MCQS

Unit I: Introduction to Database Systems

1. What is the primary purpose of a database?

o A) Data redundancy

o B) To store and manage large amounts of data

o C) To create network security

o D) To generate complex algorithms

Answer: B
Explanation: The purpose of a database is to store, manage, and retrieve large
amounts of data efficiently.

2. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the database approach?

o A) Data abstraction

o B) Data isolation

o C) Data redundancy

o D) Data independence
Answer: C
Explanation: In a database system, data redundancy is minimized, while data
abstraction and independence are key features.

3. Which of the following is an advantage of using a DBMS?

o A) Data Redundancy

o B) Data Isolation

o C) Controlled Redundancy

o D) Increased Complexity
Answer: C
Explanation: DBMS systems reduce data redundancy and isolation, ensuring
controlled data redundancy.

4. Who is responsible for the overall design of a database?

o A) End Users

o B) System Analyst

o C) Database Designer
 o D) Operator
Answer: C
Explanation: The Database Designer defines the database structure and is
responsible for the database's logical design.

5. Which of the following is a type of end user in a database system?

o A) Database Administrator

o B) Application Programmer

o C) Casual User

o D) System Analyst
Answer: C
Explanation: Casual users interact with the database occasionally and usually
through predefined interfaces.

6. The personnel who maintain the DBMS software and provide technical support are known
as:

o A) Tool developers

o B) System designers

o C) Database Administrators

o D) Maintenance personnel
Answer: D
Explanation: Maintenance personnel are responsible for the day-to-day functioning
of the system.

7. Which of the following is not a DBMS actor on the scene?

o A) Database Designer

o B) System Analyst

o C) Application Programmer

o D) DBMS Tool Developer

Answer: D
Explanation: DBMS Tool Developers are workers behind the scene, not directly
interacting with the database.

8. Which role is responsible for managing user access to the database?

o A) End User

o B) Database Administrator (DBA)

o C) System Analyst

o D) Tool Developer
Answer: B
 Explanation: The DBA is responsible for access control, ensuring that only authorized
users can access data.

9. Database systems can be classified based on their:

o A) Size of the database

o B) Number of tables

o C) Number of users

o D) Query complexity
Answer: C
Explanation: Databases are classified based on the number of users (e.g., single-user
or multi-user databases).

10. Which of the following is an example of a worker behind the scenes in a DBMS
environment?

o A) Application Programmer

o B) System Analyst

o C) DBMS Implementer

o D) Database Designer
Answer: C
Explanation: DBMS implementers are responsible for building and maintaining the
database software itself.

Unit II: Database System Concepts and Architecture

1. A data model defines:

o A) The structure of the database

o B) The applications interacting with the database

o C) The physical storage location

o D) The operating system used

Answer: A
Explanation: A data model provides the structure for organizing and storing data in a
database.

2. What term is used to describe the complete description of a database?

o A) Schema

o B) Instance

o C) Data model
 o D) DBMS
Answer: A
Explanation: A schema is the blueprint or description of the database structure.

3. Which of the following refers to a snapshot of the data in a database at a specific point in
time?

o A) Schema

o B) Instance

o C) Data model

o D) State
Answer: B
Explanation: An instance refers to the actual data at any given moment, while the
schema defines its structure.

4. What is the highest level of abstraction in the database architecture?

o A) Physical Level

o B) Conceptual Level

o C) External Level

o D) Internal Level
Answer: C
Explanation: The external level is the highest level of abstraction, dealing with how
users view the data.

5. Which level of the database architecture provides data independence?

o A) Conceptual

o B) External

o C) Internal

o D) Both A and C
Answer: D
Explanation: Both the conceptual and internal levels help provide data
independence.

6. Logical data independence is the ability to:

o A) Change the schema at the conceptual level without affecting the external views

o B) Change the schema at the internal level without affecting the conceptual schema

o C) Change the schema at the external level without affecting the internal schema

o D) Change the schema at the external level without affecting the DBMS
Answer: A
Explanation: Logical data independence allows changes to the conceptual schema
without altering external schemas.
 7. The DBMS language used to define the database structure is:

o A) DDL

o B) DML

o C) DCL

o D) TCL
Answer: A
Explanation: Data Definition Language (DDL) is used to define the structure of the
database schema.

