2024 June Examiner Report

Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education
0510 English as a Second Language (Speaking Endorsement) June 2024

Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
ENGLISH AS A SECOND LANGUAGE

(SPEAKING ENDORSEMENT)
Paper 0510/11
Reading and Writing
Key messages
• In Exercises 1 – 4, it is suggested that candidates underline or highlight the central focus of each
question, in order to ensure that each part of the question is addressed and to avoid including incorrect
details which could affect the mark awarded.
• In Exercise 1, candidates should ensure that no incorrect information is included with a correct
response. They should focus on providing a precise response, and excess details should not be
included.
• In Exercise 2, candidates should consider the message of each paragraph, since identifying the correct
answer often involves following discourse markers in consecutive sentences in the paragraph as a
whole, rather than simply recognising a single key word or synonym. In this series, many candidates
appeared to have difficulty with questions testing implied meaning.
• In Exercise 3, candidates should ensure that notes are given under the correct heading. Notes should
be brief, only providing key details.
• In Exercise 4, candidates should be aware that the details in each option, A, B, C, of a question will be
mentioned in the text. However, only one option will contain the details that fully and accurately
correspond to the central focus of the question.
• In Exercises 5 and 6, candidates should develop their response as fully as possible, ensuring they fulfil
the requirements of the task. For Exercise 5, all three bullet points must be addressed in order for
candidates to access higher marks. This series, many candidates made a good attempt to supply a
suitably brief introduction and concluding statement, in an informal register. There were also fewer
prolonged greetings and conclusions with pre-learned expressions than in previous series. In addition,
there was far less evidence of inappropriate and outdated idioms. For Exercise 6, if candidates use the
ideas in the prompts, in order to gain higher marks, they should further extend and develop these ideas
or introduce separate ideas of their own.
General comments
Confident attempts were made on all exercises.
Comments on specific questions
Exercise 1
This exercise was generally well attempted by the majority of candidates.
Question 1
This was reasonably well attempted although some candidates incorrectly selected the distractor, ‘1939’.
Most recognised the correlation between ‘created’ in the text and ‘invented’ in the question.
Question 2
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This was very well answered, and most candidates identified the link between ‘I’d choose’ in the text and
‘prefer’ in the question and correctly selected ‘fantasy’ as their response. Very occasionally, some candidates
responded with ‘science fiction’, which was the distractor.
Question 3
This question proved to be more challenging. Many responses omitted the key word ‘World’ from the title
‘World Cosplay Summit’. This was not precise enough and did not convey the global impact of the
competition which made it different from the ‘EuroCosplay’ or ‘Nordic Cosplay’ events.
Question 4
This was very well attempted. Very occasionally, candidates answered ‘old man with a beard’ but most
identified the correlation between ‘role’ in the text and ‘type of character’ in the question.
Question 5
Candidates were required to read the whole paragraph to identify the correct detail. Some candidates
incorrectly selected ‘selling cosplay costumes’ from the first sentence of the paragraph, but this referred to
‘lots of people’ and not specifically to Lana. Successful candidates understood the message in the paragraph
as a whole and were credited with the correct response ‘taking photographs’.
Question 6
Most candidates were successful in recognising all the correct details and gained all marks. All four options
on the mark scheme were used. A mark could not be given if the comparative ‘more’ in point three was
omitted.
Centres are reminded that for this final question in Exercise 1, candidates should be prepared to review the
stimulus article as a whole because key information may appear at any point in the text.
Exercise 2
Question 7
A wide range of marks was awarded on this exercise. Candidates were most successful with Questions (b)
and (d), with many also credited with correct answers for (a), (c), (e) and (h). Questions (f), (g) and (i) were
less successfully answered.
In Question (f), candidates needed to match the statement ‘which person says that they will go wild
swimming whatever the weather’ with the detail in text D ‘it does not matter how cold or wet it is – I’ll turn up’.
The most common incorrect answer was B, where candidates possibly linked the statement with the detail
‘you’ll find me out there most times of the year, sometimes even in the winter months’. However, this was
qualified by the detail in the previous sentence ‘it’s only when it’s too windy that I’ll accept that it’s not wise to
swim in the sea’. The key wording in the statement was ‘whatever the weather’ and only text D precisely
conveyed this.
In Question (g), the statement asked, ‘which person suggests that a memory of wild swimming might have
been inaccurate’. The correct match was with text C and the observation ‘what I had to be reminded of was
my concern at the time about what creatures might have been in the deep water beneath me’. Although Lana
now has no fears about what may be in the sea, she had forgotten how worried she was when she went wild
swimming for the first time. Many candidates may have selected statement A because of the wording ‘I
clearly remembered the freezing temperature of the water which certainly is not the impression given by the
images’. Candidates may have connected ‘memory’ in the statement with ‘remembered’ in the text but, on
this occasion, the link was not accurate. The key word in the statement was the introductory ‘suggests’ and
the wording in text C, with its idea of having an inaccurate recall of an event, was closer to this idea than the
more definite, clear remembrance in text A.
In Question (i), candidates needed to match the statement ‘which person suggests that they have done
something risky when wild swimming’ with the sentence in text D ‘There have been some occasions when I
have been the only one there…. though I’m well aware that’s not a good idea’. Many candidates incorrectly
selected text C, where Lana was concerned about the creatures in the sea. Again, the key word in the
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statement was ‘suggests’ and so candidates needed to look for details in the text which were implied rather
than factual.
Exercise 3
This exercise was successfully answered by the majority of candidates. Many were able to demonstrate
enough understanding of the text to score very well here, providing brief responses in note form.
Question 8
The full range of possible correct answers was chosen by candidates and many managed to convey four of
them correctly. Points 1 and 2 on the mark scheme were particularly well attempted with brief notes and the
need for a suitable verb in point 1 was well recognised. For point 3, some responses could not be credited as
the answer was incomplete: ‘charging drivers’. This required the detail ‘to enter parts of the city’ in order to
precisely follow the meaning in the text. Similarly, in point 5 ’parking charges’ on its own was insufficient
without the key idea of ‘outside the workplace’. Point 4 was selected less often and, on occasion, responses
omitted the key word ‘better’ and could not be credited because ‘public transport’ on its own did not convey
any idea of improvement. There were very few occasions this series where candidates unnecessarily used
their own words.
Question 9
This question was very well attempted, and many candidates were awarded the maximum three marks. All
four options on the mark scheme were identified. Each note required a verb following on from the wording in
the heading except for the first option ’travel plan’ in point 3. Candidates successfully used the verbs
‘renting’, ‘sharing’ and ‘downloading’ in points 1, 2 and 4 respectively as per the text. On occasion, in point 4,
responses such as, ‘using a mobile phone’, was not precise enough to convey the specific idea of
downloading an app and could not be credited.
Exercise 4
Many candidates were awarded maximum marks and most scored at least three out of a possible five.
Candidates were most successful with Questions 11, 12 and 15 and least successful at answering
Questions 10, 13 and 14.
Question 10
The correct answer to this question was found in paragraph one. The key word ‘suggests’ in the question
stem indicates it is targeting implied information or an opinion rather than factual detail. Option C was
incorrect because the text refers to the child Serena as, ‘simply part of a group of children’ rather than the
‘only participant’. The text conveys the writer’s opinion that there is ‘nothing wrong with her’ and she is
‘perfectly ordinary-looking’, but the key expression ‘apart from’ would suggest that the cap with wires that
Serena is wearing would be the most interesting feature for the writer.
Question 13
The correct answer to this question was found in paragraph four. Candidates needed to read the text
carefully to select the correct order in which Serena undertakes her house-building task. The key word in the
question is ‘begins’ indicating that the first stage of the process had to be identified. In the first line of the
paragraph, the text states that the building materials, the plastic blocks, have already been chosen by the
researchers, so option C is incorrect. The key to the correct response is in the second sentence ‘She is
shown a recording’ demonstrating how to access the building blocks and ‘then use them to build a house’.
The sequence of events is reinforced by the single word ‘then’ which makes it clear that watching the video
was Serena’s first task.
Question 14
This question was answered less successfully. Candidates needed to focus on the key word ‘research’ in the
question which emphasised the aims of the psychologists over a longer period rather than the activities of
just one particular session that the writer is observing. Serena ‘clearly has a sense of imagination’ (line 6) but
this is the writer’s impression of watching only one task. Similarly, Serena ‘is told to copy what she has
observed and she does just that’ which demonstrates that she is able to remember details, but this is also on
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just one occasion. The main part of the research is to observe how, over a period of time, a child’s ability to
follow instructions is more developed in six-year-olds than three-year-olds ‘who are much less able to
understand a complex set of commands’. The final sentence clarifies this idea stating, ‘it is this ability that the
study is focused on....’.
Exercise 5
Question 16
Most candidates engaged successfully with the task and many responses were well developed with an
appropriately informal tone. Overall, responses tended to address all three bullet points in the task. The most
successful responses contained a detailed description of the sports event, together with a plausible reason
why they wanted to help at the event and a full explanation of what they will be doing there.
For the first bullet point, well developed responses described the time and location of the event as well as
mentioning their own interest in the chosen sport. The most successful responses included comparisons with
similar events from previous years. There were explanations why the event is taking place, quite often
because the local community has decided to come together to support good causes. There were also
examples of fund raising for the homeless or for local hospitals. Several stars from the world of sport were
also mentioned as attending the event as special guests. Some also made predictions for the success of the
event.
Less successful responses tended to list the various sports that were being played at the event with no
additional detail. Others tended to select a sport or a competition that they were familiar with and describe
the format and rules of the event with little else: ‘This event is primarily for football. There will be many
teams. The winers will go to the next stage until the final’.
For the second bullet point, the most successful responses offered practical reasons for their decision
coupled with a sense of eagerness to help which reinforced their desire to take part. Many stated that
volunteering at the event would qualify them for a certificate and improve their chances of being accepted
into a college of their choice. Others were persuaded to help out either by their teacher: ‘I was not really keen
on participating at the start but our teacher said whoever helps will get a slight boost in their grade’, or by
their parents, who were so pleased that they promised to excuse their offspring from chores around the
home. Some candidates were motivated by the chance to get their favourite player’s autograph or by the fact
that they were being paid for their role. Less successful responses lacked development and tended to
provide only minimal details about the chance to help out, with the only reason being that the sport had
always been their favourite and that they were good at it.
For the final bullet point, several responses emphasised that they would be taking part since they had been
training for the event, whilst others had offered to be the coach and help younger participants. Some chose
to be involved with the event as a referee since they had a thorough knowledge of the rules. Most successful
responses added to the basic description of their role with opinions and thoughts which greatly enhanced the
sense of purpose and audience: ‘I’m going to the event as a referee, my only job will be to make sure that
the teams play fair, so it would not be too draining or at least I hope not! Still, I will have to stand under the
hot sun for hours’.
From a language point of view, the most effective responses often referred to the recipient of the email and
were written as if to a real friend, with expressions such as: ‘You know how much I admire him’ or ‘I think it’s
a pretty cool job, do not you?’ or ‘Guess what – you would not believe what is taking place!’. Less successful
responses tended to use overly formal language for the email with expressions such as ‘I would like to inform
you’ and ‘first and foremost’ which would be better placed in Exercise 6. There were many examples of
ambitious language and more complex structures, for example: ‘I will check to see if anyone is cheating,
doing underhand moves…’ and ‘We are encouraging our generation to think big and to follow in her
footsteps’.
Language slips were largely as a result of the misuse of verbs, especially in the mixing of past and present
tenses. There was also a large number of responses which confused the use of ‘take place‘ and ‘take part’.
For example: ‘I really wanted to take place in this event’ and ‘The race will take part in the large park in our
town’.
Spelling accuracy was generally good, even when more ambitious language and structures were used.
Although many candidates produced ‘price’ for ‘prize’, ‘where’ for ‘were’ and ‘exited’ for ‘excited’.
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Most responses showed effective organisation and sequencing. However some responses did feature very
short simple sentences with no attempt at the use of clauses or connectives.
Exercise 6
Question 17
Overall, this task was attempted well. Most candidates wrote a clear, developed, appropriate response,
which successfully fulfilled the requirements of the task. Most responses featured a suitably formal tone and
register for this final exercise.
Many responses described the magazine as suitable for teenagers with content related to their school
subjects: ‘The reason this magazine appealed to me was because it was all about science and technology,
which have always been my favourite subjects’ and ‘It presents interesting topics that teenagers have to
learn at school and therefore it might help them in their studies’. Some responses linked the magazine
content to a favourite hobby or activity and so were able to include a description of the articles in it with
confidence due to their prior knowledge of the subject matter. Such responses included fashion, ‘top ten
trending shoes of the decade’, films, sports and famous celebrities as well as tips on how to succeed at
school and advice on relationships. For example, ‘I really liked the way that the articles talked about
teenagers’ problems, which are often ignored’.
Successful responses included a wider review which included balanced comments on both the good and bad
qualities of the publication: ‘It could be just a publishing mistake, in which case, the editor-in-chief needs to
get better at his job’.
Less successful responses spent too long describing the story line of an individual article and offered little in
the way of opinion. Alternatively, they tended to over-emphasise input from their friends ‘some of my friends
said this…others said that…’ and omitted their own views. In some instances, this amounted to a copying of
the four prompts with little development and no personal viewpoint, which affected the marks awarded.
Less successful responses closely followed the prompts and offered little additional comment other than
quoting a price, which varied considerably between 2 and 50 euros or dollars. There was some
misinterpretation of the requirement to select and review one specific magazine. Several responses included
information about magazines generally and what they can offer as alternative entertainment to teenagers
alongside mobile phones and the plethora of TV channels, which did not fulfill the task entirely.
From a language point of view, the most successful responses used ambitious and complex structures to
express their ideas and opinions, for example, ‘not every teenager has this length of attention span’, ‘the
magazine has the potential to become a staple for teenagers’ and ‘I was sceptical on first read’. There were
also many examples of less common vocabulary such as, ‘unanimous success’, ‘thought-provoking’ and
‘eye-catching’. Some other examples of suitable language for the task type included: ‘It’s not an
exaggeration to say…’,’what stands out for me’ and ‘my biggest criticism would be…’.
Cohesive words and expressions such as ‘it’s worth noting that’, ‘the overall impression’, ‘in a nutshell’,
‘having said that’ and ‘the alternative view is’ were seen to be used appropriately.
Overall, most candidates responded with a well-organised and sequenced response which covered both a
brief outline of the content of the magazine, and a more detailed review of its specific qualities. Less
successful responses tended to cover the storyline only. To gain access to higher marks for Content, a
review format requires the writer to express their own views as well as give factual information. Generally, a
good balance was established by providing an introductory comment on the aim of the review and a
concluding statement; both of which helped to give a sense of cohesion. Responses which had access to
marks in the higher level were able to provide a different form of words in the concluding paragraph to that
used in the main body of the review and avoided repetition of the same vocabulary and expressions.
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Paper 0510/12
Reading and Writing
Key messages
details which could affect the mark awarded.
included.
• In Exercise 2, candidates should consider the message of each paragraph, since identifying the correct
answer often involves following discourse markers in consecutive sentences in the paragraph as a
whole, rather than simply recognising a single key word or synonym.
• In Exercises 5 and 6, candidates should develop their response as fully as possible, ensuring they fulfil
the requirements of the task. For Exercise 5 all three bullet points must be addressed in order for
candidates to access higher marks. For Exercise 6, if candidates use the ideas in the prompts, in order
to gain higher marks, they should further extend and develop these ideas or introduce separate ideas of
their own.
General Comments
Exercise 1
This exercise was well attempted by the majority of candidates. It is important that each question is carefully
read in order to identify the targeted details and to avoid the distracting textual information.
Question 1
This question was quite well answered. The most common incorrect responses were ‘the hard protective
shell’ and ‘its back is often green in colour’. Such responses indicated that candidates may not have read
beyond this information or understood the information following it.
Question 2
This question was fairly well answered. A significant number of responses indicated that closer reading of the
question was required.
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Question 3
This question was generally well answered. Some responses included incorrect information such as ‘close to
the surface’, which affected the mark given. Some candidates did not seem to understand the semantics of
the text and gave ‘close to the surface, or ‘holding their breath’ as the response, which suggests they
misunderstood ‘This avoids the need for them to stay close to the surface ….and allows them to remain
hidden among rocks’.
Question 4
This question was generally well answered. ‘A male is larger than a female’ was the most common incorrect
response. Such a response indicated that candidates may not have noted what followed in the text, ‘It (the
male) has a longer tail …and it is this feature which is used to identify the gender’. Candidates should look
for this kind of referencing in a text and be able to recognise determiners and relative pronouns which guide
them to the correct response.
Question 5
Generally, candidates dealt well with this question.
Question 6
This question required candidates to identify three points out of a possible four which could be found at any
point in the text, and there were many confident attempts. Some incorrect responses such as ‘stay close to
the surface’ or ‘make their way down to the beach’ either referred to something that was a merely potential
danger, or that did not provide the key element of a correct response. Occasionally, the animal that was a
threat to the turtles was not clearly specified or incorrect as in ‘animals attack them’, ‘sharks attack them’, or
‘tigers and sharks attack them. A small number of candidates wrote ‘hold breath’, possibly wrongly assuming
that this was something the turtles should not do.
Exercise 2
Question 7
Many candidates responded well to this matching exercise, and most gained at least four of the nine marks
available. There were candidates who provided nine correct responses. Generally, Questions (f), (g) and (h)
proved the most challenging. Question (d) was answered most successfully. A few candidates left some or
all of the questions either unanswered or answered randomly, e.g., the same response for each one.
Candidates needed to ensure that information in the section of text selected fully supported their choice of
answer, while looking for the rephrasing of the ideas, rather than the same words or phrases in the question
and text.
(a) This question was generally well answered. Candidates needed to identify someone who felt
reading poets from their own age group inspired them. This was expressed in Text D as
‘Amazingly, I’ve actually started writing poetry…thanks…to... seeing writers that are no older than
me.’ Quite a large number of candidates gave Text B, possibly because the text states, ‘I was
expecting to see far more work by poets of the same age as me’. C was another commonly chosen
incorrect answer, perhaps because of the phrase ‘a poetry loving sixteen year old like me.’
(b) This question was correctly answered by the majority of candidates. The correct response was
Text C, as Daiyu referred to a lot of poems that ‘deal with environmental issues’ when he would
have preferred ‘a little more variety.’ Text B was the most common incorrect response.
(c) This question was well answered. Text A was the most commonly chosen incorrect response,
possibly due to the statement: ‘although I was unfamiliar with many of the poets…’
(d) This question was very well answered. Very few candidates were unable to identify the correct
response.
(e) This question was well answered. Candidates needed to find the person who found it hard to
understand many of the poems. This was located in Text B, as Eduardo ‘was never really sure
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what they were trying to say’. The most common incorrect response was Text A, possibly due to a
misreading of ‘is beyond our experience and understanding’ but referring to the poetry studied at
school, not that in Voices, which was ‘a delightful surprise’.
(f) This question was reasonably well answered. It required candidates to link the statement, ‘It’s my
guess that whoever put this collection together’ in one sentence with ‘I could have come up with a
more appropriate set of poems’ in the next. Text B was the most common incorrect response. This
contained a more general criticism of the contents of the book but did state, ‘I know too little about
poetry to claim that any selection I could come up with would be any better.’, which was distracting
information.
(g) This question was quite well answered. Most candidates correctly chose Text B, linking the
meaning of ‘too many poems by one particular poet’ in the question with ‘One poet especially…
should have had far fewer poems in the collection’ in the text. Text C was the most common
incorrect response, and some candidates may have been distracted by ‘There are more poems by
Olivia Infanta… than any other poet’.
(h) A significant number of candidates were unsuccessful here. They were asked to find someone who
was pleased that there were few very long poems. This was expressed in text A as ‘Once a poem
goes beyond a page length, I lose interest so seeing only one or two examples … was a great
relief’. Text D was the most common incorrect response, perhaps due to the reference to ‘…quite
lengthy ones’, although this person adds, ‘…that were especially enjoyable’, which rules it out.
(i) This question was very well answered. Candidates needed to select the review which stated that
the design on the front of the book will appeal to teenagers. Almost all candidates correctly chose
