UNIT-I

1. What is a Database Management System (DBMS)?

 A) A software system that manages data
 B) A type of hardware used for storage
 C) A tool for managing network resources
 D) A protocol for internet communication
Answer: A
2. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the database approach?
 A) Data abstraction
 B) Data redundancy
 C) Data independence
 D) Data isolation
Answer: B
3. What is the main function of the Database Administrator (DBA)?
 A) Writing application programs
 B) Maintaining database performance, security, and backup
 C) Managing users and passwords
 D) Developing the hardware for database management
Answer: B
4. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using a DBMS?
 A) Data integrity
 B) Data redundancy
 C) High initial cost
 D) Efficient query processing
Answer: C
5. What is the primary goal of data independence in a DBMS?
 A) To store data in different formats
 B) To separate data storage from data usage
 C) To enable faster data retrieval
 D) To allow multiple users to access the same data
Answer: B
6. In a traditional file-oriented system, data redundancy is common because:
 A) Data is stored in different locations multiple times
 B) There are too many tables
 C) It is based on relational algebra
 D) There is no metadata
Answer: A
7. What is an advantage of using a DBMS over traditional file systems?
 A) DBMS is slower than traditional file systems
 B) DBMS allows data to be stored in multiple formats
 C) DBMS provides more security and data integrity
  D) DBMS is less complex than file systems
Answer: C
8. Which of the following is a component of a Database Management System?
 A) File Manager
 B) Query Processor
 C) Compiler
 D) Virtual Memory Manager
Answer: B
9. Which of the following describes a database schema?
 A) A snapshot of the database at a particular moment in time
 B) A collection of related records
 C) The structure and organization of the entire database
 D) The process used to query the database
Answer: C
10. What is the main role of a database user?
 A) Designing the database system
 B) Accessing, updating, and retrieving data from the database
 C) Managing the database architecture
 D) Writing low-level system functions
Answer: B
11. In the DBMS architecture, which layer ensures logical data independence?
 A) Physical layer
 B) External layer
 C) Conceptual layer
 D) Security layer
Answer: C
12. Which type of database user interacts with the database using SQL?
 A) DBA
 B) Application programmer
 C) End user
 D) System analyst
Answer: C
13. What does data redundancy refer to?
 A) Storing duplicate data in multiple locations
 B) Keeping data private
 C) Eliminating unnecessary indexes
 D) Efficient use of memory
Answer: A
14. Which of the following is an example of a disadvantage of the database approach?
 A) Data redundancy
 B) Data sharing
 C) Complex to implement
  D) Data consistency
Answer: C
15. The term data independence refers to:
 A) Changing the structure of the database without affecting application programs
 B) Using different data types within the same table
 C) Storing data in different formats
 D) Implementing network security protocols
Answer: A
16. Which of the following components is responsible for managing the logical schema in a
DBMS?
 A) Query Processor
 B) Data Definition Language (DDL) Compiler
 C) Storage Manager
 D) Transaction Manager
Answer: B
17. What is an instance in a database?
 A) The design of the database
 B) A snapshot of the data in the database at a specific moment
 C) The security layer of the database
 D) The application program interacting with the database
Answer: B
18. What are database languages used for?
 A) Communication between databases
 B) Defining, modifying, and accessing data in the database
 C) Compressing data to save storage
 D) Providing user-level security to data
Answer: B
19. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using a DBMS?
 A) Data security
 B) Reduced application development time
 C) Increased hardware complexity
 D) Efficient query processing
Answer: C
20. What is the purpose of DBMS architecture?
 A) To define how data is stored physically
 B) To provide a framework for database operations and interactions
 C) To perform system backups
 D) To maintain system logs
Answer: B
21. Which type of database user interacts with the database via an application program?
 A) Casual user
 B) Naive user
 C) DBA
  D) Database Designer
Answer: B
22. The conceptual schema in a DBMS is used to:
 A) Describe how data is physically stored
 B) Represent the overall logical structure of the database
 C) Control user access to data
 D) Perform database backups
Answer: B
23. What is a key difference between the traditional file-oriented system and a DBMS?
 A) DBMS supports data redundancy
 B) Traditional file systems offer better security
 C) DBMS centralizes data management, reducing redundancy and inconsistencies
 D) File systems offer more powerful querying features
Answer: C
24. Which of the following is NOT a component of the DBMS?
 A) Application Program
 B) Query Processor
 C) Data Manager
 D) Transaction Manager
Answer: A
25. In the three-level architecture of a DBMS, what does the internal level deal with?
 A) The user's view of the data
 B) The physical storage of data
 C) The conceptual representation of data
 D) The application's interaction with the database
Answer: B
26. Which of the following is a characteristic of the DBMS approach?
 A) Increased data redundancy
 B) Multiple views of the data
 C) Lack of security features
 D) Data dependency on programs
Answer: B
27. Which DBMS component is responsible for query optimization?
 A) Query Processor
 B) DDL Compiler
 C) Transaction Manager
 D) Metadata Manager
Answer: A
28. What does data integrity ensure in a DBMS?
 A) Redundancy in data storage
 B) Backup and recovery of data
 C) Accuracy and consistency of the data
  D) Prevention of hardware failures
Answer: C
29. Which of the following is a major difference between DBMS and traditional file
systems?
 A) DBMS provides more query tools for advanced data access
 B) Traditional file systems offer better security
 C) DBMS requires less memory
 D) Traditional file systems have more structured data
Answer: A
30. Which of the following is the correct definition of database schema?
 A) The actual content of the database at a specific time
 B) A record in the database
 C) The structure that defines the organization of data
 D) A relationship between data elements
Answer: C
31. Which type of user directly interacts with a DBMS using queries?
 A) Naive user
 B) Application developer
 C) Casual user
 D) System administrator
Answer: C
32. Which database component controls access to data?
 A) Application layer
 B) Metadata
 C) DBMS
 D) Query Processor
Answer: C
33. What is logical data independence?
 A) The ability to change the physical schema without affecting the external schema
 B) The ability to change the conceptual schema without affecting application programs
 C) The ability to write queries without affecting the underlying schema
 D) The ability to store data in multiple formats
Answer: B
34. What is physical data independence?
 A) Modifying the conceptual schema without affecting the internal schema
 B) Modifying the internal schema without affecting the external schema
 C) Modifying the external schema without affecting the conceptual schema
 D) Modifying the application program without affecting the database
Answer: B
35. Which of the following database users typically works with end-users to design and
implement databases?
 A) System Analyst
 B) Database Administrator
  C) Naive User
 D) Application Programmer
Answer: A
36. What is the key function of a DBMS?
 A) To facilitate data retrieval and manipulation
 B) To perform hardware diagnostics
 C) To run operating system commands
 D) To compile code for the application program
Answer: A
37. Which of the following describes data manipulation language (DML)?
 A) A language used to define the database schema
 B) A language used to insert, delete, and update data
 C) A language used for querying non-relational data
 D) A language used for transaction management
Answer: B
38. Which of the following types of users interacts with a database only to query pre-
defined forms and reports?