8. Which of the following is NOT a type of DBMS interface?

o A) Menu-based interfaces

o B) Query languages

o C) Network interfaces

o D) Form-based interfaces
Answer: C
Explanation: Network interfaces are not considered a type of DBMS interface.

9. Physical data independence allows for changes to the:

o A) Physical storage of the data without affecting the conceptual schema

o B) Conceptual schema without affecting the external views

o C) External schema without affecting the physical storage

o D) Internal schema without affecting the DBMS

Answer: A
Explanation: Physical data independence allows changes to how data is stored
physically without altering the conceptual model.

10. A DBMS that supports several data models is classified as:

o A) Hierarchical DBMS

o B) Network DBMS

o C) Multi-model DBMS

o D) Object-oriented DBMS
Answer: C
Explanation: Multi-model DBMS supports multiple types of data models like
hierarchical, network, and relational.

Unit III: Data Modelling using ER Model and Relational Model

1. Which of the following is NOT a traditional data model?

o A) Hierarchical model
 o B) Network model

o C) Object-oriented model

o D) Semantic model
Answer: D
Explanation: The semantic data model is more modern and focuses on the meaning
of data, unlike traditional models.

2. In an ER model, an entity can be described as:

o A) A set of attributes

o B) A unique object that is distinguishable from other objects

o C) A relationship between two objects

o D) A data tuple
Answer: B
Explanation: An entity is a distinguishable object in the ER model, characterized by a
set of attributes.

3. What defines a collection of entities of the same type in an ER model?

o A) Entity Type

o B) Entity Set

o C) Attribute

o D) Key
Answer: B
Explanation: An entity set is a collection of entities of the same type in a database.

4. In a relational database, a tuple refers to:

o A) A column

o B) A row

o C) A data type

o D) A relationship
Answer: B
Explanation: In the relational model, a tuple refers to a single row in a table.

5. What ensures the uniqueness of a tuple in a relational database?

o A) Attribute

o B) Key

o C) Domain

o D) Foreign Key
Answer: B
 Explanation: A key, typically a primary key, ensures the uniqueness of tuples in a
table.

6. Referential integrity in a relational model is maintained by:

o A) Foreign Keys

o B) Domain Constraints

o C) Tuple Constraints

o D) Query Languages
Answer: A
Explanation: Foreign keys maintain referential integrity by ensuring that
relationships between tables remain valid.

7. In relational algebra, which operation is used to select specific columns from a table?

o A) Select

o B) Project

o C) Join

o D) Union
Answer: B
Explanation: The projection operation is used to choose specific columns in a
relational algebra query.

8. What type of calculus uses logical expressions to describe queries in a relational database?

o A) Relational Algebra

o B) Tuple Calculus

o C) Domain Calculus

o D) Predicate Calculus
Answer: B
Explanation: Tuple calculus uses logical formulas to describe queries that specify the
desired tuples.

9. Which constraint ensures that no null values are allowed in a particular column?

o A) Key Constraint

o B) Domain Constraint

o C) Entity Integrity

o D) Referential Integrity
Answer: C
Explanation: Entity integrity ensures that no null values are allowed in columns that
are part of a primary key.

10. Which query language operates on the domain of attributes in relational databases?
 o A) Tuple Calculus

o B) Domain Calculus

o C) Relational Algebra

o D) SQL
Answer: B
Explanation: Domain calculus works on the domain of attributes rather than
individual tuples.

Unit I: Introduction to Database Systems (Continued)

11. Which of the following is a disadvantage of database systems?

o A) Controlled redundancy

o B) Cost of hardware and software

o C) Data sharing

o D) Data consistency
Answer: B
Explanation: Implementing a DBMS can be expensive due to the cost of hardware,
software, and specialized personnel.

