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01 mcq prosthodontics

dental anatomy (Badr University in Cairo)

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Prosthetic Dentistry ••• 193

1) The buccal shelf area In the mandibular arch Is

the primary stress bearing area because of all
the following factors except:
a) Buccinator fibres are parallel to denture borders.
b) Location is buccal to crest of ridge.
c) Presence of underlying compact bone.
d) Almost horizontal location. I Ans. Key: b I
2) The crest of maxillary residual ridge is a primary
stress bearing area for following reasons except:
a) Underlying compact bone.
b) Fibrous connective tissue.
c) Keratinized epithelium.
d) Glandular tissue in submucosa. I Ans. Key: d I
3) The palatine aponeurons which is the anterior
portion of soft palate is composed mainly of
tendons of the muscle:
a) Levator palatini.
b) Palatopharyngeus.
c) Tensor palatini.
d) Musculus uvulae. I Ans. Key: c I
4) The class III soft palate is associated with
which palatal vault configuration?
a) Shallow palatal vault.
b) Cleft lip and palate.
c) High V-shaped palatal vault.
d) Gradual vault configuration. I Ans. Key: c I
5) The teeth arrangement in neutral zone will enhance:
a) Retention of denture.
b) Support of denture.
c) Stability of denture.
d) Occlusion of denture. I Ans. Key: c I
6) For enhancing support of the denture,
the mandibular denture should cover:
a) The anterior two third of retromolar pad.
b) Only pear shaped pad.
c) Both completely.
d) None of the above. Ans. Key: a

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194 ••• MCQ's - Clinical Dental Sciences

7) The emergency retentive force in complete

dentures is due to :
a) Oral and facial musculature.
b) Surface tension.
c) Atmospheric pressure.
d) Capillarity. I Ans. Key: c I
8) The immediate denture treatment may be
contraindicated in which of the psychological
attitude of patient?
a) Skeptical.
b) Critical.
c) Philosophic.
d) Indifferent. I Ans. Key: a I
9) Denture sore mouth is caused by :
a) Underlying hormonal deficiency.
b) III-filling dentures.
c) Allergy to denture material.
d) Infection with candida albicans. I Ans. Key: a I
10) The retromolar pad contains the following except:
a) Adipose tissue.
b) Glandular tissue.
c) Buccinator fibres.
d) Superior constrictor. I Ans. Key: a I
11) The typical S-shape to mandibular lingual denture
border is due to action of :
a) Mylohyoid muscle.
b) Geniohyoid muscle.
c) Sublingual gland.
d) Glossopalatine muscle. I Ans. Key: a I
12) Tissue health and preservation is achieved best
by which of the following impression technique?
a) Selective pressure.
b) Pressure impression.
c) Minimal pressure.
d) Open mouth. I Ans. Key: c I

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Prosthetic Dentistry +++ 195

13) 'Interfacial surface tension' is the only
retentive force as per:
a) Selective pressure technique.
b) Mucostatics.
c) Pressure impressions.
d) Dynamic impression. I Ans. Key: b I
14) Minimal flange extension is a concept in :
a) Minimal pressure impression.
b) Selective pressure.
c) Pressure impression.
d) Dynamic impression. I Ans. Key: a I
15) Definite pressure impression aims to achieve:
a) Tissue preservation.
b) Optimal retention.
c) Comfort to patient.
d) Tissue health and retention. I Ans. Key: b I
16) Minimal pressure Impression technique
was discovered by :
a) H.L. Page.
b) Green brothers.
c) C.O. Boucher.
d) Atwood. I Ans. Key: a I
17) Selective pressure impression technique
was advocated by :
a) H.L. Page.
b) Boucher.
c) Green brothers.
d) Atwood. I Ans. Key : b I
18) The physical laws of hydrostatics and Pascal's
law were associated with :
a) Selective pressure impression.
b) Mucostatics.
c) Pressure impression.
d) Dynamic impressions. I Ans.Key:b)

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19) Boos Bimeter is used to record:

a) Orientation jaw relation.
b) Centric relation.
c) Vertical relation.
I Ans. Key: c
d) EMG activity.
I
20) Costen's syndrome is associated with:
a) Increased vertical jaw relation.
b) Reduced vertical jaw relation.
c) Incorrect centric relation.
d) Failure to use face bow. I Ans. Key: b I
21) The graphic method of recording centric relation
using Height's tracers is a :
a) Static method.
b) Functional method.
c) Dynamic method.
d) None of the above.
I Ans. Key: a I
22) On Hanau articulator the type of face bow used is :
a) Snow type.
b) Quick mount face bow.
c) Lama-Linda type.
d) None the above. Ans. Key; a I
I
23) Advantages of using face bow are the
following except:
a) Recording correct centric relation position.
b) Recording correct vertical relation position.
c) Minimize occlusal descrepancies.
d) Better esthetics.
I Ans. Key: b I
24) Incisal reference notch on Hanau articulator is
caliberated below horizontal
condylar plane at :
a) 30mm.
b) 40mm.
c) 50 mm.
d) 60mm. I Ans. Key: c I

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Prosthetic Dentistry ••• 197

-
25) The instrument which registers the glenomaxillary
relations in three planes is :
a) Heights tracers.
b) Face bow.
c) Hanau articulator.
d) Fox plane. I Ans. Key: b I
26) F.H. Plane is
a) Axis orbitale plane
b) Interpupillary plane.
c) Prosthetic plane.
d) Ala tragus plane. , Ans. Key: a I
27) The various third points of reference for face
bow records known are the following except:
a) Orbitale point.
b) Infraorbital foramen.
c) Pupil of the eye.
-v d) Ala of the nose. [ Ans. Key: d

28) Compensating curve in teeth arrangement

is used to develop:
... a) Natural occlusion.
b) Occlusion in edentulous patients.
c) Occlusion in fixed partial denture cases.
d) All of the above. l Ans. Key: b I
29) Articulator containing condylar elements
within its upper member is :
a) Arcon articulator.
b) Non Arcon articulator.
c) Hanau articulator.
d) Whip-mix articulator. I Ans. Key: b I
30) The bodily lateral movement of mandible
resulting from movements of condyles along
the lateral inclines of the mandibular fossa is :
a) Lateral guidance.
b) Condylar guidance.
c) Canine guidance.
d) Bennell movement. I Ans. Key: d I

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198 ••• MCQ's - Clinical Dental Sciences

31) Pantograph is :
a) Fully adjustable articulator.
b) Instrument recoding paths of mandibular movement.
c) Pneunographic recording device.
d) Gnathodynamometer. I Ans. Key : b I
32) Camper's plane is :
a) Axis orbital plane.
b) Ala-tragus plane.
c) Inter pupillary plane.
d) Plane of occlusion. I Ans. Key: b I
33) Centric occlusion:
a) Always coincides with maximum intercuspation.
b) May not coincide with maximum intercuspation.
c) Never coincides with maximum intercuspation.
d) Centric occlusion and maximum intercuspation
is one and the same. I Ans. Key : b I
34) Canine protected occlusion is one of the form of :
a) Balanced occlusion.
b) Mutually protected occlusion.
c) Group function occlusion.
d) Lingulized occlusion. I Ans. Key : b I
35) The 'Spherical theory' of occlusion is proposed by :
a) Bonwill.
b) Monson.
c) Hall.
d) Gysi. I Ans. Key: b I
36) The concept of 'Transographlcs' is :
a) Recording of hinge axis.
b) Recording different axis for each condyle.
c) Facebow with third point of reference mark.
d) Graphic recording of mandibular movements. I Ans. Key: b I
37) Prosthetic plane corresponds to :
a) Line from lower part of tragus to lower edge of nostril.
b) Upper part of tragus to lower edge of nostril.
c) Orbitale porion plane.
d) Occlusal plane. I Ans. Key: a I

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ProstheticDentistry ••• 199

38) Myocentric occlusion often coincides with:
a) Centric relation.
b) Centric occlusion.
c) Organic occlusion.
d) Canine gUided occlusion. I Ana. Key: b I
39) The clever diagram called 'The articulation quint' explaIns:
a) Balanced occlusion.
b) Mutually protected occlusion.
c) Canine guided occlusion.
d) Lingualised occlusion. I Ans. Key: a I
40) The 'Articulation quint' is suggested by :
a) Mccolloum.
b) G.v. Spee.
c) Gysi.
d) Hanau. I Ans. Key: d I
41) 'Pleasure curve' is
a) Combination of monsoon and antimonsoon curve.
b) Combination of spherical curve and Wilson curve.
c) Compensating curve in balanced occlusion.
d) Curve of Spee in natural dentition occlusion. I Ana. Key: a I
42) The primary cause of Benett movement is :
a) Contraction of lateral pterygoid muscle.
b) Contraction of medial pterygoid muscle.
c) Tight temperomandibular ligament.
d) Neuromuscular incoordination between both the condyles. I Ans. Key: a I
43) The 'Shield shaped' pattern of mandibular
border movements is viewed in :
a) Horizontal plane.
b) Sagittal plane.
c) Frontal plane.
d) Envelop of motion. I Ans. Key: c I
44) Benett movement has all of the following attributes except:
a) Speed.
b) Amount.
c) Timing.
d) Direction. I Ans. Key: a I

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200 ••• MCQ's - Clinical Dental Sciences

45) Long centric is freedom of movement

anteroposteriorly at the same vertical dimension by :
a) 0.2 to 1,0 mm.
b) 2 to 4 mm.
c) 8t010mm.
d) 1 to 10 mm.
I Ans. Key: a I
46) Freedom from centric is
a) Undesirable quality of occlusion.
b) Exert traumatogenic influences to supporting structures.
c) Reduces precise occlusal functioning.
d) Reduces tendency to bruxism. I Ans. Key : d I
47) Centric relation and centric occlusion
coincide in the following except:
a) Complete denture occlusion.
b) Gnathological concept.
c) Conventional occlusion in natural dentition.
d) Cusp fossa therapeutic occlusion.
I Ans. Key: c I
48) Which of the following is not a factor affecting
balanced occlusion?
a) Condylar guidance.
b) Curve of Spee.
c) Compensating curve.
d) Plane of orientation. I Ana. Key :b I
49) Which of the following is not an element of
'Neutrocentric' occlusion?
a) Timing direction.
b) Position, proportion.
c) Pitch, form.
d) Number.
I Ans. Key: a I
50) 'Balancing ramp for 'three point balance'
is used in:
a) Non-anatomic occlusion.
b) Neutrocentric occlusion.
c) P.M.S. concept.
d) Gnathologic principles. I Ans. Key: a I

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Prosthetic Dentistry ••• 201

