PAES Review 2 Answer Key
PAES Review 2 Answer Key
1. Coconut farms should be located in areas suitable for food production and processing preferably with an
altitude of not more than ________ above sea level for optimum growth.
a. 6 km b. 600 m c. 300 m d. 3 km
2. An MC assures that the quality and food safety control systems for fish and fishery products comply with
international standards, and statutory and regulatory requirements MC stands for _____.
a. Mode of Conduct b. Monitoring Code c. Model Certificate d. Maximum Compliance
3. GAqP for shrimp and crab indicated that all record should be kept, maintained and made accessible
during culture and for at least ______ after harvesting.
a. 6 months b. 1 year c. 18 months d. 24 months
4. Biologically active substance that may trigger an allergic response or poising to consumers
a. allergen b. histamine c. sulphites d. Tartrazine
5. Type of pack wherein the produce is carefully placed in the container. This provides reduced bruising and
a pleasing appearance.
a. volume fill b. cell pack c. place pack d. shrink wrap
6. before a job is assigned, the personnel shall be trained on good warehousing practices. Training and re-
orientation of the warehouse personnel should be done at least every ________.
a. 2 years b. 1 year c. 10 years d. 5 years
9. In SPIS, PV modules shall have at least ___ for material warranty and ____ performance warranty.
a. 5 years, 50 years b. 10 years, 25 years c. 15 years, 20 years d. 3 years and 18 years
10. In SPIS , the capacity of inverter shall be ________ higher than pumpset input power requirement,
a. at least 10 % b. 30 % c. at least 25% d. 50%
11. In SPIS, the spatial distance between each PV module shall be at least _____.
a. 10 mm b. 20 mm c. 10 cm d. 20 cm
12. In SPIS, it is recommended that the PV array should be facing the _____ based on efficiency and
performance.
a. North b. East c. South d. West
13. SPIS PV module shall be able to withstand a minimum gustiness and uplift of _______.
a. 150 kph b. 180 kph c.200 kph d. 250 kph
14. Grain size with a length of the full size paddy grain is 9.9 and above
a. extra long b. long c. medium d. short
*Long - length of the full size paddy grain (excluding the awn) is between 8.8 mm to 9.8 mm
*Medium - length of the full size paddy grain (excluding the awn) is between 8.0 mm to 8.7 mm
*Short - length of the full size paddy grain (excluding the awn) is below 8.0mm
15. Rubber sheet prepared from the fresh coagula of natural liquid latex under conditions where all
processes are carefully and uniformly controlled.
a. air dried sheet b. Pale crepe c. ribbed smoke sheet d. Standard Philippine
rubber
*Air dried sheet(ADS) - rubber sheet prepared in the same way as ribbed smoked sheets but dried in air
usually in a shed or tunnel without smoke or additives other than those generally accepted, such as
sodium bisulfate and paranitrophenol
*Ribbed smoke sheet (RSS) - rubber sheet produced from coagulated natural rubber latex which is evenly
dried and smoked. Block, cuttings or other scrap or frothy sheets, weak, heated or burnt sheets, air dried
or smooth sheets are not permissible
*Standard Philippine rubber - Philippine natural rubber obtained from the latex of Hevea brasiliensis
(typically processed into blocked rubber), and having properties complying with the criteria for the grade
concerned
16. Irreversible agglomeration of particles originally dispersed in a rubber latex to form a continuous phase
of the polymer and a dispersed phase of the serum.
a. cuplump b. latex c. adhesion d. coagulation
17. Method of tuxying in which the tuxying knife is inserted in the leafsheath, stil attached to the stalk, in a
slanting position, gripping the exposed part an pulling it through to produce the tuxy.
a. locnit b. bacnis c. ansis d. pinit
*Bacnis - method of tuxying in which the leafsheath is first separated from the stalk. It is then cut into two
to three sections depending on the size of the width the tuxero can handle. An incision is made in the cut
leafsheath, the exposed part is gripped
and pulled through to produce the tuxy
18. No corn grits should be released to the market containing more than _____ aflatoxin level.
a. 5 μg/kg b. 10 μg/kg c. 15 μg/kg d. 20 μg/kg
19. Large ruminants like cattle and carabao should be organically reared at least ____ days before
slaughter to be considered organic.
a. 360 days b. 180 days c. 90 days d. 21 days
20. Lands that have been heavily treated with synthetic chemicals shall undergo conversion for a minimum
of ____ before the start of the production cycle to be considered organic.
