Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State MCQs

1. What are the most key factors of solid-state reactions?

a) Size of the particles
b) Mechanical properties of solids
c) Thermodynamic and kinetic factors
d) Environmental factors

Answer: d

Explanation: Thermodynamic considerations decide whether or not a reaction should occur in the solid
state by assessing the change in free energy involved, while kinetic factors govern the rate at which the
reaction happens.

2. Which approach can be employed to produce a high degree of homogeneity in the creation of
ZnFe2O4 spinel?
a) Distillation method
b) Vaporization method
c) Coprecipitation method
d) Crystallization method

Answer: c

Explanation: The reactants are mixed together manually or mechanically in a conventional solid state
reaction, and the ensuing reaction rate is largely determined by the degree of homogeneity
accomplished during mixing and the intimacy of contact between the grains. With the Coprecipitation
method, a high degree of homogeneity can be achieved while maintaining a tiny particle size, speeding
up the reaction pace.

3. In the zone melting approach, which of the following principles was used?
a) Impurities concentrate in the liquid phase than in gaseous phase
b) Impurities concentrate in the solid than in liquid phase
c) Impurities concentrate in the gaseous phase than in the solid phase
d) Impurities concentrate in the liquid phase than in the solid phase

Answer: d

Explanation: The zone melting approach is based on the idea that impurities tend to concentrate in
liquid rather than solid phases. As a result, the moving molten zone sweeps' impurities out of the
crystal. Purification and crystal formation of high melting metals like tungsten have been accomplished
using this technology.

4. Which solid structure has a definite and sharp melting point?

a) All types of solids
b) No type of solid
c) Amorphous solids
d) Crystalline solids

Answer: d

Explanation: The structure of crystalline solids is completely organized and collapses at a specified
temperature. Amorphous substances melt at a variety of temperatures rather than at a single
temperature.

5. _________ is a crystalline's basic repetitive structural unit.

a) Monomer
b) Molecule
c) Unit cell
d) Atom

Answer: c

Explanation: A crystalline solid is made up of numerous tiny crystals, each of which is referred to as a
unit cell. It's a distinct term. A polymer's basic unit is a monomer, and atoms create molecules, which
can then be arranged to form solids, liquids, or gasses.

6. Sulfur exists in two polymorphic forms ____________ and ______________

a) rhombic and monoclinic
b) rhombic and triclinic
c) hexagonal and triclinic
d) hexagonal and monoclinic

Answer: a

Explanation: Sulfur has two polymorphic structures: rhombic and monoclinic. When a single substance
crystallizes in two or more forms depending on the conditions, it is called a polymorphous structure.

7. What is the total number of Bravais lattices in the crystal structures?

a) 3
b) 6
c) 14
d) 24

Answer: c

Explanation: The Bravais lattice of a structure is formed by the combination of the crystal system and
the lattice type; there are fourteen possible Bravais lattices. They can be calculated by combining
several allowable crystal systems and space lattices, such as monoclinic, C-centered monoclinic, and
primitive triclinic, which are three of the fourteen conceivable Bravais lattices.

8. When X-rays are diffracted by a series of planes, the resultant intensity is sometimes zero; these are
created by absent reflections; what is the number of absent reflections divided?
a) 2
b) 10
c) 50
d) 100

Answer: a

Explanation: These missing reflections are classified into two groups: those that are missing due to a
quirk in the structure, and those that are missing due to the structure's symmetry or kind of lattice.
Systematic absences are what they're called.

9. Which of the following claims about crystal lattice diffraction patterns is correct?
a) Diffraction patterns possess a center of symmetry
b) Diffraction patterns don't have a center of symmetry
c) Diffraction patterns are linear space
d) Diffraction patterns contain α-rays

Answer: a

Explanation: In reciprocal space, diffraction patterns have a symmetry center. This lofty claim implies
that miller indices positive hkl and negative hkl reflections are comparable, provided that anomalous
dispersion is not present.

10. What are the crystallization's initial materials?

a) Liquid, aqueous solution, emulsion
b) Gas, aqueous solution, foam
c) Aqueous solution, melt, glass or gel
d) Solid, gas, melt, solid aerosol
Answer: c

Explanation: Aqueous solutions, whether in the form of a melt, glass, or gel, are typically
homogeneous, single-phase, and amorphous. This could make crystalline product formation much
easier, as long-range ion diffusion may not be required, and the product would form at a lower
temperature.
Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions MCQs
1. The volume occupied by a single gas in a mixture at the same temperature and pressure is referred
to as the single-gas volume.
a) Absolute volume
b) Partial volume
c) Total volume of a gas mixture
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: At the same temperature and pressure, the volume occupied by a single gas alone in a
combination is a portion of a volume.

2. The pressure that a single component in a gaseous mixture would exert if it existed alone in the
same volume as the mixture and at the same temperature as the mixture is referred to as.
a) Absolute pressure
b) Partial pressure
c) Total pressure of a gas mixture
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: Partial pressure is the pressure exerted by a single component in a gaseous mixture if it
exists alone in the same volume.

3. ________________ _ obeys Raoult's law in all stages of concentration.

a) Ideal Solution
b) Non-Ideal solution
c) Real Solution
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: At all concentration levels, Ideal Solution follows Raoult's law.

4. When two perfect solutions with volume V each are combined, What is the volume of the solution as
a result?
a) V
b) 2V
c) Greater than 2V
d) Less than 2V
Answer: b
Explanation: When two perfect solutions are mixed, there is no change in volume.

5. The heat of solution or mixing has a negative side.

a) Heat of solution
b) Heat of dissolution
c) Heat of reaction
d) Heat of mixing

Answer: b
Explanation: The heat of solution or mixing has a negative side. Dissolution's heat.

6. A solution made up of numerous components in which each component's property is the weighted
sum of its separate properties. The answer is
a) Ideal Solution
b) Non-Ideal solution
c) Real Solution
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: An ideal solution is made up of numerous components, each of which has a property that
is the weighted sum of the attributes of the others.

7. What is an example of camphor in N2 gas?

a) Solid in gas solution
b) Gas in gas solution
c) Solid in liquid solution
d) Liquid in gas solution

Answer: a
Explanation: Solid in gaseous solution is an example of camphor in N2 gas. Gaseous solution refers to
a solution in which the solvent is gaseous. Other gaseous solutions include air (O2 + N2), iodine vapors
in air, humidity in air, and so on.

8. What happens when a solute crystal is added to a supersaturated solution?

a) It becomes a colloidal solution
b) The solute dissolves in the solution
c) The solution desaturates
d) The solute precipitates out of the solution
Answer: d
Explanation: Solute particles leave the solution and form a crystalline precipitate when a solute crystal
is added to a supersaturated solution. Seeding refers to the addition of the solute crystal.

9. Which of the following options is not a viable option?

a) Brass
b) Bronze
c) Hydrated salts
d) Aerated drinks

Answer: d
Explanation: A solid solution is a one- or more-solute solid-state solution in a solvent. Solid solutions
include brass, bronze, and hydrated salts. Liquid solutions include aerated beverages.

10. Which of the following is the correct answer?

a) Blood
b) Starch solution
c) Salt solution
d) Ink

Answer: c
Explanation: A true solution is a homogenous mixture of two or more components dissolved in a
solvent with a particle size of less than 10-9 m or 1 nm. Colloidal solutions include ink, blood, and starch
solutions. A true solution is a simple solution of salt in water.
Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry MCQs
1. A cathode and an anode are the most common components of an electrochemical cell. Which of the
following claims about the cathode is correct?
a) Oxidation occurs at the cathode
b) Electrons move into the cathode
c) Usually denoted by a negative sign
d) Is usually made up of insulating material

Answer: b

Explanation: Metal electrodes are commonly used as cathodes. It is on this electrode that reduction
occurs. In a galvanic cell, the cathode is the positive electrode, while in an electrolytic cell, it is the
negative electrode. The cathode attracts electrons.

