Module 15 Gas Turbine Engine

Ques.no chapter Question Ans.

1. On an axial flow, dual compressor forward fan engine, the fan turns the same speed as the.
A. low pressure turbine.
1. 1 B. high pressure compressor. A
C. forward turbine wheel.

2. A turbo jet engine gives.

A. large acceleration to a small mass of air.
1 B. large acceleration to a large weight of air. A
2.
C. small acceleration to a large mass of air.

3. The basic gas turbine engine is divided into two main sections: the cold section and the hot section.
A. The cold section includes the engine inlet, compressor, and turbine sections.
1 B. The hot section includes the combustor, diffuser, and exhaust. C
3.
C. The hot section includes the combustor, turbine, and exhaust.

1 4. A jet engine derives its thrust by. C

4.
A. drawing air into the compressor.
B. impingement of the propelling gases on the outside air.
C. reaction of the propelling gases.
 5. If the area of the nozzle was too large the effect is.
A. will 'choke' at mach 1.
1 B. exit velocity lower causing loss of the thrust. B
5.
C. exit velocity lower, negligible effect on thrust.

6. The working fluid of a gas turbine engine is.

A. gasoline.
1 B. kerosene. C
6.
C. air.

7. A divergent duct will cause subsonic flow to decrease in.

A. velocity, increase pressure.
1 B. velocity, pressure remains constant. A
7.
C. pressure, increase velocity.

8. The Brayton cycle is.

A. the name given to the intermittent cycling of an electrical de-icing system.
1 B. the continuous combustion cycle taking place in a gas turbine engine. B
8.
C. the constant velocity cycle taking place in a gas turbine engine.

1 9. Which statements are true regarding aircraft engine propulsion? C

9.
A. Turbojet and turbofan engines impart a relatively large amount of acceleration to a smaller mass of air.
B. In modern turboprop engines, nearly 50 percent of the exhaust gas energy is extracted by turbines to drive the
propeller and compressor with the rest providing exhaust thrust.
 C. An engine driven propeller imparts a relatively small amount of acceleration to a large mass of air.

10. As subsonic air flows through a convergent nozzle the velocity.

A. decreases.
1 B. increases. B
10.
C. remains constant.

11. In a twin spool compressor system, the first stage turbine drives them.
A. N2 compressor.
1 B. N1 and N2 compressors. A
11.
C. N1 compressor.

12. At what point in an axial flow turbojet engine will the highest gas pressures occur?
A. At the compressor outlet.
1 B. At the turbine entrance. A
12.
C. Within the burner section.

13. On a gas turbine engine, what is the fan driven by?

A. I P turbine.
1 B. LP turbine. B
13.
C. HP turbine.

1 14. In a ducted fan engine, the fan is driven by the. A

14.
A. turbine.
 B. air passing over the compressor.
C. accessory gearbox.

15. If the LP shaft shears.

A. turbine runaway occurs.
1 B. compressor overspeed occurs. A
15.
C. compressor underspeed occurs.

16. A turboprop engine derives its thrust by.

A. impingement of the prop-wash on the outside air.
1 B. reaction of the prop-wash. B
16.
C. reaction of the propulsion gases.

17. What section provides proper mixing of the fuel and efficient burning of the gases?
A. Diffuser section and combustion section.
17. 1 B. Combustion section and compressor section. C
C. Combustion section only.

18. In a choked nozzle, velocity increases, and.

A. density decreases.
1 B. pressure decrease C
18.
C. pressure increases.

1 19. The pressure of supersonic air as it flows through a divergent nozzle. A

19.
A. decreases.
 B. increases.
C. is inversely proportional to the temperature.

20. On a triple spool engine, the first stage of turbines drives.

A. the LP compressor.
1 B. the HP compressor. B
20.
C. the IP compressor.

21. A turbojet engine is smoother running than a piston engine because.

A. the lubrication is better.
1 B. it runs at a lower temperature. C
21.
C. it has no reciprocating parts.

22. A gas turbine engine comprises which three main sections?

A. Compressor, diffuser, and stator.
1 B. Turbine, compressor, and combustion. B
22.
C. Turbine, combustion, and stator.

23. The principle of jet propulsion is.

A. the calorific value of fuel burnt is equal to aircraft.
23. 1 B. the interaction of fluids and gases. C
C. every action has a equal and opposite reaction.

1 24. The pressure of subsonic air as it flows through a convergent nozzle. C

24.
A. increases.
 B. remains constant.
C. decreases.

25. The Brayton cycle is known as the constant.

A. temperature cycle.
1 B. mass cycle. C
25.
C. pressure cycle.

26. The velocity of subsonic air as it flows through a convergent nozzle.

A. remains constant.
1 B. increases. B
26.
C. decreases.

27. Newton's First Law of Motion, generally termed the Law of Inertia, states:
A. To every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
1 B. Force is proportional to the product of mass and acceleration. C
27.
C. Every body persists in its state of rest, or of motion in a straight line, unless acted upon by some outside force.

28. A high bypass engine results in.

A. overall slower airflow and greater propulsive efficiency.
1 B. overall faster airflow. A
28.
C. greater propulsive efficiency.
 29. The highest pressure in a gas turbine is.
A. at the nozzle exit.
1 B. at the burner exit. C
29.
C. just after the last compressor stage but before the burner.

30. In a free turbine.

A. there is a clutch between compressor and power output shaft.
1 B. there is a direct drive with a free-wheel unit. C
30.
C. there is no mechanical connection with the compressor.

1. Using standard atmospheric conditions, the standard sea level temperature is.
A. 29°C.
31. 2 B. 59°F. B
C. 59°C.

2. Ram effect' due to aircraft forward speed will cause the thrust of the engine to.
A. remain constant.
B. decrease.
32. 2 C. increase. A
 3. Increasing ram effect with increased speed.
A. reduces thrust due to reduced compressor efficiency.
B. increases thrust due to increased maximum airflow.
33. 2 C. reduces thrust due to reduced turbine temperature. B

4. Thrust.
A. increases with high temperature.
B. increases with low temperature.
34. 2 C. decreases with low temperature. B

5. Which of the following variables affect the inlet air density of a turbine engine?
A. Altitude of the aircraft, Ambient temperature.
B. Compression ratio, Turbine inlet temperature, Altitude of the aircraft, Ambient temperature.
35. 2 C. Speed of the aircraft, Compression ratio, Turbine inlet temperature, Altitude of the aircraft. A

6. The propulsive efficiency is.

A. low, with low mass flow acceleration.
B. high, with low mass flow acceleration.
36. 2 C. high, with high mass flow acceleration. B
 7. How does engine thrust vary with temperature?
A. Increase in temperature gives greater thrust because of low friction in compressors.
B. Low temperatures give low thrust.
37. 2 C. Low temperature gives greater mass flow and therefore greater thrust. C

8. A method of comparing engine efficiencies is by comparing.

A. fuel consumption.
B. thrust to weight ratio.
38. 2 C. specific fuel consumption. C

9. The point of maximum velocity in the engine is in the.

A. exhaust exit nozzle.
B. combustion chamber.
39. 2 C. nozzle guide vanes. A

10. At constant RPM, the pressure ratio of the compressor and the temperature rise across the compressor.
A. increases with height.
B. remains constant irrespective of height.
40. 2 C. decrease with height. B
 11. With the aircraft stationary, propulsive efficiency.
A. depends on RPM.
B. is minimum.
41. 2 C. is maximum. B

12. The efficiency of conversion of kinetic energy into propulsive work is a measure of.
A. mechanical efficiency.
B. propulsive efficiency.
42. 2 C. thermal efficiency. B

13. Power is adjusted in a gas turbine engine by.

A. increasing fuel flow.
B. increasing air and fuel flow.
43. 2 C. increasing airflow to the combustion chamber. B

14. Flat Rated thrust is defined as.

A. the thrust at the ambient temperature point above which thrust drops below 100%.
B. that power achieved at idle RPM.
44. 2 C. that power achieved at maximum EGT. A
 15. Propeller torque is analogous to.
A. engine RPM.
B. shaft horsepower.
45. 2 C. propeller RPM. B

16. The total power in a turboprop engine is the.

A. SHP.
B. BHP.
46. 2 C. E S HP. C

17. With an increase in forward speed, the engine thrust.

A. decreases slightly but recovers due to ram effect.
B. increases.
47. 2 C. decreases. A

18. Thrust will.

A. increase at high temperatures.
B. decrease at low temperatures.
48. 2 C. increase at low temperatures. C
 19. Across the turbines, there is.
A. a general temperature rise.
B. a general temperature drop.
49. 2 C. an isometric expansion. B

20. If the throttle position remains constant.

A. with increasing OAT, RPM and TGT will increase.
B. with decreasing OAT, RPM will increase.
50. 2 C. with increasing OAT, TGT will increase. A

21. If an aircraft climbs with a fixed throttle position.

A. thrust decreases and RPM increases.
B. thrust and RPM remain the same.
51. 2 C. thrust increases and RPM remains the same. A

22. Ram pressure recovery will generally take effect at aircraft speeds of.
A. mach 1.
B. mach 0.1 - 0.2.
52. 2 C. only when the aircraft is stationary with engines running. B
 23. As the air is passed through the turbine, due to the convergent shape formed between adjacent blades.
A. pressure decreases, velocity increases, temperature increases.
B. pressure increases, velocity increases, temperature constant.
53. 2 C. pressure decreases, velocity increases, temperature decreases. C

24. The basic equation for thrust is.

A. thrust = force * acceleration.
B. thrust = mass * velocity.
54. 2 C. thrust = mass * acceleration. C

25. Which of the following is not an engine rating?

A. Maximum Continuous.
B. Idle.
55. 2 C. Maximum Take Off. B

26. Ram Recovery' is a measure of.

A. intake efficiency.
B. net thrust.
56. 2 C. forward air speed. A
 27. With increasing ram effect.
A. turbine temperature decreases.
B. propulsive efficiency decreases.
57. 2 C. propulsive efficiency increases. C

28. In a gas turbine engine, turbine section.

A. temperature decreases along with pressure and velocity.
B. velocity decreases and pressure increases.
58. 2 C. velocity increases and pressure decreases. C

29. Through turbine rotor blades, the pressure.

A. increases, temperature increases, velocity decreases.
B. decreases, temperature and velocity decreases.
59. 2 C. remains constant, temperature increases. B

2 30. Temperature of the mass airflow through a Gas Turbine Engine. A

60.
A. increases from the inlet, through the compressor and the diffuser into the burner, and decreases through the turbine
into the exhaust.
B. increases from the inlet, through the compressor and remains constant through the diffuser and increases at the
burner, and decreases through the turbine into the exhaust.
C. remains constant at the inlet, increases from the compressor and the diffuser into the burner, and decreases through
the turbine into the exhaust.
 1. If an electrical de-icing system is operating, thrust will.
A. decrease.
61. 3 B. remain constant. B
C. increase.

2. Electrical de-icing operates.

A. continuously and intermittently.
B. cyclically independent of ambient air temperature.
62. 3 C. cyclically dependent on ambient air temperature. A

3. The inlet door on a variable geometry intake is open at.

A. idle speed.
B. supersonic speeds.
63. 3 C. subsonic speeds. C

4. Anti-ice is recommended during.

A. OAT +10°Centigrade and visible moisture.
B. thunderstorms.
64. 3 C. OAT below 10°Centigrade. A
 5. A pitot intake is divergent from front to rear because it.
A. reduces ram compression.
B. produces the maximum amount of ram compression.
65. 3 C. speeds up the air before it hits the compressor face. B

6. Anti icing of jet engine air inlets is commonly accomplished by.

A. electrical heating elements located within the engine air inlet cowling.
B. electrical heating elements inside the inlet guide vanes.
66. 3 C. engine bleed air ducted through the critical areas. C

7. The term 'Ram Ratio' in regard to air intakes is the relationship between.
A. ambient pressure and ambient temperature.
B. ambient temperature and compressor inlet temperature.
67. 3 C. ambient pressure and compressor inlet pressure. C

8. As an aircraft approaches the transonic range, the aerodynamic efficiency of a Pitot type intake.
A. increases due to the ram effect.
B. decreases due to the shock wave.
68. 3 C. is not effected by forward speed. B
 9. Inlet guide vanes are anti-iced with.
A. rubber boots.
B. thermal blankets.
69. 3 C. engine bleed air. C

10. Intake air turbulence.

A. decreases the efficiency of the compressor.
B. increases the efficiency of the compressor.
70. 3 C. has little effect on the efficiency of the compressor. A

11. What will be the effect of operating the intake anti-icing system of a gas turbine engine?
A. A decrease in power.
B. Increased power at altitude.
71. 3 C. Increased power for take-off. A

12. A Pitot intake is divergent from front to rear because it.

A. produces the maximum amount of ram compression.
B. reduces ram compression and turbulence.
72. 3 C. speeds up the air before it hits the compressor face. A
 13. With an electrical ice protection system, the heating elements operate.
A. continuously.
B. part continuous - part intermittent.
73. 3 C. intermittently. B

14. Variable Ramp Intakes restrict airflow by.

A. diverting the airflow around the intake.
B. reducing the area of the intake.
74. 3 C. creating shock-waves in the intake. C

15. The inlet door of a variable geometry intake at supersonic speeds will be.
A. closed.
B. open.
75. 3 C. mid-Position. A

16. When operating an engine in icing conditions, care should be taken when the.
A. temperature is below +10°Centigrade with visible moisture.
B. temperature is below 10°Centigrade.
76. 3 C. temperature is below 0°Centigrade. A
 17. Anti-icing for a turboprop is achieved by.
A. bleed air supply from compressor.
B. electric bonded heater mats.
77. 3 C. hot oil supply from lubrication system. B

18. A divergent intake is.

A. divergent from front to rear.
B. convergent/divergent from front to rear.
78. 3 C. divergent/convergent from front to rear. A

19. A variable geometry intake at subsonic speeds.

A. jet pipe area is increased.
B. throat area is decreased.
79. 3 C. throat area is increased. C

20. Electrical anti-ice.

A. heats oil which is distributed around engine.
B. heats elements, placed under mats around engine.
80. 3 C. heats air which is distributed around engine. B
 21. The cycling speed of the electrical de-icing mat.
A. comes in 4 speeds.
B. is not affected by weather conditions.
81. 3 C. is affected by weather conditions. C

22. The intake of a gas turbine engine is designed to.

A. protect compressor from FOD.
B. provide turbulent free air.
82. 3 C. provide streamlined fairing for aircraft. B

23. The velocity of air on entry to compressor inlet on an aircraft flying supersonic speed would be controlled at.
A. Mach 2.2.
B. Mach 1.
83. 3 C. Mach 0.4. C

24. If an inlet is choked then the velocity.

A. increases and pressure decreases.
B. increases and pressure increases.
84. 3 C. decreases and pressure increases. C
 25. In an aircraft flying at supersonic speed, to reduce the air velocity at the compressor, the variable intake.
A. exhaust jet cone area increased.
B. throat area is decreased.
85. 3 C. throat area is increased. B

26. A well designed intake will take advantage of forward speed by.
A. converting kinetic energy into pressure energy.
B. converting velocity energy into kinetic energy.
86. 3 C. converting pressure energy of the air into kinetic energy. A

27. In subsonic multi-engine aircraft, a normal inlet duct will.

A. decrease and then increase in size, front to rear, along length of the duct.
B. increase in size, front to rear, along length of the duct.
87. 3 C. increase and then decrease in size, front to rear, along length of the duct B

28. What type of intake is one that decreases gradually in area and then increases?
A. Convergent.
B. Convergent / Divergent.
88. 3 C. Divergent. B
 29. In an electrical de-icing system, the main elements will be on.
A. intermittently, 8 times a minute, dependant on OAT .
B. intermittently, 4 times a minute, dependant on OAT .
89. 3 C. continuously and intermittently. C

30. Intakes are designed to.

A. decrease the intake air pressure.
B. decelerate the free air stream flow.
90. 3 C. accelerate the free air stream flow. B

31. The air intake for a gas turbine powered subsonic aircraft would be of.
A. convergent form.
B. divergent form.
91. 3 C. convergent/divergent form. B

32. Turboprop engine inlet anti-ice system operates.

A. continuously.
B. cyclically dependant on weather conditions.
92. 3 C. cyclically independent on weather conditions. A
 33. What is the system that breaks up ice formations on a turboprop engine nose cowl called?
A. Nose cowl heating.
B. De-icing.
93. 3 C. Anti-icing. B

34. In a variable geometry intake, the velocity of the air on the engine compressor face is controlled by.
A. ramp and spill doors.
B. intake augmentation doors.
94. 3 C. shock-wave pattern, ramp and spill doors. C

1. How does a dual axial flow compressor improve the efficiency of a turbojet engine?
A. The velocity of the air entering the combustion chamber is increased.
B. More turbine wheels can be used.
95. 4 C. Higher compression ratios can be obtained. C

2. What are the two main functional components in a centrifugal compressor?

A. Bucket and expander.
B. Impeller and diffuser.
96. 4 C. Turbine and compressor. B
 3. A bypass ratio of 5:1 indicates that the bypass flow is.
A. equal to 1/5 of the hot stream.
B. five times the hot stream.
97. 4 C. five times the cold stream. B

4. The stator vanes in an axial-flow compressor.

A. direct air into the first stage rotor vanes at the proper angle.
B. convert velocity energy into pressure energy.
98. 4 C. convert pressure energy onto velocity energy. B

5. What units in a gas turbine engine aid in stabilisation of the compressor during low thrust engine operations?
A. Bleed air valves.
B. Stator vanes.
99. 4 C. Inlet guide vanes. A

6. What purpose do the diffuser vanes of a centrifugal compressor serve?

A. To convert pressure energy into kinetic energy.
B. To increase the air velocity.
100. 4 C. To convert kinetic energy into pressure energy. C

4 7. During the high RPM range on an axial flow gas turbine engine, in what position are the variable intake guide vanes and B
101.
bleed valves?
 A. At maximum swirl position, bleed valves open.
B. At minimum swirl position, bleed valves closed.
C. At maximum swirl position, bleed valves closed.

