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CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 Social Science Set 2

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160 views7 pages

CBSE Sample Papers For Class 10 Social Science Set 2

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CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science Set 2

Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 80


General Instructions
1. Question paper comprises five Sections – A, B, C, D, and E. There are 37 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A – From question 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
3. Section B – Questions no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not
exceed 40 words.
4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60
words.
5. Section D – Questions no. 30 to 33 are long answer-type questions. carrying marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120
words
6. Section-E – Questions no. from 34 to 36 are case-based questions with three sub-questions and are of 4 marks each.
7. Section F — Question no. 37 is map-based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3
marks).
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices
in such questions have to be attempted.
9. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each
Question 1. Identify the crop with the help of the clues given below. (1)
This crop is used as both food and fodder. It requires temperature from 21°C to 27°C.
It is a Kharif crop which grows well in old Alluvial soil.
(a) Millets (c) Wheat
(b) Maize (d) Pulses
Question 2. Which place in India has an artificial lake to conserve water that dates to 11th century? (1)
(A) Delhi (C) Mumbai
(B) Bhopal (D) Kolhapur
Question 3. According to the Human Development Report of UNDP, 2018, the HDI ranking of countries is
mentioned below. (1)
Column A Column B
A. Sri Lanka 1. 76
B. India 2. 130
C. Pakistan 3. 150
D. Nepal 4. 149
Why does India rank low on the Human Development Index despite of its huge size and population? Select
the most suitable options from the following.
(a) Less investment in social infrastructure.
(b) Gender inequality is still prevalent.
(c) Increasing income inequalities among different sections of the society.
(d) All of the above
Question 4. Which of the following options represent potential measures that can be taken to mitigate the
threats posed by mining activities on the Buxar tiger reserve’s ecosystem and biodiversity? (1)
(i) Banning hunting, giving legal protection to their habitats and restricting wildlife trade.
(ii) Prohibiting the visit of public into forest area.
(iii) Establishing wildlife sanctuaries and National Parks
(iv) Converting forests into Reserved and Protected forests
Options:
(A) Statement i and ii are correct. (C) Statement ii is correct
(B) Statement ii, iii & iv are correct (D) Statement i, iii, & iv are correct
Question 5. The activities involved in tourism like guides, hotels, travel, food, etc are included in which
sector of the economy? (1)
(a) Public sector (c) Unorganised sector
(b) Tertiary sector (d) Primary sector
Question 6. Which of the following statements accurately distinguishes between Majoritarianism and Power
sharing? (1)
(A) Majoritarianism emphasizes the dominance of the majority community, while Power sharing
emphasizes the sharing of power among different groups.
(B) Majoritarianism emphasizes the need for consensus building, while Power sharing emphasizes the
exclusion of minority groups.
(C) Majoritarianism emphasizes the importance of accommodating minority interests, while Power sharing
emphasizes the need for majority rule.
(D) Majoritarianism emphasizes the need for peaceful resolution of conflicts, while Power sharing
emphasizes the use of force to impose the majority’s will.
Question 7. Which of the following statements held that workers are exploited in the unorganized sector?
Identify the correct option.
I. There are no fixed number of working hours.
II. They do not get other allowances apart from the daily wages.
III. They can be asked to leave the job at any time.
IV. Workers are registered by the government and have to follow its rules and regulations.
(a) Both I and II (c) I, II and III
(b) Both H and III (d) Only IV
Question 8. Rahul has a sack of cotton but he needs wheat and Anush has a sack of wheat and needs cotton,
under this situation both will be able to exchange their goods. In case of absence of such coincidence of
wants, they may not exchange their goods.
Which one of the following would be the best option that describes the mutual exchange of goods and
eliminate the exchange of goods? (1)
Identify the situation and choose the right option that will help “R” and “S” to eliminate this situation.
(A) Double coincidence of want, Exchanging commodity for commodity.
(B) Double Coincidence of want, Credit on Commodity.
(C) Double coincidence of want, Loan on commodity.
(D) Double coincidence of want, Money.
Question 9. Coalition Government is formed by the two or more political parties. Which of the following

options best signifies this image related to coalition? (1)

(a) Coalition government is a new form of Government in India.


(b) The ruling party and the opposition party form a coalition government.
(c) In the coalition government, the leader decides every rule.
(d) The leader of the coalition keeps the partners of the government satisfied.
Question 10. Identify the painting from the options given below. (1)

