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Class 9 Science Sample Paper Set 12

The Class 9 Science Sample Paper Set 12 is a comprehensive assessment tool designed to help students prepare for their board examinations. This paper covers key topics from Physics, Chemistry, and Biology, aligned with the CBSE syllabus. It includes a balanced mix of multiple-choice questions, short-answer questions, and long-answer questions, focusing on conceptual understanding, problem-solving skills, and practical application.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
73 views

Class 9 Science Sample Paper Set 12

The Class 9 Science Sample Paper Set 12 is a comprehensive assessment tool designed to help students prepare for their board examinations. This paper covers key topics from Physics, Chemistry, and Biology, aligned with the CBSE syllabus. It includes a balanced mix of multiple-choice questions, short-answer questions, and long-answer questions, focusing on conceptual understanding, problem-solving skills, and practical application.

Uploaded by

Artham Resources
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Group by Clicking the Link Below
Series ARSP/12 Set ~ 12
Roll No. Q.P Code 15/12/12
Candidates must write the Q.P Code
on the title page of the answer-book.

 Please check that this question paper contains 07 printed pages.


 Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written
on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
 Please check that this question paper contains 39 questions.
 Please write down the serial number of the question in the answer-book
before attempting it.
 15 Minute times has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10:15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m to 10.30 a.m, the students
will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on the answer –
book during this period.

SCIENCE

Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80


General Instructions:

1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.

2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to

attempt only one of these questions.

3. Section A consists of 20 objective type questions carrying 1 mark each.

4. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should in the

range of 30 to 50 words.

5. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions should in
the range of 50 to 80 words.

6. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answer to these questions should be

in the range of 80 to 120 words.

7. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.

Section A
1. If the force is applied at an angle θ then work done is: [1]

a) W = FS Tan θ and W = work b) W = FS θ and S = Distance

c) W = FS Cos θ and F = Force d) W = FS Sin θ and W = work


2. During summer, water kept in an earthen pot becomes cool because of the phenomenon of [1]

a) transpiration b) evaporation

c) osmosis d) diffusion
3. Cell arises from the pre-existing cell was stated by [1]

a) Virchow b) Purkinje

c) Robert Hook d) Robert Brown


4. A mass M breaks into two pieces in the ratio 1 : 3 while at rest. If the heavier has a speed of v, the speed of the [1]
lighter is

a) 3v b) v

c) 4v d) 2v
5. Curved soundboard may be placed behind the stage because: [1]

a) it reflects the sound to a particular point in b) it makes the stage look beautiful
the hall

c) sound waves may be absorbed d) after reflection, sound waves spread evenly
across the width of the hall.
6. Statement 1: Potential energy of a stretched or compressed spring is directly proportional to square of extension [1]
or compression.
Statement 2: Graph between potential energy of a spring versus the extension or compression of the spring is a
straight line.

a) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true b) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false
but statement 2 is not the correct
explanation of statement 1.

c) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are false. d) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true
and statement 2 is the correct explanation of
statement 1.
7. A unicellular protist X, which has contractile vacuole to remove excess intracellular water, was placed in salt [1]
solution of increasing osmolarity. The given graph shows the rate of contraction of vacuole to pump out excess
water against osmolarity of solution. Select the option that gives the correct explanation of the data.

a) The rate of contraction increases as b) In an isotonic solution there is no diffusion


osmolarity decreases because amount of of water in or out of the X, so the
water entering X by osmosis increases. contraction rate is zero.

