भौविकी

Physics
कक्षा/Class: XII
2024-25

विद्यार्थी सहायक सामग्री भाग- 1

Student Support Material Part-1

केन्द्रीय विद्यालय संगठन

Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan
 संदेश

विद्यालयी विक्षा में िैवक्षक उत्कृष्टता प्राप्त करना केन्द्रीय विद्यालय संगठन की सिोच्च िरीयता है।

हमारे विद्यार्थी, विक्षक एिं िैवक्षक नेतृत्व कताा वनरं तर उन्नवत हे तु प्रयासरत रहते हैं । राष्टरीय विक्षा नीवत

2020 के संदर्ा में योग्यता आधाररत अवधगम एिं मूल्ांकन संबन्धित उद्दे श्ों को प्राप्त करना तर्था

सीबीएसई के वदिा वनदे िों का पालन, ितामान में इस प्रयास को और र्ी चुनौतीपूर्ा बनाता है।

केन्द्रीय विद्यालय संगठन के पांचों आं चलिक लशक्षा एवं प्रलशक्षण संस्थान द्वारा संकवलत यह ‘विद्यार्थी

सहायक सामाग्री’ इसी वदिा में एक आिश्क कदम है । यह सहायक सामग्री कक्षा 9 से 12 के

विद्यावर्थायों के वलए सर्ी महत्वपूर्ा विषयों पर तैयार की गयी है । केन्द्रीय विद्यालय संगठन की ‘विद्यार्थी

सहायक सामग्री’ अपनी गुर्ित्ता एिं परीक्षा संबंधी सामाग्री-संकलन की वििेषज्ञता के वलए जानी जाती

है और अन्य विक्षर् संस्र्थान र्ी इसका उपयोग परीक्षा संबंधी पठन सामग्री की तरह करते रहे हैं । िुर्-

आिा एिं विश्वास है वक यह सहायक सामग्री विद्यावर्थायों की सहयोगी बनकर सतत मागादिा न करते हुए

उन्हें सफलता के लक्ष्य तक पहुंचाएगी ।

िुर्ाकांक्षा सवहत ।

लनलि पांडे

आयुक्त, केन्द्रीय लवद्यािय संगठन

 OUR INSPIRATION:
CHIEF MRS. NIDHI PANDEY

PATRON
सत्र / SESSION-
2022-2023

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(MUMBAI REGION)

COORDINATOR MR. AVIJIT PANDA

 हमारे संरक्षक
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समग्र समीक्षक का नाम पद केंद्रीय विद्यालय का नाम

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 अध्ययन सामग्री वनमााता टीम ---मंबई संभाग
TEAM OF PREPARERES – MUMBAI REGION

Unit Name of the Unit Name of the Name of the Teacher

No. Chapter
1 Electrostatics Chapter 1 Mrs S Sugandhi
KV Mankhurd

Chapter -2 Ms Neha Sharma

KV INS Mandovi

2 Current Electricity Mr Mandip

Chapter -3 KV NAD Karanja
3 Magnetic Effects of Current and Mrs Minta Mehra
Magnetism Chapter -4 KV. Lonavala
Chapter -5 Mrs Minu Singh
KV Ganeshkhind
4 Electromagnetic Induction and Mr. Sunil Jadhav
Alternating Currents Chapter -6 K.V Aurangabad
Chapter -7 Mr Sachin Sonawane
KV Army Area, Pune

5 Electromagnetic waves Chapter -8 Mr Santosh Sontakke

KVNo.1 Dehu Road
6 Optics Chapter -9 Mrs Neelam
K.V SC Pune
Chapter -10 Mrs Swati Chhabra
KV, THANE
7 Dual Nature of Radiation Chapter -11 Mr. Ganesh Ahirrao
and Matter KV Panvel
8 Atoms and Nuclei Chapter -12 Mrs Savita Ruhela
KV Panvel
Chapter -13 Mr Rahul Shirbhate
KV.VSN Nagapur
9 Electronic Devices Chapter -14 Mr Sandip Kamat
KV DIAT Pune
 विषय सूची
INDEX

क्र सं पाठ का नाम पृष्ठ सं

S. No. NAME OF CHAPTER PAGE NO.

1. ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS 1-15

2. ELECTRIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE 16-35

3. CURRENT ELECTRICITY 36-68

4. MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM 69-89

5. MAGNETISM AND MATTER 90-107

6. ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION 108-120

7. ALTERNATING CURRENT 121-141

8. ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES 142-152

9. RAY OPTICS AND OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS 153-176

10. WAVE OPTICS 177-191

11. DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER 192-213

12. ATOMS 214-227

13. NUCLEI 228-237

14. SEMICONDUCTOR MATERIAL: ELECTRONIC DEVICES 238-262

15. SAMPLE QUESTION PAPERS 263-284

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 CLASS
CLASS XII XII (2024-25)
(2023-24)
PHYSICS (THEORY)

Time: 3 hrs. Max Marks: 70

No. of Marks
Periods
Unit–I Electrostatics
Chapter–1: Electric Charges and Fields
26
Chapter–2: Electrostatic Potential and 16
Capacitance
Unit-II Current Electricity
18
Chapter–3: Current Electricity
Unit-III Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism
25
Chapter–4: Moving Charges and Magnetism
Chapter–5: Magnetism and Matter 17
Unit-IV Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating
Currents 24
Chapter–6: Electromagnetic Induction
Chapter–7: Alternating Current
Unit–V Electromagnetic Waves
04
Chapter–8: Electromagnetic Waves
Unit–VI Optics 18
Chapter–9: Ray Optics and Optical 30
Instruments
Chapter–10: Wave Optics
Unit–VII Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter
Chapter–11: Dual Nature of Radiation and 8
Matter 12
Unit–VIII Atoms and Nuclei
15
Chapter–12: Atoms
Chapter–13: Nuclei
Unit–IX Electronic Devices
Chapter–14: Semiconductor 10
Electronics: Materials, Devices and 7
Simple Circuits
Total 160 70

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Unit I: Electrostatics 26 Periods

Chapter–1: Electric Charges and Fields

Electric charges, Conservation of charge, Coulomb's law-force between two-

point charges, forces between multiple charges; superposition principle and
continuous charge distribution.

Electric field, electric field due to a point charge, electric field lines, electric
dipole, electric field due to a dipole, torque on a dipole in uniform electric
field.

Electric flux, statement of Gauss's theorem and its applications to find field
due to infinitely long straight wire, uniformly charged infinite plane sheet and
uniformly charged thin spherical shell (field inside and outside).

Chapter–2: Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance

Electric potential, potential difference, electric potential due to a point charge,

a dipole and system of charges; equipotential surfaces, electrical potential
energy of a system of two-point charges and of electric dipole in an
electrostatic field.

Conductors and insulators, free charges and bound charges inside a

conductor. Dielectrics and electric polarization, capacitors and capacitance,
combination of capacitors in series and in parallel, capacitance of a parallel
plate capacitor with and without dielectric medium between the plates,
energy stored in a capacitor (no derivation, formulae only).

Unit II: Current Electricity 18 Periods

Chapter–3: Current Electricity

Electric current, flow of electric charges in a metallic conductor, drift velocity,

mobility and their relation with electric current; Ohm's law, V-I characteristics
(linear and non-linear), electrical energy and power, electrical resistivity and
conductivity, temperature dependence of resistance, Internal resistance of a
cell, potential difference and emf of a cell, combination of cells in series and
in parallel, Kirchhoff's rules, Wheatstone bridge

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Unit III: Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism 25 Periods

Chapter–4: Moving Charges and Magnetism

Concept of magnetic field, Oersted's experiment.

Biot - Savart law and its application to current carrying circular loop.

Ampere's law and its applications to infinitely long straight wire. Straight
solenoid (only qualitative treatment), force on a moving charge in uniform
magnetic and electric fields.

Force on a current-carrying conductor in a uniform magnetic field, force

between two parallel current-carrying conductors-definition of ampere,
torque experienced by a current loop in uniform magnetic field; Current loop
as a magnetic dipole and its magnetic dipole moment, moving coil
galvanometer- its current sensitivity and conversion to ammeter and
voltmeter.

Chapter–5: Magnetism and Matter

Bar magnet, bar magnet as an equivalent solenoid (qualitative treatment

only), magnetic field intensity due to a magnetic dipole (bar magnet) along
its axis and perpendicular to its axis (qualitative treatment only), torque on a
magnetic dipole (bar magnet) in a uniform magnetic field (qualitative
treatment only), magnetic field lines.

Magnetic properties of materials- Para-, dia- and ferro -magnetic substances

with examples, Magnetization of materials, effect of temperature on magnetic
properties.

Unit IV: Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents 24 Periods

Chapter–6: Electromagnetic Induction

Electromagnetic induction; Faraday's laws, induced EMF and current;

Lenz's Law, Self and mutual induction.

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 Chapter–7: Alternating Current

Alternating currents, peak and RMS value of alternating current/voltage;

reactance and impedance; LCR series circuit (phasors only), resonance,
power in AC circuits, power factor, wattless current.
AC generator, Transformer.

Unit V: Electromagnetic waves 04 Periods

Chapter–8: Electromagnetic Waves

Basic idea of displacement current, Electromagnetic waves, their

characteristics, their transverse nature (qualitative idea only).

Electromagnetic spectrum (radio waves, microwaves, infrared, visible,

ultraviolet, X-rays, gamma rays) including elementary facts about their uses.

Unit VI: Optics 30 Periods

Chapter–9: Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

Ray Optics: Reflection of light, spherical mirrors, mirror formula, refraction

of light, total internal reflection and optical fibers, refraction at spherical
surfaces, lenses, thin lens formula, lens maker’s formula, magnification,
power of a lens, combination of thin lenses in contact, refraction of light
through a prism.

Optical instruments: Microscopes and astronomical telescopes (reflecting and

refracting) and their magnifying powers.

Chapter–10: Wave Optics

Wave optics: Wave front and Huygen’s principle, reflection and refraction of
plane wave at a plane surface using wave fronts. Proof of laws of reflection
and refraction using Huygen’s principle. Interference, Young's double slit
experiment and expression for fringe width (No derivation final expression
only), coherent sources and sustained interference of light, diffraction due to
a single slit, width of central maxima (qualitative treatment only).

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Unit VII: Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter 08 Periods

Chapter–11: Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Dual nature of radiation, Photoelectric effect, Hertz and Lenard's

observations; Einstein's photoelectric equation-particle nature of light.

Experimental study of photoelectric effect, Matter waves-wave nature of particles,

de-Broglie relation.
Unit VIII: Atoms and Nuclei 15 Periods

Chapter–12: Atoms

Alpha-particle scattering experiment; Rutherford's model of atom; Bohr model

of hydrogen atom, Expression for radius of nth possible orbit, velocity and
energy of electron in nth orbit, hydrogen line spectra (qualitative treatment
only).

Chapter–13: Nuclei

Composition and size of nucleus, nuclear force

Mass-energy relation, mass defect; binding energy per nucleon and its
variation with mass number; nuclear fission, nuclear fusion.

Unit IX: Electronic Devices 10 Periods

Chapter–14: Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits

Energy bands in conductors, semiconductors and insulators (qualitative
ideas only) Intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductors- p and n type, p-n
junction, Semiconductor diode - I-V characteristics in forward and reverse
bias, application of junction diode -diode as a rectifier

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 CBSE QUESTION PAPER DESIGN-2024-25

(Classes XI-XII)
Particulars Academic Session 2023-24 Academic Session 2024-25
Composition • Competency Focused Questions in the • Competency Focused Questions in the
of question form of MCQs/ Case Based Questions, form of MCQs/ Case Based Questions,
paper for Source-based IntegratedQuestions or Source-based IntegratedQuestions or
year-end
any other type = 40% any other type = 50%
examination/
Board • Select response type questions • Select response type questions
Examination (MCQ) = 20% (MCQ) = 20%
(Theory) • Constructed response questions • Constructed response questions
(Short Answer Questions/Long (Short Answer Questions/Long
Answer type Questions, as per Answer type Questions, as per
existing pattern) = 40% existing pattern) = 30%

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 UNIT-I ELECTROSTATICS
CHAPTER 1 -ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS
Gist:
1 Charge :
Charge is an intrinsic property of elementary particles of matter which gives rise to
electric force between various objects.

2 Two types of charges: Positive and negative.

3 Transference of electrons is the cause of frictional electricity.

4 Basic properties of electric charge :

i) Additivity of charges: Total charge is the algebraic sum of individual charges.

ii) Conservation of charges: The total charge of an isolated system is always
conserved.
iii) Quantization of charges : Charge of an object is always in the form of integral
multiple of electronic charge and never its fraction

5 Coulomb’s Law
It states that the electrostatic force of interaction or repulsion acting between two
stationary point charges is given by

6 Dielectric constant
The ratio of force between two charges in vacuum to the force acting between when
they are shifted in a medium is called relative permittivity or dielectric constant of the
medium. where is also called the relative permittivity and is the permittivity of medium.

7 Electrostatic force due to continuous charge distribution:

1

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 i) linear charge distribution( λ ): = Charge/Length =C/m
ii) Surface charge distribution(σ): σ= Charge/Area = C/m2
iii) Volume charge distribution(ρ) : ρ = Charge/ Volume = C/m3

Electric Field Lines Electric field lines are a way of pictorially mapping the electric
field around a configuration of charge(s). These lines start on positive charge and
end on negative charge. The tangent on these lines at any point gives the direction
of field at that point.

Properties:
1. Field lines from a positive charge to negative charge
2. Direction of filed lines shown by the tangent to the field lines.
3. Electric field lines emerge normal from positive charge and terminate at
negative charge.
4. They never intersect each other.
This can be explained by method of contradiction at two field lines E1 & E2
interest at P as shown in the figure. Then there may be two tangents at E1 and
E2. Which is not possible. Since one and only one tangent can be drawn.
Therefore, our assumption is wrong.
5. Electric field contract in length which shows that opposite charges attract.
6. Electric field lines exert lateral pressure which shows that like charges repel.
N is a point which shows field intensity is zero called neutral point.

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 7. Closer field lines indicate the stronger region and rarer field lines shows
weaker region.
8. Single positive charge radiates field lines radially outward (q > 0).
9. Single negative charge radiates field lines radially inward (q < 0).

8 Electric Field Intensity The electric field intensity at any point due to source
charge is defined as the force experienced per unit positive test charge placed at
that point without disturbing the source charge. It is expressed as

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MIND MAP

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**********

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 MCQ-LEVEL1
1 A force of 4N is acting between two charges in air. If the space between them is
completely filled with glass (relative permittivity = 8), then the new force will be
(a) 2N ( b) 5N (c) 0.5N (d) 0.2N

2 A charge q is placed at the center of the line joining two equal charges Q. The system
of three charges will be in equilibrium if q is equal to
(a) –Q/2 ( b) –Q/4 (c )Q/2 (d) Q/4

3 Two point charges Q and -3Q are placed some distance apart. If the electric field at the
location of Q is E, the field at the location of -3Q is
(a) E (b) -E (c) E/3 (d) -E/3

4 An electric dipole when placed in a uniform electric field will have minimum potential
energy, if the angle between dipole moment and electric field is
(a) Zero (b) π/ 2 (c) π/3 (d) π

5 An electric dipole consists of two opposite charges of magnitude 1µC separated by a

distance of 2cm. The dipole is placed in an electric filed 10-5 V/m. The maximum torque
(a) 10-3 Nm ( b) 2 x10-13 Nm (c) 3 x10-3 N (d) 4x10-3 Nm

ASSERTION AND REASON QUESTIONS

DIRECTION: Read the two statements
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully to mark the correct option out of the options
given below:
(a) Assertion and Reason both are correct statements and Reason is correct
explanation for Assertion.
(b) Assertion and Reason both are correct statements but Reason is not correct
explanation for Assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but Reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but Reason is correct statement

6 Assertion: No two electric lines of force can intersect each other.

Reason: Tangent at any point of electric line of force gives the direction of electric
field
7 Assertion: Coulombs law of force is applicable for point charges at rest.
Reason: Coulombs law is a central force.
8 Assertion: Electric charge is quantized.
Reason: Charging is because of transfer of an integral number of protons or
electrons.
9 Assertion: If there exists coulomb attraction between two bodies, both of them may
not be charged.
Reason: In coulomb attraction two bodies are oppositely charged
10 Assertion: Surface charge density of an irregularly shaped conductor is non uniform
Reason: Surface density defined as charge per unit area

11 An electric dipole having a dipole moment of 4 × 10 -9 C m is placed in a uniform

electric field such that the dipole is in stable equilibrium. If the magnitude of the electric

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 field is 3 × 103 N/C, what is the work done in rotating the dipole to a position of
unstable equilibrium?
(a) zero (b) 1.2 × 10-5 J (c) 2.4 × 10-5 J (d) - 1.2 × 10-5 J

12 An infinite line of charge has a linear charge density of 10 -7 C/m. What will be the
magnitude of the force acting on an alpha particle placed at a distance of 4 cm from the
line of charge?
a) 14.4 × 10-15 N (b) 7.2 × 10-15 N (c) 4.5 × 104 N (d) 9 × 104 N

13 Polar molecules are the molecules :

(a)having a permanent electric dipole moment
(b)having zero dipole moment
(c)acquire a dipole moment only in the presence of electric field due to displacement of
charges
(d)acquire a dipole moment only when magnetic field is absent
Polar molecules have centres of positive and negative charges separated by some
distance, so they have permanent dipole moment. (NEET2021)

14 The angle between the electric lines of force and the equipotential surface is
(a) 0◦ (b) 90◦ (c) 180◦ (d)45◦ (NEET 2022)

15 Metal cube of side 5 cm is charged with 6𝜇C. The surface charge density on the cube
is

(a) 0.125×10−3Cm−2 (b)0.25×10−3Cm−2 (c)4×10−3Cm−2 (d)0.4×1−3 Cm−2

16 According to Gauss law of electrostatics, electric flux through a closed surface

depends on :

(a)the area of the surface

(b)the quantity of charges enclosed by the surface
(c) the shape of the surface
(d)the volume enclosed by the surface

17
σ is the uniform surface charge density of a thin spherical shell of radius R. The electric
field at any point on the surface of the spherical shell is :

(a) 𝜎/𝜖𝑜𝑅 (b) 𝜎/∈𝑜 (c) 𝜎/2𝜖𝑜 (d) 𝜎/4𝜖𝑜

18 The vehicles carrying inflammable fluids usually have metallic chains touching the
ground:

(a) To protect tyres from catching dirt from ground

(b) It is a custom
(c) To alert other vehicles
(d) To conduct excess charge due to air friction to ground and prevent sparking

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 MCQ LEVEL2
1 .The electric flux through the surface

(a) In figure (iv) is the largest

(b) In figure (iii) is the least
(c) In figure (ii) is same as in figure (iii)
but is smaller than in figure (iv)
(d) Is the same for all the figures. (NCERT EXEMPLAR)

2 A spherical conductor of radius 10cm has a charge 3.2 x10 -7C distributed uniformly.
What is the magnitude of electric field at a point 15 cm from the centre of the sphere?
(a)1.28x104N/C (b) 1.28x105N/C (c) 1.28x106N/C (d) 1.28x107N/C

3 A positive charge Q is uniformly distributed along a circular ring

of radius R. A small test charge q is placed at the centre of the
ring in the figure. Then
(a) If q > 0 and is displaced away from the centre in the plane of
the ring, it will be pushed back towards the centre.
(b) If q < 0 and is displaced away from the centre in the plane of
the ring, it will never return to the centre and will continue moving
till it hits the ring.
(c) If q < 0, it will perform SHM for small displacement along the axis.
(d) q at the centre of the ring is in an unstable equilibrium within the plane of the ring
for q > 0.

4 Two-point charges A and B having charges + Q and -Q respectively, are placed at a

distance apart and the force acting between them is F. If 25% charge on A is transferred
to B,then the force between the charges becomes(NEET 2019)
(a)4F/3 (b) F (c ) 9F/16 (d)16F/9

5 A hemisphere is uniformly charged positively. The electric field at a point on a diameter

away from the centre is directed
(a) perpendicular to the diameter
(b) parallel to the diameter
(c) at an angle tilted towards the diameter
(d) at an angle tilted away from the diameter.

6 The Electric field at a point is

(a) always continuous.
(b) continuous if there is no charge at that point.
(c) discontinuous only if there is a negative charge at that point.
(d) discontinuous if there is a charge at that point.

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7 A uniform electric field E= 2X103 N/C is acting along the positive x axis. The flux in
(NC-1m2) of this field through a square of 10cm on a side whose plane is parallel to
the y-z plane is
(a) 20 (b) 30 (c) 10 (d) 40

8 An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30◦ with an electric field of intensity 2x10 5N/C.
It experiences a torque equal to 4Nm.The charge on the diploe length is 2cm is
(a) 8 mC (b) 4 m C (c ) 6 mC (d) 2 mC

9 A metal cube of side 5cm is charged with 6 µC. The surface charge density of the
cube is
(a) 0.125x10-3Cm-2 (b)0.25x10-3Cm-2 (c )4x10-3Cm-2 (d)0.4x10-3Cm-2

10 The electric field due to a short electric dipole at a large distance (r) from center of
dipole on the equatorial plane varies with distance as
(a) r (b) 1/r (c) 1/r3 (d) 1/r2
MCQ LEVEL3
1 A vertical electric field of magnitude 4.9x105N/C just prevents a water droplet of mass
0.1 g from falling .The value of charge on the droplet will be
(a)1.6 x10-9 C (b) 2.0x10-9C (c) 3.2x10-9 C (d) 0.5x 10-9C
(JEE MAIN 2022)

2 For a uniformly charged ring of radius R, the electric field on its axis has the largest
magnitude at a distance h from the centre .Then the value of h is
R/√5 (b) R/√2 (c ) R (d) R√2 (JEE MAIN 2019)

3 According to Gauss law of electrostatics, electric flux through a closed surface depends
on
(a) Area of the surface
(b) The quantity of charges enclosed by the surface
(c) The shape of the surface
(d) The volume enclosed by the surface

4 An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30∘ with an electric field of intensity 2x105
N/C. It experiences a torque equal to 4 N m. Calculate the magnitude of charge on the
dipole, if the dipole length is 2 cm.
(a) 6 mC (b) 4 mC (c) 2 mC (d) 8 Mc

5 Two identical conducting spheres P and S with charge Q on each, repel each other with
a force 16 N. A third identical uncharged conducting sphere R is successively brought
in contact with the two spheres. The new force of repulsion between P and S is
( JEE MAINS 2024)

(a) 1 N (b) 6 N (c) 12 N (d) 4 N

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6 An electron falls from rest through a vertical distance h in a uniform and vertically
upward directed electric field E. The direction of electric field is now reversed, keeping
its magnitude the same. A proton is allowed to fall from rest in it through the same
vertical distance h. The time of fall of the electron, in comparison to the time of fall of
the proton is
(a) Smaller (b) 5 times greater (c) 10 times greater (d)equal

7 A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has a charge of 3.2 × 10-7 C distributed uniformly.

That is the magnetude of electric field at a point 15 cm from the centre of the sphere?
(a) 1.28x105 N/C (b) 1.28x107 N/C (c) 1.28x10-9 N/C (d)1.28x1011 N/C

8 Two uniformly charged spherical conductors A and B of radii 5 mm and 10 mm are

separated by a distance of 2 cm. If the spheres are connected by a conducting wire,
then in equilibrium condition, the ratio of the magnitudes of the electric fields at the
surface of the sphere A and B will be :
(A) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 4(JEE MAINS 2022)

9 Sixty four conducting drops each of radius 0.02 m and each carrying a charge of 5 µC
are combined to form a bigger drop. The ratio of surface density of bigger drop to the
smaller drop will be :
(A) 1 : 4 (b) 4 : 1 (c) 1 : 8 (d) 8 : 1 (JEE MAINS 2022)

**************
CASE STUDY QUESTIONS

Photocopiers work on the principle that ‘opposites attract’. Toner is a powder that
is used to create the printed text and images on paper. The powder is negatively
charged, and so it is attracted to something positive – the paper. The drum, which
is located in the heart of a photocopier, is positively charged using static electricity.
An image of the master copy is transferred onto the drum using a laser. The light
parts of the image (the white areas on a piece of paper) lose their charge so
become more negative, and the black areas of the image (where the text is) remain
positively charged.

• Which of the following figures represent the electric field lines due to a single
negative charge?

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 I. If a body is negatively charged, then it has
a. excess of electrons
b. excess of protons
c. deficiency of electron
d. deficiency of neutrons

II. A charged particle is free to move in an electric field. It will travel

a. always along a line of force
b. along a line of force, if its initial velocity is zero
c. along a line of force, if it has some initial velocity in the direction of an
acute angle with the line of force
d. none of the above

III. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(I)The charge q on a body is always given by q = ne, where n is any integer, positive or
negative.
(II)By convention, the charge on an electron is taken to be negative.
(III)The fact that electric charge is always an integral multiple of e is termed as
quantisation of charge.
(IV)The quantisation of charge was experimentally demonstrated by Newton in 1912.
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Only IV (d) Only III

2MARKS-LEVEL1
1. Why do the electric field lines never cross each other?
2. Define electric flux. Write its S.I. unit. A charge q is enclosed by a spherical surface
of radius R. If the radius is reduced to half, how would the electric flux through the
surface change?
3 MARKS LEVEL 1

1. State Gauss’ law in electrostatics. Using this law derive an expression for the
electric field due to a uniformly changed infinite plane sheet.
2. An electric dipole of dipole moment p is placed in a uniform electric field E?.
Obtain the expression for the torque τ experienced by the dipole. Identify two pairs
of perpendicular vectors in the expression.
5MARKS LEVEL1
1. An electric dipole of dipole moment p consists of point charges + q and – q
separated by a distance 2a apart. Deduce the expression for the electric field E due
to the dipole at a distance x from the centre of the dipole on its axial line in terms
of the dipole moment p?.
2. (i) Derive the expression for electric field at a point on the equatorial line of an
electric dipole.
Depict the orientation of the dipole in
(a) stable (b) unstable equilibrium in a uniform electric field.

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 NUMERICALS LEVEL1
1. Given a uniform electric field E→=4×103i^ N/C. Find the flux of this field through a
square of 5 cm on a side whose plane is parallel to the Y-Z plane. What would be
the flux through the same square if the plane makes a 30° angle with the x-axis?
(Delhi 2014)
2. A sphere S1 of radius r1 encloses a net charge Q. If there
is another concentric sphere S2 of radius r2 (r2 > r,)
enclosing charge 2Q, find the ratio of the electric flux
through S1 and S2. How will the electric flux through
sphere S1 change if a medium of dielectric constant K is
introduced in the space inside S2 in place of air?

NUMERICALS -LEVEL2
1. (a)Define electric flux. Write its SI
units.
(b) The electric field components due
to a charge inside the cube of side
0.1 m are as shown : Ex = ax, where
α = 500 N/C-m

Calculate
(i) the flux through the cube, and
(ii) the charge inside the cube.

NUMERICALS -LEVEL3
1. A hollow cylindrical box of length 1m and area of
cross-section 25 cm2 is placed in a three
dimensional coordinate system as shown in the
figure. The electric field in the region is given
by E→=50xi^ where E is in NC-1 and x is in metres.
Find

• Net flux through the cylinder.

• Charge enclosed by the cylinder. (Delhi 2013

. 2. Two point charges + 3q and – 4q are placed at the

vertices ‘B’ and ‘C’ of an equilateral triangle ABC of side
‘a’ as given in the figure. Obtain the expression for

(i) the magnitude and

(ii) the direction of the resultant electric field at the vertex
A due to these two charges.

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 COMPETENCY BASED QUESTION

1.Electric field lines are pictorial

representations of electric fields due to static
charges on the plane of a paper

Study the given electric field representation

and identify one INCORRECT qualitative
impression given by this representation.
A The electric field at point A is stronger than
at point B.
B. The electric field distribution is two-dimensional.
C. The electric field at point C is zero.
D. The electric field always points away from a positive charge.
2 For a Gaussian surface through which the net flux is zero, the following statements
COULD be true.
P) No charges are inside the Gaussian surface.
Q) The net charge inside the surface is zero.
R) The electric field is zero everywhere on the surface.
S) The number of field lines entering is equal to the number of lines exiting the surface.
Which of the statements is/are DEFINITELY true?
A. Only statement
B. Q B. Both statements P and S
C. Both statements Q and R
D. D. Both statements Q and S
CCT
Two positive charges q1 and q2 lie along a straight line separated by a distance of 2 m
as shown.
(a) Find a location along the straight line joining the two charges, where if a positive
charge q3 is placed, it experiences a zero-resultant force.
(b) Will the resultant force on q3 placed at the location of part (a) still be zero, if it is
negatively charged? Explain.

************

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 SELF ASSESSSMENT TEST
M.M 40

ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS

1. What is the work done in moving a test charge q through a distance of 1 cm along the
equatorial axis of an electric dipole? (1)

2. S1and S2are two parallel concentric spheres enclosing charges

Q and 2 Q respectively as shown in Fig.The ratio of the electric flux
through S1and S 2 (1)

3. What is the dimensional formula for 0 ? (1)

4. Define electric flux(1)

5. Name the physical quantity whose S.I unit is J/C.Is it a scalar or a vector quantity?(1)

6. An oil drop of 12 excess electrons is held stationary under a constant electric field of
2.55 ‫ױ‬04 V m –1in Millikan's oil drop experiment. The density of the oil is 1.26 g cm –3.
Estimate the radius of the drop. Given that g = 9.81 m s–2and e = 1. 6 x10–19 C. (2)

7. What is the force between two small charged spheres having charges of 2x10 -7c and
3x10-7c placed 30 cm apart in air ? (2)

8. The sum of two point charges is 9 µc .They repel each other is force of 2 N. When
kept 30 cm apart in free space. Calculate the value of each charge. (2)

9.An electric dipole with dipole moment 4x10-9Cm is aligned at 30оwith the direction of
a uniform electric field of magnitude 5x104N/C. Calculate the magnitude of the torque
acting on the dipole (2)

10.Two charges 5x10-8c and -3x10-8C are located 16cm apart. At what points on the
line joining the two charges is the electric potential zero? (2)

11.Derive the formula for electric field of an electric dipole for the following two cases(a)
axial line (b) equatorial line. (5)

CASE STUDY -5marks

1. Lightning is an electric current. Within a thundercloud way up in the sky, many small
bits of ice (frozen raindrops) bump into each other as they move around in the air. All of
those collisions create an electric charge. After a while, the whole cloud fills up with
electrical charges. The positive charges or protons form at the top of the cloud and the
negative charges or electrons form at the bottom of the cloud. Since opposites attract,
that causes a positive charge to build up on the ground beneath the cloud. The grounds
electrical charge concentrates around anything that sticks up, such as mountains, people,
or single trees. The charge coming up from these points eventually connects with a
charge reaching down from the clouds and lightning strikes.

(i) Charge is the property associated with matter due to which it produces and
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 experiences
(a) electric effects only
(b) magnetic effects only
(c) both electric and magnetic effects
(d) None of these

(ii) When some charge is transferred to ...A... it readily gets distributed over the
entire surface of ... A... If some charge is put on ... B..., it stays at the same place.
Here, A and B refer to
(a) insulator, conductor (b) conductor, insulator
(c)insulator, insulator (d)conductor, conductor

(iii) On charging by conduction, mass of a body may

(a) Increase (b) decreases
© increase or decrease (d) None of these

(b) If one penetrates a uniformly charged spherical cloud, electric field strength
a. decreases directly as the distance from the centre
b. increases directly as the distance from the centre
c. remains constant
d. None of these

(c) The law, governing the force between electric charges in the cloud is known as
a. Ampere's law b. Ohm's law c.Faraday's law d.Coulomb's law

************

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 UNIT-I ELECTROSTATICS
CH:2 ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE
GIST

Electric potential, Potential difference, electric potential due to a point charge, a dipole
and system of charges, equipotential surfaces, electric potential energy of a system
of two point in charges and of electric dipole in an electrostatic field.
Conductors and insulators, free charges and bound charges inside a conductor.
Dielectrics and electric polarization, capacitors and capacitance, combination of
capacitors in series and in parallel, capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with and
without dielectric medium between the plates; energy stored in a capacitor (no
derivation formulae only.

MIND MAPS

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IMPORTANT POINTS
➢ Work done by an electrostatic force in moving a charge from one point to another
depends only on the initial & final position and not on the path followed by the charged
particle.

➢ Work done by the electrostatic force in moving a charge in closed path is zero

➢ The potential due to a dipole depends not just on r but also in the angle between
the position vector (𝑟 ) and dipole moment vector (𝑃⃗ ).

➢ The electric dipole potential falls off as 1/ 𝑟2 not as 1/𝑟 characteristic of the
potential due to a single charge .

➢ No work is done in moving a test charge over an equipotential surface.

➢ electric field is always normal to the equipotential surface at every point .

➢ No two equipotential surface can intersect each other.

➢ Electric field is in the direction in which the potential decreases steepest.

Its magnitude is given by the change in the magnitude of potential per unit
displacement normal to the equipotential surfaces at the point.

➢ On equatorial points of dipole , V=0 but E ≠ 0

➢ Inside a charged spherical shell , E=0 but V ≠ 0

. ➢ Net electric charge in the interior of a conductor is zero.

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➢ Insertion of a dielectric reduces the electric field between the plates of a capacitor

➢ In a series combination of capacitor, the charges on each capacitor are same but
the potential difference across any capacitor is inversely proportional to its
capacitance.
➢ In a parallel combination of capacitors, the potential difference across each
capacitor is same but the charged stored in any capacitor is proportional to its
capacitance.

➢ When charges are shared between any two bodies, their potential become equal.
The charges acquired are in the ratio of their capacities. No charges is lost, but
some loss of energy does occur.

➢ The capacitance of a capacitor depends neither on Q nor on V. It depends upon

the shape and size of the conductor.

➢ The maximum electric field that a dielectric medium can withstand without break-
down (of its insulating property) is called its dielectric strength; for air it is about
3 × 106 Vm–1 . For a separation between conductors of the order of 1 cm or so, this
field corresponds to a potential difference of 3 × 10 4 V between the conductors.
Thus, for a capacitor to store a large amount of charge without leaking, its
capacitance should be high enough so that the potential difference and hence the
electric field do not exceed the break-down limits. Put differently, there is a limit to
the amount of charge that can be stored on a given capacitor without significant
leaking. In practice, a farad is a very big unit.

GRAPHS

3.Graph between E & C 4.Graph of E & V verses distance r

for a point charge

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 FORMULAE WITH NOTATIONS AND SYMBOLS
*Potential difference : work done / charge =W/q
*Electric potential due to point charge q at a distance r from it :
V =Kq /r(1 /4π∈0 = K )
* Electric potential at a point due to N point charges:
1 𝑞1 𝑞2 𝑞3 𝑞𝑛
𝑉= ( + + +−−−−−−+ )
4𝜋𝜀0 𝑟1 𝑟2 𝑟3 𝑟𝑛

*Electric potential at a point due to a dipole:

1 𝑝 cos 𝜃
𝑉=
4𝜋𝜀0 𝑟2
1 2 q 𝑞
*Potential Energy of a system of two-point charges: U = 4πє 𝑟 0

1 q 𝑞2 q1 𝑞3 q2 𝑞3
*Potential Energy of a system of three-point charges:U = 4πє [ 𝑟1 + + ]
0 12 𝑟13 𝑟23

*Potential energy of a single charge in an external Field: U (r) = q V (r)

* Potential energy of two charges in an external Field
1 q1 𝑞2
U (r) = q1V (r1) +q1V (r1) + 4πє
0 𝑟12

*Electric Potential Energy of an electric dipole

U= pE(cos 𝜃1 - cos 𝜃2)

⃗⃗⃗ 𝐸⃗
If 𝜃1= 90o and 𝜃2= 𝜃 then U= -pEcos 𝜃= -𝑝.
Units: Charge- coulomb, Electric dipole moment- coulomb metre (Cm)
Distance- metre ,
Energy- joule or electron volt (eV) (1eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J)
𝑄
Capacitance: Ratio of charge & potential difference. (It is Scalar) 𝐶 = 𝑉 .
SI.unit :farad (F)
𝜖 𝐴
Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with no medium between plates :C 0= C = 0𝑑

Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with a dielectric medium of dielectric

constant K thickness t in between :
𝜖0 𝐴
Cm= 𝑡
(𝑑−𝑡+ )
𝐾
𝜀0 𝐴 𝜖0 𝐴
If t = 0 then C0= If t = d then Cm= K Cm = KC0
𝑑 𝑑
𝟏 𝟏 𝟏 𝟏
*Combination of capacitors: (i) Capacitors in series: 𝑪 = 𝑪 + 𝑪 + 𝑪
𝟏 𝟐 𝟑

(ii) Capacitors in parallel :C =∑𝒏𝒊=𝟏 𝑪𝒊

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 𝟏 𝟏 𝑸𝟐
*Energy stored in capacitors: U= 𝟐 𝑪𝑽𝟐 =𝟐 𝑸𝑽 = 𝟐𝑪

𝟏 𝝈𝟐
*Energy density :Ud = 𝟐ϵ0 E2 = 𝟐𝝐
𝟎

Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with a dielectric medium of dielectric

constant K thickness t in between :
𝜖0 𝐴
Cm= 𝑡
(𝑑−𝑡+ )
𝐾
𝜀0 𝐴 𝜖0 𝐴
If t = 0 then C0= If t = d then Cm= K
𝑑 𝑑
⇒ Cm = KC0
𝟏 𝟏 𝟏 𝟏
*Combination of capacitors: (i) Capacitors in series: 𝑪 = 𝑪 + 𝑪 + 𝑪
𝟏 𝟐 𝟑

(ii) Capacitors in parallel :C =∑𝒏𝒊=𝟏 𝑪𝒊

𝟏 𝟏 𝑸𝟐
*Energy stored in capacitors: U= 𝟐 𝑪𝑽𝟐 =𝟐 𝑸𝑽 = 𝟐𝑪

𝟏 𝝈𝟐
*Energy density :Ud = 𝟐ϵ0 E2 = 𝟐𝝐
𝟎

*Introducing dielectric slab between the plates of the charged conductor with:
PROPERTY BATTERY CONNECTED BATTERY DISCONNECTED
Charge KQ0 Q0
Potential difference V0 V0/K
Electric Field E0 E0/K
Capacitance KC0 KC0
Energy 𝟏 11
K 𝟐ϵ0E2(Energy is supplied ϵ0E2 (Energy used for
𝐾2
by battery) polarization)
*On connecting two charged capacitors:
𝐶1 𝑉1 +𝐶2 𝑉2
(a) Common Potential : V= 𝑉1 +𝑉2

1 𝐶 ×𝐶
(b)Loss of energy : ΔU = 2 (𝐶 1+𝐶 ) (V1 – V2)2
1 2

********

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 QUESTION BANK
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (LEVEL 1)
Q1. If voltage applied on a capacitor is increased from V to 2V, choose the correct
conclusion.
(a) Q remains the same, C is doubled
(b) Q is doubled, C doubled
(c) C remains same, Q doubled
(d) Both Q and C remain same
Q2. A parallel plate capacitor is charged. If the plates are pulled apart
(a) The capacitance increases
(b) The potential differences increase
(c) The total charge increases
(d) The charge & potential difference remain the same
Q3. Which of the following is an example of a molecule whose centre of mass of
positive and negative charges coincide each other?
(a)CO2 (b) CO (c) CH3OH (d) NH3
Q4.What is the angle between electric field and equipotential surface?
(a) 90o always (b)0o always (c)0o to 90 (d)0o to 180o
Q5.If we carry a charge once around an equipotential path, then work done by the
charge is:
(a) Infinity (b) Positive (c) Negative (d) Zero
Q6. Capacitor of a spherical capacitor may depend upon
(a) radius of capacitor (b)dielectric medium (c)applied potential difference (d)both
(a) and (b)
Q7. The decreasing order of the electrostatic potential energies for the given system
of charges will be-

(a) c > b > a > d (b) d > a > c = b (c) a > c > d = b (d) c > b > a = d

Q8. An electron is accelerated from rest through a potential difference V. Its final speed
is proportional to:
a) V b) V/2 c) √V d) 1/V

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Q9.Capacitors A and B are identical. Capacitor A is charged so it stores 4 J of energy
and capacitor B is uncharged. The capacitors are then connected in parallel. The total
stored energy in the capacitors is now:
a) 16 J b) 8 J c) 4 J d) 2 J
Q10.If both the plate area and the plate separation of a parallel-plate capacitor are
doubled, the capacitance is:
a) doubled b) halved c) unchanged d) tripled
Q11.An electric dipole of dipole moment p is placed in a uniform electric field of
strength E in a direction perpendicular to the field. The work done in rotating the dipole
by an angle 900 without acceleration in a plane perpendicular to the field is:
a) pE b) –pE c). Zero d). -2pE
Q12.A small metallic ball having charge q is placed inside an insulated box. The
insulated box is then placed inside a metallic box. The net charge enclosed inside the
metallic box is:
a)Zero b) q c)–q d) 2q
Q13.In a parallel plate capacitor, the capacity increases if
(a) area of the plate is decreased.
(b) distance between the plates increases.
(c) area of the plate is increased.
(d) dielectric constantly decreases.
Q14 An electron moves from point i to point f, in the direction of a uniform electric field.
During this displacement:

a) The work done by the field is positive and the potential energy of the electron-field
system increases.
b) The work done by the field is negative and the potential energy of the electron-field
system increases.
c) The work done by the field is positive and the potential energy of the electron-field
system decreases.
d) The work done by the field is negative and the potential energy of the electron-field
system decreases.
ASSERTION – REASON QUESTIONS
Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and
Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the
following four responses.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of
the Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of
the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct, Reason is incorrect
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(d) Both Assertion and Reason are correct.

Q15. Assertion : If the distance between parallel plates of a capacitor is halved and
dielectric constant is three times, then the capacitance becomes 6 times.
Reason : Capacity of the capacitor does not depend upon the nature of the material.
Q16. Assertion : A parallel plate capacitor is connected across battery through a key.
A dielectric slab of dielectric constant K is introduced between the plates. The energy
which is stored becomes K times.
Reason : The surface density of charge on the plate remains constant or unchanged.
Q17.Assertion: A spherical equipotential surface is not possible for a point charge.
Reason: A spherical equipotential surface is not possible inside a spherical capacitor.
Q18.Assertion: The equatorial plane of a dipole is an equipotential surface.
Reason: The electric potential at any point on equatorial plane is zero.
Q19.Assertion: Electric potential and electric potential energy are different quantities.
Reason: For a system of positive test charge and point charge electric potential
energy = electric potential.
Q20.Assertion: Two equipotential surfaces cannot intersect each other.
Reason: Two equipotential surfaces are parallel to each other.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (LEVEL 2)
Q1. A point P lies at a distance x from the mid point of an electric dipole on its axis.
The electric potential at point P is proportional to

(a)1/x2 (b)1/x3 (c)1/x (d) 1/x1/2

Q2.If the electric potential on the axis of an electric dipole at a distance r from its centre
is V, then its potential at a point at the same distance on its equatorial linewill be
(a)2V (b) -V (c)V/2 (d) Zero

Q3.A +3.0 nC charge Q is initially at a distance of r1 = 10 cm from a + 5.0 nC charge q

fixed at the origin. The charge Q is moved away from q to a new position at r2 = 15 cm.
in this process work done by the field is
(a) 1.29 x 10-5 J (b) 3.6 x 105 J (c) -4.5 x 10-7 J (d) 4.5 x 10-7 J

Q4.A variable capacitor is connected to a 200 V battery. If its capacitance is changed

from 2 µF to X µF, then the decrease in energy of the capacitor is 0.02 J. the value of
X is
(a) 1µF (b) 2 µF (c) 3 µF (d)4 µF

Q5.The capacitors each of 4µF are to be connected in such a way that the effective
capacitance of the combination is 6 µF. this can be achieved by connecting
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(a)All three in parallel
(b)All three in series
(c)Two of them connected in series and the combination in parallel to the third
(d)Two of them connected in parallel and the combination in series to the third

Q6. Three capacitors 2 µF, 3 µF and 6 µF are joined in series with each other. The
equivalent capacitance is
(a) ½ µF (b)1 µF (c)2 µF (d)11 µF
Q7. The work done in moving a unit positive test charge over a closed path in an
electric field is _____________.

(a) Always 1 (b)Infinite (c) Zero (d) Negative

Q8. Consider a uniform electric field in the z-direction. The potential is a constant
(a) for any x for a given z
(b) for any y for a given z
(c) on the x-y plane for a given z
(d) all of these

Q9. An electric dipole of moment p is placed in a uniform electric field E . Then

(i) the torque on the dipole is p ×E→
(ii) the potential energy of the system is p .E→
(iii) the resultant force on the dipole is zero.
Choose the correct option.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct and (ii) is wrong
(c) only (i) is correct
(d) (i) and (ii) are correct and (iii) is wrong
Q10. The figure shows some concentric equipotential surfaces. The
correct choice related to the electric field and its direction is-
(a) E ∝ 1/ r and radially inward (b) E ∝ 1/ r2 and radially outward
(c) E ∝ 1/ r and radially outward (d) E ∝ 1/ r2 and radially inward
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (LEVEL 3)
Q1.Two charges 14 µC and -4 µC are placed at (-12 cm, 0,0) and (12 cm, 0,0) in an
external electric field E = (B/r2 ), where B = 1.2 x 106 N/cm2 and r is in metres.
The electrostatic potential energy of the configuration is
(a) 97.9 J (b) 102.1 J (c) 2.1 J (d) -97.9 J

Q2.The equivalent capacitance of the combination between A and B in the given figure
is 4uf.Calculate capacitance of the capacitor C and charge on each capacitor if a 12V
battery is connected across terminals A and B.

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 (a) 10uf and 48uC (b) 05uf and 48uC (c) 10uf and 24uC (d) 2.5uf and 48uC

Q3.Find the total energy stored in the capacitors

in the given network.

(a) 3.6 × 10 -5 J (b) 3.6 ×10 -6 J

(c) 7.2 ×10 -6 J (d) 7.2 ×10 -5J

Q4.Two point charges 10 ˟10−8 µC and -2 ˟10−8

µC are separated by distance of 60 cm in air. Find at what distance from the 1st
charge, would the electric potential will be zero.
(a) 5m (b) 5cm (c) 50cm (d) 1m

Q5.Two charges of same nature and magnitude +q are kept fixed at points X inside a
uniform electric field. Now to shift the charges, Rahul used a path X → Y → Z (shown
as ‘R’ in the diagram) and Amol used a different path of direct X → Z (shown as ‘A’ in
the diagram). Find the ratio of their work done to move the charge from X to Y.

(a) 2:1 (b) 1:2 (c) 1:3 (d) 1:1

Q6.An uniform electric field exists in the negative-Y direction. Which of the following
statement(s) is/are correct:
i. The potential decreases as one moves along positive Y axis
ii. The potential remains constant as one moves along negative Y axis
iii. The potential remains constant as one moves along negative Z axis
iv. The potential remains constant as one moves along positive X axis
a. i, ii, iii and iv b. i and ii c. iii and iv d. i, iii and iv

Q7.Samir founds that a conductor has a potential V ≠ 0 and there are no charges
anywhere else outside. Then he concludes-
(1) There must be charges on the surface or inside itself.
(2) There can’t be any charge in the body of the conductor.
(3) There must be charges only on the surface.
(4) There must be charges inside the surface. The correct conclusions are-
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 (d) all

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Q8.In a certain region of 0.1 cubic metre of space ,electric potential is found to be 5V
throughout .What is the electric field in this region ?
(a)0.5 v/m (b)2 V/m (c)0v/m (d)0.02 V/m

Q9.A thin metal sheet is placed in the middle of a parallel plate capacitor. What will be
the effect on its capacitance ?
(gets doubled (b)no effect (c)halved (d)becomes three times

Q10.Three capacitors of 3 ,3 and 6 micro farad are connected in series to a 10V

source. The charge on the 3icro farad capacitor is
(a)5 µC (b)12 µC (c)15µC (d)10 µC

***********

2 MARKS QUESTIONS (Level 1)

Q1.Sketch equi potential surfaces for
(a) A negative point charge (CBSE 2001)
(b) Two equal and positive charges separated by a small distance. (CBSE
2015)
Q2.Deduce the expression for the potential energy of an electric dipole placed with its
axis at an angle θ to the external field 𝐸⃗ .Hence discuss the conditions of its stable and
unstable equilibrium. (CBSE 2008,2019,2021 Compt.)
Q3.A metal plate is introduced between the plates of a charged parallel plate capacitor.
What is its effect on the capacitance of the capacitor.
Q4.Two capacitors have a capacitance of 5µF when connected in parallel and 1.2µF
when connected in series. Calculate their capacitances.
Q5.An isolated capacitor of unknown capacitance C is charged to a potential
difference V. It is then connected in parallel to an uncharged capacitor of cap
acitance Co such that the potential difference across the combination become
s V/3. Determine the unknown capacitance C.
Q6.A parallel plate capacitor C with a dielectric in between the plates is charged to a
potential V by connecting it to a battery. The capacitor is then isolated. If the dielectri
c is withdrawn from the capacitor,
(a) Will the energy stored in the capacitor increase or decrease?
(b)Will the potential difference across the capacitor plates increase or decrease
? Give an explanation.
Q7.A capacitor is connected across a battery .(i)Why does each plate receive a charge
of exactly the same magnitude ?(ii)Is this true even if the plates are of different sizes?
Q8. Establish the equation for electric potential at any point in the electric field due
to a point change by using fundamental relation.

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 2 MARKS QUESTIONS(LEVEL 2)
Q1.If two charged conductors are touched mutually and
then separated, prove that the charges on them will be
divided in the ratio of their capacitances.
Q2. Figure shows two identical capacitors C1 and C2,
each of 2 µF capacitance, connected to a battery of 5 V.
Initially switch ‘S’ is left open and dielectric slabs of dielectric constant K = 5 are
inserted to fill completely the space between the plates of the two capacitors.
(i) How will the charge and
(ii) potential difference between the plates of the capacitors be affected after the slabs
are inserted?
Q3. The given graph shows variation of charge ‘q’ versus
potential difference ‘V’ for two capacitors C1 and C2. Both the
capacitors have same plate separation but plate area of C 2 is
greater than that of C1. Which line (A or B) corresponds to C1 and
why?
Q4. Why does current in a steady state not flow in a capacitor
connected across a battery? However momentary current does flow during charging
or discharging of the capacitor. Explain.
Q5. Three capacitors of equal capacitance, when connected in series, have a net
capacitance of Cs and when connected in parallel, have a capacitance of Cp.
Calculate the value of Cs / Cp.

2 MARKS QUESTIONS (LEVEL 3)

Q1. A capacitor has some dielectric between its plates and the capacitor is connected
to a DC source. The battery is now disconnected and then the dielectric is removed.
State whether the capacitance, electric field, charge stored and the voltage will
increase, decrease or remain constant.
Q2.What is the capacitance of arrangement of 4 plates of
area A at distance d in air in fig.
Q3.A parallel plate capacitor has square plates of side 5
cm and separated by a distance of 1 mm. (a) Calculate the capacitance of this
capacitor. (b) If a 10 V battery is connected to the capacitor, what is the charge stored
in any one of the plates? (The value of εo = 8.85 x 10-12 Nm2 C-2)
3MARKS QUESTIONS (LEVEL 1)
Q1. Obtain the expression for the resultant capacitance when three capacitors C 1 , C2
and C3 are connected (i) in series (ii) in parallel.
Q2. Define the capacitance of a capacitor. Obtain the expression for the capacitance
of a parallel plate capacitor in vacuum in terms of plate area A and separation d
between the plates.

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Q3. Find the expression for the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor of area A and
plate separation d if a dielectric slab of thickness t (t<d) is introduced between the
plates of capacitor.
Q4. (a) Define the SI unit of capacitance.
(b) Obtain the expression for the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor.
Q5. A slab of material of dielectric constant K has the same area as that of the plates
of a parallel plate capacitor but has the thickness d/2, where d is the separation
between the plates. Find out the expression for its capacitance when the slab is
inserted between the plates of the capacitor.
3 MARKS QUESTIONS (LEVEL 2)
Q1. Calculate the potential difference and the energy
stored in the capacitor C2 in the circuit shown i the figure.
Given potential at A is 90 V, C1 = 20 µF, C2 = 30 µF and C3
= 15 µF.
Q2. A capacitor of unknown capacitance is connected across a battery of V volts. The
charge stored in it is 300 µC. When potential across the capacitor is reduced by 100
V, the charge stored in it becomes 100 V. Calculate the potential V and the unknown
capacitance. What will be the charge stored in the capacitor if the voltage applied had
increased by 100 V?
Q3. A parallel plate capacitor is charged by a battery to a potential difference V. It is
disconnected from battery and then connected to another uncharged capacitor of the
same capacitance. Calculate the ratio of the energy stored in the combination to the
initial energy on the single capacitor.
3 MARKS QUESTIONS (LEVEL 3)
Q1. A 200 F parallel plate capacitor having plate separation of 5 mm is charged by a
100 V dc source. It remains connected to the source. Using an insulated handle, the
distance between the plates is doubled and a dielectric slab of thickness 5 mm and
dielectric constant 10 is introduced between the plates. Explain with reason, how the
(i) capacitance, (ii) electric field between the plates, (iii) energy density of the capacitor
will change ?
Q2.Two identical parallel plate capacitors A and B are
connected to a battery of V volts with the switch S closed.
The switch is now opened and the free space between the
plates of the capacitors is filled with a dielectric of
dielectric constant K. Find the ratio of the total
electrostatic energy stored in both capacitors before and
after the introduction of the dielectric.
Q3.The area of each of the plates of a parallel plate air capacitor is 7 cm2 .
(a) Determine the maximum charge this capacitor can store without breakdown.
(b)A material of dielectric constant 2 and dielectric strength 15 x 106 V/m is inserted
into the capacitor. Find the percentage change in the maximum chargethat can be stored in
the capacitor with the dielectric material. (Take Dielectric strength of air = 3 x 106 V/m, ∈o
= 8.8 x10‐12 C2/Nm2 )

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 5 MARKS QUESTIONS (LEVEL 1)
Q1.A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C is charged to a potential V by a
battery. Q is the charge stored on the capacitor. Without disconnecting the battery,
the plates of the capacitor are pulled apart to a larger distance of separation.
What changes will occur in each of the following quantities? Will they increase, decreas
or remain the same? Give an explanation in each case.
(a) Capacitance (b) Charge (c) Potential difference (d) Electric field (e)
Energy stored in the capacitor

5 MARKS QUESTIONS (LEVEL 2)

Q1. a) Explain, using suitable diagrams, the difference in the behaivour of a
(i) conductor and
(ii) dielectric in the presence of external electric field. Define the terms polarization of
a dielectric and write its relation with susceptibility.
5 MARKS QUESTIONS (LEVEL 3)
Q1..(a) Define potential energy of a system of two charges.
(b)Two-point charges q1 and q2, separated by a distance r12 are kept in an external
electric field. Derive an expression for the potential energy of the system of two
charges in the field.
NUMERICALS (LEVEL 1)

Q1.Two +ve charges of 0.2 μC and 0.01 μC are placed 10 cm apart. Calculate the
work done in reducing the distance to 5 cm.
Q2. A parallel plate capacitor has its plate of area 6.6 cm 2 separated by 0.7mm thick
mica slab. Calculate the capacitance of the capacitor if dielectric constant of mica is
6.
Q3. A capacitor of unknown capacitance is connected across a battery of V volt. A
charge of 120 μC is stored in it. When the potential across the capacitor is reduced by
40 V, the charge stored in the capacitor becomes 40 μC. Calculate V and the unknown
capacitance. What would have been the charge in the capacitor if the voltage were
increased by 40 V?
Q4. Two metal spheres, one of radius R and the other of radius 2R, both have same
surface charge density σ. They are brought in contact and separated. What will be the
new surface charge densities on them?
NUMERICALS (LEVEL 2)
Q1. A parallel plate capacitor, of capacitance 20pF, is conneted to a 100 V supply.
After sometime the battery is disconnected, and the space, between the plates of the
capacitor is filled with a dielectric, of dielectric constant 5. Calculate the energy stored
in the capacitor
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(i) before
(ii) after the dielectric has been put in between its plates.
Q2. Two identical capacitors of plate dimensions l × b and plate separation d have di-
electric slabs filled in between the space of the plates as shown in the figure.

Obtain the relation between the dielectric constants K, K1 and K2.

Q3. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C is charged to a potential V by a battery.
Without disconnecting the battery, the distance between the plates is tripled and a
dielectric medium of k = 10 is introduced between the plates is tripled and a dielectric
medium of k = 10 is introduced between the plates of the capacitor. Explain giving
reasons, how will the following be affected:
(i) capacitance of the capacitor
(ii) charge on the capacitor
NUMERICALS (LEVEL 3)
Q1. A network of four capacitors each of 12μF capacitance is connected to a 500 V
supply as shown in the figure.
Determine
(a) equivalent capacitance of the network and
(b) charge on each capacitor.