8. What is the purpose of the diffuser section in a turbine engine?

A. To convert pressure to velocity.
B. To reduce pressure and increase velocity.
102. 4 C. To increase pressure and reduce velocity. C

9. Bleed valves are normally spring loaded to the.

A. closed position.
B. open position.
103. 4 C. mid-position. B

10. In a turbine engine with a dual spool compressor, the low speed compressor.
A. always turns at the same speed as the high speed compressor.
B. seeks its own best operating speed.
104. 4 C. is connected directly to the high speed compressor. B
 11. What units in a gas turbine engine aid in guiding the airflow during low thrust engine operations?
A. Stator vanes.
B. Bleed air valves.
105. 4 C. Inlet guide vanes. C

12. What is one purpose of the stator blades in the compressor section?
A. Increase the velocity of the airflow.
B. Stabilize the pressure of the airflow.
106. 4 C. Control the direction of the airflow. C

13. Compressor stall is caused by.

A. a low angle of attack airflow through the first stages of compression.
B. rapid engine deceleration.
107. 4 C. a high angle of attack airflow through the first stages of compression. C

14. What is used to aid in stabilization of compressor airflow?

A. Variable guide vanes and/or compressor bleed valves.
B. Pressurization and dump valves.
108. 4 C. Stator vanes and rotor vanes. A
 15. What is the primary factor which controls the pressure ratio of an axial flow compressor?
A. Compressor inlet temperature.
B. Compressor inlet pressure.
109. 4 C. Number of stages in compressor. C

16. The non-rotating axial-flow compressor airfoils in an aircraft gas turbine are known as.
A. stator vanes.
B. bleed vanes.
110. 4 C. pressurization vanes. A

17. The purpose of a bleed valve, located in the beginning stages of the compressor is to.
A. vent some of the air overboard to prevent a compressor stall.
B. control excessively high RPM to prevent a compressor stall.
111. 4 C. vent high ram air pressure overboard to prevent a compressor stall. A

18. During the low RPM range on an axial flow gas turbine engine, in what position are the variable intake guide vanes and
bleed valves?
A. At maximum swirl position, bleed valves open.
112. 4 B. At maximum swirl position, bleed valves closed. A
C. At minimum swirl position, bleed valves closed.
 19. The energy changes that take place in the impeller of a centrifugal compressor are.
A. pressure decrease, velocity decrease, temperature increase.
B. pressure increase, velocity decrease, temperature increase.
113. 4 C. pressure increase, velocity increase, temperature increase. C

20. What is the primary advantage of an axial flow compressor over a centrifugal compressor?
A. High frontal area.
B. Greater pressure ratio.
114. 4 C. Less expensive. B

21. Compression occurs.

A. across stators and rotors.
B. across rotors.
115. 4 C. across stators. A

22. Which two elements make up the axial flow compressor assembly?
A. Rotor and stator.
B. Stator and diffuser.
116. 4 C. Compressor and manifold. A
 23. If the RPM of an axial flow compressor remains constant, the angle of attack of the rotor blades can be changed by.
A. changing the compressor diameter.
B. changing the velocity of the airflow.
117. 4 C. increasing the pressure ratio. B

24. The gas turbine Compressor Pressure Ratio is.

A. Compressor inlet pressure divided by Compressor discharge pressure.
B. Mass of air bypassing the combustion system divided by Mass of air going through the combustion system.
118. 4 C. Compressor discharge pressure divided by Compressor inlet pressure. C

25. An advantage of the centrifugal flow compressor is its high.

A. ram efficiency.
B. pressure rise per stage.
119. 4 C. peak efficiency. C

26. The compression ratio of an axial flow compressor is a function of the.

A. number of compressor stages.
B. air inlet velocity.
120. 4 C. rotor diameter. A
 27. The two types of centrifugal compressor impellers are.
A. impeller and diffuser.
B. single entry and double entry.
121. 4 C. rotor and stator. B

28. Between each row of rotating blades in a compressor, there is a row of stationary blades which act to diffuse the air.
These stationary blades are called.
A. stators.
122. 4 B. rotors. A
C. buckets.

29. If the LP compressor shaft severed.

A. the LP turbine will speed up and the LP compressor will slow down.
B. the LP compressor of cruise thrust.
123. 4 C. the HP compressor will slow down. A

30. An advantage of a centrifugal compressor is.

A. it is dynamically balanced.
B. it is unaffected by turbulence.
124. 4 C. it is robust and can stand some shock from icing-up. C
 31. Variable inlet guide vanes prevent.
A. compressor runaway.
B. engine flame out at high speed.
125. 4 C. compressor stalling. C

32. An axial flow compressor surges when.

A. later stages are stalled.
B. all stages are stalled.
126. 4 C. early stages are stalled. B

33. As a consequence of tapping air from the compressor, the TGT will.
A. fall.
B. remain constant.
127. 4 C. rise. C

34. Compressor air bleeds promote the flow of air through the early stages by.
A. opening to allow air in.
B. closing.
128. 4 C. opening to allow air out. C
 35. .Compressor blades have a reduced angle of attack at the tips.
A. to prevent turbine stall.
B. to increase the velocity.
129. 4 C. to allow uniform axial velocity. C

36. Compressor surge is caused by.

A. over fuelling.
B. rapid closing of the throttle.
130. 4 C. prolonged engine running at high RPM. A

37. What purpose do the diffuser vanes of a centrifugal compressor serve?

A. To convert pressure energy into kinetic energy.
B. To increase the air velocity.
131. 4 C. To convert kinetic energy into pressure energy. C

38. The purpose of the rotating guide vanes on a centrifugal compressor is to.
A. direct the air smoothly into the impeller.
B. provide initial diffusing of the air.
132. 4 C. prevent damage by solid objects. B
 39. What is the surge margin of an axial flow compressor?
A. The margin between the compressor working line and the surge line.
B. The margin between minimum and maximum pressure ratio obtained at constant RPM.
133. 4 C. The margin between the stall condition and the surge condition. A

40. The compression ratio of a jet engine is.

A. the compressor outlet pressure divided by the number of compressor stages.
B. the ratio between turbine pressure and compressor outlet pressure.
134. 4 C. the ratio between compressor outlet pressure and compressor inlet pressure. C

41. Variable inlet guide vanes help to prevent.

A. compressor runaway.
B. ice builds up on compressor blades.
135. 4 C. compressor stalling. C

42. Air through the compressor, before entering the combustion chamber, passes.
A. through divergent passage to increase the pressure.
B. through nozzles to increase the velocity.
136. 4 C. through divergent passage to decrease the pressure. A
 43. Low mass airflow through a compressor will produce.
A. stalling of rear stages.
B. stalling of early stages.
137. 4 C. no effect. B

44. A bleed valve.

A. relieves compressor choking at low RPM.
B. controls air intake pressure.
138. 4 C. bleeds air from compressor for intake deicing. A

45. A compressor stage stalls when.

A. adiabatic temperature rise is too high.
B. compression ratio is too high.
139. 4 C. smooth airflow is disrupted. C

46. Inlet guide vanes are fitted to.

A. control the quantity of air entering the intake.
B. guide the airflow onto the turbine rotor first stage.
140. 4 C. control the angle of airflow into the compressor. C
 47. Why, in an axial flow compressor is the cross sectional area of the compressor air duct reduced at each stage?
A. To decrease the velocity of the air rising under pressure.
B. To maintain the velocity of the air under rising pressure.
141. 4 C. To permit stronger, shorter blades to be used in the later stages. B

48. An abradable lining around the fan is to.

A. provide less leakage for anti-icing.
B. prevent fan blade tip rub.
142. 4 C. strengthen the EPR value. C

49. What is the profile of a compressor blade?

A. A cutout that reduces blade tip thickness.
B. The leading edge of the blade.
143. 4 C. The curvature of the blade root. A

50. The resultant velocity of air exiting an axial compressor stage depends upon.
A. aircraft forward speed.
B. compressor RPM.
144. 4 C. Both of the above. C
 51. What is a compressor stage?
A. One compressor rotor and one nozzle guide vane.
B. One rotor plus one stator.
145. 4 C. One Nozzle Guide Vane and one rotor. B

52. If the bypass ratio is 0.7:1, the 0.7 pounds of air is.
A. fed into H.P compressor compared to 1 pound fed around it.
B. fed around the engine to 1 pound fed into H.P. compressor.
146. 4 C. bypassed for every 1 pound at the intake. B

53. Advantage of an axial flow over a centrifugal flow gas turbine engine.
A. power required for starting is less.
B. low weight.
147. 4 C. high peak efficiencies. C

54. Compressor blades reduce in length.

A. from tip to root to maintain uniform velocity in compressor.
B. from L.P to H.P section to maintain uniform velocity in compressor.
148. 4 C. from root to tip to maintain correct angle of attack. B
 55. In a compressor, diffusion action takes place across.
A. rotors.
B. rotors and stators.
149. 4 C. stators. B

56. The ring of fixed blades at the intake of an axial flow compressor is called.
A. inlet guide vanes.
B. first stage stator blades.
150. 4 C. first stage diffuser blades. A

57. The pressure ratio can be influenced by.

A. compressor inlet temperature.
B. number of stages in compressor.
151. 4 C. compressor inlet pressure. B

58. Air bleed valves are.

A. closed at low RPM.
B. open at high RPM.
152. 4 C. open at low RPM. C
 59. The compressor case annulus is.
A. convergent.
B. divergent.
153. 4 C. parallel. A

60. If the tip clearance in a centrifugal compressor is too small.

A. there would be pressure losses through leakage.
B. there is danger of seizure.
154. 4 C. aerodynamic buffeting would cause vibration. C

61. What is meant by a compressor stage?

A. One rotor and one stator assembly.
B. All rotors and stators.
155. 4 C. One rotor and one guide vane assembly. A

62. Where does compression take place as air passes through an axial flow compressor?
A. Rotor blades.
B. Stator Blades.
156. 4 C. Rotor and Stator blades. C
 63. What is the purpose of the stator vanes in the compressor section of a gas turbine engine?
A. Increase the velocity of the airflow.
B. Control direction of the airflow.
157. 4 C. Prevent compressor surge. B

64. In a twin spool compressor, the LP section runs at.

A. a lower RPM than the HP spool.
B. a higher RPM than the HP spool.
158. 4 C. the same RPM than the HP spool. A

1. In a turbojet engine, combustion occurs at.

A. constant velocity.
159. 5 B. constant volume. C
C. constant pressure.

2. A tubo-annular gas turbine combustion system consists of.

A. a number of flame tubes in an annular air casing.
B. a number of flame tubes each with its own air casing.
160. 5 C. an annular flame tube in an annular air casing. A

161. 5 C
3. In which type of turbine engine combustion chamber is the case and liner removed and installed as one unit during
 routine maintenance?
A. Cannular.
B. Annular.
C. Can.

4. In a turboprop engine, combustion takes place at constant.

A. pressure.
B. density.
162. 5 C. volume. A

5. The air passing through the combustion chamber is.

A. entirely combined with fuel and burned.
B. used to support combustion and to cool the engine.
163. 5 C. speeded up and heated by the action of the turbines. B

6. The air used for combustion is.

A. Primary and secondary.
B. Primary.
164. 5 C. Secondary. B
 7. Combustion chamber flame temperature is in the order of.
A. 2000°Centigrade.
B. 2000°Fahrenheit.
165. 5 C. 2000°K. A

8. Another name for a cannular combustion chamber is.

A. turbo-annular.
B. multiple can.
166. 5 C. can-annular. C

9. Another name for a cannular combustion chamber is.

A. annular.
B. tubo-annular.
167. 5 C. multiple can. B

10. The approximate percentage of the mass airflow taken in by the flame tube snout is.
A. 82%.
B. 8%.
168. 5 C. 18%. C
 11. What component creates a vortex in a gas turbine flame tube?
A. Tertiary hole.
B. Swirl vanes.
169. 5 C. Cascade vanes. B

12. Which of the following types of combustion sections are used in aircraft turbine engines?
A. Annular, variable, and cascade vane.
B. Multiple can, annular, and can-annular.
170. 5 C. Can, multiple can, and variable. B

13. Secondary air in the combustion chamber is used for.

A. increasing axial velocity of gases.
B. combustion.
171. 5 C. cooling. C

14. The overall air/fuel ratio of a combustion chamber can vary between.
A. 45:1 and 130:1.
B. 130:1 and 200:1.
172. 5 C. 10:1 and 45:1. A
 15. When light-up takes place.
A. the nozzle guide vanes spread the heat to adjacent flame tubes.
B. interconnectors spread the heat to adjacent flame tubes.
173. 5 C. each flame tube is isolated from its neighbours B

16. Why do the holes in the body of the duple burner provide air to the shroud around the burner head?
A. To assist atomisations of the fuel at slow running.
B. To reduce burner temperature.
174. 5 C. To minimise carbon formation on the burner face. C

17. The air passing through the combustion chamber of a jet engine is.
A. entirely combined with fuel and burned.
B. used to support combustion and to cool the engine.
175. 5 C. speeded up and heated by the action of the turbines. B

18. A toroidal vortex is.

A. a vapour trail visible in moist air conditions.
B. a region in the combustion chamber of low velocity re-circulation.
176. 5 C. a bull-nosed cowling for deflecting air from the static B
 19. What is a cannular combustion system?
A. One common flame tube closed in a common air casing.
B. A set of flame tubes, each mounted in a separate air casing.
177. 5 C. A set of flame tubes, enclosed in a common air casing. C

20. The flame temperature is approximately.

A. 1400°Centigrade.
B. 2000°Centigrade.
178. 5 C. 500°Centigrade. B

21. Fuel entering the combustion chamber from an atomizer spray nozzle enters as.
A. fuel in air pulses.
B. a fuel/air mixture.
179. 5 C. fuel continuously. B

22. An advantage of an annular combustion system is.

A. unrestricted airflow at maximum RPM.
B. diameter of engine is reduced due to the cans being smaller.
180. 5 C. decrease in combustor length compared to a tubo-annular combustor of the same output. C
 23. Which statement is true regarding the air passing through the combustion section of a jet engine?
A. Most is used for engine cooling.
B. Most is used to support combustion.
181. 5 C. A small percentage is frequently bled off at this point to be used for air-conditioning and/or other pneumatic powered A
systems.