c) At higher osmolarity, more salt diffuses into d) The contractile vacuole is less efficient in
X, therefore lower rates of contractions are solution of high osmolarity because of
required. reduced respiration and less production of
ATP.
8. Lignified or thickened cell wall is a characteristic feature of [1]

a) phloem b) xylem

c) parenchyma d) collenchyma
9. Continuous use of fertilizers can destroy soil fertility because [1]

a) both organic matter is not replenished and b) soil becomes hard


microbes in the soil are harmed

c) microbes in the soil are harmed d) organic matter is not replenished


10. Which of the following is used in echocardiography? [1]
a) X-Ray waves b) Infrasound waves

c) Both Ultrasound waves and X-Ray waves d) Ultrasound waves


11. The atmosphere is held to the earth by [1]

a) wind b) clouds

c) earth's magnetic field d) gravity


12. A change is said to be a physical change when [1]

a) No energy change occurs b) All statements are correct

c) The change can be easily reversed d) No new substances are formed


13. Atomic number is equal to [1]

a) number of electrons b) number of protons

c) number of neutrons d) difference in mass number and number of


electrons
14. A long tree has several branches. The tissue that helps in the side ways conduction of water in the branches is [1]

a) collenchyma b) xylem vessels

c) xylem parenchyma d) parenchyma


15. Organelle without a cell membrane is [1]

a) Ribosome b) Golgi apparatus

c) Chloroplast d) Nucleus
16. A body moves under a variable force. For the body a plot of velocity versus time is shown in figure. The correct [1]
statement is

a) In moving from B to C, work done by the b) In moving from A to B, the body does work
force on the body is positive on the system

c) In moving from O to A, work done by the d) In moving from C to D, work done by the
force on the body is negative force on the body is positive
17. Assertion (A): Fumigation of the grains using chemicals is done before storage in warehouses. [1]
Reason (R): Fumigation gives a nice colour to the grains.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.


18. Assertion (A): The flash of lightning is seen before the sound of thunder is heard. [1]
Reason (R): Speed of sound is greater than speed of light.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.


19. Assertion (A): An object floats on the surface of a liquid in a beaker. The whole system is allowed to fall freely [1]
under gravity. The upthrust on the object due to the liquid is equal to the weight of the liquid displaced.
Reason (R): Archimedes’ principle states that the upthrust on an object due to a fluid is equal to the weight of
the fluid displaced.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.


20. Assertion (A): While walking on ice, one should take small steps to avoid slipping. [1]
Reason (R): This is because smaller steps ensure smaller friction.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.


Section B
21. What are the characteristics of the particles of matter. [2]
OR
What happens to the particle motion if the temperature of the gas is increased?
22. Which postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory can explain the law of definite proportions? [2]
23. List the characteristics of cork. How are they formed? [2]
24. Why is the Golgi apparatus called the secretary organelle of the cell? [2]
25. A boat at anchor is rocked by waves, whose consecutive crests are 100 m apart. If the wave velocity of moving [2]

crests is 20 ms-1, calculate the frequency at which the boat will rock?
OR
A person has a hearing range from 20 Hz to 20 kHz. What are the typical wavelengths of sound waves in air

corresponding to these two frequencies? Take the speed of sound in air as 344 ms-1.
26. A trolley, while going down an inclined plane, has an acceleration of 2 cms-2 . What will be its velocity 3s after [2]
the start?
Section C
27. Which of the following is a true solution? [3]

28. Shashank placed an iron cuboid of dimensions 4 cm × 7 cm × 10 cm on a tray containing fine sand. He placed [3]
the cuboid in such a way that it was made to lie on the sand with its faces of dimensions
i. 4 cm × 7 cm,
ii. 7cm × 10cm,
iii. 4 cm × 10 cm.
If the density of iron is nearly 8 g cm-3 and g =10 ms-2, find the minimum and maximum pressure as
calculated by Shashank.
.
29. Give reasons [3]
(a) A gas fills completely the vessel in which it is kept.
(b) A gas exerts pressure on the walls of the container.
(c) A wooden table should be called a solid.
(d) We can easily move our hand in air but to do the same through a solid block of wood we need a karate
expert.
OR
Suggest which of the vessels A, B, C or D in Fig. will have the highest rate of evaporation? Explain.