Q2. A capacitor of unknown capacitance is connected across a battery of V volt. A

charge of 240 pC is stored in it. When the potential across the capacitor is reduced by
80 V, the charge stored in the capacitor becomes 80 pC. Calculate V and the unknown
capacitance. What would have been the charge in the capacitor if the voltage were
increased by 80 V?
Q3. Find equivalent capacitance between A
and B in the combination given below. Each
capacitor is of 2 µF capacitance.

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 COMPETENCY BASED QUESTION
Q1.The capacitance of an infinite parallel capacitor without any dielectric betweenthe
plates is C. It is then half‐filled with a dielectric medium of K = 4 as in

Fig (a) and then as in Fig (b). Show that capacitance in Fig (a) becomes 5C and
in Fig (b) the capacitancebecomes (4/5)C due to the introduction of the dielectric
medium.
Q2.The diagram below shows an arrangement of a set of equipotential lines in a given
Region.Each line is marked with the potential it represents.
The background gridlines are squares of each side equal to 1 cm

(a) Determine electric field at point P.

(b) Draw 6 field lines to represent the electric field in this region.

CCT BASED QUESTION

Q1.Given is a pair of parallel charged metal plates in the arrangement as shown.

(a) Sketch the electric field lines between the plates in I and II.
(b) Mention whether net electric field intensity is zero or non‐zero in each case.

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 CASE STUDY BASED QUESTION
An arrangement of two conductors separated by an insulating medium can be used
to store electric charge and electric energy. Such a system is called a capacitor.
The more charge a capacitor can store,
the greater is its capacitance. Usually, a
capacitor consists of two conductors
having equal and opposite charge +Q and
-Q. Hence, there is a potential difference
V between them. By the capacitance of a
capacitor, we mean the ratio of the charge Q to the potential difference V. By the
charge on a capacitor we mean only the charge Q on the positive plate. Total
charge of the capacitor is zero. The capacitance of a capacitor is a constant and
depends on geometric factors, such as the shapes, sizes and relative positions of
the two conductors, and the nature of the medium between them. The unit of
capacitance is farad (F), but the more convenient units are µF and pF. A commonly
used capacitor consists of two long strips or metal foils, separated by two long
strips of dielectrics, rolled up into a small cylinder. Common dielectric materials are
plastics (such as polyestors and polycarbonates) and aluminium oxide. Capacitors
are widely used in radio, television, computer, and other electric circuits.

1.A parallel plate capacitor C has a charge Q . The actual charge on its plates are
(a) Q,Q (b) Q/2, Q/2
(c) Q ,-Q (d) Q/2, -Q/2
2.A parallel plate capacitor is charged. If the plates are pulled apart .
(a) the capacitance increases (b) the potential difference increases
(c ) the total charge increases (d) the charge & potential difference remains
same
3.Three capacitors of 2 , 3 & 6 µF are connected in series to a 10 V source. The
charge on the 3 µF capacitor is
(a) 5µC (b) 10µC (c) 12µC (d) 15µC
4.If n capacitors each of capacitance C are connected in series, then the equivalent
capacitance of the combination is
(a) NC (b) n2C (c) C/n (d) C/n2

**********

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 SELF ASSESSMENT
MARKS 25 DURATION 40 MINUTES
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
Q1. A parallel plate capacitor is connected with the terminals of a battery. The distance
between the plates is 6mm. If a glass plate (dielectric constant K = 9) of 4.5 mm is
introduced between them, then the capacitance will become
(a) 2 times (b) the same (c) 3 times (d) 4 times.
Q2. A capacitor is charged by using a battery which is then disconnected. A dielectric
slab is then introduced between the plates, which results in
(a) reduction of charge on the plates and increase of potential difference across the
plates.
(b) increase in the potential difference across the plate, reduction in stored energy, but
no change in the charge on the plates.
(c) decrease in the potential difference across the plates, reduction in the stored
energy, but no change in the charge on the plates.
(d) none of these
Q3. Which of the following statement is true?
(a) Electrostatic force is a conservative force.
(b) Potential at a point is the work done per unit charge in bringing a charge from any
point to infinity.
(c) Electrostatic force is non-conservative
(d) Potential is the product of charge and work.
Q4.Which of the following statements is false for a perfect conductor?
(a) The surface of the conductor is an equipotential surface.
(b) The electric field just outside the surface of a conductor is perpendicular to the
surface.
(c) The charge carried by a conductor is always uniformly distributed over the surface
of the conductor.
(d) None of these
Q5. Assertion : Two equipotential surfaces cannot cut each other.
Reason : Two equipotential surfaces are parallel to each other.
Q6. Assertion : A dielectric is inserted between the plates of a battery connected
capacitor. The energy of the capacitor increases.
Reason : Energy of the capacitor, U=CV2 /2

2 MARKS QUESTIONS
Q7.Consider a uniform electric field 3 x 103 i N/C. calculate the flux of this field through
a square surface of area 10 cm2 when
(i) Its plane is parallel to the y-z plane
(ii) The normal to its plane makes a 60o angle with the x axis.
Q8. Define potential difference .How is it related to work. Calculate the work done in
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carrying an α-particle across a potential difference of one volt.

3MARKS QUESTIONS
Q9. A charge of 24µC is given to a hollow metallic sphere of radius 0.2 m. find the
potential
a. At the surface of the sphere
b. At a distance 0.1cm from the centre of the sphere
c. At the centre of the sphere.
Q10. Derive the expression for electrostatic potential due to dipole .Hence ,find the
value of potential on axial and equatorial line of dipole.

5 MARKS QUESTION
Q11. (a)Write any two properties of equipotential surfaces. What will be the
equipotential surface for a dipole.
(b)Two charges –q and +q, are located at points (0, 0, –a) and (0, 0, a), respectively.
(i)What is the electrostatic potential at the points (0, 0, z) and (x, y, 0)?
(ii)Obtain the dependence of potential on the distance r of a point from the origin when
r/a >> 1.
(iii) How much work is done in moving a small test charge from the point (5,0,0) to
(–7,0,0) along the x-axis? Does the answer change if the path of the test charge
between the same points is not along the x-axis?

Q12.CASE STUDY BASED QUESTION

Q1.When a dipole is placed in uniform electric field ,then

(a)It experiences torque but not force
(b)It experiences force but not torque.
(c) It experiences both force and torque.
(d) It experiences neither force not torque.
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Q2.The dipole experiences maximum torque when the angle between dipole and field
is
(a)0degree (b)60 degree (c)90 degree (d)180 degree

Q3.If the work done required from 0 degree to 60 degree in uniform electric field is
W,What is the work done in rotating the dipole in the same field from 0 to 180 degrees?
(a)W (b)2W (c)3W (d)4W

Q4.A dipole placed in uniform electric field experiences no torque when

(a)If the dipole is parallel to the field .
(b)If the dipole is antiparallel to the field.
(c )both (a) and (b)
(d)None of these

*************

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 UNIT II CURRENT ELECTRICITY
CH-3 CURRENT ELECTRICITY
Gist of the chapter
Electric Current: rate of flow of electric charge
𝑑𝑞
Instantaneous current: 𝐼 = SI unit: ampere, scalar quantity
𝑑𝑡

Current carriers (mobile charge carriers): The charged particles whose drift in a
definite direction constitutes the electric current are called current carriers.

Conventional current in a metallic conductor: In metallic conductors, negatively

charged particles, namely electrons, drift under the influence of applied potential
difference. This constitutes an electron current.

The direction of drift of positive charges is the direction of current. This current is
called conventional current. The direction of conventional current is opposite to that
of drift of electrons.

Current Density (𝑱): it is amount of charge flowing per second per unit area
normal to flow of charge. It is a vector quantity having the same
direction as that of the motion of the positive charge.
𝐼
𝑗=𝐴

In general , 𝐼 = 𝐽. 𝐴

SI unit of current density = Am2

Drift velocity: the average velocity gained by the free

electrons of a conductor in the opposite direction of the
externally applied electric field

Relaxation time: the average time that elapses between

two successive collisions of an electron is called relaxation time.

Relation between drift velocity and electric field: Drift velocity of electron is given
𝑒𝐸⃗ 𝜏
by 𝑣𝑑 = −
⃗⃗⃗⃗ Where 𝑒 = charge on electron, m = mass of electron, 𝜏 =
𝑚

𝑟𝑒𝑙𝑎𝑥𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒, 𝐸⃗ = electric field

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Relation between drift velocity and current:
𝐼
𝑣𝑑 = 𝐴𝑛𝑒 where I = current, A = Cross-section area of conductor, e = charge on
electron

Mobility(𝝁): the mobility of charge carrier is given by

𝑣𝑑
𝜇=
𝐸
𝑒𝐸⃗ 𝜏 𝑣𝑑 𝑒𝜏
As drift velocity, ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑣𝑑 = − ∴𝜇= = SI unit of mobility = m2V-1s-1
𝑚 𝐸 𝑚

Ohm’s law: the current flowing through a conductor is directly proportional to the
potential difference applied across its ends, provided the temperature and other
physical conditions remain unchanged.

𝑉 𝛼 𝐼 𝑜𝑟 𝑉 = 𝑅 Where R = Resistance of the conductor.

Resistance: it is the property by virtue of which a conductor opposes the flow of

𝑉
charge through it.𝑅 = SI Unit: 1 ohm(Ω) = 1VA-1
𝐼

Cause of resistance: Collisions are the basic cause of resistance

Symbol of resistor:

Factor affecting the resistance:

𝑙
𝑅 = 𝜌 𝐴 where 𝜌 = specific resistance or resistivity of a conductor.
𝑚
resistivity of a conductor is given by 𝜌 = 𝑛𝑒 2𝜏 SI unit of resistivity: ohm meter(Ω𝑚)

Resistivity of conductor depends only nature of material

1
Conductance: G = 𝑅 SI unit of conductance ohm-1or mho or siemens(S)

1
Conductivity: σ = ρ SI unit of conductivity is ohm-1 m-1 or Sm-1

Vector form of ohm’s law: 𝐽 = 𝜎𝐸⃗

Limitations of Ohm's Law

1. Ohm’s law is applicable only to metallic conductors at moderate temperatures
and moderate potential differences.
2. Ohm’s law cannot be applied
• to conductors maintained at very high temperatures or very low temperatures.
• to semiconductors and semi conducting devices.
• to conductors across which very high pd or very low pd is applied.

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V-I characteristics
• The variation of current (I) with voltage (V) at various temperatures for any
device is called its V-I characteristics.
• For an ohmic device, V-I characteristic is linear.

• For a non-ohmic device, the V-I characteristic curve is non-linear.

V-I characteristic of some non-ohmic devices

V-I characteristic of Ohmic device – Metal conductor

Effect of temperature on resistance

• The resistivity 𝜌 of a material depends on its temperature. For a small variation
of temperature,
𝜌 = 𝜌0 (1 + 𝛼 (𝑇 − 𝑇0 ), where 𝛼 = temperature coefficient of resistance of the
material.
• The resistance of a conductor at absolute temperature T is given by the
relation𝑅𝑇 = 𝑅0 (1 + 𝛼(𝑇 − 𝑇0 ),
−1
• SI unit of 𝛼 = ℃
Distinctive values of 𝜶 for metal, alloys and semiconductor:
1) For metals, 𝛼 is positive i.e., resistance of metals increases with the
increase in temperature.

Variation of resistivity of copper variation of resistivity of nichrome with

temperature. with temperature

2) For alloy like constantan and manganin, the temperature coefficient of

resistance is very small. So, they are used for making standard resistor.

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 3) For semiconductor and insulator 𝛼 is negative i.e. their resistance decreases
with the increases in temperature

Resistivity of a semiconductor decreases rapidly with temperature.

EMF and internal resistance of a cell
Electromotive force: The work done by the source in taking a unit positive charge from
its lower potential to higher potential.
𝑤
𝐸=
𝑞
SI unit: volt
Internal resistance: the resistance offered by the electrolyte of a cell to the flow of
current between its electrodes is called internal resistance
Terminal potential difference: the potential drop across the terminals of a cell when
a current is being drawn from it is terminal potential(V).
Relation between emf, internal resistance and terminal potential.
𝑉 = 𝐸 − 𝐼𝑟
Special cases
1) When cell is on open circuit: I = 0
V=E
Difference between emf and terminal voltage
EMF Terminal Voltage
1. It is the potential difference 1. It is the potential difference
between two terminals of the cell between two terminals when a
when no current drawn from it. current passes through it
2. It is a cause 2. It is an effect
3. SI unit Volt 3. SI unit Volt

Grouping of a cell
Cell in series

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 𝐸𝑒𝑞 = 𝐸1 + 𝐸2

𝑟𝑒𝑞 = 𝑟1 + 𝑟2

Cell in parallel

𝐸1 𝑟2 + 𝐸2 𝑟1
𝐸𝑒𝑞 =
𝑟1 + 𝑟2
𝑟1 𝑟2
𝑟𝑒𝑞 =
𝑟1 + 𝑟2

Electric Power: it is the rate at which an electric appliance convert electric energy into
other forms of energy.
𝑊 𝑉2
P= 𝑡
= 𝑉𝐼 = 𝐼 2 𝑅 = 𝑅
SI unit of power: Watt

Electric energy: it is the total work done in maintaining an electric current for a given
time.
𝑉2
𝑊 = 𝑉𝐼𝑡 = 𝐼 2 𝑅𝑡 = 𝑡 Commercial unit: 1 𝐾𝑊ℎ = 3.6 × 106 𝐽
𝑅

High voltage power transmission: suppose power P is delivered to a load R via

transmission cables of resistance 𝑅𝑡 . If V is the voltage across load R and I the current
through it, then P = VI The power wasted in transmission cables
𝑝2 𝑅𝑡
𝑃⃗𝑡 = 𝐼 2 𝑅𝑡 =
𝑉2
1
𝑃⃗𝑡 ∝
𝑉2
Kirchhoff’s first law or junction law(KCL): In an electric circuit, the algebraic sum
of currents at any junction is zero.
Σ𝐼 = 0
Sign convention for applying junction rule:1.The current
flowing towards the junction are taken as positive.

2.The current flowing away from the junction are taken as

negative.

Σ𝐼 = 𝐼1 + 𝐼3 − 𝐼2 − 𝐼4 = 0 or 𝐼1 + 𝐼3 = 𝐼2 + 𝐼4

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Kirchhoff’s second law or loop law: the
algebraic sum of the emf’s in any loop of a circuit
is equal to the sum of the products of currents and
resistance in it.
ΣE = ΣIR
Wheatstone bridge: it is an arrangement of four
resistance used to determine one of these
resistance quickly and accurately in terms of the
remaining three resistance
When no current flows through the galvanometer.
The bridge is then said to be balanced . in the
balanced condition,
𝑃⃗ 𝑅
=
𝑄 𝑠

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Mind Map

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
LEVEL-1
1. In a current carrying conductor, current density 𝐽, and drift velocity𝑣
⃗⃗⃗⃗𝑑 will be
such that
A. 𝐽 and 𝑣𝑑 will have same direction
B. 𝐽 and 𝑣𝑑 will have opposite direction
C. The direction of⃗𝐽 is determined by the number of free electrons undergoing
drift motion, whereas the direction of 𝑣𝑑 remain same
D. The direction of 𝑣𝑑 is determined by the number of free electrons undergoing
drift motion, whereas the direction of ⃗𝐽 remain same
2. Which among the following statements is correct?
A. In a metal, number density is independent of temperature
B. With increase in temperature, relaxation time in metal decreases
C. For semiconductor and insulators number density increases with increases
in temperature
D. All the above
3. The resistivity of alloy manganin
A. Increases rapidly with increases of temperature
B. Decreases linearly with increases in temperature
C. Increases rapidly with decreases in temperature
D. Is nearly independent of temperature
4. A charged particle is having drift velocity of 3 × 10−9 𝑉𝑚−1. The electron mobility
is
A. 2.5 × 104 𝑚2 𝑉 −1 𝑠 −1 C. 2.25 × 10−13 𝑚2 𝑉 −1 𝑠 −1
B. 2.5 × 105 𝑚2 𝑉 −1 𝑠 −1 D. 4.1 × 103 𝑚2 𝑉 −1 𝑠 −1
5. With increase in temperature, resistance of a conductor
A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. May decreases or increases depending on temperature
D. It does not depend on temperature
6. When the current I is flowing through a conductor, the drift velocity is v, if 2i
current flows through the same metal but having double the area of cross-
section, then the drift velocity will be
A. v/4 C. v
B. v/2 D. 4v
7. Two wires have same lengths, diameter and specific resistances all in the ratio
of 1:2. The resistance of the first wire is 10ohm. Resistance of the second wire
in ohm will be
A. 5 C. 20
B. 10 D. Infinite
8. When a 20V battery is connected across an unknown resistor there is a current
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 0f 50mA in the circuit. Find the value of the resistance of resistor:
A. 2500Ω C. 0.4Ω
B. 400Ω D. None of these
9. Among which of the following resistance does not depend :
A. Length of conductor C. Temperature
B. Area cross-section D. Density
10. The incorrect statement among the following statement is
A. Emf of a cell is the potential difference between its positive and negative
potential electrodes in an open circuit
B. Internal resistance of dry cells is much higher than common electrolyte cells
C. The terminal potential difference of a cell can be zero.
D. When current passes from positive to negative terminal of a cell inside it,
terminal potential difference is less than its emf
11. Two wires A and B of the same material, having radii in the ratio 1:2 and carry
currents in the ratio 4:1. The ratio of drift speed of electrons in A and B is
A. 16:1 C. 1:4
B. 1:16 D. 4:1
12. Kirchhoff’s first law, i.e. Σ𝐼 = 0 at a junction, deals with the conservation of
A. Charge C. Momentum
B. Energy D. Angular momentum
13. A battery of emf 10V and internal resistance 30ohm is connected to a resistor.
The current in the circuit is 0.2 amp. The terminal voltage of the battery when
the circuit is closed is
A. 10V C. 1.5V
B. Zero D. 8.5V
14. The potential difference between the terminal of a cell in an open circuit is 2.2
V. when a resistor of 5 ohm is connected across the terminals of the cell, the
potential difference between the terminals of the cell is found to be 1.8 V. the
internal resistance of the cell is
7 9
A. Ω C. Ω
12 10
10 12
B. Ω D. Ω
9 7
15. The figure below shows currents in a part of electric circuit. The current I is

A. 1.7 A C. 1.3A
B. 3.7A D. 1 A
For Questions 16 to 20, two statements are given –one labelled Assertion (A) and
other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the
options as given below.

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 a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of
Assertion.
b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion
c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
d) If both Assertion and Reason are false
16. Assertion(A): A current flows in a conductor only when there ia an electric field
within the conductor
Reason(R): The drift velocity of electrons in presence of electric field
decreases.
17. Assertion(A): An electric bulb starts glowing instantly as it is switched on.
Reason(R): Drift speed of electrons in a metallic wire is very large.
18. Assertion(A): A wire carrying an electric current has no electric field around it.
Reason(R): Rate of flow of electrons in one direction is equal to the rate of flow
of protons in opposite direction.
19. Assertion(A): Though large number of free electrons are present in the metal.
Yet there is no current in the absence of electric field.
Reason(R): In the absence of electric field electrons move randomly in all
directions.
20. Assertion(A): The value of temperature coefficient of resistance is positive for
metals.
Reason(R): The temperature coefficient is resistance for insulator is also
positive.

LEVEL – 2 MCQ
1. A current of 3 amp flows through the 2 ohm resistor
shown in the circuit. The power dissipated in the 5 ohm
resistor is:
A. 4 watt C. 1 watt
B. 2 watt D. 5 watt
2. In the figure balanced condition of Wheatstone bridge

A. B is at higher potential
B. D is at higher potential
C. Any of the two B or D can be at higher potential
than other arbitrarily
D. B and D are at same potential
3. Five resistances have been connected as shown in the
figure. The effective resistance between A and B is

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 14
A. Ω C. 14Ω
3
20 D. 21Ω
B. 3 Ω
4. Two solid conductors are made up by of same material, have same length and
same resistance. one of them has a circular cross section of area A 1 and the
𝐴
other one has a square cross section area of A2. The ratio 𝐴1 is
2
A. 1.5 C. 0.8
B. 1 D. 2
5. The solids which have the negative temperature coefficient of resistance are
A. Insulators and
semiconductors
B. Metals
C. Insulators only
D. Semiconductor only

For Questions 6 to 10, two statements are given –one labelled Assertion (A)
and other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions
from the options as given below.
a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of
Assertion.
b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion
c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
d) If both Assertion and Reason are false
6. Assertion(A): The conductivity of an electrolyte is very low as compared to a
metal at room temperature.
Reason(R): The number density of free ions in electrolyte is much smaller as
compared to number density of free electrons in metals. Further, ions drift much
more slowly, being heavier.
7. Assertion(A): The dimensional formula for product of resistance and
conductance is same as for dielectric constant.
Reason(R): Both have dimensions of time constant.
8. Assertion(A): The drift velocity of electrons in a metallic wire will decrease, if
the temperature of the wire is increased.
Reason(R): On increasing temperature, conductivity of metallic wire decreases.
9. Assertion(A): Bending a wire does not affect electrical resistance.
Reason(R): Resistance of wire is proportional to resistivity of material
10. Assertion(A): A person touching a high power line gets stuck with the line.
Reason(R): The current carrying wires attract the man towards it.

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 LEVEL – 3 MCQ
1. A Wheatstone bridge is used to determine the
value of unknown resistance X by adjusting
the variable resistance Y as shown in the
figure. For the most precise measurement of
X, the resistance P and Q
A. Should be approximately equal to 2X
B. Should be approximately equal and are
small
C. Should be very large and unequal
D. Do not play and significant role
2. A battery of internal resistance
𝑟 = 4Ω is connected to the
network of resistance, as shown
in figure what must be the value
of R, so that maximum power is
delivered to the network? what is
the maximum power?
𝐸2
A. 16
𝐸2 𝐸2
B. D.
6 4
𝐸2
C. 8
3. The resistance of a wire is 5Ω at 50℃ and 6Ω at 100℃. The resistance of the
wire at 0℃ will be
A. 3Ω C. 1Ω
B. 2Ω D. 4Ω
4. The resistive network shown below is connected to a DC source of 16V. the
power consumed by the network is 4 watt. The value of R is

A. 8Ω B. 1Ω 𝐶. 16Ω D.
6Ω

5. A 10 V battery with internal resistance 1Ω and a 15V

battery with internal resistance 0.6Ω are connected in
parallel to a voltmeter as shown in the figure. The
reading in the voltmeter will be close to

A. 11.9V B.13.1V C.12.5V

D.24.5V

6. Two equal resistances when connected in series to a battery, consume electric

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 power of 60W. if these resistances are now connected in parallel combination
to the same battery, the electric power consumed will be
A. 60 W C. 120 W
B. 30 W D. 240 W
7. A heater coil is cut into two equal parts and only one part is now used in the
heater. The heat generated will now be.
A. Doubled C. One fourth
B. Four times D. Halved
8. The value of current 𝑖1 flowing from A to C in
the circuit diagram is

A. 1 A
B. 4 A
C. 5 A
D. 2 A
9. In the circuit, given in the figure, currents in

different branches and value of one resistor are shown.

The potential at point B with respect to the point A is
A. +1 V C. +2 V
B. -2 V D. -1 V

10. In the circuit shown, the potential difference between A and B is

A. 6 V B. 3 V C.2 V D. 1 V

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 (2 MARKS QUESTIONS)
LEVEL - 1
1. Two cells of emfs and internal resistances 𝐸1 , 𝑟1 and 𝐸2 , 𝑟2 are connected in
parallel. Derive the expressions for the emf and internal resistance of a cell
which replace this combination.
2. An arc lamp operates at 80 V, 10A. suggest a method to use it with a 240 V DC
source. Calculate the value of the electric component required for this purpose.
3. Prove that the current density of a metallic conductor is directly proportional to
the drift speed of electrons.
4. Define the electrical resistivity of a material. How it is related to the electrical
conductivity? of the factors, length, area of cross-section, nature of material and
temperature – which ones control the resistivity value of conductor?
5. Define the term ‘mobility’ of charge carries in a current carrying conductors.
Obtain the relation for mobility in terms of relaxation time.
6. State the conditions under which ohm’s law is not obeyed
in a conductor.
7. I – V graph for a metallic wire at two different
temperatures,𝑇1 and 𝑇2 is as shown in figure. Which of the
two temperature is lower and why?

8. Two cells of emf’s 𝐸1 and 𝐸2 , and internal resistance 𝑟1and

𝑟2 respectively are connected in series. Obtain expression for the equivalent (i)
emf and (ii) resistance of the combination.
LEVEL - 2
1. Two metallic wires, P1 and P2 of the same
material and same length but different cross-
section areas, A1 and A2 are joined together
and connected to a source of emf. Find the
ration of the drift velocities of free electrons in
two wires when they are connected (i) in series
and (ii) in parallel
2. A battery of emf 12 V and internal resistance 2
ohm is connected to 4 ohm resistor as shown
in figure show that a voltmeter when placed
across the cell and across the resistor in turn,
gives the same reading

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3. Under what condition is the heat produced in an electric circuit:
(i) Directly proportional
(ii) Inversely proportional to the resistance of the circuit.
4. Use Kirchhoff’s rules to obtain the balance condition in Wheatstone bridge.
5. In the electric network shown in figure, use Kirchhoff’s rules to calculate the
power consumed by the resistance 𝑅 = 4Ω.

LEVEL - 3
1. A) Two wires of equal lengths, one of copper and the other of manganin have
the same resistance. Which wire will be thicker
B) If a wire is stretched to double its original length without loss of mass, how
will the resistivity of the wire be influenced?
2. The following graph shows the variation of terminal potential difference V,
across a combination of three cells in series
to a resistor, versus the current, I :
a) Calculate the emf of each cell.
b) For what current I, will the power
dissipation of the circuit be maximum?

3. Using Kirchhoff’s rules, calculate the current through 40Ω and 20Ω in the circuit
shown in below figure

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 3 MARKS QUESTIONS
LEVEL -1
1. (I) For the circuit diagram of a Wheatstone bridge shown, use Kirchhoff’s laws
to obtain its balance condition.
(II) Give one practical application that is based on this principle.

2. The Wheatstone’s bridge of figure is showing no

deflection in the galvanometer joined between the
point B and D. compute the value of R.
3. A potential difference V is applied to a conductor of
length l, diameter D. how are the electric field E, the
drift velocity 𝑣𝑑 and resistance R affected when (i) V
is doubled (ii). l is doubled (iii) D is doubled.
4. Draw a plot showing the variation of resistivity of a (i) conductor and (ii)
nichrome(iii) semiconductor, with the increase in temperature.
How does one explain this behavior in terms of number density of charge
carriers and the relaxation time?
5. Distinguish between emf E and terminal voltage V of a cell having internal
resistance ‘r’. Draw a plot showing the variation voltage V vs. the current I drawn
from the cell. Using this plot, how does one determine the emf and the internal
resistance of the cell?
LEVEL – 2
1. In the circuit show in fig.in the steady state,
obtain the expression for
a) The potential drop
b) The charge and
c) The energy stored in the capacitor.
2. ‘n’ identical cells each of emf ‘E’ and the
internal resistance ‘r’ are connected in series to resistor ‘R’
(i) Deduce an expression for the internal resistance ‘r’ of one cell in terms
of the current ‘I’ flowing through the circuit.
(ii) How does the internal resistance of the cell vary with temperature.

3. Explain, giving reasons, how the internal resistance of a cell changes in the
following cases:
(i) When concentration of the electrolyte is increases.
(ii) When area of the anode is decreased.
(iii) When temperature of the electrolyte is increased.

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 LEVEL – 3
1. Determine the current flowing through the galvanometer G of Wheatstone
Bridge shown in figure.
2. (a) Draw a graph showing the variation of
current versus voltage for a diode

(b) (i) the graph between resistance R

and temperature T for Hg is shown in
figure explain the behavior of Hg near 4 K

(iii) in which region of the graph shown in figure is

the negative resistance.

3. the following table gives the length of three copper

wires. Their diameters, and the applied potential differences across their ends.
Arrange the wires in increasing order according to the following:

Wire no Length diameter Potential difference

1 L 3d V
2 2l D V
3 3l 2d 2V

(i) the magnitude of the electric field within them.

(ii) The drift speed of the electrons through them, and
(iii) The current density within them.
5 MARKS QUESTIONS
LEVEL – 1
1. (a) The electron drift arises due to the force experienced by electrons in the
electric field inside the conductor. But force should cause acceleration. Why
then do the electrons acquire a steady average drift speed? (b) If the electron

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 drift speed is so small, and the electron’s charge is small, how can we still obtain
large amounts of current in a conductor?
(c) When electrons drift in a metal from lower to higher potential, does it mean
that all the ‘free’ electrons of the metal are moving in the same direction?
(d) Are the paths of electrons straight lines between successive collisions (with
the positive ions of the metal) in the (i) absence of electric field, (ii) presence of
electric field?
LEVEL-2
1. Deduce the condition for balance in a Wheatstone bridge. Write any two
important precautions you would observe while performing the experiment.
When is Wheatstone bridge most sensitive?

LEVEL-3

1. Two cells of emf 3V and 4V and internal resistances 1 ohm and 2 ohms
respectively are connected in parallel so as to send current in same direction
through an external resistance of 5 ohm. Draw the circuit diagram using
Kirchhoff’s laws. Calculate the current through each branch of the circuit and
potential difference across 5-ohm resistance.
Numerical Problem
LEVEL - 1
1. The amount of charge passing through cross-section of wire is 𝑞𝑡 = 𝑡 2 + 𝑡 + 1
find the value of current at t = 1s
2. The resistance of a thin wire of silver is = 1.0 Ω at 20°𝐶. The wire is placed in a
liquid bath and its resistance rises to 1.2Ω. find the temperature of the bath
in°𝐶(𝛼𝑠𝑖𝑙𝑣𝑒𝑟 = 3.8 × 10−3 /°𝐶)
3. A cell of emf 2 V and internal resistance 0.1 Ω is connected to a 3.9 Ω external
resistance. What will be the potential difference across the terminals of the cell.
4. Two cells of emfs 1.5 V and 2.0 V having internal resistances 0.2 Ω and 0.3 Ω
respectively are connected in parallel. Calculate the emf and internal resistance
of the equivalent cell.
LEVEL – 2
1. A storage battery of emf 8 V, internal resistance 1.0 Ω, is being charged by a
120 V dc source, using a 15.0 Ω resistor in series in the circuit. Calculate (i) the
current in the circuit, (ii) terminal voltage across the battery during charging,
and (iii) the chemical energy stored in the battery in 5 minutes.
2. A voltmeter of resistance 998Ω is connected across a cell of emf 2 V and
internal resistance 2Ω. Find the potential difference across the voltmeter, that

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 across the terminals of the cell and percentage error in the reading of the
voltmeter.
3. Two aluminium wires have their lengths in the ratio 2 :3 and radii in the ration
1: 3. These are connected in parallel across a battery of emf E and of negligible
internal resistance. Find the ratio of drift velocities of the electrons in the two
wires.
LEVEL – 3
1. A particle of the charge 2𝜇𝐶 and mass 1.6 g is moving with a velocity 4𝑖̂ 𝑚𝑠 −1 .
At t = 0 the particle enters in a region having an electric field 𝐸⃗ (𝑖𝑛 𝑁𝐶 −1 ) =
80𝑖̂ + 60𝑗̂. Find the velocity of the particle at t = 5s
2. The circuit in figure shows two cells connected in opposition to each other. Cell
𝐸1 is of emf 6V and internal resistance
2.0 Ω; the cell 𝐸2 is of emf 4V and internal
resistance 8.0 Ω. Find the potential
difference between the points A and B.

3. In the circuit shown in figure, with steady current,

calculate the potential difference across the
capacitor and the charge stored in it.

CASE STUDY QUESTION

Read the following text and answer the following
questions on the basis of the same:

Electric Toaster: Small Industries Service Institute takyelpat Industrial Estate Imphal
has designed an Electric toaster which is operated at 220 volts A.C., single phase
and available in four different rated capacity such as 600 W, 750 W, 1000 W and
1250 W. The heating element is made of nichrome 80/20 (80% nickel, 20%
chromium), since Nichrome does not get oxidize readily at high temperature and
have higher resistivity, so it produces more heat.
The element is wound separately on Mica sheets and fitted with body of toaster with
the help of ceramic terminals.

i.) Heating element of the toaster is made of:

(A) copper (B) nichrome (C) chromium (D) nickel

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 ii.) What is meant by 80/20 Nichrome?

(A) 80% Chromium and 20% Nickel

(B) 80% Nickel and 20% Chromium
(C) Purity 80%, Impurity 20%
(D) It is a mixture of Chromium and Nickel

iii.) Which one will consume more electricity?

(A) 600 W (B) 1000 W (C) 750 W (D) 1200 W

iv) Operating voltage of the device is: (A) 220 V AC, single phase

(A) 220 V AC, single phase (B) 220 V AC, three phase
(C) 220 V DC (D) 220 V AC/DC

V) Insulating materials used in the device are:

(A) Mica (B) Ceramic (C) Mica, ceramic, Nichrome (D)Mica, ceramic

COMPETENCY BASED QUESTION

1. A flashlight uses two batteries, each of emf 2V and internal resistance 0.1 ohm,
in series. The flashlight bulb has a resistance of 10 ohm.

(i) What is the current drawn by flashlight bulb?

(ii) How much power is dissipated through the flashlight bulb?
(iii) If the two batteries have zero internal resistance, will the power
dissipated through the flashlight bulb be more or less?
(iv) Calculate the difference.
2. In order to discourage the use of personal electrical appliances by the guests
in the rooms of a motel in a small town, each 220 V socket in the room is wired
with a circuit breaker on a 5 A line. Sam wishes to iron his clothes using his
1200 W, 200V portable steam iron box in his motel room.

(i) Current drawn from iron

(ii) Will sam be able to use his iron box without tripping the circuit breaker?
(iii) Find the resistance of his iron box.
(iv) Can 1200W iron use in 220 V socket?

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 CCT BASED QUESTION

1. Tim is a music enthusiast who wishes to create good sound effects for his
stereo system using his two sets of speakers at home. The first set consists of
two speakers of resistance 10 ohm each. The second set consists of two
speakers with resistance 5 ohm and 10 ohm respectively. Initially, he connects
the first set of two 10 ohm speakers in series to the 10 V stereo output. Later
he connects the second set of speakers such that each of them is parallel to
the first set of speakers.

(i) What is the current through each of 10 ohm speakers before the second set
of speakers were connected?
(ii) What is the new current through each of 10 ohm speakers after the second
set of speakers are connected?
(iii) If the loudness of the music is directly proportional to the amount of power
used by the speakers, how has the loudness of the first set of speakers
changed due to the introduction of the second set of speakers?
(iv) What is the impact of connecting the second set of speakers in the circuit?
***********

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 Self-Assessment Test
Max. marks-25 Max. Time: 40 minute

Section-A( 1 Mark each)

1) Consider a current carrying wire (current I) in the shape of a circle. Note that as
the current progresses along the wire, the direction of J changes in an exact
manner, while the current I remain unaffected the agent that is essentially
responsible for is
a) Source of emf
b) Electric field produced by charges accumulated on the surface of wire
c) The charge just behind a given segment of wire which push then just the
right way by repulsion.
d) The charge ahead
2) Kirchhoff’s junction rules is a reflection of
a) Conservation of current density vector.
b) Conservation of charge
c) The fact that the momentum with which a charged particle approaches a
junction is unchanged (as a vector) as the charged particle leaves the
junction.
d) None of these
3) The resistance of a wire is 5Ω at 50℃ and 6Ω at 100℃. The resistance of the
wire at 0℃ will be
a) 3Ω c) 1Ω
b) 2Ω d) 4Ω

4) The potential difference (𝑉𝐴 − 𝑉𝐵 ) between the points A and B in the given

figure is
a) +6 V b) +9 V (c)-3V (d)3V

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For Questions 5 to 6, two statements are given –one labelled Assertion (A) and other
labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the options as
given below.
a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation
of Assertion.
b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion
c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
d) If both Assertion and Reason are false
5) Assertion(A): Though large number of free electrons are present in the metal.
Yet there is no current in the absence of electric field.
Reason(R): In the absence of electric field electrons move randomly in all
directions.
6) Assertion(A): The value of temperature coefficient of resistance is positive for
metals.
Reason(R): The temperature coefficient is resistance for insulator is also
positive.
Section-B (2 Mark each)

7) A heating element using nichrome connected to a 230 V supply draws an initial

current of 3.2 A which settles after a few seconds to a steady value of 2.8 A.
What is the steady temperature of the heating element if the room temperature
is 27.0 °C and the temperature coefficient of resistance of nichrome is 1.70 ×
10–4 °C–1 ?
8) Graph showing the variation of current versus voltage foe a GaAs is shown in

figure. Identify the region

i) Negative resistance
ii) Where ohm’s law is obeyed
Section-C (3-mark each)
9) Two cells of emfs 𝐸1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐸2 , and internal resistance 𝑟1 𝑎𝑛𝑑𝑟2 respectively are
connected in series. Obtain expression for the equivalent (i) emf and (ii)
resistance of the combination.
10) The four arms of a Wheatstone bridge have the following resistance 𝐴𝐵 = 100Ω
, 𝐵𝐶 = 10Ω , 𝐶𝐷 = 5Ω and 𝐷𝐴 = 60Ω.

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 A galvanometer of 15Ω resistance is connected across BD. Calculate the
current through the galvanometer when a potential
difference of 10V is maintained across AC.

Section-D (5 - mark each)

11) (a) On the basis of electron drift, derive an expression for resistivity of a
conductor in terms of number density of free electrons and relaxation time. On
what factors does resistance and resistivity of a conductor depend?
(b) Why alloys like constantan and manganin are used for making standard
resistors?
(c) The electron drift arises due to the force experienced by electrons in the
electric field inside the conductor. But force should cause acceleration. Why
then do the electrons acquire a steady average drift speed?
(d) If the electron drift speed is so small, and the electron’s charge is small, how
can we still obtain large amounts of current in a conductor?
(e) When electrons drift in a metal from lower to higher potential, does it mean
that all the ‘free’ electrons of the metal are moving in the same direction?

Section-E (Case study base question)

As an application of Kirchhoff’s rules consider the circuit shown, which is called

the Wheatstone bridge. The bridge has four resistors P, Q, R and s. Across one
pair of diagonally opposite points (A and C in the figure) a source is connected.
This (i.e., AC) is called the battery arm. Between the other two vertices, B and
D, a galvanometer G (which is a device to detect currents) is connected. This
line, shown as BD in the figure, is called the galvanometer arm. For simplicity,
we assume that the cell has no internal
resistance. In general there will be currents
flowing across all the resistors as well as a
current I g through G. Of special interest, is
the case of a balanced bridge where the
resistors are such that Ig = 0. We can easily
get the balance condition, such that there is
no current through G.

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1.What is the principle of the Wheatstone bridge?
2.Name the instrument that is used as a null detector in the Wheatstone bridge.
3.Which among the following is a false statement?
a) A galvanometer is used as the null detector in a Wheatstone bridge
b) A galvanometer is an ammeter with low resistance in series
c) Wheatstone bridge is susceptible to high dc current
d) Due to the errors introduced in contact resistance, a Wheatstone bridge
cannot be used for accurate measurement
4.PR = QS is the equation of a balanced Wheatstone bridge. Is it true or false?
a) True b) False

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 UNIT III MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT AND MAGNETISM
CH 4– MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
GIST OF LESSON
1. Magnetic field- A magnetic field is associated with an electric current flowing
through a metallic wire. This is called the magnetic effect of current. On the
other hand, a stationary electron produces an electric field only.
2. SI Unit of Magnetic field-
The SI unit of magnetic field is Wm-2 or T (tesla). The strength of magnetic field
is called one tesla, if a charge of one coulomb, when moving with a velocity of
1 ms-1 along a direction perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field
experiences a force of one newton.
3. 1 tesla (T) = 1 weber meter-2 (Wbm-2 ) = 1 newton ampere-1 meter-1 (NA-1 m -1)
4. CGS units of magnetic field is called gauss or oersted.
5. 1 gauss = 10-4 tesla.
6. Right hand thumb rule- Hold a conductor is Right Hand in such a way that
thumb indicates the direction of current and curled finger encircling the
conductor will give the direction of magnetic field lines.
7. Biot- Savart law- It states that the magnetic field strength B produced due to a
current element (of current I and length dl) at a point having position vector r
relative to current element is-

where µ0 is the permeability of free space,

θ is the angle between current element and position
vector r as shown in the figure.
The direction of magnetic field B is perpendicular to
the plane containing Idl and r
The value of µ0 = 4π ×10–7 Wb/A-m.
8. Magnetic field due to a current carrying circular loop –
(a) The magnetic field due to current carrying circular coil of N-turns, radius a,
carrying current I at a distance x from the centre of coil is –

(b) The magnetic field due to current carrying circular coil is along the axis. At
center, x=0

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The direction of the magnetic field at the center is perpendicular to the plane of the
coil.
9. Ampere's circuital law- It states that the line integral of magnetic field B along
a closed boundary of an open surface is equal to µ0-times the current (I) passing
through the open surface with closed boundary.

10. Magnetic field due to infinitely long straight wire using Ampere's law- According
to Ampere’s circuital law.

11. Straight solenoid- At the axis of a long solenoid, carrying current I

B=μ0 nI , where n = N/L = number of turns per unit length.
Tip - When we look at any end of the coil carrying current, If the current is in
anticlockwise direction then that end of the coil behaves like north pole, and If
the current is in clockwise direction then that end of the coil behaves like the
south pole.
12. Force on a current-carrying conductor in a uniform magnetic field B
Magnitude of force is F = IlBsinө.
Direction of force is normal to and given by Fleming’s Left Hand Rule. If ө =
0 (i.e. is parallel to B), then the magnetic force is zero.

13. Force on a moving charge in uniform magnetic field-The force on a charged

particle moving with velocity in a uniform magnetic field is given by F =
qvBsinө.
14. . The direction of this force is perpendicular to both v and B ,
When v is parallel to B ,ie ө=0, then F=0
When v is perpendicular to B , ie ө=90, then F is maximum, i.e., F=qvB

Lorentz force -The total force on a charged particle moving in simultaneous

electric field and magnetic field is given by F= qvB + qE
This is called the Lorentz force equation.
15. The direction of this force is determined by using Fleming’s left hand rule
Fleming’s Left Hand Rule- Stretch the left hand such that the fore-finger, the
central finger and thumb are mutually perpendicular to each
other. When the fore-finger points in the direction of the
magnetic field and the central finger points in the direction of
current then thumb gives the direction of the force acting on
the conductor.
16. Force between two parallel current-carrying
conductors- Two parallel current carrying conductors

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 attract while antiparallel current carrying conductors repel. The magnetic force
per unit length on either current carrying conductor at separation a is given by

Its unit is newton/meter (N/m)

17. Definition of ampere: - 1 ampere is the current which when flowing in each of
the two parallel wires in vacuum separated by 1 m from each other exert a force
of 2x 10-7N/m on each other.
18. Torque experienced by a current loop in uniform magnetic field-
𝜏 =M x B
If the angle between the normal to the coil and the direction of the
magnetic field, then Φ + θ = 90° i.e. θ = 90° - Φ
𝜏 = I A B cos (90° - Φ) ‫ = ז‬N I A B sin Φ
Hence,

The unit of magnetic moment in SI system is Am2.

The torque is maximum when the coil is parallel to the magnetic field and zero
when the coil is perpendicular to the magnetic field.
19. Potential energy of a current loop in a magnetic field- When a current loop
of magnetic moment M is placed in a magnetic field, then potential energy of
magnetic dipole is U=MB cos ө
(i) When ө=0, U = - MB (minimum or stable equilibrium position)
(ii) When ө=180, U = +MB (maximum or unstable equilibrium position)
(iii) When ө=90, potential energy is zero
20. Moving coil galvanometer- A moving coil
galvanometer is a device used to detect flow
of current in a circuit. A moving coil
galvanometer consists of a rectangular coil
placed in a uniform radial magnetic field
produced by cylindrical pole pieces.
Torque on coil due to current 𝜏 = NIBA
where N is the number of turns, A is the
area of coil.
If k is torsional rigidity of material of suspension wire, then for deflection θ,
torque 𝜏. For equilibrium NIAB = k
Clearly, deflection in galvanometer is directly proportional to current, so the
scale of galvanometer is linear.

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 Use of radial magnetic field- The angle between the normal of the plane of loop
and magnetic field θ = 90o,
𝜏 ∝ I, when radial magnetic field is used the deflection
of coil is proportional to the current flowing through it. Hence a linear scale is
used to determine the deflection of coil.
Uses of galvanometer: (i) Used to detect electric current is a circuit. (ii) Used
to convert the ammeter by putting a low resistor. (iii) Used to convert voltmeter
by putting a high resistor. (iv) Used as ohmmeter by making special
arrangement
21. Current sensitivity: It is defined as the deflection of coil per unit current flowing
 NAB
in it. Current Sensitivity, S = I = .
K
22. Voltage sensitivity: It is defined as the deflection of coil per unit potential
 NAB
difference across its ends. Voltage Sensitivity, SV = V = ,where G is the
GK
resistance of galvanometer.
23. Conversion of Galvanometer into Ammeter: - A galvanometer may be
converted into ammeter by using very small resistance in parallel with the
galvanometer coil. The small resistance connected in parallel is called a shunt.
If G is resistance of galvanometer, Ig is current in galvanometer for full scale
deflection, then for conversion of galvanometer into ammeter of range I ampere,
the shunt is given by

24. Conversion of Galvanometer into Voltmeter: - A galvanometer may be

converted into voltmeter by connecting high resistance (R) in series with the
coil of the galvanometer. If V volt is the range of voltmeter formed, then series
resistance is given by

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MIND MAP

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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
LEVEL 1

1 In a current-carrying loop, the magnetic field is strongest:

a) At the centre of the loop
b) Along the edges of the loop
c) Inside the loop
d) Outside the loop
2 The magnetic field inside a current-carrying conductor.
(a) increases with the increase in current
(b) decreases with the increase in current
(c) remains constant with the increase in current
(d) is zero
3 The direction of the magnetic field at the centre of a current-carrying circular
loop is:
(a) Along the axis of the loop
(b) Parallel to the plane of the loop
(c) Radially inward
(d) Tangential to the loop
4 Which of the following statements is correct regarding the magnetic field
around a straight current-carrying conductor?
a) The magnetic field lines form concentric circles centred on the
conductor.
b) The magnetic field lines form straight lines parallel to the conductor.
c) The magnetic field lines form radial lines away from the conductor.
d) The magnetic field lines form hyperbolic curves around the conductor.
5 A current carrying closed loop of an irregular shape lying in more than one
plane whe placed in uniform magnetic field, the force acting on it
(a) Will be more in the plane where its larger position is covered.
(b) Is zero.
(c) Is infinite.
(d) May or may not be zero.
6 A strong magnetic field is applied on a stationary electron. Then the electron
a) Moves in the direction of the field.
b) Remained stationary.
c) moves perpendicular to the direction of the field
d) moves opposite to the direction of the field
7 A charged particle is moving on circular path with velocity v in a uniform
magnetic field B, if the velocity of the charged particle is doubled and
strength of magnetic field is halved, then radius becomes
a) 8 times
b) 4 times
c) 2 times

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 d) 16 times
8 The correct plot of the magnitude of magnetic field B vs distance r from
centre of the wire is, if the radius of wire is R

Select the most appropriate answer from the options given

below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false.

9 Assertion (A): An electron projected parallel to the direction of magnetic

force will experience maximum force.
Reason (R): Magnetic force on a charge particle is given by F = (IL x B).
10 Assertion (A): A proton is placed in a uniform electric field, it tends to move
along the direction of electric field.
Reason(R): A proton is placed in a uniform electric field it experiences a
force in the direction opposite to electric field.
11 Assertion (A): The magnetic field at the ends of a very long current carrying
solenoid is half of that at the centre.
Reason (R): If the solenoid is sufficiently long, the field within it is uniform.
12 Assertion (A): Magnetic field due to an infinite straight conductor varies
inversely as the distance from it.
Reason (R): The magnetic field due to a straight conductor is in the form of
concentric circles.
13 Assertion(A): Torque on the coil is maximum when the coil is suspended in
a radial magnetic field
Reason(R) : If the coil is set with its plane parallel to the direction
of the magnetic field, then torque on it is maximum
14 Assertion (A): Two parallel conducting wires carrying currents in same
direction come close to each other.
Reason (R): Parallel currents attract and antiparallel currents repel.
15 Assertion(A): Galvanometer cannot as such be used as an ammeter to
measure the value of current in a given circuit

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 Reason (R): It gives full scale deflection for a current of the order of micro
ampere.
16 Assertion (A): A galvanometer can be converted to voltmeter by connecting
a very small resistance in series to it.
Reason (R) : Voltmeter is to be connected in series with the circuit
17 Name the rule which gives the direction of force, on an electron moving
perpendicular to the uniform magnetic field.
(a) Fleming’s right hand Rule (b) Fleming’s left hand Rule (c) Right hand
Thumb Rule (d) Swimming Rule
18 Which law/rule gives the direction of a magnetic field due to a conductor
carrying current?
(a) Faraday's law (b) Fleming's right hand rule
(c) Right hand thumb rule (d) Fleming's left hand rule
19 According to the Right hand thumb rule, direction of which physical quantity
is indicated by the thumb?
(a) Electric current (b) Magnetic field (c) Magnetic force (d) Motion of
conductor
20 What is the shape of magnetic field lines passing through the centre of
current carrying circular ring?
(a) Circular (b) Straight line (c) Ellipse (d) no definite shape

MCQ-LEVEL 2

1 A circular coil of radius 4 cm and of 20 turns carries a current of 3 amperes. It

is placed in a magnetic field of intensity of 0.5 weber/m². The magnetic dipole
moment of the coil is
a) 0.15 ampere-m² b) 0.3 ampere-m² c) 0.45 ampere-m² d) 0.6 amp-m²
2 A flat circular coil of 100 turns and radius 10 cm carries a current of 1 A. Then
the magnetic dipole moment of the coil is A.
a) π A·m2 b) π/2 A·m2 c) 2π A·m2 d) π/4 A·m2
3 The strength of magnetic field at the Centre of circular coil is

4 If the beams of electrons and protons move parallel to each other in the same
direction, then they
a) Attract each other. b) Repel each other. c) No relation. d) Neither attracts
nor repel.

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 Select the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c )A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false.

5 Assertion (A): If a proton and an α-particle enter a uniform magnetic

field perpendicularly with the same speed, the time period of revolution
of α-particle is double than that of proton.
Reason (R): In a magnetic field, the period of revolution of a charged
particle is directly proportional to the mass of the particle and inversely
proportional to the charge of the particle.
6 Assertion (A): The magnetic field produced by a current carrying long
solenoid is independent of its length and cross- sectional area.
Reason(R): The magnetic field inside the solenoid is uniform.
7 Assertion (A): The voltage sensitivity may not necessarily increase on
increasing the current sensitivity
Reason (R): Current sensitivity decreases on increasing the number of
turns of the coil
8 Assertion (A): When radius of circular loop carrying current is doubled,
its magnetic moment becomes four times
Reason (R): Magnetic moment depends on area of the loop
9 Assertion (A): An electron projected parallel to the direction of magnetic
force will experience maximum force.
Reason (R): Magnetic force on a charge particle is given by F = (IL x B).
10 Along which axis the magnetic field due to a current element is
minimum?
(a) along its axis (b) perpendicular to its axis (c) at any angle to its axis
(d) at an angle of 450 with the axis.

LEVEL 3
1 If a charged particle moves through a magnetic field perpendicular to it
a) Both momentum and energy of particle change.
b) Momentum as well as energy is constant.
c) Energy is constant but momentum changes.
d) momentum is constant but energy changes
2 The maximum current that can be measured by a galvanometer of
resistance 40 Ω is 10 mA. It is converted into voltmeter that can read up to
50 V. The resistance to be connected in the series with the galvanometer
is
a) 2010 Ω b) 4050 Ω c) 5040 Ω d) 4960 Ω

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 3 Two α-particles have the ratio of their velocities as 3: 2 on entering the
field. If they move in different circular paths, then the ratio of the radii of
their paths is
a) 2 : 3 b) 3 : 2 c) 9 : 4 d) 4 : 9
4 The time period of a charged particle undergoing a circular motion in a
uniform magnetic field is independent of:
(a) speed of the particle (b) mass of the particle
(c) charge of the particle (d) magnetic field of the particle
5 If an ammeter is to be used in place of a voltmeter, then we must connect
with the ammeter a:
(a) low resistance in parallel (b) high resistance in parallel
(c) high resistance in series (d) low resistance in series
6 A particle of charge q and mass m moves in a circular orbit of radius r with
angular speed ω. The ratio of the magnitude of its magnetic moment to
that of its angular momentum depends on
(a) ω and q (b)ω, q and m (c) q and m (d) ω and m

Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c ) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false.

7 Assertion (A): If an electron and proton enter a magnetic field with equal
momentum, then the paths of both of them will be equally curved.
Reason (R): The magnitude of charge on an electron is same as that on
a proton.
8 Assertion (A): The torque acting on square and circular current carrying
coils having equal areas, placed in uniform magnetic field, will be same.
Reason (R): Torque acting on a current carrying coil placed in uniform
magnetic field does not depend on the shape of the coil, if the areas of the
coils are same.
9 Assertion (A): Electron enters into a magnetic field at an angle of 60
degree. Its path will be Parabola.
Reason (R): Force on electron moving perpendicular to magnetic field is
zero.
10 Assertion (A): Higher the range, lower is the resistance of ammeter.
Reason (R): To increase the range of an ammeter, additional shunt is
added in series to it

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 2 MARK QUESTIONS
LEVEL 1
1 I) Write the expression, in a vector form, for the Lorentz magnetic force 𝑭⃗
due to a charge moving with velocity 𝑽 in a magnetic field 𝑩⃗ . What is the
direction of the magnetic force?
II) Using the concept of force between two infinitely long parallel current
carrying conductors, define one ampere of current.
2 A charge ‘q’ moving B along the X-axis with a velocity v is subjected to a
uniform magnetic field B acting along the Z-axis as it crosses the origin O.
(i) Trace its trajectory.
(ii) Does the charge gain kinetic energy as it enters the magnetic field?
Justify your answer.
3 A steady current (I1) flows through a long straight wire. Another wire carrying
steady current (I2) in the same direction is kept close and parallel to the first
wire. Show with the help of a diagram how the magnetic field due to the
current I1 exerts a magnetic force on the second wire. Write the expression
for this force.
4 A circular coil of closely wound N turns and radius r carries a current I.
Write the expressions for the following :
(i) the magnetic field at its centre
(ii) the magnetic moment of this coil
5 Draw the magnetic field lines due to a current passing through a long
solenoid. Write the expression for the magnetic field due to the current I in a
long solenoid having n number of turns per unit length.
6 (i) State Biot – Savart law in vector form expressing the magnetic field B due
to an element dl carrying current I at a distance r from the element.
(ii) Write the expression for the magnitude of the magnetic field at the centre
of a circular loop of radius r carrying a steady current I. Draw the field
lines due to the current loop.
7 State Ampere’s circuital law. How is it similar to the Gauss Law?
8 How do convert a galvanometer into an ammeter? Why is an ammeter always
connected in series?
LEVEL 2

1 A solenoid of length 50 cm having 100 turns carrying a current of 4.5 A find

the magnetic field
(i) in the interior of the solenoid
(ii) outside the solenoid
2 An ammeter of resistance 0.6 Ω can measure current up to 1.0 A. Calculate
(i) The shunt resistance required to enable the ammeter to measure current
up to 5.0 A (ii) The combined resistance of the ammeter and the shunt.

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3 A proton and a deuteron, each moving with velocity v enter simultaneously in
the region of magnetic field B acting normal to the direction of velocity. Trace
their trajectories establishing the relationship between the two.
4 A galvanometer of coil resistance 50 Ω shows full scale deflection for a
current of 5 mA. How can it be converted into a voltmeter of range 0 to 15 V?
5 Why is the magnetic field radial in a moving coil galvanometer? Explain how
it is achieved.

LEVEL 3

1 The wire shown below carries a current I. Determine magnetic field at the
centre. Radius of circular section is R.

2 To increase the current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer by 50%, its

resistance is increased so that the new resistance becomes twice its initial
resistance. By what factor does its voltage sensitivity change?
3 A helium nucleus makes a full rotation in a circle of radius 0.8 m in 2 seconds.
Find the value of the magnetic field at the centre of the circle.