Text C, which has the relevant key information in the first two lines, ‘I suspect that most adults will
object to the cover of Voices… It’s supposed to attract teenagers, though, which I think it does
highly effectively’. Incorrect responses were evenly split between B and D.
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Exercise 3
Candidates performed very well in this note-taking exercise, with many candidates gaining the full seven
marks available. Notes could not be credited if key information was omitted or if incorrect information was
added. Some responses were written under the wrong heading.
Question 8
This question was very well attempted, and many candidates correctly provided four clear notes from the
possible five options. A few candidates omitted key information as in ‘low costs’ when it was the construction
costs that were low, and this aspect had to be communicated. Similarly, ‘lack of noise’ could not be credited
as it was lack of background noise that was a benefit. Incorrect responses included ‘vary in their design’ and
‘large amount of living space’ which although being positive characteristics of underground homes, are not
mentioned specifically as benefits which make them popular in the text.
Question 9
This question was very well attempted, and the majority of candidates identified three correct responses out
of a possible four. Candidates generally included key details from the notes. Sometimes a note was
attempted, but key information was omitted as in ‘plants and trees on top’. This response failed to
communicate a disadvantage and needed to convey the idea that damage was caused by roots. Some
candidates appeared to assume that negatives featured in the text were disadvantages. As a result, they
wrote notes such as ‘lack of background noise’ or ‘heat cannot easily escape’ under this heading.
Exercise 4
Some candidates provided all six correct responses and most candidates gained at least 3 of the 6 marks
available. Questions 12, 13 and 14 were the least successfully attempted. Some candidates opted to write
the same letter, e.g., A, in answer to all six questions.
Question 10
This question was generally well answered by the majority of candidates. The most common incorrect
answer was Option A, ‘depend on how you’re feeling’. Candidates may have been distracted by ‘you don’t
want to hurt the person’s feelings’, in the text. A much smaller proportion of candidates chose Option B,
‘prove easy for most people’, although in fact the text suggests it can be difficult to know what to say.
Question 11
This question was quite well answered. Option B was the most selected incorrect response. Fewer
candidates incorrectly chose Option C, ‘teachers say that feedback can improve performance’. This was an
example of a situation in which we are often unwilling to provide feedback but was not linked to ‘this’ in the
question.
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Question 12
This question was fairly well answered. This paragraph reported on research results into feedback and the
only supported option is B: ‘people have a strong desire to get feedback’. The text states ‘a large majority of
them (participants) were extremely eager to receive it (feedback) …receivers generally described feedback
as extremely valuable’. The most common incorrect choice was Option A, while some candidates chose C,
which is the opposite of what is said in the text.
Question 13
Many candidates correctly selected Option B. Option A was the most common incorrect answer. It seems
that candidates did not focus on ‘little account was taken’ and focused instead on ‘the effects that differences
in the relationships between the people involved could have’. Candidates who incorrectly chose Option C
may not have recognised the negative idea expressed in ‘the study also failed to consider how often
feedback is given’.
Question 14
This question was fairly well answered. Candidates had to find the section of paragraph 5 concerning what
feedback in schools should do. The correct option was C. Although the notions of high-level and general
feedback (option A) and encouraging a student (option B) are both mentioned in the text, the text does not
state these are what feedback should be or do.
Question 15
This question was very well answered. Candidates had to consider the final paragraph and decide what
advice the writer offers about providing feedback. This is option B, which is supported by ‘we should …be
cautious about immediately telling someone what they’ve got wrong and how they can improve…asking
someone if they would like your feedback would be a better start’. The most common incorrect response was
Option C.
Exercise 5
Question 16
Overall, most responses were communicated clearly, using a range of language and a consistently
appropriate style and register. A range of linking words and cohesive devices was used which were generally
suitable for the task. Most candidates successfully addressed all three bullet points and a high proportion of
responses achieved high marks for both Content and Language. However, some responses were less than
85 words, which significantly impacted the marks available.
School subjects, sports and learning strategies were the most common courses mentioned. Some less
common ones included mental health and character building. A variety of plausible reasons was given for
attending the course. Responses recommended how the course could be better by mentioning short hours,
lack of space or discipline, or the need to purchase better equipment. Candidates who had chosen to place
the whole course in the future rather than ‘recently attended’ as in the rubric, had to be more creative when
suggesting improvements. Many were able to do this as they wrote about the price of the course or
something else that they had seen during the advertising of the course that they already knew they would
like to change.
Candidates were generally able to use suitable informal register, opening with phrases such as, ‘How have
you been doing?’, ‘How are things going?’ and ‘Sorry I haven’t written for a while’. Some candidates
expanded on why they had not been in touch for a while by writing it had been ‘pretty hectic’ and they had
had ‘exams going on’ and were able to refer to things they had in common, such as shared friends or
experiences. Common phrases to close the email were, ‘You should give it a try!’, and ‘Got to cut this short
now’. All of this resulted in an appropriate style and related well to the target audience.
Most candidates attempted a range of language. More successful responses featured accurate sentences of
varying lengths, with more complex structures and a range of appropriately used, less common vocabulary
such as, ‘Here´s the scoop’; ‘we delved into topics such as’; ‘It fostered a lively atmosphere’; ‘it piqued my
interest.’ Many candidates used phrasal verbs correctly and appropriately as in ‘I thought I’d put it to good
use’ and ‘I signed up for’. Some candidates succeeded in incorporating less high frequency expressions into
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their emails such as, ‘It was worth every penny’, ‘it was swings & roundabouts’, ‘I’d be back in a flash’ and ‘I
was on cloud nine’.
Many responses featured a wide range of simple and complex structures with a high level of accuracy e.g.,
‘With the fast pace of the course, some were forced to learn more quickly than normal, and hence I think that
having more instructors would have been better for everyone’ and ‘I would love to tell you about my unique
experience where I was able to join a course which taught the basics of how to use a first aid kit.’ Some
candidates demonstrated a range of simple structures and attempted to use complex structures, with
generally good accuracy, for example, ‘But after reflection, this weekend course were a very good
opportunity for me to improve my math level, but also as a way to make some new friends.’ Modal verbs
were generally used accurately as in, ‘I wish I could’ve stayed longer’.
The most common grammatical inaccuracies occurred with past participles, e.g., ‘This course was holded,’
and ‘I choosed to do an art course’; a lack of agreement with singular/plural nouns; a lack of control of tenses
and slips in adjective/noun collocations.
Exercise 6
Question 17
Overall, this task was attempted well. Most candidates wrote a clear, developed, appropriate article, which
successfully fulfilled the task. The majority used all the given prompts, developing them successfully with
many introducing their own ideas. However, some responses adhered closely to the wording of the prompts,
using basic linking devices to connect them, which meant the response contained very little of their own
ideas and language. Several candidates introduced an extra level of detail when developing their response,
often allowing them to demonstrate a sense of pride in where they lived. More successful responses featured
candidates’ own ideas either alongside or instead of the given prompts and developed their ideas very well
with a good level of detail. Most candidates presented their readers with a balanced article looking at both
the positive and negative aspects of their town, although higher marks could also be achieved by focusing on
just one of these aspects.
The positive features of the town often included a description of how good the town was for keeping healthy.
Candidates wrote about parks and sports centres catering for teenagers’ physical health, while cafés,
restaurants, virtual reality cafés and places in the malls and green spaces enabled them to meet up and
make friends. Other ideas included writing about the importance of education over the availability of
age-appropriate entertainment, and candidates wrote about the good schools and libraries that were present
in their town. Many responses were able to put the negative aspects of living in the town into perspective.
For many, their main concerns appeared to be around personal safety and security.
The full range of marks was awarded for language. A number of candidates clearly attempted to employ a
wide range of complex structures and more less common vocabulary. Some responses demonstrated a high
level of accuracy with only occasional errors, enabling candidates access to marks in the top level. Their
writing included accurate, varied sentence structures, appropriate punctuation and organisation, along with
less common vocabulary. This level of language is exemplified in, ‘It is a fact that our town has undoubtedly
become a home to various events and activities, such as sports festivals, which are quite enjoyable for
teenagers. Moreover, multinational companies have opened shopping centres and fast-food chains which
nowadays appeal to many teens.’ Some responses featured generally simple structures with frequent errors,
which did impede communication. Examples included, ‘Sometimes it is awkward as teenagers have different
entertainment, so it is not perfect as well as the expenses.’. Other responses attempted more complex
language which included non-impeding errors such as, ‘Another problem is the places that has facility can be
used by teenagers are too limited.’
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Paper 0510/13
Reading and Writing
Key messages
details which would affect the mark awarded.
included.
• In Exercise 2, candidates are required to identify key details including attitudes and opinions, and to
demonstrate understanding of what is implied but not explicitly stated. Overall, this exercise was very
well attempted although there was evidence that some candidates require better preparation for items
which assess inference.
• In Exercises 5 and 6, it is important that candidates read the rubric for each task carefully and identify
the purpose of the task and all the key information that should be included in their response. Also, they
need to make sure that they respond in a suitable style and register for the different target audiences.
• Exercise 5: in this series, the purpose of writing was well recognised and the vast majority of responses
addressed all three prompts. Writing for the target audience was generally quite effective overall,
although some responses were rather narrative and lacked the conversational tone required when
writing to a friend.
• Exercise 6: candidates should be aware that this task requires a more formal tone and register, suited
to a different audience. In this series, many responses relied completely on the prompts provided; it is
important to be aware that in order to gain higher marks, responses should further extend and develop
the ideas in these prompts or introduce separate ideas of their own.
General comments
Exercise 1
This exercise was generally very well attempted and there was evidence from the majority of responses that
the text had been understood. There were also very few omissions. There was an indication, however, that,
at times, greater precision needed to be applied in the reading of the questions. More successful candidates
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interpreted the rubric accurately, selected key detail from the text and provided brief and precise responses
for all items.
Question 1
This was generally well attempted although a number of candidates seemed to misunderstand the focus of
the rubric i.e. who he started the beekeeping club with and supplied ‘his dad’ in error.
Question 2
This item was very well answered with the vast majority of candidates correctly identifying ‘neighbour’s farm’
as the salient detail.
Question 3
While this was also extremely well answered, a few candidates appeared to miss the reference to the future
in the rubric and erroneously supplied ‘craft sessions’.
Question 4
Many responses to this question included additional incorrect information. The focus of the question was the
‘most popular’ workshop activity, which corresponded to ‘particularly enjoy’ in the text. As a result, responses
which included ‘honey biscuits and soap’ in addition to ‘making candles’ could not be credited.
Question 5
In contrast, this item prompted the greatest number of correct responses with nearly all candidates supplying
‘selling honey’.
Question 6
This question required candidates to identify three points out of a possible four which could be found at any
point in the text. The focus of the rubric was the advice given by the writer. Overall, it was generally well
attempted with a good proportion of candidates achieving all three marks. A number of candidates, however,
seemed to miss the focus of the question and supplied incorrect responses, most notably ‘you’re helping the
environment’ and ‘it’s really fun’.
Exercise 2
Question 7
This multiple matching exercise was generally very well attempted and there was evidence that the majority
of candidates were able to employ appropriate and effective strategies for retrieving relevant details from the
correct source text. A very good proportion of candidates scored quite highly with a number achieving full
marks. Questions 7 (a), (c), (d), (e) and (h) answered most successfully. Questions (f) and (i) proved
somewhat more challenging although these items were also quite well attempted.
Question 7(f): For this item, candidates needed to select the text which mentioned the ‘relaxing effect of
playing music’. The salient detail appears in source text A – ‘My guitar….is the first thing I pick up when I get
home…. It helps me escape my everyday worries and pressures’. Text C was most frequently supplied in
error suggesting, perhaps, that candidates were distracted by the word ‘calming’ in the first line. This
response could not be credited as it refers to the effect on the writer of listening to music rather than playing
it.
Question 7(i): The focus of this item is an event which changed the writer’s opinion about something. The
event in question is ‘my first concert’, which appears in Text B. The writer explains how participating in the
concert changed her opinion of the type of person she is i.e. she thought she was a shy person, but after
performing at the concert realised that this was not the case. While incorrect responses possibly suggest that
some candidates word-spotted ‘local event’, the range of incorrect answers supplied suggests that
candidates need more practice in inference.
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Exercise 3
This exercise was extremely well attempted with the vast majority of candidates scoring very well on both
questions.
Question 8
There was evidence that the majority of candidates understood and were able to identify why living walls are
popular. All five of the possible responses were well recognised and overall, candidates performed well with
the majority scoring at least 2 of the 4 marks available. Marks were most frequently lost where an
appropriate verb had been omitted e.g. supplying ‘source of food’ without the verb ‘provide’ or ‘be’. Other
responses could not be credited where there was a lack of a salient noun e.g. ‘reduce heat’ without ‘loss’ or
adjective e.g. ‘bring nature into the environment’ without ‘urban’. Occasionally, candidates lost a mark where
they may have paraphrased and as a result, lacked precision e.g. some supplied ‘change your mood’, which
does not convey the same idea as ‘improve your mood’.
Question 9
This was also very well attempted with the majority of candidates, again, recognising all of the possible
options and achieving at least two of the three marks available. Marks were most frequently lost due to
omissions e.g. ‘they are hard work’ without ‘to maintain’ and a number of candidates supplied ‘reduction of
heat loss’, which was a key for Question 8.
Exercise 4
Candidates are required to look for information and ideas which are connected in the text through the use of,
for example, pronouns for reference; words and phrases which indicate time, cause and effect, contrasting
ideas and examples. Additionally, information may be implied, and identifying words and phrases that
suggest the writer’s attitude and feelings can be helpful.
Overall, candidates responded well to the new task type. The majority of candidates attempted all of the
questions in the exercise. Many scored more than half the available marks, and there were a number of fully
correct responses. Candidates scored most highly on Questions 10 and 12 followed by Question 11, but
answered Questions 13, 14 and 15 less successfully.
Question 13
In this question, candidates were required to identify Emma’s view on technology. Option B was most
frequently supplied in error, possibly because candidates were distracted by Emma’s view that ‘working with
a natural material’ is wonderful. This is an opinion of pottery rather than technology, however, and we learn
later in the paragraph that Emma acknowledges the part digital technology can play in helping with creativity
thus ruling out option B. The correct answer, option A, can be found in the sentence ‘Not getting instant
results like those we’ve come to expect from the internet…is something that many of us struggle with’, which
expresses her view that technology has made people less patient.
Question 14
This question underlines the importance of understanding the use of referencing as a reading skill, and there
were a number of incorrect responses. Candidates should focus on the key word ‘it’ in the numbered line of
the text and read the sentence which contains this word carefully. The targeted phrases in all three options
appear in paragraph 5, and candidates should consider which phrase accurately corresponds to the text
sentence where ‘it’ is found, ‘it was a bit of a relief as she’d been so nervous about being in front of the
cameras’. In this instance, ‘it’ refers back to her not ‘making the final selection’, option B. The sentence
expresses her relief that something did not happen. Options A and C can be ruled out because she did apply
for a place on the show and was interviewed in a TV studio.
Question 15
In this question, candidates were required to identify what can be learned about Emma in the final
paragraph. The correct option, A, is rooted in the sentence ‘the whole experience gave her the boost of
confidence she needed…’. Option C was most frequently supplied in error, possibly as a result of candidates
making a connection between her not wanting to watch the TV show because she assumed the focus would
be on the competitors – an aspect that did not appeal to her.
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Exercise 5
The topic in this series appeared to be relatable to nearly all candidates and misinterpretation of the context
and task was unusual. A high proportion of responses showed a good sense of purpose and achieved high
marks for Content. The majority covered all three required Content points and were appropriate in style and
register. Most attempted to draw the reader in, addressing the reader directly (‘Do you remember my best
friend? It was his wedding’, ‘You won’t believe what happened!’) and followed typical informal email writing
conventions by enquiring about the addressee and their family in the introductory paragraph and making
arrangements to meet up in the final paragraph. Less successful responses were characterised by a mix of
informal and formal language, which led to the wrong choice of vocabulary and cohesive devices, such as
‘moreover’, ‘as a consequence’ and ‘in conclusion’, or by taking a more narrative approach. Candidates are
advised to maintain the informal style throughout the response, as inconsistency in tone can affect the mark
awarded.
The first bullet point elicited a variety of events most notably weddings, special birthday parties and concerts.
More successful responses provided some detail about the event such as the location, who attended and
what the writer thought about the event. In some responses, however, this bullet point was the least well
developed. The second aspect tended to be the most fully addressed and again elicited a range of
responses. Food and drink spillages seemed to be the most frequent causes of damage to the jacket. There
were also numerous instances of jackets becoming stuck on something sharp resulting in rips, tears and
holes. Some jackets became paint splattered and some were damaged by pets.
The third aspect invariably prompted responses such as attempting to wash the jacket, remove the stain, fix
the hole, take to a dry cleaner’s or to a seamstress for repair. Many responses also mentioned some form of
compensation either by offering to pay for the jacket or buying a replacement. While some were written in the
form of a narrative, there were clear attempts to interact with the reader in many of the responses, for
example, asking for the cousin’s forgiveness, expressing regret and promising something like this would
never happen again, giving these a very good sense of purpose.
In terms of language, most responses showed generally good control of tenses and sentence structure with
the more able attempting greater complexity and demonstrating ease of style and a wider range of
vocabulary, for example, ‘I was trying to recreate one of her most iconic outfits’ when discussing the jacket
and ‘which by the way was an absolute blast’ to describe the event. It was notable in this particular task that
many candidates are unable to use lend and borrow appropriately with ‘…. the jacket you borrowed me…’
frequently occurring. Punctuation was generally sound, and there were very few problems with the use of
commas instead of full stops in this series. Overall, the responses were generally very competent and as
mentioned previously, most candidates used an email format with the correct salutation and appropriate sign
off.
Exercise 6
Overall, the report task was less well attempted than the email task. Candidates were required to write a
report on a visit to an activity centre and to suggest ways that the weekend could be improved for the
following year. The audience, in this instance a teacher, provided guidance as to the style and register
required for this more formal piece of writing, which should be factual and informative and should make
recommendations. The most successful responses fulfilled the task, with a clear introduction, a well-
developed analysis of the weekend and some recommendations in the conclusion. Some responses were
organised through the use of sub-headings and in others, organisation was achieved through signposting of
clearly defined paragraphs, ‘To begin with... ’, ‘firstly ’, ‘furthermore ...’. Both methods are equally acceptable.
It was clear from a number of responses that many candidates were not familiar with report writing
conventions. Many were written more in the style of a review and there were numerous examples where
candidates began their response with ‘Dear teacher’ or even ‘Hi teacher’, which is inappropriate. Whilst most
were able to adopt a more formal tone and register this was not always the case with some using
inappropriate, overly informal expressions such as ‘The weekend was awesome’ and ‘They were stupid
idiots’. Four prompts were provided – two relating to positive and two relating to more negative aspects of the
visit and while some made attempts to expand on these, over-reliance on the ideas put forward in the
prompts was noticeable, even in some of the more successful responses. The second aspect of the task was
generally quite poorly dealt with. Some of the more successful responses did make clear suggestions, most
frequently by rephrasing the negative prompts provided, but many failed to make explicit suggestions and
simply listed complaints about the activities instead. Occasionally, the second aspect was not covered at all.
Candidates should be reminded to read the rubric carefully to ensure that they are clear about the purpose of
the task and make sure they cover all aspects in their response.
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From a language point of view, most candidates had adequate vocabulary to address the topic and there
were some successful attempts at less common vocabulary, ‘a way of strengthening social skills’ and ‘did not
give candidates freedom to explore the centre in its entirety’. Additionally, some candidates were able to
demonstrate a range of grammatical structures suited to a more formal report, such as passives and modal
forms ‘arrangements could be made ahead of time’ and ‘it would be a welcome change for more food to be
offered’. In some reports, there was a need for a wider range of complex sentence structures in combination
with a greater range of vocabulary to have access to higher marks.
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Paper 0510/21
Listening
Question Question Question Question

