n
Fertilised megasporangium Seed 2n
Female gametophyte Embryo sac n
5. Pollination
● As the male gametes in angiosperms are non-motile, they require a carrier to get transferred. Pollen grains are carriers
of male gametes.
● The transfer of pollen grains (shed from the anther) to the stigma of a pistil is termed pollination.
Fig 1.33: Pollination
● Flowering plants have evolved an amazing array of adaptations to achieve pollination. They make use of external agents to
achieve pollination.
5.1 Types of Pollination

● Based on the genetic similarity and the location of the anther and the stigma involved in the transfer of pollen grains,
pollination can broadly be of two types:
SCAN CODE
Fig 1.34: Types of pollination
5.1.1 Self Pollination

It is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther of a flower to the stigma of either the same or genetically similar flower. It is of
two types:
Autogamy:
● In this type, pollination is achieved within the same flower.
● Transfer of pollen grains takes from the anther to the stigma of the same flower.
SCAN CODE
Fig 2.35: Autogamy in Pea
Fig 1.36: Pea flower
● In a normal flower that opens and exposes the anthers and the stigma, complete autogamy is rather rare.
SCAN CODE
Geitonogamy:
● It is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant.
● Although geitonogamy is functionally cross-pollination involving a pollinating agent, genetically it is similar to autogamy since
the pollen grains come from the same plant.
Fig 1.37: Geitonogamy
5.1.1.1 Advantages of Self-Pollination

● It maintains the parental characters or purity of the race indefinitely.
● It is used to maintain pure lines for hybridisation experiments.
● The plant does not need to produce a large number of pollen grains.
● Flowers do not develop devices for attracting insect pollinators.
● It ensures seed production.
5.1.1.2 Disadvantages of Self-Pollination

● New useful characters are seldom introduced.
● Vigour and vitality of the race decrease with prolonged self-pollination.
● Immunity to disease decreases.
● Variability and hence adaptability to change environments is reduced.
SCAN CODE
DID YOU KNOW?
Some plants such as Viola (common pansy), Oxalis,

and Commelina produce two types of flower:
Chasmogamous/Closed flowers
Chasmogamous/Open flowers
They do not open at all. In such flowers, the
They have exposed anthers and stigma.
anthers and stigma lie close to each other.
Fig 2.38: Chasmogamous flower of Commelina Fig 2.39: Cleistogamous flower of Commelina
Fig 1.40: Commelina
5.1.1.3 Contrivances (Devices) to Ensure Self-Pollination

Homogamy
Flowers are bisexual and both sexes mature at the same time.
Cleistogamous flowers
● In some cases, flowers are bisexual and cleistogamous, i.e., remain closed.
● Pollination occurs in the bud condition before the opening (anthesis) of a flower.
SCAN CODE
● Thus, cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous as there is no chance of cross-pollen landing on the stigma.
● They produce an assured seed-set even in the absence of pollinators.
5.1.2 Cross-Pollination (Xenogamy):

● Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of a flower of a different plant.
● This is the only type of pollination which during pollination brings genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma.
Fig 1.41: Cross-pollination in Gazania
5.1.2.1 Agents of Pollination

● Plants use two abiotic (wind and water) and one biotic (animals) agent to achieve pollination.
● Majority of plants use biotic agents for pollination.
● Pollen grains coming in contact with the stigma is a chance factor in both wind and water pollination.
● To compensate for these uncertainties and associated loss of pollen grains, the flowers produce enormous amounts of pollen
when compared to the number of ovules available for pollination.
SCAN CODE
5.1.2.1.1 Abiotic agents

Wind Pollination or Anemophily
● It refers to the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma which is accomplished through the agency of wind.
● For example, coconut palm, date palm, maize, grasses.
Characteristics of Anemophilous flowers

● Pollination by wind is more common amongst abiotic pollinations.
● The pollen grains are light, small, dry, unwettable, dusty, and non-sticky so that they can be transported in wind currents.
● Pollen grains are produced in large numbers to make sure that at least some pollen grains reach the stigmas of other flowers and
successful pollination takes place.
● The flowers are small and inconspicuous.
● Flowers are produced above the foliage, before the appearance of new foliage or placed in a hanging position.
● In the case of unisexual flowers, the male flowers are more abundant. In bisexual flowers, the stamens are generally numerous.
● They often possess well-exposed stamens so that the pollen is easily dispersed into wind currents.
● They have a large feathery stigma to easily trap airborne pollen grains.
● Non-essential whorls like calyx and corolla are either absent or reduced.
● The flowers are colourless, odourless, and nectarless.
● T-shaped versatile anthers are present in which the anther freely pivots (“teeter-totters”) at the point of attachment with the
filament. Example: wheat.
Fig 1.42: Versatile anthers
● The flowers often have a single ovule in each ovary.

● Numerous flowers are packed into an inflorescence. Example: corn cob – the tassels represent the stigma and style which wave
in the wind to trap pollen grains.
● Wind pollination is quite common in grasses.
● Disadvantages:
● Anemophily is highly wasteful as it is non-directional.
● The large number of pollen grains cause bronchial allergy or depression in many human beings. The phenomenon is also
called hay fever.
SCAN CODE
Fig 1.43: Maize Fig 1.44: A wind-pollinated plant; Plantago major showing compact inflorescence
and well-exposed stamens
Water Pollination or Hydrophily

● It is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower which is accomplished through the
agency of water.
● It is quite rare in flowering plants and is limited to about 30 genera, mostly monocotyledons.
● Not all aquatic plants use water for pollination. In a majority of aquatic plants such as water hyacinth, lotus, and water lily, the
flowers emerge above the level of water and are pollinated by insects or wind as in most of the land plants.
Fig 1.45: Water hyacinth Fig 1.46: Lotus Fig 1.47: Water lily
● On the other hand, water is a regular mode of transport for the male gametes among the lower plant groups such as algae,
bryophytes, and pteridophytes.
● It is believed, particularly for some bryophytes and pteridophytes, that their distribution is limited because of the need for water
for the transport of male gametes and fertilisation.
● Hydrophily is of two types depending upon the location of water pollination:
Epihydrophily Hypohydrophily
It occurs over the surface of the water. It occurs below the surface of the water.
It can be seen in plants that live above the water It can be seen in plants that grow beneath the
surface. water.
Ribbon-like leaves are present in plants. Long, ribbon-like pollen grains are present.
Flowers are dioecious. Flowers are monoecious.
SCAN CODE
Exine is present in pollen. Exine is absent in pollen.
The specific gravity of pollen is equal to that of Pollen grains remain submerged in water.
water. Hence, pollen grains float on the water surface.
Example: Vallisneria/Tapegrass/Eelgrass/ribbon Example: Zostera (seagrass), Ceratophyllum,

weed Najas
Characteristics of Hydrophilous Flowers:

● Flowers are small and inconspicuous.
● Non-essential whorls like calyx and corolla are reduced, unwettable, and covered with a waxy coating.
● Nectar and odour are absent.
● Pollen grains are light and unwettable due to the presence of a mucilaginous covering.
Fig 1.48: The mucilaginous covering on pollen
● Stigma is long, sticky, and unwettable.

● Some examples of water pollinated plants are Vallisneria and Hydrilla which grow in fresh water and several marine seagrasses
such as Zostera.
Fig 1.49: Vallisneria Fig 1.50: Zostera
Fig 1.51: Hydrilla
SCAN CODE
● In Vallisneria, the female flower reaches the surface of the water by the long stalk and the male flowers or pollen grains are
released onto the surface of the water.
● They are carried passively by water currents; some of them eventually reach the female flowers and the stigma.
Fig 1.52: Pollination by water in Vallisneria
● In another group of water pollinated plants such as seagrasses, female flowers remain submerged in water and the pollen grains
are released inside the water.
● Pollen grains in many such species are long, ribbon-like and they are carried passively inside the water; some of them reach the
stigma and achieve pollination.
DID YOU KNOW?
Colourful and fragrant flowers that produce nectar are features of insect-
pollinated flowers. Insects are attracted to colourful, fragrant flowers and
receive nectar from these flowers. Wind and water-pollinated flowers are
not dependent on insects for pollination; hence they do not need such
features. Therefore, both wind and water pollinated flowers are not very
colourful and do not produce nectar.
5.1.2.1.2 Biotic Agents

● Majority of flowering plants use a range of animals as pollinating agents.
● Bees, butterflies, flies, beetles, wasps, ants, moths, birds (sunbirds and hummingbirds), and bats are the common
pollinating agents.
● Among the animals, insects, particularly bees are the dominant biotic pollinating agents.
SCAN CODE
Fig 1.53: Entomophily (Pollination by insect) Fig 1.54: Ornithophily (Pollination by bird)
Fig 1.55: Chiropterophily (Pollination by bat)
Features of Entomophily, Ornithophily, and Chiropterophily
Features Entomophily Ornithophily Chiropterophily
Pollinating Agent Insects Birds Bats
Flower
● Nectar Present Present Present
● Odour Present Absent Present
● Colour Bright Bright Dull
● Flower Size Large Large Large
● Non-essential Prominent Prominent, Prominent

parts (K, C) funnel-shaped corolla
Pollen Sticky Sticky Sticky
Stigma Sticky Sticky Sticky
● Even larger animals such as some primates (lemurs), arboreal (tree-dwelling) rodents, or even reptiles (gecko lizards and garden
lizards) have also been reported as pollinators in some species.
SCAN CODE
Fig 1.56: Garden lizard Fig 1.57: Gecko lizard
Fig 1.58: Lemur Fig 1.59: Arboreal rodent
● Often flowers of animal-pollinated plants are specifically adapted for a particular species of animal.
Other Biotic Agents of Pollination

Name of the agent Term used Examples
Birds Ornithophily Bombax, Callistemon
Bats Chiropterophily Anthocephalus, Adansonia
Snails Malacophily Arum lilies, Arisaema (Snake or Cobra Plant)
Snakes Ophiophily Santalum, Michelia
Lizards Zoophily Flax
Lemur Zoophily Ravenala
Beetles Entomophily (Cantharophily) Amorphophallus
Insect Pollination or Entomophily

● It is the most common type of pollination in which pollen grains are transferred through the agency of insects like moths,
butterflies, bees, beetles.
● Examples of insect-pollinated flowers: Yucca, Salvia, Ficus, Aristolochia, Calotropis, etc.
Characteristics of Insect-Pollinated Flowers

● Majority of insect-pollinated flowers are large, colourful, fragrant, rich in nectar, and have a landing platform for insects.
● When the flowers are small, a number of flowers are clustered into an inflorescence to make them conspicuous.
● Animals are attracted to flowers by colour and/or fragrance.
● The flowers pollinated by flies and beetles secrete foul odours to attract these animals.
● To sustain animal visits, the flowers have to provide rewards to the animals. These are known as floral rewards.
SCAN CODE
● Floral Rewards Include:

● Nectar
● Edible Pollen grains: Some plants produce edible pollen grains which can be consumed by bees as they have high
nutritional value. Example: Rosa, Magnolia, Clematis, Papaver.
● Safe places to lay eggs: Example:
● The tallest flower of Amorphophallus (the flower itself is about 6 feet in height).
Fig 1.60: Amorphophallus
● A similar relationship exists between the Pronuba moth and the plant Yucca where both species – moth and the plant –
cannot complete their life cycles without each other. The moth deposits its eggs in the locule of the ovary and the flower,
in turn, gets pollinated by the moth. The larvae of the moth come out of the eggs as the seeds start developing.
Fig 1.61: Pronuba moth in Yucca flower
● Shelter: Example: Ants and Acacia. Acacia has hollow, swollen thorns to house the ants, and nectaries and nutrient-rich
leaflet tips called Beltian bodies to feed the ant colony. The ants pay the tree "rent" by attacking leaf-eating insects and
herbivores, but steer clear of bees and other insects that pollinate the acacia's flowers due to a chemical repellent produced
by the young, unpollinated flowers. This allows the tree to reproduce, which in turn keeps alive the symbiotic relationship.
SCAN CODE
Fig 1.62: Ant-Acacia mutualism

● For harvesting the reward(s) from the flower the animal visitor comes in contact with the anthers and the stigma.
● The body of the animal gets a coating of pollen grains, which are generally sticky in animal pollinated flowers.
● When the animal carrying pollen on its body comes in contact with the stigma, it brings about pollination.
Fig 1.63: Animals coated with pollen grains

FUN FACT
● Pollenkitt is a sticky, yellowish, viscous, and oily covering that is found on the exine of pollen grains in insect pollinated
flowers. It is secreted by tapetum and is made up of lipids and carotenoids. It helps the pollen grains stick on the body of
the insects.
● Pollen baskets: The pollen basket or corbicula is part of the tibia on the hind legs of certain species of bees. They use this
structure in pollen harvesting and carrying it to the nest or hive.
Fig 1.64: Pollen basket
SCAN CODE
Coevolution of Flower and its Pollinator Species

● Coevolution is the evolution of two species that interact extensively with one another so that each acts as a major force of natural
selection on the other.
● Example:
● Coevolution of the Orchid Ophrys and its Specialized Pollinating Agent Colpa
● One petal of the Ophrys flower bears an uncanny resemblance to the female of the wasp (in size, colour, and markings)
causing the male Colpa to copulate with it. This phenomenon is known as pseudocopulation.
● The insect repeats the act with a number of orchid flowers and carries pollinia from one flower to another thereby affecting
pollination in the orchid.
● If the female wasp’s colour patterns change even slightly for any reason during evolution, the success rate of pollination
will be reduced unless the orchid flower co-evolves to maintain the resemblance of its petal to the female wasp.
Fig 1.65: Coevolution of Ophrys and Colpa
● Another example is of Pronuba moth and Yucca.
FUN FACT
Pollen Robbers: Many insects may consume pollen or the nectar without bringing about pollination. Such floral visitors are
referred to as pollen/nectar robbers. Example: Queens of Bombus affinis perforate Aquilegia spurs and steal nectar.
Features of Insect, Wind, and Water Pollination
Organs/Parts of a Insect pollination: Wind pollination: Water pollination: Features

Flower Features Features
FLOWER
● Size Large Small, inconspicuous Small, inconspicuous
● Color
Bright Dull Dull
● Odour
Scented Not scented Not scented
● Nectar
Produce a lot of nectar Do not produce nectar Do not produce nectar
● Non-essential
parts (K, C) Prominent Absent, reduced Absent, reduced
SCAN CODE
POLLEN
● Number Fewer Large numbers Large numbers
● Size Large Small Long, ribbon-like
● Weight Heavy Light Light
● Type Sticky or spiny Unwettable Unwettable
Non-sticky Have a mucilaginous covering
STIGMA
● Stickiness Sticky Feathery, well-exposed Sticky
● Size/Length Small Large Long, unwettable
● Position Situated deep inside the Hang out of the flowers Flowers reach the surface of the
petals water or remain submerged
5.1.2.2 Advantages of Cross-Pollination

● It increases the adaptability of offspring towards changes in the environment.
● Plants produced through cross-pollination are more resistant to diseases.
● The seeds produced are usually larger and offsprings have better characters than parents due to hybrid vigour.
● New and more useful varieties can be produced.
● The yield of crops can be maintained.
5.1.2.3 Disadvantages of Cross-Pollination

● It is a highly wasteful process as plants have to produce a large number of pollen grains and other accessory structures for
pollinating agencies.
● A factor of chance is always involved in cross-pollination.
● It is less economical.
● Some undesirable characters may creep into the race.
5.1.2.4 Contrivances of Cross-Pollination or Outbreeding Devices

● Majority of flowering plants produce hermaphrodite flowers and pollen grains are likely to come in contact with the stigma of
the same flower.
Fig 1.66: Hermaphrodite flower
SCAN CODE
● Continued self-pollination results in inbreeding depression which refers to the reduced survival and fertility of offspring
produced as a result of mating between individuals that are closely related genetically.
● Flowering plants have developed many devices to discourage self-pollination and to encourage cross-pollination.
Outbreeding Devices
Dichogamy:
● In some species, pollen release and stigma receptivity are not synchronized. It is of two types:
● Protandry: The pollen is released before the stigma becomes receptive. Example: Sunflower, cotton.
● Protogyny: Stigma becomes receptive much before the release of pollen. Example: Ficus, Aristolochia.
● This device prevents autogamy.
Protandry Protogyny
Fig 1.67: Dichogamy
Heterostyly:
● In some species, the anther and stigma are placed at different positions so that the pollen cannot come in contact with the stigma
of the same flower.
● This device prevents autogamy.
● E.g., Primula vulgaris (primrose), jasmine.
SCAN CODE
Fig 1.68: Heterostyly
Self-Incompatibility:
● The third device to prevent inbreeding is self-incompatibility.
● This is a genetic mechanism and prevents self-pollen (from the same flower or other flowers of the same plant) from fertilising
the ovules by inhibiting pollen germination or growth of the pollen tube in the pistil.
● Example: Solanaceae family.
Fig 1.69: Self-incompatibility
FUN FACT
Tapetum secretes compatibility proteins. These compatibility proteins on the surface of pollen help them to establish pollen
pistil interaction (the decision of being compatible or incompatible is aided by these proteins).
Dicliny
 Another device to prevent self-pollination is the production of unisexual flowers. It is of two types:
 Monoecy: Both male and female flowers are present on the same plant. It prevents autogamy but not geitonogamy.
Example: Castor, maize.
SCAN CODE
Fig 1.70: Maize
● Dioecy: Male and female flowers are present on two separate plants, that is each plant is either male or female. This
condition prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy. Example: Vallisneria, Papaya.
Fig 1.71: Male flower of Papaya Fig 1.72: Female flower of Papaya
Pre-Potency
Pollen grains of another flower germinate more rapidly over the stigma than the pollen grains of the same flower. For example-
apples and grapes.
Herkogamy
● Herkogamy is a condition in which there is a spatial separation between the anthers and the stigma of a hermaphroditic flower.
● The flower structure is such that even being bisexual, the pollen grains fail to reach the stigma.
● In some flowers, a mechanical barrier exists between the compatible pollen and stigma so that self-pollination is not possible.
Sometimes, there is a hood-like covering that covers the stigma.
● Example: Pansy, Kalmia, Cypripedium.
DID YOU KNOW?
1. In Pansy, stigma lies inside a flap while in Kalmia, the anthers occur inside corolla pockets.
2. In Cypripedium, the stigma lies on the root of insect entry while the anther occurs near the exit.
Fig 1.73: Pansy Fig 1.74: Kalmia Fig 1.75: Cypripedium
SCAN CODE
6. Artificial Hybridization
● A breeder is interested in crossing different species and often genera to combine desirable characters to produce commercially
‘superior’ varieties.
● Artificial hybridisation is one of the major approaches of crop improvement programme.
● In such crossing experiments, it is important to make sure that only the desired pollen grains are used for pollination and the
stigma is protected from contamination (from unwanted pollen).
● This is achieved by emasculation and bagging techniques.
Fig 1.76: Steps involved in artificial hybridization
● Emasculation: If the female parent bears bisexual flowers, removal of anthers from the flower bud before the anther
dehiscence/maturity using a pair of forceps is necessary. This step is referred to as emasculation.
● Bagging: Emasculated flowers have to be covered with a bag of suitable size, generally made up of butter paper, to prevent
contamination of its stigma with unwanted pollen. This process is called bagging.
● Pollination: When the stigma of bagged flower attains receptivity, mature pollen grains collected from anthers of the male
parent are dusted on the stigma, and the flowers are re-bagged, and the fruits allowed to develop.
● Rebagging: If the female parent produces unisexual flowers, there is no need for emasculation. The female flower buds are
bagged before the flowers open. When the stigma becomes receptive, pollination is carried out using the desired pollen and the
flower rebagged.
SCAN CODE
DID YOU KNOW?
Mendel used the artificial hybridization approach while performing the genetic crosses on pea plants.
7. Pollen-Pistil Interaction
● Pollination does not guarantee the transfer of the right type of pollen (compatible pollen of the same species as the stigma).
● Often, pollen of the wrong type, either from other species or from the same plant (if it is self-incompatible), also lands on
the stigma.
● The pistil has the ability to recognise the pollen, whether it is of the right type (compatible) or the wrong type (incompatible).
● The ability of the pistil to recognise the pollen followed by its acceptance or rejection is the result of a continuous chemical
dialogue between pollen grain and the pistil.
Fig 1.77: Chemical dialogue between pollen and pistil
Post-Pollination events after the compatible pollination are listed below:

● The pollen grain germinates on the stigma to produce a pollen tube through one of the germ pores.
SCAN CODE
Fig 1.78: Pollen grains germinating on the stigma
● The contents of the pollen grain move into the pollen tube with the tube or vegetative nucleus moving to its tip followed by the
two gametes. Further growth of the pollen tube occurs only towards its tip, a phenomenon known as acropetal growth.
Fig 1.79: Pollen grain contents move into the pollen tube
● The pollen tube grows intracellularly and chemotropically through the tissues of the stigma and style along the concentration
gradient of the calcium-boron-inositol sugar complex and finally reaches the ovary.
Fig 1.80: Pollen tubes growing through the style
SCAN CODE
DID YOU KNOW?
● In some plants, pollen grains are shed at a two-celled condition (a vegetative cell and a generative cell).
Fig 1.81: Two-celled pollen grain
● In such plants, the generative cell divides and forms the two male gametes during the growth of pollen tube in the stigma.
Fig 1.82: Division of generative cell to form two male gametes
● In plants that shed pollen in the three-celled condition, pollen tubes carry the two male gametes from the beginning.
● Pollen tube, after reaching the ovary, enters the ovule through the micropyle and then enters one of the synergids through the
filiform apparatus.
SCAN CODE
Fig 1.83: Pollen tube entering one of the synergids
Entry of Pollen Tube into the Embryo Sac

Many recent studies have shown that the filiform apparatus present at the micropylar part of the synergids guides the entry of the
pollen tube.
(a) (b)
Fig 1.84: (a) Enlarged view of an egg apparatus showing entry of pollen tube into a synergid
(b) Discharge of male gametes into a synergid and the movements of the sperms, one into the egg and the other into the central cell
All these events–from pollen deposition on the stigma until pollen tubes enter the ovule–are together referred to as pollen-pistil
interaction. This interaction is a dynamic process. The knowledge gained in this area would help the plant breeder in manipulating
pollen-pistil interaction, even in incompatible pollinations, to get desired hybrids.
8. Double Fertilisation
● Double fertilisation was discovered by Sergei Nawaschin in Fritillaria and Lilium in the year 1898.
● After entering one of the synergids, the pollen tube releases the two male gametes into the cytoplasm of the synergid.
● One of the male gametes moves towards the egg cell and fuses with its nucleus thus completing the syngamy/amphimixis.
● This results in the formation of a diploid cell, the zygote.
● The other male gamete moves towards the two polar nuclei located in the central cell and fuses with them to produce a triploid
primary endosperm nucleus (PEN).
● As this involves the fusion of three haploid nuclei it is termed triple fusion/trophomixis.
SCAN CODE
Fig 1.85: Syngamy Fig 1.86: Triple Fusion
● Since two types of fusions, syngamy and triple fusion take place in an embryo sac the phenomenon is termed double fertilisation,
an event unique to flowering plants.
● The central cell after triple fusion becomes the primary endosperm cell (PEC) and develops into the endosperm while the zygote
develops into an embryo.
Fig 1.87: Fertilised embryo sac showing zygote and Primary Endosperm Nucleus (PEN)
SCAN CODE
9. Post-Fertilisation Events - Endosperm and Embryo

● Following double fertilisation, events of endosperm and embryo development, maturation of ovule(s) into seed(s), and ovary
into fruit, are collectively termed post-fertilisation events.
9.1 Endosperm
● Endosperm is the name of the food-laden tissue which is meant for nourishing the embryo in seed plants.
● Endosperm development precedes embryo development.
● The primary endosperm cell divides repeatedly and forms a triploid endosperm tissue.
● The cells of this tissue are filled with reserve food materials and are used for the nutrition of the developing embryo.
9.1.1 Types of Endosperm

● Depending upon the mode of the endosperm formation, the angiosperm endosperm is of three types:
Nuclear Endosperm
● In the most common type of endosperm development, the PEN (Primary Endosperm Nucleus) undergoes successive nuclear
divisions to give rise to free nuclei.
● This stage of endosperm development is called free-nuclear endosperm.
● Subsequently, cell wall formation occurs and the endosperm becomes cellular.
● The number of free nuclei formed before cellularization varies greatly.
● Example - maize, wheat, rice, sunflower, coconut.
SCAN CODE
Fig 1.88: Development of Nuclear endosperm
Cellular Endosperm
● Every division of the primary endosperm nucleus is followed by cytokinesis.
● Therefore, the endosperm becomes cellular from the very beginning.
● Example - Coconut, Balsam, Datura, Petunia.
Fig 1.89: Development of Cellular endosperm
Helobial Endosperm
● It occurs in Order Helobiales of monocots.
● The endosperm is of intermediate type between cellular and nuclear types.
● E.g., Asphodelus.
Fig 1.90: Development of Helobial endosperm
FUN FACT
● Coconut has a dual endosperm i.e., both free-nuclear and cellular.
● The coconut water from tender coconut is the free-nuclear endosperm (made up of thousands of nuclei) and the surrounding
white kernel is the cellular endosperm.
Fig 1.91: Free-nuclear endosperm Fig 1.92: Cellular endosperm
SCAN CODE
9.1.2 Fate of Endosperm

● During its growth, the endosperm crushes the nucellus. It is in turn eaten by the growing embryo.
Fig 1.93: Growing embryo
● Regarding the fate of endosperm, there are two possibilities:
Fig 1.94: Maize seed Fig 1.95: Bean seed
9.2 Embryo
● The embryo develops at the micropylar end of the embryo sac where the zygote is situated.
● Most zygotes divide only after a certain amount of endosperm is formed. This is an adaptation to provide assured nutrition to
the developing embryo.
● Though the seeds differ greatly, the early stages of embryo development (embryogeny) are similar in both monocotyledons and
dicotyledons
9.2.1 Embryogeny in Dicots

● The zygote gives rise to the proembryo and subsequently to the globular, heart-shaped, and mature embryo.
● In a typical dicot, the zygote elongates and divides by a transverse wall into two unequal cells.
● The larger basal cell is called the suspensor cell. It has a large central vacuole.
SCAN CODE
● The smaller denser terminal or apical cell towards the antipodal end is termed embryo cell. The suspensor cell divides
transversely a few times to produce a filamentous suspensor of 6-10 cells.
● The suspensor helps in pushing the embryo into the endosperm.
● The first cell of the suspensor towards the micropylar end becomes swollen and functions as haustorium.
● The last cell of the suspensor at the end adjacent to the embryo is known as hypophysis. It later gives rise to the radicle and
root cap.
● The embryo cell undergoes two vertical divisions and one transverse division to form eight cells arranged in two tiers - epibasal
and hypobasal.
● The epibasal eventually forms two cotyledons and hypobasal produces hypocotyl.
● Initially, the embryo is globular and undifferentiated.
● Early embryo with a radial symmetry is called the proembryo.
● It is transformed into the embryo with the development of radicle, plumule, and cotyledons.
● At this time, the embryo becomes heart-shaped.
Fig 1.96: Stages in embryo development in a dicot
Structure of a Typical Dicot Embryo

● After the heart-shaped stage, the embryo assumes the typical shape.
● A typical dicotyledonous embryo consists of an embryonal axis and two cotyledons.
● The portion of the embryonal axis above the level of cotyledons is the epicotyl, which terminates with the plumule or stem tip.
● The cylindrical portion below the level of cotyledons is hypocotyl that terminates at its lower end in the radicle or root tip.
● The root tip is covered with a root cap.
Fig 1.97: Structure of a Dicot Embryo
SCAN CODE
9.2.2 Embryogeny in Monocots

● The zygote elongates and then divides transversely to form basal and terminal cells.
● The basal cell towards the micropylar end forms a large swollen suspensor cell.
● The terminal cell divides to form two cells. The top cells after a series of divisions form plumule and one cotyledon.
● The cotyledon, called the scutellum, grows rapidly and pushes the terminal plumule to one side.
● The middle cell after many divisions forms hypocotyl and radicle.
● In some cereals, both plumule and radicle get covered by sheaths developed from scutellum called coleoptile and coleorhiza.
Fig 1.98: Stages in embryo development in a monocot
Monocot Embryo Structure

● Embryos of monocotyledons possess only one cotyledon.
● In the grass family, the cotyledon is called the scutellum that is situated towards one side (lateral) of the embryonal axis.
● At its lower end, the embryonal axis has the radical and root cap enclosed in an undifferentiated sheath called coleorhiza.
● The portion of the embryonal axis above the level of attachment of the scutellum is the epicotyl.
● Epicotyl has a shoot apex and a few leaf primordia enclosed in a hollow foliar structure, the coleoptile.
Fig 1.99: Monocot Embryo
DID YOU KNOW?
● There is only one egg in an embryo sac.

● Number of embryo sacs present in an ovule is one.
● Number of ovules in an ovary varies from plant to plant.
● Number of ovaries present in a typical flower depends on the number of carpels. For example, monocarpellary gynoecium
has one carpel and one ovary whereas, bicarpellary has two carpels and two ovaries. Multicarpellary possess several carpels
and several ovaries.
SCAN CODE
10. Post-Fertilisation Events - Seed and Fruit

10.1 The Seed
● A fertilised ovule is called a seed.
● In angiosperms, the seed is the final product of sexual reproduction.
● Seeds are formed inside fruits.
● A seed typically consists of seed coat(s), cotyledon(s), and an embryo axis.
Fig 1.100: A seed
● The embryo is made up of an embryonal axis, and one (as in wheat, maize) or two cotyledons (as in gram and pea).
● The cotyledons of the embryo are simple structures, generally thick and swollen dueX to the storage of food reserves (as in
legumes).
Fig 1.101: The embryos of a dicot and a monocot seed
SCAN CODE
● Mature seeds are of two types:
● Occasionally, in some seeds such as black pepper and beet, remnants of nucellus are also persistent. This residual, persistent
nucellus is the perisperm.
Fig 2.102: Perispermic seed
Fig 1.103: Development of a Perispermic seed
● Integuments of ovules harden as tough protective seed coats.

● The micropyle remains as a small pore in the seed coat. This facilitates the entry of oxygen and water into the seed
during germination.
Fig 1.104: Location of Micropyle
● As the seed matures, its water content is reduced and seeds become relatively dry (10-15 percent moisture by mass).
● The general metabolic activity of the embryo slows down.
● The embryo may enter a state of inactivity called dormancy, or if favourable conditions are available (adequate moisture, oxygen,
and suitable temperature), they germinate.
SCAN CODE
Fig 1.105: Structure of some seeds
10.2 The Fruit

● As ovules mature into seeds, the ovary develops into a fruit, i.e., the transformation of ovules into seeds and ovary into fruit
proceeds simultaneously.
● Hence, a ripened ovary is called a fruit.
● The wall of the ovary develops into the wall of fruit called the pericarp.
Fig 1.106: Ovary wall develops into pericarp and ovules turn into seeds
● The pericarp may be dry or fleshy.

● When pericarp is thick and fleshy, it is differentiated into:
Fig 1.107: Structure of a Fruit (Peach)
SCAN CODE
● The fruits may be fleshy as in guava, orange, mango, etc., or may be dry, as in groundnut, mustard, etc.
Fig 1.108: Fleshy fruits Fig 2.109: Dry fruits
● Many fruits have evolved mechanisms for dispersal of seeds.