3 MARKS QUESTIONS
LEVEL-1

1 State the underlying principle of working of a moving coil galvanometer. Write

two reasons why a galvanometer cannot be used as such to measure current
in a given circuit. Name any two factors on which the current sensitivity of a
galvanometer depends.
2 Using Biot-Savart law derive the expression for the magnetic field due to a
current carrying loop of radius R at a point which is at a distance of x from its
centre along the axis of the loop.
3 Derive an expression for a force acting per unit length between two long
straight parallel conductors carrying current in the same direction and kept
near each other. Hence also define one Ampere.
4 State Ampere’s circuital law. Derive an expression for magnetic field intensity
at a point due to a current carrying straight wire of infinite length.
5 Derive an expression for the torque on a rectangular coil of area A carrying
current I and paced in a magnetic field B which is at an angle Ɵ with the
normal to the plane of the coil.
LEVEL 2
1 A wire carrying a steady current is first bent in form of a circular coil of one
turn and then in form of a circular coil of two turns. Find the ratio of magnetic
fields at the centres of the two coils.

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2 A galvanometer of resistance ‘G’ can be converted into a voltmeter of range
(0-V) volts by connecting a resistance ‘R’ in series with it. How much
resistance will be required to change its range from 0 to V/2 ?
3 A voltmeter V of resistance 400 Ω is used to measure the potential difference
connected (in parallel) across a100 Ω resistance which is connected in
series with a 200Ω resistor to which a 84 V battery source is connected,
(i) What will be the reading on the voltmeter? (ii) Calculate the potential
difference across 100 Ω resistance before the voltmeter is connected

LEVEL 3
1 Two long parallel wires separated by 0.1 m carry currents of 1A and 2A
respectively in opposite directions. A third current-carrying wire parallel to
both of them is placed in the same plane such that it feels no net magnetic
force. Find the distance of the third wire.
2 A hollow cylindrical conductor of radii a and b carries a current I uniformly
spread over its cross section. Find the magnetic field B for points inside the
body of the conductor at a distance r from the axis.
3 A long straight conductor PQ, carrying a current of 60 A, is fixed
horizontally. Another long conductor XY is kept parallel to PQ at a distance
of 4 mm, in air. Conductor XY is free to move and carries a current ‘I’.
Calculate the magnitude and direction of current ‘I’ for which the magnetic
repulsion just balances the weight of the conductor XY.
5 MARKS QUESTIONS
LEVEL 1
1 (a) State the principle of the working of a moving coil galvanometer, giving its
labelled diagram. (b) “Increasing the current sensitivity of a galvanometer
may not necessarily increase its voltage sensitivity.” Justify this statement (c)
Outline the necessary steps to convert a galvanometer of resistance G into a
voltmeter of a given range.

LEVEL 2
1 (a) Derive an expression for the torque on a rectangular coil of area A carrying
current I and paced in a magnetic field B which is at an angle θ with the normal
to the plane of the coil.
(b) A rectangular loop of wire of size 2 cm × 5 cm
carries a steady current of 1 A. A straight long wire
carrying 4 A current is kept near the loop as shown
in the figure. If the loop and the wire are coplanar,
find (i) the torque acting on the loop and (ii) the
magnitude and direction of the force on the loop
due to the current carrying wire.

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 LEVEL 3
1 (a) A uniform magnetic field B is set up along the positive x-axis. A particle of
charge ‘q’ and mass ‘m’ moving with a velocity v enters the field at the origin
in X-Y plane such that it has velocity components both along and
perpendicular to the magnetic field B. Trace, giving reason, the trajectory
followed by the particle. Find out the expression for the distance moved by
the particle along the magnetic field in one rotation.
(b) Two small identical
circular coils marked 1, 2
carry equal currents and
are placed with their
geometric axes
perpendicular to each other
as shown in the figure.
Derive an expression for
the resultant magnetic field
at O.

NUMERICALS
LEVEL 1
1 A circular coil of wire consisting of 100 turns, each of radius 8 cm carries 2
a current of 0.4 A. What is the magnitude of magnetic field at its centre?
2 A long straight wire carries a current of 35 A. What is the magnitude of 2
magnetic field at a point 20 cm from the wire?
3 An electron of kinetic energy 25KeV moves perpendicular to the 2
direction of a uniform magnetic field of 0.2 milli Tesla. Calculate the time
period of rotation of the electron in the magnetic field?
4 Two parallel straight wires X and Y separated by a distance 5 cm in air 2
carry current of 10 A and 5 A respectively in opposite direction as shown
in diagram. Calculate the magnitude and direction of the force on a 20
cm length of the wire Y.

LEVEL 2
1 A galvanometer gives deflection of 10 division per mA. The resistance 3
of galvanometer is 60 Ω. If a shunt of 2.5 Ω is connected to the
galvanometer and there are 50 divisions on the galvanometer scale,
what maximum current can this galvanometer read?

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2 A straight wire of mass 200 g and length 1.5 m carries a current of 2 A. 3
It is suspended in mid-air by a uniform horizontal magnetic field. What
is the magnitude of the field?
3 A long straight wire in the horizontal plane carries a current of 50 A in 3
north to south direction. Give the magnitude and direction of B at a point
2.5 m east of the wire.

LEVEL 3
1 A beam of proton passes undeflected through a region of mutually 3
perpendicular electric and magnetic fields of magnitudes 50 kVm -1 and
100 mT respectively. Calculate the velocity of the beam. If this beam of
current I strikes a screen with n protons per second, Find the force on the
screen.
2 A circular coil of 200 turns and radius 10 cm is placed in a uniform 5
magnetic field of 0.5 T, normal to the plane of the coil. If the current in in
the coil is 3.0 A, calculate the
(a) total torque on the coil
(b) total force on the coil
(c) Average force on each electron in the coil, due to the magnetic field.
3 A proton and an alpha particle having the same kinetic energy are, in turn, 5
passed through a region of uniform magnetic field, acting normal to the
plane of the paper and travel in circular paths. Deduce the ratio of the
radii of the circular paths described by them.

CASE BASED QUESTIONS

1 FORCE ON A MOVING CHARGE 4
Stationary charge creates an electric field but a moving charge creates a
magnetic field also that can affect other moving charges. It was observed by
Oersted. He saw that if a magnetic needle is placed near current carrying
wire it shows slight deflection. The direction of the magnetic field can be
determined by using the Right hand thumb rule. Magnetic field is the space
around a magnet, a current carrying conductor up to which it can attract or
repel magnetic material. Force on a moving charge in magnetic field is given
by the formula
𝐹 = q (𝑣 X𝐵 )
Where q = charge on particle
v = velocity of charge particle
B = magnetic field and
F = magnetic force
When a current carrying conductor is placed in an external magnetic field, it
experiences a mechanical force. A conductor of length 1 carrying current I
held in a magnetic field B at an angle θ with it, experiences a force given by
F = IlB sin θ.

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 1. Moving charge can create
(a) Electric field (b) magnetic field
(c) Both electric and magnetic field (d) none of them

2. If a current is flowing from south to north in a straight wire what will be the
direction of magnetic field to its left side
(a) Outward (b) inward (c) Towards right (d) towards left

3. Which of the following cannot be the source of magnetic field?

(a) Current carrying wire (b) moving electron
(c) Moving proton (d) stationary charge

4. Force acting on a conductor of length 10 m carrying a current of 6A kept

perpendicular to the magnetic field of 2T is
(a) 60N (b) 120N (c) 90N (d) 100N

COMPETENCY BASED QUESTION

1 CONVERSION OF GALVANOMETER TO VOLTMETER 4

A galvanometer can be converted into voltmeter of given range by
connecting a suitable resistance Rs in series with the galvanometer, whose
value is given by
𝑉
Rs = 𝐼𝑔 – G
where V is the voltage to be measured, Ig is the current for full scale
deflection of galvanometer and G is the resistance of galvanometer Series
resistor (Rs) increases range of voltmeter and the effective resistance of
galvanometer. It also protects the galvanometer from damage due to large
currents.
Voltmeter is a high resistance instrument and it is always connected in
parallel with the circuit element across which potential difference is to be
measured. In order to increase the range of voltmeter n times the value of
resistance to be connected in series with galvanometer is Rs = (n-1)G

i) 10 mA current can pass through a galvanometer of resistance 25Ω. What

resistance in series should be connected through it, so that it is converted
into a voltmeter of 100V?
a) 0.975Ω b) 99.75Ω c) 975 Ω d) 9975Ω

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 ii) There are 3 voltmeter A, B, C having the same range but their resistance
are 15000 Ω, 10000 Ω and 5000 Ω respectively. The best voltmeter amongst
them is the one whose resistance is
a) 5000 Ω b) 10000 Ω c) 15000 Ω d) all are equally good

iii) A milliammeter of range 0 to 25 mA and resistance of 10 Ω is to be

converted into a voltmeter with a range of 0 to 25 V. The resistance that
should be connected in series will be
a) 930 Ω b) 960 Ω c) 990 Ω d) 1010 Ω

iv) To convert a moving coil galvanometer (MCG) into a voltmeter

a) a high resistance R is connected in parallel with MCG
b) a low resistance R is connected in parallel with MCG
c) a low resistance R is connected in series with MCG
d) a high resistance R is connected in series with MCG
OR
v) The resistance of an ideal voltmeter is
a) zero b) low c) high d) infinity

CREATIVE & CRITICAL THINKING

1 TORQUE ON A RECTANGULAR LOOP PLACED IN UNIFORM 4

MAGNETIC FIELD
When a rectangular loop PQRS of sides 'a' and 'b' carrying current I is
placed in uniform magnetic field →, such that area vector → makes an
𝐵 𝐴
angle θ with direction of magnetic field, then forces on the arms QR and
SP of loop are equal, opposite and collinear, there by perfectly cancel
each other, whereas forces on the arms PQ and RS of loop are equal and
opposite but not collinear, they give rise to torque on the loop.

Force on side PQ or RS of loop is F = Ib sin90=Ib B and perpendicular

distance between two non-collinear forces is a sinθ

So, torque on the loop, τ=I AB sinθ

In vector form torque, → = → × →
τ 𝑀 𝐵
where M= NIA is called magnetic dipole moment of current loop and is
directed in direction of area vector A i-e., normal to the plane of loop.

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 1. A circular loop of area 1cm2, carrying a current of 10 A is placed in a
magnetic field of 0.1 T perpendicular to the plane of the loop. The torque
on the loop due to the magnetic field is
A) zero B) 10−4 Nm C)10−2 Nm D) 1 N m

2. Relation between magnetic moment and angular velocity is

A) M ∝ ω B) M ∝ ω2 C) M ∝ √ω D) none of these

3. A current loop in a magnetic field

A) can be in equilibrium in two orientations, both the equilibrium states are
unstable
B) can be in equilibrium in two orientations, one stable while the other is
unstable
C) experiences a torque whether the field is uniform or non-uniform in all
orientations
D) can be in equilibrium in one orientation.

4. The magnetic moment of a current I carrying circular coil of radius r and

number of turns N varies as
1 1
A) 𝑟2 B) 𝑟 C) r D) r2

_________________________________________________________

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 SELF ASSESSMENT TEST
CHAPTER 4
MM-25 TIME-40 MIN
INSTRUCTIONS- Q1-6 CARRY 1 MARK EACH
Q7 AND Q8- CARRY 2 MARKS EACH
Q9, AND Q10- CARRY 3 MARKS EACH
Q11-CASE BASED QS CARRIES 4 MARKS
Q12- CARRIES 5 MARKS
1 Which physical quantity has unit Wb/m2? 1
(a) Magnetic Flux (b) Magnetic Field
(c) Magnetic dipole moment (d) Torque
2 What is the magnitude of force per unit length on a current carrying wire 1
if 8 A flows at an angle of 300 with the direction of uniform magnetic field
of 1 T.
(a) 2 N/m (b)4 N/m (c) 0.5 N/m (d) 4√2 N/m
3 A magnetized needle of magnetic moment 0.5 J/T is placed at 300 with 1
the direction of magnetic field of 1 T. What is the torque acting on it?
(a) 0.5 Nm (b) 0.25 Nm (c) 0.625 Nm (d) 2.5 Nm
4 What is the SI unit of current sensitivity? 1
(a) Ampere/radian (b) Radian/Ampere (c) Ampere (d) Radian
5 Assertion (A): The magnetic field at the ends of a very long current 1
carrying solenoid is half of that at the centre.
Reason (R): If the solenoid is sufficiently long, the field within it is uniform.
6 Assertion (A): Magnetic field due to an infinite straight conductor varies 1
inversely as the distance from it.
Reason (R): The magnetic field due to a straight conductor is in the form
of concentric circles.
7 If only 10% of the total current can pass through a galvanometer of 2
resistance 45Ω, what value of shunt is required?
8 Using Ampere’s circuital law, derive the equation for magnetic field 2
strength at a point near a long straight conductor.
9 A wire loop is formed by joining two semi-circular wires of radii r1, and r2, 3
as shown in diagram. If the loop carries a current I, find the magnetic field
at the centre O.

10 (a) What is the principle of a moving coil galvanometer? 3

(b) Give two reasons to explain why a galvanometer cannot as such be
used to measure the value of the current in a given circuit.

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 (c)Define the terms: (i) voltage sensitivity and (ii) current sensitivity of a
galvanometer.
11 Lorentz forces- 4

A charge q moving with a velocity v in presence of both electric and

magnetic fields experience a force F = q [ E + v x B ]. If electric and
magnetic fields are perpendicular to each other and also perpendicular
to the velocity of the particle, the electric and magnetic forces are in
opposite directions. If we adjust the value of electric and magnetic field
such that magnitude of the two forces are equal. The total force on the
charge is zero and the charge will move in the fields undeflected.

1. What will be the value of velocity of the charge particle, when it moves
undeflected in a region where the electric field is perpendicular to the
magnetic field and the charge particle enters at right angles to the fields.
(a) v = E/B
(b) v = B/E
(c) v = EB
(d) v = EB/q

2. Proton, neutron, alpha particle and electron enter a region of uniform

magnetic field with same velocities. The magnetic field is perpendicular
to the velocity. Which particle will experience maximum force?
(a) proton
(b) electron
(c) alpha particle
(d) neutron

3. A charge particle moving with a constant velocity passing through a

space without any change in the velocity. Which can be true about the
region?
(a) E = 0, B = 0
(b) E ≠ 0, B ≠ 0
(c) E = 0, B ≠ 0
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 (d) All of these

4. Proton, electron and deuteron enter a region of uniform magnetic field

with same electric potential-difference at right angles to the field. Which
one has a more curved trajectory?
(a) electron
(b) proton
(c) deuteron
(d) all will have same radius of circular path

12 (i) State and explain Ampere’s circuital law? 5

(ii) Figure shows a long straight wire of a circular cross-section (radius a)
carrying steady current I. The current I is uniformly distributed across this
cross-section. Calculate the magnetic field in the region r < a and r > a

************

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 UNIT III MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT AND MAGNETISM
CH–5: Magnetism and Matter

Gist of the chapter

• A magnet is a substance or object that produces a magnetic field.

• These days magnets have a lot of applications in areas such as electrical
devices, motors, fans, power generation, etc.
• All magnets exhibit magnetic force around them which is represented
in magnetic field lines.
• These lines start from the north pole of the magnet to the south pole.
• The earth itself exhibits magnetic field lines around making it act like a magnet.

The properties of magnetic lines of force are as follows:

• Magnetic field lines emerge from the north pole and merge at the south pole.
• As the distance between the poles increases, the density of magnetic lines
decreases.
• The direction of field lines inside the magnet is from the South Pole to the North
Pole.
• Magnetic lines do not intersect with each other.
• The strength of the magnetic lines is the same throughout and is proportional
to how close are the lines.

Magnetic field pattern of a bar magnet

Coulomb's Law of Magnetic Force

According to Coulomb’s law of magnetic force,

the force between two magnetic poles of strengths qm1 and
qm2 lying at a distance r is directly proportional to the
product of the pole strengths and inversely proportional
to the square of the distance between their centers.
A magnetic dipole is a magnetic north pole and a
magnetic south pole separated by a small distance.
Magnetic dipole moments have dimensions of current
times area or energy divided by magnetic flux density.

m = 𝑞𝑚 × 2𝑙 direction south to north pole of magnet.

Magnetic field intensity due to bar magnet

Case 1: on a point on axial line

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Case 2: on a point on equatorial line

Gauss Law of Magnetism essentially states that the flux through a closed surface/loop
is zero.

torque on a magnetic dipole (bar magnet) in a uniform magnetic field

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Magnetic Properties of Materials
Substances can be divided into three groups based on their magnetic properties i.e.
diamagnetic, paramagnetic, and ferromagnetic. They can be classified based on their
magnetic susceptibility.
Diamagnetic Materials
• The materials that develop temporary magnetization in the opposite direction
to that of the magnetic field in which they are placed are known as Diamagnetic
materials.
• In simple words, they are repelled by magnets.
• Their magnetic susceptibility is small and negative.
• Examples of diamagnetic materials are Bismuth, Copper, Zinc, Lead, etc
Paramagnetic Materials
The materials that develop temporary magnetization in the same direction as that of
the magnetic field in which they are placed are known as Paramagnetic materials.
• They are slightly attracted by magnets.
• They have positive but very low susceptibility.
• Examples of Paramagnetic materials are Aluminium, Sodium, Calcium, etc
Ferromagnetic Materials
The materials that develop temporary but strong magnetization in the same direction
to that of the magnetic field in which they are placed are known as Ferromagnetic
materials.
• They are strongly attracted by magnets.
• They have positive and high susceptibility.
• Examples of Ferromagnetic materials are Iron, Nickel, Cobalt, Haematite, etc

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Effect of temperature on magnetic properties

https://www.britannica.com/video/185491/dependence-properties-temperature
According to Curie's Law, the magnetization in a paramagnetic material is directly
proportional to the applied magnetic field. If the object is heated, the magnetization is
viewed to be inversely proportional to the temperature

The Curie temperature (TC) of a ferroelectric material is the temperature at which the
material undergoes the phase transition from a low-temperature ferroelectric phase to
a high-temperature parmagnetic phase upon heating.

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=haVX24hOwQI

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CONCEPT MAP/MIND MAP

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 LEVEL- 1 MCQ
1 According to Gauss’s law for magnetism
a) ∮ 𝐵 ⃗⃗⃗⃗ = 0
⃗ . 𝑑𝑠 ⃗⃗⃗⃗ = 0
⃗ 𝑋𝑑𝑠
b) ∮ 𝐵 ⃗⃗⃗⃗ = 𝜇𝑜 d) ∮ 𝐵
⃗ . 𝑑𝑠
c) ∮ 𝐵 ⃗⃗⃗⃗ = 𝜇𝑜
⃗ 𝑋𝑑𝑠

2 The magnetic moment of a diamagnetic atom is

a) Equal to one b) Between zero and one
C) Equal to zero d) Much greater than one

3 Which among the following materials display higher magnetic susceptibility?

a. Ferromagnetic material
b. Paramagnetic material
c. Diamagnetic material
d. None of these options

4 A closely wound solenoid of 2000 turns and area of cross-section 1.6 x 10 -4 m2,
carrying a current of 4.0 A, is suspended through its centre allowing it to turn in
a horizontal plane. What is the magnetic moment associated with the solenoid?
a) 3.18 Am2 b) 2.08 Am2 c) 1.28 Am2 d) 4.38 Am2

5 A bar magnet of magnetic moment M, is placed in a magnetic field B. The

torque exerted on it is:
⃗⃗ 𝑋𝐵
a) 𝑀 ⃗ ⃗⃗ . 𝐵
b) 𝑀 ⃗ c) −𝐵⃗ .𝑀
⃗⃗ ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ . 𝐵
d) −𝑀𝜀 ⃗

6 Relative permittivity and permeability of a material are 𝜀𝑟 and µ𝑟 respectively.

Which of the following values of these quantities are allowed for a diamagnetic
material?
a) 𝜀𝑟 = 1.5, 𝜇𝑟 = 1.5 b) 𝜀𝑟 = 0, 𝜇𝑟 = 1.5
c) 𝜀𝑟 = 1.5, 𝜇𝑟 = 0.5 d) 𝜀𝑟 = 0.5, 𝜇𝑟 = 0.5

7 The relative magnetic permeability of a substance X is slightly less than unity

and that of substance Y is slightly more than unity, then
(a) X is paramagnetic and Y is ferromagnetic
(b) X is diamagnetic and Y is ferromagnetic
(c) X and Y both are paramagnetic
(d) X is diamagnetic and Y is paramagnetic

LEVEL- 2MCQ
8 An iron bar magnet of length 10 cm and cross-section 1 cm2 has a
magnetization of 102 A/m. Magnet’s pole strength is
a) 0.0025 Am b) 0.0015 Am c) 0.01 Am d) 0.002
Am

9 A short bar magnet placed with its axis at 30°with a uniform external magnetic
field of 0.25 T experiences a torque of magnitude equal to 4.5 x 10 -2 J. What is
the magnitude of magnetic moment of the magnet?
a) 0.26 J/T b) 0.36 J/T c) 0.43 J/T d) 0.30 J/T

10 A short bar magnet has a magnetic moment 1.2 Am 2. The magnetic field at a
distance 0.1 m on its axis will be (μo = 4π x 10-7T.m / A)

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 a) 1.2 x 10-4 T b) 2.4 x 10-4 T c) 2.4 x 104 T d) 1.2 x 104 T

LEVEL 3 MCQ
11 A short bar magnet free to rotate on horizontal plane has a magnetic moment of
0.48 J/T. Magnetic field produced by the magnet at a distance of 10 cm from the
centre of the magnet on the equatorial lines (normal bisector) of the magnet has
a direction and magnitude of
a) 0.43 G along N-S direction b) 0.38 G along N-S direction
c) 0.55 G along N-S direction d) 0.48 G along N-S direction

12 The force between two magnetic poles is F. If the distance between the poles
and pole strengths of each pole are doubled, then the force experienced is :
a) F b) F / 4 c) 2F d) F / 2

13 A cube-shaped permanent magnet is made of a ferromagnetic material with a

magnetization M of 4 x 105 A/m. The side length is 2 cm. Magnetic field due to
the magnet at a point 10 cm from the magnet along its axis is
a) 0.003T b) 0.001T c) 0.002T d) 0.004T

ASSERTION–REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Each question contains STATEMENT – 1 (Assertion) and STATEMENT – 2 (Reason).
Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. So
select the correct choice :
Choices are:
(A)Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True; Statement – 2 is a correct
explanation
for Statement – 1.
(B) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is True; Statement – 2 is NOT a
correct
explanation for Statement – 1.
(C) Statement – 1 is True, Statement – 2 is False.
(D) Statement – 1 is False, Statement – 2 is True.

14 ASSERTION: Basic difference between an electric line and magnetic line of

force is that former is discontinuous and the latter is continuous or endless
REASON: No electric lines of forces exists inside a charged conductor but
magnetic lines do exist inside a magnet
15 ASSERTION: At neutral point, a compass needle point out in any arbitrary
direction.
REASON: Magnetic field of earth is balanced by field due to magnets at the
neutral points.
16 ASSERTION: When a magnetic dipole is placed in a non-uniform magnetic field,
only a torque acts on the dipole.
REASON: Force would not act on magnetic dipole if magnetic field were non
uniform.
17 ASSERTION : Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) is a useful diagnostic tool for
producing images of various parts of human body.
REASON : Protons of various tissues of the human body play a role in MRI.

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18 ASSERTION : Ferro-magnetic substances become paramagnetic above Curie
temp.
REASON : Domains are destroyed at high temperature.
19 ASSERTION : The sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is increased by
placing a suitable magnetic material as a core inside the coil.
REASON : Soft iron has high magnetic permeability and cannot be easily
magnetized or demagnetized.
20 ASSERTION : The poles of magnet can not be separated by breaking into two
pieces.
REASON : The magnetic moment will be reduced to half when a magnet is
broken into two equal pieces.

LEVEL 1 (2 M QUESTIONS)
1 Is the steady electric current the only source of magnetic field? Justify your
answer
2 What are permanent magnets? Give one example.
3 Which of the following substances are diamagnetic?
Bi, Al, Na, Cu, Ca and Ni
4 Which of the following substances are para-magnetic ?
Bi, Al, Cu, Ca, Pb, Ni
5 Relative permeability of a material, µr = 0.5. Identify the nature of the magnetic
material and write its relation to magnetic susceptibility.
6 In what way is the behaviour of a diamagnetic material different from that of a
paramagnetic, when kept in an external magnetic field?
7 Define magnetic susceptibility of a material. Name two elements, one having
positive susceptibility and the other having negative susceptibility. What does
negative susceptibility signify?
LEVEL 2 (2 M QUESTIONS)
8 A proton has spin and magnetic moment just like an electron. Why then its
effect is neglected in magnetism of materials?
9 The figure shows the variation of intensity of magnetisation ‘I’ versus the
applied magnetic field intensity ‘H’ for two magnetic materials A and B :

(a) Identify the materials A and B.

(b) Why does the material B, has a larger susceptibility than A, for a given field
at constant temperature?
10 Draw magnetic field lines when a
(i) diamagnetic,
(ii) paramagnetic substance is placed in an external magnetic field.

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 Which magnetic property distinguishes this behaviour of the field lines due to
the two substances?
11 Depict the behaviour of magnetic field lines when
(i) a diamagnetic material and
(ii) a paramagnetic material is placed in an external magnetic field.
Mention briefly the properties of these materials which explain this
distinguishing behaviour.
12 From a molecular viewpoint, discuss the temperature dependence of
susceptibility for diamagnetism, paramagnetism and ferromagnetism.

LEVEL 3 (2 M QUESTIONS)

13 Three identical bar magnets are riveted

together at the centre in the same plane, as
shown in Fig. This system is placed at rest
in a slowly varying magnetic field. It is found
that the system of magnets does not show
any motion. The north-south poles of one
magnet are shown in Fig. Determine the
poles of the remaining two.

LEVEL 1 (3 M QUESTIONS)
1 (i) The permeability of a magnetic material is 0.9983. Name the type of
magnetic materials it represents.
(ii) The susceptibility of a magnetic material is 1.9 × 10 -5. Name the type of
magnetic materials it represents.
(iii) The susceptibility of a magnetic material is – 4.2 × 10-6. Name the type of
magnetic materials it represents.
2 Distinguish between dia, para and ferromagnetic materials.

LEVEL 2 (3 M QUESTIONS)
3 Derive expression for magnetic field on an axial point of a magnetic dipole

4 Derive expression for magnetic field on an equatorial line of a magnetic dipole.

LEVEL 3 (3 M QUESTIONS)
5 A circular coil of N turns and radius R carries a current I. It is unwound and
rewound to make another coil of radius R/2, current I remaining the same.
Calculate the ratio of the magnetic moments of the new coil and the original coil
6 A bar magnet of magnetic moment m and moment of inertia I (about the centre,
perpendicular to length) is cut into two equal pieces perpendicular to the length.
Let T be the period of oscillations of the original magnet about an axis through
the midpoint, perpendicular to the length, in a magnetic field B. What would be
the similar period ‘T’ for each piece?
7 A small compass needle of magnetic moment ‘m’ is free to turn about an axis
perpendicular to the direction of uniform magnetic field ‘B’. The moment of
inertia of the needle about the axis is ‘I’. The needle is slightly disturbed from

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 its stable position and then released. Prove that it executes simple harmonic
motion. Hence deduce the expression for its time period.

LEVEL 1 (5M QUESTIONS)

1 a) How does the (i) pole strength and (ii) magnetic moment of each part of
magnet change if it is cut into two equal pieces transverse to its length?
b) If a toroid uses bismuth for its core, will the field in the core be (slightly)
greater or (slightly) less than when the core is empty?
c) A certain region of space is to be shielded from magnetic fields. Suggest
a method.
LEVEL 2 (5M QUESTIONS)
2 a) Define a neutral point. Draw lines of force when two identical magnets are
placed at a defined distance apart with their N-poles facing each other and
locate the neutral points.
b) A closely wound solenoid of 2000 turns and area of cross-section 1.6 x 10-
4m2, carrying a current of 4.0A is suspended through its centre allowing it to

turn in a horizontal plane.

(i) What is magnetic moment associated with the solenoid?
(ii) What are the force and torque on the solenoid if a uniform magnetic
field of 7.5x 10-2Tis set up at an angle of 30o with the axis of the
solenoid?
3 a) Write down the four most important properties of magnetic field lines
caused by a bar magnet.
b)Two short bar magnets of length 1 cm each have magnetic moments 1.20
Am2 and 1.00 A m2 respectively. They are placed on a horizontal table
parallel to each other with their N poles pointing towards the South. They
have a common magnetic equator and are separated by a distance of 20.0
cm. The value of the resultant horizontal magnetic induction at the mid-point
O of the line joining their centres is close to (Horizontal component of earth’s
magnetic induction is 3.6 × 10–5 Wb/m2).

LEVEL 3 (5M QUESTIONS)

4 a) i) Why does a cooled paramagnetic sample have more magnetization (for
the same magnetising field)?
ii) Why, on the other hand, is diamagnetism almost temperature
independent?
b) A magnetic needle of magnetic moment 6.7 × 10–2 A m2 and moment of
inertia 7.5 × 10–6 kg m2 is performing simple harmonic oscillations in a
magnetic field of 0.01 T. How much is the time taken for 10 complete
oscillations ?
5 a) A magnetic dipole is acted upon by two magnetic fields which are inclined
to each other at an angle of 75°. One of the fields has a magnitude of 15
mT. The dipole attains stable equilibrium at an angle of 30° with this field.
The magnitude of the other field (in mT) is close to how much?

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 LEVEL 1 (NUMERICALS)
1 Find curie constant for a sample from 𝜒 versus 1/T graph shown in fig.

2 How is magnetic force between two poles affected when strength of each pole
is doubled and distance between them is halved?

LEVEL 2 (NUMERICALS)
1 Two short magnets P and Q are placed one over the another with their
magnetic axis mutually perpendicular to each other. It is found that resultant
magnetic field at a point on the prolongation of magnetic axis of P is inclined at
30o with the axis. Compare the magnetic moments of the two magnets.
2 A magnetised steel wire 31.4cm long has a pole strength of 0.2Am. it is bent in
the form of a semicircle. Calculate its magnetic moment..
3 Two identical thin bar magnets, each of length L and pole strength m are placed
at right angles to each other, with the N pole of one touching the S-pole of the
other. Find the magnetic moment of the system.

LEVEL 3 (NUMERICALS)
1 Two identical magnets with a length 10cm and weight 50gf each are arranged
freely with their like poles facing in a vertical glass tube. The upper magnet
hangs in air above the lower one so that the distance between the nearest poles
of the magnets is 3mm. Determine the pole strength of the poles of these
magnets.
2 Two identical short bar magnets each of magnetic moment 12.5Am 2 are placed
at a separation of 10 cm between their centers, such that their axis are
perpendicular to each other. Find the magnetic field at a point midway between
the two magnets.
3 A bar magnet of length ‘l’ and magnetic dipole
moment ‘M’ is bent in the form of an arc as shown
in fig. Find the new dipole moment

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 4 What is the net magnetic moment of the
system of magnetic poles shown in fig. below.

CASE BASED/ SOURCE BASED QUESTIONS

1 Gauss's law for magnetism states that the magnetic flux B across any closed
surface is zero; that is, div B = 0, where div is the divergence operator. This law
is consistent with the observation that isolated magnetic poles (monopoles) do
not exist.
(i) The net magnetic flux through any closed surface, kept in a
magnetic field is
µ𝑜
(a) Zero (b) (c)
4𝜋
4µ𝑜
4𝜋µ𝑜 (d) 𝜋
(ii) Which of the following is not
the consequence of Gauss’s
law?
(a) The magnetic poles
always exist as unlike
pairs of equal
strength.
(b) If several magnetic
lines of force enter in a
closed surface, then an equal number of lines of force must
leave that surface.
(c) Monopole do not exist in magnetism.
(d) There are abundant sources or sinks of magnetic field inside
a closed surface.
(iii) A closed surface S encloses a magnetic dipole of magnetic
moment 2ml. The magnetic flux emerging from the surface is
2𝑚
(a) µ𝑜 𝑚 (b) zero (c) 2µ𝑜 𝑚 (d) µ𝑜

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 (iv) In a coaxial, straight cable, the central conductor and the outer
conductor carry equal
currents in opposite
direction. The magnetic
field is zero

(a) Point P
(b) for radius more than
a and less than b
(c) Inside the outer
conductor
(d) Inbetween the two
conductors

2 According to Neil Bohr’s atom model,

the negatively charged electron is
revolving around a positively charged
nucleus in a circular orbit of radius r.
The revolving electron in a closed path
constitutes an electric current. The
motion of the electron in anticlockwise
direction produces conventional
current in the clockwise direction.
Current, I = e/T where T is the period of revolution of the electron. If v is
the orbital velocity of the electron, then Due to the orbital motion of the
electron, there will be orbital magnetic moment μl

𝜇𝐿 = 𝐼𝐴, 𝑤ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒𝐴𝑖𝑠𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑜𝑓𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑜𝑟𝑏𝑖𝑡
𝑒𝑣 𝑒𝑣𝑟 𝑒 𝑒
𝜇𝑙 = 2𝜋𝑟 𝜋𝑟 2 = . If m is mass of electron then 𝜇𝑙 = 2𝑚 (𝑚𝑣𝑟) = 2𝑚 𝑙
2
where mvr = lcalled angular momentum of the electron about the central
nucleus. Bohr hypothesized that the angular momentum of the orbiting
𝑛ℎ
electron has only discrete values given by the equation. 𝑙 = 2𝜋

Substituting this in above equation magnetic moment of orbiting electron

is

𝑒 𝑛ℎ 𝑛𝑒ℎ
𝜇𝑙 = 2𝑚 2𝜋 = 4𝜋𝑚 The minimum value of magnetic moment is (𝜇𝑙 )𝑚𝑖𝑛 =
𝑒ℎ
. This value is called Bohr magneton. By substituting the values of e,
4𝜋𝑚
h and m the value of Bohr magneton is 9.27 x 10-24 Am2.
1. If an electron in an atom revolves around a nucleus in clockwise manner, the
direction of circulating current in the orbit is
a) Clockwise direction b) Perpendicular direction w.r.t orbit
c) Anti-clockwise direction d) none of the above

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 2. The value of Gyromagnetic ratio is
a) 88 × 109 C kg-1 b) 8.8 × 1010 C g-1
c) 8.8 × 1010mC kg-1 d) All of the above
3. Angular momentum of an electron in an orbit mainly depends on
a) Radius of the orbit b) Velocity of electron in orbit
c) Principal quantum number d) None of the above
4. The minimum value of magnetic moment of revolving electron is
a) eh/4m b) ehm/4
c) eh/4πm d) None of the above
5. The SI unit of magnetic moment of electron is
a) Am2 b) A2m2 c)A2m d)Am

COMPETENCY BASED
1 Ferromagnetism : In the absence of an external magnetic field, some of
the electrons in a ferromagnetic material have their magnetic field, some of
the electrons in a ferromagnetic material have their magnetic dipole moments
aligned by means of a quantum physical interaction called exchange coupling,
producing regions (domains) within the material with strong magnetic dipole
moments. An external field can align the magnetic dipole moment of those
regions, producing a strong dipole moment can partially persist when external
field is removed. If external field is nonuniform, the ferromagnetic material is
attracted to region of greater magnetic field. These properties are called
ferromagnetism. Exchange coupling disappears when a sample’s
temperature exceeds its Curie temperature, and then the sample has only
paramagnetism.
(i) Susceptibility is positive and small for
(a) Paramagnetic substances
(b) Ferromagnetic substances
(c) Non- magnetic substances
(d) Diamagnetic substances
(ii) If a bar magnet of pole strength m and magnetic moment M is cut
equally in five parts parallel to its axis and again four equal parts
perpendicular to its axis then the pole strength and magnetic
moments of each piece are respectively,
𝑚 𝑚 𝑚 𝑚 𝑚 𝑀 𝑚 𝑀
(a) 20 , 20 (b) , (c) , (d) ,4
4 20 5 20 4
(iii) If the magnetizing field on a ferromagnetic material is increased, its
permeability
(a) Is decreased (c) is increased
(b) Is unaffected (d) may be increased or decreased
(iv) The variation of magnetic susceptibility with temperature of a
ferromagnetic material can be plotted as

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 CCT
1 Magnetisation and magnetic Intensity

When the atomic dipoles are aligned partially or fully, there is a magnetic moment
in the direction of the field in any small volume of the material. The actual
magnetic field inside material placed in a magnetic field is the sum of the applied
magnetic field and the magnetic field due to magnetization. This field is called
magnetic intensity (H)

𝐵
𝐻 = 𝜇 − 𝑀 where M is magnetization of the material, µo is the permittivity of the
𝑜
vacuum and B is the total magnetic field. The measure that tells us how a
magnetic material responds to an external field is given by a dimensionless
quantity is appropriately known as magnetic susceptibility: for a certain magnetic
materials, intensity of magnetization is directly proportional to the magnetic
intensity.

(i) Magnetisation of a sample is

(a) Volume of sample per unit magnetic moment
(b) Net magnetic moment per unit volume
(c) Ratio of magnetic moment and pole strength
(d) Ratio of pole strength to magnetic moment.
(ii) Identify wrongly matched quantity and unit pair
(a) Pole strength------ ----Am
(b) Magnetic susceptibility ---- dimensionless number
(c) Intensity of magnetisation----Am-1
(d) Magnetic permeability---------Henry m
(iii) A solenoid has core of a material with relative permeability 500 and its
windings carrying a current of 1A. The number of turns of the solenoid
is 500 per meter. The magnetization of the material is nearly
(a) 2.5 x 103 Am-1 (b)2.5x 105 Am-1 (c)2.0x 103Am-1 (d)2.0x 105 Am-1
(iv) The relative permeability of iron is 6000. Its magnetic susceptibility is
(a) 5999 (b) 6001 (c) 6000 x 10-7 (d) 6000x107

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 SELF ASSESSMENT
TOTAL MARKS: 25 Time: 40 min
S.No. QUESTIONS Marks
One mark questions
MCQ
1 What is the property of a material that allows it to create a permanent 1
magnet?
a)Diamagnetism c) Ferromagnetism
b)Para magnetism d) Thermoelectricity
2. What is the significance of the Curie temperature in magnetism? 1
a) The curie temperature is the temperature at which magnets
stop working
b) The curie temperature is only relevant for non-magnetic
materials
c) The curie temperature makes the transition from
ferromagnetism to paramagnetism in a material.
d) The curie temperature determines the colour of a magnet.
3 Points A and B are located perpendicular to the axis of a 2cm long 1
bar magnet at large distances x and 3x from its centre on opposite
sides. The ratio of the magnetic fields at A and B will be
approximately equal to
1:9 (b) 2:9 (c) 27:1 (d) 9:1
4 The magnetic moment of a diamagnetic atom is 1
a) Equal to one b) Between zero and one
C) Equal to zero d) Much greater than one
Assertion and reasoning
5 ASSERTION: The poles of a bar magnet cannot be separated 1
REASON: Magnetic monopoles do not exist.
6 ASSERTION: When a magnetic dipole is placed in a non-uniform 1
magnetic field, only a torque acts on the dipole.
REASON: Force would not act on magnetic dipole if magnetic field
were non uniform.

Two mark questions

7 A uniform magnetic field gets modified as shown below when two 2
specimens X and Y are placed in it. Identify whether specimens X
and Y are diamagnetic, paramagnetic or ferromagnetic.

8 Write two point of difference between a diamagnetic and a 2

paramagnetic substance.

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 Three marks question
9 A bar magnet of magnetic moment 1.5 𝐽𝑇 −1 lies aligned with the 3
direction of a uniform magnetic field of 0.22T.
(a) What is the amount of work required by an external torque to
turn the magnet so as to align its magnetic moment
(i) Normal to the field direction? And (ii) opposite to the
field direction?
(b) What is the torque on the magnet in case (i) and (ii)
10 (a) Show that the time period (T) of oscillations of a freely 3
suspended magnetic dipole of magnetic moment (m) in a
𝐼
uniform magnetic field (B) is given by = 2𝜋√𝑚𝐵 , where 𝐼 is a
moment of inertia of the magnetic dipole.
(b) Identify the following magnetic materials:
(i) A material having susceptibility -0.00015
(ii) A material having susceptibility 10−5
Four marks case based question
11 According to Neil Bohr’s atom 4
model, the negatively charged
electron is revolving around a
positively charged nucleus in a
circular orbit of radius r. The
revolving electron in a closed
path constitutes an electric
current. The motion of the
electron in anticlockwise
direction produces
conventional current in the clockwise direction. Current, I = e/T
where T is the period of revolution of the electron. If v is the orbital
velocity of the electron, then Due to the orbital motion of the
electron, there will be orbital magnetic moment μl

𝜇𝐿 = 𝐼𝐴, 𝑤ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒𝐴𝑖𝑠𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑜𝑓𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑜𝑟𝑏𝑖𝑡
𝑒𝑣 𝑒𝑣𝑟
𝜇𝑙 = 𝜋𝑟 2 = .
2𝜋𝑟 2𝑒 𝑒
If m is mass of electron then 𝜇𝑙 = 2𝑚 (𝑚𝑣𝑟) = 2𝑚 𝑙
where mvr = l called angular momentum of the electron about the
central nucleus. Bohr hypothesized that the angular momentum
of the orbiting electron has only discrete values given by the
𝑛ℎ
equation. 𝑙 =
2𝜋

Substituting this in above equation magnetic moment of orbiting

electron is
𝑒 𝑛ℎ 𝑛𝑒ℎ
𝜇𝑙 = 2𝑚 2𝜋 = 4𝜋𝑚 The minimum value of magnetic moment is
𝑒ℎ
(𝜇𝑙 )𝑚𝑖𝑛 = . This value is called Bohr magneton. By
4𝜋𝑚

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 substituting the values of e, h and m the value of Bohr
magneton is 9.27 x 10-24 Am2.
1. If an electron in an atom revolves around a nucleus in clockwise
manner, the direction of circulating current in the orbit is
a) Clockwise direction b) Perpendicular direction
w.r.t orbit
c) Anti-clockwise direction d) none of the above
2. The value of Gyromagnetic ratio is
a) 88 × 109 C kg-1 b) 8.8 × 1010 C g-1
10
c) 8.8 × 10 mC kg -1 d) All of the above
3. Angular momentum of an electron in an orbit mainly depends on
a) Radius of the orbit b) Velocity of electron in
orbit
c) Principal quantum number d) None of the above
4. The minimum value of magnetic moment of revolving electron is
a) eh/4m b) ehm/4
c) eh/4πm d) None of the above

OR
5. The SI unit of magnetic moment of electron is
a) Am2 b) A2m2 c)A2m d)Am

Five marks question

12 (a) Derive an expression for magnetic field intensity due to a 5
magnetic dipole of a bar magnet at a point on its axial line.
(b) The magnetic susceptibility of magnesium at 300K is
1.2 × 105 . At what temperature will its magnetic susceptibility
become 1.44 × 105 ?

*****************For detailed answer kindly refer part 2**************

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 UNIT IV ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION AND ALTERNATING CURRENTS
CH 6 ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
Syllabus:
Faraday's laws, induced EMF and current; Lenz's Law, Self and mutual induction.

GIST

1. Faraday's Laws of Electromagnetic Induction:

Faraday's laws describe how a changing magnetic field can produce an electric current
in a conductor.

• First Law: Any change in the magnetic field within a closed loop induces an
electromotive force (EMF) in the wire.
• Second Law: The induced EMF is equal to the negative rate of change of the
magnetic flux through the loop. Mathematically, it is expressed as:

2. Induced EMF and Current:

• When a conductor experiences a change in magnetic flux, an EMF is induced,

generating a current if the conductor forms a closed circuit.
• The direction of the induced current is such that it opposes the change in
magnetic flux (Lenz's Law).

3. Lenz's Law:

Lenz's Law provides the direction of the induced current and EMF. It states that the
direction of the induced EMF and current will be such that it opposes the change in
magnetic flux that produced it. This law is a manifestation of the conservation of
energy.

Mathematically, Lenz's Law is represented by the negative sign in Faraday's law:

4. Self-Induction:

Self-induction is the phenomenon where a change in the current flowing through a coil
induces an EMF in the same coil.

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 • Inductance (L): The property of a coil that quantifies self-induction. The

induced EMF is given by: .

5. Mutual Induction:

Mutual induction occurs when a change in current in one coil induces an EMF in a
nearby coil.

• Mutual Inductance (M): The property quantifying the induced EMF in one coil
due to the rate of change of current in another coil. The induced EMF in coil 2
due to the change in current in coil 1 is:

where M is the mutual inductance, I1 is the current in coil

1, and E2 is the induced EMF in coil 2.

Summary

Electromagnetic induction is the process of generating an electric current by changing

the magnetic field. Faraday's laws quantify this induction, stating that a changing
magnetic flux induces an EMF. Lenz's law provides the direction of the induced EMF
and current, ensuring it opposes the change in magnetic flux. Self-induction describes
the induction of EMF in the same coil due to changes in its own current, while mutual
induction describes the induction of EMF in one coil due to changes in current in
another coil. These principles are foundational for many electrical technologies,
including transformers and electric generators.

CONCEPT MAP:

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 MCQ
LEVEL – 1
1. Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction states that the induced EMF in a
circuit is directly proportional to:
a) the resistance of the circuit
b) the magnetic flux through the circuit
c) the rate of change of magnetic flux through the circuit
d) the current in the circuit
2. The unit of magnetic flux is:
a) Tesla b) Weber c) Gauss d) Henry
3. Lenz's law is a consequence of the law of:
a) conservation of energy b) conservation of charge
c) conservation of momentum d) conservation of mass
4. The direction of induced current in a conductor moving in a magnetic field is
given by:
a) Fleming's right-hand rule b) Fleming's left-hand rule c) Lenz's law d)
Ampere's law
5. Mutual induction between two coils depends on:
a) the resistance of the coils b) the rate of change of current in one coil
c) the physical dimensions of the coils d) the potential difference across the
coils
6. The SI unit of inductance is:
a) Farad b) Coulomb c) Weber d) Henry
7. Which of the following can cause an induced EMF in a coil?
a) A steady magnetic field b) A changing magnetic field
c) A constant current d) A steady electric field
8. The self-inductance of a solenoid depends on:
a) the length of the solenoid b) the number of turns in the solenoid
c) the area of cross-section of the solenoid d) all of the above
9. The induced EMF in a coil is zero when:
a) the coil is moved perpendicular to the magnetic field
b) the coil is stationary in a changing magnetic field
c) the magnetic flux through the coil remains constant
d) the magnetic field is zero
10. The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction was discovered by:
a) Newton b) Faraday c) Maxwell d) Ampere
11. In an AC generator, the frequency of the induced EMF depends on:
a) the speed of rotation of the coil b) the number of turns in the coil

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 c) the strength of the magnetic field d) all of the above
12. According to Lenz's law, the direction of induced current is such that it:
a) enhances the cause producing it b) opposes the cause
producing it
c) is in the direction of the cause producing it d) none of the above
13. The induced EMF is maximum when the angle between the magnetic field and
the normal to the coil is:
a) 0 degrees b) 45 degrees c) 90 degrees d) 180 degrees
14. Which law is used to determine the polarity of the induced EMF in a coil?
a) Faraday's law b) Ampere's law c) Lenz's law d) Ohm's law
15. The phenomenon of self-induction is the production of an induced EMF in:
a) a single coil due to a changing magnetic flux through it
b) two coils due to mutual influence
c) a coil due to its own changing magnetic field
d) a coil due to a steady current
16. In mutual induction, the induced EMF in the secondary coil is due to:
a) a steady current in the primary coil
b) a changing current in the primary coil
c) a constant magnetic field in the primary coil
d) a steady voltage in the primary coil
17. The principle of electromagnetic induction is used in:
a) electric motor b) electric generator c) transformer d) both b and c
18. When a magnet is moved towards a coil, the induced current in the coil is:
a) in the same direction as the motion of the magnet
b) in the opposite direction to the motion of the magnet
c) zero
d) depends on the speed of the magnet
19. The magnitude of the induced EMF depends on:
a) the velocity of the moving conductor
b) the strength of the magnetic field
c) the length of the conductor in the magnetic field
d) all of the above
20. The core of a transformer is made up of:
a) copper b) aluminium c) soft iron d) steel
21. The self-inductance of a coil is directly proportional to:
a) the current passing through the coil
b) the square of the number of turns in the coil

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 c) the resistance of the coil
d) the length of the coil
22. Which of the following is not a factor affecting the inductance of a coil?
a) The number of turns in the coil b) The material of the core
c) The cross-sectional area of the coil d) The resistance of the coil

LEVEL – 2

1. The magnetic flux through a coil of 100 turns changes from 5 Wb to 2 Wb in 0.2
seconds. What is the induced EMF in the coil?
a) 1500 V b) 2000 V c) 2500 V d) 3000 V
2. A coil is moved quickly out of a magnetic field. According to Lenz's law, the
direction of the induced current will be such that it will:
a) oppose the increase in magnetic flux
b) support the increase in magnetic flux
c) oppose the motion of the coil
d) support the motion of the coil
3. A magnet is dropped through a coil. The direction of the induced current will be
such that it will:
a) attract the magnet as it falls
b) repel the magnet as it falls
c) have no effect on the magnet
d) both attract and repel the magnet
4. In a circuit, the current changes at a rate of 2 A/s. If the inductance of the coil
is 3 H, what is the induced EMF?
a) 2 V b) 3 V c) 4 V d) 6 V
5. A current of 5 A is established in a coil with an inductance of 4 H. If the current
is suddenly reduced to zero in 0.1 seconds, what is the induced EMF?
a) 200 V b) 300 V c) 400 V d) 500 V
6. A solenoid with a length of 0.5 m and 1000 turns has a current of 2 A passing
through it. If the current changes at a rate of 4 A/s, what is the induced EMF in
the solenoid?
a) 2 V b) 4 V c) 6 V d) 8 V
7. The self-inductance of a coil is 10 H. If a current of 3 A is passing through it,
what is the energy stored in the coil?
a) 30 J b) 45 J c) 60 J d) 90 J
8. A coil with an inductance of 5 H carries a current of 4 A. If the current decreases
to 0 A in 0.2 seconds, what is the average induced EMF in the coil?
a) 10 V b) 20 V c) 40 V d) 100 V

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9. Two coils have a mutual inductance of 0.2 H. If the current in the first coil
changes at a rate of 3 A/s, what is the induced EMF in the second coil?
a) 0.1 V b) 0.2 V c) 0.4 V d) 0.6 V
10. A coil with a self-inductance of 6 H has a current of 2 A passing through it. If
the current changes uniformly to 0 A in 0.5 seconds, what is the induced EMF?
a) 4 V b) 6 V c) 8 V d) 24 V

LEVEL – 3
1. A straight line conductor of length 0.4 m is moved with a speed of 7
m/s perpendicular to a magnetic field of intensity 0.9 wb/m2. The induced e.m.f.
across the conductor is…
a) 5.04 V b) 1.26 V c) 2.52 V d) 25.2 V
2. A magnetic flux linked with a coil varies as 𝜙 = 2𝑡 2 − 6𝑡 + 5 wher
𝜙 is in weber and t is in second. The induced current is zero at
a) t = 0 b) t = 1.5 c) t = 3 d) t = 5
3. A bar magnet is released along the vertical axis of the conducting
coil. The acceleration of the bar magnet is

a) greater than g b) less than g c) equal to g d) zero

4. A coil having an area A is placed in magnetic field which changes
from B to 4B in time t. The average emf induced in the coil will be
3𝐴𝐵 4𝐴𝐵 3𝐵 4𝐵
a) b) c) d)
𝑡 𝑡 𝐴𝑡 𝐴𝑡

Predict the direction of induced current in following cases

2 marks
LEVEL – 1

1. State Faraday’s first law of electromagnetic induction.

2. How does the magnitude of induced EMF relate to the rate of change of
magnetic flux according to Faraday’s second law?

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3. Describe how an EMF is induced in a coil when the magnetic field through it
changes.
4. What factors affect the magnitude of the induced EMF in a conductor moving
through a magnetic field?
5. State Lenz’s Law and explain its significance in determining the direction of
induced current.
6. Provide an example to illustrate Lenz’s Law in a practical scenario.
7. Define self-induction and explain what is meant by the self-inductance of a coil.
8. What is the physical significance of the self-inductance in an electrical circuit?
9. Define mutual induction and explain the concept of mutual inductance between
two coils.

LEVEL – 2
1. A circular coil of radius 0.1 m is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.5 T, with
its plane perpendicular to the magnetic field. If the magnetic field changes
uniformly to 1.5 T in 0.2 s, calculate the average induced EMF in the coil.
2. A solenoid with 500 turns and a cross-sectional area of 0.01 m2 is placed in a
changing magnetic field. The magnetic flux through the solenoid increases from
0.02 Wb to 0.06 Wb in 0.1 s. What is the average induced EMF in the solenoid?
3. A rectangular loop of wire is moved away from a long straight wire carrying a
steady current. Describe the direction of the induced current in the loop and
explain how Lenz’s Law applies to this situation.
4. A coil with an inductance of 2 H has a current that increases at a rate of 3 A/s.
Calculate the induced EMF in the coil.
5. wo coils are placed close to each other. A current change of 4 A/s in the first
coil induces an EMF of 0.8 V in the second coil. Calculate the mutual inductance
between the two coils.
LEVEL – 3
1. A coil of 50 turns is placed in a magnetic field that changes from 0.2 T to 0.6 T
in 0.4 seconds. The area of the coil is 0.1 m 2. Calculate the average induced
EMF in the coil.
2. Explain how Lenz’s Law applies when a metal ring is dropped into a region
where a magnetic field is increasing upwards. What will be the direction of the
induced current in the ring as it enters the magnetic field?
3. A solenoid with an inductance of 2 H carries a current that decreases uniformly
from 3 A to 0 A in 0.5 s. Determine the self-induced EMF in the solenoid during
this time period.

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 3 marks
LEVEL – 1

1. Describe the process of generating an induced EMF in a straight conductor

moving through a uniform magnetic field. Include the relevant formula.
2. Provide an example where Lenz’s Law is applied to determine the direction of
induced current in a closed loop.
3. Define self-induction and explain the role of self-inductance in an electrical
circuit. Include the formula for self-inductance.
4. Describe an experiment to demonstrate the phenomenon of self-induction
using a coil and a changing current.
5. Define mutual induction and explain how mutual inductance is calculated
between two coils. Include the formula for mutual inductance.

LEVEL – 2
1. Derive an expression for self inductance of a solenoid.
2. Calculate coefficient of mutual inductance for the system of two co-axial
multiturn coils of same length but different radii.
3. Show that coefficient of self inductance is independent of flux and current
passing through the coil.
LEVEL – 3
1. Decide direction of induced current
in following examples
2. What is motional emf? Derive an
expression for induced emf for a rod
rotating in perpendicular magnetic
field.
3. Show that mutual inductance of pair
of coil is same for both the coils

5 marks
LEVEL – 1

1. A square loop of side 0.2 m with 50 turns is placed in a uniform magnetic field
of 0.3 T. The plane of the loop is perpendicular to the magnetic field. The
magnetic field is reduced to zero uniformly over a period of 0.2 seconds.
Calculate the following: a) The initial magnetic flux through the loop. B) The

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 change in magnetic flux. C) The induced EMF in the loop. D) The direction of
the induced current using Lenz's Law.
LEVEL – 2
2. A coil of 100 turns and radius 0.05 m is placed in a magnetic field that varies
with time according to the equation B(t)=0.01t2+0.02t, where B is in tesla and t
is in seconds.
1. Derive the expression for the magnetic flux through the coil as a function of
time. B) Calculate the induced EMF in the coil at t=2t = 2t=2 seconds. C) Using
Lenz’s Law, determine the direction of the induced current if the magnetic field
is increasing.

LEVEL – 3
3. A solenoid with a self-inductance of 0.2 H is connected in series with a 10-ohm
resistor and a power supply. The current through the circuit increases uniformly
from 0 to 5 A in 0.5 seconds. A) Calculate the induced EMF in the solenoid. B)
Determine the total voltage across the solenoid and resistor during this time. C)
If another coil with a mutual inductance of 0.1 H with the solenoid is placed
nearby, calculate the induced EMF in the secondary coil during the same time
period.
LEVEL-1 (NUMERICALS)
1. A coil of wire has 50 turns and a cross-sectional area of 0.1 m². The coil is
placed in a magnetic field that changes uniformly from 0.2 T to 0.5 T in 0.1
seconds. Calculate the induced EMF in the coil.
2. A straight conductor of length 1 meter is moved perpendicularly to a magnetic
field of strength 0.2 T with a speed of 2 m/s. Calculate the induced EMF across
the ends of the conductor.
3. A coil with 200 turns and a cross-sectional area of 0.05 m² is placed in a
magnetic field. The magnetic field changes at a rate of 0.1 T/s. Calculate the
induced EMF in the coil and indicate the direction of the induced current
according to Lenz’s Law.
4. A solenoid with 500 turns and an inductance of 2 H is connected to a circuit. If
the current through the solenoid changes uniformly from 0 A to 5 A in 0.5
seconds, calculate the induced EMF.
LEVEL-2 (NUMERICALS)
1. Two coils, coil A with 500 turns and coil B with 300 turns, are placed close to
each other. The mutual inductance between the coils is 2 H. If a current in coil
A changes from 0 to 10 A in 0.2 seconds, calculate the induced EMF in coil B.
Additionally, determine the energy transferred to coil B during this time.