12. The process of maintaining the database over time is known as:

o A) Database manipulation

o B) Database maintenance

o C) Database management

o D) Database design
Answer: B
Explanation: Database maintenance involves managing and updating the database
to ensure it functions efficiently over time.

13. Which of the following is a category of DBMS users that write programs to access the
database?

o A) End Users

o B) Application Programmers

o C) Database Administrators

o D) System Analysts
Answer: B
Explanation: Application programmers write programs or use tools to access and
manage data.
14. A DBA is responsible for:

o A) Designing applications

o B) Designing database schemas

o C) Managing and maintaining the database

o D) Maintaining the application’s user interface

Answer: C
Explanation: The DBA manages all aspects of the database, including user
permissions, backups, and performance.

15. The process of ensuring data security and proper access control in a DBMS is handled by
the:

o A) Database Designer

o B) System Analyst

o C) Application Programmer

o D) Database Administrator
Answer: D
Explanation: The Database Administrator ensures data security and controls access
to the database.

16. Who typically defines the logical and physical structure of the database?

o A) System Analyst

o B) Database Designer

o C) Database Administrator

o D) End User
Answer: B
Explanation: The database designer is responsible for creating the logical and
physical structures of the database.

17. Which category of database users frequently accesses the database but does not have
deep technical knowledge?

o A) Casual Users

o B) Application Programmers

o C) Database Administrators

o D) Database Designers
Answer: A
Explanation: Casual users access the database via user-friendly interfaces but do not
interact with the system at a technical level.

18. Which of the following best describes the role of a system analyst in a DBMS environment?

o A) Defining database structures

 o B) Managing database performance

o C) Designing and specifying application requirements

o D) Developing DBMS software

Answer: C
Explanation: A system analyst is responsible for determining application
requirements and how they interact with the database.

19. Workers behind the scenes in a database system include all EXCEPT:

o A) DBMS designers

o B) DBMS implementers

o C) Database administrators

o D) Tool developers
Answer: C
Explanation: Database administrators are considered actors on the scene, while the
others work behind the scenes in developing the DBMS software.

20. Which of the following is not an example of a database system?

o A) A library management system

o B) An email client software

o C) A payroll management system

o D) An airline reservation system

Answer: B
Explanation: An email client software is not typically a database system, while the
others manage and process structured data.

Unit II: Database System Concepts and Architecture (Continued)

11. Which of the following levels of a database is closest to how data is physically stored?

o A) Conceptual Level

o B) External Level

o C) Internal Level

o D) Logical Level
Answer: C
Explanation: The internal level deals with the physical storage of data on the
hardware.

12. The user views of the database are described at which level?

o A) External Level

o B) Internal Level
 o C) Conceptual Level

o D) Logical Level
Answer: A
Explanation: The external level defines how individual users interact with the
database, often through views or user interfaces.

13. What ensures that changes in the internal schema do not affect the external schema?

o A) Physical Data Independence

o B) Logical Data Independence

o C) Conceptual Data Independence

o D) Database Consistency
Answer: A
Explanation: Physical data independence ensures that changes in the internal
schema do not affect the conceptual schema or the external views.

14. Which of the following defines the structure of the database in terms of entities and
relationships?

o A) Data Definition Language (DDL)

o B) Data Manipulation Language (DML)

o C) Data Control Language (DCL)

o D) Query Language
Answer: A
Explanation: DDL is used to define the structure and schema of the database.

15. The classification of DBMS based on data models includes all EXCEPT:

o A) Hierarchical DBMS

o B) Relational DBMS

o C) Network DBMS

o D) Sequential DBMS
Answer: D
Explanation: There is no such thing as a "sequential DBMS." Hierarchical, network,
and relational are valid types of DBMS models.

16. Which DBMS language is used to access and modify data in the database?

o A) DDL

o B) DML

o C) DCL

o D) TCL
Answer: B
 Explanation: Data Manipulation Language (DML) is used to retrieve, insert, delete,
and modify data in a database.

17. The conceptual schema represents:

o A) How data is physically stored

o B) The view of the database from the user's perspective

o C) The logical structure of the entire database

o D) How data is stored and organized

Answer: C
Explanation: The conceptual schema describes the logical structure of the entire
database.