24. How are combustion liner walls cooled in a gas turbine engine?
A. By secondary air flowing through the combustion chamber.
B. By bleed air vented from the engine air inlet.
182. 5 C. By the pattern of holes and louvers cut in the diffuser section. A

25. Dilution air is placed.

A. in the dilution zone of the combustion chamber after the primary zone.
B. in the primary zone of the combustion chamber.
183. 5 C. in the swirl vanes of the combustor. A

26. The approximate percentage of the mass airflow which bypasses the flame tube snout is.
A. 8%.
B. 82%.
184. 5 C. 18%. B
 27. Flame stabilization in a combustion chamber is achieved by.
A. the correct burner pressure.
B. the airflow pattern.
185. 5 C. the correct air/fuel ratio. B

28. Combustor air that is not used to support combustion.

A. will film cool the liner and dilute combustion chamber exit temperature.
B. is by-pass air.
186. 5 C. is considered as the total air flow. A

29. The purpose of the swirl vanes in the combustion chamber is to produce.
A. flame re-circulation.
B. gas re-circulation.
187. 5 C. adequate mixing of fuel and air. B

30. A combustion chamber has a.

A. convergent inlet, divergent outlet.
B. convergent inlet, convergent outlet.
188. 5 C. divergent inlet, convergent outlet. C
 1. The three main types of turbine blades are.
A. impulse, vector, and impulse-vector.
B. reaction, converging, and diverging.
189. 6 C. impulse, reaction, and impulse-reaction. C

2. What are the two main basic components of the turbine section in a gas turbine engine?
A. Stator and rotor.
B. Hot and cold.
190. 6 C. Impeller and diffuser. A

3. Turbine impulse blading forms a.

A. constant area duct.
B. divergent duct.
191. 6 C. convergent duct. A

4. The turbine section.

A. increases air velocity to create thrust.
B. uses heat energy to expand and accelerate the gas flow.
192. 6 C. drives the compressor section. C
 5. What is meant by a shrouded turbine?
A. The turbine blades are shaped so that their ends form a band or shroud.
B. The turbine wheel has a shroud or duct which provides cooling air to the turbine blades.
193. 6 C. The turbine wheel is enclosed by a protective shroud to contain the blades in case of failure. A

6. Turbine nozzle diaphragms located on the upstream side of each turbine wheel are used to.
A. decrease the velocity of the heated gases flowing past this point.
B. direct the flow of gases parallel to the vertical line of the turbine blades.
194. 6 C. increase the velocity of the heated gases flowing past this point. B

7. Reduced blade vibration and improved airflow characteristics in turbines are brought by.
A. shrouded turbine rotor blades.
B. impulse type blades.
195. 6 C. fir tree blade attachment. A

8. What term is used to describe a permanent and cumulative deformation of turbine blades?
A. Stretch.
B. Creep.
196. 6 C. Distortion. B
 9. What is the major function of the turbine assembly in a turbojet engine?
A. Directs the gases in the proper direction to the tailpipe.
B. Supplies the power to turn the compressor.
197. 6 C. Increases the temperature of the exhaust gases. B

10. Gas pressure through the turbine section will generally.

A. increase.
B. remains the same.
198. 6 C. decrease. C

11. Temperature through the turbine stages generally.

A. remains the same.
B. decreases.
199. 6 C. increases. B

12. Shrouded blades allow.

A. smaller inlets to be used.
B. higher turbine inlet temperatures.
200. 6 C. thinner more efficient blade sections to be used. C
 13. Continued and/or excessive heat and centrifugal force on turbine engine rotor blades is likely to cause.
A. galling.
B. creep.
201. 6 C. profile. B

14. N.G.V's form.

A. convergent ducts.
B. parallel ducts.
202. 6 C. divergent ducts. A

15. Reduced blade vibration and improved airflow characteristics in gas turbines are brought about by.
A. shrouded turbine rotor blades.
B. fir tree blade attachment.
203. 6 C. impulse type blades. A

16. A purpose of the shrouds on the turbine blades of an axial flow engine is to.
A. reduce air entrance.
B. increase tip speed.
204. 6 C. reduce vibration. C
 17. The forces driving a turbine round are due to.
A. impulse only.
B. reaction only.
205. 6 C. impulse and reaction. C

18. Nozzle guide vanes give a.

A. pressure increase, velocity decrease.
B. pressure increase, velocity increase.
206. 6 C. pressure decrease, velocity increase. C

19. Shrouding of stator blade tips is to.

A. minimise vibration.
B. ensure adequate cooling.
207. 6 C. prevent tip turbulence. A

20. Running clearance on a turbine disk is kept to a minimum to reduce.

A. temperature loss.
B. aerodynamic buffeting.
208. 6 C. tip losses. C
 21. Two basic types of turbine blades are.
A. impulse and vector.
B. reaction and impulse.
209. 6 C. tangential and reaction. B

22. Why are nozzle guide vanes fitted?

A. To decrease velocity of the gas flow.
B. To increase velocity of the gas flow.
210. 6 C. To increase velocity of the air flow. B

23. A turbine disk is.

A. a disk at the core of the engine that the blades are attached to.
B. a segmented or complete shroud on blade tips that reduces leakage.
211. 6 C. a shroud around the stators of the turbine. A

24. The active clearance control system aids turbine engine efficiency by.
A. automatically adjusting engine speed to maintain a desired EPR.
B. adjusting stator vane position according to operating conditions and power requirements.
212. 6 C. ensuring turbine blade to engine case clearances are kept to a minimum by controlling case temperatures. C
 25. On an impulse-reaction turbine blade it is.
A. impulse at the root and reaction at the tip.
B. reaction at the root and impulse at the tip.
213. 6 C. impulse and reaction all the away along the blade. A

26. Turbine creep effects.

A. turbine blades.
B. turbine disks.
214. 6 C. N.G.Vs. A

27. Creep is.

A. not found in turbines.
B. a temporary deformation of turbine.
215. 6 C. a permanent deformation of turbine. C

28. Creep, overall.

A. has no effect on turbine diameter.
B. increases turbine diameter.
216. 6 C. decreases turbine diameter. B
 29. How are turbine disks attached to the shaft in gas turbine engine?
A. Splined.
B. Curvic couplings.
217. 6 C. Bolted. C

30. Fir tree turbine blade attachment locates the blade.

A. allows slight movement.
B. radially.
218. 6 C. axially. A

31. Creep may occur to turbine blades due to.

A. prolonged low RPM use.
B. over-temp with excessive centrifugal loads.
219. 6 C. high back pressures. B

32. Forces driving the turbine are due to.

A. aerodynamic lift imposing impulse on blades.
B. momentum and directional acceleration of gases.
220. 6 C. expansion of gases. B
 33. Impulse turbine blades run cooler than reaction blades because.
A. impulse spins faster radially.
B. temperature drop across N.G.V is greater.
221. 6 C. converging rotors increase velocity. B

34. An increase in turbine diameter is caused by.

A. prolonged high temperatures and centrifugal loads.
B. products of combustion.
222. 6 C. over speed. A

35. Which of the following is most likely to occur in the turbine section of a gas turbine engine?
A. Pitting.
B. Galling.
223. 6 C. Cracking. C

36. An impulse/reaction turbine is designed to ensure.

A. greater axial velocity at the blade root.
B. uniform axial velocity from blade root to tip.
224. 6 C. greater axial velocity at the blade tip. B
 37. Excessive turbine temperatures can lead to.
A. turbine blade creep and an increase in the diameter of the turbine.
B. not a serious problem as long as engine oil pressure is within limits.
225. 6 C. a serious fire risk in the engine. A

38. Impulse blades operate cooler than reaction blades because.

A. impulse blades rotate at higher speeds.
B. the N.G.V's cool the air.
226. 6 C. the airflow has a higher velocity through a impulse turbine N.G.V. C

39. The temperature and centrifugal loads which the turbine is subjected to during normal engine operation causes.
A. fatigue failure.
B. elastic stretching.
227. 6 C. creep loading. C

40. Impulse-reaction turbine blades form.

A. tip half reaction, root half Impulse.
B. 1 stage impulse, 1 stage reaction.
228. 6 C. tip half Impulse, root half reaction. A
 41. A fir tree root.
A. allows compressor cooling air to alleviate thermal stress.
B. attaches turbine blades to the turbine disk.
229. 6 C. allows individual turbine blades to be changed without engine disassembly. B

42. The passage between adjacent nozzle guide vanes forms a.

A. convergent duct.
B. divergent duct.
230. 6 C. parallel duct. A

43. As the hot gasses flow through an impulse turbine blading, the velocity.
A. will decrease.
B. remains constant.
231. 6 C. will increase. B

44. How is a radial turbine driven?

A. By impulse.
B. By change of momentum and angle of airflow.
232. 6 C. By reaction. B
 45. A nozzle guide vane is.
A. hollow in construction to allow for thermal expansion.
B. hollow in construction to allow for flow of cooling air.
233. 6 C. solid in construction to support B

46. A slow constant growth in a turbine blade is known as.

A. primary creep.
B. secondary creep.
234. 6 C. tertiary creep. B

1. The function of the exhaust cone assembly of a turbine engine is to.

A. swirls and collects the exhaust gases into a single exhaust jet.
B. collects the exhaust gases and act as a noise suppressor.
235. 7 C. straightens and collects the exhaust gases into a solid exhaust jet. C

2. A nozzle is 'choked' when the gas flow or air flow at the throat is.
A. sonic.
236. 7 B. subsonic. A
C. supersonic.
 3. The struts on the exhaust cone.
A. straightens the gas flow only.
B. supports the exhaust cone and straighten the gas flow.
237. 7 C. supports the exhaust cone only. B

4. Which of the following units are generally used to measure aircraft noise?
A. Effective perceived noise decibels (E P N d B).
B. Decibels (dB).
238. 7 C. Sound pressure. A

5. What is the maximum practical angle through which the gas flow can be turned during thrust reversal?
A. 180°.
B. 50°.
239. 7 C. 135°. C

6. A supersonic duct is.

A. convergent then divergent along its length.
B. divergent then convergent along its length.
240. 7 C. a convergent duct that is choked at the largest end at mach 1. A
 7. Normal gas turbine engine's exhaust duct is.
A. divergent.
B. convergent/divergent.
241. 7 C. convergent. C

8. On front fan engines, to obtain thrust reversal, the.

A. hot and cold streams are reversed.
B. hot stream is reversed.
242. 7 C. cold stream is reversed. C

9. An exhaust cone placed aft of the turbine in a jet engine will cause the pressure in the first part of the exhaust duct to.
A. increase and the velocity to decrease.
B. decrease and the velocity to increase.
243. 7 C. increase and the velocity to increase. A

10. A convergent-divergent nozzle.

A. requires the aircraft to be travelling at supersonic speeds.
B. makes maximum use of pressure thrust.
244. 7 C. produces a type of thrust known as kinetic thrust. B
 11. The velocity of supersonic air as it flows through a divergent nozzle.
A. decreases.
B. increases.
245. 7 C. is inversely proportional to the temperature. B

12. The Jet Pipe of a gas turbine engine.

A. protects the airframe from heat damage.
B. has an inner cone to protect the rear turbine disc.
246. 7 C. is convergent in shape to increase the velocity as much as possible. A

13. For what purpose is the propelling nozzle of a gas turbine engine designed?
A. To increase the velocity and decrease the pressure of the gas stream leaving the nozzle.
B. To decrease the velocity and increase the pressure of the gas stream leaving the nozzle.
247. 7 C. To increase the velocity and pressure of the gas stream leaving the nozzle. A

14. If the exit area of the nozzle was too large, the effect is.
A. exit velocity lower causing loss of thrust.
B. will choke at a lower gas temperature.
248. 7 C. exit velocity lower, negligible effect on thrust. A
 15. A choked nozzle.
A. increases thrust.
B. decreases thrust.
249. 7 C. has no effect on the thrust. A

16. The exhaust section is designed to.

A. increase temperature, therefore increasing velocity.
B. decrease temperature, therefore decreasing pressure.
250. 7 C. impart a high exit velocity to the exhaust gases. C

17. Of the following, which engine type would most likely have a noise suppression unit installed?
A. Turboprop.
B. Turbojet.
251. 7 C. Turboshaft. B

18. A Convergent-Divergent nozzle.

A. makes maximum use of Pressure thrust.
B. produces a type of thrust known as kinetic thrust.
252. 7 C. requires the aircraft to be travelling at supersonic speeds. A
 19. In what section of a turbojet engine is the jet nozzle located?
A. Exhaust.
B. Turbine.
253. 7 C. Combustion. A

20. Exhaust noise can be reduced by.

A. lowering the vibration frequency.
B. increasing the mixing rate.
254. 7 C. increasing the jet velocity. B

21. Operating thrust reversers at low ground speeds can sometimes cause.
A. sand or other foreign object ingestion, hot gas re-ingestion.
B. hot gas re-ingestion, compressor stalls.
255. 7 C. sand or other foreign object ingestion, hot gas re-ingestion, compressor stalls. C

22. Thrust reversers utilizing a pneumatic actuating system, usually receive operating pressure from.
A. the engine bleed air system.
B. high pressure air reservoirs.
256. 7 C. an on-board hydraulic or electrical powered compressor. C
 23. The purpose of cascade vanes in a thrust reversing system is to.
A. turn the exhaust gases forward just after exiting the exhaust nozzle.
B. form a solid blocking door in the jet exhaust path.
257. 7 C. turn to a forward direction the fan and/or hot exhaust gases that have been blocked from exiting through the exhaust C
nozzle.

24. Full reverse power is approximately in high bypass engines

A. 95% of forward thrust.
B. 75% of forward thrust.
258. 7 C. 20% of forward thrust. C

25. The rearward thrust capability of an engine with the thrust reverser system deployed is.
A. equal to or less than its forward capability, depending on ambient conditions and system design.
B. less than its forward capability.
259. 7 C. equal to its forward capability. B

26. Which statement is generally true regarding thrust reverser systems?

A. Engine thrust reversers on the same aircraft usually will not operate independently of each other (must all be
simultaneously).
260. 7 B. It is possible to move some aircraft backward on the ground using reverse thrust. B
C. Mechanical blockage system design permits a deployment position aft of the exhaust nozzle only.
 27. The thrust reverser type that deflects only air is.
A. Clamshell doors.
B. Bucket doors.
261. 7 C. Cascade vane and blocker doors. C

28. Thrust reversal on a high bypass engine is achieved by.

A. blocker doors.
B. clamshell configuration.
262. 7 C. bucket type doors. A

29. When should thrust reversers be used?

A. At low RPM and low forward speed.
B. At high RPM and high forward speed.
263. 7 C. At high RPM and low forward speed. A

30. Lobe type exhaust noise suppressors are made from.

A. heat resistant alloy.
B. composite Material.
264. 7 C. steel. A
 31. What angle are the exhaust gasses turned through in a clamshell type thrust reverser?
A. 180 degrees.
B. 135 degrees.
265. 7 C. 55 degrees. B

32. The purpose of a propelling nozzle is to.

A. increase the velocity of the air and increase thrust.
B. decrease the velocity of the exhaust to increase static pressure.
266. 7 C. direct the air onto the turbines. A

33. If a thrust reverser is deployed at lower than normal landing speed.

A. exhaust gases can be ingested into the engine.
B. the thrust reverser will be ineffective.
267. 7 C. if the EGT gets too high the thrust reverser will automatically restow. A

34. On a Clamshell door type thrust reverser. The Clamshell doors redirect the exhaust gas stream.
A. 0 degrees to the thrust line.
B. 45 degrees to the thrust line.
268. 7 C. 90 degrees to the thrust line. B
 35. Turbine rear struts.
A. straighten the gas flow.
B. increase the velocity of the gas flow.
269. 7 C. increase the pressure of the gas flow. A

36. The velocity of subsonic air as it flows through a divergent nozzle.

A. increases.
B. decreases.
270. 7 C. is inversely proportional to the temperature. B

1. Main bearing oil seals used with turbine engines are usually what type(s)?
A. Teflon and synthetic rubber.
271. B. Labyrinth and/or carbon rubbing.
8 C. Labyrinth and/or silicone rubber. B

2. A carbon seal has which type of sealing arrangement?

A. Full contact with race.
B. Full contact with casing.
272. 8 C. Full contact with labyrinth. A
 3. The function of a labyrinth seal is to create.
A. a restricted leakage of air between fixed and rotating components.
B. an airtight seal between fixed and rotation components.
273. 8 C. an airtight seal between fixed adjacent casing surfaces A

4. The bearings of a compressor rotor are usually.

A. ball and roller.
B. plain.
274. 8 C. sintered. A

5. What is the purpose of pressure balance Chamber?

A. To assist the bearing to oppose the forward thrust on the compressor drum.
B. To ensure LP turbine is statically balanced.
275. 8 C. To ensure HP compressor is dynamically balanced. A

6. Bearing seal failure would most probably cause.

A. high oil temperature.
B. high oil consumption.
276. 8 C. low oil pressure. B
 7. What bearing is used to take axial loads on a main rotation shaft of a gas turbine engine?
A. Plain bearing.
B. Roller bearing.
277. 8 C. Ball bearing. C

8. Seals on a gas turbine engine restrict leakage of oil by.

A. spring pressure.
B. closely tolerated contacting components.
278. 8 C. air pressure. C

9. Why are oil seals pressurised?.

A. To ensure minimum oil loss.
279. 8 B. To ensure oil is forced into the bearings. A
C. To ensure that the oil is prevented from leaving the bearing housing.