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2. Two coils, Coil X and Coil Y, are arranged such that Coil X has 600 turns and
Coil Y has 1000 turns. Coil X has an inductance of 2 H and Coil Y has an
inductance of 5 H. The mutual inductance between the coils is 1.2 H. A steady
current of 4 A is established in Coil X. If the current in Coil X is changed to zero
in 0.2 seconds, calculate the energy transferred to Coil Y and the induced EMF
in Coil Y.
3. A rectangular conducting loop with length l = 0.5 m and width w=0.3 m moves
with a constant velocity v=2 m/s perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of
strength B = 0.4 T. The loop is moving in such a way that the entire loop remains
within the magnetic field. Calculate:
a) The induced EMF in the loop.
b) The induced current if the resistance of the loop is R=0.2 Ω.
c) The power dissipated in the loop due to the induced current.
LEVEL-3 (NUMERICALS)
2. A solenoid with 1000 turns and a length of 0.5 meters has a cross-sectional
area of 0.01 m². It is connected to a circuit where the current increases from 2
A to 8 A in 0.4 seconds. Calculate the induced EMF in the solenoid and the
energy stored in the solenoid at the final current.
3. A coil with an inductance of 0.5 H is connected in a circuit. If the current through
the coil changes sinusoidally according to the equation I(t) = 5sin(100t) where
I is in amperes and t is in seconds, calculate the maximum induced EMF in the
coil.
4. Two coils, Coil A and Coil B, are placed close to each other. Coil A has 500
turns and a resistance of 1 Ω, while Coil B has 800 turns and a resistance of
1.5 Ω. The mutual inductance between the coils is 3 H. If a current of 5 A in Coil
A is changed to zero in 0.1 seconds, calculate the induced EMF in Coil B and
the energy dissipated as heat in Coil B during this time.
CASE BASED
A conducting rectangular loop of wire with dimensions 10 cm×5 cm is placed in
a uniform magnetic field of strength 0.5 T. The plane of the loop is perpendicular
to the magnetic field. The magnetic field is increased uniformly to 1.0 T over a
period of 2 s. The loop has a resistance of 0.1 Ω.

1. What is the rate of change of the magnetic field (dB/dt)?

A. 0.25 T/s B. 0.5 T/s C. 1.0 T/s D. 2.0 T/s

2. What is the induced EMF ε in the loop during the change in magnetic field?
A. 0.025 V B. 0.05 V C. 0.10 V D. 0.20 V

3. What is the direction of the induced current in the loop?

A. Clockwise, looking from above
B. Counterclockwise, looking from above
C. Alternating current
D. No current is induced
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 4. What is the magnitude of the induced current (III) in the loop?
A. 0.25 A B. 0.5 A C. 0.75 A D. 1.0 A

COMPETENCY BASED
Two coils, Coil A and Coil B, are placed close to each other. Coil A has 300
turns and an inductance of 2 H, while Coil B has 400 turns and an inductance
of 3 H. The mutual inductance between the two coils is 1 H. Coil A is connected
to a variable power supply and a switch. Initially, there is no current in Coil A.
At t=0, the switch is closed, and the current in Coil A increases uniformly from
0 A to 5 A in 1 second. Coil B is connected to a resistor of 2 Ω.
1. Calculate the rate of change of current dIA/dt in Coil A.
2. Determine the induced EMF εB in Coil B.
3. Calculate the induced current IB in Coil B.
4. Find the total energy transferred to Coil B during the 1 second.

CCT BASED
A researcher is conducting an experiment to demonstrate Lenz’s Law using a
setup that includes a strong horseshoe magnet, a copper pipe, a solenoid, a
sensitive ammeter, and a small aluminium ring. The following scenarios are
being investigated:
1. Dropping a strong magnet through a vertically oriented copper pipe.
2. Moving a magnet rapidly towards and away from the solenoid connected to the
ammeter.
3. Placing the small aluminium ring on the top of the solenoid and turning the
current on and off in the solenoid.
1. In the first scenario, describe the motion of the magnet as it falls through the
copper pipe. Explain how Lenz’s Law applies to this scenario and predict
the experimental observations.
2. In the second scenario, what will the ammeter show when the magnet is
moved towards and then away from the solenoid? Explain your answer
using Lenz’s Law.
3. For the third scenario, predict and explain what happens to the aluminium
ring when the current in the solenoid is suddenly turned on and off.
4. Consider a scenario where the copper pipe is replaced with a pipe made of
a different non-conducting material, such as plastic. Predict how the motion
of the magnet changes and explain why, based on Lenz’s Law.

********

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 Self Assessment

Total Marks: 25 Time: 1 hour

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (1 mark each)

1. Which of the following is a statement of Faraday’s First Law of Electromagnetic

Induction?
a) A changing magnetic field induces an electromotive force (EMF).
b) The induced EMF is proportional to the rate of change of magnetic flux.
c) The induced current always opposes the change in magnetic flux.
d) None of the above.

2. What is the SI unit of magnetic flux?

a) Tesla
b) Weber
c) Henry
d) Coulomb

3. According to Lenz's Law, the direction of the induced current in a conductor will
be such that:
a) It enhances the cause of its own production.
b) It opposes the cause of its own production.
c) It has no relation to the cause of its production.
d) None of the above.

4. In mutual induction, the induced EMF in the secondary coil depends on:
a) The number of turns in the primary coil.
b) The rate of change of current in the primary coil.
c) The distance between the two coils.
d) All of the above.

Assertion-Reason Questions (1 mark each)

5. Assertion (A): An induced current always flows in such a direction that it
opposes the change which produced it.
Reason (R): Lenz's Law is a consequence of the conservation of energy.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
6. Assertion (A): The self-inductance of a coil increases with the increase in the
number of turns of the coil.
Reason (R): Self-inductance is directly proportional to the square of the number
of turns in the coil.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.

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 Short Answer Questions
7. Explain Faraday's Law of Electromagnetic Induction. (2 marks)

Intermediate Answer Question

8. Describe the principle of mutual induction with the help of a diagram. (3 marks)

Case Study-Based MCQs (4 marks)

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
A coil of wire is connected to a galvanometer. When a bar magnet is moved towards
the coil, the galvanometer shows a deflection. When the bar magnet is moved away
from the coil, the galvanometer shows a deflection in the opposite direction. The
faster the magnet is moved, the greater the deflection.

9. What is the principle demonstrated in the above experiment?

a) Ohm's Law
b) Faraday's Law of Electromagnetic Induction
c) Coulomb's Law
d) Ampere's Law

10. What does the direction of deflection of the galvanometer indicate?

a) The direction of the magnetic field
b) The direction of the induced current
c) The magnitude of the induced EMF
d) The strength of the magnetic field

11. What will happen if the number of turns in the coil is increased?
a) The deflection will decrease.
b) The deflection will remain the same.
c) The deflection will increase.
d) The deflection will first increase and then decrease.

12. Which of the following factors does NOT affect the magnitude of the induced
EMF?
a) The speed of the magnet
b) The number of turns in the coil
c) The strength of the magnetic field
d) The resistance of the coil

Long Answer Questions

13. Derive the expression for the self-inductance of a solenoid and discuss the
factors affecting it. (5 marks)

14. Explain Lenz's Law with an example and describe its significance in the
conservation of energy. (5 marks)

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 UNIT IV ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION AND ALTERNATING
CURRENT
CH 7 ALTERNATING CURRENTS
GIST OF CHAPTER:
Alternating currents, peak and RMS value of alternating current/voltage,
reactance and impedance, LCR series circuit (phasors only), resonance, power
in AC circuits, power factor, wattless current, Transformer, AC generator.
Alternating currents: Alternating current
(AC) is an electric current that
periodically reverses direction and
changes its magnitude continuously with
time.
𝐼 = 𝐼𝑚 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡
𝑉 = 𝑉𝑚 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡
Direct current: flows with a constant magnitude and in same fixed direction.
Advantages of AC over 1) Easily and efficiently converted from one voltage
DC: to the other by means of transformers.
2) Transmitted economically over long distances.
Average value of AC over a one complete 𝑞
𝐼𝑎𝑣 = = 0
cycle 𝑡
Average value of AC over half of 2𝐼𝑚
𝐼𝑎𝑣 = 𝜋 = 0.637𝐼𝑚 (𝐼𝑚 = peak value)
cycle
RMS value: To measure AC/AV heating effect of current is used which is
independent of the direction.
RMS value also known as Effective or Virtual value.
Relation between RMS value and peak 𝐼𝑚 𝑉𝑚
𝐼𝑟𝑚𝑠 = 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑉𝑟𝑚𝑠 =
value √2 √2

AC voltage applied to a Resistor:

𝑉 = 𝑉𝑚 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡
𝑉𝑚 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡 = 𝑖𝑅 (By Kirchhoff’s loop rule)
𝑉𝑚
𝑖= 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡
𝑅
𝑉
𝑖 = 𝑖𝑚 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡 (where 𝑖𝑚 = 𝑅𝑚 )

Voltage and current are in phase.

AC voltage applied to an Inductor:

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 𝑉 = 𝑉𝑚 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡
𝑑𝑖
𝑉 − 𝐿 𝑑𝑡 = 0 (using Kirchhoff’s
rule)
𝑑𝑖 𝑉 𝑉𝑚
= = 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡
𝑑𝑡 𝐿 𝐿
𝑑𝑖 𝑉𝑚
∫ 𝑑𝑡 = ∫ 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡𝑑𝑡
𝑑𝑡 𝐿
𝑉𝑚
𝑖=− 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜔𝑡 + 𝐶
𝜔𝐿
𝜋 𝑉𝑚
𝑖 = 𝑖𝑚 𝑠𝑖𝑛 (𝜔𝑡 − 2 ) (𝑖𝑚 = 𝜔𝐿 )
Inductive reactance, 𝑋𝐿 = 𝜔𝐿
Current lags behind the voltage in
𝜋
phase by 2 rad.
OR
Voltage leads the current in phase
𝜋
by 2 rad.

AC voltage applied to a capacitor:

𝑉 = 𝑉𝑚 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡
𝑞
𝑉=
𝐶
𝑞
𝑉𝑚 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡 =
𝐶
𝑑𝑞 𝑑
𝑖= = (𝐶𝑉𝑚 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡)
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡
= 𝜔𝐶𝑉𝑚 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜔𝑡
𝑉𝑚 𝜋
= 𝑠𝑖𝑛 (𝜔𝑡 + )
1⁄ 2
𝜔𝐶
𝜋
= 𝑖𝑚 𝑠𝑖𝑛 (𝜔𝑡 + )
2
1
Capacitive reactance, 𝑋𝐶 = 𝜔𝐶
Current leads the voltage in
𝜋
phase by 2 rad.
OR
Voltage lags behind the current
𝜋
in phase by 2 rad.

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LCR Series Circuit and Impedance:
𝑉 = 𝑉𝑚 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡
Resistor, inductor and capacitor are in series,
the ac current in each element is same at any
time, having the same amplitude and phase.
𝐼 = 𝐼𝑚 sin (𝜔𝑡 + 𝜑)
i) In resistive circuit voltage and current are in
the same phase.
ii) In the inductive circuit, Current lags behind
𝜋
the voltage in phase by 2 rad
iii) In the capacitive circuit, Current leads the
𝜋
voltage in phase by 2 rad.
𝑉 = 𝑉𝑅 + 𝑉𝐿 + 𝑉𝐶
𝑉𝑚 = |𝑉| = √𝑉𝑅2 + (𝑉𝐶 − 𝑉𝐿 )2
𝑉𝑚 = √(𝑖𝑚 𝑅)2 + (𝑖𝑚 𝑋𝐶 − 𝑖𝑚 𝑋𝐿 )2
𝑉𝑚 = 𝑖𝑚 √(𝑅)2 + (𝑋𝐶 − 𝑋𝐿 )2
𝑉
Impendance, 𝑍 = 𝑖 𝑚 = √(𝑅)2 + (𝑋𝐶 − 𝑋𝐿 )2
𝑚

𝑋𝐶 − 𝑋𝐿 i) If XC > XL, ∅ is positive and the circuit is

𝑡𝑎𝑛∅ =
𝑅 predominantly capacitive.
OR Consequently, the current in the circuit
𝑉𝐶𝑚 − 𝑉𝐿𝑚 leads the source voltage.
𝑡𝑎𝑛∅ =
𝑉𝑅𝑚 ii) If XC < XL, ∅ is negative and the circuit is
predominantly inductive.
Consequently, the current in the circuit
lags the source voltage.

Resonance and Resonant frequency:

Resonance: When natural frequency of Resonant Frequency:
the series LCR circuit becomes equal to If 𝜔 is varied, then at a particular
frequency of ac source and current frequency 𝜔0 , XC = XL, and the
becomes the maximum then the impedance is minimum. This
phenomenon is called resonance. frequency is called the resonant
𝑍
Maximum Current at resonance, 𝑖𝑚 = 𝑅 frequency
1
Minimum impedance at resonance, XC=XL, 𝜔 𝐶 = 𝜔0 𝐿
0
Zmin=R 1
When XC=XL, current has its maximum 𝜔0 =
√𝐿𝐶
value and impedance has minimum 𝜔0 1
value. 𝜗0 = =
2𝜋 2𝜋√𝐿𝐶

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Power in AC circuit: The Power Factor:
We know that, an AC voltage 𝑉 = 𝑉𝑚 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡 applied to a series LCR circuit drives a
current in the circuit given by 𝐼 = 𝐼𝑚 sin (𝜔𝑡 + 𝜑).
Instantaneous Power = Instantaneous Voltage X Instantaneous Current
𝑇𝑟𝑢𝑒 𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝑃
P = VI = 𝑉𝑚 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡 X 𝐼𝑚 sin (𝜔𝑡 + Power Factor = 𝑐𝑜𝑠∅= 𝐴𝑝𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 = 𝑉 𝑎𝑣𝑖
𝜑) 0 0
𝑟𝑚𝑠 𝑟𝑚𝑠

𝑉𝑚 𝑖𝑚 (i) If ∅ = 0 , cos 0 = 1, then R=Z (pure

𝑃⃗ = [𝑐𝑜𝑠∅ − 𝑐𝑜𝑠(2𝜔𝑡 + ∅)] Resistance)
2
𝑉𝑚 𝑖𝑚 𝑉𝑚 𝑖𝑚 (ii) If ∅ = 900 , cos 900 = 0, then P=0 (pure
𝑃⃗ = 𝑐𝑜𝑠∅ = 𝑐𝑜𝑠∅ inductive or capacitive)
2 √2 √2 The average power consumed over a cycle is
𝑃⃗ = 𝑉𝑟𝑚𝑠 𝑖𝑟𝑚𝑠 𝑐𝑜𝑠∅
zero and current is called wattless current.
True power = virtual power X
𝑐𝑜𝑠∅
𝑃⃗ = 𝐼 2 𝑍𝑐𝑜𝑠∅
If circuit has all the three element R, L and C then
𝑅 𝑅
Power factor = 𝑐𝑜𝑠∅ = 𝑍 = 2 2
√(𝑅) +(𝑋𝐶 −𝑋𝐿 )

Transformer:
Let Np and Ns be the number
of turns in the primary and
secondary of the transformer.
The voltage induced in the
secondary is
𝑑∅
𝜀𝑆 = −𝑁𝑆
𝑑𝑡
alternating flux f also induces
an emf, called back emf in the
primary
𝑑∅
𝜀𝑃 = −𝑁𝑃
𝑑𝑡
𝜀𝑆 𝑁𝑆 𝐼𝑃
= =
𝜀𝑃 𝑁𝑃 𝐼𝑆
It is a device for covert an AC at low to high voltage Energy Loss:
or vice versa. (i) Copper loss
Principal: works on Mutual induction. (ii) Eddy current loss
A transformer consists of two coils of insulated (iii) Flux leakage
copper wire having different number of turns and (iv) Humming loss
wound on the same soft iron core. The coil to which (v) Hysteresis loss
electric energy is supplied is called the primary and
the coil from which energy is drawn is called the Efficiency of transformer,
secondary. 𝑂𝑢𝑡𝑝𝑢𝑡 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟
𝜂= × 100%
To prevent energy losses due to eddy currents, a 𝐼𝑛𝑝𝑢𝑡 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟
laminated core is used.
Types:
Step up Step down
𝑁𝑆 > 𝑁𝑃 , 𝜀𝑆 > 𝜀𝑃 , 𝑖𝑆 < 𝑖𝑃 𝑁𝑆 < 𝑁𝑃 , 𝜀𝑆 < 𝜀𝑃 , 𝑖𝑆 > 𝑖𝑃

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AC Generator:
It is a device which converts mechanical energy into an electrical energy and
generates alternating current.
Principle: Works on principle of electro-magnetic induction.
Construction:
1. Armature coil
2. Filed magnet
3. Slip rings
4. Brushes

Theory:
When the armature coil rotates
between the pole pieces of field
magnet, the effective area of the coil
is A cos θ,
The flux at any time is,
∅=𝐵 ⃗ . 𝐴=NBA cos θ=NBA cosωt
The induced emf is,
𝑑∅ 𝑑(𝑁𝐵𝐴𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜔𝑡)
𝜀=− =−
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡
𝑉 = 𝜀 = −𝑁𝐵𝐴𝜔𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡

Formulae:
𝑉 = 𝑉𝑚 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡 = 𝑉𝑚 𝑠𝑖𝑛2𝜋𝜗𝑡 𝑃⃗ = 𝑉𝑟𝑚𝑠 𝑖𝑟𝑚𝑠 𝑐𝑜𝑠∅
𝑅 𝑅
𝑖 = 𝑖𝑚 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡 = 𝑖𝑚 𝑠𝑖𝑛2𝜋𝜗𝑡 Power factor = 𝑐𝑜𝑠∅ = 𝑍 =
√(𝑅)2 +(𝑋𝐶 −𝑋𝐿 )2
𝐼𝑚 𝑉𝑚 𝜀𝑆 𝑁𝑆 𝐼𝑃
𝐼𝑟𝑚𝑠 = 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑉𝑟𝑚𝑠 = = =
√2 √2 𝜀𝑃 𝑁𝑃 𝐼𝑆
𝑋𝐿 = 𝜔𝐿 𝑂𝑢𝑡𝑝𝑢𝑡 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟
𝜂= × 100%
𝐼𝑛𝑝𝑢𝑡 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟
1 𝑉 = 𝜔 = −𝑁𝐵𝐴𝜔𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡
𝑋𝐶 =
𝜔𝐶
𝑉𝑚
𝑍= = √(𝑅)2 + (𝑋𝐶 − 𝑋𝐿 )2
𝑖𝑚
𝑋𝐶 − 𝑋𝐿
𝑡𝑎𝑛∅ =
𝑅

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MIND MAP

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 MCQ’S
Level – 1

Q.1 A DC ammeter cannot be used to measure an alternating current because

(a) DC ammeter will get damage
(b) average value of AC for complete cycle is zero
(c) alternating current cannot pass through DC ammeter
(d) alternating current changes its direction
Q.2 Why the use of ac voltage is preferred over dc voltage?
(a) Generation of ac is more economical than dc
(b) AC can be stepped up and stepped down
(c) It can be transmitted with lower energy loss
(d) All of the above
Q.3 Alternating current is transmitted at far off places
(a) at high voltage and low current.
(b) at high voltage and high current.
(c) at low voltage and low current.
(d) at low voltage and high current.
Q.4 In the case of an inductor
𝜋
(a) voltage lags the current by 2
𝜋
(b) voltage leads the current by 2
𝜋
(c) voltage lags the current by 3
𝜋
(d) voltage lags the current by 4
Q.5 When an AC voltage is applied to an series LCR circuit, which of the
following true?
(a) I and V are out of phase with each other in R
(b) I and V are in phase in L with C, they are out of phase
(c) I and V are out of phase in both, C and L
(d) I and V are out of phase in L and in phase in C
Q.6 The power factor of series LCR circuit at resonance is
(a) Zero (c) 1.0
(b) 0.5 (d) depends on value of L,C and R
Q.7 Transformer is based upon the principal of
(a) Self induction (b) Mutual induction (c) Eddy current (d)None of the
above
Q.8 The root mean square value of the alternating current is equal to
(a) Twice the peak value (b) Half the peak value
1
(c) times the peak value (d) Equal to the peak value
√2
Q.9 For high frequency, a capacitor offers
(a) More reactance (b) Less reactance
(c) Zero reactance (d) Infinite reactance
Q.10 In an A.C. circuit the current

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 (a) Always leads the voltage
(b) Always lags behind the voltage
(c) Is always in phase with the voltage
(d) May lead or lag behind or be in phase with the voltage
Q.11 Which of the following statements is true about the LCR circuit connected to
an AC source at resonance?
(a) voltage across R equals the applied voltage
(b) voltage across R is zero
(c) voltage across C is zero
(d) voltage across L equals the applied voltage
Q.12 What happens to the inductive reactance when the frequency of the AC
supply is increased?
(a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Remains the same (d) Decreases
inversely
Q.13 When is the current in a circuit wattless?
(a) When the inductance of the circuit is zero
(b) When the resistance of the circuit is zero.
(c) When the current is alternating.
(d) When both resistance and inductance are zero.
Q.14 L, C and R denote inductance, capacitance and resistance respectively.
Pick out the combination which does not have the dimensions of frequency
(a) 1/RC (b) R/L (c) C/L (d) 1/√𝐿𝐶
Q.15 What will be the phase difference between virtual voltage and virtual
current, when the current in the circuit is wattless
(a) 90° (b) 45° (c) 180° (d) 60°
Q.16 The phase difference between the current and voltage of LCR circuit in
series combination at resonance is
𝜋
(a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 𝜋 (d) – 𝜋
Q.17 Power delivered by the source of the circuit becomes maximum, when
1 1
(a) 𝜔𝐿 = 𝜔𝐶 (𝑏)𝜔𝐿 = (𝑐)𝜔𝐿 = √𝜔𝐶 (𝑑)𝜔𝐿 = −
𝜔𝐶 𝜔𝐶
Q.18 When power is drawn from the secondary coil of the transformer, the
dynamic resistance
(a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Remains unchanged
(d)Changes erratically

Q.19 A transformer is employed to

(a) Obtain a suitable dc voltage
(b) Convert dc into ac
(c) Obtain a suitable ac voltage
(d) Convert ac into dc
Q.20 Quantity that remains unchanged in a transformer is
(a) Voltage (b) Current (c) Frequency (d) None of above

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 Level – 2
Q.1 In series LCR circuit, the capacitance is changed from C to 4C. For the same
resonant frequency, the inductance should be changed from L to
(a) 2L (b) L / 2 (c) L / 4 (d) 4 L
Q.2 A bulb and a capacitor are connected in series to a source of alternating
current. If its frequency is increased, while keeping the voltage of the source
constant, then
(a) Bulb will give more intense light
(b) Bulb will give less intense light
(c) Bulb will give light of same intensity as before
(d) Bulb will stop radiating light

Q.3 The i-V curve for anti-resonant circuit is

Q.4 If rotational velocity of an a.c. generator armature is doubled, then induced

e.m.f will become
(a) Half (b) Two times (c) Four times (d) Unchanged
Q.5 In a step-up transformer, the turn ratio is 1: 2. A Leclanche cell (e.m.f. 1.5V)
is connected across the primary. The voltage developed in the secondary
would be
(a) 3.0 V (b) 0.75 V (c) 1.5 V (d) Zero
Q.6 In a step-up transformer the turn’s ratio is 1:10. A resistance of 200 ohm
connected across the secondary is drawing a current of 0.5 A. What is the
primary voltage and current?
(a) 50 V, 1 A (b) 10 V, 5 A (c) 25 V, 4 A (d) 20 V, 2 A
Q.7 The turns ratio of a transformer is given as 2:3.If the current through the
primary coil is 3A, then the current in secondary coil is
(a) 1A (b) 4.5A (c) 2A (d) 1.5A
Q.8 The peak value of AC voltage on a 220 V mains is
(a) 110 √2 (𝑏)200 √2 (𝑐)240 √2 (𝑑)220 √2
Q.9 In a series LCR circuit, resistance R = 10 and the impedance Z = 20. The
phase difference between the current and the voltage is
(a) 300 (b) 450 (c) 600 (d) 900
Q.10 The frequency for which a 5 μF capacitor has a reactance of 1 Ω is given
1000
by
1 1000 100
(a) 1000 Hz (b) 1000 𝐻𝑧 (𝑐) ℎ𝑧 (𝑑) 𝑀𝐻𝑧
𝜋 𝜋

Level – 3
Q.1 An inductance of 1 mH a condenser of 10 μF and a resistance of 50 Ω are
connected in series. The reactance of inductor and condensers are same.
The reactance of either of them will be

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 (a) 100 Ω (b) 30 Ω (c) 3.2 Ω (d) 10 Ω
Q.2 An ac circuit consists of an inductor of inductance 0.5 H and a capacitor of
capacitance 8 μF in series. The current in the circuit is maximum when the
angular frequency of ac source is
(a) 500 rad/sec (b) 2X105 rad/sec (c) 4000 rad/sec (d) 5000 rad/sec
Q.3 An inductive circuit contains a resistance of 10 Ω and an inductance of 2.0 H.
If an ac voltage of 120 V and frequency of 60 Hz is applied to this circuit, the
current in the circuit would be nearly
(a) 0.32 A (b) 0.16 A (c) 0.48 A (d) 0.80 A
Q.4 The power factor of an ac circuit having resistance (R) and inductance (L)
connected in series and an angular velocity ω is
𝑅 𝑅 𝜔𝐿 𝑅
(a) 𝜔𝐿 (b) 2 2 2
(c) 𝑅 (d) 2 2 2
√(𝑅 +𝜔 𝐿 ) √(𝑅 −𝜔 𝐿 )
Q.5 A telephone wire of length 200 km has a capacitance of 0.014 μF per km. If
it carries an ac of frequency 5 kHz, what should be the value of an inductor
required to be connected in series so that the impedance of the circuit is
minimum
(a) 0.35 mH (b) 35 mH (c) 3.5 mH (d) Zero
Q.6 An LCR series circuit with a resistance of 100 Ω is connected to an ac source
of 200 V (r.m.s.) and angular frequency 300 rad/s. When only the capacitor
is removed, the current lags behind the voltage by 60 0. When only the
inductor is removed the current leads the voltage by 600. The average power
dissipated is
(a) 50 W (b) 100 W (c) 200 W (d) 400W
Q.7 A power transformer is used to step up an alternating e.m.f. of 220 V to 11
kV to transmit 4.4 kW of power. If the primary coil has 1000 turns, what is the
current rating of the secondary? Assume 100% efficiency for the transformer
(a) 4 A (b) 0.4 A (c) 0.04 A (d) 0.2 A
Q.8 A loss free transformer has 500 turns on its primary winding and 2500 in
secondary. The meters of the secondary indicate 200 volts at 8 amperes
under these conditions. The voltage and current in the primary is
(a) 100 V, 16 A (b) 40 V, 40 A (c) 160 V, 10 A (d) 80 V, 20 A
Q.9 The figure shows variation of R, XL and XC
with frequency f in a series L, C, R circuit.
Then for what frequency point, the circuit is
inductive

(a) A (b) B (c)

C (d) All points

Q.10 Which of the following plots may represent the reactance of a series LC
combination

(a) a (b) b (c) c (d) d

Assertion – Reason Questions:

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion.

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(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If the assertion and reason both are false
Q.1 Assertion: A bulb connected in series with a solenoid is connected to ac
source. If a soft iron core is introduced in the solenoid, the bulb
will glow brighter.
Reason: On introducing soft iron core in the solenoid, the inductance
decreases.
Q.2 Assertion: Soft iron is used as a core of transformer.
Reason: Area of hysteresis is loop for soft iron is small.
Q.3 Assertion: When capacitive reactance is smaller than the inductive
reactance in LCR current, e.m.f. leads the current.
Reason: The phase angle is the angle between the alternating e.m.f and
alternating current of the circuit.
Q.4 Assertion: A capacitor of suitable capacitance can be used in an ac circuit
in place of the choke coil.
Reason: A capacitor blocks dc and allows ac only.
Q.5 Assertion: A given transformer can be used to step-up or step-down the
voltage.
Reason: The output voltage depends upon the ratio of the number of turns
of the two coils of the transformer.
Q.6 Assertion: In series LCR circuit resonance can take place.
Reason: Resonance takes place if inductance and capacitive reactance’s
are equal and opposite.
Q.7 Assertion: The alternating current lags behind the e.m.f. by a phase angle
of 𝜋/2, when ac flows through an inductor.
Reason: The inductive reactance increases as the frequency of ac source
decreases.
Q.8 Assertion: Capacitor serves as a block for dc and offers an easy path to ac.
Reason: Capacitive reactance is inversely proportional to frequency.
Q.9 Assertion: When capacitive reactance is smaller than the inductive
reactance in LCR current, e.m.f. leads the current .
Reason: The phase angle is the angle between the alternating e.m.f. and
alternating current of the circuit.
Q.10 Assertion: Chock coil is preferred over a resistor to adjust current in an ac
circuit.
Reason: Power factor for inductance is zero.
Q.11 Assertion: If the frequency of alternating current in an ac circuit consisting
of an inductance coil is increased then current gets decreased.
Reason: The current is inversely proportional to frequency of alternating
current.
Q.12 Assertion: An alternating current does not show any magnetic effect.
Reason: Alternating current varies with time.

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Q.13 Assertion: The dc and ac both can be measured by a hot wire instrument.
Reason: The hot wire instrument is based on the principle of magnetic effect
of current.
Q.14 Assertion: ac is more dangerous than dc
Reason: Frequency of ac is dangerous for human body.
Q.15 Assertion: Average value of ac over a complete cycle is always zero.
Reason: Average value of ac is always defined over half cycle.
Q.16 Assertion: The divisions are equally marked on the scale of ac ammeter.
Reason: Heat produced is directly proportional to the current.
Q.17 Assertion: When ac circuit contain resistor only, its power is minimum.
Reason: Power of a circuit is independent of phase angle.
Q.18 Assertion: An electric lamp connected in series with a variable capacitor and
ac source, its brightness increases with increase in capacitance.
Reason: Capacitive reactance decrease with increase in capacitance of
capacitor.
Q.19 Assertion: An inductance and a resistance are connected in series with an
ac circuit. In this circuit the current and the potential difference
across the resistance lag behind potential difference across the
inductance by an angle 𝜋/2.
Reason: In LR circuit voltage leads the current by phase angle which
depends on the value of inductance and resistance both.
Q.20 Assertion: A capacitor of suitable capacitance can be used in an ac circuit
in place of the choke coil.
Reason: A capacitor blocks dc and allows ac only.

SA – I (2 Marks each)
Level – 1

Q.1 (i) Define root mean square value of an alternating current.

(ii) Write the relation between peak and root mean square value of alternating
current.
Q.2 Draw the graphs showing variation of inductive reactance and capacitive
reactance with frequency of applied ac source.
Q.3 A lamp is connected in series with a capacitor. Predict your observation when
this combination is connected in turn across
(i) AC source
(ii) a DC battery. What change would your notice in each case if the
capacitance of the capacitor is increased?
Q.4 (i) Define capacitive reactance. Write its SI unit.
(ii) Why is the use of AC voltage preferred over DC voltage? Give two reasons.
Q.5 State the principal of a transformer. How is the large scale transmission of
electric energy over long distances done with the use of transformers?
Q.6 Mention various energy losses in a transformer.

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Q.7 At an airport, a person is made to walk through the doorway of a metal
detector, for security reasons. If she/he is carrying anything made of metal,
the detector emits a sound. On what principal does this detector work?
Q.8 (i) Define power factor of an ac circuit.
(ii) What are the maximum and minimum values of power factor of an ac
circuit?

Level – 2
Q.1 Prove that an ideal capacitor in an ac circuit does not dissipate power.
Q.2 In a series LCR circuit, obtain the condition under which
(i) the impedance of circuit is minimum and
(ii) wattles current flows in the circuit.
Q.3 State the principal of working of a transformer. Can a transformer be used to
step up or step down a DC voltage? Justify your answer.
Q.4 Differentiate between the term inductive reactance and capacitive reactance
of an AC circuit.
Q.5 Write the expression for the impedance offered by the series combination of
resistor, inductor and capacitor connected to an AC source of voltage,
𝑉 = 𝑉0 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡. Show on a graph the variation of the voltage and the current with
𝜔𝑡 in the circuit.

Level – 3
Q.1 “An alternating current doesn’t show any magnetic effect”. True/false. Justify
your answer.
Q.2 A power transmission line feeds input power at 2200 V to a step down
transformer with its primary windings having 3000 turns. Find the number of
turns in the secondary winding to get the power output at 220 V.
Q.3 A bulb B and a capacitor C are connected in series to the ac mains. The bulb
glows with some brightness. How will the glow of the bulb change when a
dielectric slab is introduced between the plates of the capacitor? Give reasons
in support of your answer.
SA – II (3 Marks each)
Level – 1
Q.1 What is inductive reactance? If an AC voltage is applied across an inductance
L, find an expression for the current I flowing in the circuit. Also show the
phase relationship between current and voltage in a phasor diagram.
Q.2 What is capacitive reactance? If an ac voltage is applied across a capacitance
C, find an expression for the current I flowing in the circuit. Also show the
phase relationship between current and voltage in a phasor diagram.
Q.3 If the frequency of alternating current is tripled, how will it affect resistance R,
inductive reactance XL and capacitive reactance XC?
Q.4 For a given ac circuit, differentiate between resistance, reactance and
impedance.

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 Level – 2
Q.1 An alternating voltage 𝑉 = 𝑉𝑚 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜔𝑡 applied to a series LCR circuit derives a
current given by 𝑖 = 𝑖𝑚 𝑠𝑖𝑛(𝜔𝑡 + ∅). Deduce an expression for the average
power dissipated over a cycle.
Q.2 When a capacitor is connected in series with a series LR circuit, the
alternating current flowing in the circuit increases. Explain why.
Q.3 State the principal of an AC generator. Obtain the expression for the emf
induced in a coil with labelled diagram.

Level – 3

Q.1 An inductor L of inductance XL is connected in series with a bulb B and an

AC source. How would brightness of the bulb change when (i) number of
turns in the inductor is reduced. (ii) an iron rod is inserted in the inductor and
(iii) a capacitor of reactance XC=XL is inserted in series in the circuit. Justify
your answer in each case.
Q.2 Does the current in an ac circuit lag, lead, or remain in phase with the voltage
frequency applied to the circuit, when (i) f=fr, (ii) f<fr and (iii) f>fr, where fr is
the resonant frequency?
LA (5 Marks each)
Level – 1
Q.1 (i) Differentiate between the term inductive reactance and capacitive
reactance of an ac circuit.
(ii) If an inductor and a resistor are connected in series in an ac circuit, what
will be the mathematical expression for the impedance of this circuit. How will
the impedance get affected when the frequency of applied signal is decreased
and why?

Level –2
Q.1 A device X is connected across as AC source of voltage 𝑉 = 𝑉𝑚 sin 𝜔𝑡. The
𝜋
current through X is given as 𝑖 = 𝑖𝑚 𝑠𝑖𝑛 (𝜔𝑡 + 2 ).
(i) Identify the device X and write the expression for its reactance.
(ii) Draw graphs showing variation of voltage and current with time over one
cycle of AC, for X
(iii) How does the reactance of the device X vary with frequency of the AC?
Show this variation graphically.
(iv) Draw the phasor diagram for the device X.

Level – 3
Q.1 A device ‘X’ is connected to an ac source. The variation of voltage, current
and power in one complete cycle is shown in the figure

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 (i) Identify the device X.
(ii) Which of the curves A, B and C represent the voltage, current and the
power consumed in the circuit? Justify the answer.
(iii) How does its impedance vary with frequency of the AC source? Show
graphically.
(iv) Obtain an expression for the current in the circuit and its phase relation
with AC voltage.
Numericals:
Level – 1
1. An alternating voltage given by V= 280 sin 50𝜋𝑡 is connected across a pure
resistor of 40 Ω. Find
(i) the frequency of the source.
(ii) the rms current through the resistor.
2. A light bulb is rated as 150 W for 220 V AC supply of 60 Hz. Calculate
(i) resistance of the bulb
(ii) the rms current through the bulb.
3. A power transmission line feeds input power at 2200 V to a step down
transformer with its primary windings having 3000 turns. Find the number of
turns in the secondary winding to get the power output at 220 V.
4 Calculate the quality factor of a series LCR circuit with L=2.0 H, C= 2 μF and
R= 10 Ω

Level – 2
1. A circuit containing an 80 mH inductor and a 25 mF capacitor in series
connected to a 240 V, 100 rad/s supply. The resistance of the circuit is
negligible. (i) obtain rms value of current (ii) what is the total average power
consumed by the circuit?
2. A circuit is set up by connecting inductance L = 100 mH, resistor R = 100 Ω
and a capacitor of reactance 200 Ω in series. An alternating emf of 150√ 2 V,
500/π Hz is applied across this series combination. Calculate the power
dissipated in the resistor.
3. A step down transformer operated on a 2.5 kV line. It supplies a load with 20
A. The ratio of the primary winding to the secondary is 10:1. If the transformer
is 90% efficient, calculate (i) the power output (ii) the voltage and (iii) the
current in the secondary coil.

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 Level – 3
1. A 2 μF capacitor, 100 Ω resistor and 8 H inductor are connected in series with
a AC source.
(i) What should be the frequency of the source such that current drawn in the
circuit is maximum? What is this frequency called?
(ii) If the peak value of emf of the source is 200 V, find the maximum current.
(iii) Draw graph showing variation of amplitude of circuit current with changing
frequency of applied voltage in a series LCR circuit for two different values
of resistance R1 and R2 (R1>R2).
(iv) Define the term sharpness of resonance. Under what condition, does a
circuit become more selective?
2. The primary coil of an ideal step up transformer has 100 turns and
transformation ratio is also 100. The input voltage and power are respectively
220V and 1100 W. calculate
(i) number of turns in secondary
(ii) current in primary
(iii) voltage across secondary
(iv) current in secondary
(v) power in secondary
3. A series LCR circuit with L= 4.0 H, C= 100 μF and R= 60 Ω is connected to a
variable frequency 240 V source. Calculate
(i) the angular frequency of the source which drives the circuit at
resonance
(ii) the current at the resonating frequency
(iii) the rms potential drop across the inductor at resonance.

Case Based questions/Source based questions:

Q.1 When electric power is transmitted over great distances, it is economical to
use a high voltage and a low current to minimize the I 2R loss in the
transmission lines. Consequently, 350-kV lines are common, and in many
areas even higher-voltage (765-kV) lines are under construction. At the
receiving end of such lines, the consumer requires power at a low voltage (for
safety and for efficiency in design). Therefore, a device is required that can
change the alternating voltage and current without causing appreciable
changes in the power delivered. The ac transformer is that device. In its
simplest form, the ac transformer consists of two coils of wire wound around
a core of iron. The coil on the left, which is connected to the input alternating
voltage source and has N1 turns, is called the primary winding (or the
primary). The coil on the right, consisting of N 2 turns and connected to a load
resistor R, is called the secondary winding (or the secondary). The purpose
of the iron core is to increase the magnetic flux through the coil and to provide
a medium in which nearly all the flux through one coil passes through the
other coil. Eddy current losses are reduced by using a laminated core. Iron is

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 used as the core material because it is a soft ferromagnetic substance and
hence reduces hysteresis losses. Typical transformers have power
efficiencies from 90% to 99%. In the discussion that follows, we assume an
ideal transformer, one in which the energy losses in the windings and core
are zero.

1. Name the different types of losses involve in transformer.

2. How to minimise eddy current losses in transformer?
3. What cause the Hysteresis loss?
4. Which type of transformer used at the receiving end?

Competency based questions:

Q.1 An alternating current is that whose magnitude changes continuously with
time and direction reverses periodically and the current that flows with same
magnitude in same direction is direct current.
(i) If an ammeter is used to measure alternating current in circuit, which value
of current will it read
(a) Peak (b) rms (c) Instantaneous (d) Average
(ii) If T is the time period of given alternating current, then how much time it
requires to reach its peak value starting from zero
(a) T (b) T/2 (c) T/4 (d) T/8
(iii) What is the average value of alternating current over one complete cycle
(a) 0 (b) Im (c) Im/2 (d) Im/4
(iv)For a 220 V mains of alternating voltage peak value will be
(a) 220 V (b) 220/√2 V (c) 220√2 V (d) 110 V

Q.2 Quantity that measures the opposition

offered by a circuit to the flow of current is
called impedance. For an ac circuit,
reactance corresponding to inductor and
capacitor is also considered, along with
resistance. So, impedance for the ac circuit
can be given mathematically as Z2 = R2 + X2,
where X is the reactance.
Impedance triangle is a right-angled triangle given as in the diagram and
satisfy the above mathematical equation. Also phase angle ∅ between
current and voltage can be given by using this impedance triangle.
(i) Impedance for a purely capacitive circuit depends on
(a) f (b) 2f (c) 1/f (d) 1/2f
(ii) Impedance for a purely inductive circuit depends on
(a) f (b) 2f (c) 1/f (d) 1/2f
(iii) For ac circuit containing resistor only, value of Φ will be
(a)0 (b) π/2 (c) - π/2 (d) π

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 (iv) What is the impedance of a capacitor with capacitance C in an ac circuit
having source of frequency 50 Hz
(a) 1/C (b) 1/50 C (c)1/100 C (d) 1/314 C
CCT Based Question:
Q.1 An airport metal is essentially a resonant circuit. The portal you step through
is an inductor (a large loop of conducting wire) that is part of the circuit. The
frequency of the circuit is tuned to the resonant frequency of the circuit when
there is no metal in the inductor. Any metal on your body increases the
effective inductance of the loop and changes the current in it. When you pass
through a metal detector, you become part of a resonant circuit. As you step
through the detector, the inductance of the circuit changes, and thus the
current in the circuit changes.

1. What is resonance?
2. On what factors does resonance frequency depends?
3. For the metal detector to detect a small metal object the sharpness of the
current versus frequency graph be more or less? Justify your answer.
4. What is impedance of the circuit at resonance?

**********

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 SELF ASSESSMENT
MAX. MARKS: 25 TIME: 40 MIN.
Q. Questions Marks
No.
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
(1) There are 12 questions in all. All questions are compulsory
(2) This question paper has five sections: Section A, B, C, D and E.
All the sections are compulsory.
(3) Section A contains 4 MCQ and 2 assertion reason question of
1 mark each, Section B contains 2 questions of 2 mark each,
Section C contains 2 questions of 3 marks, Section D contains
1 case study based question of 4 marks and Section E contains
1 long answer questions of 5 marks.
(4) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has
been provided in Section B, C, and E. You have to attempt only
one of the choices in such questions.
Use of calculators is not allowed.
Section – A
1 In the case of an inductor 1
𝜋
(a) voltage lags the current by 2
𝜋
(b) voltage leads the current by 2
𝜋
(c) voltage lags the current by 3
𝜋
(d) voltage lags the current by 4
2 In an A.C. circuit the current 1
(a) Always leads the voltage
(b) Always lags behind the voltage
(c) Is always in phase with the voltage
(d) May lead or lag behind or be in phase with the voltage
3 A power transformer is used to step up an alternating e.m.f. of 220 1
V to 11 kV to transmit 4.4 kW of power. If the primary coil has 1000
turns, what is the current rating of the secondary? Assume 100%
efficiency for the transformer
(a) 4 A
(b) 0.4 A
(c) 0.04 A
(d) 0.2 A
4 The turns ratio of a transformer is given as 2:3.If the current through 1
the primary coil is 3A, then the current in secondary coil is
(a) 1A
(b) 4.5A
(c) 2A
(d) 1.5A
Directions for Q. No.5 and 6
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the
correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the
correct explanation of the assertion.

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 (c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If the assertion and reason both are false
5 Assertion: A given transformer can be used to step-up or step- 1
down the voltage.
Reason: The output voltage depends upon the ratio of the number
of turns of the two coils of the transformer.
6 Assertion: In series LCR circuit resonance can take place. 1
Reason: Resonance takes place if inductance and capacitive
reactance’s are equal and opposite.
Section – B
7 A resistor R and an element X are connected in series to an AC 2
source of voltage. The voltage is found to lead the current in phase
𝜋
by 4 . If X is replaced by another element Y, the voltage lags behind
𝜋
the current by 4 .
(i) Identify elements X and Y.
(ii) When both X and Y are connected in series with R to the
same source, will the power dissipated in the circuit be
maximum or minimum? Justify your answer.
8 A power transmission line feeds power at 2200 V with a current of 2
5 A to step down transformer with its primary windings having 4000
turns. Calculate the number of turns and the current in the
secondary in order to get output power at 220 V.s
OR
8 A resistor of resistance 400 Ω, and a capacitor of reactance 200 Ω, 2
are connected in series to a 220V, 50 Hz ac source. If the current
is 0.49 A, find Voltage across the resistor and capacitor.
Section – C
9 What is inductive reactance? If an AC voltage is applied across an 3
inductance L, find an expression for the current I flowing in the
circuit. Also show the phase relationship between current and
voltage in a phasor diagram.
OR
9 What is capacitive reactance? If an ac voltage is applied across a 3
capacitance C, find an expression for the current I flowing in the
circuit. Also show the phase relationship between current and
voltage in a phasor diagram.
10 In a series LCR circuit L= 10 H,C= 40 μF and R= 60 Ω are 3
connected to a variable frequency 240 V source. Calculate
(i) The angular frequency of the source which derives the
circuit at resonance.
(ii) The current at the resonating frequency.
(iii) The rms potential drop across the inductor at resonance.
Section – D
Case Study Based question.
11 An alternating current is that whose magnitude changes 4
continuously with time and direction reverses periodically and the
current that flows with same magnitude in same direction is direct
current.

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 (i) If an ammeter is used to measure alternating current in circuit,
which value of current will it read
(a) Peak (b) rms (c) Instantaneous (d) Average
(ii) If T is the time period of given alternating current, then how
much time it requires to reach its peak value starting from zero
(b) T (b) T/2 (c) T/4 (d) T/8
(iii) What is the average value of alternating current over one
complete cycle
(b) 0 (b) Im (c) Im/2 (d) Im/4
(iv)For a 220 V mains of alternating voltage peak value will be
(b) 220 V (b) 220/√2 V (c) 220√2 V (d) 110 V
Section – E
12 Explain with the help of a labelled diagram, the principle and 5
working of an ac generator. Write the expression for the emf
generated in the coil in terms of speed of rotation. Can the current
produced by an ac generator be measured with a moving coil
galvanometer?
OR
12 (i) A device ‘X’ is connected to an ac source. The variation of 5
voltage, current and power in one complete cycle is shown in the
figure.

(a) Which curve shows power consumption over a full cycle?

(b) What is the average power consumption over a cycle?
(c) Identify the device ‘X’.
(ii) A light bulb is rated as 150 W for 220 V AC supply of 60 Hz.
Calculate
(a) resistance of the bulb
(b) the rms current through the bulb.

**********

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 UNIT V ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
CH–8: Electromagnetic Waves

GIST OF CHAPTER
Basic idea of displacement current, Electromagnetic waves, their characteristics,
their transverse nature (qualitative idea only). Electromagnetic spectrum (radio
waves, microwaves, infrared, visible, ultraviolet, X-rays, gamma rays) including
elementary facts about their uses.

CONTENT/ CONCEPTS-
Basic idea of displacement current
Conduction Current (ic)- Conduction current is the current, which arises due to flow
of electrons through the connecting wires in an electric circuit. Displacement current
(id)-Displacement current is the current, which arises due to time rate of change of
electric flux ( E).
Flaw in Ampere’s circuital law
Modified Ampere’s circuital law states that the line integral of magnetic field B over
a closed boundary of an open surface is equal to, times the sum of the conduction
current (Ic) and the displacement current (Id) threading the surface.
Maxwell’s Equations: - Following four equations, which describe the laws of
electromagnetism, are called Maxwell‟s equations
(i) ∮EdS . = q/∈ 0 (Gauss‟s law in electrostatics)
(ii) ∮EdS . =0 (Gauss‟s law in magnetism)
(iii) ∮EdS . = d∅/𝑑𝑡 (Faraday‟s law of electromagnetic induction)
(iv) ∮EdS . =𝜇0 (Ic+Id)( (Ampere-Maxwell‟s circuital law)
ELECTROMAGNETIC SPECTRUM:
Type of Radiation Frequency Range (Hz) Wavelength Range

Gamma-rays 1020 – 1024 < 10-12 m

X-rays 1017 – 1020 1 nm – 1 pm

Ultraviolet 1015 – 1017 400 nm – 1 nm

Visible 4 x 1014 – 7.5 x 1014 750 nm – 400 nm

Near-infrared 1 x 1014 – 4 x1014 2.5 μm – 750 nm

Infrared 1013 – 1014 25 μm – 2.5 μm

Microwaves 3 x 1011 – 1013 1 mm – 25 μm

Radio waves < 3 x 1011 > 1 mm

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 MIND MAP ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVE

L1 - MCQs

Q1. Which of the following is false for electromagnetic waves?

(a) transverse (b) non-mechanical waves
(c) longitudinal (d) produced by accelerating charges
Q2. If the magnetic monopole exists, then which of the Maxwell’s equation to be
modified?
(a) ∮E.dS= q/ ∈o (b) ∮ B.dS =0 (c)∮E.dl = - d∅B /dt (d) ∮ E.dl = μo(Ic+Id)
Q3. Which of the following is NOT true for electromagnetic waves?
(a) They transport energy
(b) They have momentum
(c) They travel at different speeds in air depending on their frequency

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(d)They travel at different speeds in medium depending on their frequency
Q4. Which of the following statement is NOT true about the properties of
electromagnetic waves?
(a) These waves do not require any material medium for their propagation
(b) Both electric and magnetic field vectors attain the maxima and minima at the
same time
(c) The energy in electromagnetic wave is divided equally between electric and
magnetic fields
(d) Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to each other.
Q.5. Which basic oscillatory circuit is used these days to produce electromagnetic
waves?
(a) LC oscillatory circuit (b) LCR circuit (c) Inductive circuit (d) Capacitive
circuit

Q.6 What is the ratio of the speed of infrared and ultraviolet rays in a vacuum?
(a) 1:5 (b) 2:1 (c) 1 (d) 0
Q.7 Which one of the following have the highest wavelength?
(a) radio waves (b) infrared (c) ultraviolet (d)gamma rays
Q.8 Electromagnetic waves carry
(a) positive charge (b) negative charge (c) no charge
(d)both positive and negative charge
Q. 9 Which one of the following have the lowest frequency?
(a) radio waves (b) infrared (c)ultraviolet (d)gamma rays
Q.10 Electromagnetic waves travel
(a) without medium (b) with medium (c)with medium and without medium
(d) in a disturbed path

L-2 MCQ
Q1. If the amplitude of the magnetic field is 3 × 10-6 tesla, then the amplitude of the
electric field for a electromagnetic waves is
(a) 100 V/m (b) 300 V/m (c) 600 V/m (d) 900 V/m
Q2.In an electromagnetic wave travelling in free space the rms value of the electric
field is 3 V/m. The peak value of the magnetic field is,
(a) 1.414 x10-8T (b) 1.0 × 10-8T (c) 2.828 × 10-8T (d) 2.0 × 10-8T
Q3.The direction of propagation of electromagnetic waves is along
(a) E (b) B (c) E.B (d)E × B
Q4.In an electromagnetic wave:
(a) power is transmitted along the magnetic field
(b) power is transmitted along the electric field
(c) power is equally transferred along the electric and magnetic field
(d) power is transmitted in a direction perpendicular to both the fields.

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 LEVEL 3- MCQ

Q1. The relative magnetic permeability of the medium is 2.5 and the relative
electrical permittivity of the medium is 2.25. Compute the refractive index of the
medium.
(a) 2.37 (b) 4.75 (c) 0.25 (d) 1.05
Q2. Compute the speed of the electromagnetic wave in a medium if the amplitude
of electric and magnetic fields are 3 × 104 and 2 × 10-4 tesla, respectively
(a)3 ×108m/s (b) 1.5 × 108m/s (c) 6 × 108 m/s (d) 5 ×108 m/s
Q.3 As the speed decreases if we change the medium of electromagnetic waves
from air to water, the frequency
(a) also decreases (b) also increases (c) remains same (d) may increase or
decrease
Q 4 When the medium of electromagnetic waves changes from air to water, their
speed
(a) increases (b) remains same (c)decreases (d)may increase or decrease

L-3 HIGHER ORDER QUESTION(NEET/JEE)

Q.1 Which of the following are not electromagnetic waves? (cbse pmt ) 1
a) gamma rays b) beta rays c) x rays d)heat rays
Q.2 The structure of the solid is investigated by using (cbse pmt) 1
a) cosmic rays b) x rays c) Gamma rays d) Infrared radiations
Q.3 The energy of the electromagnetic wave is of the order of 15kev.to which part 1
of the spectrum does it belong.
a) gamma rays b) X- rays c)Infra res rays d) ultraviolet rays (AIPMT2015)
Q.4 The ratio of contributions made by the electric and magnetic components to 1
the intensity of electromagnetic wave is ( c= is speed of em wave)
a) 1:1 b) 1: c c) 1: c2 d) c : 1 NEET 2020
Q.5. A radiation energy E falls normally on a perfect reflecting surface. The
momentum transferred to the surface ( c – velocity of light) is 1
a) 2E/c b) 2E/c2 c) E /c2 d) E/c (AIPMT2015)
Q6. Out of the following options which one can be used to produced a propagating 1
electromagnetic wave. (NEET 2016)
a) A charge moving at constant velocity
b) A stationary charge
c) A charge less particle
d) An accelerating charge
Q.7.A 100 ohm resistance and a capacitor of 100ohm reactance are connected in 1
series across 220V source. When the capacitor is 50% charged ,the peak value of
the displacement is
a) 4.4A b) 11√2 A c) 2.2A d) 11A (NEET 2016)
-1/2
Q.8. The dimension of(𝜇0𝜀0) are 1
a) L1/2 T-1/2 b) L-1T c) LT-1 d) L-1/2T1/2 (CBSE PMT 11,12)

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 ASSERTION AND REASON QUESTION
Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion
and Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one
of the following four responses.

(a) If both Assertion and Reason: are correct and the Reason: is a correct
explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason: are correct but Reason: is not a correct
explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason: is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason: are incorrect.

Q1. Assertion: Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature.

Reason: The electric and magnetic fields are perpendicular to each other and
perpendicular to the direction of propagation.

Q2. Assertion: The electromagnetic wave is transverse in nature.

Reason: Electromagnetic waves propagate parallel to the direction of electric and

magnetic fields.

Q3. Assertion: The velocity of electromagnetic waves depends on electric and

magnetic properties of the medium.
Reason: Velocity of electromagnetic waves in free space is constant.

Q.4 Assertion: The frequencies of incident, reflected and refracted beams of

monochromatic light incident from one medium to another are the same.
Reason: The incident, reflected and refracted rays are coplanar.

Q.5.Assertion: The earth without its atmosphere will be inhospitably cold.

Reason: All heat would escape in the absence of atmosphere.

Q.6 Assertion: Microwaves are better carriers of signal than optical waves.

Reason: Microwaves move faster than optical waves.

Q.7 Assertion: Gamma rays are more energetic than x rays.

Reason: Gamma rays are of nuclear origin but x rays are produced due to sudden
deceleration of high energy electrons while falling in the metal of high atomic
number.

L1-SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (2 MARKS)

Q.1 Why are infrared waves called heat waves. Explain. What do you understand 2
by the statement “Electromagnetic waves transport momentum”?
Q.2 Why are infrared radiations also referred as heat waves? Write the name of 2
radiations which lie next to infrared radiations in the electromagnetic spectrum.

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 L2-SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (2 MARKS)

Q.3 A plane electromagnetic wave travels in vacuum along z-direction. What can 2
you say about the directions of its electric and magnetic field vectors? If the
frequency of the wave is 30 MHz, what is its wavelength?

Q.4 (a) Identify the part of EM spectrum used in 2

(i) RADAR
(ii) Eye surgery. Write the frequency range. (CBSE 2019)
(b)Prove that the average energy density of oscillating Electric field is equal to that
of oscillating magnetic field?

L-1 SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)

Q.1 Answer the following questions.
(i) Show, by giving a simple example, how EM waves carry energy and momentum.
(ii) How are microwaves produced? Why is it necessary in microwaves ovens to
select the frequency of microwaves to match the resonant frequency of water
molecules?
(iii) Write two important uses of infrared waves.