2. Which of the following claims about electrochemical cells is true?

a) Cell potential is an extensive property
b) Cell potential is an intensive property
c) The Gibbs free energy of an electrochemical cell is an intensive property
d) Gibbs free energy is undefined for an electrochemical cell

Answer: b

Explanation: Because cell potential is independent of the amount of material present, it is an intense
attribute. Gibbs free energy is a property that is defined for an electrochemical cell and is a broad
characteristic because it is dependent on the amount of material present.

3. Which of the following does not belong in the category of electrochemical cells?
a) Voltaic cell
b) Photovoltaic cell
c) Electrolytic cell
d) Fuel Cell

Answer: b

Explanation: A voltaic cell, also known as a galvanic cell, is an electrochemical cell that transforms
chemical energy to electrical energy. Light energy is converted into electrical energy using photovoltaic
cells. An electrolytic cell turns electrical energy into chemical energy and is a type of electrochemical
cell. An electrochemical cell that converts the chemical energy of a fuel and an oxidizing agent into
electricity is known as a fuel cell.

4. Which of the following assertions about a main cell is correct?

a) An example of a primary cell is a mercury cell
b) An example of a primary cell is a nickel-cadmium storage cell
c) The electrode reactions can be reversed
d) It can be recharged

Answer: a

Explanation: A primary cell is one in which the electrode reactions only happen once and cannot be
reversed with electrical energy. As a result, primary cells are unable to be recharged. A main cell, such
as a mercury cell, is different from a secondary cell, such as a nickel-cadmium storage cell.

5. In a dry cell, which of the following is the electrolyte?

a) Potassium hydroxide
b) Sulphuric acid
c) Ammonium chloride
d) Manganese dioxide

Answer: c

Explanation: In a dry cell, the electrolyte is ammonium chloride, which is applied as a moist paste
close to the zinc anode. Ammonium chloride is replaced by sodium chloride in some "heavy-duty" dry
cells by zinc chloride.

6. Which of the following statements about a lead storage cell (or a lead-acid battery) is false?
a) It is a primary cell
b) The cathode is made up of lead(IV) oxide
c) The anode is made up of lead
d) The electrolyte used is an aqueous solution of sulphuric acid

Answer: a

Explanation: A secondary cell with a grid of lead packed with finely separated spongy lead for an
anode and a grid of lead packed with lead(IV) oxide for a cathode is known as a lead storage cell. An
aqueous solution of sulphuric acid is utilized as the electrolytic solution in a lead-acid battery.

7. The conductivity of electrolytic conductors is due to __________

a) Flow of free mobile electrons
b) Movement of ions
c) Either movement of electrons or ions
d) Cannot be said

Answer: b

Explanation: The flow of free mobile electrons causes conductance in metallic conductors, while the
movement of ions in a fused electrolyte solution causes conductance in electrolytic conductors.

8. The process of transmitting electric current through an electrolyte's solution to decompose it is known
as __________
a) Electrolyte
b) Electrode
c) Electrolysis
d) Electrochemical cell

Answer: c

Explanation: Electrolysis is the decomposition of an electrolyte by conducting an electric current

through its solution.

9. In a fuel cell, which of the following can be utilized as a fuel?

a) Nitrogen
b) Argon
c) Hydrogen
d) Helium

Answer: c

Explanation: The simplest element is hydrogen. It's also widely available throughout the universe.
Although hydrogen has a lot of energy, an engine that runs on it produces nearly no pollutants. As a
result, it's used in a fuel cell.

10. Which of the following is given to a fuel cell's cathode?

a) Hydrogen
b) Nitrogen
c) Oxygen
d) Chlorine

Answer: c
Explanation: An anode, cathode, and electrolyte membrane make up a fuel cell. In a normal fuel cell,
hydrogen is passed through the anode and oxygen is passed via the cathode.
Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics MCQs

1. The study of reaction kinetics is called reaction kinetics.

a) Rate of reaction

b) Mechanism of reaction

c) Factors which affects the rate of reaction

d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d

Explanation: Reaction kinetics is the study of reaction rates, mechanisms, and the factors that
influence reaction rates.

2. The reaction rate constant can be defined as the rate of reaction when each reactant's concentration
is equal.

a) Zero

b) Unity

c) Doubled the initial concentration

d) Infinite

Answer: b

Explanation: The reaction rate constant can be defined as the rate of the reaction when all of the
reactants' concentrations are equal. The rate of a chemical reaction is quantified by a reaction rate
constant, or reaction rate coefficient, k.

3. Which of the following is the right temperature coefficient (n) expression?

a) n = Rate constant at T + 10°/Rate constant at T°

b) n = Rate constant at T + 20°/Rate constant at T°

c) n = Rate constant at T + 30°/Rate constant at T°

d)n = Rate constant at T + 40°/Rate constant at T°

Answer: a

Explanation: The effect of temperature on a reaction's pace is commonly stated in terms of the
temperature coefficient, which is defined by the equation:

Temperature coefficient (n) = T + 10° (308 K) rate constant/T° rate constant (298 K).

4. When the temperature rises, what happens to the peak of the curve in the Maxwell-Boltzmann
distribution graph?

a) Shifts forward and upward

b) Shifts forward and downward

c) Shifts backward and upward

d) Shifts backward and downward

Answer: b

Explanation: The peak moves ahead but downward as the temperature rises. This is because when
temperature rises, the most probable kinetic energy rises, while the percentage of molecules with most
probable kinetic energy drops.

5. Plotting a graph between temperature and reaction rates can reveal the temperature dependence of
reaction rates.

a) Concentration of reactants and temperature

b) Concentration of products and temperature

c) Rate constant and temperature

d) Rate of catalysis and temperature

Answer: c

Explanation: Plotting a graph between rate constant and temperature for various reactions can be
used to investigate temperature dependence of reaction rates.
6. What effect does temperature have on the half-life of a first-order reaction?

a) It increases

b) It decreases

c) It remains the same

d) Both increases as well as decrease

Answer: a

Explanation: The rate constant is exactly related to the half-life time of a first order reaction. As a
result, it rises as the temperature rises.

7. Only a simple homogeneous reaction requires which of the following methods?

a) Integration method

b) Half life period method

c) Graphical method

d) Ostwald’s isolation method

Answer: a

Explanation: For complex reactions, the integration method is only suitable for simple homogeneous
reactions and leads to incorrect conclusions.

8. In 30 minutes, a first-order reaction is 50% complete. Calculate the amount of time it took to
complete 87.5 percent of the reaction.

a) 30 minutes

b) 60 minutes

c) 90 minutes

d) 120 minutes

Answer: c

Explanation: In 30 minutes, the reaction is 50% complete. As a result, t1/2 = 30 minutes.

In two half-lives, 75% of the process is accomplished. As a result, t = 2 30 = 60 minutes.

In three half-lives, 87.5 percent of the reaction is finished.

Hence, t = 3 × 30 = 90 minutes.

9. In a reaction, what is the driving force?

a) Energy given

b) Energy released

c) Free energy

d) None of the mentioned

Answer: c

Explanation: The change in free energy, which is related to the equilibrium constant, is the reaction's
driving force (K).

10. What is the heat of reaction for ethyl acetate hydrolysis?

a) Greater than zero

b) Less than zero

c) Zero

d) None of the mentioned

Answer: c

Explanation: The equilibrium position of ethyl acetate hydrolysis was demonstrated to be temperature
independent. Because the bonds broken and created are of the same kind, calculating the heat of
reaction using the bond energies technique yields a value of zero.
Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 5 Surface Chemistry MCQs

1. When the molecules of a substance are kept at the surface of a solid or a liquid, what is the name of
the process?

a) Absorption

b) Adsorption

c) Sorption

d) Desorption

Answer: b

Explanation: Adsorption is the process of a substance's molecules accumulating in a larger

concentration on the surface of a solid or a liquid. Gases, for example, adsorb on the surface of
charcoal.

2. Which of the following assertions about the extent of physisorption is correct?

a) Increases with increase in temperature

b) Decreases with increase in surface area

c) Decreases with increase in the strength of Van der Waals forces

d) Decreases with increase in temperature

Answer: d

Explanation: The process of physisorption is exothermic. A reduction in temperature, according to

Le-principle, Chatelier favours an exothermic reaction. As a result, as the temperature rises, the
amount of physisorption reduces.