 A) DBA
 B) End-User
 C) Casual User
 D) Naive User
Answer: D
39. In a file-oriented system, how is data organized?
 A) In relations
 B) In files that are not linked or related
 C) In tables with foreign keys
 D) In normalized form
Answer: B
40. What is the key feature of relational database systems?
 A) Storing unstructured data
 B) Linking data using keys to eliminate redundancy
 C) Reducing the cost of hardware
 D) Performing low-level system operations
Answer: B
41. What is metadata in a database system?
 A) Information about the structure of data
 B) Duplicate data stored in the system
 C) Encrypted data used for security
 D) Backup data stored in the cloud
Answer: A
42. In DBMS, normalization is used for:
 A) Creating multiple indexes for faster retrieval
 B) Eliminating data redundancy
  C) Deleting duplicate records
 D) Writing efficient SQL queries
Answer: B
43. What is the query processor in a DBMS responsible for?
 A) Writing SQL queries
 B) Compiling and interpreting queries
 C) Managing hardware components
 D) Deleting old data
Answer: B
44. Which of the following is a function of the data dictionary?
 A) Storing raw data in the database
 B) Providing information about the structure of the database
 C) Managing database backups
 D) Optimizing data retrieval
Answer: B
45. In the DBMS three-tier architecture, the middle tier is typically responsible for:
 A) Query processing
 B) Data storage
 C) Application logic
 D) Data security
Answer: C
46. What is the purpose of data abstraction in a DBMS?
 A) To hide the complexities of data storage and representation
 B) To increase data redundancy
 C) To create physical backups of the data
 D) To control the speed of data retrieval
Answer: A
47. Which of the following best defines the database approach?
 A) Data is managed by separate applications for each department
 B) Data is centralized and managed by the DBMS
 C) Data is stored in file systems across different computers
 D) Data is organized into distributed file systems
Answer: B
48. What is the purpose of a DDL compiler in a DBMS?
 A) To interpret SQL queries
 B) To compile and store schema definitions
 C) To delete obsolete records
 D) To create reports for users
Answer: B
49. What is the main goal of data abstraction?
 A) To allow users to interact with the database without knowing the physical storage
details
 B) To eliminate redundancy in database systems
  C) To create database backups
 D) To increase query processing speed
Answer: A
50. Which DBMS feature allows multiple users to access and update data simultaneously
without conflicts?
 A) Concurrency Control
 B) Data Independence
 C) Query Optimization
 D) Backup and Recovery
Answer: A

UNIT-II

1. What does the term entity represent in the Entity-Relationship (ER) model?
 A) A specific attribute in the database
 B) A real-world object or concept
 C) A table in a relational database
 D) A set of relationships
Answer: B
2. What is an entity set in an ER model?
 A) A collection of related tables
 B) A collection of similar entities
 C) A relationship between two entities
 D) A set of attributes
Answer: B
3. What is an attribute in an ER model?
 A) A relationship between entities
 B) A property or characteristic of an entity
 C) A unique identifier for a record
 D) A collection of entities
Answer: B
4. Which of the following is an example of a composite attribute?
 A) Name (First Name, Last Name)
 B) Date of Birth
 C) Employee ID
 D) Age
Answer: A
5. What is a key attribute?
 A) An attribute that forms part of a relationship
 B) An attribute that can be derived from other attributes
 C) An attribute that uniquely identifies an entity
 D) An attribute that takes multiple values
Answer: C
6. Which of the following is an example of a simple attribute?
 A) Name (First Name, Last Name)
 B) Phone Number
 C) Address (Street, City, Zip)
 D) Full Name
Answer: B
7. In an ER diagram, how is a weak entity represented?
 A) By a double rectangle
 B) By a diamond
 C) By a dashed line
 D) By a circle
Answer: A
8. What is the role of a relationship in the ER model?
 A) To store data in tables
 B) To define associations between entities
 C) To manage database constraints
 D) To serve as a key
Answer: B
9. Which of the following is an example of a derived attribute?
 A) Age, derived from Date of Birth
 B) First Name
 C) Social Security Number
 D) Phone Number
Answer: A
10. What is a primary key in an ER model?
 A) A key that can be NULL
 B) A unique attribute or set of attributes that uniquely identifies an entity
 C) A key that does not participate in relationships
 D) An attribute that is a foreign key
Answer: B
11. In an ER diagram, how is a relationship represented?
 A) A rectangle
 B) A diamond
 C) An oval
 D) A double rectangle
Answer: B
12. What is the purpose of a foreign key?
 A) To uniquely identify records within a table
 B) To define relationships between two entities
 C) To perform complex queries
 D) To store duplicate values
Answer: B
13. In an ER diagram, how is an attribute typically represented?
 A) By a diamond
 B) By a rectangle
 C) By an oval
 D) By a triangle
Answer: C
14. Which of the following is a multi-valued attribute?
 A) Social Security Number
 B) Phone Number(s)
 C) Age
 D) Date of Birth
Answer: B
15. What is the purpose of ER diagrams in database design?
 A) To perform SQL queries
 B) To visualize entities, attributes, and relationships in the database
 C) To optimize the database for performance
 D) To enforce data integrity
Answer: B
16. Which of the following best describes a weak entity?
 A) An entity that has no attributes
 B) An entity that cannot exist without being related to another entity
 C) An entity that has a unique identifier
 D) An entity that stores derived data
Answer: B
17. What type of key is used to uniquely identify a weak entity?
 A) Foreign key
 B) Partial key (Discriminator)