L-2 SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)

Q.1 Name the parts of the electromagnetic spectrum which is

(i) Suitable for RADAR systems in aircraft navigations.
(ii) Used to treat muscular strain.
(iii) Used as a diagnostic tool in medicine. Write in brief, how these waves can be
produced?
L-3 SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)

Q.1 (i) Arrange the following electromagnetic waves in the descending order of their
wavelengths.
(a) Microwaves (b) Infrared rays (c) Ultraviolet radiation (d) g-rays
(ii) Write one use each of any two of them
Q.2 The oscillating magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by
By = (8 × 10-6) sin [2 × 10-11 t + 300 π x] T
(i) Calculate the wavelength of the electro-magnetic wave.
(ii) Write down the expression for the oscillating electric field.
Q.3 The oscillating electric field of an electromagnetic wave is given by:
E = 30 sin [2 × 1011 t + 300 π x] Vm-1
(a) Obtain the value of the wavelength of the electromagnetic wave.
(b) Write down the expression for the oscillating magnetic field.

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CASE BASED - 1 QUESTIONS

Read the below case and answer the questions that follow:
LASER: Electromagnetic radiation is a natural phenomenon found in almost all area
of daily life, from radio waves to sunlight to x-rays. Laser radiation – like aii light –
is also a form of electromagnetic radiation. The wave length range between 380nm
to 700nm is visible to human eye. Wavelength longer than780nm, optical radiation
is termed infrared (IR) and is invisible to the eye. Wavelength shorter than 380nm,
optical radiation is termed ultraviolet (UV) and is also invisible to eye. The term
‘laser light’ refer to much broader range of the electromagnetic spectrum that just

the visible spectrum, anything between 150nm up to 11000nm9ie. From the UV up

to the far IR). The term laser is an acronym which stands for light amplification by
stimulated emission of radiation. Einstein explained the stimulated emission. In an
atom, electron may move to higher energy level by absorbing a photon. When the
electron comes back to the lower energy level it releases the same photon. This is
called spontaneous emission. This may also happen that the excited electron
absorbs another photon, releases two photons and returns to the lower energy
state. This is known as stimulated emission. Laser emission is therefore a light
emission whose energy is used, in lithotripsy, for targeting and ablating the stone
inside human body organ.
Apart from medical usage, laser is used for optical disk drive, printer, bar code
reader etc

Q.1 What is full form of LASER? 1

a) Light amplified by stimulated emission of radiation M
b) Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation
c)Light amplification by simultaneous emission of radiation
d)Light amplified by synchronous emission of radiation

Q.2 What is range of amplitude of LASER? 1

M
a)150nm-400nm b)700nm-11000nm c)Both the above d)600nm-700nm

Q.3 LASER is used in: 1M

a) Optical disk drive b)Transmitting satellite signal c)Radio communication
d) Ionization

Q.4 Lithotripsy is: 1

a) An industrial application b) A medical application c)Laboratory application M

d)Process control application

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 CCT BASED
4
The electromagnetic spectrum consists of visible light, x- rays, gamma rays, M
microwaves, ultraviolet rays, radio waves and infrared waves. The waves used in
radio and television communication are the radio waves having frequency range
500 kHz to 1000MHz. In the ultrahigh frequency bands cellular phones use the
radio waves to transmit the voice. Microwaves are the waves having short
wavelengths. In aircraft navigation, for the radar system microwaves are used due
to their short wavelength. Infrared waves are also called heat waves. Infrared
radiation has the most importance in maintaining earth’s surface temperature
through the greenhouse effect. The infrared waves have vast applications in real
life such as infrared detectors that are used for military purposes and also to see
the growth of crops. The waves which are visible to the human eye are the visible
rays. Visible rays are having frequency range as 4x1014Hz to 7x1014 Hz. The huge
source of ultraviolet light is the sun. Ultraviolet rays have wavelength range from
4x10-7m to 6x10-10m. X-rays are the rays having most importance in medical
applications which have a wavelength range 10nm to10 -4 nm. X-rays are used to
destroy the living tissue and organisms in the medical field. Then gamma rays are
the rays having wavelength range as 10-10m to 10-14m which are the high frequency
radiations mostly produced in nuclear reactions. Gamma rays are also used to
destroy cancer cells in the medical field.

Q.1The TV waves range from _____ which are the radio waves. 1
M
(a) 54Hz to 890Hz (b) 54 MHz to 890 MHz (c) 500 kHz to 1000 MHz (d) 1000
Hz to 1000 KHz

Q.2 The domestic application of microwaves used is____ 1

M
(a) electric induction (b) water heater (c) TV (d) microwave oven

Q.3 The part of the electromagnetic spectrum which is detected by human eye is 1
having wavelength range as M

a) 900 – 400 nm b) 200 – 400 mm c) 700 – 400 mm d) 700 – 400 nm

Q.4 Why infrared waves are also called heat waves? 1

OR M
How does the ozone layer in the atmosphere play a protective role?

COMPETENCY BASED QUESTION

All the known radiations from a big family of electromagnetic waves which stretch
over a large range of wavelengths. Electromagnetic wave include radio waves,
microwaves, visible light waves, infrared rays, UV rays, X-rays and gamma rays.
The orderly distribution of the electromagnetic waves in accordance with their
wavelength or frequency into distinct groups having widely differing properties is
electromagnetic spectrum.

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Q.1 Which wavelength of the Sun is used finally as electric energy? 1
(a) radio waves (b) infrared waves (c) visible light (d) microwaves

Q.2 Which of the following electromagnetic radiations have the longest 1

wavelength?
(a) X-rays (b) UV-rays (c) microwaves (d) radio waves

Q.3 Which one of the following is not electromagnetic in nature? 1

(a) X-rays (b) gamma rays (c) cathode rays (d) infrared rays

Q.4 (v) The decreasing order of wavelength of infrared, microwave, ultraviolet and 1
gamma rays is

(a) microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma rays

(b) gamma rays, ultraviolet, infrared, microwave
(c) microwave, gamma rays, infrared, ultraviolet
(d) infrared, microwave, ultraviolet, gamma rays

**************

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 SELF ASSESSMENT QUESTIONS (25 M)

Q.1Which of the following is the infrared wavelength? 1

(a) 10–4 cm (b) 10–5 cm (c) 10–6 cm (d) 10–7 cm
Q.2 Radio waves do not penetrate in the band of 1
(a) ionosphere (b) mesosphere (c) troposphere (d) stratosphere
Q.3 What is the cause of “Green house effect”? 1
(a) Infrared rays (b) Ultraviolet rays (c) X-rays (d) Radio waves

Q.4 Assertion: Displacement current goes through the gap between the plates of a 1
capacitor when the charge of the capacitor does not change.
Reason: The displacement current arises in the region in which the electric field
is constant with time.
Q.5 Assertion: When variable frequency a.c. sour ce is connected to a capacitor, 1
displacement current increases with increase in frequency.
Reason: As frequency increases conduction current also increases.

Q.6 Identify the EM waves whose wavelength vary as 2

(a)10-12m<1<10-8m
(b)10-3m<1<10-1m
Write one use for each. (CBSE 2017)
Q.7 Name the Electromagnetic radiations used for 2
(i)Water purification (ii) Eye surgery (CBSE 2018)

Q 8.How is displacement current produced between plates of parallel plates 2

during charging? (CBSE 2020)

Q 9. Give two uses of 1) IR radiation 2) Microwaves 3) UV radiation 3

Q.10. Write down the properties of electromagnetic waves. 3

CASE BASED QUESTION 4

Radio waves are produced by the accelerated motion of charges in conducting

wires. Microwaves are produced by special vacuum tubes. Infrared waves are
produced by hot bodies and molecules also known as heat waves. UV rays are
produced by special lamps and very hot bodies like Sun.

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Q.1 Solar radiation is 1
(a) transverse electromagnetic wave
(b) longitudinal electromagnetic wave
(c) both longitudinal and transverse electromagnetic waves
(d) None of these

Q.2 What is the cause of greenhouse effect? 1

(a) Infrared rays (b) Ultraviolet rays (c) X-rays (d) Radio waves

Q.3 Biological importance of ozone layer is 1

(a) it stops ultraviolet rays
(b) It layer reduces greenhouse effect
(c) it reflects radio waves
(d) None of these
Q.4 Earth's atmosphere is richest in 1
(a) ultraviolet (b) infrared (c) X-rays (d) microwaves

FIVE MARKS
Q15.a) Write short notes on 1) Microwave 2) X-ray 3) Radio waves
b) Explain the Acronym LASER AND RADAR 3+
c) State the Maxwell’s law of induction. 1+
1
**********

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 UNIT- VI OPTICS
CH-9 RAY OPTICS & OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS
GIST
Ray Optics: Reflection of light, spherical mirrors, mirror formula, refraction of light,
total internal reflection and optical fibers, refraction at spherical surfaces, lenses, thin
lens formula, lens maker‟s formula, magnification, power of a lens, combination of thin
lenses in contact, refraction of light through a prism.
Optical instruments: Microscopes and astronomical telescopes (reflecting and
refracting) and their magnifying powers.
Reflection of Light
Reflection. When light travelling in a medium strikes a reflecting surface, it goes back
into the same medium obeying certain
laws. This phenomenon is known as reflection of light.
Laws of reflection. 1. The incident ray, the normal to the reflecting surface at the
point of incidence and the reflected ray all lie in the same plane.
2. The angle of incidence (i) is always equal to the angle of reflection (r).
Spherical mirror. The portion of a reflecting surface, which forms part of a sphere, is
called a spherical mirror.
Concave spherical mirror. A spherical mirror, whose reflecting surface is towards
the centre of the sphere, of which the mirror forms a part is called concave spherical
mirror.
Convex spherical mirror. A spherical mirror, whose reflecting surface is away from
the centre of the sphere of which the mirror forms a part is called convex spherical
mirror.
Relation between f and R: f =R/2
According to new cartesian sign conventions, both f and R, are taken as negative for
a concave mirror and positive for a convex mirror.
1 1 1
Mirror formula + =
𝑣 𝑢 𝑓

where u and v denote the object and image distances from the pole of the mirror.
According to new cartesian sign conventions, the distances of the real objects and real
images (both lie in front of the mirror) are taken as negative, while those of virtual
objects and virtual images (both lie behind the mirror) are taken as positive.
Linear magnification. The ratio of the size of the image (formed by the mirror) to the
size of the object is called linear magnification produced by the mirror.
𝐼 𝑣 𝑓 𝑓−𝑣
Mathematically- m = = −𝑢 = =
𝑂 𝑓−𝑢 𝑓

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According to new cartesian sign conventions, when the image formed is real
(inverted), the magnification produced by the mirror is negative and when the image
formed is virtual (erect), the magnification produced by the mirror is positive.
Spherical aberration. The inability of a spherical mirror of large aperture to bring all
the rays in a wide beam of light falling on it to focus at a single point is called spherical
aberration.
2. Refraction of Light
Refraction. The phenomenon of change in the path of light as it goes from one
medium to another is called refraction.
Laws of refraction.
1. The incident ray, the normal to the refracting surface at the point of incidence and
the refracted ray all lie in the same plane.
2. The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence to the sine of the angle of refraction
is constant for any two- given media. It is called Snell's law.
𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑖
Mathematically- = 𝜇𝑏𝑎
𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑟

Absolute refractive index (𝜇). The absolute refractive index of a medium is defined
as ratio of the velocity of light in vacuum (c) to the velocity of light in that medium(v).
Real and apparent depth. When an object is placed in an optically denser medium,
the apparent depth of the object is always less than its real depth.
𝑅𝑒𝑎𝑙 𝑑𝑒𝑝𝑡ℎ
Mathematically-: 1. = 𝜇𝑏𝑎
𝐴𝑝𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑑𝑒𝑝𝑡ℎ

1
2. Normal shift d= t (1 − )
𝜇𝑏𝑎

Total internal reflection. The phenomenon of reflection of light that takes place when
a ray of light travelling in a denser medium gets incident at the interface of the two
media at an angle greater than the critical angle for that pair of media.
1
Mathematically 𝜇𝑏𝑎 = 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝐶

𝜇𝑏𝑎 is refractive index of the denser medium £ w.r.t. the rarer medium a and C is the
critical angle.
Spherical refracting surface. The portion of a refracting medium, whose curved
surface forms the part of a sphere, is called spherical refracting surface.
When object is situated in the rarer medium, the relation is as follows
𝜇1 𝜋2 𝜇2 −𝜇1
- + =
𝑢 𝑣 𝑅

When the object is situated in denser medium, the relation is as follows

𝜇2 𝜇1 𝜇1 −𝜇2
- 𝑢
+ 𝑣
= 𝑅

𝜇2 −𝜇1
Power of spherical refracting surface: P= Here, R is measured in metre.
𝑅

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Lens maker's formula. The relation connecting the focal length of the lens with the
radii of curvature of its two surfaces and the refractive index of the material of the lens
is called lens maker's formula.
1 1 1
Mathematically- = (𝜇 − 1) (𝑅 − )
𝑓 1 𝑅2

The focal length of a convex lens is taken as positive, while that of concave lens
is taken as negative.
Lens formula/equation. The relation between the focal
length, the object and image distances is called lens
equation.
1 1 1
Mathematically- − =
𝑣 𝑢 𝑓

Linear magnification. The ratio of the size of the image

(formed by the lens) to the size of the object is called
linear magnification produced by the lens.
𝐼 𝑣 𝑓 𝑓−𝑣
Mathematically- m = = −𝑢 = =
𝑂 𝑓+ 𝑢 𝑓

Power of a lens. It is defined as the reciprocal of the focal length of the lens in metre.
1 1 1
Mathematically P = 𝑓 = (𝜇 − 1) (𝑅 − )
1 𝑅2

Two thin lenses placed in contact. When two lenses of focal lengths 𝑓1 and 𝑓2 are
placed in contact, the focal
1 1 1
length of the combination is given by = +
𝑓 𝑓1 𝑓2

Power of the equivalent lens: P =P1 +P2

Magnification produced by equivalent lens: m =
𝑚1 𝑥 𝑚2
Spherical aberration. The inability of a lens of large
aperture to bring all the rays in a wide beam of light falling
on it to focus at a single point is called spherical aberration.
DISPERSION OF LIGHT
``Refraction through a prism. A prism is the portion of a transparent refracting medium
bound by two plane surfaces meeting each other along a straight edge.
When a ray of light is incident on one face of a prism having angle of prism equal to A
at an angle of incidence i, it suffers successive refractions at the two surfaces (angles
of refraction at the two surfaces are r, and ry respectively) and then emerges out of it
making an angle of emergence equal to e. Due to refraction at the two surfaces, the
incident ray deviates from its path through an angle 6, called angle of deviation
Mathematically-
𝑠𝑖𝑛 (𝐴+ 𝛿𝑚
)
1. A = 𝑟1 + 𝑟2 2. A + δ = I + e 3. 𝜇 = 𝐴
2
(when the prism is placed in
𝑠𝑖𝑛
2
minimum deviation position) 4, 𝛿 =A (𝜇 -1) (when angle of prism is small)

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Dispersion. The phenomenon of splitting up of white light into its constituent colours
is called dispersion.
Spectrum. The band of seven colours obtained on the screen is called spectrum.
Pure spectrum. A spectrum, in which the constituent colours have sharp boundaries
and are distinctly visible, is called the pure spectrum.
Chromatic aberration. The inability of a lens to bring the light of different colours to
focus at a single point is called chromatic aberration.
Rayleigh’s law of scattering. It states that the intensity of the light of wavelength A
1
in the scattered light varies inversely as the fourth power of its wavelength. I = 𝜆4

Simple microscope. A convex lens of small focal length is called a simple microscope
or a magnifying glass. The magnifying power of a
microscope is defined as the ratio of the angle subtended
by the image at the eye to the angle subtended by the
object seen directly, when both lie at the least distance
of distinct vision.
𝐷
M=1+ 𝑓

Compound microscope. A
compound microscope is a two-
lens system (object lens and eye
lens of focal lengths f, and f,). Its
magnifying power is very large, as
compared to the simple
microscope.
𝑣𝑜 𝐷
Mathematically- M = (1 + )=
𝑢𝑜 𝑓𝑒
𝐿𝑜 𝐷
- (1 + )
𝑓𝑜 𝑓𝑒

Astronomical telescope. It is a two-lens system and is used to observe distant

heavenly objects. It is called refracting type astronomical telescope.
Normal adjustment. When the final image is formed at infinity, the telescope is said to
𝑓𝑜
be in normal adjustment. M = - 𝑓𝑒

When the final image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision, magnifying
𝑓 𝑓𝑒
power of the telescope, M = - 𝑓𝑜 (1 + )
𝑒 𝐷

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CONCEPT MAP

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 LEVEL-1 (MCQ QUESTIONS)
1 A convex lens of power 4D and a concave lens of power 3D are placed in contact.
What is the equivalent power of the combination?
4 3
a) 7D b)3D c)1D d)4D

2 An object approaches a convergent lens from the left of the lens with a uniform
speed
5 m/s and stops at the focus. The image
(a) moves away from the lens with a uniform speed 5 m/s.
(b) moves away from the lens with a uniform acceleration.
(c) moves away from the lens with a non-uniform acceleration.
(d) moves towards the lens with a non-uniform acceleration.
3 The refractive index of the material of an equilateral prism is √3 .What is the angle
of Minimum deviation?
(a) 45° (b) 60° (c) 37° (d) 30°
4 An object is placed at the focus of the convex mirror. If its focal length is 20cm,
the distance of image from the mirror is
(a)10cm (b)20cm (c)40cm (d)None
5 In an experiment to find focal length of a concave mirror, a graph is drawn between
the magnitude of u and v. The graph looks like:

6. Air bubble in water behaves as

(a) sometimes concave, sometimes convex lens
(b) concave lens
(c) convex lens
(d) always refracting surface
7 A ray of light passes from glass (μ = 1.5) to water (μ = 1.33). The value of the
critical angle of glass is _____ .
(a) sin-1 8/9 (b) sin-1√ 8/9 (c) sin-1 ½ (d) sin-1 2/1

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8 The direction of ray of light incident on a concave mirror is shown
by PQ while directions in which the ray would travel after
reflection is shown by four rays marked 1, 2, 3 and 4. Which
of the four rays correctly shows the direction of reflected
ray?

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

9 In the formation of a rainbow, the light from the sun on water droplets undergoes
(a) dispersion only. (b) only TIR. (c) dispersion, refraction and TIR.
(d) scattering.
10 An object is placed at a distance of 0.5 m in front of a plane mirror. The distance
between object and image will be
(a) 0.25 m (b) 0.5 m (c) 1.0 m (d) 2.0 m
11 The length of an astronomical telescope for normal vision (relaxed eye) will be
(a) fo – fe (b)fo /fe (c) fo × fe (d) fo + fe
12 If a convex lens of focal length 80 cm and a concave lens of focal length 50 cm
are combined together, what will be their resulting power?
(a) + 6.5 D (b) – 6.5 D (c) + 7.5 D (d) – 0.75 D

13 A prism has a refractive angle 60°. When a light ray is incident at 50°, then
minimum deviation is obtained. What is the value of minimum deviation?
(a) 40° (b) 45° (c) 50° (d) 60°
14 A lens of power 3.5D is placed in contact with a lens of power -2.5D. The
combination will behave like
a) A convergent lens of focal length 100cm
b) A divergent lens of focal length 100cm
c) A convergent lens of focal length 200cm
d) A divergent lens of focal length 200cm
15 A ray of light passes through a plane glass slab of thickness t and refractive index
µ = 1.5, The angle between the incident ray and the emergent ray will be
(a)0º (b)30 º (c)45º (d) 60º
16 A convex length of focal length is put in contact with a concave lens of same focal
length. The equivalent focal length of the combination is
(a)zero (b)f (c)2f (d)Infinity
17 The focal length of plane mirror is

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 (a)infinity (b)zero (c) 50 cm (d)negative

18 A convex lens is dipped in a liquid, whose refractive index is equal to the refractive
index of the lens. Then its focal length will _____ .
(a)become zero (b)remain unchanged (c)become infinite (d)None of these
19 Absolute refractive indices of glass and water are 3/2 and 4/3. The ratio of velocity
of light in glass and water will be
(a) 4:3 (b)8:7 (c) 8:9 (d) 3:4

20 Half of the lens is wrapped in black paper. How will it change the image
(a)Size of image is halved
(b)Intensity of image is halved
(c)There is no change in the size of image or intensity
(d)Both size and intensity of the image are changed.

LEVEL-2 (MCQ QUESTIONS)

1 A student measures the focal length of a convex lens by putting an object pin at 1
a distance 'u' from the lens and measuring the distance 'v' of the image pin. The
graph between 'u' and 'v' plotted by the student should look like

2 What should be increased to increase the angular magnification of a simple

microscope?
a)The power of the lens b)The focal length of the lens c)Lens Aperture
d)Object Size
3 What is the correct relationship
between refractive indices n,n1 and
n2 if the behaviour of light is as shown
in the figure?
a)n1>n b)n1<n c)n1=n d)None of the above

4 If an equiconvex lens of focal length f and power P is cut into half in thickness,
what is the focal length and power of each half?
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 a)Zero b)f/2 c)f d)2f

5 When a thin convex lens of glass 5D is immersed in a liquid, it behaves as a

divergent lens of focal length 100 cm. What is the refractive index of the liquid?

a)1/3 b)2/3 c)3/5 d)5/3

6 incident on a glass plate at an incident angle of 60°. If reflected and refracted rays
are mutually perpendicular, then refractrive index of the glass plate is _____ .
(a)√2 (b) √3 (c)1/√2 (d)1/√3

7 Light of certain colour has 2000 waves in a millimeter in air. What will be the
wavelength of this light in medium of refractive index 1.25 ?
(a) 1000 (b) 2000 (c) 3000 (d) 4000

8 A convex lens of glass (n = 1.5) has focal length of 20 cm. The lens is immersed
in water of refractive index 1.33. The change in the focal length of convex lens is
(a) 1.86 cm (b) 58.2 cm (c) 4.62 cm (d) 6.44 cm

9 For a thin lens when the heights of the object and the image are equal, object
distance and image distance are equal to _____ .
(a)f (b) 4f (c) 3f (d) 2f

10 the refractive index of an equilateral prism when light is incident at grazing

incidence and emerges at grazing emergence:
a)1.5 b) 1.8 c) 1.33 d) 2

LEVEL 3 (MCQ QUESTIONS)

1 A biconcave lens of power P vertically splits into two identical plano-concave parts.
The power of each part will be
(a) 2P (b) P/2 (c) P (d) P/√2

2 An incident light ray falls on a glass prism at an angle of 60o and emerges with
an angle of 30 with its initial incident direction.
If the angle of the prism is 30o, then which of the following is an INCORRECT
statement?
A. Refractive index of the prism is √3.
B. The light undergoes minimum deviation through the prism (i.e., r1 = r2).
C. The emergent ray is perpendicular to the face from which it emerges.
D. Angle of refraction r1 at the incident face is same as angle of the prism.

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3 Which of the following actions will lead to an increase in the magnifying power
of an astronomical telescope?
A. Increase in the length of the telescope tube.
B. Interchange the objective and the eyepiece of the telescope.
C. A small piece of paper on the objective of the telescope pointed towards
the moon.
D. Increase in the focal length of the objective and decrease in the focal length
of the eye piece.
4 A real image of size p times the size of an object is formed by a concave mirror
of focal length f.
What is the object distance from the mirror?
A. (p+1)*f/p B. (p‐1)*f/p C. p*f/(p+1) D. p*f/(p‐1)
5 Read the following statements carefully:
I. A drop of an oil in water or in a glass, both behave as convergent lens.
II. A water drop in air and a glass sphere in water, both behave as convergent
lens.
III. An air bubble in water and a water bubble in glass, both behave as a
divergent lens.
IV. A frozen ice crystal inside a glass sphere and a bromine liquid drop inside a
glass sphere, behave as divergent lens.
[Reference values of refractive indices of common substances: Air = 1.001;
Water = 1.33; ice = 1.31; Glass = 1.51; Oil = 1.4; Bromine = 1.66]
Select the correct option.
A. Statements I and II are correct.
B. Statements I and III are correct.
C. Statements II and III are correct.
D. Statements II and IV are correct
6 An object is moved towards a concave mirror at a constant speed, from infinity
to its focus. Which of the following statements correctly describe the
corresponding motion in the image formed by the concave mirror?

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 A. The image moves slower initially and faster later on, away from the mirror.
B. The image moves faster initially and slower later on, towards the mirror.
C. The image moves at a constant speed, faster than the object, away from the
mirror.
D. The image moves at a constant speed, slower than the object, towards the
mirror.
7 A ray of light is incident normally on an isosceles right-angled prism,
travels as shown in figure. The least value of the refractive index
of the prism must be:
a)√2 b)√3 c)2.0 d)1.5

8 A transparent container contains layers of 3 immiscible transparent liquids of

different refractive indices. A laser beam is
pointed at the layer I as shown in the figure.
What minimum angle of θ1 will ensure that
laser beam does not enter region III at all?
a)θ= sin-1 (1/5) b) sin-1 (1/15) c) sin-1 (2/5)
d)_ sin-1 (3/5)
9 Two statements are given below. One is labelled Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled Reason (R). Read the statements carefully and choose the option that
correctly describes statements A and R.
Assertion(A): A ray of light travelling from one media to another always changes
its path.
Reason(R): The speed of light changes when it travels from one medium to
another.
10 In the figure shown μ1, μ2, μ3, μ4 and μ5 are the refractive indices of the
mediums 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 respectively. Consider the following
a. μ1 = μ2
b. μ3 = μ4 = μ5
c. μ2 < μ3
d. μ4 > μ5
Which of the relations of refractive indices are
correct?

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 LEVEL 1 (2 M QUESTIONS)

1 What is total internal reflection and what are the conditions under which it occurs?
Obtain relation between critical angle between & refractive index.
2 a)A convex mirror is immersed in water of refractive index 1.33. Will the lens
behave as a converging or a diverging lens? Give reason.
b) When monochromatic light travels from one medium to another its wavelength
changes but frequency remains the same. Explain.
3 Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation by a concave mirror when the
object is placed between its focus and pole.
Write the value and sign of magnification in this case.
4 A plot, between the angle of deviation (δ) and
angle of incidence (i), for a triangular prism is
shown in figure:

Explain why any given value of ‘δ’ corresponds to

two values of angle of incidence. State the
significance of point P on the graph. ?
5 a)Write two differences between linear and angular magnification.
b) Three lenses with magnifications 2, 3 and 10 form a combination. What is its
total magnification?
6 With the help of a ray diagram, obtain the relation between its focal length and
radius of curvature.

LEVEL-2 (2 M QUESTIONS)

1. How does the power & focal length of a convex lens vary, if the incident red light
is replaced by violet light?
2. A right angled isosceles glass prism is made from glass of refractive index 1.5.
Show that a ray of light incident normally on (i) one of the equal sides of this prism
is deviated through 90° (ii) the hypotenuse of this prism is deviated through 180°.
3. a)When monochromatic light is incident on a surface separating two media, the
reflected and refracted light both have the same frequency as the incident
frequency. Explain why?
b) What are benefits of Lens Combination and making equivalent lens?
4. An object is placed 10 cm from a lens of focal length 5 cm. Draw the ray diagrams
to show the formation of image if the lens is (i) converging, and (ii) diverging.

5 The line AB in the ray diagram represents a lens. State whether the lens is convex
or concave ?

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 LEVEL-3 (2 M QUESTIONS)
1 (a) The bluish colour predominates in the clear sky. Why?
(b) Violet colour is seen at the bottom of the spectrum when white light is dispersed
by a prism. State reasons to explain these observations.
2 Write 4 advantages of reflecting type telescope over refracting type?
3 A concave lens made of material of refractive index ‘n2’is held in a reference
medium of refractive index ‘n1’. Trace the path of parallel beam of light passing
through the lens when: i)n1 = n2 (ii) n1 < n2 (iii) n1 > n2 . In which case the lens
will behave as plain glass?
LEVEL-1 (3 M QUESTIONS)

1 An equi-convex lens of radius of curvature R is cut into two equal parts by a vertical
plane, so it becomes a Plano convex lens. If f is the focal length of the equi-convex
lens, then what will be focal length of Plano convex lens?
2 Derive mirror equation for a convex mirror for real image.

3 a)A biconvex lens made of a transparent material of refractive index 1.25 is

immersed in water of refractive index 1.33. Will the lens behave as a converging
or a diverging lens? Give a reason.
b) A convex lens is placed in contact with a plane mirror. A point object at a
distance of 20 cm on the axis of this combination has its image coinciding with
itself. What is the focal length of the lens? Draw related Ray Diagram.
4 Using the ray diagram for a system of two lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 in
contact with each other, show that two lens system can be regarded as equivalent
to a single lens of focal length f, where

Also write the relation for the equivalent power of the lens combination.
5 Derive thin prism formula

LEVEL-2 (3 M QUESTIONS)
1 Produce a relation between real depth and apparent depth.

2 Using MIRROR FORMULA , show that a convex mirror always produces a virtual
image, independent of the location of the object & draw the related ray diagram.

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3 a)How does the angle of minimum deviation produced by a prism change with
increase in (i) the wavelength of incident light, and (ii) the refracting angle of
prism?
b) A glass prism is held in water. How is the angle of minimum deviation affected?
c) When does a ray passing through a prism deviate away from its base?

LEVEL - 3 (3 M QUESTIONS)
1 i)Redraw the diagram below and mark the position of the centre of curvature of
the spherical mirror used in the given set up

ii) State the principle of reversibility of light.

2 Which two of the following lenses L1, L2 and L3 will you select as objective and
eyepiece for constructing the best possible (i) telescope (ii) microscope? Give
reason to support your answer. iii)the aperture of the objective of ……….. is
preferred to be large?

3 a) Write the two important factors considered to increase the magnifying power of
a refracting type telescope.
b)Two convex lenses A and B of an astronomical telescope having focal lengths
5cm and 20 cm respectively, are arranged as shown in the
i)Which one of two lenses you will select to use
as objective lens and why?
(ii) What should be the change in the distance
between the lenses to have the telescope in its
normal adjustment position?
(iii) Calculate magnifying power of telescope in the normal adjustment position

LEVEL-1 (5 M QUESTIONS)
1. a) Derive expression for the lens maker's formula, i.e.,
1 1 1
= (𝜇 − 1) [𝑅1 − ] where the symbols have their usual meanings. Why is it
𝐹 𝑅2
known as Lens Maker’s formula.

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 b) Write the basic assumptions in the derivation of lens maker’s formula .

LEVEL 2 (5 M QUESTIONS)
1 Deduce the expression for the magnifying power of the microscope with a ray
diagram for the formation of image by a compound microscope.
Explain, i)Why must both the object and the eyepiece of a compound microscope
have short focal lengths?-
ii)While viewing through a compound microscope, why should our eyes be
positioned not on the eyepiece but a short distance away from it for best viewing?

LEVEL 3 (5 M QUESTIONS)
1. i)Draw a ray diagram showing the formation of the image by a point object on the
principal axis of a spherical concave surface separating two media of refractive
indices n1 and n2, when a point source is kept in the rarer medium of refractive
index n1. Derive the relation between object and image distance in terms of
refractive index of the medium and radius of curvature of the surface.
ii)Light from a point source in air falls on a convex spherical glass surface of
refractive index 1.5 and radius of curvature 20 cm. The distance of light source
from the glass surface is 100 cm. At what position is the image formed?

LEVEL-1 (NUMERICALS)

1 A ray of light incident on a equilateral prism propagates parallel to the baseline of 2

the prism inside it. Find the angle of incidence of this ray, given the refractive index
of the material of the prism is √3 ?
2 What is the focal length of a combination of a convex lens of focal length 30 cm 2
and a concave lens of focal length 20 cm in contact? Is the system a converging
or a diverging lens? Ignore thickness of lenses.
3 Calculate the speed of light in a medium whose critical angle is 45°. Does critical 2
angle for a given pair of media depend on wave length of incident light? Give
reason.
4 The radii of curvature of the faces of a double convex lens are 10cm and 15cm. If 2
the focal length of the lens is 12cm, find the refractive index of the material of the
lens?

LEVEL-2 (NUMERICALS)

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1 A spherical convex surface of radius of curvature 20cm made of glass of refractive 2
index 1.5 is placed in air. Find the position of the image formed if a point object is
placed 30cm in front of a convex surface on the principal axis?

2 A ray of monochromatic light is incident on the refracting face of a prism angle 3

75°. It passes through the prism and is incident on the other face at the critical
angle. If refractive index of the prism is √2, what is the angle of incidence on the
first face of the prism?

LEVEL-3 (NUMERICALS)

1 Three rays 1,2, 3 of different colours 3

fall normally on one of the sides of
an isosceles right angled prism as
shown in fig. The refractive indices
of prism for these rays are 1.39,
1.47 and 1.52 respectively. Find
which of these rays get normally
reflected and which get only
refracted from AC. Trace the path of rays. Justify your answer with the necessary
calculations ?
2 An angular magnification of 30X is desired for a compound microscope using an 5
objective of focal length 1.25 cm and eyepiece of focal length 5cm. How will you
set up the compound microscope?
3 i)A small telescope has an objective lens of focal length 140cm and an eyepiece 5
of focal length 5.0cm. If this telescope is used to view a100m tall tower 3km away,
what is the height of the image of the tower formed by the objective lens?
ii)An astronomical telescope has focal lengths 100 & 10 cm of objective and
eyepiece lens respectively when final image is formed at least distance of distinct
vision, magnification power of telescope will be?

CASE STUDY QUESTIONS (4-Marks)

A telescope is a device used to observe distant objects by their emission,
absorption, or reflection of electromagnetic radiation. Originally, it was an optical
instrument using lenses, curved mirrors, or a combination of both to observe
distant objects – an optical telescope. Nowadays, the word "telescope" is defined
as a wide range of instruments capable of detecting different regions of the
electromagnetic spectrum, and in some cases other types of detectors
The first known practical telescopes were refracting telescopes with glass lenses
and were invented in the Netherlands at the beginning of the 17th century. They
were used for both terrestrial applications and astronomy.
1
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The reflecting telescope, which uses mirrors to collect and focus light, was
invented within a few decades of the first refracting telescope.
In the 20th century, many new types of telescopes were invented, including radio
telescopes in the 1930s and infrared telescopes in the 1960s..

i) The magnifying power of an astronomical telescope in normal adjustment is 100.

What is the focal length of the objectives and eyepiece of the distance between
them is 101 cm?
a. 1 cm and 10 cm respectively
b. 1 cm and 100 cm respectively
c. 10 cm and 1 cm respectively
d. 100 cm and 1 cm respectively

ii) If the focal length of the objective lens is increased then

a)Magnifying power of microscope will increase but that of telescope will decrease
b)Magnifying power of microscope and telescope both will increase
c)Magnifying power of microscope and telescope both will decrease
d)The magnifying power of microscope will decrease but that of the telescope will
increase

.iii) The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When it is adjusted for parallel rays,
the distance between the objective and the eye-piece is found to be 20 cm. The
focal lengths of the lenses are
a) 18 cm, 2 cm b) 11 cm, 9 cm c)10 cm, 10 cm d) 15 cm, 5 cm

iv) ) In a compound microscope, magnifying power is 95 and the distance of the

object from the objective lens is 1/38 cm. The focal length of the objective lens ¼
cm. What is the magnification of eyepiece?
a) 5 b) 10 c) 100 d) 200

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 COMPETENCY BASED QUESTIONS
A ray of light travels from a denser to a rarer medium. After refraction, it bends
away from the normal. When we keep increasing the angle of incidence, the angle
of refraction also increases till the refracted ray grazes along the interface of two
media. The angle of incidence for which it happens is called critical angle. If the
1. angle of incidence is increased further the ray will not emerge and it will be
reflected back in the denser medium. This phenomenon is called total internal
reflection of light.

i)A ray of light travels from a medium into the water

at an angle of incidence of 18°. The refractive
index of the medium is more than that of water and
the critical angle for the interface between the two
media is 20°. Which one of the following figures
best represents the correct path of the ray of light?
ii) A point source of light is placed at the bottom of
a tank filled with water, of refractive index µ, to a depth h. The area of the surface
of water through which light from the source can emerge is:
a)πh²/2(μ²-1) b) πh²/(μ²-1)
c) πh²/(√2√(μ²-1)) d) 2πh²/(μ²-1)
iii) Is the formula "Real depth/Apparent depth =µ" valid if viewed from a position
quite away from the normal?
iv) A diver in a swimming pool wants to signal his distress to a person lying on the
edge of the pool by flashing his water proof flash light
a) He must direct the beam vertically upwards
b) He has to direct the beam horizontally
c) He has to direct the beam at an angle to the vertical which is slightly less than
the critical angle of incidence for total internal reflection

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 d) He has to direction the beam at an angle to the vertical which is slightly more
than the critical angle of incidence for the total internal reflection
2. The study of waves
in two dimensions is
often done using a
ripple tank. A ripple
tank is a large glass-
bottomed tank of
water that is used to
study the behavior
of water waves. A
light typically shines
upon the water from above and illuminates a white sheet of paper placed directly
below the tank. Light interacts differently with the varying curvature of the water's
surface, resulting in the projection of bright and dark regions onto a sheet of paper
below the tank. As the water waves move through the ripple tank, the dark and
bright spots move as well. As the waves encounter obstacles in their path, their
behavior can be observed by watching the movement of the dark and bright spots
on the sheet of paper. Ripple tank demonstrations are commonly done in a
Physics class in order to discuss the principles underlying the reflection, refraction,
and diffraction of waves.
1.Assertion : Plane mirror may form real image.
Reason : Plane mirror forms virtual image, if object is real.
ii) A biconvex lens made of a transparent material of refractive index 1.25 is
immersed in water of refractive index 1.33. Will the lens behave as a converging
lens? Give a reason.
iii) A transparent cube contains a small air bubble. Its apparent distance is 2 cm
when seen through one face and 5 cm when seen through other face. If the
refractive index of the material of the cube is 1.5, the real length of the edge of
cube must be:
a) 7 cm b) 7.5 cm c) 10.5 cm d) 20 cm
iv)A body is located on a wall. Its image of equal size is to be obtained on a parallel
wall with the help of a convex lens. The lens is placed at a distance d ahead of
second wall, then the required focal length will be:
A) only d/4 B) only d/2 C) more than d/4 but less than d/2 D)less than d/4

CCT BASED QUESTIONS

1 A comprehensive eye exam is simple and comfortable. It shouldn't take more than 4
45 to 90 minutes. Here is what the exam should include:
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This is the part of an eye exam people are most familiar with. You will read an eye
chart to determine how well you see at various distances. You cover one eye while
the other is being tested. This exam will determine whether you have 20/20
vision or not.

Your doctor will ask you to look at an

eye chart through a device called a phoroptor. The phoroptor contains different
lenses. Your doctor may check how your pupils respond to light by shining a bright
beam of light into your eye. Pupils usually respond by getting smaller. If your pupils
widen or don't respond, this may reveal an underlying problem.
Loss of side vision (peripheral vision) may be a symptom of glaucoma. This test
can find eye problems you aren't aware of because you can lose side vision
without noticing.A test called ocular motility evaluates the movement of your eyes.
Your ophthalmologist looks to see if your eyes are aligned. They also check that
your eye muscles are working properly.
Eye pressure testing, called tonometry, measures intraocular eye pressure, or
IOP. Elevated IOP is one sign of glaucoma. Your ophthalmologist uses a slit-lamp
microscope to light up the front part of the eye. This includes
the eyelids, cornea, iris and lens. This test checks for cataracts or any scars or
scratches on your cornea.
i) The maximum magnification that can be obtained with a convex lens of focal
length 2.5 cm is (the least distance of distinct vision is 25 cm)
a) 10 b) 0.1 c) 62.5 d)11
ii) The magnifying power of a magnifying glass is 6. The focal length of its lens in
metres will be, if least distance of distinct vision is 25 cm
a) 0.05 b) 0.06 c) 0.25 d) 0.12
iii) Resolving power of human eye is:
a) 0.1 mm b) 1 mm c) 2 mm d)None of the above
iv) In a simple microscope, if the final image is located at infinity then its magnifying
power is
a) 25/f b) D/25 c) f/25 d) f/D+1

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 SELF ASSESMENT TEST
Note: Q. No. 1-4 is of 01 mark each, Q. No. 5-6 is of 02 marks each, Q.No.7 is of
03 marks, Q. No. 8 is a case study based and is of 04 marks, Q. No. 11 is of 5
marks.
SN Question M
ar
ks
Half of the lens is wrapped in black paper. How will it change the image?
1. a)Size of image is halved 1
b)Intensity of image is halved
c)There is no change in the size of image or intensity
d) intensity of the image is reduced
A student measures the focal length of a convex lens by putting an object pin at a
2. distance 'u' from the lens and measuring the distance 'v' of the image pin. The graph 1
between 'u' and 'v' plotted by the student should look like

Assertion (A): Refractive index of glass with respect to air is different for red light
and violet light.
Reason (R): Refractive index of a pair of media does not depends on the
3. wavelength of light used. 1
a- Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is the correct
explanation of assertion.
b- Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is not a correct
explanation of assertion.
c- Assertion is correct but the reason is incorrect
d- Assertion is incorrect but the reason is correct.
Assertion: The focal length of the convex mirror will increase, if the mirror is placed
4. inwater.
Reason: The focal length of a convex mirror of radius R is equal to , f = R/2 1

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 A biconcave lens of power P vertically splits into two identical plano-concave parts. 1
5. The power of each part will be

(a) 2P (b) P/2 (c) P (d) P/√2

A prism has refractive angle 60°. When a light ray is incident at 50°, then minimum 1
6. deviation is obtained. What is the value of minimum deviation?
(a) 40° (b) 45° (c) 50° (d) 60°
An object is placed in front of a concave mirror of focal length 20 cm. The image
7. formed is three times the size of the object. Calculate two possible distances of the 2
object from the mirror?
A ray of light passing from air through an equilateral glass prism undergoes
8. minimum deviation when the angle of incidence is 3/4 of the angle of prism. 2
Calculate the speed of light in the prism.
Three rays 1,2, 3 of different colours fall normally on one of the sides of an isosceles
right angled prism as shown in fig. The refractive indices of prism for these rays are
9. 1.39, 1.47 and 1.52 respectively. Find which of these rays get normally reflected
and which get only refracted from AC. Trace the path of rays. Justify your answer
with the necessary calculations ? 3

10 Two parallel light rays pass through an isosceles prism of refractive index √3/2 as 3
shown in the figure. The angle between the two emergent rays is :

CASE BASED QUESTION

Lens maker’s formula relates to the focal length (f) of a lens to the refractive index
of the lens and the radii of the curvature of its two surfaces. The focal length of the
lens depends upon the refractive index of the material used for making the lens and
11 the radius of curvature. This formula is used by the manufacturers for making the 4
desired lens; that’s it is called the lens maker’s formula.
Limitations of the lens maker’s formula. The lens should not be thick so that the
space between the 2 refracting surfaces can be small.
The medium used on both sides of the lens should always be the same. An array
of simple lenses with a common axis can be used to multiply the magnification of
an image. The real image formed by one lens can be used as the object for another
lens, combining magnifications. Two lenses at this separation form the simplest
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 type of optical telescope. A schematic of a simple telescope is a good example of
the use of two lenses to focus the image of one lens:

i)In Ramsden eyepiece, the two plano-convex lenses each of focal length are
separated by a distance 12 cm. The equivalent focal length (in cm) of the eyepiece
is

a)10.5 b) 12.0 c) 13.5 d) 15.5

ii)The sun's diameter is 1.4×109m and its distance from the earth is 1011m. The
diameter of its image, formed by a convex lens of focal length 2m will be

a)0.7 cm b)1.4 cm c)2.8 cm d)Zero (i.e. point image)

iii) If aperture of lens is halved then image will be

a) No effect on size b) Intensity of image decreases
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these

iv)A diver in a swimming pool wants to signal his distress to a person lying on the
edge of the pool by flashing his water proof flash light

a) He must direct the beam vertically upwards

b) He has to direct the beam horizontally
c) He has to direct the beam at an angle to the vertical which is slightly less than
the critical angle of incidence for total internal reflection
d) He has to direction the beam at an angle to the vertical which is slightly more
than the critical angle of incidence for the total internal reflection

12 (i) Draw a labelled ray diagram to obtain the real image formed by an astronomical 5
telescope in normal adjustment position. Define its magnifying power. Deduce
expression .
(ii) You are given three lenses of power 0.5 D, 4 D and 10 D to design a telescope.
(a) Which lenses should be used as objective and eyepiece? Justify your answer.
(b) Why is the aperture of the objective preferred to be large?

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 CASE STUDY

13. How are rainbows formed? 4

The properties and behaviour of light, and how it interacts with droplets of water,
give rise to one of nature's most colourful meteorological events - the rainbow.
It's all in the geometry...
Rainbows are formed when sunlight is scattered from raindrops into the eyes of an
observer.Most raindrops are spherical rather than the often depicted 'teardrop'
shape and it is this spherical shape that provides the conditions for a rainbow to be
seen.The position of the sun and the raindrops in relation to the observer need to
be just right for a rainbow to form:
The sun needs to be behind the viewerThe sun needs to be low in the sky, at an
angle of less than 42° above the horizon. The lower the sun in the sky the more of
an arc of a rainbow the viewer will see
Rain, fog or some other source of water droplets must be in front of the viewer
The size of the raindrops does not directly affect the geometry of a rainbow, but
mist or fog tends to disperse the effect more (see fogbows).
Rainbows only appear semi-circular over level ground at sunrise or sunset, when
the sun is exactly on the horizon, the majority of the time a smaller segment of an
arc is seen. If the angles at which the light enters the droplet are correct, some of
the light that enters the droplet will be internally reflected from the inside edge of
the drop and will exit the drop, undergoing refraction again as it passes back from
water to air. Reflection by mirrors, Refraction by lenses, water give rise to many
such wonderful phenomenon in atmosphere.
i) An empty test tube is placed slanting in the
water and viewed from above. What will you
observe?
ii) If an equiconvex lens of focal length f and
power P is cut into half in thickness, what is the
focal length and power of each half?
a)Zero b)f/2 c)f d)2f
iii) A prism has an angle 600 and refractive index √2, what is the angle of minimum
deviation?
a)900 b)600 c)450 d) 300
iv) When a thin convex lens of glass 5D is immersed in a liquid, it behaves as a
divergent lens of focal length 100 cm. What is the refractive index of the liquid?
a)1/3 b) 2/3 c) 3/5 d) 5/3

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 UNIT VI-OPTICS
CH10: WAVE OPTICS

GIST OF THE CHAPTER:

1. Wave Nature of Light: Huygen’s Theory

There are some phenomena like interference, diffraction and polarisation which could
not be explained by Newton’s corpuscular theory. These were explained by wave
theory first proposed by Huygen.
The assumptions of Huygen’s wave theory are: (i) A source sends waves in all
possible directions.The locus of particles of a medium vibrating in the same phase is
called a wavefront. For a point source, the wavefront is spherical; while for a line
source the wavefront is cylindrical. A distant wavefront is plane. (ii) Each point of a
wavefront acts as a source of secondary wavelets. The envelope of all wavelets at a
given instant gives the position of a new wavefront.

2. Wavefront
A wavefront is defined as the locus of all the particles which are vibrating in the same
phase. The perpendicular line drawn at any point on the wavefront represents the
direction of propagation of the wave at that point and is called the ‘ray’.
Types of Wavefronts: The wavefronts can be of different shapes. In general, we
experience three types of wavefronts.
(i) Spherical Wavefront: If the waves in a medium are originating from a point source,
then they propagate in all directions. If we draw a spherical surface centred at point-
source, then all the particles of the medium lying on that spherical surface will be in
the same phase, because the disturbance starting from the source will reach all these
points simultaneously. Hence in this case, the wavefront will be spherical and the rays
will be the radial lines.
(ii) Cylindrical Wavefront: If the waves in a medium are originating from a line source,
then they too propagate in all directions. In this case the locus of particles vibrating in
the same phase will be a cylindrical surface. Hence in this case the wavefront will be
cylindrical.
(iii) Plane Wavefront: At large distance from the source, the radii of spherical or
cylindrical wavefront will be too large and a small part of the wavefront will appear to
be plane. At infinite distance from the source, the wavefronts are always plane and
the rays are parallel straight lines.
3. Coherent and Incoherent Sources of Light The sources of light emitting waves
of same frequency having zero or constant initial phase difference are called coherent
sources.The sources of light emitting waves with a random phase difference are called
incoherent sources.For interference phenomenon, the sources must be coherent.
Methods of Producing Coherent Sources: Two independent sources can never be
coherent sources. There are two broad ways of producing coherent sources for the
same source.

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(i) By division of wavefront: In this method the wavefront (which is the locus of points
of same phase) is divided into two parts. The examples are Young’s double slit and
Fresnel’s biprism.
(ii) By division of amplitude: In this method the amplitude of a wave is divided into
two parts by successive reflections, e.g., Lloyd’s single mirror method.
4. Interference of Light
Interference is the phenomenon of superposition of two light waves of same frequency
and constantphase different travelling in same direction. The positions of maximum
intensity are called maxima, while those of minimum intensity are called minima.
𝒏𝑫𝝀 𝟏 𝑫𝝀
𝒙𝒎𝒂𝒙𝒊𝒎𝒂 = 𝒙𝒎𝒊𝒏𝒊𝒎𝒂 = (𝒏 − )
𝒅 𝟐 𝒅
𝜆𝐷 𝛽 𝜆
Linear Fringe width= β = angular fringe width=𝐷 = 𝑑
𝑑

Condition for sustained interference

(i) The two sources of light must be coherent which means the two light waves emitted
by them must have a constant phase difference or in the same phase.
(ii) The two sources must emit light of the same wavelength but the amplitudes
between them should differ as little as possible. The emitted waves should be
preferably of the same amplitude to get completely dark fringes.
(iii) The two sources should be very narrow. Otherwise with the increase of slit width,
the coherence property will be lost. Hence, no interference pattern will be obtained.
(iv) The two sources must lie very close to each other. Otherwise overlapping of bright
and dark points will hinder interference.
5. Diffraction of Light
The bending of light from the corner of small obstacles or apertures is called diffraction
of light.
2𝜆𝐷 2𝜆
Linear central maxima= 2y= 𝑎
angular central maxima= 𝑎
Difference between Diffraction and Interference
Interference Diffraction
Interference may be defined as waves Diffraction, on the other hand, can be
emerging from two different sources, termed as secondary waves that
producing different wavefronts. emerge from the different parts of the
same wave.
The contrast between maxima and The contrast between maxima and
minima is very good. minima is poor.
The width of the fringes in interference The width of the fringes is not equal in
is equal. diffraction.

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CONCEPT MAP/MIND MAP:

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 LEVEL 1 MCQ
1 Idea of secondary wavelets for the. propagation of a wave was first given by
(a) Newton(b) Huygens(c) Maxwell(d) Fresnel

2 Light propagates rectilinearly, due to

(a) wave nature (b) wavelengths
(c) velocity (d) frequency

3 Which of the following is correct for light diverging from a point source?
(a) The intensity decreases in proportion with the distance squared.
(b) The wavefront is parabolic.
(c) The intensity at the wavelength does not depend on the distance.
(d) None of these.

4 The refractive index of glass is 1.5 for light waves of λ = 6000 Å in vacuum.
Its wavelength in glass is
(a) 2000 Å(b) 4000 Å(c) 1000 Å(d) 3000 Å

5 The phenomena which is not explained by Huygen’s construction of

wavefront
(a) reflection(b) diffraction(c) refraction(d) origin of spectra

LEVEL 2 MCQ
6 A laser beam is used for locating distant objects because
(a) it is monochromatic(b) it is not chromatic
(c) it is not observed(d) it has small angular spread

7 Two slits in Young’s double slit experiment have widths in the ratio 81:1. The
ratio of the amplitudes of light waves is
(a) 3 :1(b) 3 : 2(c) 9 :1(d) 6:1

8 When interference of light takes place

(a) energy is created in the region of maximum intensity
(b) energy is destroyed in the region of maximum intensity
(c) conservation of energy holds good and energy is redistributed
(d) conservation of energy does not hold good

9 To observe diffraction, the size of the obstacle

(a) should beX/2, where X is the wavelength.
(b) should be of the order of wavelength.
(c) has no relation to wavelength.
(d) should be much larger than the wavelength

10 What is the geometric shape of the wavefront that originates when a plane
wave passes through a convex lens?
a) Converging spherical b) Diverging spherical
c) Plane d) None of the above

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 LEVEL 3 MCQ
11 How can the fringe width increase in Young’s double-slit experiment?
a. By decreasing the width of the slit
b. By reducing the separation of slits
c. By reducing the wavelength of the slits
d. By decreasing the distance between slits and the screen

12 What is the locus of all particles in a medium vibrating in the same phase
called?
a. Fringe b.Wavelet c.Wavefront d.None of the above

13 Which of the following factors does the intensity of light depend on?
a. Frequency b.Wavelength c.Amplitude d.Velocity

14 Two light sources are said to be coherent when both the sources of light emit
light of
a. The same amplitude and phase
b. The same intensity and wavelength
c. The same speed
d. The same wavelength and constant phase difference

15 Which of the following is conserved when light waves interfere?

a. Intensity b. Amplitude c. Phase d. None of the above

ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE

Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion
and Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one
of the following four responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation
of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation
of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

16 Assertion : According to Huygen’s principle, no backward wave-front is

possible.
Reason : Amplitude of secondary wavelet is proportional to (1 + cos θ) where
θ is the angle between the ray at the point of consideration and the direction
of secondary wavelet.
17 Assertion : No interference pattern is detected when two coherent sources
are infinitely close to each other.
Reason : The fringe width is inversely proportional to the distance between
the two sources.
18 Assertion : It is necessary to have two waves of equal intensity to study
interference pattern.

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 Reason : There will be an effect on clarity if the waves are of unequal intensity.
19 Assertion : In YDSE, if a thin film is introduced in front of the upper slit, then
the fringe pattern shifts in the downward direction.
Reason : In YDSE if the slit widths are unequal, the minima will be completely
dark.
20 Assertion : Diffraction takes place for all types of waves mechanical or non-
mechanical, transverse or longitudinal.
Reason : Diffraction’s effect are perceptible only if wavelength of wave is
comparable to dimensions of diffracting device.
LEVEL 1 (2M QUESTIONS)
1 Write the important characteristic features by which the Interference can be
distinguished from the observed diffraction pattern.
2 One of the slits of Young’s double-slit experiment is covered with a semi-
transparent paper so that it transmits lesser light. What will be the effect on the
interference pattern?
3 A parallel beam of light of wavelength 600 nm is incident normally on a slit of
width ‘a’. If the distance between the slits and the screen is 0.8 m and the distance
of 2nd order maximum from the centre of the screen is. 15 mm, calculate the
width of the slit.
LEVEL 2 (2M QUESTIONS)
4 (i) State the principle on which the working of an optical fibre is based.
(ii) What are the necessary conditions for this phenomenon to occur?
5 Why are coherent sources necessary to produce a sustained interference
pattern?
6 Write the distinguishing features between a diffraction pattern due to a single slit
and the interference fringes produced in Young’s double-slit experiment?
7 In what way is diffraction from each slit related to the interference pattern in a
double-slit experiment?
LEVEL 3 (2M QUESTIONS)
8 When a tiny circular obstacle is placed in the path of light from a distance source,
a bright spot is seen at the centre of the shadow of the obstacle. Explain, why?
9 Write the conditions under which light sources can be said to be coherent.
10 Why is it necessary to have coherent sources in order to produce an interference
pattern?
LEVEL-1 (3M QUESTIONS)

1 A plane wavefront propagating in a medium of

refractive index µ1 is incident on a plane surface
making the angle of incidence i as shown in the figure.
It enters into a medium of refractive index µ2 (µ2>
µ1). Use Huygens’ construction of secondary
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 wavelets to trace the propagation of the refracted wavefront. Hence verify Snell’s
law of refraction.
2 How is a wavefront defined? Using Huygen’s construction draw a figure showing
the propagation of a plane wave reflecting at the interface of the two media.
Show that the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.
3 Why cannot two independent monochromatic sources produce sustained
interference patterns? Deduce, with the help of Young’s arrangement to produce
interference pattern, an expression for the fringe width.
4 The intensity at the central maxima (O) in a Young’s double slit experiment is Io.
If the distance OP equals one-third of the fringe width of the pattern, show that

the intensity at point P would be .

LEVEL 2 (3M QUESTIONS)

How is Huygen’s principle used to obtain the diffraction pattern due to a single
5 slit? Show the plot of variation of intensity with angle and state the reason for the
reduction in intensity of secondary maxima compared to central maximum.

