Job Order Answers
Job Order Answers
Job Order Answers
1. . Computed as follows:
3. Computed as follows:
5. The cost of finished Job order Nos. 1001, 1002, 1004 and 1005 is computed below:
9. The first step in the solutions approach is to determined the ending work-in
process inventory, which consists of total costs charged to Job No. 232 to date. T he
T-account analysis below indicates an ending work-in process balance of P9,000.
work-in process
3/1 P12,000 P100,000 f inished g
DM 40,000 oods
DL
OH 30,000
27,000
3/31 b P109,000 P100,000
alance P9,000
The P9,000 work-in process balance shows that the total cost of Job No. 232 to date is
P9,000. This P9,000 amount consists of direct materials, direct labor and overhead
(given, P2,250). The overhead has been applied at a rate of 90% of direct labor cost,
resulting in the equation below:
90% x DL = P2,250
DL = P2,250 ÷
90% DL =
P2,250
Knowing both direct labor and manufacturing overhead the amount of direct materials
can now be computed as follows:
Total cos t of j ob P9,000
9 0%)
Less d irect l abor (
P2,250 ÷ P2,500
Overhead (g iven)
4,750
P
2,250
The cost of raw materials inventory on August 31, 2013 can now be derived as follows:
13. The costs of material charged to Job No. 327 is computed below:
Therefore:
720,000
720,000 + 54,000 + X 45,000 = 37,500
90,000
COS at actual costing
17. The total cost of any manufactured job includes direct material used, direct
labor and factory overhead applied. In Department A, the overhead rate is 300%
of direct labor cost, so direct labor must be P20,000
DL x 200% = OH
Applied DL x 200% =
P40,000
DL= P40,000 ÷ 200% = P20,000
In Department B, the overhead rate is 50%, so overhead applied is 50% of P30,000, or
P15,000. The cost of Job 123 totals P135,000 as computed below:
Direct material used (P25,000 + P5,000) P30,000
Direct Labor ( P20,000 + P30,000) P50,000
Overhead a pplied ( P40,000 +P15,000) 55,000
Total m anufacturing c ost o f J ob P135,000
18. The problem states that Job 5 is the only Job still in process on April 30, so
the total costs charged to the Job must be equal the ending balance of the work
process inventory as computed below:
Work in Process
Beg. P4,000 P48,000
Balance FG 24,000
DM
DL 16,000
MO 12,80
0 48,00
0
Ending P8,80
Balance 0
Therefore the cost of direct materials is P5,200 [P8,800- (P2,000 + P1,600)]
Note: Freight out is irrelevant for this question because freight out is a selling expense,
thus, it would not be used in the computation.
Total 232,200
24. .
Cost o f g oods m anufactured P515,000
25. If spoilage loss is charged to all production , the cost of good shoes in Job 501
would be ab the full unit cost of P56,which includes the normal spoilage allowance.
Because the factory overhead of P18 per unit includes an allowance of P1 per unit
over the entire production.
If spoilage loss is charged o this specific Job 501,spoilage is a function of specific job
requirements rather than general factory condition. Then, the overhead rate should not
include the P1 allowance for spoiled work. Therefore the cost of all shoes, before
adjustment for spoilage is P55 (56-1). The cost of the 2,000 good shoes on Job 501
would be the total cost of all 2,200 shoes less the scrap value of bad shoes.
Note that the net cost of spoilage[ (200 x 55)- 6,000] is charged to the good shoes in
Job 501. In this case, the net spoilage cost is included in the charge to finished goods
along with the cost of good units.
28..
P
Original Cost (charged to work in
process) Rework cost: 2,660
Direct materials P10
16 0
Direct la bor 0
Factory overhead (150% x P 24 500
160) 0 P 3,1
Total cos t 60
Divided b y n umber o f u nits 200
Unit c ost o f J ob o rder II I P15.80
29.
Original co st P2,660
Divided b y n umber o f u nits 200
Unit cost P13.3
0
500
The total rework cost as computed above should be charged to manufacturing overhead
control account since the overhead budget includes an allowance for rework.