18. The language used to define the security restrictions and access rights to the database is:

o A) DML

o B) DDL

o C) DCL

o D) SQL
Answer: C
Explanation: Data Control Language (DCL) is used to specify access rights and
security restrictions in a database.

19. In a multi-level architecture, the mapping between levels is used to:

o A) Link data between the internal and external schema

o B) Define the database schema

o C) Allow access to unauthorized users

o D) Translate between different user views

Answer: A
Explanation: Mapping links data between the internal, conceptual, and external
levels of the database, ensuring consistency.

20. The ability to change the conceptual schema without affecting external schemas is called:

o A) Physical Data Independence

o B) Logical Data Independence

o C) Schema Mapping

o D) Data Redundancy
Answer: B
Explanation: Logical data independence refers to the ability to modify the
conceptual schema without affecting the external schema.
Unit III: Data Modelling using ER Model and Relational Model (Continued)

11. In the ER model, an attribute that uniquely identifies an entity is called a:

o A) Foreign Key

o B) Candidate Key

o C) Primary Key

o D) Composite Key
Answer: C
Explanation: A primary key is an attribute or a combination of attributes that
uniquely identifies an entity in an entity set.

12. A composite attribute is:

o A) An attribute that can be broken down into smaller parts

o B) A derived attribute

o C) An attribute that cannot be broken down further

o D) An attribute that is used as a foreign key

Answer: A
Explanation: A composite attribute consists of multiple parts, such as an address
(which can be broken down into street, city, state, etc.).

13. A weak entity in an ER model:

o A) Has its own primary key

o B) Depends on a strong entity for its primary key

o C) Is independent of all other entities

o D) Cannot have attributes

Answer: B
Explanation: A weak entity relies on a strong entity and does not have a primary key
of its own.

14. The relationship between two entities in an ER model is called:

o A) Attribute

o B) Tuple

o C) Relationship

o D) Foreign Key
Answer: C
Explanation: A relationship represents how entities are related to each other in an
ER model.

15. In a relational database, each row in a table is called a:

o A) Relation
 o B) Domain

o C) Attribute

o D) Tuple
Answer: D
Explanation: A tuple represents a single row in a relational table.

16. The foreign key in a relational database:

o A) Uniquely identifies tuples in a relation

o B) Represents the relationship between two tables

o C) Ensures data consistency in a single table

o D) Is optional in a relational database

Answer: B
Explanation: A foreign key links two tables together and ensures referential integrity.

17. The domain of an attribute refers to:

o A) The set of values that an attribute can take

o B) The number of tuples in a relation

o C) The relationships between attributes

o D) The foreign key constraints

Answer: A
Explanation: The domain defines the allowable set of values that can be assigned to
an attribute.

18. A primary key must be:

o A) Non-null

o B) Unique

o C) Both A and B

o D) A foreign key
Answer: C
Explanation: A primary key must be unique for each tuple and cannot contain null
values.

19. Relational algebra is:

o A) A procedural query language

o B) A declarative query language

o C) A high-level programming language

o D) A data manipulation language

Answer: A
 Explanation: Relational algebra is a procedural query language that uses operations
to retrieve data from relations.

20. Relational calculus is based on:

o A) Predicate logic

o B) Set theory

o C) Procedural expressions

o D) Relational algebra
Answer: A
Explanation: Relational calculus uses predicate logic to specify queries in a non-
procedural way.

Unit I: Introduction to Database Systems (Additional Questions)

21. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a database?

o A) Data persistence

o B) Data redundancy

o C) Data sharing

o D) Data integrity
Answer: B
Explanation: Data redundancy is minimized in a well-designed database, while
persistence, sharing, and integrity are essential characteristics.

22. The term "data independence" refers to:

o A) The independence of the database from the users

o B) The ability to modify the schema without affecting the application programs

o C) The security of the database

o D) The performance optimization of the database

Answer: B
Explanation: Data independence allows changes to the schema without affecting
applications built on top of the database.