● In most plants, by the time the fruit develops from the ovary, other floral parts degenerate and fall off.
10.2.1 Types of Fruits
Fruits are of three types:
Grape Apple Banana
Strawberry
Fig 1.110: Types of Fruit
SCAN CODE
Types of Fruits
True Fruit False Fruit Parthenocarpic Fruit
Most fruits develop only from the Fruits that develop from other floral parts Parthenocarpic fruits are those that
ovary and are called true fruits. and thalamus along with the development of develop without the process of
the ovary wall are called false fruits. fertilisation. Parthenocarpy can be
induced through the application of
growth hormones.
The fruit contains seeds. The part of the fruit that develops from the The process produces a sterile fruit that
ovary contains seeds while the part of the lacks seeds.
fruit that develops from the thalamus or
other floral parts does not contain seeds.
Fertilisation is involved. Fertilisation is not involved in the plant Fertilisation is not involved.
parts that are involved in false fruit
formation, like thalamus, peduncle, etc.
However, the ovary does undergo
Fertilisation in general.
It is also known as a Eucarp. It is also known as a Pseudocarp. It is known as a Parthenocarpic fruit.
E.g., Mango, kiwi, grapes, etc. E.g., Apple, strawberry, cashew, etc. E.g., Banana, seedless grapes, etc.
10.3 Significance of Seed and Fruit Formation

Seeds offer several advantages to angiosperms.
SCAN CODE
10.4 Seed Viability

● The period for which the seeds remain alive after dispersal varies greatly.
● In a few species, the seeds lose viability within a few months.
● Seeds of a large number of species live for several years.
● Some seeds can remain alive for hundreds of years.
● There are several records of very old yet viable seeds.
● The oldest is that of a lupine, Lupinus arcticus excavated from Arctic Tundra. The seed germinated and flowered after an
estimated record of 10,000 years of dormancy.
Fig 1.111: Seeds of Lupinus arcticus
● A recent record of 2000 years old viable seed is of the date palm, Phoenix dactylifera discovered during the archeological
excavation at King Herod’s palace near the Dead Sea.
Fig 1.112: Phoenix dactylifera
DID YOU KNOW?
Some plants bear fruits containing a very large number of

seeds. Orchid fruits are one such category and each fruit
contains thousands of tiny seeds. Similar is the case in fruits
of some parasitic species such as Orobanche and Striga.
SCAN CODE
Fig 1.113: Angiosperm Plant Life Cycle
11. Special Modes of Reproduction

11.1 Apomixis
● Seeds are the products of fertilisation of ovules.
● But a few flowering plants such as some species of Asteraceae and grasses, have evolved a special mechanism, to produce seeds
without fertilisation, called apomixis (Apo = “Away from”; mixis is = “Act of mixing”).
● Thus, apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction.
● There are several ways of development of apomictic seeds.
● In some species, the diploid egg cell is formed without reduction division and develops into the embryo without fertilisation.
Fig 1.114: Normal Embryo Sac Fig 1.115: Apomictic Embryo Sac
FUN FACT
During apomixis, some embryos can be formed by nucellus or integuments also. Such embryos are also
known as false embryos.
11.2 Polyembryony
● It was first discovered by Antonie van Leeuwenhoek in 1719 when the seed in Citrus was observed to have two
germinating embryos.
● More often, as in many Citrus and Mango varieties, some of the nucellar cells surrounding the embryo sac start dividing, protrude
into the embryo sac, and develop into the embryos.
● In such species, each ovule contains many embryos. The occurrence of more than one embryo in a seed is referred to as
polyembryony.
SCAN CODE
Fig 1.116: Polyembryony
● The genetic nature of apomictic embryos is similar to the female parent i.e., diploid and they are clones of each other.
11.3 Potential of Apomixis
Because of the importance of apomixis in the hybrid seed industry, active research is going on in many laboratories around the
world to understand the genetics of apomixis and to transfer apomictic genes into hybrid varieties.
SCAN CODE
EXERCISE – 1: Basic Objective Questions

Flower- A Fascinating Organ of Angiosperms (b) (i)  two; (ii) one
1. In angiosperms, the site of sexual reproduction is (c) (i)  two; (ii) two
(a) seed (b) fruit (d) (i)  four; (ii) one

(c) flower (d) bonsai 7. Tapetum is a part of:
2. Male and female reproductive structures of the (a) Male gametophyte
angiosperms are (b) Female gametophyte
(a) carpel and pistil, respectively (c) Ovary wall
(b) pistil and stamen, respectively (d) Anther wall
(c) gynoecium and androecium, respectively 8. The outermost and innermost wall layers of
(d) androecium and gynoecium, respectively microsporangium in an anther are respectively
3. Among the terms listed below, those that of are not (Exemplar)
technically correct names for a floral whorl are (a) endothecium and tapetum
(Exemplar) (b) epidermis and endodermis
(c) epidermis and middle layer
(i) Androecium
(d) epidermis and tapetum
(ii) Carpel
9. The innermost layer of anther is tapetum whose
(iii) Corolla function is
(iv) Sepal (a) dehiscence
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (iii) and (iv) (b) mechanical
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (ii) (c) nutrition
4. In a typical complete, bisexual and hypogynous flower (d) protection
the arrangement of floral whorls on the thalamus from
10. Tapetal cells are characterized by the presence of
the outermost to the innermost is
(a) dense cytoplasm and one nucleus
(Exemplar)
(b) thin cytoplasm and many nuclei
(a) calyx, corolla, androecium and gynoecium
(c) dense cytoplasm and prominent nuclei
(b) calyx, corolla, gynoecium and androecium
(d) none of the above
(c) gynoecium, androecium, corolla and calyx
11. The tapetal nuclei in anthers of many angiosperm
(d) androecium, gynoecium, corolla and calyx
flowers are
(a) mostly aneuploid
The Male Gametophyte (b) mostly polyploid
5. The typical angiosperm stamen has two parts: the long (c) mostly haploid
and slender stalk called the …a…, and the terminal (d) not having complete haploid genome
generally bilobed structure called the …b….
12. Fibrous thickenings of hygroscopic nature are found
(a) a-pedicel, b-anther in which part of the anther wall?
(b) a-petiole, b-microsporangia (a) Epidermis
(c) a-peduncle, b-pollen sac (b) Endothecium
(d) a-filament, b-anther
(c) Middle layers
6. A dithecous anther consists of (i) microsporangia, (d) Tapetum
(ii) in each lobe.
(a) (i) four: (ii) two
13. Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching. (b) sporophyte from gametophyte
(c) sporophyte from sporophyte
(d) gametophyte from gametophyte
18. During microsporogenesis, meiosis occurs in
(Exemplar)
(a) endothecium
(b) microspore mother cells
(c) microspore tetrads
(d) pollen grains
19. Pollen grain is related to embryo sac as
(a) a-anther, b-filament, c-pollen sac, d-pollen grains, (a) Sperm is to the female gametophyte
e-line of dehiscence
(b) Sperm is to egg
(b) a-filament, b-anther, c-pollen sacs, d-pollen grains,
(c) Male gametophyte is to the egg
e-line of dehiscence
(d) Male gametophyte is to the embryo sac
(c) a-anther, b-filament, c-pollen grains, d-pollen
sacs, e-line of dehiscence 20. In angiosperms, pollen grain is best defined as
(d) a-filament, b-anther, c-pollen grains, d-line of (a) partially developed/immature male gametophyte
dehiscence, e-pollen sacs (b) spore mother cell
14. The given diagram shows microsporangium of a (c) male gamete
mature anther. Identify A, B and C. (d) partially developed male sporangium
21. One of the most resistant known biological materials
is
(a) lignin
(b) hemicellulose
(c) sporopollenin
(d) lignocellulose
22. The intine of a pollen grain is mainly made up of
(a) cellulose and pectin (b) lipid and pectin
(c) pectin and lignin (d) lignin and cutin
(a) A-Middle layer, B-Endothecium, C-Tapetum 23. Germ pore is the region where the exine is
(b) A-Endothecium, B-Tapetum, C-Middle layer (a) thin (b) uniform
(c) A-Endothecium, B-Middle layer, C-Tapetum (c) thick and uniform (d) absent
(d) A-Tapetum, B-Middle layer, C-Endothecium 24. What is the function of germ pore?
15. A T.S. of dithecous anther shows (a) Emergence of radicle
(a) endothecium inner to middle layers (b) Absorption of water for germination
(b) tapetum just below endothecium (c) Initiation of pollen tube
(c) middle layers between endothecium and tapetum (d) Release of male gametes
(d) tapetum below epidermis 25. Pollen tube protrudes out of
16. Formation and differentiation of pollen grains in (a) Micropyle (b) Carpophore
anther is called
(c) Germ pore (d) Gynophore
(a) megasporogenesis (b) microsporogenesis
26. In dicots, exine is absent at how many places in the
(c) spermiogenesis (d) double fertilization pollen grain?
17. Meiosis occurs during the formation of (a) 2 (b) 3
(a) gametophyte from sporophyte (c) 1 (d) more than 3
27. Male gametophyte in angiosperms produces: 34. Assertion: In a microsporangium, the tapetal cells
(a) Single sperm and a vegetative cell possess little cytoplasm and generally have a single
prominent nucleus.
(b) Single sperm and two vegetative cells
Reason: During microsporogenesis, the microspore
(c) Three sperms
mother cells (MMCs) undergo mitotic divisions to
(d) Two sperms and a vegetative cell produce haploid microspore tetrads.
28. _______________ cell of the pollen grain divides to (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
form two male gametes. the correct explanation of assertion.
(a) Vegetative cell (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
(b) Generative cell not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Microspore mother cell (c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) None of these (d) If both assertion and reason are false.
29. Pollen grain in angiosperms is released at which stage 35. Assertion: Exine of a pollen grain is made up of
(a) 1-celled sporopollenin which is resistant to high temperatures,
(b) 2-celled strong acids, or alkali as well as enzymatic
degradation.
(c) 3-celled
Reason: Sporopollenin is absent in the region of
(d) 2 or 3-celled
germ pores.
30. In a fully developed male gametophyte the number of
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
nuclei is
the correct explanation of assertion.
(a) one (b) five
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
(c) three (d) four not the correct explanation of assertion.
31. Larger nucleus in a pollen grain is (c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(a) tube nucleus (d) If both assertion and reason are false.
(b) sperm nucleus
(c) generative nucleus
The Female Gametophyte
(d) none of these
36. In angiosperms, an ovule represents
32. Number of gametes produced by a male gametophyte
(a) megasporophyll
of flowering plant are
(b) megasporangium
(a) Four (b) One
(c) a megaspore
(c) Three (d) Two
(d) a megaspore mother cell
33. Assertion: A typical microsporangium of
angiosperms is generally surrounded by four wall 37. The tissue which attaches the ovules to the ovary is
layers- epidermis, endothecium, middle layers and (a) Placenta
tapetum. (b) Chalaza
Reason: The outer three wall layers perform the (c) Funicle
function of protection and help in dehiscence of anther
(d) Hilum
to release the pollen.
38. The region where body of the ovule fuses with funicle
is called _______.
(a) Raphe
not the correct explanation of assertion. (b) Hilum
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false. (c) Tigellum
(d) If both assertion and reason are false. (d) Caruncle

39. The following figure shows the A B C D
(a) Chalaza Female Embryo Micropyle

sac
(b) Chalaza Nucellus Embryo Micropyle

sac
(c) Micropyle Egg Embryo Chalaza

sac
(d) Micropyle Nucellus Embryo Chalaza

sac
42. Starting from the innermost part, the correction

(a) Multicarpellary, syncarpous pistil of Papaver sequence parts in an ovule are (Exemplar)
(b) Multicarpellary, apocarpous gynoecium of (a) egg, nucellus, embryo sac, integument
Michelia (b) egg, embryo sac, nucellus, integument
(c) Pentacarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium of the (c) embryo sac, nucellus, integument, egg
Michelia
(d) egg, integument, embryo sac, nucellus
(d) Multicarpellary, apocarpous gynoecium of the
43. The process of formation of megaspores from the
Papaver
megaspore mother cell is called
40. A typical angiospermous ovule is attached to the
(a) Microgametogenesis
placenta by means of a stalk called X. Body of the
ovule fuses with X in the region called Y. Identify X (b) Microsporogenesis
and Y. (c) Megagametogenesis
X Y (d) Megasporogenesis
44. In angiosperms, the functional megaspore of a linear
(a) Funicle Hilum tetrad is the
(a) first nearest to the micropyle
(b) Hilum Funicle
(b) second from micropyle
(c) third from micropyle
(c) Funicle Micropyle
(d) fourth from micropyle
(d) Hilum Chalaza 45. In angiosperms, functional megaspore develops into
(a) Embryo sac (b) Ovule
41. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D in the given
figure and select the correct option. (c) Endosperm (d) Pollen sac
46. In a flower, if the megaspore mother cell forms
megaspores without undergoing meiosis and if one of
the megaspores develops into an embryo sac, its
nuclei would be (Exemplar)
(a) haploid
(b) diploid
(c) a few haploid and a few diploid
(d) with varying ploidy
47. The sequence of development of embryo sac is 55. Which of the following is haploid?
(a) Archesporium  Megaspore egasporophyte (a) Style
 Embryo sac (b) Ovary
(b) Archesporium Megaspore Megaspore (c) Synergids
mother cell Embryo sac (d) Primary endosperm nucleus
(c) Archesporium Megaspore mother cell 56. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D in the given
Megaspore Embryo sac figure and select the correct option.
(d) None of the above
48. Embryo sac is (or represents)
(a) Megaspore mother cell
(b) Megagametophyte
(c) Megasporophyte
(d) Megasporangium
49. The female gametophyte of a typical dicot at the time
of fertilization is
(a) 8-celled (b) 7-celled
(c) 6-celled (d) 5-celled
50. Arrangement of nuclei in normal dicot embryo sac is A B C D
(a) 3 + 3 + 2 (b) 2 + 3 + 3 (a) Synergids Antipodals Egg Filiform
apparatus
(c) 3 + 2 + 3 (d) 2 + 4 + 2.
(b) Antipodals Egg Synergids Filiform
51. The filiform apparatus is present in apparatus
(a) synergids (b) egg cell (c) Antipodals Synergids Filiform Egg
(c) antipodals (d) secondary nucleus apparatus
52. The large central cell has (d) Polar Antipodals Filiform Egg
nuclei apparatus
(a) two polar nuclei (b) three polar nuclei
57. Select the correct option regarding the ploidy level of
(c) four polar nuclei (d) none of the above
different structures of an angiospermous ovule.
53. Three cells are at the chalazal end and are called the
_______. Nucellus MMC Functional megaspore
(a) egg cell
(a) n 2n 2n
(b) antipodal cells
(c) functional megaspore mother cells (b) 2n n n
54. From the statements given below choose the option (c) 2n 2n n
that are true for a typical female gametophyte of
flowers plant (Exemplar) (d) n 2n n
(i) It is 8-nucleate and 7-celled at maturity.
58. Pollen tube, after reaching the ovary, enters the ovule
(ii) It is free-nuclear during the development. through the micropyle and then enters
(iii) It is situated inside the integument but outside the (a) one of the synergids through the filiform
nucellus. apparatus
(iv) It has an egg apparatus situated at the chalazal end. (b) both synergids through the filiform apparatus
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) egg cell
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) (ii) and (iv) (d) secondary nucleus
59. Assertion: The method of development of embryo sac (c) seed set is not dependent on pollinators
from a single functional megaspore is termed as (d) each visit of a pollinator results in transfer of
monosporic development. hundreds of pollen grains
Reason: In monosporic (Polygonum) type of embryo 65. Recognise the figure and find out the correct
sac development, usually the megaspore which is matching.
situated towards micropylar end remains functional.
not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
60. Assertion: Only the pre-pollination growth of male
gametophyte occurs inside the microsporangium
whereas the remaining growth occurs over the female
reproduce organs.
Reason: Whole of the growth of female gametophyte
occurs inside the megasporangium.
(a) A-chasmogamous flowers, B-cleistogamous
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is flowers
(b) A-cleistogamous flowers, B-chasmogamous
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is flowers
(c) A-chasmogamous flowers, B-dichogamous
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false. flowers
(d) If both assertion and reason are false. (d) A-dichogamous flowers, B-cleistogamous
flowers
Pollination 66. Commelina benghalensis represents:

(a) Chasmo-cleistogamy (b) Xenogamy
61. Pollination characteristically occurs in
(c) Heterogamy (d) Geitonogamy
(a) angiosperms and fungi
67. Contrivances for self-pollination are:
(b) angiosperms and gymnosperms
(a) Bisexuality (b) Homogamy
(c) pteridophytes and angiosperms
(d) bryophytes and angiosperms (c) Cleistogamy (d) All of these
62. Bisexual flowers which never open, and develop 68. Geitonogamy involves
underground demonstrate: (a) fertilization of flower by the pollen from another
flower of the same plant.
(a) Autogamy (b) Allogamy
(b) fertilization of a flower by the pollen from the
(c) Cleistogamy (d) None of these
same flower.
63. Autogamy can occur in a chasmogamous flower if
(c) fertilization of a flower of another plant in the
(Exemplar)
same population.
(a) pollen matures before maturity of ovule
(d) fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a
(b) ovules mature before maturity of pollen flower from another plant belonging to distant
(c) both pollen and ovules mature simultaneously population.
(d) both anther and stigma are of equal lengths 69. Which of the following may require pollination but is
64. One advantage of cleistogamy is genetically similar to autogamy?
(a) it leads to greater genetic diversity (a) Apogamy (b) Cleistogamy
(b) seed dispersal is more efficient and widespread (c) Geitonogamy (d) Xenogamy
70. Choose the correct statement from the following (c) animals (d) air
(Exemplar) 78. Spiny or sticky pollen grains and large fragrant
(a) Cleistogamous flowers always exhibit autogamy flowers with well-developed nectarines, are
associated with
(b) Chasmogamous flowers always exhibit
geitonogamy (a) hydrophily
(c) Cleistogamous flowers exhibit both autogamy (b) entomophily
and geitonogamy (c) ornithophily
(d) Chasmogamous flowers never exhibit autogamy (d) anemophily
71. Xenogamy is 79. A particular species of plant produces light, non-
(a) pollination between two flowers of two different sticky pollen in large numbers and its stigmas are
plants long and feathery. These modifications facilitate
pollination by (Exemplar)
(b) pollination between two different flowers of same
plant and same branch (a) insects (b) water
(c) pollination between anther and stigma of same (c) wind (d) animals
flower 80. Bougainvillea is
(d) a mechanism of parthenocarpy (a) wind pollinated plant
72. Which of the following options is correct? (b) insect pollinated plant
(a) Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the (c) self-pollination occurs
stigma of the same flower-Autogamy (d) cleistogamy occurs
(b) Transfer of pollen grains from the anther of one 81. Pollination in lotus is carried out by
flower to the stigma of another flower of same
(a) Wind (b) Water
plant-Geitonogamy
(c) Insects (d) All the above
(c) Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the
stigma of a genetically different plant-Xenogamy 82. Which of the following is not a water pollinated
plant?
(d) All of these
(a) Zostera (b) Vallisneria
73. Cross pollination in crop is known as:
(c) Hydrilla (d) Cannabis
(a) Chalazogamy (b) Cleistogamy
83. Continued _______results in inbreeding depression.
(c) Autogamy (d) Allogamy
(a) Self-pollination (b) Cross pollination
74. Male and female flowers are present on different
plants (dioecious) to ensure xenogamy, in (c) Dehiscence (d) None of the above
(a) Papaya (b) Bottle gourd 84. Flowering plants have developed certain outbreeding
devices to discourage self-pollination and to
(c) Maize (d) All of these
encourage cross-pollination. Which one of these is
75. If the pollen of a flower falls on the stigma of another not an example of such outbreeding device?
flower belonging to the same plant it is
(a) Dicliny (b) Dichogamy
(a) Ecologically cross-pollination
(c) Herkogamy (d) Cleistogamy
(b) Genetically and ecologically cross-pollination
85. In some species, pollen release and stigma receptivity
(c) Genetically self-pollination and ecologically are not synchronized. This is called as ________.
cross-pollination
(a) Homogamy (b) Heterogamy
(d) None of these
(c) Dichogamy (d) Geitonogamy
76. Anemophily is pollination through
86. Pollen is released before the stigma becomes
(a) animals (b) air receptive in case of
(c) birds (d) insects (a) Protandry (b) Protogyny
77. Entomophily is pollination through the agency of (c) Anthesis (d) Geitonogamy
(a) water (b) insects
87. Stigma becomes receptive much before the release of (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
pollen. not the correct explanation of assertion.
(a) Protandry (b) Protogyny (c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(c) Anthesis (d) Geitonogamy (d) If both assertion and reason are false.
88. For among the situations given below, choose the one
that prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy.
Artificial hybridization
(Exemplar)
94. Removal of anthers in bisexual flowers is called
(a) Monoecious plant bearing unisexual flowers.
(a) emasculation (b) selection
(b) Dioecious plant bearing only male or female
(c) bagging (d) acclimatization
flowers
95. Emasculation prevents
(c) Monoecious plant with bisexual flowers.
(d) Dioecious plant with bisexual flowers (a) desired self-pollination
89. Unisexuality of flowers prevents (b) undesired self-pollination

(c) desired cross pollination
(a) autogamy, but not geitonogamy
(b) geitonogamy and xenogamy (d) undesired cross pollination
96. Bagging prevents
(c) geitonogamy, but not xenogamy
(a) desired self-pollination
(d) autogamy and geitonogamy
(b) undesired self-pollination
90. Both, autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented in:
(c) desired cross pollination
(a) Castor (b) Maize
(d) undesired cross pollination
(c) Papaya (d) Cucumber
91. In (i) condition, both male and female flowers are 97. While planning for an artificial hybridization
programme involving dioecious plants, which of the
borne on same plant; an example of such plant is (ii).
following steps would not be relevant? (Exemplar)
(i) (ii) (a) Bagging of female flower
(b) Dusting of pollen on stigma
(a) monoecious cucurbit
(c) Emasculation
(b) monoecious papaya (d) Collection of pollen
(c) dioecious cucurbit

Pollen-pistil Interaction
(d) dioecious papaya 98. Self-sterility refers to:
(a) Production of sterile pollens
92. In castor and maize device used to prevent self- (b) Production of abortive ovules
pollination is (c) Failure of pollens to germinate on stigma of its
(a) Bisexuality (b) Hermaphrodite own flower
(d) Failure of fertilization if the stigma is pollinated
(c) Unisexuality (d) Self incompatibility
by the pollens of other plant
93. Assertion: Hydrophily constitutes a major mode of 99. All the events; from pollen deposition on the stigma
pollination in most of the aquatic plants in until pollen tube enter the ovule; are together referred
angiosperms. to as
Reason: Almost all the aquatic dicot and monocot (a) Double fertilization
plants require water for the transport of male gametes (b) Development of male gametophyte
and for fertilization. (c) Pollen-pistil interaction
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is (d) Chemical recognition followed by acceptance or
the correct explanation of assertion. rejection.
100. The part of gynoecium that determines the compatible 104. Which of the following is without exception in
nature of pollen is angiosperms?
(a) stigma (b) style (a) Presence of vessels (b) Double fertilization
(c) ovary (d) synergids (c) Secondary growth (d) Autotrophic nutrition
101. Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching. 105. During the process of fertilization, the pollen tube of
the pollen grain usually enters the embryo sac
through
(a) Integument (b) Nucellus
(c) Chalaza (d) Micropyle
106. Fertilization is synonymous with
(a) Autogamy (b) Syngamy
(c) Homogamy (d) Apogamy
(a) a-egg nucleus, f-vegetative nucleus, b-synergid, 107. The true embryo develops as a result of fusion of
e-filiform apparatus, d-male gametes, c-central (a) two polar nuclei of embryo sac
cell
(b) egg cell and male gamete
(b) a-central cell, b-egg nucleus, c-synergid, d-
(c) synergid and male gamete
filiform apparatus, e-male gametes, f-vegetative
nucleus (d) male gamete and antipodals
(c) a-central cell, b-egg nucleus, c-synergid, d- 108. Double fertilization involves
filiform apparatus, e-vegetative nucleus, f-male (a) syngamy and triple fusion
gametes (b) double fertilization
(d) a-synergid, b-egg nucleus, c-central cell, d- (c) development of antipodal cell
vegetative nucleus, e-male gametes, f-filiform
apparatus
109. Fusion of one male gamete with egg and other of the
102. Assertion: Self-incompatibility is a genetic
same pollen tube with two polar nuclei is
mechanism which prevents self-pollen (from the same
(a) Triple fusion
flower or other flowers of the same plant) from
fertilizing the ovules inhibiting pollen germination or (b) Vegetative fertilization
pollen tube growth in the pistil. (c) Double fertilization
Reason: In gametophytic self-incompatibility, the (d) Parthenogenesis
incompatibility reaction is determined by the genotype 110. Fusion of one of the male gametes with egg nucleus,
of the sporophytic tissue of the plant from which the is referred to as
poles is derived.
(a) generative fertilization (b) syngamy
(c) vegetative fertilization (d) both (a) and (b)
111. Triple fusion in angiosperm is the fusion of second
sperm with
(a) antipodal cell and one synergid cell
(b) two antipodal cells
(c) two synergid cells
(d) two polar nuclei
Double Fertilization
112. Entry of pollen tube through micropyle is
103. Double fertilization is the characteristic of
(a) Chalazogamy (b) Mesogamy
(a) Bryophytes (b) Pteridophytes
(c) Porogamy (d) Pseudogamy
(c) Gymnosperms (d) Angiosperms
113. The fertilization in which male gametes are carried (c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
through pollen tube is known as (d) If both assertion and reason are false.
(a) syngamy (b) porogamy
(c) siphonogamy (d) chalazogamy
Post fertilization events – Endosperm and
114. In a fertilized embryo sac, the haploid, diploid and
Embryo
triploid structures are (Exemplar)
120. Following double fertilization, events of endosperm
(a) synergid, zygote and primary endosperm nucleus
and embryo development, maturation of ovules into
(b) synergid, antipodal and polar nuclei
seeds and ovary into fruit, are collectively termed as
(c) antipodal, synergid and primary endosperm
(a) Pollen-pistil interaction
nucleus
(b) Artificial hybridization
(d) synergid, polar nuclei and zygote
(c) Embryogenesis
115. In an embryo sac, the cells that degenerate after
(d) Post-fertilization events
fertilization are (Exemplar)
121. Which one of the following events takes place after
(a) synergids and primary endosperm cell
double fertilization?
(b) synergids and antipodals
(a) The pollen grain germinates on the stigma
(c) antipodals and primary endosperm cell
(b) The pollen tubes enter the embryo sac
(d) egg and antipodals
(c) Two male gametes are discharged into the
116. Vegetative fertilization is also called
embryo sac
(a) triple fusion (b) true fertilization
(d) The PEN (Primary Endosperm Nucleus)
(c) syngamy (d) generative fertilization develops into endosperm
117. In angiosperms, triple fusion results in formation of: 122. The mother cell of endosperm is
(a) Secondary nucleus (a) fertilized egg cell
(b) Primary endosperm nucleus (b) fertilized central cell bearing PEN
(c) Polars (c) synergid
(d) Zygote (d) ephemeral cells
118. In angiosperms, normally after fertilization 123. The role of double fertilization is to produce:
(a) The zygote divides earlier than the primary (a) Integuments
endosperm nucleus (b) Endocarp
(b) The primary endosperm nucleus divides earlier (c) Endosperm
than the zygote
(d) Cotyledons
(c) Both the zygote and primary endosperm nuclei
124. A typical dicotyledonous embryo consists of
divide simultaneously
(a) Radicle only
(d) Both the zygote and primary endosperm nuclei
undergo a resting period (b) Embryonal axis and cotyledons
119. Assertion: In angiosperms, endosperm development (c) Cotyledons only
precedes embryo development. (d) Embryo axis only
Reason: Double fertilization ensures that the nutritive 125. Epicotyl terminates in a stem tip called
tissue is formed only when the formation of embryo (a) Radicle (b) Plumule
has taken place so that the energy spent on the
(c) Scutellum (d) None of the above
formation of endosperm does not get wasted.
126. Hypocotyl terminates in a root tip called
the correct explanation of assertion. (a) Radicle (b) Plumule
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is (c) Scutellum (d) None of the above
127. The portion of embryonal axis between plumule

(future shoot) and cotyledons is called
(a) Hypocotyl (b) Epicotyl
(c) Coleorhiza (d) Coleoptile
128. A single large shield shaped terminal cotyledon in
monocot embryo is called
(a) Scutellum (b) Tigellum
(c) Coleoptile (d) Coleorhiza
129. Aleurone layer is part of:
(a) Endosperm (b) Embryo
A B C
(c) Tegmen (d) Testa
130. Function of suspensor of embryo is (a) Plumule Cotyledons Radicle
(a) absorption of nourishment
(b) push the embryo into nutritive endosperm region (b) Radicle Cotyledons Plumule
(c) formation of secondary embryo
(c) Cotyledons Plumule Radicle
(d) all the above
131. What type of endosperm is found in cereals? (d) Cotyledons Radicle Plumule
(a) Proteinaceous (b) Starchy
(c) Fatty (d) Cellulosic
137. Identify the parts labelled A, B and C in the given
132. Coleorhiza and coleoptile are the protective sheaths
figure and select the correct option.
covering ______ and ______ respectively
(a) Radicle, plumule (b) Plumule, radicle
(c) Plumule, hypocotyl (d) Epicotyl, radicle
133. In the embryos of a typical dicot and a grass, true
homologous structures are (Exemplar)
(a) coleorhiza and coleoptile
(b) coleoptile and scutellum
(c) cotyledons and scutellum
(d) hypocotyl and radicle
134. A triploid nutritive tissue is
(a) endosperm of Pinus
(b) endosperm of Maize
(c) endosperm of Cycas
A B C
(d) all of the above
135. If a leaf cell of gymnosperm plant had 24 (a) Scutellum Coleorhiza Coleoptile
chromosomes, then its endosperm cell has
(a) 24 chromosomes (b) 36 chromosomes (b) Scutellum Coleoptile Coleorhiza
(c) 12 chromosomes (d) 48 chromosomes
(c) Coleoptile Scutellum Coleorhiza
136. Identify the different parts of a typical dicot embryo
labelled as A, B, C and select the correct option.
(d) Coleorhiza Scutellum Coleoptile
138. Assertion: During embryo development in dicots, 145. The seeds which have no separate endosperm:
suspensor serves as the main nutritive tissue for the (a) Maize (b) Onion
embryo.
(c) Rice (d) Bean
Reason: The last cell of the suspensor at the end
146. Endosperm is completely consumed by the
adjacent to the embryo is known as haustorium.
developing embryo in
(a) Pea and groundnut
(b) Maize and castor
not the correct explanation of assertion. (c) Castor and groundnut
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false. (d) Maize and pea
(d) If both assertion and reason are false. 147. The phenomenon wherein, the ovary develops into a
fruit without fertilization is called (Exemplar)
139. Assertion: In Cocos nucifera, coconut water
represents the cellular endosperm and the surrounding (a) parthenocarpy
white kernel represents the free-nuclear endosperm. (b) apomixis
Reason: PEN undergoes a number of free nuclear (c) asexual reproduction
divisions all of which are subsequently followed by (d) sexual reproduction
wall formation. 148. Banana fruits are seedless because they:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is (a) are triploid (b) have plenty of auxins
(c) reproduce asexually (d) none of these
149. Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C and D, in the
given figure and select the correct option from the
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false. codes given below.
Post fertilization events - Seed and Fruit

140. Seeds develop from:
(a) Embryo (b) Embryo sac
(c) Ovary (d) Ovules
141. Seed dormancy is a state of
(a) Permanent inactivity (b) Death
A B C D
(c) Inactivity (d) None of the above
142. Nucellus forms which of the following parts of fruit? (a) Seed Scutellum Epicotyl Hypocotyl
(a) Seed coat (b) Perisperm coat
(c) Seed (d) Raphe
(b) Seed Scutellum Hypocotyl Epicotyl
143. In albuminous seeds, food is stored in ______ and in
coat
non-albuminous seeds, it is stored in_____.
(a) Endosperm, cotyledons
(c) Seed Cotyledon Endosperm Hypocotyl
(b) Cotyledons, endosperm coat
(c) Nucellus, cotyledons
(d) Endosperm, radicle (d) Seed Endosperm Cotyledon Hypocotyl
coat
144. Non-albuminous seeds occur in
(a) Maize (b) Wheat
(c) Rice (d) Vallisneria
150. Assertion: Ex-albuminous seeds do not possess any 153. Polyembryony was discovered in:
residual endosperm, as it is completely consumed (a) Citrus (b) Potato
during embryo development.
(c) Datura (d) Tobacco
Reason: Wheat, castor, pea and groundnut are all the
154. Match the columns I and II and choose the correct
examples of ex-albuminous seeds.
combination from the options given.
the correct explanation of assertion. Column I Column II

a. Apomixis 1. Mango
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false. b. Polyembryony 2. Seedless fruit
c. Parthenocarpy 3. Asteraceae
Special modes of Reproduction

151. Apomixis in plant means development of a plant (a) a-3, b-1, c-2 (b) a-2, b-3, c-1
(a) from stem cuttings (c) a-1, b-2, c-3 (d) a-3, b-2, c-1
(b) from root cuttings 155. Assertion: In plants, apomixis is a form of asexual
(c) without fusion of gametes reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction.
(d) from fusion of gametes Reason: Apomixis involves the production of seeds
without the fusion of gametes.
152. The phenomenon observed in some plants wherein
parts of the sexual apparatus are used for forming (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
embryos without fertilization is called (Exemplar) the correct explanation of assertion.
(a) parthenocarpy (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
(b) apomixis
(c) vegetative propagation
(d) sexual reproduction
EXERCISE – 2: Previous Year Questions

1. Large, colourful, fragrant flowers with nectar are seen 5. The term used for transfer of pollen grains from
in (NEET 2023) anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant
which during pollination, brings genetically different
(a) Bird pollinated plants
types of pollen grains to stigma, is: (NEET 2021)
(b) Bat pollinated plants (a) Chasmogamy (b) Cleistogamy
(c) Wind pollinated plants (c) Xenogamy (d) Geitonogamy
6. A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is:
(d) Insect pollinated plants
(NEET 2021)
2. Identify the incorrect statement related to Pollination: (a) 7-nucleate and 7-celled
(NEET 2022) (b) 8-nucleate and 8-celled
(c) 7-nucleate and 8-celled
(a) Pollination by water is quite rare in flowering
plants (d) 8-nucleate and 7-celled
(b) Pollination by wind is more common amongst 7. In some members of which of the following families,
abiotic pollination pollen grains retain their viability for months after
(c) Flowers produce foul odours to attract flies and release? (NEET 2021)
beetles to get pollinated (a) Poaceae; Solanaceae
(d) Moths and butterflies are the most dominant (b) Rosaceae; Leguminosae
pollinating agents among insects
(c) Poaceae; Rosaceae
3. Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Cleistogamous flowers are invariably (d) Poaceae; Leguminosae
8. The plant parts which consist of two generations –
autogamous
one within the other: (NEET 2020)
Statement II : Cleistogamy is disadvantageous as there (i) Pollen grains inside the anther
is no chance for cross pollination (ii) Germinated pollen grain with two male gametes
(iii) Seed inside the fruit
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
(iv) Embryo sac inside the ovule
answer from the options given below: (NEET 2022) (a) (iii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iv)
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (c) (i) only (d) (ii) only
9. The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle at
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(NEET 2020)
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (a) Nucellus (b) Chalaza
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (c) Hilum (d) Micropyle
4. Which part of the fruit, labelled in the given figure 10. In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes
place by (NEET 2020)
makes it a false fruit? (NEET 2022)
(a) wind and water (b) insects and water
(c) insects or wind (d) water currents only
11. What is the fate of the male gametes discharged in the
synergid? (NEET 2019)
(a) All fuse with the egg.
(b) One fuses with the egg, the other(s) fuse(s) with a
synergid nucleus.
(c) One fuses with the egg and other fuses with central
cell nuclei
(d) One fuses with the egg other(s) degenerate(s) in
the synergid.
(a) A – Mesocarp (b) B - Endocarp

(c) C – Thalamus (d) D - Seed
12. Which one of the following statements regarding post 23. Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and are
fertilization development in flowering plants is packed into inflorescence are usually pollinated by
incorrect? (NEET 2019) (NEET 2017)
(a) Zygote develops into embryo (a) Water (b) Bee
(b) Central cell develops into endosperm (c) Wind (d) Bat
(c) Ovules develop into embryo sac 24. Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to
(d) Ovary develops into fruit the (NEET 2016)
13. Persistent nucellus in the seed is known as: (a) Anther (b) Connective
(NEET 2019) (c) Placenta (d) Thalamus or petal
(a) Perisperm (b) Hilum 25. Which one of the following statements is not true?
(c) Tegmen (d) Chalaza (NEET 2016)
14. In some plants, the female gamete develops into an (a) Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther.
embryo without fertilization. This phenomenon is (b) Exine of pollen grains is made up of
known as: (NEET 2019) sporopollenin.
(a) Parthenocarpy (b) Syngamy (c) Pollen grains of many species cause severe
(c) Parthenogenesis (d) Autogamy allergies.
15. Double fertilization is (NEET 2018) (d) Stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be used in
(a) fusion of two male gametes with one egg. the crop breeding programmes.
(b) fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei. 26. Cotyledon of maize grain is called (NEET 2016)
(c) fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube with (a) Plumule (b) Coleorhiza
two different eggs. (c) Coleoptile (d) Scutellum
(d) syngamy and triple fusion. 27. Seed formation without fertilization in flowering
16. Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid plants involves the process of (NEET 2016)
nitrogen having a temperature of (NEET 2018) (a) Sporulation (b) Budding
(a) -1960C (b) -800C (c) Somatic hybridization (d) Apomixis
(c) -1200C (d) -1600C 28. Which of the following statements is not correct?
17. Which of the following has proved helpful in (NEET 2016)
preserving pollen as fossils? (NEET 2018) (a) Pollen grains of many species can germinate on
(a) Oil content (b) Cellulosic intine the stigma of a flower, but only one pollen tube
(c) Pollenkitt (d) Sporopollenin of the same species grows into the style.
18. Winged pollen grains are present in (NEET 2018) (b) Insects that consume pollen or nectar without
(a) Mango (b) Cycas bringing about pollination are called pollen/nectar
(c) Mustard (d) Pinus robbers.
19. Double fertilization in exhibited by (NEET 2017) (c) Pollen germination and pollen tube growth are
(a) Gymnosperms (b) Algae regulated by chemical components of pollen
(c) Fungi (d) Angiosperms interacting with those of the pistil.
20. Attractants and rewards are required for (d) Some reptiles have also been reported as
(NEET 2017) pollinators in some plant species.
(a) Anemophily (b) Entomophily 29. In majority of angiosperms - (NEET 2016)
(c) Hydrophily (d) Cleistogamy (a) egg has a filiform apparatus. .
21. A dioecious flowering plant prevents both (b) there are numerous antipodal cells.
(NEET 2017) (c) reduction division occurs in the megaspore
(a) Autogamy and xenogamy mother cells.
(b) Autogamy and geitonogamy (d) a small central cell is present in the embryo sac.
(c) Geitonogamy and xenogamy 30. The ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent
(d) Cleistogamy and xenogamy to (NEET 2016)
22. Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops into (a) megasporangium (b) megasporophyll
(NEET 2017) (c) megaspore mother cell (d) megaspore
(a) Ovule (b) Endosperm
(c) Embryo sac (d) Embryo
31. Male gametophyte in angiosperms produces (b) stimulate division of generative cell
(NEET 2015) (c) produce nectar
(a) three sperms. (d) guide the entry of pollen tube
(b) two sperms and a vegetative cell. 40. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(c) single sperm and a vegetative cell. (NEET 2013)
(d) single sperm and two vegetative cells. (a) Hard outer layer of pollen is called intine.
32. Coconut water from a tender coconut is- (b) Sporogenous tissue is haploid.
(NEET 2015) (c) Endothecium produces the microspores.
(a) Degenerated nucellus (d) Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen.
(b) Immature embryo 41. Advantage of cleistogamy is (NEET 2013)
(c) Free nuclear endosperm (a) higher genetic variability
(d) Innermost layers of the seed coat (b) more vigorous offspring
33. Filiform apparatus is characteristic feature of (c) no dependence on pollinators
(NEET 2015) (d) vivipary
(a) Synergids (b) Generative cell 42. Both, autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented in
(c) Nucellar embryo (d) Aleurone cell (AIPMT 2012)
34. The wheat grain has an embryo with one large, shield- (a) papaya (b) cucumber
shaped cotyledon known as (c) castor (d) maize
(NEET 2015) 43. An organic substance that can withstand
(a) Coleoptile (b) Epiblast environmental extremes and cannot be degraded by
(c) Coleorhiza (d) Scutellum any enzyme is (AIPMT 2012)
35. Which one of the following fruits is parthenocarpic? (a) cuticle (b) sporopollenin
(NEET 2015) (c) lignin (d) cellulose
(a) Banana (b) Brinjal 44. Even in absence of pollinating agents seed-setting is
(c) Apple (d) Jackfruit assured in (AIPMT 2012)
36. In angiosperms, microsporogenesis and (a) Commelina (b) Zostera
megasporogenesis (NEET 2015) (c) Salvia (d) Fig
(a) occur in ovule 45. Wind pollination is common in (AIPMT 2011)
(b) occur in anther (a) lilies (b) grasses
(c) form gametes without further divisions (c) orchids (d) legumes
(d) involve meiosis
46. Nucellar polyembryony is reported in species of
37. Geitonogamy involves
(AIPMT 2011)
(AIPMT 2010, NEET 2014)
(a) Gossypium (b) Triticum
(a) fertilization of a flower by the pollen from another
(c) Brassica (d) Citrus
flower of the same plant.
47. In which one of the following, pollination is
(b) fertilization of a flower by the pollen from the
autogamous? (AIPMT 2011)
same flower.
(a) Xenogamy (b) Chasmogamy
(c) fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a
(c) Cleistogamy (d) Geitonogamy
flower of another plant in the same population.
48. Apomictic embryos in Citrus arise from
(d) fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a
(AIPMT 2010)
flower of another plant belonging to a distant
(a) synergids
population.
(b) maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule
38. Pollen tablets are available in the market for
(c) antipodal cells
(NEET 2014)
(a) in vitro fertilization (d) diploid egg
(b) breeding programmes 49. The scutellum observed in a grain of wheat or maize
(c) supplementing food is comparable to which part of the seed in other
(d) ex situ conservation monocotyledons? (AIPMT 2010)
39. Function of filiform apparatus is to (NEET 2014) (a) Cotyledon (b) Endosperm
(a) recognize the suitable pollen at stigma (c) Aleurone layer (d) Plumule
EXERCISE – 3: Achiever’s Section

