Worksheets Name

114X
Class
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 50mins
Date
Instructor name: GentleDoge GentleDoge

1. Which of the following is NOT a classification of signals?

a) Dynamic-time b) Discrete-time

c) Analog d) Continuous-time

2. What defines a periodic signal?

a) It does not repeat its pattern b) It has no fundamental frequency

c) It has a repeating pattern over a specific interval d) It has a continuous spectrum

3. What is the Nyquist rate?

a) Half the sampling frequency b) Twice the highest frequency component in the
signal

c) Equal to the highest frequency component in the d) Equal to the sampling frequency
signal

4. Aliasing in signal processing occurs when:

a) The signal is continuous b) The signal is periodic

c) The sampling frequency is too high d) The sampling frequency is too low

5. What differentiates a Finite Impulse Response (FIR) from an infinite Impulse Response (IIR) filter?

a) IIR filters have an infinite impulse response b) IIR filters have a finite number of coefficients

c) FIR filter uses feedback d) FIR filters have recursive difference equations

6. Which type of filter exhibits linear phase characteristics?

a) IIR Filter b) Both FIR and IIR

c) FIR Filter d) Neither FIR and IIR

7. Which of the following is a characteristic of Finite Impulse Response (FIR) filters?

a) They have an infinite impulse response b) They can have feedback loops

c) They have a finite duration impulse response d) They exhibit recursive behavior

8. The Z-transform is used to:

a) Perform convolution operations b) Evaluate poles and zeros of a system

c) Convert frequency-domain signals to time-domain d) Convert time-domain signals to frequency-domain

signals signals

9. Pole-zero-gain filters are characterized by:

a) Number of zeros and gain b) Only the gain

c) Number of poles, zeros, and gain d) Number of poles and gain

10. In signal processing, Fourier transforms are primarily used for:

a) Evaluating system poles and zeros b) Modifying phase response of a filter

c) Converting frequency-domain signals to time- d) Time-frequency analysis

domain signals

11. What is the main purpose of a modulator in a communication system?

a) To convert analog signals into digital signals b) To amplify signals for transmission

c) To encode data into carrier wave d) To convert digital signals into analog signals

12. Which of the following is not a characteristic of digital communication?

a) Reduced error rate b) High noise immunity

c) Increased bandwidth requirement d) Greater security in transmission

13. What does the term ‘bandwidth’ refer to in communication systems?

a) The amount of noise in the system b) The range of available radio frequencies

c) The capacity of data transmission d) The frequency range of the modulated signal

14. What component of a communication system is responsible for signal reception?

a) Receiver b) Antenna

c) Modulator d) Transmitter
15. Noise from random acoustic or electric noise that has equal per cycle over a specified frequency band.

a) Thermal Noise b) White Noise

c) All of the choices d) Gaussian Noise

16. The signal in the channel is measured to be 23 dB white while noise in the same channel is measured to be 9
dB. The signal to noise ratio therefore _____.

a) 14 dB b) 32 dB

c) 23/9 d) 9/23

17. What factor affects thermal noise in a communication system?

a) Antenna height b) Temperature

c) Voltage d) Bandwidth

18. An amplifier has an output S/N that is half of its input S/N. What is its noise figure?

a) 2 dB b) 3 dB

c) -2 dB d) -3 dB

19. If an amplifier has a bandwidth B = 20kHz and a total noise power N = 2 x 10 -17W, determine the total noise
power in dBμ if the bandwidth increases to 80kHz.

a) 101 dBμ b) -101 dBμ

c) -100 dBμ d) 100 dBμ

20. Modulation is the process of

a) Generating constant frequency radio waves b) Combining audio and radio frequency waves at
the transmitting end of a communication system

c) Reducing distortion in the RF amplifiers d) Improving the thermal stability of a transistor