(A) Frankfurt Parliament (C) Duma


(B) Reichstag (D) The House of Parliament
Question 11. Which among the following claimed that true German culture was discovered among the
common people? (1)
(a) Louis Philippe (c) Karol Karpinski
(b) Johann Gottfricd Herder (d) Carl Welcker
Question 12. Choose the correction option to complete the statement. (1)
If a government provides its citizens a right and means to examine the process of decision, it is _________.
(A) An accountable government (C) A transparent government
(B) A responsible government (D) A stable government.
Question 13. Which of the following two ports grew after the European companies gained power in trade? (1)
(a) Surat and Hoogly (c) Bombay and Calcutta
(b) Madras and Masulipatnam (d) Kandla and Vishakhapatnam
Question 14. If there is a disruption by transporters and lorries refuse to transport vegetables, milk, etc. from
rural areas to urban areas, food will become scarce in urban areas, whereas farmers will be unable to sell
their products. Which of the following sectors will be affected due to the situation stated above? (1)
(A) Primary and Secondary (C) Tertiary, Primary and Secondary
(B) Secondary and Tertiary (D) Tertiary and Primary.
Question 15. Arrange the following events in a chronological order. (1)
I. First spinning and weaving mill of Madras began production
II. First jute mill cornes up in Bengal
III. James Watt patents the steam engine
IV. Earliest factories started in England
(a) I, II, IV, III (c) IV, III, lI, I
(b) IV, I, II, III (d) III, IV, II, I
Question 16. “M” gave his friend clues about a type of soil that suits for growing cotton. Which of the
following clues provided by “M” would be most useful in identifying the ideal type of soil?
Clues:
i. It is well-known for its capacity to hold moisture.
ii. It turns yellow when it is hydrated.
iii. It is rich in kankur and bhangar nodules.
iv. It is a well-drained loamy soil.
(A) Clue i (B) Clue i and iii
(C) Clue i and ii (D) Clue iv
Question 17. Consider the following statements on the practice of federalism in India. Identify those that
hold for decentralization after 1992. (1)
I. Local Governments did not have any power or resources of their own.
II. It became constitutionally mandatory to hold regular elections to Local Government bodies.
III. The State Governments are required to share some powers and revenue with Local Government bodies.
IV. No seats are reserved in the elected bodies for Scheduled Castes. Scheduled Tribes and other backward
classes.
(a) II and III (c) I and IV
(b) I and III (d) II and IV
Question 18. The process of integration between different countries is called as _____________.
(A) Privatization (C) Liberalization
(B) Globalization (D) Competition
Question 19. Identify the power-sharing system with the help of the following information.
Power is shared among different organs of the government. All the organs of the government are placed at
the same level. It specifies the concept of checks and balances.
(a) Community Government (c) Horizontal Division of Power
(b) Vertical Division of Power (d) Unitary form of Government
Question 20. Miss “S” approached a bank nearby to avail loan for her own business, as well as a Self-help
group which is operating in her village, the bank rejected her loan application whereas the Self-help group
accepted to support her by providing the loan. Which one of the following documents is required by the
bank, but not required by the self-help group to approve Miss “S’s” loan application for her business? (1)
(A) Application for loans (C) Document on Collateral
(B) Arrangement Letter (D) Demand promissory note & take delivery letter.
Section B consists of 4 questions of 2 marks each
Question 21. Study the map thoroughly and mention any one major irrigation dam which is located in the
highlighted Indian state. (2)

Question 22. The most powerful weapon of the Spanish conqueror was not a conventional military weapon
at all. Justify the above statement by giving two reasons.
(A) The Spanish conquerors won America with not conventional military weapon but with germs like
smallpox which spread deep into the continent before any European could reach there.
OR
(B) “Traders and travelers introduced new crops to lands they travelled. “Substantiate this statement with
illustrations
Question 23. What do you understand by the term investment? Name a few companies which make foreign
investments. (1+1)
Question 24. Mention any four reasons to prove that India is a federal country.
Section C consists of 5 questions of 3 marks each
Question 25. Raj is a student of Class X. He often gets confused about the difference between primitive
subsistence farming and intensive subsistence farming. Write three points of difference between primitive
subsistence farming and intensive subsistence farming. (3)
Question 26.
(A): A worker in an urban area, who was working in a small factory, was not paid his wages properly, he
was forced to work extra hours under poor working conditions, there was no job security, and recently he
lost his job and was found selling electrical items in a pushcart. (3)
Analyze the role of the government in protecting the workers working in an Unorganized sector.
OR
(B): Mr Pawan, a village head wanted to create more job opportunities to increase the income of the people
of his village under MNREGA act, suggest any three activities, so that Mr Pawan could initiate in his
village.
Question 27. How can we say that globalization has been advantageous to consumers as well as producers?
Give reasons. (3)
Question 28. The Indian constitution provides 3 lists to distribute the legislative power. State any two
subjects that are included in the union list. In which list the subject “Education” is included and why? (3)
Question 29. Evaluate the various impacts of First World War on the economy of Britain. (3)
Or
Do you agree that agriculture in India takes place in the unorganised sector? Give three points. (3)
Section D consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each
Question 30. (A) Analyze the impact of mining activities on the local environment and the health of the
surrounding communities. (5)
OR
(B) “Non-conventional resources are the best option to conserve the natural resources” Substantiate this
statement with Examples.
Question 31. What are better public facilities? Explain any four public facilities. (1+ 4)
Or
Elucidate the significance of secondary sector in Indian economy. (5)
Question 32. (A) Analyse the role of a multiparty system in a democratic country like India. (5)
(OR)
(B) Evaluate the differences between the national and regional parties and assess the requirements for a
regional party to become a national party.
Question 33. Briefly discuss the resources based on ownership. (5)
Or
Write down the features of alluvial soil concerning its formation, area classification, and inclusion of
minerals. (5)
Section E consists of 3 Case-based questions of 4 marks each
Question 34. Read the given source below and answer the following questions: (4)
It is said of “passive resistance” it is the weapon of the weak, but the power which is the subject of this
article can be used only by the strong. This power is not passive resistance; indeed, it calls for intense
activity. The movement in South Africa was not passive but active … ‘Satyagraha is not physical force.
Satyagraha does not inflict pain on the adversary; he does not seek his destruction … In the use of
satyagraha, there is no ill will whatever. ‘Satyagraha is pure soul force. Truth is the very substance of the
soul. That is why this force is called satyagraha. The soul is informed with knowledge. In it burns the flame
of love. … Nonviolence is the supreme dharma …’ It is certain that India cannot rival Britain or Europe in
force of arms. The British worship the war god and they can all of them become, as they are becoming,
bearers of arms. The hundreds of millions in India can never carry arms. They have made the religion of
non-violence their own.
In his famous book Hind Swaraj (1909) Mahatma Gandhi declared that British rule was established in India,
with the cooperation of Indians, and had survived only because of this cooperation. If Indians refused to
cooperate, British rule would collapse within a year.