51) Umbrella term for Iingualized occlusion

encompasses the following except:
a) Linear occlusal scheme.
b) Functional occlusal scheme.
c) Bilateral balanced and non balanced occlusion.
d) Conventional natural dentition occlusion. I Ans. Key: d I
52) BULL:s law is a term associated with:
a) Occlusal equilibration.
b) Full mouth rehabilitation.
c) Cusp-fossa occlusion.
d) Gnathologic principles. I Ans. Key: a I
53) 'Realett' t.e. resiliency and like effects is
disadvantageous because undue advantage
is being taken of the following structures except:
a) To overcome inadequacies in occlusion.
b) At the cost of alveolar bone.
c) At the cost of temperomandibular joint.
d) At the cost of denture retention. I Ans. Key: d I
54) The term 'Realeff' for tissue resiliency was coined by :
a) Boucher.
b) Charles Breaker.
c) Hanau.
d) Atwood. I Ana. Key: c I
55) The Hanau's equation for Bennett movement
calculation is (L) Bennett angle =
a) (H/4) + 6
b) (H/2) + 4
c) (H/8) + 12
d) (H/9) +10;
where, H is Horizontal condylar inclination. I Ans. Key: c I
56) The Quick Mount or earpiece face bow
is utilized with:
a) Hanau articulator.
b) Denar articulator.
c) Whip mix articulator.
d) Panadent articulator. ! Ans. Key: c I

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202 ••• MCQ's - Clinical Dental Sciences

57) . The triangular space between occlusal
surface of posterior teeth on mandibular
protrusion in natural dentition is known as :
a) PMS philosophy.
b) Freedom incentric.
c) Christenson phenomena.
d) Pleasure curve. I Ans. Key: c I
58) The factor in balanced occlusion for complete
denture which is fixed for a particular patient
and not to be changed by the operator is :
a) Plane of orientation.
b) Inclination of cusp.
c) Condylar guidance.
d) Compensating curve. I Ans. Key: c I
59) 'Dentogenics' is the term coined by :
a) Hall.
b) Hanau.
c) Frush and Fisher.
d) Charles Beeaker. I Ans. Key: c I
60) SPA factor is considered for:
a) Selection and arrangement of teeth.
b) Selective grinding.
c) Relining and rebasing.
d) Phonetics. I Ans. Key: a I
61) In phonetics, the precise area of normal
tongue palate contact for a given sound is evaluated by :
a) Magnetic sound resonance and imaging.
b) Palatogram.
c) Sound spectrographic recording.
d) Cineradiography. I Ans. Key: b I
62) The esthetic factor in teeth selection considers
universal 'Golden proportion' which is equivalent to :
a) 0.618.
b) 0.699.
c)
d)
1.313.
None of the above.
I Ans. Key: a
I

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Prosthetic Dentistry ••• 203

63) The basic factors determining principles of

'Esthetics' does not include:
a) Composition.
b) Balance.
c) Proportion, empathy.
d) Characterization. I Ans. Key: d I
64) Dynamism in esthetics in teeth arrangement
is governed by :
a) Universal proportion.
b) Smile line.
., c) Characterization.
d) Negative space and buccal corridor. I Ans. Key: d I
65) The goals of 'Preprosthetic surgery are all of
the following except:
a) Preservation.
b) Augmentation.
;l
c) Extension and correction.
d) Rehabilitation and esthetics. I Ans. Key: d I
66) 'Floating Obturator' is treatment for:
a) Cleft lip (P) in newborn.
b) Palatal insufficiency.
c) Gross palatal defect.
d) Prevention of mouth breathing. I Ans. Key: a I
67) Pantograph:
a) Is a Buhenergrapher.
b) Is an apparatus consisting of two facebows.
c) Records noncoliner condylar axes.
d) Records envelop of mandibular motion. I Ans. Key: b I
68) Upper and lower face bows which by
attachments subsequently become
articulators are the following except:
a) Transograph.
b) Kile dentograph.
c) Buhenergrapher.
d) Duplifunctional. I Ans. Key: c

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204 ••• MCQ's - Clinical Dental Sciences

69) Jectron Jig and Hooper duplicators are basically:
a) Facebow and articulators
b) Used for reline and rebasing.
c) Used to construct immediate dentures.
d) Overdenture attachments. I Ans. Key: b I
70) The advantages of over dentures are the
following except:
a) Maintains teeth as part of the residual ridge.
b) Lessened caries susceptibility of abutment teeth.
c) Decrease in RRR.
d) Preserves proprioceptive impulses. I Ans. Key: b I
71) To prevent distortion, the processing of
complete dentures with permanent record
bases of heat cured acrylic resin requires:
a) Rapid curing cycle.
b) Slow curing cycle.
c) Chemical curing.
d) Light curing. I Ans. Key: b I
72) The various stages of residual ridge resorption
in individual patient have been categorized
into six stages by :
a) Tallegren.
b) Atwood.
c) Applegate.
d) Devan. I Ans. Key: b I
73) Patient remount and lab remount procedures are for:
a) Occlusal discrepancy correction in
laboratory in absence of patient.
b) Selective grinding in patients mouth.
c) Occlusal equilibration with quick mount face bow.
d) None of the above. I Ans. Key: a I
74) Temporary resilient liners or tissue conditioners
are mainly indicated for:
a) Congenital acquired defects.
b) R.R.R. cases.
c) Bruxism.
d) Abused traumatized tissues. I Ans. Key : d I

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Prosthetic Dentistry ••• 205

75) Permanent resilient reliners are indicated in

all of the following except:
a) R.R.R. cases.
b) Xerostomia due to diabetes or irradiation.
c) Bruxism.
d) Abused or traumatized tissue. I AnI. Key: d I
76) A device which is used as a guide for surgical
shaping of tissues to desired shape and is a
transparent resin processed base is used in :
a) Overdentures for attachment fixation.
b) Immediate dentures as template.
c) Reline and rebasing technique.
d) Cleft lip (P) rehabilitation. I AnI. Key: b I
77) The unit of speech by which we distinguish,
one utterance from the other is known as :
a) Surds.
b) Phoneme.
c) Sonants.
d) Consonants. I AnI. Key: b I
78) When severe undercuts are present in acquired
or congenital defects, the obturator of choice could be :
a) Fixed obturator.
b) Hinge obturator.
c) Meatus obturator.
d) Baloon obturator. I Ans. Key: d I
79) Passavant's pad is :
a) Bulging forward of superior constrictor muscle.
b) Elevation of tensor palatini muscle to close oropharynx.
c) Arch created by levator palatini muscle.
d) Glandular tissue on hard palate. I AnI. Key: a I
80) The obturator which is inclined perpendicular
to palate is :
a) Fixed obturator.
b) Hinge obturator.
c) Meatus obturator.
d) Baloon obturator. I AnI. Key: c I

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206 ••• MCQ's - Clinical Dental Sciences

81) Loss of mandibular continuity resulting In mandibular

deviation can be treated by the following except:
a) Obturator.
b) Intermaxillary fixation.
c) Mandibular based gUidance.
d) Palatally based guidance. I Ans. Key: a I
82) Guide flange prosthesis is :
a) Vertical extension from buccal aspect of
mandibular prosthesis.
b) Downward extension from palatal aspect of
maxillary partial denture.
c) A speech aid appliance.
d) An obturator.

83) Inclined plane prosthesis is

a) A maxillary plane inclined Inferiorly towards midline
b) A speech aid prosthesis.
c) An obturator.
d) A splint. I Ans. Key: a I
84) A splint is an appliance to :
a) Close an opening.
b) Fix movable parts.
c) Guide tissue growth.
d) Hold tissue in predetermined position. I Ans. Key : b I
85) A stent is an appliance to :
a) Close an opening.
b) Fix movable parts.
c) Guide tissue growth.
d) Hold tissue in predetermined position. I Ana. Key: d I
86) All of the following components are parts
of a bridge except:
a) Retainer.
b) Abutment.
c) Pontic.
d) Connector. I Ans. Key: b L

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87) An abutment tooth with two terminal abutments

on either side and also two edentulous arches
on either side is :
a) Bullet crown.
b) Pier.
c) Intermediate abutment.
d) Connector. I Ans. Key: b I
88) Bridge supported on one side is called as :
a) Spring bridge.
b) Cantilever bridge.
c) Fixed movable bridge.
d) Adhesive bridge. I Ans. Key: b I
89) A resin bonded prosthesis is all of the
following except:
a) Adhesive bridge.
b) Maryland bridge.
c) Rochette bridge.
d) Compound bridge. I Ans. Key: d I
90) When there is a precision attachment and movement
between pontic and retainer the type of bridge is :
a) Fixed-fixed.
b) Adhesive.
c) Pier.
d) None of the above. I Ans. Key: d I
91) Fixed partial denture is indicated in the
following conditions except:
a) Short span cases.
b) Missing anterior teeth.
c) When RPD is contraindicated.
d) Ideal adjacent abutments. I Ans. Key: c I
92) The criteria for selection of ideal
abutment is known as :
a) Bull's law.
b) Ante's law.
c) Wolf's law.
d) Newton's law. I Ans. Key: b I

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208 ••• MCQ's - Clinical Dental Sciences

93) The axioproximal groove should fUlfill the

following criteria for an anterior 3/4 1h crown except:
a) Placed on long proximal surface.
b) Opposing grooves should be parallel to each other.
c) Should be wide at incisal and narrow at
the gingival aspect.
d) Located labial to contact point on mesial surface. Ans. Key: d I
94) The design for gingival surface of pontic for
anterior tooth is :
a) Ridge lap.
b) Modified ridge lap.
c) Conical.
d) Sanitary. I Ans. Key: b I
95) Narrowing of occlusal surface of pontic:
a) Leads to uneven stress distribution.
b) Helps to reduce stresses transmitted to abutment teeth.
c) Reduces masticatory efficiency.
d) Helps to restore the occlusion of natural lost tooth. I Ans. Key: b I
96} The most important factor which Influences
retention of fixed partial denture is :
a) The casting.
b) The cementing medium.
c) A single path of placement.
d) Taper. I Ans. Key: c I
97) Perforated metal framework for resin
bonded prosthesis is a :
a) Maryland bridge.
b) Rochette bridge.
c) Particle roughened resin bonded retainer.
d) Compound bridge. I Ans. Key: b I
98) The effect of film thickness on retention of crown is :
a) Increased thickness results in increased retention
b) Multiple paths of placement with minimum film
thickness increases retention.
c) Single path of placement with minimum film
thickness increases retention.
d) None of the above. I Ans. Key: c I

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Prosthetic Dentistry ••• 209