 C) Primary key
 D) Candidate key
Answer: B
18. Which of the following is a binary relationship?
 A) A relationship involving two entities
 B) A relationship involving one entity
 C) A relationship involving more than two entities
 D) A relationship that is reflexive
Answer: A
19. How is a composite key represented in the ER model?
 A) By a single attribute that is unique
 B) By a combination of two or more attributes that uniquely identify an entity
 C) By a foreign key in a relationship
 D) By a derived attribute
Answer: B
20. What is a role in a relationship in an ER diagram?
 A) The part played by an entity in a relationship
 B) A collection of attributes
 C) The constraints applied to the relationship
 D) A composite key used to join tables
Answer: A
21. Which of the following is a ternary relationship?
 A) A relationship involving one entity
 B) A relationship involving three entities
 C) A relationship involving two entities
 D) A self-referencing relationship
Answer: B
22. What is the degree of a relationship in an ER diagram?
 A) The number of attributes involved in the relationship
 B) The number of participating entities in the relationship
 C) The number of unique keys in the relationship
 D) The number of tuples in the relationship
Answer: B
23. Which of the following is an example of a one-to-one relationship?
 A) An employee belongs to one department, and one department has many employees
 B) A person has one passport, and one passport belongs to one person
 C) A student has multiple subjects, and a subject has multiple students
 D) A company has multiple branches, and a branch has multiple employees
Answer: B
24. Which of the following is a many-to-many relationship?
 A) A student enrolls in multiple courses, and a course has multiple students
 B) An employee manages one department
 C) A project is assigned to one employee
 D) A company has only one manager
Answer: A
25. What is a cardinality constraint in an ER diagram?
 A) A constraint that defines the number of entities that participate in a relationship
 B) A rule that limits the number of relationships
 C) A type of key constraint
 D) A technique for optimizing performance
Answer: A
26. Which of the following is a key constraint in an ER model?
 A) Ensuring that each entity has a unique identifier
 B) Defining the number of entities involved in a relationship
 C) Specifying the types of data in each attribute
 D) Creating indexes for faster search
Answer: A
27. In an ER diagram, how is a multi-valued attribute represented?
 A) A dashed oval
 B) A double oval
 C) A rectangle
 D) A triangle
Answer: B
28. What is a composite key?
 A) A single unique attribute
 B) A combination of two or more attributes that uniquely identify an entity
 C) An attribute that can be NULL
 D) An attribute used to join tables
Answer: B
29. What is the difference between a strong entity and a weak entity?
 A) A strong entity has a primary key, while a weak entity does not
 B) A strong entity can exist independently, while a weak entity depends on another entity
 C) A strong entity participates in relationships, while a weak entity does not
 D) A strong entity has composite attributes, while a weak entity does not
Answer: B
30. In an ER diagram, how are relationships between weak entities and strong
entities represented?
 A) By a single rectangle
 B) By a dashed diamond
 C) By a double diamond
 D) By an oval
Answer: C
31. In database design, what is the main purpose of using normalization?
 A) To eliminate data redundancy and improve data integrity
 B) To increase the speed of queries
 C) To create indexes for faster retrieval
 D) To perform complex joins
Answer: A
32. What is a one-to-many relationship?
 A) One entity in set A is associated with only one entity in set B
 B) One entity in set A is associated with multiple entities in set B
 C) Multiple entities in set A are associated with multiple entities in set B
 D) One entity in set B is associated with one entity in set A
Answer: B
33. Which of the following is an ER diagram naming convention?
 A) Using capital letters for attribute names
 B) Naming attributes based on their data types
 C) Using meaningful names that reflect real-world concepts
 D) Using symbols instead of text to name entities
Answer: C
34. What is a partial participation constraint?
 A) Some instances of an entity are involved in the relationship
 B) All instances of an entity are involved in the relationship
 C) The relationship involves multiple entities
 D) The relationship is between two attributes
Answer: A
35. Which of the following is an example of total participation in a relationship?
 A) Every employee in a company must work in at least one department
 B) Every student must take one course
 C) Some customers in a company have multiple accounts
 D) A department must have at least one manager
Answer: A
36. Which of the following is NOT an issue in ER diagram design?
 A) Identifying entities and relationships
 B) Choosing appropriate names for attributes and entities
 C) Determining cardinality constraints
 D) Implementing SQL queries
Answer: D
37. What is a recursive relationship in an ER model?
 A) A relationship where an entity is related to itself
 B) A relationship that occurs multiple times
 C) A relationship involving more than two entities
 D) A relationship between two weak entities
Answer: A
38. What is the purpose of a structural constraint in an ER model?
 A) To specify the number of entities participating in a relationship
 B) To control the data types of attributes
 C) To manage relationships between weak entities
 D) To define key constraints
Answer: A
39. Which of the following is a design issue in an ER model?
 A) Choosing between weak and strong entities
 B) Designing the physical storage of data
 C) Implementing indexes for faster searches
 D) Creating backup systems for the database
Answer: A
40. In the ER model, what is a specialization?
 A) A top-down approach where an entity is divided into sub-entities
 B) A relationship between a strong and weak entity
 C) A composite key for a weak entity
 D) A constraint that ensures data integrity
Answer: A
41. What is the main purpose of generalization in the ER model?
 A) To consolidate sub-entities into a higher-level entity
 B) To divide an entity into specialized sub-entities
 C) To ensure data integrity
 D) To define relationships between attributes
Answer: A
42. What is a superkey in an ER model?
 A) A single attribute that uniquely identifies each entity
 B) A set of attributes that can uniquely identify each entity
 C) An attribute that can have multiple values
 D) A key that has a foreign key reference
Answer: B
43. What does entity integrity ensure in an ER model?
 A) That each entity has a unique primary key
 B) That all foreign keys reference valid primary keys
 C) That attributes are normalized
 D) That data is not redundant
Answer: A
44. What is a disjoint constraint in an ER model?
 A) An entity can only participate in one subclass of a generalization
 B) An entity can participate in multiple subclasses of a generalization
 C) An entity cannot participate in a relationship
 D) An entity can have multiple primary keys
Answer: A
45. In the ER model, what is the purpose of aggregation?
 A) To represent a relationship involving multiple entities and relationships
 B) To create indexes for faster retrieval
 C) To join multiple entities into one
 D) To define multi-valued attributes
Answer: A
46. What is the primary difference between a weak entity and a strong entity?
 A) Weak entities depend on a strong entity for identification
 B) Strong entities have no attributes
 C) Weak entities have primary keys, while strong entities do not
 D) Strong entities participate in relationships, while weak entities do not
Answer: A
47. What is a relationship type in the ER model?
 A) A classification of relationships based on the number of participating entities
 B) A key constraint that defines relationships
 C) A relationship between composite attributes
 D) A set of attributes used in joins
Answer: A
48. What is a candidate key?
 A) A key that can serve as a primary key but is not chosen as the primary key
 B) A key that is used to join tables
 C) A key that is derived from other attributes
 D) A key that is only used for relationships
Answer: A
49. What is a total participation constraint in an ER diagram?
 A) Every instance of an entity must participate in at least one relationship
 B) Some instances of an entity participate in a relationship
 C) A relationship between two weak entities
 D) A constraint applied only to foreign keys
Answer: A
50. In an ER model, what is generalization?
 A) A bottom-up approach where multiple entities are combined into a higher-level entity
 B) A top-down approach where an entity is divided into sub-entities
 C) A method for enforcing key constraints
 D) A rule for ensuring data security
Answer: A

Unit-III

1. What is the primary purpose of the relational model in databases?