10. Some labyrinth seals.

A. control the outflow of air at the turbine.
B. are self lubricating.
280. 8 C. are spring loaded. A
 11. Taper roller bearings accept loads in which direction?
A. Axial loads only.
B. Radial and axial in both directions.
281. 8 C. Radial and axial in one direction only. C

12. In a jet engine the rotating assembly oil seals are maintained oil tight by means of.
A. a garter seal.
B. an annular expander ring.
282. 8 C. air pressure. C

13. The carbon seal will be found where

A. a more positive control over airflow into the bearing sumps is required.
B. a less control over airflow into the bearing sumps is required.
283. 8 C. at low pressure area. A

14. To assist the bearing to oppose the forward thrust on the compressor drum we use
A. carbon seal.
B. air pressure.
284. 8 C. pressure balance Chamber. C
 15. The bearing with a grooved inner race is:
A. Roller bearing.
B. Ball bearing.
285. 8 C. Plain bearing. B

16. Which bearing is not used as main bearing in turbine engine:

A. Roller bearing.
B. Ball bearing.
286. 8 C. Plain bearing. C

17.Carbon seals are a blend of:

A. Carbon and graphite.
B. Carbon only.
287. 8 C. Carbon and chrome. A

18. The purpose of 'squeeze film' type bearing is to.

A. increase the flow of oil to the rolling element.
B. minimise the effect of vibration.
288. 8 C. improve outer race cooling. B
 19. Which of the following factors helps determine the proper grade of oil to use in a particular engine?
A. Adequate lubrication in various attitudes of flight.
B. Operating speeds of bearings.
289. 8 C. Positive introduction of oil to the bearings. B

20. What will be the result of operating an engine in extremely high temperatures using a lubricant recommended by the
manufacturer for a much lower temperature?
A. The oil pressure will be lower than normal.
290. 8 B. The oil temperature and oil pressure will be higher than normal. A
C. The oil pressure will be higher than normal.

1. When using Prist or Biopor.

A. it is left and burnt with the fuel.
B. it is diluted with water to a 3-1 mix.
291. 9 C. it is flushed out immediately. A

2. What is D.E.R.D 2494?

A. Oil.
B. Wide cut gasoline.
292. 9 C. Kerosene. C
 3. A fuel system icing inhibitor is a fuel additive which.
A. prevents both the water and the fuel freezing.
B. prevents the fuel from freezing.
293. 9 C. prevents the water in the fuel freezing. C

4. The time in seconds required for exactly 60 cubic centimeters of oil to flow through an accurately calibrated orifice at a
specific temperature is recorded as a measurement of the oil's.
A. specific gravity.
294. 9 B. flash point. C
C. viscosity.

5. The viscosity of a liquid is a measure of its.

A. weight or density.
B. rate of change of internal friction with change in temperature.
295. 9 C. resistance to flow. C

6. What advantage do mineral base lubricants have over vegetable oil base lubricants when used in aircraft engines?
A. Cooling ability.
B. Chemical stability.
296. 9 C. Friction resistance. B
 7. High tooth pressures and high rubbing velocities, such as occur with spur type gears, require the use of.
A. an E.P lubricant.
B. metallic ash detergent oil.
297. 9 C. straight mineral oil. A

8. What action is taken to protect integral fuel tanks from corrosion due to micro biological contamination?
A. Rubber liners are installed in the tank.
B. A biocidal additive is added to the fuel.
298. 9 C. The inside of the tank is coated with yellow chromate. B

9. Oil used in a gas turbine engine is usually.

A. mineral.
B. natural.
299. 9 C. synthetic. C

10. Compared to reciprocating engine oils, the types of oils used in turbine engines.
A. are required to carry and disperse a higher level of combustion by-products.
B. have less tendency to produce lacquer or coke.
300. 9 C. may permit a somewhat higher level of carbon formation in the engine. B

9 11. If all other requirements can be met, what type of oil should be used to achieve theoretically perfect engine B
301.
lubrication?
 A. An oil that combines high viscosity and low demulsibility.
B. The thinnest oil that will stay in place and maintain reasonable film strength.
C. An oil that combines a low viscosity index and a high neutralization number.

12. A high viscosity index means the oil viscosity.

A. will vary greatly with temperature change.
B. has a large index number.
302. 9 C. will not vary greatly with temperature change. C

13. Upon what quality or characteristic of lubricating oil is its viscosity index based?
A. Its rate of flow through an orifice at a standard temperature.
B. Its rate of change in viscosity with temperature change.
303. 9 C. Its resistance to flow at a standard temperature as compared to high grade paraffin base oil at the same temperature. B

14. Which of these characteristics is desirable in turbine engine oil?

A. High volatility.
B. High flash point.
304. 9 C. Low flash point. B
 15. Kerosene is used as turbine engine fuel because.
A. kerosene has more heat energy per gallon and lubricates fuel system components.
B. kerosene has very high volatility which aids in ignition and lubrication.
305. 9 C. kerosene does not contain any water. A

1. How is engine oil usually cooled?

A. By a fuel/oil cooler.
B. By ram air.
306. 10 C. By bleed air. A

2. When rotating, the gear type oil pump.

A. draws oil into the pump and carries it round between the gear teeth and casing.
B. draws oil into the pump and through the intermeshing gears to the outlet.
307. 10 C. draws oil into the pump, half being carried around between pump and casing, the other half passing between the gears A
to the outlet.

3. A scavenge filter is incorporated in a gas turbine lubrication system to.

A. protect the scavenge pump.
B. protect the oil cooler.
308. 10 C. protect the pressure pump. C
 4. What filters are used to protect oil pressure spray jets?
A. Felt/paper filters.
B. In-line thread filters.
309. 10 C. Micronic filters. B

5. The chip detector in the oil system is a.

A. window in the pump casing.
B. window in the oil pump.
310. 10 C. magnetic plug in the return line. C

6. When rotating, the gerotor type oil pump.

A. oil is drawn into the pump and through the intermeshing gears to the outlet.
B. oil is drawn into the pump, half being carried around between pump and casing, the other half passing between the
311. 10 gears to the outlet. C
C. draws oil into the pump and carries it round between the gear teeth and casing.

7. Oil picks up the most heat from which of the following turbine engine components?
A. Compressor bearing.
B. Rotor coupling.
312. 10 C. Turbine bearing. C
 8. In a jet engine which uses a fuel oil heat exchanger, the oil temperature is controlled by a thermostatic valve that
regulates the flow of.
A. both fuel and oil through the heat exchanger.
313. 10 B. oil through the heat exchanger. B
C. fuel through the heat exchanger.

9. What is the purpose of the last chance oil filters?

A. To filter the oil immediately before it enters the main bearings.
B. To assure a clean supply of oil to the lubrication system.
314. 10 C. To prevent damage to the oil spray nozzle. C

10. Which of the following is a function of the fuel oil heat exchanger on a turbojet engine?
A. Aerates the fuel.
B. Emulsifies the oil.
315. 10 C. Increases fuel temperature. C

11. The oil dampened main bearing utilized in some turbine engines is used to.
A. dampen surges in oil pressure to the bearings.
B. provide lubrication of bearings from the beginning of starting rotation until normal oil pressure is established.
316. 10 C. provide an oil film between the outer race and the bearing housing in order to reduce vibration tendencies in the rotor C
system, and to allow for slight misalignment.
 12. Possible failure related ferrous metal particles in turbine engine oil cause an (electrical) indicating type magnetic chip
detector to indicate their presence by.

10 A. bridging the gap between the detector center (positive) electrode and the ground electrode. A
317.
B. generating a small electric current that is caused by the particles being in contact with the dissimilar metal of the
detector tip.
C. disturbing the magnetic lines of flux around the detector tip.

13. What is the primary purpose of the oil to fuel heat exchanger?
A. De aerate the oil.
B. Cool the oil.
318. 10 C. Cool the fuel. B

14. Low oil pressure can be detrimental to the internal engine components. However, high oil pressure.
A. has a negligible effect.
B. will not occur because of pressure losses around the bearings.
319. 10 C. should be limited to the engine manufacturer's recommendations. C

15. What is the primary purpose of the oil breather pressurization system that is used on turbine engines?
A. Prevents foaming of the oil.
B. Allows aeration of the oil for better lubrication because of the air/oil mist.
320. 10 C. Provides a proper oil spray pattern from the main bearing oil jets. A
 16. What type of oil system is usually found on turbine engines?
A. Dry sump, dip, and splash.
B. Dry sump, pressure, and spray.
321. 10 C. Wet sump, spray, and splash. B

17. How are the teeth of the gears in the accessory section of an engine normally lubricated?
A. By surrounding the load bearing portions with baffles or housings within which oil pressure can be maintained.
B. By splashed or sprayed oil.
322. 10 C. By submerging the load bearing portions in oil. B

18. Number within a short time after engine shutdown primarily to.
A. prevent over servicing.
B. help dilute and neutralize any contaminants that may already be present in the engine's oil system.
323. 10 C. provide a better indication of any oil leaks in the system. A

19. In order to relieve excessive pump pressure in an engine's internal oil system, most engines are equipped with a.
A. vent.
324. 10 B. relief valve. B
C. bypass valve.
 20. The type of oil pumps most commonly used on turbine engines are classified as.
A. positive displacement.
B. constant speed.
325. 10 C. variable displacement. A

21. What will result if an oil filter becomes completely blocked?

A. Oil flow to the engine will stop.
B. Oil will flow at the normal rate through the system.
326. 10 C. Oil will flow at a reduced rate through the system. B

22. A turbine engine dry sump lubrication system of the self contained, high pressure design.
A. stores oil in the engine crankcase.
B. has no heat exchanger.
327. 10 C. consists of pressure, breather, and scavenge subsystems. C

23. A full flow oil system has.

A. a single fixed minimum oil pressure.
B. a variable oil pressure dependant upon throttle setting.
328. 10 C. a hot and cold oil pressure limit. B
 24. What filter is used in a oil scavenge pump in the inlet side of the pump?
A. Wire wound filter.
B. Threaded filter.
329. 10 C. Wire mesh filter. C

25. The sump in a dry sump oil system.

A. is used as a collecting point only.
B. houses all the engine oil.
330. 10 C. provides lubrication for the main bearings. A

26. A jet engine gear box breather is prevented from leaking oil to atmosphere by the action of.
A. air or oil valve.
B. oil thrower ring and centrifugal force.
331. 10 C. impeller and centrifugal force. C

27. The oil system generally used on most modern turboprop engines is.
A. dry sump type.
B. wet sump type.
332. 10 C. A low pressure system. A

11 1. If the swash plate of a positive displacement swash plate pump is perpendicular to the axis of the pump, the flow will B
333.
be.
 A. reversed.
B. zero.
C. maximum.

2. What moves the swash plate away from the minimum stroke position?
A. Reduced inlet pressure.
B. A spring.
334. 11 C. Increased servo pressure. B

3. The burner fuel flow is at maximum at.

A. 10°Centigrade above I.S.A. sea level.
B. I.S.A. sea level.
335. 11 C. altitude. B

4. How is servo pressure, which is used to control fuel pump 'Swash Plate' angle obtained?
A. From pump delivery pressure through variable restrictions.
B. From pump delivery pressure through fixed restrictions.
336. 11 C. From pump inlet pressure through fixed restrictions. A
 5. What would be the effect on the engine if the B.P.C half ball valve in the servo line sticks open?
A. A reduction of fuel flow, therefore a decrease in RPM.
B. The B.P.C would be ineffective at sea level only.
337. 11 C. An increase of fuel flow, therefore an increase in RPM . C

6. Why is an A.C.U fitted to a gas turbine engine?

A. It increases the rate of acceleration of the engine.
B. It controls the operation of the metering block during sudden acceleration.
338. 11 C. It limits the rate of increase in fuel flow during sudden acceleration. C

7. If fuel pump servo pressure is reduced, pump output will.

A. increase.
B. decrease.
339. 11 C. remains constant. B

8. Why is the B.P.C fitted in a gas turbine engine fuel system?

A. To vary pressure pump output in relation to the pressure variation at the intake.
B. To proportion the fuel flow between primary and main burner lines.
340. 11 C. To decrease the fuel flow to the burners with increased air intake pressure. A
 9. A kinetic valve is a device used to control H.P pump output. This is achieved by movement of a.
A. needle valve.
B. diaphragm and half ball valve.
341. 11 C. knife blade. C

10. During any stabilised running condition, the spill or half ball valve is.
A. lightly seated.
B. closed fully.
342. 11 C. open fully. A

11. Why is the hydro mechanical governor fitted to a gas turbine engine fuel pump?
A. To enable the engine to operate over a wide range of fuel SGs.
B. To enable efficient control of fuel flow to be maintained at altitude.
343. 11 C. To enable the engine to operate over a wide range of fuel flow. A

12. A barometric Pressure Controller controls.

A. barometric pressure.
B. fuel flow to suit atmospheric pressure changes.
344. 11 C. fuel tank pressure at altitude. B
 13. Kinetic valves are used because.
A. they are less likely to leak.
B. they are more sensitive.
345. 11 C. they are not subjected to wear. B

14. When considering a centrifugal type engine speed governor, an increase in fuel S.G. will cause.
A. no change in maximum RPM.
B. an increase in maximum RPM.
346. 11 C. a reduction in maximum RPM. C

15. On a FADEC engine.

A. A channel uses control alternator and B channel uses aircraft bus power.
B. A channel uses a separate winding of the control alternator to B channel.
347. 11 C. A and B channel use the same phases of the motor B

16. Normal fuel/air ratio for successful combustion is.

A. 15:1.
B. 25:1.
348. 11 C. 10:1. A
 17. What is the purpose of the L.P. pump?
A. To ensure rapid acceleration when the throttle is opened.
B. To prevent cavitation of the H.P Fuel pump.
349. 11 C. To ensure the engine will continue to run if the H.P. fuel pump fails. B

18. The fuel pump plungers are lubricated by.

A. synthetic anti-freeze oil.
B. grease packed bearings.
350. 11 C. the Fuel. C

19. Which forces control the maximum RPM governor in a non-hydro mechanical swash plate type of pump?
A. Rotor centrifugal pressure opposed to tension spring loading.
B. Rotor centrifugal pressure plus tension spring loading opposed to pump delivery pressure.
351. 11 C. Rotor centrifugal pressure plus tension spring loading opposed to pump inlet pressure. A

20. Why do the holes in the body of the duple burner provide air to the shroud around the burner head?
A. To reduce burner temperature.
B. To assist atomisations of the fuel at slow running.
352. 11 C. To minimise carbon formation on the burner face. C
 21. A fuel heater prevents.
A. Neither.
B. LP filter icing.
353. 11 C. H.P filter icing. B

22. On a FADEC engine the E.E.C.

A. has electronic control of the hydro-mechanical fuel control in some modes.
B. has mechanical control of the hydro-mechanical fuel control system.
354. 11 C. has electronic control of the hydro-mechanical fuel control unit in all modes. C

23. On a FADEC engine, the channel reset.

A. always selects A channel.
B. selects B channel.
355. 11 C. selects standby which becomes active on the next start. C

24. With a decrease in fuel SG, what is the result when the engine is fitted with an uncompensated fuel governor?
A. No effect.
B. Maximum RPM decrease.
356. 11 C. Maximum RPM increase. C
 25. The maximum RPM of a turbine engine is limited by.
A. a temperature sensitive device which reduces the fuel pump speed.
B. diversion of some of the fuel pump outlet flow by a spill valve sensitive to burner fuel pressure.
357. 11 C. reduction of the fuel pump stroke by a spill valve sensitive to centrifugally generated fuel pressure. C

26. To what condition does the fuel flow respond during aircraft acceleration?
A. Mass airflow rate through the engine.
B. The effect of 'ram-air' at altitude.
358. 11 C. The change in pressure at the compressor intake A

27. During acceleration, the fuel flow is increased at a controlled rate in order to.
A. prevent fuel pump damage.
B. increase s.f.c.
359. 11 C. prevent surge and the risk of flame-out. C

28. The B.P.C controls the F.C.U by.

A. pressure sensing.
B. temperature sensing.
360. 11 C. density sensing. A

11 29. If the swash plate of a positive displacement swash plate pump is perpendicular to the axis of the pump, the flow will A
361.
be.
 A. zero.
B. reversed.
C. maximum.

