Question 1.

1:

What is the force between two small charged spheres having charges of 2 × 10−7 C and 3
× 10−7 C placed 30 cm apart in air?

Answer

Repulsive force of magnitude 6 × 10−3 N

Charge on the first sphere, q1 = 2 × 10−7 C

econd sphere, q2 = 3 × 10−7 C

Charge on the second

Distance between the spheres, r = 30 cm = 0.3 m

Electrostatic force between the spheres is given by the relation,

Where, ∈0 = Permittivity of free space

Hence, force between the two small charged spheres is 6 × 10−3 N. The charges are of
same nature. Hence, force between them will be repulsive.

Question 1.2:

The electrostatic force on a small sphere of charge 0.4 μC due to another small sphere of
charge − 0.8 μC in air is 0.2 N. (a) What is the distance between
between the two spheres? (b)
What is the force on the second sphere due to the first?

Answer
Electrostatic force on the first sphere, F = 0.2 N

Charge on this sphere, q1 = 0.4 μC = 0.4 × 10−6 C

Charge on the second sphere, q2 = − 0.8 μC = − 0.8 × 10−6 C

Electrostatic force between the spheres is given by the relation,

Where, ∈0 = Permittivity of free space

The distance between the two spheres is 0.12 m.

Both the spheres attract each other with the same force. Therefore, the force on the
second sphere due to the first is 0.2 N.

Question 1.3:

Check that the ratio ke2/G memp is dimensionless. Look up a Table of Physical Constants
and determine the value of this ratio. What does the ratio signify?

Answer
The given ratio is .

Where,

G = Gravitational constant

Its unit is N m2 kg−2.

me and mp = Masses of electron and proton.

Their unit is kg.

e = Electric charge.

Its unit is C.

∈0 = Permittivity of free space

Its unit is N m2 C−2.

Hence, the given ratio is dimensionless.

e = 1.6 × 10−19 C

G = 6.67 × 10−11 N m2 kg-2

me= 9.1 × 10−31 kg

mp = 1.66 × 10−27 kg

Hence, the numerical value of the given ratio is

This is the ratio of electric force to the gravitational force between a proton and an
electron, keeping distance between them constant.
Question 1.4:

Explain the meaning of the statement ‘electric charge of a body is quantised’.

Why can one ignore quantisation of electric charge when dealing with macroscopic i.e.,
large scale charges?

Answer

Electric charge of a body is quantized. This means that only integral (1, 2, …., n) number
of electrons can be transferred from one body to the other. Charges are not transferred in
fraction. Hence, a body possesses total charge only in integral multiples of electric
charge.

In macroscopic or large scale charges, the charges used are huge as compared to the
magnitude of electric charge. Hence, quantization of electric charge is of no use on
macroscopic scale. Therefore, it is ignored and it is considered that electric charge is
continuous.

Question 1.5:

When a glass rod is rubbed with a silk cloth, charges appear on both. A similar
phenomenon is observed with many other pairs of bodies. Explain how this observation is
consistent with the law of conservation of charge.

Answer

Rubbing produces charges of equal magnitude but of opposite nature on the two bodies
because charges are created in pairs. This phenomenon of charging is called charging by
friction. The net
et charge on the system of two rubbed bodies is zero. This is because equal
amount of opposite charges annihilate each other. When a glass rod is rubbed with a silk
cloth, opposite natured charges appear on both the bodies. This phenomenon is in
consistencee with the law of conservation of energy. A similar phenomenon is observed
with many other pairs of bodies.
Question 1.6:

Four point charges qA = 2 μC, qB = −5 μC, qC = 2 μC, and qD = −5 μC are located at the
corners of a square ABCD of side 10 cm. What is the force on a charge of 1 μC placed at
the centre of the square?

Answer

The given figure shows a square of side 10 cm with four charges placed at its corners. O
is the centre of the square.

Where,

(Sides) AB = BC = CD = AD = 10 cm

(Diagonals) AC = BD = cm

AO = OC = DO = OB = cm

A charge of amount 1μC is placed at point O.

Force of repulsion between charges placed at corner A and centre O is equal in magnitude
but opposite in direction relative to the force of repulsion between the charges placed at
corner C and centre O. Hence, they will cancel each other. Similarly, force of attraction
between charges placed at corner B and centre O is equal in magnitude but opposite in
direction relative to the force of attraction between the charges placed at corner D and
centre O. Hence, they will also cancel each other. Therefore, net force
force caused by the four
charges placed at the corner of the square on 1 μC charge at centre O is zero.
Question 1.7:

An electrostatic field line is a continuous curve. That is, a field line cannot have sudden
breaks. Why not?

Explain why two field lines never cross each other at any point?

Answer

An electrostatic field line is a continuous curve because a charge experiences a

continuous force when traced in an electrostatic field. The field line cannot have sudden
breaks because the charge moves
moves continuously and does not jump from one point to the
other.

If two field lines cross each other at a point, then electric field intensity will show two
directions at that point. This is not possible. Hence, two field lines never cross each other.

Question 1.8:

Two point charges qA = 3 μC and qB = −3 μC are located 20 cm apart in vacuum.

What is the electric field at the midpoint O of the line AB joining the two charges?

If a negative test charge of magnitude 1.5 × 10−9 C is placed at this point, what is the
force experienced by the test charge?

Answer

The situation is represented in the given figure. O is the mid-point

mid point of line AB.

Distance between the two charges, AB = 20 cm

∴AO = OB = 10 cm

Net electric field at point O = E

Electric field at point O caused by +3μC charge,

E1 = along OB

Where,

= Permittivity of free space

Magnitude of electric field at point O caused by −3μC charge,

E2 = = along OB

= 5.4 × 106 N/C along OB

Therefore, the electric field at mid-point O is 5.4 × 106 N C−1 along OB.

A test charge of amount 1.5 × 10−9 C is placed at mid-point O.

q = 1.5 × 10−9 C

Force experienced by the test charge = F

∴F = qE

= 1.5 × 10−9 × 5.4 × 106

= 8.1 × 10−3 N

The force is directed along line OA. This is because the negative test charge is repelled by
the charge placed at point B but attracted towards point A.
Therefore, the force experienced by the test charge is 8.1 × 10−3 N along OA.

Question 1.9:

A system has two charges qA = 2.5 × 10−7 C and qB = −2.5 × 10−7 C located at points A:
(0, 0, − 15 cm) and B: (0, 0, + 15 cm), respectively. What are the total charge and electric
dipole moment of the system?

Answer

Both the charges can be located in a coordinate frame of reference

reference as shown in the given
figure.

At A, amount of charge, qA = 2.5 × 10−7C

At B, amount of charge, qB = −2.5 × 10−7 C

Total charge of the system,

q = qA + qB

= 2.5 × 107 C − 2.5 × 10−7 C

=0

Distance between two charges at points A and B,

d = 15 + 15 = 30 cm = 0.3 m

Electric dipole moment of the system is given by,

p = qA × d = qB × d

= 2.5 × 10−7 × 0.3

= 7.5 × 10−8 C m along positive z-axis

Therefore, the electric dipole moment of the system is 7.5 × 10−8 C m along positive
z−axis.

Question 1.10:

An electric dipole with dipole moment 4 × 10−9 C m is aligned at 30° with the direction of
a uniform electric field of magnitude 5 × 104 N C−1. Calculate the magnitude of the torque
acting on the dipole.

Answer

Electric dipole moment, p = 4 × 10−9 C m

Angle made by p with a uniform electric field, θ = 30°

Electric field, E = 5 × 104 N C−1

Torque acting on the dipole is given by the relation,

τ = pE sinθ

Therefore, the magnitude of the torque acting on the dipole is 10−4 N m.

Question 1.11:

A polythene piece rubbed with wool is found to have a negative charge of 3 × 10−7 C.

Estimate the number of electrons transferred (from which to which?)

Is there a transfer of mass from wool to polythene?

Answer

When polythene is rubbed against wool, a number of electrons get transferred from wool
to polythene. Hence, wool becomes positively charged and polythene becomes negatively
charged.

Amount of charge on the polythene piece, q = −3 × 10−7 C

Amount of charge on an electron, e = −1.6 × 10−19 C

Number of electrons transferred from wool to polythene = n

n can be calculated using the relation,

q = ne

= 1.87 × 1012

Therefore, the number of electrons transferred from wool to polythene is 1.87 × 1012.

Yes.

There is a transfer of mass taking place. This is because an electron has mass,

me = 9.1 × 10−3 kg

Total mass transferred to polythene from wool,

m = me × n

= 9.1 × 10−31 × 1.85 × 1012

= 1.706 × 10−18 kg

Hence, a negligible amount of mass is transferred from wool to polythene.

Question 1.12:

Two insulated charged copper spheres A and B have their centers separated by a distance
of 50 cm. What is the mutual force of electrostatic repulsion if the charge on each is 6.5 ×
10−7 C? The radii of A and B are negligible compared to the distance of separation.

What is the force of repulsion if each sphere is charged double the above amount, and the
distance between them is halved?

Answer

Charge on sphere A, qA = Charge on sphere B, qB = 6.5 × 10−7 C

Distance between the spheres, r = 50 cm = 0.5 m

Force of repulsion between the two spheres,

Where,

∈0 = Free space permittivity

= 9 × 109 N m2 C−2

= 1.52 × 10−2 N

Therefore, the force between the two spheres is 1.52 × 10−2 N.

After doubling the charge, charge on sphere A, qA = Charge on sphere B, qB = 2 × 6.5 ×

10−7 C = 1.3 × 10−6 C

The distance between the spheres is halved.

∴

Force of repulsion between the two spheres,

= 16 × 1.52 × 10−2

= 0.243 N

Therefore, the force between the two spheres is 0.243 N.

Question 1.13:

Suppose the spheres A and B in Exercise 1.12 have identical sizes. A third sphere of the
same size but uncharged is brought in contact with the first, then brought in contact w
with
the second, and finally removed from both. What is the new force of repulsion between A
and B?

Answer

Distance between the spheres, A and B, r = 0.5 m

Initially, the charge on each sphere, q = 6.5 × 10−7 C

When sphere A is touched with an uncharged sphere C, amount of charge from A will

transfer to sphere C. Hence, charge on each of the spheres, A and C, is .

When sphere C with charge is brought in contact with sphere B with charge q, total
charges on the system will divide into two equal halves given as,
Each sphere will each half. Hence, charge on each of the spheres, C and B, is .

Force of repulsion between sphere A having charge and sphere B having charge =

Therefore, the force of attraction between

bet the two spheres is 5.703 × 10−3 N.

Question 1.14:

Figure 1.33 shows tracks of three charged particles in a uniform electrostatic field. Give
the signs of the three charges. Which particle has the highest charge to mass ratio?

Answer

Opposite charges attract each other and same charges repel each other. It can be observed
that particles 1 and 2 both move towards the positively charged plate and repel away from
the negatively charged plate. Hence, these two particles are negatively
negatively charged. It can
also be observed that particle 3 moves towards the negatively charged plate and repels
away from the positively charged plate. Hence, particle 3 is positively charged.
The charge to mass ratio (emf) is directly proportional to the displacement
displacement or amount of
deflection for a given velocity. Since the deflection of particle 3 is the maximum, it has
the highest charge to mass ratio.

Question 1.15:

Consider a uniform electric field E = 3 × 103 îN/C.

/C. (a) What is the flux of this field
through a square of 10 cm on a side whose plane is parallel to the yz plane? (b) What is
the flux through the same square if the normal to its plane makes a 60° angle with the x-
axis?

Answer

Electric field intensity, = 3 × 103 î N/C

Magnitude of electric field intensity, = 3 × 103 N/C

Side of the square, s = 10 cm = 0.1 m

Area of the square, A = s2 = 0.01 m2

The plane of the square is parallel to the y-z plane. Hence, angle between the unit vector
normal to the plane and electric field, θ = 0°

Flux (Φ)) through the plane is given by the relation,

Φ=

= 3 × 103 × 0.01 × cos0°

= 30 N m2/C

Plane makes an angle of 60° with the x-axis. Hence, θ = 60°

Flux, Φ =

= 3 × 103 × 0.01 × cos60°

 = 15 N m2/C

Question 1.16:

What is the net flux of the uniform electric field of Exercise 1.15 through a cube of side
20 cm oriented so that its faces are parallel to the coordinate planes?

Answer

All the faces of a cube are parallel to the coordinate axes. Therefore, the number of field
lines entering the cube is equal to the number of field lines piercing out of the cube. As a
result, net flux through the cube is zero.

Question 1.17:

Careful measurement of the electric field at the surface of a black box indicates that the
net outward flux through the surface of the box is 8.0 × 103 N m2/C. (a) What is the net
charge inside the box? (b) If the net outward flux through the surface
surface of the box were
zero, could you conclude that there were no charges inside the box? Why or Why not?

Answer

Net outward flux through the surface of the box, Φ = 8.0 × 103 N m2/C

For a body containing net charge q, flux is given by the relation,

∈0 = Permittivity of free space

= 8.854 × 10−12 N−1C2 m−2

q = ∈0Φ

= 8.854 × 10−12 × 8.0 × 103

= 7.08 × 10−8

= 0.07 μC

Therefore, the net charge inside the box is 0.07 μC.

No

Net flux piercing out through a body depends on the net charge contained in the body. If
net flux is zero, then it can be inferred that net charge inside the body is zero. The body
may have equal amount of positive and negative charges.

Question 1.18:

A point charge +10 μC is a distance 5 cm directly above the centre of a square of side 10
cm, as shown in Fig. 1.34. What is the magnitude of the electric flux through the square?
(Hint: Think of the square as one face of a cube with edge 10 cm.)

Answer

The square can be considered as one face of a cube of edge 10 cm with a centre where
charge q is placed. According to Gauss’s theorem for a cube, total electric flux is through
all its six faces.
Hence, electric flux through one face of the cube
c i.e., through the square,

Where,

∈0 = Permittivity of free space

= 8.854 × 10−12 N−1C2 m−2

q = 10 μC = 10 × 10−6 C

= 1.88 × 105 N m2 C−1

Therefore, electric flux through the square is 1.88 × 105 N m2 C−1.

Question 1.19:

A point charge of 2.0 μC is at the centre of a cubic Gaussian surface 9.0 cm on edge.
What is the net electric flux through the surface?

Answer

Net electric flux (ΦNet) through the cubic surface is given by,

Where,

∈0 = Permittivity of free space

= 8.854 × 10−12 N−1C2 m−2

q = Net charge contained inside the cube = 2.0 μC = 2 × 10−6 C

∴

= 2.26 × 105 N m2 C−1

The net electric flux through the surface is 2.26 ×105 N m2C−1.

Question 1.20:

A point charge causes an electric flux of −1.0 × 103 Nm2/C to pass through a spherical
Gaussian surface of 10.0 cm radius centered on the charge. (a) If the radius of the
Gaussian surface were doubled, how much flux would pass through the surface? (b) What
is the value of the point charge?

Answer

Electric flux, Φ = −1.0 × 103 N m2/C

Radius of the Gaussian surface,

r = 10.0 cm

Electric flux piercing out through a surface depends on the net charge enclosed inside a
body. It does not depend on the size of the body. If the radius of the Gaussian surface is
doubled, then the flux passing through the surface remains the same i.e., −103 N m2/C.

Electric flux is given by the relation,

Where,

q = Net charge enclosed by the spherical surface

∈0 = Permittivity of free space = 8.854 × 10−12 N−1C2 m−2

= −1.0 × 103 × 8.854 × 10−12

= −8.854 × 10−9 C

= −8.854 nC

Therefore, the value of the point charge is −8.854 nC.

Question 1.21:

A conducting sphere of radius 10 cm has an unknown charge. If the electric field 20 cm

from the centre of the sphere is 1.5 × 103 N/C and points radially inward, what is the net
charge on the sphere?

Answer

Electric field intensity (E)) at a distance (d)

( ) from the centre of a sphere containing net
charge q is given by the relation,

Where,

q = Net charge = 1.5 × 103 N/C

d = Distance from the centre = 20 cm = 0.2 m

∈0 = Permittivity of free space

And, = 9 × 109 N m2 C−2

= 6.67 × 109 C

= 6.67 nC
Therefore, the net charge on the sphere is 6.67 nC.

Question 1.22:

A uniformly charged conducting sphere of 2.4 m diameter has a surface charge density of
80.0 μC/m2. (a) Find the charge on the sphere. (b) What is the total electric flux leaving
the surface of the sphere?

Answer

Diameter of the sphere, d = 2.4 m

Radius of the sphere, r = 1.2 m

Surface charge density, = 80.0 μC/m2 = 80 × 10−6 C/m2

Total charge on the surface of the sphere,

Q = Charge density × Surface area

= 80 × 10−6 × 4 × 3.14 × (1.2)2

= 1.447 × 10−3 C

Therefore, the charge on the sphere is 1.447

1 × 10−3 C.

Total electric flux ( ) leaving out the surface of a sphere containing net charge Q is
given by the relation,

Where,

∈0 = Permittivity of free space

= 8.854 × 10−12 N−1C2 m−2

Q = 1.447 × 10−3 C

= 1.63 × 108 N C−1 m2

Therefore, the total electric flux leaving the surface of the sphere is 1.63 × 108 N C−1 m2.

Question 1.23:

An infinite line charge produces a field of 9 × 104 N/C at a distance of 2 cm. Calculate the
linear charge density.

Answer

Electric field produced by the infinite line charges at a distance d having linear charge
density λ is given by the relation,

Where,

d = 2 cm = 0.02 m

E = 9 × 104 N/C

∈0 = Permittivity of free space

= 9 × 109 N m2 C−2

= 10 μC/m
Therefore, the linear charge density is 10 μC/m.

Question 1.24:

Two large, thin metal plates are parallel and close to each other. On their inner faces, the
plates have surface charge densities of opposite signs and of magnitude 17.0 × 10−22
C/m2. What is E:: (a) in the outer region of the first plate, (b) in the outer region of the
second plate, and (c) between the plates?

Answer

The situation is represented in the following figure.

A and B are two parallel plates close to each other. OuterOuter region of plate A is labelled as
I,, outer region of plate B is labelled as III,, and the region between the plates, A and B, is
labelled as II.

Charge density of plate A, σ = 17.0 × 10−22 C/m2

Charge density of plate B, σ = −17.0 × 10−22 C/m2

In the regions, I and III,, electric field E is zero. This is because charge is not enclosed by
the respective plates.

Electric field E in region II is given by the relation,

Where,

∈0 = Permittivity of free space = 8.854 × 10−12 N−1C2 m−2

∴

= 1.92 × 10−10 N/C

Therefore, electric field between the plates is 1.92 × 10−10 N/C.

Question 1.25:

An oil drop of 12 excess electrons is held stationary under a constant electric field of 2.55
× 104 N C−1 in Millikan’s oil drop experiment. The density of the oil is 1.26 g cm−3.
( = 9.81 m s−2; e = 1.60 × 10−19 C).
Estimate the radius of the drop. (g

Answer

Excess electrons on an oil drop, n = 12

Electric field intensity, E = 2.55 × 104 N C−1

Density of oil, ρ = 1.26 gm/cm3 = 1.26 × 103 kg/m3

Acceleration due to gravity, g = 9.81 m s−2

Charge on an electron, e = 1.6 × 10−19 C

Radius of the oil drop = r

Force (F)) due to electric field E is equal to the weight of the oil drop (W)

F=W

Eq = mg

Ene

Where,

q = Net charge on the oil drop = ne

m = Mass of the oil drop

= Volume of the oil drop × Density of oil

= 9.82 × 10−4 mm

Therefore, the radius of the oil drop is 9.82 × 10−4 mm.

Question 1.26:

Which among the curves shown in Fig. 1.35 cannot possibly represent electrostatic field
lines?

(a)

(b)
(c)

(d)

(e)

Answer

The field lines showed in (a) do not represent electrostatic field lines because field lines
must be normal to the surface of the conductor.

The field lines showed in (b) do not represent electrostatic field lines because the field
lines cannot emerge from a negative charge and cannot terminate at a positive charge.

The field lines showed in (c) represent electrostatic field lines. This is because the field
lines emerge from the positive charges and repel each other.
The field lines showed in (d) do not represent electrostatic field lines because the field
lines should not intersect each other.

The field lines showed in (e) do not represent electrostatic field lines because closed loops
are not formed in the area between the field lines.

Question 1.27:

In a certain region of space, electric field is along the z-direction

z direction throughout. The
magnitude of electric field is, however, not constant but increases uniformly along the
direction, at the rate of 105 NC−1 per metre. What are the force and torque
positive z-direction,
experienced by a system having a total dipole moment equal to 10−7 Cm in the negative z-
direction?

Answer

Dipole moment of the system, p = q × dl = −10−7 C m

Rate of increase of electric field per unit length,

Force (F)) experienced by the system is given by the relation,

F = qE

= −10−7 × 10−5

= −10−2 N

The force is −10−2 N in the negative z-direction

z direction i.e., opposite to the direction of electric
field. Hence, the angle between electric field and dipole moment is 180°.

Torque (τ)) is given by the relation,

τ = pE sin180°

=0

Therefore, the torque experienced by the system is zero.

Question 1.28:

A conductor A with a cavity as shown in Fig. 1.36(a) is given a charge Q.. Show that the
entire charge must appear on the outer surface of the conductor. (b) Another conductor B
with charge q is inserted into the cavity keeping B insulated from A. Show that the total
charge on the outside surface of A is Q + q [Fig. 1.36(b)]. (c) A sensitive instrument is to
be shielded from the strong electrostatic fields in its environment. Suggest a possible way.

Answer

Let us consider a Gaussian surface that is lying wholly within a conductor and enclosing
the cavity. The electric field intensity E inside the charged conductor is zero.

Let q is the charge inside the conductor and is the permittivity of free space.

According to Gauss’s law,

Flux,

Here, E = 0
Therefore, charge inside the conductor is zero.

The entire charge Q appears on the outer surface of the conductor.

The outer surface of conductor A has a charge of amount Q.. Another conductor B having
charge +q is kept inside conductor A and it is insulated from A. Hence, a charge of
amount −q will be induced in the inner surface of conductor A and +q+ is induced on the
outer surface of conductor A. Therefore, total charge on the outer surface of conductor A
is Q + q.

A sensitive instrument can be shielded from the strong electrostatic field in its
environment by enclosing it fully inside a metallic surface. A closed metallic body acts as
an electrostatic shield.

Question 1.29:

A hollow charged conductor has a tiny hole cut into its surface. Show that the electric

field in the hole is , where is the unit vector in the outward normal direction,
and is the surface charge density near the hole.

Answer

Let us consider a conductor with a cavity or a hole. Electric field inside the cavity is zero.

Let E is the electric field just outside the conductor, q is the electric charge, is the
charge density, and is the permittivity of free space.

Charge

According to Gauss’s law,

Therefore, the electric field just outside the conductor is . This field is a
superposition of field due to the cavity and the field due to the rest of the charged
conductor . These fields are equal and opposite inside the conductor, and equal in
magnitude and direction outside the conductor.

Therefore, the field due to the rest of the conductor is .

Hence, proved.

Question 1.30:

Obtain the formula for the electric field due to a long thin wire of uniform linear charge
density λ without using Gauss’s law. [Hint:
[ Use Coulomb’s law directly and evaluate the
necessary integral.]

Answer

Take a long thin wire XY (as shown in the figure) of uniform linear charge density .

Consider a point A at a perpendicular distance l from the mid-point

point O of the wire, as
shown in the following figure.
Let E be the electric field at point A due to the wire, XY.

Consider a small length element dx on the wire section with OZ = x

Let q be the charge on this piece.

Electric field due to the piece,

The electric field is resolved into two rectangular components. is the

perpendicular component and is the parallel component.

When the whole wire is considered, the component is cancelled.

Only the perpendicular component affects point A.

Hence, effective electric field at point A due to the element dx is dE1.

On differentiating equation (2), we obtain

From equation (2),

Putting equations (3) and (4) in equation (1), we obtain

The wire is so long that tends from to .

By integrating equation (5), we obtain the value of field E1 as,

Therefore, the electric field due to long wire is .

Question 1.31:

It is now believed that protons and neutrons (which constitute nuclei of ordinary matter)
are themselves built out of more elementary units called quarks. A proton and a neutron
consist of three quarks each. Two types of quarks, the so called ‘up’ quark (d (denoted by u)
of charge (+2/3) e,, and the ‘down’ quark (denoted by d) of charge (−1/3)
( e,, together with
electrons build up ordinary matter. (Quarks of other types have also been found which
give rise to different unusual varieties of matter.) Suggest a possible
possible quark composition of
a proton and neutron.

Answer
A proton has three quarks. Let there be n up quarks in a proton, each having a charge of

Charge due to n up quarks

Number of down quarks in a proton = 3 − n

Each down quark has a charge of .

Charge due to (3 − n) down quarks

Total charge on a proton = + e

Number of up quarks in a proton, n = 2

Number of down quarks in a proton = 3 − n = 3 − 2 = 1

Therefore, a proton can be represented as ‘uud’.

A neutron also has three quarks. Let there be n up quarks in a neutron, each having a

charge of .

Charge on a neutron due to n up quarks

Number of down quarks is 3 − n,each having a charge of .

Charge on a neutron due to down quarks =

Total charge onn a neutron = 0

Number of up quarks in a neutron, n = 1

Number of down quarks in a neutron = 3 − n = 2

Therefore, a neutron can be represented as ‘udd’.

Question 1.32:

Consider an arbitrary electrostatic field configuration. A small test charge is placed at a

null point (i.e., where E = 0) of the configuration. Show that the equilibrium of the test
charge is necessarily unstable.

Verify this result for the simple configuration

configuration of two charges of the same magnitude and
sign placed a certain distance apart.

Answer

Let the equilibrium of the test charge be stable. If a test charge is in equilibrium and
displaced from its position in any direction, then it experiences a restoring force towards a
null point, where the electric field is zero. All the field lines near the null point are
directed inwards towards the null point. There is a net inward flux of electric field
through a closed surface around the null point. According
According to Gauss’s law, the flux of
electric field through a surface, which is not enclosing any charge, is zero. Hence, the
equilibrium of the test charge can be stable.

Two charges of same magnitude and same sign are placed at a certain distance. The mid- mid
point of the joining line of the charges is the null point. When a test charged is displaced
along the line, it experiences a restoring force. If it is displaced normal to
to the joining line,
then the net force takes it away from the null point. Hence, the charge is unstable because
stability of equilibrium requires restoring force in all directions.

Question 1.33:

A particle of mass m and charge (−q)

( ) enters the region between the two charged plates
initially moving along x-axis
axis with speed vx (like particle 1 in Fig. 1.33). The length of
plate is L and an uniform electric field E is maintained between the plates. Show that the
he particle at the far edge of the plate is qEL2/ (2m
vertical deflection of the ).

Compare this motion with motion of a projectile in gravitational field discussed in

Section 4.10 of Class XI Textbook of Physics.

Answer

Charge on a particle of mass m = − q

Velocity of the particle = vx

Length of the plates = L

Magnitude of the uniform electric field between the plates = E

Mechanical force, F = Mass (m)

( × Acceleration (a)

Therefore, acceleration,

Time taken by the particle to cross the field of length L is given by,

In the vertical direction, initial velocity, u = 0

According to the third equation of motion, vertical deflection s of the particle can be
obtained as,
Hence, vertical deflection of the particle at the far edge of the plate is

. This is similar to the motion of horizontal projectiles under gravity.

Question 1.34:

Suppose that the particle in Exercise in 1.33 is an electron projected with velocity vx= 2.0
× 106 m s−1. If E between the plates separated by 0.5 cm is 9.1 × 102 N/C, where will the
electron strike the upper plate? (| e | =1.6 × 10−19 C, me = 9.1 × 10−31 kg.)

Answer

Velocity of the particle, vx = 2.0 × 106 m/s

Separation of the two plates, d = 0.5 cm = 0.005 m

Electric field between the two plates, E = 9.1 × 102 N/C

Charge on an electron, q = 1.6 × 10−19 C

Mass of an electron, me = 9.1 × 10−31 kg

Let the electron strike the upper plate at the end of plate L,, when deflection is s.

Therefore,
Therefore, the electron will strike the upper plate after travelling 1.6 cm.
Question 2.1:

Two charges 5 × 10−8 C and −3 × 10−8 C are located 16 cm apart. At what point(s) on the
line joining the two charges is the electric potential zero? Take the potential at infinity to
be zero.

Answer

There are two charges,

Distance between the two charges, d = 16 cm = 0.16 m

Consider a point P on the line joining the two charges, as shown in the given figure.

r = Distance of point P from charge q1

Let the electric potential (V) at point P be zero.

Potential at point P is the sum of potentials caused by charges q1 and q2 respectively.

Where,

= Permittivity of free space

For V = 0, equation (i) reduces to

Therefore, the potential is zero at a distance of 10 cm from the positive charge between
the charges.

Suppose point P is outside the system of two charges at a distance s from the negative
charge, where potential is zero, as shown in the following figure.

For this arrangement, potential is given by,

For V = 0, equation (ii) reduces to

Therefore, the potential is zero at a distance of 40 cm from the positive charge outside the
system of charges.
Question 2.2:

A regular hexagon of side 10 cm has a charge 5 µC at each of its vertices. Calculate the
potential at the centre of the hexagon.

Answer

The given figure shows six equal amount of charges, q,, at the vertices of a regular
hexagon.

Where,

Charge, q = 5 µC = 5 × 10−6 C

Side of the hexagon, l = AB = BC = CD = DE = EF = FA = 10 cm

Distance of each vertex from centre O, d = 10 cm

Electric potential at point O,

Where,

= Permittivity of free space

Therefore, the potential at the centre of the hexagon is 2.7 × 106 V.

Question 2.3:

Two charges 2 μC and −2 µC are placed at points A and B 6 cm apart.

Identify an equipotential surface of the system.

What is the direction of the electric field at every point on this surface?

Answer

The situation is represented in the given figure.

An equipotential surface is the plane on which total potential is zero everywhere. This
plane
ne is normal to line AB. The plane is located at the mid-point
mid point of line AB because the
magnitude of charges is the same.

The direction of the electric field at every point on this surface is normal to the plane in
the direction of AB.

Question 2.4:

A spherical conductor of radius 12 cm has a charge of 1.6 × 10−7C distributed uniformly

on its surface. What is the electric field

Inside the sphere

Just outside the sphere

At a point 18 cm from the centre of the sphere?

Answer

Radius of the spherical conductor, r = 12 cm = 0.12 m

Charge is uniformly distributed over the conductor, q = 1.6 × 10−7 C

Electric field inside a spherical conductor is zero. This is because if there is field inside
the conductor, then charges will move to neutralize it.

Electric field E just outside the conductor is given by the relation,

Where,

= Permittivity of free space

Therefore, the electric field just outside the sphere is .

Electric field at a point 18 m from the centre of the sphere = E1

Distance of the point from the centre, d = 18 cm = 0.18 m

Therefore, the electric field at a point 18 cm from the centre of the sphere is
 .

Question 2.5:

A parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates has a capacitance of 8 pF (1pF =
10−12 F). What will be the capacitance if the distance between the plates is reduced by
half, and the space between them is filled with a substance of dielectric constant 6?

Answer

Capacitance between the parallel plates of the capacitor, C = 8 pF

Initially, distance between the parallel plates was d and it was filled with air. Dielectric
constant of air, k = 1

Capacitance, C,, is given by the formula,

Where,

A = Area of each plate

= Permittivity of free space

If distance between the plates is reduced

red to half, then new distance, d’ =

Dielectric constant of the substance filled in between the plates, =6

Hence, capacitance of the capacitor becomes

Taking ratios of equations (i) and (ii), we obtain

Therefore, the capacitance between the plates is 96 pF.

Question 2.6:

Three capacitors each of capacitance 9 pF are connected in series.

What is the total capacitance of the combination?

What is the potential difference across each capacitor if the combination is connected to a
120 V supply?

Answer

Capacitance of each of the three capacitors, C = 9 pF

Equivalent capacitance (C’) of the combination of the capacitors is given by the relation,

Therefore, total capacitance of the combination is .

Supply voltage, V = 100 V

Potential difference (V’) across each capacitor is equal to one-third

one third of the supply voltage.

Therefore, the potential difference across each capacitor is 40 V.

Question 2.7:

Three capacitors of capacitances 2 pF, 3 pF and 4 pF are connected in parallel.

What
at is the total capacitance of the combination?

Determine the charge on each capacitor if the combination is connected to a 100 V

supply.

Answer

Capacitances of the given capacitors are

For the parallel combination of the capacitors, equivalent capacitor is given by the
algebraic sum,

Therefore, total capacitance of the combination is 9 pF.

Supply voltage, V = 100 V

The voltage through all the three capacitors is same = V = 100 V

Charge on a capacitor of capacitance C and potential difference V is given by the relation,

q = VC … (i)

For C = 2 pF,

For C = 3 pF,
For C = 4 pF,

Question 2.8:

In a parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates, each plate has an area of 6 × 10−3
m2 and the distance between the plates is 3 mm. Calculate the capacitance of the
capacitor. If this capacitor is connected to a 100 V supply, what is the charge on each
plate of the capacitor?

Answer

Area of each plate of the parallel plate capacitor, A = 6 × 10−3 m2

Distance between the plates, d = 3 mm = 3 × 10−3 m

Supply voltage, V = 100 V

Capacitance C of a parallel plate capacitor is given by,

Where,

= Permittivity of free space

= 8.854 × 10−12 N−1 m−2 C−2

Therefore, capacitance of the capacitor is 17.71 pF and charge on each plate is 1.771 ×
10−9 C.

Question 2.9:

Explain what would happen if in the capacitor given in Exercise 2.8, a 3 mm thick mica
sheet (of dielectric constant = 6) were inserted between the plates,

While the voltage

ltage supply remained connected.

After the supply was disconnected.

Answer

Dielectric constant of the mica sheet, k = 6

Initial capacitance, C = 1.771 × 10−11 F

Supply voltage, V = 100 V

Potential across the plates remains 100 V.

Dielectric constant, k = 6
Initial capacitance, C = 1.771 × 10−11 F

If supply voltage is removed, then there will be no effect on the amount of charge in the
plates.

Charge = 1.771 × 10−9 C

Potential across the plates is given by,

Question 2.10:

A 12 pF capacitor is connected to a 50V battery. How much electrostatic energy is stored

in the capacitor?

Answer

Capacitor of the capacitance, C = 12 pF = 12 × 10−12 F

Potential difference, V = 50 V

Electrostatic energy stored in the capacitor is given by the

t relation,

Therefore, the electrostatic energy stored in the capacitor is

Question 2.11:

A 600 pF capacitor is charged by a 200 V supply. It is then disconnected from the supply
and is connected to another uncharged 600 pF capacitor. How much electrostatic energy
is lost in the process?

Answer

Capacitance of the capacitor, C = 600 pF

Potential difference, V = 200 V

Electrostatic energy stored in the capacitor is given by,

If supply is disconnected from the capacitor and another capacitor of capacitance C = 600
pF is connected to it, then equivalent capacitance (C’) of the combination is given by,

New electrostatic energy can be calculated as

Therefore, the electrostatic energy lost in the process is .

Question 2.12:

A charge of 8 mC is located at the origin. Calculate the work done in taking a small
charge of −2 × 10−9 C from a point P (0, 0, 3 cm) to a point Q (0, 4 cm, 0), via a point R
(0, 6 cm, 9 cm).

Answer

Charge located at the origin, q = 8 mC= 8 × 10−3 C

Magnitude of a small charge, which is taken from a point P to point R to point Q, q1 = − 2

× 10−9 C

All the points are represented in the given figure.

Point P is at a distance, d1 = 3 cm, from the origin along z-axis.

Point Q is at a distance, d2 = 4 cm,

c from the origin along y-axis.
Potential at point P,

Potential at point Q,

Work done (W)) by the electrostatic force is independent of the path.

Therefore, work done during the process is 1.27 J.

Question 2.13:

A cube of side b has a charge q at each of its vertices. Determine the potential and electric
field due to this charge array at the centre of the cube.

Answer

Length of the side of a cube = b

Charge at each of its vertices = q

A cube of side b is shown in the following figure.

d = Diagonal of one of the six faces of the cube

l = Length of the diagonal of the cube

The electric potential (V)) at the centre of the cube is due to the presence of eight charges
at the vertices.

Therefore, the potential at the centre of the cube is .

The electric field at the centre of the cube, due to the eight charges, gets cancelled. This is
because the charges are distributed symmetrically with respect to the centre of the cube.
Hence, the electric
ectric field is zero at the centre.
Question 2.14:

Two tiny spheres carrying charges 1.5 μC and 2.5 μC are located 30 cm apart. Find the
potential and electric field:

at the mid-point of the line joining the two charges, and

at a point 10 cm from this midpoint in a plane normal to the line and passing through the
mid-point.

Answer

Two charges placed at points A and B are represented in the given figure. O is the mid-
point of the line joining the two charges.

Magnitude of charge located at A, q1 = 1.5 μC

Magnitude of charge located at B, q2 = 2.5 μC

Distance between the two charges, d = 30 cm = 0.3 m

Let V1 and E1 are the electric potential and electric field respectively at O.

V1 = Potential due to charge at A + Potential due to charge at B

Where,

∈0 = Permittivity of free space

E1 = Electric field due to q2 − Electric field due to q1

Therefore, the potential at mid-point is 2.4 × 105 V and the electric field at mid-point is
4× 105 V m−1. The field is directed from the larger charge to the smaller charge.

Consider a point Z such that normal distanceOZ = 10 cm = 0.1 m, as shown in the

following figure.

V2 and E2 are the electric potential and electric field respectively at Z.

It can be observed from the figure that distance,

V2= Electric potential due to A + Electric Potential due to B

Electric field due to q at Z,

Electric field due to q2 at Z,

The resultant field intensity at Z,

Where, 2θis the angle, ∠AZ B

From the figure, we obtain

mid point) is 2.0 × 105 V

Therefore, the potential at a point 10 cm (perpendicular to the mid-point)
5 −1
and electric field is 6.6 ×10 V m .

Question 2.15:

A spherical conducting shell of inner radius r1 and outer radius r22 has a charge Q.

A charge q is placed at the centre of the shell. What is the surface charge density on the
inner and outer surfaces of the shell?

Is the electric field inside a cavity (with

(with no charge) zero, even if the shell is not spherical,
but has any irregular shape? Explain.

Answer
 + Hence, a charge of magnitude −qq will be
Charge placed at the centre of a shell is +q.
induced to the inner surface of the shell. Therefore, total charge on the inner surface of
the shell is −q.

Surface charge density at the inner surface of the shell is given by the relation,

A charge of +q is induced on the outer surface of the shell. A charge of magnitude Q is

placed on the outer surface of the shell. Therefore, total charge on the outer surface of the
shell is Q + q.. Surface charge density at the outer surface of the shell,

Yes

The electric field intensity inside a cavity is zero, even if the shell is not spherical and has
any irregular shape. Take a closed loop such that a part of it is inside the cavity along a
field line while the rest is inside the conductor. Net work done by the field in carrying a
test charge over a closed
ed loop is zero because the field inside the conductor is zero.
Hence, electric field is zero, whatever is the shape.

Question 2.16:

Show that the normal component of electrostatic field has a discontinuity from one side of
a charged surface to another given by

Where is a unit vector normal to the surface at a point and σ is the surface charge
density at that point. (The direction of is from side 1 to side 2.) Hence show that just
outside a conductor, the electric field is σ

Show that the tangential component of electrostatic field is continuous from one side of a
charged surface to another. [Hint: For (a), use Gauss’s law. For, (b) use the fact that work
done by electrostatic field on a closed loop is zero.]

Answer
Electric
tric field on one side of a charged body is E1 and electric field on the other side of the
same body is E2. If infinite plane charged body has a uniform thickness, then electric field
due to one surface of the charged body is given by,

Where,

= Unit vector
tor normal to the surface at a point

σ = Surface charge density at that point

Electric field due to the other surface of the charged body,

Electric field at any point due to the two surfaces,

Since inside a closed conductor, = 0,

Therefore, the electric field just outside the conductor is .

When a charged particle is moved from one point to the other on a closed loop, the work
done by the electrostatic field is zero. Hence, the tangential component of electrostatic
field is continuous
uous from one side of a charged surface to the other.

Question 2.17:
A long charged cylinder of linear charged density λ is surrounded by a hollow coco-axial
conducting cylinder. What is the electric field in the space between the two cylinders?

Answer

Charge density of the long charged cylinder of length L and radius r is λ.

Another cylinder of same length surrounds the pervious cylinder. The radius of this
cylinder is R.

Let E be the electric field produced in the space between the two cylinders.

Electric flux through the Gaussian surface is given by Gauss’s theorem as,

Where, d = Distance of a point from the common axis of the cylinders

Let q be the total charge on the cylinder.

cylin

It can be written as

Where,

q = Charge on the inner sphere of the outer cylinder

∈0 = Permittivity of free space

Therefore, the electric field in the space between the two cylinders is .
Question 2.18:

In a hydrogen atom, the electron and proton are bound at a distance of about 0.53 Å:

Estimate the potential energy of the system in eV, taking the zero of the potential energy
at infinite separation of the electron from proton.

What is the minimum work required to free the electron, given that its kinetic energy in
the orbit is half the magnitude of potential energy obtained in (a)?

What are the answers to (a) and (b) above if the zero of potential energy is taken at 1.06 Å
separation?

Answer

The distance between electron-proton of a hydrogen atom,

Charge on an electron, q1 = −1.6 ×10−19 C

Charge on a proton, q2 = +1.6 ×10−19 C

Potential at infinity is zero.

Potential energy of the system, p-e = Potential energy at infinity − Potential energy at
distance, d

Where,

∈0 is the permittivity of free space

Therefore, the potential energy of the system is −27.2 eV.

Kinetic energy is half of the magnitude of potential energy.

Total energy = 13.6 − 27.2 = 13.6 eV

Therefore, the minimum work required to free the electron is 13.6 eV.

When zero of potential energy is taken,

∴Potential
Potential energy of the system = Potential energy at d1 − Potential energy at d

Question 2.19:

If one of the two electrons of a H2 molecule is removed, we get a hydrogen molecular ion
. In the ground state of an , the two protons are separated by roughly 1.5 Å, and
the electron is roughly 1 Å from each proton. Determine the potential energy of the
system. Specify your choice of the zero of potential energy.

