THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R.

MEDICAL UNIVERSITY
[MBBS 0322] MARCH 2022 Sub. Code :6061
M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020 Batch onwards)
SECOND YEAR
PAPER I – PHARMACOLOGY – I
Q.P. Code: 526061
Time: 30 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks
Answer All Questions
Choose one correct answer in the box provided in the Answer Script.
No overwriting should be done.

III. Multiple Choice Questions: (20 x 1 = 20)

1. Essential drugs are
a. Life saving drugs
b. Drugs that meet the priority health care needs of the population
c. Drugs that are used in medical emergencies
d. Drugs that are listed in the pharmacopoeia of a country

2. The loading dose of the drug is governed by its

a. Renal clearance b. Plasma half life
c. Volume of distribution d. Elimination rate constant

3.Pseudocholinesterase differ from true cholinesterase in that

a. It hydrolyses acetylcholine at slower rate
b. It is more susceptible to inhibition by physostigmine
c. It doesn't hydrolyse acetylcholine
d. It is the only form of circulating cholinesterase

4.Bromhexine acts by
a. Inhibiting cough centre
b. Depolymerizing mucopolysaccharides present in sputum
c. Irritating gastric mucosa and reflexly increasing bronchial secretion
d. Desensitizing stretch receptors in lung

5. The following general anesthetic has poor muscle relaxation

a. Ether b. Halothane c. Nitrous oxide d. Sevoflurane

6. The antiepileptic drug that is effective in manic depressive illness also is

a. Phenobarbitone b. Ethosuximide c. Phenytoin d. Carbamazepine

7.The major limitation to the use of clozapine for treatment of schizophrenia is

a. Its inability to benefit negative symptoms of schizophrenia
b. Its potential to cause agranulocytosis
c. It produces hyperprolactinemia
d. High incidence of extra pyramidal symptoms

8. Select the most suitable antiarrhythmic drug for ventricular arrhythmia due to digoxin
toxicity
a. Lidocaine b. Propranolol c. Verapamil d. Quinidine
9. Glyceryl nitrate is administered by following routes except
a. Intravenous b. Intramuscular c. Oral d. Sublingual

10. Reversible loss of taste sensation can be a side effect of the following anti
hypertensive drug
a. Prazosin b. Verapamil c. Propranolol d. Captopril

11. The following drug is a poor inhibitor of prostaglandin synthesis in peripheral tissues
but more active in brain
a. Mefenamicacid b. Ketorolac c. Paracetamol d. Nimesulide

12. Prolonged lithium therapy can cause

a. Parkinsonism b. Goiter c. Diabetes mellitus d. Gout

13.Which of the following drug is a potassium channel opener?

a. Nicorandil b. Hydralazine c. Amiloride d. Glibenclamide

14. Indication of desmopressin include the following except

a. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus b. Neurogenic diabetes insipidus
c. Bleeding due to hemophilia d. Bedwetting in children

15. The following is not a valid indication for parenteral iron therapy
a. Inadequate response to oral iron due to patient non compliance
b. Anemia during pregnancy
c. Anemia in a patient with active rheumatoid arthritis
d. Severe anemia associated with chronic bleeding

16. The primary mechanism by which heparin inhibits coagulation of blood is

a. Inhibition of factor XII a and XIII a
b. Activation of antithrombin III with inhibition of factors IX and XI
c. Inhibition of factor Xa and thrombin mediated conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
d. Direct inhibition of prothrombin to thrombin conversion

17. Select the fibrinolytic drug that is antigenic

a. Streptokinase b. Urokinase c. Alteplase d. All

18.Which of the following hypolipidemic drug is most effective in increasing HDL

cholesterol level and lowering serum triglyceride?
a. Cholestyramine b. Fenofibrate c. Pravastatin d. Nicotinic acid

19. Tranexemic acid is used in following condition

a. Organophosphorus compound poisoning b. Barbiturate poisoning
c. Excessive bleeding due to fibrinolytic drugs d. Bleeding due to heparin overdose

20. The following drug is neither analgesic nor anti-inflammatory and do not have
uricosuric effect, but highly efficacious in acute gout
a. Naproxen b. Colchicine c. Prednisolone d. Sulfinpyrazone

*****
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[MBBS 0822] AUGUST 2022 Sub. Code :6061

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)

SECOND YEAR – SUPPLEMENTARY (CBME)

PAPER I – PHARMACOLOGY – I

Q.P. Code: 526061

Time: 30 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks
Answer All Questions

Choose one correct answer in the box provided in the Answer Script.
No overwriting should be done.