a. 1 year b. 3 years c. 5 years d. 10 years
21. Annual crops are considered organic when the full requirements of PNS/BAFS 07:2016 have been met
____ before the start of the production cycle.
a. 6 months b. 12 months c. 1 year d. 1 month
22. Treatment of disease based on administration of remedies prepared through successive dilutions of a
substance that in higher concentration produces symptoms in healthy subjects similar to those of the
disease itself.
a. Disinfecting b. Sanitizing c. Homeopathic d. Synthetic
23. In Halal slaughtering, it is required to recite _______ which means “in the name of Allah” immediately
before slaughter.
a. INSHALLAH b. BISMILLAH c. MARHABAN d. HASANAN
24. Environmental and developmental stage of coccidian parasites, produced through sexual reproduction
in the definitive host.
a. cyst b. spp. c. oocyst d. Bahala na
25. Chillers for shrimps and prawns should be capable of maintaining temperature ____
a. Between 0 ℃ to 4 ℃ b. between 0 ℉ to 4 ℉ c. below 5 ℃ d. below 75 ℉
26. Cold storage temperatures should be capable of maintaining the temperature of the shrimps and
prawns at or below ____ with minimal temperature fluctuations.
a. 18 ℉ b. −18 ℉ c. 18 ℃ d. −18 ℃
27. Step at which control can be applied to essentially prevent or eliminate a food safety hazard to reduce
it to an acceptable level
a. Defect action point b. Initial inspection c. Proper handling d. Blanching
28. Any substance applied or administered to any food-producing animal, whether used for therapeutic,
prophylactic or diagnostic purposes or for modification of physiological functions or behavior
a. Mary Jane b. Veterinary substances c. Convenience drug d. Veterinary drug
31. Halal site production for farm animals shall undergo cleansing for _______ and should be done in
accordance with Shri’ah when the area is previously used for haram animals.
a. 1 year b. 2 years c. 3 years d. 5 years
32. In halal goat production, the farm should be at least _____ away from haram areas, such as but not
limited to piggery farm, toilets, canals and other sources of contaminations such as factories, major road
and communal grazing areas, considering the widn direction and water flow to prevent cross-
contamination.
a. 100-200 m b. 100-200 km c. 200-300 m d. 200-300 km
33. Statement confirming the product or batches of products originate from an establishment that is
essentially in good regulatory standing with the competent authority in that country and that the products
are processed and handled under a competent HACCP and other pre-requisite programs.
a. Certification b. Attestation c. Advertisement d. Upraisal
34. Seafarming of aquatic plants and animals in open waters of the sea including bays, coves and
estuaries regardless of actual salinity levels or depth.
a. Brackishwater b. mariculture c. Extensive aquaculture d. AOTA
aquaculture
35. Reduction of microorganisms to a level acceptable for direct consumption by the process of holding live
bivalve molluscs for a period of time under approved, controlled conditions in natural or artificial seawater
suitable for the process which may be treated or untreated.
a. Tempering b. Depuration c. Shuckling d. Relaying
36. Combination of letters or number which by the history of the slaughter, cutting, packaging, and
distribution of the product is determined
a. Bar Code b. Product ID code c. Lot identification code d. Code X
37. It is a domesticated water fowl intended for meat and egg production. Scientific name is Anas
platyrhynchos
a. Turkey b. Goose c. Duck d. Swan
38. In exercising the Code of Good Animal Husbandry Practices, records should be kept for a minimum of
___ or a time specified by Government derivatives
a. 3 months b. 3 years c. 6 months d. 6 years
39. Boneless meat that has been reduced or cut into smaller pieces
a. Comminuted b. Ground c. Minced Meat d. Basta meat
40. Any procedure or test conducted by an official inspector on live animals for the purpose of judgment of
safety and suitability and disposition.
a. Quality control b. Preliminary inspection c. Ante-mortem d. Organoleptic
inspection inspection Inspection
41. The aim of freezing of carcass it o extend the shelf-life from weeks to several months. Bacterial growth
stops at temperature below _____.
a. 12 ℃ b. 10 ℃ c. 8℃ d. −12 ℃
42. To cook slowly in fat and little moisture in a closed pot; refers to cooking of meat in dry form, usually
sauteed.
a. Broil b. blanch c. stew d. braise
43. Body scoring of carabaos that has a moderate fat and muscle covering. Rump is slightly sloping, stifle
region is slightly prominent and with slightly wide, moderately thick and flat thigh.
a. BS 1 b. BS 2 c. BS 3 d.BS 4
*BS 1 – Characterized by good fat and muscle covering indicated by a smooth rounded appearance
throughout the body. Rump is plump and stifle region is bulging with wide, thick and convex thigh.