3. Which of the following is a sorption example?

a) Sponge in water

b) Cotton dipped in ink

c) Water on silica gel

d) Oxygen on metal surface

Answer: b

Explanation: Sorption is a process in which both adsorption and absorption take place at the same
time. Cotton dipped in ink is one of the few examples of sorption, which includes both adsorption and
absorption.

4. Which of the following is not a lyophobic colloidal example?

a) Gold solution

b) Sulphur solution

c) NaCl solution

d) Blood

Answer: c

Explanation: Gold solution, sulphur solution, and blood are colloids in which the dispersed phase has
a low affinity for the dispersion medium, and we can't retrieve the solution directly by combining the two
phases once they've been separated. As a result, they are classified as lyophobic colloids.

5. Which of the following statements about macromolecular colloids is false?

a) Protein solution is an example for macromolecular colloids

b) Man-made macro-molecules like polythene can form such colloids

c) Silver solution can form macromolecular colloids

d) These are normally of lyophilic type

Answer: c

Explanation: Macromolecules dissolve in appropriate solvents, resulting in colloidal particles. These

are often lyophilic in nature, with silver solution serving as an example of lyophilic and multi-molecular
colloids.

6. How are different colours used to make gold colloidal solutions?

a) Different diameters of colloidal gold particles

b) Variable valency of gold

c) Different concentration of gold particles

d) Impurities produced by different methods

Answer: a

Explanation: Because the sizes of colloidal gold particles vary, colloidal gold solutions made by
different processes have distinct colours. The size of the colloidal particles determines the colour of the
solution.

7. Which of the following slows down the reaction rate?

a) Catalytic promoters

b) Homogeneous catalyst

c) Catalytic poison

d) Heterogeneous catalyst

Answer: c

Explanation: A catalytic poison is a chemical that, even if present in tiny levels, disrupts the catalyst's
action. For example, any arsenic impurity present in the reacting gas will disrupt the activity of the
vanadium pentoxide catalyst in the synthesis of sulphuric acid by contact method.

8. Which of the following increases the pace of catalyst production?

a) Decreasing Ea

b) Increasing Ea

c) Increasing pressure

d) Increasing entropy

Answer: a
Explanation: Because a catalyst lowers the activation energy, more particles can achieve activation
energy, resulting in a quicker reaction rate. It only takes a small bit of catalyst. Beyond a certain
threshold, increasing the amount of catalyst utilized will not enhance reaction rates.

9. What's the difference between cold cream and vanishing cream?

a) Vanishing cream is a water-in-oil emulsion whereas cold cream is an oil-in-water emulsion

b) Both are examples of water-in-oil emulsions

c) Both are examples of oil-in-water emulsions

d) Vanishing cream is an oil-in-water emulsion whereas cold cream is a water-in-oil emulsion

Answer: d

Explanation: Vanishing cream is an oil-in-water emulsion, which means the dispersed phase is oil and
the dispersion medium is water. A water-in-oil emulsion, cold cream, water is the dispersed phase and
oil is the dispersion medium.

10. What is the term for a liquid dispersion in another liquid?

a) Emulsion

b) Aerosol

c) Gel

d) Foam

Answer: a

Explanation: Gel is the dispersion of a liquid in a solid. Foam is the dispersion of a gas in a liquid
media. Emulsion is the dispersion of a liquid in another liquid. Aerosol is the dispersion of a solid or
liquid in a gaseous medium.
Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 General Principles and
Processes of Isolation of Elements Chemistry MCQs

1. Which of the following is not a suitable ore for extracting iron?

a) Hematite

b) Magnetite

c) Siderite

d) Iron Pyrites

Answer: d

Explanation: FeS2 is the chemical formula for iron pyrite. Because iron pyrite is exothermic and poses
a safety risk in mines, it is more cost-effective to extract iron from other ores like magnetite and
hematite. Pyrites are generally unstable, and they have the potential to transform into sulphurous
minerals.

2. Which of the following ore is used to extract silver?

a) Calamine

b) Cinnabar

c) Argentite

d) Malachite

Answer: c

Explanation: Argentite, commonly known as silver glance, is the only silver ore with the chemical
composition Ag 2S among the above choices. Smelting or chemical leaching is a straightforward
procedure for extracting silver from silver glance.

3. Which of the scenarios is best for hand-picking concentration?

a) When the ores are good conductors of electricity

b) When the impurities can be distinguished from the ore by the naked eye

c) When either the ore or the impurities are magnetic

d) When the ore particles are heavier than the impurities

Answer: b

Explanation: It is vital for contaminants to be easily discernible from ore particles when concentration
is done by hand picking. The ore is deemed to be pure if these contaminants can be seen with the
naked eye. The ore is said to be suitable for concentration by hand picking.

4. By electromagnetic separation, where are magnetic particles collected in concentration?

a) Away from the magnetic roller

b) On the conveyor belt

c) Below the magnetic roller

d) Above the magnetic roller

Answer: c

Explanation: The powdered ore is dropped over a conveyor belt that moves around two rollers, one of
which is equipped with an electromagnet. The magnetic roller attracts the magnetic particles when the
ore particles move across the belt. As a result, two heaps form independently. Magnetic particles are
gathered below the magnetic roller, whereas non-magnetic particles are collected away from the roller.

5. In froth flotation, what role does the revolving paddle play?

a) Enhances wettability of gangue particles

b) Stabilises the froth

c) Draws in air causing frothing

d) Enhances non-wettability of the ore particles

Answer: c

Explanation: The rotating paddle in the froth flotation process violently agitates the suspension of
powdered ore in water, as well as the collectors and froth stabilisers, generating frothing.
6. What is the name of the metallurgical process in which the ore is leached and the metal is extracted
using electrolysis?

a) Zone refining

b) Hydrometallurgy

c) Liquation

d) Thermite process

Answer: b

Explanation: Hydrometallurgy is a technique for extracting metals from their ores in the subject of
extractive metallurgy. Hydrometallurgy is the process of extracting metals from ores, concentrates, and
recycled or residual materials using aqueous solutions.

7. Oxides are formed when food is roasted. But why is it necessary to roast oxide ores?

a) To avoid gangue particles

b) To get crude metal with using oxidising agent

c) To remove volatile impurities in the form of their oxides

d) To make the ore porous

Answer: c

Explanation: Roasting is used to eliminate volatile impurities in the form of oxides from oxide ores.
Metals are easier to acquire (by reduction) from their oxides than from carbonates or sulphides. As a
result, the ore must first be transformed to metal oxide before it can be reduced.

8. Electrolysis does not remove which of the following metals?

a) Na

b) Mg

c) Al

d) Fe

Answer: d
Explanation: In reality, choosing the right reducing agent is crucial to extracting a metal from its ore.
Because iron is a fairly active metal, its oxides can be reduced with carbon rather than electrolysis.
Electrolysis is used to recover reactive metals like aluminium, while reduction with carbon is used to
extract less reactive metals like iron.

9. What is the method for extracting sodium from halide ores like sodium chloride (NaCl)?

a) Pyro metallurgy

b) Hydrometallurgy

c) Electro metallurgy

d) Magnetic separation

Answer: c

Explanation: Sodium is a highly electropositive metal that can be extracted readily from sodium
chloride using an electro metallurgy or electrolysis technique. Metals such as copper, iron, and silver
are extracted using pyrometallurgy and hydrometallurgy.