III. Multiple Choice Questions: (20 x 1 = 20)

1. Which of the following is not a Cytochrome P450 enzyme inducer

a. Phenytoin b. Phenobarbitone c. Erythromycin d. Cigarette smoke

2. Drugs with high Plasma Protein Binding have

a. Short duration of action b. Less drug interactions
c. Lower Volume of distribution d. all the above

3. Which is a prodrug?
a. Ampicillin b. Captopril c. Levodopa d. Phenytoin

4. Anti-hypertensive drug causing erectile dysfunction

a. Calicum channel blocker b. ACE inhibitor
c. AT1 receptor antagonists d. β-blockers

5. Pilocarpine induces
a. Active miosis b. Passive miosis c. Active mydriasis d. Passive mydriasis

6. Propanolol can be used in all except

a. Thyrotoxicois b. Variant angina c. Migraine d. HT

7. Fenoldopam is used in the management of

a. Hypertensive emergencies b. Congestive heart failure
c. Migraine prophylaxis d. Tachyarrhythmia

8. Mechanism of action of digitalis is

a. Inhibits Na+K+ ATPase pump b. Inhibits Na+H+ ATPase pump
c. Activates Na+Cl- pump d. Inhibits carbonic anhydrase

9. Bilateral renal artery stenosis is a contraindication for which Antihypertensive

drug?
a. Beta-blockers b. Calcium channel blockers
c. ACE inhibitors d. Diuretics
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 … 2 …
10. All of the following are CNS stimulants except
a. Amphetamines b. Benzodiazepines
c. Cocaine d. Methylphenidate

11. Which of the following drug is used as Transcranial patch for Parkinsons disease?
a. Rotigotine b. Levodopa c. Selegiline d. carbidopa

12. The side effect of Phenytoin when its plasma concentration is above therapeutic
level is
a. Gum hypertrophy b. Hirsuitism C. Osteomalacia d. Ataxia

13. Which statement is true about Carbamazepine?

a. Used in Trigeminal neuralgia
b. Carbamazepine is an enzyme inhibitor
c. Can cause megaloblastic anaemia
d. Drug of choice for Status epilepticus

14. Which one of the following drugs is contraindicated in acute myocardial

infarction.
a. Morphine b. Pentazocine c. Nitroglycerin d. Beta Blockers

15. Anti-craving agents for alcohol dependence are all except

a. Lorazepam b. Acamprosat c. Topiramate d. Naltrexone

16. What is the drug of choice for obsessive compulsive disorder?

a. Imipramine b. Fluoxetine c. Benzodiazepines d. Alprazolam

17. Leukotriene receptor antagonist used for bronchial asthma is

a. Zileuton b. Cromolyn sodium c. Zafirlukast d. Aminophylline

18. Preconceptional intake of which reduces the incidence of neural tube defects?
a. Folic acid b. Vitamin A c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin E

19. Filgrastim is used for treatment of

a. Neutropenia b. Anaemia c. Polycythaemia d. Neutrophilia

20. Absolute contraindication to thrombolytic therapy is

a. Pregnancy b. History of haemorrhagic stroke in past one year
c. Patient on nitrates d. hypertension.
*****
[MBBS 0822]
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY
[MBBS 0223] FEBRUARY 2023 Sub. Code :6061
M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)
SECOND YEAR – (CBME)
PAPER I – PHARMACOLOGY – I
Q.P. Code: 526061
Time: 30 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks
Answer All Questions

Choose one correct answer in the box provided in the Answer Script.
No overwriting should be done. Choice should be given in Capital Letters.

III. Multiple Choice Questions: (20 x 1 = 20)

1. A patient with iron deficiency anaemia is put on iron therapy. What should be the rate of rise
of Hb level so that response is considered adequate?
A) 0.05 to 0.1g/dl per week B) 0.1 to 0.2 g/ dl per week
C) more than 1g/ dl per week D) 0.5 to 1g / dl per week

2. A patient with coronary artery disease has raised triglyceride levels but normal cholesterol
level. Which hypolipidemic drug should be prescribed?
A) Lovastatin B) Gemfibrozil C) Cholestyramine D) Nicotinic acid

3. Marked redistribution is a feature of

A) Highly lipid soluble drugs B) Poorly lipid soluble drugs
C) Depot preparation D) High plasma protein bound drugs

4. The CYP450 isoenzyme involved in metabolism of largest number of drugs in human

beings has been implicated in some dangerous drug interactions
A) CYP1A2 B) CYP2E1 C) CYP2C9 D) CYP3A4