30. The type of fuel control unit most commonly used in modern jet engines is.
A. mechanical.
B. hydro-mechanical.
362. 11 C. electrical. B

31. How is servo pressure, which is used to control fuel pump swash plate angle, obtained?
A. From pump inlet pressure through fixed restrictions.
B. From pump delivery pressure through fixed restrictions.
363. 11 C. From pump delivery pressure through variable restrictions. C

32. Why is the Barometric Pressure Control fitted in a turbo shaft engine fuel system?
A. To proportion the fuel flow between primary and main burner lines.
B. To vary pressure pump output in relation to the pressure variation at the intake.
364. 11 C. To decrease the fuel flow to the burners with increased air intake pressure. B
 33. During any stabilised running condition, the spill or half ball valve is.
A. always varying between fully closed and fully seated.
B. lightly seated.
365. 11 C. open fully. B

34. The swash plate in a fuel pump, when static is.

A. at some intermediate position.
B. in the minimum position.
366. 11 C. in the maximum position. C

35. A kinetic valve is a device used to control H.P pump output. This is achieved by movement of a.
A. diaphragm and half ball valve.
B. knife blade.
367. 11 C. needle valve. B

36. Why is it necessary to control fuel supply to the engine during rapid acceleration?
A. To prevent compressor stall above cruise RPM.
368. 11 B. To control maximum RPM. C
C. To prevent excessively high EGT and possible compressor surge.
 37. Which component corrects for air density effects on fuel/air mixture in a gas turbine engine?
A. The barometric pressure control unit.
B. The adjustable throttle valve.
369. 11 C. The pressurising valve. A

38. Why is the high pressure fuel pump fitted in a gas turbine engine aircraft?
A. To maintain a vapour free pressure from the aircraft fuel tanks to the LP fuel pump.
B. As an emergency in case of failure of the LP pump.
370. 11 C. To provide the majority of the fuel pressure to the engine. C

39. What are the positions of the pressurization valve and the dump valve in a jet engine fuel system when the engine is
shut down?
A. Pressurization valve open, dump valve open.
371. 11 B. Pressurization valve closed, dump valve open. B
C. Pressurization valve closed, dump valve closed

40. A mixture ratio of 11:1 normally refers to.

A. 1 part air to 11 parts fuel.
B. a stoichiometric mixture.
372. 11 C. 1 part fuel to 11 parts air. C
 41. Which type of fuel control is used on most of today's turbine engines?
A. Hydromechanical or electronic.
B. Mechanical.
373. 11 C. Electronic. C

42. An H.M.U receives its signals from.

A. E.E.C.
B. ADC.
374. 11 C. thrust lever resolvers. A

43. In a FADEC system, active control switchover occurs.

A. when channels A and B are healthy.
B. on shutdown.
375. 11 C. on engine start up only. C

44. What causes the fuel divider valve to open in a turbine engine duplex fuel nozzle?
A. An electrically operated solenoid.
B. Bleed air after the engine reaches idle RPM.
376. 11 C. Fuel pressure. C
 45. The valve on a vane type fuel flow measuring device becomes stuck. What safety backup is available for the engine
fuel flow?
A. A differential pressure bypass valve.
377. 11 B. A bypass valve. A
C. A fuel bleed valve

46. What are the principal advantages of the duplex fuel nozzle used in many turbine engines?
A. Allows a wider range of fuels and filters to be used.
B. Restricts the amount of fuel flow to a level where more efficient and complete burning of the fuel is achieved.
378. 11 C. Provides better atomization and uniform flow pattern. C

47. What is the purpose of the flow divider in a turbine engine duplex fuel nozzle?
A. Allows an alternate flow of fuel if the primary flow clogs or is restricted.
B. Provides a flow path for bleed air which aids in the atomization of fuel.
379. 11 C. Creates the primary and secondary fuel supplies. C

48. Where is the engine fuel shutoff valve usually located?

A. Aft of the firewall.
B. Adjacent to the fuel pump.
380. 11 C. Downstream of the engine driven fuel pump. C
 49. Supervisory E.E.C sends its output to the.
A. fuel valve.
B. H.M.U/F.F.G.
381. 11 C. EGT thermocouple circuit. B

50. If a FADEC loses its ADC input. In the short term it will.
A. go to limit protection mode.
B. go into hard reversion.
382. 11 C. go into soft reversion. C

51. The primary purpose of an E.E.C is.

A. to change analogue inputs into digital format to provide glass cockpit information and reduce flight crew workload.
B. to save fuel, reduce crew workload and reduce maintenance costs.
383. 11 C. to change analogue inputs into digital format to reduce flight crew workload and provide maintenance information. B

52. When both FADEC channels are healthy they will alternate.
A. as selected on the flight deck.
B. when one channel fails.
384. 11 C. on each engine start. C
 53. The purpose of the LP fuel pump is to.
A. ensure the H.P fuel pump does not cavitate.
B. pump fuel from the aircraft fuel tanks to the engine.
385. 11 C. ensure the fuel flow governor gets enough fuel. A

54. In a FADEC system, what is the result of Channel A failing to receive information from a sensor?
A. Channel A will take the information from the backup sensor.
386. 11 B. Channel A will take the information from channel B. B
C. Channel B will assume control.

55. In a FADEC engine with a hydromechanical fuel system, how is fuel flow controlled?
A. By oil hydraulics.
B. By fuel pressure.
387. 11 C. By electro-hydraulic servo valves (E.H.S.Vs). C

56. The air data inputs to the FADEC E.C.U fails. The result will be:
A. a lack of flight data.
B. the E.C.U reverts to the fail-safe mode.
388. 11 C. uncorrected data from hard wired analogue sensors is utilised. B
 57. A FADEC system consists of.
A. H.M.U, A.D.C and sensors.
B. E.E.C, A.D.C and sensors.
389. 11 C. H.M.U, sensors and an E.E.C. C

58. A fuel heater prevents.

A. entrained water in fuel freezing.
B. LP fuel filter icing.
390. 11 C. pipelines freezing. A

59. The position of fuel heater in fuel system is.

A. between the fuel control unit and the burner manifold.
B. after the LP fuel filter and before the H.P pump.
391. 11 C. before the LP fuel filter. C

60. The E.E.C receives its primary power from.

A. 115V AC emergency BUS.
B. separate permanent magnet alternator.
392. 11 C. 115V AC main BUS. B
 61. The main advantage of FADEC is.
A. it has electrical control of hydro mechanical unit in all modes.
B. efficiency is always maximum.
393. 11 C. it changes T.L.A to most efficient E.P.R rating. B

62. When a throttle is selected to increase power, the pressure drop across the Fuel Control Unit throttle orifice.
A. increases then decreases due to decreasing pump output.
B. drops then increases due to increasing pump output.
394. 11 C. remains the same. B

63. In-Flight the engine E.E.C controls.

A. EGT.
B. throttle position.
395. 11 C. fuel flow. C

64. A FADEC does not have which of the following?

A. Control of thrust reverser operation.
B. An automatic starting capability.
396. 11 C. Automatic control of engine fire bottles. C
 65. The basic concept of an H.P fuel control is.
A. automatic adjustment of the fuel control unit by preventing excess fuel reaching the burners.
B. the bleeding of excess fuel back to the input of the H.P pump swash plate piston.
397. 11 C. constant adjustment of the swash plate angle of the H.P fuel pump. C

66. To prevent compressor surge and overheating of the combustion chamber due to over fuelling.
A. a barometric unit is fitted.
B. a throttle unit is fitted.
398. 11 C. an acceleration control unit is fitted. C

67. When FADEC is in normal mode.

A. channel A or B will be in command.
B. channel A will be in command.
399. 11 C. channel B will be in command. A

68. Fuel boost pumps are cooled using.

A. ram air.
B. Fuel pumps do not require cooling.
400. 11 C. fuel. C
 69. In a FADEC system, what does the E.E.C measure along with RPM?
A. Pressure and Temperature.
B. Pressure.
401. 11 C. Temperature. A

70. In a FADEC system, how are the power supply windings for channel A and Channel B wound?
A. Two independent generators.
B. On one generator with 2 separate windings.
402. 11 C. One generator and one winding. B

71. If an Engine FADEC system loses air-data permanently, the pilot will.
A. turn that E.E.C Off.
B. select alternate pitot static.
403. 11 C. switch to Alt on the relevant E.E.C. C

72. A FADEC system takes measurements from Engine Speed.

A. temperature and pressure.
B. and Temperature.
404. 11 C. and Pressure. A
 73. The swash plate in the fuel pump of an axial flow gas turbine engine is controlled by.
A. servo hydraulic pressure.
B. electrical servo control.
405. 11 C. servo fuel pressure. C

74. E.E.C receives signals from RPM sensor and.

A. pressure sensors.
B. pressure and temperature sensors.
406. 11 C. temperature sensors. B

75. When does E.E.C channel change over occur?

A. On engine start up.
B. On engine shut down.
407. 11 C. On fault. A

76. If the knife-edge blade in a kinetic valve is fully in.

A. pump pressure is constant.
B. servo pressure is being bled off.
408. 11 C. servo pressure is increasing. B
 1. Engine anti-ice is taken from the.
A. turbine.
B. H.P compressor.
409. 12 C. LP compressor. B

2. In an axial flow turbine engine, compressor bleed air is sometimes used to aid in cooling the.
A. inlet guide vanes.
B. turbine, vanes, blades, and bearings.
410. 12 C. fuel. B

3. Turbine case cooling utilizes.

A. LP compressor air.
B. fan air.
411. 12 C. H.P compressor air. B

4. Air for anti-icing is taken from the.

A. accessory Gearbox.
B. LP compressor.
412. 12 C. H.P compressor. C
 5. Inlet for cooling air for the first stage turbine blades is fed via the.
A. blade root.
B. grill holes.
413. 12 C. leading edge of the blade. A

6. Air bleed for an anti-ice system is.

A. tapped directly off the compressor.
B. sent through a pressure regulator.
414. 12 C. sent through the air conditioning. A

7. Which of the following is the ultimate limiting factor of turbine engine operation?
A. Compressor inlet air temperature.
B. Burner can pressure.
415. 12 C. Turbine inlet temperature. C

8. The main factor considered when designing an engine is.

A. maximum fuel consumption.
B. maximum turbine temperature.
416. 12 C. maximum tip speed. B
 9. At what stage in a gas turbine engine are gas pressures the greatest?
A. compressor outlet.
B. turbine outlet.
417. 12 C. compressor inlet. A

10. The highest heat to metal contact in a jet engine is the.

A. burner cans.
B. turbine inlet guide vanes.
418. 12 C. turbine blades. B

11. When aircraft turbine blades are subjected to excessive heat stress, what type of failures would you expect?
A. bending and torsion.
B. stress rupture.
419. 12 C. torsion and tension. B

12. The highest turbine bearing temperature takes place.

A. all the time.
B. at start-up.
420. 12 C. at shut-down. C
 13. If air is taken from the compressor for air conditioning or anti-icing.
A. thrust will increase EGT will increase.
B. thrust will decrease EGT will increase.
421. 12 C. thrust will decrease EGT will decrease. B

14. As air is bled off the engine, EGT will.

A. remain constant.
B. decrease.
422. 12 C. increase. C

15. The heat absorbed by internal components can be detrimental to thrust and is prevented by.
A. reducing fuel flow to reduce internal temperature.
B. bleeding air off the compressor to heat the components.
423. 12 C. bleeding air off the compressor to cool the components. C

16. On an aircraft turbine engine, operating at a constant power, the application of engine anti-icing will result in.
A. an increase in E.P.R.
B. noticeable shift in E.P.R.
424. 12 C. a false E.P.R reading. B
 17. A common type of seal which is abraidable and replaceable at major overhauls:
A. ring type seal.
B. carbon seal.
425. 12 C. hydraulic seal. B

18. A bypass engine compressors.

A. supplies less air than is required for combustion.
B. supplies more air than is required for combustion.
426. 12 C. supplies only the required quantity for combustion. B

19. The passing of compressor bleed air through hollow portions of turbine blade or vane is:
A. convection cooling.
B. film cooling.
427. 12 C. impingement cooling. A

20. An external film of compressor bleed air used for cooling is:
A. convection cooling.
B. film cooling.
428. 12 C. impingement cooling. B
 1. In the H.E.I.U. the discharge resistors.
A. allows the capacitors to discharge when the unit is switched off.
429. 13 B. allows sufficient voltage to be stored to provide relight facilities up to 55,000 ft. A
C. protects the unit from excessive voltages.