32, Since the cost of service department costs is allocated directly to producing
departments, then the direct method is to be used. Under this method, no allocation
of services rendered to other service department is made. Therefore, the P20 ,000 is
allocated to Producing Department as follows:
a. Allocated to Department B:
33. the step down method the service department with the highest costs
is to be allocated first. The allocation is as follows:
Departments
Operating Departments
1 2 A B
Direct cos ts P150 P300
Allocation of:
Service Operating
Departments Departments
1 2 A B
Direct co sts P150 P300
Allocation o f D ept. 1 , 4 0:40:20 (150) 60 P60 P30
Allocation o f D ept. 2 , 2 0:70:10 72 (360) 252 36
Allocation o f D ept. 1 , 4 0:40:20 (72) 28.80 28.80 14.40
Allocation o f D ept. 2 , 2 0:70:10 5.76 (28.80) 20.16 2.88
Allocation o f D ept. 1 , 4 0:40:20 (5.76) 2.30 2.30 1.16
Allocation o f D ept. 2 , 2 0:70:10 .46 (2.30) 1.61 .23
Allocation o f D ept. 1 , 4 0:40:20 (.46) .18 .18 .10
Allocation o f D ept. 2 , 20:70:10 .04 (.18) .13 .01
Allocation o f D ept. 1 , 4 0:40:20 (.04) .02 .02 -
Allocation o f D ept. 2 , 2 0:70:10 - (.02) .02 -
Total al located co st P365.22 P84.78
Step 2: Solve the Set of Linear Equations to Obtain the Complete Reciprocated Costs
of Each Service Department. Substituting equation (2) into (1):
D1 =P150 = [.20(P300
+ .40D1)] D1 =P150 + 60
+ .08D1
.92D1 =
P210 D1 =
P228.26
Substituting into equation
(2) D2 =P300
+ .40(P228.26)
D2 =P300 +
91.30 D2
=P391.30
Step 3: Allocate the Complete Reciprocated Costs of Each service Departments to All
Other Departments (Both Service Departments and Operating Departments) on the
Basis of the Usage Percentages. The allocation is as follows:
Service Operating
Departments Departments
1 2 A B
Direct co sts P150 P300
Allocation o f D ept. 1 , 4 (228.26) 91.30 P91.30 P45.65
0:40:20
Allocation o f D ept. 2 , 2 78.26 (391.30) 273.91 39.13
0:70:10
Total allocations P365.21 P84.78
39. The correct answer is (d). the reciprocal method allocates service
department costs to other service departments as well as to production
departments by means of simultaneous equations, as shown below. Thus, total
service cost allocated to PP2 is P23,051 [(40% x P31,224) + (50% x P21,122)].
SS1 = P27,000 + .2 SS2
27,000 + [.2 (18,000 + .1 SS1)]
27,000 + 3,600 + .02 SS1
.98 SS1=
P30,600
SS1=
P31,224
40. The correct answer is (a). Prime cost is equal to direct materials plus direct
labor. The f irst step is to compute the cost of raw materials used during the
month as follows:
Beginning m aterials i nventory P67,0
00
Purchases 163,0
00
Transportation-in 4,000
Purchases r eturns a nd a llowances ( 2,00
0)
Materials a vailable fo r u se 232,0
00
Ending m aterials inventory (6
2,000)
Materials us ed P170,0
00
Adding the P170,000 of materials used to the P200,000 of direct labor results in a total of
P370,000.
Prime co st (No.44)
Applied o verhead ( 70%of P 200,000)
P370,000
140,000
Manufacturing co st
510,000
Work-in-Process, N ov.1
42. The correct answer is (c). The computation is:
Actual fa ctory o verhead P132,000
Applied fa ctory o verhead 140,000
Overapplied o verhead ( credit) P 8
,000
43. The correct answer is (a). the direct method allocates service department costs
directly to the producing departments without recognition of services provided
among the service departments. Hence, no service cost is allocated to the Tool
Department because it is a service department.
44. The correct answer is (b). Under the step-down method, cost are allocated to all
departments. However, no reciprocal allocations are allowed. The process may
begin with the department that supports the greatest number of departments that
incurs the largest costs, or that provides the greatest percentage of its services to
other service departments. Thus, the Repair Department is the logical starting
point. Given that service costs allocated to each department (service or
production) on the basis of its proportion of employees (excluding employees in the
allocating department). The allocation of the Repair Department’s overhead to the
Tool Department is P875 {P35,000 x [1 employee / (1+2+25+12)]}.
46. Letter (a) is correct. The unit selling price is computed as follows:
Total m anufacturing c osts P540,000
Scrap value of spoiled units (30,000 x 4%) x P15 ( 18,000)
Cost of go od un its P522,000
Selling p rice ( 522,000 x 1 4%) P730,800
Unit s elling p rice ( P730,800/28,800 u nits) P 2 5,375
P131,000
Unit co st (P 131,000/200) P 6 55