Flower- A Fascinating Organ of Angiosperms
1. Essential organs of a flower are: 6. A mature male gametophyte is formed from pollen
mother cell by
(a) Calyx, Corolla, Perianth
(a) One meiotic division
(b) Stamens, Gynoecium
(b) Two meiotic divisions
(c) Lodicules, Bracts, Bractioles
(c) One meiotic and two mitotic divisions
(d) Three meiotic divisions
7. Which of the following statements regarding the
The Male Gametophyte structure of microsporangium are correct?
2. One meiosis produces how many male gametes? (i) Microsporangium is generally surrounded by four
wall layers-epidermis, endothecium, middle
(a) 4 (b) 1
layers and tapetum.
(c) 2 (d) 8 (ii) Outer three layers perform the function of
3. Which one of the following statements is not true? protection and dehiscence of anthers.
(a) Pollen grains are rich in nutrients and they are used (iii) Cells of tapetum undergo meiosis and produce
in the form of tablets and syrups microspore tetrads.
(b) Pollen grains of some plants cause severe allergies (a) (i) and (ii)
and bronchial afflictions in some people (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) The flowers pollinated by flies and bats secrete (c) (i) and (iii)
foul odour to attract them (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(d) Honey is made by bees by digesting pollen 8. Microgametogenesis is the
collected from flowers
(a) formation of microspores within the
4. How many meiotic divisions are required for the microsporangia
formation of 100 pollen grains?
(b) formation of single celled pollen grains within the
(a) 100 (b) 50 pollen sacs of the anthers
(c) 25 (d) 26 (c) development of the microgametophyte within the
5. Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching. pollen grain up to the two celled stage
(d) development of the microgametophyte within the
pollen grain up to the three celled stage.
9. Which part of the reproductive structure produces both
enzymes and hormones?
(a) Archesporium
(b) Middle layer
(c) Tapetum
(d) Endothecium
(a) A-epidermis, B-endothecium, C-middle layers,
10. Generative cell was destroyed by laser beam but a
D-tapetum, E-sporogenous tissue, F-connective
normal pollen tube was still formed because
(b) B-epidermis, C-endothecium, D-middle layers,
(a) vegetative cell is not damaged
E-tapetum, F-sporogenous tissue, A-connective
(b) contents of killed generative cell stimulated pollen
(c) B-epidermis, C-endothecium, F-middle layers, growth
E-tapetum, A-sporogenous tissue, D-connective (c) laser beam stimulates growth of pollen tube
(d) B-epidermis, C-endothecium, F-middle layers, (d) the region of emergence of pollen tube is not
E-tapetum, D-sporogenous tissue, A-connective harmed by laser beam
The Female Gametophyte (i) Egg apparatus is situated towards the chalazal
end.
11. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct
option from the codes given below. (ii) Antipodal cells are situated towards the
micropylar end.
Column-I Column-II (iii) A typical angiospermous embryo sac is 7-celled,
A. Funicle (i) Mass of parenchymatous 8-nucleated at maturity.
cells (a) (i) only (b) (ii) only
B. Hilum (ii) Basal part of ovule (c) (iii) only (d) (i), (ii), (iii)
C. 16. Total number of meiotic divisions required for forming
Integument (iii) One or two protective
100 grains of wheat is
layers of ovule
(a) 100 (b) 75
D. Chalaza (iv) Region where body of
(c) 125 (d) 50
ovule fuses with funicle
E. Nucellus (v) Stalk of ovule
Pollination
(a) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv), E (v) 17. Which is correct about Viola?
(b) A-(v), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii), E-(i) (a) Commonly called common pansy
(c) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii), E-(v) (b) Bears two types of flowers chasmogamous and
(d) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(v), D-(ii), E-(iv) cleistogamous
12. In 82% of flowering plants, the ovule is (c) Produce assured seed-set even in the absence of
(a) anatropous (b) orthotropous pollinators
(d) All of the above
(c) amphitropous (d) circinotropous
18. Callistemon undergoes
13. How many meiotic divisions are required for the
(a) entomophily (b) hydrophily
formation of 100 functional megaspores?
(c) ornithophily (d) malacophily
(a) 100 (b) 50
(c) 25 (d) 26 19. Sausage tree (Kigelia pinnata) and Anthocephalus
cadamba are pollinated by
14. Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching.
(a) Bat (b) Bird
(c) Wind (d) Water
20. Lever mechanism or turn pipe mechanism for
pollination is a characteristic feature of
(a) Antirrhinum (b) Ocimum
(c) Salvia (d) Ficus
(a) a-nucellus, b-chalazal end, c-microspore dyad,

Artificial Hybridization
d-microspore tetrad, e-megaspore mother cell
21. Artificial hybridization is one of the major
(b) a-megaspore mother cell, b-chalazal end,
approaches of crop improvement programme. For the
c-megaspore dyad, d-megaspore tetrad, e-nucellus bisexual flower it includes the following steps in
(c) a-megaspore mother cell, b-micropylar end, correct sequence.
c-megaspore dyad, d-megaspore tetrad, e-nucellus (a) bagging, pollination, rebagging
(d) a-nucellus b-micropylar end, c-megaspore dyad, d- (b) pollination, bagging, rebagging
megaspore tetrad, e-megaspore mother cell (c) emasculation, bagging, pollination, rebagging
15. Select the correct statement(s) regarding the structure (d) bagging, emasculation, pollination, rebagging
of a mature embryo sac.
Pollen-pistil Interaction (d) The ovule develops into seed

22. A mechanism that prevents self-pollen (from the 28. The plant part which consists of two generations, one
same flower or other flowers of the same plant) from within the other, is:
fertilizing the ovules by inhibiting pollen germination (a) Germinated pollen grains
or pollen tube growth in the pistil is _______ (b) Embryo
(a) chemical (b) physical (c) Unfertilized ovule
(c) Genetic (d) Hormonal (d) Seed
Double Fertilization Special modes of reproduction

23. The total number of nuclei involved in double 29. Despite high level of heterozygosity, the progeny
fertilization in angiosperms are derived from the seeds of a cross pollinated plant was
(a) two (b) three found to be completely uniform. One reason can be
(c) four (d) five (a) Induced mutation (b) Polyploidy
24. Mesogamy is (c) Apomixis (d) Parthenocarpy
(a) fusion of male and female gametes 30. In a case of polyembryony, if an embryo develops
from the synergid and another from the nucellus, then
(b) fusion of physiologically similar and
the synergid embryo is (i) and nucellar embryo is (ii).
morphologically different gametes
(c) entry of pollen tube through integuments (i) (ii)
(d) none of the above (a) haploid haploid
(b) diploid diploid

Post Fertilization events - Endosperm and
Embryo (c) haploid diploid
25. When a diploid female plant is crossed with a (d) diploid haploid
tetraploid male, the ploidy level of endosperm cells in
the resulting seed is:
(a) Tetraploid (b) Pentaploid
(c) Diploid (d) Triploid
26. If an angiospermic male plant is diploid and female
plant is tetraploid, the ploidy level of endosperm will
be:
(a) Haploid (b) Triploid
(c) Tetraploid (d) Pentaploid
Post Fertilization events - Seed and Fruit

27. Identify the wrong statement regarding post-
fertilization development.
(a) The ovary wall develops into pericarp
(b) The outer integument of ovule develops into
tegmen
(c) The fusion nucleus (triple nucleus) develops into
endosperm
Notes:
Find Answer Key and Detailed Solutions at the end of this book
HUMAN REPRODUCTION 83
HUMAN REPRODUCTION
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
84 HUMAN REPRODUCTION
Chapter 02
Human Reproduction
1. Human Reproduction
● In human beings, sexes are separate and sexual reproduction takes place.
● Sex organs: Humans are unisexual, which refers to the condition of an organism or species being capable of producing only
male or female gametes (sex cells), but never both. A unisexual organism of a bisexual species is one in which the male and
female gonads are found in separate individuals. The reproductive system in each sex has many organs. These sex organs are
further distinguished into primary and secondary sex organs. Besides these, there are some accessory sexual characters
as well.
● Primary sex organs: Gonads which form the gametes are called primary sex organs. These are testes in males and ovaries in
females. The testes produce sperms and secrete testosterone. The ovaries produce ova.
● Secondary sex organs: Sex organs, glands and ducts which do not produce gametes but are otherwise essential for sexual
reproduction are called secondary sex organs. In males, the secondary sex organs are vasa efferentia, epididymis, vas
deferens, ejaculatory ducts, urethra, accessory sex glands (prostate gland, seminal vesicles and Cowper’s glands) and penis. In
females, the secondary sex organs include oviduct, uterus, vagina, external genitalia, Bartholin’s glands and
mammary glands.
● Accessory / External / Secondary sex characters: These are traits that do not have any direct role in reproduction but provide
specific features in the two sexes. In males, secondary sex characters include beard, moustaches, body hair on shoulder and
chest, pubic hair, larynx apparent externally and a low-pitched voice. In females, secondary sex characters include a high-
pitched voice, breast development, broader pelvis, pubic hair and menstruation.
● Puberty: Beginning of sexual maturity or ability to reproduce is known as puberty. Puberty occurs at the age of 10-14 years in
girls and 13-15 years in boys. After attaining puberty, many reproductive events occur in the body of males and females.
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
● The reproductive events in humans include:

● Gametogenesis: Formation of gametes i.e., formation of sperms in males and formation of ovum in females.
● Insemination: Transfer of sperms into the female genital tract.
● Fertilization: Fusion of male and female gametes leading to formation of zygote.
● Implantation: Process of formation and development of blastocyst and its attachment to the uterine wall.
● Gestation: Embryonic development that takes place in the mother’s body.
● Parturition: Process of delivery of the baby.
There are remarkable differences between the reproductive events in males and females. For example, sperm formation
continues even in old men, but formation of ovum ceases in women around the age of fifty years.
2. The Male Reproductive System
Fig 2.1 Male reproductive system (side view)
Fig 2.2 Male Reproductive system (sectional view from the front)
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
● The male reproductive system is located in the pelvic region.

● It includes a pair of testes along with accessory ducts, glands and the external genitalia.
2.1 Scrotum
Fig 2.3 Anatomy of scrotum
● The testes are situated outside the abdominal cavity within a pouch called scrotum. The scrotum helps in maintaining the low
temperature of the testes (2–2.5oC lower than the normal internal body temperature) necessary for spermatogenesis.
● The testes descend into the scrotum during the seventh month of pregnancy of the mother.
● The scrotum remains connected to the abdomen or pelvic cavity by the inguinal canal.
● The spermatic cord formed from the spermatic artery, vein and nerve bound together with connective tissues runs from the
deep inguinal ring down to each testicle. Testes are suspended in the scrotum by the spermatic cords.
● A fibrous cord, called gubernaculum, extends from the caudal end of the testes to the scrotal wall.
2.2. Testis
Fig 2.4 Longitudinal section of testes
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
● In adults, each testis is oval in shape, with a length of about 4 to 5 cm and a width of about 2 to 3 cm.
● The testis is covered by a dense fibrous covering. Each testis has about 250 compartments called testicular lobules.
● Each lobule contains 1-3 highly coiled seminiferous tubules in which sperms are produced.
● Each seminiferous tubule is lined on its inside by two types of cells called male germ cells (spermatogonia) and Sertoli cells.
● The male germ cells undergo meiotic divisions finally leading to sperm formation, while Sertoli cells provide nutrition to the
germ cells.
● The regions outside the seminiferous tubules called interstitial spaces, contain small blood vessels and interstitial cells or
Leydig cells.
● Leydig cells synthesize and secrete testicular hormones called androgens. Other immunologically competent cells are
also present.
● The testes are surrounded by three layers:
● Tunica vaginalis: The tunica vaginalis is the pouch of serous membrane. It is the outermost covering of the testes.
● Tunica albuginea: It is the fibrous covering surrounding the testes situated under tunica vaginalis.
● Tunica vasculosa: It consists of a network of capillaries supported by delicate connective tissue which lines
● tunica albuginea.
● The seminiferous tubules of the testes open into the vasa efferentia through the rete testis.
● The vasa efferentia leave the testis and open into epididymis located along the posterior surface of each testis.
Fig 2.5 Diagrammatic sectional view of seminiferous tubule
Differences between Leydig Cells and Sertoli Cells

Leydig Cells Sertoli Cells
(Interstitial Cells) (Sustentacular Cells)
They are present in between the They are present in between the germinal
1. 1.
seminiferous tubules. epithelial cells of the seminiferous tubules
Leydig cells are found in small groups Sertoli cells are found singly and are
2. 2.
and are rounded in shape elongated.
They provide nourishment to the developing
spermatozoa (sperms). Sertoli cells secrete
They secrete androgens (e.g., ABP (Androgen Binding Protein) that
3. 3.
testosterone) - male sex hormones. concentrates testosterone in the seminiferous
tubules. It also secretes another protein
inhibin which suppresses FSH synthesis
● Functions of testes
● The germinal epithelial cells of seminiferous tubules produce sperms and the process is called spermatogenesis.
● Leydig cells produce male sex hormones e.g., testosterone.
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
FUN FACT
Some mammals such as elephants and aquatic mammals have intra-abdominal testes i.e., their testes do not descend into the
scrotum. It is because these animals have comparatively lower core body temperatures which is suitable for the process of
spermatogenesis.
2.3. Epididymis
● It is a mass of long narrow closely coiled tubule which lies along the inner side of testes.
● At the anterior end of testes, the epididymis is called caput where the vasa efferentia opens.
● The middle part of epididymis is called corpus epididymis.
● The posterior end of epididymis is called cauda epididymis.
● The epididymis stores the sperms and also secrete a fluid which is considered to nourish the sperms.
2.4. Vasa Deferentia (Ductus Deferens)

● The epididymis leads to vas deferens that ascends to the abdomen and loops over the urinary bladder.
● It receives a duct from the seminal vesicle and opens into the urethra as the ejaculatory duct.
● These ducts store and transport the sperms from the testis to the outside through urethra.
● The male sex accessory ducts include rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas deferens.
2.5. Ejaculatory Duct
Fig 2.6 Ejaculatory duct
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
● The ejaculatory ducts are two short tubes, each formed by the union of ducts of the seminal vesicles and vas deferens.
● Ejaculatory ducts carry sperm and the secretions of seminal vesicles.
2.6. Urethra
Fig 2.7 Different parts of urethra
● The urethra originates from the urinary bladder and extends through the penis to its external opening called urethral meatus.
● Urethra is divided into three parts
● Prostatic urethra, which arises from the urinary bladder and carries urine only. In the posterior part of the
prostatic urethra, is the urethral crest where the prostatic ductules open up on either side, bringing the prostatic fluid
into the urethral lumen. Inferior to this is the seminal colliculus, where the ejaculatory duct opens into the
prostatic urethra.
● Membranous urethra, which is the smallest part is situated behind the lower part of pubic symphysis.
● Penile urethra, also known as the spongy urethra, is the longest and the most distal part of the urethra in males. It is
situated inside the penis and it opens into the external environment through the external urethral orifice.
● There are two urethral sphincters. They are:

● Internal sphincter consists of smooth muscle fibers and is present in the neck of the bladder.
● External sphincter consists of striated muscle fibers surrounding the membranous urethra. The membranous urethra is
surrounded by the external urethral sphincter and this sphincter controls the voluntary control of urine flow.
● It provides a common pathway for the flow of urine as well as semen.
● The duct system of the male reproductive system is as follows:
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
Fig 2.8 Duct system of the male reproductive system
2.7. Penis
● It is the male copulatory organ and is also called the male genitalia.
● The tip of the penis is called glans penis which consists of a slit-like opening called the external urethral orifice or
urogenital aperture.
● The glans penis is covered by a loose fold of skin called the prepuce or foreskin.
● Penis is made up of three cylindrical masses of erectile tissues, which are - two dorsal corpora cavernosa and one ventral
corpora spongiosum.
● Corpora spongiosum contains penile urethra which is enlarged at the end of the penis called glans penis.
● Penis conducts the urine from the body and transfers the semen into the reproductive tract of females during
sexual intercourse.
Fig 2.9 Structure of penis or male genitalia
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
2.8. Male Accessory Glands
Fig 2.10 Accessory glands of the male reproductive system

2.8.1. Seminal Vesicles
● They are a pair of sac-like structures near the base of the urinary bladder.
● They produce an alkaline secretion with pH of 7.4 which form 60% of the volume of semen.
● The seminal fluid contains fructose, hormones like prostaglandins and clotting factors.
● The seminal fluid helps in nourishment as fructose is a source of energy for sperm, and also the alkaline nature of this fluid
neutralizes the acidic environment of the urethra as well as that of the female reproductive tract.
2.8.2. Prostate Gland

● It is a single large gland that surrounds the urethra.
● It produces a milky secretion with pH of 6.5 which forms 25% of the volume of semen.
● This secretion contains citric acid (a sperm nutrient), enzymes (such as acid phosphatase, amylase) and prostaglandins.
● Secretions of prostate gland nourishes and activates the spermatozoa to swim.
2.8.3. Bulbourethral Gland (Cowper’s gland)

● They are present on either side of the membranous urethra.
● These glands secrete an alkaline fluid.
● They secrete mucus that lubricates the end of penis and lining of the urethra.
2.8.4. Seminal Plasma

● Secretions of these glands constitute the seminal plasma which is rich in fructose, calcium and certain enzymes. The
secretions of bulbourethral glands also help in the lubrication of the penis.
Gland Secretions Function

 Fructose  Nourishment of sperms
Seminal Vesicles  Prostaglandins Neutralizes the acidity of urethra and female
Clotting proteins reproductive tract
 Citric acid
 Enzymes such as acid
 Nourishment of sperms
Prostate Gland phosphatase and
 Helps in motility of the sperm
amylase
 Prostaglandins
 Lubrication of penis and lining of
Bulbourethral Glands  Mucus
urethra
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
2.9. Hormonal Control of Male Reproductive System
Fig 2.11 Hormonal control of male reproductive system
● GnRH (Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone), secreted by the hypothalamus, stimulates the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
to secrete LH and FSH.
● In males, LH is also called the interstitial cell stimulating hormone because it stimulates interstitial cells of the testes to
● secrete androgens.
● Testosterone is the principal androgen which stimulates the growth of secondary sex organs and accessory glands.
● FSH stimulates Sertoli cells of testes to produce androgen binding protein (ABP) that concentrates testosterone in
seminiferous tubules.
● Sertoli cells also secrete a protein called inhibin which suppresses FSH synthesis.
● Testosterone suppresses the release of GnRH and LH when not required.
2.10. Disorders of Male Reproductive System

Sterility
● In males, sterility is inability of the sperm to fertilize the ovum.
Impotency
● Impotency is the inability to achieve or hold an erection of penis long enough to complete sexual intercourse. Certain drugs
are available to cure impotency.
Benign Prostate Hypertrophy

● Benign Prostate Hypertrophy is the enlargement of the prostate gland, and it occurs at old age. It compresses the urethra,
causing frequent night urination or frequent and painful urination.
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
Prostate Cancer
Fig 2.12 An enlarged prostate showing malignant tumor
● Prostate Cancer is a common malignancy accounting for 2-3% of mortality in males. Malignant prostate cells are usually
stimulated by testosterone. Hence, the treatment of prostate cancer involves the removal of testes, thereby preventing
production of the testosterone hormone.
Cryptorchidism
Fig 2.13 True and Ectopic cryptorchidism
● Cryptorchidism is a condition in which the testes do not descend into the scrotum. It is caused by deficient secretion of
testosterone by foetal testes and often leads to sterility.
Androgen Deficiency in Ageing males (ADAM)
● Androgen Deficiency in Ageing males (ADAM) is also known as andropause or male menopause. It occurs due to decreased
production of testosterone in the body.
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
3. Female Reproductive System
Fig 2.14 Sectional view of the female reproductive system
● The female reproductive system consists of a pair of ovaries along with a pair of oviducts, the uterus, a cervix, vagina and the
external genitalia located in the pelvic region.
Fig 2.15 Sectional view of female pelvis showing the reproductive system
● These parts of the system along with a pair of the mammary glands are integrated structurally and functionally to support the
processes of ovulation, fertilization, pregnancy, birth and child care.
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
3.1. Ovaries
Fig 2.16 Ovaries: Primary sex organs in females
● The ovaries are the primary sex organs located on each side of the lower abdomen.
● Ovaries produce the female gamete (ovum) and several steroid hormones (ovarian hormones).
● Each ovary is about 2-4 cm in length and is connected to the pelvic wall and uterus by ovarian ligaments.
● Each ovary is covered by a layer of cuboidal epithelium called germinal epithelium which encloses the ovarian stroma.
● Beneath the epithelium is tunica albuginea - a layer of connective tissues. Underlying it, is the ovarian stroma.
● The ovarian stroma consists of a dense outer portion called cortex and a less dense inner portion called medulla.
● Interspersed throughout the cortex are the many ovarian follicles in various stages of development.
3.2. Oviduct or Fallopian Tube

● Each fallopian tube is 10-12 cm long and extends from the periphery of each ovary to the uterus. Oviducts consist of the
following parts:
● Infundibulum: The distal part of the oviduct closer to the ovary is the funnel-shaped infundibulum. The edges of the
infundibulum possess finger-like projections called fimbriae, which help in collection of the ovum after ovulation.
● Ampulla: It is the widest and longest part of the infundibulum.
● Isthmus: It is a short, narrow and thick-walled proximal part of the oviduct that follows ampulla and joins the uterus.
● Functions
● It transfers the ova from the ovary to the uterus through peristalsis.
● The fertilization of ovum takes place in the ampulla of the fallopian tube.
3.3. Uterus or Womb
Fig 2.17 Uterus in female reproductive system
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
● The uterus (Greek: hystera) is a hollow, muscular and inverted pear-shaped structure. It lies in the pelvic cavity between the
urinary bladder and rectum. It comprises of three parts:
● Fundus: It is the dome shaped part of the uterus above the openings of the uterine parts of the fallopian tube.
● Body: It is the main part of the uterus which narrows interiorly where it continues to form cervix.
● Cervix: The uterus opens into the vagina through the cervix. The cavity of the cervix is known as the cervical canal
which, along with vagina, is called the birth canal.
● The cervix communicates above with the body of the uterus through internal os and with the vagina below an opening called
the external os.
● The wall of the uterus is composed of three layers of tissues. These are:
● Perimetrium - the outer thin covering of peritoneum.
● Myometrium - the middle thick layer of smooth muscle fibers which show strong contraction during the delivery
● of a baby.
● Endometrium - the inner glandular layer that lines the uterine cavity. This layer undergoes cyclical changes during the
menstrual cycle.
● Functions
● After puberty, the uterus undergoes changes as part of the menstrual cycle on a monthly basis.
● If fertilization takes place, the embryo gets attached to the uterine wall where it is nourished and protected.
3.4. Vagina
● It is a narrow stretchable tube, about 10 cm long that extends from the cervix to the outside of the body. The opening of the
vagina is called the vaginal orifice.
● Functions
● It provides a passageway for the flow of menstrual blood.
● It serves as a receptacle for sperm during intercourse.
● It forms a part of the birth canal during childbirth.
3.5. External Genitalia/ Vulva
Fig 2.18 Female external genitalia
● The female external genitalia include mons pubis, labia majora, labia minora, hymen and clitoris.
● Mons pubis is the anterior most portion of the female external genitalia, which is covered by skin and pubic hair.
● Labia majora are the two fleshy folds of skin forming the boundary of the vulva. They are partly covered with pubic hair and
contain a large number of sebaceous glands. They are homologous to the male scrotum.
● Labia minora are two smaller folds of skin which lie under the labia majora. Labia minora is partially homologous to the
penile urethra of males.
● The area between the two folds of the labia minora is called the vestibule which is homologous to the membranous urethra
of males.
● Clitoris is posterior to the mons pubis. It contains erectile tissues and is homologous to glans penis in males.
● Hymen: The opening of vagina is called the vaginal orifice. It is partly covered by hymen.
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
Differences between Male and Female Urethra
Male Urethra Female Urethra
It is much longer (About 20 cm in length) It is short (about 4 cm in length)

1. 1.
It has three regions: Prostatic (3-4cm), It is not differentiated into regions.

2. membranous (1cm) and penial (15cm) 2.
It opens out at the tip of the penis by It opens by urinary aperture in front of
3. urinogenital aperture. 3. vaginal aperture.
It carries both urine and semen. It carries only urine.
4. 4.
3.6. Mammary Glands
Fig 2.19 Sectional view of female mammary glands
● A functional mammary gland is characteristic of all female mammals.

● They are also present in males but only in the rudimentary form.
● In females, the mammary glands remain underdeveloped till puberty and after puberty they begin to develop under the
influence of female sex hormones.
● The mammary glands are paired structures (breasts) that contain glandular tissues and variable amounts of fat.
● Mammary glands are modified sweat glands with a projection called nipple, surrounded by pigmented skin called areola.
● The glandular tissue of each breast is divided into 15-20 mammary lobes containing clusters of cells called alveoli.
● The cells of alveoli secrete milk, which is stored in the cavities (lumen) of alveoli.
● The alveoli open into mammary tubules. The tubules of each lobe join to form a mammary duct.
● Several mammary ducts join to form a wider mammary ampulla which is connected to a lactiferous duct through which milk
is sucked out.
● The main function of the mammary glands is lactation, which refers to secretion and ejection of milk. Lactation is associated
with pregnancy and childbirth.
● Milk production is stimulated largely by the hormone prolactin which is secreted by the anterior lobe of pituitary gland and
milk ejection is stimulated by the hormone oxytocin which is secreted by the posterior lobe of pituitary gland.
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
● Colostrum is the first form of milk produced by mammary glands of mammals, immediately after the delivery of a newborn.
● Human milk consists of water, organic and inorganic substances. Its main constituents are fats (fat droplets), casein (milk
protein), lactose (milk sugar), mineral salts (calcium, potassium, potassium) and vitamins. Milk is poor in iron content.
Vitamin C is present in very small quantities in milk.
● The flow of milk in the mammary glands of mammals occurs through the following route:
FUN FACT
Marsupials give birth to a live but relatively

underdeveloped foetus called a joey. When the
joey is born it crawls from inside the mother to a
pouch. Inside the pouch, the blind offspring
attaches itself to one of the mother’s teats and
remains attached for as long as it takes for it to
grow and develop into a juvenile stage.
3.7. Vestibular Glands

● Vestibular region of the female's vulva has two types of vestibular glands:
● Lesser vestibular glands (Paraurethral gland/ Skene’s gland) are numerous minute glands on either side of the urethral orifice.
They are homologous to the male prostate gland and secrete mucus.
● Greater vestibular glands (Bartholin’s glands) are paired glands on either side of the vaginal orifice. They are homologous to
the Cowper’s glands in males and they secrete a viscous fluid.
3.8. Homologous Organs in Male and Female Reproductive Systems
Female Reproductive Organs Male Reproductive Organs
Labia Majora Scrotum
Labia Minora Penile urethra
Clitoris Glans penis or Penis
Vestibule Membranous urethra
Greater Vestibular Glands Prostate gland
Lesser Vestibular Glands Cowper’s gland
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
3.9. Hormonal Control of Female Reproductive System
Fig 2.20 Hormonal control of female reproductive system
● GnRh secreted by hypothalamus stimulates the release of FSH and LH by the pituitary gland.
● FSH stimulates the growth of ovarian follicles and increases the development of egg/oocyte within the follicle to complete
Meiosis I to form a secondary oocyte.
● LH secretes corpus luteum to secrete progesterone.
● Rising levels of progesterone inhibit the release of GnRH, which in turn inhibits the release of FSH, LH and progesterone.
3.10. Disorders of Female Reproductive System

Sterility
● Sterility is the inability of a female to conceive. It occurs due to inadequacy in structure or function of the
reproductive organs.
Menstrual Disorders
● Menstrual disorders occur due to imbalance in the menstrual cycle of a female. These disorders include:
● Amenorrhea (absence of menstruation).
● Menorrhagia (excessive menstruation).
● Dysmenorrhea (painful menstruation).
Cervical Cancer
● Cervical cancer is a cancer arising in the cervix. It occurs due to an abnormal growth of cervical cells that have the ability to
invade or spread to other parts of the body. Human papillomavirus causes almost 90% of the cases of cervical cancers.
Fig 2.21 Female reproductive system showing cervical cancer
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
Ectopic Pregnancy
● Ectopic pregnancy is a complication of pregnancy in which the embryo attaches itself outside the uterus. Signs and symptoms
of ectopic pregnancy includes abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. An ectopic pregnancy can be fatal for the foetus.
Normal pregnancy Ectopic pregnancy
Fig 2.22 Normal and ectopic pregnancy in females
Endometriosis
● Endometriosis is a disease of the female reproductive system in which cells similar to those in the endometrium, the layer of
tissue that normally covers the inside of the uterus, grow outside the uterus. Most often this occurs on the ovaries, fallopian
tubes and tissues around the uterus and ovaries; however, in rare cases it may also occur in other parts of the body.
Fig 2.23 Endometriosis on ovary, fallopian tube and uterus
Breast Cancer
● Breast cancer is an invasive tumor that develops in the mammary glands. Breast cancer is detected via mammograms and
specialized testing on breast cancer tissues. Treatment of breast cancer may involve surgery, radiation, hormone therapy,
chemotherapy, and targeted therapy.
Fig 2.24 Breast cancer
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
4. Gametogenesis
Fig 2.25 Female gamete (egg) and male gamete (sperm)
● Gametogenesis is the process by which male and female sex cells or gametes i.e., sperm and ovum are formed respectively.
● The primary sex organs are the testes in the males and the ovaries in females which produce gametes through the process
of gametogenesis.
● Gametes differ from all other cells of the body as their nuclei contain only half the number of chromosomes found in the
nuclei of somatic cells.
● Meiosis forms the most significant part of the process of gametogenesis.
● Gametogenesis in male is called spermatogenesis while in females it is called oogenesis.
● Gametogenesis in both males and females comprises similar sequential changes that are multiplication phase, growth phase
and maturation phase.
4.1. Stages of Spermatogenesis
Fig 2.26 Schematic representation of spermatogenesis
● Spermatogenesis occurs in the seminiferous tubules of testes which are lined with germinal epithelium. consisting of largely
primordial germ cells.
● One cycle of spermatogenesis takes place for 65-75 days. Spermatogenesis includes two phases:
● Formation of spermatids, which includes the following phases:
● Multiplication phase: At sexual maturity, the undifferentiated primordial germ cells undergo mitosis several times to
form a large number of spermatogonia. Spermatogonia are diploid cells and are of two types i.e., Type A
spermatogonia that serves as stem cells to form additional spermatogonia, and Type B spermatogonia that serve as the
precursor of sperms.
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
● Growth phase: Type B spermatogonia actively divide to form a large primary spermatocyte by obtaining nourishment
from the nurse cells. Primary spermatocytes are diploid cells.
● Maturation phase: Each primary spermatocyte undergoes a meiotic division called maturation division. First meiotic
division leads to formation of two haploid secondary spermatocytes. These secondary spermatocytes undergo second
meiotic division to form four haploid spermatids.
● Formation of spermatozoa from spermatids
● The transformation of spermatid into spermatozoa is called spermiogenesis or spermateleosis. These spermatozoa are
later called spermatozoa or sperms.
● After spermatogenesis, the sperm heads become embedded in the Sertoli cells and are finally released from seminiferous
tubules by the process of spermiation.
Fig 2.27 Diagrammatic sectional view of seminiferous tubules
Differences between Spermatogenesis and Spermiogenesis
Spermatogenesis Spermiogenesis
It is the process of the formation of It is the process of the transformation of
haploid spermatozoa (sperms) from the spermatids into spermatozoa (sperms).
1. 1.
undifferentiated diploid primordial
germ cells of the testes.
It involves multiplication phase, growth It involves only the differentiation
2. phase, maturation phase and 2. phase. Therefore, it is a part of
differentiation phase. spermatogenesis.
A spermatogonium produces four One spermatid develops into one
3. 3.
spermatozoa (sperms). spermatozoon.
4.2. Hormonal Control of spermatogenesis

● Spermatogenesis starts at puberty due to significant increase in the secretion of a hypothalamic hormone which is the
Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH).
● The increased level of GnRH then acts on the anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of two gonadotropins –
luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH).
● LH acts on the Leydig cells and stimulates synthesis and secretion of androgens. Androgens, in turn, stimulate the
process of spermatogenesis.
● FSH acts on the Sertoli cells and stimulates secretion of factors which help in the process of spermiogenesis.
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
4.3. Significance of Spermatogenesis

● During spermatogenesis, one spermatogonium produces four sperms.
● Sperms have half the number of chromosomes as compared to spermatogonia. After fertilization, the diploid chromosome
number is restored in the zygote. It maintains the chromosome number of species.
● During meiosis I, crossing over takes place, which brings about variations.
4.4. Structure of a Human Sperm
Fig 2.28 Structure of a spermatozoa (sperm)
● Sperms are microscopic and motile cells.