Answer

The system of two protons and one electron is represented in the given figure.
Charge on proton 1, q1 = 1.6 ×10−19 C

Charge on proton 2, q2 = 1.6 ×10−19 C

Charge on electron, q3 = −1.6 ×10−19 C

Distance between protons 1 and 2, d1 = 1.5 ×10−10 m

Distance between proton 1 and electron, d2 = 1 ×10−10 m

Distance between proton 2 and electron, d3 = 1 × 10−10 m

The potential energy at infinity is zero.

Potential energy of the system,

Therefore, the potential energy of the system is −19.2 eV.

Question 2.20:

Two charged conducting spheres of radii a and b are connected to each other by a wire.
What is the ratio of electric fields at the surfaces of the two spheres? Use the result
obtained to explain why charge density on the sharp and pointed ends of a conductor is
higher than on its flatter portions.

Answer
Let a be the radius of a sphere A, QA be the charge on the sphere, and CA be the
capacitance of the sphere. Let b be the radius of a sphere B, QB be the charge on the
sphere, and CB be the capacitance of the sphere. Since the two spheres are connected with
a wire, their potential (V)) will become equal.

Let EAbe the electric field of sphere A and EB be the electric field of sphere B. Therefore,
their ratio,

Putting the value of (2)) in (1), we obtain

Therefore, the ratio of electric fields at the surface is .

Question 2.21:

Two charges −q and +q are located at points (0, 0, − a) and (0, 0, a),
), respectively.

What is the electrostatic potential at the points?

Obtain the dependence of potential on the distance r of a point from the origin when r/a
>> 1.
How much work is done in moving a small test charge from the point (5, 0, 0) to (−7, 0,
0) along the x-axis? Does the answer change if the path of the test charge between the
same points is not along the x-axis?

Answer

Zero at both the points

Charge − q is located at (0, 0, − a) and charge + q is located at (0, 0, a). Hence, they form
a dipole. Point (0, 0, z) is on the axis of this dipole and point (x, y, 0) is normal to the axis
of the dipole. Hence, electrostatic potential at point (x, y, 0) is zero. Electrostatic potential
at point (0, 0, z) is given by,

Where,

= Permittivity of free space

p = Dipole moment of the system of two charges = 2qa

Distance r is much greater than half of the distance between the two charges. Hence, the
potential (V) at a distance r is inversely proportional to square of the distance i.e.,

Zero

The answer does not change if the path of the test is not along the x-axis.

A test charge is moved from point (5, 0, 0) to point (−7, 0, 0) along the x-axis.
Electrostatic potential (V1) at point (5, 0, 0) is given by,
 ( 7, 0, 0) is given by,
Electrostatic potential, V2, at point (−

Hence, no work is done in moving a small test charge from point (5, 0, 0) to point ((−7, 0,
0) along the x-axis.

The answer does not change because work done by the electrostatic field in moving a test
charge between the two points is independent of the path connecting the two points.

Question 2.22:

Figure 2.34 shows a charge array known as an electric quadrupole.. For a point on the axis
of the quadrupole, obtain the dependence of potential on r for r/a >> 1, and contrast your
results with that due to an electric dipole, and an electric monopole (i.e., a single charge).

Answer

Four charges of same magnitude are placed at points X, Y, Y, and Z respectively, as

shown in the following figure.
A point is located at P, which is r distance away from point Y.

The system of charges forms an electric quadrupole.

It can be considered that the system of the electric quadrupole has three charges.

Charge +q placed at point X

Charge −2q placed at point Y

Charge +q placed at point Z

XY = YZ = a

YP = r

PX = r + a

PZ = r − a

Electrostatic potential caused by the system of three charges at point P is given by,

Since ,

is taken as negligible.
It can be inferred that potential,

However, it is known that for a dipole,

And, for a monopole,

Question 2.23:

An electrical technician requires a capacitance of 2 µF in a circuit across a potential

difference of 1 kV. A large number of 1 µF capacitors are available to him each of which
can withstand a potential difference of not more than 400 V. Suggest a possible
arrangement that requires the minimum number of capacitors.

Answer

Total required capacitance, C = 2 µF

Potential difference, V = 1 kV = 1000 V

Capacitance of each capacitor, C1 = 1µF

Each capacitor can withstand a potential difference,

dif V1 = 400 V

Suppose a number of capacitors are connected in series and these series circuits are
connected in parallel (row) to each other. The potential difference across each row must
be 1000 V and potential difference across each capacitor must be 400 V. Hence, number
of capacitors in each row is given as

Hence, there are three capacitors in each row.

Capacitance of each row

Let there are n rows, each having three capacitors, which are connected in parallel.
Hence, equivalent capacitance of the
t circuit is given as

Hence, 6 rows of three capacitors are present in the circuit. A minimum of 6 × 3 i.e., 18
capacitors are required for the given arrangement.

Question 2.24:

What is the area of the plates of a 2 F parallel plate capacitor, given that the separation
between the plates is 0.5 cm? [You will realize from your answer why ordinary capacitors
are in the range of µF or less. However, electrolytic capacitors do have a much larger
capacitance (0.1 F) because of very minute separation between the conductors.]

Answer

Capacitance of a parallel capacitor, V = 2 F

Distance between the two plates, d = 0.5 cm = 0.5 × 10−2 m

Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is given by the relation,

Where,
 = Permittivity of free space = 8.85 × 10−12 C2 N−1 m−2

Hence, the area of the plates is too large. To avoid this situation, the capacitance is taken
in the range of µF.

Question 2.25:

Obtain the equivalent capacitance of the network in Fig. 2.35. For a 300 V supply,
determine the charge and voltage across each capacitor.

Answer

Capacitance of capacitor C1 is 100 pF.

Capacitance of capacitor C2 is 200 pF.

Capacitance of capacitor C3 is 200 pF.

Capacitance of capacitor C4 is 100 pF.

Supply potential, V = 300 V

Capacitors C2 and C3 are connected in series. Let their equivalent capacitance be

Capacitors C1 and C’ are in parallel. Let their equivalent capacitance be

are connected in series. Let their equivalent capacitance be C.

Hence, the equivalent capacitance of the circuit is

Potential difference across =

Potential difference across C4 = V4

Charge on

Q4= CV
Hence, potential difference, V1, across C1 is 100 V.

Charge on C1 is given by,

C2 and C3 having same capacitances have a potential difference of 100 V together. Since
C2 and C3 are in series, the potential difference across C2 and C3 is given by,

V2 = V3 = 50 V

Therefore, charge on C2 is given by,

And charge on C3 is given by,

Hence, the equivalent capacitance of the given circuit is

Question 2.26:

The plates of a parallel plate capacitor have an area of 90 cm2 each and are separated by
2.5 mm. The capacitor is charged by connecting it to a 400 V supply.

How much electrostatic energy is stored by the capacitor?

View this energy as stored in the electrostatic field between the plates, and obtain the
energy per unit volume u.. Hence arrive at a relation between u and the magnitude of
electric field E between the plates.
Answer

Area of the plates of a parallel plate capacitor, A = 90 cm2 = 90 × 10−4 m2

Distance between the plates, d = 2.5 mm = 2.5 × 10−3 m

Potential difference across the plates, V = 400 V

Capacitance of the capacitor is given by the relation,

Electrostatic energy stored in the capacitor is given by the relation,

Where,

= Permittivity of free space = 8.85 × 10−12 C2 N−1 m−2

Hence, the electrostatic energy stored by the capacitor is

Volume of the given capacitor,

Energy stored in the capacitor per unit volume is given by,

Where,

= Electric intensity = E

Question 2.27:

A 4 µF capacitor is charged by a 200 V supply. It is then disconnected from the supply,

and is connected to another uncharged 2 µF capacitor. How much electrostatic energy of
the first capacitor is lost in the form of heat and electromagnetic radiation?

Answer

Capacitance of a charged capacitor,

Supply voltage, V1 = 200 V

Electrostatic energy stored in C1 is given by,

Capacitance of an uncharged capacitor,

When C2 is connected to the circuit, the potential acquired by it is V2.

According to the conservation of charge, initial charge on capacitor C1 is equal to the

final charge on capacitors, C1 and C2.

Electrostatic energy for the combination of two capacitors is given by,

Hence, amount of electrostatic energy lost by capacitor C1

= E1 − E2

= 0.08 − 0.0533 = 0.0267

= 2.67 × 10−2 J

Question 2.28:

Show that the force on each plate of a parallel plate capacitor has a magnitude equal to
(½) QE, where Q is the charge on the capacitor, and E is the magnitude of electric field
between the plates. Explain the origin of the factor ½.

Answer

Let F be the force applied to separate the plates of a parallel plate capacitor by a distance
of Δx.. Hence, work done by the force to do so = FΔx

As a result, the potential energy of the capacitor increases by an amount given as uAΔx.
Where,

u = Energy density

A = Area of each plate

d = Distance between the plates

V = Potential difference across the plates

pla

The work done will be equal to the increase in the potential energy i.e.,

Electric intensity is given by,

However, capacitance,

Charge on the capacitor is given by,

Q = CV

The physical origin of the factor, , in the force formula lies in the fact that just outside

the conductor, field is E and inside it is zero. Hence, it is the average value, , of the
field that contributes to the force.

Question 2.29:
A spherical capacitor consists of two concentric spherical conductors, held in position by
suitable insulating supports (Fig. 2.36). Show

that the capacitance of a spherical capacitor is given by

where r1 and r2 are the radii of outer and inner spheres, respectively.

Answer

Radius of the outer shell = r1

Radius of the inner shell = r2

The inner surface of the outer shell has charge +Q.

The outer surface of the inner shell has induced charge −Q.

Potential difference between the two shells is given by,

Where,

= Permittivity of free space

Hence, proved.

Question 2.30:

A spherical capacitor has an inner sphere of radius 12 cm and an outer sphere of radius 13
cm. The outer sphere is earthed and the inner sphere is given a charge of 2.5 µC. The
space between the concentric spheres
spheres is filled with a liquid of dielectric constant 32.

Determine the capacitance of the capacitor.

What is the potential of the inner sphere?

Compare the capacitance of this capacitor with that of an isolated sphere of radius 12 cm.
Explain why the latter
er is much smaller.

Answer

Radius of the inner sphere, = 12 cm = 0.12 m

Radius of the outer sphere, = 13 cm = 0.13 m

Charge on the inner sphere,

Dielectric constant of a liquid,

Where,

= Permittivity of free space =

Hence, the capacitance of the capacitor is approximately .

Potential of the inner sphere is given by,

Hence, the potential of the inner sphere is .

Radius of an isolated sphere, r = 12 × 10−2 m

Capacitance of the sphere is given by the relation,

The capacitance of the isolated sphere is less in comparison to the concentric spheres.
This is because the outer sphere of the concentric spheres is earthed. Hence, the potential
difference is less and the capacitance is more than the isolated sphere.

Question 2.31:

Answer carefully:

Two large conducting spheres carrying charges Q1 and Q2 are brought close to each other.
Is the magnitude of electrostatic force between them exactly given by Q1 Q2/4π r 2,
where r is the distance between their centres?
If Coulomb’s law involved 1/r3 dependence (instead of 1/r2), would Gauss’s law be still
true?

A small test charge is released at rest at a point in an electrostatic field configuration. Will
it travel along the field line passing through that point?

What is the work done by the field of a nucleus in a complete circular orbit of the
electron? What if the orbit is elliptical?

We know that electric field is discontinuous across the surface of a charged conductor. Is
electric potential also discontinuous there?

What meaning would you give to the capacitance of a single conductor?

Guess a possible reason why water has a much greater dielectric constant (= 80) than say,
mica (= 6).

Answer

The force between two conducting spheres is not exactly given by the expression, Q1
Q2/4π r 2, because there is a non-uniform charge distribution on the spheres.

Gauss’s law will not be true, if Coulomb’s law involved 1/r3 dependence, instead of1/r2,
on r.

Yes,

If a small test charge is released at rest at a point in an electrostatic field configuration,

then it will travel along the field lines passing through the point, only if the field lines are
straight. This is because the field lines give the direction of acceleration and not of
velocity.

Whenever the electron completes an orbit, either circular or elliptical, the work done by
the field of a nucleus is zero.

No

Electric field is discontinuous across the surface of a charged conductor. However,

electric potential is continuous.

The capacitance of a single conductor is considered as a parallel plate capacitor with one
of its two plates at infinity.
Water has an unsymmetrical space as compared to mica. Since it has a permanent dipole
moment, it has a greater
ater dielectric constant than mica.

Question 2.32:

A cylindrical capacitor has two co-axial

co axial cylinders of length 15 cm and radii 1.5 cm and
1.4 cm. The outer cylinder is earthed and the inner cylinder is given a charge of 3.5 µC.
Determine the capacitance
itance of the system and the potential of the inner cylinder. Neglect
end effects (i.e., bending of field lines at the ends).

Answer

Length of a co-axial
axial cylinder, l = 15 cm = 0.15 m

Radius of outer cylinder, r1 = 1.5 cm = 0.015 m

Radius of inner cylinder, r2 = 1.4 cm = 0.014 m

Charge on the inner cylinder, q = 3.5 µC = 3.5 × 10−6 C

Where,

= Permittivity of free space =

Potential difference of the inner cylinder is given by,

Question 2.33:

A parallel plate capacitor is to be designed with a voltage rating 1 kV, using a material of
dielectric constant 3 and dielectric strength about 107 Vm−1. (Dielectric strength is the
maximum electric field a material can tolerate without breakdown, i.e., without starting to
conduct electricity through partial ionisation.) For safety, we should like the field never to
exceed, say 10% of the dielectric strength. What minimum area of the plates is required to
have a capacitance of 50 pF?

Answer

Potential rating of a parallel plate

plat capacitor, V = 1 kV = 1000 V

Dielectric constant of a material, =3

Dielectric strength = 107 V/m

For safety, the field intensity never exceeds 10% of the dielectric strength.

Hence, electric field intensity, E = 10% of 107 = 106 V/m

Capacitance of the parallel plate capacitor, C = 50 pF = 50 × 10−12 F

Distance between the plates is given by,

Where,
A = Area of each plate

= Permittivity of free space =

Hence, the area of each plate is about 19 cm2.

Question 2.34:

Describe schematically the equipotential surfaces corresponding to

a constant electric field in the z-direction,

a field that uniformly increases in magnitude but remains in a constant (say, zz) direction,

a single positive charge at the origin, and

a uniform grid consisting of long equally spaced parallel charged wires in a plane.

Answer

Equidistant planes parallel to the x-y plane are the equipotential surfaces.

Planes parallel to the x-y plane are the equipotential surfaces with the exception that when
the planes get closer, the field increases.

Concentric spheres centered at the origin are equipotential surfaces.

A periodically varying shape near the given grid is the equipotential surface. This shape
gradually reaches the shape of planes parallel
para to the grid at a larger distance.

Question 2.35:
In a Van de Graaff type generator a spherical metal shell is to be a 15 × 106 V electrode.
The dielectric strength of the gas surrounding the electrode is 5 × 107 Vm−1. What is the
minimum radius of the spherical shell required? (You will learn from this exercise why
one cannot build an electrostatic generator using a very small shell which requires a small
charge to acquire a high potential.)

Answer

Potential difference, V = 15 × 106 V

Dielectric strength of the surrounding gas = 5 × 107 V/m

Electric field intensity, E = Dielectric strength = 5 × 107 V/m

Minimum radius of the spherical shell required for the purpose is given by,

Hence, the minimum radius of the spherical shell required

requir is 30 cm.

Question 2.36:

A small sphere of radius r1 and charge q1 is enclosed by a spherical shell of radius r2 and
charge q2. Show that if q1 is positive, charge will necessarily flow from the sphere to the
shell (when the two are connected by a wire) no matter what the charge q2 on the shell is.

Answer

According to Gauss’s law, the electric field between a sphere and a shell is determined by
the charge q1 on a small sphere. Hence, the potential difference, V,, between the sphere
and the shell is independent of charge q2. For positive charge q1, potential difference V is
always positive.
Question 2.37:

Answer the following:

The top of the atmosphere is at about 400 kV with respect to the surface of the earth,
corresponding to an electric field that decreases with altitude. Near the surface
surface of the
earth, the field is about 100 Vm−1. Why then do we not get an electric shock as we step
out of our house into the open? (Assume the house to be a steel cage so there is no field
inside!)

A man fixes outside his house one evening a two metre high insulating slab carrying on
its top a large aluminium sheet of area 1m2. Will he get an electric shock if he touches the
metal sheet next morning?

The discharging current in the atmosphere due to the small conductivity of air is known to
be 1800 A on an average
erage over the globe. Why then does the atmosphere not discharge
itself completely in due course and become electrically neutral? In other words, what
keeps the atmosphere charged?

What are the forms of energy into which the electrical energy of the atmosphere
atmosphere is
dissipated during a lightning? (Hint: The earth has an electric field of about 100 Vm−1 at
its surface in the downward direction, corresponding to a surface charge density = −10−9
C m−2. Due to the slight conductivity of the atmosphere up to about 50 km (beyond which
it is good conductor), about + 1800 C is pumped every second into the earth as a whole.
The earth, however, does not get discharged since thunderstorms and lightning occurring
continually all over the globe pump an equal amount of negative
negative charge on the earth.)

Answer

We do not get an electric shock as we step out of our house because the original
equipotential surfaces of open air changes, keeping our body and the ground at the same
potential.

Yes, the man will get an electric shock

shock if he touches the metal slab next morning. The
steady discharging current in the atmosphere charges up the aluminium sheet. As a result,
its voltage rises gradually. The raise in the voltage depends on the capacitance of the
capacitor formed by the aluminium
alum slab and the ground.

The occurrence of thunderstorms and lightning charges the atmosphere continuously.

Hence, even with the presence of discharging current of 1800 A, the atmosphere is not
discharged completely. The two opposing currents are in equilibrium
equilibrium and the atmosphere
remains electrically neutral.
During lightning and thunderstorm, light energy, heat energy, and sound energy are
dissipated in the atmosphere.
Question 3.1:

The storage battery of a car has an emf of 12 V. If the internal resistance of the battery is
0.4Ω, what is the maximum current that can be drawn from the battery?

Answer

Emf of the battery, E = 12 V

Internal resistance of the battery, r = 0.4 Ω

Maximum current drawn from the battery = I

According to Ohm’s law,

The maximum current drawn from the given battery is 30 A.

Question 3.2:

A battery of emf 10 V and internal resistance 3 Ω is connected

connected to a resistor. If the current
in the circuit is 0.5 A, what is the resistance of the resistor? What is the terminal voltage
of the battery when the circuit is closed?

Answer

Emf of the battery, E = 10 V

Internal resistance of the battery, r = 3 Ω

Current in the circuit, I = 0.5 A

Resistance of the resistor = R

The relation for current using Ohm’s law is,

Terminal voltage of the resistor = V

According to Ohm’s law,

V = IR

= 0.5 × 17

= 8.5 V

Therefore, the resistance of the resistor is 17 Ω and the terminal voltage is

8.5 V.

Question 3.3:

Three resistors 1 Ω, 2 Ω, and 3 Ω are combined in series. What is the total resistance of
the combination?

If the combination is connected to a battery of emf 12 V and negligible internal

resistance, obtain the potential drop across each resistor.

Answer

Three resistors of resistances 1 Ω, 2 Ω, and 3 Ω are combined in series. Total resistance of

the combination is given by the algebraic sum of individual resistances.
Total resistance = 1 + 2 + 3 = 6 Ω

Current flowing through the circuit = I

Emf of the battery, E = 12 V

Total resistance of the circuit, R = 6 Ω

The relation for current using Ohm’s law is,

Potential drop across 1 Ω resistor = V1

From Ohm’s law, the value of V1 can be obtained as

V1 = 2 × 1= 2 V … (i)

Potential drop across 2 Ω resistor = V2

Again, from Ohm’s law, the value of V2 can be obtained as

V2 = 2 × 2= 4 V … (ii)

Potential drop across 3 Ω resistor = V3

Again, from Ohm’s law, the value of V3 can be obtained as

V3 = 2 × 3= 6 V … (iii)

Therefore, the potential drop across 1 Ω, 2 Ω, and 3 Ω resistors are 2 V, 4 V, and 6 V

respectively.

Question 3.4:

Three resistors 2 Ω, 4 Ω and 5 Ω are combined in parallel. What is the total resistance of
the combination?

If the combination is connected to a battery of emf 20 V and negligible internal

resistance, determine the current through each resistor, and the total current drawn from
the battery.

Answer
There are three resistors of resistances,

R1 = 2 Ω, R2 = 4 Ω, and R3 = 5 Ω

They are connected in parallel. Hence, total resistance (R) of the combination is given by,

Therefore, total resistance of the combination is .

Emf of the battery, V = 20 V

Current (I1) flowing through resistor R1 is given by,

Current (I2) flowing through resistor R2 is given by,

Current (I3) flowing through resistor R3 is given by,

Total current, I = I1 + I2 + I3 = 10 + 5 + 4 = 19 A
Therefore, the current through each resister is 10 A, 5 A, and 4 A respectively and the
total current is 19 A.

Question 3.5:

At room temperature (27.0 °C) the resistance of a heating element is 100 Ω. What is the
temperature of the element if the resistance is found to be 117 Ω, given that the
temperature coefficient of the material of the resistor is

Answer

Room temperature, T = 27°C

Resistance of the heating element at T, R = 100 Ω

Let T1 is the increased temperature of the filament.

Resistance of the heating element at T1, R1 = 117 Ω

Temperature co-efficient
efficient of the material of the filament,

Therefore, at 1027°C, the resistance of the element is 117Ω.

Question 3.6:
A negligibly small current is passed through a wire of length 15 m and uniform cross
cross-
section 6.0 × 10−7 m2, and its resistance is measured to be 5.0 Ω. What is the resistivity of
the material at the temperature of the experiment?

Answer

Length of the wire, l =15 m

section of the wire, a = 6.0 × 10−7 m2

Area of cross-section

Resistance of the material of the wire, R = 5.0 Ω

Resistivity of the material of the wire = ρ

Resistance is related with the resistivity as

Therefore, the resistivity of the material is 2 × 10−7 Ω m.

Question 3.7:

A silver wire has a resistance of 2.1 Ω at 27.5 °C, and a resistance of 2.7 Ω at 100 °C.
Determine the temperature coefficient of resistivity of silver.

Answer

Temperature, T1 = 27.5°C

Resistance of the silver wire at T1, R1 = 2.1 Ω

Temperature, T2 = 100°C

Resistance of the silver wire at T2, R2 = 2.7 Ω

Temperature coefficient of silver = α

It is related with temperature and resistance as

Therefore, the temperature coefficient of silver is 0.0039°C−1.

Question 3.8:

Aheating element using nichrome connected to a 230 V supply draws an initial current of
3.2 A which settles after a few seconds toa steady value of 2.8 A. What is the steady
temperature of the heating element if the room temperature is 27.0 °C? Temperature
coefficient of resistance of nichrome averaged over the temperature range involved is
1.70 × 10−4 °C −1.

Answer

Supply voltage, V = 230 V

Initial current drawn, I1 = 3.2 A

Initial resistance = R1, which is given by the relation,

Steady state value of the current, I2 = 2.8 A

Resistance at the steady state = R2, which is given as

 efficient of nichrome, α = 1.70 × 10−4 °C −1
Temperature co-efficient

Initial temperature of nichrome, T1= 27.0°C

Study state temperature reached by nichrome = T2

T2 can be obtained by the relation for α,

Therefore, the steady temperature of the heating element is 867.5°C

Question 3.9:

Determine the current in each branch of the network shown in fig 3.30:

Answer

Current flowing through various branches of the circuit is represented in the given figure.
I1 = Current flowing through the outer circuit

I2 = Current flowing through branch AB

I3 = Current flowing through branch AD

I2 − I4 = Current flowing through branch BC

I3 + I4 = Current flowing through branch CD

I4 = Current flowing through branch BD

For the closed circuit ABDA, potential is zero i.e.,

10I2 + 5I4 − 5I3 = 0

2I2 + I4 −I3 = 0

I3 = 2I2 + I4 … (1)

For the closed circuit BCDB, potential is zero i.e.,

5(I2 − I4) − 10(I3 + I4) − 5I4 = 0

5I2 + 5I4 − 10I3 − 10I4 − 5I4 = 0

5I2 − 10I3 − 20I4 = 0

I2 = 2I3 + 4I4 … (2)

For the closed circuit ABCFEA, potential is zero i.e.,

−10 + 10 (I1) + 10(I2) + 5(I2 − I4) = 0

10 = 15I2 + 10I1 − 5I4

3I2 + 2I1 − I4 = 2 … (3)

From equations (1) and (2), we obtain

I3 = 2(2I3 + 4I4) + I4

I3 = 4I3 + 8I4 + I4

3I3 = 9I4

3I4 = + I3 … (4)

Putting equation (4) in equation (1), we obtain

I3 = 2I2 + I4

4I4 = 2I2

I2 = − 2I4 … (5)

It is evident from the given figure that,

I1 = I3 + I2 … (6)

Putting equation (6) in equation (1), we obtain

3I2 +2(I3 + I2) − I4 = 2

5I2 + 2I3 − I4 = 2 … (7)

Putting equations (4) and (5) in equation (7), we obtain

5(−2 I4) + 2(− 3 I4) − I4 = 2

10I4 − 6I4 − I4 = 2

17I4 = − 2

Equation (4) reduces to

I3 = − 3(I4)
Therefore, current in branch

In branch BC =

In branch CD =

In branch AD

In branch BD =

Total current =

Question 3.10:

In a metre bridge [Fig. 3.27], the balance point is found to be at 39.5 cm from the end A,
when the resistor Y is of 12.5 Ω. Determine the resistance of X.. Why are the connections
between resistors in a Wheatstone or meter bridge made of thick copper strip
strips?

Determine the balance point of the bridge above if X and Y are interchanged.

What happens if the galvanometer and cell are interchanged at the balance point of the
bridge? Would the galvanometer show any current?
Answer

A metre bridge with resistors X and Y is represented in the given figure.

Balance point from end A, l1 = 39.5 cm

Resistance of the resistor Y = 12.5 Ω

Condition for the balance is given as,

Therefore, the resistance of resistor X is 8.2 Ω.

The connection between resistors in a Wheatstone or metre bridge is made of thick copper
strips to minimize the resistance, which is not taken into consideration in the bridge
formula.

If X and Y are interchanged, then l1 and 100−l1 get interchanged.

The balance point of the bridge will be 100−l1 from A.

100−l1 = 100 − 39.5 = 60.5 cm

Therefore, the balance point is 60.5 cm from A.

When the galvanometer and cell are interchanged at the balance point of the bridge, the
galvanometer will show no deflection. Hence, no current would flow through the
galvanometer.

Question 3.11:

A storage battery of emf 8.0 V and internal resistance 0.5 Ω is being charged by a 120 V
dc supply using a series resistor of 15.5 Ω. What is the terminal voltage of the battery
during charging? What is the purpose of having a series resistor in the charging circuit?

Answer

Emf of the storage battery, E = 8.0 V

Internal resistance of the battery, r = 0.5 Ω

DC supply voltage, V = 120 V

Resistance of the resistor, R = 15.5 Ω

Effective voltage in the circuit = V1

R is connected to the storage battery in series. Hence, it can be written as

V1 = V − E

V1 = 120 − 8 = 112 V

Current flowing in the circuit = I, which is given by the relation,

Voltage across resistor R given by the product, IR = 7 × 15.5 = 108.5 V

DC supply voltage = Terminal voltage of battery + Voltage drop across R

Terminal voltage of battery = 120 − 108.5 = 11.5 V

A series resistor in a charging circuit limits the current drawn from the external source.
The current will be extremely high in its absence. This is very dangerous.

Question 3.12:

In a potentiometer arrangement, a cell of emf 1.25 V gives a balance point at 35.0 cm

length of the wire. If the cell is replaced by another cell and the balance point shifts to
63.0 cm, what is the emf of the second cell?

Answer

Emf of the cell, E1 = 1.25 V

Balance point of the potentiometer, l1= 35 cm

The cell is replaced by another cell of emf E2.

New balance point of the potentiometer, l2 = 63 cm

Therefore, emf of the second cell is 2.25V.

Question 3.13:

The number density of free electrons

electrons in a copper conductor estimated in Example 3.1 is
8.5 × 1028 m−3. How long does an electron take to drift from one end of a wire 3.0 m long
cross-section of the wire is 2.0 × 10−6 m2 and it is carrying a
to its other end? The area of cross
current of 3.0 A.

Answer
Number density of free electrons in a copper conductor, n = 8.5 × 1028 m−3 Length of the
copper wire, l = 3.0 m

section of the wire, A = 2.0 × 10−6 m2

Area of cross-section

Current carried by the wire, I = 3.0 A, which is given by the relation,

I = nAeVd

Where,

e = Electric charge = 1.6 × 10−19 C

Vd = Drift velocity

Therefore, the time taken by an electron to drift from one end of the wire to the other is
2.7 × 104 s.

Question 3.14:

The earth’s surface has a negative surface charge density of 10−9 C m−2. The potential
difference of 400 kV between the top of the atmosphere and the surface results (due to the
low conductivity of the lower atmosphere) in a current of only 1800 A over the entire
globe. If there were no mechanism of sustaining
sustaining atmospheric electric field, how much
time (roughly) would be required to neutralise the earth’s surface? (This never happens in
practice because there is a mechanism to replenish electric charges, namely the continual
ifferent parts of the globe). (Radius of earth = 6.37 × 106
thunderstorms and lightning in ddifferent
m.)

Answer
Surface charge density of the earth, σ = 10−9 C m−2

Current over the entire globe, I = 1800 A

Radius of the earth, r = 6.37 × 106 m

Surface area of the earth,

A = 4πr2

= 4π × (6.37 × 106)2

= 5.09 × 1014 m2

Charge on the earth surface,

q=σ×A

= 10−9 × 5.09 × 1014

= 5.09 × 105 C

Time taken to neutralize the earth’s surface = t

Current,

Therefore, the time taken to neutralize the earth’s surface is 282.77 s.

Question 3.15:

Six lead-acid
acid type of secondary cells each of emf 2.0 V and internal resistance 0.015 Ω
are joined in series to provide a supply to a resistance of 8.5 Ω. What are the current
drawn from the supply and its terminal voltage?
A secondary cell after long use has an emf of 1.9 V and a large internal resistance of 380
Ω. What maximum current can be drawn from the cell? Could the cell drive the starting
motor of a car?

Answer

Number of secondary cells, n = 6

Emf of each secondary cell, E = 2.0 V

Internal resistance of each cell, r = 0.015 Ω

series resistor is connected to the combination of cells.

Resistance of the resistor, R = 8.5 Ω

Current drawn from the supply = I, which is given by the relation,

Terminal voltage, V = IR = 1.39 × 8.5 = 11.87 A

Therefore, the current drawn from the supply is 1.39 A and terminal voltage is

11.87 A.

After a long use, emf of the secondary cell, E = 1.9 V

Internal resistance of the cell, r = 380 Ω

Hence, maximum current

Therefore, the maximum current drawn from the cell is 0.005 A. Since a large current is
required to start the motor of a car, the cell cannot be used to start a motor.
Question 3.16:

Two wires of equal length, one of aluminium and the other of copper have the same
resistance. Which of the two wires is lighter? Hence explain why aluminium wires are
preferred for overhead power cables. (ρAl = 2.63 × 10−8 Ω m, ρCu = 1.72 × 10−8 Ω m,
Relative density of Al = 2.7, of Cu = 8.9.)

Answer

Resistivity of aluminium, ρAl = 2.63 × 10−8 Ω m

Relative density of aluminium, d1 = 2.7

Let l1 be the length of aluminium wire and m1 be its mass.

Resistance of the aluminium wire = R1

Area of cross-section of the aluminium wire = A1

Resistivity of copper, ρCu = 1.72 × 10−8 Ω m

Relative density of copper, d2 = 8.9

Let l2 be the length of copper wire and m2 be its mass.

Resistance of the copper wire = R2

Area of cross-section of the copper wire = A2

The two relations can be written as

It is given that,
And,

Mass of the aluminium wire,

m1 = Volume × Density

= A1l1 × d1 = A1 l1d1 … (3)

Mass of the copper wire,

m2 = Volume × Density

= A2l2 × d2 = A2 l2d2 … (4)

Dividing equation (3) by equation (4), we obtain

It can be inferred from this ratio that m1 is less than m2. Hence, aluminium is lighter than
copper.

Since aluminium is lighter, it is preferred for overhead power cables over copper.

Question 3.17:

What conclusion can you draw from the following observations on a resistor made of
alloy manganin?
 Current Voltage Current Voltage

A V A V

0.2 3.94 3.0 59.2

0.4 7.87 4.0 78.8

0.6 11.8 5.0 98.6

0.8 15.7 6.0 118.5

1.0 19.7 7.0 138.2

2.0 39.4 8.0 158.0

Answer

It can be inferred from the given table that the ratio of voltage with current is a constant,
which is equal to 19.7. Hence, manganin is an ohmic conductor i.e., the alloy obeys
Ohm’s law. According to Ohm’s law, the ratio of voltage with current is the re resistance of
the conductor. Hence, the resistance of manganin is 19.7 Ω.

Question 3.18:

Answer the following questions:

A steady current flows in a metallic conductor of non-uniform

non cross- section. Which of
these quantities is constant along the conductor: current, current density, electric field,
drift speed?

Is Ohm’s law universally applicable for all conducting elements?

If not, give examples of elements which do not obey Ohm’s law.

A low voltage supply from which one needs high currents must have
have very low internal
resistance. Why?

A high tension (HT) supply of, say, 6 kV must have a very large internal resistance.
Why?

Answer
When a steady current flows in a metallic conductor of non-uniform
non cross-section,
section, the
current flowing through the conductor is constant. Current density, electric field, and drift
speed are inversely proportional to the area of cross
cross-section.
section. Therefore, they are not
constant.

No, Ohm’s law is not universally applicable for all conducting elements. Vacuum diode
semi-conductor is a non-ohmic
ohmic conductor. Ohm’s law is not valid for it.

According to Ohm’s law, the relation for the potential is V = IR

Voltage (V)) is directly proportional to current (I).

(

R is the internal resistance of the source.

If V is low, then R must be very low, so that high current can be drawn from the source.

In order to prohibit the current from exceeding the safety limit, a high tension supply
must have a very large internal resistance. If the internal resistance is not large, then the
current
ent drawn can exceed the safety limits in case of a short circuit.

Question 3.19:

Choose the correct alternative:

Alloys of metals usually have (greater/less) resistivity than that of their constituent
metals.

Alloys usually have much (lower/higher) temperature coefficients of resistance than pure
metals.

The resistivity of the alloy manganin is nearly independent of/increases rapidly with
increase of temperature.

The resistivity of a typical insulator (e.g., amber) is greater than that of a metal by a factor
of the order of (1022/103).

Answer
Alloys of metals usually have greater resistivity than that of their constituent metals.

Alloys usually have lower temperature coefficients of resistance than pure metals.

The resistivity of the alloy, manganin, is nearly independent of increase of temperature.

The resistivity of a typical insulator is greater than that of a metal by a factor of the order
of 1022.

Question 3.20:

Given n resistors each of resistance R,, how will you combine them to get the (i)
maximum (ii) minimum effective resistance? What is the ratio of the maximum to
minimum resistance?

Given the resistances of 1 Ω, 2 Ω, 3 Ω, how will be combine them to get an equivalent

resistance of (i) (11/3) Ω (ii)
ii) (11/5) Ω, (iii) 6 Ω, (iv) (6/11) Ω?

Determine the equivalent resistance of networks shown in Fig. 3.31.

Answer

Total number of resistors = n

Resistance of each resistor = R

When n resistors are connected in series, effective resistance R1is the maximum, given by
the product nR.
Hence, maximum resistance of the combination, R1 = nR

When n resistors are connected in parallel, the effective resistance (R2) is the minimum,

given by the ratio .

Hence, minimum resistance of the combination, R2 =

The ratio of the maximum to the minimum resistance is,

The resistance of the given resistors is,

R1 = 1 Ω, R2 = 2 Ω, R3 = 3 Ω2

Equivalent resistance,

Consider the following combination of the resistors.

Equivalent resistance of the circuit is given by,

Equivalent resistance,

Consider the following combination of the resistors.

Equivalent resistance of the circuit is given by,

Equivalent resistance, R’ = 6 Ω
Consider the series combination of the resistors, as shown in the given circuit.

Equivalent resistance of the circuit is given by the sum,

R’ = 1 + 2 + 3 = 6 Ω

Equivalent resistance,

Consider the series combination of the resistors, as shown in the given circuit.

Equivalent resistance of the circuit is given by,

(a) It can be observed from the given circuit that in the first small loop, two resistors of
resistance 1 Ω each are connected in series.

Hence, their equivalent resistance = (1+1) = 2 Ω

It can also be observed that two resistors of resistance 2 Ω each are connected in series.

Hence, their equivalent resistance = (2 + 2) = 4 Ω.

Therefore, the circuit can be redrawn as

It can be observed that 2 Ω and 4 Ω resistors are connected in parallel in all the four
loops. Hence, equivalent resistance (R’) of each loop is given by,

The circuit reduces to,

All the four resistors are connected in series.

Hence, equivalent resistance of the given circuit is

It can be observed from the given circuit that five resistors of resistance R each are
connected in series.

Hence, equivalent resistance of the circuit = R + R + R + R + R

=5R

Question 3.21:

Determine the current drawn from a 12 V supply with internal resistance 0.5 Ω by the
infinite network shown in Fig. 3.32. Each resistor has 1 Ω resistance.

Answer

The resistance of each resistor connected in the given circuit, R = 1 Ω

Equivalent resistance of the given circuit = R’

The network is infinite. Hence, equivalent resistance is given by the relation,

Negative value of R’ cannot be accepted. Hence, equivalent resistance,

Internal resistance of the circuit, r = 0.5 Ω

Hence, total resistance of the given circuit = 2.73 + 0.5 = 3.23 Ω

Supply voltage, V = 12 V

According to Ohm’s Law, current drawn from the source is given by the ratio, =
3.72 A

Question 3.22:

Figure 3.33 shows a potentiometer with a cell of 2.0 V and internal resistance 0.40 Ω
maintaining a potential drop across the resistor wire AB. A standard cell which maintains
a constant emf of 1.02 V (for very moderate currents up to a few mA) gives a balance
point at 67.3 cm length of the wire. To ensure very low currents drawn from the standard
cell, a very high resistance of 600 kΩ is put in series with it, which is shorted close to the
balance point. The standard cell is then replaced
re by a cell of unknown emf ε and the
balance point found similarly, turns out to be at 82.3 cm length of the wire.
 What is the value ε ?

What purpose does the high resistance of 600 kΩ have?

Is the balance point affected by this high resistance?

Is the balance point affected by the internal resistance of the driver cell?

Would the method work in the above situation if the driver cell of the
potentiometer had an emf of 1.0 V instead of 2.0 V?

(f ) Would the circuit work well for determining an extremely small emf, say of the order
of a few mV (such as the typical emf of a thermo-couple)? If not, how will you modify
the circuit?

Answer

Constant emf of the given standard cell, E1 = 1.02 V

Balance point on the wire, l1 = 67.3 cm

A cell of unknown emf, ε,replaced the standard cell. Therefore, new balance point on the
wire, l = 82.3 cm

The relation connecting emf and balance point is,

The value of unknown emfis 1.247 V.

The purpose of using the high resistance of 600 kΩ is to reduce the current through the
galvanometer when the movable contact is far from the balance point.

The balance point is not affected by the presence of high resistance.

The point is not affected by the internal resistance of the driver cell.
The method
thod would not work if the driver cell of the potentiometer had an emf of 1.0 V
instead of 2.0 V. This is because if the emf of the driver cell of the potentiometer is less
than the emf of the other cell, then there would be no balance point on the wire.

The
he circuit would not work well for determining an extremely small emf. As the circuit
would be unstable, the balance point would be close to end A. Hence, there would be a
large percentage of error.

The given circuit can be modified if a series resistance is connected with the wire AB.
The potential drop across AB is slightly greater than the emf measured. The percentage
error would be small.

Question 3.23:

Figure 3.34 shows a potentiometer circuit for comparison of two resistances. The balance
point with a standard resistor R = 10.0 Ω is found to be 58.3 cm, while that with the
unknown resistance X is 68.5 cm. Determine the value of X.. What might you do if yyou
failed to find a balance point with the given cell of emf ε?

Answer

Resistance of the standard resistor, R = 10.0 Ω

Balance point for this resistance, l1 = 58.3 cm

Current in the potentiometer wire = i

Hence, potential drop across R, E1 = iR

Resistance of the unknown resistor = X

Balance point for this resistor, l2 = 68.5 cm

Hence, potential drop across X, E2 = iX

The relation connecting emf and balance point is,

Therefore, the value of the unknown resistance, X, is 11.75 Ω.

If we fail to find
ind a balance point with the given cell of emf, ε,, then the potential drop
across R and X must be reduced by putting a resistance in series with it. Only if the
potential drop across R or X is smaller than the potential drop across the potentiometer
wire AB,
B, a balance point is obtained.

Question 3.24:

Figure 3.35 shows a 2.0 V potentiometer used for the determination of internal resistance
of a 1.5 V cell. The balance point of the cell in open circuit is 76.3 cm. When a resistor of
9.5 Ω is used in the external circuit of the cell, the balance point shifts to 64.8 cm length
of the potentiometer wire. Determine the internal resistance of the cell.

Answer
Internal resistance of the cell = r

Balance point of the cell in open circuit, l1 = 76.3 cm

An external resistance (R)) is connected to the circuit with R = 9.5 Ω

New balance point of the circuit, l2 = 64.8 cm

Current flowing through the circuit = I

The relation connecting resistance and emf is,

Therefore, the internal resistance of the cell is 1.68Ω.

Question 4.1:

A circular coil of wire consisting of 100 turns, each of radius 8.0 cm carries a current of
0.40 A. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field B at the centre of the coil?

Answer

Number of turns on the circular coil, n = 100

Radius of each turn, r = 8.0 cm = 0.08 m

Current flowing in the coil, I = 0.4 A

Magnitude of the magnetic field at the centre of the coil is given by the relation,

Where,

= Permeability of free space

= 4π × 10–7 T m A–1

Hence, the magnitude of the magnetic field is 3.14 × 10–4 T.

Question 4.2:

A long straight wire carries a current of 35 A. What is the magnitude of the field B at a
point 20 cm from the wire?

Answer
Current in the wire, I = 35 A

Distance of a point from the wire, r = 20 cm = 0.2 m

Magnitude of the magnetic field at this point is given as:

Where,

= Permeability of free space = 4π × 10–7 T m A–1

Hence, the magnitude of the magnetic field at a point 20 cm from the wire is 3.5 × 10–5 T.