21. What does the term “carrier suppression” refer to in modulation?

a) Amplitude reduction of the carrier wave b) Completely removing the carrier wave

c) Reducing the power of the carrier wave d) Minimizing interference from other carriers
22. A transmitter supplies 10 kW of carrier power to the antenna. The total radiated power with 40% modulation
is _____ kW.

a) 1.6 b) 25

c) 10.8 d) 14

23. 100% modulation is produced in AM when the carrier…

a) Frequency exceeds signal frequency b) Amplitude equals signal amplitude

c) Frequency equals signal frequency d) Amplitude exceeds signal amplitude

24. Which of the following statement regarding single sideband transmission is not correct

a) The amount of power and the bandwidth b) In such transmission, only one sideband is
necessary to be transmitted for a given amount of transmitted, leaving off the other side and the
information are appreciably reduced carrier

c) It is generally reserved for point-to-point d) It has gained general acceptance for the use home
communication entertainment equipment

25. The difference between phase and frequency modulation

a) Lies in the poorer audio response of the phase b) Lies in the different definition of the modulation
modulation index index

c) Is purely theoretical because the same in practice d) Is too great to make the two systems are
compatible

26. In superheterodyne broadcast receiver, the frequency of the local oscillator is _____ the incoming signal
frequency.

a) Cannot be determine b) Lower than

c) Higher than d) Equal to

27. What is the primary function of a mixer in a superheterodyne receiver?

a) To convert the received signal to a fixed frequency b) To detect the modulated signal

c) To filter out unwanted frequencies d) To amplify the receiver signal

28. The standard intermediate frequency for the FM radio is

a) 15 kHz b) 10.7 MHz

c) 4.5 MHz d) 27 kHz

29. Which type of modulation is commonly used in digital communication systems?

a) Amplitude modulation (AM) b) Pulse Width Modulation (PWM)

c) Phase Modulation (PM) d) Quadrature Amplitude Modulation (QAM)

30. What is the primary function of a modem in a communication system?

a) To convert digital signals into analog signals b) To amplify signals for transmission

c) To encode data into a carrier wave d) To decode modulated signals

31. An analog pulse modulation technique in which the duration of each resulting pulse is varied in step with the
amplitude of the modulating signal at the time it is sampled and that the sampled pulses have the same
amplitude.

a) Pulse Width Modulation (PWM) b) Pulse Length Modulation (PLM)

c) Pulse Duration Modulation (PDM) d) All of the choices

32. What does Pulse Code Modulation (PCM) primarily involve?

a) Modulating pulse width b) Varying pulse amplitude

c) Converting analog signals to digital signals d) Modulating pulse position

33. What is the advantage of using Differential Pulse Code Modulation (DPCM) over Pulse Code Modulation
(PCM)?

a) Lower quantization noise b) Reduced bandwidth requirement

c) Higher data transmission rate d) Better resistance to channel noise

34. What is the primary characteristic of Spread Spectrum modulation techniques?

a) Concentrating signal energy into narrow b) Spreading signal energy over a wider bandwidth
bandwidth

c) Transmitting signals at high frequencies

35. What is the main advantage of digital modulation over analog modulation?

a) Higher power efficiency b) Greater resistance to noise

c) Wider frequency range d) Simplicity in modulation

36. What is the primary advantage of digital communication over analog modulation?

a) Higher power efficiency b) Wider frequency range

c) Greater resistance to noise d) Simplicity in modulation

37. Which of the following is not a component of a digital communications system?

a) Receiver b) Modulator

c) Carrier Wave Generator d) Demodulator

38. What is the primary difference between Pulse Amplitude Modulation (PAM) and Pulse Width Modulation
(PWM)?

a) PAM uses a fixed pulse width, while PWM uses b) PWM is used in audio applications while PAM is
variable pulse widths used in video applications

c) PAM is digital, while PWM is analog d) PAM encodes information in pulse width, while
PWM encodes in pulse amplitude.