● Sperms are alive and retain their ability to fertilize the ovum (eggs) from 24 to 48 hours after having been released in the
female genital tract.
● A typical mammalian sperm consists of head, neck, middle piece and end piece.
● Head: It consists of anterior small acrosome and posterior large nucleus. Acrosome is formed of Golgi bodies of the
spermatid. It contains hyaluronidase proteolytic enzyme called spermalysin that is used to penetrate egg at the time of
fertilization. Another important structure is the nucleus containing a haploid set of chromosomes which can be either
22X or 22Y.
● Neck: It is short and is present between the head and middle piece. It contains a proximal centriole towards the nucleus
which plays an important role in first cleavage of zygote and distal centriole which give rise to axial filament of sperm.
● Middle piece: It contains mitochondria coiled round the axial filament called mitochondrial spiral called Nebenkern
sheath. Mitochondria provides energy for the movement of sperm. Hence, it is called the powerhouse of sperm. Posterior
half of the nucleus, neck and middle piece of the sperm are covered by a sheath called a manchette.
● Tail: The tail is several times longer than the head. In most parts called the middle piece, the axial filament is surrounded
by a thin layer of cytoplasm. The part behind the main piece is called the end piece which consists of naked filament
only. The sperm swims by its tail in the fluid medium.
4.5. Semen
● Sperms released from the seminiferous tubules are transported by the accessory ducts.
● Secretions of epididymis, vas deferens, seminal vesicle and prostate are essential for maturation and motility of sperms. The
seminal plasma along with the sperms constitute the semen.
● The functions of male sex accessory ducts and glands are maintained by the testicular hormones (androgens).
● Semen has a pH of 7.35 to 7.50 and is ejected from the penis during ejaculation. A single ejaculation may contain 200 to 300
million spermatozoa of which 60% must have normal shape and size and at least 40% of them must show rigorous motility
for normal fertility.
● When the above criteria is not met, it can lead to a number of sperm disorders such as
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
Aspermia - lack of semen; anejaculation

Asthenozoospermia - sperm motility below lower reference limit
Azoospermia - absence of sperm in the ejaculate
Hyperspermia - Semen volume above higher reference limit
Hypospermia - Semen volume below lower reference limit
Oligozoospermia - Total sperm count below lower reference limit
Necrozoospermia - Absence of living sperm in the ejaculate
Percent normal forms below lower reference limit.
Teratozoospermia –
The condition of presence of normal number of motile
Isospermia-
sperms in human male.
FUN FACT
Sperm swim in the human seminal fluid at the rate of 1-4mm per minute and time taken by the sperm for the entry in the oocyte
is around 30 minutes.
4.6. Oogenesis
Fig 2.29 Schematic representation of oogenesis
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
● The process of formation of mature female gamete (ovum) is called oogenesis. It occurs inside the ovaries.
● Oogenesis occurs in three phases which are as follows
● Multiplication Phase:
● Multiplication stage of oogenesis is initiated during the embryonic development stage when a couple of million gamete
mother cells (oogonia) are formed within each foetal ovary; no more oogonia are formed and added after birth.
● Growth Phase:
● Oogonia start division and enter into Prophase-I of the meiotic division and get temporarily arrested at that stage, called
primary oocytes. This phase of primary oocyte is very long and may extend for many years. Each primary oocyte gets
surrounded by a layer of granulosa cells to form a primary follicle.
● Each primary oocyte then gets surrounded by a layer of granulosa cells and is called the primary follicle. A large number
of these follicles degenerate during the phase from birth to puberty. Therefore, at puberty only 60,000-80,000 primary
follicles are left in each ovary.
● Primary oocyte does not complete the first meiotic division and gets arrested in the diplotene stage of the prophase I.
● Maturation Phase:
● Each primary oocyte undergoes two maturation divisions. After puberty is attained, the primary oocyte completes its first
meiotic or maturation division to form a large haploid secondary oocyte and small first polar body so that secondary
oocyte retains the bulk of the nutrient rich cytoplasm of the primary oocyte.
● The secondary oocyte retains the bulk of the nutrient-rich cytoplasm of the primary oocyte because the secondary oocyte
further develops into ovum that undergoes fertilization and formation of the zygote where the nutrition in bulk is required
for healthy development and growth.
● Secondary oocyte starts the second meiotic or maturation division but does not complete it, rather gets arrested in the
metaphase -II of the second meiotic division and completes it only after the fusion of a sperm with it.
● The formation of the polar body is essential to retain the haploid state of the female gamete. But the polar body only gets
a small amount of cytoplasm so it frequently dies and disintegrates.
● Apart from development of the oocyte, follicles surrounding the oocyte also undergo development to form secondary follicles
then tertiary follicles followed by mature Graafian follicles.
4.7. Hormonal Control of Oogenesis:

● Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) secreted by hypothalamus stimulates the anterior lobe of the pituitary to secrete LH
and FSH, the gonadotropins.
● FSH stimulates the growth of Graafian follicles and also the development of egg or oocyte within the follicle to complete
meiosis-I to form a secondary oocyte. FSH stimulates the formation of estrogen.
● LH stimulates the rupture of Graafian follicle to release secondary oocytes thus causing ovulation.
● The remaining part of the Graafian follicle is stimulated by LH to form a large yellow temporary endocrine structure called
corpus luteum. Corpus luteum releases a surge of progesterone.
● The rising high level of progesterone inhibits the release of GnRH which in turn, inhibits the production of FSH, LH
and progesterone.
4.8. Significance of Oogenesis

● One oogonium produces one egg and two or three polar bodies.
● Polar bodies have small amounts of cytoplasm. It helps to retain a sufficient amount of cytoplasm in the ovum which is
essential for the development of early embryos. Formation of polar bodies maintains half the number of chromosomes in
the ovum.
● During meiosis, first crossing over takes place which brings about variation.
● Oogenesis occurs in various organisms. Therefore, it supports the basic relationship among the organisms.
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
4.9. Ovum/Ootid
Fig 2.30 Structure of Ovum
● The mature ovum or female gamete is spherical in shape. It is almost free of yolk and is hence called alecithal.
● The cytoplasm of the ovum is called ooplasm and it contains a large nucleus called the germinal vesicle. The nucleus contains
a prominent nucleolus.
● Centrioles are absent in the cytoplasm of the ovum.
● The cytoplasm is enveloped by a plasma membrane. Very small vesicles called cortical granules are present under
plasma membranes.
● A narrow perivitelline space is present outside the plasma membrane. Just outside the perivitelline space, there is a thick
acellular zona pellucida which is secreted by follicular cells.
● Beyond the zona pellucida, there is a very thick cellular layer called corona radiata made up of radially elongated
follicular cells.
● The side of the ovum that extrudes the polar body is called the animal pole and the side opposite to it is the vegetal pole.
● Human ovum loses its ability to be fertilized about 24 hours after ovulation.
● In humans, the ovum is released from the ovary as a secondary oocyte.
Differences between Spermatogenesis and Oogenesis

Spermatogenesis Oogenesis
1. It occurs in the testes 1. It occurs in the ovaries
Spermatogonia changes to primary
2. 2. Oogonia changes to primary oocytes
spermatocytes
A primary spermatocyte divides to A primary oocyte divides to form one
3. 3.
form two secondary spermatocytes. secondary oocyte and one polar body
A secondary spermatocyte divides to A secondary oocyte divides to form
4. 4.
form two spermatids one ootid and one polar body
5. No polar body is formed 5. Polar bodies are formed
A spermatogonium forms four
6. 6. An oogonium forms one ovum.
spermatozoa
Ova are much larger often with yolk
7. Sperms are minute yolkless and motile 7.
and nonmotile
It is often completed in the female
It is generally completed in the testes
reproductive tract or in many animals
8. and thus mature sperms are released 8.
in water because oocytes are released
from the testes
from the ovaries
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
4.10. Folliculogenesis
Fig 2.31 Diagrammatic sectional view of ovary
● Folliculogenesis is the maturation of the ovarian follicle, a densely packed shell of somatic cells that contains an immature
oocyte. The credit for the discovery of the ovarian follicles is given to De Graaf.
● The primary oocyte formed after first meiotic division gets surrounded by a layer of flat granulosa cells resulting in a
structure called the primordial follicle. The cells of primordial follicles increase in size and number to form primary follicles.
● All the primary follicles are formed in the foetal stage and no new follicle is formed after the birth. These follicles are located
in the stroma of the ovaries.
● A large number of these follicles degenerate during the phase from birth to puberty by a process called follicular atresia.
Therefore, at the time of puberty only 60,000 - 80,000 primary follicles are left in the ovary. Primary follicles have oocytes
arrested in the diplotene stage of Prophase I.
● The primary follicles get surrounded by more granulosa cells to form secondary follicles. Secondary follicles develop theca
layers and connective tissues. The theca layers are responsible for production of the ovarian hormone, estrogen.
● The secondary follicle soon transforms into a tertiary follicle which is characterised by a fluid filled cavity called antrum. The
theca layer is organised into an inner theca interna and an outer theca externa. The primary oocyte within the tertiary follicle
grows in size and completes its first meiotic division. It is an unequal division resulting in the formation of a large haploid
secondary oocyte and a tiny first polar body.
● The tertiary follicle further changes into a mature follicle or Graafian follicle. The secondary oocyte forms a new membrane
called the zona pellucida surrounding it. The Graafian follicle now ruptures to release the secondary oocyte (ovum) from the
ovary by the process of ovulation.
Description Size
Primordial Dormant, small, only layer of flat granulosa 0.03 - 0.05 mm in diameter
Follicles cells surrounding primary oocyte
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
Primary Follicles ● A primary oocyte surrounded by a layer 0.1 mm in diameter

of granulosa cuboidal cells.
● Primary oocyte is arrested at the
diplotene stage of Prophase-I
Secondary ● Primary oocyte surrounded by multiple 0.2 mm in diameter

Follicles layers of granulosa cells.
● Presence of endocrine theca cells and
connective tissue.
Tertiary Follicles ● It has a fully formed antrum (= cave) Range from 0.2 mm to 20 mm in diameter depending on
filled with a fluid called follicular fluid various stages of development
or liquor folliculi.
● The theca layer is organized into inner
theca interna and outer theca externa.
● Primary oocyte completes its first
meiotic division forming a large
secondary oocyte arrested at metaphase
II and a tiny polar body.
Graafian Follicles ● Majority of follicles that started the

(Antral Follicle or growth have died. This is called follicular
late tertiary atresia.
follicle) ● Granulosa cells begin to differentiate into
subtypes.
● Zona pellucida, a translucent matrix of
glycoproteins, surrounds the secondary
oocyte.
● The follicle is filled with a fluid called
antrum.
Corpus Luteum ● Remnant of Graafian follicle turns into a
yellow-coloured body.
● Its life span in non-pregnant females is
for 14 days where it produces
progesterone hormone.
● In pregnant females it lasts until the
placenta is developed i.e., roughly for 4
months.
Corpus albicans ● Regressed form of corpus luteum
● It is a white-coloured structure which is
formed after the attack of macrophages
on corpus luteum.
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
5. Menstrual Cycle
The events involved in reproduction in female mammals occur in a cyclic manner. Constituting the reproductive cycle or ovarian
cycle. The reproductive cycle is of two types:
● Oestrus Cycle
● Menstrual Cycle
5.1. Oestrus Cycle

● The oestrus cycle consists of a few days of oestrus or “heat” followed by a few days of anoestrus of “quiescence”.
● During oestrus, the female is sexually responsive, allows a male to copulate, eggs are released and pregnancy is possible.
● During anoestrus, females become passive and do not accept a male
● The oestrus occurs in all mammals except primates.
● In non-primate mammals, oestrus occurs in the breeding season only whereas an oestrus spreads over the entire non-
● breeding season.
● During the oestrus cycle, the wall of the uterus does not dissolve i.e., no bleeding takes place.
● Depending upon the number of oestrus cycle in a breeding season, they can be of two types:
● Mono-oestrus cycle: In the breeding period of some animals only one oestrus cycle is present. E.g., rabbit, hare, dog, fox,
bat, deer etc.
● Poly-oestrus cycle: In majority of animals many oestrus cycles occur during the breeding period. E.g., rats, squirrels,
cow, sheep, pig, horse etc.
5.2. Menstrual Cycle

● The reproductive cycle in female primates (e.g., monkeys, apes and human beings) is called menstrual cycle.
● The first menstruation marks the onset of puberty in females and is called menarche.
● In human females, menstruation is repeated at an average interval of about 28/29 days, and the cycle of events starting from
one menstruation till the next one is called the menstrual cycle.
Fig 2.32 Menstrual cycle in females
● One secondary oocyte is released (ovulation) during the middle of each menstrual cycle.
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
● Menstrual cycle is divided into four phases:

● Menstrual Phase or Bleeding Phase
● Follicular Phase or Proliferative Phase
● Ovulatory Phase or Fertility Phase
● Luteal Phase or Secretory Phase
Menstrual Phase (Bleeding Phase)

● The cycle starts with the menstrual phase, which comprises of uterine blood flow lasting for 3-5 days.
● The production of the LH hormone from the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland is considerably reduced. The withdrawal of
this hormone degenerates the corpus luteum, therefore reducing progesterone production. Estrogen production is
also reduced.
● The low level of progesterone results in menstrual flow that occurs due to breakdown of endometrial lining of the uterus and
its blood vessels, which forms the liquid that comes out through vagina.
● Apart from blood, the cells of the endometrial lining and the unfertilized ovum also constitute menstrual flow.
● Lack of menstruation may be indicative of pregnancy. However, it may also be caused due to some other underlying causes
like stress, poor health etc.
Proliferative Phase (Follicular Phase)

● This phase lasts for 6-13 days. During this phase, the primary follicles in the ovary grow to become a fully mature Graafian
follicle and simultaneously the endometrium of the uterus regenerates through proliferation.
● These changes in the ovary and the uterus are induced by changes in the levels of pituitary and ovarian hormones.
● The secretion of gonadotropins (LH and FSH) increases gradually during the follicular phase, and stimulates follicular
development as well as secretion of estrogens by the growing follicles.
Ovulatory Phase
● It involves ovulation, or release of the female gamete, from the Graafian follicle of ovary.
● The mature Graafian follicle rises to the surface of the ovary and ruptures to release the oocyte. This phenomenon is
called ovulation.
● It occurs midway between two menstrual cycles on 14th day of the onset of menstrual cycle due to increasing turgidity and
contraction of smooth muscles fibres around the Graafian follicles.
● The oocyte is received by fimbriae of fallopian tube. The female gamete remains viable for two days.
● Both LH and FSH attain a peak level in the middle of the cycle.
● Rapid secretion of LH leading to its maximum level during the mid-cycle called LH surge induces rupture of the Graafian
follicle and thereby the release of the female gamete.
● Egg, at the time of ovulation, is in the secondary oocyte state. It remains surrounded by its zona pellucida and corona radiata.
● There is not much change in the uterine endometrium during ovulatory phase.
Luteal Phase (Secretory Phase)

● Ovulation (ovulatory phase) is followed by the luteal phase during which the remaining parts of the Graafian follicle
transform into the corpus luteum.
● The corpus luteum secretes large amounts of progesterone which is essential for maintenance of the endometrium.
● Such an endometrium is necessary for implantation of the fertilized ovum and other events of pregnancy.
● Cyclic menstruation is an indicator of normal reproductive health, and it extends between menarche and menopause.
● During pregnancy, all events of the menstrual cycle stop and there is no menstruation.
● In the absence of fertilization, the corpus luteum degenerates. This causes disintegration of the endometrium leading to
menstruation, marking a new cycle.
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
Fig 2.33 Diagrammatic presentation of various events during a menstrual cycle
5.3. Effect of Fertilization

● If fertilization occurs and an embryo is implanted in the endometrium, the trophoblast cells of the developing placenta secrete
a hormone called the human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).
● This hormone, like LH, maintains the corpus luteum and the secretion of progesterone and estradiol by it.
● These two hormones check the breakdown of endometrium of the uterus.
● The absence of menstrual bleeding is the earliest sign of pregnancy.
● By the 16th week of pregnancy, the placenta produces progesterone and estradiol in case of a normal pregnancy. The now
unnecessary corpus luteum undergoes shrinkage.
● Fertilization restores the diploid condition in the zygote and the equational division (meiosis II) is completed only if
fertilization occurs.
● Premature degeneration of corpus luteum is a common cause of miscarriage (abortion) at about 10-12 week of pregnancy.
5.4. Menopause
● In human beings, menstrual cycle and ovulation ceases to occur around 50 years of age. This phenomenon of the cessation of
the menstrual cycle is termed as menopause.
● Menopause is characterized by hot flushes and a number of behavioural changes in women. FSH is secreted in the urine.
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
Phases Days Events

Endometrium breaks down, menstruation begins.
The cells of endometrium, secretions, blood and the
Menstrual Phase 1-5 unfertilized ovum constitute the menstrual flow.
Progesterone production is reduced. In fact, menstrual
flow is associated with withdrawal of progesterone
Follicular phase Endometrium rebuilds, FSH and estrogen secretion
6 - 13
(Proliferative Phase) increases.
Both LH and FSH attain peak levels. Concentration of
Ovulatory Phase About 14th Day estrogen in the blood is also high and this reaches its
peak. Ovulation occurs.
Luteal Phase Corpus luteum secretes progesterone. Endometrium
15-28
(Secretory Phase) thickens and the uterine glands become secretory.
6. Fertilization
● The fusion of a haploid male gamete (sperm) and a haploid female gamete (ovum) to form a diploid zygote is
called fertilization.
● In human beings, fertilization takes place mostly in the ampulla region of the oviduct.
Fig 2.34 Transport of ovum, fertilization and passage of growing embryo through fallopian tube
Fig 2.35 Steps of fertilization
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
6.1 Approach of a Sperm towards the Secondary Oocyte

● During copulation (coitus), the male genitalia discharges around 3.5 ml of semen into the vagina, close to the cervix of the
female reproductive system. This is called insemination.
● The motile sperms swim rapidly, pass through the cervix, enter the uterus and finally reach the ampullary region of the
fallopian tube where fertilization takes place.
● There are as many as 200- 300 million sperms released in the vagina, but only 100 sperms reach the fallopian tubes because
many sperms are either killed by the acidity of the female genital tract or engulfed by phagocytes of the vaginal epithelium.
● The sperms swim in the seminal fluid at the rate of 1-4 mm per minute by the action of the uterus and peristaltic movement of
the fallopian tube.
● Capacitation is the phenomenon of physiological maturation of sperms by breaking down of the acrosome membrane inside
the female genital tract.
● Fertilization can only occur if the ovum and sperm are transported simultaneously to the ampullary region.
● This is the reason why every act of copulation doesn’t lead to fertilization and pregnancy.
6.2. Penetration of Sperm

● The oocyte secretes a chemical substance called fertilizin, which has a number of spermophilic sites as its surface where the
sperm of species-specific type can be bound by their anti-fertilizin site.
● The fertilizin and anti-fertilizin interaction causes agglutination or sticking together of egg and sperm. Penetration of the
oocyte membrane by a sperm occurs by means of a chemical mechanism.
● The acrosome of a sperm undergoes an acrosomal reaction and releases an acidic protein called sperm lysin which dissolves
the egg envelope.
● The sperm lysin contains hyaluronidase which dissolves the hyaluronic acid matrix holding the granulosa cells of the corona
radiata. Acrosin or zona lysin from the acrosome dissolves the zona pellucida.
● A sperm that comes in contact with the zona pellucida layer of the oocyte, induces changes in the oocyte membrane that block
the entry of additional sperms, preventing polyspermy.
6.3. Cortical Reaction

● Immediately after the fusion of the sperm and plasma membrane of the oocyte, the secondary oocyte shows the
cortical reaction.
● In this reaction, the cortical granules present beneath the egg’s plasma membrane fuse with the plasma membrane of the
oocyte and release their contents, including cortical enzymes between the plasma membrane and zona pellucida.
● These enzymes harden the zona pellucida and form a fertilization membrane which prevents the entry of additional
sperms (block of polyspermy).
● Entrance of the sperm induces completion of the second meiotic division in the secondary oocyte, and it turns into an ovum.
● The second meiotic division is also unequal and results in the formation of the second polar body and a haploid ovum (ootid).
6.4. Fusion of Gametic Nuclei

● The head of sperm which contains the nucleus detaches or separates from the middle piece and the sperm tail.
● The egg nucleus or female pronucleus is ready for union with the male pronucleus, which is present within the sperm head.
● The male and female pronuclei fuse together.
● Mixing of the chromosomes of sperm and the ovum is known as karyogamy or amphimixis.
● The fertilized ovum is now called zygote. The zygote is a diploid unicellular cell, which has 46 chromosomes in humans.
6.5. Significance of Fertilization

● It provides a stimulus for the egg to complete its maturation.
● It restores the diploid number of chromosomes, which is 46 in human beings.
● It introduces the centriole which is lacking in mature ova.
● It results in determination of the sex of the embryo. It combines the characteristics of two parents, introducing variations,
hence helping in evolution.
● Fertilization membrane formed after sperm entry checks the entry of additional sperms (block of polyspermy).
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
6.6. Sex of the Baby
Fig 2.36 Sex determination in humans
● The sex of the baby is decided at the fertilization stage.

● The sex chromosome pattern in the human female is XX and that in the male is XY.
● Therefore, all the haploid gametes (ova) produced by the female have the sex chromosome X whereas in the male gametes
(sperms) the sex chromosome could be either X or Y. Hence, 50 percent of sperms carry the X chromosome while the other
50 percent carry the Y chromosome. This is called male heterogamety, in which males produce two different types
of gametes.
● After fusion of the male and female gametes the zygote would carry either XX or XY depending on whether the sperm
carrying X or Y fertilized the ovum respectively.
● The zygote carrying XX would develop into a female baby and the one containing XY would form a male.
● That is why, scientifically it is correct to say that the sex of the baby is determined by the father and not by the mother.
7. Embryonic Development
7.1. Cleavage
● Cleavage is a series of rapid mitotic divisions of the zygote which convert single cell zygote into multicellular structure called
blastula (blastocysts).
● About 30 hours after fertilization, the newly formed zygote divides into cells (blastomeres), in the upper portion of the
fallopian tube. This is the first cleavage.
● The next division occurs within 40 hours after fertilization. The third division occurs about three days after fertilization.
● During these early cleavages, the young embryo is slowly moving down the fallopian tube towards the uterus.
● At the end of the fourth day, the embryo reaches the uterus. It has 8-16 blastomeres and this solid mass of cells is known as
morula (little mulberry) as it looks like mulberry.
● When the blastomeres divide completely the cleavage is called holoblastic.
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
Fig 2.37 Stages of cleavage in zygote
7.2. Significance of Cleavage

● Cleavage brings about:
● The distribution of cytoplasm of the zygote, amongst the blastomeres.
● Increased mobility of the protoplasm which facilitates morphogenetic movements necessary for cell differentiation, germ
layer formation and the formation of organs and tissues.
● The restoration of the cell size and the nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio characteristics of the species.
● Conversion of unicellular zygote into a multicellular embryo.
7.3. Blastocyst (Blastula) and Blastomeres
Fig 2.38 Structure of blastocyst
● At the next stage of development which produces an embryo with about sixty-four cells, a cavity is formed within the
cell mass.
● This cavity is called the blastocyst cavity and the embryo is termed as the blastocyst, which is composed of an outer envelope
of cells, the trophoblast or trophoectoderm and an inner cell mass.
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
● The side of blastocyst to which the inner cell mass is attached is called embryonic or animal pole while the opposite side is
abembryonic pole.
● The trophoblast encircles the blastocoel and the inner cell mass.
● The cells of trophoblast help to provide nutrition to the embryo.
● The cells of trophoblast later form extra embryonic membranes namely chorion and amnion and part of the placenta.
● The cells of trophoblast which are in contact with the inner cell mass are called cells of Rauber.
Differences between Morula and Blastula

Morula Blastula (Blastocyst)
It is a solid ball like structure which It is a hollow structure with a

1. 1.
looks like a little mulberry blastocoel/blastocyst cavity in the center
It is formed of an outer nutritive layer, a

2. It is formed of similar type of cells 2.
trophoblast and an inner cell mass
3. Zona pellucida is intact 3. Zona pellucida starts disintegrating
7.4. Implantation
● The process of blastocyst getting embedded in the endometrium of the uterus is called implantation.
● Though the implantation may occur at any period between 6th and 10th day after fertilization but generally it occurs on the
seventh day after fertilization.
● The blastocyst sinks into a pit formed in the endometrium to get completely buried in the endometrium. The embedded
blastocyst forms finger-like projections called villi to get nourishment.
● Zona pellucida becomes thinner and finally disappears. The function of zona pellucida is to prevent implantation at an
abnormal site which could lead to ectopic or extrauterine pregnancy.
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
Fig 2.39 Implantation of blastocyst in endometrium of uterus
7.5. Significance of Implantation

● It helps in deriving nourishment for the baby from the maternal tissues.
● It ensures that the developing embryo is protected within the uterus.
7.6. Gastrulation
● The blastocyst continues with the development process even when implantation is taking place. Formation of gastrula from
blastula is called gastrulation.
● Gastrulation is defined as the process during which the primary germinal layers namely ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm
are formed by morphological movements.
● Immediately after implantation, the inner cell mass (embryo) differentiates into an outer layer called ectoderm and an inner
layer called endoderm.
● A mesoderm soon appears between the ectoderm and the endoderm.
Fig 2.40 Gastrulation in embryo
● These three layers give rise to all tissues and organs in adults. The inner cell mass of a blastocyst contains certain cells called
stem cells which have the potency to give rise to all the tissues and organs.
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
7.7. Fate of Germ Layers

Ectoderm Mesoderm Endoderm
Epidermis and skin derivatives Dermis Gut
Cutaneous Glands Muscular Glands Glands of stomach and intestine
Nervous system Connective tissue Tongue
Motor and optic nerve Endoskeleton Lungs, trachea, bronchi
Eye (Retina, lens, cornea) Vascular system (Heart and blood Urinary bladder
vessels)
Conjunctiva and ciliary and iridial muscles Kidney Primordial germ cells
Nasal epithelium Gonads (Testis and ovary) Gills
Internal ear Urinary and genital duct Liver
Lateral line sense organ Coelom and coelomic epithelium Pancreas
Stomodeum Choroid and sclerotic coat of eye Thyroid gland
Salivary gland Adrenal cortex Parathyroid gland
Enamel of teeth Spleen Thymus
Proctodaeum Notochord Middle ear
Pituitary gland Parietal and visceral peritoneum Eustachian tube
Pineal body - Mesenteron
Adrenal medulla - Lining of vagina and urethra
Hypothalamus - Prostate gland
7.8. Extra-Embryonic layers or Foetal Membranes

● The growing embryo or foetus develops four membranes called extraembryonic or foetal membranes. These include the
amnion, chorion, allantois and yolk sac.
● Chorion: It is made up of trophoblast on the outside and somatopleuric extra embryonic mesoderm on the inside. It
completely surrounds the embryo and protects it. It also takes part in the formation of placenta.
● Amnion: It is composed of trophoblast on the inside and somatopleuric extraembryonic mesoderm outside. The space
between embryo and amnion is called the amniotic cavity which is filled with a clear water fluid secreted by both the embryo
and amniotic membrane. The amniotic fluid prevents desiccation of the embryo and acts as a protective cushion that
absorbs shock.
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
● Allantois: The allantois is composed of endoderm on the inside and splanchnopleuric extraembryonic mesoderm outside. It is
a sac-like structure which arises from the gut of embryos near the yolk sac.
● Yolk sac: The primary yolk sac consists of endoderm inside and splanchnopleuric extraembryonic mesoderm outside. The
yolk sac is nonfunctional in human beings, except that it acts as a site of early blood cell formation.
Fig 2.41 Extraembryonic or foetal membranes
FUN FACT
Embryo is an organism in the early stage of
development.
In human beings, the developing organism from
conception until approximately the end of eight
week (second month) is called embryo. Foetus
is the unborn young one of a viviparous animal,
after it has taken form in the uterus. In human
beings, an embryo is called a foetus from the
end of eight week till birth
Fig 2.42 Embryo
Fig 2.43 Foetus
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
8. Pregnancy and Gestation

● Pregnancy or gestation period is the time from conception to birth. In human beings, it is approximately 9 months or 280 days
or 80 weeks.
Fig 2.44 Foetus developing in a pregnant female
● Birth normally occurs at a gestational age of about 40 weeks, though it is common for birth to occur between week 37-42 of
the gestation period.
● Human pregnancy can be divided into three trimesters, each approximately three-month long.
● Gestation period of some animals are given below
S. No. Animal Days
1. Mouse 19-20
2 Rat 20-22
3 Rabbit 28-32
4 Cat 52-65
5 Dog 60-65
6 Pig 112-120
7 Goat 145-156
8 Man 270-290
9 Cow 275-290 (3 weeks)
10 Horse 330-345
11 Elephant 607-641
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
9. Placenta
● After implantation, finger-like projections appear on the trophoblast, called the chorionic villi which are surrounded by the
uterine tissue and maternal blood.
● The chorionic villi and uterine tissue become interdigitated with each other and jointly form a structural and functional unit
between the developing embryo (foetus) and the maternal body called the placenta.
● The human placenta is chorionic as it is formed only by the chorion.
Fig 2.45 Structure of placenta

● The function of the placenta is as follows:
● It supplies of oxygen and nutrients to the embryo
● It removes carbon dioxide and excretory/waste materials produced by the embryo.
● It also acts as an endocrine tissue and produces several hormones like human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG), human
placental lactogen (HPL), estrogens, progestogens, etc.
● In the later phase of pregnancy, a hormone called relaxin is also secreted by the ovary. HCG, HPL and relaxin are produced
in women only during pregnancy.
● In addition, during pregnancy the levels of other hormones like estrogens, progestogens, cortisol, prolactin, thyroxine, etc.,
are increased several folds in the maternal blood.
● Increased production of these hormones is essential for supporting foetal growth, metabolic changes in the mother and
maintenance of pregnancy.
● The placenta is connected to the embryo through an umbilical cord which helps in the transport of substances to and from
the embryo.
● The maternal and foetal blood are not in direct contact in the placenta because:
● The two blood types may be incompatible.
● The maternal blood pressure is far too high for the foetal blood vessels.
● There must be a check on the inflow of harmful materials (blood proteins, germs) into the foetal blood.
9.1. Important Developmental Changes in a Human Embryo

● The human gestation period or pregnancy in humans lasts for 9 months.
● In human beings, after one month of pregnancy, the embryo’s heart is formed. The first sign of a growing foetus may be
noticed by listening to heart sounds carefully through the stethoscope.
● By the end of the second month of pregnancy, the foetus develops limbs and digits. By the end of 12 weeks (first trimester),
most of the major organ systems are formed. For example, the limbs and external genital organs are well developed.
● The first movements of the foetus and appearance of hair on the head are usually observed during the fifth month.
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
● By the end of about 24 weeks (end of second trimester), the body is covered with fine hair, the eye-lids separate, and
eyelashes are formed.
● By the end of nine months of pregnancy, the foetus is fully developed and is ready for delivery.
Fig 2.46 Developmental changes in human embryo
9.2. Development at 4 Weeks

At this point the baby is developing structures that will eventually form their face and neck. The heart and blood vessels continue
to develop. And the lungs, stomach, and liver start to develop. A home pregnancy test would give a positive result at this stage.
Fig 2.47 Foetus development in 4 weeks

The baby is now a little over half an inch in size. Eyelids and ears are forming, and you can see the tip of the nose. The arms and
legs are well formed. The fingers and toes grow longer and more distinct.
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction

The baby weighs about 10 ounces and is a little more than 6 inches long. The baby can suck a thumb, yawn, stretch, and
make faces.