*BS 3 – Has lesser fat and muscle covering than BS 2 indicated by prominent bony structures. Rump is
indented, stifle reion ig sunken and thigh is pointed and thin.
44. Standard for the Code of goof animal husbandry practices (GAHP)
a. PNS/BAFPS 36:2008 b. PNS/PAES 60:2008 c. PNS/BAFPS 60:2008 d. PNS/PAES 36:2008
45. The aflatoxin content of milk should bot exceed the maximum level of _____ for Aflatoxin M1.
a. 0.5 μg/kg b. 0.4 μg /kg c. 0.3 μg/kg d. 0.2 μg/kg
46. Fiber-cement flat sheets that are intended for external applications where they may be subjected to the
direct action of sun and rain.
a. Type A b. Type B c. Type C d. Typewriter
*Type B - Type B sheets are intended for internal and external applications where they will not be subjected
to the direct action of sun and rain.
47. Usually S1S hardboard with holes punched or drilled at the factory for use with various fixtures to
provide decorative all-mounted storage facilities or which may be used for acoustic purposes.
a. Decorative b. Perforated c. Interior d. Fancy
*Decorative - Hardboard which has a pattern impressed on one surface, e.g. simulating some other
materials such as leather, sawali, wood grain, bark, diamond, fine weave, and others.
48. A high density fiberboard that has been specially treated with drying oil, petroleum derivatives or other
compounds stabilized by baking or heating, and generally intended for the use where moisture resistance
is required.
a. Standard fiberboard b. Tempered fiberboard c. Processed fiberboard d. Motherboard
*Standard - A high density fiberboard without subsequent treatment generally intended for interior use.
*Face-plywood - plywood faced with a material other than wood, such as metal or plastic
*Interior plywood - type of plywood intended for inside use, having limited moisture resistance
*Lumber core plywood - plywood made up of face/back veneer, crossboard core veneer and well composed
kiln dried lumber core
51. It is noted for its light weight, being less dense than water and able to resist moisture, oils, and
solvents.
a. Polyehtylene b. Polypropylene c.Polyteraflouroethylene d. Polyvinyl chloride
*Polyethylene ( Ultra high molecular weight) - is 1/8 the weight of mild steel but is high in tensile strength
and as simple to machine as wood. It reduces noise in many applications. It is an inexpensive alternative to
metals, ceramics, and wood because it is self-lubricating; long-wearing; and shatter-, abrasion-, and
corrosion-resistant.
*Polyterafluoroethylene (PTFE) - Polytetrafluoroethylene more popularly known as Teflon is based on chain
of carbon atoms, the same as all polymers. Given their good dynamic mechanical properties and sufficient
flexibility, PTFE and modified PTFE-based materials are ideally suited for use as dynamic seals and
bearings, even when the stress is extreme.
*Polyvinyl chloride - Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) is a thermoplastic that is a polymer of vinyl chloride. Resins of
polyvinyl chloride are hard, but with the addition of plasticizers a flexible, elastic plastic can be made. This
plastic has found extensive use as an electrical insulator for wires and cables.
52. It provides high strength and stiffness while offering enhanced dimensional stability and ease of
machining
a. Acetals b. Acrylic c. Nylon d. Poly carbonate
* Acrylic - Cast acrylic shall be made from virgin acrylic monomer and offers superior optical clarity and
light transmission. It shall not affected by sunlight; it resists aging; and it remains stable across a wide
range of temperature, moisture, and exposure conditions. It will not crack, craze, or corrode. Cast acrylic is
preferred for some industrial and commercial applications because of its optical superiority over molded or
extruded acrylic products. Cast acrylic can be machined or cemented and, with standard equipment, will
fabricate like wood, metal, or other plastics. It weighs half as much as comparable glass and yet has good
shatter resistance and durability.
* Nylon(Polyamide) - one of the most versatile and widely used thermoplastic materials. Its physical
properties and reasonable price combine to make it a popular choice for numerous applications. It can
replace steel, brass, bronze, aluminum, wood, and rubber, while reducing noise, using less lubrication, and
increasing gear life. Using standard metalworking equipment, nylon can easily be machined and fabricated
into precision parts.