 A) To store data in a flat file system
 B) To organize data into tables and define relationships between them
 C) To perform advanced calculations on data
 D) To store unstructured data
Answer: B
2. What is a relation in the relational model?
 A) A mathematical function
 B) A table with rows and columns
 C) A group of related files
 D) A set of relational constraints
Answer: B
3. Which of the following best describes a tuple in a relational database?
 A) A column in a table
 B) A row in a table
 C) A relationship between two tables
 D) A foreign key
Answer: B
4. In the relational model, what is an attribute?
 A) A record in a table
 B) A unique identifier for a relation
  C) A column that represents a characteristic of an entity
 D) A relationship between entities
Answer: C
5. Which of the following is a relational database schema?
 A) A query for retrieving data
 B) The overall structure that defines the organization of tables and relationships
 C) A method for creating views
 D) A procedure for data encryption
Answer: B
6. What is a domain constraint in the relational model?
 A) A constraint that defines a relationship between two tables
 B) A rule that specifies the permissible values for an attribute
 C) A key constraint applied to foreign keys
 D) A constraint that limits the number of tuples
Answer: B
7. What is a primary key constraint?
 A) A constraint that ensures a column can store NULL values
 B) A constraint that ensures a column or combination of columns uniquely identifies each
row
 C) A rule for maintaining relationships between tables
 D) A constraint that prevents duplicate values in multiple columns
Answer: B
8. What is the purpose of a foreign key in a relational database?
 A) To store derived attributes
 B) To establish a link between two tables
 C) To uniquely identify records in a single table
 D) To enforce constraints on data entry
Answer: B
9. Which of the following is a referential integrity constraint?
 A) Ensuring that no foreign key value refers to a non-existent primary key
 B) Ensuring that each tuple has a unique value for the foreign key
 C) Enforcing a limit on the number of foreign keys in a relation
 D) Restricting the use of NULL values in primary keys
Answer: A
10. In relational algebra, what does the projection operator do?
 A) It selects certain columns from a relation
 B) It selects rows from a relation
 C) It combines two relations
 D) It creates a copy of the relation
Answer: A
11. In relational algebra, what does the selection operator do?
 A) It filters rows that satisfy a certain condition
  B) It selects columns from multiple tables
 C) It combines two tables into one
 D) It updates the values in a relation
Answer: A
12. Which of the following is an example of a join operation in relational
algebra?
 A) σA>10(R)
 B) R⋈SR
 C) πA,B(R)
 D) ρ(R,S)
Answer: B
13. What is the purpose of the natural join operation in relational algebra?
 A) To merge two relations based on all attributes with the same name
 B) To select all tuples from both relations
 C) To select tuples that meet a specific condition
 D) To sort tuples in a relation
Answer: A
14. What does the division operator do in relational algebra?
 A) It divides a relation into smaller relations
 B) It returns rows from one relation that match every row in another relation
 C) It combines two relations based on a common attribute
 D) It groups rows together based on certain attributes
Answer: B
15. In relational algebra, what does the rename operator do?
 A) It renames attributes or relations in the query result
 B) It renames all the tuples in the relation
 C) It renames the keys used in a join
 D) It renames the schema of the database
Answer: A
16. What is the difference between a cross join and a natural join?
 A) Cross join returns all combinations of tuples, while natural join matches tuples based
on common attributes
 B) Cross join matches tuples with the same key, while natural join uses all attributes
 C) Natural join is more efficient than cross join
 D) Cross join always returns fewer tuples than natural join
Answer: A
17. Which of the following is an example of a selection operation?
 A) πName(Employee)
 B) σSalary>5000
 C) Employee⋈Department
 D) δ(Salary)(Employee)
Answer: B
18. Which relational algebra operator returns all the tuples from the first
relation that is not present in the second relation?
 A) Union
 B) Intersection
 C) Difference
 D) Selection
Answer: C
19. What is a union operation in relational algebra?
 A) It returns tuples that are present in both relations
 B) It returns all tuples from both relations, removing duplicates
 C) It returns tuples from one relation that are not present in another
 D) It groups attributes into a new relation
Answer: B
20. In relational algebra, which operator is used to combine tuples from two
relations?
 A) Selection
 B) Projection
 C) Join
 D) Union
Answer: C
21. Which of the following relational algebra operations is commutative?
 A) Projection
 B) Selection
 C) Union
 D) Join
Answer: C
22. In relational algebra, what is a theta join?
 A) A join that uses a specific condition (predicate) to combine tuples from two relations
 B) A join that matches tuples based on all attributes
 C) A join that combines all tuples from two relations without any conditions
 D) A join that combines tuples based on key constraints
Answer: A
23. What does the aggregate operation in relational algebra do?
 A) It combines tuples from different relations
 B) It calculates values such as SUM, COUNT, AVG on tuples in a relation
 C) It removes duplicate tuples from a relation
 D) It updates the values in a relation
Answer: B
24. Which of the following is an example of a relational constraint?
 A) Ensuring each primary key is unique
 B) Filtering rows using a WHERE clause
 C) Using GROUP BY to organize data
  D) Sorting tuples by attribute values
Answer: A
25. In a relational database, what is the update anomaly?
 A) A problem that occurs when a tuple is updated in multiple tables
 B) A problem that occurs when updating a relation violates referential integrity
 C) A situation where updates result in inconsistency due to data redundancy
 D) A violation of primary key constraints during an update
Answer: C
26. What is the purpose of the CHECK constraint in SQL?
 A) To enforce a condition that each tuple must satisfy
 B) To limit the number of foreign keys in a relation
 C) To enforce referential integrity between two relations
 D) To create a unique index for fast retrieval
Answer: A
27. Which of the following operators can be used to enforce a relational
constraint in SQL?
 A) SELECT
 B) JOIN
 C) FOREIGN KEY
 D) GROUP BY
Answer: C
28. In relational algebra, what is a self-join?
 A) Joining a relation with itself
 B) Joining two relations based on a common attribute
 C) Joining all relations in the schema
 D) Combining all rows from multiple relations
Answer: A
29. Which of the following is an example of a binary relational operator?
 A) Projection
 B) Selection
 C) Union
 D) Join
Answer: D
30. In the relational model, what is a tuple?
 A) A row in a relation
 B) A column in a relation
 C) A relationship between two relations
 D) A constraint on the relation
Answer: A
31. Which of the following is an example of an update operation in SQL?
 A) UPDATE Employee SET Salary = 5000 WHERE ID = 101;
 B) SELECT * FROM Employee;
  C) DELETE FROM Employee WHERE ID = 101;
 D) INSERT INTO Employee (ID, Name, Salary) VALUES (101, 'Alice', 5000);
Answer: A
32. Which of the following is an example of dealing with constraint violations?
 A) Rejecting an insertion that violates a primary key constraint
 B) Executing a SELECT query on multiple tables
 C) Performing a cross join on two relations
 D) Renaming the attributes in a relation
Answer: A
33. In SQL, which operator is used to enforce a referential integrity constraint?
 A) PRIMARY KEY
 B) FOREIGN KEY
 C) UNIQUE
 D) CHECK
Answer: B
34. Which relational algebra operation is equivalent to the GROUP BY clause in
SQL?