5. The receptor that is located intracellularly

A) Opioid mu receptor B) Steroid receptor
C) Angiotensin receptor D) Prostaglandin receptor

6. The calcium channel blocker used for prophylaxis of migraine but not angina pectoris
A) Verapamil B) Amlodipine C) Flunarizine D) Diltiazem

7. Which of the following is nonsedative anxiolytic?

A) Alprazolam B) Hydroxyzine C) Chlorpromazine D) Buspirone

8. The drug that release histamine from mast cell without involving in immunological
reaction is
A) pirin B) Morphine C) Procaine D) Erythromycin

9. The following is a selective 5HT 1B/1D Receptor agonist

A) Ondansetron B) Sumatriptan C) Cyproheptadine D) Risperidone
… 2 …
 … 2 …

10. Low dose aspirin prolong bleeding time by selectively inhibiting following mediator
in platelets
A) Thromboxane A2 B) Prostacyclin C) Histamine D) 5HT

11. The dose limiting adverse effect of colchicine is

A) Renal damage B) Muscular paralysis C) Sedation D) Diarrhoea

12. Higher dose of theophylline is used to maintain therapeutic plasma concentration in

A) Those receiving cimetidine B) Those receiving erythromycin
C) Smokers D) Chronic renal failure patients

13. Postoperative muscle soreness and myalgia may be side effects of following
neuromuscular blockers
A) Vecuronium B) Atracurium C) Succinylcholine D) Tubocurarine

14. Which one of the following is an example for Physiological Antagonism

A) Acetylcholine and Atropine B) Adrenaline and Histamine
C) Heparin and Protamine sulphate D) Acetylcholine and physostigmine

15. Ventricular remodeling after myocardial infarction involves mediation of

A) Angiotensin ll B) Prostaglandin C) Thromboxane A2 D) Bradykinin

16. The diuretic preferred for mobilising edema fluid in congestive cardiac failure is
A) Hydrochlorothiazide B) Amiloride C) Metalazone D) Furosemide

17. The following antiarrhythmic drug has prominent anticholinergic action

A) Lignocaine B) Disopyramide C) Amiodarone D) Quinidine

18. Select the drug which is potassium channel opener as well as nitric oxide donor
A) Diazoxide B) Minoxidil C) Nicorandil D) Sodium nitroprusside

19. Inhaled salbutamol is useful in bronchial asthma for

A) Round the clock prophylaxis of asthma B) Status asthmatics
C) Aborting / terminating asthma attacks D) All of the above

20. The following antihypertensive drug is topically used to treat alopecia areata
A) Minoxidil B) Hydralazine C) Clonidine D) Nifedipine.

*********
[MBBS 0223]
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[MBBS 0723] JULY 2023 Sub. Code :6061

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020

SECOND YEAR – (CBME)

PAPER I – PHARMACOLOGY – I
Q.P. Code: 526061
Time: 30 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks
Answer All Questions
Choose one correct answer in the box provided in the Answer Script.
No overwriting should be done. Choice should be given in Capital Letters.
III. Multiple Choice Questions: (20 x 1 = 20)
1. Choose a drug that has long plasma half life
A) Dopamine B) Alteplase C) Chloroquine D) Esmolol

2. Therapeutic drug monitoring is required for

A) Drugs with Low safety margin B) Hit and run drugs
C) Drugs whose response is measurable D) Drugs that develop tolerance

3. Selective Beta2 stimulant used as uterine relaxant is

A) Ephedrine B) Brimonidine C) Clonidine D) Isoxsuprine

4. Most preferred drug in Chronic congestive cardiac failure is

A) Dopamine B) Enalapril C) Prazosin D) Nifedepine

5. First line drug in open angle glaucoma is

A) Latanoprost B) Pilocarpine C) Acetazolamide D) Dipivefrine

6. One of the following is a contraindication to Beta blockers

A) Cirrhosis B) Alcohol withdrawal
C) Heart block D) Esophageal varices

7. Atropine substitute preferred in Bronchial asthma is

A) Glycopyrrolate B) Ipratropium C) Tropicamide D) Benztropine

8. Coronary steal phenomenon is seen with

A) Dipyridamole B) Diltiazem C) Propranolol D) Verapamil

9. Sumatriptan is an agonist at which serotonergic receptor

A) 5-HT1A B) 5-HT1D C) 5-HT2A D) 5HT2C

10. Uricosuric drug used to treat chronic gout among the following is
A) Allopurinol B) Cochicine C) Febuxostat D) Probenecid
... 2 …
 … 2 …