99) Optimum film thickness for a particular

luting agent Is in the range of :
a) 0.25 - 0.50 urn.
b) 25 - 50 urn,
c) 0.25 - 0.50 mm.
d) 25 - 50 mm. I Ans.Key:b I
100) Die spacer Is given for the following reasons except:
a) Provide space for luting agent.
b) Compensate for casting shrinkage.
c) Accuracy of marginal fit of casting.
d) Compensate for die inaccuracies. I Ans. Key: d I
101 ) The axioproximal grooves in tooth preparation:
a) Improves resistance form.
b) Improves retention form.
c) Prevents distortion.
d) Improves marginal fit. I Ans. Key: a I
102) SUbgingival margin is justified when:
a) Additional retention is needed.
b) Caries or cervical erosion.
c) Esthetics ;s a prime consideration.
d) All of the above. I Ans. Key: d I
103) The distinct most conservative margin design is :
a) SUbgingival chamfer ..
b) Supragingival chamfer.
c) Supragingival chisel-edge.
d) Shoulder. I Ans. Key: b I
104) The principles of geometry of tooth preparation
in fixed partial denture are based on :
a) Engineering principle.
b) Bridge parallelometer.
c) Closed lower pair of kinematics element in
analytical mechanics.
d) Mathematical model of kinematics in mechanics. I Ans. Key: c I

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210 ••• MCQ's - Clinical Dental Sciences

lOb) In tooth preparation the recommended

convergence is :
a) 2 degrees.
b) 3 degrees.
c) 5 degrees.
d) 10 degrees. I Ans. Key: a I
106) Functional cusp bevel is prepared on :
a) Palatal cusp of maxillary and buccal cusp
of mandibular tooth.
b) Buccal cusp of maxillary and f1ngual cusp of
mandibular tooth.
c) Only the buccal cusps of maxillary or mandibular tooth.
d) Only the lingual cusps of maxillary or mandibular tooth. I Ans. Key: a
I
107) The chemical agent used for gingival
retraction could be :
a) Epinephrine B%.
b) Aluminium chloride 5%.
c) Zinc chloride B%.
d) All of the above. Ans. Key: d
I
108) The groove placement for partial veener
preparation must meet the criteria that the groove:
a) Should resist lingual displacement with explorer.
b) Walls should not be undercut relative to the
selected path of withdrawal.
c) Walls should be flared towards intact buccal tooth surface.
d) All of the above. I Ans. Key: d t
109) Jacket crown is contraindicated in :
a) Contact sports e.g. boxing.
b) Heavy bite or deep bite cases.
c) Severe attrition cases in young patient.
d) All of the above. I Ans. Key: d I
110) In radicular retainers for tilted roots; the path of insertion
for the crown can be made different than that for root with:
a) Post and core.
b) Dowel crown.
cj Richmond crown.
d) Logan crown. ! Ans. Key: a I
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111) In young patients with wide root canals
the Dowel pin of choice is :
a) Cast dowel.
b) Wrought dowel.
c) Basemetal dowel.
d) All of the above. I AnI. Key: a I
112) For enhanced strength, the ferrule effect
principle is incorporated for:
a) Radicular retainers.
b) Partial coverage crown.
c) Metal ceramic crown.
d) Functional cusp bevel. I Ans. Key: a I
113) In radicular retainers, the external bracing against fracture
by dowel; provided by encircing metal band, is known as :
a) The ferrule effect
b) Apical coping extension effect.
c)
d)
Apical contra bevel extension effect.
All of the above.
I Ans. Key: a .
I
114) The theory that advices at least 1 mm of
sound dentin surrounding entire surface of dowel is :
a) The conservationist.
b) The proportionist.
c) The preservationist.
d) Ferrule principle. I Ana. Key: c I
115) Gingival retraction is aimed at moving gingival
tissues away from the tooth so as to allow:
a) Optimum tooth preparation.
b) Subgingival margin designing.
c)
d)
Enough thickness of impression material.
Esthetic smile line,
I
. Ans. Key: c .
I
116) The dimensional stability of rubber base
impression material is such that the cast can be
poured even after more than a day is true for:
a) Condensation silicone.
b) Polyether.
c) Polysulfide. --,. _
d) None of the above. I AnI. Key: b I

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212 ••• MCQ's - Clinical Dental Sciences

117) The need for a die for wax pattern preparation

is all of the following except:
a) Interproximal access to wax pattern.
b) Ease in handling.
c) Visualization and accuracy.
d) To compensate for casting shrinkage. I Ana. Key: d I
118) Divestment technique is :
a) Die material and investment material has
same composition.
b) Preparation of die by split cast technique.
c) Die material and investment material has
different composition.
d) None of the above. I Ana. Key: a I
119) Divestment phosphate technique is
especially formulated for
a) Conventional gold alloy.
b) Ceramic restoration.
c) Titanium castings.
d) All of the above. I Ana. Key: b I
120) Die spacers are given for:
a) Casting shrinkage compensation.
b) Belter marginal fit of casting.
c) To provide optimal cement film thickness.
d) All of the above.
I Ans. Key : d I
121) Electroplated die is used for :
a) To overcome poor abrasion resistance of gypsum dies.
b) All ceramic crown.
c) Its compatibility with polyether impression material.
d) All of the above. I Ans. Key: d I
122) 'Ditching' of the die is done for:
a) Better marginal fit of casting.
b) Dilineation of finish line on the die.
c) Casting shrinkage compensation.
d) All of the above. I Ans. Key: b r

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Prosthetic Dentistry ••• 213

123) The width of epithelial attachment and

connective tissue attachment between base
of sulcus and alveolar crest is known as :
a) Physiological width.
b) Biological width.
c) Dentogingival width.
d) Junctional epithelium. I Ans. Key: b I
124) Crown lengthening impingement technique
is performed to :
a) Prevent Impingement on biological width.
b) Surgically move alveolar crest 3 mm apical
to proposed finish line location.
c) Provide favourable crown to root ratio for
short clinical crown.
d) All of the above. I Ans. Key: d I
125) The fixed partial denture of choice for tilted
abutment could be :
a) Telescopic crown.
b) Fixed movable bridge.
c) Compound bridge.
d) All of the above. I Ans. Key: d I
126) Which of the following statement in context with forced
eruption technique is false? Forced eruption:
a) Is an alternative or an adjunct to conventional
crown lengthening.
b) Extrusion force is short and severe so that tooth
moves without periodontium, depending upon
the requirement.
C) Extrusion force is minimal, long and light so that
tooth moves with periodontium.
d) Is contraindicated in improper crown to root ratio. I Ans. Key: b I
127) The principle that, 'light approaches and dark
recedes' is known as :
a) Principle of illusion.
b) Principle of line.
c) Law of face.
d) Principle of illumination. Ans. Key: d

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214 ••• MCO's - Clinical Dental Sciences

128) The property of colour which causes two colour samples

to appear as same hue under one light source but as
unmatched hues under a different light source is :
a) Illusion.
b) Metamerism.
c) Illumination.
d) Hue sensitivity. I Ans. Key: b I
129) Tooth preparation for porcelain laminate
veneers must not violate:
a) 1 mm circumferential principle.
b) Principle of dynamic area.
c) Principle of line.
d) Principle of illumination. I Ans. Key: a I
130) The three tired depth cutting burs LVS 1 • 7
series are used in tooth preparation for:
a) Porcelain laminate veneers.
b) Resin bonded retainers.
c) Proximal groove preparation.
d) Metal ceramic crown. I Ans. Key: a I
131) The dental cement which bonds adhesively to tooth
structure and is also used for cementation of casting is :
a) Type II glassionomer.
b) Type I glassionomer.
c) Composite resin.
d) Zinc hydroxide. I Ans. Key: b I
132) The 'chameleon effect' has been portrayed by
which of the ceramic restorations?
a) Cerestore.
b) Dicar.
c) Ceree.
d) In ceram. I Ans. Key; b I
133) The alloy casting in adhesive resin bonded restorations
should be retained to tooth by the following except;
a) Etching laboratory alloy.
b) Chemical bonding cement.
c) Silicoater system.
d) Perforated casting. [ Ans. Key: d I

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Prosthetic Dentistry ••• 215

134) The core materials in recent use are the

following except;
a) Polyurethane.
b) Titanium reinforced composite resin.
c) G/ass/onomer silver.
d) Gold alloy. I Ans.Key:d I
135) The newly emerging material science which mimick
biomechanics of original tooth by restorative
material is known as :
a) Biomimetic.
b) Cosmesil.
c) Biocare.
d) Colorlogic. I Ans. Key: a I
136) The shrink free injection moulding technique
in ceramics is known as :
a) Cerestore.
b) Inceram.
c) Procera.
d) Dicor. I Ans. Key: a I
137) The recent immediate implant system is :
a) Root analogue Titanium implant reimplant.
b) Branemark IMZ system.
c) Linkow Blade vent system.
d) None of the above. I Ana. Key: a I
138) The magnets used in retentive devices are all of
the following except:
a) Jackson magnet.
b) Samarium cobalt.
c) Rare earth.
d) Corevent. I Ans.Key:d I
139) The modern CAD/CAM systems for all ceramic computer
made restorations include all of the following except;
a) CICERO.
b) PROCERA.
c) CEREC.
d) DICOR MGC. I Ans.Key:d I

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216 ••• MCQ's - Clinical Dental Sciences

140) The lesion due to stress concentration at

cervical margin crused by sustained occlusal
load and wear are known as :
a) Abfractions.
b) Spark erosion.
c) Electric discharge.
d) Radiation wear. I Ans. Key: a
I
141) The recent composites with improved physical
properties does not include:
a) Artglass.
b) Targis.
c) Concept.
d) Caplatec. I Ans. Key: d
I
142) Which of the following is not the surface
treatment performed to bond laminates to tooth:
a) Etching & Conditioning.
b) Silane treatment.
c) Silicoating.
d) Spark erosion. I Ans. Key: d
I
143) Which at the following is not the method used
for strengthening acrylic resin?
a) To add fibres.
b) Laser treatment.
c) Self reinforcement.
d) To add beads and metal forms.
I
Ans. Key: b I
144) The prosthesis which helps to distribute radiation
and compensate for tissue loss is known as :
a) Radiation stent.
b) Radiation bolous prosthesis.
c) Radiation basket prosthesis.
d) Anti radiation obturator.
I Ans. Key: b I
145) The new generation resins used for veneers
or single unit crowns are known as :
a) Ceramic polymers.
b) Lucitone.
c) Kooliner.
d) Trutone. Ans. Key: a
I I

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Prosthetic Dentistry ••• 217

146) The appliance based on the principle of

anterior tooth intrusion and posterior tooth
eruption in severe wear cases is known as :
a) Forced eruption spring.
b) Dahl appliance.
c) Kingsley splint.
d) Aramany appliance. I Ans. Key: b 1

147) State which of the following statement is not true

reparding 'flexible dies' :
a) Set rapidly, allow finished restoration to be easily removed.
b) Made of impregnum F material.
c) Made of polysulfide polymer.
d) The composite margin adaptation is difficult on flexible die. 1 Ans. Key: c 1

148) The following is true for recent generation

dentin bonding agents except:
a) Condition both enamel and dentin.
b) V generation systems.
c) One bottle system.
d) Does not bond to amalgam or other luting cements. I Ans. Key: d I