In a double slit interference experiment, the two coherent beams have slightly
6 different intensities I and I + δI (δI<<I). Show that the resultant intensity at the

maxima is nearly 4I while that at the minima is nearly

7 In a single slit diffraction pattern, how does the angular width of central maximum
change , when (i) width of slit is decreased (ii)distance between Slit and screen
is increased (iii) light of smaller visible wavelength is used?
8 Light of wavelength 550 nm is incident as parallel beam on a slit of width 0.1 mm.
Find the angular width and the linear width of the principal maxima in the
resulting diffraction pattern on a screen kept at a distance of 1.1 m from the slit,
which of these width would not change if the screen were moved to a distance of
2.2 m from the slit?
LEVEL 3 (3M QUESTIONS)
9 Yellow light (λ=6000 Å) illuminates a single slit of width 1X10 -4m. Calculate the
distance between two dark lines on either side of central maximum when the
diffraction pattern is viewed on a screen kept 1.5 m away from the slit.
10 A parallel beam of light of wavelength 600nm is incident normally on a slit of width
‘a’. If the distance between the slit and the screen is 0.8m and the distance of
second order maximum from the centre of the screen is15mm, calculate the width
of the slit.

1. A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths 6500 Ao and 5200 Ao is used

to obtain interference fringes. The distance between the slits is 2.0 mm and the
distance between the plane of the slits and the screen is 120 cm.
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 2. Monochromatic light from a narrow slit illuminates two narrow slits 0.3 mm
apart producing an interference pattern with bright fringes 1.5 mm apart on a
screen 75 cm away. Find the wavelength of the light. How will the fringe width
be altered if-
i) the distance of the screen is doubled
ii) the separation between the slits is doubled ?
11 A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths 6500 Ao and 5200 Ao is used to
obtain interference fringes. The distance between the slits is 2.0 mm and the
distance between the plane of the slits and the screen is 120 cm.
a) Find position of third maxima for first wavelength.
b) Find the minimum distance at which maxima of the two wavelength coincide.
12 Monochromatic light from a narrow slit illuminates two narrow slits 0.3 mm apart
producing an interference pattern with bright fringes 1.5 mm apart on a screen
75 cm away. Find the wavelength of the light. How will the fringe width be altered
if-
i) the distance of the screen is doubled
ii) the separation between the slits is doubled ?
LEVEL-1 (5M QUESTIONS)
1 (a) State Huygen’s principle. Using this principle draw a diagram to show how a
plane wavefront incident at the interface of the two media gets refracted when it
propagates from rarer to a denser medium. Hence verify Snell’s law of refraction.
(b) When monochromatic light travels from a rarer to a denser medium, explain
the following, giving reasons:
(i) Is the frequency of reflected and refracted light same as the frequency of
incident light?
(ii) Does the decrease in speed imply a reduction in the energy carried by light
wave ?
2 (a) (i) ‘Two independent monochromatic sources of light cannot produce a
sustained interference pattern’. Give reason.
(ii) Light waves each of amplitude a and frequency n, emanating from two
coherent light sources superpose at a point. If the displacements due to these
waves is given by y1 = a cos t and y2 = a cos (ωt + ϕ), what is the phase difference
between the two, obtain the expression for the resultant intensity at the point.
(b) In Young’s double slit experiment, using monochromatic light of wavelength,
the intensity of light at a point on the screen where path difference is, is K units.

Find out the intensity of light at a point where path difference is

3 (a) In Young’s double slit experiment, describe briefly how bright and dark fringes
are obtained on the screen kept in front of a double slit. Hence obtain the
expression for the fringe width.
(b) The ratio of the intensities at minima to the maxima in the Young’s double slit
experiment is 9 : 25. Find the ratio of the widths of the two slits.
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 LEVEL 2 (5M QUESTIONS)

4 (a) In Young’s double slit experiment, deduce the conditions for obtaining
constructive and destructive interference fringes. Hence deduce the expression
for the fringe width.
(b) Show that the fringe pattern on the screen is actually a superposition of single
slit diffraction from each slit.
(c) What should be the width of each slit to obtain 10 maxima of the double slit
pattern within the central maximum of the single slit pattern, for green light of
wavelength 500 nm, if the separation between two slits is 1 mm?
5 (a) Using Huygen’s construction of secondary wavelets explain how a diffraction
pattern is obtained on a screen due to a narrow slit on which a monochromatic
beam of light is incident normally.
(b) Show that the angular width of the first diffraction fringe is half that of the
central fringe.

(c) Explain why the maxima at become weaker and weaker with
increasing n.
6 (a) Write three characteristic features to distinguish between the interference
fringes in Young’s double slit experiment and the diffraction pattern obtained due
to a narrow single slit.
(b) A parallel beam of light of wavelength 500 nm falls on a narrow slit and the
resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 1 m away. It is observed that
the first minimum is a distance of 2.5 mm away from the centre. Find the width of
the slit.
LEVEL 3 (5M QUESTIONS)
7 State the essential condition for diffraction of light to take place.
Use Huygen’s principle to explain diffraction of light due to a narrow single slit
and the formation of a pattern of fringes obtained on the screen. Sketch the
pattern of fringes formed due to diffraction at a single slit showing variation of
intensity with angle θ.
8 Red colour of light of wavelength λ is passed from two narrow slits which are
distance d apart and interference pattern is obtained on the screen distance
Dapart from the plane of two slits. Then find the answer to following parts
assuming that slit widths are equal to produce intensity I0 from each slit.
(a) Intensity at a point on the screen, situated at a distance 1/4 th of fringe
separation from centre.
(b) Intensity in the screen, if the sources become incoherent by using two
different lamps behind lamps S1 and S2.
(c) Angular position of 10th maxima, and the angular width of that fringe.
(d) Find the distance between 5th maxima and 3rd minima, at same side of
central maxima.

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 (e) If the phase difference between the two waves reaching two slits from the
source slit is (i) 5π and (ii) 2π, then what will be the colour of central fringe?
9 A slit of width ‘a’ is illuminated by white light.
(a) For what value of a will the first minimum for red light of λ = 650 nm be at θ =
15°?
(b) What is the wavelength λ' of the light whose first side diffraction maximum is
at 15°, thus coinciding with the first minimum for the red light?

LEVEL -1 (NUMERICALS)
1 Two plane monochromatic waves propagating in the same direction with
amplitudes A and 2A and differing in phase by 𝜋/3 superimpose. Calculate the
amplitude of resulting wave.
2 Two slits are made 1mm apart and the screen is placed 1m away. What is the
fringe separation when blue green light of wavelength 500nm is used?

LEVEL -2 (NUMERICALS)
1 A slit of width ‘d’ is illuminated by light of wavelength 5000Å. For what value of ‘d’
will the first maximum fall at an angle of diffraction of 30o.
2 Two spectral lines of sodium D1 and D2 have wavelengths approximately 5890Å
and 5896Å. A sodium lamp sends incident plane wave on to a slit of width 2
micrometer. A screen is located 2m from the slit. Find the spacing between the
first maxima of two sodium lines as measured on the screen.
LEVEL -3 (NUMERICALS)
1 If one of the two identical slits producing interference in Young’s experiment is
covered with glass, so that light intensity passing through it is reduced to 50%,
find the ratio of the maximum intensity of the fringes in the interference pattern.

CASE BASED QUESTIONS

1 Wavefront is a locus of points which vibrate in same phase. A ray of light is
perpendicular to the wavefront. According to Huygens principle, each point of the
wavefront is the source of a secondary disturbance and the wavelets connecting
from these points spread out in all directions with the speed of wave. The figure
shows a surface XY separating two transparent media, medium-1 and medium-
2. The lines ab and cd represent
wavefronts of a light wave
travelling in medium- 1 and
incident on XY. The lines ef and
gh represent wavefronts of the
light wave in medium -2 after
refraction.
(i) Light travels as a
a) parallel beam in each medium
b) convergent beam in each medium
c) divergent beam in each medium
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 d) divergent beam in one medium and convergent beam in the other
medium.

(ii) Wavefront is the locus of all points, where the particles of the medium
vibrate with the same
a) phase b) amplitude c) frequency d) period

(iii) A point source that emits waves uniformly in all directions, produces
wavefronts that are
a) Spherical b) elliptical c) cylindrical d) planar

(iv)What are the types of wavefronts ?

a) Spherical b) Cylinderical c) Plane d) All of these

2 Huygen's principle is the basis of

wave theory of light. Each point on
a wavefront acts as a fresh source
of new disturbance, called
secondary waves or wavelets. The
secondary wavelets spread out in
all directions with the speed light in
the given medium.An initially
parallel cylindrical beam travels in
a medium of refractive index u .
The intensity of the beam is
decreasing with increasing radius.

(i) The initial shape of the

wavefront of the beam is

(a) planar (b) convex

(c) concave (d) convex near the axis and concave near the periphery
(ii) According to Huygens Principle, the surface of constant phase is

(a) called an optical ray (b) called a wave

(c) called a wavefront (d) always linear in shape
(iii) As the beam enters the medium, it will

(a) travel as a cylindrical

(b) diverge
beam
(d) diverge near tile axis and converge near the
(c) converge
periphery.

(iv) Two plane wavefronts of light, one incident on a thin convex lens and another
on the refracting face of a thin prism. After refraction at them, the emerging
wavefronts respectively become

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 (b) plane wavefront and spherical
(a) plane wavefront and plane wavefront
wavefront
(c) spherical wavefront and plane (d) spherical wavefront and spherical
wavefront wavefront

COMPETENCY BASED
1 In a double slit experiment, the two slits are 1mm apart and the screen is placed
1m away. A monochromatic light of wavelength 500nm is used. What will be the
width of each slit for obtaining ten maxima of double slit within the central maxima
of single slit pattern.
CCT
1 In a double slit experiment , when light of wavelength 400nm was used, the
angular width of first minimum formed on a screen placed 1m away, was found
to be 0.2o. What will be the angular width of first minimum if entire appratus is
immersed in water (µ = 4/3).

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 SELF ASSESSMENT
Time allowed: 1 hour Max. marks: 25
Q.No. QUESTIONS MARKS
MCQ
1 Two waves are said to be coherent if they have. 1
(a) same phase and different amplitude
(b) different frequency phase and amplitude
(c) same frequency but different amplitude
(d) same frequency, phase and amplitude
2 A linear aperture whose width is 0.02 cm is placed immediately in 1
front of a lens of focallength 60 cm. The aperture is illuminated
normally by a parallel beam of wavelength5 × 10 –5 cm. The
distance of the first dark band of the diffraction pattern from the
centre of the screen is
(a) 0.10 cm (b) 0.25 cm
(c) 0.20 cm (d) 0.15 cm

3 For light diverging from a point source 1

a) the wavefront is spherical
b) the intensity decreases in proportion to the distance
squared.
c) the wavefront is parabolic.
(d) the intensity at the wavefront does not depend on the
distance.
4 In Young’s double-slit experiment, the distance between the slit 1
sources and the screen is 1 m. fringe width is
(a) 3 mm (b) 0.3 mm (c) 6 mm (d) 0.6 nm
• Question no. 5 and 6 are assertion and reason type questions.
• Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as
Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to
choose any one of the following four responses.

(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct
explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct
explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
5 Assertion : In Young’s double slit experiment if wavelength of 1
incident monochromatic light is just doubled, number of bright
fringe on the screen will increase.

Reason : Maximum number of bright fringe on the screen is

inversely proportional to the wavelength of light used
6 Assertion : Thin film such as soap bubble or a thin layer of oil on 1
water show beautiful colours when illuminated by white light.
Reason : It happens due to the interference of light reflected
from upper and lower face of the thin film

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7 Name the phenomenon which is responsible for bending of light 2
around sharp corners of an obstacle. Under what conditions does
this phenomenon take place? Give one application of this
phenomenon in everyday life
8 A parallel beam of light of 600 nm falls on a narrow slit and the 2
resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 1.2 m away. It
is observed that the first minimum is at a distance of 3 mm from
the centre of the screen. Calculate the width of the slit.
9 .(a) If one of two identical slits producing interference in Young’s 3
experiment is covered with glass, so that the light intensity passing
through it is reduced to 50%, find the ratio of the maximum and
minimum intensity of the fringe in the interference pattern.
(b) What kind of fringes do you expect to observe if white light is
used instead of monochromatic light?
10 Two wavelengths of sodium light 590 nm and 596 nm are used, in 3
turn, to study the diffraction taking place at a single slit of aperture
2 × 10–4 m. The distance between the slit and the screen is 1.5 m.
Calculate the separation between the positions of the first maxima
of the diffraction pattern obtained in the two cases.
11 CASE BASED QUESTION 4
For constructive interference, the path difference is equal to
integral multiple of wavelengths and resultant intensity will be
maximum at that points. While for destructive interference, the
path difference is (n + 1/2) multiple of wavelengths and where
resultant intensity is zero. When light is passed around the sharp
edges of an obstacle it get bended and may enters into the
geometrical shadow of that obstacle such a phenomenon of light
is called as diffraction of light. In interference, there are equally
spaced alternate bright and dark bands are possible. While in
diffraction, the there is a only one bright central Maxima and
around both sides of the central Maxima the intensity of the light
decreases as we go away from that central Maxima.

Q I.) For coherent sources of light the phase

difference must be___
a) one
b) zero
c) either zero or constant
d) 90°
Q II.) If the phase difference is 0, +2π, -4π then the
interference should be
a)constructive interference
b) destructive interference
c) both a and b
d) diffraction of light
Q III.) For destructive interference
a) path difference is (n +1/2) times wavelength
b) phase difference is π, -3π, +5π
c) path difference is integral multiple of wavelengths

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 d) both a and b
Q IV.) The interference and diffraction of light explains
which nature of light?
12 (a) In Young’s double slit experiment, describe briefly how bright 5
and dark fringes are obtained on the screen kept in front of a
double slit. Hence obtain the expression for the fringe width.
(b) The ratio of the intensities at minima to the maxima in the
Young’s double slit experiment is 9:25. Find the ratio of the widths
of the two slits.

******For detailed answers refer part II of study material*******

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 UNIT VII-DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER
CH–11: DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER

GIST OF CHAPTER
Dual nature of radiation, Photoelectric effect, Hertz and Lenard's observations; Einstein's
photoelectric equation-particle nature of light. Experimental study of photoelectric
effect, Matter waves-wave nature of particles, de-Broglie relation.
DEFINITION & CONCEPTS: -
Free electrons: - In metals, the electrons in the outer shell of the atoms are loosely
bound. They move about freely throughout the lattice of positive ions. Such loosely
bound electrons are called free electrons.
Work function of a metal. The minimum energy, which must be supplied to the electron
so that it can just come out of a metal surface, is called the work function of the metal. It
is denoted by W0.
Work function depends on (i) nature of the metal (ii) the conditions of its surface.
Electron emission: - The phenomenon of ejecting out the electron from metal surface
is called electron emission.
PHOTOELECTRIC EMISSION/ EFFECT: -.
The phenomenon of ejection of electrons from a metal surface, when light of sufficiently
high frequency falls on it, is known as photoelectric effect.
The electrons so emitted are called photoelectrons

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Hertz’s observation: -While demonstrating the existence of electromagnetic waves, Hertz
found that high voltage sparks passed across the metal electrodes of the detector loop more
easily when the cathode was illuminated by ultraviolet light from an arc lamp. The uv light falling
on metal surface caused the emission of negatively charged particles (electrons) into
surrounding space and enhance the high voltage sparks.

Hallwachs and Lenard Observation: - It was observed that if the frequency of incident
light is less than certain minimum value (Threshold frequency) emission of photo electrons
do not takes place.

Threshold frequency. The minimum frequency (𝑣𝑶), which the incident light must possess
so as to eject photoelectrons from a metal surface, is called threshold frequency of the
metal.
Mathematically- Work function W = h𝑣𝑶
Laws of photoelectric effect.

1. Photoelectric emission takes place from a metal surface, when the frequency of incident
light is above its threshold frequency.

2. The photoelectric emission starts as soon as the light is incident on the metal surface.

3. The maximum kinetic energy with which an electron is emitted from a metal surface is
independent of the intensity of light and depends upon its frequency.

4. The number of photoelectrons emitted is independent of the frequency of the incident

light and depends only upon its intensity.

The Effect of Intensity:-

The number of electrons emitted per second is observed to be directly proportional to the intensity
of light.
This happens above the threshold frequency.
Below this threshold frequency there is no
photocurrent at all, howsoever high the
intensityof light is.

The graph between the photoelectric current

straight line when the frequency of light used
is value.

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 The Effect of the Potential:-

The photoelectric current increases with increase in

accelerating (positive) potential of collector plate.
For a certain positive potential of plate A, the
photoelectric current becomes maximum and
constant or saturates. This maximum value of the
photoelectric current is called saturation current.
Saturation current corresponds to the case when all
the photoelectrons emitted by the emitter plate C
reach the collector plate A.
Saturation current increases with increase in intensity of incident radiation. The
photoelectric current decreases with negative potential of collector plate.

STOPPING POTENTIAL (𝑉0):-

At certain negative potential of the collector plate the photocurrent becomes zero. This negative
potential is called STOPPING POTENTIAL (𝑉0).
The stopping potential is measure of maximum kinetic energy of photoelectron.

1/2 mv2max = eVo

Where 𝑣𝑚𝑎𝗑 is the maximum velocity with which the photoelectrons are emitted

Effect of intensity of incident radiation on stopping potential

❖ Stopping potential does not change on changing the intensity of incident radiation.
❖ The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectron thus does not depend on intensity
of incident radiation.

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EFFECT OF FREQUENCY:

❖ Saturation Photocurrent does

not change on changing
frequency of incident radiation.
❖ The rate of emission of
photoelectron does not depend
on frequency of incident
radiation.

Effect of frequency on stopping potential

❖ Stopping potential increases on increasing frequency of incident radiation.
maximum kinetic energy of photoelectron thus depends on frequency of incident
radiation

Graph between stopping potential and frequency

❖ Graph between stopping potential and frequency of incident radiation is always a
straight line.
❖ Slope of this graph is constant and its
ℎ
value is .
𝑒
❖ Thus maximum kinetic
energy of photoelectron vary
linearly with frequency of
incident radiation.
❖ There exists a certain minimum
cut- off frequency 𝑣𝑜 for which
the stopping potential is zero.

EINSTEIN’S PHOTOELECTRIC THEORY

Electromagnetic Radiation energy is built up of discrete units PHOTONS – the so

called quanta of energy of radiation
In interaction of Electromagnetic Radiation with matter, radiation behaves as if it is made
up of particles called photons.

Photo electric emission: Each Photon of incident radiation interacts with a single
electron and if energy of photon (ℎ𝑣) is equal to or greater than work function, the electron
is emitted.

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 When light of frequency ν is incident on a metal surface, whose work function is W
then the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons is given by

ℎ𝑣=1/2 mv2max ɸ𝑜 ⇒ 1/2 mv2max = ℎ (𝑣 − 𝑣 𝑜)

This is called EINSTEIN’S PHOTOELECTRIC EQUATION. It can explain the laws of

photoelectric emission.
Properties of Photon:-
(i) In interaction of radiation with matter, radiation behaves as if it is made of particles like
photons.
(ii) Each photon has energy (E= ℎ𝑣) and momentum (p=ℎ𝑣/c)
(iii) All photons of a particular frequency 𝑣 or wavelength have same energy (E= ℎ𝑣=h c/
𝝀) and same momentum (p=ℎ𝑣/c= h/ 𝝀) irrespective of intensity of radiations.
(iv) Velocity of photon in different media is different due to change in its wave length.
(v) Rest mass of photon is zero.
(vi) During collision of photon and electron energy and momentum are conserved.
If stopping potential is 𝑉𝑜 then, 𝑀𝑎𝑥. 𝐾𝐸 𝑜f 𝑝ℎ𝑜𝑡𝑜 𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑟𝑜𝑛 = 𝑒 𝑉𝑜

⇒ 𝑒 𝑉𝑜 = ℎ𝑣 − ɸ𝑜 = ℎ (𝑣 − 𝑣 𝑜)

This explains why the 𝑉𝑜versus 𝑣 curve is a straight line with slope = (h/e), independent of the
nature of the material.

DE-BROGLIE HYPOTHESIS.
Both radiation and matter have dual nature. A moving particle of momentum p is associated
with a wave called de-Broglie wave of wavelength.

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197

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MIND MAP

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****************

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 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

LEVEL 1
1. The minimum energy required to remove an electron is called

a. Stopping potential b. Kinetic energy c.Work function d.None of these

2. In which of the following, emission of electrons does not take place?
a. Thermionic emission b. X-rays emission c. Photoelectric emission d.Secondary
emission
3. Which of the following when falls on a metal will emit photo electrons?
a. UV radiations b. Infrared radiation c. Radio waves d. Microwaves
4. Which of the following metals is not sensitive to visible light?
a. Cesium b. Sodium c. Rubidium d. Cadmium
5. Photons are deflected by
a. electric field only b. magnetic field only c. electromagnetic field d.None of these
6. The emission of electrons does not occur in which of the following?

a. Photoelectric Emission b. Thermionic Emission c, Secondary Emission

d. X-Ray Emission
7. What happens to the kinetic energy of the emitted electrons when the light is
incident on a metal surface?

a. It varies with the frequency of light

b. It varies with the light intensity
c. It varies with the speed of light
d. It varies irregularly
8. A photoelectric cell is a device which
a. Converts light energy into electricity
b. Converts electricity into light energy
c. Stores Light energy
d. Stores Electricity
9. What does a cathode ray consist of?

a. Electrons b. Protons c. Photons d. Alpha particles

10. Who gave the theory of quantization of electric charge?

a. J.J Thomason b. William Crookes c. R.A Millikan d. Wilhelm Hallwachs

11. Which of the following metals is not sensitive to visible light?

a. Rubidium b. Sodium c. Caesium d. Cadmium

12. Which of the following does the wave theory of light not explain?

a. Diffraction b. Photocurrent c. Polarization d. Interference

13. Photons are deflected by

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 a. Magnetic field only b. Electric field only c. Electromagnetic field d. None of
the above
14. The photoelectric effect is based on the law of conservation of

a. Energy b. Momentum c. Mass d. Angular momentum

15. Photon does not possess

a. Energy b. Momentum c. Rest Mass d. Frequency

16. The momentum of a photon of wavelength λ is
a. hλ b. h/λ c. λ/h d. h/c λ
17. Maximum KE of photo electrons is 4 e V Then the stopping potential is
a. 4 V b. 1.6 V c. 4 J d. 4 e V
18. The slope of stopping potential vs frequency of the incident light graph is
a. e/h b. h/e c. h/c d. c/h.
19. Photoelectric effect shows
a. wave like behavior of light
b. particle like behavior of light
c. both wavelike and particle like behavior
d. neither wave like nor particle like behavior of light.
20. An electron and a proton have the same de Broglie wave length. Which of them
have greater velocity?
a. Electron b. proton. c. both a and b d. none of the above.

LEVEL 2
1. Photoelectric emission from a given surface of metal can take place when the value
of a physical quantity is less than the energy of incident photon. The physical quantity
is
a. threshold frequency b. work function of surface c. threshold wavelength
d. stopping potential
2. The photoelectric work function for a metal surface is 4.14eV. The cut-off wavelength
for this is
a. 4125 A˚ b. 2062.5A˚ c. 3000A˚ d. 6000A˚
3. 1eV is energy acquired by an electron when it is accelerated through potential
difference of –
a. 1 V b. 2 V c. 3 V d. 4 V.
4. An electron, an alpha particle, a deutron and a proton have the same KE. which
one has shortest de Broglie wavelength?
a. α particle b. electron c. proton d. deutron.
5. Photons of energies 1eV and 2eV are successively incident on a metallic surface of
work function 0.5eV. The ratio of kinetic energy of most energetic photoelectrons in
the two cases will be
a. 1:2 b.1:1 c. 1:3 d.1:4.
6. When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength λ, the stopping

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 potential is V. If the same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2λ, the
stopping potential is V/4. The threshold wavelength for the metallic surface is
a. 4λ b. 5λ c. 5/2λ d. 3λ.
7. In an electron microscope, the electrons are accelerated by a voltage of 14 kV. If the
voltage is changed to 224 kV, then the de Broglie wavelength associated with the
electrons would
a. increase by 2 times b. decrease by 2 times c. decrease by 4 times
d. increase by 4 times.
8. A particle of mass 3 × 10–6 g has the same wavelength as an electron moving with a
velocity 6×106 m s−1. The velocity of the particle is
a. 1.82×10−18 m s−1 b. 9×10−2 m s−1 c. 3×10−31m s−1 d. 1.82×10−15 m s−1
9. If a light of wavelength 330 nm is incident on a metal with work function 3.55 eV, the
electrons are emitted. Then the wavelength of the emitted electron is (Take h = 6.6 ×
10–34 Js)
a. < 2.75×10−9 m b. ≥ 2.75×10−9 m c. ≤ 2.75×10−12 m d. < 2.5×10−10 m
10. A photoelectric surface is illuminated successively by monochromatic light of
wavelength λ and λ/2. If the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons in
the second case is 3 times that in the first case, the work function at the surface of
material is
a) hc/λ b) 2hc/ λ c) hc/3λ d) hc/2λ

LEVEL 3
1. In photoelectric emission, a radiation whose frequency is 4 times threshold frequency
of a certain metal is incident on the metal. Then the maximum possible velocity of the
emitted electron will be

2. Two radiations with photon energies 0.9 eV and 3.3 eV respectively are falling on a
metallic surface successively. If the work function of the metal is 0.6 eV, then the ratio
of maximum speeds of emitted electrons will be
a) 1:4 b) 1:3 c) 1:1 d) 1:9
3. A light source of wavelength 520 nm emits 1.04 × 1015 photons per second while the
second source of 460 nm produces 1.38 × 1015 photons per second. Then the ratio
of power of second source to that of first source is
a) 1.00 b) 1.02 c) 1.5 d) 0.98

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 4. The mean wavelength of light from sun is taken to be 550 nm and its mean power is
3.8 × 1026W. The number of photons received by the human eye per second on the
average from sunlight is of the order of
a) 1045 b) 1042 c) 1054 d) 1051
5. The work functions for metals A, B and C are 1.92 eV, 2.0 eV and 5.0 eV respectively.
The metals which will emit photoelectrons for a radiation of wavelength 4100 Å is/are
a) A only b) both A and B c) all these metals d) none
6. Light of frequency 1.9 times the threshold frequency is incident on a photosensitive
material. If the frequency is halved and intensity is doubled, the photocurrent
becomes

a. Doubled b) quadrupled c) halved d) zero

7. For a metal having a work function W0, the threshold wavelength is λ. What is the
threshold wavelength for the metal having work function 2W0?

a. λ/4 b)λ/2 c)2λ d) 4λ

8. Radiation of frequency ν is incident on a photosensitive metal. When the frequency
of the incident radiation is doubled, what is the maximum kinetic energy of the
photoelectrons?

a. 4E b) 2E c) E + hν d) E – hν
9. By what factor will the de Broglie wavelength change if the K.E if the free electron is
doubled?
a. ½ b) 1/√2 c) 2 d) 2
10. In photoelectric effect what determines the maximum velocity of the electron
reacting with the collector?

a. Frequency of incident radiation alone

b. The potential difference between the emitter and the collector
c. The work function of metal
d. All of these

ASSERTION- REASON

Directions: In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is given followed

by a corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the statements, mark the
correct answer as:
(A)If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion
(B)If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion
(C)If assertion is true and reason is false
(D)If both assertion and reason are false.
LEVEL 1
1. Assertion: A photon has no rest mass, yet it carries definite momentum.
Reason: Momentum of photon is due to its energy and hence its equivalent mass.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
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 2. Assertion: Photoelectric effect demonstrates the wave nature of light.
Reason. The number of photoelectrons is proportional to the frequency of light.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
3. Assertion: When light of certain wavelength falls on a metal surface it ejects electron.
Reason: Light has wave nature.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
4. Assertion: As work function of a material increases by some mechanism, it requires
greater energy to excite the electrons from its surface.
Reason: A plot of stopping potential (V) versus frequency (v) for different materials, has
greater slope for metals with greater work functions
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
5. Assertion: Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold frequency is incident on
photosensitive material. If the frequency is halved and intensity is doubled the photo current
remains unchanged.
Reason: The photo electric current varies directly with the intensity of light and frequency
of light.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
LEVEL 2

6. Assertion: The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron when its kinetic energy is k is λ. Its
wavelength is 2 λ when its kinetic energy is 4k.
Reason: The de - Broglie wavelength λ is proportional to square root of the
kinetic energy.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
7. Assertion: In process of photoelectric emission, all emitted electrons do not have same
kinetic energy.
Reason: If radiation falling on photosensitive surface of a metal consists of different
wavelength then energy acquired by electrons absorbing photons of different wavelengths
shall be different.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
8. Assertion: Though light of a single frequency (monochromatic) is incident on a metal,
the energies of emitted photoelectrons are different.
Reason: The energy of electrons emitted from inside the metal surface, is lost in collision
with the other atoms in the metal.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

9. Assertion: The photoelectrons produced by a monochromatic light beam incident on a

metal surface have a spread in their kinetic energies.
Reason: The work function of the metal is its characteristics property.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
10. Assertion: Photoelectric saturation current increases with the increase in
frequency of incident light.
Reason: Energy of incident photons increases with increase in frequency and as a result
photoelectric current increase. (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

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 LEVEL 3
11. Assertion: Photosensitivity of a metal is high if its work function is small.
Reason: Work function = hf0 where f0 is the threshold frequency.
12. Assertion: In an experiment on photoelectric effect, a photon is incident on an
electron from one direction and the photoelectron is emitted almost in the opposite direction.
It violates the principle of conservation of linear momentum.
Reason: It does not violate the principle of conservation of linear momentum.
13. Assertion: Two sources of equal intensity always emit equal number of photons
in any time interval.
Reason: Two sources of equal intensity may emit equal number of photons in any time
interval.
14. Assertion: Two photons of equal wavelength must have equal linear momentum.
Reason: Two photons of equal linear momentum will have equal wavelength.
15. Assertion: The kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted from metal surface does
not depend on the intensity of incident photon.
Reason: The ejection of electrons from metallic surface is not possible with
frequency of incident photons below the threshold frequency.

2 MARKS QUESTIONS

LEVEL 1
1. If the wavelength of an electromagnetic radiation is doubled what will happen to the
energy of photons?
2. Two metals A and B have work functions 4 eV and 10 eV, respectively. Which metal
has higher threshold wavelength?
3. A proton and an electron have same kinetic energy. Which one has greater de-Broglie
wavelength and why?
4. Two lines, A and B, in the plot given below show the variation of de-Broglie
wavelength, λ versus 1√V, Where V is the accelerating potential difference, for two
particles carrying the same charge. Which one of two represents a particle of smaller
mass?
5. An alpha particle and a proton are accelerated through same potential difference.
Find the ratio (vᾳ/vp) of velocities acquired by two particles.
6. What is the effect of wavelength of incident photons on velocity of photoelectrons? A
beam of monochromatic radiation is incident on a photosensitive surface. Do the
emitted photoelectrons have the same kinetic energy? Explain.
LEVEL 2
1. Electrons are emitted from a photosensitive surface when it is illuminated by green
light but electron emission does not take place by yellow light. Will the electrons be
emitted when the surface is illuminated by (i) red light, (ii) blue light?
2. A proton, a neutron, an electron and α particle have same energy. Then their de-
Broglie wavelengths compare as?
3. Why do we not observe the phenomenon of photoelectric effect with non-metal?

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4. Work function of sodium is 2.3eV. Does sodium show photo electric emission for
light of wavelength 6800A˚
5. Do all the electrons that absorb a photon come out as photoelectrons?

LEVEL 3
1.The graph shows variation of stopping potential Vo verses frequency of incident
radiation ϑ for two photosensitive metals A
and B. (i) Which of the two metals has
higher threshold frequency and why? (ii)
What does intercept on –ve y axis
represent?

2.The variation of the stopping potential (v0) with the

frequency (v) of the light incident on two different
photosensitive surfaces M1 and M2 is shown in the figure.
Identify the surface which has greater value of the work
function.
3.Show that the wavelength of electromagnetic radiation is
equal to the de-Broglie wavelength of its quantum.

3 MARKS QUESTIONS

LEVEL 1
1. In photoelectric effect, why should the photoelectric current increase as the intensity
of monochromatic radiation incident on a photosensitive surface is increased?
Explain.
2. Light of wavelength 3500 Å is incident on two metals A and B. Which metal will yield
more photoelectrons if their work functions are 5 eV and 2 eV respectively?
3. Plot a graph showing the variation of photo current vs collector potential for
three different intensities I1 > I2 > I3, two of which (I1 and I2) have the same
frequency ν and the third has frequency ν1 > ν.
4. Show the variation of photocurrent with collector plate potential for different
frequencies but same intensity of incident radiation.
5. Define the terms (i) cut-off voltage and (ii) threshold frequency in relation to the
Phenomenon of photoelectric effect. Using Einstein’s photoelectric equation show
how the cut -off voltage and threshold frequency for a given photosensitive material
can be determined with the help of a suitable plot.
.

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 LEVEL 2
1. When a given photo-sensitive material is irradiated with light of frequency 𝜈, and
maximum speed of the emitted photoelectrons equals vmax. The square of v𝑚𝑎𝑥 2 is
observed to vary with v, as per the graph shown
in fig. Obtain expression for (i) Planck's constant
and (ii) the work function of the given photo
sensitive material, in terms of the parameter l, n
and the mass m of the electrons. (iii) How is
threshold frequency determined from the graph?

2. A beam of monochromatic radiation is incident

on a photosensitive Surface. Answer the following questions giving reasons. i) Do the
emitted photoelectrons have the same kinetic energy? ii) Does the kinetic energy of
the emitted electrons depend on the intensity of incident radiation? iii) On what factors
does the number of emitted photoelectrons depend?
3. The following graph shows the variation
of stopping potential V0 with the
frequency v of the incident radiation for
two photosensitive metals X and Y. i)
which of the metals has larger threshold
wavelength? Give reason. ii) Explain,
giving reason, which metal gives out
electrons, having larger kinetic energy,
for the same wavelength of the incident radiation. iii) If the distance between the light
source and metal X is halved, how will the kinetic energy of electrons emitted from it
change? Give reason.

LEVEL 3
1. The given graph shows the variation of photo-electric current (I) with the applied
voltage (V) for two different materials and for two different intensities of the incident
radiations. Identify and explain using Einstein’s photo electric equation for the pair of
curves that correspond to
(i) different materials but same intensity of incident radiation,
(ii) different intensities but same materials.

2. Plot a graph showing the variation of stopping potential with the frequency of incident
radiation for two different photosensitive materials having work functions W1 and W2
(W1>W2). On what factors does the (i) slope and (ii) intercept of the lines depend?

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3. Figure shows a plot of 1/√V, where V is the accelerating potential, Vs. The de Broglie
wavelength λ in the case of two particles having same charge 'q' but different masses
m1 and m2. Which line (A or B) represents a particle of larger mass?

5 MARKS QUESTIONS

LEVEL 1
1. Draw properly labelled graphs to show the following concerning photo electric
emission:
(i) Variation of photo electric current with the intensity of incident
radiation.
(ii) Variation of photo electric current with accelerating
and stopping potential.
(iii) Variation of stopping potential with frequency of
incident radiation.
From the graph how the following can be determined. 1)
Plank’s constant. 2) The work function of the material.
Obtain Einstein s photo- electric equation.

LEVEL 2
2. A proton and an alpha particle are accelerated through the same potential. Which
one of the two has (i) greater value of de Broglie wavelength associated with it and
(ii) less kinetic energy? Give reasons to justify your answer.

LEVEL 3
3. Two monochromatic radiations of frequencies v1 and v2 (V1 > v2) and having the
same intensity are, in turn, incident on a photosensitive surface to cause photoelectric
emission. Explain, giving reason, in which case
(i) a greater number of electrons will be emitted and
(ii) maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons will be more.

NUMERICALS
LEVEL 1
1. What is the momentum of a photon of energy 1 MeV?
2. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with an electron accelerated through a
potential difference V is λ. What will be its wavelength when the accelerating potential
is increased to 4V?
3. An electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 100 volt. What is the de-
Broglie wavelength associated with it? To which part of the electromagnetic spectrum
does this value of wavelength correspond?
4. The maximum kinetic energy of a photoelectron is 3 eV. What is its stopping
potential?

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 LEVEL 2

5. Monochromatic light of frequency 6x1014 Hz is produced by a laser. The power

emitted is 2x103 W i) what is the energy of photon in the light? ii) How many photons
per second on the average are emitted by the source?
6. In an experiment on photoelectric emission, following observations were made 1)
Wavelength of the incident light = 2 × 10–7m 2) Stopping potential = 3V Find (i) kinetic
energy of photoelectrons with maximum speed (ii) work function.
7. The work function of Cesium metal is 2.14eV. When light of frequency 6 x 10 14Hz is
incident on the metal surface photoemission of electrons occurs. a. What is the
maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons b. stopping potential c.
maximum speed of the emitted photoelectrons?

LEVEL 3
8. Light of wavelength 2000 A0 falls on an aluminum surface. In aluminum 4.2 eV are
required to remove an electron. What is the kinetic energy of (a) fastest (b) the
slowest photoelectron?
9. Using the graph shown in the figure for stopping potential
v/s the incident frequency of photons, calculate Planck’s
constant.
10. The Kinetic Energy (K.E.), of a beam of electrons,
accelerated through a potential V, equals the energy of
a photon of wavelength 5460 nm. Find the de Broglie
wavelength associated with this beam of electrons

CASE BASED QUESTIONS

1) According to de-Broglie a moving material particle sometimes acts as a wave and

sometimes as a particle or a wave is associated with moving material particle
which controls the particle in every respect. The wave associated with moving
material particle is called matter wave or de-Broglie wave whose wavelength
called de-Broglie wavelength, is given by λ = h/mv

i) If the momentum of a particle is doubled, then its de-Broglie wavelength will

a. remains unchanged b. become four times c. become two times
d. become half

ii) If an electron and proton are propagating in the form of waves having the same λ
, it implies that they have the same
a. Energy b. Momentum c. Velocity d. angular momentum

iii) Velocity of a body of mass m, having de-Broglie wavelength λ , is given by relation

a. v = λ h/m b. v = λm/h c. v = λ/hm d. v = h/ λm

iv) Moving with the same velocity, which of the following has the longest de Broglie
wavelength?
a. ᵦ -particle b. α -particle c. proton d. neutron.

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 COMPETENCY BASED QUESTIONS

1. According to wave theory of light, the light of any frequency can emit electrons from
metallic surface provided the intensity of light be sufficient to provide necessary
energy for emission of electrons, but according to experimental observations, the light
of frequency less than threshold frequency cannot emit electrons; whatever be the
intensity of incident light. Einstein also proposed that electromagnetic radiation is
quantized. If photoelectrons are ejected from a surface when light of wavelength λ1
= 550 nm is incident on it. The stopping potential for such electrons is Vs =0.19. If
photoelectrons are ejected from a surface when light of wavelength λ1 = 550 nm is
incident on it. The stopping potential for such electrons is Vs =0.19. Suppose the
radiation of wavelength λ2 = 190 nm is incident on the surface.

i) Photoelectric effect supports quantum nature of light because

a. there is a minimum frequency of light below which no photoelectrons are emitted.
b. the maximum K.E. of photoelectric depends only on the frequency of light and not
on its intensity
c. even when the metal surface is faintly illuminated, the photo electrons leave the
surface immediately.
d. electric charge of the photoelectrons is quantized.

ii) Calculate the stopping potential Vs2 of surface.

a. 4.47 b. 3.16 c. 2.76 d. 5.28

iii) Calculate the work function of the surface

a. 3.75 b. 2.07 c. 4.20 d. 3.60

iv) Calculate the threshold frequency for the surface

a. 500 x 1012 Hz b. 480 x 1013 Hz c. 520 x 1011 Hz d. 460 x 1013 Hz

2. Observations in Photoelectric Effect

1. For each metal there is a characteristic minimum frequency below which
photoelectric effect is not observed. This is called threshold frequency. If frequency
of light is less than the threshold frequency, there is no ejection of electrons no matter
how long it falls on surface or how high is its intensity.
2. The kinetic Energy of electrons emitted is directly proportional to frequency of
striking photons & independent of their intensity.
3. The no. of electrons that are ejected per second from metal surface depends upon
intensity of striking radiations and doesn’t depend upon their frequency.
4. If frequency of incident light is more than threshold frequency, then the excess
energy is imparted to electrons in the form of kinetic energy.

i) Electrons are emitted with zero velocities from metal surface when exposed to
radiation of wavelength 6800Ao. Calculate (ν0 = photon’s frequency & W0 = work
function)?
a. 3.21x 10 12 /sec & 9.7 x 10 -19 J
b. 4,14x 10 14 /sec & 2.92 x 10 -19 J

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 c. 7.76 x 10 14 /sec & 9.7 x 10 -19 J
d. 4.14 x 10 -14 /sec & 2.922 x 10 -19 J

ii) A proton of wavelength 400 nm strikes metal surface. The electrons are ejected
with velocity 5.85 × 10 5 m/s. Calculate min. energy required to remove electron
from metal surface. (Mass of electron = 9.1 × 10 -31 kg)
a. 29.43 ×10 -20 J b. 34.50 ×10 20 J c. 29.43 ×10 20 J d. 34.50 ×10 -20 J
iii) Einstein could explain photoelectric effect using Plank’s Quantum theory as
follows: -
a. Greater he frequency of incident light, greater the kinetic energy of e –
b. Greater the intensity of light more the no. of electrons ejected.
c. Both are correct
d. Only b is correct

iv) Who discovered the Photoelectric effect?

a. Hertz. b. Einstein. c. Max Planck d. de-Broglie

CCT BASED QUESTIONS

1. Lenard observed that when ultraviolet radiations were allowed to fall on the emitter
plate of an evacuated glass tube, enclosing two electrodes (metal plates), and current
started flowing in the circuit connecting the plates. As soon as the ultraviolet
radiations were stopped, the current flow also stopped. These observations proved
that it was ultraviolet radiations, falling on the emitter plate, that ejected some charged
particles from the emitter and the positive plate attracted them.

i) Alkali metals like Li, Na, K and Cs show photo electric effect with visible light but
metals like Zn, Cd and Mg respond to ultraviolet light. Why?
a. Frequency of visible light is more than that for ultraviolet light
b. Frequency of visible light is less than that for ultraviolet light
c. Frequency of visible light is same for ultraviolet light
d. Stopping potential for visible light is more than that for ultraviolet light

ii) Why do we not observe the phenomenon of photoelectric effect with non-metals?
a. For non-metals the work function is high
b. Work function is low
c. Work function can’t be calculated
d. For non-metals, threshold frequency is low.
iii) What is the effect of increase in intensity on photoelectric current?
a. Photoelectric current increases b. Decreases c. No change.
d. Varies with the square of intensity

iv) How does the K.E max of the electrons emitted vary with the work function of metal?
a. It doesn’t depend on work function
b. It decreases as the work function increases
c. It increases as the work function increases
d. Its value is doubled with the work function.

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 SELF ASSESEMENT
TOPIC: DUAL NATURE OF RADIATON & MATTER

Marks: 25 Time: 40Min.

General Instructions:
(a) All questions are compulsory
(b) There are 25 questions in total. Q. 1 to 6 carries1 mark each. Q. 7 to 8 carry 2
marks each, Q. 9 to 10 carry 3 mark each, Q. 11 carry 4 mark and Q. 12 carry 5
marks.

1. An electron, an alpha particle, a deuteron and a proton have the same KE. Which
one has shortest de Broglie wavelength?
a. α particle b. electron c. proton d. deuteron.
2. Photons of energies 1eV and 2eV are successively incident on a metallic surface of
work function 0.5eV. The ratio of kinetic energy of most energetic photoelectrons in
the two cases will be
a. 1:2 b.1:1 c. 1:3 d.1:4
3. When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength λ, the stopping
potential is V. If the same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2λ, the
stopping potential is V/4. The threshold wavelength for the metallic surface is
a.4λ b. 5λ c. 5/2λ d. 3λ
4. In an electron microscope, the electrons are accelerated by a voltage of 14 kV. If the
voltage is changed to 224 kV, then the de Broglie wavelength associated with the
electrons would
a. increase by 2 times b. decrease by 2 times c. decrease by 4 times
d. increase by 4 times
Directions: In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is given
followed by a corresponding statement of Reason (R) just below it. Of the
statements, mark the correct answer as:
(A)If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion (B)If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion (C)If assertion is true and reason is false
(D)If both assertion and reason are false.
5. Assertion: Two photons of equal wavelength must have equal linear momentum.
Reason: Two photons of equal linear momentum will have equal wavelength.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
6. Assertion: The kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted from metal surface does
not depend on the intensity of incident photon.
Reason: The ejection of electrons from metallic surface is not possible with frequency
of incident photons below the threshold frequency.

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 (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
7. The energy required to remove electron from sodium is 2.3 eV. Does sodium show
photoelectric effect for orange light of wavelength 6800A o?
8. The given graphs show the variation of the
stopping potential V0 with the frequency ν of the
incident radiations for two different
photosensitive materials A and B. Which one of
the two has higher value of work function?
Justify your answer.
9. A proton and a deuteron are accelerated
through the same accelerating potential.
Which one of the two has (a) greater value of de-Broglie wavelength associated
with it (b) less momentum? Give reasons to justify your answer.
10. The work function for certain metal is 1.8 eV. (a) What is the stopping potential for
electrons ejected from metal, when light of 4000Ao shines on the metal? (b) What is
the maximum speed of the ejected electrons?
11. According to de-Broglie a moving material particle sometimes acts as a wave and
sometimes as a particle or a wave is associated with moving material particle which
controls the particle in every respect. The wave associated with moving material
particle is called matter wave or de-Broglie wave whose wavelength called de-Broglie
wavelength, is given by λ = h/mv
i) The dual nature of light is exhibited by
a. diffraction and photo electric effect b. photoelectric effect c. refraction and
interference d. diffraction and reflection
ii) If the momentum of a particle is doubled, then its de-Broglie wavelength will
a. remains unchanged b. become four times c. become two times d. become half
iii) If an electron and proton are propagating in the form of waves having the same λ,
it implies that they have the same
a. Energy b. Momentum c. Velocity d. angular momentum
iv) Velocity of a body of mass m, having de-Broglie wavelength λ, is given by relation
a. v = λ h/m b. v = λm/h c. v = λ/hm d. v = h/ λm
12. a) What is photo electric effect? State the characteristics of photoelectric effect.
b) Explain effect of following terms on the photo electric current.
i) Intensity of light
ii) Frequency of light
iii) Potential difference between anode and cathode. OR
a) Derive the expression for the de Broglie wavelength of an electron moving under
a potential difference of V volts.
b) A deuteron and an alpha particle are accelerated through the same accelerating
potential. Which one of the two has-
(I) greater value of de Broglie wavelength (II)Less kinetic energy? Explain.

*********

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 UNIT VIII ATOMS AND NUCLEI
CHAPTER 12-ATOMS
Gist
- Early atomic models and their limitations. Thomson’s model of atom
-Rutherford’s alpha ray scattering experiment
-Rutherford’s model of atom .
- Bohr’s model of the atom and its postulates.
- Hydrogen atom spectrum and energy level transitions.

1. Introduction to Atomic Models

- Dalton’s Atomic Theory: Early concept

of the atom as an indivisible particle.

- Discovery of Electrons and Nucleus :

Introduction to the electron discovered by
J.J. Thomson and the nucleus
discovered by Rutherford through the
gold foil experiment.

2. Rutherford’s Model of the Atom

- Description of the gold foil experiment.

Setup of the Gold Foil Experiment

Apparatus - A source of alpha particles (helium nuclei), a thin sheet of gold foil, a
fluorescent screen, and a detector.

Alpha Particles : High-energy particles emitted from a radioactive source, typically

radium or polonium.

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Gold Foil : Extremely thin sheet of gold, only a few atoms thick.

- Detection Screen : Circular screen coated with zinc sulfide that fluoresces when struck
by alpha particles.

Procedure

1. Alpha Particle Emission: The alpha particles were directed at the thin gold foil.

2. Observation: The particles that passed through or were deflected by the foil struck the
fluorescent screen, producing tiny flashes of light (scintillations).

3. Detection: A microscope was used to observe and count the scintillations at various
angles relative to the incident beam.

Observations

1. Most Particles Passed Through:The majority of the alpha particles went straight
through the gold foil with little to no deflection, suggesting that most of the atom is empty
space.

2. Some Particles Deflected : A small number of alpha particles were deflected at small
angles, indicating the presence of a positive charge within the atom that repelled the
positively charged alpha particles.

3. Very Few Particles Reflected : A very small fraction of the particles (about 1 in 8000)
bounced back at angles greater than 90 degrees, indicating a very dense, positively
charged core within the atom.

Conclusions

1. Existence of Nucleus : The large deflections and reflections of alpha particles could
only be explained if the positive charge and most of the mass of the atom were
concentrated in a small, dense region at the center of the atom. This region was named
the nucleus.

2. Atomic Model : Rutherford proposed a new model of the atom, where the atom consists
of a small, dense nucleus containing protons (and later, neutrons) surrounded by
electrons that orbit the nucleus, much like planets orbit the sun.

3. Empty Spacen: The fact that most alpha particles passed through the foil without
deflection indicated that the majority of the atom’s volume is empty space.

Significance

- Disproval of Thomson’s Model : The experiment disproved J.J. Thomson’s plum

pudding model, which suggested that electrons were uniformly distributed within a
positively charged “soup.”

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- Foundation for Modern Atomic Theory : The discovery of the nucleus paved the way
for the development of the Bohr model and subsequent quantum mechanical models of
the atom.

The gold foil experiment was crucial in advancing our understanding of atomic structure,
leading to the realization that atoms have a tiny, dense nucleus surrounded by electrons,
fundamentally changing the way we understand matter at a microscopic level.

- Rutherford’s nuclear model: Electrons orbit a dense, positively charged nucleus.

- Limitations: Stability of atoms and spectrum of hydrogen couldn't be explained.

3. Bohr’s Model of the Atom

- Postulates of Bohr’s theory: Quantized electron orbits, stationary states, and energy
levels.

- Energy quantization: Electrons can only occupy certain discrete orbits.

- Explanation of hydrogen spectrum: Emission and absorption spectra explained using

the concept of electronic transitions between quantized orbits.

4. Spectral Series

- Lyman Series: Transitions to n=1 (ultraviolet region).

- Balmer Series: Transitions to n=2 (visible region).

- Paschen, Brackett, and Pfund Series : Transitions to n=3, 4, and 5 (infrared region).

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5. Success and Limitations of Bohr’s Model

- Success in explaining the hydrogen atom spectrum and its limitations.

- Failure to explain spectra of multi-electron atoms and finer spectral details (Zeeman
effect and Stark effect).
Formulae :

1.Magnitude of force of α particle:

2.Total energy of the electron

3.Angular Momentum

4.Frequency of emitted photon

5.Radius of nth possible orbit

6.Energy of an electron
7.Difference in energy levels

8.The energy of an electron in Bohr’s orbit of hydrogen atom is given by the expression

Since Z = 1 for hydrogen En = -13.6/n2 eV

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MIND MAP /CONCEPT MAP

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Level 1
1. Who proposed the plum pudding model of the atom?
- A) Rutherford B) Thomson C) Bohr D) Dalton

2. What did Rutherford's gold foil experiment demonstrate?

- A) Electrons are in fixed orbits.
- B) Atoms have a nucleus.
- C) Atoms are indivisible.
- D) Atoms are electrically neutral.

3. What particles are found in the nucleus of an atom?

- A) Electrons and protons
- B) Electrons and neutrons
- C) Protons and neutrons
- D) Only protons

4. What is the charge of an electron?

- A) Positive B) Negative C) Neutral D) Depends on the atom

5. Bohr's model states that electrons revolve around the nucleus in:
- A) Elliptical orbits B) Fixed orbits C) Random paths D) Parabolic paths

6. When an electron jumps from a higher orbit to a lower orbit, it:

- A) Absorbs energy B) Emits energy C) Remains stationary D) Loses mass

7. Which series of hydrogen spectrum lies in the visible region?

- A) Lyman series B) Balmer series C) Paschen series D) Brackett series

8. The energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit is:

- A) Positive B) Negative C) Zero D) Depends on the orbit

9. In Bohr’s model, the angular momentum of an electron is:

- A) Quantized B) Continuous C) Always zero D) Infinite

10. What is the principal quantum number \( n \) of the ground state of a hydrogen atom?
- A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3

11. The spectral lines of hydrogen were explained using:

- A) Thomson’s model B) Rutherford’s model C) Bohr’s model D) Dalton’s model

12. What does the Rydberg constant represent?

- A) Speed of light
- B) Planck's constant
- C) The constant used in calculating the wavelengths of spectral lines
- D) Mass of an electron

13. In the hydrogen atom, the transition from ( n = 3 ) to (n = 2 )emits a photon in which
series?
- A) Lyman series B) Balmer series C) Paschen series D) Pfund series

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14. Who discovered the nucleus of the atom?
- A) Bohr B) Thomson C) Rutherford D) Einstein

15. Which particle has the least mass?

- A) Proton B) Neutron C) Electron D) Nucleus

16. The energy levels in an atom are:

- A) Continuous B) Quantized C) Infinite D) Non-existent

17. What is the charge of a neutron?

- A) Positive B) Negative C) Neutral D) Double positive

18. In Bohr's model, which orbit has the lowest energy?

- A) First orbit B) Second orbit C) Third orbit D) Fourth orbit

19. What is the main limitation of Rutherford’s model?

- A) Could not explain atomic spectra
- B) Could not explain the charge of the nucleus
- C) Could not explain the mass of the atom
- D) Could not explain the behavior of neutrons

20. In which region of the electromagnetic spectrum does the Lyman series lie?
- A) Visible B) Infrared C) Ultraviolet D) X-ray
Level 2
1. According to Bohr's model of the atom, which of the following statements is true about
the orbits of electrons?
- A) Electrons in higher orbits have higher energy.
- B) Electrons in lower orbits have higher energy.
- C) Electrons in all orbits have the same energy.
- D) Electrons have no defined energy in Bohr's model.

2. Which series of hydrogen spectrum lies in the ultraviolet region?

- A) Lyman series B) Balmer series C) Paschen series D) Brackett series

3. In Bohr's model, what does the quantum number \( n \) represent?

- A) Energy level of the electron
- B) Angular momentum of the electron
- C) Spin of the electron
- D) Magnetic quantum number of the electron

4. What is the fundamental assumption in Bohr's model that leads to quantization of

electron orbits?
- A) Electrons emit radiation continuously.
- B) Electrons do not radiate energy while moving in orbits.
- C) Electrons move in random paths around the nucleus.
- D) Electrons have no specific mass.

5.The energy difference between two energy levels in an atom corresponds to:
- A) The wavelength of light emitted or absorbed
- B) The number of electrons in the atom

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 - C) The speed of electrons in the atom
- D) The mass of the nucleus

6.The ionisation potential of hydrogen is 13.6 V. The energy of the atom in n = 2 state
will be
A) -10.2 eV B) -6.4eV C) – 3.4 eV D)– 4.4 eV

7.In Bohr’s model of the hydrogen atom, the ratio between the period of revolution of an
electron in the orbit n = 1 to the period of revolution of electron in the orbit n = 2 is
A) ½ B) ¼ C)1/8 D) 2

8.To explain fine structure of spectrum of hydrogen atom, we must consider.

A) a finite size of nucleus.
B) the presence of neutrons in the nucleus.
C) spin angular momentum.
D) orbital angular momentum.

9.When an electron jumps from some outer orb it to the innermost orbit in the hydrogen
atom, the spectral line belongs to
A) Lyman series
B) Balmer series
C) Paschen series
D) Pfund series

10.How does the energy difference between two consecutive energy levels vary on the
quantum number n increases?
A) does not change
B) decreases
C) increases
D) may increase or decrease.
Level 3

1.If the electron in hydrogen atoms is excited to n = 5 state, the number of different
frequencies of radiation which may be emitted is:
A) 4 B) 10 C) 8 D) 5

2.The ionisation potential of hydrogen is 13.6 V. The energy of the atom in n = 2 state
will be
A) -10.2 ev B) -6.4eV C) – 3.4 eV D) – 4.4 eV

3.The ratio of the energies of the hydrogen atom in its first to second excited state is :
A) ¼ B) 4/9 C) 9/4 D) 1/9

4.When an electron jumps from some outer orb it to the innermost orbit in the hydrogen
atom, the spectral line belongs to
A) Lyman series B) Balmer series C) Paschen series D) Pfund series

5.According to classical theory, Rutherford atom is

A) stable B) unstable C) metastable D) semistable

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6.For an electron orbit to be non-radiating, it should be
A) such that the angular momentum should be integral multiple of h.
B) circular in nature
C) elliptical in nature
D) none of these

7.The ratio of the angular momentum of an electron in first orbit to that in the second
orbit is
A) ½ B)1/4 C) 4/1 D) 2

8.The ionisation energy of hydrogen atom is E. When the electron in a hydrogen atom
jumps from the state n = 1 to the state n = 2, the energy absorbed by it is …………………
A) 3E/4 B) 4E/3 C) E/4 D) E/3

9.In the Bohr model of the atom, which of the following quantities takes quantized
values?**

A) Linear momentum of electron B) Radius of electron orbit

C) Angular momentum of electron D) None of the above

10.The ionization energy of hydrogen is 13.6 eV. The energy required to remove an
electron from the second orbit of Li2+ is:

A) 13.6 Ev B) 30.6 eV C) 40.8 eV D) 122.4 eV

2 marks Questions
Level 1
Q1.Define ionisation energy. What is its value for a hydrogen atom?
Q2.Write the expression for Bohr’s radius in hydrogen atom.
Q3.What is the ratio of radii of the orbits corresponding to first excited state and ground
state in a hydrogen atom?
Q4.Why is the classical (Rutherford) model for an atom—of electron orbiting around the
nucleus—not able to explain the atomic structure?
Q5.What is the maximum number of spectral lines emitted by a hydrogen atom when it
is in the third excited state?