39. In Pulse Code Modulation (PCM), what does quantization refers to?

a) Assigning numerical values to each signal level b) Modulating the amplitude of pulses

c) Sampling the analog signal at regular intervals d) Encoding the analog signal into binary code

40. Which modulation techniques encodes information in the timing of pulses?

a) Pulse Code Modulation (PCM) b) Pulse Width Modulation (PWM)

c) Pulse Position Modulation (PPM) d) Pulse Amplitude Modulation (PAM)

41. What is the primary advantage of Quadrature Amplitude Modulation (QAM) over other modulation
techniques?

a) Lower power consumption b) Greater resistance to noise

c) Higher data transmission rates d) Simpler Demodulation process

42. What is the main advantage of Frequency Shift Keying (FSK) over Amplitude Shift Keying (ASM)?

a) Greater resistance to noise b) Higher spectral efficiency

c) Higher data transmission rates d) Simpler Modulation process

43. In digital communication, what does ASK stands for?

a) Amplitude Sampling Keying b) Analog Signal Keying

c) Angle Shift Keying d) Amplitude Shift Keying

44. In Phase Shift Keying (PSK), how many phase states can a signal have to encode information?

a) 3 b) 4

c) 1 d) 2

45. Which information theory concept measures the average amount of information produced by a source of
data?

a) Entropy b) Channel capacity

c) Bit rate d) Redundancy

46. What is the primary purpose of error detection codes in digital communication?

a) To minimize the occurrence of errors b) To correct errors in transmitted data

c) To identify if errors have occurred during d) To compress the data for efficient transmission
transmission

47. CDMA stands for:

a) Compact Digital Multiplex Arrangement b) Code-Division Multiple Access

c) None of the choices d) Carrier Division Multiple Access

48. An analog multiplexing technique where the optical fiber data rate is higher than the data rate of the metallic
transmission cable. It is also used to combine optical signals.

a) FDM b) CDMA

c) WDM d) TDM

49. Which of the following is not a common FDM application?

a) Telemetry b) Secure Communications

c) Telephone d) Stereo Broadcasting

50. It is the basic building block of the FDM hierarchy.

a) Voice Channel b) Group

c) Message Channel d) Baseband Channel

51. A quarter-wave length of a line is used as a/an

a) Stub matching b) Impedance transformer

c) Grounding d) Lecher line

52. What causes the characteristic impedance of a transmission line to change?

a) Varying the temperature of the transmission line b) Altering the cross-sectional area of the line

c) Lengthening the transmission line d) Changing the frequency of the signal

53. A coaxial line with an outer diameter of 6mm has a 50Ω characteristic impedance. If the dielectric constant of
the insulation in 1.60, calculate the inner diameter.

a) 2.09 cm b) 2.90 mm

c) 2.09 mm d) 2.90 cm

54. Indicate the false statement. The SWR on a transmission line is infinity; the line is terminated in

a) A complex impedance b) A short circuit

c) A pure reactance d) An open circuit

55. Which parameter of a transmission line determines its ability to transfer signals without distortion?

a) Characteristic Impedance b) Phase Velocity

c) Attenuation d) Propagation constant

56. What factor affects the power density of a transmitted signal?

a) Frequency of the signal b) Transmitting antenna material

c) Transmitting antenna height d) Atmospheric pressure

57. A microwave transmitting antenna is 550ft high. The receiving antenna is 200 ft high. The minimum
transmission distance is

a) 20 mi b) 53.2 mi

c) 38.7 mi d) 32.2 mi
58. Effective earth radius to true earth radius ratio

a) Fresnel zone b) Index of refraction

c) K-factor d) Path profile

59. A measure of distribution of radiated power over a given area is called

a) Attenuation b) Power density

c) Filed strength d) Polarization

60. The power density at a certain distance from a 5kW isotropic source in free space is 1.5x10 -14 w/m2. How far
away is the source?