149) The advantages of ovate pontic in anterior

restoration are all of the following except:
a) Excellent emergence profile.
b) Harmony with adjacent tissues.
c) Can be placed directly into extraction site.
d) Require guidance of residual ridge by 'Roll technique'. I Ans. Key: d 1

150) Ergonomics is :
a) Functionally driven design of esthetic dental clinic.
b) Newly emerging material science.
c) Chammeleon effect of ceramics.
d) Resembling biomechanics of original tooth
by restorative materials. I Ans. Key: a 1

151) The example of ultraconservative fixed prosthodontics is :

a) Single sitting fiber reinforced fixed bridge.
b) Immediate placement implant.
c) CAD/CAM system.
d) Telescopic system. I" Ans. Key: a 1

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218 ••• MCQ's - Clinical Dental Sciences

152) The vital tooth esthetics with light scattering

effect can be appreciated in :
a) Captek ceramic system.
b) Cerec ceramic system.
c) Celay ceramic system.
d) Procera ceramic system. I Ans. Key: a I
153) The example of endoesthetics is :
a) Luminex - 201 (LTP) system.
b) Carbon fiber post.
c) Captek system.
d) CAD/CAM retainers. I Ans. Key: a I
154) The recent advancement in foundation
restorations are all of the following except:
a) Luminex system.
b) Ceramic post.
c) Carbon fibre post.
d) Richmond crown system. I Ana. Key: d I
155) The various die systems are all of the following except:
a) Pindex.
b) OVA.
c) Brass die.
d) Pinlock. I Ans. Key: d I
156) The Aramid and Ribbond fibers are used
to strengthen:
a) Glass ionomer.
b) Ceramic.
c) Acrylic resin.
d) Polyether material. I Ans. Key: c I
157) The glassionomer resin combination cements
is known as:
a) Compomer.
b) Ormocer.
c) Ceramic polymer.
d) Dual cement. I Ans. Key: a I

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Prosthetic Dentistry ••• 219

158) The digitalized technique in which object is

produced, slice by slice using 3-D computer
data is known as :
a) Rapid prototyping.
b) CAD-CAM system.
c) Captek system.
d) Luminex system. I Ans. Key: a I
159) Method of rapid prototyping which uses data
from CT scan or MRI scan stored in three
dimensional form is known as :
a) Stereolithography.
b) CAD-CAM system.
c) Captek system.
d) Luminex system. I Ans. Key: a I
160) A three dimensional measurement of stereoscopic
vision which is an alternative to conventional
Impression in implant dentistry is known as :
a) Stereolithography.
b) Photogrammetry.
c) Rapid prototyping.
d) CAD/CAM. I Ans. Key: b I
161) The "distortion equation" is used in implants
relates with:
a) Mandibular flexure.
b) Envelop of motion.
c) Three dimensional imaging systems.
d) None of the above. I Ans. Key: a I
162) The preferred method of ascertaining minor
clicking in TMJ is :
a) By listening to the clicking sounds carefully.
b) By percussing the TMJs.
c) Through articular palpation.
d) By placement of the fingertips on the angles of
the mandible. I Ans. Key: d I

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220 ••• MCQ's - Clinical Dental Sciences

163) The maximum average interincisal opening in a

normal individual is :
a) 10-20mm.
b) 30 - 40 mm.
c) 50 - 60 mm.
d) 100 - 110 mm. I Ans. Key: c
I
164) During laughter, the jaws open slightly, a dark
space is often visible between the maxillary and
mandibular teeth. This is called as the:
a) Negative space.
b) Dark corridor.
c) Freeway space.
d) Interocclusal space. I Ans. Key: a I
165) A deprogrammer in prosthodontics is
a) A device to attain average values of mandibular
movements in a fully adjustable articulator.
b) A device or material used to alter the
proprioceptive mechanism during mandibular closure.
c) A soft ware to normalize settings in a mandibular
movement simulator.
d) None of the above.
I Ans. Key: b I
166) Incisal guidance is
a) The influence of the contacting surfaces of
the mandibular and maxillary anterior teeth on
mandibular movements.
b) The influence of the contacting surfaces of the
guide pin and guide table on articulator movements.
c) Both of the above.
d) None of the above. I Ans. Key: c I
167) To achieve maximum strength and surlace
detail in a stone cast poured from an alginate
impression, the poured impression should be :
a) Immersed in distilled water.
b) Immersed in water saturated with calcium sulphate.
c) Left in open dry atmosphere.
d) Covered with wet paper and stored in
humidor for one hour.
I Ans. Key: d I

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Prosthetic Dentistry ••• 221

168) The current concept of centric relation supports:

a) The condyle disk assembly located in the
most anterior superior position against the
slopes of the articular eminences.
b) The condyles in the most posterior unstrained
position in the glenoid fossa.
c) The condyle and disks to be in the mid most
uppermost position in the glenoid fossa.
d) The condyles in the uppermost and rearmost
position in the glenoid fossa. I Ans. Key: a I

169) A tooth requiring a direct pulp capping procedure

which is considered as an abutment for a fixed
partial denture:
a) Is perfectly acceptable,
b) Is acceptable only if the tooth is restored by an
amalgam filling with a base.
c) Is not recommended and conventional endodontic
treatment is preferred.
d) Is an acceptable risk provided the tooth is kept
under observation. I Ans. Key: c I
170) The favourable force distribution in a well fabricated
fixed partial denture:
a) Is along the crest of the alveolar bone,
perpendicular to the abutment teeth.
b) Is along the circumference of the abutment teeth
to the margins of the retainers.
c) On the occlucal anatomy of the fixed partial denture.
d) Is along the long axis of the abutment teeth. I Ans. Key: d I
171) . Ante's law deals with the:
a) Selection of teeth as abutments for fixed
partial denture.
b) Combined pericemental architecture of bone
in a patient.
c) Effect of span length on the flexion of a fixed
partial denture.
d) Periodontal ligament health in a given case. I' Ans. Key: a I

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222 ••• MCQ's - Clinical Dental Sciences

172) Purely rotational movement of mandible is

limited to about:
a) 5 mm of incisal seperation.
b) 12 mm of incisal seperation.
c) 25 mm of incisal seperation.
d) Purely rotational movements are not feasible
because the TMJ is a ginglymoarthroidal joint. I Ans. Key: b I
173) Bruxism is:
a) A condition where centric relation and maximum
intercuspation are not coincident.
b) A habitual dislocation of the TMJs anteriorly.
c) The parafunctional grinding of teeth.
d) A deviated closure during normal chewing activity. I Ana. Key: c I
174) Vascularization in the articular disk Is present in the:
a) Medial and lateral surface of the disk.
b) Retrodiskal tissues.
c) Anteriorly along the capsule and the superior
head of the lateral pterygoid muscle.
d) The articular disk is avascular. I Ans. Key: b I
175) Crown lengthening for an abutment teeth can be
accomplished by a :
a) Surgical approach to the periodontium.
b) Combined orthodontic periodontic techniques.
c) Post and core restoration.
d) Both a and b. I Ans. Key: d I
176) The placement of grooves or boxes to an excessively
tapered preparation improves the retention form of
the preparation by :
a) Limiting the path of withdrawal.
b) Increasing the surface area thus creating greater
adhesive potential of the luting agent.
c) Creating interlocking areas of the casting with the
tooth by roughening the tooth surface.
d) None of the above. I Ana. Key: a I

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Prosthetic Dentistry ••• 223

1n) The margin design, lingually for a conventional metal

ceramic crown with ceramic only on the labial
surface would be :
a) Shoulder.
b) Shoulder with bevel.
c) Chamfer.
d) Radial shoulder. I Ans. Key: c I
178) It is preferable to have supragingival margins
in general. However a sUbgingival margin is justified if :
a) Dental caries, cervical erosion or restorations
extend subgingivally and a crown lengthening
procedure is not indicated.
b) There is a high esthetic demand which requires the
margin to be hidden behind the labiogingival crest.
c) Additional retention is needed.
d) All of the above. I Ans. Key: d I

179) "Draft" in restorative dentistry refers to :

a) A document provided by the dentist to the patient,
explaining the treatment plan and the expenses.
b) Absence of undercuts.
c) A laboratory prescription given by the dentist to
the technician.
d) None of the above. I Ans. Key: b I
180) Given a similar tooth to be prepared, greatest retention
will be obtained from the following type of preparation:
a) A three-fourth crown without grooves.
b) A seven eight crown without grooves.
c) A three-fourth crown with grooves.
d) A complete crown without grooves. I Ans. Key: d I
181 ) While considering in cross section, the correct
order of increasing resistance provided by various
shapes of grooves made in a tooth preparation is :
a) U shaped, V shape, box shape.
b) V shape, U shape, box shape.
c) Box shape, V shape, U shape.
d) There is no significant difference in the resistance
provided by any of the mentioned groove shapes. I Ans. Key: b I

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224 ••• MCQ's - Clinical Dental Sciences

182) While restoring teeth with fixed restorations,

if inflamed gingiva is found before tooth preparation:
a) The dentist can proceed with the preparation since
by the time the permanent restoration is cemented,
the gingiva will normalize.
b) The dentist can proceed with the preparation but
he must carefully place a well made provisional
restoration, as it would provide the physiologic
contours required for the gingiva to heal.
c) The dentist should base his decision on the degree
of inflammation present as he could prepare the teeth
with minimum inflammation.
d) The dentist must institute therapy if required and allow the
gingiva to turn to a completely healthy state
before starting tooth preparation. I Ans. Key: d I
183) While preparing post space for an intraradicular post,
the minimum length of apical seal to be kept intact is :
a) O.5mm.
b) 1 mm.
c) 3mm.
d) 5mm. I Ans. Key: c I
184) On an average, the greatest risk of root fracture
during a post core procedure is :
a) During post space preparation.
b) During function, few hours immediately after
placing the full coverage restoration over the core.
c) During post cementation.
d) During removal of a cemented post. I Ans. Key: c
I
185) Truly hydrophilic elastomeric impression material is :
a) Polyvinyl siloxane.
b) Poly ether.
c) Condensation silicone.
d) Polysulfide.
I Ans. Key: b I
186) Anticholinergics used as antisialagoges are
contraindicated in :
a) Older patients.
b) Patients with heart disease.
c) Patients with glaucoma.
d) All of the above.
I Ans. Key: d I
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Prosthetic Dentistry ••• 225

187) The class of impression material known as

'rubber base' are:
a) Polysulfide polymers.
b) Addition silicones.
c) Condensation silicones.
d) All of the above. Ans. Key: a