10. Which of the following is an illustration of metallurgical electrochemical principles?

a) Baeyer’s process

b) Solvay process

c) Bergius process

d) Hall-Heroult process

Answer: d

Explanation: The Hall-Heroult process reduces bauxite to virtually pure aluminium by an

electrochemical reaction. The bauxite is dissolved in a molten electrolyte containing sodium, fluorine,
and aluminium and kept at a high temperature. Aluminium is deposited at the cathode and oxygen gas
is produced at the anode in this process.
Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements
Chemistry MCQs

1. What is created by the reaction of natural gas and steam in the Haber-Bosch process?

a) Ammonia

b) Nitrogen

c) Oxygen

d) Hydrogen

Answer: d

Explanation: The steam reformation of methane is the reaction of natural gas and steam. It is a critical
stage in the Bosch-Haber (industrial ammonia production process), which creates hydrogen gas, H2, as
one of the two reactants alongside nitrogen in the production of ammonia in the presence of an iron
catalyst.

2. What form does nitrogen take in plants?

a) Ammonia

b) Amide

c) Nitrate

d) Nitrite

Answer: c

Explanation: Plants mostly absorb nitrogen in the form of nitrate ions, as well as ammonium ions. This
is provided to them through fertilisers, such as ammonium phosphate and calcium ammonium nitrate.

3. What happens to the size of atoms in p-block elements when we move from left to right in the same
period?

a) Size does not change

b) Size increases then decreases

c) Size increases

d) Size decreases

Answer: d

Explanation: The size of the atoms of the elements decreases from left to right throughout the same
time period. The electrons are added to the same shell because the row is the same. On the other side,
an increase in atomic number corresponds to an increase in protons, or positive charge. The overall
effective nuclear charge rises as a result. As a result, the electron cloud is drawn closer to the nucleus
of the atom. As a result, the size of the object decreases.

4. When copper chips are exposed to concentrated nitric acid, which gas is produced?

a) Nitrogen (III) oxide

b) Nitrogen (IV) oxide

c) Nitrogen (I) oxide

d) Nitrogen (II) oxide

Answer: b

Explanation: The deadly brown gas, NO2, nitrogen (IV) oxide, is released when copper chips are
treated with strong nitric acid. It's a pungent-smelling reddish-brown gas.

5. When ammonia is oxidised to form nitric acid, what catalyst is used?

a) Platinum-Rhodium gauze

b) Vanadium (V) oxide

c) Palladium hydride

d) Sodium amalgam

Answer: a

Explanation: At a temperature of 500 K and a pressure of 9 bars, ammonia is oxidised to nitrogen (II)
oxide in the presence of a Pt/Rh gauze catalyst. After that, the nitrous oxide is transformed to nitrogen
dioxide, which is subsequently reacted with water to produce nitric acid. The NO that is produced is
recycled.

6. Which of the following statements about Hypophosphorous acid is incorrect?

a) It is also called phosphonic acid

b) The oxidation state of phosphorus is +1

c) It is monobasic

d) It is represented by the formula H3PO2

Answer: a

Explanation: The oxoacid of phosphorus hypophosphorous acid, commonly known as phosphinic acid,
has a phosphorus oxidation state of +1. In nature, it is monobasic, meaning it dissociates into one
hydrogen ion. H3PO2 is the chemical formula for it.

7. Which of the following compounds has an oxidation state of +5 phosphorus?

a) Peroxodiphosphoric acid

b) Hypophosphorous acid

c) Orthophosphorous acid

d) Hypophosphoric acid

Answer: a

Explanation: Phosphorus in peroxodiphosphoric acid has an oxidation state of +5. Phosphorus has an
oxidation state of +1 in hypophosphorous acid, +3 in orthophosphorous acid, and +4 in hypophosphoric
acid.

8. Why is nitrogen preferred in the welding and cooling of materials?

a) It is an inert gas

b) It is non-toxic

c) It’s a gas and can easily be handled

d) It has an extremely low freezing point

Answer: a

Explanation: Non Toxic gases such as argon are also available. Nitrogen gas, on the other hand, is still
the favoured gas since it prevents any undesirable oxidation or explosions. This prevents metals from
corroding in the welding business. Nitrogen is utilised in food packaging because it creates a pressured
environment that prevents container collapse.

9. The term 'pnictogens' refers to which group?

a) Group 15

b) Group 14

c) Group 11

d) Group 13

Answer: a

Explanation: The 'pnictogens' are the elements in group 15 of the periodic table. The word pnicogen
means 'to choke.' Because all of the elements in this category choke in nature, including nitrogen's
choking property. Group 11 doesn't have a name, however group 13 is known as the Boron group. The
Carbon group is the 14th group.

10. Producer gas is defined as which of the following mixtures?

a) carbon dioxide and hydrogen

b) carbon monoxide and hydrogen

c) carbon monoxide and nitrogen

d) carbon dioxide and nitrogen

Answer: c

Explanation: Producer gas is a mixture of carbon monoxide and nitrogen, while water gas is a mixture
of carbon monoxide and hydrogen. Carbon mixes with oxygen and nitrogen to make producer gas at
1273 K.
Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 The d & f Block Elements
MCQs
1. As an electroplated protective covering, what metal is used?

a) Plutonium

b) Chromium

c) Nickel

d) Iron

Answer: b

Explanation: Chrome plating (or chromium plating, as it's more generally known) is the process of
electroplating a thin layer of chromium onto a metal item. The chromed coating might be attractive,
provide corrosion protection, make cleaning easier, or increase the hardness of the surface.

2. __________ possesses the properties of both alkali metals and halogens.

a) Helium

b) Hydrogen

c) Sodium

d) Chlorine

Answer: b

Explanation: Because hydrogen's outer shell configuration (that is 1s1) contains only one electron in
the s-orbital, it qualifies as an Alkali metal. A noble gas structure, which is a feature of halogen, can be
obtained with only one electron.

3. As we proceed from left to right in groups, what happens to the non-metallic nature?

a) Remains constant

b) Decreases

c) Increases

d) Irregular
Answer: c

Explanation: The 18th group has no reactivity, but its non-metallic character is defined as a tendency
to gain electrons, resulting in significant negative electron gain enthalpies. So the non-metallic nature
increases from left to right in groups leaving noble gases.

4. Which of the following statements concerning transuranium elements is incorrect?

a) Atomic number > 92

b) Example is Thorium

c) Decay radioactively as they are unstable

d) Elements after Uranium

Answer: b

Explanation: Transuranium elements are those that come after Uranium (Z = 92), are unstable, and
decay radioactively into other elements. However, because Thorium has an atomic number of 90, it is
not a transuranium element.

5. Select the appropriate statement.

a) Both actinoids and lanthanoids are less basic

b) Both actinoids and lanthanoids are electropositive

c) Both actinoids and lanthanoids do not exhibit magnetic and spectral properties

d) Both actinoids and lanthanoids do not show same oxidation of +3

Answer: b

Explanation: In many ways, lanthanides and actinides are similar since they both entail the filling of
f-orbitals. For both lanthanides and actinides, the most frequent oxidation state is +3. Both are
electropositive and, as a result, very reactive. Both lanthanides and actinides have magnetic and
spectroscopic characteristics.

6. What happens to the atomic size of lanthanides as the atomic number increases?

a) The radius remains unchanged

b) The radius first increases and then decreases

c) The radius increases

d) The radius decreases

Answer: d

Explanation: Lanthanide contraction is the steady decrease in the atomic and ionic radii of lanthanides
as the atomic number increases. It happens because the 4f electrons have a weak shielding effect.

7. Which of the following is not a lanthanide property?

a) They are soft metals with white silvery colour

b) They tarnish rapidly by air

c) The hardness of the metals increases with increase in the atomic number

d) The melting point of the metal ranges from 500-1000K

Answer: d

Explanation: Lanthanides are soft metals that are silvery white in appearance. They discolour quickly
when exposed to air. As the atomic number of these metals rises, so does their ability to be harnessed.
Lanthanides have melting points ranging from 1000 to 1200 degrees Celsius, whereas samarium melts
at 1623 degrees Celsius.

8. What is the lanthanide's final element?

a) Ytterbium

b) Erbium

c) Thulium

d) Lutetium

Answer: d

Explanation: Erbium, Thulium, Ytterbium, and Lutetium have atomic numbers of 68, 69, 70, and 71,
respectively. Lutetium, the final element in the lanthanide family, has the electrical configuration
[Xe]4f145d16s2.