23. Which of the following is considered an actor on the scene in a database environment?

o A) DBMS designers

o B) Database administrators

o C) Maintenance personnel

o D) Tool developers
Answer: B
 Explanation: Database administrators are considered actors on the scene, as they
interact directly with the database system.

24. Which DBMS user interacts with the system to define and manage the database structure?

o A) End User

o B) Database Designer

o C) System Analyst

o D) Application Programmer
Answer: B
Explanation: Database designers are responsible for defining the database structure,
including schemas and relationships.

25. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a database system?

o A) Data consistency

o B) Security of data

o C) Data redundancy

o D) Controlled access
Answer: C
Explanation: A key goal of databases is to reduce data redundancy.

26. Which of the following describes the logical structure of data?

o A) Conceptual schema

o B) Physical schema

o C) External schema

o D) Application schema
Answer: A
Explanation: The conceptual schema defines the logical structure of the entire
database.

27. The DBMS system that manages the interaction between users and the database is:

o A) The operating system

o B) The file management system

o C) The database management system

o D) The network management system

Answer: C
Explanation: The DBMS is responsible for managing all interactions between users
and the database.

28. Who is responsible for translating business requirements into technical database designs?

o A) Database Administrator
 o B) System Analyst

o C) Database Designer

o D) End User
Answer: B
Explanation: The system analyst translates business requirements into technical
database designs and system requirements.

29. What is one of the primary responsibilities of a database administrator?

o A) Writing end-user queries

o B) Ensuring data availability and security

o C) Designing the user interface

o D) Managing customer relations

Answer: B
Explanation: The DBA is responsible for ensuring that data is available, secure, and
well-maintained.

30. Which of the following statements best defines a database?

o A) A collection of related files

o B) A system that allows users to define, create, and maintain data

o C) A physical storage device

o D) A collection of unrelated data

Answer: B
Explanation: A database is a system that allows users to define, create, and maintain
data, ensuring it is organized and accessible.

Unit II: Database System Concepts and Architecture (Additional Questions)

21. Which schema describes how data is physically stored?

o A) External schema

o B) Conceptual schema

o C) Logical schema

o D) Internal schema
Answer: D
Explanation: The internal schema describes the physical storage of data on devices
like disks.

22. The independence of application programs from changes in the internal schema is known
as:

o A) Data consistency
 o B) Logical data independence

o C) Physical data independence

o D) Schema independence
Answer: C
Explanation: Physical data independence means that changes in the internal schema
(physical storage) do not affect the conceptual schema or applications.

23. The layer of the database that provides a user’s view of the data is called:

o A) Internal level

o B) External level

o C) Physical level

o D) Conceptual level
Answer: B
Explanation: The external level defines user-specific views of the data, such as how
users interact with it.

24. The collection of information stored in a database at a particular moment is known as:

o A) Database schema

o B) Database state

o C) Database instance

o D) Database model
Answer: C
Explanation: A database instance refers to the data in the database at a particular
moment, while the schema remains constant.

25. Which of the following ensures that changes in the logical schema do not affect external
views?

o A) Logical data independence

o B) Physical data independence

o C) Conceptual mapping

o D) External mapping
Answer: A
Explanation: Logical data independence allows changes to the logical schema
without affecting the external views.

26. A database language that defines data structures is:

o A) Data Manipulation Language (DML)

o B) Data Definition Language (DDL)

o C) Query Language (QL)

 o D) Data Control Language (DCL)
Answer: B
Explanation: DDL is used to define the structure of the database, including tables,
schemas, and relationships.

27. Which of the following is NOT a function of a DBMS?

o A) Data storage, retrieval, and update

o B) Providing user interfaces for querying the database

o C) Network packet routing

o D) Managing data concurrency

Answer: C
Explanation: Routing network packets is the function of a network system, not a
DBMS.

28. The schema that contains the logical structure of the entire database is:

o A) External schema

o B) Internal schema

o C) Conceptual schema

o D) Physical schema
Answer: C
Explanation: The conceptual schema defines the logical structure of the entire
database.