Key Key Key Key
Number Number Number Number
1 A 11 B 21 B 31 C
2 C 12 C 22 A 32 H
3 C 13 A 23 C 33 C
4 B 14 A 24 B 34 B
5 D 15 C 25 A 35 B
6 C 16 B 26 C 36 A
7 D 17 A 27 G 37 C
8 A 18 B 28 A 38 A
9 C 19 C 29 F 39 C
10 B 20 A 30 B 40 B
Key messages
• Candidates should be reminded to take care when transferring their answers from the question paper
onto the answer sheet and to shade only one lozenge for each question.
• Candidates should be encouraged to read each question/statement very carefully to ensure they listen
for and select the correct relevant detail/idea.
General comments
The paper consisted of 40 multiple-choice questions and, overall, they were attempted fairly well by most
candidates.
Candidates listened to 5 exercises which consisted of monologues (e.g., a voicemail message, descriptions),
informal dialogues, informal and semi-formal interviews and a longer semi-formal talk. The exercises
gradually increased in difficulty and complexity and tested a range of listening skills from listening for specific
information (e.g., the weather forecast, a type of TV programme, a trip destination) to listening for more
complex ideas (e.g., opinions, attitudes, reasons, personal preference, and experiences) and understanding
the connections between these ideas (e.g., mutual decisions and agreements). The script for each question
also contained distracting information, in addition to the targeted key idea, in order to test candidates’ ability.
On the whole, there was a greater level of success with items that focused on identifying specific information
which was stated rather than implied. Only about half of all candidates successfully answered items which
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focused on more complex ideas, such as speakers’ opinions, and items in which key information was implied
rather than directly stated.
Exercise 1
In this part of the test, candidates listened to 8 short recordings on familiar topics and selected one visual
from four options. On the whole, candidates performed extremely well, particularly in Questions 5–7.
Candidates were slightly less successful with Questions 2–4. There was no clear pattern in the incorrect
responses. However, option A was occasionally given in error for Question 2. Less successful candidates
may have selected this option as the word ‘drink’ is heard three times in the recording.
Exercise 2
In this part of the test, candidates answered two multiple-choice questions per recording. There was a
relatively high level of success for this exercise, especially in Questions which took the form of a dialogue.
Candidates were particularly successful with Questions 9 and 10. Questions 13–16 and 18 also produced a
fairly high level of success. These questions mostly targeted speaker’s opinions and reasons.
Candidates tended to be less successful with questions which took the form of longer monologues and
where the targeted idea was implied rather than directly stated. This was particularly the case in Question
17. The question targets how the speaker feels about having to change the arrangements. The correct
response is option A – ‘embarrassed about her reason for doing it’, which equates to the implied idea ‘I can’t
believe I overlooked that – so silly of me!’ in the text. Many candidates instead selected the distracting details
in options B and C.
Other questions that produced a slightly lower level of success included Questions 11 and 12. In Question
11 candidates may have incorrectly linked the idea ‘I was worried one would be late’ in the recording with the
idea of ‘It was full of delays.’ in option C. In Question 12 option B was sometimes selected in error.
Exercise 3
This part of the test required candidates to follow a longer talk about a city park. Candidates had to complete
each of the 8 statements with one of the three multiple-choice options. On the whole, candidates dealt
reasonably well with most of the questions in this exercise.
Questions 25 and 26 were attempted very well by the vast majority of candidates. Questions 20, 21 and 24
were also fairly well attempted by many. Overall, there was not the same level of success for Questions 19,
22 and 23. Question 19 targeted an activity the speaker was interested in as a child. The correct response
was option C ‘reading about science’, but many wrongly selected option A, ‘writing poems’, possibly having
been tempted by the word spot on poems. In Question 22, candidates were required to select the correct
type of events that are now organised for local people in the park. The correct answer was ‘educational
events’ in option A. Many candidates appeared to have been tempted by ‘social events in option B, which
local people can do if they choose to in the park, but are activities which are not organised for them: ‘They
can … chat to neighbours’. Question 23 targeted an environmental aspect that the speaker is focusing on at
the moment. The correct response was ‘maintaining water levels’ in option C. However, option A, ‘monitoring
bird populations’, was often given in error. Candidates were probably distracted by this idea because of the
speaker’s factual claim: ‘the lakes there attract birds’.
Exercise 4
In this multiple-matching part of the test, candidates were required to match statements that expressed
ideas, such as intentions, opinions, consequences, feelings/reactions and personal experiences, to the
correct speaker. Candidates are required to choose 6 correct statements from a list of 8.
While the majority of candidates selected the correct ideas for speakers 4-6 (Questions 30–32), only about
two thirds provided the correct ideas for speakers 1–3 (Questions 27–29).
There was no clear pattern of incorrect statements for Questions 28 and 30–32. Candidates sometimes
provided statement D ‘I was thrilled to be close to a famous musician.’, in error, for Questions 27 and 29. In
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both questions, the speaker talks about being close to the stage but do not mention the feeling of being
thrilled by the proximity – which is the detail that candidates may have missed when choosing this statement
as their response. Candidates should be reminded that all the details from a statement must be expressed
by a speaker for the statement to be the correct response.
Exercise 5
In this part of the test, candidates were required to listen to a semi-formal interview with a man who recently
went on a river boat trip and answer 8 multiple-choice questions. Overall, there was a mixed level of success
for this exercise and many candidates found this part of the test relatively challenging.
While Question 33 was answered correctly by the vast majority of candidates, Questions 37 and 38
produced a fairly low level of success. Candidates attempted Questions 34–36 and 39–40 fairly well.
In Question 34 option C was sometimes selected in error. In Question 36 some candidates tended to select
the distracting detail in option B. Those who selected this option may have missed the fact that the question
targets something that the speaker did with the rest of the group. However, the activity of looking for the
source of the river in option B was only done by the speaker, but not the rest of the group. Question 37
proved relatively challenging for many candidates, who tended to select mostly option A as their response.
The question targets what surprised Harry once on the river. Less successful candidates may have been
distracted by the phrase ‘see for miles’ and wrongly matched it to ‘how remote some parts of it were’ in
option A. Question 38 was the most challenging question in this part of the test, probably because the
speaker only implies his reaction rather than stating it directly. The question targeted the speaker’s reaction
to when the group was forced to leave the river and walk through a town. The correct idea was that he found
the contrast difficult to handle – given in option A and expressed by ‘That was weird – it was so noisy, and
very different from what we’d left’. Only about half of all candidates provided the correct response. Those
who lost marks often provided option C as their response, but there were also a fair number of candidates
who wrongly selected option B.
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Paper 0510/22
Listening