11. More cardiotoxic local anaesthetics is

A) Bupivacaine B) Lignocaine C) Prilocaine D) Procaine
12. Flumazenil is the antagonist of
A) Phenobarbitone B) Diazepam C) Morphine D) Phenytoin

13. The orally active H1 Histamine analogue used in vertigo is

A) Betahistine B) Diphenhydramine
C) Clemastine D) Rupatadine

14. The preferred general anaesthetic in children is

A) Thiopentone sodium B) Isoflurane C) Sevoflurane D) Propofol

15. Typical anti-psychotic less prone for extra pyramidal side effect
A) Chlorpromazine B) Thioridazine C) Fluphenazine D) Trifluoperazine

16. Digoxin acts by inhibiting

A) H+ K+ ATPase B) Na+ K+ 2Cl- co-transport
C) Na+ Cl- symport D) Na+ K+ ATPase

17. Dabigatran is
A) Direct factor Xa inhibitor B) Thromboxane synthesis inhibitor
C) Direct thrombin inhibitor D) Phosphodiesterase inhibitor

18. Contraindication for use of ACE inhibitor

A) Bilateral renal artery stenosis B) Diabetic nephropathy
C) Left ventricular hypertrophy D) Congestive cardiac failure

19. Drug of choice in lithium induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

A) Furosemide B) Acetazolamide C) Amiloride D) Mannitol

20. Drug of choice in malignant hyperthermia

A) Baclofen B) Dantrolene C) Tizanidine D) Chlorzoxazone.

*********
[MBBS 0723]
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY
[MBBS 0224] FEBRUARY 2024 Sub. Code :6061
M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)

SECOND PROFESSIONAL YEAR – (CBME)

PAPER I – PHARMACOLOGY
Q.P. Code: 526061
Time: 30 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks
Answer All Questions
Choose one correct answer in the box provided in the Answer Script.
No overwriting should be done. Choice should be given in Capital Letters.

III. Multiple Choice Questions: (20 x 1 = 20)

1. Essential drugs are

A) Life saving drugs
B) Drugs that meet the priority health care needs of the population
C) Drugs that must be present in the emergency bag of a doctor
D) Drugs that are listed in the pharmacopoeias of a country
2. The elderly patients are relatively intolerant to:
A) Digoxin B) Salbutamol C) Propranolol D) Nifedipine

3. 3 Years old child undergoing eye surgery had initial heart rate of 140 beats/min. After
anaesthesia and short surgery, heart rate dropped to 40 beats/min. Whats should be the
next step?
A) Stop surgery B) Decrease plane of anaesthesia
C) Inj. Glycopyrrolate D) Inj. Atropine

4. Preferred Skeletal muscle relaxants for patients with Liver/Kidney disease & elderly?
A) d-TC B) Pancuronium C) Cisatracurium D) Pipecuronium

5. Which of the following routes allows titration of dose of a drug with its response of
administration?
A) Intravenous B) Transdermal C) Intramuscular D) Subcutaneous

6. The drug of choice for hyperkinetic children is:

A) Methylphenidate B) Nikethamide C) Caffeine D) Clonazepam

7. Preferred drug for medical closure of Patent Ductus Arteriosus?

A) Aspirin B) Nefopam C) Ibuprofen D) Indomethacin

8. Which direct thrombin inhibitor produces hepatotoxicity?

A) Hirudin B) Lepirudin C) Argatroban D) Ximelagatran

9. Recombinant human erythropoietin is indicated for

A) Megaloblastic anaemia
B) Haemolytic anaemia
C) Anaemia in patients of thalassemia
D) Anaemia in chronic renal failure patients

... 2 ...
 ... 2 ...

10. Sargramostim is a growth factor of?

A) Megakaryocyte growth factor B) GM - CSF
C) G - CSF D) Erythropoietin
11. Which of the drug is used by intravenous infusion for emergency control of
tachycardia and sudden rise in blood pressure?
A) Amiodarone B) Lignocaine C) Esmolol D) Disopyramide

12. Which of the following peptides is a selective vasopressin V2 receptor agonist?

A) Arginine vasopressin B) Desmopressin
C) Lypressin D) Terlipressin

13. Absorption of oral iron preparations can be facilitated by co-administering

A) Antacids B) Tetracyclines C) Phosphates D) Ascorbic acid

14. In cancer/ palliative care patients on opioid analgesics- c/o constipation; suggest
a drug used to relieve constipation without reducing analgesic effect
A) Pentazocine B) Nalbuphine
C) Methyl naltrexone D) Buprenorphine

15. 1st choice of drug used in treatment of chronic gout?