a) 50,024.36 m b) 50,024.36 ft

c) 50,024.36 mi d) 50,024.36 km

61. What is the free Space loss in dB at 300Mhz between the earth station and a satellite at 37,000 km?

a) 185.4 dB b) 197.4 dB

c) 173. 4 dB d) 167.4 dB

62. A 500-kHz transmitter produces a field strength of 100uV/m at 100mi. What is the theoretical strength at 200
mi?

a) 75 uV b) 50 uV

c) 25 uV d) 100 uV

63. A space that does not interfere with the normal radiation and propagation of waves.

a) Space jam b) Free space

c) Space wave d) Normal space

64. What does the term "polarization” refer to in antenna systems?

a) The orientation of the electromagnetic wave's b) The frequency of the transmitted signal
electric field

c) The shape of the antenna d) The distance between the antenna and the
receiver
65. A device designed to radiate electromagnetic energy into space.

a) Matching transformer b) Transmission lines

c) Conductors d) Antenna

66. The amount of electromagnetic spectrum needed or allocated for a particular communication channel or
group of channels.

a) Beamwidth b) Power density

c) Field strength d) Bandwidth

67. In a given direction, the relative gain of a transmitting antenna with respect to the maximum directivity of a
half-wave dipole multiplied by the net power accepted by the antenna from the connected transmitter.

a) Field strength b) Power density

c) Effective Isotropic Power d) Effective Radiated Power

68. What is meant by antenna gain?

a) The ratio of the signal in the forward direction to b) The final amplifier gains minus the transmission
the signal in the backward direction line loss (including any phasing lines present)

c) The ratio of the amount of power produced by the d) the numeric ratio relating the radiated signal
antenna compared to the output power of the strength of an antenna to that of another antenna
transmitter

69. What is the primary function of a directive antenna?

a) To reduce the frequency of transmitted waves b) To amplify received signals

c) To radiate electromagnetic waves equally in all d) To concentrate electromagnetic waves in one

directions direction

70. What is the cut-off wavelength of a 6cm x 3cm waveguide? Assume the dominant mode of operation.

a) 9cm b) 15cm

c) 12cm d) 6cm

71. What is the primary advantage of using waveguides for transmission compared to free space transmission?

a) Lower propagation speed b) Better confinement of electromagnetic waves

c) Limited bandwidth capacity d) Higher power losses

72. What is the primary reason for using fiber optics in communication systems?

a) Higher susceptibility to electromagnetic b) Greater signal distortion over long distances

interference

c) Higher data transmission rates d) Lower bandwidth capacity

73. What property of optical fibers allows them to transmit data over long distances?

a) High attenuation b) Limited bandwidth

c) low dispersion d) High numerical overture

74. What characteristic defines a thermocouple as a temperature sensor?

a) It generates voltage proportional to temperature b) It measures temperature by changes in resistance

differences

c) It uses light emission to detect temperature d) It directly measures heat flow

variations

75. What is the primary function of a photodiode in an optoelectronic system?

a) To convert light energy into electrical current b) To emit light when a current passes through it

c) To amplify electrical signals d) To control the intensity of light emitted by an LED

76. What does the term "GPIO" stand for concerning interfacing techniques?

a) Global Peripheral Input/Output b) General Purpose Input/Output

c) Geographical Positioning In/Out d) Graphics Processor Input/Output

77. What is the primary role of an analog-to-digital converter (ADC) in interfacing systems?

a) To control the flow of digital data b) To convert digital signals into analog signals

c) To amplify analog signals for better reception d) To convert analog signals into digital signals

78. Which component is essential in a fire and life safety control system?

a) Carbon monoxide detectors b) Motion detectors

c) Access control systems d) Temperature sensors

79. What is the primary function of a Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) system in building
management?

a) To supervise and collect data from various sensors b) To manage audio-video and lighting controls.
and equipment

c) To regulate HVAC systems d) To control fire and life safety systems

80. What is the primary function of an HVAC control system in a building management system?

a) To manage the security and surveillance systems b) To supervise and acquire data from different
sensors

c) To control the lighting and audio-video systems d) To monitor and control the heating, ventilation,
and air conditioning