(a) Why did Gandhiji say that passive resistance is not the weapon of the weak?
(b) “Satyagraha is pure soul-force”. Substantiate this statement in 20 words.
(c) What according to Mahatma Gandhi is the best weapon to use to collapse British rule in India?

Question 35. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.
The distribution pattern of the Railway network in the country has been largely influenced by Physiographic,
economic, and administrative factors. The Northern plains with their vast level land, high population
density, and rich agricultural resources provided the most favorable conditions for their growth. However, a
large number of rivers requiring construction of bridges across their wide beds posed some obstacles, in the
hills’ terrains of the peninsular region, railway tracts arc laid through low hills, gaps or tunnels.
The Himalayan mountainous regions too are unfavourable for the construction of railway lines due to high
relief, sparse population and lack of economic opportunities. Likewise, it was difficult to lay railway lines
on the sandy plain of Western Rajasthan, swamps of Gujarat, forested tracks of Madhya Pradesh,
Chhattisgarh, Odisha, and Jharkhand. The contiguous stretch of Sahyadri could be crossed only through
gaps or passes (Ghats).
In recent times, the development of the Konkan railway along the West coast has facilitated the movement
of passengers and goods in this most important economic region of India. It has also faced several problem
such as sinking of track in some stretches and landslides.
Today, the railways have become more important in our National economy than all other rncans of transport
put together. However, rail transport suffers from certain problems as well. Many passengers travel without
tickets. Thefts and damaging of railway property has not yet stopped completely. People stop the trains, pull
the chain unnecessarily and this causes heavy damage to the railway.

(i) State the factors which influence the railway network in India. (1)
(ii) Constructing the railways in the Peninsular region, Himalayan region, Rajasthan and Gujarat is a
diflicult task. State any two reasons which are responsible behind this. (2)
(iii) Railways are important part of our national economy, but still it is facing several problems. State any
two reasons behind this.
Question 36. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow: (4)
For comparing countries, their income is considered to be one of the most important attributes. Countries
with higher income are more developed than others with less income. This is based on the understanding
that more income means more of all things that human beings need. Whatever people like, and should have,
they will be able to get with greater income. So, greater income itself is considered to be one important goal.
Now, what is the income of a country? Intuitively, the income of the country is the income of all the
residents of the country. This gives us the total income of the country. However, for comparison between
countries, total income is not such a useful measure. Since, countries have different populations, comparing
total income will not tell us what an average person is likely to earn. Are people in one country better off
than others in a different country? Hence, we compare the average income which is the total income of the
country divided by its total population. The average income is also called per capita income. In World
Development Reports, brought out by the World Bank, this criterion is used in classifying countries.
Countries with per capita income of US$ 49,300 per annum and above in 2019, are called high income or
rich countries and those with per capita income of US$ 2500 or less are called low-income countries. The
rich countries, excluding countries of Middle East and certain other small countries are generally called
developed countries.

1. Explain the significance of per capita Income.


2. What are the classifications of countries based on per capita income, and which entity is responsible for
determining these classifications?”

Section F consists of Map based questions of 5 marks each


Question 37.
(a) Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them on the map and
write their correct names on the line drawn near them. (2)
A. Jallianwala Bagh Incident
B. Calling of the Non-Cooperation Movement.
(b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols. (3)
(i) Nanirup Thermal Power Plant
(ii) Gandhinagar Software Technology Park
(iii) Tungabhadra dam
(iv) An International Airport in Delhi NCR

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