9. Baeyer's reagent is which of the following?

a) Acidified KMnO 4

b) Aqueous KMnO 4

c) Acidified K 2Cr2O7
d) Alkaline KMnO 4

Answer: d

Explanation: Baeyer's reagent is an alkaline KMnO4 solution. This is a redox reaction because
Baeyer's reagent is an alkaline solution of cold potassium permanganate, which is a potent oxidant.
The colour of an organic material fades from purplish-pink to brown as it reacts with double or triple
bonds (-C=C- or -CC-). It's a reaction of synergistic addition.

10. AgCl fails to pass which of the following tests?

a) Alkaline test

b) Acidic test

c) Chromyl chloride test

d) Baeyer’s reagent test

Answer: c

Explanation: The presence of Cl– ions is detected using the chromyl chloride assay. Silver, lead,
mercury, and antimony chlorides are covalent in nature and do not produce Cl– ions, hence they do not
pass the chromyl chloride test. Heavy metal chlorides, on the other hand, do not pass this test because
they are not ionic.
Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds
MCQs
1. A coordination complex's core atom/ion is also known as ________

a) Bronsted-Lowry acid

b) Lewis base

c) Lewis acid

d) Bronsted-Lowry base

Answer: c

Explanation: A Lewis acid is a species that has the ability to receive an electron pair. Lewis acids are
all cations. It is a Lewis acid because the core atom of a coordination complex is metal and always
accepts electrons.

2. Which of the following has a coordination number as a feature?

a) Coordination entity

b) Ligand

c) Central atom

d) Coordination compound

Answer: c

Explanation: The coordination number of a central metal ion in a complex, also known as the
secondary valence, is defined as the number of donor atoms it is directly bound to. As a result, the
coordination number is a quantity related to the metal ion.

3. Which of the following statements about coordination compounds' bonding is incorrect?

a) Crystal Field Theory

b) VSEPR Theory
c) Valence Bond Theory

d) Molecular Orbital Theory

Answer: b

Explanation: The VSEPR Theory uses electron pairs in atoms to explain the structure of particular
molecules. The theories VBT, CFT, LFT, and MOT explain the nature of bonding in coordination
compounds.

4. More than one sort of hybridization can occur in a complex with geometry.

a) tetrahedral

b) octahedral

c) trigonal bipyramidal

d) square planar

Answer: b

Explanation: Depending on whether the outer or inner d orbitals are engaged in hybridisation,
complexes with octahedral geometry can have either sp3d2 or d2sp3 hybridisation.

5. Determine which of the following statements about VBT is inaccurate.

a) It does not explain the colour of coordination compounds

b) It can distinguish between strong and weak ligands

c) It does not explain the kinetic stabilities of coordination compounds

d) It is unreliable in the prediction of geometries of 4-coordinate complexes

Answer: b

Explanation: One of VBT's flaws is that it can't tell the difference between weak and powerful ligands.
Other options have their own set of drawbacks.

6. Which of the following determines the position of ligands in a mononuclear coordination entity's
formula?

a) Atomicity of the ligand

b) Charge on the ligand

c) The first letter in the name of the ligand

d) Denticity of the ligand

Answer: c

Explanation: The alphabetical order of the ligands in the formula of mononuclear coordination entities,
including shortened ligands, is used. It is independent of the ligand's atomicity, denticity, or charge.

7. Which of the following statements about a charged coordinating entity is correct?

a) The sign of the charge is written after the number

b) The charge of the complex ion is written in parenthesis while naming the entity

c) The charge is indicated as a subscript outside the square bracket on the right

d) The charge on the complex ion is depicted along with the counter ion

Answer: a

Explanation: The charge of a coordination entity is written outside the square brackets on the right
side as a superscript with the number before the sign of charge, without the existence of the counter
ion.

8. Determine the proper name for K2[PdCl4].

a) Potassium tetrachlorinepalladium(II)

b) Potassium tetrachloridopalladate(II)Potassium

c) Potassium tetrachloridopalladium(II)

d) tetrachlorinepalladate(II)

Answer: b

Explanation: Because Cl is an anionic ligand, it has the suffix -o, therefore chlorido. Furthermore,
because the complex ion is anionic, the metal must end in -ate, so palladate.

9. Which substance is used to determine the hardness of water using a simple titration?

a) Mg(EDTA)
b) Fe(EDTA)

c) Na2(EDTA)

d) Co(EDTA)

Answer: c

Explanation: With EDTA, the ions Ca2+ and Mg2+ form stable complexes, and the difference in the
stability constants of the Ca and Mg complexes aids in the assessment of water hardness.

10. The core atom of which of the following biologically significant coordination molecules is
magnesium?

a) Vitamin B12

b) Haemoglobin

c) Chlorophyll

d) Carboxypeptidase-A

Answer: c

Explanation: Chlorophyll is a coordination molecule of magnesium that is found in plants and is

important for photosynthesis.
Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and
Haloarenes MCQs
1. What is the class of the substitution product of LiAlH4 and an alkyl halide reaction?

a) Haloalkane

b) Alkyl nitrite

c) Nitroalkane

d) Hydrocarbon

Answer: d

Explanation: The H atom in LiAlH4 acts as a nucleophile, attacking and substituting the halogen in the
alkyl halide to generate the basic hydrocarbon.

2. Which of the following statements about SN2 mechanisms is incorrect?

a) The transition state is stable

b) The complete mechanism takes place in a single step

c) The rate of the reaction depends on the concentration of both reactants

d) There is inversion of configuration

Answer: a

Explanation: The carbon atoms are concurrently attached to the entering nucleophile and the existing
group in the transition state of SN2 processes, and are thus connected to five atoms at the same time. It
is impossible to isolate such a geometry since it is unstable.

3. A mono haloarene is an example of __________

a) aliphatic halogen compound

b) side chain substituted aryl halide

c) alkyl halide

d) aromatic halogen compound

Answer: d

Explanation: A mono haloarene is a halogenated benzene ring with the halogen linked straight to it.
Aromatic halogen compounds with the halogen not directly linked to the benzene ring are side chain
substituted aryl halides.

4. What is 3-Bromopropene's common name?

a) Allyl bromide

b) Vinyl bromide

c) Tert-Butyl bromide

d) Propylidene bromide

Answer: a

Explanation: The parent chain of 3-Bromopropene has three C atoms, with a double bond at C-1 and
Br at C-3. As a result, it is an allylic halide because Br is connected to the C adjacent to the C-C double
bond.

5. Which of the following is the right name for the compound H3C-CHCl2?

a) 1,2-Dichloroethane

b) Ethylene dichloride

c) Ethylidene chloride

d) Vic-dichloride

Answer: c

Explanation: Both halogens are on the same carbon atom in the given molecule, making it a
dihaloalkane. These are also known as alkylidene halides or gem-dihalides.

6. What is the catalyst in the chloroalkane reaction of a primary alcohol with HCl?

a) red phosphorous

b) concentrated H2SO4

c) anhydrous ZnCl2

d) pyridine

Answer: c
Explanation: The presence of anhydrous ZnCl2 in alcohols is supposed to disrupt the C-O bond. ZnCl2
is a Lewis acid that reacts with the alcohol group's oxygen.

7. When ethanol combines with PCl5, it produces three products: chloroethane, hydrochloric acid, and
chloroethane. What is the third item on the list?

a) Phosphorus acid

b) Phosphoryl chloride

c) Phosphorus trichloride

d) Phosphoric acid

Answer: b

Explanation: CH3CH2OH reacts with PCl5 to produce CH3CH2Cl, POCl3 (phosphoryl acid), and HCl.
This is a procedure for making chloroalkanes from alcohols.

8. Which of the following substances has the highest melting point?

a) Chloromethane

b) Tetrachloromethane

c) Trichloromethane

d) Dichloromethane

Answer: b

Explanation: As the molecule masses and the number of halogen atoms grow, the boiling points and
intermolecular forces of attraction increase as well.