81. What type of network topology uses a central node to connect all other nodes?

a) Star topology b) Mesh topology

c) Ring topology d) Bus topology

82. A _ interconnects LAN having identical protocols at the physical data link and network layers.

a) gateway b) Router

c) Bridge d) Node

83. Which category of data communication involves transmitting data over short distances within a building or
campus?

a) LAN (Local Area Network) b) MAN (Metropolitan Area Network)

c) GAN (Global Area Network) d) WAN (Wide Area Network)

84. What is the main advantage of a mesh network topology?

a) Centralized control of the network b) Redundancy and fault tolerance

c) Ease of installation and maintenance d) High-speed data transmission

85. In which network configuration are all devices connected to a single, continuous cable?

a) Mesh configuration b) Star configuration

c) Bus configuration d) Ring configuration

86. What distinguishes a four-wire circuit from a two-wire circuit?

a) Two-wire circuits are used in telephony, while four- b) Four-wire circuits are used for analog
wire circuits are used in data communication. transmission, while two-wire circuits are used for
digital transmission.

c) Two-wire circuits have higher bandwidth than four- d) Four-wire circuits use separate wires for
wire circuits. transmission and reception, two-wire circuits use
the same wire for both.

87. In which transmission mode can data be transmitted in both directions but not simultaneously?

a) Simplex b) Full-duplex

c) Multiplex d) Half-duplex

88. What is the primary advantage of using a full-duplex transmission mode?

a) Higher data transmission rates b) Reduced cost of hardware

c) Lower error rates d) Simplicity in implementation

89. . Which transmission mode allows simultaneous transmission and reception of data?

a) Full-duplex b) Multiplex

c) Half-duplex d) Simplex

90. Which network component acts as an interface between a computer and a network?

a) Serial interface b) Terminal

c) FEP (Front-End Processor) d) LCU (Line Control Unit)

91. What type of synchronization ensures that sender and receiver clocks are synchronized periodically during
data transmission.

a) Synchronous synchronization b) Isochronous synchronization

c) Asynchronous synchronization d) Plesiochronous synchronization

92. What network component manages multiple data streams onto a single communication channel?

a) Concentrator b) Terminal

c) LCU (Line Control Unit) d) Multiplexer

93. In the OSI model, which layer ensures data integrity and provides error detection?

a) Network layer (Layer 3) b) Transport layer (Layer 4)

c) Physical layer (Layer 1) d) Data Link layer (Layer 2)

94. What character-oriented protocol is commonly used for email communication?

a) ASCII b) Baudot

c) Unicode d) EBCDIC

95. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for establishing managing and terminating connections between
applications?

a) Session layer (Layer 5) b) Presentation layer (Layer 6)

c) Transport layer (Layer 4) d) Application layer (Layer 7)

96. Which layer of the TCP/IP model is responsible for routing packets across different networks?

a) Network Layer b) Application Layer

c) Data Link Layer d) Transport Layer

97. Which bit-oriented protocol is widely used for synchronous communication in WANs?

a) PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol) b) BSC (Binary Synchronous Communication)

c) HDLC (High-Level Data Control) d) LAPB (Link Access Procedure Balanced)

98. What distinguishes a WAN from a LAN?

a) WANs cover larger geographical areas than LANs. b) WANs have lower transmission speeds compared
to LANs.

c) WANs use wireless while LANs use wired d) WANs are easier to set up than LANs
technology.