188) Cementation of acrylic provisional restoration

is preferably done using:
a) Zinc oxide eugenol temporary cement.
b) Zinc phosphate cement.
c) Eugenol free luting cement.
d) Any luting cement. I Ans. Key: a I
189) A polyether impression should be preferably
disinfected by :
a) Immersion into 2% gluteraldehyde solution.
b) Sprayed with chlorine compounds and
placed in a plastic bag.
c) Sprayed with 2% gluteraldehyde.
d) Any available means. I Ans. Key: b I
190) Cement space is increased by :
a) Thermal and polymerization shrinkage for
the impression material.
b) Increased expansion of the investment mold.
c) Use of die spacer.
d) All of the above. I Ans. Key: d I
191) Inlay wax suitable for making indirect patterns is :
a) Type I.
b) Type II.
c) Type lit.
d) Any of the above. tAns. Key: b I
192) Various preformed provisional crowns
available Include:
a) Polycarbonate.
b) Cellulose acetate.
c) Aluminium. Tin silver and Nickel chromium.
d) All of the above. ! Ans. Key: b I

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193) The most important dimension of colour as related to

shade selection, which should be matched first is :
a) Chroma.
b) Value.
c) Hue.
d) Depends on the type of incident light and the case. I Ans. Key: b
I
194) The elastomer most suitable for silver electroplating
die preparation is :
a) Addition silicone.
b) Polyether.
c) Polysulfide.
d) All of the above. I Ans. Key: c
I
195) The most critical characteristic for success of a
removable die system is :
a) The ease of removal of the individual dies from
their master cast.
b) The contrasting colours of the anatomic portion
and the base of the mastercast.
c) Abrasion resistance of the stone cast.
d) The precise relocation of the die in the master cast. I Ans. Key: d
I
196) The microhardness testing parameters useful
in dentistry include:
a) Vickers and knoop hardness numbers.
b) Brinell and Rockwell test.
c) Both of the above, as all are basically
microhardness numbers.
d) None of the above, as all are basically
macrohardness numbers. I Ans. Key: a I
197) In order to reduce stresses in dentin induced by
the placement of a threaded post in an endodontically
treated tooth, the preferred method involves:
a) Cementing the pin while threading.
b) Treating dentin with EDTA to soften it slightly.
c) Turning the pin a quarter turn in the reverse direction
of its placement.
d) Using post with its diameter very slightly lesser than
that of the canal.

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198) A system of manufacturing copings from blocks of pure

titanium by machine duplication and spark erosion is :
a) Procera.
b) Empress.
Inceram.
c)
d) Captek. I Ans. Key: a I
199) The ovate pontic is particularly suitable for:
a) Mandibular molar region.
b) Maxillary posteriors.
c) Maxillary anteriors and premolars with high
esthetic demands.
d) Any region. I Ans. Key: c I
200) The incomplete seating of a die into an interocclusal
record will result in :
a) Distortion of the interocclusal record.
b) Excessive occlusal height of the casting.
c) Insuflicient occlusal height of the casting.
d) Normal occlusal height if soft wax is used
on the occlusal aspect.
I Ans. Key: b
I
201) The best way to increase retention in a partial
veneer retainer is by :
a) Placing pins and making it a pin ledge.
b) Deepening grooves.
c) Reducing more tooth substance.
d) Increasing the incisal bevel. I Ans. Key: a I
202) The difference between tooth preparation for
metal ceramic restoration and a porcelain jacket
crown is most related to :
a) Facial tooth reduction.
b) Incisal tooth reduction.
c) Configuration of the line of draw.
d) Configuration of the finish line or margin. I Ans. Key: d I
203) Hardening heat treatment for gold copper alloys involves:
a) Quenching immediately after casting.
b) Quenching immediately after recrystallization.
c) . Heating to 350 DC for 15-30 min followed by quenching.
d) Heating to 700 DC for 10 min followed by quenching. \. Ans. Key: c I

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2(4) The parts of a fixed partial denture are:

a) Connector, retainer and pontic.
b) Retainer, abutment, pontic, and connector.
c) Pontic, connector, abutment, retainer, and
stress breakers.
d) Abutment, retainer, connectors, pontic and the post core
restoration used in the abutment teeth (if any). I Ans. Key: a I
205) A reverse partial veneer crown rather than a
conventional partial veneer crown is indicated
on mandibular molars because:
a) The facial surface offers more retention than
the lingual surface.
b) The reverse partial veneer crown is more esthetic.
c) It is easier to make a reverse partial veneer on
a mandibular molar.
d) The axial inclination of these teeth requires excessive
tooth reductions, especially when being used as
abutments for a fixed partial denture. Ans. Key: d I
206) In designing a pontic to the residual ridge,
one important factor In maintaining proper
biologic and hygienic acceptance is that it must not:
a) Be convex mesiodistally.
b) Be concave faciolingually.
c) Be concave in two directions.
d) Touch the residual ridge and exhert pressure. I Ans. Key: c I
207) While making a centric relation record of
natural dentition:
a) The imprints of teeth of both arches should
be confined to cusp lips.
b) The record should include a complete imprints
of the entire occlusal surface.
c) The record should be uniformly perforated because
a thick record will cause an increase in vertical
dimension and hence change the centric relation.
d) The degree of exposure of teeth through the record
depends on the resistance to closure offered by the
type of the record material. I Ans. Key: a I

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Prosthetic Dentist!!. ••• 229

208) Lateral forces in natural dentition are minimum in :

a) Balanced occlusal scheme.
b) Unilaterally balanced occlusal scheme.
c) Group function.
d) Mutually protected occlusion. I Ans. Key: d I

209) When a non rigid connector is used In a fixed partial

denture, the path of insertion of the key into-the keyway
should be parallel to :
a) The path of insertion of the retainer carrying the keyway.
b) The path of insertion of the retainer not involved
with keyway.
c) The path of insertion of both retainers.
d) None of the above. I Ans. Key: b I
210) The kinematic face bow transfer is of great value
in comprehensive fixed rehabilitation because:
a) It facilitates an accurate centric relation record.
b) It enables alteration in vertical dimension on the articulator.
c) It facilitates mounting the mandibular cast in
the center of the articulator.
d) Maintains the condyles in their most retruded
positions in the glenoid fossa. I Ans. Key: b I
211) The preformed contours of the mucosal contacting
surface of a maxillary pontic for maximizing esthetics
along with optimum biologic health is that it be
a) Concave faciolingually and convex mesiodistally.
b) Convex faciolingually and concave mesiodistally.
c) Concave in both dimensions.
d) Convex in both dimensions. I Ans. Key: a I
212) The most dimensionally stable of the following
impression materials when stored for 24 hours
before pouring is :
a) An addition silicone impression.
b) A condensation silicone impression.
c) A polyether impression.
d) A reversible hydrocolloid in a humidor. I Ana. Key: c )

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230 ••• MCQ's - Clinical Dental Sciences

213) The best method for evaluating centric occlusion

on a newly placed fixed restoration is :
a) Shim stock.
b) Articulating paper.
c) Patient feed back.
d) Occlusal indicator wax. I Ans. Key: a
I
214) While preparing a maxillary central incisor for
partial veneer crown, the proximal grooves should
be made parallel to the:
a) Long axis of the tooth.
b) Gingival two third of the facial surface,
c) Incisial two third of the facial surface.
d) None of the above. I Ans. Key: c I

215) The most likely cause of sensitivity a few days

after cementation of 8 fixed partial denture with
polycarboxylate cement is :
a) The low pH of the cement.
b) Premature occlusion.
c) An open margin.
d) Undiagnosed puipal pathology.
I Ans. Key: b I
216) For optimum results, from a porcelain fused to
metal crown, the metal coping design
should be:
a) Convex with undercuts to retain porcelain since
the metal ceramic bond is essentially chemico-
mechanical in nature.
b) Convex with no undercuts.
c) Convex with sharp angles to increase resistance.
b
d) Concave on facial surface to provide room for porcelain.
I Ans. Key:
217) The chief advantage of using an all ceramic
crown over a metal ceramic crown is its:
a) Superior esthetics.
b) Less cost.
c) Ease of adjustability and less technique
sensitivity in fabrication.
Ans. Key: a
d) Better marginal fit.
I I

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Prosthetic Dentistry ••• 231

218) Dental porcelain is manufactured by a

process known as :
a) Ceraming and bisque bake.
b) Devitrification.
c) Crystallization.
d) Frilling. I Ans. Key: d I
219) The chief indication for the use of a non
rigid connector is :
a) To decrease load on the posterior abutment.
b) To allow for some physiologic tooth movement
in the abutments.
c) To allow alignment of misaligned abutment teeth
without significant tooth reduction.
d) To act as a stress breaker for the fixed partial denture. I Ans. Key: c I
220) The occlusion of a pontic should be :
a) Confined only to the functional cusps.
b) Kept just short in order to avoid interferences
c) Confined only to the central fossa.
d) Essentially the same as on the other teeth. I Ans. Key: d I
221) A wax pattern should be sprued :
a) With a small sprue to avoid distortion
of occlusal anatomy.
b) Near the margins to assure complete casting
at the margins since this is the region of greatest
occurrence of defects.
c) In an area of greatest bulk.
d) In a thin area to assure complete casting of the area. I Ans. Key: c I
222) The production of some tiny bUbbles and hence
related irregularities in the subsequent castings is
inevitable to an extent while using a phosphate
bonded investment because:
a) Of evolution of ammonia as a by product of
the setting reaction.
b) Of the high viscosity of the mix which traps air.
c) Vaccum investing is not routinely done in
investing procedure.
d) Mechanical vibration is not routinely used in
investing procedure in routine work. I Ans. Key: a I

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223) Shrinkage compensation by using the phosphate

bonded investment material for casting Nickel
chromium fixed partial denture basically uses:
a) Normal setting expansion only.
b) Normal setting expansion and thermal expansion.
c) Normal, hygroscopic and thermal expansion.
d) Thermal expansion only. I Ans. Key: b I
224) A provisional restoration should fulfill the same
general requirements as the final restoration
except for:
a) Esthetics.
b) Occlusal contact.
c) Durability.
d) Marginal adaptation. I Ans. Key: c I
225) An over contoured restoration most often results from:
a) Overbuilding by technicians since they have
lesser knowledge about normal tooth contour.
b) The need for better esthetics, since greater bulk
is required to achieve good esthetics when using
a ceramic or acrylic facings.
c) The need to protect the periodontium.
d) Insufficient tooth reduction. I Ans. Key : d I
226) The ideal crown root ratio which is rarely achievable
for a prospective abutment tooth is :
a) 1 : 1.
b) 1 : 2.
c) 2: 3.
d) 3: 2. I Ans. Key: b I
227) Applegates rules governing Kennedy's
classification include following except:
a) Classification should follow mouth preparation
and not preceed.
b) Most posterior edentulous area designate
basic classification.
c) Additional edentulous area are designated as modifications.
d) The ex1ent of modification is considered not
the number of modification spaces. I Ans. Key: d I

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Prosthetic Dentistry ••• 233

