Problem Set 1 Sol
Problem Set 1 Sol
Problem Set 1 Sol
Problem 1
This question tests your understanding of pricing coupon bonds by no arbitrage condition. We
can replicate the payoff of a T-year coupon bond of coupon rate c with a portfolio of zero-coupon
bonds: c units of each maturity from 1 to T − 1 years and 1 + c units of maturity T.
Therefore
1. PE = 0.02PA + 1.02PB ⇒ PA = 98.770
2. PD = 0.01PA + 1.01PB ⇒ PD = 100.705
3. PC = xPA + (1 + x)PB ⇒ x = 1.149%
Problem 2
1. By definition, yield is the single constant rate that equates the following equation given
price and future streams of cash flow
T
c 1
Pc (T) = ∑ t
+ (4)
t=1 [1 + Yc (T)] [1 + Yc (T)]T
1
Plug in numbers and denote the coupon rate by c we have
10
100c 100
Pc (10) = ∑ t
+ (5)
t=1 1.0253 1.025310
2. Using either Equation (2) or (3) draws the connection of bond price to zero-coupon yield
curve. I will use Equation (2) here, and plug in numbers
10
100c 100
Pc (10) = ∑ t
+ (6)
t=1 [1 + Yb (t)] [1 + Yb (10)]10
3. Equate the RHS of Equation (5) and (6), and simplify the computation using the annuity
factor
N
1 1 1
AF(r, N) = ∑ n
= [1 − ] (7)
n=1 (1 + r) r (1 + r) N
We have
10
1 1 1
c × AF(0.0253, 10) + 10
= c × ∑ t
+
1.0253 t=1 [1 + Yb (t)] [1 + Yb (10)]10
The only unknown in the above equation is c. Extract the series of zero-coupon yield and
we can find c = 2.417%.
2
Problem 3
1. The curve is shown in Figure 1 with the data provided in Table I. The relationship between
the columns
1
Pb (T) =
[1 + Yb (T)]T
T
Pc (T) = c ∑ Pb (t) + Pb (T)
t=1
T
c 1
Yc (T) = x∗ that solves Pc (T) = ∑ t
+
t=1 [1 + x] [1 + x]T
1 − Pb (T)
c(T) = T
∑t=1 Pb (t)
where c = 0.023. You can solve Yc (T) using the Rate(T,PMT,-PV,FV) function in Excel or
using a scalar minimizer.
2. See the last column in Table (I), the difference changes from negative to positive between
year 7 and year 8, i.e., the constant-coupon yield curve cross the par yield curve.
3
Table I
Constant coupon yield curve
T
Maturity Yb (t) Pb (T) ∑t=1 Pb (t) Pc (T) Yc (T) c(T) Yc (T) − c(T)
4
Problem 4
1. Unknown. There are 17 bonds traded in the market (coupon rates 0% to 2% with incre-
ments of 0.125%). There could exist two combinations of bonds that have identical cash
flow over the 10 year. However, because we only know the prices of 2 out of 17 bonds, we
cannot determine whether there is an arbitrage opportunity.
2. No arbitrage. CF A = [0, 0, 100], CFB = [0, 1, 101], CFC = [0, 100, 100]. We can replicate the
payoff of Bond B using 1 unit of Bond A and 0.01 unit of Bond C, so the replication cost is
PA + 0.01PC = $99.97, which equals PB .
3. Arbitrage. We can replicate the payoff of asset A using 10 units of asset B and 5 units
of asset C, i.e., we can get $1 for sure in each state of the world. The replication cost is
10PB + 5PC = $1, which is greater than PA . “Buy low, sell high”. So an arbitrage opportunity
is to buy 1 unit of asset A, and short sell 10 units of asset B and 5 units of asset C. This
strategy produces a riskless profit of $0.01.