Level 2
Q1. What are the values of first and second excitation potential of hydrogen atom?
Q.2 The wavelength of some of the spectral lines of obtained in hydrogen spectrum are
1216 A0 , 6463 A0 and and 9546 A0 Which one of these wavelength belongs to the
paschen series.
Q3.Name the series of Hydrogen spectrums lying in ultraviolet and visible regions.
Q4. what are results What is 4 Do you expect if alpha particle, scattering experiment is
repeatedly using a thin sheet of hydrogen in place of a gold foil?
Q5.Define ionisation energy. What is its value for a hydrogen atom?

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 Level 3
Q1.When an electron in hydrogen atom jumps from the third excited state to the ground
state, how would the de Broglie wavelength associated with the electron change? Justify
your answer.
Q2.The figure shows energy level diagram of hydrogen
atom
Find out the transition which results in the emission of
a photon of wavelength 496 nm.
Q3.The energy level diagram of an element is given.
Identify, by doing necessary calculations, which
transition corresponds to the emission of a spectral line
of wavelength 102.7 nm

3 marks questions
Level 1
Q1.Calculate the shortest wavelength of the spectral lines emitted in Balmer series.
Q2. Why is the mass of nucleus does not enter the formula for impact parameter but it’s
charged does ?
Q3.What is the ratio of radii of the orbits corresponding to first excited state and ground
state in a hydrogen atom?
Q4 .The radius of innermost electron orbit of a hydrogen atom is 5.3 × 10 -11 m. What is
the radius of orbit in the second excited state?
Q5 write to postulates of Bohr atomic model
Level 2
Q1.The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. What are the kinetic and
potential energies of electron in this state?
Q2.Write two important limitations of Rutherford nuclear model of the atom.
Q3.Name the series of Hydrogen spectrums lying in ultraviolet and visible regions.
Level 3
Q1.State the limitations of Bohr’s atomic model.
Q2. Define ionization energy. How would the ionization energy change when electron in
hydrogen atom is replaced by a particle of mass 200 times that of the electron but having
the same charge?
Q3.Show that the radius of the orbit in hydrogen atom varies as n 2, where n is the
principal quantum number of the atom.

5 Marks questions
Level 1
Q1.i) In hydrogen atom, an electron undergoes transition from 2nd excited state to the
first excited state and then to the ground state. Identify the spectral series to which these
transitions belong.
(ii) Find out the ratio of the wavelengths of the emitted radiations in the two cases.
Level 2
Q1.i) In hydrogen atom, an electron undergoes transition from third excited state to the
second excited state and then to the first excited state. Identify the spectral series to
which these transitions belong.
(ii) Find out the ratio of the wavelengths of the emitted radiations in the two cases.
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 Level 3
1. Describe brother for atom model. What are the drawbacks of this model?
NUMERICALS
Level 1
1.The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 electron volt. What are the potential
energy of electron in the state?
2.what is the energy possessed by an electron four and tends to be infinity?
3. What is the ratio of radii of orbit corresponding to the first excited state and ground
state in hydrogen atom?
4. The radius of inner most electron orbit of an hydrogen atom is 5.3×10 -11 m. What is
the radius of the orbit in second excited state?
Level 2
1.The energy levels of a hypothetical atom are shown below.
Which of the shown transitions will result in the emission of a
photon of wavelength 275 nm? Which of these transitions
correspond to emission of radiation of
(i) maximum and
(ii) minimum wavelength ?
2.Find the ratio of energies of photons produced due to transition of an electron of
hydrogen atom from its
(i) second permitted energy level to the first level, and
(ii) the highest permitted energy level to the first permitted level.

3.The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. What are the kinetic and
potential energies of electron in this state? (All India)

Level 3.
1.The value of a ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV.
(i) Find the energy required to move an electron from the ground state to the first excited
state of the atom.
(ii) Determine
(a) the kinetic energy and
(b) orbital radius in the first excited state of the atom.
(Given the value of Bohr radius = 0.53 Å)
2.The energy levels of an atom are as shown here.
Which of them will result in the transition of a photon
of wavelength 275 nm?
b) Which transition corresponds to emission of radiation of maximum wavelength?
3.The total energy of an electron in the first excited state of hydrogen atom is -3.4 eV.
(a) What is kinetic energy of electron in this state? (ii) What is potential energy of electron
in this state? (c) Which of the answers above would change if the choice of zero of
potential energy is changed?

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Case based study question / Source based question
Each element is having specific properties as it emits or shows the specific emission
spectrum of radiation. The emission line spectrum has bright lines on the dark surface.
The hydrogen spectrum consist of series namely Balmer, Lyman, Paschen, Brackett and
Pfund series. The Lyman series is formed in the ultraviolet region while Paschen,
Brackett and Pfund series are in the infrared region. According to Bohr’s first postulate,
electrons are revolving in particular stable orbits without radiating any form of energy.
And in his second postulate he told that, these electrons are revolving around the nucleus
in stable orbits which are having angular momentum equal to integral multiple of h/2π.
And third postulate tells us that, when electron jumps from higher energy state to lower
energy state it will emits some amount of energy and which is equal to the energy
difference between those energy levels.

And he gave the energy of an electron in an hydrogen atom as En = -13.6/ n2 eV

The negative sign shows that electron is tightly bound with the nucleus. And when n = 1,
then corresponding energy of electron is called as ground state energy. Bohr’s model is
only applicable to single electron system like hydrogen and it cannot be applicable to
helium atom also which is having two electrons.
Read the above passage and answer the rolling questions .

1.) In hydrogen atom, the ground state energy is given by___

a) +13.6 Ev b) -13.6 J c) -13.6 KJ d) -13.6 eV

2.) According to Bohr’s second postulate, the angular momentum L is given by

a) L= h/2π b) L = nh/2π c) L = 2π/h d) L = 2π/ nh

3.) What is the shortest wavelength in the Balmer series

a) 656.3 nm b) 364.6 nm c) 656.3 mm d) 364.6 mm

4.) For ground state of hydrogen atom the value of principal quantum number is___
a) n = 2 b) n = 0 c) n = 1 d) n = infinity
Competency Based Question
Q1.Explain how the observation of spectral lines can be used to identify elements in
distant stars.
Q2.Discuss the significance of the Balmer series in the context of hydrogen's atomic
spectrum and its application in astronomy.

CCT BASED QUESTION

A hydrogen atom is excited from its ground state (n = 1) to the n = 3 energy level. The
atom then returns to the ground state by emitting photons.

1. Describe how the wavelengths relate to the hydrogen emission spectrum.

2. Discuss the implications of these transitions in the context of Bohr's model of the
atom.

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 SELF ASSESSMENT TEST
Total marks =25 Time = 40 Mins.
Question 1 to 6 each of 1 mark
Question 7to8 each of 2 mark
Question 9to 10:each of 3 mark
Question 11 of 4 mark
Question 12 is of 5 marks

Q1.What is the main limitation of Rutherford’s model?

- A) Could not explain atomic spectra
- B) Could not explain the charge of the nucleus
- C) Could not explain the mass of the atom
- D) Could not explain the behaviour of neutrons

Q2 The spectral lines of hydrogen were explained using:

- A) Thomson’s model B) Rutherford’s model C) Bohr’s model D) Dalton’s model

Q3.Two H atoms in the ground state collide inelastically. The maximum amount by which
their combined kinetic energy is reduced is
-A) 10.20 eV - B) 20.40 eV - C) 13.6 eV - D) 27.2 eV
Q4.The Bohr model for the spectra of a H - atom.

- A) will not be applicable to hydrogen in the molecular form

- B) will not be applicable as it is for a He -atom.
- C) is valid only at room temperature
- D) predicts continuous as well as discreeter spectral lines .

Directions for Assertion-Reason Type Questions

In each of the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement

of reason (R). Mark the correct choice as: - (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are
true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A). - (b) Both Assertion (A)
and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

- (c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.

- (d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

Q5.Assertion (A): in alpha rays, scattering experiment, most of the alpha particle goes
on deflected.
Reason (R): most of the space in the atom is empty
Q6.Assertion (A): In Bohr’s model of the atom, the angular momentum of the electron is
quantized.
Reason (R): The electron in an atom revolves in circular orbits around the nucleus under
the influence of electrostatic forces.
Q7.State the limitations of Bohr’s atomic model

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Q8. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 electron volt. What are the kinetic
and potential energy of the electron in the
state?
Q9.The energy level diagram of an element is
given here . Which transition corresponds to
the emission of a spectral line of wavelength
102.7nm?
Q10.Explain the concept of the Bohr radius
and derive the expression for the radius of the nth orbit in the hydrogen atom using Bohr’s
model.
Q11. In the early 20th century, the study of hydrogen atom spectra provided crucial
evidence for the development of quantum mechanics. The hydrogen atom, being the
simplest atom with only one electron, showed a series of discrete spectral lines that were
first observed and recorded in the visible region (Balmer series). Later, other series like
the Lyman series (UV region) and Paschen series (IR region) were also discovered.
These observations led Niels Bohr to propose his model of the atom, introducing the
concept of quantized energy levels.In Bohr's model, an electron revolves around the
nucleus in specific, quantized orbits without radiating energy. The electron can only gain
or lose energy by jumping from one allowed orbit to another, with the energy difference
between these orbits being emitted or absorbed as a photon. This model successfully
explained the spectral lines of hydrogen and the Rydberg formula for their wavelengths.

Read the above paragraph carefully and answer the following question .
(I)Explain the significance of the Balmer series in the context of the hydrogen atom
spectra.
(II)Why are the spectral lines of hydrogen atom discrete and not continuous?
(III)Describe how Bohr's model of the atom accounts for the stability of electron orbits
(IV)If the ionisation energy of the hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV, what is the energy of the
electron in the ( n = 2)state?
Q12. State the basic postulates of Bohr’s theory is of atomic spectra. Hence, obtain an
expression for radius of orbit and the energy of orbital electron in hydrogen atom.

************

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 UNIT VIII ATOMS AND NUCLEI

Chapter–13: Nuclei
Gist of chapter

• Composition and size of nucleus

1)Nuclei are made up of proton and neutron. The number of protons in a nucleus
(called the atomic number or proton number) is represented by the symbol Z. The
number of neutrons (neutron number) is represented by N. The total number of neutrons
and protons in a nucleus is called it's mass number A so A = Z + N.
2) Neutrons and proton, when described collectively are called nucleons. A single
nuclear species having specific values of both Z and N is called a nuclide.
3) Nuclides are represented as Z X A ; where X denotes the chemical symbol of the
element.
4) Isotopes : The atoms of element having same atomic number but different mass
number are called isotopes. All isotopes have the same chemical properties. The
isotopes of some elements are the following
1
1H , 1 H 2 , 1 H 3 8 O 16 , 8 O 17 , 8 O 18 2 He
3
, 2 He 4 17 Cl 35 , 17 Cl
37
92 U
235
, 92 U
238

5) Isobars : The nuclei which have the same mass number (A) but different atomic
number (Z) Arecalled isobars. Isobars occupy different positions in periodic table so all
isobars have Different chemical properties. Some of the examples of isobars are
3 3 14
1H and 2 He , 6C and 7 N 14 , 8 O 17 and 9F
17

• Nuclear Force
(1) Nuclear forces are short range forces. These do not exist at large distances
greater
than 10–15m.
(2) Nuclear forces are the strongest forces in nature.
(3) These are attractive force and causes stability of the nucleus.
(4) These forces are charge independent.
(5) Nuclear forces are non-central force.

• POTENTIAL ENERGY CURVE

1) shows how the potential energy of two molecules and
the force between them changes with their separation.

2) The force at any point is found from taking the gradient of

the potential energy curve, in other words
F = -dV/dr, where V is the potential energy.

• Size of Nucleus
Nuclear radius : Experimental results indicates that the nuclear radius is
proportional to A1/3, where A is the mass number of nucleus i.e. R  A 1 / 3 
R = R0 A1 / 3 , where R0 = 1.2  10–15m = 1.2 fm.

• Mass-energy relation
E=mc2 E= energy, m=mass, c=speed of light

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 • Mass defect (m) : It is found that the mass of a nucleus is always less than
the sum of masses of it's constituent nucleons in free state. This difference in
masses is called mass defect. Hence mass defect
m = Sum of masses of nucleons – Mass of nucleus
   
= Zm p + ( A − Z)m n − M = Zm p + Zm e + ( A − Z)m z − M '

where mp = Mass of proton, mn = Mass of each neutron, me = Mass of each

electron
M = Mass of nucleus,Z = Atomic number, A = Mass number, M = Mass of atom
as a whole.
• Binding energy (B.E.)
The binding energy of a nucleus may be defined as the energy equivalent to the mass
defect of the nucleus.
If m is mass defect then according to Einstein's mass energy relation
Binding energy = m c2= [{mpZ + mn(A – Z)} – M]c2
If m is measured in amu then B.E = mamu = [{mpZ + mn(A – Z)} – M] amu = m
931 MeV
• Binding energy per nucleon : The average energy required to release a
nucleon from the nucleus is called binding energy per nucleon.
Binding energy per nucleon
Total bind ing energy m  931 MeV
= =
Mass number (i.e. total number A Nucleon
of nucleons)

• Binding Energy Curve

It is the graph between binding energy per nucleon and total number of nucleons
(i.e. mass number A)
56
26Fe
Binding energy per

8.0 He
nucleon (MeV)

6.0
4.0 Li

2.0
H2
0
5056 10 15 20
0 number
Mass 0 0
A
Fig. 26.17

(1) Some nuclei with mass number A< 20 have large binding energy per nucleon than
their neighbour nuclei. For example 2 He 4 , 4 Be 8 , 6 C 12 , 8 O 16 and 10 Ne 20 . These nuclei are more
stable than their neighbours.
(2) The binding energy per nucleon is maximum for nuclei of mass number A = 56
( 26 Fe 56 ) . It's value
is 8.8 MeV per nucleon.
(2) For nuclei having A> 56, binding energy per nucleon gradually decreases for
uranium (A = 238), the value of binding energy per nucleon drops to 7.5 MeV.
• Nuclear Fission
(1) The process of splitting of a heavy nucleus into two lighter nuclei of comparable
masses (after bombardment with a energetic particle) with liberation of energy is called
nuclear fission.

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 Fission
fragm

235U
Fissio Neutr
Neutr
n

Fission reaction of U235

92 U
235
+ 0 n1 → 92 U
236
→ 56 Ba
141
+ 36 Kr
92
+ 3 0 n1 + Q
(unstable nucleus)

https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/a/a0/PressurizedWaterReactor.gif
• Nuclear Fusion
P n P
(1) In nuclear fusion two or more than P 3He 4He P
2
P H
two lighter nuclei combine to form a P P n P P P
n n n n n
single heavy nucleus. The mass of P
P P P
single nucleus so formed is less than  e  +

P
the sum of the masses of parent nuclei. This
difference in mass results in the release of tremendous amount of energy
Fission
fragment

Mind map
235U
Neutrons
Fission
Neutrons
fragment

Fig. 26.18

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 Level 1
MCQ
1. Which of the following particles are constituents of the nucleus
(a) Protons and electrons (b) Protons and neutrons
(c) Neutrons and electrons (d) Neutrons and positrons
2. The particles which can be added to the nucleus of an atom without changing its
chemical properties are called
(a) Electrons (b) Protons (c)Neutrons (d) None of the above
3. The neutron was discovered by
(a) Marie Curie (b) Pierre Curie (c)James Chadwick (d) Rutherford
4. The mass number of a nucleus is
(a) Always less than its atomic number
(b) Always more than its atomic number
(c) Always equal to its atomic number
(d) Sometimes more than and sometimes equal to its atomic number
5. The energy equivalent of 1 kilogram of matter is about
(a) 10 −15 J (b) 1 J (c) 10 −12 J (d) 10 17 J
6. Nuclear binding energy is equivalent to
(a) Mass of proton (b) Mass of neutron (c) Mass of nucleus (d) Mass
defect of nucleus
7. If the binding energy of the deutrium is 2.23 MeV. The mass defect given in a.m.u.
is
(a) – 0.0024 (b) – 0.0012 (c)0.0012 (d) 0.0024
8. Which of the following has the mass closest in value to that of the positron

(a) Proton (b) Electron (c)Photon (d) Neutrino

9. Size of nucleus is of the order of
(a) 10 −10 m (b) 10 −15 m (c) 10 −12 m (d) 10 −19 m
10. For effective nuclear forces, the distance should be
(a) 10 −10 m (b) 10 −13 m (c) 10 −15 m (d) 10 −20 m
11. The mass defect for the nucleus of helium is 0.0303 a.m.u. What is the binding
energy per nucleon for helium in MeV
(a) 28 (b) 7 (c) 4 (d) 1
12. Atomic power station at Tarapore has a generating capacity of 200 MW. The energy
generated in a day by this station is
(a) 200 MW (b) 200 J (c) 4800  10 6 J (d) 1728  10 10 J
13. Which of the following pairs is an isobar
(a) 1 H 1 and 1 H 2 (b) 1 H 2 and 1 H 3 (c) 6 C 12 and 6 C 13 (d) 30
15 P and 14 Si
30

14. The function of the control rods in nuclear reactor is

(a) Absorb neutrons (b) Accelerate neutrons
(c) Slow down neutrons(d) No effect on neutrons
15. Complete the reaction n +92235
U → 144
56 Ba + .... + 3n

(a) 89
36 Kr (b) 90
36 Kr (c) 91
36 Kr (d) 92
36 Kr

16. Heavy water is ………….

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 (a) Water, in which soap does not lather (b) Compound of heavy oxygen
and heavy hydrogen
(c) Compound of deuterium and oxygen (d) Water at 4°C

17. The tritium which is the isotope of hydrogen contains

(a)One proton, one neutrons (b)One proton, two neutrons
(c)Two protons, one neutrons (d)None
18. The force between a neutron and a proton inside the nucleus is
(a) Only nuclear attractive (b) Only Coulomb force
(c) Both of the above (d) None of these
19. “Mass density” of nucleus varies with its mass number A as
(a) A 2 (b) A (c) A 0 (d) 1/A
20. The mass defect in a particular nuclear reaction is 0.3 gm. The amount of
energy liberated in kilowatt hours is (Velocity of light = 3  108m/s)

(a) 1.5  10 6 (b) 2.5  10 6 (c) 3  10 6 (d) 7.5  10 6

Level 2

1. The mass defect for the nucleus of helium is 0.0303 a.m.u. What is the binding
energy per nucleon for helium in MeV
(a) 28 (b) 7 (c) 4 (d) 1
2. Atomic power station at Tarapore has a generating capacity of 200 MW. The energy
generated in a day by this station is
(a) 200 MW (b) 200 J (c) 4800  10 6 J (d) 1728  10 10 J
3. One microgram of matter converted into energy will give
(a) 90 J (b) 9  10 3 J (c) 9  10 10 J (d) 9  10 5 J
4. Mn and Mp represent the mass of neutron and proton respectively. An element
having mass M has N neutron and Z-protons, then the correct relation will be
(a) M < {N. Mn + Z. Mp} (b) M > {N. Mn + Z. Mp}
(c) M = {N. Mn + Z. Mp} (d) M = N {Mn + Mp}
5. The binding energy of deuteron 12 H is 1.112 MeV per nucleon and an  − particle 42 He
has a binding energy of 7.047 MeV per nucleon. Then in the fusion reaction
1 H +1 H →2 He + Q , the energy Q released is
2 2 4

(a) 1 MeV (b) 11.9 MeV (c)23.8 MeV (d) 931 MeV
6. Binding energy of a nucleus is
(a) Energy given to its nucleus during its formation
(b) Total mass of nucleus converted to energy units
(c) Loss of energy from the nucleus during its formation
(d) Total K.E. and P.E. of the nucleons in the nucleus
7. One requires energy E n to remove a nucleon from a nucleus and an energy ' Ee ' to
remove an electron from the orbit of an atom. Then
(a) En = Ee (b) En  Ee (c) En  Ee (d) En  E e
8. The binding energy of nucleus is a measure of its
(a) Charge (b) Mass (c) Momentum (d) Stability
9. The binding energies per nucleon for a deuteron and an  − particle arex1 and x2
respectively. What will be the energy Q released in the reaction 1 H 2 +1 H 2 →2 He 4 + Q
(a) 4 (x 1 + x 2 ) (b) 4 (x 2 − x 1 ) (c) 2(x 1 + x 2 ) (d) 2(x 2 − x 1 )

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10. The masses of neutron and proton are 1.0087 a.m.u. and 1.0073 a.m.u.
respectively. If the neutrons and protons combine to form a helium nucleus (alpha
particles) of mass 4.0015 a.m.u. The binding energy of the helium nucleus will be
(1 a.m.u.= 931 MeV)
(a) 28.4 MeV (b) 20.8 MeV (c)27.3 MeV (d) 14.2 MeV

LEVEL 3
1. A heavy nucleus at rest breaks into two fragments which fly off with velocities in the
ratio 8 : 1. The ratio of radii of the fragments is

(a)1 : 2 (b)1 : 4 (c) 4 : 1 (d) 2 : 1

2. 1 g of hydrogen is converted into 0.993 g of helium in a thermonuclear reaction. The
energy released is

(a) 63  107 J (b) 63  1010 J (c)63  1014 J (d) 63  1020 J

3. The binding energy per nucleon of O16 is 7.97 MeV and that of O17 is 7.75 MeV. The
energy (in MeV) required to remove a neutron from O17 is
(a) 3.52 (b) 3.64 (c)4.23 (d)7.86
4. The average binding energy per nucleon in the nucleus of an atom is approximately

(a) 8 eV (b) 8 KeV (c) 8 MeV (d) 8 J

5. Binding energy per nucleon plot against the mass number for stable nuclei is
shown
in the figure. Which curve is correct D

Binding energy
per nucleon
B
(a) A(b) B
(c) C(d) D
C
6. In the following reaction 12 Mg 24 + 2 He 4 → 14 Si x + 0 n 1 x is A
Mass number
(a) 28 (b) 27 (c)26 (d) 22
7. In the carbon cycle of fusion

(a) Four 1 H 1 fuse to form 2 He

4
and two positrons b) Four 1H
1
fuse to form 2 He
4
and
two electrons
(c) Two 1 H 2 fuse to form 2 He
4
(d) Four 1H
2
fuse to form 2 He
4
and two positrons
8. In atom bomb the reaction which occurs is
(a)Fusion (b)Controlled fission (c)Uncontrolled fission (d)Thermonuclear
9. 64
Two Cu nuclei touch each other. The electrostatics repulsive energy of the
system
will be
(a) 0.788 MeV (b) 7.88 MeV (c) 126.15 MeV (d) 788 MeV

LEVEL 1
short answer type (2 MARKS)
1) Define Atomic Number and Mass Number.
2) What is nuclear fission, and provide an example of a fission reaction?
3) Explain the concept of binding energy per nucleon and its significance.
4) What are isotopes? Give two examples.

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 5)Two nuclei have mass number in the ratio 1 : 3. What is the ratio of their
nuclear densities?

LEVEL 2
short answer type ( 2 MARKS )
1) Calculate the energy equivalent of 1amu in MeV.
2) Distinguish between nuclear fission and nuclear fusion.
3) State the necessary condition for nuclear fission.
4)Define atomic mass unit.
5) Write the number of proton and neutron in 56Ba144.
6)Two nuclei have mass number 3:9 what is their nuclear density ratio.
LEVEL 3
short answer type ( 2 MARKS )
1) When 92 U 235 undergoes fission. 0.1% of its original mass is changed into
energy. How much energy is released if 1 kg of 92 U 235 undergoes fission?

Level -1
Short answer type (3 MARKS)
1) Write any three characteristic properties of nuclear force.
2) Show that the nuclear density is independent of mass number.
3) Plot a graph showing the variation of potential energy of a pair of nucleons as
a function of their separation. Write its two characteristic properties.
LEVEL 2
Short answer type (3 MARKS)
1) The sun radiates energy in all directions. The average radiations received on the
earth surface from the sun is 1.4 kilowatt / m 2 .The average earth- sun distance is
1.5  10 11 metres
. Find the mass lost by the sun per day.
(1 day = 86400 seconds)
Level 3
1) Calculate the energy released in MeV in the following nuclear reaction:

Level -1
Long answer type ( 5 MARKS)
1) Using the curve for the binding energy per nucleon as a function of mass
number A, state clearly how the release of energy in the processes of nuclear fission
and nuclear fusion can be explained.
2) Calculate binding energy per nucleon of 209Bi83 nucleus. Given that mass of
209Bi83 = 55.934939u, mass of proton = 1.007825u, mass of neutron = 1.0086 MeV665
u and 1 u = 931 MeV.

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 Level -2
Long answer type(5 MARKS)
1)a) Suppose, we think of fission of a 56Fe26 nucleus into two equal fragments,
28Al13. Is the fission energetically possible? mass of 56Fe26 = 55.934939u, mass of
28Al13 = 55.934939u
b) How is the size of a nucleus experimentally determined? Write the relation between
the radius and mass number of the nucleus is independent of its mass number
Level -3
Long answer type(5 MARKS)
1) A star initially has 10 40 deuterons. It produces energy via the processes
1H
2
+ 1 H 2 →1 H 3 + p

1H
2
+ 1 H 3 → 2 He 4 + n
The masses of the nuclei are as follows :
M(H 2 ) = 2.014 amu ; M(p) = 1.007 amu ;
M(n) = 1.008 amu ; M(He 4 ) = 4.001 amu
If the average power radiated by the star is 10 16 W ,the deuteron supply of the star is
exhausted then find the order of time

NUMERICAL
Level 1
1) If the binding energy per nucleon in 3Li7and 2He4 nuclei are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV
respectively, then in the reaction
p + 3Li7 → 2 2He4 calculate energy of proton

Level 2
1) An unstable heavy nucleus at rest breaks into two nuclei which move away with
velocities in the ratio of 8: 27. Find The ratio of the radii of the nuclei (assumed to be
spherical)
Level 3
1) In the nuclear fusion reaction 2
1H +13 H →42 He + n, given that the repulsive potential
energy between the two nuclei is − 7.7  10 −14 J , the temperature at which the gases must
be heated to initiate the reaction [Boltzmann’s constant k = 1.38  10 −23 J /K ]

Case Based
Stability of Nucleus
-Neutrons and protons are identical particle in the sense that their masses are nearly
the same and they are bounded with the force, called nuclear force. Nuclear force is the
strongest force. Stability of nucleus is determined by binding energy per nucleon or the
neutron proton ratio or packing fraction. Density of nucleus independent on the mass
number. Whole mass of the atom (nearly99%) is present at the nucleus

1. The force between a neutron and a proton inside the nucleus is

(a) Only nuclear attractive (b)Only Coulomb force
(c) Both of the above (d)None of these

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2. Outside a nucleus
(a)Neutron is stable (b)Proton and neutron both are stable
(c) Neutron is unstable (d)Neither neutron nor proton is stable
3. Nuclear force is
(a) Short range and charge dependent (b)Short range and charge independent
(c) Long range and charge independent (d) Long range like electrostatic type
4. If Fpp , Fpm and Fnn are the magnitudes of net force between proton-proton, proton-
neutron and neutron-neutron respectively, then
(a) Fpp = Fpn = Fnn (b) Fpp  Fpn = Fnn
(c) Fpp  Fpn  Fnn (d) Fpp  Fpn  Fnn

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 Self Assessment
MCQ
1) If in a nuclear fusion process the masses of the fusing nuclei be m1 and m2 and the
mass of the resultant nucleus be m 3 , then
(a) m3 = m1 + m 2 (b) m 3 = | m1 + m 2 | (c) m3  (m1 + m 2 ) (d) m 3  (m1 + m 2 )

2) The curve of binding energy per nucleon as a function of atomic mass number has
a sharp peak for helium nucleus. This implies that helium
(a) Can easily be broken up (b) Is very stable
(c) Can be used as fissionable material (d) Is radioactive
3) Which of the following is most unstable [AFMC 2005]
(a) Electrons (b) Protons (c) Neutrons (d)  -particle
4) The mass number of He is 4 and that for sulphur is 32. The radius of sulphur nucleus
is larger than that of helium, by times
(a) 8 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 8
5) Assertion :Density of all the nuclei is same.
Reason : Radius of nucleus is directly proportional to the cube root of mass
number.
6) Assertion :Isobars are the element having same mass number but different
atomic number.
Reason :Neutrons and protons are present inside nucleus.
Short answer type (2 marks)
7) Explain the concept of mass defect.
8) What is binding energy? How is it related to stability of nucleus?
Long answer type (3marks)
9) What are the differences between nuclear fission and nuclear fusion? Which one is
used in nuclear power plants and why?
10) Skech the curve for binding energy per nucleon vs mass no . write the significance
of it.
Long ans type ( 5marks)
11) a)Show that nuclear density is independent of mass .
b) Explain molecular interaction using potential energy curve .
c) Write the properties of nuclear force
12) Case base study ( 4marks)
In nuclear physics, the mass defect refers to the difference between the mass of a
nucleus and the sum of the masses of its constituent protons and neutrons. This
discrepancy arises because some mass is converted into binding energy, which holds
the nucleus together. Understanding mass defect is crucial for studying nuclear stability
and reactions.Imagine a laboratory experiment where scientists are investigating the
mass defect in different isotopes. They have a sample of Helium-4 (4He) and are trying
to calculate its mass defect and binding energy.
Q1) Calculate the theoretical mass of the Helium-4 nucleus based on the sum of the
masses of Its constituent protons and neutrons.
Q2) Determine the mass defect of the Helium-4 nucleus.
Q3) Calculate the binding energy of the Helium-4 nucleus in MeV.
Q4) Explain the significance of the mass defect and binding energy in terms of nuclear
stability.

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 Unit IX: Electronic Devices
Chapter–14: Semiconductor Electronics: Materials,
Devices and Simple Circuits

GIST OF THE CHAPTER:

Energy bands in conductors, semiconductors and insulators (qualitative ideas only)
Intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductors- p and n type, p-n junction Semiconductor
diode - I-V characteristics in forward and reverse bias, application of junction diode
-diode as a rectifier.
Energy bands in solids:
⮚ Due to influence of high electric field between the core of the atoms and the
shared electrons, energy levels are split-up or spread-out forming energy
bands.
⮚ The energy band formed by a series of levels containing valance electrons
is called valance band and the lowest unfilled energy level just above the
valance band is called conduction band.
⮚ Filled energy levels are separated from the band of unfilled energy levels by
an energy gap called forbidden gap or energy gap or band gap.

Energy band diagram for, Conductors Semiconductors and Insulators

Conductors (Metals):The conduction band and valance band partly overlap each
other and there is no forbidden energy gap in between.Large number of electrons
are available for electrical conduction , hence the resistance is low of such
materials.Even if a small electric field is applied across the metal, these free
electrons start moving.Hence metals behave as a conductor.
Semiconductors: The conduction and valance bands are separated by the small
energy gap ( 1 eV) called forbidden energy gap. The valence band is completely
filled, while the conduction band is empty at zero kelvin. The electrons cross from
valence band to conduction band even when a small amount of energy is supplied.
The semiconductor acquires a small conductivity at room temperature.
Insulators: Electrons, however heated, cannot practically jump to conduction band
from valence band due to a large energy gap (>3 eV). Therefore, conduction is not
possible in insulators.
INTRINSIC SEMICONDUCTORS:
Intrinsic Semiconductor is a pure semiconductor.

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The energy gap in Si is 1.1 eV and in Ge is 0.74 eV.
Si: 1s2, 2s2, 2p6,3s2, 3p2. (Atomic No. is 14)
Ge: 1s2, 2s2, 2p6,3s2, 3p6, 3d10, 4s2, 4p2. (Atomic No. is 32)
Both Si and Ge have four valance electrons. The four
valance electrons form four covalent bonds by sharing
the electrons with neighbouring four atoms.
In intrinsic semiconductor, the number of thermally
generated electrons always equals the number of holes.
So, if ni and pi are the concentration of electrons and
holes respectively, then ni = pi. The quantity ni or pi is
referred to as the „intrinsic carrier concentration‟.
At 0 K, a semiconductor is an insulator i.e., it possesses
zero conductivity. When temperature is increased, a few covalent bonds break up
and release the electrons. These electrons move to conduction band leaving behind
equal number of holes in valence band. The conductivity of an intrinsic semiconductor
is due to both electrons and holes.
DOPING:
Doping a Semiconductor: Doping is the process of deliberate addition of a very small
amount of impurity (1% of crystal atoms) into an intrinsic semiconductor.
The impurity atoms are called dopants.
The semiconductor containing impurity is known as „Extrinsic semiconductor’.
Doping of a semiconductor increases its electrical conductivity to a great extent.
The pentavalent impurity atoms are called donor atoms, while the trivalent impurity
atoms are called acceptor atoms
Extrinsic semiconductor.
A semiconductor doped with a suitable impurity (pentavalent or trivalent), so as to
possess conductivity much higher than the semiconductor in pure form is called an
extrinsic semiconductor.
Extrinsic semiconductors are of two types:
1) n-type semiconductor
2) p-type semiconductor
1.n-type semiconductor:
When a pentavalent impurity, such as arsenic or antimony or phosphorus is added
to a pure semiconductor, the four of the five valance electrons of the impurity atoms
form covalent bonds by sharing the electrons with the adjoining four silicon atoms,
while the fifth electron is very loosely bound with the parent impurity atom and is
comparatively free to move.
The number of free electrons become more than the holes in the semiconductor and
such an extrinsic semiconductor is called n-type semiconductor. In other words, in a
n-type semiconductor, electrons are majority carriers and holes are minority carriers.
2)p-type semiconductor:
When a trivalent impurity, such as indium or gallium or boron is added to a pure
semiconductor, three valance electrons of the impurity atoms form covalent bonds
by sharing the electrons with the adjoining three silicon atoms.

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Due to the deficiency of an electron, there is one incomplete covalent bond. The
vacancy that exists with the fourth covalent bond with fourth Si atom constitutes a
hole.
The semiconductor becomes deficient in electrons i.e. number of holes become more
than the number of electrons. Such a semiconductor is called p-type
semiconductor. It has holes as majority carriers and electrons as minority carriers.
Electrical conductivity of a semiconductor:
The conductivity of a semiconductor is determined by the mobility (µ) of both
electrons and holes and their concentration. Mathematically- σ = e (neμe + nhμh)
P-N JUNCTION.

The device obtained by bringing a p-type semiconductor crystal into close contact
with n-type semiconductor crystal is called a p-n junction. It conducts in one
direction only. It is also called a junction diode
Depletion layer.
It is a thin layer formed between the p and n-sections and devoid of holes and
electrons. Its width is about 10-8 m. A potential difference of about 0.7 V is
produced across the junction, which gives rise to a very high electric field (= 106
V/ m).
Potential Barrier:
The difference in potential between p and n regions across the junction makes it
difficult for the holes and electrons to move across the junction. This acts as a barrier
and hence called „potential barrier‟ .Potential barrier for Si is nearly 0.7 V and for
Ge is 0.3 V. The potential barrier opposes the motion of the majority carriers.

Forward biasing:
The p-n junction is said to be forward biased, when the positive terminal of the
external battery is connected to p-section and the negative terminal to n-section
of the junction diode.
P-N JUNCTION.
The device obtained by bringing a p-type semiconductor crystal into close contact
with n-type semiconductor crystal is called a p-n junction. It conducts in one
direction only. It is also called a junction diode
Depletion layer. It is a thin layer formed between the p and n-sections and devoid
of holes and electrons. Its width is about 10-8 m. A potential difference of about
0.7 V is produced across the junction, which gives rise to a very high electric field
(= 106 V/ m).
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 Potential Barrier: The difference in potential between p and n regions across the
junction makes it difficult for the holes and electrons to move across the junction.
This acts as a barrier and hence called „potential barrier‟.Potential barrier for Si is
nearly 0.7 V and for Ge is 0.3 V.The potential barrier opposes the motion of the
majority carriers.
Forward biasing:
The p-n junction is said to be forward biased, when the positive terminal of the external
battery is connected to p-section and the negative terminal to n-section of the
junction diode.

Reverse biasing: The p-n junction is said to be reverse biased, when the positive
terminal of the battery is connected to n-section and the negative terminal to p-
section of the junction diode.

Junction diode as rectifier:

Because of its unidirectional conduction property, the p-n junction is said to convert an
a,c. voltage into d. c, voltage, It is, then, said to be acting as a rectifier.
1. Half wave rectifier: A rectifier, which rectifies only one half of each a.c. input supply
cycle, is called a half wave rectifier. A half wave rectifier gives discontinuous and
pulsating d.c. output. As alternative half cycles of the a.c. input supply go waste, its
efficiency is very low.

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2. Full wave rectifier: A rectifier which rectifies both halves of each a.c. input cycle is
called a full wave rectifier. The output of a full wave rectifier is continuous but
pulsating in nature. However, it can be made smooth by using a filter circuit.

TABLES
1) DIFFERENCE BETWEEN INTRINSIC AND EXTRINSIC SEMICONDUCTORS

S.NO INRINSIC SEMICONDUCTOR EXTRINSIC SEMICONDUCTOR

1 Pure form of semiconductor. Impure form of semiconductor.

2 Conductivity is low Conductivity is higher than

intrinsic semiconductor.
3 The no of holes is equal to In n-type, the no. of electrons is
no of free electrons greater than that of the holes and
in p-type, the no. holes is greater
than that of the electrons.
4 The conduction The conduction depends on the
depends on concentration of doped impurity
temperature. and temperature.

DIFFERENCE BETWEEN HALF WAVE AND FULL WAVE RECTIFIER

S.NO HALF WAVE RECTIFIER FULL WAVE RECTIFIER

1 Only half cycle of AC is Both cycles of AC are rectified.

rectified.
2 Requires only one diode Requires two diodes.
3 The output frequency is equal The output frequency is double of
to input supply frequency. (F) the input supply frequency. (2F)
4 The electric current A continuous electric current
through the load is not flow through the load.
continuous

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 SEMICONDCTOR ELECTRONICS: MATERIALS DEVICES AND SIMPLE CIRCUITS

CONDUCTORS
Eg=0 INSULATORS
Charge carrier density: very SOLIDS Eg > 3 eV
high (for electrons)

SEMICONDUCTORS
ENERGY BANDS Eg < 3 eV Eg=0.72 eV
for Ge & Eg=1.1 eV for Si

CONDUCTIO PURE/INTRINSIC
N BAND: VALANCE
ni=ne=nh
HIGHER BAND
ex. Si, Ge
ENERGY COMPLET
BAND ELY
ABOVE IMPURE/EXTRINSIC
VALANCE P-TYPE SEMICONDUCTOR:
FORBIDDEN BAND
BAND OBTAINED BY ADDING IMPURITY
ENERGY GAP BETWENN V.B.
FROM III-A GROUP in Si or Ge ex.
Al,B
SEMICONDUCTOR DIODE: • Electrons are majority carriers

SEMICONDUCTOR DIODE AS N-TYPE SEMICONDUCTOR:

RECTIFIER: OBTAINED BY ADDING IMPURITY
FORWAR REVERSE FROM III-A GROUP in Si or Ge ex.
D BIASED: P,As,Sb
BIASED: N side to • Electrons are majority carriers
P side to + terminal RECTIFIER: CONVERT AC TO DC
+ terminal P-side to
N-side to –ve FULL WAVE RECTIFIER:
HALF WAVE RECTIFIER:

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 MCQ LEVEL 1
1 The energy band gap is maximum in
(a) Metals (b) superconductors (c) insulators (d) semiconductors
2 At absolute zero, silicon (Si) acts as
(a) Non-metal (b) metal (c) insulator (d) none of these
3 When impurities are added to a pure semiconductor, the procedure is known
as
(a) Mixing (b)Doping (c)Diffusing (d)None of the above
4 Silicon is doped with which of the following to obtain P type semiconductor
(a) Phosphorus (b) Gallium (c) Germanium (d) Bismuth
5 When an intrinsic semiconductor is doped with an impurity, the
semiconductor's conductivity
(a) Increases (b) decreases (c) remains the same (d) becomes zero
6 6. Correct order of relative values of electrical conductivity σ for different types
of solid is…….
(a) σ metal >σ semiconductor > σ insulator
(b) σ semiconductor >σ insulator >σ metal
(c) σ semiconductor >σ metal >σ insulator
(d) σ insulator>σ semiconductor>σ metal
7 To create a p-type semiconductor, an pure semiconductor is doped with the
following material:
a) aluminum b) Phosphorous c) Arsenic d) Sodium
8 The following parameters determines a p-n junction's barrier potential:
i) type of semiconductor or material (ii) amount of doping (iii) Temperature
Which one of the following is correct?
(a)Both (i)and(ii) (b)Only(ii) (c)Both (ii)and(iii) (d)(i),(ii)and(iii)
Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a
statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
A: If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of
the Assertion.
B: If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of
the Assertion.
C:If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
D: If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect
9 Assertion (A): The depletion layer in the p-n junction is free from mobile charge
carriers.
Reason (R) : There is no electric field across the junction barrier.

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10 Assertion: The energy gap between the valence band and conduction band is
greater in silicon than in germanium.
Reason: Thermal energy produces fewer minority carriers in silicon than in
germanium
11 Assertion: The total current I in a semiconductor is the sum of electron current
and hole current.
Reason: In a semiconductor, motion of holes towards positive potential and
free electrons towards negative potential.
12 Assertion: A hole on p-side of a p n- junction moves to n-side just an instant
after drifting of charge carriers occurs across junction.
Reason: Drifting of charge carriers reduces the concentration gradient across
junction.
13 Assertion (A): When a p-n junction diode is reverse biased, a feeble reverse-
current flows known as reverse saturation current.
Reason (R): In reverse bias condition, the minority carries can cross the
junction.
14 Assertion : The resistivity of a semi-conductor increases with temperature.
Reason : The atoms of semi-conductor vibrate with larger amplitude as higher
temperatures thereby increasing its resistivity.
15 Assertion: If the temperature of a semiconductor is increased then it’s
resistance decreases.
Reason: The energy gap between conduction band and valence band is very
small.
16 Assertion: The number of electrons in a p-type silicon semiconductor is less
than the number of electrons in a pure silicon semiconductor at room
temperature.
Reason: It is due to law of mass action.

MCQ LEVEL 2

1 Which diagram below best illustrates a reverse biased diode?

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 2 Free electrons have more mobility than free holes due to the following
reasons:
(a) they are light (b) they carry negative charge
(c) They mutually collide less d) they require low energy to continue their
motion
3 The energy needed for an electron to move from the valance band to the
conduction band in Germanium is
(a) 0.12 eV (b)0.72 eV (c)7.2 eV (d)None of these
4. For semiconductors, which of the ones that follow is the most suitable?
(a) large evacuated space (b)external heating arrangement
(c) low operating voltages (d)high power
5 When a forward bias is applied to a p-n junction, it
(a) raises the potential barrier. (b) reduces the majority carrier current to
zero. (c) lowers the potential barrier (d)None of the above.

6. In a full wave rectifier, input AC has a frequency ‘ν’. The output frequency of
current is
(a) ν /2 (b) ν (c) 2 ν (d) None of these
7 When an electric field is applied across a semiconductor,
(a) Electrons move from lower energy level to higher energy level in the
conduction band
(b) Electrons move from higher energy level to lower energy level in the
conduction band
(c) Holes in the valence band move from lower energy level to higher
energy level
(d) None of the above

Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a

statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
A: If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of
the Assertion.
B: If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of
the Assertion. C:If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
D: If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect
8 Assertion (A): For the same doping concentrations, n-type Si material has a
higher conductivity than p-type Si material.
Reason (R): In a semiconductor the electrons are less tightly bounded than
holes.
9 Assertion (A): n-type semiconductors of silicon are electrically charged.
Reason(R): In n-type semiconductors, the doped atom has no more valence
Electron than silicon.

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 MCQ LEVEL 3

1. The filled and unfilled circles in the energy

band diagram of the material below represent
electrons and holes, respectively. The content
is

(a) insulator (b)metal (c)n-type

semiconductor (d)p-type semiconductor
2 As temperature rises, semiconductors' electrical resistance decreases
because... (a) temperature provides energy to electrons in valance Band to
cross the forbidden band (b) temperature absorbs from electrons
(c) semiconductor converts into perfect conductor due to increase in
temperature
(d) temperature provides energy to electrons in conduction Band to cross the
forbidden band
3 If the forward voltage in a semiconductor diode is doubled, the width of the
depletion layer will…..
(a) Become half (b) Become one-fourth (c) Remain unchanged (d) Become
double
4. In order to convert sinusoidal signal into unidirectional signal which of the following
device is used?
(a) An amplifier (b) A rectifier (c) An oscillator (d) A modulator
5 Which of these graphs illustrates the potential difference between the equilibrium
p-side and n-side of a p-n junction?

6 A silicon diode is the diode that is displayed in the circuit. The potential difference
between points A and B will come to be

Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a

statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
A: If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of
the Assertion.

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B: If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of
the Assertion.
C:If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
D: If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect
8 Assertion (A): Electron has higher mobility than hole in a semiconductor.
Reason(R): The mass of electron is less than the mass of the hole.
9 Assertion (A): When two semiconductor of p-type and n- type are brought in
contact, they form p-n junction which act like a rectifier.
Reason(R): A rectifier is used to convert alternating current into direct current.
10 Assertion (A): A p-n junction with reverse bias can be used as a photo-diode to
measure light intensity.
Reason(R): In a reverse bias condition the current is small but it is more sensitive
to changes in incident light intensity.

2 MARK QUESTIONS
LEVEL-1
1 Given that silicon and carbon have four valence electrons each, how may they be
distinguished?
2 Draw the n- and p-type semiconductors' energy band diagrams at a temperature
T >0K. With their energies, show the energy levels of the donor and acceptor.
3 Using a circuit diagram, describe how a p-n junction diode functions as a half-
wave rectifier.
4 Distinguish between intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductors.
5 As far as we are aware, despite having a lot of holes, p-type semiconductors are
electrically neutral. Why?

2 MARK QUESTIONS
LEVEL-2
1 Write differences between forward bias and reverse bias.
2 The V-I characteristic of a silicon diode is as shown
in the figure. Calculate the resistance of the diode
at (i) I = 5 mA and (ii) V = –20V

3 How does a doping agent modify a semiconductor's conductivity?

4 How does temperature cause semiconductors' resistivity to decrease?

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 2 MARK QUESTIONS
LEVEL-3
1 What do energy bands mean? Based on energy band diagrams, list any two
characteristics that separate conductors, semiconductors, and insulators.
2 What happens when germanium metal is slightly doped with indium?
3 Who are the major charge carriers in n-type and p-type semiconductors?
4 Describe the formation of the depletion area and potential barrier in a junction
diode using a diagram.
5 Is using a full wave rectifier preferable to a half wave rectifier? Why?

3 MARK QUESTIONS
LEVEL-1
1 Draw a diode's voltage-current characteristic curve and highlight its key features.
2 Using a diagram, explain how the barrier potential and depletion region develop
at a p-n junction.
3 MARK QUESTIONS
LEVEL-2
1 In the following diagram, which bulb
out of B1 and B2 will glow and why?

2. Write any two distinguishing features between conductors, semiconductors and

insulators on the basis of energy band diagrams.
3. Name two important processes that occur during the formation of a p-n junction.
4 The maximum wavelength at which solid begin to absorb energy is 10000 Å.
Calculate the energy gap of a solid (in eV).
3 MARK QUESTIONS
LEVEL-3
1 (a) Distinguish between n-type and p-type semiconductors on the basis of energy
band diagrams.
(b) Compare their conductivities at absolute zero temperature and at room
temperature
2. Draw the input and output waveforms of half-wave rectifier and full wave rectifier.

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 3. An a.c. signal is fed into two circuits X and Y
and the corresponding output in the two cases
have the wavefront shown in figure. Name the
circuit X and Y. Also draw their detailed circuit
diagram.
CASE STUDY/SOURCE BASED QUESTIONS
LEVEL-1
1.
On the basis of energy bands materials are also defined as metals, semiconductors
and insulators. These semiconductors are classified as intrinsic semiconductors and
extrinsic semiconductors also. Intrinsic semiconductors are those semiconductors
which exist in pure form. And intrinsic semiconductors have number of free electrons is
equal to number of holes. The semiconductors doped with some impurity in order to
increase its conductivity are called as extrinsic semiconductors. Two types of dopants
are used they are trivalent impurity and pentavalent impurity also. The extrinsic
semiconductors doped with pentavalent impurity like Arsenic, Antimony, Phosphorus
etc are called as n – type semiconductors. In n type semiconductors electrons are the
majority charge carriers and holes are the minority charge carriers. When trivalent
impurity is like Indium, Boron, Aluminium etc are added to extrinsic semiconductors
then p type semiconductors will be formed. In p type semiconductors holes are majority
charge carriers and electrons are the minority charge carriers.
I) What is extrinsic semiconductor?
II) What is ratio of number of holes and number of electrons in an intrinsic
semiconductor?
III) Why doping is necessary?
IV) Majority charge carriers in p-type semiconductor are

2.
From Bohr's atomic model, we know that the electrons have well defined energy levels
in an isolated atom. But due to interatomic interactions in a crystal, the electrons of the
outer shells are forced to have
energies different from those in
isolated atoms. Each energy level
splits into a number of energy levels
forming a continuous band. The gap
between top of valence band and
bottom of the conduction band in
which no allowed energy levels for
electrons can exist is called energy

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gap. Following are the energy band diagrams for conductor fig (ii), for insulators fig (b)
and for semiconductors fig (c).
i) In an insulator energy band gap is
a)Eg= 0eV (b) Eg> 3eV (c) Eg< 3eV (d) None of this
ii) In a semiconductor, separation between conduction and valence band is of the
order of
(a) Eg= 0eV (b) Eg> 3eV (c) Eg< 3eV (d) None of these
iii) (III) Based on the band theory of conductors, insulators and semiconductors,
the forbidden gap is smallest in
(a)conductor (b) insulators (c) semiconductors (d) All of these
iv) (IV) Solids having highest energy level partially filled with electrons are
(a)semiconductor (b) conductor (c) insulator (d) none of
these

5 MARK QUESTIONS
LEVEL-1
1 Draw V-I characteristics of a p-n junction diode. Answer the following questions
giving reasons.
(i) Why is the current under reverse bias almost independent of the applied
potential upto a critical voltage?
(ii) Why does the reverse current show a sudden increase at the critical voltage?

5 MARK QUESTIONS
LEVEL-2
1 i) How are p- type semiconductors produced?
ii) The forbidden band energy of silicon is 1.1eV. What does it mean?
iii) What is an ideal diode?
iv) Figure shows two p-n junction diode
along with a resistance and a d.c battery
E. Indicate the path and the direction of
appreciable current in the circuit.

5 MARK QUESTIONS
LEVEL-3
1 i)What is doping? Write the name of the impurities used to fabricate p type & n
type Semiconductor.

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 ii) Draw the energy band diagram of conductor , insulator and semiconductor.

CASE STUDY/SOURCE BASED QUESTIONS

LEVEL-2
1.
Full Wave Rectifier The process of
converting alternating
voltage/current into direct
voltage/current is called rectification.
Diode is used as a rectifier for
converting alternating
current/voltage into direct
current/voltage. Diode allows
current to pass only, when it is
forward biased. So, if an alternating
voltage is applied across a diode, the current flows only in that part of the cycle when
the diode is forward biased. This property is used to rectify the current/voltage.

i) If in a p-n junction, a square input signal of 10V is applied as shown

ii) In figure, the input is across the terminals A and C and the output is across B
and D. Then, the output is

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iii) Which of the following is not true about a rectifier circuit?
(a) It can convert DC to AC. (b) It can convert AC to DC.
(c)It can shift voltage level .(d)None of these
iv) In the given circuit,

Capacitor c is used
(a) for storing potential energy
(b) as a bypass to DC component to get AC in RL
(c) to remove sparking
(d) as a bypass to AC component to get DC in RL
v) The ratio of output frequencies of half-wave rectifier and a full wave rectifier,
when an input of frequency 200 Hz is fed at input, is
(a) 1:2 (b)2: 1 (c) 4 :1 (d) 1 : 4

CASE STUDY/SOURCE BASED QUESTIONS

LEVEL-3
1.When the diode is forward biased, it is found that beyond forward voltage V = Vk,
called knee voltage, the conductivity is very high. At this value of battery biasing for
p-n junction, the potential barrier is overcome and the current increases rapidly with
an increase in forwarding voltage. When the diode is reverse biased, the reverse
bias voltage produces a very small current about a few microamperes which almost
remains constant with bias. This small current is reverse saturation current

i) i) In which of the following figures, the p-n diode is forward biased

(a) a,b and d (b) c only (c) c and a (d) b and d

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 ii) Based on the V-I characteristics of the diode, we can classify diode as
(a) bi-directional device (b) ohmic device
(c) non-ohmic device (d) passive element
iii) In the case of forwarding biasing of a p-n junction diode, which one of the
following statement is correct?
(a) effective barrier potential decreases
(b) majority charge carriers begins to flow away from junction
(c) width of depletion layer increases
(d) effective resistance across the junction increases
iv) If an ideal junction diode is connected as shown, then the value of the current I is.

(a) 0.005 (b) 0.02 A (c) 0.01 A (d) 0.1A

2.
When the diode is forward biased, it is found that beyond forward voltage V = Vk,
called knee voltage, the conductivity is very high. At this value of battery biasing
for p-n junction, the potential barrier is overcome and the current increases rapidly
with increase in forward voltage. When the diode is reverse biased, the reverse
bias voltage produces a very small current about a few microamperes which almost
remains constant with bias. This small current is reverse saturation current. 36. In
which of the following figures, the p-n diode is forward biased.
i) In which of the following figures, the p-n diode is forward biased

ii) Based on the V-I characteristics of the diode, we can classify diode as
(a) bi-directional device (b) ohmic device
(c) non-ohmic device (d) passive element
iii) The V-I characteristic of a diode is shown in the figure. The ratio of forward to
reverse bias resistance is

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iv) If an ideal junction diode is connected as shown, then the value of the current I
is

COMPETENCY BASED QUESTIONS

MCQ
1 The diagram below shows a transformer whose output terminals are 01
connected to two diodes D1 and D2

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2 A 10V battery is attached to 3 01
resistors and two ideal diodes as
shown below. What will be the
reading of the ammeter?

a)1/6 A b)1/5 A c) 1/4 A d)3/14

A
3 What is energy required for an electron to jump to forbidden band in Silicon 01
at room temperature?
a) 0.01 eV b)0.05 eV c)0.7 eV d)1.1 Ev
4 A battery, resistance, and semiconductor device are connected in a series 01
circuit. The circuit is determined to be carrying a current. The current almost
completely disappears if the battery's polarity is switched. The apparatus
could be
a) Si Semiconductor b) Si with III-A impurity c) Si With V-
A impurity d) diode

COMPETENCY BASED QUESTIONS

2 MARK QUESTIONS
1 A sample of germanium doped with pentavalent impurity is heated to 300 K. 02
Determine the electron and hole counts if the pentavalent impurity
concentration is 12 x 1017 cm-3. Assume that the impurity atom has fully
ionized. Given: 2.4 x 1013 cm-3 is the inherent carrier concentration.
2 When a forward-biased p-n junction experiences a voltage supply that 02
exceeds the potential barrier, the diffusion current increases exponentially in
proportion to the number of holes that diffuse into the n-region. Will the
diffusion current eventually reach zero and the hole concentration in the p-
and n-regions become equal? Give reasons for your response.
3 The threshold voltage for diodes D1 and D2 are 0.3 V and 0.7 V respectively. 02
In circuit I, both the diodes D1 and D2 are forward biased. In circuit II, D1 is
forward biased whereas D2 is reverse biased. Determine current through the
diodes in series, ID and voltage Vo in each of the two given circuits.

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4 A p-n junction diode has a depletion layer of thickness 500 nm and an electric 02
field 16 x 105 V/m.
a. Find the barrier potential created.
b. Determine the minimum kinetic energy (in eV) that the conduction
electrons must have so that they can diffuse from n-side onto p-side, in case
of:
i. the junction is unbiased
ii. the junction is forward biased at 0.5 V
iii. the junction is reverse biased at 0.5 V
5 Almost a constant electric current of 20 μA flows through a given pn junction 02
diode in reverse bias. The current becomes 4 times in case the pn junction
diode is forward biased. Determine the diffusion current that flows through
the given diode in case it is:
a. unbiased b. reverse biased c. forward biased

COMPETENCY BASED QUESTIONS

3 MARK QUESTIONS
1 The graph below shows the variation in the mobility of electrons and holes 03
for a Si semiconductor with doping concentration at 300 K.