Question 4.3:

A long
ong straight wire in the horizontal plane carries a current of 50 A in north to south
direction. Give the magnitude and direction of B at a point 2.5 m east of the wire.

Answer

Current in the wire, I = 50 A

A point is 2.5 m away from the East of the wire.

Magnitude of the distance of the point from the wire, r = 2.5 m.

Magnitude of the magnetic field at that point is given by the relation, B

Where,
 = Permeability of free space = 4π × 10–7 T m A–1

The point is located normal to the wire length at a distance of 2.5 m. The direction of the
current in the wire is vertically downward. Hence, according to the Maxwell’s right hand
thumb rule, the direction of the magnetic field at the given point is vertically
vertically upward.

Question 4.4:

A horizontal overhead power line carries a current of 90 A in east to west direction. What
is the magnitude and direction of the magnetic field due to the current 1.5 m below the
line?

Answer

Current in the power line, I = 90 A

Point is located below the power line at distance, r = 1.5 m

Hence, magnetic field at that point is given by the relation,

Where,

= Permeability of free space = 4π × 10–7 T m A–1

The current is flowing from East to West. The point is below the power line. Hence,
according to Maxwell’s right hand thumb rule, the direction of the magnetic field is
towards the South.
Question 4.5:

What is the magnitude of magnetic force per unit length on a wire carrying a current of 8
A and making an angle of 30º with the direction of a uniform magnetic field of 0.15 T?

Answer

Current in the wire, I = 8 A

Magnitude of the uniform magnetic field,

fie B = 0.15 T

Angle between the wire and magnetic field, θ = 30°.

Magnetic force per unit length on the wire is given as:

f = BI sinθ

= 0.15 × 8 ×1 × sin30°

= 0.6 N m–1

Hence, the magnetic force per unit length on the wire is 0.6 N m–1.

Question 4.6:

A 3.0 cm wire carrying a current of 10 A is placed inside a solenoid perpendicular to its

axis. The magnetic field inside the solenoid is given to be 0.27 T. What is the magnetic
force on the wire?

Answer

Length of the wire, l = 3 cm = 0.03 m

Current flowing in the wire, I = 10 A

Magnetic field, B = 0.27 T

Angle between the current and magnetic field, θ = 90°

Magnetic force exerted on the wire is given as:

F = BIlsinθ

= 0.27 × 10 × 0.03 sin90°

= 8.1 × 10–2 N

Hence, the magnetic force on the wire is 8.1 × 10–2 N. The direction of the force can be
obtained from Fleming’s left hand rule.

Question 4.7:

Two long and parallel straight wires A and B carrying currents of 8.0 A and 5.0 A in the
same direction are separated by a distance of 4.0 cm. Estimate the force on a 10 cm
section of wire A.

Answer

Current flowing in wire A, IA = 8.0 A

Current flowing in wire B, IB = 5.0 A

Distance between the two wires, r = 4.0 cm = 0.04 m

Length of a section of wire A, l = 10 cm = 0.1 m

Force exerted on length l due to the magnetic field is given as:

Where,

= Permeability of free space = 4π × 10–7 T m A–1

The magnitude of force is 2 × 10–5 N. This is an attractive force normal to A towards B
because the direction of the currents in the wires is the same.

Question 4.8:

A closely wound solenoid 80 cm long has 5 layers of windings of 400 turns each. The
diameter of the solenoid is 1.8 cm. If the current carried is 8.0 A, estimate the magnitude
of B inside the solenoid near its centre.

Answer

Length of the solenoid, l = 80 cm = 0.8 m

There are five layers of windings of 400 turns each on the solenoid.

Total number of turns on the solenoid, N = 5 × 400 = 2000

Diameter of the solenoid, D = 1.8 cm = 0.018 m

Current carried by the solenoid, I = 8.0 A

Magnitude of the magnetic field inside the solenoid near its centre is given by the
relation,

Where,

= Permeability of free space = 4π × 10–7 T m A–1

Hence, the magnitude of the magnetic field inside the solenoid near its centre is 2.512 ×
10–2 T.

Question 4.9:

A square coil of side 10 cm consists of 20 turns and carries a current of 12 A. The coil is
suspended vertically and the normal to the plane of the coil makes an angle of 30º with
the direction of a uniform horizontal magnetic field of magnitude 0.80 T. What is the
magnitude of torque experienced by the coil?

Answer

Length of a side of the square coil, l = 10 cm = 0.1 m

Current flowing in the coil, I = 12 A

Number of turns on the coil, n = 20

Angle made by the plane of the coil with magnetic field, θ = 30°

Strength of magnetic field, B = 0.80 T

Magnitude of the magnetic

ic torque experienced by the coil in the magnetic field is given
by the relation,

τ = n BIA sinθ

Where,

A = Area of the square coil

l × l = 0.1 × 0.1 = 0.01 m2

∴ τ = 20 × 0.8 × 12 × 0.01 × sin30°

= 0.96 N m

Hence, the magnitude of the torque experienced by the coil is 0.96 N m.

Question 4.10:
Two moving coil meters, M1 and M2 have the following particulars:

R1 = 10 Ω, N1 = 30,

A1 = 3.6 × 10–3 m2, B1 = 0.25 T

R2 = 14 Ω, N2 = 42,

A2 = 1.8 × 10–3 m2, B2 = 0.50 T

(The spring constants are identical for the two meters).

Determine the ratio of (a) current sensitivity and (b) voltage sensitivity of M2 and M1.

Answer

For moving coil meter M1:

Resistance, R1 = 10 Ω

Number of turns, N1 = 30

Area of cross-section, A1 = 3.6 × 10–3 m2

Magnetic field strength, B1 = 0.25 T

Spring constant K1 = K

For moving coil meter M2:

Resistance, R2 = 14 Ω

Number of turns, N2 = 42

Area of cross-section, A2 = 1.8 × 10–3 m2

Magnetic field strength, B2 = 0.50 T

Spring constant, K2 = K

Current sensitivity of M1 is given as:

And, current sensitivity of M2 is given as:

Ratio

Hence, the ratio of current sensitivity of M2 to M1 is 1.4.

Voltage sensitivity for M2 is given as:

And, voltage sensitivity for M1 is given as:

Ratio

Hence, the ratio of voltage sensitivity of M2 to M1 is 1.

Question 4.11:

In a chamber, a uniform magnetic field of 6.5 G (1 G = 10–4 T) is maintained. An electron

is shot into the field with a speed of 4.8 × 106 m s–1 normal to the field. Explain why the
( = 1.6 × 10–19
path of the electron is a circle. Determine the radius of the circular orbit. (e
–31
C, me= 9.1×10 kg)

Answer
Magnetic field strength, B = 6.5 G = 6.5 × 10–4 T

Speed of the electron, v = 4.8 × 106 m/s

Charge on the electron, e = 1.6 × 10–19 C

Mass of the electron, me = 9.1 × 10–31 kg

Angle between the shot electron and magnetic field, θ = 90°

Magnetic force exerted on the electron in the magnetic field is given as:

F = evB sinθ

This force provides centripetal force to the moving electron. Hence, the electron starts
moving in a circular path of radius r.

Hence, centripetal force exerted on the electron,

In equilibrium, the centripetal force exerted on the electron is equal to the magnetic force
i.e.,

Hence, the radius of the circular orbit of the electron is 4.2 cm.

Question 4.12:

In Exercise 4.11 obtain the frequency of revolution of the electron in its circular orbit.
Does the answer depend on the speed of the electron?
elect Explain.
Answer

Magnetic field strength, B = 6.5 × 10−4 T

Charge of the electron, e = 1.6 × 10−19 C

Mass of the electron, me = 9.1 × 10−31 kg

Velocity of the electron, v = 4.8 × 106 m/s

Radius of the orbit, r = 4.2 cm = 0.042 m

Frequency of revolution of the electron = ν

Angular frequency of the electron = ω = 2πν

Velocity of the electron is related to the angular frequency as:

v = rω

In the circular orbit, the magnetic force on the electron is balanced by the centripetal
force. Hence, we can write:

This expression for frequency is independent of the speed of the electron.

On substituting the known values in this expression, we get the frequency as:

Hence, the frequency of the electron is around 18 MHz and is independent of the speed of
the electron.
Question 4.13:

A circular coil of 30 turns and radius 8.0 cm carrying a current of 6.0 A is suspended
vertically in a uniform horizontal magnetic field of magnitude 1.0 T. The field lines make
an angle of 60º with the normal of the coil. Calculate the magnitude of the counter torque
that must be applied to prevent the coil from turning.

Would your answer change, if the circular coil in (a) were replaced by a planar coil of
some irregular shape that encloses the same are
area?
a? (All other particulars are also
unaltered.)

Answer

Number of turns on the circular coil, n = 30

Radius of the coil, r = 8.0 cm = 0.08 m

Area of the coil

Current flowing in the coil, I = 6.0 A

Magnetic field strength, B = 1 T

Angle between the field lines and normal with the coil surface,

θ = 60°

The coil experiences a torque in the magnetic field. Hence, it turns. The counter torque
applied to prevent the coil from turning is given by the relation,

τ = n IBA sinθ … (i)

= 30 × 6 × 1 × 0.0201 × sin60°

= 3.133 N m

It can be inferred from relation (i)

( ) that the magnitude of the applied torque is not
dependent on the shape of the coil. It depends on the area of the coil. Hence, the answer
would not change if the circular coil in the
the above case is replaced by a planar coil of some
irregular shape that encloses the same area.
Question 4.14:

Two concentric circular coils X and Y of radii 16 cm and 10 cm, respectively, lie in the
same vertical plane containing the north to south direction. Coil X has 20 turns and
carries a current of 16 A; coil Y has 25 turns and carries a current of 18 A. The sense of
the current in X is anticlockwise, and clockwise in Y, for an observer looking at the coils
facing west. Give the magnitude and direction
direction of the net magnetic field due to the coils at
their centre.

Answer

Radius of coil X, r1 = 16 cm = 0.16 m

Radius of coil Y, r2 = 10 cm = 0.1 m

Number of turns of on coil X, n1 = 20

Number of turns of on coil Y, n2 = 25

Current in coil X, I1 = 16 A

Current in coil Y, I2 = 18 A

Magnetic field due to coil X at their centre is given by the relation,

Where,

= Permeability of free space =

Magnetic field due to coil Y at their centre is given by the relation,

Hence, net magnetic field can be obtained as:

Question 4.15:

A magnetic field of 100 G (1 G = 10−4 T) is required which is uniform in a region of

linear dimension about 10 cm and area of cross-section
cross about 10−3 m2. The maximum
current-carrying capacity of a given coil of wire is 15 A and the number of turns per unit
length that can be wound round a core is at most 1000 turns m−1. Suggest some
appropriate design particulars of a solenoid for the required purpose. Assume the core is
not ferromagnetic

Answer

Magnetic field strength, B = 100 G = 100 × 10−4 T

Number of turns per unit length, n = 1000 turns m−1

Current flowing in the coil, I = 15 A

Permeability of free space, =

Magnetic field is given by the relation,

If the length of the coil is taken as 50 cm, radius 4 cm, number of turns 400, and current
10 A, then these values are not unique for the given purpose. There is always a possibility
of some adjustments with limits.

Question 4.16:

For a circular coil of radius R and N turns carrying current I,, the magnitude of the
magnetic field at a point on its axis at a distance x from its centre is given by,

Show that this reduces to the familiar result for field at the centre of the coil.

Consider two parallel co-axial

axial circular coils of equal radius R,, and number of turns N,
carrying equal currents in the same direction, and separated by a distance R.. Show that
the field on the axis around the mid-point
mid point between the coils is uniform over a ddistance
that is small as compared to R,
R and is given by,

, approximately.

[Such an arrangement to produce a nearly uniform magnetic field over a small region is
known as Helmholtz coils.]

Answer

Radius of circular coil = R

Number of turns on the coil

il = N

Current in the coil = I

Magnetic field at a point on its axis at distance x is given by the relation,

Where,

= Permeability of free space

If the magnetic field at the centre of the coil is considered, then x = 0.

This is the familiar result for magnetic field at the centre of the coil.

Radii of two parallel co-axial circular coils = R

Number of turns on each coil = N

Current in both coils = I

Distance between both the coils = R

Let us consider point Q at distance d from the centre.

Then, one coil is at a distance of from point Q.

Magnetic field at point Q is given as:

Also, the other coil is at a distance of from point Q.

Magnetic field due to this coil is given as:

Total magnetic field,

Hence, it is proved that the field

fi on the axis around the mid-point
point between the coils is
uniform.

Question 4.17:

A toroid has a core (non-ferromagnetic)

ferromagnetic) of inner radius 25 cm and outer radius 26 cm,
around which 3500 turns of a wire are wound. If the current in the wire is 11 A, what is
the magnetic field (a) outside the toroid, (b) inside the core of the toroid, and (c) in the
empty space surrounded by the toroid.

Answer
Inner radius of the toroid, r1 = 25 cm = 0.25 m

Outer radius of the toroid, r2 = 26 cm = 0.26 m

Number of turns on the coil, N = 3500

Current in the coil, I = 11 A

Magnetic field outside a toroid is zero. It is non-zero

non zero only inside the core of a toroid.

Magnetic field inside the core of a toroid is given by the relation,

B=

Where,

= Permeability of free
ee space =

l = length of toroid

Magnetic field in the empty space surrounded by the toroid is zero.

Question 4.18:

Answer the following questions:

A magnetic field that varies in magnitude from point to point but has a constant direction
(east to west) is set up in a chamber. A charged particle enters the chamber and travels
undeflected along a straight path with constant speed. What can you say abou
about the initial
velocity of the particle?

A charged particle enters an environment of a strong and non-uniform

non uniform magnetic field
varying from point to point both in magnitude and direction, and comes out of it
following a complicated trajectory. Would its final speed equal the initial speed if it
suffered no collisions with the environment?
An electron travelling west to east enters a chamber having a uniform electrostatic field in
north to south direction. Specify the direction in which a uniform magnetic field should
be set up to prevent the electron from deflecting from its straight line path.

Answer

The initial velocity of the particle is either parallel or anti

anti-parallel
parallel to the magnetic field.
Hence, it travels along a straight path without suffering any deflection in the field.

Yes, the final speed of the charged particle will be equal to its initial speed. This is
because magnetic force can change the direction of velocity, but not its magnitude.

An electron travelling from West to East enters a chamber

chamber having a uniform electrostatic
field in the North-South
South direction. This moving electron can remain undeflected if the
electric force acting on it is equal and opposite of magnetic field. Magnetic force is
directed towards the South. According to Fleming’s
Fleming’s left hand rule, magnetic field should
be applied in a vertically downward direction.

Question 4.19:

An electron emitted by a heated cathode and accelerated through a potential difference of

2.0 kV, enters a region with uniform magnetic field of 0.15 T. Determine the trajectory of
the electron if the field (a) is transverse to its initial velocity, (b) makes an angle of 30º
with the initial velocity.

Answer

Magnetic field strength, B = 0.15 T

Charge on the electron, e = 1.6 × 10−19 C

Mass of the electron, m = 9.1 × 10−31 kg

Potential difference, V = 2.0 kV = 2 × 103 V

Thus, kinetic energy of the electron = eV

Where,

v = velocity of the electron

Magnetic force on the electron provides the required centripetal force of the electron.
Hence, the electron traces a circular path of radius r.

Magnetic force on the electron is given by the relation,

B ev

Centripetal force

From equations (1) and (2), we get

Hence, the electron has a circular trajectory of radius 1.0 mm normal to the magnetic
field.

When the field makes an angle θ of 30° with initial velocity, the initial velocity will be,

From equation (2), we can write the expression for new radius as:
Hence, the electron has a helical trajectory of radius 0.5 mm along the magnetic field
direction.

Question 4.20:

A magnetic field set up using Helmholtz coils (described in Exercise 4.16) is uniform in a
small region and has a magnitude of 0.75 T. In the same region, a uniform electrostatic
field is maintained in a direction
ection normal to the common axis of the coils. A narrow beam
of (single species) charged particles all accelerated through 15 kV enters this region in a
direction perpendicular to both the axis of the coils and the electrostatic field. If the beam
remains undeflected when the electrostatic field is 9.0 × 10−5 V m−1, make a simple guess
as to what the beam contains. Why is the answer not unique?

Answer

Magnetic field, B = 0.75 T

Accelerating voltage, V = 15 kV = 15 × 103 V

Electrostatic field, E = 9 × 105 V m−1

Mass of the electron = m

Charge of the electron = e

Velocity of the electron = v

Kinetic energy of the electron = eV

Since the particle remains undeflected by electric and magnetic fields, we can infer that
the electric field is balancing the magnetic field.

Putting equation (2) in equation (1), we get

This value of specific charge e/m is equal to the value of deuteron or deuterium ions. This
ique answer. Other possible answers are He++, Li++, etc.
is not a unique

Question 4.21:

A straight horizontal conducting rod of length 0.45 m and mass 60 g is suspended by two
vertical wires at its ends. A current of 5.0 A is set up in the rod through the wires.

What magnetic field should be set up normal to the conductor in order that the tension in
the wires is zero?

What will be the total tension in the wires if the direction of current is reversed keeping
the magnetic field same as before? (Ignore the mass of the wires.) g = 9.8 m s−2.

Answer

Length of the rod, l = 0.45 m

Mass suspended by the wires, m = 60 g = 60 × 10−3 kg

Acceleration due to gravity, g = 9.8 m/s2

Current in the rod flowing through the wire, I = 5 A

Magnetic field (B)) is equal and opposite to the weight of the wire i.e.,

A horizontal magnetic field of 0.26 T normal to the length of the conductor should be set
up in order to get zero tension in the wire. The magnetic field should be such that
Fleming’s left hand rule gives an upward
upwar magnetic force.

If the direction of the current is revered, then the force due to magnetic field and the
weight of the wire acts in a vertically downward direction.

∴Total tension in the wire = BIl + mg

Question 4.22:

The wires which connect the battery of an automobile to its starting motor carry a current
of 300 A (for a short time). What is the force per unit length between the wires if they are
70 cm long and 1.5 cm apart? Is the force attractive or repulsive?

Answer

Current in both wires, I = 300 A

Distance between the wires, r = 1.5 cm = 0.015 m

Length of the two wires, l = 70 cm = 0.7 m

Force between the two wires is given by the relation,

Where,

= Permeability of free space =

Since the direction of the current in the wires is opposite, a repulsive force exists between
them.

Question 4.23:

A uniform magnetic field of 1.5 T exists in a cylindrical region of radius10.0 cm, its
direction parallel to the axis along east to west. A wire carrying current of 7.0 A in the
north
rth to south direction passes through this region. What is the magnitude and direction
of the force on the wire if,

the wire intersects the axis,

the wire is turned from N-S

S to northeast-northwest
northeast direction,

the wire in the N-S

S direction is lowered from the
the axis by a distance of 6.0 cm?

Answer

Magnetic field strength, B = 1.5 T

Radius of the cylindrical region, r = 10 cm = 0.1 m

Current in the wire passing through the cylindrical region, I = 7 A

If the wire intersects the axis, then the length of the wire is the diameter of the cylindrical
region.
Thus, l = 2r = 0.2 m

Angle between magnetic field and current, θ = 90°

Magnetic force acting on the wire is given by the relation,

F = BIl sin θ

= 1.5 × 7 × 0.2 × sin 90°

= 2.1 N

Hence, a force of 2.1 N acts on the wire in a vertically downward direction.

New length of the wire after turning it to the Northeast-Northwest direction can be given
as: :

Angle between magnetic field and current, θ = 45°

Force on the wire,

F = BIl1 sin θ

Hence, a force of 2.1 N acts vertically downward on the wire. This is independent of
angleθbecause l sinθ is fixed.

The wire is lowered from the axis by distance, d = 6.0 cm

Let l2 be the new length of the wire.

Magnetic force exerted on the wire,

Hence, a force of 1.68 N acts in a vertically downward direction on the wire.

Question 4.24:

A uniform magnetic field of 3000 G is established along the positive z-direction.

direction. A
rectangular loop of sides 10 cm and 5 cm carries a current of 12 A. What
What is the torque on
the loop in the different cases shown in Fig. 4.28? What is the force on each case? Which
case corresponds to stable equilibrium?

Answer

Magnetic field strength, B = 3000 G = 3000 × 10−4 T = 0.3 T

Length of the rectangular loop, l = 10 cm

Width of the rectangular loop, b = 5 cm

Area of the loop,

A = l × b = 10 × 5 = 50 cm2 = 50 × 10−4 m2
Current in the loop, I = 12 A

Now, taking the anti-clockwise direction of the current as positive and vise-versa:

Torque,

From the given figure, it can be observed that A is normal to the y-z plane and B is
directed along the z-axis.

The torque is N m along the negative y-direction. The force on the loop is zero
because the angle between A and B is zero.

This case is similar to case (a). Hence, the answer is the same as (a).

Torque

From the given figure, it can be observed that A is normal to the x-z plane and B is
directed along the z-axis.

The torque is N m along the negative x direction and the force is zero.

Magnitude of torque is given as:

Torque is N m at an angle of 240° with positive x direction. The force is zero.

Torque

Hence, the torque is zero. The force is also zero.

Torque
Hence, the torque is zero. The force is also zero.

In case (e), the direction of and iss the same and the angle between them is zero. If
displaced, they come back to an equilibrium. Hence, its equilibrium is stable.

Whereas, in case (f), the direction of and is opposite. The angle between them is
180°. If disturbed, it does not come back to
to its original position. Hence, its equilibrium is
unstable.

Question 4.25:

A circular coil of 20 turns and radius 10 cm is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.10
T normal to the plane of the coil. If the current in the coil is 5.0 A, what is the

total torque on the coil,

total force on the coil,

average force on each electron in the coil due to the magnetic field?

(The coil is made of copper wire of cross-sectional

cross area 10−5 m2, and the free electron
29 −3
density in copper is given to be about 10 m .)

Answer

Number of turns on the circular coil, n = 20

Radius of the coil, r = 10 cm = 0.1 m

Magnetic field strength, B = 0.10 T

Current in the coil, I = 5.0 A

The total torque on the coil is zero because the field is uniform.

The total force on the coil is zero because the field is uniform.
 sectional area of copper coil, A = 10−5 m2
Cross-sectional

Number of free electrons per cubic meter in copper, N = 1029 /m3

Charge on the electron, e = 1.6 × 10−19 C

Magnetic force, F = Bevd

Where,

vd = Drift velocity of electrons

Hence, the average force on each electron is

Question 4.26:

A solenoid 60 cm long and of radius 4.0 cm has 3 layers of windings of 300 turns each. A
2.0 cm long wire of mass 2.5 g lies inside the solenoid (near its centre) normal to its axis;
both the wire and the axis of the solenoid are in the horizontal plane. The wire is
connected through two leads parallel to the axis of the solenoid to an external battery
which supplies a current of 6.0 A in the wire. What value of current (with
(with appropriate
sense of circulation) in the windings of the solenoid can support the weight of the wire? g
= 9.8 m s−2

Answer

Length of the solenoid, L = 60 cm = 0.6 m

Radius of the solenoid, r = 4.0 cm = 0.04 m

It is given that there are 3 layers of windings of 300 turns each.

Total number of turns, n = 3 × 300 = 900

Length of the wire, l = 2 cm = 0.02 m

Mass of the wire, m = 2.5 g = 2.5 × 10−3 kg

Current flowing through the wire, i = 6 A

Acceleration due to gravity, g = 9.8 m/s2

Magnetic field produced

oduced inside the solenoid,

Where,

= Permeability of free space =

I = Current flowing through the windings of the solenoid

Magnetic force is given by the relation,

Also, the force on the wire is equal to the weight of the wire.

Hence, the current flowing through the solenoid is 108 A.

Question 4.27:

A galvanometer coil has a resistance of 12 Ω and the metre shows full scale deflection for
a current of 3 mA. How will you convert the metre into a voltmeter of range 0 to 18 V?

Answer
Resistance of the galvanometer coil, G = 12 Ω

Current for which there is full scale deflection, = 3 mA = 3 × 10−3 A

Range of the voltmeter is 0, which needs to be converted to 18 V.

V = 18 V

Let a resistor of resistance R be connected in series with the galvanometer to convert it

into a voltmeter. This resistance is given as:

Hence, a resistor of resistance is to be connected in series with the galvanometer.

Question 4.28:

A galvanometer coil has a resistance of 15 Ω and the metre shows full scale deflection for
a current of 4 mA. How will you convert the metre into an ammeter of range 0 to 6 A?

Answer

Resistance of the galvanometer coil, G = 15 Ω

Current for which the galvanometer shows full scale deflection,

= 4 mA = 4 × 10−3 A

Range of the ammeter is 0, which needs to be converted to 6 A.

Current, I = 6 A

A shunt resistor of resistance S is to be connected in parallel with the galvanometer to

convert it into an ammeter. The value of S is given as:
Hence, a shunt resistor is to be connected in parallel with the galvanometer.
Question 5.1:

Answer the following questions regarding earth’s magnetism:

A vector needs three quantities for its specification. Name the three independent
quantities conventionally used to specify the earth’s magnetic field.

The angle of dip at a location in southern India is about 18º.

Would you expect a greater or smaller dip angle in Britain?

If you made a map of magnetic field lines at Melbourne in Australia, would the lines
seem to go into the ground or come out of the ground?

In which direction would a compass free to move in the vertical plane point to, if located
right on the geomagnetic north or south pole?

The earth’s field, it is claimed, roughly approximates the field due to a dipole of magnetic
moment 8 × 1022 J T−1 located at its centre. Check the order of magnitude of this number
in some way.

(f ) Geologists claim that besides the main magnetic N-S poles, there are several local
poles on the earth’s surface oriented in different directions. How is such a thing possible
at all?

Answer

The three independent quantities conventionally used for specifying earth’s magnetic
field are:

Magnetic declination,

Angle of dip, and

Horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field

(b)The angle of dip at a point depends on how far the point is located with respect to the
North Pole or the South Pole. The angle of dip would be greater in Britain (it is about
70°) than in southern India because the location of Britain on the globe is closer to the
magnetic North Pole.

(c)It is hypothetically considered that a huge bar magnet is dipped inside earth with its
north pole near the geographic South Pole and its south pole near the geographic North
Pole.
Magnetic field lines emanate from a magnetic north pole and terminate at a magnetic
south pole. Hence, in a map depicting earth’s magnetic field lines, the field lines at
Melbourne, Australia would seem to come out of the ground.

If a compass is located on the geomagnetic North Pole or South Pole, then the compass
(d)If
will be free to move in the horizontal plane
plane while earth’s field is exactly vertical to the
magnetic poles. In such a case, the compass can point in any direction.

(e)Magnetic moment, M = 8 × 1022 J T−1

Radius of earth, r = 6.4 × 106 m

Magnetic field strength,

Where,

= Permeability of free space =

This quantity is of the order of magnitude of the observed field on earth.

Yes, there are several local poles on earth’s surface oriented in different directions. A
(f)Yes,
magnetised mineral deposit is an example of a local N N-S pole.

Question 5.2:

Answer the following questions:

The earth’s magnetic field varies from point to point in space.

Does it also change with time? If so, on what time scale does it change appreciably?

The earth’s core is known to contain iron. Yet geologists do not regard this as a
source of the earth’s magnetism. Why?

The charged currents in the outer conducting regions of the earth’s core are
thought to be responsible for earth’s magnetism. What might
might be the ‘battery’ (i.e.,
the source of energy) to sustain these currents?

The earth may have even reversed the direction of its field several times during its
history of 4 to 5 billion years. How can geologists know about the earth’s field in
such distant past?
 The earth’s field departs from its dipole shape substantially at large distances
(greater than about 30,000 km). What agencies may be responsible for this
distortion?

(f ) Interstellar space has an extremely weak magnetic field of the order of 10

10−12 T. Can
such a weak field be of any significant consequence? Explain.

[Note: Exercise 5.2 is meant mainly to arouse your curiosity. Answers to some questions
above are tentative or unknown. Brief answers wherever possible are given at the end. For
details, you should consult a good text on geomagnetism.]

Answer

Earth’s magnetic field changes with time. It takes a few hundred years to change by an
appreciable amount. The variation in earth’s magnetic field with the time cannot be
neglected.

(b)Earth’s core contains molten iron. This form of iron is not ferromagnetic. Hence, this
is not considered as a source of earth’s magnetism.

Theradioactivity in earth’s interior is the source of energy that sustains the currents in
(c)Theradioactivity
the outer conducting regions of earth’s core. These charged currents are considered to be
responsible for earth’s magnetism.

Earth reversed the direction of its field several times during its history of 4 to 5 billion
(d)Earth
years. These magnetic fields got weakly recorded in rocks during theirtheir solidification. One
can get clues about the geomagnetic history from the analysis of this rock magnetism.

Earth’s field departs from its dipole shape substantially at large distances (greater than
(e)Earth’s
about 30,000 km) because of the presence of the ionosphere.
ionosphere. In this region, earth’s field
gets modified because of the field of single ions. While in motion, these ions produce the
magnetic field associated with them.

An extremely weak magnetic field can bend charged particles moving in a circle. This
(f)An
may
ay not be noticeable for a large radius path. With reference to the gigantic interstellar
space, the deflection can affect the passage of charged particles.

Question 5.3:

A short bar magnet placed with its axis at 30º with a uniform external magnetic field of
0.25 T experiences a torque of magnitude equal to 4.5 × 10−2 J. What is the magnitude of
magnetic moment of the magnet?
Answer

Magnetic field strength, B = 0.25 T

Torque on the bar magnet, T = 4.5 × 10−2 J

Angle between the bar magnet

et and the external magnetic field,θ
field, = 30°

Torque is related to magnetic moment (M)

( as:

T = MB sin θ

Hence, the magnetic moment of the magnet is 0.36 J T−1.

Question 5.4:

A short bar magnet of magnetic moment m = 0.32 J T−1 is placed in a uniform magnetic
field of 0.15 T. If the bar is free to rotate in the plane of the field, which orientation would
correspond to its (a) stable, and (b) unstable equilibrium? What is the potential energy of
the magnet in each case?

Answer

Moment of the bar magnet, M = 0.32 J T−1

External magnetic field, B = 0.15 T

 The bar magnet is aligned along the magnetic field. This system is considered as being
(a)The
in stable equilibrium. Hence, the angle θ,, between the bar magnet and the magnetic field
is 0°.

Potential energy of the system

The bar magnet is oriented 180° to the magnetic field. Hence, it is in unstable
(b)The
equilibrium.

θ = 180°

Potential energy = − MB cos θ

Question 5.5:

A closely wound solenoid of 800 turns and area of cross section 2.5 × 10−4 m2 carries a
current of 3.0 A. Explain the sense in which the solenoid acts like a bar magnet. What is
its associated magnetic moment?

Answer

Number of turns in the solenoid, n = 800

Area of cross-section, A = 2.5 × 10−4 m2

Current in the solenoid, I = 3.0 A

A current-carrying
carrying solenoid behaves as a bar magnet because a magnetic field develops
along its axis, i.e., along its length.

The magnetic moment associated with the given current-carrying

current carrying solenoid is calculated
as:

M=nIA
= 800 × 3 × 2.5 × 10−4

= 0.6 J T−1

Question 5.6:

If the solenoid in Exercise 5.5 is free to turn about the vertical direction and a uniform
horizontal magnetic field of 0.25 T is applied, what is the magnitude of torque on the
solenoid when its axis makes an angle of 30° with the direction of applied field?

Answer

Magnetic field strength, B = 0.25 T

Magnetic moment, M = 0.6 T−1

The angle θ,, between the axis of the solenoid and the direction of the applied field is 30°.

Therefore, the torque

rque acting on the solenoid is given as:

Question 5.7:

A bar magnet of magnetic moment 1.5 J T−1 lies aligned with the direction of a uniform
magnetic field of 0.22 T.

What is the amount of work required by an external torque to turn the magnet so as to
align its magnetic moment: (i) normal to the field direction, (ii) opposite to the field
direction?

What is the torque on the magnet in cases (i) and (ii)?

Answer
(a)Magnetic moment, M = 1.5 J T−1

Magnetic field strength, B = 0.22 T

(i)Initial angle between the axis and the magnetic field, θ1 = 0°

Final angle between the axis and the magnetic field, θ2 = 90°

The work required to make the magnetic moment normal to the direction of magnetic
field is given as:

(ii) Initial angle between the axis and the magnetic field, θ1 = 0°

Final angle between the axis and the magnetic field, θ2 = 180°

The work required to make the magnetic moment opposite to the direction of magnetic
field is given as:

(b)For case (i):

∴Torque,

For case (ii):

∴Torque,
Question 5.8:

A closely wound solenoid of 2000 turns and area of cross-section

cross 1.6 × 10−4 m2, carrying
a current of 4.0 A, is suspended through its centre allowing it to turn in a horizontal plane.

What is the magnetic moment associated with the solenoid?

What is the force and torque on the solenoid if a uniform horizontal magnetic field of 7.5
× 10−2 T is set up at an angle of 30º with the axis of the solenoid?

Answer

Number of turns on the solenoid, n = 2000

section of the solenoid, A = 1.6 × 10−4 m2

Area of cross-section

Current in the solenoid, I = 4 A

The magnetic moment along the axis of the solenoid is calculated as:
(a)The

M = nAI

= 2000 × 1.6 × 10−4 × 4

= 1.28 Am2

(b)Magnetic field, B = 7.5 × 10−2 T

Angle between the magnetic field and the axis of the solenoid, θ = 30°

Torque,

Since the magnetic field is uniform, the force on the solenoid is zero. The torque on the
solenoid is
Question 5.9:

A circular coil of 16 turns and radius 10 cm carrying a current of 0.75 A rests with its
plane normal to an external field of magnitude 5.0 × 10−2 T. The coil is free to turn about
an axis in its plane perpendicular to the field direction. When the coil is turned slightly
and released, it oscillates about its stable equilibrium with a frequency of 2.0 s−1. What is
the moment of inertia of the coil about its axis of rotation?

Answer

Number of turns in the circular coil, N = 16

Radius of the coil, r = 10 cm = 0.1 m

Cross-section of the coil, A = πr2 = π × (0.1)2 m2

Current in the coil, I = 0.75 A

Magnetic field strength, B = 5.0 × 10−2 T

Frequency of oscillations of the coil, v = 2.0 s−1

∴Magnetic moment, M = NIA

= 16 × 0.75 × π × (0.1)2

= 0.377 J T−1

Where,

I = Moment of inertia of the coil

Hence, the moment of inertia of the coil about its axis of rotation is

Question 5.10:

A magnetic needle free to rotate in a vertical plane parallel to the magnetic meridian has
its north tip pointing down at 22º with the horizontal. The horizontal component of the
earth’s magnetic field at the place is known to be 0.35 G. Determine the magnitude of the
earth’s magnetic field at the place.

Answer

Horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field, BH = 0.35 G

Angle made by the needle wit

with the horizontal plane = Angle of dip =

Earth’s magnetic field strength = B

We can relate B and BHas:

Hence, the strength of earth’s magnetic field at the given location is 0.377 G.
Question 5.11:

At a certain location in Africa, a compass points 12º west of the geographic north. The
north tip of the magnetic needle of a dip circle placed in the plane of magnetic meridian
points 60º above the horizontal. The horizontal component of the earth’s field is measured
to be 0.16 G. Specify the direction
direction and magnitude of the earth’s field at the location.

Answer

Angle of declination,θ = 12°

Angle of dip,

Horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field, BH = 0.16 G

Earth’s magnetic field at the given location = B

We can relate B and BHas:

Earth’s magnetic field lies in the vertical plane, 12° West of the geographic meridian,
making an angle of 60° (upward) with the horizontal direction. Its magnitude is 0.32 G.

Question 5.12:

A short bar magnet has a magnetic moment of 0.48 J T−1. Give ive the direction and
magnitude of the magnetic field produced by the magnet at a distance of 10 cm from the
centre of the magnet on (a) the axis, (b) the equatorial lines (normal bisector) of the
magnet.

Answer
Magnetic moment of the bar magnet, M = 0.48 J T−1

Distance, d = 10 cm = 0.1 m

The magnetic field at distance d,, from the centre of the magnet on the axis is given by the
relation:

Where,

= Permeability of free space =

The magnetic field is along the S − N direction.

The magnetic field at a distance of 10 cm (i.e., d = 0.1 m) on the equatorial line of the
magnet is given as:

The magnetic field is along the N − S direction.

Question 5.13:
A short bar magnet placed in a horizontal plane has its axis aligned along the magnetic
north-south
south direction. Null points are found on the axis of the magnet at 14 cm from the
centre of the magnet. The earth’s magnetic field at the place is 0.36 G and the angle of dip
is zero. What is the total magnetic field on the normal bisector of the magnet at the same
−point (i.e., 14 cm) from the centre of the magnet? (At null points
distance as the null−point points,
field due to a magnet is equal and opposite to the horizontal component of earth’s
magnetic field.)

Answer

Earth’s magnetic field at the given place, H = 0.36 G

The magnetic field at a distance d, on the axis of the magnet is given as:

Where,

= Permeability of free space

M = Magnetic moment

The magnetic field

eld at the same distance d,, on the equatorial line of the magnet is given as:

Total magnetic field,

Hence, the magnetic field is 0.54 G in the direction of earth’s magnetic field.

Question 5.14:
If the bar magnet in exercise 5.13 is turned around by 180º, where will the new null points
be located?

Answer

The magnetic field on the axis of the magnet at a distance d1 = 14 cm, can be written as:

Where,

M = Magnetic moment

= Permeability of free space

H = Horizontal component of the magnetic field at d1

If the bar magnet is turned through 180°, then the neutral point will lie on the equatorial
line.

Hence, the magnetic field at a distance d2, on the equatorial line of the magnet can be
written as:

Equating equations (1) and (2), we get:

The new null points will be located 11.1 cm on the normal bisector.

Question 5.15:

A short bar magnet of magnetic moment 5.25 × 10−2 J T−1 is placed with its axis
perpendicular to the earth’s field direction. At what distance from the centre of the
magnet, the resultant field is inclined at 45º with earth’s field on

its normal bisector and (b) its axis. Magnitude of the earth’s field at the place is given to
be 0.42 G. Ignore the length of the magnet in comparison to the distances involved.

Answer

Magnetic moment of the bar magnet, M = 5.25 × 10−2 J T−1

Magnitude of earth’s magnetic field at a place, H = 0.42 G = 0.42 × 10−4 T

The magnetic field at a distance R from the centre of the magnet on the normal bisector is
given by the relation:

Where,

= Permeability of free space = 4π × 10−7 Tm A−1

When the resultant field is inclined at 45° with earth’s field, B = H

The magnetic
ic field at a distanced from the centre of the magnet on its axis is given as:

The resultant field is inclined at 45° with earth’s field.

Question 5.16:

Answer the following questions:

Why does a paramagnetic sample display greater magnetisation (for the same
magnetising field) when cooled?

Why is diamagnetism, in contrast, almost independent of temperature?

If a toroid uses bismuth for its core, will the field in the core be (slightly) greater or
(slightly) less than when the core is
i empty?

Is the permeability of a ferromagnetic material independent of the magnetic field? If not,

is it more for lower or higher fields?

Magnetic field lines are always nearly normal to the surface of a ferromagnet at every
point. (This fact is analogous to the static electric field lines being normal to the surface
of a conductor at every point.) Why?

(f ) Would the maximum possible magnetisation of a paramagnetic sample be of the same

order of magnitude as the magnetization of a ferromagnet?

Answer

Owing to therandom thermal motion of molecules, the alignments of dipoles get

(a)Owing
disrupted at high temperatures. On cooling, this disruption is reduced. Hence, a
paramagnetic sample displays greater magnetisation when cooled.

The induced dipole moment in a diamagnetic substance is always opposite to the

(b)The
magnetising field. Hence, the internal motion of the atoms (which is related to the
temperature) does not affect the diamagnetism of a material.

Bismuth is a diamagnetic substance. Hence, a toroid with

(c)Bismuth with a bismuth core has a
magnetic field slightly greater than a toroid whose core is empty.

The permeability of ferromagnetic materials is not independent of the applied

(d)The
magnetic field. It is greater for a lower field and vice versa.

The permeability of a ferromagnetic material is not less than one. It is always greater
(e)The
than one. Hence, magnetic field lines are always nearly normal to the surface of such
materials at every point.

The maximum possible magnetisation of a paramagnetic sample can be of the same

(f)The
order of magnitude as the magnetisation of a ferromagnet. This requires high magnetising
fields for saturation.

Question 5.17:

Answer the following questions:

Explain qualitatively on the basis of domain picture the irreversibility in the
magnetisation curve of a ferromagnet.

The hysteresis loop of a soft iron piece has a much smaller area than that of a carbon steel
piece. If the material is to go through repeated cycles of magnetisation, which piece will
dissipate greater heat energy?

‘A system displaying a hysteresis loop such as a ferromagnet, is a device for storing

memory?’ Explain the meaning of this statement.

What kind of ferromagnetic material is used for coating magnetic tapes in a cassette
player, or for building ‘memory stores’ in a modern computer?

A certain region of space is to be shielded from magnetic fields.

Suggest a method.

Answer

The hysteresis curve (B-H curve) of a ferromagnetic material is shown in the following
figure.

It can be observed from the given curve that magnetisation persists even when the
external field is removed. This reflects the irreversibility of a ferromagnet.

(b)The dissipated heat energy is directly proportional to the area of a hysteresis loop. A
carbon steel piece has a greater hysteresis curve area. Hence, it dissipates greater heat
energy.
 The value of magnetisation is memory or record of hysteresis loop cycles of
(c)The
magnetisation. These bits of information correspond to the cycle of magnetisation.
Hysteresis loops can be used for storing information.

Ceramic is used for coating magnetic tapes in cassette players and for building
(d)Ceramic
memory stores in modern computers.

A certain region of space can be shielded from magnetic fields if it is surrounde

(e)A surrounded by
soft iron rings. In such arrangements, the magnetic lines are drawn out of the region.

Question 5.18:

A long straight horizontal cable carries a current of 2.5 A in the direction 10º south of
west to 10° north of east. The magnetic meridian of the place happens to be 10º west of
the geographic meridian. The earth’s magnetic field at the location is 0.33 G, and the
angle of dip is zero. Locate the line of neutral points (ignore the thickness of the cable).
(At neutral points,, magnetic field due to a current-carrying
carrying cable is equal and opposite to
the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field.)