228) Ante's law was designated by :

a) Irwin Ante.
b) Johnston.
c) Tysman.
d) Jorgenson. I Ans. Key: b I
229) Assuming all other conditions to be same, a
i fixed partial denture with two pontics span would
. I
I flex how many times as compared to a single
tooth pontic:
a) Half times.
b) Two times.
e) Three times.
d) Eight times. I Ans. Key: d I
230) The instrument used to locate the true hinge
axis of a person is an :
a) Arbitrary face bow.
b) Kinematic face bow.
e) A fox plane.
d) Pantograph. I Ans. Key: b I
231) Kennedy divided all partially edentulous arches
into four classes according to their:
a) Universal acceptability.
b) Frequency of occurrence.
c) Immediate visualization.
d) Ease in designing. I Ans. Key: b I
232) The best known classification of partially edentulous
arches are those proposed by following except:
e) Bailyn, Beckett.
F) Swenson, Cummer.
G) Kennedy, Applegate.
H) Page, Chase. I Ans. Key: d I
233) As per Applegates rules governing Kennedy's
classification; classification should always:
a) Preceed mouth preparation.
b) Follow mouth preparation.
c) Disregard mouth preparation.
d) Direct mouth preparation. I Ans. Key: b I

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234 ••• MCO's - Clinical Dental Sciences

234) The principles of mechanical device to survey
the cast was first employed by :
a) A.J. Fortinati.
b) J.M. Ney.
c) Williams.
d) Jelenko. I Ans. Key: a I
235) A dental surveyor is based on the principle of :
a) Bridge parallelometer.
b) Pressure transducer.
c) Mathematical analysis.
d) Engineering principles. 1 Ans. Key: a I

236) Factor necessary to assure the passage of rigid

parts of the prosthesis past existing areas of
interference is :
a) Guiding plane surfaces.
b) Path of placement.
c) Retentive undercuts.
d) Interferences.
I Ans. Key: a I
237) For a clasp to be retentive, its path of escapement
and path of removal should be so related that they are:
a) Parallel to each other,
b) Other than parallel to each other.
c) Perpendicular to each other.
d) None of the above.
I Ans. Key: b I
238) For a given path of placement adequate retention
against reasonable dislodging forces should be :
a) Minimum acceptable.
b) Maximum possible.
c) Cross arch.
d) Unrelated to path of placement. I Ans. Key: a I
239) In determining path of placement for anterior
teeth esthetics :
a) Should not take precedence over the other factors.
b) Should dictate path of placement.
c) Is the only factor of importance.
d) Should not influence path of placement. I Ans. Key: b I

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Prosthetic Dentistry ••• 235

240) A young healthy patient with several missing

upper anterior teeth and maxillary soft tissue
torus; the palatal major connector of choice would be :
a) Palatal strap
b) U shaped palatal connector.
c) Full palatal plate.
d) Anterioposterior palatat bar. I Ans. Key: c I
241) Factors which determine path of placement and
removal are all of the following except:
a) Guiding planes.
b) Interference.
c) Occlusion.
d) Retentive undercuts. I Ans. Key: c I
242) Surveying helps design a prosthesis so that it can be :
a) Easily inserted and removed by patient.
b) Not stress abutment beyond physiological limit.
c) Will be esthetic and resist reasonable unseating forces.
d) All of the above. I Ans. Key: d I
243) The number of principal abutments for class III
modification 1 Kennedy's classification is :
a) Six
b) Four
c) Three
d) Two I Ans. Key: b I
244) In distal extension cast partial denture,
the denture base material preferred is :
a) Metal base.
b) Acrylic resin.
c) Cast gold.
d) None of the above. I Ans. Key: b I
245) Palatal plate type major connector is indicated
in which of the following Kennedy's classification?
a) Class I.
b) Class III.
c) Class III modification 2.
d) All of the above. I Ans. Key: a I

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236 ••• MCQ's - Clinical Dental Sciences

246) The terminal rest along with Iinguoplate

major connector acts as :
a) Direct retainer.
b) Stress breaker.
c) Indirect retainer.
d) Precision attachment. I Ans. Key: c I
247) The component of cast partial denture which
functions to transfer occlusal load from prosthesis
to abutment and from abutment to prosthesis is :
a) Major connector.
b) Stress breaker.
c) Indirect retainer.
d) Minor connector. I Ans. Key: d I
248) Advantages of intracoronal direct retainer are
the following except:
a) Esthetics.
b) Load transmission closer to long axis of abutment.
c) More acceptable by patient.
d) Acts as a stress breaker. I Ans. Key: d I
249) Limitations to use precision, intracoronal
attachments are:
a) Larger size of pulp chambers.
b) Short clinical crowns.
c) Increased cost.
d) All of the above. I Ans. Key: d I
250) For an extracoronal direct retainer to be effective,
the retention of the clasp is dependent upon:
a) Resistance of metal arm to deform.
b) Amount of undercut for a given path of placement.
c) Path of placement should not be parallel
to path of escapement.
d) All of the above. I Ans. Key: d I
251) The bar clasp is also known as :
a) Roach clasp.
b) RPI clasp.
c) y, and Y2 clasp.
d) Hair pin clasp. I Ans. Key: a I

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Prosthetic Dentistry ••• 237

252) For a given amount of retention, when Cobalt

chromium alloy is used for fabrication of clasp, the
depth of undercuts it should engage is :
a) 0.01"
b) 0.02"
c) 0.03"
d) 0.04" I Ans. Key: a I
253) The cross sectional form of a clasp assembly
which is universally flexible is :
a) Round torrn.
b) Oval.
c) Hall round.
d) Hall pear shaped. I Ans. Key: a I
254/ The component of cast parNal denture wflicfr
prevents the movement of clasp assembly cervically is :
a) Occlusal rest.
b) Stabilizing arm.
c) Reciprocal arm.
d) All 01 the above. I Ans. Key: d I
255) The circumferential type of clasp is also known as :
a) Aker's clasp.
b) Ring clasp.
c)
d)
Back action clasp.
Embrasure clasp. I Ans.Key:a

256) The advantages of combination clasp design

(wrought wire retentive and cast stabilizing arm)
are the following except:
a) Adjustability.
b) Flexibility.
c) Appearance.
d) Strength. I Ans. Key: d I
257) Indirect retainers are not required in Kennedy's:
a) Class I.
b) Class II.
c) Class III.
d) Class IV. I Ans. Key: c I

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238 ••• MCQ's - Clinical Dental Sciences

258) Forms of indirect retainer include the following except:
a) Rugae support in class I.
b) Additional occlusal rest in class II.
c) Modification areas in class I and II.
d) Fulcrum line in class I and II. I Ans. Key: d I
259) Prosthodontic treatment alternatives for the
distal extension partially edentulous patient include:
a) Extension base removable partial denture.
b) Implants,
c) Overdenture.
d) All of the above, I Ans. Key: d I
260) Relative parallelism of two or more axial surfaces
of the teeth in dental arch can be determined by :
a) Articulator.
b) Facebow.
c) Surveyor.
d) None of the above. I Ans. Key: c I
261) Line encircling a tooth designating its greatest
circumference as determined by surveyor is known as :
a) Height of contour.
b) Survey line.
c) Guide line.
d) Ali of the above, I Ans. Key: d I
262) Two or more parallel axial surfaces on abutment
so shaped as to direct the prosthesis during
placement and removal is known as :
a) Retentive plane.
b) Guiding plane.
c) Direction plane.
d) Survey plane. I Ans. Key; b I
263) Any unit of removable partial denture that engages
an abutment tooth so as to resist displacement of
prosthesis away from basal seat tissues is :
a) Direct retainer.
b) Indirect retainer.
c) Occlusal rest.
d) Minor connector. I Ans. Key; a I

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Prosthetic Dentistry +++ 239

264) Clasp arm which approaches tooth undercut
from occlusal direction is known as :
a) Bar clasp.
b) Circumferential clasp.
c) Combination clasp.
d) All of the above. I Ans. Key: b I
265) Clasp arm which approaches tooth undercut
from a gingival direction is known as :
a) Bar clasp.
b) Circumferential clasp.
c) Combination clasp.
d) All of the above. I Ans. Key: a I
266) Fulcrum line passing through terminal abutment
and around which denture rotates is an :
a) Illusion effect.
b) Optical effect.
c) Imaginary line.
d) Visible component of cast partial denture. I Ans. Key: c I
267) That part of partial denture that rest on
foundation tissues and to which teeth are attached is :
a) Major connector.
b) Minor connector.
c) Rests.
d) Denture base. I Ans. Key: d I
268) The impression which records the form of the
residual ridge under simulated loading is known as :
a) Anatomic impression.
b) Selective pressure technique.
c) Functional impression.
d) Kennedy's impression. I Ans. Key: c I
269) Stress breaker is a device that allows some
movement between :
a) The major connector and minor connector.
b) Denture base and direct retainer.
c) Abutment teeth and artificial teeth.
d) Prosthesis and supporting tissue. I Ans. Key: b I

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240 ••• MCQ's - Clinical Dental Sciences

270) Our primary aim in the service of prosthetic dentistry is :

a) The perpetual presentation of masticatory apparatus.
b) Meticulous restoration of what is missing.
c) Restoration of patients confidence.
d) Esthetic rehabilitation.
I Ans. Key: a I
271) The best known functional impression techniques
were suggested by the following except:
a) Mc' Cracken.
b) Applegate.
c) Hindles.
d) Mclean.
I Ans. Key: a I
272) Fluid wax impression techniques may use
following waxes except:
a) Korecta wax.
b) Kerr ivory inlay wax.
c) Sticky wax.
d) Applegate's fluid wax.
I Ans. Key: c I
273) Direct retainer selected for distal extension
partial denture should be other than the following:
a) Intracoronal attachment.
b) Combination clasp.
c) RPI clasp.
d) Ball and socket attachment. I Ans. Key: a I
274) The device that allows some movement between
the denture base and its supporting framework
and the direct retainers is known as :
a) Stress breaker.
b) Stress equalizer.
c) Stress director.
d) All of the above. I Ans. Key: d
275) Direct structural and functional connection
between ordered living bone and the surface of a
load carrying implant is :
a) Fibroosseous integration.
b) Biointegration.
c) Osseointegration.
d) Adaptive integration. I Ans. Key: c I

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Prosthetic Dentistry ••• 241

276) True bonding (Osseointegratlon) between

implant surface and bone is possible with which
of the following material:
a) Hydroxyapatite.
b) Titanium.
c) Calcium phosphate.
d) All of the above. I Ans. Key: d I
277) The concept of functional loading for transformation of
woven bone to lamellar bone Is based on the principle of :
a) Ante's law.
b) Wolf's law.
c) Bull's law.
d) Devan's principle. I Ans. Key: b I
278) RPI concept of direct retainers was given by :
a) Krotochvil.
b) Devan.
c) Roach.
d) Aker. I Ans. Key: a I
279) RPA system of direct retainers was suggested by :
a) Krotochvil.
b) Krol.
c) Roach.
d) Akers. I Ans. Key: b I
280) Objective of surveying include all of the following except:
a) Record the cast position with respect
to its path of placement.
b) Permit flexibility for different path of placement for
different components.
c) Permit accurate charting of mouth preparation.
d) Determine most acceptable path of placement. I Ans. Key: b I
281) The factors that determine path of placement and
removal does not include:
a) Guiding plane.
b) Tripoding.
c) Retentive areas.
d) Interference. I Ans. Key: b I