* Polycarbonate - Polycarbonate is an amorphous thermoplastic with excellent dimensional stability and
good strength and stiffness over a wide range of service temperatures. It is often used for structural
applications when transparency and impact strength are essential-such as lenses, manifolds, site glasses,
and machine guards. Polycarbonate suits a wide variety of electrical applications as well, because of its low
moisture absorption, good insulation and excellent flammability rating.
53. Substances that melt on heating and are processed in this state by a variety of extrusion and molding
process
a. Plastic b. Polymer c. Thermoplastic d. Thermosets
* Plastic - synthetic organic material, including cellulose derivatives, with or without the incorporation of
fillers, binders, pigments, dyes, which is capable of being shaped more or less permanently by casting or
molding under increased temperatures and pressures
* Polymer - chemical compound with higher molecular weight consisting of a number of structural units
linked together by covalent bonds
*Thermosets - substances that cannot be melted and remelted
54. _________ splines are multiple keys in the general form of internal and external gear teeth, used to
prevent relative rotation of cylindrically fitted machine parts.
a. Square b. Involute c. rectangular d. helical
*Square - Square splines are employed in multiple-spline fittings having 4, 6, 10, or 16 splines
55. Couplings used when the shafts are virtually collinear and when they remain in a fixed angular relation
with respect to each other ( except for angular deflection)
a. Flexible couplings b. Oldham coupling c. Rigid couplings d. Rubber chain flexible
coupling
*Flexible - Flexible couplings are designed to connect shafts which are misaligned either laterally or
angularly. A secondary benefit is the absorption of impacts due to fluctuations in shaft torque or angular
speed.
*Oldham/double slider - Eliminates the need for large clearances and the resultant noisy backlash by
providing a double-tongued central slider fitting between two flanges slotted at right angles to each other
56. In the analysis grades of hot rolled steel sheets and plates, a four digit series designation follows the
first character of a five-character alphanumeric system. The first two digits of the number indicate the
type of steel (10 for plain carbon steel and 15 for carbon-manganese steel) and the last two digits indicate
the approximate mean of the specified _________
a. Carbon range b. Manganese range c. Aluminum range d. Shooting range
57. The designation for analysis of grades of hot rolled steel sheets and plates shall consist of a five-
character alphanumeric system. What letter designtes Silicon killed, with or without aluminium addition?
a. A b. K c. S d. U
58. Quotient of the load (when the specified permanent elongation occurs in a tensile test) divided by the
original cross-sectional area.
a. Proof load b. Proof stress c. Max load d. Max stress
59. Hot-rolled product supplied in cut lengths and produced by cutting from a coil rolled on a continuous
mill. It has a width of at least 600 mm and a nominal thickness of 3 mm minimum. The edges of the sheet
may be either trimmed or untrimmed.
a. Hot-rolled steel sheet b. Hot rolled steel plate c. Hot rolled d. Hot rolled aluminium alloy
pancake plate
*hot-rolled steel sheet - hot-rolled product supplied in cut lengths and produced by cutting from a coil
rolled on a continuous mill. It has a width of at least 600 mm and a nominal thickness of less than 3 mm.
The edges of the sheet may be either trimmed or untrimmed
60. Color codes painted on the surface of the ends of each bar is used to determine its grade. Yellow coded
bars are ______.
a. Grade 230 b. Grade 275 c. Grade 415 d. Grade mo tres
63. Set screws used for applications that require no protruding parts of the machine. The use of this type
allows easy assembly and disassembly of machine parts.
a. Square head b. Slotted head c. Hexagonal socket d. Panini head
head
64. Machine screws used for general purposes.
a. Hexagonal head b. Flat countersunk c. pan head d. Hexagonal flange
head head
65. To prevent tearing or shearing, the margin for riveted joints shall be equal to ___________.
a. 2 times the rivet diameter c. 2 times the radius of the rivet
b. 1 ½ times the rivet diameter d. 1 ½ times the radius of the rivet
66. Type of rivets used when the reverse side of the joint is not accessible or is to restricted.
a. Cold forged rivets b. Semi-tubular rivets c. Blind rivets d. Perceptive rivets
67. Allowance in length of rivet in order to turn over or flatten the protruding end.
a. Clinch allowance b. Clearance allowance c. Pitch allowance d. Wah allowance
68. For a straight thread, this diameter is the imaginary cylinder bounding the root of an external thread
or the crest of an internal thread.