Answer

Current in the wire, I = 2.5 A

Angle of dip at the given location on earth, = 0°

Earth’s magnetic field, H = 0.33 G = 0.33 × 10−4 T

The horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field is given as:

HH = H cos

The magnetic field at the neutral point at a distance R from the cable is given by the
relation:

Where,
 = Permeability of free space =

Hence, a set of neutral points parallel

parallel to and above the cable are located at a normal
distance of 1.51 cm.

Question 5.19:

A telephone cable at a place has four long straight horizontal wires carrying a current of
1.0 A in the same direction east to west. The earth’s magnetic field at the place is 0.39 G,
and the angle of dip is 35º. The magnetic declination is nearly zero. What are the resultant
magnetic fields at points 4.0 cm below the cable?

Answer

Number of horizontal wires in the telephone cable, n = 4

Current in each wire, I = 1.0 A

Earth’s magnetic field at a location, H = 0.39 G = 0.39 × 10−4 T

Angle of dip at the location, δ = 35°

Angle of declination, θ ∼ 0°

For a point 4 cm below the cable:

Distance, r = 4 cm = 0.04 m

The horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field can be written as:

Hh = Hcosδ − B

Where,
B = Magnetic field at 4 cm due to current I in the four wires

= Permeability of free space = 4π × 10−7 Tm A−1

= 0.2 × 10−4 T = 0.2 G

∴ Hh = 0.39 cos 35° − 0.2

= 0.39 × 0.819 − 0.2 ≈ 0.12 G

The vertical component of earth’s magnetic field is given as:

Hv = Hsinδ

= 0.39 sin 35° = 0.22 G

The angle made by the field with its horizontal component is given as:

The resultant field at the point is given as:

For a point 4 cm above the cable:

Horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field:

Hh = Hcosδ + B

= 0.39 cos 35° + 0.2 = 0.52 G

Vertical component of earth’s magnetic field:

Hv = Hsinδ
= 0.39 sin 35° = 0.22 G

Angle, θ = 22.9°

And resultant field:

Question 5.20:

A compass needle free to turn in a horizontal plane is placed at the centre of circular coil
of 30 turns and radius 12 cm. The coil is in a vertical plane making an angle of 45º with
the magnetic meridian. When the current in the coil is 0.35 A, the needle points west to
east.

Determine
ne the horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field at the location.

The current in the coil is reversed, and the coil is rotated about its vertical axis by an
angle of 90º in the anticlockwise sense looking from above. Predict the direction of the
needle.
eedle. Take the magnetic declination at the places to be zero.

Answer

Number of turns in the circular coil, N = 30

Radius of the circular coil, r = 12 cm = 0.12 m

Current in the coil, I = 0.35 A

Angle of dip, δ = 45°

The magnetic field due to current I, at a distance r, is given as:

Where,
 = Permeability of free space = 4π × 10−7 Tm A−1

= 5.49 × 10−5 T

The compass needle points from West to East. Hence, the horizontal component of
earth’s magnetic field is given as:

BH = Bsin δ

= 5.49 × 10−5 sin 45° = 3.88 × 10−5 T = 0.388 G

When the current in the coil is reversed and the coil is rotated about its vertical axis by an
angle of 90 º, the needle will reverse its original direction. In this case, the needle will
point from East to West.

Question 5.21:

A magnetic dipole is under the influence of two magnetic fields. The angle between the
field directions is 60º, and one of the fields has a magnitude of 1.2 × 10−2 T. If the dipole
comes to stable equilibrium at an angle of 15º with this field,
field, what is the magnitude of the
other field?

Answer

Magnitude of one of the magnetic fields, B1 = 1.2 × 10−2 T

Magnitude of the other magnetic field = B2

Angle between the two fields, θ = 60°

At stable equilibrium, the angle between the dipole and ffield B1, θ1 = 15°

Angle between the dipole and field B2, θ2 = θ − θ1 = 60° − 15° = 45°

At rotational equilibrium, the torques between both the fields must balance each other.

∴Torque due to field B1 = Torque due to field B2

MB1 sinθ1 = MB2 sinθ2

Where,

M = Magnetic moment of the dipole

Hence, the magnitude of the other magnetic field is 4.39 × 10−3 T.

Question 5.22:

A monoenergetic (18 keV) electron beam initially in the horizontal direction is subjected
to a horizontal magnetic field of 0.04 G normal to the initial direction. Estimate the up or
down deflection of the beam over a distance of 30 cm (m ( e= 9.11 × 10−19 C). [Note:
[ Data
in this exercise are so chosen that the answer will give you an idea of the effect of earth’s
magnetic field on the motion
otion of the electron beam from the electron gun to the screen in a
TV set.]

Answer

Energy of an electron beam, E = 18 keV = 18 × 103 eV

Charge on an electron, e = 1.6 × 10−19 C

E = 18 × 103 × 1.6 × 10−19 J

Magnetic field, B = 0.04 G

Mass of an electron, me = 9.11 × 10−19 kg

Distance up to which the electron beam travels, d = 30 cm = 0.3 m

We can write the kinetic energy of the electron beam as:

The electron beam deflects along a circular path of radius, r.

The force due to the magnetic field balances the centripetal force of the path.

Let the up and down deflection of the electron beam be

Where,

θ = Angle of declination

Therefore, the up and down deflection of the beam is 3.9 mm.

Question 5.23:

A sample of paramagnetic salt contains 2.0 × 1024 atomic dipoles each of dipole moment
1.5 × 10−23 J T−1. The sample is placed under a homogeneous magnetic field of 0.64 T,
and cooled to a temperature of 4.2 K. The degree of magnetic saturation achieved is equal
to 15%. What is the total dipole moment of the sample for a magnetic field of 0.98 T and
a temperature of 2.8 K? (Assume Curie’s law)

Answer

Number of atomic dipoles, n = 2.0 × 1024

Dipole moment of each atomic dipole, M = 1.5 × 10−23 J T−1

When the magnetic field, B1 = 0.64 T

The sample is cooled to a temperature, T1 = 4.2°K

Total dipole moment of the atomic dipole, Mtot = n × M

= 2 × 1024 × 1.5 × 10−23

= 30 J T−1

Magnetic saturation is achieved at 15%.

Hence, effective dipole moment,

When the magnetic field, B2 = 0.98 T

Temperature, T2 = 2.8°K

Its total dipole moment = M2

According to Curie’s law, we have the ratio of two magnetic dipoles as:

Therefore, is the total dipole moment of the sample for a magnetic field of
0.98 T and a temperature of 2.8 K.
Question 5.24:

A Rowland ring of mean radius 15 cm has 3500 turns of wire wound on a ferromagnetic
core of relative permeability 800. What is the magnetic
m field B in the core for a
magnetising current of 1.2 A?

Answer

Mean radius of a Rowland ring, r = 15 cm = 0.15 m

Number of turns on a ferromagnetic core, N = 3500

Relative permeability of the core material,

Magnetising current, I = 1.2 A

The magnetic field is given by the relation:

Where,

μ0 = Permeability of free space = 4π × 10−7 Tm A−1

Therefore, the magnetic field in the core is 4.48 T.

Question 5.25:

The magnetic moment vectors μsand μlassociated with the intrinsic spin angular
momentum S and orbital angular momentum l,, respectively, of an electron are predicted
by quantum theory (and verified experimentally to a high accuracy) to be given by:

μs= –(e/m) S,

μl = –(e/2m)l
Which of these relations is in accordance with the result expected classically? Outline the
derivation of the classical result.

Answer

The magnetic moment associated with the intrinsic spin angular momentum ( ) is given
as

The magnetic moment associated with the orbital angular momentum ( ) is given as

For current i and area of cross-section A, we have the relation:

Where,

e = Charge of the electron

r = Radius of the circular orbit

T = Time taken to complete one rotation around the circular orbit of radius r

Angular momentum, l = mvr

Where,

m = Mass of the electron

v = Velocity of the electron

Dividing equation (1) by equation (2), we get:

Therefore, of the two relations, is in accordance with classical physics.
Question 6.1:

Predict the direction of induced current in the situations described by the following Figs.
6.18(a) to (f ).

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)
(f)

Answer

The direction of the induced current in a closed loop is given by Lenz’s law. The given
pairs of figures show the direction of the induced current when the North pole of a bar
magnet is moved towards and away from a closed loop respectively.

Using Lenz’s rule, the direction of the induced current in the given situations can be
predicted as follows:

The direction of the induced current is along qrpq.

The direction of the induced current is along prqp.

The direction of the induced current is along yzxy.

The direction of the induced current is along zyxz.

The direction of the induced current is along xryx.

No current is induced since the field lines are lying in the plane of the closed loop.

Question 6.2:

A 1.0 m long metallic rod is rotated with an angular frequency of 400 rad s−1 about an
axis normal
mal to the rod passing through its one end. The other end of the rod is in contact
with a circular metallic ring. A constant and uniform magnetic field of 0.5 T parallel to
the axis exists everywhere. Calculate the emf developed between the centre and the ring.

Answer

Length of the rod, l = 1 m

Angular frequency,ω = 400 rad/s

Magnetic field strength, B = 0.5 T

One end of the rod has zero linear velocity, while the other end has a linear velocity of lω.

Average linear velocity of the rod,

Emf developed between the centre and the ring,

Hence, the emf developed between the centre and the ring is 100 V.

Question 6.3:

A long solenoid with 15 turns per cm has a small loop of area 2.0 cm2 placed inside the
solenoid normal to its axis. If the current carried by the solenoid changes steadily from
2.0 A to 4.0 A in 0.1 s, what is the induced emf in the loop while the current is changing?

Answer

Number of turns on the solenoid = 15 turns/cm

turns/ = 1500 turns/m
Number of turns per unit length, n = 1500 turns

The solenoid has a small loop of area, A = 2.0 cm2 = 2 × 10−4 m2

Current carried by the solenoid changes from 2 A to 4 A.

Change in current in the solenoid, di = 4 − 2 = 2 A

Change in time, dt = 0.1 s

Induced emf in the solenoid is given by Faraday’s law as:

Where,

= Induced flux through the small loop

= BA ... (ii)

B = Magnetic field

μ0 = Permeability of free space

= 4π×10−7 H/m

Hence, equation (i)) reduces to:

Hence, the induced voltage in the loop is

Question 6.4:

A rectangular wire loop of sides 8 cm and 2 cm with a small cut is moving out of a region
of uniform magnetic field of magnitude 0.3 T directed normal to the loop. What is the
emf developed across the cut if the velocity of the loop is 1 cm s−1 in a direction normal
to the (a) longer side, (b) shorter side of the loop? For how long does the induced voltage
last in each case?

Answer

Length of the rectangular wire, l = 8 cm = 0.08 m

Width of the rectangular wire, b = 2 cm = 0.02 m

Hence, area of the rectangular loop,

A = lb

= 0.08 × 0.02

= 16 × 10−4 m2

Magnetic field strength, B = 0.3 T

Velocity of the loop, v = 1 cm/s = 0.01 m/s

Emf developed in the loop is given as:

e = Blv

= 0.3 × 0.08 × 0.01 = 2.4 × 10−4 V

Hence, the induced voltage is 2.4 × 10−4 V which lasts for 2 s.

Emf developed, e = Bbv

= 0.3 × 0.02 × 0.01 = 0.6 × 10−4 V

Hence, the induced voltage is 0.6 × 10−4 V which lasts for 8 s.

Question 6.5:

A 1.0 m long metallic rod is rotated with an angular frequency of 400 rads-1 about an axis normal
to the rod passing through its one end. The other end of the rod is in contact with a circular
metallic ring . A constant and uniform magnetic field of 0.5T parallel to the axis exist
everywhere. Calculate the emf developed between the centre and the ring.

Answer

l = 1.0 cm ω = 400 rad/s

B = 0.5T

ε=
= 100V

Question 6.6:

A circular coil of radius 8.0 cm and 20 turns is rotated about its vertical diameter with an
angular speed of 50 rad s−1 in a uniform horizontal magnetic field of magnitude 3.0×10−2
T. Obtain the maximum and average emf induced in the coil. If the coil formsforms a closed
loop of resistance 10Ω, calculate the maximum value of current in the coil. Calculate the
average power loss due to Joule heating. Where does this power come from?

Answer
Max induced emf = 0.603 V

Average induced emf = 0 V

Max current in the coil = 0.0603 A

Average power loss = 0.018 W

(Power comes from the external rotor)

Radius of the circular coil, r = 8 cm = 0.08 m

Area of the coil, A = πr2 = π × (0.08)2 m2

Number of turns on the coil, N = 20

Angular speed, ω = 50 rad/s

Magnetic field strength, B = 3 × 10−2 T

Resistance of the loop, R = 10 Ω

Maximum induced emf is given as:

e = Nω AB

= 20 × 50 × π × (0.08)2 × 3 × 10−2

= 0.603 V

The maximum emf induced in the coil is 0.603 V.

Over a full cycle, the average emf induced in the coil is zero.

Maximum current is given as:

Average power loss due to joule heating:

The current induced in the coil produces a torque opposing the rotation of the coil. The
rotor is an external agent. It must supply a torque to counter
counter this torque in order to keep
the coil rotating uniformly. Hence, dissipated power comes from the external rotor.

Question 6.7:

A horizontal straight wire 10 m long extending from east to west is falling with a speed of
5.0 m s−1, at right angles to the horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field, 0.30 ×
10−4 Wb m−2.

What is the instantaneous value of the emf induced in the wire?

What is the direction of the emf?

Which end of the wire is at the higher electrical potential?

Answer

Length of the wire, l = 10 m

Falling speed of the wire, v = 5.0 m/s

Magnetic field strength, B = 0.3 × 10−4 Wb m−2

Emf induced in the wire,

e = Blv

Using Fleming’s right hand rule, it can be inferred that the direction of the induced emf is
from West to East.

The eastern end of the wire is at a higher potential.

Question 6.8:
Current in a circuit falls from 5.0 A to 0.0 A in 0.1 s. If an average emf of 200 V induced,
give an estimate of the self-inductance
inductance of the circuit.

Answer

Initial current, I1 = 5.0 A

Final current, I2 = 0.0 A

Change in current,

Time taken for the change, t = 0.1 s

Average emf, e = 200 V

For self-inductance (L) of the coil, we have the relation for average emf as:

e=L

Hence, the self induction of the coil is 4 H.

Question 6.9:

A pair of adjacent coils has a mutual inductance of 1.5 H. If the current in one coil
changes from 0 to 20 A in 0.5 s, what is the change of flux linkage with the other coil?

Answer
Mutual inductance of a pair of coils,
co µ = 1.5 H

Initial current, I1 = 0 A

Final current I2 = 20 A

Change in current,

Time taken for the change, t = 0.5 s

Induced emf,

Where is the change in the flux linkage with the coil.

Emf is related with mutual inductance as:

Equating equations (1) and (2), we get

Hence, the change in the flux linkage is 30 Wb.

Question 6.10:

A jet plane is travelling towards west at a speed of 1800 km/h. What is the voltage
difference developed between the ends of the wing having a span of 25 m, if the Earth’s
magnetic field at the location has a magnitude of 5 × 10−4 T and the dip angle is 30°.

Answer
Speed of the jet plane, v = 1800 km/h = 500 m/s

Wing spanof jet plane, l = 25 m

Earth’s magnetic field strength, B = 5.0 × 10−4 T

Angle of dip,

Vertical component of Earth’s magnetic field,

BV = B sin

= 5 × 10−4 sin 30°

= 2.5 × 10−4 T

Voltage difference between the ends of the wing can be calculated as:

e = (BV) × l × v

= 2.5 × 10−4 × 25 × 500

= 3.125 V

Hence, the voltage difference developed between the ends of the wings is

3.125 V.

Question 6.11:

Suppose the loop in Exercise 6.4 is stationary but the current feeding the electromagnet
that produces the magnetic field is gradually reduced so that the field decreases from its
initial value of 0.3 T at the rate of 0.02 T s−1. If the cut is joined and the loop has a
resistance of 1.6 Ω how much power is dissipated by the loop as heat? What is the source
of this power?

Answer

Sides of the rectangular

gular loop are 8 cm and 2 cm.

Hence, area of the rectangular wire loop,

A = length × width

= 8 × 2 = 16 cm2

= 16 × 10−4 m2

Initial value of the magnetic field,

Rate of decrease of the magnetic field,

Emf developed in the loop is given as:

Where,

= Change in flux through the loop area

= AB

Resistance of the loop, R = 1.6 Ω

The current induced in the loop is given as:

Power dissipated in the loop in the form of heat is given as:

The source of this heat loss is an external agent, which is responsible for changing the
magnetic field with time.
Question 6.12:

A square loop of side 12 cm with its sides parallel to X and Y axes is moved with a
velocity of 8 cm s−1 in the positive x-direction in an environment containing a magnetic
field in the positive z-direction. The field is neither uniform in space nor constant in time.
It has a gradient of 10−3 T cm−1 along the negative x-direction (that is it increases by 10− 3
T cm−1 as one moves in the negative x-direction), and it is decreasing in time at the rate of
10−3 T s−1. Determine the direction and magnitude of the induced current in the loop if its
resistance is 4.50 mΩ.

Answer

Side of the square loop, s = 12 cm = 0.12 m

Area of the square loop, A = 0.12 × 0.12 = 0.0144 m2

Velocity of the loop, v = 8 cm/s = 0.08 m/s

Gradient of the magnetic field along negative x-direction,

And, rate of decrease of the magnetic field,

Resistance of the loop,

Rate of change of the magnetic flux due to the motion of the loop in a non-uniform
magnetic field is given as:

Rate of change of the flux due to explicit time variation in field B is given as:
Since the rate of change of the flux is the induced emf, the total induced emf in the loop
can be calculated as:

∴Induced current,

Hence, the direction of the induced current is such that there is an increase in the flux
through the loop along positive z-direction.
z

Question 6.13:

It is desired to measure the magnitude of field between the poles of a powerf

powerful loud
speaker magnet. A small flat search coil of area 2 cm2 with 25 closely wound turns, is
positioned normal to the field direction, and then quickly snatched out of the field region.
Equivalently, one can give it a quick 90° turn to bring its plane parallel
parallel to the field
direction). The total charge flown in the coil (measured by a ballistic galvanometer
connected to coil) is 7.5 mC. The combined resistance of the coil and the galvanometer is
0.50 Ω. Estimate the field strength of magnet.

Answer

Area of the small flat search coil, A = 2 cm2 = 2 × 10−4 m2

Number of turns on the coil, N = 25

Total charge flowing in the coil, Q = 7.5 mC = 7.5 × 10−3 C

Total resistance of the coil and galvanometer, R = 0.50 Ω

Induced current in the coil,

Induced emf is given as:

Where,

= Charge in flux

Combining equations (1) and (2), we get

Initial flux through the coil, = BA

Where,

B = Magnetic field strength

Final flux through the coil,

Integrating equation (3) on both sides, we have

But total charge,

Hence, the field strength of the magnet is 0.75 T.

Question 6.14:

Figure 6.20 shows a metal rod PQ resting on the smooth rails AB and positioned between
the poles of a permanent magnet. The rails, the rod, and the magnetic field are in three
mutual perpendicular directions. A galvanometer G connects the rails through a sswitch K.
Length of the rod = 15 cm, B = 0.50 T, resistance of the closed loop containing the rod =
9.0 mΩ. Assume the field to be uniform.

Suppose K is open and the rod is moved with a speed of 12 cm s−1 in the direction shown.
Give the polarity and magnitude
ude of the induced emf.

Is there an excess charge built up at the ends of the rods when

K is open? What if K is closed?

With K open and the rod moving uniformly, there is no net force on the electrons in the
rod PQ even though they do experience magneti
magneticc force due to the motion of the rod.
Explain.

What is the retarding force on the rod when K is closed?

How much power is required (by an external agent) to keep the rod moving at the same
speed (=12 cm s−1) when K is closed? How much power is required when
when K is open?

How much power is dissipated as heat in the closed circuit?

What is the source of this power?

What is the induced emf in the moving rod if the magnetic field is parallel to the rails
instead of being perpendicular?

Answer

Length of the rod, l = 15 cm = 0.15 m

Magnetic field strength, B = 0.50 T

Resistance of the closed loop, R = 9 mΩ = 9 × 10−3 Ω

Induced emf = 9 mV; polarity of the induced emf is such that end P shows positive while
end Q shows negative ends.

Speed of the rod, v = 12 cm/s = 0.12 m/s

Induced emf is given as:

e = Bvl

= 0.5 × 0.12 × 0.15

= 9 × 10−3 v

= 9 mV

The polarity of the induced emf is such that end P shows positive while end Q shows
negative ends.

Yes; when key K is closed, excess charge is maintained by the continuous flow of
current.

When key K is open, there is excess charge built up at both ends of the rods.

When key K is closed, excess charge is maintained by the continuous flow of current.

Magnetic force is cancelled by the electric force set-up due to the excess charge of
opposite nature at both ends of the rod.

There is no net force on the electrons in rod PQ when key K is open and the rod is
moving uniformly. This is because magnetic force is cancelled by the electric force set-up
due to the excess charge of opposite nature at both ends of the rods.

Retarding force exerted on the rod, F = IBl

Where,

I = Current flowing through the rod

9 mW; no power is expended when key K is open.

Speed of the rod, v = 12 cm/s = 0.12 m/s

Hence, power is given as:

When key K is open, no power is expended.

9 mW; power is provided by an external agent.

Power dissipated as heat = I2 R

= (1)2 × 9 × 10−3

= 9 mW

The source of this power is an external agent.

Zero

In this case, no emf is induced in the coil because the motion

motion of the rod does not cut
across the field lines.

Question 6.15:

An air-cored
cored solenoid with length 30 cm, area of cross-section
cross 25 cm2 and number of
turns 500, carries a current of 2.5 A. The current is suddenly switched off in a brief time
of 10−3 s. How much is the average back emf induced across the ends of the open switch
in the circuit? Ignore the variation in magnetic field near the
the ends of the solenoid.

Answer
Length of the solenoid, l = 30 cm = 0.3 m

Area of cross-section, A = 25 cm2 = 25 × 10−4 m2

Number of turns on the solenoid, N = 500

Current in the solenoid, I = 2.5 A

Current flows for time, t = 10−3 s

Average back emf,

Where,

= Change in flux

= NAB … (2)

Where,

B = Magnetic field strength

Where,

= Permeability of free space = 4π × 10−7 T m A−1

Using equations (2) and (3) in equation (1), we get

Hence, the average back emf induced in the solenoid is 6.5 V.

Question 6.16:

Obtain an expression for the mutual inductance between a long straight wire and a square
loop of side a as shown in Fig. 6.21.

Now assume that the straight wire carries a current of 50 A and the loop is moved to the
right with a constant velocity, v = 10 m/s.

Calculate the induced emf in the loop at the instant when x = 0.2 m.

Take a = 0.1 m and assume that the loop has a large resistance.

Answer

Take a small element dy in the loop at a distance y from the long straight wire (as shown
in the given figure).

Magnetic flux associated with element

Where,

dA = Area of element dy = a dy

B = Magnetic field at distance y

I = Current in the wire

 = Permeability of free space = 4π × 10−7 T m A−1

y tends from x to .

Emf induced in the loop, e = B’av

Given,

I = 50 A

x = 0.2 m

a = 0.1 m

v = 10 m/s

Question 6.17:
A line charge λ per unit length is lodged uniformly onto the rim of a wheel of mass M and
radius R. The wheel has light non-conducting spokes and is free to rotate without friction
about its axis (Fig. 6.22). A uniform magnetic field extends over a circular region within
the rim. It is given by,

B = − B0 k (r ≤ a; a < R)

= 0 (otherwise)

What is the angular velocity of the wheel after the field is suddenly switched off?

Answer

Line charge per unit length

Where,

r = Distance of the point within the wheel

Mass of the wheel = M

Radius of the wheel = R

Magnetic field,

At distance r,themagnetic force is balanced by the centripetal force i.e.,

∴Angular velocity,
Class XII Chapter 7 – Alternating Current Physics

Question 7.1:
A 100 Ω resistor is connected to a 220 V, 50 Hz ac supply.
(a) What is the rms value of current in the circuit?
(b) What is the net power consumed over a full cycle?
Answer
Resistance of the resistor, R = 100 Ω
Supply voltage, V = 220 V
Frequency, ν = 50 Hz
(a) The rms value of current in the circuit is given as:

(b) The net power consumed over a full cycle is given as:
P = VI
= 220 × 2.2 = 484 W

Question 7.2:
(a) The peak voltage of an ac supply is 300 V. What is the rms voltage?
(b) The rms value of current in an ac circuit is 10 A. What is the peak current?
Answer
(a) Peak voltage of the ac supply, V0 = 300 V
Rms voltage is given as:

(b) Therms value of current is given as:

I = 10 A
Now, peak current is given as:

Page 1 of 29
Website: www.vidhyarjan.com Email: contact@vidhyarjan.com Mobile: 9999 249717

Head Office: 1/3-H-A-2, Street # 6, East Azad Nagar, Delhi-110051

(One Km from ‘Welcome’ Metro Station)
Class XII Chapter 7 – Alternating Current Physics

Question 7.3:
A 44 mH inductor is connected to 220 V, 50 Hz ac supply. Determine the rms value of
the current in the circuit.
Answer
Inductance of inductor, L = 44 mH = 44 × 10−3 H
Supply voltage, V = 220 V
Frequency, ν = 50 Hz

Angular frequency, ω=

Inductive reactance, XL = ω L
Rms value of current is given as:

Hence, the rms value of current in the circuit is 15.92 A.

Question 7.4:
A 60 µF capacitor is connected to a 110 V, 60 Hz ac supply. Determine the rms value of
the current in the circuit.
Answer
Capacitance of capacitor, C = 60 µF = 60 × 10−6 F
Supply voltage, V = 110 V
Frequency, ν = 60 Hz

Angular frequency, ω=

Capacitive reactance

Rms value of current is given as:

Page 2 of 29
Website: www.vidhyarjan.com Email: contact@vidhyarjan.com Mobile: 9999 249717

Head Office: 1/3-H-A-2, Street # 6, East Azad Nagar, Delhi-110051

(One Km from ‘Welcome’ Metro Station)
Class XII Chapter 7 – Alternating Current Physics

Hence, the rms value of current is 2.49 A.

Question 7.5:
In Exercises 7.3 and 7.4, what is the net power absorbed by each circuit over a complete
cycle. Explain your answer.
Answer
In the inductive circuit,
Rms value of current, I = 15.92 A
Rms value of voltage, V = 220 V
Hence, the net power absorbed can be obtained by the relation,
P = VI cos Φ
Where,
Φ = Phase difference between V and I
For a pure inductive circuit, the phase difference between alternating voltage and current
is 90° i.e., Φ= 90°.
Hence, P = 0 i.e., the net power is zero.
In the capacitive circuit,
Rms value of current, I = 2.49 A
Rms value of voltage, V = 110 V
Hence, the net power absorbed can ve obtained as:
P = VI Cos Φ
For a pure capacitive circuit, the phase difference between alternating voltage and
current is 90° i.e., Φ= 90°.
Hence, P = 0 i.e., the net power is zero.

Question 7.6:
Obtain the resonant frequency ωr of a series LCR circuit with L = 2.0 H, C = 32 µF and R
= 10 Ω. What is the Q-value of this circuit?
Answer

Page 3 of 29
Website: www.vidhyarjan.com Email: contact@vidhyarjan.com Mobile: 9999 249717

Head Office: 1/3-H-A-2, Street # 6, East Azad Nagar, Delhi-110051

(One Km from ‘Welcome’ Metro Station)
Class XII Chapter 7 – Alternating Current Physics

Inductance, L = 2.0 H
Capacitance, C = 32 µF = 32 × 10−6 F
Resistance, R = 10 Ω
Resonant frequency is given by the relation,

Now, Q-value of the circuit is given as:

Hence, the Q-Value of this circuit is 25.

Question 7.7:
A charged 30 µF capacitor is connected to a 27 mH inductor. What is the angular
frequency of free oscillations of the circuit?
Answer
Capacitance, C = 30µF = 30×10−6F
Inductance, L = 27 mH = 27 × 10−3 H
Angular frequency is given as:

Hence, the angular frequency of free oscillations of the circuit is 1.11 × 103 rad/s.

Question 7.8:
Suppose the initial charge on the capacitor in Exercise 7.7 is 6 mC. What is the total
energy stored in the circuit initially? What is the total energy at later time?
Answer

Page 4 of 29
Website: www.vidhyarjan.com Email: contact@vidhyarjan.com Mobile: 9999 249717

Head Office: 1/3-H-A-2, Street # 6, East Azad Nagar, Delhi-110051

(One Km from ‘Welcome’ Metro Station)
Class XII Chapter 7 – Alternating Current Physics

Capacitance of the capacitor, C = 30 µF = 30×10−6 F

Inductance of the inductor, L = 27 mH = 27 × 10−3 H
Charge on the capacitor, Q = 6 mC = 6 × 10−3 C
Total energy stored in the capacitor can be calculated by the relation,

Total energy at a later time will remain the same because energy is shared between the
capacitor and the inductor.

Question 7.9:
A series LCR circuit with R = 20 Ω, L = 1.5 H and C = 35 µF is connected to a variable-
frequency 200 V ac supply. When the frequency of the supply equals the natural
frequency of the circuit, what is the average power transferred to the circuit in one
complete cycle?
Answer
At resonance, the frequency of the supply power equals the natural frequency of the
given LCR circuit.
Resistance, R = 20 Ω
Inductance, L = 1.5 H
Capacitance, C = 35 µF = 30 × 10−6 F
AC supply voltage to the LCR circuit, V = 200 V
Impedance of the circuit is given by the relation,

At resonance,

Current in the circuit can be calculated as:

Page 5 of 29
Website: www.vidhyarjan.com Email: contact@vidhyarjan.com Mobile: 9999 249717

Head Office: 1/3-H-A-2, Street # 6, East Azad Nagar, Delhi-110051

(One Km from ‘Welcome’ Metro Station)
Class XII Chapter 7 – Alternating Current Physics

Hence, the average power transferred to the circuit in one complete cycle= VI
= 200 × 10 = 2000 W.

Question 7.10:
A radio can tune over the frequency range of a portion of MW broadcast band: (800 kHz
to 1200 kHz). If its LC circuit has an effective inductance of 200 µH, what must be the
range of its variable capacitor?
[Hint: For tuning, the natural frequency i.e., the frequency of free oscillations of the LC
circuit should be equal to the frequency of the radiowave.]
Answer
The range of frequency (ν) of a radio is 800 kHz to 1200 kHz.
Lower tuning frequency, ν1 = 800 kHz = 800 × 103 Hz
Upper tuning frequency, ν2 = 1200 kHz = 1200× 103 Hz
Effective inductance of circuit L = 200 µH = 200 × 10−6 H
Capacitance of variable capacitor for ν1 is given as:

C1
Where,
ω1 = Angular frequency for capacitor C1

Capacitance of variable capacitor for ν2,

C2
Where,

Page 6 of 29
Website: www.vidhyarjan.com Email: contact@vidhyarjan.com Mobile: 9999 249717

Head Office: 1/3-H-A-2, Street # 6, East Azad Nagar, Delhi-110051

(One Km from ‘Welcome’ Metro Station)
Class XII Chapter 7 – Alternating Current Physics

ω2 = Angular frequency for capacitor C2

Hence, the range of the variable capacitor is from 88.04 pF to 198.1 pF.

Question 7.11:
Figure 7.21 shows a series LCR circuit connected to a variable frequency 230 V source. L
= 5.0 H, C = 80µF, R = 40 Ω

(a) Determine the source frequency which drives the circuit in resonance.
(b) Obtain the impedance of the circuit and the amplitude of current at the resonating
frequency.
(c) Determine the rms potential drops across the three elements of the circuit. Show
that the potential drop across the LC combination is zero at the resonating frequency.
Answer
Inductance of the inductor, L = 5.0 H
Capacitance of the capacitor, C = 80 µH = 80 × 10−6 F
Resistance of the resistor, R = 40 Ω
Potential of the variable voltage source, V = 230 V
(a) Resonance angular frequency is given as:

Hence, the circuit will come in resonance for a source frequency of 50 rad/s.

Page 7 of 29
Website: www.vidhyarjan.com Email: contact@vidhyarjan.com Mobile: 9999 249717

Head Office: 1/3-H-A-2, Street # 6, East Azad Nagar, Delhi-110051

(One Km from ‘Welcome’ Metro Station)
Class XII Chapter 7 – Alternating Current Physics

(b) Impedance of the circuit is given by the relation,

At resonance,

Amplitude of the current at the resonating frequency is given as:

Where,
V0 = Peak voltage

Hence, at resonance, the impedance of the circuit is 40 Ω and the amplitude of the
current is 8.13 A.
(c) Rms potential drop across the inductor,
(VL)rms = I × ωRL
Where,
I = rms current

Potential drop across the capacitor,

Potential drop across the resistor,

Page 8 of 29
Website: www.vidhyarjan.com Email: contact@vidhyarjan.com Mobile: 9999 249717

Head Office: 1/3-H-A-2, Street # 6, East Azad Nagar, Delhi-110051

(One Km from ‘Welcome’ Metro Station)
Class XII Chapter 7 – Alternating Current Physics

(VR)rms = IR

= × 40 = 230 V
Potential drop across the LC combination,

At resonance,

∴VLC= 0

Hence, it is proved that the potential drop across the LC combination is zero at
resonating frequency.

Question 7.12:
An LC circuit contains a 20 mH inductor and a 50 µF capacitor with an initial charge of 10
mC. The resistance of the circuit is negligible. Let the instant the circuit is closed be t =
0.
(a) What is the total energy stored initially? Is it conserved during LC oscillations?
(b) What is the natural frequency of the circuit?
(c) At what time is the energy stored
(i) completely electrical (i.e., stored in the capacitor)? (ii) completely magnetic (i.e.,
stored in the inductor)?
(d) At what times is the total energy shared equally between the inductor and the
capacitor?
(e) If a resistor is inserted in the circuit, how much energy is eventually dissipated as
heat?
Answer
Inductance of the inductor, L = 20 mH = 20 × 10−3 H
Capacitance of the capacitor, C = 50 µF = 50 × 10−6 F

Page 9 of 29
Website: www.vidhyarjan.com Email: contact@vidhyarjan.com Mobile: 9999 249717

Head Office: 1/3-H-A-2, Street # 6, East Azad Nagar, Delhi-110051

(One Km from ‘Welcome’ Metro Station)
Class XII Chapter 7 – Alternating Current Physics

Initial charge on the capacitor, Q = 10 mC = 10 × 10−3 C

(a) Total energy stored initially in the circuit is given as:

Hence, the total energy stored in the LC circuit will be conserved because there is no
resistor connected in the circuit.
(b)Natural frequency of the circuit is given by the relation,

Natural angular frequency,

Hence, the natural frequency of the circuit is 103 rad/s.

(c) (i) For time period (T ), total charge on the capacitor at time

t,
For energy stored is electrical, we can write Q’ = Q.
Hence, it can be inferred that the energy stored in the capacitor is completely electrical

at time, t =
(ii) Magnetic energy is the maximum when electrical energy, Q′ is equal to 0.

Page 10 of 29
Website: www.vidhyarjan.com Email: contact@vidhyarjan.com Mobile: 9999 249717

Head Office: 1/3-H-A-2, Street # 6, East Azad Nagar, Delhi-110051

(One Km from ‘Welcome’ Metro Station)
Class XII Chapter 7 – Alternating Current Physics

Hence, it can be inferred that the energy stored in the capacitor is completely magnetic

at time,
(d) Q1 = Charge on the capacitor when total energy is equally shared between the
capacitor and the inductor at time t.
When total energy is equally shared between the inductor and capacitor, the energy

stored in the capacitor = (maximum energy).

Hence, total energy is equally shared between the inductor and the capacity at time,

(e) If a resistor is inserted in the circuit, then total initial energy is dissipated as heat
energy in the circuit. The resistance damps out the LC oscillation.

Question 7.13:
A coil of inductance 0.50 H and resistance 100 Ω is connected to a 240 V, 50 Hz ac
supply.
(a) What is the maximum current in the coil?
(b) What is the time lag between the voltage maximum and the current maximum?
Answer

Page 11 of 29
Website: www.vidhyarjan.com Email: contact@vidhyarjan.com Mobile: 9999 249717

Head Office: 1/3-H-A-2, Street # 6, East Azad Nagar, Delhi-110051

(One Km from ‘Welcome’ Metro Station)
Class XII Chapter 7 – Alternating Current Physics

Inductance of the inductor, L = 0.50 H

Resistance of the resistor, R = 100 Ω
Potential of the supply voltage, V = 240 V
Frequency of the supply, ν = 50 Hz
(a) Peak voltage is given as:

Angular frequency of the supply,

ω = 2 πν
= 2π × 50 = 100 π rad/s
Maximum current in the circuit is given as:

(b) Equation for voltage is given as:

V = V0 cos ωt
Equation for current is given as:
I = I0 cos (ωt − Φ)
Where,
Φ = Phase difference between voltage and current
At time, t = 0.
V = V0(voltage is maximum)

Forωt − Φ = 0 i.e., at time ,

I = I0 (current is maximum)

Hence, the time lag between maximum voltage and maximum current is .
Now, phase angle Φis given by the relation,

Page 12 of 29
Website: www.vidhyarjan.com Email: contact@vidhyarjan.com Mobile: 9999 249717

Head Office: 1/3-H-A-2, Street # 6, East Azad Nagar, Delhi-110051

(One Km from ‘Welcome’ Metro Station)
Class XII Chapter 7 – Alternating Current Physics

Hence, the time lag between maximum voltage and maximum current is 3.2 ms.

Question 7.14:
Obtain the answers (a) to (b) in Exercise 7.13 if the circuit is connected to a high
frequency supply (240 V, 10 kHz). Hence, explain the statement that at very high
frequency, an inductor in a circuit nearly amounts to an open circuit. How does an
inductor behave in a dc circuit after the steady state?
Answer
Inductance of the inductor, L = 0.5 Hz
Resistance of the resistor, R = 100 Ω
Potential of the supply voltages, V = 240 V
Frequency of the supply,ν = 10 kHz = 104 Hz
Angular frequency, ω = 2πν= 2π × 104 rad/s

(a) Peak voltage,

Maximum current,

(b) For phase differenceΦ, we have the relation:

Page 13 of 29
Website: www.vidhyarjan.com Email: contact@vidhyarjan.com Mobile: 9999 249717

Head Office: 1/3-H-A-2, Street # 6, East Azad Nagar, Delhi-110051

(One Km from ‘Welcome’ Metro Station)
Class XII Chapter 7 – Alternating Current Physics

It can be observed that I0 is very small in this case. Hence, at high frequencies, the
inductor amounts to an open circuit.
In a dc circuit, after a steady state is achieved, ω = 0. Hence, inductor L behaves like a
pure conducting object.

Question 7.15:
A 100 µF capacitor in series with a 40 Ω resistance is connected to a 110 V, 60 Hz
supply.
(a) What is the maximum current in the circuit?
(b) What is the time lag between the current maximum and the voltage maximum?
Answer
Capacitance of the capacitor, C = 100 µF = 100 × 10−6 F
Resistance of the resistor, R = 40 Ω
Supply voltage, V = 110 V
(a) Frequency of oscillations, ν= 60 Hz

Angular frequency,
For a RC circuit, we have the relation for impedance as:

Peak voltage, V0 =
Maximum current is given as:

Page 14 of 29
Website: www.vidhyarjan.com Email: contact@vidhyarjan.com Mobile: 9999 249717

Head Office: 1/3-H-A-2, Street # 6, East Azad Nagar, Delhi-110051

(One Km from ‘Welcome’ Metro Station)
Class XII Chapter 7 – Alternating Current Physics

(b) In a capacitor circuit, the voltage lags behind the current by a phase angle ofΦ. This
angle is given by the relation:

Hence, the time lag between maximum current and maximum voltage is 1.55 ms.

Question 7.16:
Obtain the answers to (a) and (b) in Exercise 7.15 if the circuit is connected to a 110 V,
12 kHz supply? Hence, explain the statement that a capacitor is a conductor at very high
frequencies. Compare this behaviour with that of a capacitor in a dc circuit after the
steady state.

Page 15 of 29
Website: www.vidhyarjan.com Email: contact@vidhyarjan.com Mobile: 9999 249717

Head Office: 1/3-H-A-2, Street # 6, East Azad Nagar, Delhi-110051

(One Km from ‘Welcome’ Metro Station)
Class XII Chapter 7 – Alternating Current Physics

Answer
Capacitance of the capacitor, C = 100 µF = 100 × 10−6 F
Resistance of the resistor, R = 40 Ω
Supply voltage, V = 110 V
Frequency of the supply, ν = 12 kHz = 12 × 103 Hz
Angular Frequency, ω = 2 πν= 2 × π × 12 × 10303
= 24π × 103 rad/s

Peak voltage,

Maximum current,

For an RC circuit, the voltage lags behind the current by a phase angle of Φ given as:

Page 16 of 29
Website: www.vidhyarjan.com Email: contact@vidhyarjan.com Mobile: 9999 249717

Head Office: 1/3-H-A-2, Street # 6, East Azad Nagar, Delhi-110051

(One Km from ‘Welcome’ Metro Station)
Class XII Chapter 7 – Alternating Current Physics

Hence, Φ tends to become zero at high frequencies. At a high frequency, capacitor C

acts as a conductor.
In a dc circuit, after the steady state is achieved, ω = 0. Hence, capacitor C amounts to
an open circuit.

Question 7.17:
Keeping the source frequency equal to the resonating frequency of the series LCR circuit,
if the three elements, L, C and R are arranged in parallel, show that the total current in
the parallel LCR circuit is minimum at this frequency. Obtain the current rms value in
each branch of the circuit for the elements and source specified in Exercise 7.11 for this
frequency.
Answer
An inductor (L), a capacitor (C), and a resistor (R) is connected in parallel with each
other in a circuit where,
L = 5.0 H
C = 80 µF = 80 × 10−6 F
R = 40 Ω
Potential of the voltage source, V = 230 V
Impedance (Z) of the given parallel LCR circuit is given as:

Page 17 of 29
Website: www.vidhyarjan.com Email: contact@vidhyarjan.com Mobile: 9999 249717

Head Office: 1/3-H-A-2, Street # 6, East Azad Nagar, Delhi-110051

(One Km from ‘Welcome’ Metro Station)
Class XII Chapter 7 – Alternating Current Physics

Where,
ω = Angular frequency

At resonance,

Hence, the magnitude of Z is the maximum at 50 rad/s. As a result, the total current is
minimum.
Rms current flowing through inductor L is given as:

Rms current flowing through capacitor C is given as:

Rms current flowing through resistor R is given as:

Question 7.18:
A circuit containing a 80 mH inductor and a 60 µF capacitor in series is connected to a
230 V, 50 Hz supply. The resistance of the circuit is negligible.
(a) Obtain the current amplitude and rms values.