Key Key Key Key
1 A 11 B 21 C 31 B
2 D 12 A 22 B 32 H
3 B 13 C 23 B 33 C
4 A 14 B 24 A 34 B
5 C 15 A 25 B 35 C
6 D 16 B 26 C 36 A
7 C 17 C 27 G 37 B
8 B 18 B 28 C 38 C
9 A 19 B 29 F 39 B
10 A 20 C 30 E 40 A
Key messages
General comments
The paper consists of 40 multiple-choice questions and, overall, they were attempted reasonably well by
most candidates.
Candidates listened to 5 exercises which consisted of monologues (e.g., voicemail messages, extended
explanations, descriptions), informal dialogues, informal and semi-formal interviews and a longer semi-formal
talk. The exercises gradually increased in difficulty and complexity and tested a range of listening skills from
listening for specific information (e.g., routines and everyday activities, a means of transport) to listening for
more complex ideas (e.g., opinions, attitudes, reasons, personal preference, and experiences) and
understanding the connections between these ideas (e.g., sequencing, ranking, mutual decisions and
agreements). The script for each question also contained distracting information, in addition to the targeted
key idea, in order to test candidates’ ability.
© 2024
which was stated rather than implied. Only about half of all candidates successfully answered items which
focused on more complex ideas, such as speakers’ opinions, and items in which key information was implied
rather than directly stated.
Exercise 1
from four options. On the whole, candidates performed reasonably well in most questions in this set with
Questions 5 and 8 being answered most successfully suggesting good understanding of future suggestions
and intentions.
Candidates were least successful with Questions 4 and 6. In Question 4, option C was frequently given in
error. Candidates were most likely tempted by the phrase ‘high grades’ in the recording. In Question 6,
many candidates may have incorrectly selected option B as they possibly misunderstood the time reference
‘the day after’.
Many candidates in Question 3 gave option C as their response instead of option B. They may have been
tempted by the word spot on the verb ‘do’ used in the question (i.e., ‘do this evening’) and in the recording
(‘do my homework’).
Exercise 2
In this part of the test, candidates answered two multiple-choice questions per recording. On the whole, this
exercise was attempted reasonably well.
Candidates were particularly successful with Questions 11 and 17, and Questions 10, 12 and 16 also
produced a fairly high level of success. These questions mostly targeted speaker’s opinions and
preferences.
Overall, candidates tended to be less successful with questions which took the form of monologues. This
was particularly the case in Question 14 which proved to be the most challenging item in this set. Many
candidates selected option C instead of option B, because they may have missed the referencing word ‘then’
referring back to ‘after lunch’, which was expressed in option B as ‘tomorrow afternoon’. Candidates were
also less successful with Question 9 and 18. In Question 9, option B was often given in error with many
candidates most likely tempted by the phrase ‘went on for at least’ and the time references in the recording
(i.e., ‘after about five minutes, and went on for at least another five after the display had finished’). In
Question 18, option A was often selected instead of option B. Many candidates were possibly distracted by
the speaker saying ‘…used for music classes and all sorts of other things’ and mostly likely did not consider
this idea in its entirety ‘…rather than being a hall that’s used for music classes and all sorts of other things’.
Exercise 3
This part of the test required candidates to follow a longer talk about a survey that the speaker had
organised. Candidates had to complete each of the 8 statements with one of the three multiple-choice
options. This part of the test was dealt with reasonably well, with most of the questions in this exercise.
Candidates were most successful with Questions 21 and 25. Many candidates also performed well in
Questions 19, 20 and 23. However, in Question 23, candidates sometimes selected option A ‘social media’
instead of option B ‘posting leaflets’. The speaker mentions both as the two ways they used to attract
volunteers, but candidates had to listen on to be able to determine which way was more effective and to
select the correct detail – something that some less successful candidates probably did not do.
Overall, there was not the same level of success for Question 24 and 26 where many selected option B and
option A respectively. Question 22 proved the most challenging. The question targets an activity that took
the most time at the first planning meeting. Option A ‘choosing how to record results’ was often given in error
here. Many candidates possibly only focused on the verb ‘record’ used in the recording as well as in option A
rather than listening carefully to the whole idea in the recording.
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Exercise 4
In this multiple-matching part of the test, candidates were required to match statements to the correct
speaker. The statements expressed ideas about the speakers’ exercise routines and included, for example,
personal preferences, previous experiences, opinions and explanations. Candidates had to choose 6 correct
statements from a list of 8. Many found this exercise challenging and there was a mixed level of success.
While the majority of candidates selected the correct ideas for speakers 1 and 5 (Questions 27 and 31), only
about half of all candidates provided the correct ideas for speakers 3 and 6 (Questions 29 and 32).
There was no clear pattern of incorrect responses for Questions 28 and 30–32. Less successful candidates
may have sometimes been inaccurately tempted by statement D ‘It’s always essential for me to exercise in a
variety of ways.’ for Question 27. Whereas the speaker says: ‘Some weeks, I choose to do several different
kinds of exercise, and others just one – it depends how I’m feeling.’, however, the speaker doesn’t refer to
this idea as being essential.
In Question 29, candidates sometimes gave statement A ‘I base mine around some online videos I found.’
as their response. Less successful candidates were most likely distracted by the speaker mentioning ‘videos
online’.
Exercise 5
In this part of the test, candidates were required to listen to a semi-formal interview with a woman who
creates sculptures and answer 8 multiple-choice questions. Overall, the vast majority of candidates
attempted this part of the test very well.
Candidates particularly excelled at Questions 37–39 but were also relatively successful with Question 33
and 35. The lowest level of success for many candidates was mainly in Question 34 and 40. In Question
40, option C was often mistakenly selected. The question targets the advice that the speaker gives to people
who want to start creating sculptures. The correct idea is expressed in option A ‘learn a wide variety of
techniques’. Many gave the idea of ‘use your emotions to inspire you’ in option C as their response, as they
were most likely tempted by ‘use feelings as a starting point’ in the recording. However, the speaker refers to
this as an error, not as something that she recommends people should do.
© 2024