2. In the H.E.I.U. the choke.

A. prolongs the life of the plug.
B. protects the unit from excessive high voltages.
430. 13 C. prolongs the discharge. C

3. In an electrical starting system, the slow start resistor is short circuited by the.
A. centrifugal Switch.
B. time switch.
431. 13 C. overspeed switch. A

4. The advantage of an air starter system is.

A. it provides a more rapid start.
B. it is light, simple and economical.
432. 13 C. there is no risk of engine fire during starting. B
 5. An advantage of a gas turbine starter is.
A. it provide high power for low weight.
B. it does not require external connections.
433. 13 C. it uses a low volatile fuel. A

6. An aircraft flying through heavy rain may use, as a precaution.

A. airframe deicing.
B. engine intake deicing.
434. 13 C. continuous ignition. C

7. For starting the engine, the H.P cock should be initially.

A. in a position which depends on the fuel system.
B. open.
435. 13 C. closed. C

8. On light up, the gas temperature will.

A. rise slowly.
B. rise rapidly, then fall as RPM increases to idle.
436. 13 C. rise rapidly. B
 9. Self sustaining RPM means that.
A. The engine can accelerate to full power in under 5 seconds.
B. There is sufficient power for ground maneuvering.
437. 13 C. The engine will run independently of external help. C

10. A glow plug may be used in place of a spark plug on.

A. low temperature engines.
B. large engines.
438. 13 C. small engines. C

11. A dry motoring cycle would be required to.

A. clear the engine after a wet start.
B. check engine run down time.
439. 13 C. check the operation of the igniters. A

12. Where does the high voltage type turbine ignition receive its voltage pulse from?
A. Primary windings.
B. Rectifier.
440. 13 C. Trigger transformer. A
 13. Ignitor plugs are cleaned by.
A. compressed air and brushing lightly with soft brush.
B. light sand blasting.
441. 13 C. steel wool. A

14. An H.E.I.U works by.

A. a discharging capacitor.
B. ac bus bar.
442. 13 C. a contact breaker. A

15. When is ignition used?

A. For relight and start up.
B. For continuous relight.
443. 13 C. At high altitudes. A

16. An igniter plug for a large gas turbine takes the form of a.
A. glow plug.
B. sparking plug.
444. 13 C. surface discharge plug. C
 17. The spark in the High Energy igniter is supplied by.
A. a capacitor.
B. a contact circuit breaker.
445. 13 C. the AC bus bar. A

18. Self sustaining speed is.

A. V1 speed.
B. the RPM at which the engine continues without external assistance.
446. 13 C. take off velocity. B

19. During normal running conditions.

A. combustion is intermittently supported by ignition.
B. combustion is self supporting
447. 13 C. combustion is continuously supported by ignition. B

20. High energy ignition is required because of the.

A. high flash point of the fuel.
B. absorbed moisture content.
448. 13 C. low flash point of the fuel. A
 21. In the H.E.I.U. the discharge resistors.
A. allow sufficient voltage to be stored to provide relight facilities up to 55,000 ft.
B. allow the capacitors to discharge when the unit is switched off.
449. 13 C. protect the unit from excessive voltages. B

22. The rate of discharge of a H.E.I.U. is.

A. 4 discharges per revolution.
B. 60 - 100 per second.
450. 13 C. 60 - 100 per minute. C

23. Why do turbine engine ignition systems require high energy?

A. Because the applied voltage is much greater.
B. To ignite the fuel under conditions of high altitude and high temperatures.
451. 13 C. To ignite the fuel under conditions of high altitude and low temperatures. C

24. The type of ignition system used on most turbine aircraft engines is.
A. low tension.
B. capacitor discharge.
452. 13 C. high resistance. B
 25. A safety feature usually employed in pneumatic starters that is used to prevent the starter from reaching burst speed
if inlet air does not terminate on schedule is the.
A. stator nozzle design that chokes airflow and stabilizes turbine wheel speed.
453. 13 B. drive shaft shear point. A
C. spring coupling release.

26. A safety feature usually employed in pneumatic starters that is used if the clutch does not release from the engine
drive at the proper time during start is the.
A. spring coupling release.
454. 13 B. drive shaft shear point. C
C. flyweight cutout switch.

27. Airflow to the pneumatic starter from a ground unit is normally prevented from causing starter overspeed during
engine start by.
A. a preset timed cut-off of the airflow at the source.
455. 13 B. stator nozzle design that chokes airflow and stabilizes turbine wheel speed. C
C. activation of a flyweight cutout switch.

28. Air turbine starters are generally designed so that reduction gear distress or damage may be detected by.
A. inspection of a magnetic chip detector.
B. characteristic sounds from the starter assembly during engine start.
456. 13 C. breakage of a shear section on the starter drive shaft. A
 29. Inspection of pneumatic starters by maintenance technicians usually includes checking the.
A. stator and rotor blades for FOD.
B. oil level and magnetic drain plug condition.
457. 13 C. rotor alignment. B

30. Pneumatic starters are usually designed with what types of airflow impingement systems?
A. Radial inward flow turbine and axial-flow turbine.
B. Centrifugal compressor and axial-flow compressor.
458. 13 C. Double entry centrifugal outward flow and axial-flow turbines. A

31. A clicking sound heard at engine coast-down in a pneumatic starter incorporating a sprag clutch ratchet assembly is an
indication of.
A. gear tooth and/or pawl damage.
459. 13 B. one or more broken pawl springs. C
C. the pawls re-contacting and riding on the ratchet gear.

32. The primary advantage of pneumatic (air turbine) starters over comparable electric starters for turbine engines is.
A. high power-to-weight ratio.
B. reduction gearing not required.
460. 13 C. a decreased fire hazard. A
 33. Great caution should be exercised in handling damaged hermetically sealed turbine engine igniter transformer units
because.
A. some contain toxic chemicals.
461. 13 B. some contain radioactive material. B
C. compounds in the unit may become a fire or explosion hazard when exposed to the air.

34. How does the ignition system of a gas turbine engine differ from that of a reciprocating engine?
A. Magneto to engine timing is not critical.
B. One igniter plug is used in each combustion chamber.
462. 13 C. A high energy spark is required for ignition. C

35. A glow plug operates.

A. manually.
B. by heat action.
463. 13 C. electrically. B

36. Igniter plugs used in turbine engines are subjected to high intensity spark discharges and yet they have a long service
life because they.
A. operate at much lower temperatures.
464. 13 B. are not placed directly into the combustion chamber. C
C. do not require continuous operation.
 37. An H.E.I.U is rated in.
A. Joules.
B. Watts.
465. 13 C. Amps. A

38. Generally, when removing a turbine engine igniter plug, in order to eliminate the possibility of the technician receiving
a lethal shock, the ignition switch is turned off and.
A. disconnected from the power supply circuit.
B. the transformer exciter input lead is disconnected and the center electrode grounded to the engine after disconnecting
466. 13 the igniter lead from the plug and waiting the prescribed time. C
C. the igniter lead is disconnected from the plug and the center electrode grounded to the engine after disconnecting the
transformer-exciter input lead and waiting the prescribed time.

39. What is the first engine instrument indication of a successful start of a turbine engine?
A. A rise in the engine fuel flow.
B. A rise in oil pressure.
467. 13 C. A rise in the exhaust gas temperature. C
 40. H.E.I.U igniter plugs receive their electrical supply from.
A. discharge inductor.
B. starter system electrical circuit.
468. 13 C. discharge capacitor. C

1. The compensation device on an E.G.T system must be re-calibrated after.

A. each time a part of the system is replaced.
B. does not need calibration.
469. 14 C. manufacture and overhaul. B

2. What is the Engine Pressure Ratio (E.P.R.) used for?

A. To limit the maximum exhaust gas temperature.
B. To indicate the thrust produced by the engine.
470. 14 C. As a cross check for minimum acceptable thrust. B

3. What happens when bulb type thermometer resistive element goes open circuit?
A. Reads less than ambient.
B. No reading given.
471. 14 C. Reads more than ambient. C
 4. On an E.G.T thermocouple system, the hot junction.
A. is placed up stream of the combustion chamber.
B. is placed in cockpit.
472. 14 C. is placed downstream of the combustion chamber. C

5. Torque pressure is usually read from a.

A. torque meter.
B. direct reading pressure gauge.
473. 14 C. tension gauge. B

6. Fuel flow indication is taken from.

A. after the H.P pump.
B. after either H.P Pump or LP Pump.
474. 14 C. after the LP pump. B

7. What power is required for E.G.T gauge indication?

A. No power - it is self generating.
B. 115V AC.
475. 14 C. 28V DC. A
 8. A Bourdon tube instrument may be used to indicate.
A. position and quantity.
B. pressure and temperature.
476. 14 C. pressure, temperature, position and quantity. B

9. What instrument on a gas turbine engine should be monitored to minimize the possibility of a 'hot' start?
A. RPM indicator.
B. Turbine inlet temperature.
477. 14 C. Torquemeter. B

10. oil temperature thermocouples are usually constructed of.

A. iron constantan.
B. alumel constantan.
478. 14 C. chromel alumel. A

11. The RPM indication of a synchronous AC motor tachometer is governed by the generator.
A. current.
B. frequency.
479. 14 C. voltage. B
 12. Instruments that measure relatively high fluid pressures, such as oil pressure gauges, are usually what type?
A. Bourdon tube.
B. Vane with calibrated spring.
480. 14 C. Diaphragm or bellows. A

13. In what units are gas turbine engine tachometers calibrated?

A. Percent of engine pressure ratio.
B. Percent of engine RPM.
481. 14 C. Actual engine RPM. B

14. In a turbine engine, where is the turbine discharge pressure indicator sensor located?
A. At a location in the exhaust cone that is determined to be subjected to the highest pressures.
B. Immediately aft of the last turbine stage.
482. 14 C. At the aft end of the compressor section. B

15. The exhaust gas temperature (E.G.T) indicator on a gas turbine engine provides a relative indication of the.
A. turbine inlet temperature.
B. temperature of the exhaust gases as they pass the exhaust cone.
483. 14 C. exhaust temperature. A
 16. Engine pressure ratio is determined by.
A. dividing engine inlet total pressure by turbine outlet total pressure.
484. 14 B. multiplying engine inlet total pressure by turbine outlet total pressure. C
C. dividing turbine outlet total pressure by engine inlet total pressure.

17. What is the primary purpose of the tachometer on an axial compressor turbine engine?
A. Monitor engine RPM during cruise conditions.
B. Monitor engine RPM during starting and to indicate overspeed conditions.
485. 14 C. It is the most accurate instrument for establishing thrust settings under all conditions. B

18. Engine pressure ratio is the total pressure ratio between the.
A. front of the engine inlet and the aft end of the compressor.
B. front of the compressor and the rear of the turbine.
486. 14 C. aft end of the compressor and the aft end of the turbine. B

19. The indicator of a tachometer system is responsive to change in.

A. voltage.
B. frequency.
487. 14 C. current flow. B

14 20. The fuel flow indication data sent from motor driven impeller and turbine, and motorless type fuel flow transmitters is A
488.
a measure of.
 A. fuel mass flow.
B. fuel volume flow.
C. engine burner pressure drop.

21. The fuel flow indicator rotor and needle for a motor impeller and turbine indicating system is driven by.
A. direct coupling to the motor shaft.
B. an electrical signal.
489. 14 C. a mechanical gear train. B

22. Motor driven impeller and turbine fuel flow transmitters are designed to transmit data.
A. using aircraft electrical system power.
B. mechanically.
490. 14 C. by fuel pressure. A

23. What unit in a tachometer system sends information to the indicator?

A. The two phase AC generator.
B. The three phase AC generator.
491. 14 C. The synchronous motor. B
 24. If the thermocouple leads were inadvertently crossed at installation, what would the E.G.T gauge pointer indicate?
A. Moves off scale on the high side of the meter.
B. Moves off scale on the zero side of the meter.
492. 14 C. Normal temperature for prevailing condition. B

25. A common type of electrically operated oil temperature gauge utilizes.

A. either a wheatstone bridge or ratiometer circuit.
B. a thermocouple type circuit.
493. 14 C. vapour pressure and pressure switches. A

26. The indication on a thermocouple-type E.G.T indicator is produced by.

A. resistance changes in two dissimilar metals.
B. a difference in the voltage between two dissimilar metals.
494. 14 C. a current generated by the temperature difference between dissimilar metal hot and cold junctions. C

27. What is the Engine Pressure Ratio (E.P.R) used to indicate?

A. The power produced by the engine.
B. The thrust produced by the engine.
495. 14 C. As a cross check for minimum acceptable thrust. B
 28. Where is Turbine Outlet Temperature (T.O.T) measured?
A. Upstream of the turbine.
B. Downstream of the turbine.
496. 14 C. In the combustion chamber. B

29. A thermocouple indicator is connected to the.

A. cold junction.
B. hot junction.
497. 14 C. difference between the hot junction and the cold junction. A

30. Thrust in a high bypass fan engine is indicated by.

A. N3 RPM or P1/P4 ratio.
B. N1 RPM or N3 RPM.
498. 14 C. N1 RPM or E.P.R. C

31. Modern oil pressure servo transmitters sense.

A. absolute pressure.
B. H.P oil pressure.
499. 14 C. differential pressure. C
 32. E.G.T thermocouples are usually made of.
A. nickel and platinum.
B. chromel and platinum.
500. 14 C. chromel and alumel. C

33. Thrust in a high bypass engine is indicated by measuring.

A. N3 RPM.
B. neither of the above, thrust is not indicated in flight.
501. 14 C. fuel flow. B

34. What power supply is required for a thermocouple system to work?

A. Alternating current.
B. Direct current.
502. 14 C. Neither of the above. C

35. In a tachometer generator.

A. the frequency output is inversely proportional to engine speed.
B. frequency output is proportional to engine speed.
503. 14 C. the frequency output is constant. B
 36. Vibration pick-ups are located.
A. on both fan and turbine cases.
B. on the fan/compressor case.
504. 14 C. on the turbine case. A

37. Torque measurement in a gas turbine engine is.

A. not always reliable.
B. highly reliable.
505. 14 C. required only when the turbine drives a propeller. C

38. Vibration signals, when picked up,.

A. go straight to indicator.
B. go through half wave rectifier to indicator.
506. 14 C. the frequencies are filtered to exclude unwanted frequencies. C

39. E.G.T is displayed in.

A. Kelvin.
B. degrees centigrade.
507. 14 C. degrees Fahrenheit. B
 40. N2 is taken from.
A. a speed transducer on the fan rear frame.
B. a tachometer attached on the N1 gearbox.
508. 14 C. a tachometer on the accessory gearbox. C

41. Engine vibration is monitored using.

A. electromechanical devices.
B. Fenwall type sensors.
509. 14 C. piezoelectric accelerometer. C

42. Integrating fuel flow gives.

A. average fuel flow.
B. total fuel consumed.
510. 14 C. fuel flow and acceleration. B

43. The gauge on a bulb type temperature indicator shows zero. This could be caused by.
A. open circuit in the wiring.
B. temperature bulb going open circuit.
511. 14 C. two cables shorting together by the sensor. C
 44. In a thermocouple system, the size of the E.M.F that is produced is a result of.
A. the difference between the hot and cold junction.
B. the cold junction only.
512. 14 C. the hot junction only. A

1. When reheat is used, E.P.R.

A. is reduced.
B. remains constant.
513. 15 C. is increased. B

2. When reheat is selected and in operation, the mass gas flow.

A. decreases.
B. remains the same.
514. 15 C. increases. B

3. Screech liners in the afterburning jet pipe.

A. prevent unstable combustion.
B. prevent cyclic vibrations of large amplitude.
515. 15 C. act as noise suppressors. B
 4. Water methanol for cooling is injected into the.
A. compressor inlet or outlet.
B. engine hot zone.
516. 15 C. combustion chamber. A

5. On an injection system.
A. methanol is injected neat.
B. town water/methanol is injected.
517. 15 C. demineralized water/methanol is injected. C

6. When using water methanol in an axial flow compressor, it is injected into the.
A. compressor inlet or burner section.
B. burner.
518. 15 C. intake. A

7. The main reason for adding methanol to the water is to.

A. temper the cooling effect of the water to prevent distortion.
B. supply the additional heat required.
519. 15 C. prevent mixture freezing. C
 8. The primary purpose of water injection is to.
A. decrease mass airflow.
B. increase the calorific value of the fuel.
520. 15 C. cool the turbine. C

9. Water used in a thrust augmentation system should be demineralised to prevent.

A. blocking the jet.
B. carbon formation.
521. 15 C. fouling the blades and vanes. C

10. The quantity of water usually carried by an aircraft equipped with water injection is enough for.
A. three take-offs.
B. one take-off.
522. 15 C. two take-offs. B

11. Water methanol injection will increase thrust by up to.

A. 70%.
523. 15 B. 50%. C
C. 30%.
 12. Injection of water/methanol into compressor inlet causes.
A. increase in power due to the burning of methanol alone.
B. increase in power without the need for burning extra fuel.
524. 15 C. increased efficiency of the engine due to reduced icing in the airflow. B

13. Reheat is the term used to describe.

A. adding fuel in the exhaust section.
B. adding of fuel in the turbine section.
525. 15 C. adding of fuel in the compressor section. A