30. Discuss the cell arrangement which supports the fact that epidermis is a protective tissue. [3]
31. The following is the distance-time table of an object in motion: [3]

Time (in second) Distance (in metre)

0 0

1 1

2 8

3 27

4 64

5 125

6 216

7 343

i. What conclusion can you draw about the acceleration? Is it constant, increasing, decreasing or zero?
ii. What do you infer about the force acting on the object?

32. A cheetah is the fastest land animal and can achieve a peak velocity of 100 kmh-1 up to distances less than 500 [3]
m . If a cheetah spots his prey at a distance of 100 m, what is the minimum time it will take to get its prey, if the

average velocity attained by it is 90 kmh-1?


OR
Two cars A and B are moving along a straight line. Car A is moving at a speed of 80 Km/h while car B is moving at a
speed 50 Km/h in the same direction. Find the magnitude and direction of:
(a) the relative velocity of car A with respect to B
(b) The relative velocity of car B with respect to A.
33. The solubility of sodium chloride in water increases with rise in temperature while that of lithium carbonate [3]
decreases. Give reason.
Section D
34. We can control some of the actions of our body, but some are not in our control. Comment on this statement. [5]
OR
List the characteristics of cork. How are they formed? Mention their role.
35. i. From Rutherford's α-particle scattering experiment, give the experimental evidence for deriving the [5]
conclusion that
a. most of the space inside the atom is empty.
b. the nucleus of an atom is positively charged.
ii. An element has mass number = 32 and atomic number = 16, find
a. the number of neutrons in the atom of the element.
b. the number of electrons in the outermost shell of the atom.
iii. On the basis of Rutherford's model of an atom, which subatomic particle is present in the nucleus of an
atom?
OR
i. An element X has an atomic number = 12 and mass number = 26. Draw a diagram showing the distribution of
electrons in the orbits and the nuclear composition of the neutral atom of the element. What is the valency of the
element and why?
ii. If this element X combines with another element Y whose electronic configuration is 2, 8, 7. What will be the
formula of the compound thus formed? State how did you arrive at this formula.
36. Grass looks green, papaya appears yellow. Which cell organelle is responsible for this? [5]
Section E
37. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
In physics, potential energy is the energy held by an object because of its position relative to other objects,
stresses within itself, its electric charge, or other factors. The kinetic energy of an object is the energy that it
possesses due to its motion. It is defined as the work needed to accelerate a body of a given mass from rest to its
stated velocity. A car is moving on a levelled road and gets its velocity doubled.

i. How would the potential energy of the car change? (1)


ii. How would the kinetic energy of the car change? (1)
iii. How will its momentum change? Give reasons for your answer. (2)
OR
What is the relation between mechanical energy, potential energy, and kinetic energy? (2)
38. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
Gases are highly compressible as compared to solids and liquids. The liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) cylinder
that we get in our home for cooking or the oxygen supplied to hospitals in cylinders is compressed gas.
Compressed natural gas (CNG) is used as fuel these days in vehicles. The liquid takes up the shape of the
container in which they are kept. Liquids flow and change shape, so they are not rigid but can be called fluid.
Solids and liquids can diffuse into liquids. The aquatic animals can breathe underwater. The rate of diffusion of
liquids is greater than solid.

i. Why Compressed natural gas (CNG) is used as fuel these days in vehicles? (1)
ii. How can we say that liquid do not have their fixed shape? (1)
iii. How do aquatic animals breathe under water? (2)
OR
What is diffusion? (2)
39. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
Poultry is the rearing of domesticated fowl (chicken), ducks, geese, turkey and some varieties of pigeon for their
meat and eggs. Poultry birds are of two types that is broilers and layers. One is specialized meat-producing
poultry birds while other is egg-laying poultry birds. The tremendous rise in the availability of poultry products
is called Silver Revolution.

i. What is the meaning of layers regarding poultry? (1)


ii. There are different breeds of hens, so give some information about broiler. (1)
iii. We know that different types of revolution regarding animal husbandry. So, what is the silver revolution
explain? (2)
OR
There are different breeds of poultry birds, mention two examples of indigenous and exotic breeds of poultry
birds. (2)

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