9. Which sequence should isomeric dichlorobenzenes be boiled in?

a) para>ortho>meta

b) meta>ortho>para

c) ortho>meta>para

d) para>meta>ortho

Answer: a

Explanation: In comparison to meta and ortho isomers, para isomers have the highest melting
temperatures due to their symmetry and ease of fitting into a crystal lattice.
10. Which of the following statements about the interaction between C2H4 and Cl2 in CCl4 is incorrect?

a) It results in the formation of a vicinal dihalide

b) It results in the discharge of a reddish-brown colour

c) It results in the formation of a colourless compound

d) It results in the breaking of the C-C double bond

Answer: b

Explanation: When Br2 interacts with an alkene to generate a vic-dihalide, it gives off a reddish-brown
colour. As a result, it's a crucial test for detecting a double bond.
Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols, and
Ethers MCQs
1. To get carboxylic acids directly from alcohol, which of the following oxidising agents is used?

a) Alkaline KMnO 4

b) Aqueous KMnO 4

c) Acidified KMnO 4

d) Anhydrous CrO 3

Answer: c

Explanation: Strong oxidizers, such as acidified potassium permanganate or acidified potassium

dichromate, convert alcohol to carboxylic acid immediately. Using CrO3 as the oxidising agent in an
anhydrous media, however, only aldehyde can be produced.

2. When phenol reacts with bromine water, what is the result?

a) Brown liquid

b) Colourless gas

c) White precipitate

d) No reaction

Answer: c

Explanation: When phenol is treated with bromine water, a white precipitate is formed, which is
2,4,6-Tribromophenol.

3. The Lucas test was carried out on three different compounds: A, B, and C. Compounds A and B
were turbid at ambient temperature, while compound C did not become turbid until it was heated.
Which one of the compounds is tertiary in structure?

a) A

b) Cannot be determined
c) C

d) A and B

Answer: b

Explanation: It is stated that A and B exhibit turbidity at room temperature, however it is not stated
whether the turbidity appears immediately or over a period of time. So compounds A and B may be
tertiary or secondary depending on whether turbidity appears immediately or after 5 minutes
respectively. Compound C may be primary.

4. Which of the following compounds is formed when secondary alcohols are oxidised by [O]?

a) Ether

b) Aldehyde

c) Ketone

d) Amine

Answer: c

Explanation: The oxidation of secondary alcohols by a nascent oxygen atom [O] yields the ketone
molecule.

5. Which of the following processes does not result in the production of alcohol?

a) Acid catalysed hydration of alkenes

b) Free radical halogenation of alkanes

c) Reduction of aldehydes

d) Hydroboration-oxidation of alkenes

Answer: b

Explanation: When alkanes are halogenated by free radicals, they form a mixture of haloalkanes
rather than alcohols. Alcohols can be made from alkenes through acid catalysed hydration and
hydroboration-oxidation, or from aldehyde reduction.

6. The conversion of trialkyl borane to an alcohol does not require which of the following?
a) Sodium hydroxide

b) Water

c) Diborane

d) Hydrogen peroxide

Answer: c

Explanation: In the presence of aqueous NaOH, trialkyl boranes are oxidised by hydrogen peroxide to
produce alcohol. This conversion does not require diborane, although it is required for the creation of
trialkyl boranes.

7. Ethers may be used as solvents because they react only with which of the following reactants?

a) Oxidising agent

b) Bases

c) Acids

d) Reducing agents

Answer: c

Explanation: Nucleophiles and bases cannot attack ether. However, because of their capacity to solve
cations by giving an electron pair from an oxygen atom, they are excellent solvents in many chemical
reactions. Ethers are less reactive than alcohols and react only with acids.

8. An aryl carbon can be found in which of the following compounds?

a) Ethanol

b) Phenol

c) Vinyl alcohol

d) Benzyl alcohol

Answer: b

Explanation: An aryl carbon is the sp 2 hybridised carbon of an aromatic ring to which the hydroxyl
group is connected. The OH group is connected to an aryl carbon in phenol.
9. It's called ether when the alkyl groups connected to either side of the oxygen atom in an ether are
different.

a) mixed

b) symmetrical

c) simple

d) diethyl

Answer: a

Explanation: A mixed or unsymmetrical ether is one in which the alkyl or aryl groups on either side of
the O atom differ.

10. Which of the following alcohols is not polyhydric?

a) Propylene glycol

b) Ethylene glycol

c) Cyclohexanol

d) Benzene-1,2-diol

Answer: c

Explanation: Polyhydric alcohols include two or more hydroxyl groups and are classified as glycols in
the common system or diols and triols in the IUPAC system.
Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones,
and Carboxylic Acids MCQs
1. Which of the reactions below can result in ketones?

a) Oxidation of primary alcohols

b) Oxidation of secondary alcohols

c) Dehydrogenation of tertiary alcohols

d) Dehydrogenation of primary alcohols

Answer: b

Explanation: Ketones are formed when secondary alcohols are oxidised and dehydrogenated.
Aldehydes are produced by the same processes with primary alcohols.

2. The Rosenmund reaction can produce which of the following carbonyl compounds?

a) Methanal

b) Benzaldehyde

c) Butanone

d) Acetone

Answer: b

Explanation: The Rosenmund reaction, which involves replacing chloride with hydrogen, is only
utilised to make aldehydes. Methane cannot be produced from this process because the acyl chloride
that corresponds to it, formyl chloride, is unstable at ambient temperature. Benzoyl chloride produces
benzaldehyde.

3. Reactions occur between aldehydes and ketones.

a) nucleophilic addition

b) electrophilic substitution
c) electrophilic addition

d) nucleophilic substitution

Answer: a

Explanation: The polar CO group in aldehydes and ketones is also a double bond. The nucleophile
attacks the sp2 hybridised carbon, shattering the double bond and converting it to sp3, resulting in the
formation of a tetrahedral alkoxide intermediate. This goes through another quick step to create an
additional product.

4. Which of the following reactions to a nucleophilic assault is the least reactive?

a) Acetaldehyde

b) Di Tert-Butyl ketone

c) Diisopropyl ketone

d) Butanone

Answer: b

Explanation: When comparing these substances, the steric effects are taken into account. The
tert-butyl groups on either side of the carbonyl atom in ditert-butyl ketone are highly bulky. This reduces
reactivity by increasing the hindrance to the approaching nucleophile.

5. Acetone combines with ethylene glycol in dry HCl gas to generate _________

a) hemiacetals

b) cyclic ketals

c) cyclic acetals

d) acetals

Answer: b

Explanation: Dihydric alcohols, such as ethylene glycol, react immediately with aldehydes and ketones
to generate cyclic acetals and cyclic ketals, respectively. Ethylene glycol ketals are another name for
cyclic ketals.

6. Which of the following is not a formaldehyde application?

a) Preservation of biological specimens

b) Preparation of acetic acid

c) Silvering of mirrors

d) Manufacturing of bakelite

Answer: b

Explanation: Because formaldehyde has only one carbon atom, it cannot be employed as a starting
material for the production of acetic acid. It is, nevertheless, utilised to make bakelite, glues, and
polymeric items. In the silvering of mirrors, it also works as a reducing agent.

7. Which of the following compounds is formed when benzyl alcohol is oxidised with KMnO4?

a) CO2 and H2O

b) Benzoic acid

c) Benzaldehyde

d) Benzophenone

Answer: c

Explanation: When benzyl alcohol is oxidised with KMnO4, benzoic acid is the result.

8. At 287K, which of the following is a gas?

a) Propanal

b) Acetaldehyde

c) Formaldehyde

d) Acetone

Answer: c

Explanation: At room temperature, methane is a foul-smelling gas. Ethanal is a volatile liquid that boils
at 294 degrees Fahrenheit. At room temperature, other aldehydes and ketones exist as liquids or
solids.

9. Which of the following substances is the least water soluble?

a) Methanal

b) Pentanal

c) Propanone

d) Ethanal

Answer: b

Explanation: Because the polar carbonyl group may establish hydrogen bonds with water molecules,
the lower aldehydes and ketones are miscible in water in all quantities. However, as the length of the
alkyl chain grows longer, the solubility drops dramatically. Aldehydes and ketones with more than four
carbon atoms are nearly water insoluble.