14. Water/methanol is injected.

A. at high temperatures.
B. at high temperature, at high altitudes.
526. 15 C. at high temperatures or high altitudes. C

15. The reheat ignition system which incorporates a platinum/rhodium element is known as.
A. catalytic ignition.
B. hot-shot ignition system.
527. 15 C. spark ignition system. A
 16. Water or water/methanol injected into the combustion chamber inlet increases.
A. mass airflow through the turbine.
B. combustion chamber outlet temperatures.
528. 15 C. fuel to air ratio by up to 20%. A

17. Methanol is added to water when augmenting thrust in order to.

A. reclaim lost pressure at the compressor.
B. increase the density of air entering the compressor.
529. 15 C. reclaim lost heat at the turbines. C

18. Afterburning is initiated in order to.

A. heat the exhaust to prevent choking at subsonic gas velocities.
B. burn off the fuel that is not combusted in the combustion section.
530. 15 C. increase the local speed of sound at the jet nozzle. C

19. How is the flame stabilised in the reheat system of a gas turbine engine?
A. By creating a greater potential between inlet & jet pipe temperatures.
B. By ensuring that the gas velocity is greater than the flame velocity.
531. 15 C. By ensuring that the flame velocity is greater than the gas velocity. B
 20. During operation of the engine equipped with water injection system, the metering of the coolant to the system is.
A. selected by the pilot.
B. due to atmospheric pressure.
532. 15 C. due to altitude change. A

21. Water methanol injection is used.

A. at high altitude take off conditions only.
B. at a combination of higher than normal air temperatures and high altitude take off conditions.
533. 15 C. at higher than normal ambient air temperatures only. B

1. A free turbine is usually found on a.

A. turbo-jet.
B. turbo-fan.
534. 16 C. turbo prop. C

2. The fuel flow in a turboprop engine within the constant speed range is controlled.
A. automatically.
B. manually.
535. 16 C. No Control. A
 3. Torque measurement is taken from the.
A. reduction gearbox.
B. prop shaft.
536. 16 C. free turbine shaft. A

4. If an E.P.R gauge is installed on turbofans as a measure of power output, what is used on a turboprop?
A. E.P.R gauge.
B. Torque-meter.
537. 16 C. Thermocouples. B

5. What is the purpose of the reduction gear on a propeller driven engine?

A. To maintain a constant propeller blade speed.
B. To enable torque measurement.
538. 16 C. To prevent the propeller tips reaching the speed of sound. C

6. Fuel trimming on a turboprop engine is.

A. pilot controlled.
B. governor controlled.
539. 16 C. automatic. B
 7. What controls the fuel trimmer on a turboprop engine?
A. The blade angle.
540. 16 B. Propeller Control Unit. C
C. Engine Speed Governor.

8. Why do some turbine engines have more than one turbine wheel attached to a single shaft?
A. To facilitate balancing of the turbine assembly.
B. To extract more power from the exhaust gases than a single wheel can absorb.
541. 16 C. To help stabilize the pressure between the compressor and the turbine. B

9. Why are two or more turbine wheels coupled?

A. To keep turbine rotor diameter small.
B. So power output is doubled.
542. 16 C. To simplify dynamic balancing. B

10. When in the beta range, the propeller pitch is controlled.

A. directly from the power lever.
B. indirectly from the power lever.
543. 16 C. directly from the pitch change mechanism to the PCU. A
 11. The propeller is 'feathered' when the blades are at.
A. 0° to plane of rotation.
B. 20° to plane of rotation.
544. 16 C. 90° to plane of rotation. C

12. Reduction gearing allows the.

A. blade tips to operate below the speed of sound.
B. blade tips to operate above the speed of sound.
545. 16 C. blade tips to rotate slower than the root of the propeller blade A

13. When the power lever on a turbo prop engine is moved from ground idle to flight fine the fuel flow increases and the
blade angle.
A. increases.
546. 16 B. decreases. A
C. remains the same.

14. The purpose of using reverse pitch propellers is to.

A. provide aerodynamic breaking.
B. allow aircraft to taxi backwards.
547. 16 C. reverse the direction of rotation of the propeller. A
 15. A propeller operating in the Beta range is operating between.
A. Flight Idle and Ground Idle.
B. coarse and flight fine pitch.
548. 16 C. maximum reverse pitch and Flight idle pitch. C

16. An aerodynamic braking propeller goes through.

A. the feathered pitch position to act as a brake.
B. the coarse pitch position to act as a brake.
549. 16 C. the fine pitch position to act as a brake. C

17. The condition lever normally has the following settings.

A. normal, beta-range and reverse range.
B. cut-off, idle and high idle.
550. 16 C. rich, lean and cut-off. B

18. The constant-speed control unit is also called a.

A. propeller pitch control.
B. accumulator.
551. 16 C. governor. C
 19. When unfeathering a propeller, the blade should be put into what position to stop propeller over-speed?
A. Negative pitch.
B. Fine pitch.
552. 16 C. Coarse pitch. C

20. From reverse pitch, to return to normal pitch it.

A. passes through coarse then fine.
B. passes through coarse.
553. 16 C. passes through fine. C

1. A turbo-shaft engine has.

A. a mechanical connection between compressor and turbine.
B. a power shaft which is not connected to the compressor.
554. 17 C. none of the above. B

2. On a twin spool turbo-shaft engine, the free turbine is connected to the.

A. output gearbox.
B. L.P gearbox.
555. 17 C. H.P gearbox. A
 3. A free turbine is.
A. not directly connected to the power output shaft.
B. connected directly to the propeller and compressor.
556. 17 C. connected directly to the power output shaft. C

4. In the majority of helicopters, the thrust generated by the gas generator is absorbed by the.
A. L.P turbine.
B. Free power turbine.
557. 17 C. H.P turbine. B

5. A gas turbine engine that delivers power through a shaft to operate something other than a propeller is referred to as
a:
A. turboprop.
558. 17 B. turboshaft. B
C. turbofan.

6. A turboshaft engine is designed to produce hot exhaust thrust up to

A. 10%
B. 25%
559. 17 C. 20% A
 7. The transmission in turboshaft engine is:
A. high ratio reduction gear.
B. low ratio reduction gear.
560. 17 C. medium ratio reduction gear. A

8. A helicopter main rotor turns between:

A. 2100-3000 RPM.
B. 300-400 RPM.
561. 17 C. 3500-5000 RPM. B

9. The freewheeling unit will:

A. allow the engine to drive the transmission and prevent the rotor from driving the engine.
B. allow the engine to drive the rotor and prevent the engine from driving the transmission.
562. 17 C. allow the rotor to drive the transmission and prevent the engine from driving the engine. A

10. Turbo-shaft engines having two major sections:

A. the hot section and the power turbine section.
B. the free section and the power turbine section.
563. 17 C. the gas generator section and the power turbine section. C
 11. In turboshaft engine:
A. the gas generator produces the required energy to drive the power turbine system.
B. the power turbine produces the required energy to drive the gas generator system.
564. 17 C. the compressor produces the required energy to drive the power turbine system. A

12. The tail rotor in turboshaft engine turns at around:

A. 4000 RPM.
B. 2100 RPM.
565. 17 C. 400 RPM. B

13. The freewheeling unit will:

A. allow the engine to drive the transmission and prevent the rotor from driving the engine.
B. allow the engine to drive the rotor and prevent the transmission from driving the engine.
566. 17 C. prevent the rotor from driving the engine. A

14. Np or Nf would be an indication of:

A. turbine thrust indication.
B. first stage compressor speed.
567. 17 C. free power turbine speed. C
 15. The most commonly used freewheeling unit in helicopters is:
A. sprag clutch.
B. autorotation.
568. 17 C. the Thomas coupling. A

1. An A.P.U has.
A. automatically controlled thrust and is self contained.
B. variable speed and is self contained.
569. 18 C. constant speed and is self contained. C

2. An A.P.U shut down is initiated by.

A. high oil pressure, fire warning, hot oil temperature.
B. low oil pressure, fire warning, hot oil temperature.
570. 18 C. low oil pressure, fire warning. B

3. An A.P.U start cycle is completed at.

A. 100% RPM.
B. 75% RPM.
571. 18 C. 95% RPM. C
 4. An A.P.U power lever is located.
A. behind the throttles.
B. at the Flight Engineer Station.
572. 18 C. An A.P.U is fully automatic and does not require a power lever. C

5. An A.P.U consists of.

A. a power compressor and load compressor.
B. a power compressor and directly connected turbine.
573. 18 C. a load compressor and free turbine. A

6. When necessary, A.P.U engine cooling before shutdown may be accomplished by.
A. closing the bleed air valve.
B. opening the bleed air valve.
574. 18 C. unloading the generator(s). A

7. Frequently, an aircraft's auxiliary power unit (A.P.U) generator.

A. is identical to the engine-driven generators.
B. has a higher load capacity than the engine-driven generators.
575. 18 C. supplements the aircraft's engine-driven generators during peak loads. A
 8. Fuel scheduling during A.P.U start and under varying pneumatic bleed and electrical loads is maintained.
A. automatically by the A.P.U fuel control system.
B. manually through power control lever position.
576. 18 C. Jeppesen A&P Technician Propulsion Textbook 3-37. A

9. An A.P.U is usually rotated during start by.

A. a pneumatic starter.
B. a turbine impingement system.
577. 18 C. an electric starter. C

10. Usually, most of the load placed on an A.P.U occurs when.

A. the bleed air valve is opened.
B. an electrical load is placed on the generator(s).
578. 18 C. the bleed air valve is closed. A

11. The function of an A.P.U air inlet plenum is to.

A. stabilize the pressure of the air before it enters the compressor.
B. increase the velocity of the air before entering the compressor.
579. 18 C. decrease the pressure of the air before entering the compressor. . A
 12. In a large commercial passenger transport aircraft the A.P.U supplies.
A. pneumatics and electrics.
580. 18 B. electrics. A
C. pneumatics.

13. When in operation, the speed of an A.P.U.

A. remains at or near rated speed regardless of the load condition.
B. remains at idle and automatically accelerates to rated speed when placed under load.
581. 18 C. is controlled by a cockpit power lever. A

14. Generally, when maximum A.P.U shaft output power is being used in conjunction with pneumatic power.
A. electrical loading will be automatically modulated to maintain a safe E.G.T.
B. temperature limits and loads must be carefully monitored by the operator to maintain a safe E.G.T.
582. 18 C. pneumatic loading will be automatically modulated to maintain a safe E.G.T. C

15. For an A.P.U to run 'unmanned' it must be equipped with.

A. an automatic fire extinguishing system.
B. both an audible fire warning and an automatic fire extinguishing system.
583. 18 C. an audible fire warning. B
 16. An A.P.U is.
A. a self contained constant speed gas turbine engine.
B. a reserved engine in case of a main engine failure.
584. 18 C. a self contained variable speed gas turbine engine. A

17. When is the A.P.U at its greatest load?

A. With generator loads on line.
B. With bleeds closed.
585. 18 C. With bleeds open and with generator loads on line. C

18. Auxiliary power units provide.

A. hydraulic and electrical power.
B. pneumatic and electrical power.
586. 18 C. hydraulic and pneumatic power. B

19. When starting an A.P.U what would the normal duty cycle be on a
modern aircraft?
A. 6 attempted starts per half hour with 5 minutes between attempts.
587. 18 B. 3 attempted starts per hour with 5 minutes between each attempt. B
C. 6 attempted starts per hour with 5 minutes between attempts.
 20. From where does the A.P.U receive a fire signal?.
A. It has its own system.
B. It is dependent on the airframe system.
588. 18 C. It is dependent on the engine fire system. A

21. What are the two most important signals when monitoring an A.P.U?
A. E.G.T and RPM.
B. Oil Pressure and Inlet Pressure.
589. 18 C. E.G.T and Oil Pressure. A

22. What initiates A.P.U shutdown?

A. Fire detection, low oil pressure, high oil temperature.
B. Over speed, fire detection, low oil quantity.
590. 18 C. Low oil pressure, low oil pressure, high oil temperature. A

1. Acoustic linings made from composite materials are used in what section of the engine?
A. Not used to suppress noise.
B. Hot section & Cold Section.
591. 19 C. Cold section only. C
 2. Vibration mounts are used for.
A. stopping vibrations entering the engines.
B. preventing engine vibration loads being transmitted to the airframe structure.
592. 19 C. damping out vibration stresses on engine when being transported on an engine stand. B

3. Forward engine mounts take which loads?

A. Thrust, vertical and shear loads.
B. Centrifugal, thrust and axial.
593. 19 C. Thrust, vertical and impact. A

4. Forward engine mounts take which form?

A. Castings.
B. Forgings.
594. 19 C. Fabricated sheet steel. B

5. Pipes around engines are.

A. aluminium.
B. mild seamless steel.
595. 19 C. stainless steel. C
 6. Fibrous metallic lining for noise suppression is used.
A. for lobe type noise suppressors.
B. in cold area.
596. 19 C. in hot area. C

7. Noise lining in the fan area is made from.

A. layers of bonded resin.
B. porous type Honeycomb and backing sheet.
597. 19 C. felt with aluminium sheet B

8. A powerplant consists of.

A. a basic engine plus E.C.U.
B. a basic engine plus thrust reverser, exhaust system and gear box with accessories.
598. 19 C. the complete engine as it would be found on aircraft including all connections, controls, cowlings, intake etc. C

9. Acoustic blankets are installed to.

A. reduce noise levels.
B. increase thermal efficiency.
599. 19 C. aid the streamlining of the engine. A
 10. What are sometimes installed in an engine mounting system to tune out the worst engine vibrations?
A. Spring cushioned mounting pads.
B. Vibration absorbers of calibrated weight.
600. 19 C. Rubber encased wire-mesh vibration isolators. C

11. Where are the lifting points on a high bypass turbine engine?
A. On the fan and compressor casing.
B. On the fan, turbine and compressor casing.
601. 19 C. On the fan and turbine casing. C

12. Rubber anti-vibration pads are fitted to engine.

A. components to prevent fatigue.
B. cradles to prevent damage during transportation.
602. 19 C. pylons to prevent vibration through the airframe. C

13. Why is it necessary to have a combustion drain system?

A. To prevent pressure build up in the combustion chamber.
B. To prevent initial over-fuelling on start up or hot start.
603. 19 C. To allow water in the combustor to drain away. B
 14. Why is it necessary to have a combustion chamber drain?
A. To allow unburnt fuel to drain away.
B. To prevent pressure build-up in the combustion chamber.
604. 19 C. To allow fuel to return to LP when H.P cock is closed. A

15. An abradable lining in the fan case.

A. prevents fan blade tip rub.
B. produces less leakage at tips for anti-ice.
605. 19 C. provides acoustic medium. A

16. For fire detection and extinguishing purposes, aircraft powerplant areas are divided into fire zones based on.
A. the volume and smoothness of the airflow through engine compartments.
B. engine type and size.
606. 19 C. hot and cold sections of the engine. C

17. A magnetic chip detector detects.

A. particles held in suspension.
B. particles which are too small for the naked eye.
607. 19 C. ferrous particles only. C
 18. How is the combustion chamber drain valve closed?
A. By 12th stage compressor air pressure.
B. By a return spring.
608. 19 C. By combustion chamber gas pressure. C

19. During normal running conditions, combustion is.

A. continuously supported by ignition.
B. self supporting.
609. 19 C. intermittently supported by ignition. B

20. The hottest component in a gas turbine engine is.

A. the nozzle guide vanes.
B. the turbines.
610. 19 C. the combustion chamber. C

21. If the L.P cock is used to shutdown an engine.

A. the F.C.U will continue to function.
B. flames will appear in the exhaust.
611. 19 C. the H.P fuel pump will run dry. C
 22. The power plant locations are:
A. Attached to the wings or in the wing.
B. Attached to the fuselage or in the fuselage.
612. 19 C. Attached to the wings or in the wing and attached to the fuselage or in the fuselage. C

23. A typical turbine engine uses approximately:

A. 15% primary air.
B. 75% primary air.
613. 19 C. 25% primary air. C

24. A typical turbine engine uses approximately:

A. 15% secondary air.
B. 75% secondary air.
614. 19 C. 25% secondary air. B

25. Internal engine temperatures would rise to more than:

A. 4000 degrees Fahrenheit.
B. 1700 degrees Fahrenheit.
615. 19 C. 1000 degrees Fahrenheit. A
 1. A fire wire is installed.
A. to withstand inertia, vibration, etc, encountered during normal operation.
B. vertically.
616. 20 C. horizontally. A

2. Resistive and capacitive type firewires are tested with.

A. megger/voltmeter.
B. megger/ohmmeter.
617. 20 C. multimeter. B

3. Fire wire clips have rubber in them to.

A. stop heat transfer to the element.
618. 20 B. insulate the fire wire electrically. C
C. support the wire.

4. Fire extinguishers work by.

A. combining with remaining oxygen to get rid of it.
B. creating more oxygen.
619. 20 C. reducing oxygen. A
 5. Fire detection systems which are routed
through another zone.
A. must be protected by the use of heat sinks.
620. 20 B. must be protected from heat sources in the zone. B
C. are not allowed.