 A) Aggregate operation
 B) Projection
 C) Union
 D) Selection
Answer: A
35. Which of the following is an example of a natural join in SQL?
 A) SELECT * FROM Employee NATURAL JOIN Department;
 B) SELECT * FROM Employee JOIN Department ON Employee.DeptID =
Department.ID;
 C) SELECT * FROM Employee CROSS JOIN Department;
 D) SELECT * FROM Employee LEFT JOIN Department;
Answer: A
36. Which of the following is an example of a join condition in SQL?
 A) SELECT * FROM Employee JOIN Department ON Employee.DeptID =
Department.ID;
 B) SELECT * FROM Employee WHERE Salary > 5000;
 C) SELECT Name FROM Employee GROUP BY DeptID;
 D) SELECT DISTINCT Name FROM Employee;
Answer: A
37. What is the result of a cross join operation in relational algebra?
 A) A combination of all tuples from both relations
 B) The union of all tuples from both relations
 C) The intersection of tuples from both relations
 D) The difference of tuples from both relations
Answer: A
38. Which of the following relational algebra operators eliminates duplicate
tuples from the result?
 A) Projection
 B) Selection
 C) Union
 D) Difference
Answer: A
39. In relational algebra, which operator is used to filter rows based on a
condition?
 A) Projection
 B) Selection
 C) Union
 D) Join
Answer: B
40. In relational algebra, which operator is used to retrieve specific columns?
 A) Selection
 B) Projection
 C) Join
 D) Division
Answer: B
41. Which of the following SQL clauses enforces data constraints during
updates?
 A) CHECK
 B) SELECT
 C) GROUP BY
 D) JOIN
Answer: A
42. What is the purpose of the HAVING clause in SQL?
 A) To filter rows after an aggregation operation
 B) To create constraints between two tables
 C) To perform a join between relations
 D) To group tuples based on a condition
Answer: A
43. In relational algebra, which operator is used to retrieve common tuples from
two relations?
 A) Union
 B) Intersection
 C) Difference
 D) Cross Join
Answer: B
44. What is the difference between UNION and INTERSECTION in relational
algebra?
  A) UNION combines all tuples, while INTERSECTION returns only common tuples
 B) UNION returns the difference between two relations, while INTERSECTION returns
all tuples
 C) UNION is faster than INTERSECTION
 D) INTERSECTION can only be used on relations with primary keys
Answer: A
45. What is a relational algebra expression?
 A) A sequence of relational operators applied to relations
 B) A query written in SQL
 C) A mathematical function used in databases
 D) A condition applied to foreign keys
Answer: A
46. Which of the following is an aggregate function in SQL?
 A) COUNT
 B) SELECT
 C) UPDATE
 D) JOIN
Answer: A
47. What is the purpose of a relational algebra query?
 A) To retrieve data by applying relational operations on tables
 B) To update records in the database
 C) To enforce constraints on data integrity
 D) To perform backup operations on data
Answer: A
48. What is the result of a left outer join in SQL?
 A) It returns all tuples from the left relation and matching tuples from the right relation
 B) It returns all tuples from both relations
 C) It returns only common tuples from both relations
 D) It returns unmatched tuples from the right relation
Answer: A
49. What is a relational schema?
 A) The structure that defines the relations, attributes, and constraints in a database
 B) A query language used for accessing the database
 C) A sequence of relational algebra operations
 D) A set of foreign keys in a relation
Answer: A
50. Which relational algebra operation is used to find tuples in one relation that
do not match any tuple in another relation?
 A) Difference
 B) Union
 C) Intersection
 D) Division
Answer: A
 Unit-IV

1. What is SQL primarily used for?

 A) Data storage
 B) Querying, manipulating, and managing data in relational databases
 C) Web development
 D) File management
Answer: B
2. Which of the following SQL statements is used to define a new table?
 A) INSERT
 B) CREATE
 C) DELETE
 D) SELECT
Answer: B
3. Which of the following SQL constraints ensures that no two rows in a table
have the same value in a specified column?
 A) CHECK
 B) FOREIGN KEY
 C) UNIQUE
 D) NOT NULL
Answer: C
4. What does the UPDATE command do in SQL?
 A) Adds a new row to the table
 B) Removes a row from the table
 C) Modifies existing data in the table
 D) Creates a new table
Answer: C
5. Which SQL statement is used to delete records from a table?
 A) REMOVE
 B) DROP
 C) DELETE
 D) TRUNCATE
Answer: C
6. What is the purpose of the WHERE clause in an SQL query?
 A) To filter rows based on a condition
 B) To group data
 C) To update data
 D) To create an index
Answer: A
7. Which SQL function is used to calculate the total number of rows in a table?
 A) SUM()
 B) COUNT()
  C) AVG()
 D) MAX()
Answer: B
8. What is a subquery in SQL?
 A) A query that is written inside another query
 B) A query that returns multiple tables
 C) A query that retrieves specific columns
 D) A query that deletes records
Answer: A
9. What is the difference between TRUNCATE and DELETE in SQL?
 A) DELETE removes all rows; TRUNCATE removes rows one by one
 B) TRUNCATE removes rows without logging, while DELETE logs each row deletion
 C) DELETE is faster than TRUNCATE
 D) Both are used to drop columns
Answer: B
10. In SQL, which operator is used to combine the result sets of two queries while
eliminating duplicates?
 A) UNION
 B) JOIN
 C) INTERSECT
 D) MINUS
Answer: A
11. What does the HAVING clause do in SQL?
 A) Filters rows after the aggregation process
 B) Filters rows before grouping
 C) Defines the primary key of a table
 D) Specifies the ordering of rows
Answer: A
12. Which SQL command is used to create a view?
 A) CREATE VIEW
 B) DEFINE VIEW
 C) MAKE VIEW
 D) SELECT VIEW
Answer: A
13. What is a view in SQL?
 A) A virtual table based on the result of an SQL query
 B) A physical table storing data
 C) A query optimizer
 D) A temporary table created in memory
Answer: A
14. What is the purpose of INNER JOIN in SQL?
 A) To return all rows from both tables
  B) To return only matching rows between two tables
 C) To remove duplicates from two tables
 D) To return unmatched rows from both tables
Answer: B
15. Which of the following SQL operators retrieves rows from one table that do
not exist in another table?
 A) INTERSECT
 B) UNION
 C) MINUS
 D) JOIN
Answer: C
16. Which SQL keyword is used to create a conditional selection of rows in a
query?