Page 18 of 29
Website: www.vidhyarjan.com Email: contact@vidhyarjan.com Mobile: 9999 249717

Head Office: 1/3-H-A-2, Street # 6, East Azad Nagar, Delhi-110051

(One Km from ‘Welcome’ Metro Station)
Class XII Chapter 7 – Alternating Current Physics

(b) Obtain the rms values of potential drops across each element.
(c) What is the average power transferred to the inductor?
(d) What is the average power transferred to the capacitor?
(e) What is the total average power absorbed by the circuit? [‘Average’ implies
‘averaged over one cycle’.]
Answer
Inductance, L = 80 mH = 80 × 10−3 H
Capacitance, C = 60 µF = 60 × 10−6 F
Supply voltage, V = 230 V
Frequency, ν = 50 Hz
Angular frequency, ω = 2πν= 100 π rad/s

Peak voltage, V0 =
(a) Maximum current is given as:

The negative sign appears because

Amplitude of maximum current,

Hence, rms value of current,

(b) Potential difference across the inductor,
VL= I × ωL
= 8.22 × 100 π × 80 × 10−3
= 206.61 V

Page 19 of 29
Website: www.vidhyarjan.com Email: contact@vidhyarjan.com Mobile: 9999 249717

Head Office: 1/3-H-A-2, Street # 6, East Azad Nagar, Delhi-110051

(One Km from ‘Welcome’ Metro Station)
Class XII Chapter 7 – Alternating Current Physics

Potential difference across the capacitor,

(c) Average power consumed by the inductor is zero as actual voltage leads the current

by .

(d) Average power consumed by the capacitor is zero as voltage lags current by .
(e) The total power absorbed (averaged over one cycle) is zero.

Question 7.19:
Suppose the circuit in Exercise 7.18 has a resistance of 15 Ω. Obtain the average power
transferred to each element of the circuit, and the total power absorbed.
Answer
Average power transferred to the resistor = 788.44 W
Average power transferred to the capacitor = 0 W
Total power absorbed by the circuit = 788.44 W
Inductance of inductor, L = 80 mH = 80 × 10−3 H
Capacitance of capacitor, C = 60 µF = 60 × 10−6 F
Resistance of resistor, R = 15 Ω
Potential of voltage supply, V = 230 V
Frequency of signal, ν = 50 Hz
Angular frequency of signal, ω = 2πν= 2π × (50) = 100π rad/s
The elements are connected in series to each other. Hence, impedance of the circuit is
given as:

Page 20 of 29
Website: www.vidhyarjan.com Email: contact@vidhyarjan.com Mobile: 9999 249717

Head Office: 1/3-H-A-2, Street # 6, East Azad Nagar, Delhi-110051

(One Km from ‘Welcome’ Metro Station)
Class XII Chapter 7 – Alternating Current Physics

Current flowing in the circuit,

Average power transferred to resistance is given as:
PR= I2R
= (7.25)2 × 15 = 788.44 W
Average power transferred to capacitor, PC = Average power transferred to inductor, PL
=0
Total power absorbed by the circuit:
= P R + P C + PL
= 788.44 + 0 + 0 = 788.44 W
Hence, the total power absorbed by the circuit is 788.44 W.

Question 7.20:
A series LCR circuit with L = 0.12 H, C = 480 nF, R = 23 Ω is connected to a 230 V
variable frequency supply.
(a) What is the source frequency for which current amplitude is maximum. Obtain this
maximum value.
(b) What is the source frequency for which average power absorbed by the circuit is
maximum. Obtain the value of this maximum power.
(c) For which frequencies of the source is the power transferred to the circuit half the
power at resonant frequency? What is the current amplitude at these frequencies?
(d) What is the Q-factor of the given circuit?
Answer
Inductance, L = 0.12 H
Capacitance, C = 480 nF = 480 × 10−9 F
Resistance, R = 23 Ω

Page 21 of 29
Website: www.vidhyarjan.com Email: contact@vidhyarjan.com Mobile: 9999 249717

Head Office: 1/3-H-A-2, Street # 6, East Azad Nagar, Delhi-110051

(One Km from ‘Welcome’ Metro Station)
Class XII Chapter 7 – Alternating Current Physics

Supply voltage, V = 230 V

Peak voltage is given as:

V0 = = 325.22 V

(a) Current flowing in the circuit is given by the relation,

Where,
I0 = maximum at resonance
At resonance, we have

Where,
ωR = Resonance angular frequency

∴Resonant frequency,

And, maximum current

(b) Maximum average power absorbed by the circuit is given as:

Hence, resonant frequency ( ) is

Page 22 of 29
Website: www.vidhyarjan.com Email: contact@vidhyarjan.com Mobile: 9999 249717

Head Office: 1/3-H-A-2, Street # 6, East Azad Nagar, Delhi-110051

(One Km from ‘Welcome’ Metro Station)
Class XII Chapter 7 – Alternating Current Physics

(c) The power transferred to the circuit is half the power at resonant frequency.

Frequencies at which power transferred is half, =

Where,

Hence, change in frequency,

And,
Hence, at 648.22 Hz and 678.74 Hz frequencies, the power transferred is half.
At these frequencies, current amplitude can be given as:

(d) Q-factor of the given circuit can be obtained using the relation,

Hence, the Q-factor of the given circuit is 21.74.

Question 7.21:
Obtain the resonant frequency and Q-factor of a series LCR circuit with L = 3.0 H, C =
27 µF, and R = 7.4 Ω. It is desired to improve the sharpness of the resonance of the

Page 23 of 29
Website: www.vidhyarjan.com Email: contact@vidhyarjan.com Mobile: 9999 249717

Head Office: 1/3-H-A-2, Street # 6, East Azad Nagar, Delhi-110051

(One Km from ‘Welcome’ Metro Station)
Class XII Chapter 7 – Alternating Current Physics

circuit by reducing its ‘full width at half maximum’ by a factor of 2. Suggest a suitable
way.
Answer
Inductance, L = 3.0 H
Capacitance, C = 27 µF = 27 × 10−6 F
Resistance, R = 7.4 Ω
At resonance, angular frequency of the source for the given LCR series circuit is given
as:

Q-factor of the series:

To improve the sharpness of the resonance by reducing its ‘full width at half maximum’

by a factor of 2 without changing , we need to reduce R to half i.e.,

Resistance =

Question 7.22:
Answer the following questions:
(a) In any ac circuit, is the applied instantaneous voltage equal to the algebraic sum of
the instantaneous voltages across the series elements of the circuit? Is the same true for
rms voltage?
(b) A capacitor is used in the primary circuit of an induction coil.
(c) An applied voltage signal consists of a superposition of a dc voltage and an ac
voltage of high frequency. The circuit consists of an inductor and a capacitor in series.
Show that the dc signal will appear across C and the ac signal across L.

Page 24 of 29
Website: www.vidhyarjan.com Email: contact@vidhyarjan.com Mobile: 9999 249717

Head Office: 1/3-H-A-2, Street # 6, East Azad Nagar, Delhi-110051

(One Km from ‘Welcome’ Metro Station)
Class XII Chapter 7 – Alternating Current Physics

(d) A choke coil in series with a lamp is connected to a dc line. The lamp is seen to shine
brightly. Insertion of an iron core in the choke causes no change in the lamp’s
brightness. Predict the corresponding observations if the connection is to an ac line.
(e) Why is choke coil needed in the use of fluorescent tubes with ac mains? Why can we
not use an ordinary resistor instead of the choke coil?
Answer
(a) Yes; the statement is not true for rms voltage
It is true that in any ac circuit, the applied voltage is equal to the average sum of the
instantaneous voltages across the series elements of the circuit. However, this is not
true for rms voltage because voltages across different elements may not be in phase.
(b) High induced voltage is used to charge the capacitor.

A capacitor is used in the primary circuit of an induction coil. This is because when the
circuit is broken, a high induced voltage is used to charge the capacitor to avoid sparks.
(c) The dc signal will appear across capacitor C because for dc signals, the impedance of
an inductor (L) is negligible while the impedance of a capacitor (C) is very high (almost
infinite). Hence, a dc signal appears across C. For an ac signal of high frequency, the
impedance of L is high and that of C is very low. Hence, an ac signal of high frequency
appears across L.
(d) If an iron core is inserted in the choke coil (which is in series with a lamp connected
to the ac line), then the lamp will glow dimly. This is because the choke coil and the iron
core increase the impedance of the circuit.
(e) A choke coil is needed in the use of fluorescent tubes with ac mains because it
reduces the voltage across the tube without wasting much power. An ordinary resistor
cannot be used instead of a choke coil for this purpose because it wastes power in the
form of heat.

Question 7.23:
A power transmission line feeds input power at 2300 V to a stepdown transformer with
its primary windings having 4000 turns. What should be the number of turns in the
secondary in order to get output power at 230 V?
Answer
Input voltage, V1 = 2300

Page 25 of 29
Website: www.vidhyarjan.com Email: contact@vidhyarjan.com Mobile: 9999 249717

Head Office: 1/3-H-A-2, Street # 6, East Azad Nagar, Delhi-110051

(One Km from ‘Welcome’ Metro Station)
Class XII Chapter 7 – Alternating Current Physics

Number of turns in primary coil, n1 = 4000

Output voltage, V2 = 230 V
Number of turns in secondary coil = n2
Voltage is related to the number of turns as:

Hence, there are 400 turns in the second winding.

Question 7.24:
At a hydroelectric power plant, the water pressure head is at a height of 300 m and the
water flow available is 100 m3 s−1. If the turbine generator efficiency is 60%, estimate
the electric power available from the plant (g= 9.8 m s−2).
Answer
Height of water pressure head, h = 300 m
Volume of water flow per second, V = 100 m3/s
Efficiency of turbine generator, n = 60% = 0.6
Acceleration due to gravity, g = 9.8 m/s2
Density of water, ρ = 103 kg/m3
Electric power available from the plant = η × hρgV
= 0.6 × 300 × 103 × 9.8 × 100
= 176.4 × 106 W
= 176.4 MW

Question 7.25:
A small town with a demand of 800 kW of electric power at 220 V is situated 15 km
away from an electric plant generating power at 440 V. The resistance of the two wire
line carrying power is 0.5 Ω per km. The town gets power from the line through a 4000-
220 V step-down transformer at a sub-station in the town.
(a) Estimate the line power loss in the form of heat.

Page 26 of 29
Website: www.vidhyarjan.com Email: contact@vidhyarjan.com Mobile: 9999 249717

Head Office: 1/3-H-A-2, Street # 6, East Azad Nagar, Delhi-110051

(One Km from ‘Welcome’ Metro Station)
Class XII Chapter 7 – Alternating Current Physics

(b) How much power must the plant supply, assuming there is negligible power loss due
to leakage?
(c) Characterise the step up transformer at the plant.
Answer
Total electric power required, P = 800 kW = 800 × 103 W
Supply voltage, V = 220 V
Voltage at which electric plant is generating power, V' = 440 V
Distance between the town and power generating station, d = 15 km
Resistance of the two wire lines carrying power = 0.5 Ω/km
Total resistance of the wires, R = (15 + 15)0.5 = 15 Ω
A step-down transformer of rating 4000 − 220 V is used in the sub-station.
Input voltage, V1 = 4000 V
Output voltage, V2 = 220 V
Rms current in the wire lines is given as:

(a) Line power loss = I2R

= (200)2 × 15
= 600 × 103 W
= 600 kW
(b) Assuming that the power loss is negligible due to the leakage of the current:
Total power supplied by the plant = 800 kW + 600 kW
= 1400 kW
(c) Voltage drop in the power line = IR = 200 × 15 = 3000 V
Hence, total voltage transmitted from the plant = 3000 + 4000
= 7000 V
Also, the power generated is 440 V.
Hence, the rating of the step-up transformer situated at the power plant is 440 V − 7000
V.

Page 27 of 29
Website: www.vidhyarjan.com Email: contact@vidhyarjan.com Mobile: 9999 249717

Head Office: 1/3-H-A-2, Street # 6, East Azad Nagar, Delhi-110051

(One Km from ‘Welcome’ Metro Station)
Class XII Chapter 7 – Alternating Current Physics

Question 7.26:
Do the same exercise as above with the replacement of the earlier transformer by a
40,000-220 V step-down transformer (Neglect, as before, leakage losses though this
may not be a good assumption any longer because of the very high voltage transmission
involved). Hence, explain why high voltage transmission is preferred?
Answer
The rating of a step-down transformer is 40000 V−220 V.
Input voltage, V1 = 40000 V
Output voltage, V2 = 220 V
Total electric power required, P = 800 kW = 800 × 103 W
Source potential, V = 220 V
Voltage at which the electric plant generates power, V' = 440 V
Distance between the town and power generating station, d = 15 km
Resistance of the two wire lines carrying power = 0.5 Ω/km
Total resistance of the wire lines, R = (15 + 15)0.5 = 15 Ω
P = V1I
Rms current in the wire line is given as:

(a) Line power loss = I2R

= (20)2 × 15
= 6 kW
(b) Assuming that the power loss is negligible due to the leakage of current.
Hence, power supplied by the plant = 800 kW + 6kW = 806 kW
(c) Voltage drop in the power line = IR = 20 × 15 = 300 V
Hence, voltage that is transmitted by the power plant
= 300 + 40000 = 40300 V
The power is being generated in the plant at 440 V.
Hence, the rating of the step-up transformer needed at the plant is
440 V − 40300 V.

Page 28 of 29
Website: www.vidhyarjan.com Email: contact@vidhyarjan.com Mobile: 9999 249717

Head Office: 1/3-H-A-2, Street # 6, East Azad Nagar, Delhi-110051

(One Km from ‘Welcome’ Metro Station)
Class XII Chapter 7 – Alternating Current Physics

Hence, power loss during transmission =

In the previous exercise, the power loss due to the same reason is .
Since the power loss is less for a high voltage transmission, high voltage transmissions
are preferred for this purpose.

Page 29 of 29
Website: www.vidhyarjan.com Email: contact@vidhyarjan.com Mobile: 9999 249717

Head Office: 1/3-H-A-2, Street # 6, East Azad Nagar, Delhi-110051

(One Km from ‘Welcome’ Metro Station)
 CBSE Class –XII Physics
NCERT Solutions
Chapter – 8
Electromagnetic waves

1: Figure 8.6 shows a capacitor made of two circular plates each of radius 12 cm, and
separated by 5.0 cm. The capacitor is being charged by an external source (not shown in
the figure). The charging current is constant and equal to 0.15 A.

(a) Calculate the capacitance and the rate of charge of potential difference between the
plates.

(b) Obtain the displacement current across the plates.

(c) Is Kirchhoff's first rule (junction rule) valid at each plate of the capacitor? Explain.

Ans: Radius of each circular plate, r = 12 cm = m

Distance between the plates, d = 5 cm = m

Charging current, I = 0.15 A

Permittivity of free space, =

(a) Capacitance between the two plates is given by the relation,

A = Area of each plate

. 1 / 16
Charge on each plate, q = CV

Where,

V = Potential difference across the plates

Differentiation on both sides with respect to time (t) gives:

Therefore, the change in potential difference between the plates is V/s.

(b) The displacement current across the plates is the same as the conduction current. Hence,
the displacement current, id is 0.15 A.

(c) Yes

Kirchhoff's first rule is valid at each plate of the capacitor since displacement current is
equal to conduction current.

2: A parallel plate capacitor (Fig. 8.7) made of circular plates each of radius R = 6.0 cm
has a capacitance C = 100 pF. The capacitor is connected to a 230 V ac supply with a
(angular) frequency of 300 rad .

(a) What is the rms value of the conduction current?

(b) Is the conduction current equal to the displacement current?

. 2 / 16
(c) Determine the amplitude of B at a point 3.0 cm from the axis between the plates.

Ans: Radius of each circular plate, R = 6.0 cm = 0.06 m

Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor, C = 100 pF =

Supply voltage, V = 230 V

Angular frequency, = 300 rad

(a) Rms value of conduction current,

Where,

Xc = Capacitive reactance

∴I= ×

= 6.9

Hence, the rms value of conduction current is 6.9

(b) Yes, conduction current is equal to displacement current.

(c) Magnetic field is given as:

Where,

= Free space permeability

I0 = Maximum value of current =

. 3 / 16
r = Distance between the plates from the axis = 3.0 cm = 0.03 m

= Hence, the magnetic field at that point is

3: What physical quantity is the same for X-rays of wavelength 10-10 m, red light of
wavelength 6800 and radiowaves of wavelength 500 m?

Ans: The speed of light ( m/s) in a vacuum is the same for all wavelengths. It is
independent of the wavelength in the vacuum.

4: A plane electromagnetic wave travels in vacuum along z-direction. What can you say
about the directions of its electric and magnetic field vectors? If the frequency of the
wave is 30 MHz, what is its wavelength?

Ans: The electromagnetic wave travels in a vacuum along the z-direction. The electric field
(E) and the magnetic field (H) are in the x-y plane. They are mutually perpendicular.

Frequency of the wave, = 30 MHz =

Speed of light in a vacuum, c = m/s

Wavelength of a wave is given as:

5: A radio can tune in to any station in the 7.5 MHz to 12 MHz band. What is the
corresponding wavelength band?

. 4 / 16
Ans: A radio can tune to minimum frequency, = 7.5 MHz=

Maximum frequency, = 12 MHz =

Speed of light, c = m/s

Corresponding wavelength for can be calculated as:

Corresponding wavelength for v can be calculated as:

Thus, the wavelength band of the radio is 40 m to 25 m.

6: A charged particle oscillates about its mean equilibrium position with a frequency of
Hz. What is the frequency of the electromagnetic waves produced by the
oscillator?

Ans: The frequency of an electromagnetic wave produced by the oscillator is the same as
that of a charged particle oscillating about its mean position i.e., Hz.

7: The amplitude of the magnetic field part of a harmonic electromagnetic wave in

vacuum is = 510 nT. What is the amplitude of the electric field part of the wave?

Ans: Amplitude of magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave in a vacuum,

B0 = 510 nT =

. 5 / 16
Speed of light in a vacuum, c =

Amplitude of electric field of the electromagnetic wave is given by the relation,

= = 153 N/C

Therefore, the electric field part of the wave is 153 N/C.

8: Suppose that the electric field amplitude of an electromagnetic wave is = 120 N/C

and that its frequency is = 50.0 MHz. (a) Determine, (b) Find

expressions for E and B.

Ans: Electric field amplitude, = 120 N/C

Frequency of source, = 50.0 MHz =

Speed of light, c = m/s

(a) Magnitude of magnetic field strength is given as:

Angular frequency of source is given as:

= 3.14 × 108 rad/s

Propagation constant is given as:

. 6 / 16
Wavelength of wave is given as:

(b) Suppose the wave is propagating in the positive x direction. Then, the electric field vector
will be in the positive y direction and the magnetic field vector will be in the positive z
direction. This is because all three vectors are mutually perpendicular.

Equation of electric field vector is given as:

And, magnetic field vector is given as:

Tesla

9: The terminology of different parts of the electromagnetic spectrum is given in the

text. Use the formula E = (for energy of a quantum of radiation: photon) and obtain
the photon energy in units of eV for different parts of the electromagnetic spectrum. In
what way are the different scales of photon energies that you obtain related to the
sources of electromagnetic radiation?

Ans: Energy of a photon is given as:

. 7 / 16
Where,

h = Planck's constant =

c = Speed of light = m/s

= Wavelength of radiation

eV

The given table lists the photon energies for different parts of an electromagnetic spectrum
for different .

(m) 103 1

E (eV)

The photon energies for the different parts of the spectrum of a source indicate the spacing
of the relevant energy levels of the source.

10: In a plane electromagnetic wave, the electric field oscillates sinusoid ally at a
frequency of and amplitude 48 V .

(a) What is the wavelength of the wave?

(b) What is the amplitude of the oscillating magnetic field?

(c) Show that the average energy density of the E field equals the average energy
density of the B field. [c = ]

Ans: Frequency of the electromagnetic wave,

. 8 / 16
Electric field amplitude,

Speed of light, c =

(a) Wavelength of a wave is given as:

(b) Magnetic field strength is given as:

(c) Energy density of the electric field is given as:

And, energy density of the magnetic field is given as:

Where,

∈0 = Permittivity of free space

= Permeability of free space

We have the relation connecting E and B as:

E = cB … (1)

. 9 / 16
Where,

… (2)

Putting equation (2) in equation (1), we get

Squaring both sides, we get

11: Suppose that the electric field part of an electromagnetic wave in vacuum is E =

{(3.1 N/C) cos [(1.8 rad/m) y + ( rad/s)t]} .

(a) What is the direction of propagation?

(b) What is the wavelength ?

(c) What is the frequency ?

(d) What is the amplitude of the magnetic field part of the wave?

(e) Write an expression for the magnetic field part of the wave.

. 10 / 16
Ans: (a) From the given electric field vector, it can be inferred that the electric field is
directed along the negative x direction. Hence, the direction of motion is along the negative y
direction i.e., .

(b) It is given that,

…(i)

The general equation for the electric field vector in the positive x direction can be written as:

…(2)

On comparing equations (1) and (2), we get

Electric field amplitude, = 3.1 N/C

Angular frequency,

Wave number, k = 1.8 rad/m

Wavelength,

(c) Frequency of wave is given as:

(d) Magnetic field strength is given as:

Where,

c = Speed of light =

(e) On observing the given vector field, it can be observed that the magnetic field vector is

. 11 / 16
directed along the negative z direction. Hence, the general equation for the magnetic field
vector is written as:

12: About 5% of the power of a 100 W light bulb is converted to visible radiation. What
is the average intensity of visible radiation

(a) at a distance of 1 m from the bulb?

(b) at a distance of 10 m?

Assume that the radiation is emitted isotropic ally and neglect reflection.

Ans: Power rating of bulb, P = 100 W

It is given that about 5% of its power is converted into visible radiation.

Power of visible radiation,

Hence, the power of visible radiation is 5W.

(a) Distance of a point from the bulb, d = 1 m

Hence, intensity of radiation at that point is given as:

(b) Distance of a point from the bulb, = 10 m

Hence, intensity of radiation at that point is given as:

. 12 / 16
13: Use the formula T= 0.29 cm K to obtain the characteristic temperature ranges for

different parts of the electromagnetic spectrum. What do the numbers that you obtain
tell you?

Ans: A body at a particular temperature produces a continuous spectrum of wavelengths. In

case of a black body, the wavelength corresponding to maximum intensity of radiation is
given according to Planck's law. It can be given by the relation,

Where,

= maximum wavelength

T = temperature

Thus, the temperature for different wavelengths can be obtained as:

For = ;

For = ;

For = cm; and so on.

The numbers obtained tell us that temperature ranges are required for obtaining radiations
in different parts of an electromagnetic spectrum. As the wavelength decreases, the
corresponding temperature increases.

. 13 / 16
14: Given below are some famous numbers associated with electromagnetic radiations
in different contexts in physics. State the part of the electromagnetic spectrum to
which each belongs.

(a) 21 cm (wavelength emitted by atomic hydrogen in interstellar space).

(b) 1057 MHz (frequency of radiation arising from two close energy levels in hydrogen ;
known as Lamb shift).

(c) 2.7 K [temperature associated with the isotropic radiation filling all space-thought to
be a relic of the 'big-bang' origin of the universe].

(d) 5890 - 5896 [double lines of sodium]

(e) 14.4 keV [energy of a particular transition in 57Fe nucleus associated with a famous
high resolution spectroscopic method

(Mossbauer spectroscopy)].

Ans: (a) Radio waves; it belongs to the short wavelength end of the electromagnetic
spectrum.

(b) Radio waves; it belongs to the short wavelength end.

(c) Temperature, T = 2.7 °K

is given by Planck's law as:

This wavelength corresponds to microwaves.

(d) This is the yellow light of the visible spectrum.

(e) Transition energy is given by the relation,

E=

Where,

. 14 / 16
h = Planck's constant =

= Frequency of radiation

Energy, E = 14.4 K eV

This corresponds to X-rays.

15: Answer the following questions:

(a) Long distance radio broadcasts use short-wave bands. Why?

(b) It is necessary to use satellites for long distance TV transmission. Why?

(c) Optical and radio telescopes are built on the ground but X-ray astronomy is possible
only from satellites orbiting the earth. Why?

(d) The small ozone layer on top of the stratosphere is crucial for human survival.
Why?

(e) If the earth did not have an atmosphere, would its average surface temperature be
higher or lower than what it is now?

(f) Some scientists have predicted that a global nuclear war on the earth would be
followed by a severe 'nuclear winter' with a devastating effect on life on earth. What
might be the basis of this prediction?

Ans: (a) Long distance radio broadcasts use shortwave bands because only these bands can
be refracted by the ionosphere.

(b) It is necessary to use satellites for long distance TV transmissions because television

. 15 / 16
signals are of high frequencies and high energies. Thus, these signals are not reflected by the
ionosphere. Hence, satellites are helpful in reflecting TV signals. Also, they help in long
distance TV transmissions.

(c) With reference to X-ray astronomy, X-rays are absorbed by the atmosphere. However,
visible and radio waves can penetrate it. Hence, optical and radio telescopes are built on the
ground, while X-ray astronomy is possible only with the help of satellites orbiting the Earth.

(d) The small ozone layer on the top of the atmosphere is crucial for human survival because
it absorbs harmful ultraviolet radiations present in sunlight and prevents it from reaching
the Earth's surface.

(e) In the absence of an atmosphere, there would be no greenhouse effect on the surface of
the Earth. As a result, the temperature of the Earth would decrease rapidly, making it chilly
and difficult for human survival.

(f) A global nuclear war on the surface of the Earth would have disastrous consequences.
Post-nuclear war, the Earth will experience severe winter as the war will produce clouds of
smoke that would cover maximum parts of the sky, thereby preventing solar light form
reaching the atmosphere. Also, it would lead to the depletion of the ozone layer too.

. 16 / 16
Question 9.1:

A small candle, 2.5 cm in size is placed at 27 cm in front of a concave mirror of radius of

curvature 36 cm. At what distance from the mirror should a screen be placed in order to
obtain a sharp image? Describe the nature and size of the image. If the candle is moved
closer to the mirror, how would the screen have to be moved?

Answer

Size of the candle, h = 2.5 cm

Image size = h’

Object distance, u = −27 cm

Radius of curvature of the concave mirror, R = −36 cm

Focal length of the concave mirror,

Image distance = v

The image distance can be obtained using the mirror formula:

Therefore, the screen should be placed 54 cm away from the mirror to obtain a sharp
image.

The magnification of the image is given as:

The height of the candle’s
le’s image is 5 cm. The negative sign indicates that the image is
inverted and virtual.

If the candle is moved closer to the mirror, then the screen will have to be moved away
from the mirror in order to obtain the image.

Question 9.2:

A 4.5 cm needle is placed 12 cm away from a convex mirror of focal length 15 cm. Give
the location of the image and the magnification. Describe what happens as the needle is
moved farther from the mirror.

Answer

Height of the needle, h1 = 4.5 cm

Object distance, u = −12 cm

Focal length of the convex mirror, f = 15 cm

Image distance = v

The value of v can be obtained using the mirror formula:

Hence, the image of the needle is 6.7 cm away from the mirror. Also, it is on the other
side of the mirror.

The image size is given by the magnification formula:

Hence, magnification of the image,

The height of the image is 2.5 cm. The positive sign indicates that the image is erect,
virtual, and diminished.

If the needle is moved farther from the mirror,

mirror, the image will also move away from the
mirror, and the size of the image will reduce gradually.

Question 9.3:

A tank is filled with water to a height of 12.5 cm. The apparent depth of a needle lying at
the bottom of the tank is measured by a microscope to be 9.4 cm. What is the refractive
index of water? If water is replaced by a liquid of refractive index 1.63 up to the same
height, by what distance would the microscope have to be moved to focus on the needle
again?

Answer

Actual depth of the needle in water, h1 = 12.5 cm

Apparent depth of the needle in water, h2 = 9.4 cm

Refractive index of water = μ

The value of μ can be obtained as follows:

Hence, the refractive index of water is about 1.33.

Water is replaced by a liquid of refractive index,

The actual depth of the needle remains the same, but its apparent depth changes. Let y be
the new apparent depth of the needle. Hence, we can write the relation:

Hence, the new apparent depth of the needle

ne is 7.67 cm. It is less than h2. Therefore, to
focus the needle again, the microscope should be moved up.

∴Distance
Distance by which the microscope should be moved up = 9.4 − 7.67

= 1.73 cm

Question 9.4:

Figures 9.34(a) and (b) show refraction of a ray in air incident at 60° with the normal to a
glass-air and water-air
air interface, respectively. Predict the angle of refraction in glass
when the angle of incidence in water is 45º with the normal to a water-glass
water glass interface
[Fig. 9.34(c)].

Answer
As per the given figure, for the glass − air interface:

Angle of incidence, i = 60°

Angle of refraction, r = 35°

The relative refractive index of glass with respect to air is given by Snell’s law as:

As per the given figure, for the air − water interface:

Angle of incidence, i = 60°

Angle of refraction, r = 47°

The relative refractive index of water with respect to air is given by Snell’s law as:

Using (1) and (2), the relative refractive index of glass with respect to water can be
obtained as:

The following figure shows the situation involving the glass − water interface.
Angle of incidence, i = 45°

Angle of refraction = r

From Snell’s law, r can be calculated as:

Hence, the angle of refraction at the water − glass interface is 38.68°.

Question 9.5:

A small bulb is placed at the bottom of a tank containing water to a depth of 80 cm. What
is the area of the surface of water through which light from the bulb can emerge out?
Refractive index of water is 1.33. (Consider the bulb to be a point source.)

Answer

Actual depth of the bulb in water, d1 = 80 cm = 0.8 m

Refractive index of water,

The given situation is shown in the following figure:

Where,

i = Angle of incidence

r = Angle of refraction = 90°

Since the bulb is a point source, the emergent light can be considered as a circle of radius,

Using Snell’ law, we can write the relation for the refractive index of water as:

Using the given figure, we have the relation:

∴R = tan 48.75° × 0.8 = 0.91 m

∴Area π 2 = π (0.91)2 = 2.61 m2

Area of the surface of water = πR

Hence, the area of the surface of water through which the light from the bulb can emerge
is approximately 2.61 m2.

Question 9.6:

A prism is made of glass of unknown refractive index. A parallel beam of light is incident
on a face of the prism. The angle of minimum deviation is measured to be 40°. What is
the refractive index of the material of the prism? The refracting angle of the prism is 60°.
If the prism is placed in water (refractive index 1.33), predict the new angle of minimum
deviation of a parallel beam of light.

Answer

Angle of minimum deviation, = 40°

Angle of the prism, A = 60°

Refractive index of water, µ = 1.33

Refractive index of the material of the prism =

The angle of deviation is related to refractive index as:

Hence, the refractive index of the material of the prism is 1.532.

Since the prism is placed in water, let be the new angle of minimum deviation for the
same prism.

The refractive index of glass with respect to water is given by the relation:
Hence, the new minimum angle of deviation is 10.32°.

Question 9.7:

Double-convex
convex lenses are to be manufactured from a glass of refractive index 1.55
1.55, with
both faces of the same radius of curvature. What is the radius of curvature required if the
focal length is to be 20 cm?

Answer

Refractive index of glass,

Focal length of the double-convex

convex lens, f = 20 cm

Radius of curvature of one face of the lens = R1

Radius of curvature of the other face of the lens = R2

Radius of curvature of the double-convex

double lens = R
The value of R can be calculated as:

Hence, the radius of curvature of the double-convex

double lens is 22 cm.

Question 9.8:

A beam of light converges at a point P. Now a lens is placed in the path of the convergent
beam 12 cm from P. At what point does the beam converge if the lens is (a) a convex lens
of focal length 20 cm, and (b) a concave lens of focal length 16 cm?

Answer

In the given situation, the object is virtual and the image formed is real.

Object distance, u = +12 cm

Focal length of the convex lens, f = 20 cm

Image distance = v

According to the lens formula, we have the relation:

Hence, the image is formed 7.5 cm away from the lens, toward its right.

Focal length of the concave lens, f = −16 cm

Image distance = v

According to the lens formula, we have the relation:

Hence, the image is formed 48 cm away from the lens, toward its right.

Question 9.9:

An object of size 3.0 cm is placed 14 cm in front of a concave lens of focal length 21 cm.
Describe the image produced by the lens. What happens if the object is moved further
away from the lens?

Answer

Size of the object, h1 = 3 cm

Object distance, u = −14 cm

Focal length of the concave lens, f = −21 cm

Image distance = v

According to the lens formula, we have the relation:

Hence, the image is formed on the other side of the lens, 8.4 cm away from it. The
negative sign shows that the image is erect and virtual.

The magnification of the image is given as:

Hence, the height of the image is 1.8 cm.

If the object is moved further away from the lens, then the virtual image will move
toward the focus of the lens, but not beyond it. The size of the image will decrease with
the increase in the object distance.

Question 9.10:

What is the focal length of a convex lens of focal length 30 cm in contact with a concave
lens of focal length 20 cm? Is the system a converging or a diverging lens? Ignore
thickness of the lenses.

Answer

Focal length of the convex lens, f1 = 30 cm

Focal length of the concave lens, f2 = −20 cm

Focal length of the system of lenses = f

The equivalent focal length of a system of two lenses in contact is given as:

Hence, the focal length of the combination of lenses is 60 cm. The negative sign indicates
that the system of lenses acts as a diverging lens.
Question 9.11:

A compound microscope consists of an objective lens of focal length 2.0 cm and an

eyepiece of focal length 6.25 cm separated by a distance of 15 cm. How far from the
objective should an object be placed in order to obtain the final image at (a) the least
distance of distinct vision (25 cm), and (b) at infinity? What is the magnifying power of
the microscope
icroscope in each case?

Answer

Focal length of the objective lens, f1 = 2.0 cm

Focal length of the eyepiece, f2 = 6.25 cm

Distance between the objective lens and the eyepiece, d = 15 cm

Least distance of distinct vision,

∴Image
Image distance for the eyepiece, v2 = −25 cm

Object distance for the eyepiece = u2

According to the lens formula, we have the relation:

Image distance for the objective lens,

Object distance for the objective lens = u1

According to the lens formula, we have the relation:

Magnitude of the object distance, = 2.5 cm

The magnifying power of a compound microscope is given by the relation:

Hence, the magnifying power of the microscope is 20.

The final image is formed at infinity.

∴Image distance for the eyepiece,

Object distance for the eyepiece = u2

According to the lens formula, we have the relation:

Image distance for the objective lens,

Object distance for the objective lens = u1

According to the lens formula, we have the relation:

Magnitude of the object distance, = 2.59 cm

The magnifying power of a compound microscope is given by the relation:

Hence, the magnifying power of the microscope is 13.51.

Question 9.12:

A person with a normal near point (25 cm) using a compound microscope with objective
of focal length 8.0 mm and an eyepiece of focal length 2.5 cm can bring an object placed
at 9.0 mm from the objective in sharp focus. What is the separation between the two
lenses? Calculate the magnifying power of the microscope,
microscope

Answer

Focal length of the objective lens, fo = 8 mm = 0.8 cm

Focal length of the eyepiece, fe = 2.5 cm

Object distance for the objective lens, uo = −9.0 mm = −0.9 cm

Least distance of distant vision, d = 25 cm

Image distance for the eyepiece, ve = −d = −25 cm

Object distance for the eyepiece =

Using the lens formula, we can obtain the value of as:

We can also obtain the value of the image distance for the objective lens using the
lens formula.

The distance between the objective lens and the

th eyepiece

The magnifying power of the microscope is calculated as:

Hence, the magnifying power of the microscope is 88.

Question 9.13:
A small telescope has an objective lens of focal length 144 cm and an eyepiece of focal
length 6.0 cm. What is the magnifying power of the telescope? What is the separation
between the objective and the eyepiece?

Answer

Focal length of the objective lens, fo = 144 cm

Focal length of the eyepiece, fe = 6.0 cm

The magnifying power of the telescope is given

gi as:

The separation between the objective lens and the eyepiece is calculated as:

Hence, the magnifying power of the telescope is 24 and the separation between the
objective lens and the eyepiece is 150 cm.

Question 9.14:

A giant refracting telescope at an observatory has an objective lens of focal length 15 m.

If an eyepiece of focal length 1.0 cm is used, what is the angular magnification of the
telescope?

If this telescope is used to view the moon, what is the diameter of the image of the moon
formed by the objective lens? The diameter of the moon is 3.48 × 106 m, and the radius of
lunar orbit is 3.8 × 108 m.

Answer
Focal length of the objective lens, fo = 15 m = 15 × 102 cm

Focal length of the eyepiece, fe = 1.0 cm

The angular magnification of a telescope is given as:

Hence, the angular magnification of the given refracting telescope is 1500.

Diameter of the moon, d = 3.48 × 106 m

Radius of the lunar orbit, r0 = 3.8 × 108 m

Let be the diameter of the image

image of the moon formed by the objective lens.

The angle subtended by the diameter of the moon is equal to the angle subtended by the
image.

Hence, the diameter of the moon’s image formed by the objective lens is 13.74 cm

Question 9.15:

Use the mirror equation to deduce that:

an object placed between f and 2f

2 of a concave mirror produces a real image beyond 22f.

a convex mirror always produces a virtual image independent of the location of the
object.

the virtual image produced by a convex mirror is always diminished in size and is located
between the focus and the pole.
an object placed between the pole and focus of a concave mirror produces a virtual and
enlarged image.

[Note: This exercise helps you deduce algebraically properties of

images that one obtains from explicit ray diagrams.]

Answer

For a concave mirror, the focal length (f) is negative.

∴f < 0

When the object is placed on the left side of the mirror, the object distance (u) is negative.

∴u < 0

For image distance v, we can write the lens formula as:

The object lies between f and 2f.

Using equation (1), we get:

∴ is negative, i.e., v is negative.

Therefore, the image lies beyond 2f.

For a convex mirror, the focal length (f) is positive.

∴f>0

When the object is placed on the left side of the mirror, the object distance (u) is negative.

∴u<0

For image distance v, we have the mirror formula:

Thus, the image is formed on the back side of the mirror.

Hence, a convex mirror always produces a virtual image, regardless of the object
distance.

For a convex mirror, the focal length (f) is positive.

∴f > 0

When the object is placed on the left side of the mirror, the object distance (u) is negative,

∴u < 0

For image distance v, we have the mirror formula:

Hence, the image formed is diminished and is located between the focus (f) and the pole.

For a concave mirror, the focal length (f) is negative.

∴f < 0

When the object is placed on the left side of the mirror, the object distance (u) is negative.

∴u < 0

It is placed between the focus (f) and the pole.

For image distance v, we have the mirror formula:

The image is formed on the right side of the mirror. Hence, it is a virtual image.

For u < 0 and v > 0, we can write:

Magnification, m >1

Hence, the formed image is enlarged.

Question 9.16:

A small pin fixed on a table top is viewed from above from a distance of 50 cm. By what
distance would the pin appear to be raised if it is viewed from the same point through a 15
cm thick glass slab held parallel to the table?
table? Refractive index of glass = 1.5. Does the
answer depend on the location of the slab?

Answer

Actual depth of the pin, d = 15 cm

Apparent dept of the pin =

Refractive index of glass,

Ratio of actual depth to the apparent depth is equal to the refractive index of glass, i.e.

The distance at which the pin appears to be raised =

For a small angle of incidence, this distance does not depend upon the location of the
slab.

Question 9.17:
Figure 9.35 shows a cross-section of a ‘light pipe’ made of a glass fibre of refractive
index 1.68. The outer covering of the pipe is made of a material of refractive index 1.44.
What is the range of the angles of the incident rays with the axis of the pipe for which
total reflections inside the pipe take place, as shown in the figure.

What is the answer if there is no outer covering of the pipe?

Answer

Refractive index of the glass fibre,

Refractive index of the outer covering of the pipe, = 1.44

Angle of incidence = i

Angle of refraction = r

Angle of incidence at the interface = i’

The refractive index (μ) of the inner core − outer core interface is given as:

For the critical angle, total internal reflection (TIR) takes place only when , i.e., i >
59°

Maximum angle of reflection,

Let, be the maximum angle of incidence.

The refractive index at the air − glass interface,

We have the relation for the maximum angles of incidence and reflection as:

Thus, all the rays incident at angles lying in the range 0 < i < 60° will suffer total interna
internal
reflection.

If the outer covering of the pipe is not present, then:

Refractive index of the outer pipe,

For the angle of incidence i = 90°, we can write Snell’s law at the air − pipe interface as:

Question 9.18:

Answer the following questions:

You have learnt that plane and convex mirrors produce virtual images of objects. Can
they produce real images under some circumstances? Explain.
A virtual image, we always say, cannot be caught on a screen.

Yet when we ‘see’ a virtual image, we are obviously bringing it on to the ‘screen’ (i.e.,
the retina) of our eye. Is there a contradiction?

A diver under water, looks obliquely at a fisherman standing on the bank of a lake. Would
the fisherman look taller or shorter to the diver than what he actually is?

Does the apparent depth of a tank of water change if viewed obliquely? If so, does the
apparent depth increase or decrease?

The refractive index of diamond is much greater than that of ordinary glass. Is this fact of
some use to a diamond cutter?

Answer

Yes

Plane and convex mirrors can produce real images as well. If the object is virtual, i.e., if
the light rays converging at a point behind a plane mirror (or a convex mirror) are
reflected to a point on a screen placed in front of the mirror, then a real image will be
formed.

No

A virtual image is formed when light rays diverge. The convex lens of the eye causes
these divergent rays to converge at the retina. In this case, the virtual image serves as an
object for the lens to produce a real image.

The diver is in the water and the fisherman is on land (i.e., in air). Water is a denser
medium than air. It is given that the diver is viewing the fisherman. This indicates that the
light rays are travelling from a denser medium to a rarer medium. Hence, the refracted
rays will move away from the normal. As a result, the fisherman will appear to be taller.

Yes; Decrease

The apparent depth of a tank of water changes when viewed obliquely. This is because
light bends on travelling from one medium to another. The apparent depth of the tank
when viewed obliquely is less than the near-normal viewing.