Paper 0510/23
Listening

Key Key Key Key
1 D 11 B 21 A 31 A
2 B 12 B 22 B 32 E
3 B 13 C 23 B 33 C
4 A 14 B 24 C 34 A
5 D 15 A 25 A 35 C
6 C 16 C 26 C 36 B
7 A 17 A 27 H 37 B
8 B 18 C 28 F 38 C
9 A 19 C 29 C 39 B
10 C 20 A 30 B 40 A
Key messages
General comments
The paper consists of 40 multiple-choice questions and, overall, they were attempted very well by most
candidates.
Candidates listened to 5 exercises, which consisted of monologues (e.g., voicemail messages, extended
explanations, descriptions), informal dialogues, informal and semi-formal interviews and a longer semi-formal
talk. The exercises gradually increased in difficulty and complexity and tested a range of listening skills from
listening for specific information (e.g., routines and everyday activities, eating out, volunteering work and
future careers) to listening for more complex ideas (e.g., opinions, attitudes, reasons, personal preferences,
and experiences) and understanding the connections between these ideas (e.g., sequencing, ranking,
mutual decisions and agreements). The script for each question also contained distracting information, in
addition to the targeted key idea, in order to test candidates’ ability.
which was stated rather than implied. Only about two thirds of all candidates successfully answered items
© 2024
which focused on more complex ideas, such as speakers’ opinions, and items in which key information was
implied rather than directly stated.
Exercise 1
from four options. On the whole, candidates performed extremely well in most questions in this set, achieving
a high level of success in Questions 1–4, 6 and 8, which shows a very good understanding of expressing
preferences, future intentions and explanations.
Candidates were less successful with Question 5 and 7. In Question 5, candidates were mistakenly
tempted with option A. The question targets the new sport the speaker decides to try, and it is possible that
some candidates only focused on what existing sport the speaker would like to do because she’s already
good at it. This resulted in many selecting ‘basketball’ instead of ‘football’. In Question 7 many candidates
mistakenly selected option D. This suggests that candidates may be less familiar with phrases that express
decisions and comparisons.
Exercise 2
In this part of the test, candidates answered two multiple-choice questions per recording. On the whole, this
exercise was attempted fairly well.
Candidates were particularly successful with Questions 10, 12 and 18. They demonstrated good listening
skills when identifying the speaker’s feelings, attitudes and opinions. Questions 13, 16 and 18 also
produced a reasonable level of success. These questions mostly targeted ideas, such as personal
preferences and explaining the speaker’s choices on various topics. However, in Question 13 less
successful candidates often selected option A, possibly temped by the word brother in the recording and the
word relative in the option.
Question 17 was attempted reasonably well, but some candidates tended to select option C possibly
because of misunderstanding the use of ‘Really?’ in the recording as agreement and chose ‘it’s nice to go
somewhere they’ve been before’ as their response.
Overall, candidates tended to be less successful with Questions 11 and 15. In Question 11, only about half
of all candidates selected the correct response. Some candidates may have possibly not linked ‘I suddenly
heard a bang in the engine’ to the targeted idea ‘It made a loud noise.’ in option B. Option C was commonly
given instead. In Question 15, the correct option A was only in half of all responses. Many candidates
selected the two distracting ideas in options B and C.
Exercise 3
This part of the test required candidates to follow a longer talk about bats. Candidates had to complete each
of the 8 statements with one of the three multiple-choice options. On the whole, the majority of candidates
dealt extremely well with this exercise, particularly Questions 19–24.
Question 25 was attempted reasonably well, but less able candidates tended to select option B in error.
Some candidates were possibly distracted by the adjectives ‘high-pitched’ and ‘noisy’ used in the recording.
Question 26 proved challenging to many candidates, with only about half of all candidates giving option C as
their response. The incorrect response commonly given was option B. Candidates may have been tempted
by the word ‘talks’ and its meaning, as ‘presentations’, used in the wording of the correct option. Instead,
they selected ‘guided walks’ in option B, possibly tempted by the word ‘tours’ used in the recording.
Exercise 4
In this multiple-matching part of the test, candidates were required to match statements to the correct
speaker. The statements expressed ideas about the speakers’ experiences of long-distance train travel. The
six short monologues included, for example, personal preferences, evaluations and opinions. Candidates
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had to choose 6 correct statements from a list of 8. Candidates dealt with this exercise reasonably well and
achieved a high level of success in Question 27 and 28 with no clear pattern of incorrect responses for
those questions.
In Questions 29 and 30 only about half of all candidates provided the correct ideas for these two speakers.
In Question 29 candidates sometimes chose statement B ‘It’s less expensive than I thought.’ as they may
have been distracted by the word ‘expense’ used in the recording. Statement G was wrongly given by many
candidates in Question 30. The speaker says ‘I tend to just sit quietly, doing nothing in particular –
preferably away from people’, which may have been wrongly understood by some candidates as ‘It offers
comfort and space.’, which is the idea expressed in the statement G. Statement D ‘It’s an excellent way to
see the scenery’ was commonly offered as the response in Question 31 instead of statement A ‘It’s always
exciting when I set off.’ Less successful candidates were probably not familiar with the phrase ‘…I board the
train…’ used in the recording and were instead distracted by ‘it’ll be stopping at so many cities on the way’.
Question 32 was answered reasonably well by about two thirds of all candidates. However, some
candidates sometimes gave statement G instead of statement E. Many candidates who gave statement G as
their response may have been tempted by the phrase ‘more room for my long legs’. However, the speaker
states that this is only a slight improvement, with a tiny bit more room, which doesn’t fully express the idea of
comfort and space.
Exercise 5
In this part of the test, candidates were required to listen to a semi-formal interview with a student whose
hobby is exploring his city on foot and answer 8 multiple-choice questions. Candidates only achieved a
reasonable level of success in this exercise. On the whole, candidates excelled at Question 40 and many
also achieved a relatively high of success in Questions 33, 34 and 36. However, in Question 33, less
successful candidates sometimes selected option B in error.
Overall, candidates were less successful with Questions 35 and 37–39. In Question 35, many candidates
wrongly selected option B possibly tempted by ‘I’ve been thinking about going to the edge of the city on my
days off, to walk’. However, the speaker then goes on to dismiss this idea by saying ‘but I’ve always got too
many other things to do’. With Question 37, where the speaker explains one advantage of staying within his
city, the question targets option B, but candidates often gave option A instead. They were possibly tempted
by ‘go and see places where some of my relatives lived many years ago’, but this was only the speaker’s
intention, which never happened. Question 38 produced a low level of success with option B being often
selected in error. Candidates may have misunderstood the difference between what surprised the speaker
and what he states as a mere fact about the local inhabitants he met on his walks. Many candidates were
less successful with Question 39 as option A was commonly given here as their response, where
candidates were possibly tempted by the phrase ‘styles of buildings’ which led them to wrongly choose the
idea of ‘architecture’ in option A.
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Paper 0510/31
Speaking
Key messages
• The vast majority of examiners followed the script and timings for each part of the test.
• When responses from candidates are shorter than expected, examiners are advised to refer to
guidance provided on page 6 of the Teacher’s/Examiner’s Notes.
• Candidates would benefit from regular practice talking about everyday topics. Candidates should
practise developing ideas and giving reasons for opinions before coming to a conclusion. If
candidates are encouraged to practise presenting both sides of an argument, they will be able to
demonstrate a wider range of vocabulary and avoid repetition.
General comments
Introduction
The script was delivered well. Candidates answered better when examiners kept to the script and did not
rephrase it.
Warm-up
This part of the test was conducted well with appropriate timing. The majority of candidates were asked all
three questions.
Part 1 – Interview
This section was generally well conducted, with examiners keeping to the script and prompting further
discussion by using the prompts provided in the Teacher’s/Examiner’s Notes. Strong responses to questions
were relevant and well developed. Candidates should attempt to use a range of past tenses when asked
about a past event and future tenses or conditional sentences when asked to speculate about the future.
Part 2 – Short talk
The script and preparation timing were mostly adhered to.
Candidates did well when they asked for clarification at the beginning of the preparation period and used the
full time to prepare both options. Examiners can use additional questions provided on page 6 of the
Teacher’s/Examiner’s Notes if candidates do not speak for the full amount of time.
Stronger candidates were able to compare and contrast the benefits and drawbacks of each activity, and
then give a final opinion on which option they would prefer and why. Strong responses included a range of
structures (conditionals, comparatives) and topic-specific language.
Although candidates do not need to talk about both options, candidates who discuss both often perform
better as they can demonstrate a larger range of structures and vocabulary and avoid repetition of ideas.
They also need to use appropriate linking devices to organise their points.
Part 3 – Discussion
Stronger candidates were able to develop their responses by beginning generally and expanding with more
personal examples, using a range of tenses, verb patterns and linking devices. Strong responses included
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appropriate vocabulary to discuss a variety of ideas, facts and opinions. Many candidates responded
relevantly using simple and complex sentence structures.
Application of the marking criteria
Grammar
This criterion was generally correctly applied, with a slight tendency to mark severely on particular errors,
and to mark generously when structures were accurate but not complex.
Vocabulary
Most centres accurately applied the vocabulary marking criterion. Some occasional severe marking may
have resulted from focusing too much on topic-related vocabulary, rather than taking into consideration the
candidate’s ability to use more general vocabulary effectively.
Development
Most centres accurately applied this criterion. Examiners should note that this criterion refers to both
relevance and development, and to take all three parts into consideration. For example, where there was
severe marking, this might have been the result of placing too much emphasis on the candidate’s
performance in Part 2, despite the candidate showing an ability to develop their responses in Part 1 and
Part 3. In other cases, generous marking appeared to have been applied when a candidate spoke at length
or spoke quickly, even when what they said was quite repetitive or did not develop the topic.
Pronunciation
Although generally accurate, there was a slight tendency towards severe marking. Candidates who spoke
with a strong local accent yet articulated each sound distinctly and/or used intonation well should still score
well in this criterion. Strong candidates were clear and used intonation to convey meaning, particularly when
expressing a personal opinion.
Administration
Recordings
Most centres provided recordings of good quality which began with the required information. Where quality
was of a lower standard, it was usually because of where the microphone had been placed, or because of
background noise. Some candidates need to be reminded to speak up.
Documentation
This was generally done accurately. There were a few examples of centres incorrectly using the old
summary forms with marks out of 30. Some had incorrect totals on the summary form or had been incorrectly
transferred to Submit for Assessment.
Internal moderation
Internal moderation was conducted correctly at many centres. If more than one examiner is used, internal
moderation must be carried out where the lead examiner listens to a top, middle, bottom range of candidates
from each examiner identifying if adjustments are required. The internally moderated marks should be
recorded on the Speaking Examination Summary Form.
Comments on specific speaking assessments
Speaking assessment A
Part 1 – Interview: Cooking
A range of food vocabulary was used appropriately to discuss fast food and eating healthily. Topic-specific
vocabulary included ‘macronutrients’, ‘high fibre’, ‘saturated fats’. All three questions were answered with
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good development by most candidates. In Question 2 some focused only on the food consumed rather than
the occasion. Strong candidates used language for giving opinion (‘in my opinion’, ‘I think you should’). Past
tenses and descriptive language formed part of the responses to this question. Most agreed with the third
question (We are growing up to be parents, so this is needed’, ‘I’m fussy and won’t eat outside food so I have
to’). A range of simple and complex structures (e.g. tenses, conditionals, relative clauses) were used by
many strong candidates.
Part 2 – Short talk: Inventions
Both options were discussed by most candidates. Stronger candidates were able to give their preference in
the two-minute timeframe. There was no majority choice between the two options, but it was evident that
some teenagers do not use remote controls as they watch content on their devices. Strong candidates used
a number of effective cohesive devices used to develop responses (‘Firstly…’, ‘In addition…’, ‘Moreover…’,
‘However…’).
All four questions were answered well by candidates. Strong candidates used language for giving opinion as
well as future and perfect tenses. Most candidates agreed with the first question and gave clear reasons
(‘younger mind-set’, ‘difficult to navigate apps’, ‘the world evolves’). Strong responses included a range of
structures that were used with confidence (‘If they have a disability, new technologies can help them’,
‘They’re shocked when they see new devices that have been developed.’).
Speaking assessment B
Part 1 – Interview: Staying healthy
Strong candidates referred to the fast pace of life and the need to look after one’s mental health as well as
the importance of a balanced diet. Weaker candidates used simple structures, or repeated ideas. Stronger
candidates used linking devices, past tenses, prepositional phrases, adverbs and comparatives (‘We don’t
move as much as in the past’, ‘There are not many parks or open spaces now’).
Part 2 – Short Talk: School newspaper
Strong responses included a range of structures (e.g. conditionals, comparatives, linking devices) and topic-
specific language. Most candidates talked about both options, giving pros and cons. The majority of
candidates chose a report on a sports event as their preferred option, and they tended to focus on the
subject matter (i.e. sports event versus holiday) and did not differentiate between the writing styles required
for a report compared to a short story.
The majority of candidates agreed that young people are not interested in the news, unless it is a topic that
interests them (‘not all people like to read’). It was generally agreed that they get their news from social
media platforms. Strong candidates talked about ‘how writing a diary before going to bed helps you get
things off your chest’. Conditionals, comparatives and superlatives were used by most strong candidates (‘If I
were to choose between...’).
Speaking assessment C
Part 1 – Interview: Being helpful
For Question 1, weaker candidates tended to keep answers fairly short and list specific tasks that they
helped with at home (e.g. ‘cleaning’, ‘cooking’, etc.), including adverbs such as ‘usually’ or ‘sometimes’, while
stronger candidates developed their responses with more detailed discussion of when and why they might
help out (‘helps create stronger bonds’). Stronger candidates also used conditionals and more collocations
such as ‘do the dishes’, ‘do the laundry’, ‘make my bed’. Some stronger candidates used a variety of past
tenses when responding to Question 2, but not all recognised that the question invited them to switch from
the present tenses generally used when responding to Question 1. For Question 3, stronger candidates
used modal verbs to talk about obligation and necessity, and precise vocabulary to describe activities.
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Part 2 – Short talk: A holiday abroad
Most candidates were able to justify a preference for one or the other option on the card, and stronger
candidates gave a balanced discussion of the advantages and disadvantages of each, often using linking
devices effectively (e.g. ‘on the other hand’ and ‘however’) to structure their talk. When discussing the capital
city, candidates were able to discuss the pros (‘historical sights’, ‘entertaining nightlife’, ‘culturally rich’) and
also discussed cons at length (‘a hot bed of congestion and pollution’, ‘being crowded’). For the national
park, candidates were able to describe the environment and what they could do (‘seeing animals in their
natural habitat’, ‘surrounded by beautiful scenery’, ‘go for long hikes’). Most candidates were able to use
comparative language when discussing the two options (‘a city is more interesting’, ‘there is less pollution in
a natural park’), but this was not always accurately used by weaker candidates.
Weaker candidates’ responses were generally relevant but often limited in scope, although with appropriate
vocabulary relating to climate change and the environment (‘global warming’, ‘pollution’, ‘crowds’). Strong
candidates used a range of vocabulary, structures and functional language to express ideas and talk about
the effects of tourism (‘You could argue that…’; ‘but on the other hand..’; ‘sometimes it does more harm than
good’). Stronger candidates also produced well developed answers on the moral and ethical implications of
travelling by plane, and gave well-articulated answers about the need for all young people to work or study
abroad (‘you’ll step out of your comfort zone’; ‘you might get to know new cultures’; ‘if you have the financial
ability to afford to study abroad, doing it can be a very positive thing for you’).
Speaking assessment D
Part 1 – Interview: Your local area
In response to the first question both stronger and weaker candidates did not always extend much beyond
listing types of shops and using structures such as ‘there is/are’. Responses to Question 3 often focused on
environmental concerns (how noisy the area is) or security (how safe the area is).
Part 2 – Short talk: A sports event
Most candidates were able to compare some features of each option, although some limited their response
solely to their preference, basing it on personal experience. Weaker candidates sometimes restricted their
reasoning to basic adjectives such as ‘boring’ and ‘exciting ’. Stronger candidates developed their responses
further, for example with other topic-related language (‘a high probability of getting injured’, ‘rivalry’, ‘cross
the finish line’), and other structures to describe and explain their preference. They also showed greater
control of some more complex comparative structures (‘I’d rather take part in a football match than in a half-
marathon’) and used conditionals to justify their choice (‘If I made my team lose, I’d be very upset.’).
Responses to the first two questions varied according to what experience candidates of sports or singing.
Many candidates thought that singing would be more difficult as one would have to have ‘a good voice’, ‘stay
in tune with others’ and ‘learn to breathe properly’. The fourth question elicited some of the strongest
responses from candidates, e.g.‘Footballers may earn a lot, but their careers are shorter than most people’s
and their risks are greater too’. Stronger candidates used precise vocabulary and intonation to emphasise
their ideas (‘If they’re good at it, they should earn a lot of money; It can inspire people’).
Speaking Assessment E
Part 1 – Interview: Jobs
In response to Question 1, weaker candidates tended to list jobs with little detail and stronger candidates
commented on how complex or demanding they are, using a wider range of structures and vocabulary (‘My
father works as a surgeon and has been doing it for over 10 years and he loves it although it can be
challenging’). Most candidates were able to produce a range of future forms as well as the present simple
and continuous when responding to the second question. Stronger candidates were able to hypothesise or
speculate how easy or difficult it would be to get into or do a certain job. Weaker candidates used simpler
linking words such as ‘because’, ‘and’, ‘so’. Weaker responses to Question 3 were limited to simple
vocabulary and simple structures. Stronger candidates used appropriate functional language of opinion,
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agreement, evaluation and speculation (‘I totally disagree with that idea because…’). Strong responses to all
three questions were relevant and well developed, whereas weaker responses were often limited to only one
or two short sentences for each question.
Part 2 – Short talk: Listening to music
Strong responses included a range of structures and cohesive devices. The most popular and the most
successful approach was to develop the talk by first introducing the context, then explaining the advantages
and disadvantages of option one (concert) before moving onto the second option (at home), then finishing
with the stated preference with a summary of the reasons. Stronger candidates used a range of tenses and
topic-specific vocabulary (‘If I were to go to a live concert, I would take my best friend with me for sure’; ‘far
better than….’; ‘your own space’; ‘you get to meet the artist’; ‘streaming services’). Weaker responses tended
to either focus on the chosen option and say very little about the second option or talk about both options at
the same time in no clear order or rhetorical pattern.
The questions elicited appropriate and often sophisticated vocabulary, a range of tenses, conditionals and
comparatives. Weaker responses were limited to simple vocabulary and simple structures with inaccuracies,
such as repeating the words in the question, subject/verb agreement errors, or only using the present tense.
Strong responses to all three questions were relevant and well developed, with some very extended
answers. In Part 3 (like Part 1), strong responses first directly answered the question, then provided
reasoning and examples, whereas weaker responses were often limited to only one or two short sentences
for each question. Stronger answers to all questions in each section were clear and easy to understand, and
intonation was used to good effect. Weaker responses were not always clear, and intonation was rarely used
to convey intended meaning.
Speaking assessment F
Part 1 – Interview: Art
Strong responses to all three questions elicited a wide range of vocabulary and simple and complex
structures. For example, strong candidates gave extended answers that involved a range of tenses, modal
verbs, conditionals, comparatives and superlatives, and sophisticated topic-specific vocabulary (‘calligraphy,
‘mosaic’, ‘abstract art’, ‘expressionist’). Weaker responses were limited to simple vocabulary and simple
structures with inaccuracies, for example, only using present simple tense. Strong responses to all three
questions were relevant and well developed. For example, for Question 1 strong responses not only
described the family’s overall art preferences, but also noted what specific family members liked before
explaining why. Weaker responses were often limited to only one or two short sentences for each question.
Part 2 – Short talk: Giving a presentation
Strong responses included a range of sentence structures, tenses and cohesive devices. A wide range of
topic-specific vocabulary was used by strong candidates, e.g. ‘see the animals close-up’, ‘become extinct,
‘habitat’, ’destruction’.
Question 1 and 2 were addressed well on the whole, with answers connected to notions of animal cruelty.
Stronger responses explored issues of nutrition, human evolution and environmental impact. Question 3
often elicited responses about the future – proving oneself at work or in an interview, with stronger
candidates often suggesting social skills and confidence could be improved. Question 4 was expanded on
well by the strong candidates who were able to give a slightly more complex analysis of responsibility and
caring rather than just simple adjectives and likes/dislikes.
Speaking assessment G
Part 1 – Interview: Clothes
Strong responses used a range of grammatical structures, including past tenses in Question 2 (‘We were
eating, and I spilt soup on my white shirt’) and passives with a good degree of accuracy in Question 3 (‘A lot
of people are pressured into getting the latest fashion trends’). Appropriate and precise vocabulary included
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idioms (‘dress to impress’) and phrasal verbs (‘fit in’, ‘showing off’). Stronger candidates were able to develop
their ideas in Question 1 by distinguishing between different seasons or social occasions. Many candidates
spoke about a wedding or graduation for Question 2. Weaker responses were limited to the use of simple
vocabulary and simple structures such as the present simple. Many candidates agreed that ‘young people
buy too many clothes nowadays’.
Part 2 – Short talk: Being environmentally friendly
Most candidates were able to develop their responses and offer some detail, both by talking about the
environmental impact of flights and smartphones, and about how easy or difficult it would be to change their
lifestyles. Strong responses included a range of structures and tenses (‘If we stop travelling by plane, it will
reduce carbon emissions’; ‘I have become attached to my phone’) and topic-specific vocabulary (‘carbon
footprint’, ‘eco-friendly’). The most popular approach was to develop the talk by explaining how easy or
difficult each option might be and then giving a final opinion on which option they would prefer and why.
Linking phrases were used by stronger candidates. Weaker candidates tended to focus on the use of planes
and smartphones in general but did not develop a response as to which option they preferred.
Stronger candidates developed all four points in detail, discussing different types of pollution and possible
solutions. This section gave stronger candidates the opportunity to demonstrate a range of vocabulary
(‘regulations’, ‘final say’, ‘researchers’, ‘obligatory) and structures (‘You wouldn’t be able to find such things if
ads were banned’). Weaker candidates tended to provide more repetitive answers and used a limited range
of language.
Speaking assessment H
Part 1 – Interview: Animals
Many candidates spoke about cats and how these ‘help release stress and you won’t feel lonely’. Weaker
responses included simple vocabulary and simple structures. Descriptions such as ‘cute and delicate’ were
offered by some of the weaker candidates who were less likely to develop their responses. Stronger
candidates demonstrated the of precise vocabulary to talk about animals they find interesting (‘predators’,
‘reptiles’, ‘hibernate’). They also used a range of verb tenses (‘I’ve always been fascinated by…’). The
second question required the use of past tenses, which weaker responses sometimes lacked. Candidates
were able to develop their responses well for all three questions, with many discussing service dogs or police
dogs for Question 3.
Part 2 – Short talk: Ways of learning
Most candidates were able to develop their ideas in detail, often referring to their experience during the
pandemic when talking about online learning. Strong responses included a range of structures (conditionals
and comparatives) and topic-specific language to discuss the pros and cons of different ways of learning
(‘interactive’, ‘socialising’, ‘accomplish’, ‘distractions’, ‘rowdy’). The most successful approach was to explain
how easy or difficult each option would be for them, then give a final opinion on which option they would
prefer and why. Stronger responses covered the benefits and drawbacks of studying online and then
considered the advantages and disadvantages of working with others on a school project. Many candidates
used appropriate linking phrases, such as ‘in my opinion’ and ‘in addition’. Weaker candidates relied on
simpler vocabulary and structures, and often tended to repeat their ideas rather than develop them.
Stronger candidates used a wide variety of vocabulary to support their ideas (‘stressful’, ‘appreciate’, ‘value’).
Weaker responses were shorter and included a limited range of structures and vocabulary. Stronger
responses considered the benefits of studying abroad such as ‘learning about the history of another country’.
In terms of language, more successful responses attempted greater complexity of grammatical structures
and made more use of the conditional and future tense.
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Speaking assessment I
Part 1 – Interview: Popular music