99. What does ISDN stand for in telecommunications?

a) Intelligent System Data Network b) Integrated Switched Digital Network

c) Integrated Services Digital Network d) International Subscriber Dialing Network

100. Which network type covers a broad geographical area, such as a city or town?

a) WAN (Wide Area Network) b) MAN (Metropolitan Area Network)

c) LAN (Local Area Network) d) GAN (Global Area Network)

Answer Keys

1. a) Dynamic-time 2. c) It has a repeating pattern 3. b) Twice the highest frequency

over a specific interval component in the signal

4. d) The sampling frequency is 5. d) FIR filters have recursive 6. c) FIR Filter

too low difference equations

7. c) They have a finite duration 8. d) Convert time-domain signals 9. c) Number of poles, zeros, and
impulse response to frequency-domain signals gain

10. c) Converting frequency- 11. c) To encode data into carrier 12. a) Reduced error rate
domain signals to time- wave
domain signals

13. b) The range of available radio 14. a) Receiver 15. c) All of the choices
frequencies

16. a) 14 dB 17. b) Temperature 18. b) 3 dB

19. b) -101 dBμ 20. b) Combining audio and radio 21. b) Completely removing the
frequency waves at the carrier wave
transmitting end of a
communication system

22. c) 10.8 23. b) Amplitude equals signal 24. d) It has gained general
amplitude acceptance for the use
home entertainment
equipment

25. c) Is purely theoretical 26. c) Higher than 27. a) To convert the received
because the same in signal to a fixed frequency
practice

28. b) 10.7 MHz 29. b) Pulse Width Modulation 30. a) To convert digital signals
(PWM) into analog signals

31. d) All of the choices 32. c) Converting analog signals to 33. b) Reduced bandwidth
digital signals requirement

34. b) Spreading signal energy 35. b) Greater resistance to noise 36. c) Greater resistance to noise
over a wider bandwidth

37. c) Carrier Wave Generator 38. a) PAM uses a fixed pulse 39. a) Assigning numerical values
width, while PWM uses to each signal level
variable pulse widths
40. c) Pulse Position Modulation 41. c) Higher data transmission 42. a) Greater resistance to noise
(PPM) rates

43. d) Amplitude Shift Keying 44. d) 2 45. a) Entropy

46. c) To identify if errors have 47. b) Code-Division Multiple 48. c) WDM

occurred during Access
transmission

49. b) Secure Communications 50. c) Message Channel 51. a) Stub matching

52. b) Altering the cross-sectional 53. c) 2.09 mm 54. c) A pure reactance

area of the line

55. a) Characteristic Impedance 56. b) Transmitting antenna 57. b) 53.2 mi

material

58. c) K-factor 59. b) Power density 60. a) 50,024.36 m

61. c) 173. 4 dB 62. b) 50 uV 63. b) Free space

64. a) The orientation of the 65. d) Antenna 66. d) Bandwidth

electromagnetic wave's
electric field

67. d) Effective Radiated Power 68. d) the numeric ratio relating 69. d) To concentrate
the radiated signal strength electromagnetic waves in
of an antenna to that of one direction
another antenna

70. c) 12cm 71. b) Better confinement of 72. c) Higher data transmission

electromagnetic waves rates

73. c) low dispersion 74. a) It generates voltage 75. a) To convert light energy into
proportional to electrical current
temperature differences

76. b) General Purpose 77. d) To convert analog signals 78. a) Carbon monoxide detectors
Input/Output into digital signals

79. a) To supervise and collect 80. d) To monitor and control the 81. a) Star topology
data from various sensors heating, ventilation, and air
and equipment conditioning

82. b) Router 83. a) LAN (Local Area Network) 84. b) Redundancy and fault
tolerance
85. c) Bus configuration 86. d) Four-wire circuits use 87. d) Half-duplex
separate wires for
transmission and reception,
two-wire circuits use the
same wire for both.

88. a) Higher data transmission 89. a) Full-duplex 90. d) LCU (Line Control Unit)
rates

91. a) Synchronous 92. d) Multiplexer 93. d) Data Link layer (Layer 2)

synchronization

94. a) ASCII 95. a) Session layer (Layer 5) 96. a) Network Layer

97. c) HDLC (High-Level Data 98. a) WANs cover larger 99. c) Integrated Services Digital
Control) geographical areas than Network
LANs.

100. b) MAN (Metropolitan Area

Network)