10. Which of these has the least unpleasant odour?

a) Methanal

b) Butanal

c) Propanal

d) Ethanal

Answer: b

Explanation: The odour gets less strong and more fragrant as the size of the aldehyde molecule
grows. Methanal has the strongest odour of all the aldehydes.
Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines MCQs
1. What is the most basic aromatic amine's common name?

a) Benzenamine

b) Benzylamine

c) Aniline

d) Aminobenzene

Answer: c

Explanation: The simplest amine is aniline, which has the formula C6H5NH2. This name is also
recognised by the IUPAC. The IUPAC designation for it is benzenamine, although it's also known as
aminobenzene.

2. What is the correct name for a molecule that has two amino groups in opposing (para) locations
around a benzene ring?

a) Benzenediamine

b) Benzene-1,4-diamine

c) p-Aminoaniline

d) 4-Aminobenzenamine

Answer: b

Explanation: Both amino groups (in para positions to one other) are given equal weight and the
primary complex is given the prefix di. The prefix is also numbered 1 and 4, indicating the places in the
benzene ring where amino groups are present.

3. When acetamide is converted to methylamine, what is the name of the reaction?

a) Friedel-Crafts reaction

b) Hofmann reaction

c) Hofmann bromamide reaction

d) Hinsberg reaction

Answer: c

Explanation: When bromine is added to an amide in an aqueous or ethanolic sodium hydroxide

solution, the amide degrades, resulting in the creation of primary amine. Hoffmann bromamide
degradation reaction is a reaction that involves the degradation of an amide.

4. For which of the following is the Hinsberg approach used?

a) Preparation of primary amines

b) Separation of amine mixtures

c) Preparation of tertiary amines

d) Preparation of secondary amines

Answer: b

Explanation: The Hinsberg reaction is a test for primary, secondary, and tertiary amine detection. The
amine is thoroughly shaken with Hinsberg reagent in the presence of aqueous alkali in this test (either
KOH or NaOH). A substrate is treated with a reagent containing an aqueous sodium hydroxide solution
and benzenesulfonyl chloride.

5. Which of the following is the IUPAC name of the chemical in which an ethyl group replaces one
hydrogen of ammonia?

a) Ethanamine

b) Aminoethane

c) Ethylamine

d) Ethane amine

Answer: a

Explanation: According to the common system and the second system, CH3CH2NH2 is known as
ethylamine and aminoethane, respectively. In the IUPAC system, the amine is substituted for the 'e' of
the alkane.

6. The aromatic primary amine with the formula C7H9N has an incorrect name.
a) Phenylaminomethane

b) Benzylamine

c) Benzenamine

d) Phenylmethanamine

Answer: c

Explanation: The phenyl group C6H5 must be present with CH4N because it is an aromatic molecule.
Because it's a primary amine, the NH2 group can be separated, leaving CH2. The compound's formula
is C6H5CH2NH2, which stands for benzylamine. C6H5NH2 is the formula for benzenamine.

7. Which test can tell the difference between p-chloroaniline and anilinium hydrochloride?

a) Sandmeyer reaction

b) Carbylamine test

c) AgNO 3

d) NaHCO3

Answer: d

Explanation: An acid salt, anilinium hydrochloride, liberates CO2 from NaHCO3. However, because
p-chloro aniline is basic rather than acidic, it does not release CO2. Because p-chloro aniline lacks ionic
chlorine, it does not produce white ppt when combined with AgNO 3.

8. By reacting with which of the following, primary amines can be separated from secondary and tertiary
amines?

a) Chloroform alone

b) Methyl iodide

c) Chloroform and alcoholic KOH

d) Zinc dust

Answer: c
Explanation: Secondary and tertiary amines do not react with CHCl3 and alc. KOH generates
isocyanide, whereas primary amine does.

9. Which of the following statements concerning methylamine is correct?

a) Methyl amine is stronger base than NH3

b) Methyl amine is less basic than NH3

c) Methyl amine is slightly acidic

d) Methyl amine forms salts with alkali

Answer: a

Explanation: Due to the +I effect, the presence of an alkyl group enhances the electron density on the
nitrogen atom. As a result, basic nature grows.

10. Which of these substances has a lower melting point than amine?

a) Alcohol

b) Ether

c) Carboxylic acid

d) Phosphine

Answer: d

Explanation: The characteristics of primary and secondary amines are influenced by hydrogen
bonding. As a result, amines have greater melting and boiling points than the comparable phosphines,
but are often lower than the corresponding alcohols and carboxylic acids, ether.
Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 14 Biomolecules MCQs
1. A disaccharide is formed when two monosaccharides are bonded together by a bond.

a) glycosidic

b) peptide

c) ionic

d) phosphodiester

Answer: a

Explanation: When two monosaccharide units come together, they lose a molecule of water and form
an oxide bond. The glycosidic linkage is a bond formed by an oxygen atom between two
monosaccharide molecules.

2. Sucrose is a chemical, and the hydrolysis product combination is in nature.

a) dextrorotatory; dextrorotatory

b) laevorotatory; laevorotatory

c) laevorotatory; dextrorotatory

d) dextrorotatory; laevorotatory

Answer: d

Explanation: Sucrose is a dextrorotatory sugar that produces a combination of dextrorotatory glucose

and laevorotatory fructose when hydrolyzed. The resultant mixture is laevorotatory because the specific
rotation of fructose is larger than that of glucose.

3. Which of the following statements about maltose is incorrect?

a) It consists of two glucopyranose units

b) It is a disaccharide

c) Glycosidic bond between C1 of one unit and C4 of the other unit

d) It is a non-reducing sugar

Answer: d

Explanation: The free aldehyde group, which has reducing capabilities, can be formed at the C1
carbon of the second -D-glucose unit in solution. As a result, it decreases sugar.

4. Which of the following statements about starch is incorrect?

a) It gives blue colour with iodine

b) It is a polymer of α-D-glucose

c) It is a reducing carbohydrate

d) It consists of branched chains

Answer: c

Explanation: Because it does not decrease Fehling's solution or Tollen's reagent, starch is a
non-reducing saccharide. This means that all hemiacetal hydroxyl groups of glucose units are linked by
glycosidic bonds and are not free.

5. RNA lacks the nitrogen base of _______

a) Thymine

b) Cytosine

c) Uracil

d) Adenine

Answer: a

Explanation: DNA contains the pyrimidine Uracil, whereas DNA contains Thymine. In RNA, Adenine
forms two hydrogen bonds with Uracil, but in DNA, Adenine forms two hydrogen bonds with Thymine.

6. Lysine is an example of a polar but uncharged amino acid,

a) Serine

b) Aspartate

c) Lysine
d) Arginine

Answer: a

Explanation: The amino acids Lysine and Arginine are polar and positively charged. Aspartate, on the
other hand, is a polar and negatively charged amino acid. Serine is an uncharged, polar amino acid.

7. Which of the following chemical classes does not belong to the vast group of carbohydrates?

a) Polyhydroxy ketones

b) Polyhalo aldehydes

c) Polyamino aldehydes

d) Polyhydroxy carboxylic acids

Answer: a

Explanation: The OH group is absent from polyamino and polyhalo aldehydes. There is no CHO or
keto group in polyhydroxy carboxylic acids. When they are hydrolyzed, they do not form OH substituted
compounds.

8. Which of the following statements about metabolism is false?

a) It is due to this process that biomolecules do not have a turnover

b) It involves the formation of biomolecules

c) It involves the breaking down of biomolecules

d) It involves various chemical reactions

Answer: a

Explanation: Metabolism entails the breakdown of biomolecules as well as the creation of new ones. It
entails a number of chemical processes. It is in charge of the biomolecule turnover.

9. How can we make an amine from an amino acid?

a) Addition of carbon dioxide

b) Removal of ammonia

c) Addition of ammonia
d) Removal or carbon dioxide

Answer: d

Explanation: The elimination of a molecule of carbon dioxide transforms an amino acid into an amine.
This is an example of a metabolic reaction that involves the conversion of one biomolecule into another.