Strong candidates were able to develop their answers to all three questions, including appropriate and
accurate use of narrative tenses for the second question. Examples of effective language included referring
to a singer who ‘gives out a message you can relate to’. Strong responses often drew on vocabulary of
emotions to discuss the effect a particular singer/group had on candidates, or used sophisticated terms to
discuss different music styles and included a range of structures (e.g. modal verbs, conditionals) and topic-
specific language (‘cardio exercise’, ‘build up your strength’, ‘fit as a fiddle’). Weaker candidates’ responses
were significantly shorter and tended to use only present tenses for the second question.
Part 2 – Short talk: Lifestyle
Strong responses included a wide range of vocabulary connected to healthy lifestyles (‘a balanced diet’,
‘aerobic’, ‘nutrition’). Weaker candidates focused only on one option and often repeated ideas in an effort to
keep going for two minutes. Strong responses used present perfect forms to link the question to the
candidate’s own lifestyle (‘I’ve been cycling to school for years’). Most candidates were able to use adverbs
of frequency to describe lifestyle routines (‘I don’t often cook’) and comparatives to talk about the relative
importance of exercise and nutrition. Many strong responses focused on mental as well as physical health or
went into detail about practical issues such as cycle lanes, traffic risks or finding time for cooking. For weaker
candidates the common approach to the topic was to primarily focus on their preferred option and discuss it
in detail, with limited development made regarding the second option.
Strong candidates successfully developed answers to all four questions, often using precise vocabulary (‘you
need to train your mind to discipline your body’, ‘mental health’ and ‘meditation’). In response to the final
question, most candidates agreed that being a doctor is a ‘satisfying’ and ‘well-paid’ job. Strong responses
developed ideas raised in the short talk, and candidates at all levels were able to give opinions and use
linking phrases such as ‘on the other hand’, ‘however’ to discuss advantages and disadvantages. The
strongest answers combined personal views with general ideas (‘I faint when I see blood, so I couldn’t work
as a doctor, but in general …’) and used sophisticated vocabulary to consider issues like obesity/addiction
versus choice/freedom.
Speaking assessment J
Part 1 – Interview: Free-time activities
Strong candidates were able to develop their answers to all three questions, including appropriate and
accurate use of narrative tenses for the second question. The third question elicited some well developed
answers from stronger candidates who discussed their reasons using conditionals and complex sentences.
Strong responses included opinions on the activities described in Question 1, often using modals (‘People
should spend less time on computers’) and present simple/continuous forms to consider both general
routines and current trends. Weaker responses tended to list activities, but candidates at all levels were able
to describe a past activity for Question 2, using a range of past tenses with varying degrees of success.
Question 3 provoked clear opinions on both sides, with stronger responses discussing different types of
friendships (groups, clubs, close friends).
Part 2 – Short talk: Studying a story
Strong candidates looked at both options and discussed the merits of their choice. Some candidates chose
to read the story as they could use their imagination and the author’s original words, whereas others found
the film an easier option. Stronger candidates developed both points almost equally providing examples of
benefits and disadvantages for each option (‘If I had to read the book it would take me days to finish reading
it, whereas on the other hand watching a film). Weaker candidates focused only on one option and often
repeated the same points. Strong responses used a range of conditional and comparative forms to speculate
and discuss preferences. Some sophisticated vocabulary around imagination and visual/audio/written forms
was produced (‘soundtrack’, ‘visualise’).
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Strong candidates were able to use a wide variety of vocabulary and structures and to demonstrate a range
of intonation patterns. In answer to the first question, many candidates thought that libraries ‘offer a calm
environment for study’ and, in answer to the third question, that ‘actors risk having their privacy
compromised’. Weaker responses were often brief and lacked development. Strong responses used a range
of clauses of comparison and contrast to explore ideas around digital versus print libraries and the ways
home technology can enhance ‘the experience of viewing a film at home’. Weaker answers included
descriptions of personal experience of language learning in response to the last question. Pronunciation and
intonation were mostly clear and consistent.
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Paper 0510/32
Speaking
Key messages
• Most examiners followed the instructions included in the Teacher’s/Examiner’s Notes and encouraged
candidates to go beyond simple answers and develop their responses.
• Candidates appeared to be well prepared and generally understood the format of the test.
• Candidates should listen carefully to the tense used in each question to respond with precision.
• Candidates would benefit from practising giving the Part 2 talk in two minutes, in order to become
accustomed to the timing and structure of this part of the test.
General comments
Introduction
The tests were generally successfully delivered. Many examiners used a timer to ensure candidates were
given the correct amount of time for each part of the test. Almost all centres followed the script and correctly
informed candidates about which parts of the test would be assessed.
Warm-up
During the warm-up, weaker candidates needed follow-up questions to extend their responses. If candidates
give short answers, examiners can ask open extension questions, as given in the Teacher’s/Examiner’s
Notes, to ensure the warm-up lasts 1–2 minutes.
Some candidates only responded in the present tense to Question 2 which targets a narrative/a personal
anecdote. If the candidate is asked about a past event and the candidate responds in the present tense,
examiners should ask another question to try and encourage candidates to speak about a past event.
In most centres, this part was timed well. Examiners should read out the questions, using the exact wording
on the card.
The preparation periods were mostly one minute, and only a few candidates asked the examiner to clarify
words or instructions during this time. For this part, examiners should allow candidates to speak for the
whole time and should not interrupt or conduct a conversation.
Many candidates managed the talk well, covering both options and stating their preference at the end. Most
candidates were able to speak at length for the full two minutes, although some needed some support and/or
encouragement from the examiner (in accordance with the examiner prompts on page 6 of the
Teacher’s/Examiner’s Notes).
Having completed Part 1 and Part 2 of the test, many candidates were thoroughly warmed up at this stage
and often excelled in giving opinions and developing the discussion using a good range of structures and
vocabulary. Candidates benefitted when examiners used follow-up questions to encourage development.
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Some examiners simply asked the question, waited for a response, however long or short, and moved to the
next question. If a candidate has not understood, examiners can refer to additional instructions in the
Teacher’s/Examiner’s Notes.
Grammar
This was generally marked accurately. Candidates were given credit for their ability to use a range of
complex structures such as passive voice, conditional sentences, relative clauses and variety of modal verbs
and tenses. In some centres, marking was slightly generous when candidates spoke naturally but without
using a range of grammatical structures or more sophisticated forms. The overall tendency is to mark
generously in the upper mark range, perhaps based on the examiner’s knowledge of the candidate’s overall
ability in English rather than the candidate’s performance in the test. On the other hand, marking could be
slightly severe when examiners focused too much on small errors.
Vocabulary
This was generally accurately marked, but with a tendency to mark generously for the repeated use of
technical language rather than the effective or appropriate use of functional vocabulary. This is noticeable in
the higher mark range where examiners need to take ‘with precision’ into account. In the lower mark range,
some centres marked slightly severely, whereas examiners could credit lexical structures such as
collocations or fixed expressions more favourably.
Development
Candidates were credited for developing their ideas and structuring their responses. There is a tendency for
centres to be severe towards less able candidates and generous towards the more able candidates. For
example, sometimes quantity of speech was over-generously marked and, in these cases, candidates were
credited for maintaining communication, even when answers were not entirely relevant to the topic.
Pronunciation
Many centres did not appear to assess pronunciation as a stand-alone criterion. The mark given was often
matched to marks for other criteria, even if, for example, an otherwise weak candidate had good
pronunciation and used intonation to convey meaning. Examiners sometimes marked over-severely for
accent, even if pronunciation was otherwise clear, and intonation effectively used. Candidates and
examiners alike need to remember that pronunciation should be clear, and intonation used to communicate
meaning, particularly when expressing a personal opinion.
Administration
Recordings
Most centres provided recordings of high quality. Very occasionally, candidates were not close enough to the
microphone or the sound of rustling paper, or of loud air-conditioning, covered their voices. It would be
helpful for examiners to consider this when setting up for the exam.
Documentation
Most centres carried out the administration well. In some centres, errors were made in the transfer of marks
from the Speaking Examination Summary Form to the total marks submitted. Centres should check very
carefully if the marks for all the candidates are submitted, and internally moderated marks have been
included where applicable. All the candidates examined by each examiner should be included on the same
Speaking Examination Summary Form in order to limit the number of forms submitted. Where possible, the
form should be completed electronically, not handwritten.
© 2024
Internal moderation
Many centres conducted internal moderation correctly. Internal moderation must be conducted if more than
one examiner is used. The lead examiner should listen to a range of candidates (top, middle, bottom) from
each examiner, identifying if there are points on the mark range where adjustments are required.
Part 1 – Interview: Sports
Most candidates mentioned football when answering questions in this part of the test. When responding to
Question 1 and Question 3, stronger candidates made use of gerunds and modal verbs. Weaker
candidates mainly used present simple to describe sports that people enjoy playing or watching, whereas
stronger candidates were able to compare present and past habits with ‘used to’ or ‘would’. For the second
question, stronger candidates were able to use a range of tenses, including present perfect and past perfect.
With regard to older people doing sport, stronger candidates compared different types of sport and what
effects they would have, while weaker candidates attempted to use the first conditional only.
Part 2 – Short talk: International visitors
When responding to this task, candidates used a variety of structures and vocabulary, often mentioning real-
life experiences. Weaker responses tended to focus on the chosen option and say very little about the
second option. Strong responses included a range of structures (conditionals, comparatives) and topic-
specific language. The most popular choice was having party at school with food and music from your
culture.
Strong candidates were able to develop their ideas well and at times referred to previous comments and
ideas. Weaker responses included mainly relevant ideas but lacked development. Stronger candidates used
phrasal verbs and colloquial expressions related to the topic of travelling (‘travel can widen your perspective
and develop your personality’), whereas vocabulary was limited to transport and accommodation with weaker
candidates. Weaker responses included simple clauses and structures which were often unfinished.
Part 1 – Interview: Having fun
The majority of candidates talked about video games or other online activities for Question 1. Some also
discussed sports or hanging out with friends and used appropriate vocabulary to describe those leisure
activities. Most candidates were able to discuss Question 2 using past tenses. Question 3 elicited future
tenses.
Part 2 – Short talk: Environmental problems
Stronger candidates were able to discuss the benefits and drawbacks of writing about each type of problem,
with many choosing ‘litter’ as a topic which would be easier to write about. Strong responses included a
range of structures (conditionals, comparatives) and topic-specific language (‘carbon dioxide’, ‘might cause
disease’, ‘hazardous’, ’photosynthesis’). Weaker responses tended to focus on the chosen option and say
very little about the second option (especially noise pollution).
Both strong and weak candidates were able to talk at length on topic related to the natural environment.
Some precise vocabulary, such as ‘soothing’, ’waterfall’, ’construction site’, was used by stronger candidates.
Weaker candidates tended to utilise more everyday lexis such as ‘annoying’ compared to ‘infuriating’ for a
stronger candidate.
© 2024
Part 1 – Interview: Nature
Almost all candidates were able to discuss a place in their country with relative ease. Most candidates
responded to Question 2 using past tenses and to Question 3 using ‘should’. The past tense was used
accurately when describing a visit to a natural location. Stronger candidates were able to provide some
justification for their opinions. Most candidates responded very well to the first two questions using a variety
of vocabulary and structures (‘full of greenery’, ‘I got to experience’, ‘it was an absolute delight)’. Responses
were more varied to the last question; stronger candidates mentioned identifying poisonous plants and
commented on moral issues such as the need for children to understand that ‘this planet is not only ours’.
Part 2 – Short talk: Good news
Stronger candidates were able to compare and contrast the pros and cons of each option, and generally
chose the interaction with peers over the internet stories. Weaker responses tended to focus on the chosen
option and say very little about the second option. Some candidates preferred the option of research on the
internet, citing the sheer amount of information as an obvious advantage. Stronger candidates were able to
elaborate using appropriate vocabulary.
Overall, most responses in this part of the test were developed well with opinions and justifications frequently
described in detail. Some candidates needed the word ‘journalist’ to be explained. Strong responses
described the ‘challenges’ of the job with quite varied subject-specific vocabulary (‘analytical abilities’),
whereas weaker candidates talked about writing ‘different stories’. The dangers of social media were well
explored in the second question (‘we don’t know what kind of people’), with modals and conditionals well
used. Stronger candidates used precise vocabulary (‘get involved’, ‘at risk’, ’targeted’). They were also able
to develop their ideas well, while weaker candidates provided little justification for their opinions. In response
to the last question, stronger candidates used some emotive vocabulary (‘an instant smile on their face’).
Part 1 – Interview: Mobile phones
Strong responses to all three questions used a wide range of subject-specific lexis and a range of simple and
complex structures with particular emphasis on appropriate tenses. A majority of candidates used
appropriate collocations related to the topic, such as ‘contact friends and family’, ‘use social media’ or ‘surf
the internet/search for information on the Internet’. Strong responses to Question 2 used past tenses to
relate anecdotes highlighting how mobile phones proved to be useful (‘Thanks to my mobile phone I was
able to call my mum and find the way out’). More ambitious responses included a wider variety of past tenses
and expressions to talk about the past, such as ‘used to’. Weaker responses were limited to simple
vocabulary and simple structures and tended to focus on the usefulness of mobile phones rather than a time
in the past when a mobile was useful (‘get to learn more’, ‘can self-study’). In response to the last question,
strong candidates supported their views with examples and speculated on the effect of a ban. Some also
contrasted a total ban on mobile phones in school with a ban on classroom use.
Part 2 – Short talk: Study options
Strong responses included an introduction to the topic and a brief explanation of how the talk would be
organised: ‘Considering the two options, X and Y, they both have their pros and cons, which I will talk about
now’. After the opening sentence, outlining the organisation of the talk, strong candidates went on to outline
what each of the two options would entail and why one of them offered more benefits. The most popular
choice was going to a local university although many candidates acknowledged the benefits of both options.
Stronger responses included conditionals (‘If I were to ...’) and a variety of cohesive devices to construct
more complex sentence structures. Weaker responses either focused on only one of the options or did not
state clearly which option they would prefer.
Strong responses included a wide range of vocabulary and structures. In the stronger responses, candidates
used examples to illustrate their points and effectively used intonation to emphasise their opinions. Weaker
responses included mainly relevant ideas using a limited range of structures and vocabulary, but there was
© 2024
little development. This is where appropriate use of follow-up questions by the examiner could encourage a
fuller discussion.
Speaking assessment E
Part 1 – Interview: Languages
Strong responses to all three questions were detailed and well developed, with a wide range of subject-
specific vocabulary (‘attend a language course’, ‘gain knowledge’, ‘improve pronunciation’). There were also
references to online learning, with language learning apps proving popular. In addition to a range of simple
grammatical structures, more complex ones were attempted with emphasis on appropriate verb tenses,
particularly when addressing Question 2, which prompted anecdotes about communicating in another
language. Stronger candidates were also able to give opinions, explain reasons and speculate using modals,
(‘even if you can’t speak the language, you can use your hands). Weaker responses were limited to simple
vocabulary and structures with frequent inaccuracies such as using the present tense instead of past.
Part 2 – Short talk: Family time
Stronger candidates indicated how they were going to structure their talk and used signposting language to
indicate changes in the argument and the conclusion (‘So, I’m going to consider the following options...’).
Strong responses included a range of structures (conditional sentences, relative clauses, comparatives) and
subject-specific language (‘theme park’, ‘diverse leisure activities’) as well as adjectives to describe both
options (‘exhilarating’, ‘appropriate’). While discussing the pros and cons of an option, they used appropriate
linking words (‘especially if it’s a playground park, kids may have a lot of fun there’; ‘however, such places
may be messy’; ‘on the other hand, they may get bored during the movie’). Weaker candidates often simply
discussed the two options in general.
There were some mature responses in response to the questions in this part of the test. Strong responses
showed good control of compound sentences, correct use of narrative tenses and other more complex
structures. Many candidates expressed a variety of ideas, facts and opinions using precise vocabulary (‘I
don’t believe that technology can enhance family bonds. In fact, it probably has a detrimental effect on most
families’). Strong responses also used conditionals to talk about possible career choices and situations in
which technology might help or hinder family relationships. Intonation was used effectively to convey
intended meaning, particularly when more emphatic structures were chosen to give opinion. Weaker
candidates gave brief but relevant answers which included a limited range of structures and vocabulary.
Part 1 – Interview: The weather
Strong answers were characterized by detailed explanations and the inclusion of personal experiences or
broader context. Candidates used a wide range of vocabulary including linking words to provide structure
and took advantage of Question 2 to demonstrate the use of narrative tenses and other questions to
demonstrate the first conditional and modal verbs. This question provided an opportunity to use a range of
vocabulary related to weather (‘boiling’, ‘freezing’, ‘storm’). In response to Question 3, many candidates
were able to use a range of vocabulary to describe feelings (‘mood’, ‘uninspired’, ‘uplifting’, ‘energetic’).
Part 2 – Short talk: Games
More successful talks compared and contrasted both speakers and advice they could offer to young people,
and then speculated how enjoyable each talk might be (‘I suppose people my age nowadays play a lot of
video games, so they’d welcome a talk by a video game designer.’). Many candidates finished by stating
their personal preference followed by a reason. Weaker candidates talked about their preferred choice only.
Strong candidates used a wide variety of language to discuss their ideas, often at length. This included
structures such as future tenses, modal verbs, passive voice and conditionals. More successful responses
also included a range of spoken discourse markers (‘that’s an interesting question’, ‘for example for me…’,
‘let me think…’, ‘how can I put this…?’). Stronger candidates were able to use more precise and idiomatic
© 2024
vocabulary (‘quality time’, ‘bend/follow the rules’, ‘have a laugh’) and developed their answers with examples,
addressing multiple aspects of the questions. This allowed them to demonstrate complex sentence
structures. They also provided well organised responses (‘Firstly…’, ‘Lastly…’). Weaker responses were brief
and lacked development.
Part 1 – Interview: Music
In response to Question 1, many candidates simply listed popular artists. Strong candidates gave fully
developed responses using a range of simple and complex structures and extended their answer by
discussing what music they enjoy in general and how it makes them feel, using extensive and relevant
precise vocabulary (‘uplifting’, ‘addictive’, ‘genre’, ‘motivating’). Weaker candidates frequently required
clarification of ‘people your age’. Weaker responses were limited to simple vocabulary and simple structures.
Many weaker candidates did not attempt to use past tenses to respond to Question 2. Instead, they spoke
about music that they generally listen to.
Part 2 – Short talk: Accommodation
This short talk produced quite successful and well structured responses. The most popular option was a
house by the sea, often using a good range of vocabulary to state reasons (‘relaxation’, ‘calmness’, ‘lack of
noise’/’light pollution).’ Most candidates were able to use a wide variety of descriptors, and grammatical
forms like comparatives, conditionals and modal verbs as well as demonstrating an ability to structure their
talk with phrases such as ‘however’, ‘moreover’, ‘on the other hand’. Weaker candidates either just focused
on one option or dedicated most of the time to saying why they liked it, often repeating the same points.
Most candidates were able to explore the advantages and disadvantages of working in either a hotel or a
restaurant. Many candidates used conditionals and a range of topic-related vocabulary (‘hotel manager’,
‘customers’, ‘working as a receptionist’, ‘waiters’, ‘exhausting’, ‘underpaid’, ‘long working hours’). The most
successful responses explored the importance of outdoor space for our mental health (‘I always find the
plants really beautiful to look at and it calms me down’), how it can be used to provide opportunities to keep
fit (‘I help my parents in the garden and it’s like a work-out’) and the importance of trees. Many strong
candidates used a wide range of precise vocabulary and appropriate collocations (‘absorb CO2 omissions’,
‘weeds’, ‘autumnal colours’, ‘we’re so fortunate to have a garden’). Candidates also gained marks by using a
range of clauses to provide extra information and to explain their opinions. Weaker candidates tended to give
very short responses and had to be supported by additional questions to further develop their answers.
Part 1 – Interview: Reading
Strong responses were relevant and well developed with the use of a range of sentence structures and
tenses. In response to Question 3, many candidates were able to use a wide range of vocabulary, with good
pronunciation and expressive intonation (‘Although electronic books are very popular, I believe paper books
will not be outdated because people like the feel of flipping the pages’). Weaker responses were limited to
simple vocabulary and simple structures with frequent errors in subject/verb agreement, the use of
prepositions and tenses.
Part 2 – Short Talk: School holidays
Strong responses included a range of structures (conditionals, comparatives, modal verbs) and topic-specific
language. Stronger candidates started by stating that both options have advantages and disadvantages and
then developed the talk by explaining and supporting their opinions (‘as’, ‘since’, which allows me to’) before
reaching a final decision on which option they would prefer and why. The most popular choice was getting a
part-time job. Stronger candidates used linking devices and intonation to convey meaning. Weaker
responses tended to focus on the chosen option and rarely reached a conclusion.
© 2024
Strong responses used precise vocabulary to discuss a variety of ideas. Strong candidates offered relevant
responses in which ideas and opinions were explained in detail. Weaker responses included mainly relevant
points, used simple structures and vocabulary but often lacked sufficient detail to develop the ideas.
Part 1 – Interview: Jobs
Strong responses to all three questions used a wide range of simple and complex structures (modal verbs,
conditionals, comparatives) with particular emphasis on appropriate verb tenses (‘I dreamt of always saving
the day when people are in trouble, just like Spiderman). Stronger candidates introduced a wide range of
vocabulary, whereas weaker responses were limited to simple vocabulary and simple structures with
inaccuracies and omissions in the use of tenses and other verb forms. To achieve the best marks,
candidates should attempt to use a range of past tenses when asked about a past event and future tenses
when asked to speculate about the future.
Part 2 – Short Talk: A special meal
Strong responses included a range of structures (conditionals, comparatives) and topic-specific language.
The most successful candidates developed the talk by explaining how preferable each option would be for
them and then gave a final opinion on which option they would prefer and why. The most popular choice was
having a meal at home. Stronger candidates used appropriate linking devices and intonation to convey
meaning. Weaker responses tended to focus on one of the options or only focus on the advantages for both
options.
Many candidates were able to provide relevant responses to all questions in this part of the test. Strong
candidates successfully developed answers to all four questions, often using precise vocabulary and
complex sentence structures. Weaker responses were usually relevant but often very brief and lacked
development of ideas.
Part 1 – Interview: Learning
Strong responses to all three questions were relevant and well developed. Stronger candidates were able to
use both simple and complex structures with particular emphasis on appropriate verb tenses (‘We were
supposed to perform a song so I decided to pick a song I felt would be easy for everyone to memorise.’).
Weaker candidates used simple structures and occasionally attempted complex structures. Their
pronunciation was clear, but responses lacked fluency. Stronger responses used a wide range of
sophisticated vocabulary and appropriate intonation to convey meaning.
Part 2 – Short Talk: Helping neighbours
The most popular choice was helping neighbours in their garden once a month, especially if they were being
paid to do so and if it fitted in with their schoolwork. Stronger candidates used linking devices to organise
their ideas (‘This comes in various forms from buying their groceries to buying clothes’, ‘However, let’s say if
they urgently need medicine, I may not be around’). Weaker responses focused on one of the options and
discussed the challenges linked to helping neighbours in this way.
When addressing Question 1, most candidates were able to explore the importance of a good relationship
with their neighbours. Stronger responses used a wide variety of vocabulary and structures to support their
ideas (‘There are obvious benefits like looking after your pet but what if you don’t see eye to eye on
something.’). Weaker candidates were able to express their opinions, but they were less successful at
providing clear explanations of their views. Their responses were relevant but limited in terms of the range of
structures and vocabulary. Pronunciation was clear in strong responses. Weaker responses were not always
clear, and intonation was rarely used to convey intended meaning.
© 2024