The baby weighs about 1.4 pounds now and responds to sounds by moving or increasing their pulse. Mothers may notice jerking
motions if they hiccup. With the inner ear fully developed, the baby may be able to sense being upside down in the womb.
FUN FACT
Can a Foetus Hear its Mother's Voice?
A foetus can hear sounds from the outside world around 22-24 weeks of pregnancy. Amazingly, babies may be able to recognize
their mother’s voice since even before birth. One study found that babies in the womb listen to their mother’s voice during the last
ten weeks of pregnancy. In fact, researchers have known that newborns recognize and prefer their own mother’s voice.
10. Parturition
● The average duration of human pregnancy is about 9 months which is called the gestation period.
● Vigorous contraction of the uterus at the end of pregnancy causes expulsion/delivery of the foetus. This process of delivery of
the foetus (childbirth) is called parturition.
● Parturition is induced by a complex neuroendocrine mechanism. The signals for parturition originate from the fully developed
foetus and the placenta, which induce mild uterine contractions called foetal ejection reflex.
● This triggers release of oxytocin from the maternal pituitary. Oxytocin acts on the uterine muscle and causes stronger uterine
contractions, which in turn stimulates further secretion of oxytocin.
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
● The stimulatory reflex between the uterine contractions and oxytocin secretion continues, resulting in increasingly
stronger contractions.
● This leads to expulsion of the baby out of the uterus through the birth canal. This process is called parturition. Soon after the
infant is delivered, the placenta is also expelled out of the uterus.
Fig 2.50 Parturition or childbirth
OPEN ENDED QUESTION

Q. What do you think the doctors inject to induce delivery?
A. Doctors inject oxytocin to induce labour pain and delivery. Oxytocin is released by the posterior
pituitary in response to the foetal ejection reflex initiated by a fully developed foetus and placenta.
Oxytocin induces stronger uterine contractions at the time of parturition (childbirth).
11. Lactation
● The mammary glands of females undergo differentiation during pregnancy and start producing milk towards the end of
pregnancy by a process called lactation.
● Lactation helps the mother in feeding the newborn. The milk produced during the initial few days of lactation is called
colostrum which contains several antibodies that are absolutely essential for develop innate immunity in the foetus. It is also
rich in proteins and has a low-fat content, which is required for development of the new-born babies.
● Breast-feeding during the initial period of infant growth is recommended by doctors for bringing up a healthy baby.
Fig 2.51 Colostrum of lactating mother and normal milk
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
● Composition of human milk

● Human milk consists of water and organic and inorganic substances.
● Its main constituents are fats (fat droplet), casein (milk protein), lactose (milk protein), mineral salts (sodium, potassium,
calcium and phosphorus) and vitamins.
● It is poor in iron content. Vitamin C is also present in very small quantities.
FUN FACT
Monozygotic twins, also called maternal or identical twins, are formed by the splitting of the fertilized egg. They share the same
placenta as well. Eli-zygotic twins, also called paternal or non-identical twins, are formed by the fat teat on of two separate eggs
from two separate sperms at the same time. Identical twins are always of the same sex while non-identical twins can belong to
different sexes.
Fig. 2.52 Monozygotic Twin Fig 2.53 Dizygotic Twin
FUN FACT
Conjoint twins is a condition where two babies born are physically connected to each other. It is a rare phenomenon that
happens at the early stage of embryo development when the embryo partially separates to form two foetuses but physically
remain connected. Usually, the two infants are seen to be connected at the chest, abdomen or pelvis. Chang and Eng Bunker
who lived from May 11, 1811 - January 17,1874, were Siamese-American conjoined brothers who became so famous that the
expression Siamese twin is now synonymous for conjoined twins in general.
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction
FUN FACT
Most of the body of the foetus is covered with downy hair called lanugo which are generally shed before birth. Lanugo
functions as an anchor to hold the vernix, a waxy substance coating the foetus. Vernix is theorized to serve several purposes like
lubrication, preventing infection and water proofing etc.
SCAN CODE
Human Reproduction

The Male Reproductive System? 10. Which of the following provides nutrition to sperms?
1. Epididymis lies between (a) Leydig cells (b) Scrotum
(a) Rete testis and vasa efferentia (c) Sertoli cells (d) Epididymis
(b) Vas deferens and vasa efferentia 11. Sertoli cells are found
(c) Vas deferens and ejaculatory duct (a) Between the seminiferous tubules
(d) Seminal tubules and rete testis (b) In the germinal epithelium of ovary
2. Where do sperms mature? (c) In the upper part of the Fallopian tube
(a) In seminal vesicle (d) In the germinal epithelium of the seminiferous
(b) Seminiferous tubules tubules
(c) In epididymis 12. Recognise the figure and find out the correct
matching.
(d) Vasa efferentia
3. The nutritive cells found in seminiferous tubules are
(a) Leydig's cells
(b) atretic follicular cells
(c) Sertoli cells
(d) chromatin cells.
4. The sugar fructose is present in the secretion of
(a) Bartholin’s glands (b) Cowper’s glands
(c) seminal vesicles (d) prostate gland
5. Ejaculatory duct is formed by the
(a) Vas deferens along with a duct from seminal
vesicle
(b) Epididymis along with a duct from seminal
vesicle
(c) Epididymis along with the prostatic duct (a) e-rete testis, d-testicular lobules, c-epididymis,
(d) Vas deferens along with the prostatic duct b-vasa efferentia, a-vas deferens
6. Which one of the following is not a male accessory (b) d-rete testis, e-testicular lobules, b-epididymis,
gland? (Exemplar) a-vasa efferentia, c-vas deferens
(a) Seminal vesicle (b) Ampulla (c) d-rete testis, e-testicular lobules, a-epididymis,
(c) Prostate (d) Bulbourethral gland c-vasa efferentia, b-vas deferens
7. Scrotal sacs are connected with abdominal cavity by (d) d-rete testis, e-testicular lobules, b-epididymis,
(a) Vaginal cavity (b) Spermatic canal c-vasa efferentia, a-vas deferens
(c) Inguinal canal (d) Haversian canal 13. Which is the correct sequence of male accessory
8. In many mammals, testes remain outside the body ducts starting from testis?
cavity in scrotal sacs because: (a) Rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis,
(a) It helps in coitus vas deferens
(b) It helps in ejection of semen
(b) Rete testis, vasa efferentia, vas deferens,
(c) Sperms produced in it are more active
epididymis
(d) Spermatogenesis occurs at a temperature lower
than that of body (c) Rete testis, vas deferens, epididymis,
9. The Leydig cells secrete vasa efferentia
(a) oestrogen (b) testosterone (d) Rete testis, vas deferens, vasa efferentia,
(c) progesterone (d) corticosterone epididymis.
14. Match the following 17. Cryptorchidism is a condition in which

Set I Set II (a) testis does not descend into scrotal sac
Network of (b) sperm is not found
I Inguinal canal 1
seminiferous tubules (c) male hormones are not reactive
Secondary sexual (d) ovaries are removed
ii Rete testis 2
characters 18. Spot the odd one out from the following structures
For descending of with reference to the male reproductive system.
iii Leydig cells 3
testis (Exemplar)
Maturation of (a) Rete testis (b) Epididymis
iv Prepuce 4
Sperms (c) Vasa efferentia (d) Isthmus
Terminal skin of 19. Seminal plasma, the fluid part of semen,is contributed
v Epididymis 5
penis by (Exemplar)
(a) i = 1, ii = 2, iii = 3, iv = 5, v = 4 (i) seminal vesicle
(b) i = 3, ii = 1, iii = 4, iv = 2, v = 5 (ii) prostate
(c) i = 2, ii = 4, iii = 3, iv = 5, v = 1 (iii) urethra
(d) i = 3, ii = 1, iii = 2, iv = 5, v = 4 (iv) bulbourethral gland
15. Which of the following gives the correct combination (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
of structures found in the mammalian testes? (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
(a) Graafian follicles, Sertoli cells, Leydig cells 20. The vas deferens receives duct from the seminal
(b) Graafian follicles, Sertoli cells, seminiferous vesicle and opens into urethra as (Exemplar)
tubules (a) epididymis (b) ejaculatory duct
(c) Sertoli cells, seminiferous tubules, Leydig cells (c) efferent ductules (d) ureter
(d) Graafian follicles, Leydig cells, seminiferous 21. Urethral meatus refers to the (Exemplar)
tubules
(a) urinogenital duct
16. Recognise the figure and find out the correct
(b) opening of vas deferens into urethra
matching.
(c) external opening of the urinogenital duct
(d) muscles surrounding the urinogenital duct.
22. Given below are the three statements each with two
blanks. Select the option which correctly fills up the
blank in any two statements.
(A) Each seminiferous tubule is lined on its inside by
two types of cells called (i) and (ii).
(B) The seminiferous tubules open into the (i) through
(ii).
(C) The enlarged end of penis called the (i) is covered
by a loose fold of skin called the (ii)
(a) (B) – (i) vas deferens, (ii) urethral meatus
(A) – (i) spermatogonia, (ii) follicular cells
(a) d-vas deferens, c-seminal vesicle, a-ejaculatory
(b) (C) – (i) glans penis, (ii) foreskin
duct b-bulbourethral gland, e-prostate gland
(B) – (i) vasa efferentia, (ii) rete testis
(b) b-vas deferens, a-seminal vesicle, d-ejaculatory
23. The function of the secretion of prostate gland is to
duct, c-bulbourethral gland, e-prostate gland
(a) inhibit sperm activity
(c) d-vas deferens, e-seminal vesicle, b-ejaculatory
duct, a-bulbourethral gland, c-prostate gland (b) attract sperms
(d) b-vas deferens, a-seminal vesicle, d-ejaculatory (c) stimulate sperm activity
duct, e-bulbourethral gland, c-prostate gland (d) none of these.
24. Assertion: The regions outside the seminiferous 30. The main function of the fimbriae of the fallopian
tubules are called interstitial spaces, which contain tube in females is to
Leydig cells. (a) release ovum from the Graafian follicle
Reason: Leydig cells synthesize and secrete testicular (b) make necessary changes in the endometrium for
hormones called androgens. implantation
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is (c) help in the development of corpus luteum
the correct explanation of assertion. (d) help in the collection of the ovum after ovulation
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is 31. Recognise the figure and find out the correct
not the correct explanation of assertion. matching.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
25. Assertion: Each seminiferous tubule is lined on its
inside by three types of cells.
Reason: These cells are male germ cells, Sertoli cells
and Leydig cells.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is (a) c-infundibulum, b-ampulla, a-isthmus, d-fimbriae
not the correct explanation of assertion. (b) a-infundibulum, b- ampulla, c-isthmus, d-fimbriae
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false. (c) b-infundibulum, a-ampulla, d-isthmus, c-fimbriae
(d) If both assertion and reason are false. (d) c-infundibulum, a-ampulla, b-isthmus, d-fimbriae
32. Identify the structures labeled A, B, C and D in the
The Female Reproductive System female reproductive system
26. Clitoris in a female mammal is:

(a) Nonfunctional
(b) An overgrown structure
(c) Analogous to penis of male
(d) Homologous to penis of male
27. The female external genitalia includes
(i) Mons pubis (ii) Labia majora (a) A-oviduct, B-uterus, C-oviduct, D-ovary
(iii) Labia minora (iv) Hymen (b) A-cervix, B-uterus, C-ovary, D-fundus
(v) Clitoris (vi) Uterus (c) A-uterus, B-uterine cavity, C-oviducal funnel,
(a) i, ii and iii (b) iv, v and vi
D- ovary
(c) i, ii, iii and vi (d) i, ii, iii, iv and v
(d) A-cervix, B-uterine cavity, C-Fallopian tube,
28. Mammary glands are modified D- ovary
(a) sweat glands (b) sebaceous glands
(c) lacrimal glands (d) endocrine glands matching
29. Lower narrow end of uterus is called
(a) urethra
(b) cervix
(c) clitoris
(d) vulva
(a) d-vagina, c-cervix, b-urinary bladder, a-uterus, Gametogenesis

e-urethra 38. For the normal fertility of human male ____ of
(b) c-vagina, d-cervix, a-urinary bladder, b-uterus, sperms must have normal shape and size and at least
e-urethra _____ of then must show vigorous movement
respectively
(c) e-vagina, b-cervix, c-urinary bladder, d-uterus,
(a) 40,60
a-urethra
(b) 60,40
(d) d-vagina, c-cervix, a-urinary bladder, b-uterus,
(c) 70,30
e-urethra
(d) 30,70
34. Milk secreted from the cells of alveoli of mammary
39. How many sperms are usually found in an average
lobes reaches nipple through lactiferous duct (L),
(3 mL) ejaculation?
mammary duct (M), mammary tubule (T) and
mammary ampulla (A) in the following order (a) 100 million
(a) TMAL (b) 300 million

(c) 400 million
(b) MTLA
(d) 500 million
(c) MTAL
40. 2n=16 is a primary spermatocyte, which is in
(d) ATML
metaphase of first meiotic division. What shall be the
35. Identify the odd one from the following. (Exemplar) total number of chromatids in each of the secondary
(a) Labia minora spermatocytes?
(b) Fimbriae (a) 32 (b) 8
(c) Infundibulum (c) 16 (d) 24
(d) Isthmus 41. Recognise the figure and find out the correct
matching.
36. Assertion: The shape of the uterus is like an inverted
pear.
Reason: The inner glandular layer that lines the
uterine cavity is called as myometrium.
37. Assertion: The female external genitalia includes
mons pubis, labia majora and labia minora.
(a) a-spermatozoa, b-spermatid, c-primary
Reason: The glandular tissue of each breast is spermatocyte, d-secondary spermatocyte,
divided into 5-10 mammary lobes. e-spermatogonia, f-Sertoli cell
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is (b) a-spermatozoa, b-sec. spermatocyte, c-spermatid,
the correct explanation of assertion. d-primary spermatocyte, e-sertoli cell, f-spermato-
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is gonium
not the correct explanation of assertion. (c) b-spermatozoa, a-spermatid, c-primary
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false. spermatocyte, d-secondary spermatocyte,
e spermatogonia, f-Sertoli cell
(d) b-spermatozoa, a-spermatid, d-primary
spermatocyte, c-secondary spermatocyte,
f-spermatogonia, e-Sertoli cell
42. Recognise the figure and find out the correct (d) d-mitosis differentiation, c-first meiotic
matching. division, a-second meiotic division, b-
differentiation
44. How many secondary spermatocytes are required to
form 400 spermatozoa?
(a) 40 (b) 100
(c) 200 (d) 400
45. The immature male germ cell undergoes division to
produce sperms by the process of spermatogenesis.
Choose the correct one with reference to above.
(Exemplar)
(a) Spermatogonia have 46 chromosomes and they
always undergo meiotic cell division.
(b) Primary spermatocytes divide by mitotic cell
division.
(c) Secondary spermatocytes have 23 chromosomes
and undergo a second meiotic division.
(a) c-plasma membrane, b-acrosome, a-nucleus, (d) Spermatozoa are transformed into spermatids.
d-mitochondria 46. Germ cells in female gonad and male gonad begin
undergoing meiosis simultaneously. What will be the
(b) a-plasma membrane, b-acrosome, d-nucleus,
ratio of ova and sperms produced?
c-mitochondria
(a) 1:1 (b) 1:2
(c) a-plasma membrane, d-acrosome, c-nucleus,
(c) 1:4 (d) 2:1
b-mitochondria
47. The head of mature mammalian sperm is made of
(d) c-plasma membrane, a-acrosome, b-nucleus,
(a) An acrosome
d-mitochondria
(b) Elongated nucleus covered by acrosome
(c) Two centrioles and an axial filament
matching.
(d) Nucleus, acrosome, cytoplasm and mitochondrial
sheath
48. In the diagram of the section of the Graafian follicle,
different parts are indicated by alphabets. Choose the
answer in which these alphabets have been correctly
matched with the parts
(a) d-mitosis differentiation, a-first meiotic division,

b-second meiotic division, c-differentiation
(b) a-mitosis differentiation, b-first meiotic division,
c-second meiotic division, d-differentiation
(c) c-mitosis differentiation, a-first meiotic division, (a) A = Theca externa, B = Theca interna, C = Ovum,
b-second meiotic division, d-differentiation D = Cumulus oophorus, E = Antrum,
F = Membrane granulosa
(b) A = Membrane granulosa, B = Theca externa, 52. The process of spermatogenesis and oogenesis in a
C = Ovum, D = Cumulus oophorus, E = Antrum, male and female is started respectively at
F = Theca interna (a) Puberty and puberty
(c) A = Membrane granulosa, B = Theca interna, (b) Puberty and menopause
C = Ovum, D = Cumulus oophorus, E = Antrum, (c) Embryonic stage and menarche
F = Theca externa (d) Puberty and embryonic stage
(d) A = Theca externa, B = Theca interna, C = Ovum, 53. Which among the following has 23 chromosomes?
D = Membrane granulosa, E = Antrum, (Exemplar)
F = Cumulus oophorus (a) Spermatogonia (b) Zygote
49. In the given T.S of human ovary identify A to F and (c) Secondary oocyte (d) Oogonia
select the correct option
54. In spermatogenesis, the phase of maturation
involves
(a) The growth of Spermatogonia into primary
spermatocyte
(b) The formation of Spermatogonia from gonocytes
through mitosis
(c)The formation of spermatids from primary
spermatocytes through meiosis
(d) The formation of oogonia from the spermatocytes
through meiosis
55. A large number of primary follicles degenerate during
(a) A-Secondary follicle, B-Tertiary follicle with the phase from birth to puberty. Therefore, at puberty
antrum, C-Ovum, D-Corpus luteum, E-Primary each ovary has about
follicle, F-Corpus albicans
(a) 1 million primary follicles
(b) A-Graafian follicle, B-Tertiary follicle with
(b) A couple of million primary follicles
antrum, C-Ovum, D-Corpus spongiosum, E-
primary follicle, F-Corpus albicans (c) 60, 000-80, 000 primary follicles
(c) A-Graafian Follicle, B-Tertiary follicle with (d) 1,20,000-1,60,000 primary follicles
antrum, C-Ovum, D-Corpus albicans, E-Primary 56. Indicate the correct sequence during spermatogenesis
follicle, F-Corpus luteum (a) Spermatozoa Spermatogonia spermatid
(d) A-Graafian follicle, B-Tertiary follicle with spermatocyte
antrum, C-Ovum, D-Corpus luteum, E-Primary (b) Spermatogonia spermatocyte  spermatid
follicle, F-Corpus albicans spermatozoa
50. Polar bodies are produced during the formation of: (c) Spermatid  spermatocyte spermatozoa
(a) Sperm Spermatogonia
(b) Oogonium (d) Spermatocyte spermatozoa spermatid
(c) Spermatocyte Spermatogonia
(d) Secondary oocyte 57. Which of the following options is correct?
51. During oogenesis, each diploid cell produces: Haploid Diploid
(a) Four functional cells
Primary
(b) Four nonfunctional polar bodies (a) Secondary oocyte
spermatocyte
(c) One functional egg and three polar bodies Secondary
(b) Secondary oocyte
(d) Two functional eggs and two polar bodies spermatocyte
Secondary
(c) Primary oocyte
spermatocyte
(d) Ovum Spermatid
58. Spermiation is the process of the release of sperms 64. Assertion: The middle piece is called as power house
from. (Exemplar) of the sperm.
(a) seminiferous tubules Reason: The numerous mitochondria coiling around
(b) vas deferens axial filament produce energy for the movement of
(c) epididymis the tail.
(d) prostate gland (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
59. The membranous cover of the ovum at ovulation is the correct explanation of assertion.
(Exemplar) (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
(a) corona radiate not the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) zona radiata (c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(c) zona pellucida (d) If both assertion and reason are false.
(d) chorion. 65. Assertion: Infundibulum is a funnel shaped part close
60. Layers of an ovum from outside to inside is to ovary.
(a) corona radiata, zona pellucida and vitelline Reason: The edges of infundibulum helps in
membrane collection of the ovum after ovulation.
(b) zona pellucida, corona radiata and vitelline (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
membrane the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) vitelline membrane, zona pellucida and corona (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
radiate not the correct explanation of assertion.
(d) zona pellucida, vitelline membrane and corona
radiate
61. Assertion: A drop in temperature do not affect
spermatogenesis.
Reason: During temperature drops the smooth Menstrual Cycle
muscles contracts and bring the testes closer to the 66. The immediate cause of induction of ovulation in
pelvic cavity. female is the large plasma surge of
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is (a) progesterone (b) oestradiol
the correct explanation of assertion. (c) LH (d) FSH
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is 67. Which hormone level reaches peak during the luteal
not the correct explanation of assertion. phase of menstrual cycle?
(a) Luteinizing hormone
(b) Progesterone
62. Assertion: The human male ejaculates about 50-100
(c) Follicle stimulating hormone
million sperms during a coitus.
Reason: For normal fertility at least 40 percent (d) Oestrogen
sperms must have normal shape and size. 68. Mature Graafian follicle is generally present in the
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is ovary of a healthy human female around (Exemplar)
the correct explanation of assertion. (a) 5 – 8 days of menstrual cycle
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is (b) 11 – 17 days of menstrual cycle
not the correct explanation of assertion. (c)18 – 23 days of menstrual cycle
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false. (d) 24 – 28 days of menstrual cycle
(d) If both assertion and reason are false. 69. The starting of menstruation in girls is
63. How many sperms are formed from four primary
(a) Puberty
spermatocytes?
(b) menarche
(a) 4
(b) 1 (c) climacteric
(c) 16 (d) menopause
(d) 32
70. Ovulation in the human female normally takes place (a) a-LH, b-FSH, c-estrogen, d-progesterone
during the menstrual cycle (b) b-LH, a-FSH, c-estrogen, d-progesterone
(a) At the mid secretory phase (c) c-LH, d-FSH, a-estrogen, b-progesterone
(b) At the end of the proliferative phase (d) d-LH, c—FSH, b-estrogen, a-progesterone
(c) Just before the end of the secretory phase 75. Match the column
(d) At the beginning of the proliferative phase
Column-I Column-II
71. Menstruation is triggered by an abrupt decline in the
amount of Prepare endometrium
(i) FSH 1.
(a) LH (b) FSH for implantation
(c) Estrogen (d) Progesterone Develops female

(ii) LH 2. secondary sexual
72. The mammalian corpus luteum produces
characters
(a) Estrogen
Contraction of
(b) Progesterone (iii) Progesterone 3.
uterine wall
(c) Luteinizing hormone
Development of
(d) Luteotropic hormone (iv) Estrogen 4.
corpus luteum
73. Some important events in the human female Maturation of
reproductive cycle are given below. Arrange the 5.
Graafian follicle
events in proper sequence.
(a) (i)-5, (ii)-4, (iii)-1, (iv)-2
I. Secretion of FSH
(b) (i)-4, (ii)-5, (iii)-2, (iv)-1
II. Growth of Corpus luteum
(c) (i)-4, (ii)-3, (iii)-2, (iv)-5
III. Growth of the follicle and oogenesis
(d) (i)-5, (ii)-1, (iii)-2, (iv)-4
IV. Ovulation
76. Graafian follicle is maintained by
V. Sudden increase in the levels of LH
(a) Estrogen
(a) III→Ι→ΙV→ΙΙ→V
(b) Prolactin
(b) I→III→V→IV→II
(c) Luteinizing hormone
(c) I→IV→III→V→II
(d) Follicle stimulating hormone
(d) II→I→III→IV→V
77. The correct sequence of phases in the menstrual cycle
is
matching.
(a) Menstrual phase, follicular phase and luteal phase
(b) Menstrual phase, luteal phase and follicular phase
(c) Menstrual phase, proliferative phase and secretory
phase
(d) Both A and C
78. Identify the correct statement from the following.
(Exemplar)
(a) High levels of estrogen triggers the ovulatory
surge.
(b) Oogonial cells start to proliferate and give rise to
functional ova in regular cycles from puberty
onwards.
(c) Sperms released from seminiferous tubules are
highly motile.
(d) Progesterone level is high during the post
ovulatory phase of menstrual cycle.
79. A human female reaches menopause around the age 86. Ovum receives the sperm in the region of
of (a) animal pole (b) vegetal pole
(a) 50 years (b) 15 years (c) equator (d) pigmented area
(c) 70 years (d) 25 years 87. Match the following with correct combination
80. Assertion: The endometrium undergoes cyclical i Hyaluronidase 1 Acrosomal reaction
charges during menstrual cycle.
ii Corpus luteum 2 Morphogenetic
Reason: The myometrium exhibits strong
movements
contractions during delivery of the baby.
iii Gastrulation 3 Progesterone
the correct explanation of assertion. iv Capacitation 4 Mammary gland
v Colostrum 5 Sperm activation
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false. (a) i = 5, ii = 2, iii = 4, iv = 1, v = 3
(d) If both assertion and reason are false. (b) i = 1, ii = 3, iii = 2, iv = 5, v = 4
(c) i = 3, ii = 2, iii = 5, iv = 4, v = 1
Fertilization (d) i = 1, ii = 2, iii = 3, iv = 4, v = 5
81. The change in a mammalian sperm which prepares it (e) i = 4, ii = 2, iii = 5, iv = 3, v = 1
to fertilize the ovum is termed as: 88. Choose the incorrect statement from the following.
(a) Maturation (Exemplar)
(b) Preparation (a) In birds and mammals, internal fertilization takes
(c) Capacitation place.
(d) Metamorphosis (b) Colostrum contains antibodies and nutrients.
82. Fertilization of ovum by the sperm takes place in (c) Polyspermy in mammals is prevented by chemical
changes in the female pronucleus.
(a) ampulla of oviduct
(d) In the human female implantation occurs almost
(b) isthmus of oviduct
seven days after fertilization.
(c) fimbriae of oviduct
89. The sex of the foetus will be decided at
(a) fertilization by male gamete
83. Fertilization membrane is formed to
(b) implantation
(a) Facilitate entry of sperm into to egg
(c) fertilization by female gamete
(b) Provide stability to egg
(d) the start of cleavage
(c) Prevent monospermy
90. Acrosomal reaction of the sperm occurs due to
(d) Prevent polyspermy
(Exemplar)
84. Capacitation of sperms occurs in
(a) Its contact with zona pellucida of the ova
(a) Female genital tract
(b) Reactions within the uterine environment of the
(b) Vagina
female
(c) Vasa efferentia
(c) Reactions within the epididymal environment of
(d) Vas deferens the male
85. Sperm of animal species a cannot fertilise ovum of (d) Androgens produced in the uterus
species b because
91. Besides activating the egg, another role of a sperm is
(a) Fertilizin of a and b are not compatible to carry _______ to the egg.
(b) Antifertilizin of a and b are not compatible (a) RNA
(c) Fertilizin of a and Anti fertilizin of b are not (b) mitochondria
compatible
(c) DNA
(d) Anti fertilizin of a and fertilizin of b are not
(d) ribosomes.
compatible
92. The fertilized egg in human female is implanted in 96. The embryo at 16-celled stage is known as
the uterus after (a) morula (b) gastrula
(a) One month of fertilization (c) blastula (d) blastomere
(b) Two months of fertilization 97. Morula is a development stage
(c) Three weeks of fertilization
(a) between the zygote and blastocyst
(d) About seven days of fertilization
(b) between the blastocyst and gastrula
(c) after the implantation
matching.
(d) between implantation and parturition.
98. Zona pellucida disintegrates just
(a) After fertilization
(b) Before fertilization
(c) Midway during cleavage
(d) After completion of cleavage
99. Human embryo will be called as a ‘foetus’ after
(a) Two months (b) Six months
(c) Four months (d) Seven months
100. Assertion: The embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres is
called a morula.
Reason: The morula continues to divide and
transforms intro trophoblast.
(a) a-cells of corona radiata, b-zona pellucida, the correct explanation of assertion.
c- perivitelline space (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
(b) c-cells of corona radiata, a-zona pellucida, not the correct explanation of assertion.
b- perivitelline space (c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(c) b-cells of corona radiata, c-zona pellucida, (d) If both assertion and reason are false.
a- perivitelline space
(d) b-cells of corona radiata, a-zona pellucida,
Pregnancy & gestation
c- perivitelline space
101. Identify the human development stage shown below
94. Assertion: All copulations do not lead to fertilization
as well as the related right place of its occurrence in a
and pregnancy.
normal pregnant woman and select the right option
Reason: Fertilization can occur only if the ovum and
for the two together
sperms are transported simultaneously to the
ampullary region of oviduct.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false. Development stage Site of occurrence
(a) Blastocyst 1 Uterine wall
Embryonic Development Starting point of
(b) 8-celled Morula 2
fallopian tube
95. Fixing up of the blastocyst in the wall of the uterus is
Middle part of
known as (c) Late Morula 3
fallopian tube
(a) Fertilization (b) Placentation
End part of fallopian
(c) Impregnation (d) Implantation (d) Blastula 4
tube
102. Match the following and choose the correct option

Embedding of
i. Trophoblast (a) blastocyst in the
endometrium
Group of cells
that would
ii. Cleavage (b)
differentiate as
embryo b
Outer layer of (a) a-morula, b-blastocyst
Inner cell blastocyst (b) a-blastocyst, b-morula
iii. (c)
mass attached to the (c) a-blastocyst, b-gastrula
endometrium (d) a- morula, b-gastrula
105. Identify the correctly matched pairs of the germ
Mitotic division
iv. Implantation (d) layers and their derivatives.
of zygote
I. Ectoderm – Epidermis
(a) i-(b), ii-(a), iii-(c), iv-(d) II. Endoderm – Dermis
(b) i-(c), ii-(d), iii-(b), iv-(a) III. Mesoderm – Muscles
IV. Mesoderm – Notochord
(c) i-(c), ii-(a), iii-(b), iv-(d) V. Endoderm - Enamel of teeth
(d) i-(b), ii-(d), iii-(c), iv-(a) (a) I, III and IV only (b) I, II, III and V only
103. Choose the correct group of labelling. (c) I and IV only (d) I and II only
106. Fill in the blanks
(i) Zygote divides to form …1… which is implanted
to uterus
(ii) The structure which provides vascular connection
between foetus and uterus is called …2...
(iii) Inner cell mass contains certain cells called
…3… which have the potency to give rise to all
the tissues and organs.
(iv) By the end of …4… most of the major organ
systems are formed, for example, the limbs and
external genital organs are well-developed
(a) I-Trophoblast, II-Blastocoel, III-Megameres (v) Immediately after implantation, the …5…
differentiates into an outer layer called ectoderm
(b) I-Trophoblast, II-Archenteron, III-Micromeres
and an inner layer called endoderm.
(c) I-Trophoblast, II-Blastocoel, III-Inner mass cells
(a) 1-morula, 2-umbilical cord, 3-trophoblast, 4-
(d) I-Trophoblast, II-Archenteron, III-Inner mass cells second trimester, 5-stem cells
104. Recognise the figure and find out the correct (b) 1-blastocyst, 2-placenta, 3-stem cells, 4-first
matching. trimester, 5-trophoblast
(c) 1-blastocyst, 2-umbilical cord, 3-stem cells, 4-
second trimesters, 5-inner cell mass
(d) 1-blastocyst, 2-placenta, 3-stem cells, 4- first
trimester, 5-inner cell mass.
107. Which one develops from endoderm?
(a) Nervous system, urinary bladder and eye
(b) Liver, connective tissue and heart
a (c) Thymus, spinal cord and brain
(d) Liver, pancreas, thymus and thyroid
108. Recognise the figure and find out the correct 111. Match the columns:
matching.
Column-I Column-II
a. Oxytocin p. Stimulates ovulation
b. Prolactin q. Implantation and

maintenance of pregnancy
c. Luteinizing r. Lactation after childbirth
hormone
d. Progesterone s. Uterine contraction during
labour
t. Reabsorption of water by
nephrons
(a) a-s, b-r, c-p, d-q
(b) a-s, b-r, c-p, d-s
(a) c-embryo, d-placental villi, a- yolk sac, (c) a-s, b-q, c-r, d-t
b- umbilical cord (d) a-t, b-p, c-s, d-r
(b) c-embryo, a-placental villi, b- yolk sac, 112. Match the animal and its gestation period
d- umbilical cord I II
(c) b-embryo, d-placental villi, a- yolk sac,
c- umbilical cord A. Dog/Cat i 22 months
(d) c-embryo, a-placental villi, d- yolk sac,
B. Elephant ii 9 months
b-umbilical cord
109. Foetal membrane that provides the first blood
C. Mouse iii 58-68 days
corpuscle for circulation in embryo is
(a) Trophoblast (b) Yolk sac D. Human iv 19 days
(c) Amnion (d) Chorion
(a) A-iii; B-i; C-iv; D-ii (b) A-i; B-ii; C-iii; D-iv
110. Match the columns:
(c) A-ii; B-iii; C-i; D-iv (d) A-iii; B-ii; C-iv; D-i
Column-I Column-II 113. Select the option that correctly fills up the blanks in
Attachment of the given paragraph. After one month of pregnancy,
i. Parturition p. blastocyst to the embryo’s (i) is formed. By the end of the (ii)
endometrium month of pregnancy, the foetus develops limbs and
Release of egg from digits. By the end of (iii), most of the major organ
ii. Gestation q. systems are formed, for example, the limbs and
Graafian follicle.
external genital organs are well-developed. By the
Delivery of foetus
iii. Ovulation r. end of (iv) the body is covered with fine hair, eye-lids
from uterus
separate, and eyelashes are formed.
Duration between
iv. Implantation s. (a) (i)-heart, (ii)-second. (iii) – First trimester,
pregnancy and birth
(iv) – second trimester
Formation of zygote
(b) (i) – heart, (ii)-second, (iii)-First month,
v. Conception t. by fusion of egg and
sperm (iv)-second trimester
(a) i-q, ii-s, iii-p, iv-t, v-r (c) (i)-heart, (ii)-second, (iii)-First week,
(b) i-r, ii-s, iii-p, iv-t, v-q (iv)-second week
(c) i-r, ii-s, iii-q, iv-t, v-p (d) (i) – heart, (ii)-fourth, (iii)-First trimester,
(d) i-r, ii-s, iii-q, iv-p, v-t (iv)-second trimester
114. The correct sequence of embryonic development is 122. Assertion: After implantation, finger-like projections
(a) zygote-morula-blastula-gastrula-embryo appear on the trophoblast called chorionic villi.
(b) zygote-blastula-morula-gastrula-embryo Reason: Chorionic villi are surrounded by the uterine
(c) gastrula-morula-zygote-blastula-embryo tissue and maternal blood.
(d) blastula-morula-zygote-gastrula-embryo (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
115. Retina, eye lens, brain and skin are formed from
(a) Mesoderm
(b) Ectoderm
(c) Endoderm
(d) Both ectoderm and endoderm
116. Ectopic pregnancies are referred to as
Placenta
(a) Pregnancies with genetic abnormality
123. Human placenta is formed by
(b) Implantation of defective embryo in the uterus
(a) Chorionic villi (b) Umbilical cord
(c) Implantation of embryo at site other than uterus
(c) Uterine tissue (d) Both a and c
(d) Pregnancies terminated due to hormonal
Imbalance 124. Which hormones are produced in women during
pregnancy?
117. Which of the following embryonic-membrane
structures is excretory in function? (a) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
(a) Amnion (b) Allantois (b) Relaxin
(c) Yolk sac (d) Vitelline Chorion (c) Human placental lactogen (hPL)
118. Amniotic fluid protects the foetus from (d) All the above
(a) Shock (b) Encystment 125. Urine test during pregnancy determines the presence
of
(c) Degeneration (d) Disease
(a) Human chorionic gonadotropin hormone
119. Gastrulation comprises
(b) Estrogen
(a) Morphogenetic movements
(c) Progesterone
(b) Differentiation of archenteron
(d) Luteinising hormone.
(c) Differentiation of three germ layers
126. Which of the following hormones is not secreted by
(d) All the above
human placenta? (Exemplar)
120. The first movements of the foetus and appearance of
(a) hCG (b) Estrogen
hair on its head are usually observed during which
month of pregnancy? (c) Progesterone (d) LH
(a) Fourth month
(b) Fifth month Parturition
(c) Sixth month 127. Delivery of a developed foetus is called
(d) Third month (a) Ovulation (b) Oviposition
121. Assertion: During pregnancy the levels of hormones (c) Parturition (d) Abortion
the estrogens and progestogens are increased. 128. Forceful muscular contractions of uterine wall is
Reason: The increased production of these hormones involved in
is essential for foetal growth. (a) Lactation (b) Micturition
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is (c) Parturition (d) Implantation
129. The signals from parturition originate from
(a) Fully developed foetus
(b) Fully developed foetus and placenta
(c) Placenta only
(d) Oxytocin from material pituitary
130. What is ‘‘afterbirth’’ referred to: 132. Assertion: Vigorous contraction of the uterus at the
(a) Expulsion of baby end of pregnancy causes expulsion.
(b) Amniotic fluid passing out Reason: The stimulatory reflex between the uterus
(c) Secretion of hormone relaxin contraction and oxytocin results in weakening
contractions.
(d) Expulsion of placenta, umbilical cord and foetus
Membranes (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
131. Consider the following four statements and select the
correct option stating which ones are true (T) and (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
which ones are false (F). not the correct explanation of assertion.
(i) The scrotum acts as a thermoregulator, (c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
maintaining the testes at a temperature 2°C lower (d) If both assertion and reason are false.
than that of the body.
(ii) Corona radiata layer of the ovum prevents Lactation
polyspermy. 133. The mammary gland of the female undergo
(iii) Middle part of ear is derived from the endoderm differentiation during pregnancy and starts producing
layer. milk towards the end of pregnancy by the process
(iv) The hormone, human chorionic gonadotropin called
facilitates parturition by softening the connective (a) Parturition (b) Gestation
tissue of the pubic symphysis. (c) Lactation (d) Colostrum
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 135. After birth colostrum is released from mammary
glands which is rich in
(a) T T F F
(a) Fat and low in proteins
(b) F T F T (b) Proteins and low in fat
(c) T F T F (c) Proteins, antibodies and low in fat
(d) Proteins, fat and low in antibodies
(d) F F T T
EXERCISE – 2 : Previous Year Questions

1. Given below are two statements: 4. Which of the following statements are true for
Statement I: Vas deferens receives a duct from sprmatogenesis but do not hold true for Oogenesis?
seminal vesicle and opens into urethra as the (a) It results in the formation of haploid gametes
ejaculatory duct. (b) Differentiation of gamete occurs after th
Statement II: The cavity of the cervix is called completion of meiosis
cervical canal which along with vagina forms birth (c) Meiosis occurs continuously in a mitotically
canal. dividing stem cell population
In the light of the above statements, choose the (d) It is controlled by the Luteinzing hormone (LH)
correct answer from the options given below: and Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
(NEET 2023) secreted by the anterior pituitary
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. (e) It is initiated at puberty
(b) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is false. Choose the most appropriate answer fromthe options
(c) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is true. given below: (NEET 2022)
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. (a) (c) and (e) only
2. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as (b) (b) and (c) only
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. (c) (b), (d) and (e) only
Assertion A: Endometrium is necessary for (d) (b), (c) and (e) only
implantation of blastocyst. 5. At which stage of life the oogenesis process is
Reason R: In the absence of fertilization, the corpus initiated? (NEET 2022)
luteum degenerates that causes disintegration of
(a) Puberty
endometrium.
In the light of the above statements, choose the (b) Embryonic development stage
correct answer from the options given below: (c) Birth
(NEET 2023)
(d) Adult
(a) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A. 6. Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are
(b) A is true, but R is false. present on: (NEET 2021)
(c) A is false, but R is true.
(d) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct (a) Perivitelline space (b) Zona pellucida
explanation of A. (c) Corona radiata (d) Vitelline membrane
3. Given below are two statements:
7. Which of the following secretes the hormone,
Statement I: The release of sperms into the
relaxin, during the later phase of pregnancy?(NEET 2021)
seminiferous tubules is called spermiation.
(a) Foetus (b) Uterus
Statement II: Spermiogenesis is the process of
formation of sperms from spermatogonia. (c) Graafian follicle (d) Corpus luteum
In the light of the above statements, choose the most 8. Which of these is not an important component of
appropriate answer from the options given below: initiation of parturition in humans? (NEET 2021)
(NEET 2022) (a) Release of Oxytocin