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242 ••• MCQ's - Clinical Dental Sciences

282) In distal extension cases with severe ridge resorption,

the major connector of choice is :
a) Lingual bar.
b) Anterior posterior palatal bar.
c) Labiolingual plate.
d) Linguo plate.
I Ana. Key: d I
283) The extension of minor connector in distal
extension partial denture in mandibular arch is :
a) Two thirds the length of edentulous ridge.
b) Entire length of edentulous ridge
c) One third the length of edentulous ridge
d) Same as that is maxillary arch.
I Ana. Key: a I
284) All of the following type of rest are well
known except:
a) Occlusal.
b) Cervical.
c) Cingulum.
d) Incisal.
I Ans. Key: b I
285) Which of the following type of rest is contraindicated
in distal extension removable partial denture:
a) Occlusal.
b) Internal.
c) Cingulum.
d) Incisal. I Ans. Key: b I
286) Which of the following is not the basic requirement
of direct retainer clasp:
a) Passivity
b) Encirclement.
c) Resiliency.
d) Stabilization. I Ans. Key: c I
287) Basic requirements of direct retainer assembly
include all of the following except:
a) Configuration.
b) Reciprocation.
c) Retention.
d) Bracing. I Ana. Key: a I

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Prosthetic Dentistry ••• 243

288) For optimum retention the retentive arm:

a) Should be placed below the survey line.
b) Only retentive tip should be placed below survey line.
c) Should be tapered uniformly below survey line.
d) Only retentive tip should be tapered. I Ana. Key: b I
289) Reciprocation is provided by which of the following
components of cast partial denture:
a) Major connectors and gUiding plate.
b) Minor connector and bracing arm.
c) Stabilizing arm and rests.
d) Reciprocal arm and retentive arm. I Ana. Key: b I
290) The stabilizing arm is placed with respect
to path of placement:
a) In the supra bulge area.
b) At the height of contour.
c) In the infrabulge area.
d) At the junction of middle and gingival third. I Ana. Key: a I
291) The retentive tip should occupy the existing
under cut for about:
a) 0.001" to 0.003".
b) 0.01" to 0.03".
c) 0.1" to 0.3".
d) None of the above. I Ana. Key: b I
292) Prothero'S 'cone theory' refers to
a) Conical implant placement.
b) Principle of preservation of tissues.
c) Functional impression.
d) Phenomena of clasp retention. I Ans. Key: d I
293) The denture base material of choice in
distal extension partial denture Is :
a) Cast gold.
b) Cobalt chromium.
c) Nickel chromium.
d) Acrylic resin. I Ans. Key: d I

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244 ••• MCG's - Clinical Dental Sciences

294) In distal extension the movement of partial denture

base away from the tissue is prevented by all of the
following components except:
a) Contact of denture base to supporting tissue.
b) Stressbreaker.
c) Direct retainer.
d) Indirect retainer. I Ans. Key : b I
295) The atypical A survey line is a :
a) Medium survey line.
b) High survey line.
c) Diagonal survey line.
d) Low survey line. I Ans. Key: c I
296) Functional impression is made to obtain:
a) Refractory cast.
b) Altered cast.
c) Master cast.
d) Final cast. I Ans. Key : b I
297) Which of the following is not classified as
extracoronal direct retainer?
a) Circumferential clasp.
b) Precision attachment.
c) Combination clasp.
d) Bar clasp. I Ans. Key: b I
298) In distal extension partial denture; the portion on
abutment tooth away from the saddle and towards
remaining natural teeth is known as :
a) Near zone.
b) Far Zone.
c) Typical zone.
d) Atypical zone. I Ans. Key: b ]
290) Movement of distal extension partial denture
occurs about all of the following axes except:
a) Horizontal axis.
b) Fulcrum line.
c) Longitudinal axis.
d) Vertical axis. I Ans. Key: a I

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Prosthetic Dentistry ••• 245

300} The concept of osseointegration in Implants

was suggested by ;
a) Linkow.
b) Branemark.
c) Babbush.
d) Fagun. I Ans. Key; b I
301} The implant more suitable for tapered knife
edge ridge In distal extension partial denture is :
a) Titanium screw.
b) Linkow blade vent.
c) Subperiosteal.
d) Transosseous. I Ans. Key; b I
302} Those portions of a denture framework to which
acrylic resin denture base are attached are:
a) Major connector.
b) Stress distributors.
c) Minor connectors.
d) None of the above. I Ans. Key: c I
303} Mouth preparation for removable partial denture Is :
a) To facilitate longterm success of removable
partial denture.
b) Accomplished for functional impression.
c) Not mandatory and should be avoided.
d) Less important and change in design of
prosthesis is given priority over mouth preparation. I Ans. Key: a I
304} True reciprocation for reciprocal clasp arm
can be obtained:
a) Irrespective of path of placement. by placing
it above height of contour.
b) But is not needed as it exerts orthodontic force on tooth.
c) Only by creating a path of placement for the
reciprocal clasp arm parallel to other guiding plane.
d) But true reciprocation is impossible. I Ans.Key:c I

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246 ••• MCQ's - Clinical Dental Sciences

305) Preparation of ledge on abutment crown for

reciprocal clasp arm:
a) Acts as a terminal stop for the arm.
b) Augments occlusal rest.
c) Acts as indirect retainer.
d) All of the above. I Ans. Key: d I
306) A young patient reports with missing central incisor
and there is no history of trauma. The treatment
plan of choice is :
a) Should always first be RPD.
b) Should always first be FPD and RPD is considered
only when FPD is contraindicated.
c) Should always ask the patient.
d) Dependent upon esthetic considerations of patients. I Ans. Key: b I
307) A young patient reports with missing anterior central
incisors with history of trauma and bone losa.
The treatment plan of choice is :
a) Should always be FPD.
b) Should be RPD so as to replace lost tissue with
denture base material.
c) Anterior teeth should never be replaced by RPD.
d) Depend upon requirements of patients. I Ans. Key: b I
308) Which of the following is not the specific indication
for removable restoration.
a) Kennedy's class III and IV
b) Kennedy's class I and 11.
c) Excessive loss of residual bone.
d) Long span cases. I Ans. Key: a I
309) The interference encountered for the path of
placement selected may be dealt during mouth
preparation by :
a) Elimination by surgery.
b) Modification.
c) Restorations.
d) All of the above. Ans. Key: d

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310) Parallel blockout of mastercast with respect to

the specific path of placement is provided:
a) To protect thin tissues.
b) For tissue undercuts.
c) For ledges.
d) Beneath bar clasp, minor and major connectors. I Ans. Key:d I
311) The term 'articulated prosthesis' is applied to :
a) Overdentures.
b) Immediate dentures.
c) Fixed removable partial denture.
d) Broken stress partial dentures. I Ans.Key:d I
312) In class II and class III partial denture when there
is no modified space on other side of arch;
the clasp design of choice is :
a) Ring clasp.
b) Bar clasp.
c) Embrasure clasp.
d) Combination clasp. I Ans. Key : c I
313) When partial denture replaces an entire half of
dental arch, the additional retention in class III
cases is obtained by :
a) Half and half clasp.
b) Bar.
c) Multiple.
d) Combination. I Ans.Key:c I
314) Swing lock design labial bar major connector is
indicated when there is :
a) Extreme lingual inclination.
b) Mandibular inoperable torus.
c) Extreme labial inclination.
d) All of the above. I Ans. Key: d I
315) Continuous bar retainer is :
a) Type of direct retainer.
b) Type of indirect retainer.
c) Mandibular major connector.
d) Palatal strap type connector. I Ans. Key: c I

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248 ••• MCQ's - Clinical Dental Sciences

316) When surveying a diagnostic cast, the selection of

a suitable anterio-posterior tilt is to :
a) Indicate the greatest available support for the
removable partial denture.
b) Provide relative parallelism among proximal tooth
surtaces.
c) Provide suitable reciprocation for retentive clasp arms.
d) Eliminate soft tissue under roots in the I Ans. Key : b I
retromylohyoid areas.

317) Which of the following is NOT an indication for the

use of mandibular lingual plate:
a) Mandibular tori.
b) A high lingual frenum.
c) Crowded anterior teeth.
d) An undercut which is lingual to the alveolar ridge. I Ans. Key: c I
318) In the construction of a APD, when is a lingual plate
preferred over a lingual bar?
a) When more rigidity is required.
b) When the remaining teeth are widely spaced.
c) When the remaining anterior teeth are mobile.
d) When there is no space in the floor of the mouth. I Ans. Key; d I
319) While relining an extension base APD,
which of the following should the dentist use
to establish proper placement of the
impression stage?
a) Finger pressure to the rest and indirect retainer.
b) Finger pressure to the base area only.
c) Simulated masticatory movements.
d) Gentle biting force. I Ans. Key : a I
320) In removable partial denture treatment,
centric relation and maximum intercuspation
should be established:
a) At the time of delivery of the dentures.
b) Prior to designing the removable partial denture.
c) At one week post insertion appointment.
d) At the time RPD framework are seated. I Ans. Key : b I

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321) The angle of cervical convergence is important in :

a) Measuring the height of contour.
b) Developing uniform retention for clasps.
c) Tripoding the cast to surveyor.
d) Determining final path of placement. I Ans. Key: b I
322) The principle requirement of a major connector
in a removable partial denture is that it :
a) Must avoid impingement of the free gingival margin.
b) The borders must run parallel to the gingival margin
of the teeth.
c) Must be rigid.
d) Should possess adequate rests to prevent the major
connector from being forced in a gingival direction. I Ans. Key: c I
323) The choice of major connector when numerous
teeth are to be replaced and when an inoperable
torus palatinus is present is :
a) Antero-posterior palatal bar.
b) Palatal strap.
c) Complete palate.
d) Closed horse shoe. I Ans. Key7dJ
324) A posterior palatal seal similar to that is used
in complete dentures:
a) Should routinely be used in maxillary distal
extension cases.
b) Should not be employed with a removable partial denture.
c) Can be used if the retention offered by the
direct retainers is inadequate.
d) Should be placed only if an inoperable I Ans. Key: b I
torus palatinus is present.