6. What are the types of continuous fire detection system?

A. Capacitance.
B. Capacitance and resistance.
621. 20 C. Inductance and capacitance. B

7. What is the operating principle of the spot detector sensor in a fire detection system?
A. A conventional thermocouple that produces a current flow.
B. A bimetallic thermoswitch that closes when heated to a high temperature.
622. 20 C. Resistant core material that prevents current flow at normal temperatures. B

8. In a fixed fire-extinguishing system, there are two small lines running from the system and exiting overboard. These line
exit ports are covered with a blowout type indicator disc. Which of the following statements is true?
A. When the red indicator disc is missing, it indicates the fire extinguishing system has been normally discharged.
623. 20 B. When the green indicator disc is missing, it indicates the fire extinguishing system has had a thermal discharge. C
C. When the yellow indicator disc is missing, it indicates the fire extinguishing system has been normally discharged.
 9. Two continuous-loop fire detection systems that will not test due to a broken detector element are the.
A. thermocouple system and the Lindberg system.
B. Kidde system and the Fenwal system.
624. 20 C. Kidde system and the Lindberg system. B

10. Which of the following fire detection systems measures temperature rise compared to a reference temperature?
A. Lindberg continuous element.
B. Thermocouple.
625. 20 C. Thermal switch. B

11. How are most aircraft turbine engine fire extinguishing systems activated?
A. Manual remote control valve.
B. Pushrod assembly.
626. 20 C. Electrically discharged cartridges. C

12. A fire detection system that operates on the rate of temperature rise is a.
A. thermocouple system.
B. thermal switch system.
627. 20 C. continuous loop system. A
 13. Why does one type of Fenwal fire detection system use spot detectors wired in parallel between two separate
circuits?
A. So that a single fault may exist in the system without sounding a false alarm.
628. 20 B. To provide an installation that is equal to two separate systems: a primary system and a secondary, or back-up system. A
C. So that a double fault may exist in the system without sounding a false alarm.

14. Which of the following is the safest fire extinguishing agent to use from a standpoint of toxicity and corrosion hazards?
A. Bromotrifluoromethane (Halon 1301).
629. 20 B. Bromochlorodifluoromethane (Halon 1211). A
C. Dibromodifluoromethane (Halon 1202).

15. The explosive cartridge in the discharge valve of a fire extinguisher container is.
A. not a life dated unit.
B. a life dated unit.
630. 20 C. mechanically fired. B

16. How is the fire extinguishing agent distributed in the engine section?
A. Spray nozzles and perforated tubing.
B. Spray nozzles and fluid pumps.
631. 20 C. Nitrogen pressure and slinger rings. A
 17. What is the principle of operation of the continuous loop fire detector system sensor?
A. Core resistance material which prevents current flow at normal temperatures.
B. A bimetallic thermoswitch which closes when heated to a high temperature.
632. 20 C. Fuse material which melts at high temperatures. A

18. The fire detection system that uses a single wire surrounded by a continuous string of ceramic beads in a tube is the.
A. Kidde system.
B. thermocouple system.
633. 20 C. Fenwal system. C

19. The fire detection system that uses two wires imbedded in a ceramic core within a tube is the.
A. Lindberg system.
B. Kidde system.
634. 20 C. Fenwal system. B

20. A continuous loop fire detector is what type of detector?.

A. Rate of temperature rise detector.
B. Spot detector.
635. 20 C. Overheat detector. C

20 21. Which of the following fire detection systems will detect a fire when an element is inoperative but will not test when A
636.
the test circuit is energized?
 A. The Kidde system and the Fenwal system.
B. The thermocouple system and the Lindberg system.
C. The Kidde system and the thermocouple system.

22. What is the function of a fire detection system?

A. To discharge the powerplant fire extinguishing system at the origin of the fire.
B. To activate a warning device in the event of a powerplant fire.
637. 20 C. To identify the location of a powerplant fire. B

23. What retains the nitrogen charge and fire extinguishing agent in a high rate of discharge (HRD) container?
A. Pressure gauge and cartridge.
B. Breakable disk or fusible disk.
638. 20 C. Pressure switch and check tee valve. B

24. The most satisfactory extinguishing agent for an electrical fire is.
A. carbon tetrachloride.
B. methyl bromide.
639. 20 C. carbon dioxide. C
 25. Which of the following fire detectors are commonly used in the power section of an engine nacelle?
A. Rate of temperature rise detectors.
B. CO detectors.
640. 20 C. Smoke detectors. A

26. Which of the following fire detection systems uses heat in the normal testing of the system?
A. The Kidde system and the Fenwal system.
B. The thermocouple system and the Lindberg system.
641. 20 C. The thermocouple system and the Fenwal system. B

27. How are extinguisher spray rings checked for freedom from obstruction?
A. Firing the system.
B. Blowing through with compressed air.
642. 20 C. Pumping water through the system. B

28. The advantage of the two shot fire bottle system is.
A. one bottle can be discharged after certain time delay from the other bottle.
B. both bottles can be used in either of the engines.
643. 20 C. one bottle can be used twice. B
 29. To check a fire bottle in situ is serviceable.
A. weighs it, check blow out discs, check pressure.
B. check blow out disc only.
644. 20 C. check blow out disc, pop up indicators, expiry date and pressure. C

30. Resistive type fire-wires are tested using.

A. megger/ohmmeter.
B. ammeter/ohmmeter.
645. 20 C. megger/voltmeter. A

31. When testing an installed fire bottle.

A. a multimeter used.
B. a lamp and 1.5V cell used.
646. 20 C. a safety ohmmeter is used. C

32. 3 ways to test serviceability of a fixed fire bottle in situ are.

A. weigh, pressure, blow-out disc.
B. weigh, pressure, pop up indicator.
647. 20 C. pressure, pop up indicator, blow-out disc. C
 33. Discharge cartridges of the fire bottle have.
A. life time in hours/calendar and replace whichever is longer.
B. life time in hours/or calendar and replace whichever is sooner.
648. 20 C. no life time it is only replaced when unserviceable. B

34. The Kidde Fault Free Fire detection system has how many internal wires in the sensing element?
A. 1.
B. 3.
649. 20 C. 2. C

35. On a fire bottle, if the indicator pin was protruding, this would indicate.
A. the bottle is under weight.
B. extinguisher had been fired.
20 C. an over pressure had occurred in the bottle. B
650.

36. In a two shot fire extinguishing system.

A. extinguishers distributed once to either engine compartment.
B. extinguisher distributed twice to each engine compartment.
651. 20 C. one squib can be fired, if that fails then the 2nd squib can be fired. A
 37. In a Fenwall fire detection system.
A. the tube is Inconel and wire is nickel.
B. inner electrode is Inconel wire.
652. 20 C. outer electrode is nickel tube. A

1. On a gas turbine engine with baked oil deposits, how would you carry out grit blast cleaning With the engine at?
A. stationary.
B. idle speed (low).
653. 21 C. high speed. B

2. What is the first engine instrument indication of a successful start of a turbine engine?
A. A rise in oil pressure.
B. A rise in the engine fuel flow.
654. 21 C. A rise in the exhaust gas temperature. C

3. The blending of blades and vanes in a turbine engine.

A. may sometimes be accomplished with the engine installed, ordinarily using power tools.
B. should be performed parallel to the length of the blade using smooth contours to minimize stress points.
655. 21 C. No one is correct. C
 4. During inspection, turbine engine components exposed to high temperatures may only be marked with such materials
as allowed by the manufacturer. These materials generally include.
A. layout dye, commercial felt tip marker or chalk.
656. 21 B. layout dye, commercial felt tip marker, wax or grease pencil. A
C. layout dye, commercial felt tip marker, wax or grease pencil, chalk or graphite lead pencil.

5. When the leading edge of a first stage turbine blade is found to have stress rupture cracks, which of the following
should be suspected?
A. Faulty cooling shield.
657. 21 B. Over speed condition. C
C. Over temperature condition.

6. What is the proper starting sequence for a turbojet engine?

A. Starter, ignition, fuel.
B. Starter, fuel, ignition.
658. 21 C. Ignition, starter, fuel. A

7. Foreign object damage on a compressor, when boroscoping, is indicated by.

A. tip curl.
B. nicks and scores.
659. 21 C. flats. B
 8. Turbine blades are generally more susceptible to operating damage than compressor blades because of.
A. higher temperature stresses.
B. higher centrifugal loading.
660. 21 C. high pressure and high velocity gas flow. A

9. A cool-off period prior to shutdown of a turbine engine is done to.

A. prevent vapor lock in the fuel control and/or fuel lines.
661. 21 B. prevent seizure of the engine bearings. C
C. allow the turbine wheel to cool before the case contracts around it.

10. With spectral oil analysis program (S.O.A.P), samples are taken.
A. when the oil tank is full.
B. at a specified interval.
662. 21 C. when the oil is warm. B

11. A turbine engine hot section is particularly susceptible to which kind of damage?
A. Scoring.
B. Galling.
663. 21 C. Cracking. C
 12. Which of the following engine variables is the most critical during turbine engine operation?
A. Compressor RPM.
B. Turbine inlet temperature.
664. 21 C. Compressor inlet air temperature. B

13. The recurrent ingestion of dust or other fine airborne particulates into an engine can result in.
A. the need for less frequent abrasive grit cleaning of the engine.
B. foreign object damage to the compressor section.
665. 21 C. erosion damage to the compressor and turbine sections. C

14. Which of the following may be used to accomplish internal inspection of an assembled gas turbine engine?
A. Ultrasound, and fluorescent penetrant and ultraviolet light.
B. X-ray and a borescope.
666. 21 C. Infrared photography and fluorescent penetrant and ultraviolet light. B

15. Run down time is indicative of.

A. an F.C.U malfunction.
B. compressor malfunction.
667. 21 C. the freedom of rotation of the compressor. C

21 16. What would be the possible cause if a gas turbine engine has high exhaust gas temperature, high fuel flow, and low C
668.
RPM at all engine power settings?
 A. Fuel control out of adjustment.
B. Loose or corroded thermocouple probes for the E.G.T indicator.
C. Turbine damage or loss of turbine efficiency.

17. A gas turbine engine is stopped by closing.

A. L.P cock.
B. H.P cock.
669. 21 C. throttle valve. B

18. The engine accelerates to idling by.

A. gas flow.
B. combined efforts of starter motor and gas flow.
670. 21 C. starter motor. B

19. An oil emission spectrometer measures.

A. particles in suspension.
B. particles on the surface.
671. 21 C. specific gravity of the oil. A
 20. Engine oil sampling analysis is taken.
A. after engine shut down.
B. at specific time after engine shut down.
672. 21 C. when oil level is high. B

21. Excessive E.G.T can.

A. cause N.G.V to creep.
B. cause damage to turbine.
673. 21 C. cause damage to jet pipe. B

22. Cracks may occur in hot section components of a turbine engine if they are marked during inspection with.
A. a lead pencil.
B. chalk.
674. 21 C. layout dye. A

23. Trend monitoring of spectrometric oil analysis is carried out how often?
A. During each scheduled maintenance period.
B. At set periods once the rate of wear has been established.
675. 21 C. After every repair or modification. B
 24. If a turbine engine is unable to reach takeoff E.P.R before its E.G.T limit is reached, this is an indication that the.
A. fuel control must be replaced.
B. E.G.T controller is out of adjustment.
676. 21 C. compressor may be contaminated or damaged. C

25. If the rundown time is less than the minimum stated for a given engine.
A. unacceptable wear is occurring at the main bearings.
B. the rotating assembly is free.
677. 21 C. the rotating assembly is being restricted. C

26. When cleaning salt from a compressor.

A. use water then manufacturer's cleaning solution.
B. use water at low power then water at high power.
678. 21 C. never use water, use only the recommended solution. B

27. When accelerating from 'light-up' to ground idling speed, the E.G.T will.
A. remain constant.
B. increase above idle value then decrease to normal.
679. 21 C. decrease below idle value then increase to normal. B
 28. A hot start refers to.
A. early ignition.
B. high E.G.T before idle RPM is achieved.
680. 21 C. too much fuel being supplied. B

29. A 'wet start' is indicated by.

A. no temperature indication.
B. low RPM.
681. 21 C. a prolonged cranking period. A

30. A hung start or false start is one in which.

A. light up' occurs, but the RPM does not increase.
B. there is no 'light up'.
682. 21 C. the engine does not rotate. A

1. After placing an engine in an M.V.P envelope.

A. check humidity indicator after 12 hours.
B. check humidity indicator after 24 hours.
683. 22 C. check humidity indicator after 48 hours. B
 2. On a vapour proof cocoon, there is a.
A. temperature indicator.
B. moisture indicator.
684. 22 C. humidifier. B

3. When an installed engine is not to be used for a period of up to 7 days.

A. it is necessary to inhibit the engine.
B. it is only necessary to blank off all apertures.
685. 22 C. run the engine as prescribed in the Flight Manual. B

4. Installed engines must be re-preserved after preservation at least every.

A. six weeks.
B. six days.
686. 22 C. six months. C

5. On storage of an engine, the desiccant is.

A. Inspected within 24 hrs, if it's blue, it's OK.
B. Inspected after 24 Hrs: if it's blue, it's OK.
687. 22 C. Inspected at 24 hrs later, if blue, it should be replaced. B
 6. After placing an engine into storage, details would be recorded in.
A. Technical Log.
B. Engine log book.
688. 22 C. Aircraft log book. B

7. An engine in storage for 7 days should.

A. have storage oil placed in engine.
B. be run twice in that week.
22 C. be fitted with covers and blanks and apertures covered. C
689.

8. On a (VP) cocoon bag, if the humidity indicator turns pink/lilac.

A. desiccant is effective and does not need changing.
B. desiccant is ineffective and needs changing.
690. 22 C. desiccant is changed weekly. B

9. To inhibit the fuel system of an installed engine.

A. pump oil into the engine when stationary.
B. dry motor the engine.
691. 22 C. remove the ignitor plugs. B
 10. When is the humidity indicator checked on a preserved engine?
A. 1 Month.
B. 1 Year.
692. 22 C. 6 Months. A

11. With an engine in storage, desiccant is used.

A. as an insecticide.
B. as a corrosion inhibitor.
693. 22 C. to remove moisture from the air. C

12. In addition to lubricating (reducing friction between moving parts), engine oil performs what functions?
A. Cools, seals, prevents corrosion.
B. Cools, seals, prevents corrosion, cushions shock loads.
694. 22 C. Cools and seals. B

13. Fuel system inhibiting oil is.

A. mineral oil.
B. light anti-freeze oil.
695. 22 C. kerosene. A
 14. When storing an engine the fuel system is to be inhibited. How is this done?
A. Remove plugs rotate engine then add oil.
B. Rotate engine whilst adding oil then remove plugs.
696. 22 C. Add oil leaving plugs in. A

15. When removing an engine for long-term storage, bleed valves should be.
A. removed.
B. locked closed.
697. 22 C. open but blanked. C