 A) WHERE
 B) GROUP BY
 C) ORDER BY
 D) INDEX
Answer: A
17. What is the purpose of the GROUP BY clause in SQL?
 A) To combine rows that have the same values in specified columns
 B) To sort rows in descending order
 C) To delete records based on a condition
 D) To create an index for faster access
Answer: A
18. What does the UNION operator do in SQL?
 A) Combines the result sets of two queries, including duplicate rows
 B) Combines the result sets of two queries, eliminating duplicate rows
 C) Returns rows that exist in both queries
 D) Returns rows that exist in only one of the queries
Answer: B
19. Which SQL clause is used to specify the order in which results are returned?
 A) GROUP BY
 B) ORDER BY
 C) HAVING
 D) LIMIT
Answer: B
20. What is the result of the following SQL query?
sql
Copy code
SELECT COUNT(*)
FROM Employees
WHERE Department = 'Sales';
 A) The total number of employees in the Sales department
  B) The total number of employees in all departments
 C) A list of employee names in the Sales department
 D) The total number of departments
Answer: A
21. In SQL, which aggregate function is used to find the largest value in a
column?
 A) SUM()
 B) MAX()
 C) MIN()
 D) AVG()
Answer: B
22. What does the DISTINCT keyword do in SQL?
 A) It selects only unique values from a column
 B) It filters rows based on a condition
 C) It updates a column with new values
 D) It deletes duplicate rows from a table
Answer: A
23. Which SQL command is used to add a new column to an existing table?
 A) INSERT
 B) ALTER
 C) UPDATE
 D) MODIFY
Answer: B
24. What is the purpose of the JOIN clause in SQL?
 A) To combine data from two or more tables based on a related column
 B) To delete records from multiple tables
 C) To perform an aggregation of data
 D) To define the foreign key in a table
Answer: A
25. Which SQL statement is used to retrieve data from a database?
 A) GET
 B) FETCH
 C) RETRIEVE
 D) SELECT
Answer: D
26. What is the main purpose of data normalization?
 A) To reduce data redundancy and improve data integrity
 B) To improve data retrieval speed
 C) To enforce security policies
 D) To simplify database administration
Answer: A
27. What is a functional dependency in a relational database?
  A) A relationship where one attribute uniquely determines another attribute
 B) A condition that checks for duplicates
 C) A method for encrypting sensitive data
 D) A query optimization technique
Answer: A
28. Which of the following is an example of a functional dependency?
 A) If EmpID uniquely identifies EmployeeName, then EmpID → EmployeeName
 B) If Age identifies EmployeeName, then Age → EmployeeName
 C) If Department determines Salary, then Department → Salary
 D) If EmployeeName is always unique, then EmployeeName → EmpID
Answer: A
29. What does Armstrong's Axioms refer to in functional dependencies?
 A) A set of inference rules used to derive functional dependencies
 B) A method for calculating query costs
 C) A way to normalize databases to BCNF
 D) A technique for indexing data efficiently
Answer: A
30. In the context of functional dependencies, what is the closure of an attribute?
 A) The set of all attributes that can be functionally determined by a given attribute set
 B) A condition that checks for null values
 C) A method for improving query performance
 D) A method for deleting records from a table
Answer: A
31. What is Boyce-Codd Normal Form (BCNF)?
 A) A type of normalization that eliminates all transitive dependencies
 B) A stronger version of the third normal form (3NF)
 C) A rule for ensuring referential integrity
 D) A method for joining tables
Answer: B
32. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a relation to be in BCNF?
 A) It must be in 3NF
 B) Each non-trivial functional dependency must have a superkey on the left-hand side
 C) It must have no partial dependencies
 D) It must have no duplicate rows
Answer: D
33. What is the goal of normalization in database design?
 A) To eliminate data redundancy and update anomalies
 B) To improve the speed of data retrieval
 C) To ensure data security
 D) To automate query optimization
Answer: A
34. What is a partial dependency?
  A) When a non-key attribute is functionally dependent on part of a composite primary
key
 B) When one attribute depends on another, and both are non-key attributes
 C) When a primary key depends on a foreign key
 D) When two attributes are independent of each other
Answer: A
35. In a table that is in Second Normal Form (2NF), which of the following is
true?
 A) There are no transitive dependencies
 B) All attributes are functionally dependent on the entire primary key
 C) All attributes are functionally dependent on part of the primary key
 D) There are no partial dependencies
Answer: B
36. Which normal form eliminates transitive dependencies?
 A) First Normal Form (1NF)
 B) Second Normal Form (2NF)
 C) Third Normal Form (3NF)
 D) Boyce-Codd Normal Form (BCNF)
Answer: C
37. What is a transitive dependency?
 A) When one non-key attribute depends on another non-key attribute
 B) When a key attribute is dependent on a foreign key
 C) When a primary key is dependent on a non-key attribute
 D) When a composite key depends on a partial key
Answer: A
38. What is the main requirement for a table to be in Third Normal Form (3NF)?
 A) The table must not have any partial dependencies
 B) The table must not have any transitive dependencies
 C) The table must have a composite key
 D) The table must be in BCNF
Answer: B
39. Which of the following is an example of a table in First Normal Form (1NF)?
 A) A table where all attributes have atomic values
 B) A table with composite and multi-valued attributes
 C) A table with transitive dependencies
 D) A table where each attribute depends on part of the primary key
Answer: A
40. What is the purpose of closure in functional dependency theory?
 A) To determine all functional dependencies that can be inferred from a set of
dependencies
 B) To eliminate redundant data
 C) To optimize database queries
  D) To enforce referential integrity
Answer: A
41. What is the main requirement for a table to be in Second Normal Form
(2NF)?
 A) It must have no transitive dependencies
 B) It must have no partial dependencies
 C) It must have no non-atomic attributes
 D) It must be in BCNF
Answer: B
42. In the context of normalization, which of the following is a candidate key?
 A) A set of attributes that uniquely identifies a tuple
 B) A foreign key used to reference another table
 C) A key that can be NULL
 D) A key that does not uniquely identify a tuple
Answer: A
43. Which of the following is true for a relation in Third Normal Form (3NF)?
 A) It eliminates all multi-valued dependencies
 B) It allows transitive dependencies
 C) It must not have any transitive dependencies
 D) It eliminates all functional dependencies
Answer: C
44. Which of the following is an example of Second Normal Form (2NF)
violation?
 A) A table where non-key attributes depend on only part of a composite key
 B) A table where all attributes depend on the entire primary key
 C) A table with no atomic values
 D) A table with only one candidate key
Answer: A
45. In functional dependency theory, what does the augmentation rule state?
 A) If X→Y, then XZ→YZ
 B) If X→Y, then Y→X
 C) If X→Y, then X→Z
 D) If X→Y, then Y→Z
Answer: A
46. Which of the following is a characteristic of a table in Boyce-Codd Normal
Form (BCNF)?