29. The relational database management system (RDBMS) model is based on:

o A) Trees

o B) Hierarchical structure

o C) Tables

o D) Object-oriented principles
Answer: C
Explanation: The relational model is based on organizing data into tables (relations).

30. Which of the following is true about the external level of a database system?

o A) It defines the physical storage structure of data

o B) It is concerned with how users see the data

o C) It describes the logical structure of the database

o D) It is independent of users
Answer: B
Explanation: The external level defines the user’s view of the database, including
customized views for different users.
Unit III: Data Modelling using ER Model and Relational Model (Additional Questions)

21. In an ER diagram, which of the following represents an entity?

o A) Oval

o B) Diamond

o C) Rectangle

o D) Circle
Answer: C
Explanation: Entities in an ER diagram are represented using rectangles.

22. Which of the following best describes a relationship in the ER model?

o A) A collection of attributes

o B) A link between two or more entities

o C) A property of an entity

o D) A domain of an attribute
Answer: B
Explanation: A relationship connects two or more entities in an ER model, showing
how they interact.

23. A key that uniquely identifies a tuple in a relation is called a:

o A) Foreign Key

o B) Primary Key

o C) Composite Key

o D) Super Key
Answer: B
Explanation: A primary key uniquely identifies each tuple (row) in a relational table.

24. Which of the following is an example of a composite attribute in an ER model?

o A) Name

o B) Address (consisting of street, city, zip code)

o C) Age

o D) Gender
Answer: B
Explanation: Address is a composite attribute, as it can be broken down into multiple
components (street, city, zip code).

25. In the relational model, a relation is:

o A) A table with columns and rows

o B) A tree of entities
 o C) A directed graph

o D) An array of data
Answer: A
Explanation: A relation in the relational model refers to a table consisting of columns
and rows.

26. In an ER model, an attribute that can be calculated from other attributes is known as:

o A) Composite attribute

o B) Derived attribute

o C) Multivalued attribute

o D) Single-valued attribute
Answer: B
Explanation: A derived attribute is one that can be computed from other attributes,
such as age being derived from birth date.

27. Which of the following integrity constraints ensures that foreign keys in a table must refer
to valid primary keys in another table?

o A) Domain Integrity

o B) Referential Integrity

o C) Entity Integrity

o D) Data Integrity
Answer: B
Explanation: Referential integrity ensures that foreign key values must correspond to
valid primary key values in another table.

28. An entity set that does not have sufficient attributes to form a primary key is known as:

o A) Strong entity

o B) Weak entity

o C) Independent entity

o D) Composite entity
Answer: B
Explanation: A weak entity depends on a strong entity and does not have a primary
key of its own.

29. In relational algebra, the operation that combines two relations and removes duplicate
tuples is called:

o A) Union

o B) Intersection

o C) Difference
 o D) Cartesian Product
Answer: A
Explanation: The union operation combines two relations and removes duplicate
tuples from the result.

30. A foreign key is:

o A) A key that exists only in a foreign table

o B) A key that refers to the primary key of another table

o C) A unique identifier for tuples

o D) A constraint on null values

Answer: B
Explanation: A foreign key in one table refers to the primary key of another table to
establish a relationship between the two tables.

31. Which of the following is a unary relationship in an ER model?

o A) A relationship between two entities

o B) A recursive relationship where an entity is related to itself

o C) A relationship involving three entities

o D) A relationship with no entities

Answer: B
Explanation: A unary or recursive relationship involves a single entity being related
to itself.

32. In the relational model, NULL values represent:

o A) A valid value

o B) An unknown or missing value

o C) A zero value

o D) A default value
Answer: B
Explanation: NULL values represent missing or unknown data in a relational
database.

33. The SELECT operation in relational algebra is used to:

o A) Choose specific attributes from a relation

o B) Retrieve specific tuples from a relation

o C) Combine two relations

o D) Remove duplicate values from a relation

Answer: B
Explanation: The SELECT operation retrieves specific tuples (rows) that satisfy a
given condition from a relation.
34. The PROJECT operation in relational algebra is used to:

o A) Select tuples from a relation

o B) Select specific attributes (columns) from a relation

o C) Combine two relations

o D) Remove duplicate tuples

Answer: B
Explanation: The PROJECT operation selects specific attributes (columns) from a
relation.