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (b) Release of Prolactin
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (c) Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Synthesis of prostaglandins
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
9. Match the following columns and select the correct 15. The difference between spermiogenesis and
option (NEET 2020) spermiation is (NEET 2018)
Column I Column II (a) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from Sertoli cells
(a) Placenta (i) Androgens are released into the cavity of seminiferous
tubules, while in spermiation spermatozoa are
Zona Human Chorionic
(b) (ii) formed.
pellucida Gonadotropin (HCG)
(b) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while
Bulbourethr
(c) (iii) Layer of the ovum in spermiation spermatids are formed.
al glands
(c) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, while
Lubrication of the
(d) Leydig cells (iv) in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.
penis
(d) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while
(a) a – iii; b – ii; c – iv; d – i
in spermiation spermatozoa are released from
(b) a – ii; b – iii; c – iv; d – i Sertoli cells into the cavity of seminiferous
(c) a – iv; b – iii; c – i; d – ii tubules.
(d) a – i; b – iv; c – ii; d – iii 16. Match the items given in Column I with those in
10. Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is Column II and select the correct option given below:
completed: (NEET 2020) Column I Column II
(a) After zygote formation a. Proliferative i. Breakdown of
(b) At the time of fusion of a sperm with an ovum phase endometrial lining
(c) Prior to ovulation b. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular phase
(d) At the time of copulation
c. Menstruation iii. Luteal Phase
11. Which of the following hormone levels will cause
(NEET 2018)
release of ovum (ovulation) from the graafian follicle?
(NEET 2020) (a) a-ii, b-iii, c-i (b) a-i, b-iii, c-ii
(a) Low concentration of LH (c) a-iii, b-ii, c-i (d) a-iii, b-i, c-ii
(b) Low concentration of FSH 17. Capacitation occurs in (NEET 2017)
(a) Rete testis
(c) High concentration of Estrogen
(b) Epididymis
(d) High concentration of Progesterone
(c) Vas deferens
12. Extrusion of second polar body from egg
(d) Female reproductive tract
nucleus occurs: (NEET 2019)
18. Fertilization in humans is practically feasible only if
(a) after fertilization
(a) The sperms are transported into vagina just after
(b) before entry of sperm into ovum
the release of ovum in fallopian tube
(c) simultaneously with first cleavage (b) The ovum and sperms are transported
(d) after entry of sperm but before fertilization simultaneously to ampullary - isthmic junction of
13. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived from the fallopian tube
(NEET 2018) (c) The ovum and sperms are transported
(a) mesoderm and trophoblast simultaneously to ampullary - isthmic junction of
(b) endoderm and mesoderm the cervix
(c) ectoderm and mesoderm (d) The sperms are transported into cervix within 48
(d) ectoderm and endoderm hours of release of ovum in uterus
14. Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain 19. Select the incorrect statement: (NEET 2016)
pregnancy are (NEET 2018) (a) FSH stimulates the Sertoli cells which help in
(a) HCG, HPL, progestogens, estrogens spermiogenesis
(b) HCG, HPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin (b) LH triggers ovulation in ovary
(c) HCG, HPL, progestogens, prolactin (c) LH and FSH decrease gradually during the
(d) HCG, progestogens, estrogens, glucocorticoids follicular phase
(d) LH triggers secretion of androgens from the
Leydig cells
20. Identify the correct statement on inhibin 26. Which of the following events is not associated with
(NEET 2016) ovulation in human female? (NEET 2015)
(a) Inhibits the secretion of LH, FSH and Prolactin (a) LH surge
(b) Is produced by granulosa cells in ovary and (b) Decrease in estradiol
inhibits the secretion of FSH (c) Full development of Graafian follicle
(c) Is produced by granulosa cells in ovary and (d) Release of secondary oocyte
inhibits the secretion of LH
27. Which of the following layers in an antral follicle is
(d) Is produced by nurse cells in testis and inhibits the acellular? (NEET 2015)
secretion of LH
(a) Zona pellucida (b) Granulosa
21. Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due to
(c) Theca interna (d) Stroma
in vitro fertilization is transferred into (NEET 2016)
28. In human females, meiosis-II is not completed until?
(a) uterus (b) fallopian tube
(a) birth (b) puberty
(c) fimbriae (d) cervix
22. Which of the following depicts the correct pathway of (c) fertilization (d) uterine implantation
transport of sperms? (NEET 2016) 29. The shared terminal duct of the reproductive and
urinary system in the human male is (NEET 2014)
(a) Rete testis  Efferent ductules Epididymis
(a) urethra (b) ureter
 Vas deferens
(c) vas deferens (d) vasa efferentia
(b) Rete testis  Epididymis  Efferent ductules 30. The main function of mammalian corpus luteum is to
 Vas deferens produce (NEET 1995,2014)
(c) Rete testis  Vas deferens  Efferent ductules (a) estrogen only
 Epididymis (b) progesterone
(c) human chorionic gonadotropin
(d) Efferent ductules Rete testis Vas deferens
(d) relaxin only
 Epididymis
31. Select the correct option describing gonadotropin
23. Match Column - I with Column - II and select the activity in a normal pregnant female
correct option using the codes given below: (NEET 2014, 2012)
Column – I Column – II (a) High level of FSH and LH stimulates the
thickening of endometrium
1. Mons pubis i. Embryo formation (b) High level of FSH and LH facilitate
2. Antrum ii. Sperm implantation of the embryo
(c) High level of HCG stimulates the synthesis of
Female external
3. Trophectoderm iii. estrogen and progesterone
genitalia
(d) High level of HCG stimulates the thickening of
4. Nebenkern iv. Graafian follicle endometrium
(NEET 2016) 32. What is the correct sequence of sperm formation?
(a) Spermatid, Spermatocyte, Spermatogonia,
(a) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-ii, 4-i (b) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3- i, 4-ii
Spermatozoa
(c) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii (d) 1-i, 2-iv, 3-iii, 4-ii (b) Spermatogonia, Spermatocyte, Spermatozoa,
24. Several hormones like HCG, HPL, estrogen, Spermatid
progesterone are produced by (NEET 2016) (c) Spermatogonia, Spermatozoa, Spermatocyte,
(a) ovary (b) placenta Spermatid
(d) Spermatogonia, Spermatocyte, Spermatid,
(c) fallopian tube (d) pituitary
Spermatozoa
25. Ectopic pregnancies are referred to as- (NEET 2015) 33. Which one of the following is not the function of
(a) Pregnancies terminated due to hormonal placenta? It (AIPMT 2013)
imbalance (a) facilitates supply of oxygen and nutrients to
(b) pregnancies with genetic abnormality embryo
(c) Implantation of embryo at site other than uterus (b) secretes oestrogen
(d) Implantation of defective embryo in the uterus (c) facilitates removal of carbon dioxide and waste
material from embryo
(d) secretes oxytocin during parturition
34. Menstrual flow occurs due to lack of (AIPMT 2012) (d) pancreas and they secrete cholecystokinin
(a) progesterone (b) FSH
41. Vasa efferentia are the ductules leading from
(c) oxytocin (d) vasopressin (AIPMT 2010)
35. Which one of the following statements is false in
(a) testicular lobules to rete testis
respect of viability of mammalian sperm?
(b) rete testis to vas deferens
(AIPMT 2012)
(c) vas deferens to epididymis
(a) Sperm is viable for only up to 24 h
(d) epididymis to urethra
(b) Survival of sperm depends on the pH of the
medium and is more active in alkaline medium 42. Seminal plasma in human males is rich in
(c) Viability of sperm is determined by its motility (AIPMT 2010, 2009)
(d) Sperms must be concentrated in a thick suspension (a) fructose and calcium
36. Signals for parturition originates from (b) glucose and calcium
(AIPMT 2012, 2010) (c) DNA and testosterone
(a) both placenta as well as fully developed foetus (d) ribose and potassium
(b) oxytocin released from maternal pituitary 43. The first movements of the foetus and appearance of
(c) placenta only hair on its head are usually observed during which
(d) fully developed foetus only month of pregnancy? (AIPMT 2010)
37. The Leydig cells as found in the human body are the (a) Fourth month (b) Fifth month
secretory source of (AIPMT 2012) (c) Sixth month (d) Third month
(a) progesterone (b) intestinal mucus 44. Which one of the following statements about morula
(c) glucagon (d) androgens in humans is correct? (AIPMT 2010)
38. If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the human (a) It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm
reproductive system get blocked, the gametes will as an uncleaved zygote but much more DNA
not be transported from (AIPMT 2011)
(b) It has far less cytoplasm as well as less DNA
(a) epididymis to vas deferens
than in an uncleaved zygote
(b) ovary to uterus
(c) vagina to uterus (c) It has more or less equal quantity of
(d) testes to epididymis cytoplasm and DNA
39. The testes in humans are situated outside (d) It has more cytoplasm and more DNA
the abdominal cavity inside a pouch called than an uncleaved zygote
45. A change in the amount of yolk and its distribution in
scrotum. The purpose served is for (AIPMT 2011)
the egg will affect. (AIPMT 1993, 1993,
(a) escaping any possible compression by the visceral 2009)
organs (a) formation of zygote
(b) providing more space for the growth of epididymis (b) pattern of cleavage
(c) number of blastomeres produced
(c) providing a secondary sexual feature for
(d) fertilization
exhibiting the male sex 46. Which one of the following is the most likely reason
(d) maintaining the scrotal temperature lower than the of not occurring regular menstruation cycle in
females? (AIPMT 2009)
internal body temperature
(a) Fertilization of the ovum
40. Sertoli cells are found in (AIPMT 2010) (b) Maintenance of the hypertrophical endometrial
(a) ovaries and they secrete progesterone lining
(c) Maintenance of high concentration of sex-
(b) adrenal cortex and they secrete adrenaline
hormones in the blood stream
(c) seminiferous tubules and they provide nutrition to (d) Retention of well-developed corpus luteum
germ cells
47. Given below is a diagrammatic sketch of a portion 49. At the end of first meiotic division, male germ cell
of human male reproductive system. Select the correct differentiates into (AIPMT 1994, 2008)
set of the names of the parts labelled (a) secondary spermatocyte
A, B, C, D. (AIPMT 2009) (b) primary spermatocyte
(c) spermatogonium
(d) spermatid
50. Which extra-embryonic membrane in humans
prevents desiccation of the embryo inside the uterus?
(AIPMT 2008)
(a) Chorion (b) Allantois
(c) Yolk sac (d) Amnion
(a) A-Ureter; B-Prostate; C-Seminal vesicle;

D- Bulbourethral gland
(b) A-Vas deferens; B-Seminal vesicle;
C-Prostate; D-Bulbourethral gland
(c) A-Vas deferens; B-Seminal vesicle;
C-Bulbourethral gland; D-Prostate
(d) A-Ureter; B-Seminal vesicle; C-Prostate;
D-Bulbourethral gland
48. Which one of the following is the correct matching of
the events occurring during menstrual cycle?
(AIPMT 2009)
(a) Ovulation - LH and FSH attain peak level and
sharp fall in the secretion of progesterone
(b) Proliferative phase - Rapid regeneration of
Myometrium and maturation of Graafian follicle
(c) Development of corpus luteum- Secretory phase
and increased secretion of progesterone
(d) Menstruation-Breakdown of myometrium
and ovum not fertilized
EXERCISE – 3: Achiever's Section

The Male Reproductive System 7. The location of testis in the scrotal sac is important
1. Read the following statements and find out the from the viewpoint of
incorrect statement. (a) providing more space to visceral organs
(i) Each testicular lobule contains one to three highly (b) facilitating spermatogenesis
coiled seminiferous tubules in which sperm are (c) sex differentiation
produced. (d) independent functioning of the kidney
(ii) Each seminiferous tubule is lined on its inside by 8. Which of the following is the odd one out in each of
two types of cells called Leydig cells and Sertoli the given options?
cells. (i) Scrotum, rete testis, Fallopian tube, vas deferens
(iii) The region outside the seminiferous tubules (ii) Ovary, uterus, vagina, ejaculatory duct
called interstitial space, contain small blood (iii) Acrosome, Graafian follicle, corpus luteum,
vessels and male germ cells (spermatogonia) cervix
which led to sperm formation. (iv) Prostate, testis, seminal vesicles, Cowper’s gland
(iv) In testis immunologically competent cells are (a) (i)-Vas deferens, (ii)-Vagina, (iii)-Cervix,
also present. (iv)- Cowper’s gland
(v) The seminiferous tubules of the testes open into (b) (i)-Rete testis, (ii)-Ovary, (iii)-Graafian follicle,
the rete testis through vasa efferentia. (iv)-Prostate
(a) ii and iii (b) iii and iv (c) (i)-Scrotum (ii)-Uterus, (iii)-Corpus luteum,
(c) iv and v (d) ii, iii and v (iv)- Seminal vesicles
2. Component of seminal vesicles that provide a (d) (i)-Fallopian tube, (ii)-Ejaculatory duct,
forensic test for rape is (iii)- Acrosome, (iv)-Testis
(a) Phosphorylcholine (b) Prostaglandin
(c) Fructose (d) Citric acid The Female Reproductive System
3. The ducts that combine to form the ejaculatory duct 9. A sectional view of mammary gland shows
consist of (i) Nipple + Areola
(a) Vasa deferentia and vasa efferentia (ii) Mammary lobe, alveolus and duct
(b) Inferior and superior epigastric artery (iii) Antibodies + Pectoralis major muscles + Ribs
(c) The ducts from the seminal vesicles, prostate (iv) Ampulla + Lactiferous duct
glands and Cowper’s glands The difference between the primordial follicle and
(d) Ducts of the seminal vesicles and vasa deferentia the primary follicle is
4. Enzymes like amylase, pepsinogen and acid (a) (i), (ii) and (iv)
phosphatase is found in (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(a) Secretions of seminal vesicles (c) (iii) and (iv)
(b) Secretions of the prostate gland (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) Secretions of the Cowper’s glands 10. Which of the following is the correct match about the
(d) Secretions of the ductus deferens female genitalia and their function?
5. A mass of connective tissue at the back of (a) Mons pubis- cushion fatty tissues covered by skin
the testis that is continuous with the tunica albuginea and pubic hair and surround vaginal orifice.
and encloses the rete testis is called (b) Labia majora- Fleshy fold of tissue that extend
(a) Vasa efferentia (b) Inguinal canal down from the mons pubis and surround the
(c) Gubernaculum (d) Mediastinum testis vaginal orifice.
6. In patients with hydrocele, fluid accumulation takes (c) Labia minora- Paired folds of tissue under the
place in labia majora homologous to scrotum in males.
(a) Tunica albuginea of the testis (d) Clitoris- A tiny figure like structure which lies at
(b) Lobules of the seminiferous tubules the upper junction of the two labia minora above
(c) The rete testis network the urethral opening. It is homologous to
(d) Tunica vaginalis of the testis male penis.
11. Which of the following is not the function of vagina? (d) Just before ovulation
(a) It serves as the passage for primary oocyte 17. Once a sperm enters a secondary oocyte, which of
(b) It serves as the passageway for menstrual flow the following events take place?
(c) It receives semen from the penis during sexual (a) Breakdown of M-phase promoting factor
intercourse. (b) Activation of Anaphase promoting complex
(d) It is the birth canal. (c) Completion of meiosis II
Gametogenesis 18. Which of the following about the polar bodies
12. Match between the following representing parts of formed during oogenesis is true?
the sperm and their functions and choose the correct (a) They are formed during mitotic divisions
option. involved in oogenesis
(b) All the primary oocytes degenerate
Column A Column B
(c) The polar bodies do not have any chromosome
A. Head (i) Enzymes (d) All the secondary polar bodies degenerate
B. Middle piece (ii) Sperm motility 19. The shared terminal duct of the reproductive and
C. Acrosome (iii) Energy urinary system in the human male is
D. Tail (iv) Genetic material (a) urethra (b) ureter
(a) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii) (c) vas deferens (d) vasa efferentia.
(b) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii) 20. Once ovulation has happened, remaining layers of
(c) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii) granulosa cells of the Graafian follicle degenerate.
(d) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv) Which of the following is NOT true about this
13. Which of the following is correct about the secretory process?
phase of the human menstrual cycle? (a) This process is called follicular atresia
(a) It is also called follicular phase and includes (b) Remains of the Graafian follicle forms the corpus
cycle davs 6-13. luteum
(b) It is also called the proliferative phase and (c) The corpus luteum forms the germinal epithelium
includes cycle days 13-26. of the ovary, restarting ovulation
(c) It is also called luteal phase and includes cycle (d) All of the above
days 15 to 28. 21. Which phase of follicular development is usually
(d) It is also called the menstrual phase and includes known to precede follicular atresia?
cycle days 3-5. (a) Secondary follicle (b) Tertiary follicle
14. Sperm lysins like hyaluronidase and proteolytic (c) Primary follicle (d) Graafian follicle
enzymes are
(a) Enzymes present in the manchette of the sperm Menstrual Cycle
(b) Enzymes released by a mature spermatozoan 22. Consider the following three statements related to the
upon ejection from the seminiferous tubules human male reproductive system and select the
(c) Enzymes called sperm lysins in the acrosome that correct option stating which ones are true (T) and
contact and penetrate the ovum which ones are false (F).
(d) Enzymes that allow the sperm a fluid medium to (i) The middle piece of spermatozoon is also termed
swim as the powerhouse of a spermatozoon.
15. If spermatogenesis proceeds rapidly, inhibin is (ii) Vas deferens joins a duct from seminal vesicle
released. Inhibin reduces secretion of and form vasa efferentia.
(a) Luteinizing hormone (iii) Semen is a collection of secretion from the
(b) Follicle-stimulating hormone seminal vesicles, prostate gland and Cowper's
glands and sperms from testes.
(c) Testosterone
(d) Interstitial cell stimulating hormone (i) (ii) (iii)
16. Enlargement of nucleus and nucleolus of the
(a) T F T
secondary oocyte takes place
(a) During the first meiotic division (b) F F T
(b) After it is released during ovulation (c) T T F
(c) During the second meiotic division (d) F T T
23. The main cause of the disintegration of the 27. In an experiment, sperms removed from the
endometrial lining is epididymis of a man were added in a dish containing
appropriate media and oocyte. No fertilisation was
(a) LH surge
seen. However, when sperms from epididymis were
(b) Degeneration of corpus luteum directly placed in the uterus of an ovulated woman,
(c) Ovulation during mid-cycle she became pregnant. These observations suggest
that
(d) Implantation leads to pregnancy
(a) the sperms need to travel some distance to attain
24. Interplay of hormones during the bleeding phase of fertilising ability
the menstrual cycle is (b) the oocyte secretes some biochemicals or factors
which help sperms to fertilise
(a) Progesterone and estrogen continue the
(c) the hormones in the female body help sperms to
hypertrophy of endometrial lining attain fertilising ability
(b) Prolactin and progesterone reduce LH level (d) the secretions of the female reproductive tract
causing regression of corpus luteum interact with sperms and activate them for
fertilisation.
(c) Progesterone inhibits the release of LH from 28. The given figure shows schematic representation of a
pituitary causing regression of corpus luteum menstrual cycle in human female. Identify the three
(d) Prolactin and estrogen inhibit progesterone phases (A, B, C) of menstrual cycle.
secretion leading to sloughing off of uterine

lining
25. Ovulation in females does not involve
(a) Decrease in oestradiol
(b) Full development of Graafian follicle
(c) Release of secondary oocyte
(d) LH surge
26. The given diagram shows the changes that take place
in the uterine endometrium during the menstrual
cycle. Identify these changes and select the correct
option. A B C
Proliferative Menstrual Secretory
(a)
phase phase phase
Menstrual Proliferative Secretory
(b)
phase phase Phase
Secretory Menstrual Proliferative
(c)
phase phase Phase
Menstrual Secretory Proliferative
(d)
phase phase Phase
29. If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilized, which one
(a) Ovulation-A, Menstruation-B of the following is unlikely?
(b) Ovulation-A, Menstruation-C (a) Corpus luteum will disintegrate
(c) Ovulation-C, Menstruation-A (b) Progesterone secretion rapidly declines.
(c) Estrogen secretion decreases.
(d) Ovulation-B, Menstruation-D (d) Primary follicle starts developing.
Fertilization (iii)The blastomeres in the blastocyst are arranged

30. Which of the following helps in spindle formation for into two layers, trophoblast, and endometrium.
further oocyte division once the sperm has entered (iv) Cleavage divisions result in a solid ball of cells
the egg? called morula.
(a) Sperm head Which of the above two statements are correct?
(b) Proximal centriole of the sperm (a) (i) and (iii)
(c) Distal centriole of the sperm (b) (ii) and (iv)
(d) Centriole of the oocyte (c) (i) and (ii)
31. Which of the following is a precursor of the embryo? (d) (iii) and (iv)
(a) Trophoblast 35. The sperm and the egg make different contributes to
(b) Trophectoderm the zygote. Which of the following statements about
their contributions are true?
(c) Cells of Rauber
(i) Sperm contributes most of the mitochondria.
(d) Inner cell mass
(ii) Egg contributes most of the cytoplasm.
32. Acrosomal reaction of the sperm occurs
due to (iii) Both sperm and egg contribute haploid
nucleus.
(a) its contact with zona pellucida of the ova
(iv) Both sperm and egg contribute centrioles.
(b) reactions within the uterine environment of the
female (a) (i) and (ii)
(c) reactions within the epididymal environment of (b) (ii) and (iii)
the male (c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) androgens produced in the uterus. (d) (i), (ii) (iii) and (iv)
Embryonic Development Pregnancy

33. Match the following and choose the correct option 36. Organs of the circulatory and excretory system are
derived from the
Embedding of (a) Endoderm
A. Trophoblast (i) blastocyst in the
(b) Mesoderm
endometrium
(c) Ectoderm
Group of cells that
(d) Mesoendoderm
B. Cleavage (ii) would differentiate as
embryo 37. The pituitary gland and adrenal medulla are formed
from the
Outer layer of
Inner cell (a) Bilaminar embryonic disc
C. (iii) blastocyst attached to
mass (b) Mesoderm
the endometrium
Mitotic division of (c) Mesenchyme
D. Implantation (iv)
zygote (d) Ectoderm
(a) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv) 38. During pregnancy, if the total gonadotropin activity
is assessed, the expected result would be
(b) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
(a) high levels of circulating FSH and LH in the
(c) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
uterus to stimulate implantation of the embryo
(d) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)
(b) high levels of circulating HCG to stimulate
34. Given below are four statements (i)-(iv) regarding
endometrial thickening
embryonic development in humans.
(c) high levels of FSH and LH in uterus to stimulate
(i) Cleavage divisions bring about considerable
endometrial thickening
increase in the mass of protoplasm.
(d) high levels of circulating HCG to stimulate
(ii) With more cleavage divisions, the resultant
estrogen and progesterone synthesis.
blastomeres become smaller and smaller.
Placenta Parturition and Lactation

39. Why can’t a woman get pregnant again during 40. Which of the following about uterine contractions is
pregnancy? NOT true?
(a) A woman ovulates during pregnancy, but the (a) It is enhanced by prostaglandins released in the
oviducts are plugged with protective mucus to uterus
prevent sperm from entering. (b) It is enhanced by the action of oxytocin
(b) High levels of HCG in women’s bodies kill (c) Contractions stimulate sensory input to the
sperm. hypothalamus
(c) A woman can’t have intercourse during (d) Sensory input to the hypothalamus acts as a
pregnancy due to the presence of protective negative feedback loop for uterine contractions
mucus plug that develops in the cervix.
(d) High levels of estrogen and progesterone,
secreted by the corpus luteum or placenta during
pregnancy, inhibit the secretion of gonadotropins and
prevent ovulation.
Notes:
REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
SCAN CODE
Reproductive Health
REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH 153
Chapter 03
Reproductive Health
1. Reproductive Health
1.1 What is Reproductive Health?

● According to the World Health Organisation (WHO), reproductive health means a total well-being in all aspects of
reproduction, i.e., physical, emotional, behavioural and social.
1.2 Problems in Attaining Reproductive Health

● India was amongst the first countries in the world to initiate action plans and programmes at a national level to attain total
reproductive health as a social goal.
● These programmes called ‘family planning’ were initiated in 1951 and were periodically assessed over the past decades.
● Improved programmes covering wider reproduction-related areas are currently in operation under the popular name
‘Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH) programmes.
● Creating awareness among people about various reproduction related aspects and providing facilities and support for building
up a reproductively healthy society are the major tasks under these programmes.
Fig. 3.1 Problems in attaining reproductive health
SCAN CODE
Reproductive Health
154 REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
1.3 Strategies to Attain Reproductive Health

● Family Planning Program: It was invented in 1951.
● Awareness about Reproduction: With the help of audio-visual and the print-media governmental and non-governmental
agencies have taken various steps to create awareness among the people about reproduction-related aspects. Parents, other
close relatives, teachers and friends, also have a major role in the dissemination of the above information.
● Sex Education: Introduction of sex education in schools should also be encouraged to provide right information to the young
so as to discourage children from believing in myths and having misconceptions about sex-related aspects. There is no magic
age to start sexuality education. Even the pre-school children can be given developmentally appropriate knowledge about
their body and gender equality.
● Knowledge of growth and reproductive organs and STDs: Proper information about reproductive organs, adolescence and
related changes, safe and hygienic sexual practices, sexually transmitted diseases (STD), AIDS, etc., would help people,
especially those in the adolescent age group to lead a reproductively healthy life.
● Birth control devices and care of mother and child: Fertile couples and those in marriageable age groups should know
about available birth control options, care of pregnant mothers, postnatal care of the mother and child, importance of
breastfeeding and equal opportunities for the male and the female child.
● Prevention of sex abuse and sex related crimes: Awareness of problems due to uncontrolled population growth, social evils
like sex-abuse and sex-related crimes, etc., need to be created to enable people to think and take up necessary steps to prevent
them and thereby build up a socially responsible and healthy society.
● Information about reproduction related issues: For successful action plans to attain reproductive health requires strong
infrastructural facilities, professional expertise and material support. These are essential to provide medical assistance and
care to people in reproduction-related problems like pregnancy, delivery, STDs, abortions, contraception, menstrual
problems, infertility, etc. Implementation of better techniques and new strategies from time to time are also required to
provide more efficient care and assistance to people.
● Research in reproductive health area: Research on various reproduction-related areas is encouraged and supported by
governmental and non-governmental agencies to find out new methods and/or to improve upon the existing ones. Example:
“Saheli” a new oral contraceptive for the females was developed by Central Drug Research Institute, Lucknow.
● Medical facilities: Better awareness about sex related matters, increased number of medically assisted deliveries and better
post-natal care leading to decreased maternal and infant mortality rates, increased number of couples with small families,
better detection and cure of STDs and overall increased medical facilities for all sex-related problems indicate improved
reproductive health of the society.
1.4 Amniocentesis
Fig. 3.2 Amniocentesis
● It is a foetal sex determination and disorder test based on chromosomal pattern in amniotic fluid surrounding the embryo.
SCAN CODE
Reproductive Health
● Amniotic fluid contains the cells of the skin of foetus and it is withdrawn with the help of a syringe to study the genetic
material of skin cells for any abnormality.
● In India, it is being misused to kill the normal female foetus. Statutory ban on amniocentesis for sex-determination is done to
legally check increasing menace of female foeticides.
2. Population
2.1 Population Attributes
● Population: Total number of individuals of a species present in a particular area at a given time.
● The scientific study of the human population is called demography. It deals with three phenomena:
● Changes in population
● Composition of population
● Distribution of population
● It deals with five demographic processes namely fertility, mortality, marriage, migration and social mobility. The five
processes are continually at work within a population determining size, composition and distribution.
2.2 Population Explosion

● In the last century an all-round development in various fields significantly improved the quality of life of the people.
● However, increased health facilities along with better living conditions had an explosive impact on the growth of population.
Fig. 3.3 Growth of World Population
SCAN CODE
Reproductive Health
● The world population which was around 2 billion (2000 million) in 1900 rocketed to about 6 billion by 2000 and 7.2 billion
in 2011.
Fig. 3.4. Growth of Population of India
● A similar trend was observed in India too. Our population which was approximately 350 million at the time of our
independence reached close to a billion mark by 2000 and crossed 1.2 billion in May 2011.
● A rapid decline in death rate, maternal mortality rate (MMR) and infant mortality rate (IMR) as well as an increase in the
number of people in reproducible age are probable reasons for this.
● Through our Reproductive Child Health (RCH) programme, though we could bring down the population growth rate, it was
only marginal.
2.3 Consequences of Overpopulation

● According to the 2011 census report, the population growth rate was less than 2 per cent, i.e., 20/1000/year, a rate at which
our population would increase rapidly.
● Such an alarming growth rate could lead to an absolute scarcity of even the basic requirements, i.e., food, shelter and clothing,
in spite of significant progress made in those areas. Therefore, the government was forced to take up serious measures to
check this population growth rate. These measures are:
● People, particularly in the reproductive age group, should be educated about the advantages of a small family. Posters
showing a picture of a happy family with the slogan “Hum do hamare do” should be displayed.
● Statutory raising of marriageable age of the female to 18 years and that of males to 21 years.
● Incentives given to couples with small families.
● Motivate smaller families by using various contraceptive methods
SCAN CODE
Reproductive Health
3. Birth Control
Fig. 3.5. Birth Control Methods
● Birth control methods prevent pregnancy by preventing one or more of the three steps of reproductive processes. They are
● Preventing sperm transport to ovum
● Preventing ovulation
● Preventing implantation of early embryo in uterus
● An ideal contraceptive should be:
● User-friendly
● Easily available
● Effective
SCAN CODE
Reproductive Health
● Reversible with no or least side-effects

● No interference with the sexual drive, desire and/or the sexual act of the user
3.1 Natural Methods

● It works on the principle of avoiding chances of ovum and sperm meeting.
3.1.1 Periodic Abstinence
Fig. 3.6. Periodic Abstinence (Rhythm Method)
● The couples avoid or abstain from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle when ovulation could be expected.
● As chances of fertilisation are very high during this period, it is called the fertile period.
● Therefore, by abstaining from coitus during this period, conception could be prevented.
3.1.2. Coitus Interruptus or Withdrawal Method
● In this method, the male partner withdraws his penis from the vagina just before ejaculation so as to avoid insemination.
3.1.3. Lactational Amenorrhoea
Fig. 3.7 Lactational Amenorrhoea
SCAN CODE
Reproductive Health
● It is based on the fact that ovulation and therefore the cycle do not occur during the period of intense lactation
● following parturition.
● Therefore, as long as the mother breast-feeds the child fully, chances of conception are almost nil.
● However, this method has been reported to be effective only up to a maximum period of six months following parturition.
● As no medicines or devices are used in these methods, side effects are almost nil. However, chances of failure of this method
are also high.
3.2 Barrier Methods

● In this method, ovum and sperms are prevented from physically meeting with the help of barriers. Such methods are available
for both males and females.
3.2.1 Condoms
Fig. 3.8. Condoms
● They are barriers made of thin rubber/ latex sheath that are used to cover the penis in the male or vagina and cervix in
the female, just before coitus so that the ejaculated semen would not enter into the female reproductive tract to
prevent conception.
● ‘Nirodh’ is a popular brand of condom for the male.
● Female condoms are called femidoms.
● Both the male and the female condoms are disposable, can be self-inserted and thereby gives privacy to the user.
Fig. 3.9. Femidoms
SCAN CODE
Reproductive Health
3.2.2. Diaphragms, Vaults and Cervical Caps
Fig. 3.10. Diaphragm Fig. 3.11. Cervical Cap
● They are also barriers made of rubber that are inserted into the female reproductive tract to cover the cervix during coitus.
● They must be left in the place for at least 6 hours after the copulation.
● They prevent conception by blocking the entry of sperms through the cervix.
● They are reusable barriers.
● Spermicidal creams, jellies and foams are usually used along with these barriers to increase their contraceptive efficiency.
● Barrier methods not only help in contraception but also protects the user from STDs and AIDs.
3.3. Chemical Methods
Fig. 3.12. Spermicidal cream
● In this method, spermicide (kill spermatozoa) containing foam tablets, jellies and creams are inserted in vagina before
intercourse to prevent sperm from entering the uterus.
● These contain spermicides such as lactic acid, citric acid, boric acid and sodium sulphate and potassium permanganate.
● Sponges is a suppository or tablet containing nonoxynol as spermicide.
● Delfen is also available in the form of cream.
● They can be used by anyone who is not allergic to spermicide. They are not very reliable.
SCAN CODE
Reproductive Health
3.4 Contraceptive Pills

3.4.1. Oral Pills
Fig. 3.13 Oral Pills
● Pills have to be taken daily for a period of 21 days starting preferably within the first five days of the menstrual cycle.
● After a gap of 7 days (during which menstruation occurs) it has to be repeated in the same pattern till the female desires to
prevent conception.
● They inhibit ovulation and implantation as well as alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent/retard entry of sperms.
● Pills are very effective with lesser side effects and are well accepted by the females.
● Pills are of two types depending upon the combinations:
● Mini pills: They are made up of progestin (progesterone) only.
● Combined pills: They are made up of a combination of progestin and estrogen. Example: Mala D, Mala N
● Saheli is a non-steroid preparation containing centchroman. It was developed by CDRI, Lucknow.
● It is taken once a week after an initial intake of twice a week dose for 3 months. It blocks the estrogen receptors.
3.4.2. Emergency Pills
Fig. 3.14 Emergency Pills
● Morning after pill is a misnomer as these pills prevent pregnancy if taken within 72 hours of coitus, and not just in the
morning after unprotected sex.
● They are most effective for the first 24 hours.
SCAN CODE
Reproductive Health
3.5 Intra-Uterine Devices
Fig. 3.15. Intrauterine devices
● These devices are inserted by doctors or expert nurses in the uterus through vagina. These Intra Uterine Devices are presently
available as:
● Non- Medicated IUDs: Example-Lippes loop
● Hormone releasing IUDs: Example- Progestasert, LNG-20
● Copper releasing IUDs: Example- CuT, Cu7 and Multiload 375.
● IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus and the Cu ions released suppress sperm motility and the fertilising
capacity of sperms.
● The hormone releasing IUDs, in addition, make the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile to the sperms.
● IUDs are ideal contraceptives for the females who want to delay pregnancy and/or space children. It is one of most widely
accepted methods of contraception in India.
● Some drawbacks of IUDs are:
● Its presence can act as a minor irritant in the uterus.
● Increase the risk of tubal pregnancy.
● Can cause excess menstrual bleeding and pain
● Risk of perforation in uterus
3.6. Implants
Fig. 3.16. Implants
● Progestogens alone or in combination with estrogen can also be used by females as injections or implants under the skin.
● Six matchstick sized capsules containing steroids are inserted under the skin of the inner arm above the elbow.
● The capsule slowly releases the progesterone for about five years.
SCAN CODE
Reproductive Health
3.7 Hormone Injections
Fig. 3.17 Hormonal Injections
● The contraceptive injection is a shot that contains hormones, either a progestin alone, or a progestin and an estrogen together,
that prevents the body from releasing eggs and thickens the mucus at the cervix. A woman needs one shot either once every
month or once every three months from a healthcare provider.
3.8. Termination/Surgical Method
Fig. 3.18 Sterilization Method
● Surgical intervention blocks gamete transport and thereby prevents conception.