A) Colchicine B) Allopurinol C) Probenecid D) Pegloticase

16. 1st line of drug for Migraine patient those who doesn’t respond to analgesics
A) TCA B) Ca+ channel blockers
C) Selective 5HT Agonists/ Ergot D) β - blockers

17. Loperamide acts by?

A) Δ opioid agonist action B) κ opioid agonist action
C) µ opioid agonist action D) None

18. In cardiac cells, procainamide

A) Decreased automaticity B) Increases refractory period
C) Slows down conduction D) All of the above
19. The rabbit syndrome is treated by :
A) Lorazepam B) Lithium
C) Levodopa D) Trihexyphenidyl

20. Identify correct anti-inflammatory dose of Aspirin

A) 75-162 mg/d B) 3-6 gm/d
C) 0.3-0.6 gm/d D) 30-60 mg/d

*********
[MBBS 0224]
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY
[MBBS 0524] MAY 2024 Sub. Code :6061
M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATIONS
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)

SECOND PROFESSIONAL – SUPPLEMENTARY (CBME)

PAPER I – PHARMACOLOGY
Q.P. Code: 526061
Time: 20 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks
Answer All Questions
Choose one correct answer in the box provided in the Answer Script.
No overwriting should be done. Choice should be given in Capital Letters.

III. Multiple Choice Questions: (20 x 1 = 20)

1. Which one is not a G-Protein coupled Receptor transduction pathway
A) Ligand gated ion channels B) Adenyl cyclase pathway
C) Phospholipase pathway D) Channel regulation

2. Genetically determined disease is

A) Side effect B) Toxic effect C) Idiosyncrasy D) Secondary effect

3. ALPHA-2 Selective antagonist is

A) Terazosin B) Chlorpromazine C) Dihydroergotamine D) Yohimbine

4. The therapeutic agent that increase the uveoscleral outflow

A) Pilocarpine B) Acetazolamide C) Latanoprost D) Timolol

5. The muscarnic (M-3) receptor antagonist is

A) Pirenzepine B) Solifenacin C) Methacholine D) Glycopyrrolate

6. The L -Type of Calcium Channel blocker is

A) Flunarizine B) Ethosuxamide C) Mibefradil D) Verapamil

7. The following drug is not a Phosphodiesterase-3 inhibitor is

A) Amrinone B) Ivabradine C) Levosimendan D) Milrinone

8. Which one of the following is not a adverse effect of Endothelin Receptor Antagonist
A) Anemia B) Increased amino transferase level
C) Teratogenicity D) Neuropathy

9. Adrenergic Neuron blocker is

A) Guanethidine B) Hydralazine C) Methyl dopa D) Clonidine

10. The drug which is not highly bound to ALPHA-1acid glycoprotein is

A) Lidocaine B) Quinidine C) Verapamil D) Warfarin

11. Choose the drug used to maintain the patency of ductus arteriosus
A) Dinoprostone B) Carboprost C) Alprostadil D) Misoprostol

… 2 …
 … 2 …

12. Paracetamol toxicity occurs due to the following Metabolite:

A) Hepatic glutathione B) N-Acetyl P-Benzoquinone imine
C) Nortriptyline D) N acetyl Procainamide

13. The local anaesthetic agent used for oesophagus, stomach site is
A) Tetracaine B) Lidocaine C) Cocaine D) Oxethazine

14. Selective serotonin receptor antagonist is

A) Doxepin B) Nortriptyline C) Sertraline D) Reboxetine

15. Opioid Receptor antagonist used in the treatment of postoperative ileus is

A) Nalmefene B) Nalbuphine C) Naloxone D) Methylnaltrexone

16. The cognition enhancer which has cholinergic activator property is

A) Citicoline B) Donepezil C) Piribedil D) Memantine

17. Dissociative anesthesia is caused by

A) Ketamine B) Diazepam C) Thio pentone D) Fentanyl

18. Vasopressin antagonists is

A) Chlopropamide B) Tolvaptan C) Indomethacin D) Terlipressin

19. Nonopioid Antitussives is

A) Noscapine B) Ethylmorphine C) Ambroxol D) Pholcodeine

20. In zero order kinetics

A) Clearance remain constant
B) Constant fraction of the drug is eliminated
C) Clearance decreases with increase in concentration
D) Apply to the drugs which do not saturate the elimination

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[MBBS 0524]