Yes

The refractive index of diamond (2.42) is more than that of ordinary glass (1.5). The
critical angle for diamond is less than that for glass. A diamond cutter uses a large angle
of incidence to ensure that the light entering the diamond is totally reflected from its
faces. This is the reason for the sparkling effect of a diamond.

Question 9.19:

The image of a small electric bulb fixed on the wall of a room is to be obtained on the
opposite wall 3 m away by means of a large convex lens. What is the maximum possible
focal length of the lens required for the purpose?

Answer

Distance between the object and the image, d = 3 m

Maximum focal length of the convex lens =

For real images, the maximum focal length is given as:

Hence, for the required purpose, the maximum possible focal length of the convex lens is
0.75 m.

Question 9.20:

A screen is placed 90 cm from an object. The image of the

the object on the screen is formed
by a convex lens at two different locations separated by 20 cm. Determine the focal
length of the lens.

Answer
Distance between the image (screen) and the object, D = 90 cm

Distance between two locations of the convex lens, d = 20 cm

Focal length of the lens = f

Focal length is related to d and D as:

Therefore, the focal length of the convex lens is 21.39 cm.

Question 9.21:

Determine the ‘effective focal length’ of the combination of the two lenses in Exercise
9.10, if they are placed 8.0 cm apart with their principal axes coincident. Does the answer
depend on which side of the combination a beam of parallel light is incident? Is the notion
of effective focal length of this system useful at all?

An object 1.5 cm in size is placed on the side of the convex lens in the arrangement (a)
above. The distance between the object and the convex lens is 40 cm. Determine the
magnification produced by the two
two-lens system, and the size of the image.

Answer

Focal length of the convex lens, f1 = 30 cm

Focal length of the concave lens, f2 = −20 cm

Distance between the two lenses, d = 8.0 cm

When the parallel beam of light is incident on the convex lens first:

According to the lens formula, we have:

Where,

= Object distance = ∞

v1 = Image distance

The image will act as a virtual object for the concave lens.

Applying lens formula to the concave lens, we have:

Where,

= Object distance

= (30 − d) = 30 − 8 = 22 cm

= Image distance

The parallel incident beam appears to diverge from a point that is

from the centre of the combination of the two lenses.

(ii) When the parallel beam of light is incident, from the left, on the concave lens
first:

According to the lens formula, we have:

Where,

= Object distance = −∞

= Image distance

The image will act as a real object for the convex lens.

Applying lens formula to the convex lens, we have:

Where,

= Object distance

= −(20 + d) = −(20 + 8) = −28 cm

= Image distance

Hence, the parallel incident beam appear to diverge from a point that is (420 − 4) 416 cm
from the left of the centre of the combination of the two lenses.

The answer does depend on the side of the combination at which the parallel beam of
light is incident. The notion of effective focal length does not seem to be useful for this
combination.

Height of the image, h1 = 1.5 cm

Object distance from the side of the convex lens,

According to the lens formula:

Where,

= Image distance

Magnification,

Hence, the magnification due to the convex lens is 3.

The image formed by the convex lens acts as an object for the concave lens.

According to the lens formula:

Where,

= Object distance

= +(120 − 8) = 112 cm.

= Image distance

Magnification,
Hence, the magnification due to the concave lens is .

The magnification produced by the combination of the two lenses is calculated as:

The magnification of the combination is given as:

Where,

h1 = Object size = 1.5 cm

h2 = Size of the image

Hence, the height of the image is 0.98 cm.

Question 9.22:

At what angle should a ray of light be incident on the face of a prism of refracting angle
60° so that it just suffers total internal reflection at the other face? The refractive index of
the material of the prism is 1.524.

Answer

The incident, refracted, and emergent rays associated with a glass prism ABC are shown
in the given figure.
Angle of prism, ∠A = 60°

Refractive index of the prism, µ = 1.524

= Incident angle

= Refracted angle

= Angle of incidence at the face AC

e = Emergent angle = 90°

According to Snell’s law, for face AC, we can have:

It is clear from the figure that angle

According to Snell’s law, we have the relation:

Hence, the angle of incidence is 29.75°.

Question 9.23:

You are given prisms made of crown glass and flint glass with a wide variety of angles.
Suggest a combination of prisms which will

deviate a pencil of white light without much dispersion,

disperse (and displace) a pencil of white light without much deviation.

Answer

Place the two prisms beside each other. Make sure that their bases are on the opposite
(a)Place
sides of the incident white light, with their faces touching each other. When the white
light
ight is incident on the first prism, it will get dispersed. When this dispersed light is
incident on the second prism, it will recombine and white light will emerge from the
combination of the two prisms.

Take the system of the two prisms as suggested in

(b)Take i answer (a).. Adjust (increase) the
angle of the flint-glass-prism
prism so that the deviations due to the combination of the prisms
become equal. This combination will disperse the pencil of white light without much
deviation.

Question 9.24:

For a normall eye, the far point is at infinity and the near point of distinct vision is about
25cm in front of the eye. The cornea of the eye provides a converging power of about 40
dioptres, and the least converging power of the eye-lens
eye lens behind the cornea is about 20 2
dioptres. From this rough data estimate the range of accommodation (i.e., the range of
converging power of the eye--lens) of a normal eye.

Answer

Least distance of distinct vision, d = 25 cm

Far point of a normal eye,

Converging power of the cornea,

Least converging power of the eye-lens,

To see the objects at infinity, the eye uses its least converging power.

Power of the eye-lens, P = Pc + Pe = 40 + 20 = 60 D

Power of the eye-lens is given as:

To focus an object at the near point, object distance (u) = −d = −25 cm

Focal length of the eye-lens = Distance between the cornea and the retina

= Image distance

Hence, image distance,

According to the lens formula, we can write:

Where,

= Focal length
∴Power of the eye-lens
lens = 64 − 40 = 24 D

Hence, the range of accommodation of the eye-lens

eye is from 20 D to 24 D.

Question 9.25:

Does short-sightedness
sightedness (myopia) or longlong-sightedness
sightedness (hypermetropia) imply necessarily
that the eye has partially lost its ability of accommodation? If not, what might cause these
defects of vision?

Answer

A myopic or hypermetropic person can also possess the normal ability of accommodation
of the eye-lens.
lens. Myopia occurs when the eye-balls
eye balls get elongated from front to back.
Hypermetropia
metropia occurs when the eye-balls
eye get shortened. When the eye-lens
lens loses its
ability of accommodation, the defect is called presbyopia.

Question 9.26:

A myopic person has been using spectacles of power −1.0 dioptre for distant vision.
During old age
ge he also needs to use separate reading glass of power + 2.0 dioptres.
Explain what may have happened.

Answer
The power of the spectacles used by the myopic person, P = −1.0 D

Focal length of the spectacles,

Hence, the far point of the person is 100 cm. He might have a normal near point of 25 cm.
When he uses the spectacles, the objects placed at infinity produce virtual images at 100
cm. He uses the ability of accommodation of the eye-lens
eye lens to see the objects placed
between 100 cm and 25 cm.

Duringg old age, the person uses reading glasses of power,

The ability of accommodation is lost in old age. This defect is called presbyopia. As a
result, he is unable to see clearly the objects placed at 25 cm.

Question 9.27:

A person looking at a person wearing a shirt with a pattern comprising vertical and
horizontal lines is able to see the vertical lines more distinctly than the horizontal ones.
What is this defect due to? How is such a defect of vision corrected?

Answer

In the given case, the person is able to see vertical lines more distinctly than horizontal
lines. This means that the refracting system (cornea and eye-lens)
eye lens) of the eye is not
working in the same way in different planes. This defect is called astigmatism. The
person’s eye has enough curvature in the vertical plane. However, the curvature in the
horizontal plane is insufficient. Hence, sharp images of the vertical lines are formed on
the retina, but horizontal lines appear blurred. This defect can be corrected by using
cylindrical lenses.

Question 9.28:

A man with normal near point (25 cm) reads a book with small print using a magnifying
glass: a thin convex lens of focal length 5 cm.

What is the closest and the farthest distance at which he should keep the lens from the
page so that he can read the book when viewing through the magnifying glass?
What is the maximum and the minimum angular magnification (magnifying power)
possible using the above simple microscope?

Answer

Focal length of the magnifying glass, f = 5 cm

Least distance of distance vision, d = 25 cm

Closest object distance = u

Image distance, v = −d = −25 cm

According to the lens formula, we have:

Hence, the closest distance at which the person can read the book is 4.167 cm.

For the object at the farthest distant (u’), the image distance

According to the lens formula, we have:

Hence, the farthest distance at which the person can read the book is
5 cm.

Maximum angular magnification is given by the relation:

Minimum angular magnification is given by the relation:

Question 9.29:

A card sheet divided into squares each of size 1 mm2 is being viewed at a distance of 9
cm through a magnifying glass (a converging lens of focal length 9 cm) held close to the
eye.

What is the magnification produced by the lens? How much is the area of each square in
the virtual image?

What is the angular magnification (magnifying power) of the lens?

Is the magnification in (a) equal to the magnifying power in (b)?

Explain.

Answer

Area of each square, A = 1 mm2

Object distance, u = −9 cm

Focal length of a converging lens, f = 10 cm

For image distance v,, the lens formula can be written as:
Magnification,

Area of each square in the virtual image = (10)2A

∴Area

= 102 × 1 = 100 mm2

= 1 cm2

Magnifying power of the lens

The magnification in (a) is not the same as the magnifying power in (b).

The magnification magnitude is and the magnifying power is .

The two quantities will be equal when the image is formed at the near point (25 cm).

Question 9.30:

At what distance should the lens be held from the figure in

Exercise 9.29 in order to view the squares distinctly with the maximum possible
magnifying power?

What is the magnification in this case?

Is the magnification equal to the magnifying power in this case?

Explain.

Answer
The maximum possible magnification is obtained when the image is formed at the near
point (d = 25 cm).

Image distance, v = −d = −25 cm

Focal length, f = 10 cm

Object distance = u

According to the lens formula, we have:

Hence, to view the squares distinctly, the lens should be kept 7.14 cm away from them.

Magnification =

Magnifying power =

Since the image is formed at the near point (25 cm), the magnifying power is equal to the
magnitude of magnification.

Question 9.31:

What should be the distance between the object in Exercise 9.30 and the magnifying glass
if the virtual image of each square in the figure is to have an area of 6.25 mm2. Would
you be able to see the squares distinctly with your eyes very close to the magnifier?
[Note: Exercises 9.29 to 9.31 will help you clearly understand the difference between
magnification in absolute size and the angular magnification (or magnifying power) of an
instrument.]

Answer

Area of the virtual image of each square, A = 6.25 mm2

Area of each square, A0 = 1 mm2

Hence, the linear magnification of the object can be calculated as:

Focal length of the magnifying glass, f = 10 cm

According to the lens formula, we have the relation:

The virtual image is formed at a distance of 15 cm, which is less than the near point (i.e.,
25 cm) of a normal eye. Hence, it cannot be seen by the eyes distinctly.
Question 9.32:

Answer the following questions:

The angle subtended at the eye by an object is equal to the angle subtended at the eye by
the virtual image produced by a magnifying glass. In what sense then does a magnifying
glass provide angular magnification?

In viewing through a magnifying glass, one usually positions one’s eyes very close to the
lens. Does angular magnification change if the eye is moved back?

Magnifying power of a simple micro

microscope
scope is inversely proportional to the focal length of
the lens. What then stops us from using a convex lens of smaller and smaller focal length
and achieving greater and greater magnifying power?

Why must both the objective and the eyepiece of a compound microscope have short
focal lengths?

When viewing through a compound microscope, our eyes should be positioned not on the
eyepiece but a short distance away from it for best viewing. Why? How much should be
that short distance between the eye and eyepiece?

Answer

Though the image size is bigger than the object, the angular size of the image is equal
(a)Though
to the angular size of the object. A magnifying glass helps one see the objects placed
closer than the least distance of distinct vision (i.e., 25 cm). A closer object causes a
larger angular size. A magnifying glass provides angular magnification. Without
magnification, the object cannot be placed closer to the eye. With magnification, the
object can be placed much closer to the eye.

Yes, the angular magnification

gnification changes. When the distance between the eye and a
magnifying glass is increased, the angular magnification decreases a little. This is because
the angle subtended at the eye is slightly less than the angle subtended at the lens. Image
distance does
oes not have any effect on angular magnification.

The focal length of a convex lens cannot be decreased by a greater amount. This is
because making lenses having very small focal lengths is not easy. Spherical and
chromatic aberrations are produced by a convex lens having a very small focal length.
The angular magnification produced by the eyepiece of a compound microscope is

Where,

fe = Focal length of the eyepiece

It can be inferred that if fe is small, then angular magnification of the eyepiece will be
large.

The angular magnification of the objective lens of a compound microscope is given as

Where,

= Object distance for the objective lens

= Focal length of the objective

The magnificationn is large when > . In the case of a microscope, the object is kept
close to the objective lens. Hence, the object distance is very little. Since is small,
will be even smaller. Therefore, and are both small in the given condition.

(e)When we place ourr eyes too close to the eyepiece of a compound microscope, we are
unable to collect much refracted light. As a result, the field of view decreases
substantially. Hence, the clarity of the image gets blurred.

The best position of the eye for viewing through a compound microscope is at the eye-
eye
ring attached to the eyepiece. The precise location of the eye depends on the separation
between the objective lens and the eyepiece.

Question 9.33:

An angular magnification (magnifying power) of 30X is desired using an objective of

focal length 1.25 cm and an eyepiece of focal length 5 cm. How will you set up the
compound microscope?

Answer
Focal length of the objective lens, = 1.25 cm

Focal length of the eyepiece, fe = 5 cm

Least distance of distinct vision, d = 25 cm

Angular magnification of the compound microscope = 30X

Total magnifying power of the compound microscope, m = 30

The angular magnification of the eyepiece is given by the relation:

The angular magnification of the objective lens (mo) is related to me as:

=m

Applying the lens formula for the objective lens:

The object should be placed 1.5 cm away from the objective lens to obtain the desired
magnification.

Applying the lens formula for the eyepiece:

Where,

= Image distance for the eyepiece = −d = −25 cm

= Object distance for the eyepiece

Separation between the objective lens and the eyepiece

Therefore, the separation between the objective lens and the eyepiece should be 11.67 cm.

Question 9.34:

A small telescope
pe has an objective lens of focal length 140 cm and an eyepiece of focal
length 5.0 cm. What is the magnifying power of the telescope for viewing distant objects
when
the telescope is in normal adjustment (i.e., when the final image

is at infinity)?

the final image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision

(25 cm)?

Answer

Focal length of the objective lens, = 140 cm

Focal length of the eyepiece, fe = 5 cm

Least distance of distinct vision, d = 25 cm

When the telescope is in normal adjustment, its magnifying power is given as:

When the final image is formed at d,the

,the magnifying power of the telescope is given as:

Question 9.35:

For the telescope described in Exercise 9.34 (a), what is the separation between the
objective lens and the eyepiece?

If this telescope is used to view a 100 m tall tower 3 km away, what is the height of the
image of the tower formed by the objective lens?
What is the height of the final image of the tower if it is formed at 25 cm?

Answer

Focal length of the objective lens, fo = 140 cm

Focal length of the eyepiece, fe = 5 cm

In normal adjustment, the separation between the objective lens and the eyepiece

Height of the tower, h1 = 100 m

Distance of the tower (object) from the telescope, u = 3 km = 3000 m

The angle subtended by the tower at the telescope is given as:

The angle subtended by the image produced by the objective lens is given as:

Where,

h2 = Height of the image of the tower formed by the objective lens

Therefore, the objective lens forms a 4.7 cm tall image of the tower.

Image is formed at a distance, d = 25 cm

The magnification of the eyepiece is given by the relation:

Height of the final image

Hence, the height of the final image of the tower is 28.2 cm.

Question 9.36:

A Cassegrain telescope uses two mirrors as shown in Fig. 9.33. Such a telescope is built
with the mirrors 20 mm apart. If the radius of curvature of the large mirror is 220 mm and
the small mirror is 140 mm, where will the final image of an object at infinity be?

Answer

The following figure shows a Cassegrain telescope consisting of a concave mirror and a
convex mirror.

Distance between the objective mirror and the secondary mirror, d = 20 mm

Radius of curvature of the objective mirror, R1 = 220 mm

Hence, focal length of the objective mirror,

Radius of curvature of the secondary mirror, R1 = 140 mm

Hence, focal length of the secondary mirror,

The image of an object placed at infinity, formed by the objective mirror, will act as a
virtual object for
or the secondary mirror.

Hence, the virtual object distance for the secondary mirror,

Applying the mirror formula for the secondary mirror, we can calculate image distance
(v)as:

Hence, the final image will be formed 315 mm away from the secondary mirror.
mirror.

Question 9.37:

Light incident normally on a plane mirror attached to a galvanometer coil retraces

backwards as shown in Fig. 9.36. A current in the coil produces a deflection of 3.5° of the
mirror. What is the displacement of the reflected spot of light on a screen placed 1.5 m
away?

Answer

Angle of deflection, θ = 3.5°

Distance of the screen from the mirror, D = 1.5 m

The reflected rays get deflected by an amount twice the angle of deflection i.e., 22θ= 7.0°

The displacement (d) of the reflected spot of light on the screen is given as:

Hence, the displacement of the reflected spot of light is 18.4 cm.

Question 9.38:

Figure 9.37 shows an equiconvex lens (of refractive index 1.50) in contact with a liquid
layer on top of a plane
ane mirror. A small needle with its tip on the principal axis is moved
along the axis until its inverted image is found at the position of the needle. The distance
of the needle from the lens is measured to be 45.0 cm. The liquid is removed and the
experiment
ent is repeated. The new distance is measured to be 30.0 cm. What is the
refractive index of the liquid?

Answer

Focal length of the convex lens, f1 = 30 cm

The liquid acts as a mirror. Focal length of the liquid = f2

Focal length of the system (convex lens + liquid), f = 45 cm

For a pair of optical systems placed in contact, the equivalent focal length is given as:
Let the refractive index of the lens be and the radius of curvature of one surface be R.
Hence, the radius of curvature of the other surface is −R.

R can be obtained using the relation:

Let be the refractive index of the liquid.

Radius of curvature of the liquid on the side of the plane mirror =

Radius of curvature of the liquid on the side of the lens, R = −30 cm

The value of can be calculated using the relation:

Hence, the refractive index of the liquid is 1.33.

Question 10.1:

Monochromatic light of wavelength 589 nm is incident from air on a water surface. What
are the wavelength, frequency and speed of (a) reflected, and (b) refracted light?
Refractive index of water is 1.33.

Answer

Wavelength of incident monochromatic light,

λ = 589 nm = 589 × 10−9 m

Speed of light in air, c = 3 × 108 m/s

Refractive index of water, μ = 1.33

The ray will reflect back in the same medium as that of incident ray. Hence, the
wavelength, speed, and frequency of the reflected ray will be the same as that of the
incident ray.

Frequency of light is given by the relation,

Hence, the speed, frequency, and wavelength of the reflected light are 3 × 108 m/s, 5.09
×1014 Hz, and 589 nm respectively.

Frequency of light does not depend on the property of the medium in which it is
travelling. Hence, the frequency of the refracted ray in water will be equal to the
frequency of the incident or reflected light in air.

Refracted frequency, ν = 5.09 ×1014 Hz

Speed of light in water is related to the refractive index of water as:

Wavelength of light in water is given by the relation,

Hence, the speed, frequency, and wavelength of refracted light are 2.26 ×108 m/s,
444.01nm, and 5.09 × 1014 Hz respectively.

Question 10.2:

What is the shape of the wavefront in each of the following cases:

Light diverging from a point source.

Light emerging out of a convex lens when a point source is placed at its focus.

The portion of the wavefront of light from a distant star intercepted by the Earth.

Answer

The shape of the wavefront in case of a light diverging from a point source is spherical.
The wavefront emanating from a point source is shown in the given figure.
The shape of the wavefront in case of a light emer
emerging
ging out of a convex lens when a point
source is placed at its focus is a parallel grid. This is shown in the given figure.

The portion of the wavefront of light from a distant star intercepted by the Earth is a
plane.

Question 10.3:

The refractive index of glass is 1.5. What is the speed of light in glass? Speed of light in
vacuum is 3.0 × 108 m s−1)

Is the speed of light in glass independent of the colour of light? If not, which of the two
colours red and violet travels slower in a glass prism?

Answer

Refractive index of glass, μ = 1.5

Speed of light, c = 3 × 108 m/s

Speed of light in glass is given by the relation,

Hence, the speed of light in glass is 2 × 108 m/s.

The speed of light in glass is not independent of the colour of light.

The refractive index of a violet component of white light is greater than the refractive
index of a red component. Hence, the speed of violet light is less than the speed of red
light in glass. Hence, violet light travels slower than red light in a glass prism.

Question 10.4:

In a Young’s double-slit
slit experiment, the slits are separated by 0.28 mm and the screen is
placed 1.4 m away. The distance between the central bright fringe and the fourth bright
fringe is measured to be 1.2 cm. Determine
Determine the wavelength of light used in the
experiment.

Answer

Distance between the slits, d = 0.28 mm = 0.28 × 10−3 m

Distance between the slits and the screen, D = 1.4 m

Distance between the central fringe and the fourth ((n = 4) fringe,

u = 1.2 cm = 1.2 × 10−2 m

In case of a constructive interference, we have the relation for the distance between the
two fringes as:

Where,

n = Order of fringes = 4
λ = Wavelength of light used

Hence, the wavelength of the light is 600 nm.

Question 10.5:

In Young’s double-slitslit experiment using monochromatic light of wavelengthλ, the

intensity of light at a point on the screen where path difference is λ, is K units. What is the
intensity of light at a point where path difference is λ /3?

Answer

Let I1 and I2 be the intensity of the two light waves. Their resultant intensities can be
obtained as:

Where,

= Phase difference between the two waves

For monochromatic light waves,

Phase difference =
Since path difference = λ,

Phase difference,

Given,

I’ = K

When path difference ,

Phase difference,

Hence, resultant intensity,

Using equation (1), we can write:

Hence, the intensity of light at a point where the path difference is is units.

Question 10.6:

A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths, 650 nm and 520 nm, is used to obtain
interference fringes in a Young’s double-slit
double experiment.

Find the distance of the third bright fringe on the screen from the central maximum for
wavelength 650 nm.

What is the least distance

nce from the central maximum where the bright fringes due to both
the wavelengths coincide?

Answer
Wavelength of the light beam,

Wavelength of another light beam,

Distance of the slits from the screen = D

Distance between the two slits = d

Distance of the nth bright fringe on the screen from the central maximum is given by the
relation,

Let the nth bright fringe due to wavelength and (n − 1)th bright fringe due to
wavelength coincide on the screen. We can equate the conditions for bright
brigh fringes as:

Hence, the least distance from the central maximum can be obtained by the relation:

Note: The value of d and D are not given in the question.

Question 10.7:
In a double-slit
slit experiment the angular width of a fringe is found to be 0.2° on a screen
placed 1 m away. The wavelength of light used is 600 nm. What will be the angular width
of the fringe if the entire experimental apparatus is immersed in water? Take refractive
index of water to be 4/3.

Answer

Distance of the screen from the slits, D = 1 m

Wavelength of light used,

Angular width of the fringe in

Angular width of the fringe in water =

Refractive index of water,

Refractive index is related to angular width as:

Therefore, the angular width of the fringe in water will reduce to 0.15°.

Question 10.8:

What is the Brewster angle for air to glass transition? (Refractive index of glass = 1.5.)

Answer
Refractive index of glass,

Brewster angle = θ

Brewster angle is related to refractive index as:

Therefore, the Brewster angle for air to glass transition is 56.31°.

Question 10.9:

Light of wavelength 5000 Å falls on a plane reflecting surface. What are the wavelength
and frequency of the reflected light? For what angle of incidence is the reflected
reflected ray
normal to the incident ray?

Answer

Wavelength of incident light, λ = 5000 Å = 5000 × 10−10 m

Speed of light, c = 3 × 108 m

Frequency of incident light is given by the relation,

The wavelength and frequency of incident light is the same as that of reflected ray.
Hence, the wavelength of reflected light is 5000 Å and its frequency is 6 × 1014 Hz.

When reflected ray is normal to incident ray, the sum of the angle of incidence, and
angle of reflection, is 90°.

According to the law of reflection,

reflection, the angle of incidence is always equal to the angle of
reflection. Hence, we can write the sum as:
Therefore, the angle of incidence for the given condition is 45°.

Question 10.10:

Estimate the distance for which ray optics is good approximation

approximation for an aperture of 4 mm
and wavelength 400 nm.

Answer

Fresnel’s distance (ZF) is the distance for which the ray optics is a good approximation. It
is given by the relation,

Where,

Aperture width, a = 4 mm = 4 ×10−3 m

Wavelength of light, λ = 400 nm = 400 × 10−9 m

Therefore, the distance for which the ray optics is a good approximation is 40 m.

Question 10.11:

The 6563 Å line emitted by hydrogen in a star is found to be red shifted by 15 Å.

Estimate the speed with which the star is receding from the Earth.

Answer
Wavelength of line emitted by hydrogen,

λ = 6563 Å

= 6563 × 10−10 m.

Star’s red-shift,

Speed of light,

Let the velocity of the star receding away from the Earth be v.

The red shift is related with velocity as:

Therefore, the speed with which the star is receding away from the Earth is 6.87 × 105
m/s.

Question 10.12:

Explain how Corpuscular theory predicts the speed of light in a medium, say, water, to be
greater than the speed of light in vacuum. Is the prediction confirmed by experimental
determination of the speed of light in water? If not, which alternative picture of light is
consistent with experiment?

Answer
No; Wave theory

Newton’s corpuscular theory of light states that when light corpuscles

corpuscles strike the interface
of two media from a rarer (air) to a denser (water) medium, the particles experience
forces of attraction normal to the surface. Hence, the normal component of velocity
increases while the component along the surface remains uncha
unchanged.

Hence, we can write the expression:

… (i)

Where,

i = Angle of incidence

r = Angle of reflection

c = Velocity of light in air

v = Velocity of light in water

We have the relation for relative refractive index of water with respect to air as:

Hence, equation (i) reduces to

But, >1

Hence, it can be inferred from equation (ii) that v > c.. This is not possible since this
prediction is opposite to the experimental results of c > v.

The wave picture of light is consistent with the experimental results.

r

Question 10.13:

You have learnt in the text how Huygens’ principle leads to the laws of reflection and
refraction. Use the same principle to deduce directly that a point object placed in front of
a plane mirror produces a virtual image whose distance from the mirror is equal to the
object distance from the mirror.

Answer
Let an object at O be placed in front of a plane mirror MO’ at a distance r (as shown in
the given figure).

A circle is drawn from the centre (O) such that it just touches the plane mirror at point O’.
According to Huygens’ Principle, XY is the wawavefront of incident light.

If the mirror is absent, then a similar wavefront X’Y’ (as XY) would form behind O’ at
distance r (as shown in the given figure).

can be considered as a virtual reflected ray for the plane mirror. Hence, a point
object placed in front of the plane mirror produces a virtual image whose distance from
the mirror is equal to the object distance (r).
(

Question 10.14:

Let us list some of the factors, which could possibly influence the speed of wave
propagation:

Nature of the source.

Direction of propagation.

Motion of the source and/or observer.

Wave length.

Intensity of the wave.

On which of these factors, if any, does

The speed of light in vacuum,

The speed of light in a medium (say, glass or water), depend?

Answer

Thespeed of light in a vacuum i.e., 3 × 108 m/s (approximately) is a universal constant. It

is not affected by the motion of the source, the observer, or both. Hence, the given factor
does not affect the speed of light in a vacuum.

Out of the listed factors,

s, the speed of light in a medium depends on the wavelength of
light in that medium.

Question 10.15:

For sound waves, the Doppler formula for frequency shift differs slightly between the two
situations: (i) source at rest; observer moving, and (ii) source moving; observer at rest.
The exact Doppler formulas for the case of light waves in vacuum are, however, strictly
identical for these situations. Explain why this should be so. Would you expect the
formulas to be strictly identical for the two situations
situations in case of light travelling in a
medium?

Answer

No
Sound waves can propagate only through a medium. The two given situations are not
scientifically identical because the motion of an observer relative to a medium is different
in the two situations.
ions. Hence, the Doppler formulas for the two situations cannot be the
same.

In case of light waves, sound can travel in a vacuum. In a vacuum, the above two cases
are identical because the speed of light is independent of the motion of the observer and
thee motion of the source. When light travels in a medium, the above two cases are not
identical because the speed of light depends on the wavelength of the medium.

Question 10.16:

In double-slit
slit experiment using light of wavelength 600 nm, the angular width of a fringe
formed on a distant screen is 0.1º. What is the spacing between the two slits?

Answer

Wavelength of light used, λ = 6000 nm = 600 × 10−9 m

Angular width of fringe,

Angular width of a fringe is related to slit spacing (d)

( as:

Therefore, the spacing between the slits is .

Question 10.17:

Answer the following questions:

In a single slit diffraction experiment, the width of the slit is made double the original
width. How does this affect the size and intensity of the central diffraction band?

In what way is diffraction from each slit related to the interference pattern in a double-slit
experiment?

When a tiny circular obstacle is placed in the path of light from a distant source, a bright
spot is seen at the centre of the shadow of the obstacle. Explain why?

Two students are separated by a 7 m partition wall in a room 10 m high. If both light and
sound waves can bend around obstacles, how is it that the students are unable to see each
other even though they can converse easily.

Ray optics is based on the assumption that light travels in a straight line. Diffraction
effects (observed when light propagates through small apertures/slits or around small
obstacles) disprove this assumption. Yet the ray optics assumption is so commonly used
in understanding location and several other properties of images in optical instruments.
What is the justification?

Answer

In a single slit diffraction experiment, if the width of the slit is made double the original
width, then the size of the central diffraction band reduces to half and the intensity of the
central diffraction band increases up to four times.

The interference pattern in a double-slit experiment is modulated by diffraction from each

slit. The pattern is the result of the interference of the diffracted wave from each slit.

When a tiny circular obstacle is placed in the path of light from a distant source, a bright
spot is seen at the centre of the shadow of the obstacle. This is because light waves are
diffracted from the edge of the circular obstacle, which interferes constructively at the
centre of the shadow. This constructive interference produces a bright spot.

Bending of waves by obstacles by a large angle is possible when the size of the obstacle
is comparable to the wavelength of the waves.

On the one hand, the wavelength of the light waves is too small in comparison to the size
of the obstacle. Thus, the diffraction angle will be very small. Hence, the students are
unable to see each other. On the other hand, the size of the wall is comparable to the
wavelength of the sound waves. Thus, the bending of the waves takes place at a large
angle. Hence, the students are able to hear each other.

The justification is that in ordinary optical instruments, the size of the aperture involved is
much larger than the wavelength of the light used.
Question 10.18:

Two towers on top of two hills are 40 km apart. The line joining them passes 50 m above
a hill halfway between the towers. What is the longest wavelength of radio waves, which
can be sent between the towers
ers without appreciable diffraction effects?

Answer

Distance between the towers, d = 40 km

Height of the line joining the hills, d = 50 m.

Thus, the radial spread of the radio waves should not exceed 50 km.

Since the hill is located halfway between the towers, Fresnel’s distance can be obtained
as:

ZP = 20 km = 2 × 104 m

Aperture can be taken as:

a = d = 50 m

Fresnel’s distance is given by the relation,

Where,

λ = Wavelength of radio waves

Therefore, thee wavelength of the radio waves is 12.5 cm.

Question 10.19:

A parallel beam of light of wavelength 500 nm falls on a narrow slit and the resulting
diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 1 m away. It is observed that the first minimum
is at a distance of 2.5 mm from the centre of the screen. Find the width of the slit.

Answer

Wavelength of light beam, λ = 500 nm = 500 × 10−9 m

Distance of the screen from the slit, D = 1 m

For first minima, n = 1

Distance between the slits = d

Distance of the first minimum from the centre of the screen can be obtained as:

x = 2.5 mm = 2.5 × 10−3 m

It is related to the order of minima as:

Therefore, the width of the slits is 0.2 mm.

Question 10.20:

Answer the following questions:

When a low flying aircraft passes overhead, we sometimes notice

a slight shaking of the picture on our TV screen. Suggest a possible explanation.

As you have learnt in the text, the principle of linear superposition of wave displacement
is basic to understanding intensity
intensity distributions in diffraction and interference patterns.
What is the justification of this principle?

Answer

Weak radar signals sent by a low flying aircraft can interfere with the TV signals received
by the antenna. As a result, the TV signals may get distorted. Hence, when a low flying
aircraft passes overhead, we sometimes notice a slight shaking of the picture on our TV
screen.

The principle of linear superposition of wave displacement is essential to our

understanding of intensity distributions
distributions and interference patterns. This is because
superposition follows from the linear character of a differential equation that governs
wave motion. If y1 and y2 are the solutions of the second order wave equation, then any
linear combination of y1 and y2 will
ill also be the solution of the wave equation.

Question 10.21:

In deriving the single slit diffraction pattern, it was stated that the intensity is zero at
angles of nλ/a.. Justify this by suitably dividing the slit to bring out the cancellation.

Answer

Consider that a single slit of width d is divided into n smaller slits.

Width of each slit,

Angle of diffraction is given by the relation,

Now, each of these infinitesimally small slit sends zero intensity in directionθ
directionθ. Hence, the
combination of these slits will give zero intensity.
Question 11.1:

Find the

maximum frequency, and

minimum wavelength of X-rays produced by 30 kV electrons.

Answer

Potential of the electrons, V = 30 kV = 3 × 104 V

Hence, energy of the electrons, E = 3 × 104 eV

Where,

e = Charge on an electron = 1.6 × 10−19 C

(a)Maximum frequency produced by the X-rays = ν

The energy of the electrons is given by the relation:

E = hν

Where,

h = Planck’s constant = 6.626 × 10−34 Js

Hence, the maximum frequency of X-rays produced is

(b)The minimum wavelength produced by the X-rays is given as:

Hence, the minimum wavelength of X-rays
X produced is 0.0414 nm.

Question 11.2:

The work function of caesium metal is 2.14 eV. When light of frequency 6 ×1014 Hz is
incident on the metal surface, photoemission of electrons occurs. What is the

maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons,

Stopping potential, and

maximum speed of the emitted photoelectrons?

Answer

Work function of caesium metal,

Frequency of light,

(a)The maximum kinetic energy is given by the photoelectric effect as:

Where,

h = Planck’s constant = 6.626 × 10−34 Js

Hence, the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons is
0.345 eV.

(b)For stopping potential , we can write the equation for kinetic energy as:

Hence, the stopping potential of the material is 0.345 V.

Maximum speed of the emitted photoelectrons = v

(c)Maximum

Hence, the relation for kinetic energy can be written as:

Where,

m = Mass of an electron = 9.1 × 10−31 kg

Hence, the maximum speed of the emitted photoelectrons is

332.3 km/s.

Question 11.3:

The photoelectric cut-off

off voltage in a certain experiment is 1.5 V. What is the maximum
kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted?

Answer
Photoelectric cut-off
off voltage, V0 = 1.5 V

The maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons is given as:

Where,

e = Charge on an electron = 1.6 × 10−19 C

Therefore, the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted in the given
experiment is 2.4 × 10−19 J.

Question 11.4:

Monochromatic light of wavelength 632.8 nm is produced by a helium-neon

helium neon laser. The
power emitted is 9.42 mW.

Find the energy and momentum of each photon in the light beam,

How many photons per second, on the average, arrive at a target irradiated by this beam?
(Assume the beam to have uniform cross-section
cross section which is less than the target area), and

How fast does a hydrogen atom have to travel in order to have the same momentum as
that of the photon?

Answer

Wavelength of the monochromatic light, λ = 632.8 nm = 632.8 × 10−9 m

Power emitted by the laser, P = 9.42 mW = 9.42 × 10−3 W

Planck’s constant, h = 6.626 × 10−34 Js

Speed of light, c = 3 × 108 m/s

Mass of a hydrogen atom, m = 1.66 × 10−27 kg

(a)The energy of each photon is given as:

The momentum of each photon is given as:

(b)Number of photons arriving per second, at a target irradiated by the beam = n

Assume that the beam has a uniform cross-section that is less than the target area.

Hence, the equation for power can be written as:

(c)Momentum of the hydrogen atom is the same as the momentum of the photon,

Momentum is given as:

Where,

v = Speed of the hydrogen atom

Question 11.5:

The energy flux of sunlight reaching the surface of the earth is 1.388 × 103 W/m2. How
many photons (nearly) per square metre are incident on the Earth per second? Assume
that the photons in the sunlight have an average wavelength of 550 nm.

Answer

Energy flux of sunlight reaching the surface of earth, Φ = 1.388 × 103 W/m2

Hence, power of sunlight per square metre, P = 1.388 × 103 W

Speed of light, c = 3 × 108 m/s

Planck’s constant, h = 6.626 × 10−34 Js

Average wavelength of photons present in sunlight,

Number of photons per square metre incident on earth per second = n

Hence, the equation for power can be written as:

Therefore, every second, photons are incident per square metre on earth.

Question 11.6:

In an experiment on photoelectric effect, the slope of the cut-off

off voltage versus frequency
of incident light is found to be 4.12 × 10−15 V s. Calculate the value of Planck’s constant.

Answer

The slope of the cut-off

off voltage (V)
( ) versus frequency (ν) of an incident light is given as:

Where,

e = Charge on an electron = 1.6 × 10−19 C

h = Planck’s constant

Therefore, the value of Planck’s constant is

Question 11.7:

A 100 W sodium lamp radiates energy uniformly in all directions. The lamp is located at
the centre of a large sphere that absorbs all the sodium light which is incident on it. The
wavelength of the sodium light is 589 nm. (a) What is the energy per photon associated
with the sodium light? (b) At what rate are the photons delivered to the sphere?
Answer

Power of the sodium lamp, P = 100 W

Wavelength of the emitted sodium light, λ = 589 nm = 589 × 10−9 m

Planck’s constant, h = 6.626 × 10−34 Js

Speed of light, c = 3 × 108 m/s

The energy per photon associated with the sodium light is given as:
(a)The

Number of photons delivered to the sphere = n

(b)Number

The equation for power can be written as:

Therefore, every second, photons are delivered to the sphere.

Question 11.8:
The threshold frequency for a certain metal is 3.3 × 1014 Hz. If light of freque
frequency 8.2 ×
1014 Hz is incident on the metal, predict the cutoff voltage for the photoelectric emission.

Answer

Threshold frequency of the metal,

Frequency of light incident on the metal,

Charge on an electron, e = 1.6 × 10−19 C

Planck’s constant, h = 6.626 × 10−34 Js

Cut-off
off voltage for the photoelectric emission from the metal =

The equation for the cut-off

off energy is given as:

Therefore, the cut-off

off voltage for the photoelectric emission is

Question 11.9:

The work function for a certain metal is 4.2 eV. Will this metal give photoelectric
emission for incident radiation of wavelength 330 nm?

Answer
No

Work function of the metal,

Charge on an electron, e = 1.6 × 10−19 C

Planck’s constant, h = 6.626 × 10−34 Js

Wavelength of the incident radiation, λ = 330 nm = 330 × 10−9 m

Speed of light, c = 3 × 108 m/s

The energy of the incident photon is given as:

It can be observed that the energy of the incident radiation is less than the work function
of the metal. Hence, no photoelectric emission will take place.

Question 11.10:

Light of frequency 7.21 × 1014 Hz is incident on a metal surface. Electrons with a

maximum speed of 6.0 × 105 m/s are ejected from the surface. What is the threshold
frequency for photoemission of electrons?

Answer

Frequency of the incident photon,

Maximum speed of the electrons, v = 6.0 × 105 m/s

Planck’s constant, h = 6.626 × 10−34 Js

Mass of an electron, m = 9.1 × 10−31 kg

For threshold frequency ν0, the relation for kinetic energy is written as:

Therefore, the threshold frequency for the photoemission of electrons is

Question 11.11:

Light of wavelength 488 nm is produced by by an argon laser which is used in the

photoelectric effect. When light from this spectral line is incident on the emitter, the
stopping (cut-off)
off) potential of photoelectrons is 0.38 V. Find the work function of the
material from which the emitter is made.

Answer

Wavelength of light produced by the argon laser, λ = 488 nm

= 488 × 10−9 m

Stopping potential of the photoelectrons, V0 = 0.38 V

1eV = 1.6 × 10−19 J

∴ V0 =

Planck’s constant, h = 6.6 × 10−34 Js

Charge on an electron, e = 1.6 × 10−19 C

Speed of light, c = 3 × 10 m/s

From Einstein’s photoelectric effect, we have the relation involving the work function Φ0
of the material of the emitter as:

Therefore, the material with which the emitter is made has the work function of 2.16 eV.

Question 11.12:

Calculate the

momentum, and

de Broglie wavelength of the electrons accelerated through a potential difference of 56 V.

Answer

Potential difference, V = 56 V

Planck’s constant, h = 6.6 × 10−34 Js

Mass of an electron, m = 9.1 × 10−31 kg

Charge on an electron, e = 1.6 × 10−19 C

At equilibrium, the kinetic energy of each electron is equal to the accelerating potential,
i.e., we can write the relation for velocity (v)
( of each electron as:

The momentum of each accelerated electron is given as:

p = mv

= 9.1 × 10−31 × 4.44 × 106

= 4.04 × 10−24 kg m s−1

Therefore, the momentum of each electron is 4.04 × 10−24 kg m s−1.

De Broglie wavelength of an electron accelerating through a potential V,, is given by the

relation:

Therefore, the de Broglie wavelength of each electron is 0.1639 nm.

Question 11.13:

What is the

momentum,

speed, and
de Broglie wavelength of an electron with kinetic energy of 120 eV.

Answer

Kinetic energy of the electron, Ek = 120 eV

Planck’s constant, h = 6.6 × 10−34 Js

Mass of an electron, m = 9.1 × 10−31 kg

Charge on an electron, e = 1.6 × 10−19 C

For the electron, we can write the relation for kinetic energy as:

Where,

v = Speed of the electron

Momentum of the electron, p = mv

= 9.1 × 10−31 × 6.496 × 106

= 5.91 × 10−24 kg m s−1

Therefore, the momentum of the electron is 5.91 × 10−24 kg m s−1.

Speed of the electron, v = 6.496 × 106 m/s

De Broglie wavelength of an electron having a momentum p, is given as:

Therefore, the de Broglie wavelength
wavelengt of the electron is 0.112 nm.