Paper 0510/33
Speaking
Key messages
• It is advisable to use the Teacher’s/Examiner’s Notes and watch the Speaking test video on the School
Support Hub before delivering the exam.
• Please ensure that all parts of the examiner’ script and questions are read exactly as written.
• All assessed parts of the test must be from the same Speaking Assessment card unless a topic is
inappropriate for the candidate.
General comments
Introduction
The script was delivered well. However, sometimes it was paraphrased by the examiner, omitting the
essential information about which parts of the test were to be assessed.
Warm-up
The warm-up was generally conducted well with appropriate timing.
This part of the test was carried well, with most examiners following the script. Some candidates would have
benefitted from the use of extension questions.
The script was followed by most examiners. The timings of the preparation period were sometimes too short
or led by the candidates. Examiners should use additional questions provided on page 6 of the
Teacher’s/Examiner’s Notes if candidates do not speak for the full amount of time.
This was generally carried out well. However, sometimes the questions were changed or paraphrased. Some
candidates would have benefitted from the use of extension questions.
Grammar
Marking was slightly severe on occasions when examiners focused too much on small errors.
Vocabulary
This criterion was applied satisfactorily by most examiners.
Development
There was occasional slight severity in assessing candidates’ performance in this area.
© 2024
Pronunciation
Examiners applied this criterion well in most cases. Candidates and examiners alike should remember that
pronunciation should be clear, and intonation used to convey meaning, especially when expressing an
opinion.
Administration
Recordings
Occasionally, background noises such as the rustling of paper could be heard, perhaps where candidates
were not close enough to the microphone. Centres are reminded that this is a formal exam, and a quiet
secure room should be allocated for the conduct of the tests.
Documentation
Most centres carried out the administration well.
Internal moderation
If more than one examiner is used, the candidates’ marks must be internally moderated to ensure a common
standard is applied to all candidates. To do this, the lead examiner should listen to a range of candidates
(top, middle, bottom) from each examiner, identifying if there are points on the mark range where
adjustments are required. If an adjustment to an examiner’s marks is required, the lead examiner should
make this adjustment to all the marks given by that examiner in that mark range. The adjusted marks are
then the final total marks which should be submitted to Cambridge International.
Part 1 – Interview: Films
Strong responses to all three questions were relevant and well developed. Many strong candidates used a
wide range of vocabulary and a range of simple and complex structures with particular emphasis on
appropriate tenses, modal verbs and comparative forms (‘It is cheaper and easier to talk about the film; ‘You
feel more relaxed and can eat a greater variety of food’). Weaker responses were limited to simple
vocabulary and simple structures with inaccuracies in subject/verb agreement and the use of tenses.
Part 2 – Short talk: Memories
The most popular choice was taking a lot of photographs. Stronger candidates used linking devices to
organise their responses. Weaker responses focused on one of the options or one aspect of the scenario.
Strong candidates discussed a variety of ideas, facts and opinions using a range of structures and
responding relevantly at length (‘There are a lot of problems on social media platforms with fake news’)
Weaker candidates included mainly relevant points using a limited range of structures and vocabulary but did
not develop their responses.
Part 1 – Interview: Reading
Strong candidates were able to provide well developed responses to all questions. Pronunciation was clear
and intonation was used to good effect. The past tense was used accurately when candidates discussed
their recent reading experience.
© 2024
Part 2 – Short talk: Fitness
The most popular choice was joining a gym. Stronger candidates developed their responses and organised
ideas by using a range of discourse markers. Weaker responses either focused on only one of the options or
did not state clearly which option they would prefer.
Strong candidates used examples to illustrate their points and effectively used intonation to emphasise their
opinions. Strong responses included a wide range of vocabulary and structures ( ‘I think that sportspeople
have to give up a lot of their life to train for their sport’). Weaker candidates gave brief but relevant answers
which included a limited range of structures and vocabulary.
Part 1 – Interview: Sounds
Most candidates were able to answer all questions and offer relevant responses. Strong responses to
Question 2 used past tenses to describe experience (‘It was just the other day. I listened to some favourite
music of mine’). Weaker responses used a smaller range of vocabulary and simple structures, and often
lacked development.
Part 2 – Short talk: Learning a new language
The most popular choice was an online course, although very strong candidates thought that a combination
of both options would be their preference. Stronger candidates used comparatives and discourse markers to
develop their ideas. Weaker candidates discussed only one aspect of the scenario and offered less detail
when explaining their points.
Weaker candidates’ responses were generally relevant but often limited in scope, although with appropriate
vocabulary relating to learning new skills and online interactions. Strong candidates used a wide range of
sentence structures and appropriate intonation to convey meaning.
Part 1 – Interview: Education
Strong responses to all three questions were relevant and well developed and used a wide range of
vocabulary and a variety of simple and complex structures, with particular emphasis on appropriate tenses
and modal verbs (‘I can remember that everyone was really helpful and made me feel welcome’). Weaker
candidates often used present tenses to describe their past experience.
Part 2 – Short talk: Starting a business
The most popular choice was selling products that you make yourself. Stronger candidates considered both
options and used comparatives, modal verbs and linking devices to develop their responses (‘They might try
to tell you what to do all the time, which could lead to problems, whereas selling products that you make
yourself gives a lot more freedom and choice over what you do’). Weaker candidates tended to focus on one
option and say very little about the second option, often not reaching a conclusion.
Many candidates used conditionals and a range of topic-related vocabulary (‘being in charge’, ‘responsibility’,
‘making decisions’). Weaker responses were relevant but offered little detail. Candidates should ensure they
use modals and conditionals when asked to speculate.
Speaking assessment E
© 2024
Part 1 – Interview: Puzzles and games
Most candidates were able to offer relevant responses to the questions in this part of the test. Strong
candidates gave extended answers that included a range of tenses, modal verbs, comparatives and
superlatives, and sophisticated topic-specific vocabulary (‘I used to love playing Connect 4 with my older
brother when I was younger and sometimes, he would let me win.’). Weaker responses were often limited to
only one or two short sentences for each question, often using vocabulary included in the question.
Part 2 – Short talk: The natural environment
Most candidates chose going for a nature walk around their local area, although very strong candidates
thought that a combination of both options would be their preference. Strong responses included a range of
sentence structures, tenses, cohesive devices and topic-specific language.
Stronger candidates developed all four points in detail, discussing different types of environmental problems
and the role of nature in people’s lives. Weaker candidats gave brief, relevant answers which used mainly
appropriate vocabulary and simple structures.
Part 1 – Interview: Knowledge
Strong responses to all three questions were relevant and well developed with good use of a range of
sentence structures and tenses. Weaker candidates used simple structures and occasionally attempted
complex structures.
Part 2 – Short talk: Going places
Although some strong candidates talked about their intertest in both holiday options, most candidates chose
relaxing by the sea. Most strong responses included linking devices to develop ideas (‘If it’s warm and sunny,
then relaxing by the sea would be great and if it’s colder, then a hike in the mountains.’). Weaker responses
were shorter and included a limited range of structures and vocabulary, often focusing on one of the options.
Strong candidates were able to give extended answers to all four questions, often using precise vocabulary.
Weaker candidates were able to express their opinions, but they were less successful at providing clear
explanations of their views. Their responses were relevant but limited in terms of the range of structures and
vocabulary.
Part 1 – Interview: Feeling happy
Strong candidates used a wide range of vocabulary including linking words to provide structure and took
advantage of Question 2 to demonstrate the use of narrative tenses (‘It was my birthday party last year. My
parents bought me the present that I really wanted but didn’t think that I would get.’). Weaker responses
were shorter and tended to use only present tenses for the second question.
Part 2 – Short talk: Project work
Most candidates talked about working online with other students as their chosen option, though some could
see the enjoyment in both. Stronger candidates used linking devices and expanded upon their answers.
Weaker responses used simple vocabulary and were less developed.
Strong responses included a wide range of vocabulary and structures to discuss a variety of ideas, facts and
opinions (‘We did our lessons online during the pandemic. I didn’t really enjoy this because at home there
were too many distractions, and I couldn’t concentrate for very long.’). Weaker responses included mainly
© 2024
relevant ideas but lacked development. Pronunciation was clear in most responses, with stronger candidates
using intonation to convey meaning.
Part 1 – Interview: Art
Strong responses to all three questions were relevant and well developed, whereas weaker responses were
often limited to only one or two short sentences for each question. Stronger answers were clear and easy to
understand, and intonation was used to good effect.
Part 2 – Short talk: Earning money
The most popular choice was getting a part-time job in a local restaurant. Stronger candidates explained
their ideas and used linking expressions (‘Babysitting for a neighbour – well, that’s convenient but it’s a lot of
responsibility.).’ Weaker responses tended to focus on one option and say very little about the second
option.
The questions elicited precise vocabulary and a range of simple and complex structures, such as
conditionals and comparatives (‘I don’t think that you would feel very satisfied if I had to work long hours
and’). Weaker candidates’ responses were generally relevant but often limited in scope, although with
appropriate vocabulary.
Part 1 – Interview: Your school day
Strong responses to Question 2 included past tenses and topic-specific language (‘I really enjoyed my
science lesson last week. We did an experiment and worked together as a group.’). Weaker responses were
limited to simple vocabulary and simple structures with some errors in subject/verb agreement and the use of
appropriate tenses.
Part 2 – Short talk: Community centres
Most candidates said they would like to see a sports hall in the new community centre. Weaker candidates
were able to explain its benefits for young residents but did not explore the other option. Stronger candidates
used comparatives and discourse markers when comparing the options.
Strong candidates used precise vocabulary to discuss their opinions. Weaker responses were relevant but
often lacked detail and development. A wide range of simple and complex structures was used in strong
responses (‘It’s very important for young people to have somewhere to meet that is not at home or at
school.’).
Part 1 – Interview: Celebrations
Strong responses were relevant and well developed using a wide range of vocabulary and sentence
structures. Weaker candidates used present tense to respond to Question 2 but were usually able to
demonstrate the use of appropriate vocabulary when addressing questions.
Part 2 – Short talk: Part-time jobs
The most popular choice was working on a local farm. Stronger candidates developed their responses with
topic-related lexis to describe and explain their preferences. They also showed greater control of
comparative structures. Weaker responses tended to focus on one of the options and used simple
vocabulary. Pronunciation in weaker responses was not always clear, and intonation was rarely used to
convey intended meaning.
© 2024
Most candidates were able to give relevant responses to the questions in this part of the test, using clear
pronunciation. Stronger responses used a wide variety of topic-specific vocabulary.They included a range of
clauses of comparison and contrast to explore ideas around holidays and part-time jobs for teenagers.
© 2024