10. When converting a disaccharide to monosaccharides, which bond is hydrolyzed?

a) Disulfide bond

b) Glycosidic bond

c) Phosphodiester bond

d) Hydrogen bond

Answer: b

Explanation: A disaccharide is a molecule that consists of two monosaccharides joined by a glycosidic

bond. The disaccharide's glycosidic bond is hydrolyzed to release the constituent monosaccharides.
Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 15 Polymers MCQs

1. Any substance made up of multiple repeating units called polymers is referred to as a polymer.

a) Mers

b) Plastic

c) Resins

d) Blocks

Answer: a

Explanation: Any substance made up of multiple repeating units, known as mers, is referred to as a
polymer. Polymers are made up of a large number of molecules connected together to form lengthy
chains.

2. Which of the following polymers does not fall within the configuration category?

a) Cross-linked

b) Atactic

c) Syndiotactic

d) Isotactic

Answer: a

Explanation: The category of configuration does not include cross-linked polymers. The categories of
configuration include syndiotactic, atactic, and isotactic. Within a macromolecule, tacticity refers to the
relative stereochemistry of neighbouring chiral centres.

3. Which of the following is not a thermoplastic example?

a) Polyvinyl chloride

b) Epoxy
c) Polyesters

d) Nylon

Answer: b

Explanation: Epoxy is not a thermoplastic material. A thermoset polymer is an example of one.

Thermoplastics include polyvinyl chloride, nylon, and polyesters.

4. Which of the following criteria does not apply to polymers?

a) Source

b) Structure

c) Method of preparation

d) Number of monomers

Answer: d

Explanation: Polymers are very massive molecules made up of a large number of simple units, or
monomers, joined together. They are classed primarily based on their source, structure, synthesis
mode, and molecular forces.

5. Which of the following does not belong in the category of natural polymers?

a) Cellulose

b) Starch

c) Rayon

d) RNA

Answer: c

Explanation: Natural polymers are made up of polymers derived from plants and animals. Rayon is a
semi-synthetic polymer that is created by chemically altering a natural polymer. Cellulose acetate
polymer or rayon is produced by acetylation of cellulose with acetic anhydride in sulphuric acid.

6. The synthesis of which of the following polymers necessitates the loss of tiny molecules on a regular
basis?
a) Polythene

b) Nylon-6,6

c) Buna-N

d) Buna-S

Answer: b

Explanation: Condensation polymers are created through a series of condensation reactions between
two bi-functional or tr-functional monomeric units, as well as the loss of minor molecules such as water,
alcohol, and HCl. The condensation of hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid produces nylon-6,6,
which is devoid of water molecules.

7. The crystallinity rises as the crystallinity rises. The polymer's brittleness.

a) Increases

b) Remains constant

c) Moderate

d) Decreases

Answer: d

Explanation: The brittleness of the polymer increases as the crystallinity of the polymer increases. The
polymers' strength and chemical resistance improves as well.

8. The polymer absorbs ______ and expands.

a) Water

b) Ether

c) Ethyl alcohol

d) Methanol

Answer: a

Explanation: The polymer soaks up the water and expands. Slowly, polymer dissolves into the viscous,
heterogeneous polymer solution.
9. Short-chained, low-molecular-weight polymers are known as liquid or gas polymers.

a) High-polymers

b) Oligo-polymers

c) Copolymers

d) Homopolymers

Answer: b

Explanation: Oligo-polymers are liquid or gaseous polymers with very short chains. Their molecular
weight is in the range of 100 g/mol. The molecular weights of high-polymers range from 10000 to
1000000 g/mol.

10. Which of the following stages of addition polymerization is not one of them?

a) Initiation

b) Recrystallisation

c) Termination

d) Propagation

Answer: b

Explanation: Similar monomers are joined to produce long chain molecules in the addition
polymerization process. Initiation, propagation, and termination are all part of the process. A chain
reaction polymerization is another name for this technique.
Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Everyday
Life MCQs
1. For medicinal chemists, the classification of medications based on is the most useful.

a) pharmacological effect

b) molecular targets

c) chemical structure

d) drug action

Answer: b

Explanation: Medicinal chemists are interested in the site where a drug will take effect, and they
prescribe specific drugs to people based on their needs. This also includes the structure-based
mechanism of pharmacological action on the target.

2. Which of the following medications is not classified according to the pharmacological effect criteria?

a) Analgesics

b) Antiseptics

c) Antihistamines

d) Antipyretics

Answer: c

Explanation: The pharmacological effects of medications are a group of drugs that all have the same
effect on a specific sort of problem. Analgesics relieve pain, antiseptics inhibit the spread of bacteria,
and antipyretics aid to reduce body temperature during a fever.

3. Drugs that prevent an enzyme's binding site form a substrate are known as inhibitors.

a) messengers

b) poisons
c) inhibitors

d) receptors

Answer: c

Explanation: Enzyme inhibitors are drugs that either hinder the enzyme from retaining the substrate or
from delivering functional groups that attack the substrate. Enzymes' catalytic activity is inhibited by
these substances.

4. Which of the following occurs when the enzyme and the inhibiting medication have a strong bond?

a) The active site slowly regains its original shape

b) The body synthesizes a new enzyme

c) The enzyme is blocked temporarily

d) The enzyme develops a new active site

Answer: b

Explanation: When the enzyme and the medication form a strong covalent link, the enzyme is
permanently inhibited. The entire drug-enzyme complex is degraded, and a new enzyme is synthesized
as a result.

5. Which of the following is not a factor in receptor selectivity for messengers?

a) Shape of binding site

b) Location in the membrane

c) Amino acid composition

d) Structure

Answer: b

Explanation: There are many distinct types of receptors in the body, all of which are located in different
places. They communicate with a variety of chemical signals. Their preference for one messenger over
the other is due to differences in binding sites, structure, and amino acid composition.

6. Which of the following chemicals aids in the regulation of stomach acid production?
a) Ranitidine

b) Cimetidine

c) Histamine

d) Omeprazole

Answer: c

Explanation: Histamine is the substance that causes pepsin and HCl to be secreted in the stomach.
Cimetidine (Tegamet), ranitidine (Zantac), omeprazole, and lansoprazole are drugs that block histamine
from interacting with stomach wall receptors, resulting in less acid being released.

7. Which of the following should never be used to treat people directly?

a) Antiseptics

b) Antimalarials

c) Disinfectants

d) Antibiotics

Answer: c

Explanation: Antimalarials and antibiotics are taken orally in pill form. Antiseptics are used to treat the
skin. Disinfectants are used to disinfect and protect items such as floors, toilets, and drains from
pathogenic activity.

8. Which of the following is a preservative and which is not?

a) Sodium benzoate

b) Potassium metasulphite

c) Dulcin

d) Sorbic acid salts

Answer: c
Explanation: Preservatives are chemicals added to food to keep it from spoiling and to keep its
nutritional value and flavour. The most common examples are salt, sugar, and oils. In jams, potassium
metasulphite is utilized. Dulcin is a synthetic sweetener.

9. What type of soap is generated when a soap is dissolved in ethanol and then the surplus solvent is
evaporated?

a) Shaving soap

b) Floating soap

c) Transparent soap

d) Laundry soap

Answer: c

Explanation: A transparent soap is created by dissolving the soap in an ethanol solution while
manufacturing it and then evaporating the excess ethanol not used in the process.

10. Choose the cationic detergent from the list below.

a) Pentaerythritol monostearate

b) Sodium dodecyl sulphate

c) Cetyltrimethylammonium bromide

d) Sodium lauryl sulphate

Answer: c

Explanation: Bromine is the anion of cetyltrimethylammonium bromide, a quaternary salt cation. The
cationic component aids in the washing process. Non-ionic detergents are pentaerythritol monostearate
and sodium dodecyl sulphate and sodium lauryl sulphate, whereas anionic detergents are sodium
dodecyl sulphate and sodium lauryl sulphate.