325) While using mandibular major connectors,

relief between the connector and the soft tissues:
a) Should be routinely provided.
b) Should be provided only if there is a soft or
hard tissue undercut.
c) Is not required at all.
d) Should not be provided as it will hamper the seal. I Ans. Key: a I

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Prosfflefre Dentfstry ••• 251

330) The commonest cause of failure of marginal ridge is :

a) Insufficient reduction of the marginal ridge.
b) Improper angulation of the floor of the rest seat.
e) Improper finishing of the rests in the framework.
d) Excessive occlusal forces on the rest. I Ans. Key: a I
331) A lingual or cingulum rest is used primarily on :
a) Mandibular incisors.
b) Maxillary incisors.
c) Mandibular canines.
d) Maxillary canines. I Ans. Key : d I
332) Incisal rests are most frequently used on :
a) Mandibular incisors.
b) Maxillary incisors.
c) Mandibular canines.
d) Maxillary canines. I Ans. Key: c I
333) A combination clasp implies:
a) A circumferential clasp with retentive arm
in wrought metal and reciprocal arm in cast metal.
b) A bar ciasp with circumferential reciprocal arm.
c) An embrasure clasp with one retentive arm being
circumferential and the other being a vertical projection clasp.
d) Clasp system in which the anterior abutment teeth has the
direct retainer with retentive arm on the buccal aspect and the
distal abutment teeth with retentive arm on the lingual aspect. I Ans. Key: a I
334) The only flexible component amongst the following is :
a) The approach arm of a bar clasp.
b) The retentive and reciprocal arms.
c) The entire retentive arm.
d) The retentive terminal of the retentive arm. I Ans. Key: d I
335) The amount of retention offered by a clasp should:
a) Be maximum enough to retain the removable
partial denture firmly at all times.
b) Be the greatest possible and be continuous from
the time they are placed in position.
c) Be minimum necessary to resist reasonable

d)
dislodging forces.
None of the above. I Ans.Key:c

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252 ••• MCQ's - Clinical Dental Sciences

336) Flexure of a clasp is :

a) Directly proportional to the square of the length.
b) Inversely proportional to the square of the length.
c) Inversely proportional to the cube of the length.
d) Directly proportional to the cube of the length. I Ans. Key: d I
337) The reciprocal arm of a direct retainer should be placed:
a) At the junction of the occlusal and the middle
third of the tooth.
b) At the junction of the middle and the gingival third.
c) Always on the occlusal third.
d) Always on the gingival third. I Ans. Key: b I
338) Once a removable cast partial denture is
placed in the mouth, the clasp should be :
a) Active at all times in order to retain the prosthesis.
b) Passive at all times otherwise it would
impart constant stresses on the abutments.
c) Completely passive and should get activated
only when dislodging forces are applied to
the partial denture.
d) Completely active and should passivate only when
dislodging forces are applied to the partial denture. I Ans. Key: c I
339) The partial denture design which necessitates
the placement of retentive terminal on both the
buccal and lingual aspect is/are:
a) Unilateral partial denture.
b) A partial maxillofacial prosthesis for a
hemimaxillectomy with teeth on one side only.
c) Both of the above.
d) None of the above since such a design is
not acceptable at all. I Ans. Key: c I
340) If all other factors like length of clasp arm,
flexibility, depth of undercut are the same,
more retention is offered by :
a) A bar clasp as compared to a circumferential clasp.
b) A circumferential clasp as when compared with a bar clasp.
c) Both offer the same degree of retention.
d) None of the above since retention is not the
purpose of placing a clasp. I Ans. Key: a I

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Prosthetic Dentistry ••• 253

Multiple choice questions which have already appeared in various

competitive post graduate entrance examinations.

1) The 8% racemic epinephrine is contraindicated

in the gingival cord for patients with hypertension
because of its:
a) Vasoconstrictor effect.
b) Allergic effect.
c) Because it causes ischeamia of the gingival tissues.
d) Causes severe pain. I Ans. Key: a I
2) Porosity occuring in the bulky portions of the
heat cured acrylic complete dentures is due to :
a) Insufficient pressure application during packing.
b) Time lag between packing and curing.
c) Directly placing the packed resin in water at 100 degree.
d) Using a fluid pour technique. I Ans. Key: c I
3) Loss of several teeth may result in :
a) Change in the facial contour.
b) T.M.J. disturbances.
c) Periodontal disturbances.
d) All of the above. I Ans. Key: d I
4) Words with sibilant sound are produced with
an explosive effect:
a) With the incisal edges of the teeth out of contact.
b) With the tip of the tongue touching the
incisal edges of lower teeth.
c) With the upper and lower teeth incisal edges
almost touching.
d) With the tip of the tongue touching the posterior palate. I Ans. Key: c I
5) The main disadvantage of relining and rebasing
the complete denture is :
a) Loss of retention.
b) Allergic responses to reliner.
c) Reduction of stability.
d) Change in centric relation. I Ans. Key: d

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254 ••• MCG's - Clinical Dental Sciences

6) Relining of the complete denture is not indicated when:

a) Denture contains the broken teeth.
b) There is excessive resorption of the ridge.
c) Vertical dimension is excessively reduced
and has to be changed.
d) Centric relation does't coincide with centricocclusion. I Ans. Key: c I
7) Why in immediate dentures vertical overlap of
the anterior teeth is not reduced in an attempt
to reduce the incisal guidance?
a) The advantage of duplicating the natural
teeth positions is lost.
b) This can lead to loss of balanced occlusion.
c) This can lead to change in the vertical
dimension of the occlusion.
d) This can lead to change in the centric relation. I Ans. Key: a I

8) Ear prosthesis and intra ocular prosthesis is

made from:
a) Methyl methacrylate.
b) Metallic implants.
c) Silicone.
d) Epoxy resin. I Ans. Key: c I

9) Treatment of choice for a patient with a maxillary

complete denture with severe bilateral
tuberosity undercuts:
a) Remove both tuberosity undercuts.
b) Remove the tissue on only one side if possible.
c) Maintain the undercuts as they help in retention.
d) Use an mucostatic impression material. I Ans. Key: b I
14) Proper lip support to the patient with the
complete dentures is provided by the:
a) Thickness of the labial flange alone.
b) Thickness of the borders of the denture in the labial sulcus.
c) Facial surfaces of the anterior teeth and
stimulated attached gingiva.
d) All of the above. I Ans. Key: c I

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Prosthetic Dentistry ••• 255

10) Encroachment into the free way space results in :

a) Irreversible bone changes.
b) Irreversible soft tissue inflammation.
c) Both soft tissue and bone changes which are reversible.
d) Reversible soft tissue inflammation and
irreversible bone changes.
I Ans. Key: d I
11) Plane of orientation parallel to the ala-tragus
line (camper's line) is established to :
a) Serve as a guide in establishing the occlusal plane.
b) Serve as a guide in establishing balanced occlusion.
c) Serve as guide in selection of the artificial teeth. I I
d) All of the above. Ans. Key: a

12) Oral tissues are best recorded in the functional state by :

a) Mucocompressive state.
b) Mucostatic technique.
c) Selective or minimum pressure technique.
d) All of the above. I Ans. Key: c I
13) Most reliable method of recording centric relation:
a) Graphic tracing with excursive movements.
b) Wax cone method.
c) Trial and error method.
d) None of the above. I Ans. Key: a I
15) When determining the posterior limit of the
maxillary denture, which of the following is on
the posterior border:
a) Hamular notch.
b) Fovea palatine.
c) Vibrating line.
d) Hamular process. I Ans. Key: a I
16) Excessive application of pressure on the posterior
portion of the occlusal rim during jaw relations
results in ;
a) Anterior openbite.
b) Posterior openbite.
c) Anterior deep bite.
d) Unbalanced occlusion. I Ans. Key: a I

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256 ••• MCQ's - Clinical Dental Sciences

17) Incisal edges of the maxillary teeth are placed

approximately from incisive papilla at a distance of :
a) 2-4 mm.
b) 4-6 mm.
c) 6-8 mm.
d) 8-10 mm. I Ans. Key: d I
18) The seat for any occlusal rest on abutment should be :
a) 90 degrees to the long axis of the abutment.
b) Parallel to the pontic.
c) Parallel to long axis of the abutment.
d) On proximal surface of the abutment. I Ans. Key: a I
19) In mouth preparation for R.P.D., an isolated
second premolar should be :
a) Not used as abutment.
b) Extracted.
c) Splinted to canine for fixed restoration.
d) None of the above. I Ans. Key: c I
20) The most important part of the distal extension
R.P.D. that maintains the stability:
a) Denture base.
b) Retentive clasp.
c) Reciprocal clasp.
d) Occlusal rest. I Ans. Key: a I
21) One of the Important functions of the clasp in R.P.D. is :
a) To hold the abutments.
b) To distribute the stresses.
c) To prevent the dislodgement of the denture.
d) To give flexibility to the denture. I Ans. Key: b I
22) All of the following results In separation of the
porcelain in porcelain fused to metal except:
a) Poor design of the metal frame work.
b) Excessive thickness of the opaque layer.
c) Occlusal contacts at the junction of porcelain
and the metal.
d) Contamination of the metal before firing procelain. I Ans.Key:b I

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ProstheticDentistry ••• 257

23) Casting flux is used to :

a) To prevent the oxidation of the metal during melting.
b) To increase the melting point of the flux.
c) To prevent the contamination ot the metal and the liner.
d) All of the above. I Ans.Key:a I
24) Back pressure porosity in casting is due to :
a) High casting pressure.
b) Low investment permeability.
c) Small size and improper direction of the sprue.
d) High mold temperature. I Ans. Key: b I
25) When loads are increased, tooth closing
movements change into opening due to :
a) Benett shift.
b) Proprioceptive impulses from P.O. ligament.
c) Group function of the teeth.
d) Canine guided occlusion. I Ans. Key: b I
26) Best method to evaluate centric relation in a
newly placed retainers:
a) Articulating paper.
b) Shim stock.
c) Wax sheet.
d) None of the above. I Ans. Key: b I
27) Analysing rod in dental surveyor is used to find out:
a) Depth of undercut.
b) Blocking of the unwanted under cuts.
c) The tilt at which the model is to be surveyed.
d) The type of clasp to be placed. I Ans. Key: a I
28) Which die material gives the most dimensionally
accurate die?
a) Improved stone.
b) Silver amalgam.
c) Electro deposited silver.
d) Silica phosphate.
e) Epoxy resin. I Ana. Key: a I

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29) The size of the wire used to reinforce porcelain

bridges is:
a) 10 gauge.
b) 12 gauge.
c) 14 gauge.
d) 16 gauge. I Ans. Key: c I
30) Porcelain denture teeth:
a) Have a higher coefficient of thermal expansion than
acrylic teeth.
b) Have a lower abrasion resistance than enamel.
c) Should be used where the intra alveolar clearance is small.
d) Have a higher abrasion resistance than gold. I Ans. Key: d I
31) Maxillary obturator is given in :
a) Cleft lip.
b) Cleft palate.
c) Hemimandibulectomy.
d) All of the above. I Ans. Key; d I

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