Question 11.14:

The wavelength of light from the spectral emission line of sodium is 589 nm. Find the
kinetic energy at which

an electron, and

a neutron, would have the same de Broglie wavelength.

Answer

Wavelength of light of a sodium line, λ = 589 nm = 589 × 10−9 m

Mass of an electron, me= 9.1 × 10−31 kg

Mass of a neutron, mn= 1.66 × 10−27 kg

Planck’s constant, h = 6.6 × 10−34 Js

For the kinetic energy K,, of an electron accelerating with a velocity v, we have the
relation:

We have the relation for de Broglie wavelength as:

Substituting equation (2) in equation (1), we get the relation:

Hence, the kinetic energy of the electron is 6.9 × 10−25 J or 4.31 μeV.

Using equation (3), we can write the relation

relation for the kinetic energy of the neutron as:

Hence, the kinetic energy of the neutron is 3.78 × 10−28 J or 2.36 neV.

Question 11.15:

What is the de Broglie wavelength of

a bullet of mass 0.040 kg travelling at the speed of 1.0 km/s,

a ball of mass 0.060 kg moving at a speed of 1.0 m/s, and

a dust particle of mass 1.0 × 10−9 kg drifting with a speed of 2.2 m/s?

Answer

(a)Mass of the bullet, m = 0.040 kg

Speed of the bullet, v = 1.0 km/s = 1000 m/s

Planck’s constant, h = 6.6 × 10−34 Js

De Broglie wavelength of the bullet is given by the relation:

Mass of the ball, m = 0.060 kg

Speed of the ball, v = 1.0 m/s

De Broglie wavelength of the ball is given by the relation:

(c)Mass of the dust particle, m = 1 × 10−9 kg

Speed of the dust particle, v = 2.2 m/s

De Broglie wavelength of the dust particle is given by the relation:

Question 11.16:

An electron and a photon each have a wavelength of 1.00 nm. Find

their momenta,

the energy of the photon, and

the kinetic energy of electron.

Answer

Wavelength of an electron

= 1 × 10−9 m

Planck’s constant, h = 6.63 × 10−34 Js

The momentum of an elementary particle is given by de Broglie relation:

It is clear that momentum depends only on the wavelength of the particle. Since the
wavelengths of an electron and a photon are equal, both have an equal momentum.

The energy of a photon is given by the relation:

Where,

Speed of light, c = 3 × 108 m/s

Therefore, the energy of the photon is 1.243 keV.

The kinetic energy (K)) of an electron having momentum p,is

,is given by the relation:

Where,

m = Mass of the electron = 9.1 × 10−31 kg

p = 6.63 × 10−25 kg m s−1

Hence, the kinetic energy of the electron is 1.51 eV.

Question 11.17:

For what kinetic energy of a neutron will the associated de Broglie wavelength be 1.40 ×
10−10 m?

Also find the de Broglie wavelength of a neutron, in thermal equilibrium with matter,
having an average kinetic energy of (3/2) kT at 300 K.

Answer
De Broglie wavelength of the neutron, λ = 1.40 × 10−10 m

Mass of a neutron, mn = 1.66 × 10−27 kg

Planck’s constant, h = 6.6 × 10−34 Js

Kinetic energy (K) and velocity (v) are related as:

… (1)

De Broglie wavelength (λ) and velocity (v) are related as:

Using equation (2) in equation (1), we get:

Hence, the kinetic energy of the neutron is 6.75 × 10−21 J or 4.219 × 10−2 eV.

Temperature of the neutron, T = 300 K

Boltzmann constant, k = 1.38 × 10−23 kg m2 s−2 K−1

Average kinetic energy of the neutron:

The relation for the de Broglie wavelength is given as:

Therefore, the de Broglie wavelength of the neutron is 0.146 nm.

Question 11.18:

Show that the wavelength of electromagnetic radiation is equal to the de Broglie

wavelength of its quantum (photon).

Answer

The momentum of a photon having energy (hν)

( is given as:

Where,

λ = Wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation

c = Speed of light

h = Planck’s constant
De Broglie wavelength of the photon is given as:

Where,

m = Mass of the photon

v = Velocity of the photon

Hence, it can be inferred from equations (i)

( and (ii)) that the wavelength of the
electromagnetic radiation is equal to the de Broglie wavelength of the photon.

Question 11.19:

What is the de Broglie wavelength of a nitrogen molecule in air at 300 K? Assume that
the molecule is moving with the root-mean
root mean square speed of molecules at this temperature.
(Atomic mass of nitrogen = 14.0076 u)

Answer

Temperature of the nitrogen molecule, T = 300 K

Atomic mass of nitrogen

en = 14.0076 u

Hence, mass of the nitrogen molecule, m = 2 × 14.0076 = 28.0152 u

But 1 u = 1.66 × 10−27 kg

∴m = 28.0152 ×1.66 × 10−27 kg

Planck’s constant, h = 6.63 × 10−34 Js

Boltzmann constant, k = 1.38 × 10−23 J K−1

We have the expression that relates mean kinetic energy of the nitrogen molecule
with the root mean square speed as:

Hence, the de Broglie wavelength of the nitrogen molecule is given as:

Therefore, the de Broglie wavelength of the nitrogen molecule is 0.028 nm.

Question 11.20:

Estimate the speed with which electrons emitted from a heated emitter of an evacuated
tube impinge on the collector maintained at a potential difference of 500 V with respect to
the emitter. Ignore the small initial speeds
spe of the electrons. The specific charge of the
electron, i.e., its e/m is given to be 1.76 × 1011 C kg−1.

Use the same formula you employ in (a) to obtain electron speed for an collector potential
of 10 MV. Do you see what is wrong? In what way is the formula
formula to be modified?

Answer

Potential difference across the evacuated tube, V = 500 V

(a)Potential
Specific charge of an electron, e/m = 1.76 × 1011 C kg−1

The speed of each emitted electron is given by the relation for kinetic energy as:

Therefore, the speed of each emitted electron is

(b)Potential of the anode, V = 10 MV = 10 × 106 V

The speed of each electron is given as:

This result is wrong because nothing can move faster than light. In the above formula, the
expression (mv2/2) for energy can only be used in the non-relativistic limit, i.e., for v <<
c.

For very high speed problems, relativistic equations must be considered for solving them.
In the relativistic limit, the total energy is given as:

E = mc2

Where,

m = Relativistic mass

m0 = Mass of the particle at rest

Kinetic energy is given as:

K = mc2 − m0c2

Question 11.21:

A monoenergetic electron beam with electron speed of 5.20 × 106 m s−1 is subject to a
magnetic field of 1.30 × 10−4 T normal to the beam velocity. What is the radius of the
circle traced by the beam, given e/m for electron equals 1.76 × 1011 C kg−1.

Is the formula you employ in (a) valid for calculating radius of the path of a 20 MeV
electron beam? If not, in what way is it modified?

[Note: Exercises 11.20(b) and 11.21(b) take you to relativistic mechanics which is
beyond the scope of this book. They have been inserted here simply to emphasise the
point that the formulas you use in part (a) of the exercises are not valid
valid at very high
speeds or energies. See answers at the end to know what ‘very high speed or energy’
means.]

Answer

(a)Speed of an electron, v = 5.20 × 106 m/s

Magnetic field experienced by the electron, B = 1.30 × 10−4 T

Specific charge of an electron, e/m = 1.76 × 1011 C kg−1

Where,

e = Charge on the electron = 1.6 × 10−19 C

m = Mass of the electron = 9.1 × 10−31 kg−1

The force exerted on the electron is given as:

θ = Angle between the magnetic field and the beam velocity

The magnetic field is normal to the direction of beam.

The beam traces a circular path of radius, r. It is the magnetic field, due to its bending

nature, that provides the centripetal force for the beam.

Hence, equation (1) reduces to:

Therefore, the radius of the circular path is 22.7 cm.

Energy of the electron beam, E = 20 MeV

The energy of the electron is given as:

This result is incorrect because nothing can move faster than light. In the above formula,
the expression (mv2/2) for energy can only be used in the non-relativistic limit, i.e., for v
<< c

When very high speeds are concerned, the relativistic domain comes into consideration.

In the relativistic domain, mass is given as:

Where,

= Mass of the particle at rest

Hence, the radius

us of the circular path is given as:

Question 11.22:

An electron gun with its collector at a potential of 100 V fires out electrons in a spherical
−2
bulb containing hydrogen gas at low pressure (∼10
( mm of Hg). A magnetic field of
−4
2.83 × 10 T curves the path of the electrons in a circular orbit of radius 12.0 cm. (The
path can be viewed because the gas ions in the path focus the beam by attracting
electrons, and emitting light by electron capture; this method is known as the ‘fine beam
tube’ method. Determine e/m m from the data.

Answer

Potential of an anode, V = 100 V

Magnetic field experienced by the electrons, B = 2.83 × 10−4 T

Radius of the circular orbit r = 12.0 cm = 12.0 × 10−2 m

Mass of each electron = m

Charge on each electron = e

Velocity of each electron = v

The energy of each electron is equal to its kinetic energy, i.e.,

It is the magnetic field, due to its bending nature, that provides the centripetal force

for the beam. Hence, we can write:

Centripetal force = Magnetic force

fo

Putting the value of v in equation (1), we get:

Therefore, the specific charge ratio (e/m)

( is

Question 11.23:

An X-ray
ray tube produces a continuous spectrum of radiation with its short wavelength end
at 0.45 Å. What is the maximum energy of a photon in the radiation?

From your answer to (a), guess what order of accelerating voltage (for electrons) is
required in such a tube?

Answer
Wavelength produced by an X-ray
X tube,

Planck’s constant, h = 6.626 × 10−34 Js

Speed of light, c = 3 × 108 m/s

The maximum energy of a photon is given as:

Therefore, the maximum energy of an X-ray

X photon is 27.6 keV.

Accelerating voltage provides energy to the electrons for producing X-rays.

X rays. To get an X X-
ray of 27.6 keV, the incident electrons must possess at
at least 27.6 keV of kinetic electric
energy. Hence, an accelerating voltage of the order of 30 keV is required for producing
X-rays.

Question 11.24:

In an accelerator experiment on high-energy

high energy collisions of electrons with positrons, a
certain event is interpreted as annihilation of an electron-positron
electron positron pair of total energy 10.2
BeV into two γ-rays
rays of equal energy. What is the wavelength associated with each γγ-ray?
(1BeV = 109 eV)

Answer

Total energy of two γ-rays:

E = 10. 2 BeV

= 10.2 × 109 eV

= 10.2 × 109 × 1.6 × 10−10 J

Hence, the energy of each γ-ray:
ray:

Planck’s constant,

Speed of light,

Energy is related to wavelength as:

Therefore, the wavelength associated with each γ-ray is

Question 11.25:

Estimating the following two numbers should be interesting. The first number will tell
you why radio engineers do not need to worry much about photons! The second number
tells you why our eye can never ‘count photons’, even in barely detectable light.

The number of photons emitted per second by a Medium wave transmitter of 10 kW

power, emitting radiowaves of wavelength 500 m.

The number of photons entering the pupil of our eye per second corresponding to the
−10
minimum intensity of white light that we humans can perceive (∼10
( W m−2). Take the
2
area of the pupil to be about 0.4 cm , and the average frequency of white light to be about
6 × 1014 Hz.

Answer

Power of the medium wave transmitter, P = 10 kW = 104 W = 104 J/s

Hence, energy emitted by the transmitter per second, E = 104

Wavelength of the radio wave, λ = 500 m

The energy of the wave is given as:

Where,

h = Planck’s constant = 6.6 × 10−34 Js

c = Speed of light = 3 × 108 m/s

Let n be the number of photons emitted by the transmitter.

∴nE1 = E

The energy (E1) of a radio photon is very less, but the number of photons (n) emitted per
second in a radio wave is very large.

The existence of a minimum quantum of energy can be ignored and the total energy of a
radio wave can be treated as being continuous.

Intensity of light perceived by the human eye, I = 10−10 W m−2

Area of a pupil, A = 0.4 cm2 = 0.4 × 10−4 m2

Frequency of white light, ν= 6 × 1014 Hz

The energy emitted by a photon is given as:

E = hν

Where,
h = Planck’s constant = 6.6 × 10−34 Js

∴E = 6.6 × 10−34 × 6 × 1014

= 3.96 × 10−19 J

Let n be the total number of photons falling per second, per unit area of the pupil.

The total energy per unit for n falling photons is given as:

E = n × 3.96 × 10−19 J s−1 m−2

The energy per unit area per second is the intensity of light.

∴E = I

n × 3.96 × 10−19 = 10−10

= 2.52 × 108 m2 s−1

The total number of photons entering the pupil per second is given as:

nA = n × A

= 2.52 × 108 × 0.4 × 10−4

= 1.008 × 104 s−1

This number is not as large as the one found in problem (a), but it is large enough for the
human eye to never see the individual photons.

Question 11.26:

Ultraviolet light of wavelength 2271 Å from a 100 W mercury source irradiates a photo
photo-
cell made of molybdenum metal. If the stopping potential is −1.3 V, estimate tthe work
5
function of the metal. How would the photo-cell
photo cell respond to a high intensity (∼10
( W m−2)
red light of wavelength 6328 Å produced by a He
He-Ne laser?

Answer
Wavelength of ultraviolet light, λ = 2271 Å = 2271 × 10−10 m

Stopping potential of the metal, V0 = 1.3 V

Planck’s constant, h = 6.6 × 10−34 J

Charge on an electron, e = 1.6 × 10−19 C

Work function of the metal =

Frequency of light = ν

We have the photo-energy relation from the photoelectric effect as:

= hν − eV0

Let ν0 be the threshold frequency of the metal.

∴ = hν0

Wavelength of red light, = 6328 × 10−10 m

∴Frequency of red light,

Since ν0> νr, the photocell will not respond to the red light produced by the laser.

Question 11.27:

Monochromatic radiation of wavelength 640.2 nm (1nm = 10−9 m) from a neon lamp

irradiates photosensitive material made of caesium on tungsten. The stopping voltage is
measured to be 0.54 V. The source is replaced by an iron source and its 427.2 nm line
irradiates the same photo-cell.
cell. Predict the new stopping voltage.

Answer

Wavelength of the monochromatic radiation, λ = 640.2 nm

= 640.2 × 10−9 m

Stopping potential of the neon lamp, V0 = 0.54 V

Charge on an electron, e = 1.6 × 10−19 C

Planck’s constant, h = 6.6 × 10−34 Js

Let be the work function and ν be the frequency of emitted light.

We have the photo-energy

energy relation from the photoelectric effect as:

eV0 = hν −

Wavelength of the radiation emitted from an iron source, λ' = 427.2 nm

= 427.2 × 10−9 m

Let be the new stopping potential. Hence, photo-energy

photo is given as:

Hence, the new stopping potential is 1.50 eV.

Question 11.28:

A mercury lamp is a convenient source for studying frequency dependence of

photoelectric emission, since it gives a number of spectral lines ranging from the UV to
the red end of the visible spectrum. In our experiment with rubidium photo-cell,
photo cell, the
following lines from a mercury source were used:

λ1 = 3650 Å, λ2= 4047 Å, λ3= 4358 Å, λ4= 5461 Å, λ5= 6907 Å,

The stopping voltages, respectively, were measured to be:

V01 = 1.28 V, V02 = 0.95 V, V03 = 0.74 V, V04 = 0.16 V, V05 = 0 V

Determine the value of Planck’s constant h,, the threshold frequency and work function
for the material.

[Note: You will notice that to get h from the data, you will need to know e (which you
can take to be 1.6 × 10−19 C). Experiments of this kind on Na, Li, K, etc. were performed
by Millikan, who, using his own value of e (from the oil-drop
drop experiment) confirmed
Einstein’s photoelectric equation
equation and at the same time gave an independent estimate of
the value of h.]

Answer
Einstein’s photoelectric equation is given as:

eV0 = hν−

Where,

V0 = Stopping potential

h = Planck’s constant

e = Charge on an electron

ν = Frequency of radiation

= Work function of a material

It can be concluded from equation (1) that potential V0 is directly proportional to

frequency ν.

Frequency is also given by the relation:

This relation can be used to obtain the frequencies of the various lines of the given
wavelengths.

The given quantities can be listed in tabular form as:

 Frequency × 1014 Hz 8.219 7.412 6.884 5.493 4.343

Stopping potential V0 1.28 0.95 0.74 0.16 0

The following figure shows a graph between νand V0.

It can be observed that the obtained curve is a straight line. It intersects the ν-axis at 5 ×
1014 Hz, which is the threshold frequency (ν0) of the material. Point D corresponds to a
frequency less than the threshold frequency. Hence, there is no photoelectric emission for
the λ5 line, and therefore, no stopping voltage is required to stop the current.

Slope of the straight line =

From equation (1), the slope can be written as:

The work function of the metal is given as:

= hν0

= 6.573 × 10−34 × 5 × 1014

= 3.286 × 10−19 J

= 2.054 eV
Question 11.29:

The work function for the following metals is given:

Na: 2.75 eV; K: 2.30 eV; Mo: 4.17 eV; Ni: 5.15 eV. Which of these metals will not give
photoelectric emission for a radiation of wavelength 3300 Å from a He-Cd
Cd laser placed 1
m away from the photocell? What happens if the laser is brought nearer and placed 50 cm
away?

Answer

Mo and Ni will not show photoelectric emission in both cases

Wavelength for a radiation, λ = 3300 Å = 3300 × 10−10 m

Speed of light, c = 3 × 108 m/s

Planck’s constant, h = 6.6 × 10−34 Js

The energy of incident radiation is given as:

It can be observed that the energy of the incident radiation is greater than the work
function of Na and K only. It is less for Mo and Ni. Hence, Mo and Ni will not show
photoelectric emission.

If the source of light is brought near the photocells and placed 50 cm away from them,
then the intensity of radiation will increase. This does not affect the energy of the
radiation. Hence, the resultt will be the same as before. However, the photoelectrons
emitted from Na and K will increase in proportion to intensity.

Question 11.30:
Light of intensity 10−5 W m−2 falls on a sodium photo-cell of surface area 2 cm2.
Assuming that the top 5 layers of sodium absorb the incident energy, estimate time
required for photoelectric emission in the wave-picture of radiation. The work function
for the metal is given to be about 2 eV. What is the implication of your answer?

Answer

Intensity of incident light, I = 10−5 W m−2

Surface area of a sodium photocell, A = 2 cm2 = 2 × 10−4 m2

Incident power of the light, P = I × A

= 10−5 × 2 × 10−4

= 2 × 10−9 W

Work function of the metal, = 2 eV

= 2 × 1.6 × 10−19

= 3.2 × 10−19 J

Number of layers of sodium that absorbs the incident energy, n = 5

We know that the effective atomic area of a sodium atom, Ae is 10−20 m2.

Hence, the number of conduction electrons in n layers is given as:

The incident power is uniformly absorbed by all the electrons continuously. Hence, the
amount of energy absorbed per second per electron is:
Time required for photoelectric emission:

The time required for the photoelectric emission is nearly half a year, which is not
practical. Hence, the wave picture
picture is in disagreement with the given experiment.

Question 11.31:

Crystal diffraction experiments can be performed using X-rays,

X rays, or electrons accelerated
through appropriate voltage. Which probe has greater energy? (For quantitative
comparison, take
ke the wavelength of the probe equal to 1 Å, which is of the order of inter
inter-
−31
atomic spacing in the lattice) ((me= 9.11 × 10 kg).

Answer

An X-ray
ray probe has a greater energy than an electron probe for the same wavelength.

Wavelength of light emitted from the probe, λ = 1 Å = 10−10 m

Mass of an electron, me = 9.11 × 10−31 kg

Planck’s constant, h = 6.6 × 10−34 Js

Charge on an electron, e = 1.6 × 10−19 C

The kinetic energy of the electron is given as:

Where,

v = Velocity of the electron

mev = Momentum (p)) of the electron

According to the de Broglie principle, the de Broglie wavelength is given as:

Energy of a photon,

Hence, a photon has a greater energy than an electron for the same wavelength.

Question 11.32:

Obtain the de Broglie wavelength of a neutron of kinetic energy 150 eV. As you have
seen in Exercise 11.31, an electron beam of this energy is suitable for crystal diffraction
experiments. Would a neutron beam of the same energy be equally suitable?
suitable? Explain.
(mn= 1.675 × 10−27 kg)

Obtain the de Broglie wavelength associated with thermal neutrons at room temperature
(27 ºC). Hence explain why a fast neutron beam needs to be thermalised with the
environment before it can be used for neutron diffraction experiments.

Answer

De Broglie wavelength = ; neutron is not suitable for the diffraction

experiment
Kinetic energy of the neutron, K = 150 eV

= 150 × 1.6 × 10−19

= 2.4 × 10−17 J

Mass of a neutron, mn = 1.675 × 10−27 kg

The kinetic energy of the neutron is given by the relation:

Where,

v = Velocity of the neutron

mnv = Momentum of the neutron

De-Broglie wavelength of the neutron is given as:

It is given in the previous problem that the inter-atomic spacing of a crystal is about 1 Å,
i.e., 10−10 m. Hence, the inter-atomic spacing is about a hundred times greater. Hence, a
neutron beam of energy
150 eV is not suitable for diffraction experiments.

De Broglie wavelength =

Room temperature, T = 27°C = 27 + 273 = 300 K

The average kinetic energy of the neutron is given as:

Where,
k = Boltzmann constant = 1.38 × 10−23 J mol−1 K−1

The wavelength of the neutron is given as:

This wavelength is comparable to the inter-atomic

inter atomic spacing of a crystal. Hence, the high
high-
energy neutron beam shouldd first be thermalised, before using it for diffraction.

Question 11.33:

An electron microscope uses electrons accelerated by a voltage of 50 kV. Determine the

de Broglie wavelength associated with the electrons. If other factors (such as numerical
aperture, etc.) are taken to be roughly the same, how does the resolving power of an
electron microscope compare with that of an optical microscope which uses yellow light?

Answer

Electrons are accelerated by a voltage, V = 50 kV = 50 × 103 V

Charge on an electron, e = 1.6 × 10−19 C

Mass of an electron, me = 9.11 × 10−31 kg

Wavelength of yellow light = 5.9 × 10−7 m

The kinetic energy of the electron is given as:

E = eV

= 1.6 × 10−19 × 50 × 103

= 8 × 10−15 J

De Broglie wavelength is given by the relation:

This wavelength is nearly 105 times less than the wavelength of yellow light.

The resolving power of a microscope is inversely proportional to the wavelength of light

used. Thus, the resolving power of an electron microscope is nearly 105 times
time that of an
optical microscope.

Question 11.34:

The wavelength of a probe is roughly a measure of the size of a structure that it can probe
in some detail. The quark structure of protons and neutrons appears at the minute length-
length
scale of 10−15 m or less. This structure was first probed in early 1970’s using high energy
electron beams produced by a linear accelerator at Stanford, USA. Guess what might
have been the order of energy of these electron beams. (Rest mass energy of electron =
0.511 MeV.)

Answer

Wavelength of a proton or a neutron, λ ≈ 10−15 m

Rest mass energy of an electron:

m0c2 = 0.511 MeV

= 0.511 × 106 × 1.6 × 10−19

= 0.8176 × 10−13 J

Planck’s constant, h = 6.6 × 10−34 Js

Speed of light, c = 3 × 108 m/s

The momentum of a proton or a neutron is given as:

The relativistic relation for energy (E)
( is given as:

Thus, the electron energy emitted from the accelerator at Stanford, USA might be of the
order of 1.24 BeV.

Question 11.35:

Find the typicall de Broglie wavelength associated with a He atom in helium gas at room
temperature (27 ºC) and 1 atm pressure; and compare it with the mean separation between
two atoms under these conditions.

Answer

De Broglie wavelength associated with He atom =

Room temperature, T = 27°C = 27 + 273 = 300 K

Atmospheric pressure, P = 1 atm = 1.01 × 105 Pa

Atomic weight of a He atom = 4

Avogadro’s number, NA = 6.023 × 1023

Boltzmann constant, k = 1.38 × 10−23 J mol−1 K−1

Average energy of a gas at temperature T,is given as:

De Broglie wavelength is given by the relation:

Where,

m = Mass of a He atom

We have the ideal gas formula:

PV = RT

PV = kNT

Where,

V = Volume of the gas

N = Number of moles of the gas

Mean separation between two atoms of the gas is given by the relation:

Hence, the mean separation between the atoms is much greater than the de Broglie
wavelength.

Question 11.36:

Compute the typical de Broglie wavelength of an electron in a metal at 27 ºC and

compare it with the mean separation between two electrons in a metal which is given to
be about 2 × 10−10 m.

[Note: Exercises 11.35 and 11.36 reveal that while the wave
wave-packets
packets associated with
gaseous molecules under ordinary conditions are non
non-overlapping,
overlapping, the electron wave-
packets in a metal strongly overlap with one another. This suggests that whereas
molecules in an ordinary gas can be distinguished apart, electrons in a metal cannot be
distinguished apart from one another. This indistinguishibility has many fundament
fundamental
implications which you will explore in more advanced Physics courses.]

Answer

Temperature, T = 27°C = 27 + 273 = 300 K

Mean separation between two electrons, r = 2 × 10−10 m

De Broglie wavelength of an electron is given as:

Where,

h = Planck’s constant = 6.6 × 10−34 Js

m = Mass of an electron = 9.11 × 10−31 kg

k = Boltzmann constant = 1.38 × 10−23 J mol−1 K−1

Hence, the de Broglie wavelength is much greater than the given inter-electron
inter electron
separation.

Question 11.37:

Answer the following questions:

Quarks inside protons and neutrons are thought to carry fractional charges [(+2/3)
[(+2/3)e ;
(−1/3)e].
]. Why do they not show up in Millikan’s oil-drop
oil experiment?

What is so special about the combination e/m?? Why do we not simply talk of e and m
separately?

Why should gases be insulators at ordinary pressures and start conducting at very low
pressures?

Every metal has a definite work function. Why do all photoelectrons not come out with
the same energy if incident radiation is monochromatic? Why is there an energy
distribution of photoelectrons?

The energy and momentum of an electron are related to the frequency and wavelength of
the associated matter wave by the relations:

E = hν, p =

But while the value of λ is physically significant, the value of ν (and

and therefore, the value
of the phase speed νλ)) has no physical significance. Why?

Answer
Quarks inside protons and neutrons carry fractional charges. This is because nuclear force
increases extremely if they are pulled apart. Therefore, fractional charges may exist in
nature; observable charges are still the integral multiple of an electrical charge.

The basic relations for electric field and magnetic field are

These relations include e (electric charge), v (velocity), m (mass), V (potential), r (radius),

and B (magnetic field). These relations give the value of velocity of an electron as

and

It can be observed from these relations that the dynamics of an electron is determined not
by e and m separately, but by the ratio e/m.

At atmospheric pressure, the ions of gases have no chance of reaching their respective
electrons because of collision and recombination with other gas molecules. Hence, gases
are insulators at atmospheric pressure. At low pressures, ions have a chance of reaching
their respective electrodes and constitute a current. Hence, they conduct electricity at
these pressures.

The work function of a metal is the minimum energy required for a conduction electron to
get out of the metal surface. All the electrons in an atom do not have the same energy
level. When a ray having some photon energy is incident on a metal surface, the electrons
come out from different levels with different energies. Hence, these emitted electrons
show different energy distributions.

The absolute value of energy of a particle is arbitrary within the additive constant. Hence,
wavelength (λ) is significant, but the frequency (ν) associated with an electron has no
direct physical significance.

Therefore, the product νλ(phase speed)has no physical significance.

Group speed is given as:

This quantity has a physical meaning.
Question 12.1:

Choose the correct alternative from the clues given at the end of the each statement:

The size of the atom in Thomson’s model is .......... the atomic size in Rutherford’s model.
(much greater than/no different from/much less than.)

In the ground state of .......... electrons are in stable equilibrium, while in .......... electrons
always experience a net force.

(Thomson’s model/ Rutherford’s model.)

A classical atom based on .......... is doomed to collapse.

(Thomson’s model/ Rutherford’s model.)

m

An atom has a nearly continuous mass distribution in a .......... but has a highly non
non-
uniform mass distribution in ..........

(Thomson’s model/ Rutherford’s model.)

The positively charged part of the atom possesses most of the mass in ..........
(Rutherford’s
utherford’s model/both the models.)

Answer

The sizes of the atoms taken in Thomson’s model and Rutherford’s model have the same
order of magnitude.

In the ground state of Thomson’s model, the electrons are in stable equilibrium. However,
in Rutherford’s
rd’s model, the electrons always experience a net force.

A classical atom based on Rutherford’s model is doomed to collapse.

An atom has a nearly continuous mass distribution in Thomson’s model, but has a highly
non-uniform
uniform mass distribution in Rutherford’s
Rutherford’ model.

The positively charged part of the atom possesses most of the mass in both the models.

Question 12.2:
Suppose you are given a chance to repeat the alpha
alpha-particle
particle scattering experiment using a
thin sheet of solid hydrogen in place of the gold foil. (Hydrogen is a solid at temperatures
below 14 K.) What results do you expect?

Answer

In the alpha-particle
particle scattering experiment, if a thin sheet of solid hydrogen is used in
place of a gold foil, then the scattering angle would not be large enough. This is because
the mass of hydrogen (1.67 × 10−27 kg) is less than the mass of incident α−particles
−particles (6.64
× 10−27 kg). Thus, the mass of the scattering particle is more than the target nucleus
(hydrogen). As a result, the α−particles
α would notot bounce back if solid hydrogen is used
in the α-particle
particle scattering experiment.

Question 12.3:

What is the shortest wavelength present in the Paschen series of spectral lines?

Answer

Rydberg’s formula is given as:

Where,

h = Planck’s constant = 6.6 × 10−34 Js

c = Speed of light = 3 × 108 m/s

(n1 and n2 are integers)

The shortest wavelength present in the Paschen series of the spectral lines is given for
values n1 = 3 and n2 = ∞.
Question 12.4:

A difference of 2.3 eV separates two energy levels in an atom. What is the frequency of
radiation emitted when the atom makes a transition from the upper level to the lower
level?

Answer

Separation of two energy levels in an atom,

E = 2.3 eV

= 2.3 × 1.6 × 10−19

= 3.68 × 10−19 J

Let ν be the frequency of radiation emitted when the atom transits from the upper level to
the lower level.

We have the relation for energy as:

E = hv

Where,

h = Planck’s constant
 5 × 1014 Hz.
Hence, the frequency of the radiation is 5.6

Question 12.5:

The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is −13.6 eV. What are the kinetic and potential
energies of the electron in this state?

Answer

Ground state energy of hydrogen atom, E = − 13.6 eV

This is the total energy of a hydrogen atom. Kinetic energy is equal to the negative of the
total energy.

Kinetic energy = − E = − (− 13.6) = 13.6 eV

Potential energy is equal to the negative of two times of kinetic energy.

Potential energy = − 2 × (13.6) = − 27 .2 eV

Question 12.6:

A hydrogen atom initially in the ground level absorbs a photon, which excites it to the n =
4 level. Determine the wavelength and frequency of the photon.

Answer

For ground level, n1 = 1

Let E1 be the energy of this level. It is known that E1 is related with n1 as:
The atom is excited to a higher level, n2 = 4.

Let E2 be the energy of this level.

The amount of energy absorbed by the photon is given as:

E = E2 − E1

For a photon of wavelengthλ, the expression of energy is written as:

Where,

h = Planck’s constant = 6.6 × 10−34 Js

c = Speed of light = 3 × 108 m/s

And, frequency of a photon is given by the relation,

 frequency is 3.1 × 1015 Hz.
Hence, the wavelength of the photon is 97 nm while the frequency

Question 12.7:

Using the Bohr’s model calculate the speed of the electron in a hydrogen atom in the n =
1, 2, and 3 levels. (b) Calculate the orbital period in each of these levels.

Answer

Let ν1 be the orbital speed of the electron in a hydrogen atom in the ground state level, n1
= 1. For charge (e) of an electron, ν1 is given by the relation,

Where,

e = 1.6 × 10−19 C

∈0 = Permittivity of free space = 8.85 × 10−12 N−1 C2 m−2

h = Planck’s constant = 6.62 × 10−34 Js

For level n2 = 2, we can write the relation for the corresponding orbital speed as:
And, for n3 = 3, we can write the relation for the corresponding orbital speed as:

Hence, the speed of the electron in a hydrogen atom in n = 1, n=2, and n=3 is 2.18 × 106
m/s, 1.09 × 106 m/s, 7.27 × 105 m/s respectively.

Let T1 be the orbital period of the electron when it is in level n1 = 1.

Orbital period is related to orbital speed as:

Where,

r1 = Radius of the orbit

h = Planck’s constant = 6.62 × 10−34 Js

e = Charge on an electron = 1.6 × 10−19 C

∈0 = Permittivity of free space = 8.85 × 10−12 N−1 C2 m−2

m = Mass of an electron = 9.1 × 10−31 kg

For level n2 = 2, we can write the period as:

Where,

r2 = Radius of the electron in n2 = 2

And, for level n3 = 3, we can write the period as:

Where,

r3 = Radius of the electron in n3 = 3

Hence, the orbital period in each of these levels is 1.52 × 10−16 s, 1.22 × 10−15 s, and 4.12
× 10−15 s respectively.

Question 12.8:

The radius of the innermost electron orbit of a hydrogen atom is 5.3 ×10−11 m. What are
the radii of the n = 2 and n =3 orbits?

Answer

The radius of the innermost orbit of a hydrogen atom, r1 = 5.3 × 10−11 m.

Let r2 be the radius of the orbit at n = 2. It is related to the radius of the innermost orbit
as:

For n = 3, we can write the corresponding electron radius as:

Hence, the radii of an electron for n = 2 and n = 3 orbits are 2.12 × 10−10 m and 4.77 ×
10−10 m respectively.

Question 12.9:
A 12.5 eV electron beam is used to bombard gaseous hydrogen at room temperature.
What series of wavelengths will be emitted?

Answer

It is given that the energy of the electron beam used to bombard gaseous hydrogen at
room temperature is 12.5 eV. Also, the energy of the gaseous hydrogen in its ground state
at room temperature is −13.6 eV.

When gaseous hydrogen is bombarded with an electron beam, the energy of the gaseous
hydrogen becomes −13.6 + 12.5 eV i.e., −1.1 eV.

Orbital energy is related to orbit level (n) as:

For n = 3,

This energy is approximately equal to the energy of gaseous hydrogen. It can be

concluded that the electron has jumped from n = 1 to n = 3 level.

During its de-excitation, the electrons can jump from n = 3 to n = 1 directly, which forms
a line of the Lyman series of the hydrogen spectrum.

We have the relation for wave number for Lyman series as:

Where,

Ry = Rydberg constant = 1.097 × 107 m−1

λ= Wavelength of radiation emitted by the transition of the electron

For n = 3, we can obtain λas:

If the electron jumps from n = 2 to n = 1, then the wavelength of the radiation is given as:

If the transition takes place from n = 3 to n = 2, then the wavelength of the radiation is
given as:

This radiation corresponds to the Balmer series of the hydrogen spectrum.

Hence, in Lyman series, two wavelengths i.e., 102.5 nm and 121.5 nm are emitted. And
in the Balmer series, one wavelength i.e., 656.33 nm is emitted.

Question 12.10:

In accordance with the Bohr’s model, find the quantum number that characterises the
earth’s revolution around the sun in an orbit of radius 1.5 × 1011 m with orbital speed 3 ×
104 m/s. (Mass of earth = 6.0 × 1024 kg.)

Answer
Radius of the orbit of the Earth around the Sun, r = 1.5 × 1011 m

Orbital speed of the Earth, ν = 3 × 104 m/s

Mass of the Earth, m = 6.0 × 1024 kg

According to Bohr’s model, angular momentum is quantized and given as:

Where,

h = Planck’s constant = 6.62 × 10−34 Js

n = Quantum number

Hence, the quanta number that characterizes the Earth’ revolution is 2.6 × 1074.

Question 12.11:

Answer the following questions, which help you understand the difference between
Thomson’s model and Rutherford’s model better.

Is the average angle of deflection of α-particles

particles by a thin gold foil predicted by
Thomson’s model much less, about the same, or much greater than that predicted by
Rutherford’s model?

Is the
he probability of backward scattering (i.e., scattering of α-particles
particles at angles greater
than 90°) predicted by Thomson’s model much less, about the same, or much greater than
that predicted by Rutherford’s model?

Keeping other factors fixed, it is found experimentally

experimentally that for small thickness t, the
number of α-particles
particles scattered at moderate angles is proportional to t.. What clue does
this linear dependence on t provide?

In which model is it completely wrong to ignore multiple scattering for the calculati
calculation of
average angle of scattering of α-particles by a thin foil?

Answer
about the same

The average angle of deflection of α-particles

particles by a thin gold foil predicted by Thomson’s
model is about the same size as predicted by Rutherford’s model. This is because the
average angle was taken in both models.

much less

The probability of scattering of α-particles

particles at angles greater than 90° predicted by
Thomson’s model is much less than that predicted by Rutherford’s model.

Scattering is mainly due to single collisions. The chances of a single collision increases
linearly with the number of target atoms. Since the number of target atoms increase with
an increase in thickness, the collision probability depends linearly on the thickness of the
target.

Thomson’s model

It is wrong to ignore multiple scattering in Thomson’s model for the calculation of

average angle of scattering of α−particles
−particles by a thin foil. This is because a single collision
causes very little deflection in this model. Hence, the observed average
average scattering angle
can be explained only by considering multiple scattering.

Question 12.12:

The gravitational attraction between electron and proton in a hydrogen atom is weaker
than the coulomb attraction by a factor of about 10−40. An alternative ve way of looking at
this fact is to estimate the radius of the first Bohr orbit of a hydrogen atom if the electron
and proton were bound by gravitational attraction. You will find the answer interesting.

Answer

Radius of the first Bohr orbit is given by the relation,

Where,

∈0 = Permittivity of free space

h = Planck’s constant = 6.63 × 10−34 Js

me = Mass of an electron = 9.1 × 10−31 kg

e = Charge of an electron = 1.9 × 10−19 C

mp = Mass of a proton = 1.67 × 10−27 kg

r = Distance between the electron and the proton

Coulomb attraction between an electron and a proton is given as:

Gravitational force of attraction between an electron and a proton is given as:

Where,

G = Gravitational constant = 6.67 × 10−11 N m2/kg2

If the electrostatic (Coulomb) force and the gravitational force between an electron and a
proton are equal, then we can write:

∴FG = FC

Putting the value of equation (4) in equation (1), we get:

 years wide or 1.5 × 1027 m wide. Hence,
It is known that the universe is 156 billion light year
we can conclude that the radius of the first Bohr orbit is much greater than the estimated
size of the whole universe.

Question 12.13:

Obtain an expression for the frequency of radiation emitted when a hydrogen atom de de-
excites from level n to level (n−1).
( For large n,, show that this frequency equals the
classical frequency of revolution of the electron in the orbit.

Answer

It is given
en that a hydrogen atom de-excites
de from an upper level (n) to a lower level (n−1).
(

We have the relation for energy (E

( 1) of radiation at level n as:
Now, the relation for energy (E2) of radiation at level (n − 1) is givenas:

Energy (E) released as a result of de-excitation:

E = E2−E1

hν = E2 − E1 … (iii)

Where,

ν = Frequency of radiation emitted

Putting values from equations (i) and (ii) in equation (iii), we get:

For large n, we can write

Classical relation of frequency of revolution of an electron is given as:

Where,

Velocity of the electron in the nth orbit is given as:

v=
And, radius of the nth orbit is given as:

r=

Putting the values of equations (vi) and (vii) in equation (v), we get:

Hence, the frequency of radiation emitted by the hydrogen atom is equal to its classical
orbital frequency.

Question 12.14:

Classically, an electron can be in any orbit around the nucleus of an atom. Then what
determines the typical atomic size? Why is an atom not, say, thousand times bigger than
its typical size? The question had greatly puzzled Bohr before he arrived at his famous
model of the atom that you have learnt in the text. To simulate what he might well have
done before hiss discovery, let us play as follows with the basic constants of nature and see
if we can get a quantity with the dimensions of length that is roughly equal to the known
size of an atom (~ 10−10 m).

Construct a quantity with the dimensions of length from the

the fundamental constants e, me,
and c.. Determine its numerical value.

You will find that the length obtained in (a) is many orders of magnitude smaller than the
atomic dimensions. Further, it involves c.. But energies of atoms are mostly in non
non-
relativistic domain where c is not expected to play any role. This is what may have
suggested Bohr to discard c and look for ‘something else’ to get the right atomic size.
Now, the Planck’s constant h had already made ade its appearance elsewhere. Bohr’s great
insight lay in recognising that h, me, and e will yield the right atomic size. Construct a
quantity with the dimension of length from h, me, and e and confirm that its numerical
value has indeed the correct order of magnitude.

Answer

Charge on an electron, e = 1.6 × 10−19 C

Mass of an electron, me = 9.1 × 10−31 kg

Speed of light, c = 3 ×108 m/s

Let us take a quantity involving the given quantities as

Where,

∈0 = Permittivity of free space

And,

The numerical value of the taken quantity will be:

Hence, the numerical value of the taken quantity is much smaller than the typical size of
an atom.

Charge on an electron, e = 1.6 × 10−19 C

Mass of an electron, me = 9.1 × 10−31 kg

Planck’s constant, h = 6.63 ×10−34 Js

Let us take a quantity involving the given quantities as

Where,

∈0 = Permittivity of free space

And,

The numerical value of the taken quantity will be:

Hence, the value of the quantity taken is of the order of the atomic size.

Question 12.15:

The total energy of an electron in the first excited state of the hydrogen atom is about
−3.4 eV.

What is the kinetic energy of the electron in this state?

What is the potential energy of the electron in this state?

Which of the answers above would change if the choice of the zero of potential energy is
changed?

Answer

Total energy of the electron, E = −3.4 eV

Kinetic energy of the electron is equal to the negative of the total energy.

K = −E

= − (− 3.4) = +3.4 eV

Hence, the kinetic energy of the electron in the given state is +3.4 eV.

Potential energy (U)) of the electron is equal to the negative of twice of its kinetic energy.

U = −2 K

= − 2 × 3.4 = − 6.8 eV
Hence, the potential energy of the electron in the given state is − 6.8 eV.

The potential energy of a system depends on the reference point taken. Here, the potential
energy of the reference point is taken as zero. If the reference point is changed, then the
value of the potential energy of the system also changes.
changes. Since total energy is the sum of
kinetic and potential energies, total energy of the system will also change.