 A) Every determinant is a superkey
 B) The table allows partial dependencies
 C) The table allows transitive dependencies
 D) The table must have only one candidate key
Answer: A
47. What is the purpose of the projection operation in relational algebra?
  A) To select specific columns from a relation
 B) To group rows based on specific columns
 C) To join two or more relations
 D) To filter rows based on a condition
Answer: A
48. What is the result of the following SQL query?
sql
Copy code
SELECT AVG(Salary)
FROM Employees
WHERE Department = 'IT';
 A) The average salary of all employees
 B) The total salary of all employees in the IT department
 C) The average salary of employees in the IT department
 D) The number of employees in the IT department
Answer: C
49. Which SQL clause is used to specify the grouping of rows based on a
condition?
 A) GROUP BY
 B) ORDER BY
 C) HAVING
 D) WHERE
Answer: A
50. In SQL, what does the FOREIGN KEY constraint enforce?
 A) It ensures that values in a column correspond to values in another table's primary key
 B) It ensures that each row is unique
 C) It prevents NULL values in the column
 D) It sets a default value for a column
Answer: A

Unit-V

1. What is a transaction in a database system?

 A) A sequence of operations that is treated as a single unit of work
 B) A query that retrieves data from multiple tables
 C) A backup process for data recovery
 D) A method for normalizing tables
Answer: A
2. Which of the following is NOT a desirable property of transactions?
 A) Atomicity
 B) Consistency
 C) Durability
  D) Inconsistency
Answer: D
3. What does the atomicity property of a transaction ensure?
 A) A transaction can be partially completed
 B) A transaction is either fully completed or fully aborted
 C) A transaction can be split into multiple sub-transactions
 D) A transaction always finishes faster
Answer: B
4. Which property of a transaction ensures that the database remains in a
consistent state after the transaction?
 A) Durability
 B) Isolation
 C) Consistency
 D) Concurrency
Answer: C
5. What is the durability property of a transaction?
 A) Once a transaction is committed, its effects are permanent, even if the system crashes
 B) A transaction can be reversed at any time
 C) Transactions are processed in parallel
 D) A transaction takes minimal time to complete
Answer: A
6. What does the isolation property of a transaction ensure?
 A) A transaction executes independently of other transactions
 B) A transaction is executed in real-time
 C) Multiple transactions can share the same data at the same time
 D) A transaction can be split into multiple parts
Answer: A
7. Which of the following best defines serializability in transaction processing?
 A) The ability to execute transactions in parallel
 B) The execution of transactions in a way that produces the same result as serial
execution
 C) The ability to rollback transactions if they fail
 D) The ability to distribute transactions across multiple systems
Answer: B
8. What is the purpose of concurrency control in transaction processing?
 A) To ensure that transactions are executed serially
 B) To allow multiple transactions to access the database simultaneously without
conflicting
 C) To optimize the speed of transactions
 D) To guarantee the atomicity of transactions
Answer: B
9. Which of the following is a concurrency control technique?
  A) Backup and recovery
 B) Two-phase locking
 C) Foreign key constraints
 D) Query optimization
Answer: B
10. What is the primary purpose of locking techniques in transaction processing?
 A) To prevent deadlocks between transactions
 B) To prevent multiple transactions from accessing the same data simultaneously
 C) To rollback transactions in case of failure
 D) To enforce integrity constraints
Answer: B
11. What is a deadlock in transaction processing?
 A) A situation where two or more transactions are waiting indefinitely for each other to
release resources
 B) A method to rollback transactions that failed
 C) A technique to execute transactions in parallel
 D) A state where all transactions are completed successfully
Answer: A
12. What is the two-phase locking protocol?
 A) A locking protocol that allows transactions to acquire locks in a growing phase and
release them in a shrinking phase
 B) A protocol that allows transactions to acquire and release locks simultaneously
 C) A method for executing transactions in serial order
 D) A protocol that eliminates the possibility of deadlocks
Answer: A
13. In two-phase locking, what happens during the growing phase?
 A) A transaction can only acquire locks but cannot release them
 B) A transaction can release locks but cannot acquire new ones
 C) A transaction can neither acquire nor release locks
 D) A transaction can both acquire and release locks
Answer: A
14. What happens during the shrinking phase of two-phase locking?
 A) A transaction can release locks but cannot acquire new locks
 B) A transaction can acquire new locks
 C) A transaction is executed in parallel with others
 D) A transaction is aborted and rolled back
Answer: A
15. Which of the following is a locking-based concurrency control technique?
 A) Time-stamp ordering
 B) Optimistic concurrency control
 C) Deadlock detection
 D) Two-phase locking
Answer: D
16. What is the timestamp ordering method in concurrency control?
 A) A method that assigns timestamps to transactions and ensures that older transactions
get executed first
 B) A method that allows transactions to acquire locks based on their priority
 C) A technique that prevents transactions from being aborted
 D) A method for detecting and resolving deadlocks
Answer: A
17. Which of the following problems can occur due to concurrent transaction
execution?
 A) Atomicity
 B) Lost update
 C) Consistency
 D) Durability
Answer: B
18. What is the purpose of the wait-die scheme in concurrency control?
 A) To prevent deadlocks by allowing older transactions to wait and younger ones to be
aborted
 B) To allow all transactions to be executed in parallel
 C) To allow transactions to acquire locks as needed
 D) To prioritize read operations over write operations
Answer: A
19. What is the wound-wait scheme in deadlock prevention?
 A) An older transaction forces a younger transaction to abort and release its locks
 B) A younger transaction forces an older transaction to wait
 C) Transactions execute independently of each other
 D) Transactions are executed serially
Answer: A
20. Which of the following is an example of a write lock?
 A) A lock that allows only read operations on a data item
 B) A lock that allows both read and write operations on a data item
 C) A lock that prevents both reading and writing
 D) A lock that can be acquired by multiple transactions simultaneously
Answer: B
21. What is a shared lock in transaction processing?
 A) A lock that allows multiple transactions to read the data but prevents any transaction
from writing
 B) A lock that allows only one transaction to read the data
 C) A lock that allows multiple transactions to write to the data simultaneously
 D) A lock that prevents all access to the data
Answer: A
22. What is an exclusive lock in transaction processing?
 A) A lock that allows both reading and writing of data
  B) A lock that prevents all other transactions from reading or writing the data
 C) A lock that only allows other transactions to read the data
 D) A lock that allows read-only access to the data
Answer: B
23. What is dirty read in transaction processing?
 A) Reading uncommitted data from a transaction that may be rolled back later
 B) Reading data that has been deleted from the database
 C) Reading committed data from multiple transactions
 D) Reading data after a transaction has failed
Answer: A
24. What is a phantom read in transaction processing?
 A) A situation where a transaction reads a set of rows that satisfy a condition, but a
second transaction inserts or deletes rows, making them invisible or visible
 B) A situation where a transaction reads the same data twice but sees different values