a. Major diameter b. Minor diameter c. Pitch diameter d. Ball diameter
*Major Diameter - for a straight thread, this is the diameter of the imaginary cylinder bounding the crest of
an external thread or the root of an internal thread
*Pitch diameter - for a straight thread, this is the diameter of the imaginary cylinder whose surface passes
through the thread profiles in such a way to make the widths of the thread ridge and the thread groove
equal
69. Use ________x________ when temperature is below 93° , for temperature above 93° , use _____y_____.
a. x = oil; y=grease b. x=grease; y=oil c. x&y = grease d. x&y = oil
71. These bearings are excellent for heavy radial loads and moderate thrust. Their internal self-aligning
feature is useful in many applications such as HVAC fans.
a. Cylindrical roller b. Needle bearings c. Tapered roller d. Spherical roller
* Cylindrical - These bearings utilize cylinders with approximate length/diameter ratio ranging from 1:1 to
1:3 as rolling elements. They are normally used for heavy radial loads and especially useful for free axial
movement of the shaft. They also have the highest speed limits for roller bearings.
*Needle - These bearings have rollers whose length is at least 4 times their diameter. They are the most
useful where space is a factor and are available with or without inner race, it must be hardened or ground.
Full-complement type is used for high loads, oscillating, or slow speeds. Cage type should be used for
rotational motion. They cannot support thrust loads.
* Tapered - These bearings are used for heavy radial and thrust loads. They are designed so that all
elements in the rolling surface and the raceways intersect at a common point on the axis: thus true rolling
is obtained. Where maximum system rigidity is required, the bearings can be adjusted for a preload. They
are available in double-row.
72. This bearing provides for heavy radial and light thrust loads without increasing the outside diameter of
the bearing.
a. Single-row Radial b. Angular-contact c. Double-row d. Ball Bushings
bearings
*Single-row Radial - This bearing is often referred to as the deep groove or conrad bearing. It is available in
many variations such as single, double shields, and seals. This type of bearing is normally used for radial;
and thrust loads (maximum two-thirds of radial).
*Angular-contact - These bearings are designed to support combined radial and thrust loads or heavy
thrust loads depending on the contact-angle magnitude
* Ball bushings - This type of bearing is used for linear motions on hardened shafts (Rockwell C 58 to 64).
Some types can be used for linear and rotary motions
73. Bevel gear having equal numbers of driver and driven gear teeth and operate at aes with right angles.
a. Straight bevel gears b. Miter gears c. Helical gear d. Di ko knows
*Straight bevel gears - bevel gears whose teeth are straight but the sides are tapered so that they would
intersect the axis at a common point called the pitch cone apex if extended inward
74. Standard shafts for agricultural machines are usually of steel designation _______.
a. 1020 b. 1040 c. 4340 d. 4140
75. Type of roller chain sprockets that has a hub on both sides.
a. TYPE A b. TYPE B c. TYPE C d. TYPE D
76. PNS standard for Flat Belts and Pulleys for Agricultural Machines – Specifications and Applications
a. PAES 301:2000 b. PAES 302:2000 c. PAES 303:2000 d. PAES 304:2000
78. All data measurements for the performance test of the SPIS shall be simultaneously gathered within
one mine for every ______ time period.
a. 30 min b. 1 hour c. 2 hours d. afternoon
80. Type of shallow well used in unconsolidated formations with large diameters which permit considerable
water storage.
a. Dug well b. Bored well c. Driven well d. Augered well
* Bored well/ augered well - used in formations with very shallow water depths
*Driven well - used in unconsolidated formations with shallow water tables that contain not too many rocks
81. The maximum discharge of the catchment area at the proposed check dam point formula is Q=CL D 3/ 2
. C is the coefficient which is ____ for loose rock, boulder log and brushwood check dams and ______ for
gabion and cement masonry check dams.
a. 3.0, 1.8 b. 0.3, 2.14 c. 2.14, 0.5 d. NOTA
82. A weir with a surface that slopes gently downward from the crest to the downstream apron where only
the horizontal component of the overflow takes part in the impact with the tailwater while the vertical
component is unaffected.
a. Ogee b. Glacis c. Corewall d. Gated
*Ogee - a weir wherein the upper curve of the ogee is made to conform to the shape of the lower nappe of
a ventilated sheet of water falling from a sharp-crested weir
* Corewall - used to stabilize the river bed for intake type diversion structures or to gain a limited amount
of diversion head. the external part of the weir exposed to water flow is made of pure concrete while the
inside part is filled with stones and cobbles which provides a more economical section
*Gated - a weir where the larger part of the ponding is accomplished by the solid obstruction or the main
body of the weir
84. For the rainwater and runoff management of a Small Water Impounding System, the maximum slope
shall be ______.
a. 2% b. 15% c. 18 % d. 20%
85. Type of emitter that have relatively long flow paths with larger path cross-section with turbulent flow
regime.
a. Long-path b. Turtuous c. Vortex d. In-line
*Long-path - water is routed through a long, narrow passage at laminar flow to reduce the water pressure
and to create a more uniform flow; flow areas: 1 mm2 to 4.5 mm2.