● Vasectomy: Sterilisation procedure in the male is called ‘vasectomy’. In vasectomy, a small part of the vas deferens is
removed or tied up through a small incision on the scrotum.
● Tubectomy: Sterilisation procedure in the female is called ‘tubectomy’. In tubectomy, a small part of the fallopian tube is
removed or tied up through a small incision in the abdomen or through vagina.
● These techniques are highly effective but their reversibility is very poor.
SCAN CODE
Reproductive Health
● It needs to be emphasised that the selection of a suitable contraceptive method and its use should always be undertaken in
consultation with qualified medical professionals.
● One must also remember that contraceptives are not regular requirements for the maintenance of reproductive health. In fact,
they are practiced against a natural reproductive event, i.e., conception/pregnancy.
● No doubt, the widespread use of these methods has a significant role in checking uncontrolled growth of population.
However, their possible ill-effects like nausea, abdominal pain, breakthrough bleeding, irregular menstrual bleeding or even
breast cancer, though not very significant, should not be totally ignored.
4. Medical Termination of Pregnancy
● Definition: Medical termination of pregnancy or abortion is the termination of pregnancy before the foetus becomes viable.
SCAN CODE
Reproductive Health
● Period: MTP is comparatively safe for up to 12 weeks (first trimester) of pregnancy. It becomes riskier after the first trimester
of pregnancy as the foetus becomes intimately associated with maternal tissues.
● Incidence: About 45- 50 million MTPs are done in a year all over the world which is 1/5th of the total number of pregnancies
in a year.
● The Government of India legalised MTP in 1971 with some strict conditions to avoid its misuse.
● MTP is done to get rid of unwanted pregnancies due to:
● Casual unprotected intercourse
● Failure in use of contraceptives during the coitus
● MTPs are also necessary where pregnancy can be harmful or even fatal to the mother or foetus or both.
● Significance:
● It helps in getting rid of unwanted pregnancies and such pregnancies which may be harmful or fatal either to the mother
or to the foetus or both.
● MTP plays a significant role in decreasing human population.
● Drawbacks:
● It is being misused to abort even the normal female foetuses.
● Majority of MTPs are performed by unqualified quacks which may be fatal.
● It has raised many emotional, ethical, religious and social issues.
5. Sexually Transmitted Diseases
● Diseases or infections which are transmitted through sexual intercourse with infected persons are called sexually transmitted
diseases (STDs), Venereal diseases (VD) or Reproductive Tract Infection (RTI).
● Causative agents: STDs are usually caused by
● Bacteria
● Viruses
● Chlamydia
● Protozoa
● Nematodes
● Ectoparasites
● Fungi
SCAN CODE
Reproductive Health
● Mode of transmission: STDs are transmitted by

● Sexual intercourse with infected person
● Sharing of injections, needles, surgical instruments etc.
● Transfusion of blood from infected mother to foetus.
● Cure of STD: Except HIV, genital herpes and Hepatitis B all other STDs are completely curable if detected early and
treated properly.
● Early symptoms of most of these are minor and include itching, fluid discharge, slight pain, swellings, etc., in the genital
region. Infected females may often be asymptomatic and hence, may remain undetected for long.
● Absence or less significant symptoms in the early stages of infection and the social stigma attached to the STIs, deter the
infected persons from going for timely detection and proper treatment.
● This could lead to complications later, which include pelvic inflammatory diseases (PID), abortions, still births, ectopic
pregnancies, infertility or even cancer of the reproductive tract. STIs are a major threat to a healthy society. Therefore,
prevention or early detection and cure of these diseases are given prime consideration under the reproductive
health-care programmes.
● Prevention of STDs:
● Avoid sex with unknown partners/multiple partners.
● Always try to use condoms during coitus
● In case of doubt, one should go to a qualified doctor for early detection and get complete treatment if diagnosed
with infection.
5.1 Types of STDs
Fig. 3.19 Causative agents of STDs
Type Disease Causative Agent

Gonorrhea Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Syphilis Treponema pallidum
Bacterial
Chlamydiasis Chlamydia trachomatis
Chancroid Haemophilus ducreyi
Herpes Simplex Virus
Genital Herpes
Human Papilloma Virus
Genital Warts
Viral Retrovirus- HIV (Human
AIDS
Immunodeficiency Virus)
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis B virus
Trichomoniasis Trichomonas vaginalis
Protozoan
Giardiasis Giardia lamblia
SCAN CODE
Reproductive Health
6. Infertility
● Definition: Infertility is a failure to conceive within one or more years of unprotected coitus.
● The reasons for this could be many–physical, congenital, diseases, drugs, immunological or even psychological.
● In India, often the female is blamed for the couple being childless, but more often than not, the problem lies in the
male partner.
● Specialised health care units (infertility clinics, etc.) could help in diagnosis and corrective treatment of some of these
disorders and enable these couples to have children.
● However, where such corrections are not possible, the couples could be assisted to have children through certain special
techniques commonly known as assisted reproductive technologies (ART).
7. Assisted Reproductive Technologies

● These are applications of reproductive technology to solve infertility problems. Some important techniques are as follows.
7.1 Test Tube Baby/In Vitro Fertilization
Fig. 3.20 In vitro Fertilization
SCAN CODE
Reproductive Health
● The fusion of ovum and sperm is done outside the body of the female to form a zygote which is allowed to divide to
form an embryo.
● This embryo is then implanted into the uterus where it develops into the foetus which in turn develops into a child.
● In this method, ova from the wife/donor (female) and sperms from the husband/donor (male) are collected and are induced to
form zygote under simulated conditions in the laboratory.
Fig 3.21 Intrauterine Transfer
● The zygote or early embryos (with up to 8 blastomeres) could then be transferred into the fallopian tube (ZIFT–zygote intra
fallopian transfer) and embryos with more than 8 blastomeres, into the uterus (IUT – intrauterine transfer), to complete its
further development.
● Embryos formed by in-vivo fertilisation (fusion of gametes within the female) also could be used for such transfer to assist
those females who cannot conceive.
FUN FACT
The first test tube baby Louise Joy Brown was born to Leslie and Gilbert Brown on July 25, 1978, in
Oldham, Lancashire, England with the help of Dr. Patrick Steptoe and Dr. Robert Edward.
SCAN CODE
Reproductive Health
7.2 Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer
Fig. 3.22 Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer
● It is a more expensive and invasive procedure than IVF but its results are better than IVF.
● In this technique both the sperm and unfertilized ovum are transferred into the fallopian tube.
● Fertilization then takes place in vivo (inside the body of the female).
7.3 Intra-Cytoplasmic Sperm Transfer
Fig. 3.23 Intra-Cytoplasmic Sperm Transfer
● In this technique, one single spermatozoon or spermatid is injected directly into the cytoplasm of the oocyte.
● This procedure is done under a high quality inverted operating microscope.
SCAN CODE
Reproductive Health
7.4 Artificial Insemination
Fig. 3.24 Artificial Insemination
● In this technique, the semen collected either from the husband or a healthy donor is artificially introduced either into the
vagina or into the uterus (IUI – intrauterine insemination) of the female.
● It is done in infertility cases either due to inability of male partner to copulate the female or due to very low sperm count in
the semen of the male partner.
FUN FACT
A developing embryo is implanted into the uterus of another female. A woman who substitutes or takes the place of a real
mother to nurse the embryo is called surrogate mother.
SCAN CODE
Reproductive Health
● All these techniques require extremely high precision handling by specialised professionals and expensive instrumentation.
Therefore, these facilities are presently available only in very few centres in the country.
● Obviously, their benefits are affordable to only a limited number of people. Emotional, religious and social factors are also
deterrents in the adoption of these methods.
● Since the ultimate aim of all these procedures is to have children, in India we have so many orphaned and destitute children,
who would probably not survive till maturity, unless taken care of.
● Our laws permit legal adoption and it is as yet, one of the best methods for couples looking for parenthood.
SCAN CODE
Reproductive Health

Introduction to Reproductive Health (a) (i) and (ii) only
1. To attain total reproductive health as a social goal, (b) (ii) and (iii) only
Indian Government initiated ‘family planning’ (c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Programme (action plans) in the year (d) (iii) and (iv) only
(a) 1951 (b) 1971 8. Amniocentesis is a technique used to
(c) 1974 (d) 1984 (a) Determine errors in amino acid metabolism in
2. According to the World Health Organization embryo
(WHO), reproductive health means, total well-being (b) Pinpoint specific cardiac ailments in embryo
in all aspects of reproduction, that is (c) Determine any hereditary genetic abnormality in
(a) Physical embryo
(b) Social (d) Detect gender of fetus
(c) Emotional and behavioral 9. Though all persons are vulnerable to STDs, their
(d) All of the above incidences are reported to be very high among
3. RCH stands for persons in the age group of
(a) routine check-up of health (a) 12-18 years (b) 18-21 years
(b) reproduction cum hygiene (c) 21-35 years (d) 15-24 years
(c) reversible contraceptive hazards
10. Which of the following cannot be detected in a
(d) reproductive and child health care
developing fetus by amniocentesis?
4. Amniocentesis involves analysis of
(a) Amnion (a) Down’s syndrome
(b) Body fluids of amniotes (b) Jaundice
(c) Amniotic fluid (c) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(d) Amino acids of protein (d) Sex of the foetus
5. The permissible use of the technique amniocentesis
11. Select the statement which is NOT correct about
is for
reproductive health?
(a) Detecting eye movement of the unborn fetus
(a) It refers to healthy reproductive organs with
(b) Artificial insemination normal functions.
(c) Transfer of embryo into the uterus of a surrogate (b) It is an insignificant part of general health and a
mother central feature of human development.
(d) Detecting any genetic abnormality (c) It is a state of complete physical, mental and
6. Reproductive health in society can be improved by: social well-being.
(i) Introduction of sex education in schools (d) It deals with the reproductive processes,
(ii) Increased medical assistance functions and systems at all stages of life
(iii) Awareness about contraception and STDs 12. Which of the following statements are correct?
(iv) Equal opportunities to male and female child (i) Family planning Programme were initiated in
(v) Encouraging myths and misconceptions 1951.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) (b) (i), (ii), (iv), (v) (ii) According to WHO, Reproductive health means
(c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (d) (ii), (v) total well-being in the physical, social,
7. Which of the following statements are correct? behavioral and emotional aspects of
(i) Family planning programmes were initiated in reproduction.
1951. (iii) ‘Saheli’ was developed at CDRI in Lucknow.
(ii) According to WHO, reproductive health means (iv) Amniocentesis should not be banned as it is a
total well being in the physical, social, foetal sex determination test
behavioural and emotional aspects of (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
reproduction. (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
(iii) 'Saheli' was developed at CDRI in Lucknow.
(iv) Amniocentesis should not be banned as it is a
foetal sex determination test.
13. Read the given statements and select the correct (d) Central Developmental Research Institute
option. 19. RCH stands for
Statement 1: Amniocentesis is often misused. (a) Routine check-up of health
Statement 2: Amniocentesis is being used to (b) Reproduction cum hygiene
determine the sex of the foetus so that female foetus (c) Reversible contraceptive hazards
may be aborted. (d) Reproductive and child health
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct. 20. Increased IMR and decreased MMR in a population
(b) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is will (Exemplar)
incorrect. (a) cause rapid increase in growth rate
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is
(b) result in decline in growth rate
correct.
(c) not cause significant change in growth rate
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
(d) result in an explosive population/exp
14. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) Amniocentesis and CVS (chorionic villi
sampling) are the techniques of detection of Birth Control Methods
foetal disorders during early pregnancy. 21. In which of the following methods, side effects are
(b) Reproductive health refers to healthy almost nil but chances of failure are high.
reproductive organs with normal functions. (a) Vasectomy (b) Rhythm method
(c) India was amongst the first countries in the (c) The pill (d) IUD
world to initiate action plans and programmes at 22. Lactational amenorrhoea prevents
a national level to attain total reproductive (a) Secretion of milk from breast
health. (b) Conception
(d) All of these (c) Secretion of prolactin
15. A national level approach to build up a (d) Spermatogenesis
reproductively healthy society was taken up in our 23. Fill up the blanks in the following paragraph by
country in (Exemplar) selecting the correct option.
(a) 1950s (b) 1960s A. (i) methods work on the principle of avoiding
(c) 1980s (d) 1990 chances of ovum and sperms meeting.
16. Assertion: Introduction of sex education in schools B. (ii) is one such method in which the couples
should be encouraged. avoid coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual
Reason: This will encourage children to believe in cycle.
myths about sex related aspects. C. (iii) is another method in which the male partner
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is withdraws his penis from the vagina just before
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is ejaculation so as to avoid insemination.
not the correct explanation of assertion. D. (iv) method is based on the fact that ovulation
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false. and therefore the cycle do not occur during the
(d) If both assertion and reason are false. period of intense lactation following parturition.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) Barrier Coitus Periodic Lactational
Population interruptus abstinence amenorrhea
17. The ‘family planning’ Programme were periodically (b) IUDs Lactational Coitus Periodic
assessed over the past decades. Improved amenorrhea interruptus abstinence
programmes covering wider reproductive health (c) Natural Periodic Coitus Lactational
abstinence interruptus amenorrhea
related areas are currently in operation under the
(d) Surgical Periodic Coitus Lactational
popular name abstinence interruptus amenorrhea
(a) RCH Programme
(b) ART Programme
24. On which of the following facts does the method of
(c) MTP Programme
(d) Test tube baby Programme periodic abstinence is based?
18. CDRI stands for (a) Ovulation occurs on about the 14th day of
(a) Central Dairy Research Institute menstruation.
(b) Central Drug Related Institute (b) Ovum remains alive for about 1-2 days.
(c) Central Drug Research Institute (c) Sperms survive for about 3 days.
(d) All of these
25. Natural methods for contraception usually work on 33. Which of the following methods of birth control is
the principle of effective, easy to use and inexpensive?
(a) preventing fertilization (a) IUD (b) Condom
(b) preventing implantation (c) Implant (d) Diaphragm
(c) preventing ovulation 34. What is true for 'lactational amenorrhea"?
(d) preventing embryo development (i) It means absence of menstruation.
26. Lactational amenorrhea is effective up to maximum (ii) Ovulation does not occur during the lactational
period.
period of__________ following parturition.
(iii) Chances of contraception are almost nil upto six
(a) 3 months months following parturition.
(b) 6 months (iv) Side effects are almost nil.
(c) 9 months (v) Contraceptive efficiency reduces after the
(d) 12 months period of intense lactation.
27. Periodic abstinence is a natural method of (vi) It is a natural method of contraception.
contraception where the couples avoid or abstain (vii) It increases phagocytosis of sperms.
(a) (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
from coitus during the period of the menstrual cycle
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
when (c) (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) and (vii)
(a) There is menstrual flow (d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
(b) The ovulation is most likely to occur 35. Condoms are one of the most popular contraceptives
(c) The corpus luteum is most active because of the following reasons (Exemplar)
(d) The proliferative phase begins (a) these are effective barriers for insemination
28. A contraceptive method in which the couples avoid (b) they do not interfere with coital act
or abstain from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the (c) these help in reducing the risk of STDs
menstrual cycle when ovulation could be expected, (d) all of the above.
is called 36. Diaphragms are contraceptive devices used by
(a) Lactational amenorrhea females. Choose the correct option from the
(b) Periodic abstinence statements given below. (Exemplar)
(c) Coitus interruptus (i) They are introduced into the uterus.
(d) Multiload (ii) They are placed to cover the cervical region.
29. Time for conception chance in women starting from (iii) They act as physical barriers for sperm entry.
day of menstruation is (iv) They act as spermicidal agents.
(a) 4th day (b) 14th day (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) 26th day (d) 1st day (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) & (iv)
30. A contraceptive method in which the male partner 37. Spermicidal creams, jellies and foams are usually
withdraws his penis from the vagina just before used along with the barrier methods to
ejaculation to avoid insemination is called (a) increase their conception efficiency
(a) Periodic abstinence (b) decrease their contraceptive efficiency
(c) increase their contraceptive efficiency
(b) Coitus interruptus
(d) provide motility to sperms
(c) Withdrawal method 38. Cu-T, LNG-20 and Cu-7 are examples of
(d) Both b and c (a) Contraceptive pills
31. Intensely lactating mothers do not generally (b) Surgical methods of sterilization
conceive due to the (Exemplar) (c) Assisted reproductive technology
(a) suppression of gonadotropins (d) Intrauterine devices
(b) hypersecretion of gonadotropins 39. Which of the following is a method of birth control?
(c) suppression of gametic transport (a) IUDs (b) GIFT
(d) suppression of fertilization. (c) ZIFT (d) IVF-ET
32. Which one is not included in “barrier methods” of 40. Cu ions released from copper-releasing intrauterine
birth control? devices (IUDs)
(a) Lippes loop (b) Diaphragms (a) make the uterus unsustainable for implantation
(c) Cervical caps (d) Vaults (b) increase phagocytosis of sperms
(c) suppress sperm motility
(d) prevent ovulation
41. Cu-T, LNG-20 and Cu-7 are examples of 48. Which one of the following is the most widely
(a) Contraceptive pills accepted method of contraception in India at
(b) Surgical methods of sterilization present?
(c) Assisted reproductive technology
(a) Cervical caps
(d) Intrauterine device
42. Read the given statements and select the correct (b) Tubectomy
option. (c) Diaphragms
Statement 1: Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults (d) IUDs (intrauterine devices)
are made of rubber and are inserted into the female 49. Which two of the following statements are correct?
reproductive tract to cover the cervix before coitus. (i) MTP during first semester is generally safe
Statement 2: These are chemical barriers of (ii) Chances of conception are nil until mother
conception which are reusable.
breast feeds the infant up to two years
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
(b) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is (iii) IUDs like copper-T are effective contraceptives
incorrect. (iv) Contraceptives pills may be taken up to one
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is week after coitus to prevent conception
correct. (a) i, iii (b) i, ii
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect. (c) ii, iii (d) iii, iv
43. IUDs prevent pregnancy by 50. Progestasert is an IUD which make the uterus
(a) inhibiting physiological and morphological unsuitable and cervix hostile to the sperms as it is
uterine changes required for implantation (a) non-medicated IUD
(b) increasing phagocytosis of spermatozoa within (b) ideal contraceptive
uterus (c) copper-releasing IUD
(c) suppressing motility of sperms as well as their (d) hormone releasing IUD
fertilising capacity 51. Which if the following is the mechanism of birth
(d) all of these. control employed through vasectomy?
44. Which of the following is a hormone releasing (a) Preventing sperm production in testis
Intrauterine Device (IUD)? (b) Preventing semen production
(a) Vault (c) Preventing transport of sperms into the urethra
(b) Multiload-375 (d) Preventing erection
(c) LNG-20 52. Choose the right one among the statements given
(d) Cervical cap below. (Exemplar)
45. Which of the following is false for IUDs? (a) IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself.
(a) These are inserted by doctors or expert nurses (b) IUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the
(b) Multiload - 375 is copper releasing IUD uterus.
(c) Cu ions released suppress sperm motility (c) IUDs suppress gametogenesis.
(d) Hormone releasing IUD, makes the uterus (d) IUDs once inserted need not be replaced.
suitable for implantation 53. Most important component of oral contraceptive is
46. Administration of 1or 2 combination or 3 within 4 of (a) Thyroxine (b) LH
coitus have been found to be very effective as (c) Progesterone (d) GH
emergency contraceptives. 54. Read the given statements and select the correct
1 2 3 4 option.
Progestogen
(a) Estrogen IUD’s 48 hours Statement 1: CuT, Cu7 and multiload 375 are the
- estrogen
Progestogen hormone releasing IUDs.
(b) Progestogens IUD’s 72 minutes Statement 2: Cu ions released by some IUDs affect
- estrogen
Progestogen - the ability of uterine wall to support embryo thus
(c) Progestogens IUD’s 72 Hours
estrogen cause contraception.
Progesterone (a) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
(d) Progestogens MTP 72 hours
- Androgen (b) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is
47. Which of the following is a non-medicated incorrect.
intrauterine device (IUD)? (c) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is
(a) Cu-T (b) Lippes Loop correct.
(c) Cu-7 (d) LNG-20 (d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
55. Oral contraceptive is composed of 64. Read the following statements and select the option
(a) Estrogen and growth hormone having both incorrect statements.
(b) Estrogen and progesterone (i) Condoms decrease sperm motility.
(c) Estrogen and testosterone (ii) Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are for
(d) Progesterone and testosterone both males and females.
56. Saheli, a new oral contraceptive for females (iii) IUDs are inserted by expert nurses.
developed by Indian scientists is a (iv) Sterilisation is a terminal method to prevent
(a) Steroidal preparation further pregnancy.
(b) Hormonal preparation (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) Non-steroidal preparation (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)
(d) Toxic preparation to kill sperms 65. Implants under the skin and injections are also used
57. Which of these is not a method of contraception? as contraceptive devices. These devices have
(a) Pills having oxytocin and vasopressin (a) Progesterone alone
(b) Lippes’ loop (b) Estrogen alone
(c) Tubectomy (c) Progesterone-estrogen combination
(d) Condoms (d) Either (a) or (c)
58. The contraceptive “SAHELI” 66. Which of the following contraceptive methods has
(a) Blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, poor reversibility?
preventing implantation
(b) Increases estrogen concentration, preventing
ovulation
(c) Is an IUD
(d) Is a post-coital contraceptive (a) (b)
59. “Saheli”, a new oral contraceptive for females, was
developed by
(a) AIIMS, Delhi (b) IICB, Kolkata
(c) SGPGI, Lucknow (d) CDRI, Lucknow
60. Saheli is
(a) oral contraceptive for females (c) (d)
(b) surgical sterilization method for females 67. Emergency contraceptives are effective if used
(c) diaphragm for females within (Exemplar)
(d) surgical method of sterilization in males (a) 72 hrs. of coitus
61. Contraceptive oral pills used by females help in (b) 72 hrs. of ovulation
birth control by (c) 72 hrs. of menstruation
(a) killing of ova (d) 72 hrs. of implantation.
(b) killing of sperms 68. What does the figure show?
(c) preventing ovulation
(d) forming a barrier between sperms and ovum.
62. Progesterone present in contraceptive pills is meant
for preventing
(a) Ovulation (b) Cleavage
(c) Fertilization (d) Implantation of zygote
63. How do the pills work?
(i) Inhibit ovulation and implantation
(ii) Alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent or (a) Ovarian cancer (b) Uterine cancer
retard the entry of sperms (c) Tubectomy (d) Vasectomy
(iii)Prevent the ejaculated semen from entering the 69. Purpose of tubectomy is to prevent
female vagina (a) Coitus
(iv) Inhibit spermatogenesis (b) Egg formation
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii) (c) Fertilization
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv) (d) Embryonic development
70. Which of these is used to control the human ii. Barrier method 2. Tubectomy
population?
(a) Estrogen and progesterone iii. IUDs 3. Withdrawal
(b) IUCD and MTP
iv. Oral contraceptives 4. Diaphragm
(c) Tubectomy and vasectomy
(d) All of the above v. Surgical method 5. Progestasert
71. Sterilization procedure in human female is (a) i - 4, ii - 3, iii - 5, iv - 1, v - 2
(a) Coitus interruptus (b) i - 3, ii - 4, iii - 1, iv - 2, v - 1
(b) Rhythm method
(c) i - 5, ii - 1, iii - 2, iv - 4, v - 3
(c) Tubectomy
(d) i - 3, ii - 4, iii - 5, iv - 1, v - 2
(d) Vasectomy
81. Given below are four methods (A-D) and their
72. Tubectomy is meant to prevent
modes of action (i-iv) in achieving contraception.
(a) Fertilization
Select their CORRECT matching from the four
(b) Coitus
options that follow
(c) Egg formation
(d) Embryonic development Method Mode of Action
73. Which is related to males? Prevents sperms
A. Oral Pill (i)
(a) Oral pill (b) Tubectomy reaching cervix
(c) Vasectomy (d) Saheli B. Condom (ii) Prevents implantation
74. Cutting or putting ligatures around male duct is
C. Vasectomy (iii) Prevents ovulation
called
(a) Tubectomy (b) Vasectomy Semen contains no
D. Copper-T (iv)
(c) Use of IUDs (d) All of these sperms
75. One of the illegal methods of birth control is (a) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
(a) Amniocentesis followed by MTP (b) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(b) by premature ejaculation during coitus (c) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
(c) abortion by taking an appropriate medicine (d) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
(d) by abstaining from coitus from day 10 to 17 of 82. Match the contraceptive methods given under
the menstrual cycle. Column-I with their examples given under Column-
76. Which of the following is the least effective method II and select the CORRECT option from the codes
of birth control? given below
(a) Rhythm method (b) Vasectomy Column – I Column – II
(c) The pill (d) IUD Tubectomy and
A. Chemical (i)
77. The technique used to block the passage of sperm in vasectomy
male is ________. B. IUDs (ii) Copper-T and loop
(a) Tubectomy (b) Vasectomy
C. Barriers (iii) Condom and cervical cap
(c) Rhythm method (d) Coitus interruptus
Spermicidal jelly and
78. Which one is the highly effective but poor D. Sterilization (iv)
foam
reversibility method of birth control?
(a) Termination of unwanted pregnancy Coitus interruptus and
(v)
(b) Sterilization techniques calendar method
(c) The rhythm method (a) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i)
(d) Use of physical barriers (b) A-(iv), B-(v), C-(ii), D-(iii)
79. Fertilization of ovum can be prevented by (c) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(v)
(a) Tubal ligation (b) Vasectomy (d) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(v), D-(i)
(c) Use of IUDs (d) All of these 83. Which of the following is a full proof method
80. Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct contraception?
combination from the options given. (a) Implantation
Column I Column II (b) Lactational amenorrhea
(c) Condoms
i. Natural method 1. Saheli
(d) Sterilisation
84. The accompanying diagram shows the uterine tubes (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
of four women (P, Q, R and S): the correct explanation of assertion.
In which two women is fertilization impossible at (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
present? not the correct explanation of assertion.
89. Assertion: Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are
barriers made of rubber.
Reason: They are inserted into the male
reproductive tract during coitus.
90. Assertion: Saheli, the new oral contraceptive for
females, contains a steroidal preparation.
(a) P and Q (b) Q and R Reason: It is a “once in a day” pill with very few
(c) R and S (d) S and P side effects.
85. Which is incorrect regarding vasectomy?
(a) Irreversible sterility
(b) No sperm occurs in seminal fluid
(c) No sperm occurs in epididymis
(d) Vasa deferentia are cut and tied
86. Which of the following is an ideal contraceptive for
the females who want to delay pregnancy and/or (d) If both assertion and reason are false.
space children?
(a) Barrier methods Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)
(b) Intrauterine Devices 91. Intentional or voluntary termination of pregnancy
(c) Oral Contraceptive Pills before full term is called
(d) Tubectomy
(a) MTP (b) STD
87. Sterilization techniques are generally foolproof
(c) Induced abortion (d) Both A and C
methods of contraception with least side effects.
92. Government of India legalized MTP in the year
Yet, this is the last option for the couples because
(a) 1951 (b) 1971
(Exemplar)
(i) it is almost irreversible (c) 1981 (d) 1992
(ii) of the misconception that it will reduce sexual 93. MTP Act of 1971 was amended in
urge/drive (a) 1994 (b) 1998
(iii) it is a surgical procedure (c) 2002 (d) 2003
(iv) of lack of sufficient facilities in many parts of 94. Induced abortion is
the country (a) IUD (b) PID
Choose the correct option. (c) MTP (d) STD
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii) 95. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) considered safe up to how many weeks of
88. Assertion: Periodic abstinence is a method in which pregnancy?
couples avoid from coitus from day 17 to 27 of the (a) Six weeks (b) Eight weeks
menstrual cycle. (c) Twelve weeks (d) Eighteen weeks
Reason: It is a very effective method and 100% sure
of birth control.
96. Which of the following statements is incorrect 100. Consider the following statements and select the
regarding the medical termination of pregnancy option stating which ones are true (T) and which one
(MTP)? are false (F).
(a) These help in getting rid of unwanted (i) There are many side effects of tubectomy and
pregnancies. vasectomy.
(b) These help in aborting the pregnancies which (ii) Purpose of tubectomy is to prevent egg
may be harmful to either mother or foetus or formation.
both. (iii) Contraceptive oral pills help in birth control by
(c) These contribute in decreasing the human preventing ovulation.
population. (iv) Genital warts is a sexually transmitted disease
(d) None of these caused by herpes virus.
97. Following statements are given regarding MTP. (v) In India, there is rapid decline in infant
Choose the correct options given below. (Exemplar) mortality rate and MMR.
(i) MTPs are generally advised during first (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
trimester. (a) T F T F F
(ii) MTPs are used as a contraceptive method. (b) F F F T T
(iii) MTPs are always surgical. (c) T T T F F
(d) F F T F T
(iv) MTPs require the assistance of qualified
101. Match column I with column II and select the
medical personnel.
correct option from the given codes.
(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iii)
Column I Column II
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (i) and (ii)
A. Syphilis (i) Human papilloma
98. Assertion: Second trimester abortions are much
virus
more complicated.
B. Chancroid (ii) Haemophilus
Reason: After 12 weeks the fetus becomes ducreyi
intimately associated with the maternal tissues. C. AIDS (iii) Treponema
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is pallidium
the correct explanation of assertion. D. Genital warts (iv) HIV
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is A B C D
not the correct explanation of assertion. (a) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false. (b) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(d) If both assertion and reason are false. (c) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(d) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
102. Hepatitis B is transmitted through
Sexually Transmitted Infections (a) blood transfusion
99. Given below are three statements (A–C) each with (b) intimate physical contact
one or two blanks. Select the option which correctly (c) sexual contact
fills up the blanks in any two statements. (d) all of these.
A. Diseases or infections which are transmitted 103. A weak immune system is characteristic of
through sexual intercourse are collectively called (a) Genital herpes (b) Trichomoniasis
(i) diseases. (c) Cholera (d) AIDS
B. Genital herpes is (ii) disease. 104. Which of the following STIs is not caused by a
C. Sterilisation in males is (iii) while in females is virus?
(a) Genital herpes (b) Genital warts
(iv).
(c) HIV (d) Syphilis
(a) A-(i) venereal; B-(ii) incurable
(b) A-(i) venereal; B-(ii) curable 105. Which of the following is not a sexually transmitted
disease?
(c) A-(i) non-communicable;
C-(iii) tubectomy, (iv) vasectomy (a) Syphilis
(d) B-(ii) bacterial; C-(iii) tubectomy, (b) Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS)
(iv) vasectomy (c) Trichomoniasis
(d) Encephalitis
106. The common means of transmission of AIDS is (v) Avoid sharing of needles
(a) sexual intercourse (a) (i), (ii), (iii) (iv) and (v)
(b) blood transfusion (b) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(c) placental transfer (c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(d) all of these (d) (i), (ii) and (iv)
107. Diseases or infections which are transmitted through 114. From the sexually transmitted diseases mentioned
sexual intercourse are called below identify the one which does not specifically
(a) Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) affect the sex organs? (Exemplar)
(b) Venereal diseases (VD) (a) Syphilis (b) AIDS
(c) Reproductive tract infections (RTI) (c) Gonorrhea (d) Genital warts
(d) All of the above 115. Read the given statements and select the correct
108. Which of the following is correct regarding HIV, option.
hepatitis B, gonorrhea, trichomoniasis? Statement 1: Use of condom is a safeguard against
(a) Trichomoniasis is an STD whereas others are AIDS and sexual diseases besides checking
not. pregnancy.
Statement 2: Certain contraceptives are implanted
(b) Gonorrhea is a viral disease whereas others are
under the skin of the upper arm to prevent
bacterial
pregnancy.
(c) HIV is a pathogen whereas others are diseases.
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
(d) Hepatitis B is eradicated completely whereas
(b) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is
others are not.
incorrect.
109. Given below is a list of few sexually transmitted
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is
diseases. Identify the diseases caused by bacteria
correct.
among these.
(i) Gonorrhea (ii) AIDS
116. Assertion: Syphilis, gonorrhea and AIDS are STDs.
(iii) Trichomoniasis (iv) Chlamydiasis
Reason: Syphilis, gonorrhea and AIDS are
(v) Syphilis transmitted through sexual intercourse.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (iv) and (v) (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
(c) (iii) and (v) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) the correct explanation of assertion.
110. Which of the following STDs are not completely (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
curable? not the correct explanation of assertion.
(a) Chlamydiasis, Gonorrhea, Trichomoniasis (c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(b) Chancroid, Syphilis, Genital warts (d) If both assertion and reason are false.
(c) AIDS, Syphilis, Hepatitis B Infertility
(d) AIDS, Genital herpes, Hepatitis B 117. Inability to conceive or produce children even after
111. AIDS results in _______ 2 years of unprotected sexual cohabitation is called
(a) Reduction in number of killer T cells (a) Sexuality (b) ART
(b) Reduction in number of Helper T cells (c) Fertility (d) Infertility
(c) Autoimmune diseases 118. In which ART technique, is the sperm artificially
(d) Inability to produce interferons introduced into the female?
112. Hepatitis B is transmitted through (a) ET (b) IUI
(a) Blood transfusion (c) IUT (d) GIFT
119. In case of a couple where the male has a very low
(b) Intimate physical contact
sperm count, which technique will be suitable for
(c) Sexually
fertilization?
(d) All of these.
(a) Gamete Intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer
113. To avoid transmission of STDs we should
(b) Artificial insemination
(i) Avoid sex with multiple partners
(c) Embryo transfer
(ii) Always have unprotected sex
(d) Intrauterine Transfer
(iii) Use condoms during coitus
(iv) Avoid sex with unknown partners
120. For an embryo with more than eight blastomeres, 127. In IVF technique, fusion of ovum and sperm occurs
which of the following assisted reproductive in
techniques can be used? (a) Uterus (b) Vagina
(a) Zygote intrafallopian transfer (ZIFT) (c) Fallopian tube (d) Culture medium
(b) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) 128. When the correction of infertility is not possible in
(c) Artificial insemination (AI) infertility clinics then couples could be assisted to
(d) Intrauterine transfer (IUT) have children through certain special techniques
121. Which of the following involves micro-puncturing commonly called as
of the zona pellucida? (a) RCH (b) ART
(a) Gamete intra-fallopian transfer (c) MTP (d) RTI
(b) Zygote intrafallopian transfer 129. A childless couple can be assisted to have a child
(c) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection through a technique called GIFT. The full form of
(d) Intrauterine insemination this technique is
(a) Gamete intra fallopian transfer
122. Consider the following statements and select the
(b) Gamete internal fertilization and transfer
option stating which ones are true (T) and which (c) Gamete cell internal fallopian transfer
ones are false (F). (d) Gamete inseminated fallopian transfer
(i) Abortions could happen spontaneously too. 130. Artificial insemination means
(ii) Infertility is the inability to produce viable (a) Transfer of sperms of husband to test tube
offspring due to defects in the female partner containing ova
only. (b) Artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy
(iii) Complete lactation could help in contraception. donor into the vagina
(iv) Creating awareness can help create a (c) Introduction of sperms of a healthy donor
reproductively healthy society. directly into the ovary
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (d) Transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a test
(a) F F T T tube containing ova
(b) F T F T 131. Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due
(c) T F T T to in vitro fertilization is transferred into
(d) T T F F (a) Cervix (b) Uterus
(c) Fimbriae (d) Fallopian tube
Assisted Reproductive Technology 132. GIFT is
123. Assisted reproductive technology does not include (a) Transfer of gametes into the fallopian tube
(a) Gamete intra-fallopian transfer (b) Transfer of embryo into the uterus
(b) Artificial insemination (c) Transfer of morula into the fallopian tube
(c) In vitro fertilization and embryo transfer (d) Transfer of mixture of sperms and ova into the
(d) Zygote extra fallopian transfer uterus
124. ART (used to help infertile couples) stands for 133. In vitro fertilization is a technique that involves
(a) Assisted Reproductive Technologies transfer of which one of the following into the
(b) Artificial Reproductive Technologies fallopian tube?
(c) Augmented Reproductive Technologies (a) Either zygote or early embryo up to 8 cell stage
(d) Anomalous Reproductive Technologies (b) Embryo only, up to 8 cell stage
125 ZIFT is transfer of (c) Embryo of 32 cell stage
(a) Zygote into fallopian tube (d) Zygote only
(b) Embryo into uterus 134. In 'test-tube baby' procedure
(c) Mixture of sperm and ova into fallopian tube (a) Fertilization is in-vitro but embryo development
(d) Mixture of sperms and ova into uterus is in-vivo
126. Stage transferred to uterus after induced fertilization (b) Fertilization is in-vivo but embryo development
of ova in the laboratory is is in-vitro
(a) Embryo at two-blastomere stage (c) Both fertilization and embryo development are
(b) Morula in-vitro
(c) Zygote (d) Both fertilization and embryo development are
(d) Embryo at four blastomere stage in-vivo
135. Donor semen is introduced into uterus through (c) IUI (d) ICSI
(a) Intrauterine transfer (IUT) 141. The zygote or early embryo up to 8 blastomeres
(b) Intrauterine insemination (IUI) could be transferred into the _____ by a procedure
(c) Gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT) called ______.
(d) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) (a) Uterus, ICSI
136. Assisted reproductive technologies (ART) (b) Fallopian tube, GIFT
(a) Include social awareness programmes to educate (c) Uterus, ZIFT
people about reproductive health and diseases (d) Fallopian tube, ZIFT
(b) Include research organization working on to 142. Which is WRONGLY matched?
produce new and more effective contraceptives (a) ICSI – Sperm directly injected into ovum
for birth control (b) IUI – Sperm introduced artificially into ovum
(c) Include a number of special techniques which (c) IUT – Embryo with more than 8 blastomeres
assist infertile couples to have children transferred into the uterus
(d) Both (b) and (c). (d) IVF – Fertilization outside the body
137. In assisted reproductive technology after in vitro 143. The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum
fertilization, what is transplanted into the fallopian in assisted reproductive technology is called
tube? (Exemplar)
(a) Embryo up to 8 blastomeres, if zygote is not (a) GIFT (b) ZIFT
transplanted (c) ICSI (d) ET.
(b) Blastula is transplanted 144. Choose the correct statement regarding the ZIFT
(c) Only zygote is transplanted procedure (Exemplar)
(d) Morula in 8-24 celled stage is transplanted (a) ova collected from a female donor are transferred
138. Which of the following statements is wrong? to the Fallopian tube to facilitate zygote
(a) Test tube baby begins growth inside test tube formation
(b) Test tube baby grows within mother’s womb (b) zygote is collected from a female donor and
(c) Test tube baby grows within surrogate mother’s transferred to the Fallopian tube of another
womb (c) zygote is collected from a female donor and
(d) Test tube baby grows completely in the test tube. transferred to the uterus of another
139. The technique called Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer (d) ova collected from a female donor and
(GIFT) is recommended for those females transferred to the uterus
(a) who cannot produce an ovum 145. Assertion: Infertility is inability to produce children
(b) who cannot retain the fetus inside uterus in spite of unprotected sexual co-habitation.
(c) who cannot provide suitable environment for Reason: Infertile couples could have children using
fertilization assisted reproductive technologies (ART).
(d) whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
passage for the sperms the correct explanation of assertion.
140. Which method can be used for women that cannot (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
produce ovum but can provide a suitable not the correct explanation of assertion.
environment? (c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(a) IUD (b) GIFT (d) If both assertion and reason are false.
EXERCISE – 2: Previous Year Questions

1. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as 5. Match list I with list II respect to methods of
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. contraception and their respective actions. Choose
Assertion A: Amniocentesis for sex determination is the correct answer from the options given below:
one of the strategies of Reproductive and Child List I List II
Health Care Programme. (a) Diaphragms (i) Inhibit ovulation and
Reason R: Ban on amniocentesis checks increasing Implantation
menace of female foeticide. (b) Contraception (ii) Increase phagocytosis
Pills of sperm within
In the light of the above statements, choose the
Uterus
correct answer from the options given below: (c) Intrauterine (iii) Absenes of Menstrual
(NEET 2023) Devices cycle and ovulation
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is NOT the correct following partition
explanation of A. (d) Lactational (iv) They cover the cervix
(b) A is true, but R is false. Amenorrhea blocking the entry of
sperms
(c) A is false, but R is true.
(NEET 2022)
(d) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct (a) (a) - (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (iii); (d) - (ii)
explanation of A. (b) (a) - (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (ii); (d) - (iii)
2. Match List I with List II. (c) (a) - (ii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (i); (d) - (iii)
(d) (a) - (iii); (b) - (ii); (c) - (i); (d) - (iv)
List I List II
6. Match List – I with List – II. (NEET-2021)
A. Vasectomy I. Oral method
B. Coitus II. Barrier method List – I List-II
interruptus Entry of sperm
C. Cervical III. Surgical method (1) Vaults (i) through Cervix is
caps Blocked
D. Saheli IV. Natural method
Removal of Vas
(2) IUDs (ii)
Deferens
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below: (NEET 2023) Phagocytosis of
(a) A–III, B–IV, C–II, D–I (3) Vasectomy (iii) Sperms within the
Uterus
(b) A–II, B–III, C–II, D–IV
Removal of fallopian
(c) A–IV, B–II, C–I, D–III (4) Tubectomy (iv)
tube
(d) A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II
3. Which one of the following common sexually Choose the correct answer from the options given
transmitted diseases is completely curable when below.
detected early and treated properly? (1) (2) (3) (4)
(NEET 2023) (a) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(a) Gonorrhoea (b) Hepatitis B (b) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(c) HIV infection (d) Genital herpes (c) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
4. Lippes loop is a type of contraceptive used as: (d) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(NEET 2022) 7. Which one of the following is an example of
(a) Cervical barrier Hormone releasing IUD? (NEET-2021)
(b) Vault barrier (a) Cu7 (b) Multiload 375
(c) Non-Medicated IUD (c) CuT (d) LNG 20
(d) Copper releasing IUD
8. Venereal diseases can spread through: (NEET-2021) 15. Match the following sexually transmitted diseases
(1) Using sterile needles (Column - I) with their causative agent (Column - II)
(2) Transfusion of blood from infected person and select the correct option.
(3) Infected mother to fetus Column - I Column - II
(4) Kissing (1) Gonorrhea (i) HIV
(5) Inheritance (2) Syphilis (ii) Neisseria
Choose the correct answer from the options given (3) Genital Warts (iii) Treponema
below. Human Papilloma
(4) AIDS (iv)
(a) (2) and (3) only – Virus
(b) (1) and (3) only (1) (2) (3) (4) (NEET-2017)
(c) (1), (2) and (3) only (a) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(d) (2), (3) and (4) only (b) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
9. In which of the following techniques, the embryos (c) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
are transferred to assist those females who cannot (d) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
conceive? (NEET-2020) 16. In the case of a couple where the male is having a
(a) ICSI and ZIFT (b) GIFT and ICSI very low sperm count, which technique will be
(c) ZIFT and IUT (d) GIFT and ZIFT suitable for fertilization? (NEET-2017)
10. Select the option including all sexually transmitted (a) Intrauterine transfer
diseases. (NEET-2020) (b) Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer
(a) AIDS, Malaria, filarial (c) Artificial insemination
(b) Cancer, AIDS, syphilis (d) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection
(c) Gonorrhea, Syphilis, Genital Herpes 17. The function of copper ions in copper releasing
(d) Gonorrhea, Syphilis, Genital Herpes IUD’s is (NEET-2017)
11. Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases
(a) They suppress sperm motility and fertilizing
is not completely curable? (NEET-2019)
capacity of sperms
(a) Genital warts (b) Genital herpes
(b)They inhibit gametogenesis
(c) Chlamydiasis (d) Gonorrhea
(c) They make uterus unsuitable for implantation
12. Select the hormone-releasing Intrauterine Device
(d) They inhibit ovulation
(NEET-2019)
(a) Multiload 375, Progestasert 18. Which of the following approaches does not give the
(b) Progestasert, LNG-20 defined action of contraceptive? (NEET-2016)
(c) Lippes Loop, Multiload 375
(a) Barrier methods Prevent fertilization
(d) Vaults, LNG-20
13. Which of the following contraceptive methods do Increase phagocytosis of
involve a role of hormones? (NEET-2019) sperms, suppress sperm
(b) Intrauterine
(a) Barrier method, Lactational amenorrhea pills motility and fertilizing
(b) CuT, Pills, Emergency contraceptives capacity of sperms
(c) Pills, Emergency contraceptives, Barrier Prevent/retard entry of
methods. Hormonal sperms, prevent
(c)
(d) Lactational amenorrhea, Pills, Emergency contraceptives ovulation and
contraceptives fertilization
14. The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’ (NEET-2018) Prevents
(d) Vasectomy
(a) is an IUD spermatogenesis
(b) increases the concentration of estrogen and
19. Which of the following is hormone releasing IUD?
prevents ovulation in females
(NEET-2016)
(c) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus.
(a) LNG-20
Preventing eggs from getting implanted
(d) is a post-coital contraceptive (b) Multiload 375
(c) Lippes loop
(d) Cu7
20. Which of the following is incorrect regarding 27. Which of the following cannot be detected in a
vasectomy? (NEET-2016) developing fetus by amniocentesis? (NEET-2013)
(a) No sperm occurs in seminal fluid (a) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(b) No sperm occurs in epididymis (b) Sex of the fetus
(c) Vasa deferentia is cut and tied (c) Down’s syndrome
(d) Irreversible sterility (d) Jaundice
21. A childless couple can be assisted to have a child 28. Artificial insemination means (NEET-2013)
through a technique called GIFT. The full form of this (a) transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a test-tube
technique is: (NEET-2015) containing ovum
(a) Germ Cell internal fallopian transfer (b) transfer of sperms of husband to a test-tube
(b) Gamete inseminated fallopian transfer containing ovum
(c) Gamete intrafallopian transfer (c) artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor
(d) Gamete internal fertilization and transfer into the vagina
22. In the context of amniocentesis, which of the (d) introduction of sperms of healthy donor directly
following statements is incorrect? (NEET-2015) into the ovary
(a) It is usually done when a woman is between 14-16 29. The test-tube baby programmed employs which one
weeks pregnant of the following techniques? (AIPMT-2012)
(b) It is used for prenatal sex determination (a) Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI)
(c) It can be used for detection of Down’s syndrome (b) Intrauterine Insemination (IUI)
(d) It can be used for detection of Cleft palate (c) Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT)
23. Tubectomy is a method of sterilization in which (d) Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer (ZIFT)
(NEET-2014) 30. What is the figure given below showing in particular?
(AIPMT-2012)
(a) small part of the fallopian tube is removed or
tied up
(b) ovaries are removed surgically
(c) small part of vas deferens is removed or tied up
(d) uterus is removed surgically
24. Which of the following is a hormone releasing
Intrauterine Device (IUD)? (NEET-2014)
(a) Multiload 375 (b) LNG-20
(c) Cervical cap (d) Vault (a) Ovarian cancer (b) Uterine cancer
(c) Tubectomy (d) Vasectomy
25. Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves
31. Which one of the following is the most widely
transfer of (NEET-2014)
accepted method of contraception in India, at present?
(a) ovum into the Fallopian tube
(AIPMT-2011)
(b) zygote into the Fallopian tube
(a) Cervical caps
(c) zygote into the uterus
(b) Tubectomy
(d) embryo with 16 blastomeres into the Fallopian
(c) Diaphragms
tube
(d) IUDs (Intrauterine Devices)
26. One of the legal methods of birth control is
32. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is
(NEET-2013)
considered safe up to how many weeks of pregnancy?
(a) abortion by taking an appropriate medicine
(AIPMT-2011)
(b) by abstaining from coitus from day 10-17 of the
(a) Eight weeks (b) Twelve weeks
menstrual
(c) Eighteen weeks (d) Six weeks
(c) by having coitus at the time-of-day break
(d) by a premature ejaculation during coitus
33. In vitro fertilization is a technique that involves (AIPMT-2008)
transfer of which one of the following into the
Method Mode of action
Fallopian tube? (AIPMT-2010)
Prevents sperms from
(a) Embryo only, up to 8 cell stage A. The pill (i)
reaching cervix
(b) Either zygote or early embryo up to 8 cell stage
B. Condom (ii) Prevents implantation
(c) Embryo of 32 cell stage
C. Vasectomy (iii) Prevents ovulation
(d) Zygote only
Semen contains no
34. Cu ions released from copper-releasing Intrauterine D. Copper-T (iv)
sperms
Devices (IUDs) (AIPMT-2010, 2000)
A B C D
(a) make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(a) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(b) increase phagocytosis of sperms
(b) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(c) suppress sperm motility
(c) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(d) prevent ovulation
(d) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
35. Given below are four methods (A-D) and their modes
of action (i-iv) in achieving contraception. Select their
correct matching from the four options that follow.
EXERCISE – 3: Achiever’s Section

Introduction to Reproductive Health 4. Certain characteristic demographic features of
1. Read the given statements and select the correct developing countries are
option. (a) high fertility, high density, rapidly rising
Statement 1: Amniocentesis is often misused. mortality rate and a very young age distribution
Statement 2: Amniocentesis is being used to (b) high infant mortality rate, low fertility, uneven
determine the sex of the fetus so that female fetus population growth and a very young age
may be aborted. distribution
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement (c) high mortality, high density, uneven population
2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. growth and a very old age distribution
(b) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement (d) high fertility, low or rapidly failing mortality rate,
2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. rapid population growth and a very young age
(c) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is distribution.
incorrect.
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect. Birth Control Methods
5. Which of the following are the drawbacks of the
Population IUDs?
(i) Their spontaneous expulsion, even without the
2. Consider the following statements and select the
woman’s knowledge.
option stating which ones are true (T) and which
(ii) They can cause excess menstrual bleeding and
ones are false (F).
pain.
(i) Abortions could happen spontaneously too.
(iii) Risk of perforation of the uterus.
(ii) Infertility is the inability to produce viable
(iv) Risk of infection.
offspring due to defects in the female partner
(v) They increase the phagocytosis of sperms.
only.
(vi) They suppress sperm motility.
(iii) Complete lactation could help in contraception.
(a) (i), (iii) and (vi) (b) (i), (ii), (iv) and (vi)
(iv) Creating awareness can help create a
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v) (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
reproductively healthy society.
6. IUDs prevent pregnancy by
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) Inhibiting physiological and morphological
(a) F F T T
uterine changes required for implantation
(b) F T F T
(b) Increasing phagocytosis of spermatozoa within
(c) T F T T
uterus
(d) T T F F
(c) Suppressing motility of sperms as well as their
3. Read the given statements and select the correct
fertilizing capacity
option.
(d) All of these.
Statement 1: Physiological capacity of organisms to
7. Cu-T is an intrauterine contraceptive device. From
produce offspring under natural conditions is called
the following mentioned statements select the option
reproductive potential.
that correctly defines the role of Cu.
Statement 2: Minimum number of individuals
(a) Cu ions make the uterus unsuitable for
which an environment can sustain is referred to as its
implantation
carrying capacity.
(b) Cu ions suppress sperm motility and the
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement
fertilizing capacity of the sperms.
2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. (c) Cu ions make the cervix hostile to sperms.
(b) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement (d) All of these.
2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. 8. Find out the correct matching.
(c) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is (a) Non-medicated IUDs-Lippes loop
incorrect. (b) Copper releasing IUDs-CuT, Cu-7 and LNG-20
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect. (c) Hormone releasing IUDs-Progestasert and
multiload -375
9. Birth control pills contain synthetic estrogen and (b) It acts by blocking ovulation and preventing
progesterone. How might these hormones prevent sperm motility.
pregnancy? (c) Six match-stick size capsules containing the
(a) They cause the corpus luteum to degenerate. progestogen steroid are inserted under the skin of
(b) They prevent the pituitary from secreting FSH the inner arm above the elbow.
and LH, so ovulation does not occur. (d) All of these.
(c) They cause the lining of the uterus to be sloughed 14. The drug RU-486 is taken after sexual intercourse. It
off. blocks implantation, and in this sense, it prevents
(d) They trigger premature ovulation, before an egg pregnancy_.
is mature. (a) like spermicidal foam
10. Progestin-estradiol combined contraceptive pills (b) in a manner similar to tubal ligation
inhibits ovulation by (c) like the familiar birth control pill used for the last
(a) Negative feedback on the release of estrogen 30 years
from ovary required for follicular development in (d) by blocking progesterone receptors in the uterus,
follicular phase thus preventing progesterone from maintaining
(b) Preventing the uterine physiological and pregnancy
morphological changes required for implantation 15. Which of the following contraceptive methods
(c) Inhibiting the secretion of follicle stimulating correctly matches with its mode of action?
hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) (a) Contraceptive method - Tubectomy Mode of
that are necessary for ovulation action - Make the uterus unsuitable for
(d) Both (a) and (c). implantation
11. Progesterone alone or in combination with estrogen (b) Contraceptive method - Oral pills Mode of
can also be used as contraceptives by females as action- Inhibit ovulation and implantation
injections or implants under their skin. When used in (c) Contraceptive method - Diaphragms Mode of
this manner, they action - Spermicidal and increases phagocytosis
(a) Do not affect the release of the ovum of sperms within the uterus
(b) Induce a foreign body reaction leading to (d) Contraceptive method – IUDs Mode of action -
rejection of the implanted blastocyst Blocks gamete transport
(c) Can cause increased risk of ectopic pregnancy 16. Identify the incorrect statement regarding surgical
(d) Have a much longer effective period birth control methods
12. Read the given statements and select the correct (a) They are also called as "sterilization" procedures
option. (b) In males, vasectomy and in females tubectomy is
Statement 1: Subcutaneous implantation of advised
synthetic progesterone prevents pregnancy for about (c) They are terminal methods to prevent any more
5 years. pregnancies
Statement 2: A tiny amount of progesterone is (d) These methods are hugely popular all over the
steadily released from the inserts into the blood. world
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 17. Which of the following approaches does not give the
2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. defined action of the corresponding contraceptives?
(b) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement (a) Intrauterine devices – Increase phagocytosis of
2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. sperms, suppress sperm motility and fertilizing
(c) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is capacity
incorrect. (b) Hormonal contraceptives – Prevent/retard entry
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect. of sperms, prevent ovulation and fertilization
13. Select the correct statement regarding subcutaneous (c) Vasectomy – Prevents spermatogenesis
implantation of synthetic progesterone. (d) Barrier methods – Prevent fertilization
(a) It is a contraception technique.
18. Consider the statements given below regarding A B C D

contraception and answer as directed thereafter
Condom for Condom for
(a) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) during (a) Implant CuT
female male
first trimester is generally safe
(b) Generally, chances of conception are nil until the Condom for Condom for
(b) Implant CuT
mother breast-feeds the infants up to two years. female male
(c) Intrauterine devices like Copper-T are effective Condom for Condom for
contraceptives. (c) CuT Implant
male female
(d) Contraception pills may be taken up to one week
Condom for Condom for
after coitus to prevent conception. (d) Implant CuT
male female
Which two of the above statements are correct?
(a) b, c (b) c, d 22. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the
(c) a, c (d) a, b correct option from the codes given below.
19. What is true about “Saheli”?
Column-I Column-II
(i) Developed at the CDRI, Lucknow
(ii) Contains a steroidal preparation Coitus
A. Natural methods (i)
(iii) “Once-a-week” pill interruptus
(iv) Many side effects B. IUDs (ii) LNG – 20
(v) High contraceptive value
(vi) Very few side effects C. Barrier methods (iii) Diaphragms
(vii) Low contraceptive value D. Surgical methods (iv) Multiload 375
(a) (i), (ii), (iii),(v),(vi) E. Oral contraceptives (v) Saheli
(b) (i),(iii),(v),(vi)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) (vi) Nirodh
(d) (i), (iii), (iv), (v) (vii) Sterilization
20. Which of the following contraceptive methods (viii) Vasectomy
correctly matches with its mode of action?
(ix) CuT
Contraceptive Mode of action
method (a) A-(i), B-(ii); (iv); (ix), C-(iii); (vi), D-(vii); (viii),
E-(v)
Make the uterus (b) A-(i), B-(ii); (iv), C-(iii); (vi); (ix), D-(vii); (viii),
(a) Tubectomy unsuitable for E-(v)
implantation (c) A-(i), B-(ii); (iv); (ix), C-(iii); (ix), D-(vii); (viii),
Inhibit ovulation and E-(v); (vi)
(b) Oral pills
implantation (d) A-(i), B-(iv); (ix), C-(ii); (iii); (vi), D-(vii); (viii),
Spermicidal and increases E-(v)
(c) Diaphragms phagocytosis of sperms
within the uterus Medical Termination of Pregnancy
(d) IUDs Blocks gamete transport 23. Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) MTP was legalized in 1971.
21. Identify the figures of the contraceptives given
(ii) Inability to conceive or produce children even
below and select the correct option.
after 2 years of unprotected sexual cohabitation is
called infertility.
(iii)Surgical method of contraception prevents
gamete formation.
(iv)MTPs are relatively safe up to 12 weeks of
pregnancy.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iii)
24. Read the given statements and select the correct 28. Which one of the following represents the correct
option. match of a sexually transmitted disease with its
Statement 1: MTP is considered relatively safe pathogen?
during the first trimester of pregnancy. (a) Syphilis-Treponema pallidum
Statement 2: Fetus becomes intimately associated (b) Gonorrhea-Entamoeba histolytica
with the maternal tissues after the first trimester. (c) Urethritis-Bacillus anthracis
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement (d) Soft Sore-Bacillus brevis
2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. 29. The diagram below represents the development of a
(b) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement human zygote from fertilisation to the late blastocyst
2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. stage.
(c) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is
incorrect.
25. Read the given statements and select the correct
option.
Statement 1: Use of condom is a safeguard against
AIDS and sexual diseases besides checking
pregnancy.
Statement 2: Certain contraceptives are planted Select a correct statement from the following
under the skin of the upper arm to prevent options.
pregnancy. (a) If two sperms penetrate the oocyte membrane at
(a) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement the time of fertilisation, conjoined twins with
2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. shared body parts will be born.
(b) During the process of in vitro fertilisation with
(b) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement
embryo transfer (IVF-ET), the embryo is
2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
transferred at the 2-cell stage to the mother's
(c) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is uterus.
incorrect. (c) The outer cells of the early blastocyst will
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect. eventually form the foetus.
(d) In ZIFT, the zygote with 8-cell stage is
Sexually Transmitted Disease transferred into the Fallopian tube.
26. Which one is correct regarding sexually transmitted 30. Which of the following is correct regarding HIV,
diseases? hepatitis B, gonorrhea and trichomoniasis?
(a) Hemophilia is a STD (a) Trichomoniasis is an STD whereas others are not.
(b) Gonorrhea is a viral disease whereas others are
(b) Genital herpes and sickle cell anemia are both
bacterial.
STDs
(c) HIV is a pathogen whereas others are diseases.
(c) Chances of a five-year old boy contracting a STD (d) Hepatitis B is eradicated completely whereas
are very little others are not.
(d) A person may contract syphilis by sharing milk 31. A sexually transmitted disease symptomized by the
with someone already suffering from disease development of chancre on the genitals is caused by
27. The Human Papilloma Virus (HPV) vaccine is an the infection of
effective means of preventing:
(a) Treponema pallidum
(a) Breast cancer
(b) Neisseria gonorrhea
(b) Uterine cancer
(c) Human immunodeficiency virus
(c) Ovarian cancer
(d) Cervical cancer (d) Hepatitis B virus.
32. The complications of the STDs include 36. In 'test-tube baby' procedure
i. PID (a) Fertilization is in-vitro but embryo development
ii. Abortion is in-vivo
(b) Fertilization is in-vivo but embryo development
iii. Still birth
is in-vitro
iv. Ectopic pregnancies (c) Both fertilization and embryo development are
v. Infertility in-vitro
vi. Cancer of reproductive tract (d) Both fertilization and embryo development are
(a) i, ii, iii and iv in-vivo
(b) i, ii, iii, iv and v 37. The technique called Gamete Intra Fallopian
(c) ii, iii, iv, v and vi Transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females
(a) Who cannot produce an ovum
(d) all of the above
(b) Who cannot retain the fetus inside uterus
(c) Whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow
Infertility passage for the sperms
33. The given figure represents locations in human (d) Who cannot provide a suitable environment for
female reproductive system that are affected by fertilization.
38. Which two of the following statements are incorrect
different birth control measures. Identify them and
regarding in vitro fertilization?
select the correct option. (i) In this method, ova from the wife/donor female
and sperms from the husband/donor male are
induced to form zygote in the uterus
(ii) If the embryo is having 2 blastomeres, it is
transferred into the uterus.
(iii)If the embryo is with more than 8 blastomeres, it
is transferred into the uterus.
(iv) The baby thus produced is called a test tube
baby.
(a) (iii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv)
P Q R S 39. Which of the following statements is correct with
(a) Copper T Birth control Tubectomy Condom reference to a test tube baby?
(b) Birth control Copper T Tubectomy Diaphragm (a) Fertilization of the egg is completed outside the
(c) Birth control Diaphragm Ovariectomy Copper T body; the fertilized egg is then placed in the
(d) Copper T Birth control Ovariectomy Diaphragm womb of the mother where the gestation is
completed.
(b) Fertilization of the egg is completed in the female
Assisted Reproductive Technologies genital tract. It is then taken out and grown in a
34. Which of the following is wrongly matched? large test tube.
(a) IUI-semen collected from husband or donor is (c) A prematurely born baby is reared in an incubator
artificially introduced either into the vagina or (d) Fertilization of the egg and growth of the embryo
into the uterus. is completed in a large test tube.
(b) GIFT –transfer of embryos with more than 8 40. Read the given statements and select the correct
blastomeres into the Fallopian tube option.
(c) ICSI- sperm directly injected into the ovum Assertion: Transfer of an ovum collected from a
(d) ZIFT-transfer of embryos up to 8 blastomeres donor into the Fallopian tube of another female who
into the Fallopian tube. cannot produce an ovum, is called GIFT.
35. Which of the following statements is incorrect with Reason: Transfer of early embryos with up to 8
reference to a test tube baby? blastomeres into the Fallopian tube of the female, is
(a) Fertilization of the egg and growth of the embryo called ZIFT.
is completed in a test tube. (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
(b) Fertilization of the egg is completed in the female the correct explanation of assertion.
genital tract. It is then taken out and grown in a (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
large test tube.
(c) A prematurely born baby is reared in an (d) If both assertion and reason are false.
incubator.
Notes:
Answer Key
CHAPTER 1 : SEXUAL REPRODUCTION OF FLOWERING PLANTS
Exercise-1:
Basic Objective Question
 DIRECTION FOR USE:-
Scan the QR code and check detailed solution.
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (d) 81. (c) 82. (d) 83. (a) 84. (d) 85. (c)
6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (c) 86. (a) 87. (b) 88. (b) 89. (a) 90. (c)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (c) 91. (a) 92. (c) 93. (d) 94. (a) 95. (b)
16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (a) 96. (d) 97. (c) 98. (c) 99. (c) 100. (a)
21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (c) 101. (b) 102. (c) 103. (d) 104. (b) 105. (d)
26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (c) 106. (b) 107. (b) 108. (a) 109. (c) 110. (d)
31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (b) 111. (d) 112. (c) 113. (c) 114. (a) 115. (b)
36. (b) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (a) 116. (a) 117. (b) 118. (b) 119. (a) 120. (d)
41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (d) 44. (d) 45. (a) 121. (d) 122. (b) 123. (c) 124. (b) 125. (b)
46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (c) 126. (a) 127. (b) 128. (a) 129. (a) 130. (b)
51. (a) 52. (a) 53. (b) 54. (c) 55. (c) 131. (b) 132. (a) 133. (c) 134. (b) 135. (c)
56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (a) 59. (c) 60. (b) 136. (a) 137. (b) 138. (d) 139. (d) 140. (d)
61. (b) 62. (c) 63. (c) 64. (c) 65. (a) 141. (c) 142. (b) 143. (a) 144. (d) 145. (d)
66. (a) 67. (d) 68. (a) 69. (c) 70. (a) 146. (a) 147. (a) 148. (c) 149. (d) 150. (c)
71. (a) 72. (d) 73. (d) 74. (a) 75. (c) 151. (c) 152. (b) 153. (a) 154. (a) 155. (a)
76. (b) 77. (b) 78. (b) 79. (c) 80. (b)
CHAPTER 1 : SEXUAL REPRODUCTION OF FLOWERING PLANTS

Exercise-2: Exercise-3:
Previous Year Question Achiever's Section

Scan the QR code and check detailed solution. Scan the QR code and check detailed solution.
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (c) 1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (d)
6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (c) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (d) 11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (c)
16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (b) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (c)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (a) 21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (a)
26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (a) 26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (a)
36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (d)
41. (c) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (b)
46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (b) 49. (a)
ANSWER KEY 195
Answer Key
CHAPTER 2 : HUMAN REPRODUCTION
Basic Objective Question Previous Year Question

1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (b) 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b)
7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (d)
6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (b)
13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (d)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (d)
19. (b) 20. (b) 21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (b)
25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (d) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (b)
31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (c) 21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (c)
37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (c) 41. (b) 42. (d) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (b)
43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (a)
31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (a)
49. (d) 50. (d) 51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (c) 54. (c)
36. (a) 37. (d) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (c)
55. (c) 56. (b) 57. (a) 58. (a) 59. (a) 60. (a)
61. (a) 62. (d) 63. (c) 64. (a) 65. (b) 66. (c) 41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (b)
67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (b) 70. (b) 71. (d) 72. (b) 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (c) 49. (a) 50. (d)
73. (b) 74. (b) 75. (a) 76. (d) 77. (d) 78. (d)
79. (a) 80. (b) 81. (c) 82. (a) 83. (d) 84. (b)
85. (d) 86. (a) 87. (b) 88. (c) 89. (a) 90. (a)
91. (c) 92. (d) 93. (d) 94. (a) 95. (d) 96. (a)
97. (a) 98. (d) 99. (a) 100. (c) 101. (a) 102. (b)
103. (c) 104. (a) 105. (a) 106. (d) 107. (d) 108. (a)
109. (b) 110. (d) 111. (a) 112. (a) 113. (a) 114. (a)
115. (b) 116. (c) 117. (b) 118. (a) 119. (d) 120. (b)
121. (b) 122. (b) 123. (d) 124. (d) 125. (a) 126. (d)
127. (c) 128. (c) 129. (b) 130. (d) 131. (c) 132. (c)
133. (c) 134. (d) 135. (c)
196 ANSWER KEY
CHAPTER 2 : HUMAN REPRODUCTION

Exercise-3:
Achiever's Section
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (d)
6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (b)
16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (a)
26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (b)
31. (d) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (b)
36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (d)
Answer Key
CHAPTER 3 : REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
Exercise-1:
Basic Objective Question
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (d) 76. (a) 77. (b) 78. (b) 79. (d) 80. (d)
6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (b) 81. (c) 82. (a) 83. (d) 84. (c) 85. (c)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (a) 86. (b) 87. (d) 88. (d) 89. (c) 90. (d)
16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (b) 91. (d) 92. (b) 93. (c) 94. (c) 95. (c)
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (a) 96. (d) 97. (c) 98. (a) 99. (a) 100. (d)
26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (d) 101. (a) 102. (d) 103. (d) 104. (d) 105. (d)
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (d) 106. (d) 107. (d) 108. (c) 109. (b) 110. (d)
36. (c) 37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (a) 40. (c) 111. (b) 112. (d) 113. (b) 114. (b) 115. (a)
41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (d) 116. (a) 117. (d) 118. (b) 119. (b) 120. (d)
46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (d) 49. (a) 50. (d) 121. (c) 122. (c) 123. (d) 124. (a) 125. (a)
51. (c) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (d) 55. (b) 126. (b) 127. (d) 128. (b) 129. (a) 130. (b)
56. (c) 57. (a) 58. (a) 59. (d) 60. (a) 131. (b) 132. (a) 133. (a) 134. (a) 135. (b)
61. (c) 62. (a) 63. (b) 64. (b) 65. (d) 136. (c) 137. (a) 138. (d) 139. (a) 140. (b)
66. (c) 67. (a) 68. (c) 69. (c) 70. (d) 141. (d) 142. (b) 143. (c) 144. (b) 145. (b)
71. (c) 72. (a) 73. (c) 74. (b) 75. (a)
ANSWER KEY 198
CHAPTER 3 : REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH

Previous Year Question Achiever's Section

1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (b) 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (b)
6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (c) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (a) 11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (b)
16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (b) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (b) 21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (b)
26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (c) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (c)
31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (c) 35. (c) 31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (d)
36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (a) 40. (b)

XII-NEET Biology M-1 Final Booklets

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

XII-NEET Biology M-1 Final Booklets

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

XII-NEET Biology M-1 Final Booklets

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Vedantu’s

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Exercise - 1 : Basic Objective Questions.................................................................................................. 63

Exercise - 2 : Previous Year Questions ..................................................................................................... 76

Exercise - 3 : Achiever’s Section ............................................................................................................ 79

Answer Key ......................................................................................................................................... 193

Exercise - 1 : Basic Objective Questions................................................................................................... 127

Exercise - 2 : Previous Year Questions ...................................................................................................... 141

Exercise - 3 : Achiever’s Section ............................................................................................................. 146

Answer Key .......................................................................................................................................... 195

Exercise - 1 : Basic Objective Questions................................................................................................... 172

Exercise - 2 : Previous Year Questions ...................................................................................................... 183

Exercise - 3 : Achiever’s Section ............................................................................................................. 187

Answer Key .......................................................................................................................................... 197

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Are We not Lucky that Plants Reproduce Sexually?

1. Flower – A Fascinating Organ of Angiosperms

Fig 1.2: Sexual Reproduction

1.1 Whorls of a Flower

Fig 1.3: Whorls of a flower

Description of Floral Whorls

Whorls of a flower Description

Calyx ● Calyx is the most anterior whorl.

Corolla ● Corolla is anterior to stamen but posterior to calyx.

Androecium ● Androecium is anterior to gynoecium but posterior to calyx and corolla.

Gynoecium ● Gynoecium is the most posterior whorl.

2. Pre-Fertilisation: Structures and Events

3. The Male Gametophyte

3.1 Stamen: Male Reproductive Organ

Fig 1.4: Stamen: Male Reproductive Organ

3.1.1 Structure of a Typical Anther

Fig 1.5: Bilobed, dithecous anther

Fig 1.6: (a) A typical stamen

3.1.2 Structure of Microsporangium

Anther Wall Layers

Epidermis ● It is the outermost layer Diploid

Endothecium ● It is present inner to the epidermis. Diploid

Middle Layer ● It is present inner to the endothecium. Diploid

● Tapetal cells are very large, comprising many nuclei.

Fig 1.8: Microsporogenesis

● Usually, the arrangement of microspores is tetrahedral.

3.1.4 Dehiscence of Anther:

Fig 1.10: Maturation of anther

Fig 1.11: Dehiscence of anther

3.1.5 Structure of a Pollen Grain

● Pollen grain has a prominent two-layered wall known as sporoderm.

Fig 1.15: Structure of a pollen grain

DID YOU KNOW?

3.1.6 Pre-Pollination Development

Fig 1.16: Stages of a microspore maturing into a two-celled pollen grain

Fig 1.17: Stages of a microspore maturing into a three-celled pollen grain

3.1.7 Post-Pollination Development

Fig 1.18: Pollen germination on stigma

DID YOU KNOW?

Structure Alternative name Ploidy

Microsporophyll Equivalent to the stamen of angiosperms 2n

Microsporangia Pollen sacs It comprises microspore mother cells (2n) which

Male gametophyte Pollen grain n

3.1.8 Pollen Allergies

Fig 1.19: Sneezing due to pollen allergy