 C) A situation where data is deleted but still readable
 D) A situation where read operations are blocked
Answer: A
25. What is the purpose of the recovery management component in a DBMS?
 A) To ensure that all transactions follow the ACID properties
 B) To recover the database to a consistent state after a failure
 C) To improve the performance of transactions
 D) To handle deadlock situations
Answer: B
26. What is the read committed isolation level in transaction processing?
 A) A level that allows transactions to only read data that has already been committed
 B) A level that allows transactions to read uncommitted data
 C) A level that allows transactions to read and write simultaneously
 D) A level that prioritizes read operations
Answer: A
27. What is a serial schedule in transaction processing?
 A) A schedule in which transactions are executed one after the other without overlapping
 B) A schedule that allows multiple transactions to execute concurrently
 C) A schedule that ensures atomicity in all transactions
 D) A schedule that involves distributed transactions
Answer: A
28. Which of the following is an example of optimistic concurrency control?
 A) Transactions are executed without acquiring locks but are checked for conflicts at the
time of commit
 B) Transactions acquire locks and hold them until the transaction completes
 C) Transactions are aborted if they detect a conflict with another transaction
 D) Transactions execute serially to avoid conflicts
Answer: A
29. Which of the following describes a lost update problem?
 A) Two transactions update the same data item, but one update is overwritten by the other
 B) A transaction reads uncommitted data that is later rolled back
 C) A transaction inserts a new record that another transaction deletes
 D) A transaction reads data from a failed transaction
Answer: A
30. In a time-stamp ordering protocol, how are transactions ordered?
 A) Based on the order in which transactions are received
 B) Based on the time at which transactions start execution
 C) Based on the number of locks held by each transaction
 D) Based on the size of each transaction
Answer: B
31. Which of the following is a potential issue with the cascading rollback
phenomenon?
 A) If one transaction is rolled back, it may cause other dependent transactions to be rolled
back as well
 B) It causes multiple transactions to be aborted at the same time
 C) It allows transactions to execute out of order
 D) It prevents transactions from acquiring necessary locks
Answer: A
32. What is the purpose of a log-based recovery system in transaction
processing?
 A) To keep track of all changes made by transactions for recovery purposes
 B) To execute transactions in serial order
 C) To optimize the speed of queries
 D) To perform deadlock detection
Answer: A
33. Which of the following is a checkpoint in transaction recovery?
 A) A point at which all committed changes are saved to the database, allowing recovery
to start from that point
 B) A point at which transactions are aborted and rolled back
 C) A point at which transactions are allowed to commit
 D) A point at which deadlocks are resolved
Answer: A
34. In write-ahead logging (WAL), what must happen before the actual data is
written to the database?
 A) The corresponding log records must be written to stable storage
 B) The transaction must be committed
 C) The transaction must acquire all necessary locks
 D) The data must be deleted
Answer: A
35. What is the no-steal policy in transaction recovery?
  A) Dirty pages cannot be written to disk before the transaction commits
 B) A transaction cannot release locks until it is completed
 C) A transaction cannot be aborted until it finishes
 D) A transaction can only steal resources from other transactions
Answer: A
36. In distributed transactions, what is the two-phase commit protocol (2PC)
used for?
 A) To ensure that all participants in a distributed transaction either commit or abort the
transaction together
 B) To allow transactions to execute independently across multiple systems
 C) To prevent deadlocks in a distributed database
 D) To improve the performance of distributed queries
Answer: A
37. What is the primary challenge of distributed transaction processing?
 A) Ensuring that transactions are executed serially across multiple systems
 B) Coordinating and maintaining consistency across multiple databases involved in the
transaction
 C) Executing transactions as quickly as possible
 D) Preventing deadlocks in a single database
Answer: B
38. What does the prepare phase of the two-phase commit protocol (2PC)
involve?
 A) Each participating node agrees to commit or abort the transaction
 B) All nodes commit the transaction
 C) All locks are released
 D) The transaction is aborted
Answer: A
39. What happens during the commit phase of the two-phase commit protocol
(2PC)?
 A) All participating nodes commit the transaction
 B) The transaction is aborted if any participant votes to abort
 C) All locks are released, and the transaction is rolled back
 D) A new transaction is started
Answer: A
40. Which of the following is an example of a distributed deadlock?
 A) Two transactions, running on different databases, wait for resources held by each
other
 B) Two transactions wait for each other to release resources in the same database
 C) A transaction is aborted due to failure in a remote database
 D) Transactions are committed serially
Answer: A
41. What is the purpose of the read-uncommitted isolation level?
 A) To allow a transaction to read uncommitted data from other transactions
  B) To allow transactions to be executed serially
 C) To prevent transactions from reading data until it is committed
 D) To allow multiple write operations on the same data
Answer: A
42. What is the read-repeatable isolation level?
 A) It ensures that once a transaction reads data, no other transaction can modify that data
until the first transaction completes
 B) It allows multiple transactions to read the same data at the same time
 C) It prevents all read operations on the data
 D) It allows a transaction to read uncommitted data
Answer: A
43. Which of the following is a recovery technique for dealing with transaction
failures?
 A) Log-based recovery
 B) Shadow paging
 C) Query optimization
 D) Write-ahead logging
Answer: B
44. Which of the following best describes shadow paging in transaction recovery?
 A) A technique where the database maintains a shadow copy of the pages being updated
 B) A method for optimizing query performance
 C) A technique for detecting deadlocks in distributed systems
 D) A way to enforce serializability in transaction processing
Answer: A
45. Which of the following isolation levels prevents dirty reads, but allows non-
repeatable reads?
 A) Read committed
 B) Serializable
 C) Read uncommitted
 D) Repeatable read
Answer: A
46. What is the purpose of the phantom prevention technique in transaction
processing?
 A) To prevent new rows from being added or deleted during a transaction that might
change the result of a query
 B) To ensure that transactions are executed serially
 C) To prevent transactions from being aborted
 D) To detect and resolve deadlocks in the database
Answer: A
47. In the context of distributed databases, what is data fragmentation?
 A) The process of dividing a database into smaller pieces to be stored across different
sites
 B) The process of merging data from different tables
  C) The process of replicating data across multiple databases
 D) The process of backing up data at regular intervals
Answer: A
48. Which of the following is a technique for deadlock detection in distributed
databases?
 A) Wait-for graph
 B) Two-phase commit protocol
 C) Time-stamp ordering
 D) Optimistic concurrency control
Answer: A
49. In distributed databases, what is the purpose of data replication?
 A) To store copies of data at multiple sites for fault tolerance and improved availability
 B) To divide data into fragments for efficient querying
 C) To allow transactions to execute serially
 D) To enforce foreign key constraints
Answer: A
50. Which of the following is an optimistic concurrency control technique?
 A) Transactions execute without locks and are validated at the end for conflicts
 B) Transactions acquire locks before execution
 C) Transactions are aborted as soon as a conflict is detected
 D) Transactions are serialized to prevent conflicts
Answer: A