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Cambridge International General Certificate of Secondary Education

0510 English as a Second Language (Speaking Endorsement) June 2024

ENGLISH AS A SECOND LANGUAGE

Confident attempts were made on all exercises.

Comments on specific questions

This exercise was generally well attempted by the majority of candidates.

ENGLISH AS A SECOND LANGUAGE

Confident attempts were made on all exercises.

Comments on specific questions

Generally, candidates dealt well with this question.

ENGLISH AS A SECOND LANGUAGE

Confident attempts were made on all exercises.

Comments on specific questions

ENGLISH AS A SECOND LANGUAGE

Question Question Question Question

Comments on specific questions

ENGLISH AS A SECOND LANGUAGE

Question Question Question Question

Comments on specific questions

ENGLISH AS A SECOND LANGUAGE

Question Question Question Question

Comments on specific questions

ENGLISH AS A SECOND LANGUAGE

Part 2 – Short talk

The script and preparation timing were mostly adhered to.

Application of the marking criteria

Comments on specific speaking assessments

Part 1 – Interview: Cooking

Part 2 – Short talk: Inventions

Part 1 – Interview: Staying healthy

Part 2 – Short Talk: School newspaper

Part 1 – Interview: Being helpful

Part 2 – Short talk: A holiday abroad

Part 1 – Interview: Your local area

Part 2 – Short talk: A sports event

Part 1 – Interview: Jobs

Part 2 – Short talk: Listening to music

Part 1 – Interview: Art

Part 2 – Short talk: Giving a presentation

Part 1 – Interview: Clothes

Part 2 – Short talk: Being environmentally friendly

Part 1 – Interview: Animals

Part 2 – Short talk: Ways of learning

Part 1 – Interview: Popular music

Part 2 – Short talk: Lifestyle

Part 1 – Interview: Free-time activities

Part 2 – Short talk: Studying a story

ENGLISH AS A SECOND LANGUAGE

Part 2 – Short talk

Application of the marking criteria

Comments on specific speaking assessments

Part 1 – Interview: Sports

Part 2 – Short talk: International visitors

Part 1 – Interview: Having fun

Part 2 – Short talk: Environmental problems

Part 1 – Interview: Nature

Part 2 – Short talk: Good news

Part 1 – Interview: Mobile phones

Part 2 – Short talk: Study options

Part 1 – Interview: Languages