Question 12.16:

If Bohr’s quantisation postulate (angular momentum = nh/2π)2π) is a basic law of nature, it

should be equally valid for the case of planetary motion also. Why then do we never
speak of quantisation of orbits of planets around the sun?

Answer

We never speak of quantization of orbits of planets around the Sun because the angular
momentum associated with planetary motion
motion is largely relative to the value of Planck’s
constant (h).. The angular momentum of the Earth in its orbit is of the order of 1070h. This
leads to a very high value of quantum levels n of the order of 1070. For large values of n,
successive energies and angular
ngular momenta are relatively very small. Hence, the quantum
levels for planetary motion are considered continuous.

Question 12.17:

Obtain the first Bohr’s radius and the ground state energy of a muonic hydrogen atom
[i.e., an atom in which a negatively charged muon (μ−) of mass about 207me orbits around
a proton].

Answer

Mass of a negatively charged muon,

According to Bohr’s model,

Bohr radius,

And, energy of a ground state electronic hydrogen atom,

We have the value of the first Bohr orbit,

Let rμ be the radius of muonic hydrogen atom.

atom

At equilibrium, we can write the relation as:

Hence, the value of the first Bohr radius of a muonic hydrogen atom is

2.56 × 10−13 m.

We have,

Ee= − 13.6 eV

Take the ratio of these energies as:

Hence, the ground state energy of a muonic hydrogen atom is −2.81 keV.
Question 13.1:

Two stable isotopes of lithium and have respective abundances of 7.5% and
92.5%. These isotopes have masses 6.01512 u and 7.01600 u, respectively. Find the
atomic mass of lithium.

Boron has two stable isotopes, and . Their respective masses are 10.01294 u and
11.00931 u, and the atomic mass of boron is 10.811 u. Find the abundances of and
.

Answer

Mass of lithium isotope , m1 = 6.01512 u

Mass of lithium isotope , m2 = 7.01600 u

Abundance of , η1= 7.5%

Abundance of , η2= 92.5%

The atomic mass of lithium atom is given as:

Mass of boron isotope , m1 = 10.01294 u

Mass of boron isotope , m2 = 11.00931 u

Abundance of , η1 = x%
Abundance of , η2= (100 − x)%

Atomic mass of boron, m = 10.811 u

The atomic mass of boron atom is given as:

And 100 − x = 80.11%

Hence, the abundance of is 19.89% and that of is 80.11%.

Question 13.2:

The three stable isotopes of neon: and have respective abundances of

90.51%, 0.27% and 9.22%. The atomic masses of the three isotopes are 19.99 u, 20.99 u
and 21.99 u, respectively. Obtain the average atomic mass of neon.

Answer

Atomic mass of , m1= 19.99 u

Abundance of , η1 = 90.51%

Atomic mass of , m2 = 20.99 u

Abundance of , η2 = 0.27%

Atomic mass of , m3 = 21.99 u

Abundance of , η3 = 9.22%

The average atomic mass of neon is given as:

Question 13.3:

Obtain the binding energy (in MeV) of a nitrogen nucleus , given

=14.00307 u

Answer

Atomic mass of nitrogen , m = 14.00307 u

A nucleus of nitrogen contains 7 protons and 7 neutrons.

Hence, the mass defect of this nucleus, Δm

Δ = 7mH + 7mn − m

Where,

Mass of a proton, mH = 1.007825 u

Mass of a neutron, mn= 1.008665 u

∴Δm = 7 × 1.007825 + 7 × 1.008665 − 14.00307

= 7.054775 + 7.06055 − 14.00307

= 0.11236 u

But 1 u = 931.5 MeV/c2

MeV/ 2
∴Δm = 0.11236 × 931.5 MeV/c

Hence, the binding energy of the nucleus is given as:

Eb = Δmc2

Where,

c = Speed of light

∴Eb = 0.11236 × 931.5

= 104.66334 MeV

Hence, the binding energy of a nitrogen nucleus is 104.66334 MeV.

Question 13.4:

Obtain the binding energy of the nuclei and in units of MeV from the
following data:

= 55.934939 u = 208.980388 u

Answer

Atomic mass of , m1 = 55.934939 u

nucleus has 26 protons and (56 − 26) = 30 neutrons

Hence, the mass defect of the nucleus, Δm

Δ = 26 × mH + 30 × mn − m1

Where,
Mass of a proton, mH = 1.007825 u

Mass of a neutron, mn = 1.008665 u

∴Δm = 26 × 1.007825 + 30 × 1.008665 − 55.934939

= 26.20345 + 30.25995 − 55.934939

= 0.528461 u

But 1 u = 931.5 MeV/c2

∴Δm = 0.528461 × 931.5 MeV/c2

The binding energy of this nucleus is given as:

Eb1 = Δmc2

Where,

c = Speed of light

∴Eb1 = 0.528461 × 931.5

= 492.26 MeV

Average binding energy per nucleon

Atomic mass of , m2 = 208.980388 u

nucleus has 83 protons and (209 − 83) 126 neutrons.

Hence, the mass defect of this nucleus is given as:

Δm' = 83 × mH + 126 × mn − m2

Where,

Mass of a proton, mH = 1.007825 u

Mass of a neutron, mn = 1.008665 u

∴Δm' = 83 × 1.007825 + 126 × 1.008665 − 208.980388

= 83.649475 + 127.091790 − 208.980388

= 1.760877 u

But 1 u = 931.5 MeV/c2

MeV/ 2
∴Δm'' = 1.760877 × 931.5 MeV/c

Hence, the binding energy of this nucleus is given as:

Eb2 = Δm'c2

= 1.760877 × 931.5

= 1640.26 MeV

Average bindingenergy per nucleon =

Question 13.5:

A given coin has a mass of 3.0 g. Calculate the nuclear energy that would be required to
separate all the neutrons and protons from each other. For simplicity assume that the coin
is entirely made of atoms
oms (of mass 62.92960 u).

Answer

Mass of a copper coin, m’’ = 3 g

Atomic mass of atom, m = 62.92960 u

The total number of atoms in the coin

Where,

NA = Avogadro’s number = 6.023 × 1023 atoms /g

Mass number = 63 g
 nucleus has 29 protons and (63 − 29) 34 neutrons

∴Mass
Mass defect of this nucleus, Δm'
Δ = 29 × mH + 34 × mn − m

Where,

Mass of a proton, mH = 1.007825 u

Mass of a neutron, mn = 1.008665 u

∴Δm'' = 29 × 1.007825 + 34 × 1.008665 − 62.9296

= 0.591935 u

Δ = 0.591935 × 2.868 × 1022

Mass defect of all the atoms present in the coin, Δm

= 1.69766958 × 1022 u

But 1 u = 931.5 MeV/c2

∴Δm = 1.69766958 × 1022 × 931.5 MeV/c

MeV/ 2

Hence, the binding energy of the nuclei of the coin is given as:

Eb= Δmc2

= 1.69766958 × 1022 × 931.5

= 1.581 × 1025 MeV

But 1 MeV = 1.6 × 10−13 J

Eb = 1.581 × 1025 × 1.6 × 10−13

= 2.5296 × 1012 J

This much energy is required to separate all the neutrons and protons from the given coin.

Question 13.6:

Write nuclear reaction equations for

α-decay of (ii) α-decay
decay of

β−-decay of (iv) β−-decay

decay of

(v) β+-decay of (vi) β+-decay

decay of

(vii) Electron capture of

Answer

α is a nucleus of helium and β is an electron (e− for β− and e+ for β+). In every α-
decay, there is a loss of 2 protons and 4 neutrons. In every β+-decay,
decay, there is a loss of 1
proton and a neutrino is emitted from the nucleus. In every β−-decay,
decay, there is a gain of 1
proton and an antineutrino is emitted from the nucleus.

For the given cases,

ases, the various nuclear reactions can be written as:

Question 13.7:
A radioactive isotope has a half-life of T years. How long will it take the activity to
reduce to a) 3.125%, b) 1% of its original value?

Answer

Half-life of the radioactive isotope = T years

Original amount of the radioactive isotope = N0

After decay, the amount of the radioactive isotope = N

It is given that only 3.125% of N0 remains after decay. Hence, we can write:

Where,

λ = Decay constant

t = Time
Hence, the isotope will take about 5T
5 years to reduce to 3.125% of its original value.

After decay, the amount of the radioactive isotope = N

It is given that only 1% of N0 remains after decay. Hence, we can write:

Since, λ = 0.693/T

Hence,, the isotope will take about 6.645T

6.645 years to reduce to 1% of its original value.

Question 13.8:

The normal activity of living carbon-containing

carbon containing matter is found to be about 15 decays per
minute for every gram of carbon. This activity arises from the
the small proportion of
radioactive present with the stable carbon isotope . When the organism is dead,
its interaction with the atmosphere (which maintains the above equilibrium activity)
ceases and its activity begins to drop. From the known half-life
half life (5730 years) of , and
the measured activity, the age of the specimen can be approximately estimated. This is the
principle of dating used in archaeology. Suppose a specimen from Mohenjodaro
gives an activity of 9 decays per minute per gram of carbon. Estimate the approximate
age of the Indus-Valley
Valley civilisation.

Answer
Decay rate of living carbon-containing
containing matter, R = 15 decay/min

Let N be the number of radioactive atoms present in a normal carbon-

carbon containing matter.

Half life of , = 5730 years

The decay rate of the specimen obtained from the Mohenjodaro site:

R' = 9 decays/min

Let N' be the number of radioactive atoms present in the specimen during the
Mohenjodaro period.

Therefore, we can relate the decay constant, λand time, t as:

Hence, the approximate age of the Indus-Valley

Indus civilisation is 4223.5 years.

Question 13.9:

Obtain the amount of necessary to provide a radioactive source of 8.0 mCi strength.
The half-life of is 5.3 years.

Answer
The strength of the radioactive source is given as:

Where,

N = Required number of atoms

Half-life of , = 5.3 years

= 5.3 × 365 × 24 × 60 × 60

= 1.67 × 108 s

For decay constant λ,, we have the rate of decay as:

Where, λ

For :

Mass of 6.023 × 1023 (Avogadro’s number) atoms = 60 g

∴Mass of atoms

Hence, the amount of necessary for the purpose is 7.106 × 10−6 g.

Question 13.10:
The half-life of is 28 years. What is the disintegration rate of 15 mg of this isotope?

Answer

Half life of , = 28 years

= 28 × 365 × 24 × 60 × 60

= 8.83 × 108 s

Mass of the isotope, m = 15 mg

90 g of atom contains 6.023 × 1023 (Avogadro’s number) atoms.

Therefore, 15 mg of contains:

Rate of disintegration,

Where,

λ = Decay constant

Hence, the disintegration rate of 15 mg of the given isotope is

7.878 × 1010 atoms/s.

Question 13.11:
Obtain approximately the ratio of the nuclear radii of the gold isotope and the
silver isotope .

Answer

Nuclear radius of the gold isotope = RAu

Nuclear radius of the silver isotope = RAg

Mass number of gold, AAu = 197

Mass number of silver, AAg = 107

The ratio of the radii of the two nuclei is related with their mass numbers as:

Hence, the ratio of the nuclear radii of the gold and silver isotopes is about 1.23.

Question 13.12:

Find the Q-value

value and the kinetic energy of the emitted α-particle in the α-decay
decay of (a)
and (b) .

Given = 226.02540 u, = 222.01750 u,

= 220.01137 u, = 216.00189 u.

Answer
Alpha particle decay of emits a helium nucleus. As a result, its mass number
reduces to (226 − 4) 222 and its atomic number reduces to (88 − 2) 86. This is shown in
the following nuclear reaction.

Q-value of

emitted α-particle = (Sum of initial mass − Sum of final mass) c2

Where,

c = Speed of light

It is given that:

Q-value = [226.02540 − (222.01750 + 4.002603)] u c2

= 0.005297 u c2

But 1 u = 931.5 MeV/c2

∴Q = 0.005297 × 931.5 ≈ 4.94 MeV

Kinetic energy of the α-particle

Alpha particle decay of is shown by the following nuclear reaction.

It is given that:

Mass of = 220.01137 u
Mass of = 216.00189 u

∴Q-value =

≈ 641 MeV

Kinetic energy of the α-particle

particle

= 6.29 MeV

Question 13.13:

The radionuclide 11C decays according to

The maximum energy of the emitted positron is 0.960 MeV.

Given the mass values:

calculate Q and compare it with the maximum energy of the positron emitted

Answer

The given nuclear reaction is:

Atomic mass of = 11.011434 u

Atomic mass of
Maximum energy possessed by the emitted positron = 0.960 MeV

The change in the Q-value

value (ΔQ)
(Δ of the nuclear masses of the nucleus is given as:

Where,

me = Mass of an electron or positron = 0.000548 u

c = Speed of light

m’ = Respective nuclear masses

If atomic masses are used instead of nuclear masses, then we have to add 6 me in the case
of and 5 me in the case of .

Hence, equation (1) reduces to:

∴ΔQ = [11.011434 − 11.009305 − 2 × 0.000548] c2

= (0.001033 c2) u

But 1 u = 931.5 Mev/c2

∴ΔQ = 0.001033 × 931.5 ≈ 0.962 MeV

The value of Q is almost comparable to the maximum energy of the emitted positron.

Question 13.14:

The nucleus decays by emission. Write down the decay equation and
determine the maximum kinetic energy of the electrons emitted. Given that:

= 22.994466 u

= 22.989770 u.
Answer

In emission, the number of protons increases by 1, and one electron and an

antineutrino are emitted from the parent nucleus.

emission of the nucleus is given as:

It is given that:

Atomic mass of = 22.994466 u

Atomic mass of = 22.989770 u

Mass of an electron, me = 0.000548 u

Q-value
value of the given reaction is given as:

There are 10 electrons in and 11 electrons in . Hence, the mass of the electron
is cancelled in the Q-value
value equation.

The daughter nucleus is too heavy as compared to and . Hence, it carries negligible
energy. The kinetic energy of the antineutrino is nearly zero. Hence, the maximum kinetic
energy of the emitted electrons is almost equal to the Q-value,
value, i.e., 4.374 MeV.
Question 13.15:

The Q value of a nuclear reaction A + b → C + d is defined by

Q = [ mA+ mb− mC− md]c2 where the masses refer to the respective nuclei. Determine from
the given data the Q-value of the following reactions and state whether the reactions are
exothermic or endothermic.

Atomic masses are given to be

Answer

The given nuclear reaction is:

It is given that:

Atomic mass

Atomic mass

Atomic mass

According to the question, the Q-value of the reaction can be written as:
The negativeQ-value
value of the reaction shows that the reaction
react is endothermic.

The given nuclear reaction is:

It is given that:

Atomic mass of

Atomic mass of

Atomic mass of

The Q-value
value of this reaction is given as:

The positive Q-value

value of the reaction shows that the reaction is exothermic.

Question 13.16:
Suppose, we think of fission of a nucleus into two equal fragments, . Is the
fission energetically possible? Argue by working out Q of the process. Given

and .

Answer

The fission of can be given as:

It is given that:

Atomic mass of = 55.93494 u

Atomic mass of

The Q-value
value of this nuclear reaction is given as:

The Q-value
value of the fission is negative. Therefore, the fission is not possible energetically.
For an energetically-possible
possible fission reaction, the Q-value must be positive.

Question 13.17:

The fission properties of are very similar to those of .

The average energy released per fission is 180 MeV. How much energy, in MeV, is
released if all the atoms in 1 kg of pure undergo fission?
Answer

Average energy released per fission of ,

Amount of pure , m = 1 kg = 1000 g

NA= Avogadro number = 6.023 × 1023

Mass number of = 239 g

1 mole of contains NA atoms.

∴m g of contains

∴Total
Total energy released during the fission of 1 kg of is calculated as:

Hence, is released if all the atoms in 1 kg of pure undergo

fission.

Question 13.18:

A 1000 MW fission reactor consumes half of its fuel in 5.00 y. How much did it
contain initially? Assume that the reactor operates 80% of the time, that all the energy
generated arises from the fission of and that this nuclide is consumed only by the
fission process.

Answer
Half life of the fuel of the fission reactor, years

= 5 × 365 × 24 × 60 × 60 s

We know that in the fission of 1 g of nucleus, the energy released is equal to 200
MeV.

1 mole, i.e., 235 g of contains 6.023 × 1023 atoms.

∴1 g contains

The total energy generated per gram of is calculated as:

The reactor operates only 80% of the time.

Hence, the amount of consumed in 5 years by the 1000 MW fission reactor is

calculated as:

∴Initial amount of = 2 × 1538 = 3076 kg

Question 13.19:

How long can an electric lamp of 100W be kept glowing by fusion of 2.0 kg of
deuterium? Take the fusion reaction as
Answer

The given fusion reaction is:

Amount of deuterium, m = 2 kg

1 mole, i.e., 2 g of deuterium contains 6.023 × 1023 atoms.

∴2.0
2.0 kg of deuterium contains

It can be inferred from the given reaction that when two atoms of deuterium fuse, 3.27
MeV energy is released.

∴Total
Total energy per nucleus released in the fusion reaction:

Power of the electric lamp, P = 100 W = 100 J/s

Hence, the energy consumed by the lamp

la per second = 100 J

The total time for which the electric lamp will glow is calculated as:
Question 13.20:

Calculate the height of the potential barrier for a head on collision of two deuterons.
(Hint: The height of the potential barrier is given by the Coulomb repulsion between the
two deuterons when they just touch each other. Assume that they can be taken as hard
spheres of radius 2.0 fm.)

Answer

When two deuterons collide head-on, the distance between their centres, d is given as:

Radius of 1st deuteron + Radius of 2nd deuteron

Radius of a deuteron nucleus = 2 fm = 2 × 10−15 m

∴d = 2 × 10−15 + 2 × 10−15 = 4 × 10−15 m

Charge on a deuteron nucleus = Charge on an electron = e = 1.6 × 10−19 C

Potential energy of the two-deuteron system:

Where,

= Permittivity of free space

Hence, the height of the potential barrier of the two
two-deuteron system is

360 keV.

Question 13.21:

From the relation R = R0A1/3, where R0 is a constant and A is the mass number of a
nucleus, show that the nuclear matter density is nearly constant (i.e. independent of A).

Answer

We have the expression for nuclear radius as:

R = R0A1/3

Where,

R0 = Constant.

A = Mass number of the nucleus

Nuclear matter density,

Let m be the average mass of the nucleus.

Hence, mass of the nucleus = mA

Hence, the nuclear matter density is independent of A. It is nearly constant.

Question 13.22:
For the (positron) emission from a nucleus, there is another competing process known
as electron capture (electron from an inner orbit, say, the K−shell, is captured by the
nucleus and a neutrino is emitted).

Show that if emission is energetically allowed, electron capture is necessarily allowed

but not vice−versa.

Answer

Let the amount of energy released during the electron capture process be Q1. The nuclear
reaction can be written as:

Let the amount of energy released during the positron capture process be Q2. The nuclear
reaction can be written as:

= Nuclear mass of

= Nuclear mass of

= Atomic mass of

= Atomic mass of

me = Mass of an electron

c = Speed of light

Q-value of the electron capture reaction is given as:

Q-value
value of the positron capture reaction is given as:

It can be inferred that if Q2 > 0, then Q1 > 0; Also, if Q1> 0, it does not necessarily mean
that Q2 > 0.

In other words, this means that if emission is energetically allowed, then the electron
capture process is necessarily allowed, but not vice-versa.
vice versa. This is because the Q-value
must be positive for an energetically-allowed
energetically nuclear reaction.

Question 13.23:

In a periodic table the average

rage atomic mass of magnesium is given as 24.312 u. The
average value is based on their relative natural abundance on earth. The three isotopes
and their masses are (23.98504u), (24.98584u) and (25.98259u). The
natural abundance of is 78.99% by mass. Calculate
Calculate the abundances of other two
isotopes.

Answer

Average atomic mass of magnesium, m = 24.312 u

Mass of magnesium isotope , m1 = 23.98504 u

Mass of magnesium isotope , m2 = 24.98584 u

Mass of magnesium isotope , m3 = 25.98259 u

Abundance of , η1= 78.99%

Abundance of , η2 = x%
%

Hence, abundance of , η3 = 100 − x − 78.99% = (21.01 − x)%

We have the relation for the average atomic mass as:

Hence, the abundance of is 9.3% and that of is 11.71%.

Question 13.24:

The neutron separation energy is defined as the energy required to remove a neutron from
the nucleus. Obtain the neutron separation energies of the nuclei and from the
following data:

= 39.962591 u

) = 40.962278 u

= 25.986895 u

) = 26.981541 u

Answer
For

For

A neutron is removed from a nucleus. The corresponding nuclear reaction

can be written as:

It is given that:

Mass = 39.962591 u

Mass ) = 40.962278 u

Mass = 1.008665 u

The mass defect of this reaction is given as:

Δm =

∴Δm = 0.008978 × 931.5 MeV/c2

Hence, the energy required for neutron removal is calculated as:

For , the neutron removal reaction can be written as:

It is given that:
Mass = 26.981541 u

Mass = 25.986895 u

The mass defect of this reaction is given as:

Hence, the energy required for neutron removal is calculated as:

Question 13.25:

A source contains two phosphorous radio nuclides (T1/2 = 14.3d) and (T1/2 =
25.3d). Initially, 10% of the decays come from . How long one must wait until 90%
do so?

Answer

Half life of , T1/2 = 14.3 days

Half life of , T’1/2 = 25.3 days

nucleus decay is 10% of the total amount of decay.

The source has initially 10% of nucleus and 90% of nucleus.

Suppose after t days, the source has 10% of nucleus and 90% of nucleus.
Initially:

Number of nucleus = N

Number of nucleus = 9 N

Finally:

Number of

Number of

For nucleus, we can write the number ratio as:

For , we can write the number ratio as:

On dividing equation (1) by equation (2), we get:

Hence, it will take about 208.5 days for 90% decay of .

Question 13.26:

Under certain circumstances, a nucleus can decay by emitting a particle more massive
than an α-particle.
particle. Consider the following decay processes:

Calculate the Q-values

values for these decays and determine that both are energetically allowed.

Answer

Take a emission nuclear reaction:

We know that:

Mass of m1 = 223.01850 u

Mass of m2 = 208.98107 u

Mass of , m3 = 14.00324 u

Hence, the Q-value

value of the reaction is given as:

Q = (m1 − m2 − m3) c2

= (223.01850 − 208.98107 − 14.00324) c2

= (0.03419 c2) u

But 1 u = 931.5 MeV/c2

∴Q = 0.03419 × 931.5

= 31.848 MeV

Hence, the Q-value

value of the nuclear reaction is 31.848 MeV. Since the value is positive, the
reaction is energetically
ically allowed.

Now take a emission nuclear reaction:

We know that:

Mass of m1 = 223.01850

Mass of m2 = 219.00948

Mass of , m3 = 4.00260

Q-value
value of this nuclear reaction is given as:

Q = (m1 − m2 − m3) c2

= (223.01850 − 219.00948 − 4.00260) C2

= (0.00642 c2) u

= 0.00642 × 931.5 = 5.98 MeV

Hence, the Q value of the second nuclear reaction is 5.98 MeV. Since the value is
positive, the reaction is energetically allowed.

Question 13.27:

Consider the fission of by fast neutrons. In one fission event, no neutrons are
emitted and the final end products, after the beta decay of the primary fragments, are
and . Calculate Q for this fission process. The relevant atomic and particle
masses are

m =238.05079 u

m =139.90543 u
m = 98.90594 u

Answer

In the fission of , 10 β− particles decay from the parent nucleus. The nuclear reaction
can be written as:

It is given that:

Mass of a nucleus m1 = 238.05079 u

Mass of a nucleus m2 = 139.90543 u

Mass of a nucleus , m3 = 98.90594 u

Mass of a neutron m4 = 1.008665 u

Q-value of the above equation,

Where,

m’ = Represents the corresponding atomic masses of the nuclei

= m1 − 92me

= m2 − 58me

= m3 − 44me

= m4
Hence, the Q-value
value of the fission process is 231.007 MeV.

Question 13.28:

−T reaction (deuterium−tritium fusion)

Consider the D−T

Calculate the energy released in MeV in this reaction from the data:

= 2.014102 u

= 3.016049 u

Consider the radius of both deuterium and tritium to be approximately 2.0 fm. What is
(b)Consider
the kinetic energy needed to overcome the coulomb repulsion between the two nuclei? To
what temperature must the gas be heated to initiate the reaction? (Hint: Kinetic energy
required for one fusion event =average thermal kinetic energy available
available with the
interacting particles = 2(3kT/2);
/2); k = Boltzman’s constant, T = absolute temperature.)

Answer

Take the D-T

T nuclear reaction:

It is given that:
Mass of , m1= 2.014102 u

Mass of , m2 = 3.016049 u

Mass of m3 = 4.002603 u

Mass of , m4 = 1.008665 u

Q-value of the given D-T reaction is:

Q = [m1 + m2− m3 − m4] c2

= [2.014102 + 3.016049 − 4.002603 − 1.008665] c2

= [0.018883 c2] u

But 1 u = 931.5 MeV/c2

∴Q = 0.018883 × 931.5 = 17.59 MeV

Radius of deuterium and tritium, r ≈ 2.0 fm = 2 × 10−15 m

Distance between the two nuclei at the moment when they touch each other, d = r + r = 4
× 10−15 m

Charge on the deuterium nucleus = e

Charge on the tritium nucleus = e

Hence, the repulsive potential energy between the two nuclei is given as:

Where,

∈0 = Permittivity of free space

Hence, 5.76 × 10−14 J or of kinetic energy (KE) is needed to overcome the
Coulomb repulsion between the two nuclei.

However, it is given that:

KE

Where,

k = Boltzmann constant = 1.38 × 10−23 m2 kg s−2 K−1

T = Temperature required for triggering the reaction

Hence, the gas must be heated to a temperature of 1.39 × 109 K to initiate the reaction.

Question 13.29:

Obtain the maximum kinetic energy of β-particles,

particles, and the radiation frequencies of γ
decays in the decay scheme shown in Fig. 13.6. You are given that

m (198Au) = 197.968233 u

m (198Hg) =197.966760 u

Answer
It can be observed from the given γ-decay diagram that γ1 decays from the 1.088 MeV
energy level to the 0 MeV energy level.

Hence, the energy corresponding to γ1-decay is given as:

E1 = 1.088 − 0 = 1.088 MeV

hν1= 1.088 × 1.6 × 10−19 × 106 J

Where,

h = Planck’s constant = 6.6 × 10−34 Js

ν1 = Frequency of radiation radiated by γ1-decay

It can be observed from the given γ-decay diagram that γ2 decays from the 0.412 MeV
energy level to the 0 MeV energy level.

Hence, the energy corresponding to γ2-decay is given as:

E2 = 0.412 − 0 = 0.412 MeV

hν2= 0.412 × 1.6 × 10−19 × 106 J

Where,

ν2 = Frequency of radiation radiated by γ2-decay

It can be observed from the given γ-decay diagram that γ3 decays from the 1.088 MeV
energy level to the 0.412 MeV energy level.

Hence, the energy corresponding to γ3-decay is given as:

E3 = 1.088 − 0.412 = 0.676 MeV

hν3= 0.676 × 10−19 × 106 J

Where,

ν3 = Frequency of radiation radiated by γ3-decay

Mass of = 197.968233 u

Mass of = 197.966760 u

1 u = 931.5 MeV/c2

Energy of the highest level is given as:

β1 decays from the 1.3720995 MeV level to the 1.088 MeV level

∴Maximum
Maximum kinetic energy of the β1 particle = 1.3720995 − 1.088

= 0.2840995 MeV

β2 decays from the 1.3720995 MeV level to the 0.412 MeV level

∴Maximum
Maximum kinetic energy of the β2 particle = 1.3720995 − 0.412

= 0.9600995 MeV

Question 13.30:

Calculate and compare the energy released by a) fusion of 1.0 kg of hydrogen deep within
Sun and b) the fission of 1.0 kg of 235U in a fission reactor.

Answer
Amount of hydrogen, m = 1 kg = 1000 g

1 mole, i.e., 1 g of hydrogen ( ) contains 6.023 × 1023 atoms.

∴1000 g of contains 6.023 × 1023 × 1000 atoms.

Within the sun, four nuclei combine and form one nucleus. In this process 26
MeV of energy is released.

Hence, the energy released from the fusion of 1 kg is:

Amount of = 1 kg = 1000 g

1 mole, i.e., 235 g of contains 6.023 × 1023 atoms.

∴1000 g of contains

It is known that the amount of energy released in the fission of one atom of is 200
MeV.

Hence, energy released from the fission of 1 kg of is:

Therefore, the energy released

ed in the fusion of 1 kg of hydrogen is nearly 8 times the
energy released in the fission of 1 kg of uranium.
Question 13.31:

Suppose India had a target of producing by 2020 AD, 200,000 MW of electric power, ten
percent of which was to be obtained from nuclear power plants. Suppose we are given
that, on an average, the efficiency of utilization (i.e. conversion to electric energy) of
thermal energy produced in a reactor was 25%. How much amount of fissionable uranium
would our country need per year by 2020? Take the heat energy per fission of 235U to be
about 200MeV.

Answer

Amount of electric power to be generated, P = 2 × 105 MW

10% of this amount has to be obtained from nuclear power plants.

∴Amount of nuclear power,

= 2 × 104 MW

= 2 × 104 × 106 J/s

= 2 × 1010 × 60 × 60 × 24 × 365 J/y

Heat energy released per fission of a 235U nucleus, E = 200 MeV

Efficiency of a reactor = 25%

Hence, the amount of energy converted into the electrical energy per fission is calculated
as:

Number of atoms required for fission per year:

1 mole, i.e., 235 g of U235 contains 6.023 × 1023 atoms.

∴Mass of 6.023 × 1023 atoms of U235 = 235 g = 235 × 10−3 kg

∴Mass of 78840 × 1024 atoms of U235

Hence, the mass of uranium needed per year is 3.076 × 104 kg.
Question 14.1:

In an n-type
type silicon, which of the following statement is true:

Electrons are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are the dopants.

Electrons are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are the dopants.

Holes are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are the dopants.

Holes are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are the dopants.

Answer

The correct statement is (c).

In an n-type
type silicon, the electrons are the majority carriers, while the holes are the
minority carriers. An n-type
pe semiconductor is obtained when pentavalent atoms, such as
phosphorus, are doped in silicon atoms.

Question 14.2:

Which of the statements given in Exercise 14.1 is true for p-type

p type semiconductors.

Answer

The correct statement is (d).

In a p-type
type semiconductor, the holes are the majority carriers, while the electrons are the
minority carriers. A p-type
type semiconductor is obtained when trivalent atoms, such as
aluminium, are doped in silicon atoms.

Question 14.3:
Carbon, silicon and germanium have four valence electrons each. These are characterised
by valence and conduction bands separated by energy band gap respectively equal to
(Eg)C, (Eg)Si and (Eg)Ge. Which of the following statements is true?

(Eg)Si < (Eg)Ge < (Eg)C

(Eg)C < (Eg)Ge > (Eg)Si

(Eg)C > (Eg)Si > (Eg)Ge

(Eg)C = (Eg)Si = (Eg)Ge

Answer

The correct statement is (c).

Of the three given elements, the energy band gap of carbon is the maximum and that of
germanium is the least.

The energy band gap of these elements are related as: (Eg)C > (Eg)Si > (Eg)Ge

Question 14.4:

In an unbiased p-nn junction, holes diffuse from the p-region

p to n-region
region because

free electrons in the n-region

region attract them.

they move across the junction by the potential difference.

hole concentration in p-region

region is more as compared to n-region.
n

All the above.

Answer

The correct statement is (c).

The diffusion of charge carriers across a junction takes place from the region of higher
concentration to the region of lower concentration. In this case, the p-region
region has greater
concentration of holes than the n-region.
n Hence, in an unbiased p-nn junction, holes diffuse
from the p-region to the n-region.
region.

Question 14.5:

When a forward bias is applied to a p-n

p junction, it

raises the potential barrier.

reduces the majority carrier current to zero.

lowers the potential barrier.

None of the above.

Answer

The correct statement is (c).

When a forward bias is applied to a p-n

p n junction, it lowers the value of potential barrier.
In the case of a forward bias, the potential barrier opposes the applied voltage. Hence, the
potential barrier across the junction gets reduced.

Question 14.6:

For transistor action, which of the following statements are correct:

Base, emitter and collector regions should have similar size and doping concentrations.

The base region must be very thin and lightly doped.

The emitter junction is forward biased and collector junction is reverse biased.

Both the emitter junction as well as the collector junction are forward biased.

Answer
The correct statement is (b), (c).

For a transistor action, the junction must be lightly doped so that the base region is very
thin. Also, the emitter junction must be forward-biased
forward and collector junction should be
reverse-biased.

Question 14.7:

For a transistor amplifier, the voltage gain

remains constant for all frequencies.

is high at high and low frequencies and constant in the middle frequency range.

is low at high and low frequencies and constant at mid frequencies.

None of the above.

Answer

The correct statement is (c).

The voltage gain of a transistor amplifier is constant at mid frequency range only. It is
low at high and low frequencies.

Question 14.8:

In half-wave
wave rectification, what is the output frequency if the input frequency is 50 Hz.
What is the output frequency of a full-wave
full wave rectifier for the same input frequency.

Answer
Input frequency = 50 Hz

For a half-wave
wave rectifier, the output frequency
frequency is equal to the input frequency.

∴Output frequency = 50 Hz

For a full-wave
wave rectifier, the output frequency is twice the input frequency.

∴Output
Output frequency = 2 × 50 = 100 Hz

Question 14.9:

For a CE-transistor
transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage across the collected resistance of 2
kΩ is 2 V. Suppose the current amplification factor of the transistor is 100, find the input
signal voltage and base current, if the base resistance is 1 kΩ.

Answer

Collector resistance, RC = 2 kΩ = 2000 Ω

Audio signal voltage across the collector resistance, V = 2 V

Current amplification factor of the transistor, β = 100

Base resistance, RB = 1 kΩ = 1000 Ω

Input signal voltage = Vi

Base current = IB

We have the amplification relation as:

Voltage amplification
Therefore, the input signal voltage of the amplifier is 0.01 V.

Base resistance is given by the relation:

Therefore, the base current of the amplifier is 10 μA.

Question 14.10:

Two amplifiers are connected one after the other in series (cascaded). The first amplifier
has a voltage gain of 10 and the second has a voltage gain of 20. If the input signal is 0.01
volt, calculate the output ac signal.

Answer

Voltage gain of the first amplifier, V1 = 10

Voltage gain of the second amplifier, V2 = 20

Input signal voltage, Vi = 0.01 V

Output AC signal voltage = Vo

The total voltage gain of a two-stage

two stage cascaded amplifier is given by the product of
voltage gains of both the stages, i.e.,

V = V1 × V2

= 10 × 20 = 200

We have the relation:

V0 = V × Vi

= 200 × 0.01 = 2 V

Therefore, the output AC signal of the given amplifier is 2 V.

Question 14.11:

A p-n
n photodiode is fabricated from a semiconductor with band gap of 2.8 eV. Can it
detect a wavelength of 6000 nm?

Answer

Energy band gap of the given photodiode, Eg = 2.8 eV

Wavelength, λ = 6000 nm = 6000 × 10−9 m

The energy of a signal is given by the relation:

E=

Where,

h = Planck’s constant

= 6.626 × 10−34 Js

c = Speed of light

= 3 × 108 m/s

= 3.313 × 10−20 J
But 1.6 × 10−19 J = 1 eV

∴E = 3.313 × 10−20 J

The energy of a signal of wavelength 6000 nm is 0.207 eV, which is less than 2.8 eV −
the energy band gap of a photodiode. Hence, the photodiode cannot detect the signal.

Question 14.12:

The number of silicon atoms per m3 is 5 × 1028. This is doped simultaneously with 5 ×
1022 atoms per m3 of Arsenic and 5 × 1020 per m3 atoms off Indium. Calculate the number
of electrons and holes. Given that ni= 1.5 × 1016 m−3. Is the material n-type
type or p-type?
p

Answer

Number of silicon atoms, N = 5 × 1028 atoms/m3

Number of arsenic atoms, nAs = 5 × 1022 atoms/m3

Number of indium atoms, nIn = 5 × 1020 atoms/m3

generated electrons, ni = 1.5 × 1016 electrons/m3

Number of thermally-generated

Number of electrons, ne = 5 × 1022 − 1.5 × 1016 ≈ 4.99 × 1022

Number of holes = nh

In thermal equilibrium, the concentrations of electrons and holes in a semiconductor are

related as:

nenh = ni2
Therefore, the number of electrons is approximately 4.99 × 1022 and the number of holes
is about 4.51 × 109. Since the number of electrons is more than the number of holes, the
material is an n-type
type semiconductor.

Question 14.13:

In an intrinsic semiconductor the energy gap Egis 1.2 eV. Its hole mobility is much
smaller than electron mobility and independent of temperature. What is the ratio between
conductivity at 600K and that at 300K? Assume that the temperature dependence of
intrinsic carrier concentration niis given by

where n0 is a constant.

Answer

Energy gap of the given intrinsic semiconductor, Eg = 1.2 eV

The temperature dependence of the intrinsic carrier-concentration

carrier concentration is written as:

Where,

kB = Boltzmann constant = 8.62 × 10−5 eV/K

T = Temperature

n0 = Constant
Initial temperature, T1 = 300 K

The intrinsic carrier-concentration

concentration at this temperature can be written as:

… (1)

Final temperature, T2 = 600 K

The intrinsic carrier-concentration

concentration at this temperature can be written as:

… (2)

The ratio between the conductivities at 600 K and at 300 K is equal to the ratio between
the respective intrinsic carrier-concentrations
carrier at these temperatures.

Therefore, the ratio between the conductivities is 1.09 × 105.

Question 14.14:

In a p-n junction diode, the current I can be expressed as

where I0 is called the reverse saturation current, V is the voltage across the diode and is
positive for forward bias and negative for reverse bias, and I is the current through the
diode, kBis the Boltzmann constant (8.6×10−5 eV/K) and T is the absolute temperature. If
for a given diode I0 = 5 × 10−12 A and T = 300 K, then

What will be the forward current at a forward voltage of 0.6 V?

What will be the increase in the current if the voltage across the diode is increased to 0.7
V?

What is the dynamic resistance?

What will be the current if reverse bias voltage changes from 1 V to 2 V?

Answer

In a p-n junction diode, the expression for current is given as:

Where,

I0 = Reverse saturation current = 5 × 10−12 A

T = Absolute temperature = 300 K

kB = Boltzmann constant = 8.6 × 10−5 eV/K = 1.376 × 10−23 J K−1

V = Voltage across the diode

Forward voltage, V = 0.6 V

∴Current, I

Therefore, the forward current is about 0.0256 A.

For forward voltage, V’ = 0.7 V, we can write:

 ΔI = I' − I
Hence, the increase in current, Δ

= 1.257 − 0.0256 = 1.23 A

Dynamic resistance

If the reverse bias voltage changes from 1 V to 2 V, then the current (I)
( ) will almost
remain equal to I0 in both cases. Therefore, the dynamic resistance in the reverse bias will
be infinite.

Question 14.15:

You are given the two circuits as shown in Fig. 14.44. Show that circuit (a) acts as OR
gate while the circuit (b) acts as AND gate.

Answer

A and B are the inputs and Y is the output of the given circuit. The left half of the given
figure acts as the NOR Gate, while the right half acts as the NOT Gate. This is shown in
the following figure.

Hence, the output of the NOR Gate =

This will be the input for the NOT Gate. Its output will be =A+B

∴Y = A + B

Hence, this circuit functions as an OR Gate.

A and B are the inputs and Y is the output of the given circuit. It can be observed from the
following figure that the inputs of the right half NOR Gate are the outputs of the two
NOT Gates.

Hence, the output of the given circuit can be written as:

Hence, this circuit functions as an AND Gate.

Question 14.16:

Write the truth table for a NAND gate connected as given in Fig. 14.45.

Hence identify the exact logic operation carried out by this circuit.

Answer

A acts as the two inputs of the NAND gate and Y is the output, as shown in the following
figure.
Hence, the output can be written as:

The truth table for equation (i)

( can be drawn as:

A
Y

0 1

1 0

This circuit functions as a NOT gate. The symbol for this logic circuit is shown as:

Question 14.17:

You are given two circuits as shown in Fig. 14.46, which consist of NAND gates. Identify
the logic operation carried out by the two circuits.

Answer

In both the given circuits, A and B are the inputs and Y is the output.

The output of the left NAND gate will be , as shown in the following figure.
Hence, the output of the combination of the two NAND gates is given as:

Hence, this circuit functions as an AND gate.

is the output of the upper left of the NAND gate and is the output of the lower half
of the NAND gate, as shown in the following figure.

Hence, the output of the combination of the NAND gates will be given as:

Hence, this circuit functions as an OR gate.

Question 14.18:

Write the truth table for circuit given in Fig. 14.47 below consisting of NOR gates and
identify the logic operation (OR, AND, NOT) which this circuit is performing.
performing.

(Hint: A = 0, B = 1 then A and B inputs of second NOR gate will be 0 and hence Y=1.
Similarly work out the values of Y for other combinations of A and B. Compare with the
truth table of OR, AND, NOT gates and find the correct one.)

Answer
A and B are the inputs of the given circuit. The output of the first NOR gate is . It
can be observed from the following figure that the inputs of the second NOR gate become
the out put of the first one.

Hence, the output of the combination is given as:

The truth table for this operation is given as:

A B Y (=A
A + B)

0 0 0

0 1 1

1 0 1

1 1 1

This is the truth table of an OR gate. Hence, this circuit functions as an OR gate.

Question 14.19:

Write the truth table for the circuits given in Fig. 14.48 consisting of NOR gates only.
Identify the logic operations (OR, AND, NOT) performed by the two circuits.
Answer

A acts as the two inputs of the NOR gate and Y is the output, as shown in the following
figure. Hence, the output of the circuit is .

The truth table for the same is given as:

A
Y

0 1

1 0

This is the truth table of a NOT gate. Hence, this circuit functions as a NOT gate.

A and B are the inputs and Y is the output of the given circuit. By using the result obtained
in solution (a), we can infer that the outputs of the first two NOR gates are as
shown in the following figure.
 are the inputs for the last NOR gate. Hence, the output for the circuit can be
written as:

The truth table for the same can be written as:

A B Y (=A
A⋅B)

0 0 0

0 1 0

1 0 0

1 1 1

This is the truth table of an AND gate. Hence, this circuit functions as an AND gate.