*Vortex - its flow path is a round cell that causes circular flow. The fast rotational motion creates a vortex
which results to higher head losses that allow for larger openings
*In-line - – intended for installation between laterals
86. Formula by Keller Bliesner that can also be used in determining the localized evapotraspiration in mm
per day.
a. ET crop−loc=ET a ×k r b. ET crop−loc=ET a ×n c. d.
ET crop−loc=ET a × [ 0.1 ( Pd )0.5 ]
0.5
ET crop−loc=ET a × ( Pd )
87. For the jet trajectory of sprinklers, most travelers use gun sprinklers with trajectory angle ranging
between _______.
a. 18-32 degrees b. 20-21 degrees c. 26-28 degrees d. NOTA
2 1/ 2
88. The formula for the discharge of each sprinkler is q=0.00111 C d n p in a sprinkler system. r is the
________ in __________.
a. radius, mm b. radius, m c. application rate, m/s d. application rate in
mm/h
*Sorry ibang formula pala dapat => q=Sl S m r <= This formula dapat yun
89. A continuous move system that sprinkles water from a continuously moving lateral pipeline. The self-
propelled lateral is fixed at one end and rotates to irrigate a large circular area.
a. Center-pivot b. Linear-move c. Traveling d. Pivot point
*Linear-move - combine the structure and guidance system of a centerpivot lateral with a traveling water-
feed system similar to a travelling sprinkler
* Traveling - – high capacity sprinkler fed with water through a flexible hose which is mounted on a self-
powered chassis and travels along a straight line while watering
90. A mechanical-move system sprinkler that consist of rigidly coupled lateral pipe connected to a buried
mainline positioned in the center of the field.
a. Side-roll lateral b. End-tow Lateral c. Gun and boom d. Fixed system
system system sprinkler
*Side-roll lateral system – the lateral pipes are rigidly coupled and each joint of pipe is supported by a
large wheel where the lateral line forms the axle for the wheels. This is mechanically moved by an engine
mounted at the center of the line
* Gun and boom sprinkler - nozzles are attached to long discharge tubes and rotated by means of a rocker
arm drive
*Fixed system - sprinkler systems not requiring to be moved during the course of irrigation
91. On clay soils, the inflow is stopped. when the irrigation water covers ____ of the border
a. 50 % b. 60 % c. 70-80% d. 60-80%
92. The channel sections to be used in the performance evaluation of open channels using the ponding
method shall be at least _____ long, straight and with uniform cross sections and slope.
a. 10 m b. 50 m c. 50 km d. 10 km
93. The flow capacity in the cross sectional area including the freeboard shall be about _________times the
design discharge.
a. 1.25 to 1.35 b. 2 to 3 c. .25 to 1.35 d. 1.5 to 3.5
95. Distance from the perimeter of the irrigation area to the community or area of concern that is sensitive
to contamination.
a. Safe distance b. Setback distance c. Safe zone d. Senstive zone
96. Geological formation shaped by the dissolution of a layer or layers of soluble bedrock, usually
carbonate rocks such as limestone or dolomite
a. Mound b. Karst topography c. Geologic structures d. Manila Bay
97. Any legal restriction or limitation on quantities, rates, and/or concentrations or any combination
thereof, of physical, chemical or biological parameters of effluent which a person or point source is allowed
to deliver into a body of water or land.
a. Loading limit b. Loading standard c. Effluent limit d. Effluent standard
*Loading limit - allowable pollutant-loading limit per unit of time, which the wastewater generator is
permitted to discharge into any receiving body of water or land
98. In-line canal structure designed to convey canal water from a higher level to a lower level, duly
dissipating the excess energy resulting from the drop in elevation.
a. Penstock b. Drop c. Spillway d. Secret
99. Rise in maximum flood level from the original unobstructed flood level which result after an obstruction
to the flow such as a dam, has been introduced.
a. Surge b. overflow c. Afflux elevation d. dam impedance
100. Volume of water stored in reservoir between the minimum water level and normal water level
a. Active storage b. Storage volume c. Field capacity Volume d. Malay ko