35. Which relational algebra operation corresponds to the SQL “JOIN” operation?

o A) UNION

o B) INTERSECTION

o C) CARTESIAN PRODUCT followed by SELECT

o D) PROJECT followed by SELECT

Answer: C
Explanation: The JOIN operation in SQL is equivalent to a CARTESIAN PRODUCT
followed by a SELECT operation to filter results.

36. Relational calculus is classified into:

o A) Tuple Relational Calculus (TRC) and Domain Relational Calculus (DRC)

o B) Procedural Calculus

o C) Attribute Relational Calculus

o D) Schema Relational Calculus

Answer: A
Explanation: Relational calculus is classified into Tuple Relational Calculus (TRC) and
Domain Relational Calculus (DRC).

37. The command to remove a relation from a database is:

o A) DROP

o B) DELETE

o C) TRUNCATE

o D) REMOVE
Answer: A
Explanation: The DROP command is used to remove a table (relation) from a
database completely.

38. A query language that uses mathematical predicates to specify a query is:

o A) SQL

o B) Relational Algebra
 o C) Relational Calculus

o D) Data Manipulation Language

Answer: C
Explanation: Relational Calculus uses mathematical logic (predicates) to specify
queries in a non-procedural way.

39. Which of the following relational algebra operations is used to combine tuples from two
relations without removing duplicates?

o A) UNION

o B) INTERSECTION

o C) CARTESIAN PRODUCT

o D) JOIN
Answer: C
Explanation: The Cartesian product combines all tuples from two relations without
considering duplicates.

40. Which of the following constraints ensure that no two tuples in a relation have the same
value for a specific set of attributes?

o A) Referential integrity

o B) Key constraint

o C) Entity integrity

o D) Domain constraint
Answer: B
Explanation: A key constraint ensures that no two tuples in a relation have the same
value for the primary key or unique attributes.

41. In the relational model, an entity integrity rule states that:

o A) Each entity must have a unique key

o B) Each primary key attribute cannot be null

o C) Foreign keys must match primary keys

o D) Each tuple in a relation must be unique

Answer: B
Explanation: The entity integrity rule enforces that primary key attributes cannot
have null values.

42. Which of the following represents a relationship where one entity is associated with
multiple entities, but each associated entity can only be related to one entity of the other
type?

o A) One-to-one relationship

o B) One-to-many relationship
 o C) Many-to-many relationship

o D) Self-referencing relationship
Answer: B
Explanation: A one-to-many relationship allows one entity to be associated with
multiple others, while each of those entities is related to only one entity of the first
type.

43. In relational calculus, a query that returns all tuples from a relation that meet certain
conditions is a part of:

o A) Tuple Relational Calculus

o B) Domain Relational Calculus

o C) Both A and B

o D) None of the above

Answer: C
Explanation: Both Tuple Relational Calculus (TRC) and Domain Relational Calculus
(DRC) return tuples based on conditions using non-procedural query techniques.

44. In the relational model, which operation is used to filter rows based on specific conditions?

o A) SELECT

o B) PROJECT

o C) UNION

o D) INTERSECTION
Answer: A
Explanation: The SELECT operation in relational algebra is used to retrieve rows that
satisfy certain conditions.

45. Which of the following is a high-level, declarative query language commonly used in
relational databases?

o A) Relational Algebra

o B) SQL

o C) Tuple Relational Calculus

o D) Domain Relational Calculus

Answer: B
Explanation: SQL (Structured Query Language) is a high-level, declarative language
used to interact with relational databases.

46. Which of the following operations is used in relational algebra to combine rows from two
relations with matching values of a common attribute?

o A) UNION

o B) JOIN
 o C) INTERSECTION

o D) DIFFERENCE
Answer: B
Explanation: The JOIN operation is used to combine rows from two tables based on
matching values of a common attribute.

47. Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of relational calculus?

o A) It is used to perform specific operations on relations

o B) It is used to define how to retrieve data

o C) It is a non-procedural query language used to specify what data to retrieve

o D) It is a low-level query language

Answer: C
Explanation: Relational calculus is a non-procedural query language that specifies
what data should be retrieved without defining how it should be retrieved.

48. In the ER model, the concept of "total participation" means that:

o A) Every entity in the entity set participates in at least one relationship instance

o B) Only some entities participate in the relationship

o C) No entity participates in the relationship

o D) All attributes must be involved in the relationship

Answer: A
Explanation: Total participation means every entity in the entity set must be involved
in at least one relationship instance.

49. A weak entity is:

o A) An entity with a composite key

o B) An entity that does not have a primary key of its own

o C) An entity that does not participate in relationships

o D) An entity with a single attribute

Answer: B
Explanation: A weak entity does not have a primary key of its own and relies on a
foreign key from a related strong entity.

50. The operation that extracts specific columns from a relation is called:

o A) SELECT

o B) PROJECT

o C) JOIN

o D) UNION
Answer: B
 Explanation: The PROJECT operation extracts specific columns (attributes) from a
relation.

51. A referential integrity constraint can be violated if:

o A) A tuple in one table does not have a corresponding tuple in the referenced table

o B) A tuple is deleted from a relation with a foreign key constraint

o C) A tuple is inserted into a relation with a foreign key that has no match in the
referenced relation

o D) All of the above

Answer: D
Explanation: Referential integrity is violated when foreign keys do not match
corresponding primary keys in the referenced relation, or tuples with foreign keys
are deleted.

52. Which of the following relational algebra operations removes duplicate rows from a
relation?

o A) SELECT

o B) PROJECT

o C) UNION

o D) INTERSECTION
Answer: B
Explanation: The PROJECT operation removes duplicate rows from a relation when
projecting specific columns.

53. In the relational model, the set of permitted values for an attribute is called its:

o A) Domain

o B) Range

o C) Scope

o D) Key
Answer: A
Explanation: The domain of an attribute defines the set of permissible values that
the attribute can take.

54. A relational algebra operation that combines all rows from two tables, including rows that
do not have matching values, is called:

o A) Outer Join

o B) Inner Join

o C) Cartesian Product

o D) Natural Join
Answer: A
 Explanation: An outer join combines all rows from both tables, including unmatched
rows, filling missing values with NULL.

55. Which of the following is an example of a derived attribute in an ER diagram?

o A) Date of birth

o B) Age (calculated from date of birth)

o C) Name

o D) Address
Answer: B
Explanation: A derived attribute is calculated from other attributes, such as age
being derived from the date of birth.

56. Which of the following is true about a "strong entity" in an ER model?

o A) It has no primary key

o B) It can exist independently of other entities

o C) It must have a composite key

o D) It is always related to a weak entity

Answer: B
Explanation: A strong entity has a primary key and can exist independently of other
entities.

57. Which of the following types of join returns only the rows that have matching values in
both tables?

o A) Outer Join

o B) Inner Join

o C) Cross Join

o D) Self Join
Answer: B
Explanation: An inner join returns only rows with matching values in both tables.

58. Which of the following relational algebra operations produces the intersection of two
relations?

o A) UNION

o B) INTERSECTION

o C) CARTESIAN PRODUCT

o D) DIFFERENCE
Answer: B
Explanation: The INTERSECTION operation returns rows that are common to both
relations.

59. In an ER diagram, a multivalued attribute is represented by:

 o A) A rectangle

o B) An oval

o C) A double oval

o D) A diamond
Answer: C
Explanation: A multivalued attribute is represented by a double oval in an ER
diagram.

60. Which of the following statements is true about domain constraints in a relational model?

o A) They restrict the range of values that an attribute can take

o B) They ensure entity integrity

o C) They enforce referential integrity

o D) They ensure that each attribute has a unique value

Answer: A
Explanation: Domain constraints restrict the set of values that can be assigned to an
attribute,