The pentavalent doping concentration is 1015 cm-3 and the concentration of

intrinsic charge carriers at 300 K is about 1010 cm-3
(a) Find the concentration of majority and minority charge carriers.
(b) What is the conductivity of silicon at 300 K? (Calculate conductivity
assuming majority charge carriers only.)
The magnitude charge on an electron/hole is 1.6 x 10-19 C. Assume complete
dopant ionization.
2 A certain biasing voltage is applied across the pn junction with an initial 03

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 potential barrier of Vo. The holes approach the pn junction with a non-zero
initial kinetic energy from either p or the n- side depending upon the nature
of biasing applied.
a. If the holes approach the pn junction from p-side,
i. What type of biasing must have been applied across the pn junction?
ii. Will the kinetic energy of the holes increase or decrease while crossing the
junction? Give reason for your answer.
b. If the holes approach the pn junction from n-side,
i. What type of biasing must have been applied across the pn junction?
ii. Will the kinetic energy of the holes increase or decrease while crossing the
junction? Give reason for your answer.
3 A diode is connected in series with a 3 V battery and a 30 Ω resistor. A drift 03
current of 10 μA flows through the diode.
(a) What is the potential drop across the diode?
(b) Is the diode forward-biased or reverse-biased? Draw a circuit diagram to
represent the above connections.

COMPETENCY BASED QUESTIONS

5 MARK QUESTIONS
1 The image below shows a circuit with three diodes and three resistors 05
connected to an AC source with an rms voltage V.
What is the average power delivered over one full cycle of AC in the above
circuit? Show your calculations and arrive at the final answer in terms of V
and R. (Assume the diode is ideal.)

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2 In a forward biased, ideal pn diode, the applied forward potential is opposite 05
to the potential barrier of the depletion region. A small forward voltage is
sufficient to overcome the potential barrier. Once eliminated, the junction
resistance is reduced to zero and an ideal pn junction has zero ohmic
potential drop across itself. The voltage at which the current starts to increase
rapidly is called threshold
voltage or cut in voltage or knee
voltage of the pn diode. If the
diode voltage is more than
knee voltage, it conducts easily
otherwise it conducts poorly.
For a silicon diode,
V(threshold) = 0.7 V
a. In the circuit given here, determine the voltage across an ideal silicon diode
D and resistor R and the current through the diode and resistor, if E = 3 V
and R = 2 k-ohm.
b. How will the values in part (a) change in case E is made 0.3 V?
OR
How will the values in part (a) change in case the terminals of E are reversed?

CCT/SOURCE BASED QUESTIONS

1 The graph below represents the
variation of n/ND with temperature
for an extrinsic n-type
semiconductor. The temperature
range indicated on the X-axis is
divided into three regions,
Regions I, II and III.
Study the graph and answer the
following questions.

I) Which region(s) has the maximum number of unionized donor atoms? 1

ii) Which of the following relation is definitely TRUE for the semiconductor in 1
region II? (ne - concentration of free electrons; nh – concentration of holes)
iii) In which region(s) are thermally generated electrons comparable to donor 1
electrons?
IV) In region III the semiconductor behaves like? 1

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 SELF ASSESSMENT PAPER
TOTAL MARKS 25
SECTION A

Q MARKS
01 Which of the following statements is correct? 01
(a) Hole is an antiparticle of electron.
(b) Hole is a vacancy created when an electron leaves a covalent bond.
(c) Hole is the absence of free electrons.
(d) Hole is an artificially created particle.
02 A potential barrier of 0.3 V exists across a p-n junction. If the depletion 01
region is 1 µm wide, what is the intensity of electric field in this region?

03 The breakdown in a reverse biased p-n junction diode is more likely to 01

occur due to
(a) large velocity of the minority charge carriers if the doping
concentration is small
(b) large velocity of the minority charge carriers if the doping
concentration is large
(c) strong electric field in a depletion region if the doping concentration
is small
(d) none of these
04 In a full wave junction diode rectifier the input ac has rms value of 20 V. 01
The transformer used is a step up transformer having primary and
secondary turn ratio 1 : 2. The dc voltage in the rectified output is
(a) 12 V (b) 24 V (c) 36 V (d) 42 V
Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a
statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
A: If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of
the Assertion.
B: If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of
the Assertion.
C:If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
D: If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect
05 Assertion (A) : The half-wave rectifier work only for positive half cycle 01
of ac.

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 Reason (R) : In half-wave rectifier only one diode is used.
06 Assertion (A) : In a semiconductor diode, the reverse biased current is 01
due to drift of free electrons and holes.
Reason (R) : The drift of electrons and holes is due to thermal
excitations

SECTION B
07 Explain with the help of a diagram the formation of depletion region and 02
barrier potential in a p-n junction.
08 Why are elemental dopants for silicon or germanium usually chosen 02
from group XIII or group XV ?

SECTION C
08 In half-wave rectification, what is the output frequency? If the input 03
frequency is 50 Hz, what is the output frequency of a full wave rectifier
for the same input frequency?
09 i) Differentiate between P-type and N-type semiconductors 03
ii) Draw their energy level diagrams.

SECTION D
CASE BASED STUDY
10
Semiconductors consist of Valence band and conduction band. On the basis of energy
bands materials are also defined as metals, semiconductors and insulators. In case
of metals, conduction band and Valence band overlaps with each other due to
which electrons are easily available for conduction. In case of insulators, there is
some energy gap between conduction band and Valence band due to which no
free electrons are easily available for conduction. And in semiconductors, there is
a small energy gap between conduction band and Valence band and if we give
some external energy then electron from Valence band goes to conduction band
due to which conduction will be possible. These semiconductors are classified as
intrinsic semiconductors and extrinsic semiconductors also. Intrinsic
semiconductors are those semiconductors which exist in pure form. And intrinsic
semiconductors has number of free electron is equal to number of holes. The
semiconductors doped with some impurity in order to increase its conductivity are
called as extrinsic semiconductors. Two types of dopants are used they are
trivalent impurity and pentavalent impurity also. The extrinsic semiconductors
doped with pentavalent impurity like Arsenic, Antimony, Phosphorus etc are called
as n – type semiconductors. In n type semiconductors electrons are the majority

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 charge carriers and holes are the minority charge carriers. When trivalent impurity
is like Indium, Boron, Aluminium etc are added to extrinsic semiconductors then p
type semiconductors will be formed. In p type semiconductors holes are majority
charge carriers and electrons are the minority charge carriers.
i) In case of p-type semiconductors__
a) nh<< ne b) nh = ne c) nh>> ne d) nh= ne = 0
ii) An intrinsic semiconductor behaves like _____ at T = 0K.
a) conductors b) semiconductors c) insulators d) superconductors
iii) If the energy band gap Eg> 3 eV then such materials are called as
a) conductors b) semiconductors c) insulators d) superconductors
iv) P- type semiconductor is obtained by adding ……… in pure semiconductor
a) zinc b) Magnesium c) Phosphorous d) Aluminum

SECTION E
11 (i) Can a slab of p-type semiconductor be physically joined to another 05
n-type semiconductor slab to form p-n junction? Justify your answer.
(ii) In a p-n junction diode, the forward bias resistance is low as
compared to the reverse bias resistance. Give reason.

************

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 SAMPLE PAPER-1
PHYSICS
Time Allowed: 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 70
General Instructions:
(1) There are 33 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
(2) This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and
Section E.
(3) Section A contains sixteen questions, twelve MCQ and four Assertion Reasoning
based of 1 mark each, Section B contains five questions of two marks each, Section
C contains seven questions of three marks each, Section D contains two case study
based questions of four marks each and Section E contains three long answer
questions of five marks each.
(4) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in one
question in Section B, one question in Section C, one question in each CBQ in Section
D and all three questions in Section E. You have to attempt only one of the choices in
such questions
(5) Use of calculators is not allowed.
(6) You may use the following values of physical constants where ever necessarily.
i. c = 3 x 108 m/s
ii. me = 9.1 x10 - 31 kg
iii. e = 1.6 x 10 - 19 C
iv. μ0 = 4π x 10 - 7 Tm𝐴- 1
v. h = 6.63 x10 - 34 Js
vi. ε0 = 8.854 x10 - 12 𝐶2𝑁- 1𝑚- 2
vii. Avogadro’s number = 6.023 X 1023 per gram mole
Section A
1 A point charge Q is moved along a circular path around another fixed-point [1]
charge. So, the work done is
a) always zero
b) zero only if Q returns to it’s starting position
c) zero only if the two charges have the same magnitude
d) zero only if the two charges have the same magnitude and opposite signs
2 An isosceles right - angled current - carrying loop PQR is placed in a uniform [1]
magnetic field𝐵 ⃗ pointing along with PR. If the magnetic force acting on the

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 arm PQ is F, then the magnetic force which acts on the arm QR will be

𝐹
a) - F b) √2𝐹 c) F d)
√2
3 If an a.c. main supply is given to be 220 V, the average e.m.f. during a positive [1]
half cycle will be
a) 240 V b) 220√2 V c) 220 V d) 198 V
4 In the given circuit, the reading of the voltmeter V1 and V 2 are 300 V each. [1]

The reading of the voltmeter V 3

and ammeter A are respectively
a) 150 V,2.2A
b) 240 V,2A
c) 100 V,2A
d) 220 V,2.2A

5 Figure shows a capacitor made of two circular plates each of radius 12 cm, [1]
and separated by 5mm. The capacitor is being charged by an external source
(not shown in the figure). The charging current is constant and equal to 0.15

A. Displacement current across the plates is

a) 0.17 A b) 0.18 A c) 0.15 A d) 0.16 A
6 A ray of light travels from the point A to B [1]
with a uniform speed. On its way, it is
reflected by the surface XX’. The path
followed by the ray to take least time is:

a) 1 b) 4
c) 2 d) 3

7 Which of the following principle is used in optical fiber? [1]

a) Total internal reflection b) Scattering
c) Interference d) Diffraction

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8 A plane wave front of light is incident on a plane mirror as shown in the figure. [1]
Intensity is maximum at P, when:
𝜆
a) cos𝜃 = 2𝑑
3𝜆
b) cos𝜃 = 4𝑑
3𝜆
c) sec𝜃 - cos 𝜃 = 4𝑑
𝜆
d) sec𝜃 - cos 𝜃 = 2𝑑

9 In an experiment of photoelectric emission for incident light of 4000A0 , the [1]

stopping potential is 2V. If the wavelength of incident light is made 3000 A0 ,
then stopping potential will be
a) 2 Volt b) less than 2 volt c) more than 2 volt d) zero
10 The longest wavelength in the ultraviolet region of the hydrogen spectrum is [1]
122 nm. The shortest wavelength in the infrared region of the hydrogen
spectrum (to the nearest integer) is
a) 823 nm b) 802 nm c) 1882 nm d) 1648 nm
11 The dependence of binding energy per nucleon (B 𝑁 ) on the mass number A [1]
is represented by

a) b)

c) d)
12 In the circuit given in the figure, an a.c. source of 200 V is connected through [1]
a diode D to a capacitor. The potential difference across the capacitor will be
a) 283 V b) 100 V
c) 310 V d) 200 V

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 SECTION-A
13 Assertion: Positive charge always moves from a higher potential point to a [1]
lower potential point.
Reason: Electric potential is a vector quantity.
a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct
explanation for assertion.
b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.
c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
14 Assertion (A): If the frequency of the applied AC is doubled, then the power [1]
factor of a series R - L circuit decreases. Reason (R): Power factor of series
2𝑅
R - L circuit is given by cos𝜙 = 𝑅2+𝜔2𝐿2 .
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
15 Assertion (A): Corpuscular theory fails in explaining the velocities of light in [1]
air and water.
Reason (R): According to Corpuscular theory, the light should travel faster in
denser media than in rarer media.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
16 Assertion (A): When two semiconductor of p and n - type are brought in [1]
contact, they form p - n junction which act like a rectifier.
Reason (R): A rectifier is used to convert alternating current into direct
current.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
SECTION -B
17 Five balls, numbered 1 to 5 are suspended using separate threads. Pairs (1, [2]
2), (2, 4), (4, 1) show electrostatic attraction, while pairs (2, 3) and (4, 5) show
repulsion. What is the nature of the charge on ball 1?
18 A galvanometer can be converted into a voltmeter of a certain range by [2]
connecting a resistance of 980𝛺 in series with it. When the resistance is 470
𝛺 connected in series, the range is halved. Find the resistance of the
galvanometer.

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19 For a glass prism (𝜇 = √3 ), the angle of minimum deviation is equal to the [2]
angle of the prism. Find the angle of the prism.
20 A thin film of thickness 4× 10-5 cm and 𝜇 = 1.5 is illuminated by white light [2]
incident normal to its surface. What wavelength in the visible range be
intensified in the reflected beam?
21 Give two examples each of [2]
1. Elemental 2. compound inorganic 3.compound organic
semiconductors

SECTION -C
22 Three charges of +0.1 C each are placed at the [3]
corners of an equilateral triangle as shown in
figure. If energy is supplied at the rate of 1 kW,
how many days would be required to move the
charge at A to a point D which is the mid - point
of the line BC?

23 If𝜒 stands for the magnetic susceptibility of a given material, identify the class [3]
of materials for which −1 ≥ 𝜒 < 0 and 0 < 𝜒 < 𝜀 ( 𝜀 stands for a small
positive number)
1. Write the range of relative magnetic permeability of these materials.
2. Draw the pattern of the magnetic field lines when these materials are
placed in an external magnetic field.

24 A metallic rod of length land resistance R is rotated with a frequency𝜈 , with [3]
one end hinged at the centre and the other end at the circumference of a
circular metallic ring of radius l, about an axis passing through the centre and
perpendicular to the plane of the ring. A constant and uniform magnetic field
B parallel to the axis is present everywhere.
1. Derive the expression for the induced emf and the current in the rod.
2. Due to the presence of the current in the rod and of the magnetic field,
find the expression for the magnitude and direction of the force acting
on this rod.
3. Hence obtain the expression for the power required to rotate the rod.

25 Write Einstein’s photoelectric equation and mention which important features [3]
in photoelectric effect can be explained with the help of this equation. The
maximum kinetic energy of the photo electrons gets doubled when the
wavelength of light incident on the surface changes 𝜆 1 from to 𝜆 2 . Derive
the expressions for the threshold wavelength 𝜆 0 and work function for the
metal surface.

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26 Obtain the binding energy (in MeV) of a nitrogen nucleus(14 14
7 𝑁) , given 𝑚(7 𝑁) [3]
= 14.00307 u
27 State the basic assumption of the Rutherford model of the atom. Explain in [3]
brief why this model cannot account for the stability of an atom?
28 An a.c. the signal is fed into two circuits X and [3]
Y and the corresponding output in the two
cases have the wave forms shown in the
figure. Name the circuits X and Y. Also draw
their detailed circuit diagrams.

OR
Explain the working of PN junction diode in Forward bias with suitable circuit
diagram.
SECTION-D
29 Read the source given below and answer any [4]
four out of the following questions: In 1942, a
German physicist Kirchhoff extended Ohm’s law to
complicated circuits and gave two laws, which
enable us to determine current in any part of such
a circuit. According to Kirchhoff’s first rule, the
algebraic sum of the currents meeting at a junction
in a closed electric circuit is zero. The current
flowing in a conductor towards the junction is taken as positive and the current
flowing away from the junction is taken as negative. According to Kirchhoff’s
second rule, in a closed loop, the algebraic sum of the emf’s and algebraic
sum of the products of current and resistance in the various arms of the loop
is zero. While traversing loop, if negative pole of the cell is encountered first,
then its emf is negative, otherwise positive.
1. Kirchhoff’s 1st law follows
a. law of conservation of energy
b. law of conservation of charge
c. law of conservation of
momentum
2. The value of current I in the given circuit
Is
a. 4.5 A b. 3.7 A c. 2.0 Ad. 2.5 A

3. Kirchhoff’s II𝑛𝑑 law is based on.

a. law of conservation of momentum of electron
b. law of conservation of charge and energy
c. law of conservation of energy
d. none of these.

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 4. Point out the right statements about the validity of Kirchhoff’s Junction
rule.
a. The current flowing towards the junction are taken as positive.
b. The currents flowing away from the junction are taken as
negative.
c. bending or reorienting the wire does not change the validity of
Kirchhoff’s Junction rule.
d. All of these
5. Potential difference between A and
B in the circuit shown here is
a. 4V b. 5.6V c. 2.8V
d. 6V

30 Read the source given below and answer the following questions: A
compound microscope is an optical instrument used for observing highly
magnified images of tiny objects. Magnifying power of a compound
microscope is defined as the ratio of the angle subtended at the eye by the
final image to the angle subtended at the eye by the object, when both the
final image and the object are situated at the least distance of distinct vision
from the eye. It can be given that : m = m 𝑒 × m 𝑜 , where m 𝑒 is magnification
produced by eye lens and m 𝑜 is magnification produced by objective lens.
Consider a compound microscope that consists of an objective lens of focal
length 2.0 cm and an eyepiece of focal length 6.25 cm separated by a distance
of 15 cm.
1. The object distance for eye - piece, so that final image is formed at the
least distance of distinct vision, will be
1
a. 3.45 cm b. 5 cm c. 1.29 cm d. 2.59 cm
2. How far from the objective should an object be placed in order to obtain
the condition described in part (i)? 1
a. 4.5 cm b. 2.5 cm c. 1.5 cm d. 3.0 cm
3. What is the nature intermediate image formed by the objective of a
compound microscope?
OR
How you can increase the magnifying power of a compound
microscope increase?
2
SECTION-E
31 Two squares ABCD and BEFC have the side BC in common. The sides are [5]
of conducting wires with resistances as follows: AB, BE, FC and CD each 2𝛺
; AD, BC, EF each 1 𝛺 . A cell of emf 2 V and internal resistance 2 𝛺 is joined
across AD. Find the currents in various branches of the circuit.
OR

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 (I) On the basis of electron drift, derive an expression for resistivity of a
conductor in terms of 3
number density of free electrons and relaxation time. On what factors does
resistivity of a conductor depend? 2
(II) Why alloys like constantan and manganin are used for making standard
resistors?
32 1. Draw a labelled diagram of an ac generator and state its working [5]
principle.
2. How is magnetic flux linked with the armature coil changed in a
generator?
3. Derive the expression for a maximum value of the induced emf and
state the rule that gives the direction of the induced emf.
4. Show the variation of the emf generated versus time as the armature
is rotated with respect to the direction of the magnetic field.
OR
i) Draw a schematic arrangement for winding of primary and secondary coils
in a transformer when the two coils are wound on top of each other.
(ii) State the underlying principle of a transformer and obtain the expression
for the ratio of secondary to primary voltage in terms of the
• number of secondary and primary windings and
• primary and secondary currents.
(iii) Write the main assumption involved in deriving the above relations.
(iv) Write any two reasons due to which energy losses may occur in actual
transformers.
33 1. Draw a labelled ray diagram to obtain the real image formed by an [5]
astronomical telescope in normal adjustment position. Define its
magnifying power.
2. You are given three lenses of power 0.5 D, 4D and 10 D to design a
telescope.
a. Which lenses should be used as objective and eyepiece? Justify
your answer.
b. Why is the aperture of the objective preferred to be large?
OR
A convex lens made up of glass of refractive index 1.5 is dipped, in turn, in
(i) a medium of refractive index 1.65,
(ii) a medium of refractive index 1.33.
(a) Will it behave as a converging or a diverging lens in the two cases?
(b) How will its focal length change in the two media?
************

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 SAMPLE PAPER-2 (UNSOLVED)
PHYSICS

Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 70

**General Instructions:**
1. There are 36 questions in all.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. The question paper has five sections: A, B, C, D, and E.
4. Section A contains eighteen questions of 1 mark each, Section B contains seven
questions of 2 marks each, Section C contains five questions of 3 marks each, Section D
contains three questions of 5 marks each, and Section E contains two case study-based
questions of 4 marks each.
5. There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice is provided in one question of
2 marks, one question of 3 marks, and all three questions of 5 marks. You have to attempt
only one of the choices in such questions.
6. Use of calculators is not permitted.

Section A: (1 mark each)

1. Which of the following has the smallest wavelength?
a) Gamma rays b) X-rays c) Ultraviolet rays d) Infrared rays

2. A transformer works on the principle of:

a) Coulomb's law b) Ampere's law
c) Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction d) Ohm's law

3. A concave mirror of focal length 15 cm forms an image of an object placed at 10 cm

from the mirror. The image formed is:
a) Real and inverted b) Virtual and erect c) Real and erect d) Virtual and inverted

4. The dimensional formula of Planck's constant is:

a) [ML2T-1] b) [ML2T-2] c) [MLT-1 d) [ML2]

5. The speed of light in a medium is 2x 108 m/s. The refractive index of the medium is:
a) 1.5 b) 1.33 c) 2.0 d) 1.0

6. The S.I. unit of electric flux is:

a) Volt b) Coulomb c) Weber d) Volt-meter

7. The number of electrons in one coulomb of charge is approximately:

a) 1.6 x 1019 b) 6.25 x 1018 c) 3.2 x 1019 d) 1.6 x 1018

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8. A charged particle moves in a magnetic field in a circular path. The time period of
revolution is:
a) Directly proportional to the charge
b) Inversely proportional to the charge
c) Directly proportional to the velocity
d) Independent of the velocity

9. A diode is used as?

a) Rectifier b) Amplifier c) Inverter d) As an AND Gate

10. The SI unit of magnetic susceptibility is:

a) m3 b) Unitless c) Am2 d) T-1

11. In a pn junction diode, in forward bias:

a) Junction resistance decreases
b) Width of depletion layer decreases
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above

12. The energy of a photon is directly proportional to its:

a) Amplitude b) Frequency c) Speed d) Wavelength

13. The work function of a metal is:

a) The minimum energy required to remove an electron from the metal surface
b) The maximum energy required to remove an electron from the metal surface
c) The average energy required to remove an electron from the metal surface
d) None of the above

14. A capacitor of capacitance C is connected to a battery of voltage V. The energy stored

in the capacitor is:

15. Assertion (A): The magnetic moment of a current-carrying loop is proportional to the
current and the area of the loop.
Reason (R): The magnetic moment of a current-carrying loop is given by the product of
the current and the perimeter of the loop.

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16. Assertion (A): In a series LCR circuit, the impedance is minimum at the resonant
frequency.
Reason (R): At the resonant frequency, the inductive reactance equals the capacitive
reactance, and the circuit behaves like a pure resistor.
17. Assertion (A): The inductance of a solenoid depends on the number of turns and the
length of the solenoid.
Reason (R): Increasing the number of turns or decreasing the length of the solenoid
increases the magnetic flux linkage per unit current.
18. Assertion (A): In an intrinsic semiconductor, the number of electrons in the
conduction band is equal to the number of holes in the valence band.
Reason (R): Intrinsic semiconductors are doped with impurity atoms to increase their
conductivity.
Section B: (2 marks each)
19. Define electric dipole moment. Give its S.I. unit.
20. State Gauss's law. How is it useful in calculating the electric field due to a uniformly
charged spherical shell?
21. Derive the relation between current and drift velocity.
22. Explain the working of a photodiode.
23. Derive the expression for the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor.
24. Write any two properties of electromagnetic waves.
25. Differentiate between polar and non-polar molecules.
26. Explain the term 'mutual inductance' and write its unit.
OR
Explain fission in brief

Section C: (3 marks each)

27. Describe the principle, construction, and working of a moving coil galvanometer.
28. Using Kirchhoff's rules, calculate the current in a circuit having three resistors R 1, R2
and R3 in series with a battery of emf E.
29. Explain how interference pattern is obtained in Young's double-slit experiment.
30. What are the different types of polarization of light? Explain any one type in detail.
31. Explain the phenomenon of total internal reflection and write its two applications.OR

(a) Calculate the radius of a nucleus with a mass number of 64.

(b) Determine the ratio of the radii of nuclei with mass numbers 27 and 125.

Section D: (5 marks each)

32. (a) Derive an expression for the force between two long parallel current-carrying
conductors. (3 marks)
(b) Two long parallel wires carry currents of 5 A and 10 A in opposite directions.
Calculate the force per unit length between them if they are separated by a distance of 2
cm. (2 marks)

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33. (a) Explain the formation of a PN junction diode and discuss its working principle. (3
marks)
(b) Draw and describe the V-I characteristics of a PN junction diode in forward bias and
reverse bias conditions. (2 marks)
Or
a) Explain the working of a PN junction diode as a half-wave rectifier with the help of a
circuit diagram and waveforms. (3 marks)
(b) Describe the working of a PN junction diode as a full-wave rectifier with the help of a
circuit diagram and waveforms. (2 marks)
34. (a) Derive the lens maker's formula for a convex lens. (3 marks)
(b) A convex lens has a focal length of 20 cm. Where should an object be placed so
that its image is formed 40 cm from the lens? (2 marks)

OR
(a) Explain the principle of interference of light and derive the expression for the
resultant intensity when two coherent light waves interfere. (3 marks)
(b) Two coherent sources of light produce waves with intensities I1=4 units and I2=9 units.
Calculate the maximum and minimum intensities observed on the screen. (2 marks)

Section E: (4 marks each)

35. Case Study 1:
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
The hydrogen spectrum consists of several series of lines in different regions of the
electromagnetic spectrum. These series are named after their discoverers: Lyman,
Balmer, Paschen, Brackett, and Pfund. Each series corresponds to electron transitions
between different energy levels in the hydrogen atom.
Questions:
a) Which series of hydrogen spectral lines lies in the visible region? (1 mark)
b) Calculate the wavelength of the first line of the Lyman series. (Given: Rydberg
constant (R = 1.097 x 107 m-1 (2 marks)
c) Why are the spectral lines of hydrogen important in astronomy? (1 mark)

36. Case Study 2:

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
A coil of wire is connected to a galvanometer. When a bar magnet is moved towards the
coil, the galvanometer shows a deflection. When the bar magnet is moved away from the
coil, the galvanometer shows a deflection in the opposite direction. The faster the magnet
is moved, the greater the deflection.
a) Name the phenomenon demonstrated in the above experiment. (1 mark)
b) State Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction. (2 marks)
c) What will happen if the number of turns in the coil is increased? (1 mark)

********

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 SAMPLE PAPER-3(UNSOLVED)
PHYSICS
Class: XII Subject Code: 042
Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 70
General Instructions:
Read the following instructions carefully and follow them:
(1) This question paper contains 33 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(2) This question paper i s d i v i d e d i n t o five sections - Sections A, B, C, D
and E.
(3) In Section A - Questions no. 1 to 16 are Multiple Choice type
questions. Each question carries 1 mark.
(4) In Section B - Questions no. 17 to 21 are Very Short Answer type
questions. Each question carries 2 marks.
(5) In Section C - Questions no. 22 to 28 are Short Answer type
questions. Each question carries 3 marks.
(6) In Section D - Questions no. 29 and 30 are case study-based
questions. Each question carries 4 marks.
(7) In Section E - Questions no. 31 to 33 are Long Answer type
questions. Each question carries 5 marks.
(8) There is no overall choice given in the question paper. However, an internal
choice has been provided in few questions in all the Sections except Section A.
(9) Use of calculators is not allowed.
You may use the following values of physical constants wherever necessary;
c = 3 X 108 m/s
h = 6.63 X 10-34 Js
e = 1.6 X 10-19 C
μ0 = 4п X 10-7 T m A-1
𝜖0 = 8.854 X 10-12 C2N-1m-2
1
= 9 X 109 Nm2C-2
4𝜋𝜖
0
Mass of electron (me) = 9.1 x 10-31 kg
Mass of neutron = 1.675 X 10-27 kg
Mass of proton = 1.673X 10-27 kg
Avogadro’s number = 6.023 X 1023 per gram mole
Boltzmann constant = 1.38 X 10-23 JK-1

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 SECTION A
Q.No. Question
1 Some charge is being given to a conductor. Then, it’s potential
(a) is maximum at the surface.
(b) is maximum at the centre.
(c) remains the same throughout the conductor.
(d) is maximum somewhere between the surface the and centre.
2 What is the effective capacitance between X and Y?
(a) 24 µC
(b) 18 µC
(c) 12 µC
(d) 6 µC
3 As the intensity of incident light increases:
(a) photoelectric current increases.
(b) photoelectric current decreases.
(c) the kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons increases.
(d) the kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons decreases.
4 The Bohr model of atoms
(a) assumes that the angular momentum of electrons is quantized.
(b) predicts continuous emission spectra for atoms.
(c) predicts the same emission spectra for all types of atoms.
(d) uses Einstein’s photoelectric equation.
5 An electron moves along the line AB, which lies
in the same plane as a circular loop of
conducting wires as shown in diagram. What
will be the direction of current induced if any, in
the loop:
(a) No current will be induced
(b) The current will be clockwise
(c) The current will be anticlockwise
(d) The current will change direction as the electron passes by
6 If number of turns, area and current through a coil are given by n,
A and I respectively, then its magnetic moment is given by
𝑛𝐼
(a) nIA (b) n2IA (c) nIA2 (d)
√𝐴
7 A solenoid of 1.5 m length and 4.0 cm diameter possesses 10 turns/cm. A
current of 5 A is flowing through it. The magnetic induction at axis inside the
solenoid is
(a) 2𝜋 × 10−3 T (b) 2𝜋 × 10−3 G (c) 2𝜋 × 10−5 T (d) 2𝜋 × 10−5 G

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8 The phase difference between the alternating current and e.m.f. is π/2.
Which of the following cannot be the constituent of the circuit?
(a) C alone (b) R alone (c) R, L (d) L, C
9 Whenever a magnet is moved either towards or away from a conducting
coil, an e.m.f. is induced, the magnitude of which is independent of
(a) the strength of the magnetic field.
(b) the speed with which, the magnet is moved.
(c) the number of turns in the coil.
(d) the resistance of the coil.
10 Which of the following is not the property of light?
(a) It requires a material medium for propagation.
(b) It can travel through vacuum.
(c) It involves transportation of energy.
(d) It has finite speed.
11 The magnetic flux linked with a coil (in Wb) is given by the equation:
Φ = 5 t2 +5t+16. The induced e.m.f. in the coil in the fourth second will
be
(a) 10V (b) 108 V (c) 45 V (d) 210V
12 The diagram shows the energy levels for an
electron in a certain atom. Which transition
shown represents the emission of a photon
with the most energy?
(a) III (b) IV (c) I (d) II

Questions number 13 to 16 are Assertion (A) and Reason (R) type questions.
Two statements are given – one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled
Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the codes (A), (B), (C) and (D) as
given below.
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the
correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the
correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is also false.

13 Assertion: The kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted from metal

surface does not depend on the intensity of incident photon.
Reason: The ejection of electrons from metallic surface is not possible
with frequency of incident photons below the threshold frequency.

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14 Assertion: Bohr had to postulate that the electrons in stationary orbits
around the nucleus do not radiate.
Reason: According to classical physics all moving electrons radiate
15 Assertion: A pure semiconductor has negative temperature coefficient
of resistance.
Reason: In a semiconductor on raising the temperature, more charge
carriers are released, conductance increases and resistance decreases.
16 Assertion: A lens, whose radii of curvature are different, is forming
the image of an object placed on its axis. If the lens is reversed,
the position of the image will not change.
1 1 1
Reason: The focal length of a lens is given by 𝑓 = (𝜇 − 1) (𝑅 − 𝑅 ) and
1 2
so focal length in both the cases is same.

SECTION B
17 Draw energy band diagram of n-type and p-type semiconductor at
temperature T>0K. Mark the donor and acceptor energy level with their
energies.
18 A proton and an electron have same kinetic energy. Which one has
greater de-Broglie wavelength and why?
19 Under what conditions does the phenomenon of total internal reflection
take place? Draw a ray diagram showing how a ray of light deviates by
900 after passing through a right angled isosceles prism.
20 When 5 V potential difference is applied across a wire of length 0.1
m, the drift speed of electrons is 2.5 × 10–4 m/s. If the electron density
in the wire is 8 × 1028 m–3, calculate the resistivity of the material of
wire.
21 Why is that sun-glasses (goggles), which have curved surfaces, do not
have any power?
OR
Can a convergent lens in one medium behave as a divergent lens in
some other medium?
SECTION C
22 (i) The radius of the innermost electron orbit of a hydrogen atom is 5.3
X 10-11 m. Calculate its radius in n=3 orbit.
(ii) The total energy of an electron in the first excited state of the
hydrogen atom is -3.4 eV. Find out its (a) kinetic energy and (b)
potential energy in this state.
23 Two point charges +q and -2q are placed at the vertices B and C of an
equilateral ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 of side a. Obtain the expression for

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 (i) the magnitude and
(ii) the direction of the resultant electric field at the vertex A due to these
two charges.
24 (a) Draw a plot showing the variation of potential energy of a pair of
nucleons as a function of their separation. Mark the region, where
the nuclear force is (i) attractive and (ii) repulsive.
94
(b) In the nuclear reaction, 𝑛 + 235 𝑎
92𝑈 → 54𝑋𝑒 + 𝑏𝑆𝑟 + 2𝑛
25 Calculate the steady current through
the 2 Ω resistor in the circuit shown
below.

26 Write any two important points of similarities and differences each between
Coulomb’s law for the electrostatic field and Biot-Savart’s law for the magnetic
field.
27 How are electromagnetic waves produced? What is the source of energy
of these waves? Write mathematical expressions for electric and
magnetic fields of an electromagnetic wave propagating along the z-axis.
Write any two important properties of electromagnetic waves.
28 Show that Lenz’s law is in accordance with the law of conservation of energy.
OR
Define self-inductance of a coil. Show that magnetic energy required to build
1
up the current I in a coil of self-inductance L is given 2 𝐿𝑖 2
SECTION D
Questions number 29 and 30 are case study-based questions. Read
the following paragraph and answer the questions that follow:
29 Consider that the Si or Ge crystal contains N atoms. Electrons of each
atom will have discrete energies in different orbits. The electron energy
will be same if all the atoms are isolated, i.e., separated from each
other by a large distance. However, in a crystal, the atoms are close to
each other (2 Å to 3 Å) and therefore the electrons interact with each
other and also with the neighboring atomic cores. The overlap (or
interaction) will be more felt by the electrons in the outermost orbit while
the inner orbit or core electron energies may remain unaffected.
Therefore, for understanding electron energies in Si or Ge crystal, we
need to consider the changes in the energies of the electrons in the

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 outermost orbit only. For Si, the outermost orbit is the third orbit (n =
3), while for Ge it is the fourth orbit (n = 4). The number of electrons
in the outermost orbit is 4 (2s and 2p electrons). Hence, the total
number of outer electrons in the crystal is 4N. The maximum possible
number of outer electrons in the orbit is 8 (2s + 6p electrons). So, out
of the 4N electrons, 2N electrons are in the 2N s-states (orbital quantum
number l= 0) and 2N electrons are in the available 6N p-states.
Obviously, some p electron states are empty. This is the case of well
separated or isolated atoms.
(i)The energy of electrons of atoms of a substance will be same if:
(a) atoms are isolated. (b) atoms are closely spaced.
(c) atoms are excited. (d) atoms are charged.
(ii) The overlap (or interaction) will be more felt by the electrons when they are:
(a) in the outermost orbit. (b) in the innermost orbit.
(c) free. (d) in any orbit.
(iii) For Silicon and Germanium, the outermost orbits are respectively:
(a) n = 3 and n = 5 (b) n = 4 and n = 3
(c) n = 5 and n = 4 (d) n = 3 and n = 4
(iv) In a crystal, the distance between two atoms is:
(a) 200 Å to 300 Å (b) 2 Å to 3 micron
(c) 2 Å to 3 Å (d) 2 mm to 3 mm
OR
(iv) The maximum possible electrons in an orbit is:
(a) 8 (2s + 6p electrons) (b) 8 (6s + 2p electrons)
(c) 8 (4s + 4p electrons) (d) 8 (1s + 7p electrons)
30 Lens Maker's Formula
The lens maker's formula relates the focal length of a lens to the
refractive index of the lens material and the radii of curvature of its two
surfaces. This formula is called so because it is used by manufacturers
to design lenses of the required focal length from a glass of given
refractive index. If the object is placed at infinity, the image will be
formed at a focus for both double convex lens and double concave
lens.
1 𝜇 1 1
Therefore, Len’s maker’s formula is = (𝜇2 − 1) (𝑅 − 𝑅 )
𝑓 1 1 2
when lens is placed in air 𝜇1 = 1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝜇2 = 𝜇𝑊 The lens maker
1 1 1
formula takes the form, 𝑓 = (𝜇 − 1) (𝑅 − 𝑅 ).
1 2
(i) The radius of curvature of each face of biconcave lens with refractive index
1.5 is 30 cm. The focal length of the lens in air is

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 (a) 12cm (b) 10cm (c) 20cm (d) 30cm
(ii) The radii of curvature of the faces of a double convex lens are 10 cm and
15 cm. If focal length is 12 cm, then refractive index of glass is
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.78 (c) 2.0 (d) 2.52
(iii) An under-water swimmer cannot see very clearly even in absolutely clear
water because of
(a) absorption of light in water
(b) scattering of light in water
(c) reduction of speed of light in water
(d) change in the focal length of eye-lens
(iv) A thin lens of glass (𝜇 = 1.5) of focal length 10 cm is immersed in water (𝜇
= 1.33). The new focal length is
(a) 20cm b) 40cm (c) 48cm (d) 12cm
OR
(iv) An object is immersed in a fluid. In order that the object becomes invisible,
it should
(a) behave as a perfect reflector
(b) absorb all light falling on it
(c) have refractive index one
(d) have refractive index exactly matching with that of the surrounding
fluid.

SECTION E
31 (a) Two thin lenses are placed coaxially in contact. Obtain the expression for
the focal length of this combination in terms of the focal lengths of the two
lenses.
(b) A converging lens of refractive index 1.5 has a power of 10 D. When it is
completely immersed in a liquid, it behaves as a diverging lens of focal
length 50 cm. Find the refractive index of the liquid.
OR
(a) Draw the ray diagram showing refraction of light through a glass prism and
hence obtain the relation between the refractive index m of the prism, angle
of prism and angle of minimum deviation.
(b) Determine the value of the angle of incidence for a ray of light travelling
from a medium of refractive index μ1 = √2 into the medium of refractive
index μ2 = 1, so that it just grazes along the surface of separation.
32 (i) Define torque acting on a dipole of dipole moment p placed in a uniform
electric field E. Express it in the vector form and point out the direction along
which it acts.

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 (ii) What happens if the field is non-uniform?
(iii) What would happen if the external field E is increasing
(a) parallel to 𝑝 and
(b) antiparallel to 𝑝 ?
OR
(i) A thin conducting spherical shell of radius R has charge Q spread uniformly
over its surface. Using Gauss’s theorem, derive an expression for the
electric field at a point outside the shell.
(ii) Draw a graph of electric field E(r) with distance r from the center of the shell
for 0 ≤ r ≤∞.
33 (a) What is impedance?
(b) A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac source having voltage V = V m
sin ωt. Derive expression for the impedance, instantaneous current and its
phase relationship to the applied voltage.
(c)Find the expression for resonant frequency.
OR
(a) An ac source of voltage V = Vm sin ωt is connected to a series combination
of L, C and R. Use the phasor diagram to obtain expressions for impedance
of the circuit and phase angle between voltage and current. Find the
condition when current will be in phase with the voltage. What is the circuit
in this condition called?
(b) In a series LR circuit XL = R and power factor of the circuit is P1. When
capacitor with capacitance C such that XL = XC is put in series, the
𝑃
power factor becomes P2. Calculate 𝑃1
2
**********

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 SAMPLE PAPER-4
CLASS: 12 MARKS: 70
SUBJECT: PHYSICS TIME: 3HRS

1.The north pole of a magnet is brought near a stationary negatively charged

conductor. What is the force experienced by it at the poles?
a) Maximum b) Minimum
c) Zero d) Depend on the nature of the conductor
2,Identify the type of conductors whose V-I relationship is linear.
a) Thyristor b) Non-ohmic conductors c) Ohmic conductors
d) Superconductors
3.What will be the effect on the fringes formed in Young’s double-slit experiment if the
apparatus is immersed in water?
a) Increases b) Decreases c) Remains the same d) Independent
4.Identify the principle behind the sparkling of diamonds.
a) Total internal reflection b) Refraction c) Reflection d) Optical activity
5.Identify the principle behind the working of an a.c. generator.
a) Eddy currents b) Faraday’s law c) Lenz’s law d) Electromagnetic
induction
6.How is a galvanometer converted into an ammeter?
a) By connecting a high resistance shunt in parallel to the galvanometer
b) By connecting a low resistance shunt in parallel to the galvanometer
c) By connecting a high resistance shunt in series with the galvanometer
d) By connecting a low resistance shunt in series with the galvanometer
7.Which of the following statements is correct?
a) An electric field is a scalar quantity
b) Electric field lines are at 45 degrees to the equipotential surfaces
c) The surface of a charged conductor is equipotential
d) Field lines due to a point charge are circular
8.Pick out the electromagnetic wave which is highly harmful to humans.
a) Radio waves b) Ultraviolet Rays c) Microwaves d) Infrared Waves
9. In Young’s double-slit experiment, lights of green, yellow, and orange colors are
successively used. Write the fringe widths for the three colors in increasing order.
a) βG < βY < βO b) βO < βY < βG c) βO < βG < βY d) βY < βG < βO
10. What will be the longest wavelength in the Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum?
a) 6557 × 10-10 m b) 5557 × 10-10 m c) 9557 × 10-10 m d) 1557 × 10-10 m
11. Let B be the midpoint of AC. Two-point charges Q are placed at A and C. What
should be the value of charge placed at B so that the system remains at
equilibrium?

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 a) –Q/2 b) –Q/4 c) +Q/2 d) +Q/4
12. Calculate the mutual inductance between two coils if a current 10 A in the primary
coil changes the flux by 500 Wb per turn in the secondary coil of 200 turns.
a) 10 H b) 104 H c) 1000 H d) 100 H
Directions: In each of the following questions No. 13 to 16, a statement of Assertion is
given followed by a corresponding statement of Reason just below it. Of the
statements, mark the correct answer as:
(A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion
(C) If assertion is true and reason is false
(D) If both assertion and reason are false.

13.Assertion: The tyres of aircraft are slightly conducting.

Reason: If a conductor is connected to ground, the extra charge induced on
conductor will flow to ground.
14. Assertion: A laminated core is used in transformers to increase eddy currents.
Reason: The efficiency of a transformer increases with increase in eddy currents.
15.Assertion: An electric bulb becomes dim, when the electric heater in parallel circuit
is switched on.
Reason: Dimness decreases after sometime.
16.Assertion: No interference pattern is detected when two coherent sources are
infinitely close to each other.
Reason: The fringe width is inversely proportional to the distance between the two
sources.
17.Prove Bohr’s second postulates on the basis of De-Broglie hypothesis.
18. State distinguishing behavior of paramagnetic and diamagnetic materials.
19.With the help of Kirchhoff’s laws, obtain the condition of Wheatstone bridge.
20. Name the parts of the electromagnetic spectrum which is
21. Suitable for radar systems used in aircraft navigation.In the detection of explosives.
22. An electric dipole of length 2 cm, when placed with its axis making an angle of 60°
with a uniform electric field, experiences a torque of 8√3 Nm. Calculate the potential
energy of the dipole, if it has a charge of ± 4 nC.
23. A heating element using nichrome connected to a 230 V supply draws an initial
current of 3.2 A which settles after a few seconds to a steady value of 2.8 A. What is
the steady temperature of the heating element if the room temperature is 27.0 °C?
Temperature coefficient of resistance of nichrome averaged over the temperature
range involved is 1.70 × 10–4 °C–1.

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24. State Gauss theorem. Using this theorem find the electric field intensity due to a
charged spherical shell.
25. State Huygens’s wave theory of light. Using this theory, prove the laws of refraction.
26. Derive an expression for capacitance of parallel plate capacitor filled with dielectric
slab of dielectric constant K.
27. Two coils have a mutual inductance 0.005 H. The current changes in the first coil
according to equation I = I0 Sin ωt, where I0 = 10 A and ω = 100 π rad-1. Then what
is the maximum value of e. m. f. in the second coil?
28. Explain binding energy per nucleon and its variation with mass number.
Derive an expression for magnetic field at a point along the axis of current
carrying circular coil.

29.Case Base Study Question:

According to de-Broglie a moving material particle sometimes acts as a wave and

sometimes as a particle or a wave is associated with moving material particle which
controls the particle in every respect. The wave associated with moving material
particle is called matter wave or de-Broglie wave whose wavelength called de-Broglie
wavelength, is given by λ = h/mv

i) The dual nature of light is exhibited by

a. diffraction and photo electric effect b. photoelectric effect
c. refraction and interference d. diffraction and reflection
ii) If the momentum of a particle is doubled, then its de-Broglie wavelength will
a. remains unchanged b. become four times c. become two times d. become half
iii) If an electron and proton are propagating in the form of waves having the same λ , it
implies that they have the same
a. Energy b. Momentum c. Velocity d. angular momentum
iv) Velocity of a body of mass m, having de-Broglie wavelength λ , is given by relation
a. v = λ h/m b. v = λm/h c. v = λ/hm d. v = h/ λm
30.Case Base Study Question:
Read the following paragraph and answer the questions.

The p-n junction is a semiconductor diode. It is obtained by bringing p-type

semiconductor in close contact with n- type semiconductor. A thin layer is developed
at the p-n junction which is devoid of any charge carrier but has immobile ions. It is

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 called depletion layer. At the junction a potential barrier appears, which does not
allow the movement of majority charge carriers across the junction in the absence
of any biasing of the junction. The p-n junction offers low resistance when forward
biased and high resistance when reverse biased.
(a) Does current flow when diode is reverse biased?
(b) What is meant by reverse bias?
(c) Can we measure the potential barrier of p-n junction by putting a sensitive
voltmeter across its terminals?
(d) Explain how a potential barrier is developed in a p-n junction diode.
(e) Draw the labelled diagram of step-up transformer. Write its principle & deduce an
expression for its working.
(f) A transformer of efficiency 90 % has turns ratio 1:10 . If the voltage across the primary
is 220 V and current in the primary is 0.5A, then find the current in secondary.
OR
(a) Draw the diagram of an ac generator and explain its principle, construction and
working.
(b) The number of turns in the coil of AC generator is 5000, and the area of the coil
is 0.25 m 2. The coil is rotated at the rate of 100 cycles/sec in a magnetic field of
0.2 Wbm − 2. What is the peak value of emf generated?
31.(a) Explain the magnifying power of compound microscope, when it
produces a final image at (i) Distance of distinct vision and (ii) Infinity.
(b) An object is placed in front of a concave mirror of focal length 20 cm. The image
formed is three times the size of the object. Calculate two possible distances of the
object from the mirror.
OR
(a) Draw ray diagram to show refraction of a ray of monochromatic light passing
through a prism. Deduce the expression for the refractive index of glass in terms
of angle of prism and angle of minimum deviation.
(b) A monochromatic light is incident on an equilateral prism at an angle 30º and
emerges at an angle of 75º. What is the angle of deviation produced by the prism?
32. (a) With the help of neat labeled diagram, explain the diffraction at single slit. Also
show the position of secondary maxima and secondary minima on intensity graph.
(b) Give the difference between interference and diffraction.
OR
What is fringe width? Show that bright fringes and dark fringes are equally spaced in
interference pattern. Give the difference between constructive interference and
destructive interference.

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 SAMPLE PAPER - 5
PHYSICS
Time Allowed: 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 70
General Instructions:
• There are 33 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
• This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C,
Section D and Section E.
• Section A contains sixteen questions, twelve MCQ and four Assertion
Reasoning based of 1 mark each, Section B contains five questions of two
marks each, Section C contains seven questions of three marks each,
Section D contains two case study based questions of four marks each and
Section E contains three long answer questions of five marks each.
• There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided
in one question in Section B, one question in Section C, one question in
each CBQ in Section D and all three questions in Section E. You have to
attempt only one of the choices in such questions
• Use of calculators is not allowed.
• You may use the following values of physical constants where ever
necessarily.
8
i. c = 3 x 10 m/s
ii. me = 9.1 x10 - 31 kg
iii. e = 1.6 x 10 - 19 C
iv. μ0 = 4π x 10 - 7 Tm𝐴- 1
v. h = 6.63 x10 - 34Js
vi. ε0 = 8.854 x10 - 12𝐶2𝑁- 1𝑚- 2
vii. Avogadro’s number = 6.023 X 1023 per gram mole

Section A
Q.1 In Huygens’s wave theory, the locus of all points oscillating in the 1
same phase is called a 1
(a) ray (b) vibrator
(c) wavefront (d) half period zone
Q. 2 If a glass rod is immersed in a liquid of the same refractive index, then it 1
will 1
(a) disappear (b) look bent (c) look longer (d) look
shorter
Q.3 Most of the substance shows which of the following magnetic property? 1
(a) diamagnetism (b) paramagnetism 1

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 (c) ferromagnetism (d) both b and c
Q..4 When two charged capacitors having capacitance and potential C1, V1 and 1
C2, V2 respectively, are joined with the help of a wire, the common potential 1
will be

Q.5 In photoelectric effect the maximum kinetic energy of emitted electron 1

depends on 1
(a) wavelength (b) frequency (c) intensity (d) work function
Q.6 The number of Photons of frequency 1014 Hz in radiation of 6.62 J will be 1
1

Q.7 What is the resistance of a 40 W lamp which is lighted as full brilliance by 1

a current of1/3 A? 1

Q.8 Which of the following does not obey the phenomenon of mutual 1
induction? 1
(a)dynamo (b) transformer (c) induction coil (d) electric heater
Q.9 In a series combination, R = 300 Ω, L = 0 9. H, C = 2 µF, ω = 1000 rad s -1 1
. The impedance of the LCR-circuit is 1
(a) 400 Ω (b) 500 Ω (c) 900 Ω (d) 1300 Ω
Q.1 An electric dipole consists of a positive and negative charge of 4 µ C each 1
0 placed at a distance of 5 mm. The dipole moment is 1
(a) 2 x 10-8 C-m (b) 4 x 10-8 C-m (c) 6 x 10-8 C-m
(d) 8 x 10-8 C-m
Q.1 Two solenoids of the same length having number of turns in the ratio of 2 1
1 3: are connected in series. The ratio of magnetic fields at their centres 1
is
(a) 2:1 (b) 3:1 (c) 2:3 (d)3:2
Q.1 The core of a transformer is laminated, so as to 1
2 (a) make it light weight (b) make it robust and strong 1
(c) increase the secondary voltage (d) reduce energy loss due to
eddy current
Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a
statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as.
A: If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.

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B: If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
C:If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
D: If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect
Q. 13 Assertion: In Young’s experiment, the fringe width for dark fringes is 1
different from that for white fringes.
Reason: In Young’s double slit experiment the fringes are performed
with a source of white light, then only black and bright fringes are
observed.
Q.14 Assertion: We cannot think of a magnetic field configuration with 1
three poles. 1
Reason : A bar magnet does exert a torque on itself due to its own
field
Q.15 Assertion: Diamond behaves like an insulator. 1
Reason: There is a large energy gap between valence band and 1
conduction band of diamond.
Q.16 Assertion: In series LCR circuit resonance can take place. 1
Reason: Resonance takes place if inductance and capacitive 1
resistances are equal and opposite.

SECTION-B

Q.17 Is the steady electric current the only source of magnetic field? Justify 02
your answer.
Q.18 Magnetic field lines can be entirely confined with the core of toroid, but not 02
within a straight solenoid, why?
Q.19 How are infrared waves produced? Why are these referred to as heat 02
waves? Write their one important use.
Q.20 A concave lens of refractive index 1.5 is immersed in a medium of 02
refractive index 1.65 what is the nature of the lens?
Q.21 Why are two bulbs lighting the same walls considered as incoherent 02
sources? How do their intensities add up?
OR
When a tiny circular obstacle is placed in the path of light from a distant
source, a bright spot is seen at the centre of shadow of the obstacle.
Explain

SECTION-C
Q.22 Determine the distance of closest approach when an alpha particle of 03
kinetic energy 4.5 MeV strikes a nucleus of Z = 80, stops and reverse
its direction.
Q.23 Distinguish between ‘Intrinsic’ and ‘extrinsic’ semiconductors? 03
Q.24 A charge Q is given to three capacitors C1, C2 and C3 connected in 03
parallel. Determine the charge on each.

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 Q.25 How are electromagnetic waves produced? What is the source of energy 03
of these waves? Write mathematical expressions for electric and
magnetic fields of an electromagnetic wave propagating along the z-
axis. Write any two important properties of electromagnetic waves.
Q.26 How will you explain twinkling of stars? 03
Q.27 Describe briefly, with the help of a diagram, the role of the two important 03
process involved in the formation of a p n - junction.
Q.28 Briefly describe proton-neutron hypothesis of nuclear composition. 03
OR
What are uncontrolled and controlled chain reactions?

SECTION-D
Q.29
When light from a monochromatic source is incident on a single narrow slit, it
gets diffracted and a pattern of alternate bright and dark fringes is obtained on
screen, called “Diffraction Pattern” of single slit. In diffraction pattern of single
slit, it is found that
Central bright fringe is of maximum intensity and the intensity of any secondary bright
fringe decreases with increase in its order.
Central bright fringe is twice as wide as any other secondary bright or dark fringe.

i) A single slit of width 0.1 mm is illuminated by a parallel beam of light of 01

wavelength 6000 A.U. and diffraction bands are observed on a screen
0.5 m from the slit. The distance of the third dark band from the central
bright band is
(a) 3 mm (b) 1.5 mm (c) 9 mm (d) 4.5 mm
Ii) In Fraunhofer diffraction pattern, slit width is 0.2 mm and screen is at 2 m 01
away from the lens. If wavelength of light used is 5000 A.U. then the
distance between the first minimum on either side the central
maximum is (a) 10-1 m (b) 10-2 m (c) 2 x10-2 m (d) 2 x10-1 m
III) Light of wavelength 600 nm is incident normally on a slit of width 0.2 mm. 01
The angular width of central maxima in the diffraction pattern is
(measured from minimum to minimum)
(a)6 x10-3 rad (b) 4 x 10-3 rad (c)2.4 x 10-3 rad (d)
-3
4.5 x 10 rad

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IV) A diffraction pattern is obtained by using a beam of red light. What 01
will happen, if the red light is replaced by the blue light?
(a) bands disappear
(b) bands become broader and farther apart
(c) no change will take place
(d)diffraction bands become narrower and crowded together.

Q.30
On the basis of energy bands materials are also defined as metals, semiconductors and
insulators. These semiconductors are classified as intrinsic semiconductors and
extrinsic semiconductors also. Intrinsic semiconductors are those semiconductors
which exist in pure form. And intrinsic semiconductors have number of free electrons
is equal to number of holes. The semiconductors doped with some impurity in order
to increase its conductivity are called as extrinsic semiconductors. Two types of
dopants are used they are trivalent impurity and pentavalent impurity also. The
extrinsic semiconductors doped with pentavalent impurity like Arsenic, Antimony,
Phosphorus etc are called as n – type semiconductors. In n type semiconductors
electrons are the majority charge carriers and holes are the minority charge carriers.
When trivalent impurity is like Indium, Boron, Aluminium etc are added to extrinsic
semiconductors then p type semiconductors will be formed. In p type semiconductors
holes are majority charge carriers and electrons are the minority charge carriers.
i) What is extrinsic semiconductor? 01
Ii) What is ratio of number of holes and number of electrons in an intrinsic 01
semiconductor?
III) Why doping is necessary? 01
IV) Majority charge carriers in p-type semiconductor are 01

SECTION-E
Q.31 1. Define electric intensity. 05
2. Derive an expression for electric intensity at a point situated on the
axis of electric dipole.
OR
A regular hexagon of side 10 cm has charge 5 µC at each of its
vertices. What is the resultant potential at the centre of the
hexagon?
Q.32 Discuss the motion of a charged particle in a uniform magnetic field 05
with initial velocity (1) parallel to the field, (2) perpendicular to the
magnetic field and (3) at an arbitrary angle with the field direction.
OR
(i) State Ampere’s circuital law. Use this law to obtain the expression
for the magnetic field inside an air cored toroid of average radius r

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 , having n turns per unit length and carrying a steady current I .
(ii) An observer to the left of a solenoid of N turns each of cross-
section area A observes that a steady current I in it flows in the
clockwise direction. Depict the magnetic field lines due to the
solenoid specifying its polarity and show that it acts as a bar
magnet of magnetic moment m = NIA.

Q.33 Give postulates of Bohr’s theory. Explain hydrogen spectrum on the basis 05
of Bohr’s theory.
OR
What is Hα line in the emission spectrum of hydrogen atom obtained?
Calculate the frequency of the photon emitted during this transition.

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